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135
cc08a1e9-291e-4ee6-9b37-90bddf5bc2f5
The extraction of upper first molars may be indicated:
When the removal of 4/4 provides insufficient space
Where they are rotated
When their prognosis is poor
When 5/5 are palatally placed
2c
multi
Key concept: Any teeth which is having poor prognosis is indicated for extraction.
Dental
null
cbbe9911-98fc-4e3e-a941-96e314994b8e
Rhinosporidiosis is caused by which of the following?
Fungus
Virus
Bacteria
Protozoa
3d
single
Rhinosporidiosis is caused by Rhinosporidium seeberi. This organism was previously considered to be a fungus. It is now identified to be an aquatic protistan protozoa parasite belonging to the class Mesomycetzoea. ( Ref Scott Brown, 8th edition, VOL 1, Pg no. 208 )
ENT
Nose and paranasal sinuses
03c26382-4b74-43d5-923a-4345e647db76
Calcinosis universalis occurs in –
Ehlers Danlos syndrome
Christian Weber syndrome
Deimatomyositis
Scleroderma
2c
single
Calcinosis universalis is the diffue deposition of calcium salts in the skin, subcutaneous tissue and sometimes in connective tissue. It occurs in Juvenile Dermatomyositis.
Dental
null
8bc8fa51-fdad-4b08-b6b6-15d7a4c3b5b7
Fetal stage starts at:
9 weeks
3 weeks
6 weeks
12 weeks
0a
single
Fetal Growth Periods
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
93be188f-4383-4407-8c10-e27baa961c3f
Which of the following belongs to antifibrinolytic drugs
Alteplase
Urokinase
Aprotinin
Reteplase
2c
single
Antifibrinolytic drugs promote blood clotting by preventing blood clots from breaking down. Some examples of antifibrinolytic drugs are aprotinin, tranexamic acid (TXA), epsilon-aminocaproic acid and aminomethylbenzoic acid. Doctors sometimes give these drugs to patients having surgery to prevent blood loss. Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed.
Pharmacology
Central Nervous system
d87b2443-9dd0-4ace-b0ed-d197ad7158d8
Organism which causes pancreatitis
Mumps
Measles
Candida
Treponema
0a
single
null
Medicine
null
ce565495-ec7f-4170-8cd8-667c07a58cda
Longest acting L.A. – a) Bupivacaineb) Tetracainec) Xylocained) Procaine
ac
a
ad
ab
3d
single
Dibucaine is the longest acting LA (duration is 2.5-3.5 hours). Amongst the given options tetracaine & bupivacaine are longest acting (both have duration of 2-3 hours). Decreasing order of duration :- Dibucaine (longest acting) > Bupivacaine = Tetracaine = Ropivacaine = Etidocaine > Prilocaine = Lignocaine = Mepivacaine = Cocaine > Procaine > chlorprocaine.
Anaesthesia
null
c5b3a14a-e4b8-4302-a59f-4fa1939652ae
Which of the following drugs should be given in sustained release oral dosage form?
An anti-arrhythmic drug with a plasma half life of 10 seconds used for acute treatment of PSVT
An anti-inflammatory drug with a plasma half life of 24 hr
A hypnotic drug with a plasma half life of 2 hours
An antihypeensive with a plasma half life of 3 hours
3d
single
Sustained release preparation are used for prolonged duration of action of drug . So, used when drug has sho half life and when we require the action of drug for longer duration. Anti-hypeensive drug are used for lifelong. So, sustained release preparations are required. Anti-arrhythmic drugs used in treatment of PSVT are not to be used as sustained release preparation as we need action for only a sho duration. Anti-inflammatory drug with the half life of 24 hrs is already acting for long duration we don't need sustained release preparation. Hypnotic drug with a half life of 2hrs will work for 5-6 hrs. So, no need of sustained release preparation.
Pharmacology
Hypeension, Arrhythmias, Dyslipidemia
9d121d43-551c-4561-869b-08f2757051ad
Avascular necrosis may be seen in all of the following, except
Scapula
Head of femur
Upper end of humerus
Body of Talus
0a
multi
Common Site of Avascular necrosisCauseHead and femurFracture neck femur (Subcapital)Posterior dislocation of hipProximal pole of scaphoidFracture through waist of scaphoidBody of talusFracture neck of talusProximal pole of lunateLunate dislocation*Other sites of common AVN are Distal medial condyle, Humeral head, Capitellum, and Metatarsal heads*In the early stages, bone scintigraphy and MRI are the diagnostic modalities of choice.*Non ohopedic causes of AVN - Sclera, Caisson's disease, Lupus erythematosus, Radiation and Alcohol (Refer: Apley's system of Ohopedics and Fracture, 8th edition, pg no: 91-103, 436-439)
Anatomy
All India exam
f4686c11-7ff6-4f34-abf2-625e405848fe
A child presents with infective skin lesion of the leg culture was done which showed gram+ve cocci in chains which where hemolytic colonies. The test to confirm the organism is -
Bile solubility
Optochin sensitivity
Bacitracin sensitivity
Catalase positive
2c
single
null
Microbiology
null
59a170ce-9306-4168-8915-7668054fa294
Which antiepileptic drug is least secreted in breast milk -
Ethosuximide
Clonazepam
Gabapentin
Carbamazepine
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Clonazepam DrugBreast milk to plasma concentrationCarbamazepine0-69Clonazepam033Ethosuximide0-94Gabapentin0-7-1-3Lamotrigine0-057-1-47Phenobarbitone0-4-0-6Phenytoin018-0-45Primidone0-72Topiramate0-86-1-1Valproate0-42Zonisamide0-93
Pharmacology
Epilepsy
1fac3e83-55e5-428c-a7a0-32be9af1b3de
Therapeutic drug monitoring is done for all of the following drugs Except
Phenytoin
diclofenac
Tacrolimus
Cyclosporine
1b
multi
TDM is not done for most commonly used drugs or safe drugs like paracetamol, diclofenac done for antiepileptic drugs, immunosuppressants, anticancer drugs, lithium Phenytoin- antiepileptic, cyclosporin, tacrolimus- immunosuppressants in the options not done for antihypeensives and BP can be measured clinically and easily REF KD Tripathi 8th ed
Pharmacology
General pharmacology
0eb972a7-c63c-42d7-bcf6-d28f406b62e9
β-blocker with additional α-blocking property is
Propranolol
Timolol
Metoprolol
Labetalol
3d
single
null
Pharmacology
null
078d4e1b-53ab-411f-a8c5-0e6409e1464b
The following methods can be used to detect the point mutation in the beta globin gene that causes sickle cell anemia, EXCEPT:
Polymerase chain reaction with allele-specific oligonucleotide hybridization
Southern blot analysis
DNA sequencing
Nohern blot analysis
3d
multi
Point mutation involves the replacement of a single base nucleotide with another nucleotide of the gene. Point mutations in the beta globin gene can be identified by analysing the DNA. Nohern blot is a technique used in studying the RNA and hence the answer of exclusion. Ref: Introduction to Biotechnology By Thieman William, 2nd Edition, Pages 71, 78, 81, 82
Biochemistry
null
964e9fa9-0a35-47d9-882b-80a88bc79efc
Cranial irradiation is also indicated in the treatment of which variety of lung cancer?
Squamous cell carcinoma
Non small cell cancer
Small cell cancer
Adenocarcinoma
2c
multi
Small cell lung cancers or oat cell carcinomas, exhibits aggressive behavior, with rapid growth, early spread to distant sites, exquisite sensitivity to chemotherapy and radiation, and frequent association with distinct paraneoplastic syndromes. Surgery usually plays no role in its management. Widespread metastases occur early in the course of the disease, with common spread to the mediastinal lymph nodes, liver, bones, adrenal glands, and brain. Management of limited-stage small cell lung cancer involves combination chemotherapy, usually with a platinum-containing regimen, and thoracic radiation therapy. If the patient achieves a complete remission, he or she would be offered prophylactic cranial irradiation.
