An Act to Correct Inconsistencies, Conflicts and Errors in the Laws
Maine Legislature, Session 132, LD 2170
Committee: Judiciary
Amends: 5 MRSA §3232, 5 MRSA §4612, 5 MRSA §7051, 5 MRSA §7064, 5 MRSA §13056-E, 5 MRSA §17804, 5 MRSA §18404, 6 MRSA §205, 8 MRSA §272-C, 11 MRSA §2, 11 MRSA §3, 11 MRSA §4, 11 MRSA §5, 11 MRSA §7, 11 MRSA §8, 11 MRSA §9, 12 MRSA §11401, 14 MRSA §4426, 14 MRSA §6203-H, 15 MRSA §3301, 22 MRSA §1597-A, 22 MRSA §1715, 22 MRSA §2842, 22 MRSA §2843, 22 MRSA §7802, 24-A MRSA §1443-A, 24-A MRSA §2003, 25 MRSA §2803-B, 26 MRSA §683, 26 MRSA §1192-A, 26 MRSA §2066, 30-A MRSA §4326, 30-A MRSA §4346, 30-A MRSA §4347-A, 30-A MRSA §4364, 30-A MRSA §4364-A, 30-A MRSA §4364-E, 32 MRSA §3270-G, 34-B MRSA §3012, 34-B MRSA §3801, 36 MRSA §1545, 36 MRSA §1546, 36 MRSA §4365-F, 38 MRSA §3107, 38 MRSA §3113, 39-A MRSA §309

Legislative Document
No. 2170
H.P. 1458
House of Representatives, January 20, 2026
An Act to Correct Inconsistencies, Conflicts and Errors in the Laws 
of Maine
(EMERGENCY)
Reported by Representative KUHN of Falmouth for the Revisor of Statutes pursuant to the 
Maine Revised Statutes, Title 1, section 94.
Reference to the Committee on Judiciary suggested and ordered printed pursuant to Joint 
Rule 218.
ROBERT B. HUNT
Clerk
Emergency preamble.  Whereas, acts and resolves of the Legislature do not 
become effective until 90 days after adjournment unless enacted as emergencies; and 
Whereas, acts of this and previous Legislatures have resulted in certain technical 
inconsistencies, conflicts and errors in the laws of Maine; and
Whereas, these inconsistencies, conflicts and errors create uncertainties and 
confusion in interpreting legislative intent; and
Whereas, it is vitally necessary that these uncertainties and this confusion be resolved 
in order to prevent any injustice or hardship to the citizens of Maine; and 
Whereas, in the judgment of the Legislature, these facts create an emergency within 
the meaning of the Constitution of Maine and require the following legislation as 
immediately necessary for the preservation of the public peace, health and safety; now, 
therefore,
Be it enacted by the People of the State of Maine as follows:
PART A
Sec. A-1.  5 MRSA §3232, first ¶, as enacted by PL 2025, c. 388, Pt. D, §12, is 
amended to read:
The office may enter into make financial assistance grants under the program only to 
the extent that funds are available. In making grants, the office shall consider the need for 
planning in a municipality or multimunicipal region, the proximity of the municipality or 
multimunicipal region to other areas that are conducting or have completed the planning 
process and the economic and geographic role of the municipality or multimunicipal region 
within a regional context. The office shall give priority in making grants to any 
municipality or multimunicipal region that has adopted a local climate action plan and, if 
the municipality or multimunicipal region has adopted a comprehensive plan or growth 
management program, prepared a climate vulnerability assessment pursuant to Title 30‑A, 
section 4326, subsection 1, paragraph L. The office may consider other criteria in making 
grants, as long as the criteria support the goal of encouraging and facilitating the adoption 
and implementation of local and multimunicipal growth management programs consistent 
with the procedures, goals and guidelines established in this subchapter.
Sec. A-2.  5 MRSA §4612, sub-§4, ¶B, as amended by PL 1991, c. 99, §30, is 
further amended by amending subparagraph (3) to read:
(3)  In unlawful public accommodations discrimination, that such discrimination 
is causing inconvenience to many persons; and
Sec. A-3.  5 MRSA §7051, sub-§7, as amended by PL 2021, c. 601, §2, is further 
amended to read:
7.  Dismissal and disciplinary action.  Except as provided in subsection 5, an 
appointing authority may dismiss, suspend or otherwise discipline an employee in the 
classified service for cause.  This right is subject to the right of appeal and arbitration of 
grievances set forth in the applicable labor contract, in sections 7081 to 7084 or by civil 
service rule; and sections 7081 to 7084 apply to any employee who has satisfactorily 
completed an initial probationary period.  This subsection does not apply to unclassified 
employees listed in section 931, nor does this subsection in any way limit the collective 
bargaining rights of classified and unclassified employees.  This subsection does not apply 
to an employee appointed to a major policy-influencing position listed in sections 932 to 
952.
Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the head of any institution under the 
control of the Department of Health and Human Services as the appointing authority may 
suspend with pay any employee who is charged by indictment with the commission of a 
criminal offense involving acts alleged to have been perpetrated upon any resident or 
residents of any such institution.  Any suspension with pay may be authorized by the 
appointing authority only when to permit the employee to remain on duty at the institution 
would be against the best interest of any one or more of the residents of the institution, and 
authorization for suspension with pay applies only during the pendency of the criminal 
proceedings in the trial court, but not longer than 30 working days.  Sections 7081 to 7084 
do not apply to suspension with pay ordered by the appointing authority under this 
paragraph.
