
Jesus did not say that he was the fulfillment of the Law, and, unless
I'm mistaken, heaven and earth have not yet passed away. Am I mistaken?
And, even assuming that one can just gloss over that portion of the word
of Jesus, do you really think that "all is accomplished?"


Then why didn't Jesus say "Any Jew who annuls ..." in v. 19? Are you
saying that all of Jesus' recorded words mean nothing to Gentiles? Are
you really saying that Jesus only spoke for and to the Jews? Jesus
didn't mention your name, does that mean he wasn't speaking to you? When
you read the words of Jesus, do you think he is speaking to someone
other than you?


You said above that Jesus was the "fulfillment" of the Law. Are you
saying that does not mean "doing away with the Law"?


Gen3:15(JPS) I will put enmity between you and the woman, and between
your offspring and hers; they shall strike at your head, and you shall
strike at their heel.

Gen3:15(NRSV) I will put enmity between you and the woman, and between your
offspring and hers; he will strike your head, and you will strike his
heel."

Gen3:15(KJV) And I will put enmity between thee and the woman, and
between thy seed and her seed; it shall bruise thy head, and thou shalt
bruise his heel.

Looks like your translation has taken a few liberties with the Word?


Only "helping the Jewish people?"


You are using your interpretation of Paul as an argument against the
clear words of Jesus?


"Re-expressed?" Care to define that a bit better?


What? Are heaven and earth gone away? Where did they go? Is all
accomplished, for example Revelations? Explain please.


Again, your interpretation of Paul versus the clear word of Jesus. Do
you see any problems here? When did heaven and earth go away? When was
all accomplished?