Khan/khan-exercises — Issue #15710: Properties of numbers 2 - Properties of numbers 2
Author: KhanBugz
Created: 2012-03-08 10:00:36+00:00
State: open
Labels: ie8, ie9, win7, wrong-or-unclear

Reporter: rjtevelde@gmail.com

By what number can we multiply 2914 to get 1 ?
Answer is 1/2914=0.00034317
It does not respont to the answer. Second this question is a ot harder than the others in this exercise.

[properties_of_numbers_2.html?seed=71&problem=multiplicative-inverse](http://sandcastle.khanacademy.org/media/castles/Khan:master/exercises/properties_of_numbers_2.html?seed=71&problem=multiplicative-inverse&debug)

[Answer timeline](http://sandcastle.khanacademy.org/media/castles/Khan:master/exercises/properties_of_numbers_2.html?seed=71&problem=multiplicative-inverse&debug&activity=%5B%5B%22incorrect-activity%22%2C%22%5C%221%5C%22%22%2C9%5D%2C%5B%22incorrect-activity%22%2C%22%5C%222914%5C%22%22%2C4%5D%2C%5B%22incorrect-activity%22%2C%22%5C%220.00034317%5C%22%22%2C147%5D%2C%5B%22incorrect-activity%22%2C%22%5C%220%2C00034317%5C%22%22%2C8%5D%5D)

["1","2914","2914","0.00034317","0,00034317"]

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