Radiology
null
440b4ac4-11b7-4662-83dc-45a8644c7e1b
The disease most likely to result In presents of emotional contact is
Measles
Typhoid
SSPE
All of above
0a
multi
The poal of entry of measles virus is through the respiratory tract or conjunctivae following contact with large droplets or small-droplet aerosols in which the virus is suspended. Reference: Nelson textbook of pediatrics 19th edition.Page 1070
Pediatrics
Infectious disease
632ce13b-9447-4f89-93af-147da80a4ed5
All of the following are signs of chronic liver failure, Except:
Palmer erythema
Spider nevi
Testicular atrophy
Subcutaneous nodules
3d
multi
Answer is D (Subcutaneous nodules): Subcutaneous nodules are generally not seen as stigmata of chronic liver disease. Chronic Liver Disease manifests with loss of subcutaneous fatty tissue resulting in paper thin skin with marked folds (paper-money skin).
Medicine
null
6d8abf23-31fc-4b89-b8f1-c0098f3c2d18
Immediate management of a child with foreign body inhalation is -
IPPV
Bronchoscopy
Tracheostomy
Exploratory Thoracotomy
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Bronchoscopy Treatment of aspirated foreign body A) Treatment of foreign body in upper respiratory tract. o If obstruction is complete --> Immediate intervention. o If obstruction is paial --> Patients should allow to use their own cough reflex to extrude the foreign body --> If it fails than intervention should be done. o Method of removal of foreign body : - 1)If child is younger than 1 year --> Child should be placed face down over the rescuir's arm with head positioned below trunk. Five measured back blows are delivered rapidly between the scapula. If obstruction persists, the infant should be rolled over and five rapid chest compressions should be performed. This sequence is repeated until the obstruction is relieved. 2) If child is elder than 1 year ---> Abdominal thursts (Heimlich maneuver) should be performed. B) Treatment of foreign body in lower respiratory tract. o The treatment of choice is prompt endoscopic (bronchoscopic) removal of foreign body.
Pediatrics
null
63aa8e57-1604-4567-be91-2762f7673b53
Slipped capital femoral epiphysis is seen most commonly in which age group -
Infants
Adolescents
Old age
Childhood
1b
single
Slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE) occurs during adolescent rapid growth period when epiphysis plate is weak & the capital epiphysis is displaced down & back. * Etiology : age - 10-17years of age Sex- male : female - 5:2 Location: left hip is involved in 58% of the cases *stages 1. Preslipping stage 2.chronic slipping stage 3.stage of fixed deformity *Radiographic changes - *early change : marginal blurring of the proximal metaphysis , lower margin of metaphysis is included within the acetabulum normally but excluded in the early epiphyseal slip, Trethovan &;s line : line drawn along the superior margin of the neck , transects the epiphysis normally , but will be above it in slip, depth of epiphysis is reduced , there is a step between metaphysis & epiphysis. *Late changes : trethovan&;s sign is present , head is atrophic , neck shaft angle is less than 90 degree , new bone formation is seen at the anterior superior pa of neck , joint space is clear , shenton&;s line is broken. * CT scan is very useful in assessing degree of slips. Classification of slipping - mild(51%), moderate(22%), severe slipping (17%) REF:Essential ohopedics, John Ebenezer, 4th edition, pg.no.416
Orthopaedics
Pediatric orthopedics
49f24a91-cf58-48a4-93a1-b818c9fe3694
All are true about vitamin E except ?
Act as antioxidant
Prevent lipid peroxidation of cell membrane
Water soluble vitamin
Chemically tocopheral
2c
multi
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Water soluble vitamin Vitamin E is a fat soluble vitamin (not water soluble). All other options are correct.
Biochemistry
null
15df4505-74e7-45db-a637-75df458c5e71
Contents of the suboccipital triangle are formed by all of the following structures, EXCEPT:
Veebral aery
Suboccipital nerve
Greater occipital nerve
Lesser occipital nerve
3d
multi
The contents of the suboccipital triangle are veebral aery, suboccipital nerve and greater occipital nerve.The suboccipital triangle is the area in the suboccipital region between the rectus capitis posterior major and the obliquus capitis superior and inferior muscles. It is covered by a layer of dense fibro-fatty tissue, deep to the semispinalis capitis muscle. Its floor is formed by the posterior occipitoatlantal membrane and the posterior arch of the C1 veebrae. The suboccipital muscles are:Obliquus capitis superior muscleObliquus capitis inferior muscleRectus capitis posterior major muscleRectus capitis posterior minor muscleRef: Moon D.A., Foreman K.B., Albeine K.H. (2011). Chapter 1. Back.
Anatomy
null
c12899ab-803e-43df-97e7-90da885a75ad
Common Facial vein is formed by the union of
Anterior facial and posterior facial veins
Anterior facial and posterior auricular veins
Anterior facial and maxillary veins
Anterior facial and anterior branch of the posterior facial vein
3d
single
The scalp on each side of the midline is drained by five veins. The veins of the scalp accompany the arteries and have similar names. These are as follows: Supratrochlear and supraorbital veins: They join each other at the medial angle of the eye to form the angular vein, which continues downwards as the facial vein behind the facial artery. Superficial temporal vein: It descends in front of tragus to enter the parotid gland where it joins the maxillary vein to form the retromandibular vein, which terminates by dividing into anterior and posterior divisions. The anterior division unites with the facial vein to form common facial vein, which drains into the internal jugular vein. Posterior auricular vein: It descends behind the auricle and  unites with the posterior division of the retromandibular vein to form the external jugular vein, which drains into the subclavian vein. Occipital vein: It terminates in the suboccipital venous plexus.
Anatomy
null
f8982c34-17d6-4ffe-991f-912d2fb9d541
Branches of brachial aery are all EXCEPT:-
Profunda brachii
Superior ulnar collateral
Inferior ulnar collateral
Radial collateral
3d
multi
Radial collateral aery is anterior descending branch of the profunda brachii aery, not a direct branch of brachial aery.
Anatomy
Upper limb : Miscellaneous
fce378d3-c6ad-42a3-bd96-8da5b7b06c51
During which phase of the cell cycle the cellular content of DNA is doubled -
Mitotic phase
G1 phase
G2 phase
S phase
3d
single
There are two resting phases and two active phases in the cycle. Resting phases → G1 & G2 Active phases S-phase (synthetic phase) - As the name suggests, synthesis of new DNA takes place, i.e. doubling of DNA occurs. M-phase (mitotic phase) - Mitosis takes place and the daughter cells receive one copy of DNA. In this phase, cell number is doubled.
Pathology
null
a1dd1af2-3e95-43e1-810d-d9ed305fad0d
Pancreatic pseudocyst most commonly occurs after ?
Trauma
Pancreatitis
Pancreatic surgery
Pancreatic malignancy
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e. Pancreatitis Most common cause of pancreatic pseudocyst is Pancreatitis (90%) The second most common cause is trauma (10%). Pseudocysts are seen in both acute and chronic pancreatitis.
Surgery
null
681deac9-2c85-4ee2-9d3c-a59af17cc6b2
Major epidemics are due to antigenic drift
Asymptomatic seen rarely
Incubation period 10-12 hrs
All ages and sex equally affected
Pandemic rare
2c
multi
null
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
8c3a9523-e068-4739-8112-442278ce8e2e
Disability adjusted life year (DALY) is a measure of ?
