shukoor65/lab-rag-model huggingface dataset:
Stapled ileoanal anastomosis for ulcerative colitis and familial polyposis without a temporary diverting ileostomy. Between March 1989 and August 1990, we performed 21 stapled J pouch ileonal procedures (20 ulcerative colitis [UC], 1 familial polyposis [FP]) without an ileostomy in 19, of whom 13 were taking prednisone and eight underwent semi-emergent surgery for uncontrollable bleeding. During the same time, an additional four patients required a standard ileonal procedure. The results of anal manometry and clinical function were compared to 25 patients who had previously undergone mucosal stripping and a sutured J pouch ileoanal anastomoses with a temporary diverting ileostomy between October 1982 and August 1990. During this same time period, an additional 19 patients underwent an anti-peristaltic reversed J pouch and 18 an S pouch, for a total of 83 ileoanal procedures. The reversed J pouch had a lower stool frequency than a standard J pouch but had an unacceptable incidence of complications and problems with pouch emptying. The S pouch had a stool frequency similar to the standard J pouch but provided greater length in patients with a short mesentery. Stapled J pouch ileoanal patients had a better (p less than 0.02) maximum and sphincter resting pressure (46 +/- 11 versus 34 +/- 12 mmHg), fewer (p less than 0.05) night-time accidents (22% versus 68%), daytime (17% versus 55%) or night-time (28 versus 61%) spotting, or use of a protective pad at night (11% versus 42%) than nonstapled J pouch ileoanal patients. Stool frequency was similar in the two groups. All but one UC patient had residual disease at the anastomosis. Anal mucosa between the dentate line and stapled anastomosis was 1.8 +/- 1.3 cm (range, 0 to 3.5 cm). Complications in the nonstapled J pouch group included 4 pouches excised (2 for complications, 2 for excessive stool frequency), 1 pelvic abscess, 2 stenosis requiring dilation under anesthesia, 1 enterocutaneous fistula after ileostomy closure, 1 ileostomy site hernia, and 2 small bowel obstructions. Of the 65 patients who underwent ileostomy closure in the entire series, 8 (12%) developed a complication requiring surgical intervention. Complications in the stapled group included 1 anastomotic leak, 1 pouch leak, and 1 pelvic abscess. Patients were managed successfully with drainage (all 3) and diverting ileostomy (1). One patient developed stenosis requiring dilation under anesthesia. The stapled J pouch ileoanal anastomosis is a simpler, safer procedure with less tension than a standard handsewn J pouch but leaves a very small cuff of residual disease. It provides significantly better stool control and may obviate the need for an ileostomy with its complications.
Determination of the extent of lower-extremity peripheral arterial disease with color-assisted duplex sonography: comparison with angiography. Color-assisted duplex sonography combines color Doppler flow imaging with duplex sonography to rapidly survey the vasculature. Color Doppler sonography displays the motion of flowing blood on a sonogram and is used to visualize directly arterial lumen narrowing of greater than 50%. Absence of Doppler signals signifies arterial occlusion. Preangiographic triage of patients for surgical or interventional therapy requires that a rapid and accurate survey be performed of the extent of arterial disease. Color-assisted duplex sonography was applied prospectively in 17 consecutive patients with the clinical diagnosis of peripheral arterial disease who had not previously undergone angiography. Results of angiography of the femoropopliteal arteries were graded and localized in one of seven approximately equal arterial segments. These were compared with similar segmental maps made with sonography. For the detection of stenosis or occlusion in any of the 238 segments, the sensitivity was 0.88 (49/56), specificity 0.95 (173/182), and accuracy 0.93 (222/238). The average time taken to survey both limbs was 29 min. We conclude that color-assisted duplex sonography is an accurate and rapid tool for the noninvasive mapping of the extent of femoropopliteal arterial disease.
