In this task, you are given a public comment from online platforms. You are expected to classify the comment into two classes: sexual-explicit and non-sexual-explicit. A comment is considered sexual-explicit if it explicitly portrays sexual matters.
Q: Comment: "The Kremlin has already been elevated to the status of global bogeyman by the CIA's assessment that it deliberately interfered in the U.S. vote to aid Mr. Trump". This criticism of the Kremlin by the United States is a wee bit hypocritical. After all this is a country (and an organization) which supposedly tried to send exploding cigars to Fidel Castro and then supported an ill fated invasion of Cuba at the Bay of Pigs. It interfered in the Chilean election of Salvador Allende resulting in the takeover by General Pinochet with detrimental results on the Chilean people. And what about the the weapons of mass destruction fiasco and the invasion of Iraq which has further destabilized the Middle East. It is also important to remember the United States, along with Canada and other western nations, sent troops into Russia during the Russian Civil War. An old aggression but one probably not forgotten. Is there really any difference between these activities and Mr. Putin's?
A:
Non-sexual-explicit