Based on the premise "PRE-MODIFICATION VALUE - The present value of net cash inflows of direct loans estimated at the time of modification under pre-modification terms, discounted at the current discount rate.", can we conclude the hypothesis "The pre-modification value is simply the value that an asset was originally calculated at. " is true (see options)?

Options:
A). yes.
B). it is not possible to tell.
C). no.
C).