Here is a premise:
But in the presence of competition among dealers, there is no difference between setting a standard of service and setting a retail For a given service standard, competition will lower the price until it's commensurate with the service standard, and for a given price, competition will raise the service standard until it's commensurate with the price.

Here is a hypothesis:
There is no chance of competition playing any role in price setting.

Is it possible to conclude that if the premise is true, then so is the hypothesis?
no