Here is a premise:
The interim rule eliminates the Mortgage Assignment Program and provides alternative procedures to foreclosure for mortgagors in default such as special forbearance, loan modifications, and deeds in lieu of foreclosure.

Here is a hypothesis:
Mortgagors are happy about the interim rule because it provides more options besides foreclosure.

Is it possible to conclude that if the premise is true, then so is the hypothesis?
it is not possible to tell