An Act To Correct Errors and Inconsistencies in the Laws of Maine
Maine Legislature, Session 128, LD 1894
Committee: Judiciary
Amends: 4 MRSA §1610-J, 4 MRSA §1610-K, 4 MRSA §1805, 5 MRSA §1660-D, 5 MRSA §1812-D, 5 MRSA §13070-J, 5 MRSA §18653-A, 7 MRSA §2442, 7 MRSA §2447, 7 MRSA §2902-A, 8 MRSA §263-A, 8 MRSA §271, 8 MRSA §276-B, 8 MRSA §1003, 10 MRSA §1023-J, 10 MRSA §1602, 10 MRSA §8001-A, 11 MRSA §10, 12 MRSA §541-A, 12 MRSA §10853, 12 MRSA §10953, 12 MRSA §11154, 15 MRSA §393, 17 MRSA §2276, 20-A MRSA §1051, 20-A MRSA §6051, 21-A MRSA §1001, 22 MRSA §1471-C, 22 MRSA §1715, 22 MRSA §2842, 22 MRSA §2942, 22 MRSA §2843-A, 22 MRSA §3022, 22 MRSA §3023-A, 22 MRSA §3028, 22 MRSA §3028-C, 22 MRSA §3782-A, 22 MRSA §8302-B, 23 MRSA §244-A, 24-A MRSA §2546, 24-A MRSA §4551, 24-A MRSA §6304, 25 MRSA §1542-A, 26 MRSA §938, 26 MRSA §1192, 26 MRSA §1198, 29-A MRSA §201, 29-A MRSA §1405, 30-A MRSA §701, 32 MRSA §91-B, 32 MRSA §1202-A, 32 MRSA §2180, 32 MRSA §6214-D, 32 MRSA §7054-A, 32 MRSA §18515, 33 MRSA §479-C, 34-B MRSA §1207, 35-A MRSA §7104-C, 36 MRSA §191, 36 MRSA §691, 36 MRSA §2903, 36 MRSA §3203, 36 MRSA §3208, 36 MRSA §5219-Q, 36 MRSA §5283-A, 37-B MRSA §3, 37-B MRSA §851, 38 MRSA §469, 38 MRSA §1362

Legislative Document
No. 1894
H.P. 1327
House of Representatives, March 29, 2018
An Act To Correct Errors and Inconsistencies in the Laws of Maine
(EMERGENCY)
Reported by Representative MOONEN of Portland for the Revisor of Statutes pursuant to 
the Maine Revised Statutes, Title 1, section 94.
Reference to the Committee on Judiciary suggested and ordered printed pursuant to Joint 
Rule 218.
ROBERT B. HUNT
Clerk
Emergency preamble. Whereas, acts and resolves of the Legislature do not 
become effective until 90 days after adjournment unless enacted as emergencies; and 
Whereas, acts of this and previous Legislatures have resulted in certain technical 
errors and inconsistencies in the laws of Maine; and 
Whereas, these errors and inconsistencies create uncertainties and confusion in 
interpreting legislative intent; and 
Whereas, it is vitally necessary that these uncertainties and this confusion be 
resolved in order to prevent any injustice or hardship to the citizens of Maine; and 
Whereas, in the judgment of the Legislature, these facts create an emergency within 
the meaning of the Constitution of Maine and require the following legislation as 
immediately necessary for the preservation of the public peace, health and safety; now, 
therefore, 
Be it enacted by the People of the State of Maine as follows: 
Sec. 1.  4 MRSA §1610-J, as enacted by PL 2017, c. 284, Pt. FF, §1 and 
reallocated by c. 288, Pt. A, §2, is reallocated to 4 MRSA §1610-K. 
Sec. 2.  4 MRSA §1805, sub-§7, ¶B-1, as enacted by PL 2017, c. 284, Pt. 
UUUU, §11, is amended to read: 
B-1.  A monthly report on the number of cases opened, the number of vouchers 
submitted, the amount of vouchers paid, the amount of payments to contract counsel, 
the number of requests for professional services, the amount of payments for 
professional services and information on any complaints made against assigned or 
contract counsel; and 
Sec. 3.  5 MRSA §1660-D, sub-§4, ¶D, as enacted by PL 1995, c. 402, Pt. C, §2, 
is amended to read: 
D.  Is not exclusively a health care facility within the meaning of Title 22, former 
section 382, subsection 6. 
Sec. 4.  5 MRSA §1812-D, as enacted by PL 1989, c. 585, Pt. C, §3 and amended 
by PL 2011, c. 657, Pt. W, §5, is amended to read: 
§1812-D.  Coordination of procurement information and policies 
The Bureau of Purchases shall coordinate with the Department of Transportation, the 
Department of Agriculture, Conservation and Forestry, and the Department of 
Environmental Protection and the Office of Waste Reduction and Recycling to develop a 
central data base database of information including, but not limited to, procurement 
policies, market information, technical data and demonstration project results.  This data 
shall must be compiled annually and provided to local public agencies by the Office of 
Waste Reduction and Recycling Department of Environmental Protection. 
Sec. 5.  5 MRSA §13070-J, sub-§4, ¶A, as repealed by PL 2017, c. 211, Pt. E, §1 
and amended by c. 264, §11, is repealed. 
Sec. 6.  5 MRSA §18653-A, as enacted by PL 2017, c. 88, §35, is amended to 
read: 
§18653-A.  Funds 
All assets in the group life insurance program may be combined for investment 
purposes.  The assets attributable to employers of participating local district participants 
in the group life insurance program may not be combined with the assets attributable to 
other group life insurance participants for benefit purposes.  Premiums for retiree group 
life insurance coverage under section 18061 18661, subsection 2, and interest and 
dividends attributable to those premiums, may not be used to provide benefits for 
participants who are not retirees. 
Sec. 7.  7 MRSA §2442, sub-§22, as amended by PL 2017, c. 1, §2, is further 
amended to read: 
22.  Marijuana.  "Marijuana" means the leaves, stems, flowers and seeds of all 
species of the plant genus cannabis Cannabis, whether growing or not. 
Sec. 8.  7 MRSA §2442, sub-§22-A, as enacted by PL 2017, c. 1, §3, is amended 
to read: 
22-A.  Marijuana concentrate.  "Marijuana concentrate" means the resin extracted 
from any part of the plant genus cannabis Cannabis and every compound, manufacture, 
salt, derivative, mixture or preparation from such resin, including hashish.  In determining 
the weight of marijuana concentrate, the weight of any other ingredient combined with 
marijuana to prepare a marijuana product may not be included. 
Sec. 9.  7 MRSA §2447, sub-§2, as enacted by IB 2015, c. 5, §1, is amended to 
read: 
2.  Investigation of qualifications.  In investigating the qualifications of an applicant 
or a licensee, the state licensing authority and municipality may have access to criminal 
history record information furnished by a law enforcement agency subject to any 
restrictions imposed by that agency.  In the event the state licensing authority or 
municipality considers the applicant's criminal history record, the state licensing authority 
or municipality shall also consider any information provided by the applicant regarding 
such criminal history record, including, but not limited to, evidence of rehabilitation, 
character references and educational achievements, especially those items pertaining to 
the time between the applicant's last criminal conviction and the consideration of the 
application for a license. 
At the time of filing an application for issuance of a retail marijuana establishment or 
retail marijuana social club license, an applicant shall submit a set of the applicant's 
fingerprints and personal history information concerning the applicant's qualifications for 
a license on forms prepared by the state licensing authority.  The state licensing authority 
shall submit the fingerprints and the municipality may forward fingerprints to the State 
Bureau of Investigation Identification for criminal history background information.  The 
state licensing authority shall also forward the fingerprints to the Federal Bureau of 
Investigation for the purpose of conducting a federal fingerprint-based criminal history 
record check.  The state licensing authority may acquire a name-based criminal history 
record check for an applicant or a licensee who has twice submitted to a fingerprint-based 
criminal history record check and whose fingerprints are unclassifiable.  An applicant 
who has previously submitted fingerprints for state licensing purposes may request that 
the fingerprints on file be used.  The state licensing authority shall use the information 
resulting from the fingerprint-based criminal history record check to investigate and 
determine whether an applicant is qualified to hold a license pursuant to this chapter.  The 
state licensing authority or municipality may verify any of the information an applicant is 
required to submit. 
Sec. 10.  7 MRSA §2902-A, sub-§3, as corrected by RR 1999, c. 1, §4, is 
amended to read: 
3.  Permit granted; requirements; suspension.  A permit must be granted upon the 
express condition that the permittee at all times conducts the operation and maintains the 
facilities in accordance with the requirements of state law and any rules adopted under 
this chapter.  Any violation that results in a health or safety hazard may lead to 
suspension of a permit in accordance with Title 5, chapter 375, section 10004 for a period 
of up to 30 days.  A suspension or revocation of a permit for longer than 30 days, or a 
refusal to renew a permit, must be in accordance with Title 5, chapter 375, subchapter V 
5. 
Sec. 11.  8 MRSA §263-A, sub-§1, ¶E, as enacted by PL 1997, c. 528, §6, is 
amended to read: 
E.    The procedures and standards for setting racing race dates; and 
Sec. 12.  8 MRSA §271, sub-§1, as amended by PL 2017, c. 231, §8, is further 
amended to read: 
1.  Licensing.  If the commission is satisfied that all of this chapter and rules 
prescribed by the commission have been substantially complied with during the past year 
and will be fully complied with during the coming year by the person, association or 
corporation applying for a license; that the applicant, its members, directors, officers, 
shareholders, employees, creditors and associates are of good moral character; that the 
applicant is financially responsible; and that the award of racing race dates to the 
applicant is appropriate under the criteria contained in subsection 2, it may issue a license 
for the holding of harness horse races or meets for public exhibition with pari-mutuel 
pools, which must expire on December 31st.  The fee for a license is $100 or $10 per 
week, whichever is higher.  The commission shall make available harness racing laws 
and rules and relevant portions of the Maine Administrative Procedure Act to every initial 
licensee.  The license must set forth the name of the licensee, the place where the races or 
race meets are to be held and the specific race dates and time of day or night during 
which racing may be conducted by the licensee.  If the commission determines that the 
location where a commercial track is licensed to conduct races is unavailable, it may 
permit a licensee to transfer its license to another location.  The substitute location and 
the races conducted there by the licensee must be conducted in accordance with this 
chapter.  A license issued pursuant to this subsection is not transferable or assignable.  
The District Court Judge, as designated in Title 4, chapter 5, may revoke any license 
issued at any time for violation of the commission's rules or licensing provisions upon 
notice and hearing.  The license is automatically revoked, subject to Title 5, chapter 375, 
upon a change in ownership, legal or equitable, of 50% or more of the voting stock of the 
licensee; the licensee may not hold a harness horse race or meet for public exhibition 
without a new license. 
Sec. 13.  8 MRSA §276-B, as amended by PL 2017, c. 231, §19, is further 
amended to read: 
§276-B.  Commercial track ceases operation; entitled to funds 
Other than funds used exclusively to pay harness racing purses, a commercial track 
that ceases operation is entitled to distribution of all funds maintained by the State under 
this chapter based on the number of race days conducted by that commercial track up to 
and including the final racing race date conducted by that commercial track.  Payments 
due from a commercial track that ceases operation to any in-state commercial track, 
agricultural fair or off-track wagering licensee must be made from the funds under this 
section prior to distribution to the commercial track that has ceased operation. 
Sec. 14.  8 MRSA §1003, sub-§5, as enacted by PL 2017, c. 284, Pt. IIIII, §1 and 
c. 303, §1, is repealed and the following enacted in its place: 
5.  Additional duties of the director.  The director also serves as the director of the 
Gambling Control Unit, established as a bureau within the Department of Public Safety 
under Title 25, section 2902, subsection 12.  As director of the unit, the director shall 
administer and enforce the laws governing fantasy contests under chapter 33 and beano 
and games of chance under Title 17, chapters 13-A and 62, respectively. 
