shukoor65/lab-rag-model huggingface dataset:
Psychological aspects of orthognathic surgery: how people respond to facial change. This study was undertaken to explore the motivations and problems shared by adult orthognathic surgical patients over the age of 25. Objective findings included demographic information and reasons for seeking surgery. The majority of 65 respondents cited functional problems as their primary reason for seeking treatment. Eighty-nine percent were pleased with esthetic changes, and 83% responded that the functional problem had been corrected. For most, the greatest discomfort related to the surgery was the postoperative intensive care unit. Two of the most common side effects of the surgery were the loss of sensation in the lips and chin area and a short period of depression. Women had depression more often than men but were more enthusiastic about the final results of the procedure. Two major areas of interest to surgeons emerged from the research. First, although women have functional problems, the majority seem to have a desire for cosmetic improvement. Having a functional problem seemed to provide the psychological permission necessary to spend the time and money for a cosmetic change. The second point focused on the need for good communication between surgeon and patient. The patients who were more positive toward the procedure and more satisfied with the results were those who were better informed and who thought they had a good system of communication with the orthodontist, surgeon, and their respective staffs.
Secondary ischaemia in rabbit skin flaps: the roles played by thromboxane and free radicals. 1. Biochemical mechanisms of ischaemia were investigated in rabbit skin flaps subjected to 2 h of primary ischaemia then, 24 h later, to 4 h of secondary ischaemia. During secondary ischaemia, flaps underwent either total ischaemia (arterial and venous blood supply occluded) or partial ischaemia (vein only occluded). Some of these flaps were treated at the time of reperfusion with the free-radical scavenger superoxide dismutase (EC 1.15.1.1) and/or the thromboxane synthetase inhibitor UK-38,485. 2. After 30 min of reperfusion, superoxide dismutase treatment significantly reduced blood thromboxane levels, elevated during ischaemia. Superoxide dismutase also reduced tissue levels of malonyldialdehyde and xanthine oxidase, indicators of free-radical damage, and restored the depleted tissue levels of superoxide dismutase. 3. UK-38,485 treatment failed to significantly alter any of these tissue free-radical parameters, although this agent significantly reduced blood thromboxane levels. 4. Combined superoxide dismutase plus UK-38,485 treatment was not significantly better than either treatment alone with respect to any parameter. 5. Partial ischaemia led to consistently higher levels of tissue free radicals and blood thromboxane than did total ischaemia. Thus partial ischaemia appears to result in greater free-radical damage than total ischaemia. 6. These results are consistent with the hypothesis that thromboxane acts as a mediator for free-radical damage in the ischaemic changes within the flap.
Low-grade, latent prostate cancer volume: predictor of clinical cancer incidence? We hypothesize that each cell in low-grade (Gleason grade 1-3) prostate cancer tissue is at risk of transformation into a cell which produces a high-grade (Gleason grade 4-5) clinical cancer after a short period of growth. As a consequence, the volume of low-grade, latent cancer tissue in the prostate glands of men at any age determines their incidence rate for high-grade, clinical cancer a few years later. Autopsy and incidence data for both white men and black men support this conclusion, with a tumor growth period of about 7 years. The transformation rate is similar for black men and for white men, about 0.024 high-grade cancers per year per cm3 of low-grade, latent cancer volume. Our hypothesis explains the infrequent occurrence of clinical cancer despite the high prevalence of latent cancer, the steep rise of clinical cancer incidence with age despite the slow rise of latent cancer prevalence with age, and the disparities in clinical cancer incidence among some populations despite their similar latent cancer prevalence. This hypothesis suggests that low-grade cancer volume is a critical determinant of clinical cancer risk.