Life expectancy
Effectiveness of treatment
Quality of life
Human development
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Effectiveness of treatment Disability - adjusted life year (DALY) DALY is a measure of :- The burden of disease in a defined population The effectiveness of interventions It expresses years lost to premature death and years lived with disability adjusted for the severity of the disability. That means, DALY measures both moality and disability together (in contrast to sullivan's index which is related to disability only). One DALY is one lost year of healthy life. DALY combines following : - Years of lost life (YLL). Years lost to disability (YLD) DALY = YLL + YLD Japanese life expectancy statistics are used as a standard for measuring premature death, as Japanese have the longest life expectancy. Health - adjusted life expectancy (HALE) HALE is the indicator used to measure healthy life expectancy. HALE is based on the life expectancy at bih but includes an adjustment for time spent in poor health. It is the equivalent number of years in full health that a newborn can expect to live based on current rates of ill health and moality.
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
97562fb9-c62b-4bec-99f2-2850e396176a
A drug X is secreted through renal tubules, tubular secretion of this drug can be confirmed if renal clearance of drug X is:
More than the GFR
Equal to the GFR
Less than the GFR
More than volume of distribution
0a
single
* After filtration from glomerulus, a drug may undergo two processes (tubular reabsorption and tubular secretion) before going out from the body i.e. renal clearance *Suppose 100 mg of a drug is filtered by glomerulus and the renal clearance is 150 mg, it means 50 mg is coming from somewhere else, i.e. tubular secretion must be present. However, we cannot say that reabsorption is not occuring because if 20 mg is reabsorbed and 70 mg is secreted, same thing can happen. * Suppose, 100 mg of a drug is filtered but renal clearance is 50 mg. Therefore, 50 mg must have gone somewhere i.e. tubular reabsorption must be occurring. Again, we cannot say that tubular secretion is not present.
Pharmacology
Pharmacokinetics
06a0be0c-7da0-49e7-a843-ae57131373ea
A 28-year-old woman presented with high-grade fever, cough, diarrhea and mental confusion for 4 days. X-ray chest revealed bilateral pneumonitis. Search for etiology will most likely reveal?
Streptococcus pneumonia
Staphylococcus aureus
Legionella pneumophila
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
2c
single
The clinical profile of fever, cough and X-ray revealing bilateral pneumonitis and presence of diarrhea and confusion indicates the presence of Atypical pneumonia. The organism causing atypical pneumonia out of the given choices is Legionella pneumophila Confusion can be explained by hyponatremia due to SIADH. The clinical manifestations of Legionnaires' disease are usually more severe than those of most "atypical" pneumonias. Clinical Clues Suggestive of Legionnaires' Disease Diarrhea High fever (>40degC; >104degF) Numerous neutrophils but no organisms revealed by Gram's staining of respiratory secretions Hyponatremia (serum sodium level <131 mg/dL) Failure to respond to b-lactam drugs (penicillins or cephalosporins) and aminoglycoside antibiotics Occurrence of illness in an area where potable water supply is known to be contaminated with Legionella Onset of symptoms within 10 days after discharge from the hospital (hospital-acquired legionellosis manifesting after discharge or transfer)
Medicine
Pneumonia
184cd6a6-a30e-4439-b4a0-0a37d4be1cdc
Not true about microtubules is/are:
Dynamic instability
Polarity
Charged
GTP not required
3d
multi
D i.e. GTP not required
Physiology
null
6b08f887-55c4-4f6e-b66d-30e83d2441b5
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding vincristine
It is an alkaloid
Its use is associated with neurotoxicity
It does not cause alopecia
It is a useful drug for induction of remission in acute lymphoblastic leukemia
2c
multi
Vincristine is a vinca alkaloid. It is used for the induction of remission in ALL. It is a marrow sparing drug but causes peripheral neuropathy, alopecia and SIADH as adverse effects.
Pharmacology
null
d127dbab-e1b2-4a9f-8f58-931c2c0bc933
Which of the following not a prion associated disease -
Srapie
Kuru
Creutzfeldt Jakob disease
Alzheimer's disease
3d
single
scrapie,CJD&Kuru are prion disease REF:ANATHANARAYANAN MICROBIOLOGY NINTH EDITION PAGE.557
Microbiology
Virology
ecbcb786-c42b-4cae-8fea-2a4918e828b9
Systemic inflammatory response syndrome, false is
Hypoglycemia
Fever
Leukocytosis
Altered mental status
0a
multi
Answer- A. HypoglycemiaIt is an inflammatory state affecting the whole bodn frequently a response of the immune system to infection, but not necessarily so.When two or more of these criteria are met with or without evidence of infection -Body temperature less than 36 c greater than 38 CHea rate greater than 90 beats per minuteTachypneaWhite blood cell count less than 4000 cells/mm3HyperglycemiaAltered mental state
Pathology
null
c09dfbd6-7f27-473f-b937-33902eafe06b
Neuraminidase inhibitor ?
Oseltamivir
Amantadine
Enfuviide
Formivirsen
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Oseltamivir Oseltamivir acts by inhibiting influenza virus neuraminidase enzyme which is needed for release of progeny virions from the infected cell.
Pharmacology
null
29b70167-7b41-4cf9-b6f4-73e646d88352
The recent treatment of sho bridle passable stricture of urethra in the penile and bulbous urethra is
Internal urethrotomy with Thompson-Walker's urethrotome
Optical internal urethrotomy
Syme's operation
Wheelhouse operation
1b
single
Endoscopic (internal) urethrotomy Internal urethrotomy is performed using the optical urethrotome. The stricture is cut under visual control using a knife passed through the sheath of a rigid urethroscope. The stricture is usually cut at the 12 o'clock position, taking care not to cut too deeply into the vascular spaces of the corpus spongiosum that surrounds the urethra. It is possible to get lost when trying to cut a way through a very tight stricture, and this is especially true when there are false passages because of previous dilatation attempts. Accordingly, a guidewire should be passed through to the bladder prior to incision of the stricture in order to establish the true lumen of the urethra. Following urethrotomy a catheter should be left in situ for 1-3 days afterwards. A single urethrotomy seems to give a permanent cure of an uncomplicated stricture in about 50% of patients. Success rates are highest when the stricture is sho and when it is present within the bulbar urethra. In contrast, failure rates are highest in long strictures, strictures within the penile urethra and in recurrent strictures. The main complications are infection and bleeding. Ref: Bailey and love 27th edition Pgno : 1484
Surgery
Urology
eaa5d92e-e4eb-4216-97e0-e4fd43dd4e46
CD8 antigen is present on
T helper cells
B cells
T suppressor cells
Macrophages
2c
single
CD4 antigen is present on t helper cells Cd8 antigen on T suppressor cells CD8 cells recognize MHC class I antigens Ref: Textbook of Microbiology Baveja 5th ed Pg 135
Microbiology
Immunology
1c84989b-784c-49a8-8af9-fecd15ac5200
Hemolytic disease of newborn is least common with which blood group female -
A
B
0
AB
2c
single
Ans. is 'c' i.e., OABO incompatibility has a protective effect to the development of Rh sensitization and thus the development of hemolytic disease of newborn
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
42728737-f7c7-4923-8d22-faab65c2bae5
Primary spermatocytes, chromoso me is -
23-X
23-Y
46-XY
None
2c
multi
Ans. is 'c' i.e., 46-XY Secondary spermatocyte (Haploid -23)-Spermatid(Haploid-23)Spermatogonia - Primary spermatocyteDiploid-46)(Diploid-46)Secondary spermatocyte (Haploid-23)-Spermatid(Haploid-23)
Physiology
Sex Hormones
3a8b6843-e303-49f2-9f5c-652c2f9f57ca
Chlamydia Trachomatis, false is
Elementary body is metabolically active
It is biphasic
Reticulate body divides by binary fission
Inside the cell it evades phagolysosome
0a
multi
Ans. is 'a' i.e. Elementary body is metabolically active Chlamydiae is a gram negative bacteria that are obligate intracellular parasitesThey require the host's ATP as an energy source for their own metabolism. They have a cell membrane transport system that takes on ATP from the host cell and then return backs an ADP. This is called ATP/ADP translocator. Chlamydia life cycleThe chlamydia life cycle is complex as the bacteria exists in two forms (biphasic)Elementary bodyIt is a metabolically inert (does not divide), dense, round, small (300 nm) infectious particle.The outer membrane has extensive disulfide bond cross-linkages that confer stability for extracellular existence.It is an infectious particle that spreads from host to host.Initial body (also called reticulate body)Once inside a host cell the elementary body inhibits phagosome lysosome fusion and grows in size to 1000 nm.Its RNA content increases and binary fission occurs forming the initial body, (initial body)Although the initial body synthesizes its own DNA, RNA and proteins, it requires ATP from the host.Also know * Chlamydia trachomatis has affinity for columnar cells.