Sec. 15.  10 MRSA §1023-J, first ¶, as amended by PL 2011, c. 380, Pt. OOO, 
§1 and c. 657, Pt. W, §6, is further amended to read: 
The Agricultural Marketing Loan Fund, referred to in this section as the "fund," is 
created.  The fund must be deposited with and maintained by the Finance Authority of 
Maine.  The fund must be administered by the Commissioner of Agriculture, 
Conservation and Forestry in accordance with Title 7, chapter 101, subchapter 1-D.  All 
money received by the Finance Authority of Maine from any source for the development 
and implementation of an improved agricultural marketing loan program must be credited 
to the fund.  Any money credited to the fund from the issuance of bonds on behalf of the 
State for financing loans for agricultural enterprises may be used only for the following 
purposes:  to provide assistance to agricultural enterprises in this State for the design, 
construction or improvement of commodity and storage buildings and packing and 
marketing facilities; for the purchase, construction or renovation of buildings, equipment, 
docks, wharves, piers or vessels used in connection with a commercial agricultural 
enterprise; for the purchase of land in connection with development of new cranberry 
acreage; for the purchase of land for irrigation reservoirs or to provide direct access to 
water for irrigation; for the purchase of land necessary for the start-up of a new 
agricultural enterprise; for the expansion of an existing agricultural enterprise when the 
land acquisition is necessary to comply with land use regulations; for the development of 
a business plan in accordance with the provisions of Title 7, section 436-A; for 
improvements to pastureland, including seeding and actions to promote rotational 
grazing; or, if the commissioner so approves at the time of loan insurance commitment, to 
pledge money in the fund as security for, and to apply money in the fund to, payment of 
principal, interest and other amounts due on any term loans insured by the Finance 
Authority of Maine to an eligible dairy farmer.  Repayment of these loans and interest on 
these loans must be credited to the fund and may be used for the purposes stated in this 
section or Title 7, section 436.  Interest earned on money in the fund and interest earned 
on loans made from the fund may be used to pay the administrative costs of processing 
loan applications and servicing and administering the fund and loans and grants made 
from the fund since the inception of the agricultural marketing loan program, to the extent 
that these costs exceed the fee for administrative costs established by Title 7, section 435, 
subsection 4. 
Sec. 16.  10 MRSA c. 229, as enacted by PL 2017, c. 178, §1 and c. 228, §1, is 
repealed and the following enacted in its place: 
CHAPTER 229 
GUARANTEED ASSET PROTECTION WAIVERS 
§1500-H.  Guaranteed asset protection waivers 
1.  Definitions.  As used in this chapter, unless the context otherwise indicates, the 
following terms have the following meanings. 
A.  "Administrator" means a person, other than an insurer or creditor, that performs 
administrative or operational functions pursuant to a waiver program. 
B.  "Borrower" means a debtor or retail buyer under a finance agreement. 
C.  "Creditor" means: 
(1)  The lender in a loan or credit transaction; 
(2)  A person engaged as a retail seller of motor vehicles that provides credit to 
consumers, as defined in Title 9-A, section 1-301, subsection 10, of the motor 
vehicles, as long as that person complies with the provisions of this section; 
(3)  The seller in a commercial retail installment transaction; or 
(4)  The assignee of any of the persons in subparagraphs (1) to (4) to which the 
credit obligation is payable. 
D.  "Finance agreement" means a loan or retail installment sales contract for the 
purchase of a motor vehicle. 
E.  "Free-look period" means the period of time, not less than 30 days, from the 
effective date of the waiver until the date the borrower may cancel the waiver 
contract without penalty, fees or costs to the borrower. 
F.  "Guaranteed asset protection waiver" or "waiver" means a contractual agreement 
in which a creditor agrees for a separate charge to cancel or waive all or part of the 
amount due on a borrower's finance agreement for a motor vehicle in the event of a 
total physical damage loss or unrecovered theft of the motor vehicle.  The waiver 
must be part of or a separate addendum to the finance agreement. 
G.  "Insurer" has the same meaning as in Title 24-A, section 4. 
H.  "Motor vehicle" means a self-propelled vehicle not operated exclusively on 
railroad tracks; a motorcycle as defined in Title 29-A, section 101, subsection 38; a 
motor home as defined in Title 29-A, section 101, subsection 40; an all-terrain 
vehicle as defined in Title 12, section 13001, subsection 3; a snowmobile as defined 
in Title 12, section 13001, subsection 25; a motorboat as defined in Title 12, section 
13001, subsection 16; a personal watercraft as defined in Title 12, section 13001, 
subsection 23; or a trailer as defined in Title 29-A, section 101, subsection 86. 
"Motor vehicle" includes vehicles whether self-propelled or towed. 
I.  "Person" includes an individual, company, association, organization, partnership, 
business trust, corporation and every form of legal entity. 
J.  "Superintendent" means, except in cases in which a credit union or financial 
institution authorized to do business in this State, as defined in Title 9-B, section 131, 
subsections 12-A and 17-A, is the creditor, the Superintendent of Consumer Credit 
Protection.  In cases in which a financial institution authorized to do business in this 
State is the creditor, "superintendent" means the Superintendent of Financial 
Institutions. 
2.  Requirements for offering waivers.  The following provisions apply to offering 
waivers. 
A.  A waiver may be offered, sold or provided to a borrower in this State in 
compliance with this chapter. 
B.  A waiver may, at the option of the creditor, be sold for a single payment or may 
be offered with a monthly or periodic payment option. 
C.  Notwithstanding any other provision of law, any cost to the borrower for a waiver 
entered into in compliance with the federal Truth in Lending Act, 15 United States 
Code, Section 1601 et seq. and its implementing regulations, as they may be amended 
from time to time, must be separately stated and may not be considered a finance 
charge or interest. 
D.  A retail seller must insure its waiver obligations under a contractual liability 
policy or other insurance policy issued by an insurer.  A creditor, other than a retail 
seller, may insure its waiver obligations under a contractual liability policy or other 
insurance policy issued by an insurer.  Any such insurance policy may be directly 
obtained by a creditor or retail seller or may be procured by an administrator to cover 
a creditor's or retail seller's obligations. 
E.  A waiver remains a part of the finance agreement upon the assignment, sale or 
transfer of the finance agreement by the creditor. 
F.  The extension of credit, the term of credit and the term of the related motor 
vehicle sale may not be conditioned upon the purchase of a waiver. 
G.  A creditor that offers a waiver must report the sale of and forward funds received 
on such a waiver to the designated party, if any, as prescribed in any applicable 
administrative services agreement, contractual liability policy, other insurance policy 
or other specified program documents. 
H.  Funds received or held by a creditor or administrator and belonging to an insurer, 
creditor or administrator, pursuant to the terms of a written agreement, must be held 
by the creditor or administrator in a fiduciary capacity. 
I.  The borrower's primary motor vehicle insurance carrier or, if applicable, the 3rd-
party liability carrier shall determine the existence of a total physical damage loss.  If 
no primary motor vehicle insurance or 3rd-party liability insurance is present on the 
date of loss, then the existence of a total physical damage loss must be determined 
pursuant to the terms of the waiver. 
3.  Contractual liability policy or other insurance policy.  The following 
provisions govern a contractual liability policy or other insurance policy insuring waivers. 
A.  A contractual liability policy or other insurance policy insuring waivers must state 
the obligation of the insurer to reimburse or pay to the creditor any sums the creditor 
is legally obligated to waive under the waivers issued by the creditor and purchased 
by the borrower or held by the borrower. 
B.  Coverage under a contractual liability or other insurance policy insuring a waiver 
must also cover any subsequent assignee upon the assignment, sale or transfer of the 
finance agreement. 
C.  Coverage under a contractual liability or other insurance policy insuring a waiver 
must remain in effect unless cancelled or nonrenewed as provided in Title 24-A. 
D.  The cancellation or nonrenewal of a contractual liability or other insurance policy 
may not reduce the insurer's responsibility for waivers issued by the creditor prior to 
the date of cancellation or nonrenewal and for which premium has been received by 
the insurer. 
4.  Disclosures.  A waiver must disclose, as applicable, in writing and in clear, 
understandable language that is easy to read, the following: 
A.  The name and address of the initial creditor and the borrower at the time of sale, 
and the identity of any administrator if different from the creditor; 
B.  The purchase price and the terms of the waiver, including without limitation the 
requirements for protection, condition or exclusion associated with the waiver; 
C.  That the borrower may cancel the waiver within a free-look period as specified in 
the waiver and will be entitled to a full refund of the purchase price as long as no 
waiver benefits have been provided; 
D.  The procedure the borrower must follow, if any, to obtain waiver benefits under 
the terms and conditions of the waiver and a telephone number and address where the 
borrower may apply for waiver benefits; 
E.  Whether or not the waiver is cancellable after the free-look period, the conditions 
under which it may be cancelled or terminated and the procedures for requesting any 
refund due; 
F.  That, in order to receive any refund due in the event of a borrower's cancellation 
of the waiver agreement or early termination of the finance agreement, the borrower, 
in accordance with the terms of the waiver, must provide a written request to cancel 
to the creditor, administrator or other party as specified in the waiver.  If a borrower 
is cancelling the waiver due to early termination of the finance agreement, the 
borrower must provide a written request to the creditor, administrator or other party 
within 90 days of the occurrence of the event terminating the finance agreement; 
G.  The methodology for calculating any refund due of the unearned portion of the 
purchase price of the waiver in the event of cancellation of the waiver or early 
termination of the finance agreement; and 
H.  That the extension of credit, the terms of credit and the terms of the related motor 
vehicle sale may not be conditioned upon purchase of the waiver. 
5.  Cancellation.  The following provisions govern the cancellation of a waiver. 
A.  A waiver must be cancellable after the free-look period.  A waiver must provide 
that if a borrower cancels the waiver within the free-look period, the borrower is 
entitled to a full refund of the purchase price as long as no benefits have been 
provided. 
B.  In the event of a borrower's cancellation of the waiver or early termination of the 
finance agreement, after the agreement has been in effect beyond the free-look 
period, the borrower is entitled to a pro rata refund of any unearned portion of the 
purchase price of the waiver.  In order to receive a refund, the borrower, in 
accordance with any applicable terms of the waiver, must provide a written request to 
the creditor, administrator or other party.  If the borrower is cancelling the waiver due 
to the early termination of the finance agreement, the borrower must provide a 
written request within 90 days of the event terminating the finance agreement. 
C.  If the cancellation of a waiver occurs as a result of a default under the finance 
agreement or the repossession of the motor vehicle associated with the finance 
agreement, or any other termination of the finance agreement, any refund due may be 
paid directly to the creditor or administrator and applied as set forth in paragraph D. 
D.  Any refund under paragraph A, B or C may be applied by the creditor as a 
reduction of the amount owed under the finance agreement unless the borrower 
shows that the finance agreement has been paid in full. 
6.  Enforcement.  The superintendent may require the filing of notification by an 
administrator pursuant to Title 9-A, section 6-202 and section 6-203, subsection 1.  The 
superintendent may require the filing of waivers in use by an administrator.  Upon request 
by the superintendent, an administrator shall annually file a record of waivers 
administered by the administrator. 
The superintendent may take action that is necessary or appropriate to enforce the 
provisions of this chapter and to protect borrowers who hold waivers in this State.  In 
cases in which a credit union or financial institution authorized to do business in this 
State, as defined in Title 9-B, section 131, subsections 12-A and 17-A, is a creditor, the 
Superintendent of Financial Institutions is responsible for enforcement.  After notice and 
opportunity for hearing, the superintendent may: 
A.  Order the creditor, administrator or any other person not in compliance with this 
chapter to cease and desist from further waiver-related operations that are in violation 
of this chapter; and 
B.  Impose a penalty of not more than $500 per violation and not more than $10,000 
in the aggregate for all violations of a similar nature.  For purposes of this paragraph, 
violations must be considered of a similar nature if the violations consist of the same 
or a similar course of conduct, action or practice, irrespective of the number of times 
the conduct, action or practice that is determined to be a violation of this chapter 
occurred. 
7.  Exemptions.  The following exemptions apply. 
A.  This chapter does not apply to: 
(1)  An insurance policy or a guaranteed asset protection insurance policy offered 
by an insurer under Title 24-A; or 
(2)  A debt cancellation or debt suspension contract offered by a credit union or 
financial institution authorized to do business in this State, as defined in Title 
9-B, section 131, subsections 12-A and 17-A, in compliance with 12 Code of 
Federal Regulations, Part 37 (2017) or 12 Code of Federal Regulations, Part 721 
(2017) or other federal law. 
B.  Subsection 2, paragraph C and subsections 4 and 6 are not applicable to a waiver 
offered in connection with a retail installment sale associated with a commercial 
transaction. 
C.  Waivers governed under this chapter are not insurance and are exempt from Title 
24-A.  A person is not required to obtain a license as a producer or insurer or in any 
other capacity be regulated under Title 24-A in order to market, administer, sell or 
offer to sell a waiver. 
Sec. 17.  10 MRSA c. 231 is enacted to read: 
CHAPTER 231 
POSING AS A GOVERNMENTAL ENTITY OR AGENT IN COMMERCE 
§1500-L.  Posing as a governmental entity or agent in commerce 
1.  Definitions.  As used in this section, unless the context otherwise indicates, the 
following terms have the following meanings. 
A.  "Governmental entity" means a unit, subdivision or entity of the Federal 
Government, the State, a county, a municipality or another state, including an agency, 
department, board, commission, bureau, division or military or public safety 
organization. 
