Based on the premise "In parts of Mallorca, Germans own about 80 percent of all homes; along traditionally British vacation spots on Menorca, three-quarters of the homes are first or second residences belonging to the English.", can we conclude the hypothesis "Germans own about 80 percent of all homes in parts of Mallorca; three-quarters of the homes are first or second residences, belonging to the English along traditionally British vacation spots." is true?
yes