Microbiology
Bacteria
f88227ca-5cfc-4894-aba7-8d6c4dcbefcd
All of the following statements are true, except
Infective endocarditis can develop large friable vegetations
Non Bacterial thrombotic endocarditis develops in DIC
Vegetations of Infective endocarditis occurs on both surfaces of cusps
All of the above
2c
multi
Optic C is true for libman - sacks endocarditis seen in SLE. Refer the byte "Vegetations in Endocarditis".
Pathology
null
6a225a5e-50f3-43b1-86b4-735557c8b8cd
Migraine prophylaxis includes:
Verapamil
Valproate
Amitryptiline
All of the above
3d
multi
Trick: Very Volatile Pharma Agent For Migraine Prophylaxis V  →  Verapamil V  →  Valproate P  →  Pizotifen A  →  Amitryptiline F  →  Flunarizine M  →  Methylsergide P  →  Propranolol
Medicine
null
38684780-f0fd-44a3-b859-7e7cd6fd6548
A patient with Lefort-II, Lefort-III and nasoethmoidal fracture with intermaxillary fixation done is best intubated by:
Nasal
Oral
Submental
All of the above
2c
multi
null
Surgery
null
3a35e70b-7ce6-42b1-85ab-25ee1be89659
Ritgen maneuver is done in
Shoulder dystocia
For delivery of head in breech presentation
For delivery of legs in breech
For delivery of head in normal labour
3d
single
Ritgen manuever is done for delivery of head in normal labor to allow controlled delivery of head. When the head distends the vulva and perineum enough to open the vaginal introitus to a diameter of 5cn of more , a towel is drapled ,gloved hand may be used to exe forward pressure on the chin of fetus through the perineum just in front of coccyx. Concurrently the other hand exes pressure superiorly against occiput. This ours nect extension so that the head is delivered with its smallest diameter passing through the introitus and over perineum
Anatomy
General obstetrics
06771210-909a-4361-a099-549b30cc1535
Putting profit ahead of health as a cause of disease is provided by theory of sociology
Marxist theory
Feminist theory
Parsonian theory
Foucauldian theory
0a
single
null
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
b3da4536-6f78-4558-8b11-e7e545d56e04
One year old male child presented with poor urinary stream since bih. The investigation of choice for evaluation is -
Voiding cystourethrography (VCUG)
USG bladder
Intravenous urography
Uroflowmetry
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Voiding cystourethrography o Poor urinary stream since bih suggests urinary tract obstruction (usually infravesical). o Most common cause of urinary tract obstruction in a male child is posterior urethral valve. o And the best diagnostic method for posterior urethral valve is voiding cystourethrogram.
Pediatrics
null
96214f71-a277-44d9-a66e-d4cba1555a82
A 6 year old mentally retarded male child patient presents with hepatosplenomegaly, coarse facial features, corneal clouding, large tongue, prominent forehead, joint stiffness, short stature and skeletal dysplasia. What is the enzyme deficient in this patient?
Iduronate sulfatase
β-Galactosidase
α-L- Iduronidase
β-Glucuronidase
2c
multi
Mucopolysaccharidosis-I H (Hurler’s Disease): Biochemical defect: Homozygous or double heterozygous nonsense mutation of IDUA gene on Chromosome 4p encoding α-L-Iduronidase. Clinical features of MPS I H (Hurler’s Disease): Progressive disorder with multiple organ and tissue involvement that results in premature death, usually by 10 years of age. An infant with Hurler’s syndrome appears normal at birth, but inguinal hernias are often present. Diagnosis is usually made between 6 and 24 month of age. Hepatosplenomegaly, coarse facial features, corneal clouding, large tongue, prominent forehead, joint stiffness, short stature and skeletal dysplasia are seen. Acute cardiomyopathy has been found in some infants < 1 year of age. Most patients have recurrent upper respiratory tract and ear infections, noisy breathing and persistent copious nasal discharge. Valvular heart disease with incompetence, notably of the mitral and aortic valves, regularly develops, as dose coronary artery narrowing. Obstructive airway disease, notably during sleep, may necessitate trachotomy. Obstructive airway disease, respiratory infection and cardiac complications are the common causes of death.  Key Concept: Hurler's disease is due to α-L- Iduronidase enzyme deficiency due to homozygous or double heterozygous nonsense mutation of IDUA gene on Chromosome 4p encoding α-L-Iduronidase. Reference- Harper’s illustrated biochemistry. 30th edition page no: 179
Biochemistry
null
fef017c3-afd7-486b-98cd-b8c6f136f8b7
Muscle which is not there in a modiolus:
Depressor anguli oris.
Buccinator.
Zygomaticus major.
Zygomaticus minor.
3d
single
Modiolus is a point where eight muscles meet at the ANGLE OF MOUTH 1. Depressor anguli oris (or) triangularis 2. Levator anguli oris or caninus 3. Risorius 4. Orbicularis oris 5. Buccinator 6. Zygomaticus major 7. Quadratus labii superioris 8. Quadratus labii inferioris
Dental
null
111ef539-29e1-40bf-bafa-5bdc044008af
SAFE strategy for Trachoma includes all of the following except:
Screening
Antibiotic
Face wash
Environmental improvement
0a
multi
A i.e. Screening
Ophthalmology
null
5c9140f9-974d-42eb-9513-38b0cb486cd0
Dissection of which aery is seen in pregnancy -
Carotid aery
Aoa
Coronary A
Femoral aery
1b
single
Answer is 'b' i.e. Aoa
Surgery
null
123b0bbc-1736-4009-af8c-b57c3688bcf5
All of the follow ing are diaphyseal tumors except-
Ewings sarcoma
Histiocytosis
Fibrosarcoma
Aneurysmal bone cyst
3d
multi
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Aneurysmal bone cyst Sites of tumorsEpiphyseal tumorsMetaphyseal legionsDianhvseai lesionso Chondroblastomao Giant cell tumor (osteoclastoma)o Clear cell chondrosarcomao Osteogenic sarcomao Unicameral (simple) bone cysto Aneuiysmal bone cysto Fibrous cortical defecto Chondrosarcomao Osteochondromao Enchondromao Osteoblastomao Ewring sarcomao Lymphomaso Fibrous dysplasiao Adamantinomao Histiocytosiso Osteoid osteomao Chondromyxoid fibromao Fibrosarcomao Fibrous cortical defecto Non ossifying fibroma
Orthopaedics
Classification of Bone Tumors
d6e838e0-5cc0-423c-9361-9a8cca679b28
Which of the following acts as an antagonist to NMDA receptor?