2.  False representation of posing as a governmental entity or agent in 
commerce.  A person who is not an official, agent or representative of a governmental 
entity or who does not have express approval of a governmental entity may not in 
commerce: 
A.  Represent, imply or otherwise cause a likelihood of confusion that the person is 
an official, agent or representative of a governmental entity in the sale, advertising for 
sale, marketing, offering, distribution or solicitation of any goods or services; 
B.  Simulate a summons, complaint, jury notice, tax form or other judicial or 
administrative process or make an untrue statement that any good, service, 
advertisement or offer was sent or distributed by or has been approved, authorized or 
endorsed in whole or in part by a governmental entity; 
C.  Use language or a symbol, logo, representation, statement, title, name, seal, 
emblem, insignia, trade or brand name, business or control tracking number, website, 
e-mail address or any other term or content that falsely represents or implies or 
otherwise causes a likelihood of confusion that any goods, services, advertisement or 
offer is from a governmental entity; or 
D.  Offer a document that is available free of charge or at a lesser price from a 
governmental entity without conspicuously disclosing that availability in a manner 
that is clearly visible to a consumer. 
3.  Unfair trade practice.  A violation of this section constitutes an unfair or 
deceptive act or practice in violation of Title 5, chapter 10. 
Sec. 18.  10 MRSA §1602, sub-§2, ¶A, as enacted by PL 2003, c. 452, Pt. E, §1 
and affected by Pt. X, §2, is amended to read: 
A.  A person who violates this section commits a civil violation for which a fine of 
not more that than $50 may be adjudged. 
Sec. 19.  10 MRSA §8001-A, sub-§9, as enacted by PL 1989, c. 450, §5, is 
amended to read: 
9.  State Board of Licensure for Professional Engineers.  Professional Engineers, 
State Board of Registration Licensure for. 
Sec. 20.  11 MRSA §10-105, sub-§(1), as enacted by PL 1977, c. 586, is 
amended to read: 
(1).  A financing statement or continuation statement filed prior to January 1, 1978, 
which shall not have lapsed prior to January 1, 1978, shall remain effective for the period 
provided in the old code, but not less that than 5 years after the filing. 
Sec. 21.  12 MRSA §541-A, as amended by PL 2017, c. 284, Pt. QQ, §1, is further 
amended to read: 
§541-A.  Division of Geology, Natural Areas and Coastal Resources 
The Division of Geology, Natural Areas and Coastal Resources is established within 
the Department of Agriculture, Conservation and Forestry and is administered by the 
commissioner.  The division consists of the Maine Geological Survey, referred to in this 
chapter as the "survey," and the Natural Areas Program.  The director of the bureau 
Director of the Bureau of Resource Information and Land Use Planning is the director of 
the survey. 
Sec. 22.  12 MRSA §10853, sub-§4, as amended by PL 2017, c. 100, §1 and c. 
164, §3, is repealed and the following enacted in its place: 
4.  Disabled veteran.  A resident disabled veteran or a nonresident disabled veteran 
who is a resident of another state may obtain upon application, at no cost, all hunting, 
trapping and fishing licenses, including permits, stamps and other permission needed to 
hunt, trap and fish, and, upon meeting the qualifications as established in section 12853, 
subsection 4, a guide license.  A license holder under this subsection who qualifies to 
hunt during the special season on deer under section 11153 and who meets the eligibility 
requirements of section 11106 must have included in that person's license one antlerless 
deer permit and one either-sex permit.  The commissioner shall issue all fishing, trapping 
and hunting licenses and permits requested under this subsection if the commissioner 
determines the applicant meets the requirements of this subsection and is not otherwise 
ineligible to hold that permit or license.  For the purposes of this subsection, "disabled 
veteran" means a person who: 
B.  Was honorably discharged from the Armed Forces of the United States or the 
National Guard; and 
C.  Has a service-connected disability evaluated at 50% or more. 
Each application must be accompanied by satisfactory evidence that the applicant meets 
the requirements of this subsection.  An applicant for a license or permit under this 
section is subject to the provisions of this Part, including, but not limited to, a lottery or 
drawing system for issuing a particular license or permit.  A permit or license issued 
under this subsection remains valid for the life of the permit or license holder, as long as 
the permit or license holder continues to remain a resident of this State or another state 
and the permit or license issued under this subsection is not revoked or suspended.  For a 
nonresident to be eligible under this subsection, that nonresident's state must have a 
reciprocal agreement with this State. 
Sec. 23.  12 MRSA §10953, sub-§1-C, as amended by PL 2017, c. 164, §6 and c. 
239, §1, is repealed and the following enacted in its place: 
1-C.  Hunting with a crossbow; 65 years of age or older.  A person 65 years of age 
or older may hunt a wild bird or a wild animal with a crossbow during any open season 
on that wild bird or wild animal subject to this Part. 
Sec. 24.  12 MRSA §11154, sub-§5, as amended by PL 2017, c. 72, §2 and c. 96, 
§1, is repealed and the following enacted in its place: 
5.  Eligibility.  Except as provided in this subsection, a resident, nonresident or alien 
who is eligible to obtain a Maine hunting license or who will be eligible to obtain a 
Maine hunting license by the opening day of the open moose season is eligible to apply 
for a moose hunting permit.  A person who has obtained a moose hunting permit is 
ineligible to obtain another permit until the 4th calendar year after the issuance of the last 
permit.  This limitation does not apply to subpermittees under subsection 7.  A person 
under 10 years of age on the opening day of the open moose season is eligible to apply 
for a moose hunting permit and may accrue points under subsection 8 but is ineligible to 
receive a moose hunting permit. 
Sec. 25.  15 MRSA §393, sub-§2, as amended by PL 2017, c. 206, §1 and c. 227, 
§1, is repealed and the following enacted in its place: 
2.  Application after 5 years.  A person subject to the provisions of subsection 1, 
paragraph A-1, subparagraphs (1) to (4) or paragraph C as a result of a conviction or 
adjudication may, after the expiration of 5 years from the date that the person is finally 
discharged from the sentences imposed as a result of the conviction or adjudication, apply 
to the Office of the Governor for a permit to carry a firearm subject to subsection 4.  That 
person may not be issued a permit to carry a concealed handgun pursuant to Title 25, 
chapter 252.  A permit issued pursuant to this subsection is valid for 4 years from the date 
of issue unless sooner revoked for cause by the Governor.  For purposes of this 
subsection, "firearm" does not include a firearm defined under 18 United States Code, 
Section 921(a)(3). 
Sec. 26.  17 MRSA §2276, as enacted by PL 1975, c. 739, §15, is repealed. 
Sec. 27.  20-A MRSA §1051, sub-§6, ¶D, as enacted by PL 2017, c. 284, Pt. C, 
§3 and Pt. VVVVV, §1, is repealed and the following enacted in its place: 
D.  A group of school administrative units that have an interlocal agreement pursuant 
to Title 30-A, chapter 115 in order to establish a school management and leadership 
center to jointly purchase the services of a superintendent may elect the 
superintendent in the manner prescribed in their interlocal agreement. 
Sec. 28.  20-A MRSA §6051, sub-§1, ¶K, as amended by PL 2017, c. 284, Pt. C, 
§10 and Pt. JJJJJJJ, §2, is further amended to read: 
K.  A schedule of expenditures of federal awards; and 
Sec. 29.  20-A MRSA §6051, sub-§1, ¶L, as enacted by PL 2017, c. 284, Pt. C, 
§11 and Pt. JJJJJJJ, §3, is repealed and the following enacted in its place: 
L.  Beginning July 1, 2017, a determination of whether the school administrative unit 
has complied with section 15675, subsection 2; and 
Sec. 30.  20-A MRSA §6051, sub-§1, ¶M is enacted to read: 
M.  A determination of whether the school administrative unit has complied with 
applicable provisions of section 15690-A. 
Sec. 31.  21-A MRSA §1001, sub-§2, as amended by PL 1995, c. 483, §1, is 
further amended to read: 
2.  Election.  "Election" means any primary, general or special election for state, or 
county office or municipal offices as defined in office pursuant to Title 30-A, section 
2502, subsection 1. 
Sec. 32.  22 MRSA §1471-C, sub-§13-A, as enacted by PL 1987, c. 723, §3, is 
amended to read: 
13-A.  Household use pesticide product.  "Household use pesticide product" means 
any general use pesticide product which that contains no more than 3% active ingredients 
and which that is applied undiluted by homeowners to control pests in and around the 
family dwelling and associated structures.  For the purposes of this definition and section 
1471-U 1471-W, subsection 5, petroleum solvents shall are not be considered active 
ingredients. 
Sec. 33.  22 MRSA §1715, sub-§1, as corrected by RR 2001, c. 2, Pt. A, §34, is 
amended to read: 
1.  Access requirements.  Any person, including, but not limited to an affiliated 
interest as defined in former section 396-L, that is subject to the requirements of this 
subsection, shall provide the services listed in paragraph C to individuals who are eligible 
for charity care in accordance with a charity care policy adopted by the affiliate or 
provider that is consistent with rules applicable to hospitals under section 1716.  A person 
is subject to this subsection if that person: 
A.  Is either a direct provider of major ambulatory service, as defined in former 
section 382, subsection 8-A, or is or has been required to obtain a certificate of need 
under section 329 or former section 304 or 304-A; 
B.  Provides outpatient services as defined in former section 382, subsection 9-A; and 
C.  Provides one or more of the following services: 
(1)  Imaging services, including, but not limited to, magnetic resonance imaging, 
computerized tomography, mammography and radiology.  For purposes of this 
section, imaging services do not include: 
(a)  Screening procedures that are not related to the diagnosis or treatment of 
a specific condition; or 
(b)  Services when: 
(i)  The services are owned by a community health center, a physician or 
group of physicians; 
(ii)  The services are offered solely to the patients of that center, 
physician or group of physicians; and 
(iii)  Referrals for the purpose of performing those services are not 
accepted from other physicians; 
(2)  Laboratory services performed by a hospital or by a medical laboratory 
licensed in accordance with the Maine Medical Laboratory Commission, or 
licensed by an equivalent out-of-state licensing authority, excluding those 
licensed laboratories owned by community health centers, a physician or group of 
physicians where the laboratory services are offered solely to the patients of that 
center, physician or group of physicians; 
(3)  Cardiac diagnostic services, including, but not limited to, cardiac 
catheterization and angiography but excluding electrocardiograms and 
electrocardiograph stress testing; 
(4)  Lithotripsy services; 
(5)  Services provided by free-standing ambulatory surgery facilities certified to 
participate in the Medicare program; or 
(6)  Any other service performed in an out-patient setting requiring the purchase 
of medical equipment costing in the aggregate $500,000 or more and for which 
the charge per unit of service is $250 or more. 
Sec. 34.  22 MRSA §2842, sub-§§3 and 4, as amended by PL 2013, c. 31, §1, 
are further amended to read: 
3.  Medical certificate by medical examiner or the Office of Chief Medical 
Examiner.  When a death occurs under circumstances that make it a medical examiner 
case as defined in section 3025, or when inquiry as to the cause of death is required by 
law, the medical examiner or the Office of the Chief Medical Examiner shall complete 
the medical certification of the cause of death as specified by department rule and sign 
the death certificate.  A certification need not be completed before the remains are ready 
for release.  
The medical examiner or the Office of the Chief Medical Examiner is responsible for the 
identity of the deceased and the time, date, place, cause, manner and circumstances of 
death on the death certificate.  Entries may be left "pending" if further study is needed; or, 
at the specific direction of the Attorney General relative to cases under investigation by 
the Attorney General's office, entries must be left "withheld" until such time as the 
Attorney General, in the Attorney General's sole discretion, determines that any criminal 
investigation and prosecution will not be harmed by public disclosure of such 
information.  Notwithstanding section 2706, subsection 4, unless directed otherwise by 
the Attorney General as specified in this subsection, this information for which the 
medical examiner is responsible may be made available to the general public by the 
Office of the Chief Medical Examiner. 
4.  Correction of errors on death statistic records filed under chapter 711.  
Certificates of death in medical examiner cases, as defined in section 3025, may be 
completed or amended at any time by means described in rule by the department to the 
Office of the Chief Medical Examiner.  Either the Chief Medical Examiner or the medical 
examiner assigned to the case may sign the forms or submit an electronic amendment or 
file a certificate using the electronic death registration system in accordance with section 
2847.  A person authorized by the Chief Medical Examiner may amend a certificate of 
death with respect to the time, date, place and circumstances of death. The medical 
examiner assigned shall submit the form or electronic amendment to the Office of the 
Chief Medical Examiner for filing with the State Registrar of Vital Statistics.  These 
forms or electronic amendments may be filed at any time after death and need not include 
a summary description of the evidence in support of the completion or amendment. 
Sec. 35.  22 MRSA §2942, sub-§3, as enacted by PL 2007, c. 601, §2, is amended 
to read: 
3.  Chief Medical Examiner.  "Chief Medical Examiner" means the Office of the 
Chief Medical Examiner within the Office of the Attorney General. 
Sec. 36.  22 MRSA §2843-A, sub-§2, as amended by PL 2017, c. 38, §1 and by c. 
