

Do you count yourself as one who is weak in the faith?


Is there any doubt in your mind about what is right and what is missing
the mark?


Are they clear or do you have doubts?


An important first step; the realization that Paul was human.


Yes, and he was writing and speaking for an audience that was at best,
very weak in the faith; most could not read, most were unfamiliar with
the Hebrew Scriptures in even the Septuagint form. Paul adapted the
message of the Bible to a largely uneducated market. Granted, this
market still exists today, but do you count yourself as part of it? To
be "weak in the faith" is not missing the mark (hamartia) if you do the
best that your education allows. Are you doing the best?


Let me make clear that the "Law" is none other than the Pentateuch of
Genesis, Exodus, Leviticus, Numbers, Deuteronomy. What did Jesus say
about the "Law" in Matt5:14-19? Where did Jesus say that the "Law" only
applies to Jews and that Gentiles are above the "Law"?


Who acknowledged this fact? On what basis? Are we extra-biblical at this
point? Why not also acknowledge that the Bhagavad-Gita is the only
relevant text for Gentiles, after all we see in the Bible that it was
Magus from the east who observed the star-signs of Jesus? Why bother
with any texts at all? Why not just follow whatever the Church has to
say?


I don't see how you can say this with a straight face. Are you a
follower of Christ, or do you follow someone else? Are you saying that
the words of Jesus only apply to Jews?


How Jewish was Paul after he changed his name from Saul?


Who says Gentile Christians are not covered by the first five books? Who
says that Gentile Christians are above the Ten Commandments?


You're implying that Jesus' words are valid only for Jews. Is this
really what you mean to say? You do realize that you are gutting rather
large portions of the Bible? When you read Jesus' words, did you ever
consider that maybe, just maybe Jesus is talking to you, no matter what
your race or sex? If the Hebrew Scriptures and the Gospel accounts of
Jesus are only directed to Jews, why were they translated into English?


As Paul would call him, one who was weak in the faith.


Which is more important: 1) The recorded word of Jesus or 2) Indications
that you can deduce from the Bible? Was Jesus God only of the Jews, or
God of all humankind of all race and sex?


This is your understanding of Paul. Compare this to the word of Jesus.
Are you Christian or Pauline?


Again, this is your understanding of Paul. Did Jesus say that the Law
was an "impossible standard?" Did Jesus say that He superceded the Law?
Are you Christian or Pauline?


You acknowledge that it is *your* reading of Paul. What did Jesus say?
Can you deny that Matt5:14-19 is quite clear in its meaning? Are you 
Christian or Pauline?


When did Jesus say that the purpose of the Law was conviction of sin?


Please reread Matt5:14-19. Are you Christian or Pauline?


Are you saying that the Ten Commandments are ceremonial details?


You call observance of the Sabbath, the day on which the Lord rested,
ceremonial? Has circumcision been superceded for Christians?

....

Are you Christian or Pauline?

[Both.  There is no doubt in my mind about what is sin and what is
not, at least not in this case.  Jesus did not deal explicitly with
the question of whether the Law was binding on Gentiles.  That's why I
have to cite evidence such as the way Jesus dealt with the Centurion.

As to general Jewish views on this, I am dependent largely on studies
of Pauline theology, one by H.J. Schoeps, and one whose author I can't
come up with at the moment.  Both authors are Jews.  Also, various
Christian and non-Christian Jews have discussed the issue here and in
other newsgroups.

Mat 5:19 is clear that the Law is still valid.  It does not say that
it applies to Gentiles.

And yes, I say that the specific requirement for worship on the
Sabbath in the Ten Commandments is a ceremonial detail, when you're
looking at the obligations of Gentiles.  Similarly circumcision.

I'm not sure quite what else I can say on this subject.  Again, it's
unfortunate the Jesus didn't answer the question directly.  However we
do know (1) what the 1st Cent. Jewish approach was, (2) how Jesus
dealt with at least one Gentile, and (3) how Jesus' disciples dealt
with the issue when it became more acute (I'm referring to Acts 15
more than Paul).  Given that these are all in agreement, I don't see
that there's a big problem.