Sec. A-4.  5 MRSA §7064, sub-§2, as amended by PL 2003, c. 177, §1, is further 
amended to read:
2.  Eligibility of unclassified employees for classified service.  In addition to any 
other provisions in this chapter, unclassified employees listed in section 931, subsection 1, 
paragraph H, and other unclassified employees, except those cited in section 931, 
subsection 1, paragraphs A to G, and paragraphs I and J, and in sections 932 to 953 952, 
are eligible for appointment to the classified service on the same basis as other members of 
the classified service.
Sec. A-5.  5 MRSA §13056-E, sub-§2, ¶B, as amended by PL 2025, c. 388, Pt. D, 
§17, is further amended by amending the first blocked paragraph to read:
Subject to the limitations of this subsection, 2 or more municipalities that each meet 
the requirements of subparagraph (1), divisions (a), (b) or and (c) may jointly apply for 
assistance under this section; and
Sec. A-6.  5 MRSA §17804, sub-§5-F, as amended by PL 2021, c. 548, §25, is 
further amended to read:
5-F.  Change of beneficiary.  If the recipient of a service retirement benefit has elected 
an optional method of payment under subsection 3, 4, 5, 5‑A, 5‑B, 5‑C, 5‑D or 5‑E and has 
designated someone other than a spouse or ex-spouse as sole beneficiary, the recipient is 
permitted a one-time change in the designated beneficiary except as provided in paragraph 
D, but may not change the already elected payment option or the amount of the benefits 
under that option, by filing a written designation of the new beneficiary, duly 
acknowledged, with the chief executive officer on a form provided or specified by the 
retirement system.  The change of beneficiary permitted by this subsection may only be 
made prior to the death of the prior designated beneficiary.
A.  The benefit payable to the recipient and the new beneficiary must be paid under the 
same payment option.  The amount of the recipient's benefit may not change, and the 
amount of the new beneficiary's benefit must be the same as the amount of the prior 
beneficiary's benefit.
B.  The effective date of the designation of the new beneficiary is the date the 
designation is received by the chief executive officer.  As of the first day of the month 
following the effective date of the designation of the new beneficiary, the prior 
beneficiary is no longer entitled to any benefit payment and, if concurrent payment 
under subsection 5‑B has been elected, the new beneficiary's benefit must become 
effective on the same date.
C.  The new beneficiary's entitlement to benefits ceases on the earlier of:
(1)  The date of the new beneficiary's death; and
(2)  The date established when the amount of the prior beneficiary's benefit was 
established, which is the initial commencement date of benefits to the retiree 
increased by the life expectancy of the prior beneficiary computed in years and 
months using actuarial equivalence assumptions recommended by the system's 
actuary.
Payment of benefits to the new beneficiary must cease as of the first day of the month 
following the earlier of subparagraphs (1) and (2).
D.  A recipient who exercises a one-time option under this subsection may revert back 
to the original designated beneficiary, who will be treated as the new beneficiary for 
purposes of paragraphs A to C.
Sec. A-7.  5 MRSA §18404, sub-§5-F, as amended by PL 2021, c. 548, §41, is 
further amended to read:
5-F.  Change of beneficiary.  If the recipient of a service retirement benefit has elected 
an optional method of payment under subsection 3, 4, 5, 5‑A, 5‑B, 5‑C, 5‑D or 5‑E and has 
designated someone other than a spouse or ex-spouse as sole beneficiary, the recipient is 
permitted a one-time change in the designated beneficiary except as provided in paragraph 
D, but may not change the already elected payment option or the amount of the benefits 
under that option, by filing a written designation of the new beneficiary, duly 
acknowledged with the chief executive officer on a form provided or specified by the 
retirement system.  The change of beneficiary permitted by this subsection may only be 
made prior to the death of the prior designated beneficiary.
A.  The benefit payable to the recipient and the new beneficiary must be paid under the 
same payment option.  The amount of the recipient's benefit may not change, and the 
amount of the new beneficiary's benefit must be the same as the amount of the prior 
beneficiary's benefit.
B.  The effective date of the designation of the new beneficiary is the date the 
designation is received by the chief executive officer.  As of the first day of the month 
following the effective date of the designation of the new beneficiary, the prior 
beneficiary is no longer entitled to any benefit payment and, if concurrent payment 
under subsection 5‑B has been elected, the new beneficiary's benefit must become 
effective on the same date.
C.  The new beneficiary's entitlement to benefits ceases on the earlier of:
(1)  The date of the new beneficiary's death; or
(2)  The date established when the amount of the prior beneficiary's benefit was 
established, which is the initial commencement date of benefits to the retiree 
increased by the life expectancy of the prior beneficiary computed in years and 
months using actuarial equivalence assumptions recommended by the system's 
actuary.
Payment of benefits to the new beneficiary must cease as of the first day of the month 
following the earlier of subparagraphs (1) and (2).
D.  A recipient who exercises a one-time option under this subsection may revert back 
to the original designated beneficiary, who will be treated as the new beneficiary for 
purposes of paragraphs A to C.
Sec. A-8.  6 MRSA §205, sub-§7, as amended by PL 2009, c. 447, §4, is further 
amended to read:
7.  Evidence.  The drug concentration in the defendant's blood or the defendant's 
alcohol level at the time alleged, as shown by the chemical analysis of the defendant's 
blood, breath or urine or by results of a self-contained, breath-alcohol testing apparatus 
authorized by subsection 5, is admissible in evidence.