70, §1, is repealed and the following enacted in its place: 
2.  Custody and control generally.  The custody and control of the remains of 
deceased residents of this State, dead bodies or dead human bodies are governed by the 
following provisions in the following order of priority: 
A.  If the subject has designated another person to have custody and control in a 
written and signed document, custody and control belong to that designated person; 
B.  If the subject has not left a written and signed document designating a person to 
have custody and control, or if the person designated by the subject refuses custody 
and control, custody and control belong to the next of kin; and 
C.  If the next of kin is 2 or more persons with the same relationship to the subject, 
the majority of the next of kin have custody and control.  If the next of kin cannot, by 
majority vote, make a decision regarding the subject's remains, the court shall make 
the decision upon petition under subsection 4, paragraph D. 
If a person who has the right of custody and control under this subsection does not 
exercise the rights and responsibilities of custody and control within 4 days after the 
death of the subject, custody and control belong to a person from the next lower level of 
priority as established in paragraphs A to C. 
If a person who has custody and control under this subsection does not complete decision 
making regarding final disposition within 30 days after taking custody and control, a 
funeral director or practitioner of funeral service who has physical possession of the 
remains or dead body may bury the remains or dead body at the expense of the funeral 
director or practitioner. 
A person who has been charged with murder, as described in Title 17-A, section 201, or 
manslaughter, as described in Title 17-A, section 203, subsection 1, paragraph B, forfeits 
the right of custody and control provided under this subsection; and a funeral director or 
practitioner of funeral service who is aware of the charges may not release the remains or 
a dead body to that person who has been charged with murder or manslaughter. If the 
charges against the person are dismissed or the person is acquitted of the charges before 
the final disposition takes place, the person regains the right of custody and control in the 
same position of priority established in this subsection. 
The remains or a dead body is considered abandoned if no one takes custody and control 
of the remains or dead body for a period of 15 days.  A funeral director or practitioner of 
funeral service who has physical possession of abandoned remains or an abandoned dead 
body may bury or cremate the remains or dead body.  The funeral director or practitioner 
of funeral service may embalm or refrigerate abandoned remains or an abandoned dead 
body without authorization.  A certificate of abandonment that indicates the means of 
disposition must be filed in the municipality where the death occurred. 
Sec. 37.  22 MRSA §3022, sub-§8, as repealed and replaced by PL 2001, c. 221, 
§1, is amended to read: 
8.  Certain information confidential.  The following records in the possession or 
custody of a medical examiner or the Office of the Chief Medical Examiner are not 
public records within the meaning of Title 1, section 402, subsection 3 and are 
confidential: 
A.  Medical records relating to a medical examiner case; 
B.  Law enforcement agency reports or records relating to a medical examiner case; 
C.  Communications with the Department of the Attorney General relating to a 
medical examiner case; 
D.  Communications with the office of a district attorney relating to a medical 
examiner case; 
E.  Death certificates and amendments made to the certificates, except for the 
information for which the medical examiner is responsible, as listed in section 2842, 
subsection 3, and not ordered withheld by the Attorney General relating to a medical 
examiner case or missing person; 
F.  Photographs and transparencies, histological slides, videotapes and other like 
items relating to a medical examiner case; and 
G.  Written or otherwise recorded communications that express or are evidence of 
suicidal intent obtained under section 3028, subsections 4 and 5. 
Sec. 38.  22 MRSA §3022, sub-§14, as amended by PL 2013, c. 267, Pt. B, §16, 
is further amended to read: 
14.  Access to report documents.  Report documents, as defined in section 3035, 
subsection 2, in the possession or custody of a medical examiner or the Office of the 
Chief Medical Examiner constitute investigative information.  Release and inspection are 
governed by Title 16, section 804.  Release and inspection are also contingent upon the 
person's request specifying a specific decedent or decedents and the payment of any 
required fee under section 3035. 
Sec. 39.  22 MRSA §3023-A, as enacted by PL 2013, c. 113, §2, is amended to 
read: 
§3023-A.  Medicolegal death investigators; appointment; jurisdiction 
The Chief Medical Examiner may appoint persons who are not physicians as 
medicolegal death investigators, who have statewide jurisdiction and serve at the pleasure 
of the Chief Medical Examiner, subject to the Chief Medical Examiner's control and rules 
adopted by the Chief Medical Examiner. Medicolegal death investigators must meet the 
certification and training requirements established by the Chief Medical Examiner and 
must be residents of this State.  Medicolegal death investigators may be employees of the 
Office of the Chief Medical Examiner or serve on a fee-for-service basis as determined 
by the Chief Medical Examiner.  A medicolegal death investigator before entering upon 
the duties of the office must be duly sworn to the faithful performance of the medicolegal 
death investigator's duty. 
Sec. 40.  22 MRSA §3028, sub-§5, as amended by PL 2013, c. 113, §8, is further 
amended to read: 
5.  Requests for objects.  Any person having possession of any object or objects, as 
described in subsection 4, shall at the request of the medical examiner or medicolegal 
death investigator give that object or objects to a law enforcement officer, to the medical 
examiner, to the medicolegal death investigator or to the Office of Chief Medical 
Examiner.  Medical personnel and institutions turning over any objects or specimens that 
have been removed from the victim while under medical care are immune from civil or 
criminal liability when complying with this subsection.  Original written or recorded 
material that might express suicidal intent must be sent to the Office of the Chief Medical 
Examiner.  The Chief Medical Examiner may elect to accept copies in place of originals. 
Sec. 41.  22 MRSA §3028-C, sub-§1, as enacted by PL 1985, c. 611, §8, is 
amended to read: 
1.  Disposal of nonsubstantial body fragments and body fluids.  Body fragments 
or body fluids retained for evidence, further study or documentation, or those which that 
have been recovered after the body has been released from the custody of the medical 
examiner, may be disposed of according to the practices of the laboratory responsible for 
analysis, by the Office of the Chief Medical Examiner, or by the medical examiner or 
pathologist retaining those fragments or fluids, unless claimed in writing by the person 
responsible for burial. 
Sec. 42.  22 MRSA §3782-A, sub-§6, as enacted by PL 1997, c. 530, Pt. A, §19, 
is amended to read: 
6.  Rulemaking. The department shall adopt rules to implement this subsection 
section.  Except as specifically provided, rules adopted pursuant to this subsection are 
routine technical rules as defined in Title 5, chapter 375, subchapter II-A 2-A. 
Sec. 43.  22 MRSA §8302-B, sub-§1, as enacted by PL 1997, c. 494, §11 and 
affected by §15, is amended to read: 
1.  Investigation.  The provider must pass a background investigation check by the 
State Bureau of Investigation Identification, a check for involvement with child protective 
services and a motor vehicle record check. 
Sec. 44.  23 MRSA §244-A, sub-§1, as amended by PL 2017, c. 295, §2, is 
further amended to read: 
1.  Owner.  In addition to payments otherwise authorized, the department shall make 
an additional payment not in excess of the amount allowed under the federal Uniform 
Relocation Assistance and Real Property Acquisition Policies Act of 1970, Public Law 
91-646, as amended, to any displaced person who is displaced from a dwelling actually 
owned and occupied by the displaced person for not less than 90 days prior to the 
initiation of negotiations for the acquisition of the property.  The additional payment must 
include the following elements: 
A.  The amount, if any, that when added to the acquisition cost of the dwelling 
acquired by the department equals the reasonable cost of a comparable replacement 
dwelling.  All determinations required to carry out this paragraph must be made in 
accordance with standards established by the department; 
B.  The amount, if any, that will compensate the displaced person for any increased 
interest costs and other debt service costs that person is required to pay for financing 
the acquisition of any such comparable replacement dwelling.  The amount may be 
paid only if the dwelling acquired by the department was encumbered by a bona fide 
mortgage that was a valid lien on the dwelling for not less than 180 days prior to the 
initiation of negotiations for the acquisition of that dwelling.  In calculating the 
amount to be paid under this section, increased interest costs and other debt service 
costs must be reduced to discounted present value.  The payment must be an amount 
that will reduce the mortgage balance on the replacement dwelling to an amount that 
could be amortized with the same monthly payment for principal and interest as that 
for the mortgage on the displaced dwelling; and 
C.  Reasonable expenses incurred by the displaced person for evidence of title, 
recording fees and other closing costs incident to the purchase of the replacement 
dwelling, but not including prepaid expenses. 
Sec. 45.  24-A MRSA §2546, as enacted by PL 1979, c. 442, §4, is amended to 
read: 
§2546.  Calculation of cash surrender values 
For contracts which that provide cash surrender benefits, the cash surrender benefits 
available prior to maturity shall may not be less than the present value as of the date of 
surrender of that portion of the maturity value of the paid-up annuity benefit which that 
would be provided under the contract at maturity arising from considerations paid prior to 
the time of cash surrender reduced by the amount appropriate to reflect any prior 
withdrawals from or partial surrenders of the contract, the present value being calculated 
on the basis of an interest rate not more than 1% higher than the interest rate specified in 
the contract for accumulating the net considerations to determine the maturity value, 
decreased by the amount of any indebtedness to the insurer on the contract, including 
interest due and accrued, and increased by any existing additional amounts credited by 
the insurer to the contract. In no event shall may any cash surrender benefit be less that 
than the minimum nonforfeiture amount at that time. The death benefit under the 
contracts shall must be at least equal to the cash surrender benefit. 
Sec. 46.  24-A MRSA §4551, sub-§2, ¶A, as enacted by PL 2017, c. 129, §1, is 
amended to read: 
A.  Within 90 days of a death master file match, complete a good faith effort, which 
must be documented by the insurer, to confirm the death of an insured, an annuity 
owner or retained asset account holder against other available records and 
information; and 
Sec. 47.  24-A MRSA §6304, sub-§1, as enacted by PL 1989, c. 931, §5, is 
amended to read: 
1.  Assessment from policyholders and self-insureds.  With respect to professional 
liability insurance policies for physicians and hospitals issued on or after July 1, 1990, 
each insurer shall collect an assessment from each policyholder.  With respect to 
professional liability insurance for self-insureds issued on or after July 1, 1990, each self-
insured shall pay an assessment as directed by the superintendent.  The superintendent 
shall determine the amount of the assessment in accordance with this chapter.  
Notwithstanding any provision of law, assessments made and collected pursuant to this 
chapter do not constitute premium, as defined in section 2403, for purposes of any laws 
of this State relating to taxation, filing of insurance rates or assessment purposes other 
than as expressly provided under this chapter.  The assessments are considered as 
premium only for purposes of any laws of this State relating to cancellation or 
nonrenewal of insurance coverage and the determination of hospital financial 
requirements under Title 22, chapter 107. 
Sec. 48.  25 MRSA §1542-A, sub-§1, ¶L, as amended by PL 2017, c. 204, §3; c. 
253, §1; c. 258, Pt. B, §1, is further amended to read: 
L.  Who is assigned to provide services to the Department of Administrative and 
Financial Services, Bureau of Revenue Services pursuant to a contract or subcontract 
for services to the bureau and whose fingerprints have been required by the State Tax 
Assessor pursuant to Title 36, section 194-C; or 
Sec. 49.  25 MRSA §1542-A, sub-§1, ¶M, as enacted by PL 2017, c. 204, §4; c. 
253, §2; and c. 258, Pt. B, §2, is repealed and the following enacted in its place: 
M.  Who has applied for a guide license under Title 12, section 12853; 
Sec. 50.  25 MRSA §1542-A, sub-§1, ¶N, as enacted by PL 2017, c. 253, §2, is 
amended to read: 
N.  Who is licensed under Title 32, chapter 48 and has applied for an expedited 
license under Title 32, section 18506.; 
Sec. 51.  25 MRSA §1542-A, sub-§1, ¶¶O and P are enacted to read: 
O.  Who is licensed under Title 32, chapter 36 and has applied for an expedited 
license under Title 32, section 18506; or 
P.  Who is an applicant for licensure with the State Board of Nursing as required 
under Title 32, section 2111, subsection 1. 
Sec. 52.  25 MRSA §1542-A, sub-§3, ¶L, as enacted by PL 2017, c. 204, §5; c. 
253, §3; and c. 258, Pt. B, §3, is repealed and the following enacted in its place: 
L.  The State Police shall take or cause to be taken the fingerprints of the person 
named in subsection 1, paragraph M at the request of that person and upon payment 
of the expenses by that person as required by Title 12, section 12853, subsection 4-A, 
paragraph B. 
Sec. 53.  25 MRSA §1542-A, sub-§3, ¶¶N and O are enacted to read: 
N.  The State Police shall take or cause to be taken the fingerprints of the person 
named in subsection 1, paragraph O at the request of that person and upon payment 
of the expenses by that person as required by Title 32, section 2571-A. 
O.  The State Police shall take or cause to be taken the fingerprints of the person 
named in subsection 1, paragraph P at the request of that person and upon payment 
by the person of the fee established in Title 32, section 2111, subsection 1. 