Ketamine
Spermine
Muscimol
Baclofen
0a
single
Ketamine is a general anesthetic agent which acts by blocking excitatory NMDA type of glutamate receptors.
Pharmacology
Central Nervous system
a8c6b4da-a855-41f4-982d-47e9d87a4dce
Which does not contribute to Enterobillary Fistula ?
Duodenal ulcer
Gall stones
Gastric ulcer
Carcinoma gall bladder
2c
multi
Ans. is 'c' i.e. Gastric ulcer
Surgery
null
d42cc2ff-3742-4468-842a-52445b029cdc
Atomoxetine is used for ?
Nocturnal enuresis
ADHD
Temper tantrums
Patent ductusaeriosus
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., ADHD Atomoxetine it is selective norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor and is approved for use in ADHD. It is indicated in children > 6 years and in adults with concentration and attention problems. Atomoxetine absorbed orally, hydroxylated by CYP2D6 and excreted in urine, mainly as glucuronide. While majority of individuals are extensive metabolizers (EM), few are poor metabolizers (PM) due to polymorphism of CYP2D6. Inhibitors of CYP2D6 like fluoxetine, paroxetine, quinidine increase concentration and toxicity of atomoxetine. It should not be given with MAO inhibitors and is contraindicated in glaucoma.
Pharmacology
null
4767f2aa-baf1-4500-8e57-dc7eb329f76a
Which drug can be administered through all routes?
Fentanyl
Paracetamol
Penicillin G
Azithromycin
0a
multi
Ref: Katzung 11th ed. p. 542Explanation:Most opioid analgesics are well absorbed when given by subcutaneous, intramuscular, and oral routes.Rectal suppositories of morphine and hydromorphone have been used when oral and parenteral routes are undesirable.The transderma I patch provides stable blood levels of drug and better pain control while avoiding the need for repeated parenteral injections.Fentanyl has been the most successful opioid in transdermal application and is indicated for the management of persistent unremitting pain.The intranasal route avoids repeated parenteral drug injections and the first-pass metabolism of orally administered drugs.Butorphanol is the only opioid currently available in the USA in a nasal formulation. Butorphanol has shown greater analgesia in women.Another alternative to parenteral administration is the buccal transmucosal route, which uses a fentanyl citrate lozenge or a "lollipop'' mounted on a stick.
Pharmacology
Pharmacokinetics
6fe0d6a1-cc5c-4975-98ba-77700d6f31fa
Charcot's/neuropathic joint are most commonly seen in
Diabetes Mellitus
Spyringomyelia
Leprosy
Rheumatic Ahritis
0a
single
.
Surgery
Trauma
fbdd21ee-79e4-4707-8fbf-3993b25df747
A 24 year old man falls on the ground when he is struck in the right temple by a baseball. While being driven to the hospital, he lapses into coma. He is unresponsive with the dilated right pupil when he reaches the emergency department. The most important step in initial management is -
Craniotomy
CT scan of the head
X-ray of the skull and cervical spine
Doppler ultrasound examination of the neck
0a
multi
null
Medicine
null
1376f1d6-d83d-4b31-ac2f-11242cbb8473
Most variable absorption is seen with which route?
Oral
Intramscular
Intravenous
Per rectal
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Oral Oral administration of drugs is safe, convenient and economical, but has the potential for the most variable absorption pattern. Clinical pharmacology Routes of drug administration Drugs are administered by various routes. Different routes have different characteristics, so that the route of administration may have a profound effect upon the speed and efficiency with which the drugs act. The routes of drug administration may be: i) Local route ii) Systemic route Local route - Drug is administered at the site of lesion. Systemic route - Drug is administered through systemic routes is intended to be absorbed into the blood stream and distributed all over, including the site of action, through circulation.
Pharmacology
null
3bec9792-8ad2-4368-a65e-e86fff905631
Pain during injection occurs with all Except
Propofol
Thiopentone
Ketamine
Etomidate
2c
multi
Ketamine is the only intravenous inducing agent that does not cause pain on injectionAgentPain on iv injectionThiopentoneMethohexitonePropofolEtomidateKetamine+/0++++++0
Anaesthesia
All India exam
1e88f345-94d7-4a08-a6db-fefa6b71fe8b
Which variety of AML is associated with good prognosis -
MO
M3
M6
M7
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., M3 Prognostic factors in AMLGood PrognosisBad Prognosiso Age < 40 yearso Age < 2 years or > 55 yearso M2, M3, M4 forms of AMLo M0, M6, M7 FORMS OF AMLo Blast cell with Auer rodso Complex karyotypeso TLC <25x109/Lo TLC> 100 x 109/Lo t (15;17), t (8;21), inv 16o Deletions 5q, 7q (Monosomy 5 or 7)o Leukemia without preceeding MDSo AML with preceding MDS or anticancer drug exposure
Pathology
Lukemia
9bbfbe9b-5d44-4c4b-a898-7dd1d63bfbb1
Muscle not having dual nerve supply
Digastric
Thyrohyoid
Trapezius
Adductor magnus
1b
single
Anterior belly of digastric is supplied by the trigeminal nerve and posterior belly by facial nerve Spinal accesory nerve and c3,c4 nerves supply Trapezius Ischial pa of sciatic nerve and the obturator nerve supply adductor magnus Ref: Gray's 39e/p112-127
Anatomy
General anatomy
3c34d08c-f68a-461a-b3a8-2e19b9733efe
Clinical features of T.B. Spine are AJE -
Loss of lordosis
Night sweats
Weight gain
Evening rise of temperature
2c
single
There is weight loss (not gain). The presenting complains are : - Back pain : Commonest and earliest symptom. Initially, pain occurs on the sudden movement of the spine. The stiffness of back : Is also an early symptom and occur along with pain. Visible deformity: Gibbus or Kyphosis Localized swelling : Due to cold abscess   Paraplagia : In neglected cases Constitutional symptoms : Evening fever, loss of appetite, night sweat, loss of weight. On examination, following findings may be seen : - Decreased range of motion. Local tenderness : Over the spinous process of an affected vertebra. Deformity : - Cervical spine : - Straight neck with loss of cervical lordosis. Thoracic : - Gibbus/kyphosis Lumbar : - Loss of lumbar lordosis        iv) Para-vertebral swelling : - Cold abscess
Orthopaedics
null
f7c1b902-a525-4b6f-8186-1753ec79db14
Inheritance pattern of ABO blood group system and HLA system
Pseudodominance
Autosomal dominant
Autosomal recessive
Codominant
3d
single
"The genes that determine the A and B phenotypes are found on chromosome 9p and are expressed in a Mendelian codominant manner."
Pathology
All India exam
41492ae9-1628-40e6-9c26-d9aaa56d682f
Paroxymal sneezing on getting up early in morning from bed is associated with ?
Vasomotor rhinitis
Perineal rhinitis
Seasonal rhinitis
Allergic rhinitis
0a
multi
Vasomotor Rhinitis It is a non allergic rhinitis clinically simulating nasal allergy. Symptoms Paroxysmal sneezing : Bouts of sneezing sta just after getting out of the bed in the morning. Excessive rhinorrhoea : This accompanies sneezing and may be the only predominant symptom. It is profuse and watery and may even wet several handkerchiefs. The nose may drip when the patient leans forward, and this may need to be differentiated from CSF rhinorrhoea. Nasal obstruction : This alternates from side to side. Usually more marked at night. It is the dependent side of nose which is often blocked when lying on one side. Postnasal drip.
ENT
null
df082dfc-9274-4b19-bc92-844e8180ae0d
A young male patient presented with UTI. On urine examination pus cells were found but no organisms. Which method would be best for culture?
