
I don't think so.  The assumption is there.  If it turns out that
their software has a virus, then it is up to you to prove that fact
to a court to get any damages.  You are theoretically suppossed to 
be able to get damages for that, but you have to give some evidence
that the virus came from that software.  But since the computer
company is the defendent, they are uninvolved until proven guilty.

Please, not Pascal!  NOOOOO!! ;)