Sec. 54.  25 MRSA §1542-A, sub-§4, as amended by PL 2017, c. 253, §4 and c. 
258, Pt. B, §4, is repealed and the following enacted in its place: 
4.  Duty to submit to State Bureau of Identification.  It is the duty of the law 
enforcement agency taking the fingerprints as required by subsection 3, paragraphs A, B 
and G to transmit immediately to the State Bureau of Identification the criminal 
fingerprint record. Fingerprints taken pursuant to subsection 1, paragraph C, D, E or F or 
pursuant to subsection 5 may not be submitted to the State Bureau of Identification unless 
an express request is made by the commanding officer of the State Bureau of 
Identification.  Fingerprints taken pursuant to subsection 1, paragraph G must be 
transmitted immediately to the State Bureau of Identification to enable the bureau to 
conduct state and national criminal history record checks for the Department of 
Education.  The bureau may not use the fingerprints for any purpose other than that 
provided for under Title 20-A, section 6103.  The bureau shall retain the fingerprints, 
except as provided under Title 20-A, section 6103, subsection 9.  Fingerprints taken 
pursuant to subsection 1, paragraph I and subsection 3, paragraph I must be transmitted 
immediately to the State Bureau of Identification to enable the bureau to conduct state 
and national criminal history record checks for the court and the Department of Public 
Safety, Gambling Control Board, respectively.  Fingerprints taken pursuant to subsection 
1, paragraph J, K or L must be transmitted immediately to the State Bureau of 
Identification to enable the bureau to conduct state and national criminal history record 
checks for the Department of Administrative and Financial Services, Bureau of Revenue 
Services.  Fingerprints taken pursuant to subsection 1, paragraph O must be transmitted 
immediately to the State Bureau of Identification to enable the bureau to conduct state 
and national criminal history record checks for the Board of Osteopathic Licensure, 
established in Title 32, chapter 36.  Fingerprints taken pursuant to subsection 1, paragraph 
N must be transmitted immediately to the State Bureau of Identification to enable the 
bureau to conduct state and national criminal history record checks for the Board of 
Licensure in Medicine, established in Title 32, chapter 48.  Fingerprints taken pursuant to 
subsection 1, paragraph P must be transmitted immediately to the State Bureau of 
Identification to enable the bureau to conduct state and national criminal history record 
checks for the State Board of Nursing, established in Title 32, chapter 31. 
Sec. 55.  26 MRSA §938, as enacted by PL 1985, c. 294, §§2 and 3, is amended to 
read: 
§938.  Advertising or soliciting for workers during strike or disturbance; exceptions; 
penalty 
If any employer, during the continuance of a strike among his the employer's 
employees, or during the continuance of a lockout or other labor trouble among his the 
employer's employees, publicly advertises in newspapers, or by posters or otherwise, for 
employees, or by himself directly or his through the employer's agents solicits persons to 
work for him the employer to fill the places of strikers, he the employer shall plainly and 
explicitly mention in the advertisements or oral or written solicitations that a strike, 
lockout or other labor disturbance exists.  If any employee, during the continuance of a 
strike, lockout or other labor trouble, advertises for or solicits business for a competitor of 
the employers employer that is engaged in the labor dispute, he the employee shall 
plainly and explicitly mention in the advertisement or oral or written solicitations 
solicitation that a strike, lockout or other labor disturbance exists.  This section shall 
cease ceases to be operative if the board determines that the business of the employer, in 
respect to which the strike or other labor trouble occurred, is being carried on in the 
normal and usual manner and to the normal and usual extent.  The board shall determine 
this question as soon as possible, upon the application of the employer.  Any person, firm, 
association or corporation who that violates this section shall must be punished by a fine 
not less that than $250 nor more than $500. 
Sec. 56.  26 MRSA §1192, sub-§6-E, as amended by PL 2017, c. 110, §8 and c. 
117, §4, is repealed and the following enacted in its place: 
6-E.  Prohibition against disqualification of individuals in approved training 
under federal Workforce Innovation and Opportunity Act.  Notwithstanding any 
other provision of this chapter, unless inconsistent with federal law, the acceptance of 
training opportunities available through the federal Workforce Innovation and 
Opportunity Act, 29 United States Code, Sections 3101 to 3361 is deemed to be 
acceptance of training with the approval of the State within the meaning of any other 
provision of federal or state law, relating to unemployment benefits. 
Sec. 57.  26 MRSA §1198, sub-§2, ¶J, as amended by PL 2017, c. 110, §9 and c. 
117, §11, is repealed and the following enacted in its place: 
J.  The eligible employer allows eligible employees to participate, as appropriate, in 
training, including employer-sponsored training or worker training funded under the 
federal Workforce Innovation and Opportunity Act, Public Law 113-128, to enhance 
job skills if such training has been approved by the commissioner. 
Sec. 58.  29-A MRSA §201, sub-§3, ¶D, as enacted by PL 1993, c. 683, Pt. A, §2 
and affected by Pt. B, §5, is amended to read: 
D.  A municipal agent authorized to process permits and decals for vehicles with 
gross vehicle weight in excess of 6,000 pounds may charge a fee not to exceed $1 
over the required fee for each permit or decal issued. 
Sec. 59.  29-A MRSA §1405, sub-§3, as amended by PL 2017, c. 27, §4 and 
affected by §10 and amended by c. 229, §27, is repealed and the following enacted in its 
place: 
3.  Fee.  The fee for a duplicate registration certificate is $2. The fee for a duplicate 
learner's permit, duplicate license or duplicate nondriver identification card is $5.  The fee 
for the expedited issuance of a duplicate license or nondriver identification card is an 
additional $10. The reason for the expedited issuance must be provided, and the Secretary 
of State shall determine if expedited issuance is warranted. 
This subsection is repealed July 1, 2019. 
Sec. 60.  29-A MRSA §1405, sub-§3-A is enacted to read: 
3-A.  Fee.  The fee for a duplicate registration certificate is $2.  The fee for a 
duplicate learner's permit, duplicate license or duplicate nondriver identification card is 
$5.  The fee for a duplicate license or duplicate nondriver identification card under 
section 1260 is $30.  The fee for the expedited issuance of a duplicate license or 
nondriver identification card, including the expedited issuance of a duplicate license or 
nondriver identification card under section 1260, is an additional $10.  The reason for the 
expedited issuance must be provided, and the Secretary of State shall determine if 
expedited issuance is warranted. 
Sec. 61.  Effective date.  That section of this Act that enacts the Maine Revised 
Statutes, Title 29-A, section 1405, subsection 3-A takes effect July 1, 2019. 
Sec. 62.  30-A MRSA §701, sub-§2-C, as amended by PL 2017, c. 281, §1 and c. 
284, Pt. V, §1, is repealed and the following enacted in its place: 
2-C.  Tax assessment for correctional services beginning July 1, 2015.  Beginning 
July 1, 2015, the counties shall annually collect no less than $62,172,371 from 
municipalities for the provision of correctional services in accordance with this 
subsection.  The counties may collect an amount that is more than the base assessment 
limit established in this subsection, except that the additional amount each year may not 
exceed the base assessment limit as adjusted by the growth limitation factor established in 
section 706-A, subsection 3 or 4%, whichever is less.  If a county collects in a year an 
amount that is more than the base assessment limit established for that county pursuant to 
this subsection, the base assessment limit in the succeeding year is the amount collected 
in the prior year.  For the purposes of this subsection, "correctional services" includes 
management services, personal services, contractual services, commodity purchases, 
capital expenditures and all other costs, or portions thereof, necessary to maintain and 
operate correctional services.  "Correctional services" does not include county jail debt 
unless there is a surplus in the account that pays for correctional services at the end of the 
state fiscal year. 
The assessment to municipalities within each county may not be less than the base 
assessment limit, which is: 
A.  A sum of $4,287,340 in Androscoggin County; 
B.  A sum of $2,316,666 in Aroostook County; 
C.  A sum of $11,575,602 in Cumberland County; 
D.  A sum of $1,621,201 in Franklin County; 
E.  A sum of $1,670,136 in Hancock County; 
F.  A sum of $5,588,343 in Kennebec County; 
G.  A sum of $3,188,700 in Knox County; 
H.  A sum of $2,657,105 in Lincoln County; 
I.  A sum of $1,228,757 in Oxford County; 
J.  A sum of $5,919,118 in Penobscot County; 
K.  A sum of $878,940 in Piscataquis County; 
L.  A sum of $2,657,105 in Sagadahoc County; 
M.  A sum of $5,363,665 in Somerset County; 
N.  A sum of $2,832,353 in Waldo County; 
O.  A sum of $2,000,525 in Washington County; and 
P.  A sum of $8,386,815 in York County. 
Sec. 63.  32 MRSA §91-B, sub-§2, ¶G, as enacted by PL 2011, c. 271, §19, is 
amended to read: 
G.  Confidential information may be released to the Office of the Chief Medical 
Examiner within the Office of the Attorney General. 
Sec. 64.  32 MRSA §1202-A, sub-§5, ¶B, as enacted by PL 2017, c. 198, §17, is 
amended to read: 
B.  In order to obtain a license under this subsection, a person must meet the 
following requirements, as applicable: 
(1) A limited electrician in water pumps must provide evidence of having 
completed at least 135 hours of electrical education as approved by the board or 
from an accredited institution and provide evidence of 2,000 hours of work 
experience approved by the board in rules.  A limited electrician in water pumps 
is restricted to performing electrical work between the branch circuit overcurrent 
device, the water pump and associated controls. 
(2) A limited electrician in outdoor signs, including sign lighting, must provide 
evidence of having completed at least 135 hours of electrical education as 
approved by the board or from an accredited institution and provide evidence of 
2,000 hours of work experience approved by the board in rules.  The scope of this 
license does not include branch circuit wiring. 
(3) A limited electrician in gasoline dispensing must provide evidence of having 
completed at least 135 hours of electrical education as approved by the board or 
from an accredited institution and provide evidence of 2,000 hours of work 
experience approved by the board in rules. A limited electrician in gasoline 
dispensers dispensing is restricted to performing electrical work between the 
branch circuit overcurrent device, the dispenser and associated controls. 
(4) A limited electrician in traffic signals, including outdoor lighting of traffic 
signals, must provide evidence of having completed at least 135 hours of 
electrical education as approved by the board or from an accredited institution 
and provide evidence of 2,000 hours of work experience approved by the board 
in rules.  A limited electrician in traffic signals is restricted to performing 
electrical work on traffic signals, including outdoor lighting of traffic signals and 
the traffic signal electrical service. 
(5) A limited electrician in house wiring must provide evidence of having 
completed at least 225 hours of electrical education as approved by the board or 
from an accredited institution and provide evidence of 4,000 hours of work 
experience approved by the board in rules.  A limited electrician in house wiring 
is restricted to performing electrical work in one-family dwellings and 2-family 
dwellings, including manufactured homes.  
(6) A limited electrician in refrigeration must provide evidence of having 
completed at least 270 hours of electrical education as approved by the board or 
from an accredited institution and provide evidence of 6,000 hours of work 
experience approved by the board in rules.  Graduates of a community college 
electrical program in refrigeration approved by the board or from an accredited 
institution are credited with 4,000 hours of work experience upon graduation. A 
limited electrician in refrigeration is restricted to performing electrical work 
between the branch circuit overcurrent device, the refrigeration equipment and 
associated controls. 
(7) A limited electrician in low-energy electronics, including fire alarms, must 
provide evidence of having completed at least 270 hours of electrical education 
as approved by the board or from an accredited institution and provide evidence 
of 4,000 hours of work experience approved by the board in rules. A limited 
electrician in low-energy electronics is restricted to performing electrical work on 
low-energy electronics as supplied by Class I, II and III limited energy systems, 
all fire alarm systems and the dedicated branch circuit wiring. 
(8) A limited electrician in crane wiring must provide evidence of having 
completed at least 135 hours of electrical education as approved by the board or 
from an accredited institution and provide evidence of 2,000 hours of work 
experience approved by the board in rules.  A limited electrician in crane wiring 
is restricted to the installation of electrical equipment and wiring used in 
connection with cranes, monorail hoists, hoists and runways. 
Sec. 65.  32 MRSA §2180, sub-§1, as enacted by PL 2017, c. 258, Pt. A, §1, is 
amended to read: 
1.  Effective date.  This compact becomes effective and binding on the earlier of the 
date of legislative enactment of this compact into law by no fewer than 26 states or and 
December 31, 2018.  All party states to this compact that were parties to the prior 
compact are deemed to have withdrawn from the prior compact within 6 months after the 
effective date of this compact. 