The antifibrillatory actions of UK-68,798, a class III antiarrhythmic agent. The electrophysiologic and antifibrillatory properties of UK-68,798 were studied in vivo in a conscious canine model of sudden coronary death. Electrophysiologic testing was performed on conscious male mongrel dogs (14.5-21.5 kg) 3 to 5 days after surgical induction of an anterior myocardial infarction by occlusion (2 h)-reperfusion of the left anterior descending coronary artery. Compared to saline-treated control animals, UK-68,798 at a dose of 0.9 mg/kg i.v. did not (P = .083) suppress the induction of ventricular tachycardia by programmed electrical stimulation. Six of 12 UK-68,798-treated dogs remained inducible, whereas 10 of 12 vehicle-treated dogs responded to electrical induction of arrhythmia. When compared to predrug inducibility, UK-68,798 significantly (P = .007) reduced the incidence of programmed electrical stimulation-induced ventricular tachycardia. In five of the six dogs inducible after UK-68,798 administration, the cycle length of the induced ventricular tachycardia was prolonged (P = .007) compared to the predrug cycle length. Heart rate, PR interval and QRS duration were not affected by UK-68,798 administration. The rate-corrected QT interval was prolonged (P less than .05) by UK-68,798. The ventricular effective refractory period was increased by UK-68,798 (158 +/- 7 msec, predrug vs. 185 +/- 7 msec, postdrug). Subsequent to programmed electrical stimulation, a 150 microA anodal current was applied to the luminal surface of the left circumflex coronary artery to induce transient episodes of posterolateral ischemia in response to electrolytic injury of the vessel wall.
Use of leucocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) score in differentiating malignant from benign paraproteinaemias. The leucocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) score of peripheral blood neutrophils was examined in 20 patients with multiple myeloma and compared with the score in 18 patients with monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS). The mean (95% confidence limit) LAP score in those with multiple myeloma was 186 (169-218) compared with 92 (64-120) in the MGUS group. In the multiple myeloma group all but one patient had a high LAP score, irrespective of disease. No cause for raised LAP, such as infection, was present in any of the patients with multiple myeloma. In the MGUS group six patients had a raised LAP score; in two of them another cause for such a rise was present (autoimmune haemolytic anaemia and primary thrombocythaemia). In neither group did the LAP score correlate with duration of the disease, bone marrow plasma cell count, paraprotein concentration, haemoglobin, total white cell or neutrophil count. It is concluded that a normal LAP count in patients with paraproteinaemia suggests a benign condition, but a raised count does not indicate a malignant condition.
ATP-dependent K+ channels modulate vasoconstrictor responses to severe hypoxia in isolated ferret lungs. In normo- and hypoglycemic ferret lungs, the pulmonary vascular response to severe hypoxia (PiO2 less than or equal to 10 mmHg) is characterized by an initial intense vasoconstriction followed by marked vasodilation, whereas in hyperglycemic lungs, vasodilation is minimal, causing vasoconstriction to be sustained. In contrast, the response to moderate hypoxia is characterized by a slowly developing sustained vasoconstriction which is unaffected by glucose concentration. To determine the role of ATP-dependent K+ (KATP) channels in these responses, we examined the effects of cromakalim, which opens KATP channels, and glibenclamide, which closes them. During steady-state vasoconstriction induced in isolated ferret lungs by moderate hypoxia, cromakalim caused dose-dependent vasodilation (EC50 = 7 x 10(-7) M) which was reversed by glibenclamide (IC50 = 8 x 10(-7) M), indicating that KATP channels were present and capable of modulating vascular tone. During severe hypoxia in hypoglycemic lungs [( glucose] less than 1 mM), glibenclamide markedly inhibited the secondary vasodilation. Raising perfusate glucose concentration to 14 +/- 0.4 mM had the same effect. As a result, initial vasoconstrictor responses were well sustained. However, neither glibenclamide nor hyperglycemia affected vasoconstrictor responses to moderate hypoxia or KCl, indicating that effects during severe hypoxia were not due to nonspecific potentiation of vasoconstriction. These findings suggest that in the ferret lung (a) severe hypoxia decreased ATP concentration and thereby opened KATP channels, resulting in increased K+ efflux, hyperpolarization, vasodilation, and reversal of the initial vasoconstrictor response; and (b) hyperglycemia prevented this sequence of events.