Surgically induced cytokinetic responses in experimental rat mammary tumor models. The effect of surgical removal of "primary" tumors on the cytokinetics of local tumor remnants, secondary implants, and metastases was investigated in three different rat tumor models in the Wag/Rij rat: a slow-growing (MCR83) and a fast-growing (EMR86) hormone-dependent mammary tumor and a rapidly, but autonomously growing carcinoma (MCR86). The latter two tumors had metastatic potential. Cell kinetic studies were done using in vivo labeling with 5'-bromodeoxyuridine (BrdUrd). Thirty-three hours after removal of a subcutaneous MCR83 flank tumor, secondary implants showed a significant (P less than 0.05) but transient increase in the BrdUrd labeling index (LI). A more rapid and prolonged increase, lasting for at least 7 days, was observed in EMR86 lymph node and lung metastases. In both models, no effect was observed after sham surgery (consisting of opening and closing of the skin under anesthesia). Removal of MCR86 tumors (growing in the hind leg muscle) also resulted in a rapid, transient LI increase in metastases. Continuous BrdUrd labeling experiments in this tumor model did not favor the hypothesis that the LI increase predominantly resulted from an increase in the growth fraction. Moreover, in this model, the effect was related to operation trauma. A similar increase in LI, although smaller than after tumor removal, was seen after major surgical trauma in MCR83 flank tumors. These results indicate that in the rat, tumor removal and/or major surgical trauma may modulate the cytokinetics of distant metastases significantly. A study of the systemic, possibly endocrine, factors involved in the growth-stimulating effect of surgical trauma in these rat tumor models may help to assess the clinical relevance of these findings for patients with breast cancer.
Patterns of venous insufficiency in patients with varicose veins. The nature and distribution of venous disease surrounding the development of varicose veins and its treatment is controversial. Using duplex ultrasonography, we evaluated 54 lower extremities in 32 patients with varicose veins who were symptomatic and had obvious varicose veins by clinical examination. Twenty-eight percent had greater saphenous trunk incompetence, 2% had lesser saphenous trunk incompetence, and 96% had branch disease. Deep valvular incompetence was seen in 41%, saphenofemoral junction incompetence in 46%, and incompetence of one or more perforators in 46% of the extremities. Thirty-three percent demonstrated no evidence of associated saphenofemoral junction, deep vein, or perforating vein incompetence, while 20% had concurrent saphenofemoral junction, deep vein, and perforating vein incompetence. These data support the heterogeneity of venous disease seen in patients with varicose veins and suggest that surgical therapy be directed to a patient's specific pattern of incompetence rather than routine saphenofemoral junction ligation or stripping of the greater saphenous trunk.
Narrow duct segment distal to choledochal cyst. "Narrow segments" (or stenotic portions) of the common bile duct (CBD) distal to cysts in two patients (a 50-yr-old woman and a 25-yr-old man) with choledochal cyst (CholCyst) were studied macroscopically and histologically. The narrow segments of the ducts were patent and connected with the main pancreatic duct extraduodenally, whereas the CBD in controls were neither dilated nor stenotic, and joined the main pancreatic duct within the duodenal wall. These narrow segments were 1 cm long. In case 1, a minute orifice was found in the narrow segment of the duct macroscopically and was identified microscopically as a small duct from a pancreatic lobule. In case 2, a small pancreatic duct also joined the narrow segment of the duct. These small pancreatic ducts were derived from the ventral pancreas, based on distribution of PP-islets. Therefore, the narrow duct distal to the cyst in patients with CholCyst (or congenital biliary dilatation) was considered to be a branch of the ventral pancreatic duct.
Clinical use of biologic response modifiers in cancer treatment: an overview. Part II. Colony-stimulating factors and interleukin-2. Colony-stimulating factors (CSFs) are hematopoietic growth hormones that stimulate the production, maturation, and function of white blood cells. The best studied are granulocyte-macrophage CSF (GM-CSF) and granulocyte CSF (G-CSF), both of which can be produced by recombinant DNA technology. Clinical indications for these agents include bone marrow failure secondary to administration of chemotherapeutic drugs or radiation, bone marrow transplantation, and a variety of congenital or iatrogenic neutropenias. Toxicity in usual clinical doses is mild, and consists mainly of bone pain and constitutional symptoms such as fever, headache, and myalgias. Interleukin-2 (IL-2) is a lymphokine that stimulates that multiplication of several types of killer cells. These cells can recognize and destroy foreign substances, such as tumors, without destroying normal cells. Major applications of IL-2 include treatment of patients with renal cell carcinoma, in whom the overall objective response rate is 15-30 percent, and malignant melanoma with response rates of about 18 percent. Combination therapy with other biologics and conventional cytotoxic drugs may increase IL-2's efficacy against these tumors. Toxicity is generally severe, but reversible. Hemodynamic toxicity, consisting of hypotension, edema, weight gain, and decreased renal function, is most characteristic. Suggestions are given for pharmacologic management of these and other IL-2 toxicities.