Sec. 66.  32 MRSA §6214-D, sub-§1, ¶D, as amended by PL 2017, c. 265, §3, is 
further amended to read: 
D.  Meet one of the following requirements: 
(1)  Complete 2,000 hours of documented supervised practice in alcohol and drug 
counseling as a certified alcohol and drug counselor; 
(2)  Possess an associate or bachelor's degree from an accredited college or 
university in clinically based behavioral sciences or addiction counseling or a 
related field as defined by board rule, complete course work as defined by board 
rule and complete a minimum of 4,000 hours of documented supervised practice 
in alcohol and drug counseling, except that an applicant who holds a bachelor's 
degree from an accredited college or university that meets the requirements of 
this subparagraph and who has completed at least 18 credit hours of course work 
in addiction counseling need only complete a minimum of 2,000 hours of 
documented supervised practice in alcohol and drug counseling; or 
(3)  Possess a master's degree from an accredited college or university in 
clinically based behavioral sciences or addiction counseling or a related field as 
defined by board rule, complete course work as defined by board rule and 
complete a minimum of 2,000 hours of documented supervised practice in 
alcohol and drug counseling, except that an applicant who holds a master's degree 
from an accredited college or university that meets the requirements of this 
subparagraph and who has completed at least 12 credit hours of course work in 
addiction counseling need only complete a minimum of 1,500 hours of 
documented supervised practice in alcohol and drug counseling. 
Sec. 67.  32 MRSA §7054-A, 3rd ¶, as enacted by PL 1985, c. 736, §14, is 
amended to read: 
Any person certified by the board prior to the effective date of this section or under 
former section 7054 as a certified social worker and who engages in the independent 
practice of social work pursuant to former section 7052 shall must be licensed as a 
"certified social worker - independent practice" and may continue to practice social work 
as previously authorized.  This person has the option to be licensed as a "licensed master 
social worker" without further examination if the person has a masters' master's degree in 
social work or social welfare. 
Sec. 68.  32 MRSA §18515, sub-§2, as enacted by PL 2017, c. 253, §7, is 
amended to read: 
2.  Officers.  The interstate commission shall elect or appoint annually from among 
its commissioners a chair, a vice-chair and a treasurer, each of whom has the authority 
and duties as specified in the bylaws. The chair, or, in the chair's absence or disability, the 
vice-chair, shall preside at all meetings of the interstate commission. 
Sec. 69.  33 MRSA §479-C, as amended by PL 2017, c. 284, Pt. TT, §1, is further 
amended to read: 
§479-C.  Conservation lands registry 
A holder of a conservation easement or a fee owner of land for conservation purposes 
that is organized or doing business in the State shall annually report to the Department of 
Agriculture, Conservation and Forestry the book and page number at the registry of deeds 
for each conservation easement that it holds or each parcel owned in fee for conservation 
purposes, the municipality, the approximate number of acres protected under each 
easement or parcel owned, the approximate number of acres that are exempt from 
taxation pursuant to Title 36, section 652 for which the municipality or county does not 
receive payments in lieu of taxes and such other information as the Department of 
Agriculture, Conservation and Forestry determines necessary to fulfill the purposes of 
this subchapter. The filing must be made by a date and on forms established by the 
Department of Agriculture, Conservation and Forestry to avoid duplicative filings when 
possible and otherwise reduce administrative burdens.  The annual filing must be 
accompanied by a an $80 fee.  The Department of Agriculture, Conservation and Forestry 
shall maintain a permanent record of the registration and report to the Attorney General 
any failure of a holder of a conservation easement disclosed by the filing or otherwise 
known to the Department of Agriculture, Conservation and Forestry. The fees established 
under this section must be held by the Department of Agriculture, Conservation and 
Forestry in a nonlapsing, special account to defray the costs of maintaining the registry 
and carrying out its duties under this section. 
Sec. 70.  34-B MRSA §1207, sub-§1, ¶B, as amended by PL 2017, c. 147, §6, is 
further amended to read: 
B.  Information may be disclosed if necessary to carry out the statutory functions of 
the department; the hospitalization provisions of chapter 3, subchapter 4; the 
provisions of section 1931; the purposes of section 3608; the purposes of Title 5, 
section 19506; the purposes of United States Public Law 99-319, dealing with the 
investigatory function of the independent agency designated with advocacy and 
investigatory functions under United States Public Law 88-164, Title I, Part C or 
United States Public Law 99-319; the investigation and hearing pursuant to Title 15, 
section 393, subsection 4-A; or the provision of mental health services by the 
Department of Corrections pursuant to Title 34-A, section 3031, 3069-A or 3069-B; 
Sec. 71.  34-B MRSA §1207, sub-§1, ¶B-3, as amended by PL 2017, c. 93, §1 
and repealed by c. 147, §7, is repealed. 
Sec. 72.  35-A MRSA §7104-C, sub-§2, ¶I, as enacted by PL 2011, c. 600, §7 
and affected by §10, is amended to read: 
I.  The State Tax Assessor shall remit the total prepaid wireless fees collected 
pursuant to this subsection to the commission.  The commission shall deposit the total 
fees into the prepaid wireless fee fund established in subsection 3 and shall ensure 
that, within 30 days of receipt: 
(1)  The portion of the remitted prepaid wireless fees attributable to the E-9-1-1 
surcharge imposed by Title 25, section 2927, subsection 1-H 1-F is deposited in a 
separate account; 
(2)  The portion of the remitted prepaid wireless fees attributable to the fee 
imposed under section 7104, subsection 3-A is deposited in the state universal 
service fund established pursuant to section 7104, subsection 3; and 
(3)  The portion of the remitted prepaid wireless fees attributable to the fee 
imposed under section 7104-B, subsection 2-A is deposited in the 
telecommunications education access fund established under section 7104-B, 
subsection 2. 
Sec. 73.  36 MRSA §191, sub-§2, ¶BBB, as enacted by PL 2015, c. 490, §4, is 
amended to read: 
BBB.  The disclosure to an authorized representative of the Department of 
Professional and Financial Regulation, Bureau of Insurance of information necessary 
to determine whether a long-term disability income protection plan or short-term 
disability income protection plan as described in section 5219-NN 5219-OO, 
subsection 1 qualifies for the disability income protection plans in the workplace 
credit provided by section 5219-NN.; 
Sec. 74.  36 MRSA §191, sub-§2, ¶CCC, as enacted by PL 2017, c. 211, Pt. A, 
§9, is amended to read: 
CCC.  The disclosure of information to the Revenue Forecasting Committee or its 
staff under Title 5, section 1710-J, by or at the direction of the Associate 
Commissioner for Tax Policy when pertinent to the associate commissioner’s duties 
of providing revenue forecasting analysis to the committee.  The information may be 
disclosed only in oral or paper form and only after notice to the State Tax Assessor of 
the intended disclosure.  The associate commissioner shall apprise the committee 
members of the provisions regarding confidentiality of such information, of the 
continuing confidential nature of the disclosed information and the provision in Title 
5, section 1710-J, allowing discussion of the information by the committee meeting 
in executive session not open to the public.; 
Sec. 75.  36 MRSA §191, sub-§2, ¶DDD, as enacted by PL 2017, c. 284, Pt. 
UUUU, §16 and c. 297, §1, is repealed and the following enacted in its place: 
DDD.  The disclosure by employees of the bureau to an authorized representative of 
the Maine Commission on Indigent Legal Services for determining the eligibility for 
indigent legal services and the ability to reimburse expenses incurred for assigned 
counsel and contract counsel under Title 4, chapter 37; or 
Sec. 76.  36 MRSA §191, sub-§2, ¶EEE is enacted to read: 
EEE.  The disclosure to the joint standing committee of the Legislature having 
jurisdiction over taxation matters pursuant to section 5219-QQ, subsection 4, 
paragraph B of the revenue loss, including the loss due to refundable credits, 
attributable to each taxpayer claiming the tax credit for major business headquarters 
expansions provided under that section, regardless of the number of persons eligible 
for the credit. 
Sec. 77.  36 MRSA §691, sub-§1, ¶A, as amended by PL 2017, c. 170, Pt. B, §7 
and c. 211, Pt. A, §10, is repealed and the following enacted in its place: 
A.  "Eligible business equipment" means qualified property that, in the absence of 
this subchapter, would first be subject to assessment under this Part on or after April 
1, 2008.  "Eligible business equipment" includes, without limitation, repair parts, 
replacement parts, replacement equipment, additions, accessions and accessories to 
other qualified business property that first became subject to assessment under this 
Part before April 1, 2008 if the part, addition, equipment, accession or accessory 
would, in the absence of this subchapter, first be subject to assessment under this Part 
on or after April 1, 2008.  "Eligible business equipment" also includes inventory 
parts. "Eligible business equipment" does not include property eligible for exemption 
under section 652. 
"Eligible business equipment" does not include: 
(1) Office furniture, including, without limitation, tables, chairs, desks, 
bookcases, filing cabinets and modular office partitions; 
(2) Lamps and lighting fixtures used primarily for the purpose of providing 
general purpose office or worker lighting; 
(3) Property owned or used by an excluded person; 
(4) Telecommunications personal property subject to the tax imposed by section 
457; 
(5)  Gambling machines or devices, including any device, machine, paraphernalia 
or equipment that is used or usable in the playing phases of any gambling activity 
as that term is defined in Title 8, section 1001, subsection 15, whether that 
activity consists of gambling between persons or gambling by a person involving 
the playing of a machine. "Gambling machines or devices" includes, without 
limitation: 
(a)  Associated equipment as defined in Title 8, section 1001, subsection 2; 
(b)  Computer equipment used directly and primarily in the operation of a 
slot machine as defined in Title 8, section 1001, subsection 39; 
(c)  An electronic video machine as defined in Title 17, section 1831, 
subsection 4; 
(d)  Equipment used in the playing phases of lottery schemes; and 
(e)  Repair and replacement parts of a gambling machine or device;  
(6)  Property located at a retail sales facility and used primarily in a retail sales 
activity unless the property is owned by a business that operates a retail sales 
facility in the State exceeding 100,000 square feet of interior customer selling 
space that is used primarily for retail sales and whose Maine-based operations 
derive less than 30% of their total annual revenue on a calendar year basis from 
sales that are made at a retail sales facility located in the State.  For purposes of 
this subparagraph, the following terms have the following meanings: 
(a)  "Primarily" means more than 50% of the time; 
(b)  "Retail sales activity" means an activity associated with the selection and 
retail purchase of goods or rental of tangible personal property.  "Retail sales 
activity" does not include production as defined in section 1752, subsection 
9-B; and 
(c)  "Retail sales facility" means a structure used to serve customers who are 
physically present at the facility for the purpose of selection and retail 
purchase of goods or rental of tangible personal property.  "Retail sales 
facility" does not include a separate structure that is used as a warehouse or 
call center facility; 
(7)  Property that is not entitled to an exemption by reason of the additional 
limitations imposed by subsection 2; or 
(8)  Personal property that would otherwise be entitled to exemption under this 
subchapter used primarily to support a telecommunications antenna used by a 
telecommunications business subject to the tax imposed by section 457. 
Sec. 78.  36 MRSA §2903, sub-§1, as amended by PL 2011, c. 240, §24, is 
further amended to read: 
1.  Excise tax imposed.  Beginning July 1, 2008 and ending June 30, 2009, an excise 
tax is imposed on internal combustion engine fuel used or sold in this State, including 
sales to the State or a political subdivision of the State, at the rate of 28.4¢ per gallon, 
except that the rate is 3.4¢ per gallon on internal combustion engine fuel bought or used 
for the purpose of propelling jet or turbojet engine aircraft.  Beginning July 1, 2009, an 
excise tax is imposed on internal combustion engine fuel used or sold in this State, 
including sales to the State or a political subdivision of the State, at the rate of 29.5¢ per 
gallon, except that the rate is 3.4¢ per gallon on internal combustion engine fuel bought 
or used for the purpose of propelling jet engine aircraft.  The tax rate provided by this 
subsection except the rate of tax imposed on fuel bought or used for the purpose of 
propelling jet engine aircraft is subject to an annual inflation adjustment pursuant to 
section 3321.  Any fuel containing at least 10% internal combustion engine fuel is subject 
to the tax imposed by this section. 
Sec. 79.  36 MRSA §3203, sub-§1-B, as amended by PL 2011, c. 240, §25, is 
further amended to read: 
1-B.  Generally; rates.  Except as provided in section 3204-A, beginning July 1, 
2008 and ending June 30, 2009, an excise tax is levied and imposed on all suppliers of 
distillates sold, on all retailers of low-energy fuel sold and on all users of special fuel 
used in this State for each gallon of distillate at the rate of 29.6¢ per gallon.  Beginning 
July 1, 2009, an excise tax is levied and imposed on all suppliers of distillates sold, on all 
retailers of low-energy fuel sold and on all users of special fuel used in this State for each 
gallon of distillate at the rate of 30.7¢ per gallon.  Tax rates for each gallon of low-energy 
fuel are based on the British Thermal Unit, referred to in this subsection as "BTU," 
energy content for each fuel as based on gasoline gallon equivalents or the comparable 
measure for distillates.  The gasoline gallon equivalent is the amount of alternative fuel 
that equals the BTU energy content of one gallon of gasoline.  In the case of distillates, 
the tax rate provided by this section is subject to annual inflation adjustment pursuant to 
section 3321.  For purposes of this subsection, "base rate" means the rate in effect for 
gasoline or diesel on July 1st of each year as indexed under section 3321.  A biodiesel 
blend containing less than 90% biodiesel fuel is subject to the rate of tax imposed on 
diesel. 