Mc Coy culture
Thayer Main medium
L.J medium
Levinthal medium
0a
single
Sterile pyuria -caused by Chlamydia , ureaplasma and mycoplasma. McCoy culture is used for Chlamydia. Thayer Main - Neisseria gonorrhea. L J medium - Mycobacterium tuberculosis Levinthal medium - Hemophilus
Microbiology
All India exam
9d7c41ca-86e9-4be5-a227-2d941ada5981
In the life cycle of malaria parasite, the definitive host is -
Mosquito
Man
Pig
Sandly
0a
single
Life history of plasmodium The malaria parasite undergoes 2 cycles of development the human cycle (asexual cycle) and the mosquito cycle (sexual cycle). Man is the intermediate host and mosquito the definitive host Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno : 281-285
Social & Preventive Medicine
Communicable diseases
fad62936-b769-4009-80a0-d866c1ef3e8a
What is this study?
Retrograde Pyelogram
Ultrasound
X Ray KUB
Contrast CT KUB
0a
single
Retrograde ureterogram demonstrating the collecting system. The radiolucent filling defect in the renal pelvis is caused by radiolucent calculus
Surgery
Urology
720caea5-273d-490c-8b9d-5349a9f1773b
Maximum number of oogonia is seen at
Puberty
20th week of gestation
At birth
20 years age
1b
single
Maximal number of oogonia is achieved at 20th week of gestation.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
e7f110dd-490f-4dc6-aea0-8de386030ba1
All of the following are functions of the spleen EXCEPT ?
Clearance of damaged or aged red blood cells (RBCs) from the blood.
Extramedullary site for hematopoiesis and recycling iron.
Initiation of adaptive immune response from filtration of lymph.
Clearance of encapsulated bacteria from the bloodstream.
2c
multi
Functions of spleen:- 1. Phagocytic function -- when any foreign body invades, macrophages ingest them by phagocytosis & liberate the antigenic products of the organism -- antigens activate the helper T lymphocytes & B lymphocytes 2. Secretion of bactericidal agents -- secrete many bactericidal agents which kill the bacteria I. Superoxide (02-) II. Hydrogen peroxide (H202) III. Hydroxyl ions (OH -) 3. Secretion of interleukins -- IL-1: accelerate maturation & proliferation of specific B lymphocytes & T lymphocytes -- IL-6: cause growth of B lymphocytes -- IL-12: influence the T-helper cells Through the reticuloendothelial system the spleen clears encapsulated bacteria such as pneumococcus and Haemophilus influenzae which are poorly opsonized from the hepatic reticuloendothelial system. In addition to these functions the spleen serves as an extramedullary site for hematopoiesis and plays a functional role in the recycling of iron. While the white pulp of the spleen is impoant in the initiation of the adaptive immune response, material is delivered to the spleen through the blood and not the lymph.
Surgery
Spleen
e47aa61f-6d01-4d6e-90f8-981c300f587c
Sandifer syndrome due to GERD in infants is confused with __________
Seizures
Recurrent vomiting
Acute otitis media
Sinusitis
0a
single
Infants with GERD presents with anorexia, dysphagia, arching of back during feedings, irritability, hematemesis, anaemia, failure to thrive.other symptoms are chest pain, recurrent pneumonia apnoea, wheezing, stridor, hoarseness, cough, abnormal neck posturing(Sandifer syndrome) Sandifer syndrome is most commonly mistaken for seizures Ref : ESSENTIAL PEDIATRICS,O.P.GHAI, PG NO:253, 7th edition
Pediatrics
Gastrointestinal tract
69766fe0-3460-468a-895e-f71a5ddb0bb9
Witches chin is not associated with?
Ptosis of mentalis muscle
Long term edentulous mandible without denture
Loss of muscle attachment
Increased vertical dimensions
3d
single
null
Dental
null
e48b1f0e-cbab-4226-b64f-f388379cbfcd
Inferior orbital fissure is between which 2 walls of orbit:
Roof and medial
Lateral and floor
Floor and medial
Roof and lateral
1b
multi
Inferior orbital fissure is formed between the greater wing of the sphenoid (lateral wall) and maxilla (Floor)runs posterolaterally It transmits the zygomatic branch of the maxillary nerve and the ascending branches from the pterygopalatine ganglion The infraorbital vessels are found in the inferior orbital fissure and travel down the infraorbital groove into the infraorbital canal and exit through the infraorbital foramen Inferior division of ophthalmic vein passes through the inferior orbital fissure. No. 6 is Inferior Orbital fissure No. 3 is Superior Orbital fissure
Ophthalmology
Ocular Embryology& Anatomy
48244b6c-2101-43aa-a695-7887c2120c1c
In a family, mother is normal while father has a genetic disease. All their daughters are carriers and sons are normal, what is the pattern of inheritance of disease?
X-linked recessive
X-linked dominant
AD
AR
0a
multi
a. X-linked recessive(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 595, Ghai 8/e p 640)In a X-linked recessive disease; affected male transmits the disorder to all his daughters (carriers)Sons get their X chromosome from their mother & not from their fatherHence sons of a diseased father are unaffected in X-linked diseasesIn an X-linked dominant disorder all the daughters of an affected father would be diseased and not carriers.
Pediatrics
Genetics And Genetic Disorders
c9dd7ab8-ba64-4c05-9765-a3e69e38da5c
The blood gas parameters: pH 7.58, pCo2 23 mm Hg pO2 300 mm Hg and oxygen saturation 60% are most consistent with-
Carbon monoxide poisoning
Ventilatory malfunction
Voluntary hyperventilation
Methyl alcohol poisoning
1b
single
Answer is B (Ventilatory malfunction) Ventilatory malfunction is the single best answer of exclusion This is consistent with a diagnosis of ventilatory mal function. None of the other three condition satisfy the given parameters of the patients. The answer of exclusion therefore is some form of ventilatory malfunction. In carbon monoxide poisoning ABG analysis would reveal acidosis and nollnal PO2 In voluntary hyperventilation oxygen saturation would be normal. In methyl alcohol poisoning ABG would reveal acidosis and not alkalosis.
Medicine
null
b7771f49-a3ca-4678-a990-a3d3d52e0a71
A 21 year old male presents with anemia and mild hepatosplenomegaly. His hemoglobin is 5 gm/dit, history of single blood transfusion is present till date. Most probable diagnosis is -
Thalassemia major
Thalassemia minor
Thalassemia intermedia
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
3d
single
null
Medicine
null
018d6239-9661-4d5d-995c-325f670406c9
Cause of alpha thalasemia -
Deletion of alpha genes
Deletion of beta genes
Excess of alpha genes
Single amino acid substitution in alpha chain
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Deletion of alpha genes a thalassemiasAlpha thalassemias are hemoglobin disorders in which the a chain of the hemoglobin is not/partly synthesized. a chains are required for all types of hemoglobin synthesis of all types of hemoglobin i.e.HbA (a2 b2)HbF (a2 g2)* HbA2 (a2d2)
Medicine
Thalassemia
5319d11b-e13f-4a02-a642-b145a0236422
Which of the following is/are feature of streptococcus agalactiae rather than staphylococcus aureus?