Electroencephalographic study of rat hyperthermic seizures. The behavior and EEG of rat hyperthermic convulsions was studied. We found that a long run of high-voltage slow waves without convulsions, high-voltage irregular activity consisting of spikes and waves with intermittent myoclonus, and rapid spike and wave bursts accompanied by generalized clonic convulsions occurred sequentially. This behavioral and EEG activity is analogous to human febrile convulsions and supports the usefulness of this model for studies of human febrile convulsions. Rats frequently showed arrest of locomotion concurrently with paroxysmal EEG theta bursts before development of generalized convulsions. We speculate that this paroxysmal activity is a type of seizure discharge.
Long-term prognosis after partial gastrectomy for benign conditions. Survival and smoking-related death of 2633 Amsterdam postgastrectomy patients followed up since surgery between 1931 and 1960. Decreased life expectancy may occur after remote peptic ulcer surgery, but the cause of shortened survival is unclear. A 50-year follow-up study of an Amsterdam cohort of postgastrectomy patients who underwent ulcer surgery between 1931 and 1960 showed a statistically significant decrease in survival after a postoperative interval of 12 years or more compared with the general population. The shortened life expectancy mainly reflected decreased survival in men. In women, no significant difference in survival compared with the general population was observed. The excess mortality in men was predominantly due to a statistically significant increase in cancer-related deaths. Carcinoma of the lung accounted for the majority of excess mortality. No time relationship between lung cancer death and interval since surgery was observed. Thus, smoking, primarily in men who had undergone surgery for gastric ulcers, seems an important factor contributing to excess mortality and shortened life expectancy. Excess mortality due to tobacco use has also been observed in postmarketing surveillance of H2-receptor antagonists. Therefore, smoking cessation may provide the greatest improvement in the long-term prognosis of peptic ulcer patients, regardless of the treatment.
Nonpalpable invasive breast cancer. The use of mammography has resulted in 1464 breast biopsies for nonpalpable abnormalities at the University of Virginia in the 10 years 1980 to 1989. Two hundred sixty-four cancerous lesions (18%) were found. One hundred seventy-eight of these (67%) were in situ lesions. Invasive cancer (86 of 264 lesions or 33%) forms the basis for this report. Mammographic findings leading to biopsy were a mass in 61 of 86 cases (71%), microcalcifications in 23 of 86 (27%), or both in 2 of 86 cases. Histologic subtypes were infiltrating ductal (63 of 86), infiltrating lobular (14 of 86), and other infiltrating (9 of 86). Mastectomy was performed in 71 of 86 lesions (82%), lumpectomy/radiation in 14 of 86 (16%), and lumpectomy alone in 1 of 86 lesions. Division of the tumors into size with nodal status revealed 19 of 86 lesions (22%) less than 0.5 cm with 0 of 14 positive nodes. Thirty-nine of eighty-six lesions (46%) measured 0.6 to 1.0 cm with 10 (26%) positive nodes. Twenty-eight of eighty-six lesions (32%) measured more than 1.0 cm with 8 of 28 (28%) positive nodes. Nodal status is unknown for eight patients. Overall 18 of 78 lesions (23%) had positive nodes. Median follow-up is 44 months. Disease-free survival rate is 92% (79 of 86 patients) and overall survival rate is 94% (81 of 86 patients). Six of seven recurrences occurred in node-positive patients. For those with negative or unknown nodes, the disease-free survival rate is 98% (67 of 68 patients). These findings emphasize the benefit of early detection of breast cancer through the use of mammography.
Screening for cervical cancer by direct inspection. Since cytology-based screening programmes for cervical cancer cannot be provided on a large scale in developing countries, an alternative approach is needed. To find out whether visual inspection of the cervix is an adequate alternative, women with cytological evidence of dysplasia were followed up cytologically and colposcopically until cancer was detected, and the gross appearance of the cervix was recorded at each stage. Although only 40-50% of cancers were accompanied by abnormal-looking cervices, whereas 71% were detectable on cytology and 87% on colposcopy, visual inspection may be useful in areas where cytological screening programmes are not available.