When a person, certified under subsection 5, conducts a chemical analysis of blood or 
breath to determine alcohol level, the person may issue a certificate stating the results of 
the analysis.  That certificate, when duly signed and sworn to by the certified person, is 
admissible in evidence in any court of the State.  It is prima facie evidence that the person 
taking a specimen of blood or urine was a person authorized by subsection 5; that the 
equipment, chemicals and other materials used in the taking of the blood or urine specimen 
or a breath sample were of a quality appropriate for the purpose of producing reliable test 
results; that any equipment, chemicals or materials required by subsection 5 to be approved 
by the Department of Health and Human Services were in fact approved; that the sample 
tested by the person certified under subsection 5 was in fact the same sample taken from 
the defendant; and that the drug concentration in the defendant's blood or the defendant's 
alcohol level was, at the time the blood or breath sample was taken, as stated in the 
certificate, unless, with 10 days' written notice to the prosecution, the defendant requests 
that a qualified witness testify as to any of the matters as to which the certificate constitutes 
prima facie evidence.  The notice must specify those matters concerning which the 
defendant requests testimony.
A person certified under subsection 5 as qualified to operate a self-contained, breath-
alcohol testing apparatus to determine the alcohol level may issue a certificate stating the 
results of the analysis.  That certificate, when duly signed and sworn to by the certified 
person, is admissible in evidence in any court of the State.  It is prima facie evidence that 
the defendant's alcohol level was, at the time the breath sample was taken, as stated in the 
certificate, unless, with 10 days' written notice to the prosecution, the defendant requests 
that the operator or other qualified witness testify as to the results of the analysis.
Transfer of sample specimens to and from a laboratory for purposes of analysis is must be 
by certified or registered mail and, when so made, is deemed to comply with all 
requirements regarding the continuity of custody of physical evidence.
The failure of a person to comply with the duty to submit to and complete a chemical test 
under section 204 is admissible in evidence on the issue of whether that person was under 
the influence of intoxicating liquor or drugs.  If the law enforcement officer having 
probable cause to believe that the person operated or attempted to operate an aircraft while 
under the influence of intoxicating liquor or drugs fails to give either of the warnings 
required under subsection 2, the failure of the person to comply with the duty to submit to 
a chemical test is not admissible, except when a test was required pursuant to subsection 
11.  If a failure to submit to and complete a chemical test is not admitted into evidence, the 
court may inform the jury of the fact that no test result is available.
If a test result is not available for a reason other than failing to comply with the duty to 
submit to and complete a chemical test, the unavailability and the reason are admissible in 
evidence.
Sec. A-9.  8 MRSA §272-C, sub-§1, as amended by PL 2025, c. 390, Pt. B, §5, is 
further amended to read:
1.  Establishment; deposits; rules.  A licensee conducting live racing in the State shall 
establish a trust account for the benefit of the persons who race horses at that licensee's 
facility.  Except as provided by subsection 3, funds Funds distributed to or retained by the 
licensee pursuant to sections 287, 289, 290, 292 and 298 and Title 7, section 91, less any 
administrative assessments pursuant to section 267‑A, that must be used to pay or 
supplement harness racing purses must be deposited in that account and used exclusively 
to pay harness racing purses.  The funds in a trust account established in accordance with 
this subsection are not considered to be property of the licensee, may not be pledged as 
security for the debts of the licensee and are not subject to attachment or execution by 
creditors of the licensee.  The commission may adopt rules governing the handling of trust 
accounts, providing for the reallocation of trust account funds to other licensed commercial 
tracks in the event that a track ceases operation or cancels a significant number of race 
days, as determined by the commission, and governing the handling of harness racing 
purses at any commercial track that does not have a contract with a statewide association 
of horse owners, trainers and drivers.  Rules adopted pursuant to this subsection are routine 
technical rules pursuant to Title 5, chapter 375, subchapter 2‑A.
Sec. A-10.  11 MRSA §2-103, sub-§(4) is amended to read:
(4).   In addition, Article 1 1-A contains general definitions and principles of 
construction and interpretation applicable throughout this Article.
Sec. A-11.  11 MRSA §2-1103, sub-§(4), as enacted by PL 1991, c. 805, §4, is 
amended to read:
(4).   In addition, Article 1 1-A contains general definitions and principles of 
construction and interpretation applicable throughout this Article.
Sec. A-12.  11 MRSA §3-1103, sub-§(4), as enacted by PL 1993, c. 293, Pt. A, §2, 
is amended to read:
(4).   In addition, Article 1 1-A contains general definitions and principles of 
construction and interpretation applicable throughout this Article.
Sec. A-13.  11 MRSA §4-104, sub-§(4) is amended to read:
(4).   In addition, Article 1 1-A contains general definitions and principles of 
construction and interpretation applicable throughout this Article.
Sec. A-14.  11 MRSA §4-1105, sub-§(4), as enacted by PL 1991, c. 812, §2, is 
amended to read:
(4).   In addition, Article 1 1-A contains general definitions and principles of 
construction and interpretation applicable throughout this Article.
Sec. A-15.  11 MRSA §5-1102, sub-§(3), as enacted by PL 1997, c. 429, Pt. A, §2 
and affected by §4, is amended to read:
(3).   Article 1 1-A contains certain additional general definitions and principles of 
construction and interpretation applicable throughout this Article.
Sec. A-16.  11 MRSA §7-1102, sub-§(3), as enacted by PL 2009, c. 324, Pt. A, §2 
and affected by §4, is amended to read:
(3).   In addition, Article 1 1-A contains general definitions and principles of 
construction and interpretation applicable throughout this Article.
Sec. A-17.  11 MRSA §8-1102, sub-§(3), as enacted by PL 1997, c. 429, Pt. B, §2, 
is amended to read:
(3).   In addition, Article 1 1-A contains general definitions and principles of 
construction and interpretation applicable throughout this Article.
Sec. A-18.  11 MRSA §9-1102, sub-§(72), ¶(f), as amended by PL 2013, c. 317, 
Pt. A, §7, is further amended to read:
(f).  A person that holds a security interest arising under section 2‑401, section 2‑505, 
section 2‑711, subsection (3), section 2‑1508, subsection (5), section 4‑210, or 5-118 
section 5-1118.