Catalase positive
Bacitracin resistant
Coagulase negative
a hemolysis
2c
single
C. Coagulase negativeb hemolysis and bacitracin resistance occur in bothStaphylococcus AureusCoagulase Positive: Ananthanarayan Whf2l0Beta type of hemolyisis on blood agar-Microbiology by Baveja 5th/175"Streptococci- coagulase negative" Ananthanarayan lQ7h/218 "Lancefield group B consists of a single species, S. agalactiae, which is definitively identified with specific antiserum to the group B cell wall-associated carbohydrate antigen. A streptococcal isolate can be classified presumptively as GBS on the basis of biochemical tests, including hydrolysis of sodium hippurate (in which 99% of isolates are positive), hydrolysis of bile esculin (in which 99-100% are negative), bacitracin susceptibility (in which 92% are resistant), and production of CAMP factor (in which 98-100% are positive). CAMP factor is a phospholipase produced by GBS that causes synergistic hemolysis with p lysin produced by certain strains ofS. aureus'-Harrison 19th/969Staphylococci produce catalase, which converts hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen. The catalase test differentiates the staphylococci, which are positive, from the streptococci, which are negative- Jawetz 27th/205Ananthanarayan 10th/210Species or common nameLancefield groupHemolysisLaboratory testS. pyogenesABetaBacitracin-sensitive, PYR test-positive; Ribose not fermntedS. agalactiaeBBetaCAMP test, Hippurate hydrolysisBacitracin Test microbeonline.com Positive: Streptococcus pyogenes Negative: Streptococcus agalactiaeThe bacitracin test is useful for differentiating b-hemolytic Group A streptococci from b-hemolytic non-Group A streptococci. This is important because most streptococcal diseases are caused by Group A streptococci. The bacitracin test can also be used to differentiate the bacitracin-resistant Staphylococcus from the bacitracin-susceptible Micrococcuswww.austincc.edu
Microbiology
Bacteria
5c889b9f-b899-4dc2-a52c-8037c1cbc3a8
A neonate diagnosed of having pentalogy of Fallot. She may have the following lesions:
TOF + PDA
TOF + ASD
TOF + COA
TOF + Polysplenia
1b
multi
Patients with tetralogy of Fallot have a VSD, RV infundibular stenosis, RVH, and a dilated aoa (in about 50% of patients it overrides the septum). If there is an associated ASD, the complex is referred to as pentalogy of Fallot. Ref: Bashore T.M., Granger C.B., Hranitzky P., Patel M.R. (2013). Chapter 10. Hea Disease. In M.A. Papadakis, S.J. McPhee, M.W. Rabow (Eds), CURRENT Medical Diagnosis & Treatment 2013.
Pediatrics
null
54909ad0-33a0-4ec3-bed6-6f32c4bfc746
Methadone is used to treat withdrawal symptoms of: PGI 12; NEET 13
Cocaine
Heroin
Amphetamine
Barbiturate
1b
single
Ans. Heroin
Forensic Medicine
null
4eb4b60d-432b-408b-9051-957f16f8f94e
Carbamoyl phosphate synthase I is used in ?
Purine synthesis
Pyrimidine synthesis
Urea cycle
Uronic acid pathway
2c
single
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Urea cycleCarbamyl phosphate synthase I Urea cycleCarbamyl phosphate synthase II- Pyrimidine synthesis
Biochemistry
null
b71e733b-0d95-408c-8bea-3f89a8e77f44
In which of the following types of leukemia is methotrexate administered for CNS prophylaxis -
ALL
AML
CLL
CML
0a
multi
null
Medicine
null
8535272d-d38e-4e83-80a5-78df3628bbb3
Features of Mitral stenosis on X-ray are all EXCEPT:
Double contour of right border
Lifting of left mainbronchus
Splaying of carinal angle
Lower lobe prominence of veins
3d
multi
Lower lobe prominence of veins REF: Sutton's radiology 7th edition page 294 Features of mitral stenosis on X ray: Straightening of hea border (earliest sign ) Lifting of left bronchus Posterior displacement of esophagus Double atrial shadow Alveolar edema Kerly B lines Pulmonary hemosiderosis Cephalisation of upper lobe vessels Moustache sign: Enlargement of main pulmonary aery and periferal pruning
Radiology
null
2bb12dc9-9cd8-40a1-81bb-f89f7f6a1784
Medical etiquette is related to
Moral principles followed by doctors
Legal responsibilities of doctors
Couesy observed between doctors
Rules to be followed by doctors
2c
single
Medical etiquette:- It deals with the conventional laws of couesy observed between members of the medical profession. A doctor should behave with his colleagues as he would have them behave with himself. Medical jurisprudence (juris= law; prudentia = knowledge):- It deals with legal responsibilities of the physician with paicular reference to those arising from physician-patient relationship, such as medical negligence cases, consent, rights and duties of doctors, serious professional misconduct, medical ethics, etc. In sho, it deals with legal aspects of practice of medicine. Ref:- k s narayan reddy; pg num:-01
Forensic Medicine
Medico legal procedures
d162a2c2-a04e-47f6-be8f-dc0683652afd
Because free ammonia in the blood is toxic to the body, it is transported in which of the following non-toxic forms?
Histidine and urea
Phenylalanine and methionine
Glutamine and urea
Lysine and glutamine
2c
single
Ans. C. Glutamine and ureaBoth urea and glutamine play an important role in the storage and transport of ammonia in the blood. Histidine, phenylalanine, methionine, and lysine are not involved in ammonia transport.
Physiology
Misc.
22784de7-ffb3-45a2-8b70-763f4766e60a
Which one of the following structures is pa of the diencephalon?
Caudate nucleus
Cerebral hemispheres
Hippocampus
Thalamus
3d
single
Diencephalon consist of:- Thalamus Hypothalamus Meta-thalamus-include medial and lateral geniculate body Epi-thalamus-include Pineal body, Habenular trigone and post. commisure Sub-thalamus
Anatomy
Neuroanatomy 3
dea5fd60-fe6f-4171-9051-3b758b4e6db7
One of the most common complication of iridocyclitis is:
Scleritis
Secondary glaucoma
Band-shaped keratopathy
Corneal ulcer
1b
single
Ans. Secondary glaucoma
Ophthalmology
null
84634856-263b-4566-b83b-447234430c6a
About retinitis pigmentosa, all are true EXCEPT: September 2012
Ring scotoma
Central scotoma
Waxy pallor of disc
Bone spicule pigmentation in retina
1b
multi
Ans. B i.e. Central scotoma Retinitis pigmentosa Feature: Loss of visual acuity Microscopy: Irregular black deposits of clumped pigment in the peripheral retina (Bone spicules)
Ophthalmology
null
329bff24-9d23-417b-9ecf-5f644a5205d8
Most common carcinoma after burns is:
Squamous cell carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
Melanoma
Mucoid carcinoma
0a
single
Squamous cell carcinoma is MC carcinoma in burns. SCC commonly occurs in long standing ( Marjolin's ulcer) , old scar or keloid. Both Marjolin's ulcer & keloid are complications that arise after burns
Surgery
Burns
74f62b3e-b936-4d9b-abe9-15a0510ee2e4
Which of the following cells do not act as antigen presenting cells. ?-
T-cells
B-cells
Macrophages
Osteoclasts
0a
single
Answer is option 1 T cell responses differ from B cell responses in at least two crucial ways. First, T cells are activated by foreign antigen to proliferate and differentiate into effector cells only when the antigen is displayed on the surface of antigen-presenting cells in peripheral lymphoid organs. The T cells respond in this manner because the form of antigen they recognize is different from that recognized by B cells. Whereas B cells recognize intact antigen, T cells recognize fragments of protein antigens that have been paly degraded inside the antigen-presenting cell. The peptide fragments are then carried to the surface of the presenting cell on special molecules called MHC proteins, which present the fragments to T cells. T cells don't act as antigen presenting cells.