Colonoscopic surveillance after polypectomy: considerations of cost effectiveness. OBJECTIVE: To assess the cost effectiveness of the current recommendation that persons who have had an adenomatous colon polyp removed have periodic colonoscopic surveillance at fixed and regular intervals. DESIGN: Cost-effectiveness analysis using data from the medical literature in a simulation model to estimate the costs of and the risk for perforation associated with periodic colonoscopic surveillance for a 50-year-old man followed for 30 years. MAIN RESULTS: A program of colonoscopy every 3 years would incur cumulatively a 1.4% risk for colon perforation, a 0.11% risk for perforation-related death, and direct physician costs of $2071 for colonoscopy (discounted at 5%). If a 50-year-old man's cumulative remaining risk for death from cancer is 2.5% after the removal of a single small adenoma and if effectiveness of colonoscopic surveillance every 3 years is 100%, then one death from cancer could be prevented by doing 283 colonoscopies, incurring 0.6 perforations, 0.04 perforation-related deaths, and direct physician costs of $82,000. If surveillance were 50% effective and the cumulative remaining risk for death from cancer were 1.25%--a plausible scenario--1131 colonoscopies would be required to prevent one death from cancer, incurring 2.3 perforations, 0.17 perforation-related deaths, and physician costs of $331,000. CONCLUSIONS: The cost effectiveness of colonoscopic surveillance is very sensitive to estimates of the cumulative remaining risk for death from cancer after polypectomy as well as to surveillance efficacy. For persons whose remaining risk for death from cancer may be low, such as persons with a single small adenoma, recommendations for colonoscopic surveillance at fixed and regular intervals may be excessively costly.
Screening blood donors for gastrointestinal illness: a strategy to eliminate carriers of Yersinia enterocolitica. Recent reports of fatal transfusion-associated Yersinia enterocolitica sepsis prompted a study of the feasibility of adding a question to the routine donor health history as a method of reducing this risk. In three American Red Cross blood centers, 11,323 donors were asked one of two questions about gastrointestinal symptoms during their health history screenings. Affirmative responses were obtained from 0.6 or 4.0 percent of the donors, depending on how the question was asked. In one center, more than 6 percent of donors gave affirmative answers. The efficacy of asking a relatively simple question about gastrointestinal symptoms as a way of preventing Y. enterocolitica should be evaluated further, because relatively large numbers of donors may respond affirmatively. Other methods of reducing the risk of transfusion-associated Y. enterocolitica infection should be pursued.
Single-center comparison of results of 1000 prenatal diagnoses with chorionic villus sampling and 1000 diagnoses with amniocentesis. Large multicenter studies have confirmed the safety and accuracy of chorionic villus sampling as a prenatal genetic diagnostic procedure, but there have been few single-center evaluations. We report our experience with 1000 consecutive chorionic villus sampling procedures compared with 1000 consecutive amniocentesis procedures during the same period. The procedures were performed by the same genetic counselors, sonographers, obstetricians, and laboratory personnel. Indications for referral, demographic characteristics of patients, numbers of attempts per patient, fetal loss rates, laboratory results, and evaluation of accuracy are included. Analysis of all data suggests that chorionic villus sampling is a safe and accurate alternative to amniocentesis in our community-based teaching hospital.
Immunocytochemical panel for the identification of malignant cells in serous effusions. The cytologic diagnosis of malignancy in serous effusions can be challenging. An immunocytochemical (ICC) panel using commercially available antibodies (to carcinoembryonic antigen [CEA], epithelial membrane antigen [EMA], B72.3, Leu-M1, cytokeratin [CK], leukocyte common antigen [LCA], S-100 protein, and vimentin) was applied to cell blocks fixed in methyl Carnoy's solution that were from 55 consecutive pleural, peritoneal, and pericardial fluid specimens. The results were correlated with data from clinical records and routine cytologic studies. Final cytologic diagnoses included 26 of adenocarcinoma and 1 of mesothelioma. The remaining 28 cases were considered to be benign (reactive) proliferations. EMA, CEA, B72.3, and Leu-M1 were present in 96%, 77%, 58%, and 42% of adenocarcinomas, respectively. These determinants were absent in the mesothelioma and the reactive effusions, although anti-CEA yielded strong background staining of inflammatory cells. The CK markers identified malignant cells in 93% of cases, but consistently stained mesothelial cells as well. Antivimentin strongly labeled mesothelial cells in all cases, with weak to absent staining of malignant cells. In 3 of 26 carcinoma cases (12%), the ICC panel identified malignant cells that were not recognized initially on routine cytologic examination. In 1 of 26 cases (4%), the panel was falsely negative. Use of this approach can improve the diagnostic accuracy of cytologic examination of serous fluids. The ICC panel is especially helpful when atypical mesothelial proliferation is present, or in cases that are clinically suspect for malignancy, but cytologically negative because there are only a few malignant cells, or those that are cytologically bland.