Mouse platelet-derived growth factor receptor alpha gene is deleted in W19H and patch mutations on chromosome 5. The mouse W19H mutation is an x-ray-induced deletion of more than 2 centimorgans on chromosome 5 encompassing the white spotting mutation W (encoded by the Kit protooncogene), patch (Ph), and recessive lethal (l) loci. The platelet-derived growth factor receptor alpha gene (PDGFRA) like Kit encodes a transmembrane receptor tyrosine kinase. By using mouse-Chinese hamster somatic cell hybrids and haplotype analysis in interspecific backcross mice, mouse Pdgfra was mapped to chromosome 5 in tight linkage with Kit. Hybridization of a PDGFRA probe to DNAs from W19H/ + heterozygous mice and patch heterozygous mice, and their wild-type littermates, demonstrated deletion of Pdgfra. Pulsed-field gel electrophoresis indicated that Kit and Pdgfra are linked on a 630-kilobase Mlu I DNA fragment. Thus the W19H deletion removes at least two receptor tyrosine kinases and the results suggest Pdgfra as a candidate for the Ph locus.
Allergic rash due to antiepileptic drugs: clinical features and management. Optimal management of allergic rash from antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) is unclear. We identified 50 patients with 68 reactions (36 to one AED, 10 to two AEDs, and four to three AEDs). The AEDs implicated were carbamazepine, 30; phenobarbital (PB), 20; phenytoin, 16; ethosuximide, one; and AED combination, one. Sixty-three reactions were cutaneous eruptions, three exfoliative dermatitis, and two Stevens-Johnson syndrome. Forty-six reactions were mild (rash only), 18 moderate (systemic symptoms or other organ system involvement), and four life-threatening (all with PB). In most patients with greater than 1 reaction, the second and third reactions were not more severe than the first. Prior antibiotic allergies or nonmedication allergies were no more common than in a control group without reactions. The AED was ceased abruptly in 59 patients (22 of whom did not receive a new AED), tapered in five, and continued unchanged in four. Despite this, there was no status epilepticus (SE) during the reaction or its treatment, and no patient's seizure control deteriorated. In 40 cases, a new AED was added--16 after the reaction had resolved and 24 before total resolution. Rash recurred with the new AED in 50 and 42% respectively (NS). We conclude that, though allergic rashes to AEDs are usually mild, the rare occurrence of severe reactions indicates that the AED should be ceased. This can be done abruptly with minimal risk of SE. A new AED can be added, if necessary, prior to the resolution of the rash without increasing the risk of further reactions.
Correlation of the optic disc size to glaucoma susceptibility. Previous studies have suggested that a larger optic disc size in blacks as compared with whites is related to the increased glaucoma susceptibility in blacks. In an intraindividual bilateral comparison of 245 white patients with open-angle glaucoma, the authors evaluated whether the glaucomatous optic nerve damage was greater or less in the eye with the larger optic nerve head. Highly myopic eyes were excluded. The difference in optic disc area of one eye as compared with the contralateral eye was not significantly correlated to the differences in visibility of retinal nerve fiber bundles and mean visual field defect between the two eyes. Mean perimetric loss and the retinal nerve fiber layer index were not significantly higher in the eye with the larger or smaller optic nerve head. This indicates that in whites, high myopes excluded, the susceptibility to glaucomatous optic nerve fiber loss may be independent of the optic disc size.
Noninfectious colitis associated with short gut syndrome in infants. We describe noninfectious bloody diarrhea in 13 of 16 infants referred for management of short bowel syndrome and parenteral nutrition during a 33-month period. The condition was characterized by bloody, watery stools associated with carbohydrate malabsorption. Colitis occurred at a mean age of 4.2 months during periods of advancing enteral feedings of a hydrolyzed protein- or amino acid-containing formula. Sigmoidoscopy performed in nine patients revealed edema, patchy erythema, loss of normal vascular pattern, and mucosal friability without ulcerations or pseudomembranes. Colonic biopsy specimens demonstrated edema and mixed hypercellularity of the lamina propria, with prominent eosinophilia. Rectal bleeding ceased if formula feedings were decreased or withheld. Of multiple medications administered, sulfasalazine seemed to improve rectal bleeding most effectively in our patients and allowed for more rapid reintroduction of enteral feedings.