Sec. A-19.  11 MRSA §9-1102, last ¶, as enacted by PL 1999, c. 699, Pt. A, §2 and 
affected by §4, is amended to read:
Article 1 1-A contains general definitions and principles of construction and 
interpretation applicable throughout this Article.
Sec. A-20.  12 MRSA §11401, sub-§2, ¶C, as enacted by PL 2025, c. 333, §12, is 
amended to read:
C.  Establish a 2-day youth deer hunting period, to be held on the Friday and Saturday 
preceding the Saturday designated as an open day for residents of the State pursuant to 
this section 11401.
Sec. A-21.  14 MRSA §4426, first ¶, as amended by PL 2021, c. 382, §3, is further 
amended to read:
Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in 11 United States Code, Section 522(b), a 
debtor may exempt from property of the debtor's estate under 11 United States Code only 
that property exempt under 11 United States Code, Section 522(b)(3)(A) and (B), except 
that any debtor eligible for a residence exemption under section 4422, subsection 1, 
paragraph A-1 B may exempt the amount allowed in that paragraph.
Sec. A-22.  14 MRSA §6203-H, sub-§4, ¶A, as amended by PL 2025, c. 92, §4, 
is further amended to read:
A.  An option contract for the purchase of real property or rent-to-own real property 
may be terminated only pursuant to the eviction process set forth in chapter 709 if:
(1)  The vendor has entered into not more than one contract in any calendar year 
or 2 contracts in any 5-year period;
(2)  The option contract for the purchase of real property or rent-to-own real 
property does not require an initial payment of more than 4 times the monthly rent 
charged for the real property;
(3)  The option contract for the purchase of real property or rent-to-own real 
property requires the vendor to maintain the real property pursuant to the 
provisions of section 6021, unless a waiver pursuant to the provisions of section 
6021, subsection 5 has been entered into, the provisions of section 6021‑A and, if 
applicable, the provisions of Title 10, section 9099, unless a waiver pursuant to 
Title 10, section 9099, subsection 4 has been entered into; and
(4)  The vendor has otherwise complied with the requirements of this section.
Sec. A-23.  15 MRSA §3301, sub-§7, ¶B, as enacted by PL 2025, c. 431, §13, is 
amended to read:
B.  The criminal violation of operating a motor vehicle under the influence of 
intoxicating liquor or drugs or with an excessive alcohol level, as described under Title 
29-A, section 2411, and offenses defined in Title 29-A as Class B or C crimes.
Sec. A-24.  22 MRSA §1597-A, sub-§6, ¶A, as enacted by PL 1989, c. 573, §2, is 
amended by amending subparagraph (5) to read:
(5)  That, if the court does not grant the minor majority rights for the purpose of 
consent to the abortion, the court should find that the abortion is in the best interest 
of the minor and give judicial consent to the abortion; and
Sec. A-25.  22 MRSA §1597-A, sub-§6, ¶A, as enacted by PL 1989, c. 573, §2, is 
amended by reallocating subparagraph (7) to 22 MRSA §1597-A, sub-§6, ¶A, sub-¶6.
Sec. A-26.  22 MRSA §1715, sub-§1, as amended by PL 2017, c. 475, Pt. A, §29, 
is further amended to read:
1.  Access requirements.  Any person, including, but not limited to, an affiliated 
interest as defined in former section 396‑L, that is subject to the requirements of this 
subsection, shall provide the services listed in paragraph C to individuals who are eligible 
for charity care in accordance with a charity care policy adopted by the affiliate or provider 
that is consistent with rules applicable to hospitals under section 1716.  A person is subject 
to this subsection if that person:
A.  Is either a direct provider of major ambulatory service, as defined in former section 
382, subsection 8‑A, or is or has been required to obtain a certificate of need under 
section 329 or former section 304 or 304-A;
B.  Provides outpatient services as defined in former section 382, subsection 9‑A; and
C.  Provides one or more of the following services:
(1)  Imaging services, including, but not limited to, magnetic resonance imaging, 
computerized tomography, mammography and radiology.  For purposes of this 
section, imaging services do not include:
(a)  Screening procedures that are not related to the diagnosis or treatment of a 
specific condition; or
(b)  Services when:
(i)  The services are owned by a community health center, a physician or 
group of physicians;
(ii)  The services are offered solely to the patients of that center, physician 
or group of physicians; and
(iii)  Referrals for the purpose of performing those services are not 
accepted from other physicians;
(2)  Laboratory services performed by a hospital or by a medical laboratory 
licensed in accordance with the Maine Medical Laboratory Commission, or 
licensed by an equivalent out-of-state licensing authority, excluding those licensed 
laboratories owned by community health centers, a physician or group of 
physicians where the laboratory services are offered solely to the patients of that 
center, physician or group of physicians;
(3)  Cardiac diagnostic services, including, but not limited to, cardiac 
catheterization and angiography but excluding electrocardiograms and 
electrocardiograph stress testing;
(4)  Lithotripsy services;
(5)  Services provided by free-standing ambulatory surgery facilities certified to 
participate in the Medicare program; or
(6)  Any other service performed in an out-patient setting requiring the purchase 
of medical equipment costing in the aggregate $500,000 or more and for which the 
charge per unit of service is $250 or more.