Failure to awaken after general anaesthesia secondary to paradoxical venous embolus. A patient is presented who failed to regain consciousness after an apparently uneventful nine-hour revision of a total hip replacement. There were no clinically important haemodynamic changes during the operation, and oxygen saturation, capnography and acid base balance were normal throughout. Postop CT of the head showed a large left MCA infarct with midline shift. At autopsy, the patient was found to have a previously unsuspected patent foramen ovale, and a venous embolus in the left internal carotid artery, which probably had originated from the periprostatic venous plexus with a large infarct in the distribution of the left anterior and middle cerebral arteries. The authors conclude that massive paradoxical venous emboli can occur during surgery with minimal haemodynamic changes.
Gastric ulcer healing: a comparison of enprostil versus ranitidine. Enprostil is a synthetic prostaglandin E2 analogue with gastric antisecretory and mucosal protective properties. We compared the effects of enprostil and ranitidine on the healing of gastric ulcers and the subsequent relapse rates over 6 months. Patients (N = 156) were recruited for a double-blind study from 12 centers in Europe; 71 were randomly assigned to oral treatment with 35 micrograms enprostil twice daily and 85 to 150 mg ranitidine twice daily for up to 8 weeks. Both groups were of similar demography; their healing rates were also similar. Cumulative intent-to-treat healing rates were at 4 weeks enprostil 48%, ranitidine 41%: at 6 weeks enprostil 65%, ranitidine 68%; and at 8 weeks enprostil 72%, ranitidine 80%. Of those patients who met all protocol criteria and completed treatment, and were endoscoped at the prescribed times, healing rates were at 4 weeks enprostil 55%, ranitidine 54%, at 6 weeks enprostil 75%, ranitidine 84%; and at 8 weeks enprostil 80%, ranitidine 90%. Relief of pain was rapid and similar in both groups. The incidence of adverse events was low and similar in the two groups. The treatment-free relapse rate at 6 months was enprostil 64%, ranitidine 49%; the median times to relapse were 169 and 203 days, respectively. Enprostil and ranitidine appear to be equally effective in healing gastric ulcers.
Coordinate occupancy of AP-1 sites in the vitamin D-responsive and CCAAT box elements by Fos-Jun in the osteocalcin gene: model for phenotype suppression of transcription. Osteocalcin, a bone-specific protein and marker of the mature osteoblast, is expressed only in nonproliferating osteoblasts in a mineralizing extracellular matrix, while type I collagen is expressed in proliferating cells. The nuclear proteins encoded by the c-fos and c-jun protooncogenes are expressed during the proliferation period of osteoblast phenotype development. We present evidence that AP-1 (HeLa cell-activating protein 1) sites residing within two promoter elements of the osteocalcin gene bind the Fos-Jun protein complex: the osteocalcin box (OC box; nucleotides -99 to -76), which contains a CCAAT motif as a central element and influences tissue-specific basal levels of osteocalcin gene transcription, and the vitamin D-responsive element (VDRE; nucleotides -462 to -440), which mediates enhancement of osteocalcin gene transcription. Gel electrophoretic mobility-shift analysis demonstrated high AP-1 binding activity in proliferating osteoblasts and dramatic changes in this activity after the down-regulation of proliferation and the initiation of extracellular-matrix mineralization in primary cultures of normal diploid osteoblasts. Methylation interference analysis established at single nucleotide resolution that purified recombinant Fos and Jun proteins bind in a sequence-specific manner to the AP-1 sites within the VDRE and OC box. Similarly, an AP-1 motif within a putative VDRE of the alkaline phosphatase gene, which is also expressed after the completion of proliferation, binds the Fos-Jun complex. These results support a model in which coordinate occupancy of the AP-1 sites in the VDRE and OC box in proliferating osteoblasts may suppress both basal level and vitamin D-enhanced osteocalcin gene transcription as well as transcription of other genes associated with osteoblast differentiation--a phenomenon we describe as phenotype suppression. This model is further supported by binding of the Fos-Jun complex at an AP-1 site in the type alpha I collagen promoter that is contiguous with, but not overlapping, the VDRE. Such a sequence organization in the collagen VDRE motif is compatible with vitamin D modulation of collagen but not with osteocalcin and alkaline phosphatase expression in proliferating osteoblasts.