Squamous-cell carcinoma of the anal canal: management with combined chemo-radiation therapy. Twenty patients with squamous-cell carcinoma of the anal canal received combined chemo-radiation therapy as their primary treatment. There were 18 women and two men with a mean age of 63 years (range, 34-91 years). The mean follow-up was 34 months (range, 6-62 months). Anal margin cancers and adenocarcinomas were excluded. Fourteen of 20 patients treated had a complete response. There were six local failures: three with residual disease at the end of treatment and three with recurrent disease at a later date. Of the three with residual disease, one underwent abdominoperineal resection and two received salvage therapy (one with chemo-radiation and one with radiation alone). All three patients with recurrent disease were treated with abdominoperineal resection. All six were disease free at the end of the study. Of the 14 patients with complete local response, one presented with liver metastases 19 months later. Sixteen patients (80 percent) were alive at the end of the study, and 19 patients (95 percent) had no evidence of disease. These data add support for salvage therapy in the treatment of patients with residual disease following initial chemo-radiation therapy. Salvage options for patients with squamous-cell carcinoma of the anus who fail the Nigro protocol will be discussed.
Relationship of temperature pattern and serious bacterial infections in infants 4 to 8 weeks old 24 to 48 hours after antibiotic treatment. STUDY OBJECTIVE: A new management approach to selected febrile infants 4 to 8 weeks old evaluated for possible sepsis is outpatient ceftriaxone therapy, with subsequent re-evaluation 24 to 48 hours after presentation. This study assessed whether the temperature profile of such infants during the 24- to 48-hour period after treatment distinguished those with from those without serious bacterial infections (SBIs). DESIGN: Prospective, descriptive clinical study. PARTICIPANTS: One hundred sixty-one febrile infants 4 to 8 weeks old. SETTING: An urban pediatric emergency department and hospital. MEASUREMENTS AND MAIN RESULTS: All infants underwent a sepsis evaluation (lumbar puncture, CBC/blood culture, and urinalysis/urine culture) and were hospitalized for at least 48 hours. Temperatures were measured on presentation and then every four hours during hospitalization. All infants received parenteral third-generation cephalosporin antibiotic therapy, and none received antipyretic medication unless fever was documented. Fever (rectal temperature of more than 38.0 C) was documented during the 24- to 48-hour period after presentation in 28 infants (17.6%)--one of a total of 18 infants (5.6%) with SBI and 27 of a total of 143 infants (19%) without SBI (alpha, more than .2: power .30). All bacterial isolates in cases of SBI were susceptible to third-generation cephalosporin antibiotics. All repeat blood and urine cultures that were performed in infants with bacteremia or urinary tract infections, respectively, were negative 24 hours after presentation. CONCLUSION: Infants 4 to 8 weeks old who remain febrile during the 24 to 48-hour period after presentation and initiation of parenteral antibiotic therapy are less likely to have SBI. This study did not have sufficient power for this difference to be statistically significant.
Tolerance to somatostatin analogue in a preterm infant with islet cell dysregulation syndrome. An infant of 31 weeks' gestation presented with refractory neonatal hypoglycaemia secondary to islet cell dysregulation. Treatment was started with somatostatin analogue and his glycaemic control improved initially. Tolerance developed, however, in that the dose required to maintain control increased by a factor of 40. The infant subsequently underwent pancreatectomy. It is safe to use somatostatin analogue in a preterm infant, but tolerance to the drug rapidly develops.
Assessing the feasibility of bronchoplastic surgery with magnetic resonance imaging. Bronchoplastic surgical techniques may allow resectional therapy for non-small cell lung carcinoma in select patients in whom preoperative pulmonary function demonstrates prohibitive risk for pneumonectomy. We report an otherwise poor candidate for pneumonectomy in whom coronal magnetic resonance imaging demonstrated the potential for distal bronchial salvage.
The evaluation of coronary bypass graft patency: direct and indirect techniques other than coronary arteriography. Patients having one or more coronary artery bypass graft operations constitute an important part of the practice of cardiac radiology. Bypass graft patency can be determined by indirect and direct methods. The indirect imaging methods include radionuclide ventriculography, thallium-201 scintigraphy, and positron emission tomography. The direct methods include conventional CT, ultrafast CT, MR imaging, digital subtraction angiography, and Doppler sonography. This review discusses the advantages and limitations of these methods and attempts to define the relative importance of each of these techniques in the evaluation of bypass graft patency.