and to wait for his Son from heaven, whom he raised from the dead-- Jesus, who delivers us from the wrath to come.
When Paul spoke of "the wrath to come" did he have in mind the general outpouring of God’s wrath on unbelievers in eternal damnation? Or did he mean a specific instance of God outpouring His wrath at a particular time in history yet future? The commentators, regardless of their eschatological positions, take both positions on this question. For example, some amillennialists believe Paul was speaking generally. [Note: E.g., William Hendriksen, New Testament Commentary: Exposition of I and II Thessalonians, p. 57.] However other amillennialists believe Paul referred to a specific event, namely, the judgment associated with the second coming of Christ. [Note: E.g., Morris, The Epistles . . ., pp. 40-41, and idem, The First . . ., p. 64.] In the amillennial scheme of things this judgment will end the present age. Premillennialists also disagree with one another on this point. For example, some take Paul’s words as a general reference. [Note: E.g., John F. Walvoord, The Thessalonian Epistles, p. 17; and David A. Hubbard, "The First Epistle to the Thessalonians," in The Wycliffe Bible Commentary, p. 1350, who was a premillennial posttribulationist.] Others believe Paul had in mind the Tribulation, which for a pretribulationist is the next great outpouring of God’s wrath in history. [Note: E.g., D. Edmond Hiebert, The Thessalonian Epistles, p. 71.] 