Sec. A-27.  22 MRSA §1715, sub-§1, as amended by PL 2025, c. 488, §1 and 
affected by §8, is further amended to read:
1.  Access requirements.  Any person, including, but not limited to, an affiliated 
interest as defined in former section 396‑L, that is subject to the requirements of this 
subsection, shall provide the services listed in paragraph C to individuals who are eligible 
for charity care in accordance with a charity care policy adopted by the affiliate or provider 
that is consistent with requirements applicable to hospitals under section 1716‑A and any 
rules adopted pursuant to section 1716‑A.  A person is subject to this subsection if that 
person:
A.  Is either a direct provider of major ambulatory service, as defined in former section 
382, subsection 8‑A, or is or has been required to obtain a certificate of need under 
section 329 or former section 304 or 304-A;
B.  Provides outpatient services as defined in former section 382, subsection 9‑A; and
C.  Provides one or more of the following services:
(1)  Imaging services, including, but not limited to, magnetic resonance imaging, 
computerized tomography, mammography and radiology.  For purposes of this 
section, imaging services do not include:
(a)  Screening procedures that are not related to the diagnosis or treatment of a 
specific condition; or
(b)  Services when:
(i)  The services are owned by a community health center, a physician or 
group of physicians;
(ii)  The services are offered solely to the patients of that center, physician 
or group of physicians; and
(iii)  Referrals for the purpose of performing those services are not 
accepted from other physicians;
(2)  Laboratory services performed by a hospital or by a medical laboratory 
licensed by the department or licensed by an equivalent out-of-state licensing 
authority, excluding those licensed laboratories owned by community health 
centers, by a physician or by a group of physicians at which the laboratory services 
are offered solely to the patients of that center, physician or group of physicians;
(3)  Cardiac diagnostic services, including, but not limited to, cardiac 
catheterization and angiography but excluding electrocardiograms and 
electrocardiograph stress testing;
(4)  Lithotripsy services;
(5)  Services provided by free-standing ambulatory surgery facilities certified to 
participate in the Medicare program; or
(6)  Any other service performed in an out-patient setting requiring the purchase 
of medical equipment costing in the aggregate $500,000 or more and for which the 
charge per unit of service is $250 or more.
Sec. A-28.  Effective date. That section of this Part that amends the Maine Revised 
Statutes, Title 22, section 1715, subsection 1, as amended by Public Law 2025, chapter 
488, section 1 and affected by section 8, takes effect July 1, 2026.
Sec. A-29.  22 MRSA §2842, sub-§2-A, as amended by PL 2009, c. 601, §25 and 
PL 2025, c. 316, §3, is further amended to read:
2-A.  Medical certification.  Notwithstanding subsection 2, with respect to a person 
who dies within the State naturally and for whom the physician, nurse practitioner or 
physician associate was the attending health care provider, the medical certification of the 
cause of death may be completed and signed by a physician, nurse practitioner or physician 
associate authorized to practice at the United States Department of Veterans Affairs at 
Togus or at another federal medical facility within the State or by a physician, an advanced 
practice registered nurse or physician associate licensed to practice in New Hampshire, 
Vermont or Massachusetts who, at the request of the Chief Medical Examiner, is willing 
to do so.
Sec. A-30.  22 MRSA §2843, 2nd ¶, as amended by PL 2023, c. 676, §11, is further 
amended to read:
The State Registrar of Vital Statistics or a municipal clerk may issue a permit for final 
disposition by cremation, burial at sea, use by medical science, natural organic reduction 
or removal from the State only upon receipt of a certificate by a duly appointed medicolegal 
death investigator or medical examiner as specified in section 2900-A, subsection 8 or Title 
32, section 1405 or section 2900‑A, subsection 8.
Sec. A-31.  22 MRSA §7802, sub-§1-A, as amended by PL 2023, c. 405, Pt. A, 
§78, is further amended to read:
1-A.  Consolidation of functions.  All staff performing general licensing functions 
within the Office of Child and Family Services, including the out-of-home abuse and 
neglect investigating team when investigating pursuant to section 8354 4099-L, subsection 
2, paragraph C, are consolidated as a single organizational unit.
Sec. A-32.  24-A MRSA §1443-A, sub-§1, ¶A, as enacted by PL 1997, c. 457, 
§23 and affected by §55, is amended by amending subparagraph (4) to read:
(4)  An insurer or insurance producer or consultant utilizing space in the retail area 
of a financial institution or credit union authorized to do business in this State or 
of a financial institution holding company or an institution listed in subparagraph 
(1) in order to engage in the transaction of insurance when payments for use of the 
space are made to the that institution pursuant to a space-sharing agreement based 
directly or indirectly upon a percentage of the volume of business conducted by 
the insurer, insurance agent, broker or consultant.
Sec. A-33.  24-A MRSA §2003, sub-§7, ¶A, as enacted by PL 2011, c. 331, §3 
and affected by §§16 and 17, is amended by amending subparagraph (2) to read:
(2)  If 100% of the insured risk is located out of the state referred to in subparagraph 
(1), the state to which the greatest percentage of the insured's taxable premium 
for that insurance contract is allocated; or
Sec. A-34.  25 MRSA §2803-B, sub-§1, ¶O, as amended by PL 2025, c. 219, §2 
and c. 344, §2, is repealed and the following enacted in its place:
O.  By January 1, 2024, the confidentiality of attorney-client communications, which 
must include, at a minimum, processes to protect and ensure confidentiality of 
attorney‑client communications and processes to be followed in the event that there is 
a breach of attorney‑client confidentiality;
Sec. A-35.  25 MRSA §2803-B, sub-§1, ¶P, as enacted by PL 2025, c. 219, §3, is 
amended to read:
P.  By January 1, 2026, requirements for the law enforcement agency to assist a 
prosecuting agency in complying with the prosecuting agency's constitutional 
obligations under Brady v. Maryland, 373 U.S. 83 (1963) and Giglio v. United States, 
U.S. 150 (1972); and
Sec. A-36.  25 MRSA §2803-B, sub-§1, ¶P, as enacted by PL 2025, c. 344, §3, is 
reallocated to 25 MRSA §2803-B, sub-§1, ¶R.
