In this task, you are given a public comment from online platforms. You are expected to classify the comment into two classes: sexual-explicit and non-sexual-explicit. A comment is considered sexual-explicit if it explicitly portrays sexual matters.
One example is below.
Q: Comment: President lied under oath about consensual sex...
Not the same thing as rape.
A: Sexual-explicit
Rationale: This comment explicitly mentions "consensual sex" and "rape", and thus is sexual-explicit.
Q: Comment: HV says that a primary reason for having intercourse is procreation. This stems from Gnosticism and Roman stoicism, neither of which thought much of sex. The Gnostics thought that "the flesh" was evil; and the Stoics thought that anything as pleasurable as sex was to be avoided, but could be justified by saying it was for procreation. These ideas, promulgated by heretics and paganss, were taken up by Christian ascetics who also distrusted pleasure. Augustine, in one of his sermons, says that a man should look forward to heaven where he can embrace his wife as if she were a statue.

The ideas that being "open to procreation" is desired by God is unsupported by anything in scripture. It is a wholly man-made concept, stemming from the thought that sex is nasty.

RD trots out the standard traditionalist twaddle in support of this.
A:
Sexual-explicit