A.  This paragraph establishes the applicable BTU values and tax rates based on 
gasoline gallon equivalents. 
B.  This paragraph establishes the applicable BTU values and tax rates based on 
distillate gallon equivalents. 
C.  The conversion factors established in this paragraph must be used in converting to 
gasoline gallon equivalents. 
(1)  For compressed natural gas, BTUs per 100 standard cubic feet is 93,000, and 
there are 123.66 standard cubic feet per gasoline gallon equivalent. 
(2)  For hydrogen, BTUs per 100 standard cubic feet is 27,000, and there are 
425.93 standard cubic feet per gasoline gallon equivalent. 
(3)  For hydrogen compressed natural gas, BTUs per 100 standard cubic feet is 
79,800, and there are 144.11 standard cubic feet per gasoline gallon equivalent. 
Fuel type based on gasoline BTU content per gallon or 
gasoline gallon equivalent 
Tax rate formula (BTU 
value fuel/BTU value 
gasoline) x base rate 
gasoline 
Gasoline 
115,000 
100% x base rate 
Propane 
84,500 
73% x base rate 
Compressed Natural Gas 
(CNG) 
115,000 
100% x base rate 
Methanol 
56,800 
49% x base rate 
Ethanol 
76,000 
66% x base rate 
Hydrogen 
115,000 
100% x base rate 
Hydrogen Compressed 
Natural Gas 
115,000 
100% x base rate 
Fuel type based on diesel 
BTU content per gallon or 
gallon equivalent 
Tax rate formula (BTU 
value fuel/BTU value 
diesel) x base rate diesel 
Diesel 
128,400 
100% x base rate 
Liquefied Natural Gas 
(LNG) 
73,500 
57% x base rate 
Biodiesel 
118,300 
92% x base rate 
Sec. 80.  36 MRSA §3208, first ¶, as amended by PL 2007, c. 438, §78, is further 
amended to read: 
Every user subject to the tax imposed by section 3203 is entitled to a credit on the 
tax, equivalent to the then current rate of taxation per gallon imposed by section 3203 as 
adjusted pursuant to section 3321, on all special fuel purchased by that user from a 
supplier or retailer licensed in accordance with section 3204 upon which the tax imposed 
by section 3203 has been paid.  Evidence of the payment of that tax, in a form required by 
or satisfactory to the State Tax Assessor, must be furnished by each user claiming the 
credit.  When the amount of the credit to which any user is entitled for any quarter 
exceeds the amount of the tax for which that user is liable for the same quarter, the excess 
may be allowed as a credit on the tax for which that user would be otherwise liable for 
another quarter or quarters.  Upon application to the assessor, the excess may be refunded 
if the applicant has paid to another state or province under a lawful requirement of that 
jurisdiction a tax similar in effect to the tax imposed by section 3203 on the use or 
consumption of that fuel outside the State, at the same rate per gallon that tax was paid in 
this State, but in no case to exceed the then current rate per gallon of the tax imposed by 
section 3203 as adjusted pursuant to section 3321. Upon receipt of the application the 
assessor, if satisfied after investigation that a refund is justified, shall so certify to the 
State Controller.  The refund must be paid out of the Highway Fund.  This credit lapses at 
the end of the last quarter of the year following that in which the credit arose. 
Sec. 81.  36 MRSA §5219-QQ, sub-§1, ¶G, as enacted by PL 2017, c. 297, §2, 
is amended to read: 
G.  "Qualified applicant" means an applicant that, at the time an application for a 
certificate of approval is submitted, satisfies all of the following criteria: 
(1)  The applicant's headquarters are or will be located in the State; 
(2)  The applicant employs at least 5,000 full-time employees worldwide of 
which at least 25% are or will be employees based in this the State; 
(3)  The applicant has business locations in at least 3 other states or foreign 
countries; and 
(4)  The applicant intends to make a qualified investment in the State within 5 
years following the date of the application. 
Sec. 82.  36 MRSA §5219-QQ, sub-§4, ¶A, as enacted by PL 2017, c. 297, §2, 
is amended to read: 
A.  On or before March 1st of each year, a certified applicant shall file a report with 
the commissioner for the tax year ending during the immediately preceding calendar 
year, referred to in this paragraph as "the report year," containing the following 
information:  
(1)  The number of full-time employees based in this the State of the certified 
applicant on the last day of the tax year ending during the calendar year 
immediately preceding the report year; and 
(2)  The incremental amount of qualified investment made in the report year. 
The commissioner may prescribe forms for the annual report described in this 
paragraph.  The commissioner shall provide copies of the report to the State Tax 
Assessor and to the joint standing committee of the Legislature having jurisdiction 
over taxation matters at the time the report is received. 
Sec. 83.  36 MRSA §5283-A, sub-§1, as amended by PL 2017, c. 284, Pt. 
AAAA, §2 and Pt. DDDD, §2, is repealed and the following enacted in its place: 
1.  Minimum threshold for total contributions.  The State Tax Assessor may not 
include on an individual income tax return form a designation for a taxpayer to make a 
contribution through a checkoff under section 5284, 5284-A, 5285, 5288-A, 5289 or 5291 
unless on returns filed in the prior calendar year the total contributions to the organization 
or fund to which the contributions are credited under the applicable section are at least: 
A.  For calendar year 2012, $10,000; 
B.  For calendar year 2013, $13,000; 
C.  For calendar year 2014, $16,000; 
D.  For calendar year 2015, $19,000; 
E.  For calendar year 2016, $22,000; and 
F.  For calendar years beginning on or after January 1, 2017, $25,000. 
This subsection does not apply to a contribution checkoff that has been on the individual 
income tax form for less than one year. 
Sec. 84.  37-B MRSA §3, sub-§1, ¶D, as amended by PL 2017, c. 108, §1 and 
amended by c. 114, §1, is repealed and the following enacted in its place: 
D.  Have the following powers and duties. 
(1)  The Adjutant General shall administer the department subordinate only to the 
Governor. 
(2)  The Adjutant General shall establish methods of administration consistent 
with the law necessary for the efficient operation of the department. 
(3)  The Adjutant General may prepare a budget for the department. 
(4)  The Adjutant General may transfer personnel from one bureau to another 
within the department. 
(5)  The Adjutant General shall supervise the preparation of all state 
informational reports required by the federal military establishment. 
(6)  The Adjutant General shall keep an accurate account of expenses incurred 
and, in accordance with Title 5, sections 43 to 46, make a full report to the 
Governor as to the condition of the military forces, and as to all business 
transactions of the Military Bureau, including detailed statements of expenditures 
for military purposes. 
(7)  The Adjutant General is responsible for the custody, care and repair of all 
military property belonging to or issued to the State for the military forces and 
shall dispose of military property belonging to the State that is unserviceable.  
The Adjutant General shall account for and deposit the proceeds from that 
disposal with the Treasurer of State, who shall credit them to the Capital Repair, 
Maintenance, Construction and Acquisition Account of the Military Bureau. 
(8)  The Adjutant General may sell for cash to officers of the state military forces, 
for their official use, and to organizations of the state military forces, any military 
or naval property that is the property of the State.  The Adjutant General shall, 
with an annual report, render to the Governor an accurate account of the sales and 
deposit the proceeds of the sales with the Treasurer of State, who shall credit 
them to the General Fund. 
(9)  The Adjutant General shall represent the state military forces for the purpose 
of establishing the relationship between the federal military establishment and the 
various state military staff departments. 
(10)  The Adjutant General shall accept, receive and administer federal funds for 
and on behalf of the State that are available for military purposes or that would 
further the intent and specific purposes of this chapter and chapter 3.  The 
Adjutant General shall provide the personnel, supplies, services and matching 
funds required by a federal cost-sharing arrangement pursuant to 31 United States 
Code, Chapters 63 and 65 (2013); 32 United States Code (2013); and National 
Guard Regulation 5-1 (2010).  The Adjutant General shall receive funds and 
property and an accounting for all expenditures and property acquired through 
such a federal cost-sharing arrangement and make returns and reports concerning 
those expenditures and that property as required by such a federal cost-sharing 
arrangement. 
(11)  The Adjutant General shall acquire, construct, operate and maintain military 
facilities necessary to comply with this Title and Title 32 of the United States 
Code and shall operate and maintain facilities now within or hereafter coming 
within the jurisdiction of the Military Bureau. 
(12)  The Adjutant General may adopt rules pertaining to compliance with state 
and federal contracting requirements, subject to Title 5, chapter 375.  Those rules 
must provide for approval of contracts by the appropriate state agency. 
(13)  The Adjutant General shall allocate and supervise any funds made available 
by the Legislature to the Civil Air Patrol. 
(14)  The Adjutant General shall report at the beginning of each biennium to the 
joint standing committee of the Legislature having jurisdiction over veterans' 
affairs on any recommended changes or modifications to the laws governing 
veterans' affairs, particularly as those changes or modifications relate to changes 
in federal veterans' laws.  The report must include information on the status of 
communications with the United States Department of Veterans Affairs regarding 
the potential health risks to and the potential disabilities of veterans who as 
members of the Maine National Guard were exposed to environmental hazards at 
the Canadian military support base in Gagetown, New Brunswick, Canada. 
(15)  The Adjutant General may receive personal property from the United States 
Department of Defense that the Secretary of Defense has determined is suitable 
for use by agencies in law enforcement activities, including counter-drug 
activities, and in excess of the needs of the Department of Defense pursuant to 10 
United States Code, Section 2576a, and transfer ownership of that personal 
property 
to 
state, 
county 
and 
municipal 
law 
enforcement 
agencies 
notwithstanding any other provision of law.  The Adjutant General may receive 
excess personal property from the United States Department of Defense for use 
by the department, notwithstanding any other provision of law. 
(16)  The Adjutant General may establish a science, mathematics and technology 
education improvement program for schoolchildren known as the STARBASE 
Program.  The Adjutant General may accept financial assistance and in-kind 
assistance, advances, grants, gifts, contributions and other forms of financial 
assistance from the Federal Government or other public body or from other 
sources, public or private, to implement the STARBASE Program.  The Adjutant 
General may employ a director and other employees, permanent or temporary, to 
operate the STARBASE Program. 
(17)  The Adjutant General shall establish a system, to be administered by the 
Director of the Bureau of Maine Veterans' Services, to express formally 
condolence and appreciation to the closest surviving family members of members 
of the United States Armed Forces who, since September 11, 2001, are killed in 
action or die as a consequence of injuries that result in the award of a Purple 
Heart medal.  In accordance with the existing criteria of the department for the 
awarding of gold star medals, this system must provide for the Adjutant General 
to issue up to 3 gold star medals to family members who reside in the State, one 
to the spouse of the deceased service member and one to the parents of the 
service member.  If the parents of the service member are divorced, the Adjutant 
General may issue one medal to each parent.  If the service member has no 
surviving spouse or parents or if they live outside of the State, the Adjutant 
General may issue a gold star medal to the service member's next of kin, as 
reported to the department, who resides in the State. 
(18)  The Adjutant General may establish a National Guard Youth Challenge 
Program consistent with 32 United States Code, Section 509 (1990).  The 
Adjutant General may accept financial assistance from the Federal Government 
or other public body or from other sources, public and private, to implement the 
National Guard Youth Challenge Program.  The Adjutant General may employ a 
director and other employees, permanent or temporary, to operate the program. 
(19)  The Adjutant General may execute cooperative agreements for purposes 
described or defined by this Title and other arrangements necessary to operate the 
department. 
(20)  The Adjutant General shall act as the Governor's homeland security advisor. 
(21)  The Adjutant General shall implement a program to identify residents of the 
State who are not considered veterans but are military retirees or former members 
of the Maine Army National Guard or Maine Air National Guard who 
successfully completed service. 
(22)  The Adjutant General may negotiate and execute agreements to provide 
state military forces to or accept military forces from other states in support of 
federally funded National Guard missions. 
(23)  The Adjutant General may provide logistical and administrative support to 
military welfare societies as defined in 10 United States Code, Section 1033(b)(2) 
in the performance of their functions and to state military welfare societies as 
defined in section 101-A, subsection 3 in the performance of their functions to 
provide relief directly to members of the Maine National Guard and the Maine 
Air National Guard and to facilitate the distribution of emergency financial relief 
in accordance with section 158. 