Sec. A-37.  25 MRSA §2803-B, sub-§1, ¶Q, as enacted by PL 2025, c. 219, §4, is 
amended to read:
Q.  By January 1, 2026, requirements for the law enforcement agency to comply with 
mandatory disclosures to the Maine Criminal Justice Academy.; and
Sec. A-38.  26 MRSA §683, sub-§5, ¶B, as amended by PL 2019, c. 627, Pt. B, 
§7; PL 2021, c. 669, §5; and PL 2025, c. 316, §3, is further amended to read:
B.  In the case of an employee, have a blood sample taken from the employee by a 
licensed physician, licensed physician associate, registered nurse or a person certified 
by the Department of Health and Human Services to draw blood samples.  The 
employer shall have this sample tested for the presence of alcohol or cannabis 
metabolites, if those substances are to be tested for under the employer's written policy.  
If the employee requests that a blood sample be taken as provided in this paragraph, 
the employer may not test any other sample from the employee for the presence of 
these substances.
(1)  The Department of Health and Human Services may identify, by rules adopted 
under section 687, other substances for which an employee may request that a 
blood sample, instead of a urine sample, be tested instead of a urine sample if the 
department determines that a sufficient correlation exists between the presence of 
the substance in an individual's blood and its effect upon the individual's 
performance.
(2)  An employer may not require, request or suggest that any employee or 
applicant provide a blood sample for substance use testing purposes nor may any 
employer conduct a substance use test upon a blood sample except as provided in 
this paragraph.
(3)  Applicants do not have the right to require the employer to test a blood sample 
as provided in this paragraph.
Sec. A-39.  26 MRSA §1192-A, sub-§1, ¶C, as enacted by PL 2025, c. 235, §11, 
is amended by amending subparagraph (5) to read:
(5)  The unemployed individual is performing either a military or civil duty as 
required by law; and or
Sec. A-40.  26 MRSA §2066, sub-§1, ¶F, as enacted by PL 2025, c. 396, §12, is 
amended to read:
F.  Conduct outreach to communities with disproportionately low enrollment in 
unemployment insurance and reemployment assistance.  The program shall provide 
individual assistance, education and referrals for individuals applying for and making 
ongoing claims for unemployment compensation, including offering assistance 
connecting with department staff and coaching on self-advocacy for claimants 
experiencing barriers to services.  The program shall inform individuals about 
provisions of law that may assist low-income and frequently unemployed individuals 
disproportionately, including the dislocated worker benefits program under section 
1043 1196, subsection 5, paragraph B 1-A and section 1191, subsection 4, paragraph 
A, partial unemployment benefits and reemployment services; and
Sec. A-41.  30-A MRSA §4326, sub-§3-A, as amended by PL 2025, c. 388, Pt. D, 
§34 and repealed by c. 393, §34, is repealed.
Sec. A-42.  30-A MRSA §4326, sub-§3-B, ¶D, as enacted by PL 2025, c. 393, 
§34, is amended to read:
D.  A future land use plan is not required to identify growth areas within the 
municipality or multimunicipal region for residential, commercial or industrial growth 
if the municipality or multimunicipal region demonstrates, in its comprehensive plan 
and in accordance with rules adopted by the department pursuant to this article, that:
(1)  It is not possible to accommodate future residential, commercial or industrial 
growth within the municipality or multimunicipal region because of severe 
physical limitations, including, without limitation, the lack of adequate water 
supply and sewage disposal services, very shallow soils or limitations imposed by 
protected natural resources;
(2)  The municipality or multimunicipal region has experienced minimal or no 
residential, commercial or industrial development over the past decade and this 
condition is expected to continue over the 10-year planning period; or
(3)  The municipality or multimunicipal region has no downtown or densely 
developed area.
A municipality or multimunicipal region exercising the discretion afforded by this 
paragraph shall review the basis for its demonstration during the periodic revisions 
undertaken pursuant to Title 5, section 4347‑A 3233.
Sec. A-43.  30-A MRSA §4346, as repealed by PL 2025, c. 388, Pt. D, §35 and 
amended by c. 393, §§35 and 36, is repealed.
Sec. A-44.  30-A MRSA §4347-A, as repealed by PL 2025, c. 388, Pt. D, §35 and 
amended by c. 393, §§37 to 44, is repealed.
Sec. A-45.  30-A MRSA §4364, sub-§2, as amended by PL 2025, c. 385, §4 and 
affected by §23 and amended by c. 388, Pt. D, §36, is repealed and the following enacted 
in its place:
2.  Density requirements.  A municipality shall allow an affordable housing 
development where multifamily dwellings are allowed to have a dwelling unit density of 
at least 2 1/2 times the base density that is otherwise allowed in that location and may not 
require more than 2 off-street parking spaces for every 3 units.  The development must be 
in a designated growth area of a municipality consistent with Title 5, section 3234, 
subsection 1, paragraph A or B or the development must be served by a public, special 
district or other centrally managed water system and a public, special district or other 
comparable sewer system.  The development must comply with minimum lot size 
requirements in accordance with Title 12, chapter 423‑A, as applicable.
Sec. A-46.  30-A MRSA §4364-A, sub-§1, as repealed and replaced by PL 2025, 
c. 385, §7 and affected by §23 and amended by c. 388, Pt. D, §37, is repealed and the 
following enacted in its place:
1.  Use allowed.  Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, except Title 
12, chapter 423‑A, for any area in which residential uses are allowed, including as a 
conditional use, a municipality shall allow at a minimum:
A.  Three dwelling units, attached or detached, including accessory dwelling units, per 
lot; and
B.  Four dwelling units, attached or detached, including accessory dwelling units, per 
lot if the lot is located in a designated growth area within a municipality consistent with 
Title 5, section 3234, subsection 1, paragraph A or B or served by a public, special 
district or other centrally managed water system and a public, special district or other 
comparable sewer system.