Pathology
General pathology
ff4fa443-2059-4f45-8528-52294e33e624
Commonest cause of obstructive hydrocephalus in children
Acqueductal stenosis
Aquaductal gliosis
Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Tubercular meningitis
0a
single
Aqueducts stenosis is most common cause of obstructive hydrocephalus in children. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition
Pediatrics
Central Nervous system
3c8e7bec-2dc7-4add-a915-3e15a0de0444
Characteristic feature of acute inflammation is:
Vasoconstriction
Vascular stasis
Vasodilatation and increased vascular permeability
Margination of leucocytes
2c
single
. Vasodilatation and increased vascular permeability
Pathology
null
5b89b09f-ff36-427b-a810-c00d9372cefb
According to FIGO classification the investigation in Carcinoma cervix are all except -
X-Ray Chest
IVP
Pelvic ultrasound
Cystoscopy
2c
multi
Ans-C
Unknown
null
777e4501-6a4a-418c-8059-d38880722d15
Most specific marker for neural tube defects is
Alpha-fetoprotein
Unconjugated estriol
Acetylcholinesterase
Pseudocholinesterase
2c
single
Both alpha-fetoprotein and acetylcholinesterase in amniotic fluid are markers for neural tube defects. But acetylcholinesterase is the most specific marker. Ref : Dutta book of obstetrics 8th Ed
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
All India exam
110d1286-fd91-4349-a698-29a20b59deee
The most dreadful complication of Kawasaki disease is
Rash
Lymph node
Cardiac involvement
Thrombocytosis
2c
single
Kawasaki disease is an acute, febrile, usually self-limited illness of infancy and childhood (80% of the patients are younger than 4 years of age) associated with an aeritis of mainly large to medium-sized vessels. Its clinical significance stems from the involvement of coronary aeries. Coronary aeritis can cause aneurysms that rupture or thrombose, resulting in myocardial infarction. (Robbins basic pathology,9th edition,pg no.352)
Pathology
Cardiovascular system
780d95aa-a1de-4707-80e1-929d341a928d
Anaplasia is:
Changing one type of epithelium to another
Nuclear chromatin
Lack of differentiation
Morphological changes
2c
single
Ans. c. Lack of differentiationRef: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease 9th Ed; Page No-269Cellular ChangesHyperplasia: Increase in number of cells. May be a risk factor for future malignancy (e.g. to endometrial hyperplasia) but not considered premalignant.Hypertrophy: Increase in size of cells.Atrophy: Decrease in tissue mass due to increase in size and/or number of cells. Causes include disuse, denervation, loss of blood supply, loss of hormonal stimulation, poor nutrition.Dysplasia: Disordered, non-neoplastic cell growth. Term used only with epithelial cells. Mild dysplasia is usually reversible; severe dysplasia usually progresses to carcinoma in situ.Metaplasia: Replacement of one cell type by another. Usually due to exposure to an irritant, such as gastric acid or cigarette smoke. Reversible if the irritant is removed but may undergo malignant transformation with persistent insult (e.g. Barrett esophagus - esophageal adenocarcinoma).Neoplasia: Uncontrolled, clonal proliferation of cells. Can be benign or malignant.Anaplasia: Complete lack of differentiation of cells in a malignant neoplasm.Differentiation The degree to which a malignant tumor resembles its tissue of origin:Well-differentiated tumors (often less aggressive) closely resemble their tissue of origin.Poorly differentiated tumors (often more aggressive) look almost nothing like their tissue of origin.
Pathology
Neoplasia
bace2c54-6e9c-41be-a415-3e72d4de49c4
Which of the following is not an indication ofcotrimoxazole aEUR'
>Lower UTI
>Prostatitis
>Chancroid
>Typhoid
2c
single
Chancroid Corimoxazole in Typhoid Initially cotrimoxazole was an effective alternative to chloramphenicol. However, in many areas resistant S. typhi have appeared and now it is seldom used. Cotrimoxazole in chancroid Corimoxazole for 7 days is a 3rd choice inexpensive alternative to ceftriaxone, erythromycin or iprofloxacin. Cotrimoxazole It is a combination of sulfonamide (sulfamethoxazole) and trime- thoprim in the ratio of 1 :5. Cotrimoxazole was claimed to be more effective than either of its components individually in treating bacterial infections. Because of its associated greater incidence of adverse effects including allergic responses its widespread use has been restricted in many countries to very specific circumstances where its improved efficacy is demonstracted. Uses of Cotrimoxazole Upper and lower respiratory tract infections - Exacerbations of chronic bronchitis - For otitis media and sinusitis. - It should never be used for streptococcal pharyngitis. Urinary tract infections -Uncomplicated cystitis in non pregnant women. Especially valuable for chronic and recurrent cases. - Prostatitis (cotrimoxazole is concentrated in goodamounts in prostate) Pneumocystic carinii pneumonia -Drug of choice next to pentamidine for the treatment and prophylaxis of pneumonias caused by Pneumocystic Jirovecci (commonly seen in imtnunocompromised patients including those suffering from HIV/AIDS). Other conditions where cotrimoxazole finds its use. -Listeria monocytogens infections - Meliodosis - Shigellosis - Traveller's diarrhoeas (E. coli, Campylobacter, Shigella, Y. enterocolitica) - Prophylaxis of cerebral toxoplasmosis - Whipple's disease - Salmonella (typhoid) initially it was responsive but now resistant strains have emerged. - Chancroid According to K.D.T. - Cotrimoxaxole can be used in both chancroid and typhoid. According to Harrison (18/e) Cotrimoxazole is used in Typhoid but it is not used in chancroid. Antiobiotic therapy in typhoid Empirical Ceftriaxone Azithromycin Fully susceptible Ciprofloxacin Amoxicillin Chloramphenicol Cotritnoxazole Multidrug resistant Ciprofloxacin Ceftriaxonl Azithromycin Nalidixic acid resistant Ceftriaxone Azithromycin High dose ciprofloxacin Treatment of chancroid Ciprofloxacin Ceftriaxone Azithromycin
Pharmacology
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5f0ac119-9f7f-4fdf-b90e-29b444333045
Relationship between nerve thickness and conduction velocity of myelinated nerves is:
Linear
Parabolic
Hyperbolic
No relation
0a
single
Fiber diameter (thickness) and conduction velocity relationship:  The relationship is linear  for  myelinated  axons  and  parabolic relation for non­myelinated axons.
Physiology
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2b5ac590-8591-41a5-9f78-b5544593fe91
A six-year old boy is schedules for examination of the eye under anaesthesia. The father informed that for the past six months the child is developing progressive weakness of both legs. His elder sibling had died at the age of 14 years. Which drug would you definitely avoid during the anaeshetic management?
Succinylcholine
Thiopentone
Nitrous oxide
Vecuronium
0a
multi
A i.e. Succinylcholine Boy is having some myopathy (probably duchenne's). So Sch may lead to life threatening hyperkalemia.
Anaesthesia
null
d4780a29-50c5-4455-a5f0-06545f0bef33
'hn RNA' is associated with which of the following heamatological condition?
a - Thalassemia
Sickle cell anaemia
B - Thalassemia
None
2c
multi
hn RNA is seen in case of splicing defect. It is also seen in spiral muscular atropy.
Biochemistry
null
5d2df81e-9e1f-4701-947e-7750ef5c79cf
Virchow's cells are seen in –
Henoch scholein purpura
Toxic Epidermal necrolysis
Congenital syphilis
Leprosy
3d
single
Foam cells containing lepra bacilli are called virchow's cells (lepra cells). These cells are abundant in lepromatous leprosy.
Dental
null
44bf519a-c799-4707-a4dc-10fd6e4349c6
Following statements are true with respect to glycogen except
Principle storage of carbohydrate in the human body is glycogen
Liver and muscle are the main sites of glycogen storage
Produced by glycogenesis
Insulin stimulates glycogenolysis
3d
multi
Insulin inhibits glycogenolysis by oring the inactivation of glycogen phosphorylase and inhibiting glucose-6-phosphatase. The net effect of all these three mechanisms, blood glucose level is lowered.Ref: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 321
Biochemistry
Metabolism of carbohydrate