Premise: "schedule a under uh well it's the same place it's the same place you put uh interest but but see that's what that's what makes Texas squirrelly laws that uh you can't you can't take out a a second mortgage uh like some states where you can take out the mortgage and declare that and so uh it's fully deductible the laws are a little squirrelly but it basically comes down to it's not in your best interest to borrow money from a tax standpoint" If this premise is true, what does that tell us about whether it entails the hypothesis "Texas has the least favorable tax laws for residents with regard to mortages."?
it is not possible to tell