A municipality may allow more units than the minimum number required by this 
subsection.
Sec. A-47.  30-A MRSA §4364-E, sub-§6, as enacted by PL 2025, c. 364, §2 and 
reallocated by RR 2025, c. 1, Pt. A, §42, is amended to read:
6.  Rulemaking.  The state agency responsible for administering the Housing 
Opportunity Program established in Title 5, section 13056-J 3241 may adopt rules to 
administer and enforce this section.  Rules adopted pursuant to this subsection are routine 
technical rules as defined in Title 5, chapter 375, subchapter 2‑A.
Sec. A-48.  32 MRSA §3270-G, sub-§4, as enacted by PL 2019, c. 627, Pt. B, §17 
and amended by PL 2025, c. 316, §3, is further amended to read:
4.  Consultation.  A physician associate shall, as indicated by a patient's condition, the 
education, competencies and experience of the physician associate and the standards of 
care, consult with, collaborate with or refer the patient to an appropriate physician or other 
health care professional. The level of consultation required under this subsection is 
determined by the practice setting, including a physician employer, physician group 
practice, or private practice, or by the system of credentialing and granting of privileges of 
a health care facility. A physician must shall be accessible to the physician associate at all 
times 
for 
consultation. 
Consultation 
may 
occur 
electronically 
or 
through 
telecommunication and includes communication, task sharing and education among all 
members of a health care team.
Sec. A-49.  34-B MRSA §3012, sub-§3, as enacted by PL 2025, c. 349, §1, is 
amended to read:
3.  Access to state mental health institute records.  In addition to the agency's 
authority to access records under Title 5, chapter 511 and notwithstanding subsection 
section 1207, the agency contracted under subsection 2 may access medical records of 
individuals with serious mental illness who are hospitalized in a state mental health institute 
as defined in section 3801, subsection 9 when necessary to provide advocacy services as 
authorized under Title 5.
Sec. A-50.  34-B MRSA §3801, sub-§4-A, ¶D, as enacted by PL 2009, c. 651, §4, 
is amended to read:
D.  For the purposes of section 3873‑A, in view of the person's treatment history, 
current behavior and inability to make an informed decision, a reasonable likelihood 
that the person's mental health will deteriorate and that the person will in the 
foreseeable future pose a likelihood of serious harm as defined in paragraphs paragraph 
A, B or C.
Sec. A-51.  36 MRSA §1545, first ¶, as amended by PL 2025, c. 113, Pt. D, §81, 
is further amended to read:
All timber and grass acreage forfeited under section 1544 must be held in trust by the 
State for the benefit of the people of Maine and must be held by the Director of the Bureau 
of Parks and Lands within the Department of Agriculture, Conservation and Forestry 
subject to the same powers and responsibilities as apply to other lands in the director's 
custody.
Sec. A-52.  36 MRSA §1546, first ¶, as repealed and replaced by PL 1975, c. 339, 
§16 and amended by PL 1995, c. 502, Pt. E, §30, PL 2011, c. 657, Pt. W, §7 and PL 2013, 
c. 405, Pt. A, §24, is further amended to read:
The Director of the Bureau of Parks and Lands within the Department of Agriculture, 
Conservation and Forestry shall cause a division to be made, if found necessary from time 
to time, of the public reserved lots which that have been partially forfeited, and shall set off 
and hold the forfeited portions for the benefit of the people of Maine, as provided for in 
section 1545.
Sec. A-53.  36 MRSA §4365-F, as amended by PL 2025, c. 367, §§16 and 17 and 
affected by §20 and repealed by c. 388, Pt. E, §2 and affected by §6, is repealed.
Sec. A-54.  38 MRSA §3107, sub-§1, as amended by PL 2025, c. 241, §5, is further 
amended to read:
1.  Commingling requirement.  If initiators of deposit enter into a commingling 
agreement pursuant to this section, commingling of beverage containers must be by all 
containers of like deposit value, product group, material and size.  Initiators of deposit may 
not require dealers or redemption centers to further sort containers that belong to the 
commingling group.  This subsection does not prevent further commingling of containers 
if requested by the responsible commingling group or the cooperative.  An initiator of 
deposit required pursuant to section 3106, subsection 8 or 8‑A to pick up beverage 
containers subject to a commingling agreement also shall pick up all other beverage 
containers subject to the same agreement.  A dealer or redemption center that processes 
beverage containers using a reverse vending machine or account-based bulk processing 
program is not required to sort material by color, in accordance with subsection 2, 
paragraphs E to H, deposit value or size but must comply with the requirements of section 
3106, subsection 6.
Sec. A-55.  38 MRSA §3113, first ¶, as amended by PL 2023, c. 482, §32, is further 
amended to read:
A license issued annually by the department is required before any person may initiate 
deposits under section 3103, operate a redemption center under section 3109 or act as a 
contracted agent for the collection of beverage containers under section 3106, subsection 8 
or 8‑A.
Sec. A-56.  39-A MRSA §309, sub-§3, as corrected by RR 2025, c. 1, Pt. B, §10, 
is amended to read:
3.  Witnesses; discovery.  All witnesses must be sworn.  Sworn written evidence may 
not be admitted unless the author is available for cross-examination or subject to subpoena; 
except that sworn statements by a medical doctor or osteopathic physician relating to 
medical questions, by a psychologist relating to psychological questions, by a chiropractor 
relating to chiropractic questions, by a certified nurse practitioner who qualifies as an 
advanced practice registered nurse relating to advanced practice registered nursing 
questions or by a physician associate relating to physician assistance questions pertaining 
to the business of a physician associate are admissible in workers' compensation hearings 
only if notice of the testimony to be used is given and service of a copy of the letter or 
report is made on the opposing counsel 14 days before the scheduled hearing.