Sec. 85.  37-B MRSA §851, first ¶, as enacted by PL 2013, c. 146, §18, is 
amended to read: 
The director, in consultation with the Office of the Chief Medical Examiner, the 
Department of Health and Human Services and the Maine Center for Disease Control and 
Prevention within that department and other agencies as appropriate, shall prepare a plan 
for the recovery, identification and disposition of human remains in a disaster.  The 
Office of the Chief Medical Examiner is responsible for execution of the plan, and all 
members of the emergency management forces shall cooperate and assist the office in 
executing the plan. 
Sec. 86.  38 MRSA §469, sub-§1, ¶D-1, as enacted by PL 2017, c. 137, Pt. B, 
§16, is amended to read: 
D-1.  Long Island. 
(1) Tidal waters of the Town of Long Island located within the area described by 
the following points: from a point located at latitude 43º - 38'-21" N., longitude 
70º - 05'-00" W.; thence running due west to a point located at latitude 43º - 38'-
21" N., longitude 70º - 08'-52" W.; thence running northwesterly to a point 
located at latitude 43º - 38'-27" N., longitude 70º - 08'-58" W.; thence running 
northeasterly to a point located at latitude 43º - 40'-08" N., longitude 70º - 07'-03" 
W.; thence running southeasterly to point of beginning - Class SA. 
Sec. 87.  38 MRSA §469, sub-§1, ¶E, as amended by PL 2017, c. 137, Pt. B, §16, 
is further amended to read: 
E.  Portland.  
(1)  Tidal waters of the City of Portland located within the area described by the 
following points: from a point located at latitude 43º - 38'-21" N., longitude 70º -
 01'-28" W.; thence running due west to a point located at latitude 43º - 38'-21" 
N., longitude 70º - 05'-00" W.; thence running northwesterly to a point located at 
latitude 43º - 40'-08" N., longitude 70º - 07'-03" W.; thence running northeasterly 
to a point located at latitude 43º - 41'-17" N., longitude 70º - 05'-43" W.; thence 
running southeasterly to point of beginning - Class SA. 
(2)  Tidal waters of the City of Portland lying westerly of a line beginning at 
Spring Point Light in South Portland to the easternmost point of Fort Gorges 
Island, thence running northerly to the southernmost point of Mackworth Island - 
Class SC. 
(3)  Tidal waters of the City of Portland located within the area described by the 
following points: from a point located at latitude 43º - 38'-21" N., longitude 70º -
 08'-52" W.; thence running due west to a point located at latitude 43º - 38'-21" 
N., longitude 70º - 09'-06" W.; thence running northeasterly to a point located at 
latitude 43º - 38'-27" N., longitude 70º - 08'-58" W.; thence running southeasterly 
to point of beginning - Class SA. 
Sec. 88.  38 MRSA §1362, sub-§1, ¶A, as amended by PL 1987, c. 517, §29, is 
further amended to read: 
A.  Any substance identified by the board commissioner under section 1319-O; 
Sec. 89.  PL 2017, c. 2, Pt. P, §1 is amended to read: 
Sec. P-1.  Establishment of Opioid Health Home Program.  The Opioid 
Home Health Home Program, referred to in this Part as "the program," is established 
within the Department of Health and Human Services.  The department shall determine 
criteria to allow a provider to qualify as an opioid health home and to obtain funding from 
the department.  As used in this section, "opioid health home" means a provider of 
services based on an integrated care delivery model focused on whole-person treatment 
including, but not limited to, counseling, care coordination, medication-assisted 
treatment, peer support and medical consultation, for individuals who have been 
diagnosed with an opioid addiction and who are also: 
1.  Uninsured; 
2.  MaineCare members; or 
3.  Uninsured and MaineCare-eligible. 
The department shall establish by emergency rule pursuant to section 5 of this Part 
the criteria for qualification as an opioid health home and the payment structure to 
support each qualified opioid health home. 
Sec. 90.  PL 2017, c. 284, Pt. FF, §2, is amended to read: 
Sec. FF-2. Maine Governmental Facilities Authority; issuance of securities.  
Pursuant to the Maine Revised Statutes, Title 4, section 1606, subsection 2 and section 
1610-J 1610-K, and notwithstanding the limitation contained in Title 4, section 1606, 
subsection 2 regarding the amount of securities that may be issued, the Maine 
Governmental Facilities Authority is authorized to issue securities in its own name in an 
amount up to $30,000,000.  Proceeds must be used for the purpose of paying the costs 
associated with capital repairs and improvements to and construction of state-owned 
facilities and with hazardous waste cleanup on state-owned properties as designated by 
the Commissioner of Administrative and Financial Services. 
Emergency clause.  In view of the emergency cited in the preamble, this 
legislation takes effect when approved. 
SUMMARY 
Section 1 corrects a numbering problem created by Public Law 2017, chapters 284 
and 288, which enacted 2 substantively different provisions with the same section 
number. 
Section 2 corrects a technical error. 
Section 3 corrects a cross-reference to a repealed provision of law. 
Section 4 corrects an obsolete reference and makes grammatical corrections. 
Section 5 corrects a conflict created when Public Law 2017, chapter 211 repealed 
Title 5, section 13070-J, subsection 4, paragraph A and chapter 264 amended the 
paragraph.  This section corrects the conflict by repealing Title 5, section 13070-J, 
subsection 4, paragraph A. 
Section 6 corrects a cross-reference. 
Section 7 corrects a clerical error. 
Section 8 corrects a clerical error. 
Section 9 corrects a reference to the Department of Public Safety, Bureau of State 
Police, State Bureau of Identification. 
Section 10 corrects the format of 2 cross-references. 
Sections 11 to 13 conform the term "racing date" to the defined term "race date" in 
the laws governing harness racing. 
Section 14 corrects a conflict created by Public Law 2017, chapters 284 and 303, 
which enacted 2 substantively different provisions with the same subsection number.  
This section incorporates the provisions of both laws. 
Section 15 removes an obsolete cross-reference. 
Sections 16 and 17 correct a conflict created by Public Law 2017, chapters 178 and 
228, which enacted 2 substantively different provisions with the same chapter number in 
the Maine Revised Statutes, Title 10.  These sections correct the conflict by repealing 
Title 10, chapter 229 and replacing it with the chapter 178 version and enacting the 
chapter 228 version as Title 10, chapter 231. 
Section 18 corrects a clerical error. 
Section 19 corrects a reference to the State Board of Licensure for Professional 
Engineers. 
Section 20 corrects a clerical error. 
Section 21 corrects a reference to the Director of the Bureau of Resource Information 
and Land Use Planning within the Department of Agriculture, Conservation and Forestry. 
Section 22 corrects a conflict created by Public Law 2017, chapters 100 and 164, 
which affected the same provision of law, by incorporating the changes made by both 
laws. 
Section 23 corrects a conflict created by Public Law 2017, chapters 164 and 239, 
which affected the same provision of law, by incorporating the changes made by both 
laws. 
Section 24 corrects a conflict created by Public Law 2017, chapters 72 and 96, which 
affected the same provision of law, by incorporating the changes made by both laws. 
Section 25 corrects a conflict created by Public Law 2017, chapters 206 and 227, 
which affected the same provision of law, by incorporating the changes made by both 
laws and making a change to the language adopted from chapter 227 to conform the 
language to changes made by chapter 206.  It eliminates language that applied before 
January 1, 2018 and corrects a reference to federal law. 
Section 26 repeals a redundant provision of law. 
Section 27 corrects a conflict created by Public Law 2017, chapter 284, Parts C and 
VVVVV, which enacted substantively similar provisions with the same paragraph letter 
but different language, by repealing the paragraph and replacing it with the Part VVVVV 
version. 
Sections 28 to 30 correct a numbering problem created by Public Law 2017, chapter 
284, Parts C and JJJJJJJ, which enacted 2 substantively different provisions with the same 
paragraph letter, and make a technical change. 
Section 31 corrects a reference to law regarding campaign reports in municipal 
elections in the campaign reporting laws. 
Section 32 corrects a cross-reference and makes grammatical changes. 
Section 33 corrects cross-references. 
Sections 34 and 35 correct references to the Department of the Attorney General, 
Office of Chief Medical Examiner. 
Section 36 corrects a conflict created by Public Law 2017, chapters 38 and 70, which 
affected the same provision of law, by incorporating the changes made by both laws. 
Sections 37 to 41 correct references to the Department of the Attorney General, 
Office of Chief Medical Examiner.  Section 41 also corrects grammatical errors. 
Section 42 corrects a clerical error and the format of a cross-reference. 
Section 43 corrects a reference to the Department of Public Safety, State Bureau of 
Identification. 
Section 44 corrects a clerical error. 
Section 45 corrects a clerical error and grammatical errors. 
Section 46 makes a technical correction. 
Section 47 removes a reference to the laws governing the Maine Health Care Finance 
Commission, which were repealed by Public Law 1995, chapter 653, Part B, section 4. 
Sections 48 to 51 correct a lettering problem created by Public Law 2017, chapters 
204, 253 and 258, which enacted 3 substantively different provisions with the same 
paragraph letter, and make technical changes. 
Sections 52 and 53 correct a lettering problem created by Public Law 2017, chapters 
204, 253 and 258, which enacted 3 substantively different provisions with the same 
paragraph letter and make technical changes. 
Section 54 corrects a conflict created by Public Law 2017, chapters 253 and 258, 
which affected the same provision of law, by incorporating the changes made by both 
laws.  It also adds a cross-reference for the State Board of Nursing. 
Section 55 corrects a clerical error and grammatical errors, makes language gender 
neutral and updates usage. 
Section 56 corrects a conflict created by Public Law 2017, chapters 110 and 117, 
which affected the same provision of law, by repealing the provision and replacing it with 
the chapter 110 version. 
Section 57 corrects a conflict created by Public Law 2017, chapters 110 and 117, 
which affected the same provision of law, by repealing the provision and replacing it with 
the chapter 110 version. 
Section 58 corrects a clerical error. 
Sections 59 to 61 correct a conflict created by Public Law 2017, chapters 27 and 229, 
which affected the same provision of law. The changes made by chapter 27 are subject to 
a future effective date of July 1, 2019.  Section 59 repeals the Maine Revised Statutes, 
Title 29-A, section 1405, subsection 3 and replaces it with the chapter 229 version with a 
future repeal date of July 1, 2019.  Section 60 enacts Title 29-A, section 1405, subsection 
3-A, which incorporates the changes made by chapters 27 and 229.  Section 61 provides 
an effective date of July 1, 2019 for Title 29-A, section 1405, subsection 3-A.  Sections 
and 60 also correct grammatical errors. 
Section 62 corrects a conflict created by Public Law 2017, chapters 281 and 284, 
which affected the same provision of law, by incorporating the changes made by both 
laws. 
Section 63 corrects a reference to the Office of Chief Medical Examiner within the 
Department of the Attorney General. 
Section 64 corrects a clerical error. 
Section 65 corrects a grammatical error. 
Section 66 corrects clerical errors. 
Section 67 corrects a cross-reference and a clerical error and makes a grammatical 
change. 
Section 68 corrects a grammatical error. 
Section 69 corrects a clerical error. 
Section 70 removes a cross-reference to a repealed section of law. 
Section 71 corrects a conflict created when Public Law 2017, chapter 93 amended 
Title 34-B, section 1207, subsection 1, paragraph B-3 and chapter 147 repealed the 
paragraph.  This section corrects the conflict by repealing Title 34-B, section 1207, 
subsection 1, paragraph B-3. 
Section 72 corrects a cross-reference. 
Section 73 corrects a cross-reference and makes a technical correction. 
Section 74 makes a technical correction. 
Sections 75 and 76 correct a numbering problem created by Public Law 2017, 
chapters 284 and 297, which enacted 2 substantively different provisions with the same 
paragraph letter, and make technical changes. 
Section 77 corrects a conflict created by Public Law 2017, chapters 170 and 211, 
which affected the same provision of law, by incorporating the changes made by both 
laws. 
Sections 78 to 80 remove cross-references to a repealed provision of law. 
Sections 81 and 82 correct language to clarify intended use of a defined term. 
Section 83 corrects a conflict created by Public Law 2017, chapter 284, Parts AAAA 
and DDDD, which affected the same provision of law, by incorporating the changes 
made by both laws. 
Section 84 corrects a numbering problem created by Public Law 2017, chapters 108 
and 114, which enacted 2 substantively different provisions with the same subparagraph 
number. 
Section 85 corrects references to the Office of Chief Medical Examiner within the 
Department of the Attorney General. 
Section 86 corrects a clerical error. 
Section 87 corrects clerical errors. 
Section 88 changes a reference to the Board of Environmental Protection to the 
Commissioner of Environmental Protection to conform the provision to changes made by 
Public Law 2015, chapter 124, section 9. 
Section 89 corrects the name of a program within the Department of Health and 
Human Services. 
Section 90 corrects a cross-reference.  The incorrect cross-reference results from the 
reallocation of the Maine Revised Statutes, Title 4, section 1610-J.