Pentoxifylline in the treatment of vascular impotence--case reports. Vascular impotence is a common medical problem for which available therapies are limited. Three impotent patients observed in the authors' practice who were receiving pentoxifylline for treatment of claudication of the lower extremities spontaneously reported improved sexual function. A controlled trial of pentoxifylline for vascular impotence may be warranted.
Polycystic ovary syndrome: abnormalities and management with pulsatile gonadotropin-releasing hormone and gonadotropin-releasing hormone analogs. Ovulation induction with pulsatile gonadotropin-releasing hormone achieves high ovulatory and pregnancy rates in hypogonadotropic hypogonadism while limiting the occurrence of ovarian hyperstimulation and multiple pregnancy. However, this form of therapy is apparently less effective in polycystic ovary syndrome. The administration of a gonadotropin-releasing hormone analog for 4 to 8 weeks before the initiation of pulsatile gonadotropin-releasing hormone ovulation induction can temporarily correct endocrine abnormalities of polycystic ovary syndrome, such as excessive luteinizing hormone and androgen secretion, and improve ovulatory and pregnancy rates in these patients. For optimal results, this pretreatment should probably be repeated before each pulsatile gonadotropin-releasing hormone ovulation induction cycle. Obesity is associated with a lower success rate, and spontaneous abortion remains a prominent complication in polycystic ovary syndrome even after gonadotropin-releasing hormone analog suppression. With this regimen the risks of ovarian hyperstimulation and multiple pregnancy are virtually abolished. Thus, pulsatile gonadotropin-releasing hormone appears to be highly effective and safe for ovulation induction in patients with polycystic ovary syndrome also, provided that this treatment is preceded by pituitary-ovarian suppression with a gonadotropin-releasing hormone analog.
Antineutrophil cytoplasmic autoantibody-associated diseases: a pathologist's perspective. Antineutrophil cytoplasmic autoantibodies (ANCA) are a useful diagnostic serologic marker for the most common forms of necrotizing vasculitis, provide a means of categorizing vasculitides so that diagnostically useful shared pathologic and clinical characteristics can be recognized, and offer insight into the pathogenesis of previously idiopathic diseases. ANCA-associated vasculitides can be categorized into a number of distinctive clinicopathologic categories, eg, Wegener's granulomatosis, Churg-Strauss syndrome, pulmonary renal syndrome, microscopic polyarteritis nodosa, leukocytoclastic angiitis, and necrotizing and crescentic glomerulonephritis. At least the latter four syndromes can also be caused by other ANCA-negative immunopathogenic mechanisms, eg, immune complex deposition. Therefore, thorough diagnostic classification requires both an assessment of clinicopathologic category, as well as an assessment of immunopathologic category. Although different ANCA-associated vasculitic syndromes have distinctive clinical and pathologic features, all ANCA-associated vasculitides share a number of common pathologic features, ie, focal distribution, necrosis, and neutrophil infiltration. ANCA assays have very good sensitivity and specificity for ANCA-associated diseases, but the prevalence of these diseases in the patient population being analyzed must be taken into consideration when determining the predictive value of a test result. As with all serologic tests, ANCA results must be integrated with other clinical and pathologic data in order to reach the most accurate diagnostic conclusion.
Chronic xerostomia increases esophageal acid exposure and is associated with esophageal injury. OBJECTIVE: To assess the effects of chronic xerostomia on parameters of gastroesophageal reflux and esophagitis. DESIGN: Observational study of a cohort of male patients with xerostomia and age-matched control subjects. SETTING: Tertiary-care Veterans Affairs Medical Center. SUBJECTS: Sixteen male patients with chronic xerostomia secondary to radiation for head and neck cancers or medications. Nineteen age-matched male control subjects with comparable alcohol and smoking histories. MEASUREMENTS AND MAIN RESULTS: Esophageal motility was similar in patients with xerostomia and controls. Clearance of acid from the esophagus and 24-hour intraesophageal pH were markedly abnormal in patients with xerostomia. Symptoms and signs of esophagitis were significantly more frequent in subjects with xerostomia. CONCLUSIONS: Chronic xerostomia may predispose to esophageal injury, at least in part, by decreasing the clearance of acid from the esophagus and altering 24-hour intraesophageal pH. Esophageal injury is a previously unreported complication of long-term salivary deficiency.