Depositions or subpoenas of health care practitioners who have submitted sworn written 
evidence are permitted only if the administrative law judge finds that the testimony is 
sufficiently important to outweigh the delay in the proceeding.
The board may establish procedures for the prefiling of summaries of the testimony of any 
witness in written form.  In all proceedings before the board or its designee, discovery 
beyond that specified in this section is available only upon application to the board, which 
may approve the application in the exercise of its discretion.
Sec. A-57.  39-A MRSA §309, sub-§4, as enacted by PL 1991, c. 885, Pt. A, §8 
and affected by §§9 to 11, is amended to read:
4.  Contempts before board.  A person may not, in proceedings before the board: 
disobey or resist any lawful order, process or writ; misbehave during a hearing or so near 
the place of hearing as to obstruct the hearing; neglect to produce, after having been ordered 
to do so, any pertinent document; or refuse to appear after having been subpoenaed or, upon 
appearing, refuse to be examined according to law.
If any person violates this subsection, the board shall certify the facts to a Justice of the 
Superior Court in the county where the alleged offense occurred and the justice may serve 
or cause to be served on that person an order requiring that person to appear before the 
justice on a day certain to show cause why the person should not be adjudged in contempt 
by reason of the facts so certified. The justice shall, upon the appearance of that person, in 
a summary manner, hear the evidence as to the acts complained of and, if it is such as to 
warrant doing so, punish that person in the same manner and to the same extent as for a 
contempt committed before the justice, or commit that person on the same conditions as if 
the doing of the forbidden act had occurred with reference to the process of the Superior 
Court or in the presence of the justice.
Emergency clause.  In view of the emergency cited in the preamble, this legislation 
takes effect when approved, except as otherwise indicated.
SUMMARY
Part A does the following.
Section 1 removes an obsolete cross-reference and makes a technical correction.
Section 2 makes a technical correction.
Section 3 corrects a cross-reference.
Section 4 corrects a cross-reference and makes a technical correction.
Section 5 corrects a cross-reference and makes a technical correction.
Section 6 removes an obsolete cross-reference.
Section 7 removes an obsolete cross-reference.
Section 8 makes grammatical changes.
Section 9 removes an obsolete cross-reference.
Section 10 corrects a cross-reference and makes a grammatical change.
Section 11 corrects a cross-reference.
Section 12 corrects a cross-reference and makes a grammatical change.
Section 13 corrects a cross-reference.
Section 14 corrects a cross-reference.
Section 15 corrects a cross-reference.
Section 16 corrects a cross-reference.
Section 17 corrects a cross-reference.
Section 18 corrects a cross-reference and makes technical corrections.
Section 19 corrects a cross-reference.
Section 20 makes a technical correction.
Section 21 corrects a cross-reference.
Section 22 corrects a clerical error.
Section 23 corrects a clerical error.
Sections 24 and 25 correct a clerical error and make a technical correction.
Sections 26, 27 and 28 make grammatical changes.
Section 29 makes a grammatical change.
Section 30 corrects a cross-reference.
Section 31 corrects a cross-reference.
Section 32 corrects a clerical error.
Section 33 makes a technical correction.
Section 34 corrects a conflict created by Public Law 2025, chapters 219 and 344, which 
affected the same provision of law, by repealing the provision and replacing it with the 
chapter 219 version.
Section 35 makes a technical correction.
Section 36 corrects a lettering problem created by Public Law 2025, chapters 219 and 
344, which enacted 2 substantively different provisions with the same paragraph letter.
Section 37 makes a technical correction.
Section 38 makes grammatical changes.
Section 39 makes a technical correction.
Section 40 corrects a cross-reference.
Section 41 corrects a conflict created by Public Law 2025, chapters 388 and 393, which 
affected the same provision of law, by repealing the provision.
Section 42 corrects a cross-reference.
Section 43 corrects a conflict created by Public Law 2025, chapters 388 and 393, which 
affected the same provision of law, by repealing the provision.
Section 44 corrects a conflict created by Public Law 2025, chapters 388 and 393, which 
affected the same provision of law, by repealing the provision.
Section 45 corrects a conflict created by Public Law 2025, chapters 385 and 388, which 
affected the same provision of law, by repealing the provision and replacing it with the 
chapter 388 version.
Section 46 corrects a conflict created by Public Law 2025, chapters 385 and 388, which 
affected the same provision of law, by incorporating the changes made by both laws.
Section 47 corrects a cross-reference.
Section 48 makes a technical correction and a grammatical change.
Section 49 corrects a cross-reference.
Section 50 makes a grammatical change.
Section 51 corrects a reference to the Director of the Bureau of Parks and Lands within 
the Department of Agriculture, Conservation and Forestry.
Section 52 corrects a reference to the Director of the Bureau of Parks and Lands within 
the Department of Agriculture, Conservation and Forestry and makes a grammatical 
change.
Section 53 corrects a conflict created by Public Law 2025, chapters 367 and 388, which 
affected the same provision of law, by repealing the provision.
Section 54 removes an obsolete cross-reference.
Section 55 removes an obsolete cross-reference.
Section 56 modifies a provision to reflect the intent of the revision clause in Public 
Law 2025, chapter 316, section 3 by replacing a phrase that was based on the term 
"physician assistant."
Section 57 corrects a clerical error.