niryuu/sni-each-converted huggingface dataset:
Context: The Bride Was Beautiful (Hungarian: A menyasszony gyonyoru volt, Italian: La sposa era bellissima) is a 1986 Hungarian-Italian drama film directed by Pal Gabor. 
 Question: Who was responsible for the direction of The Bride Was Beautiful?
Output: pál gábor
Context: Aggregation of -synuclein (Syn), the primary protein component in Lewy body inclusions of patients with Parkinson's disease, arises when the normally soluble intrinsically disordered protein converts to amyloid fibrils. In this work, we provide a mechanistic view of the role of N-terminal acetylation on fibrillation by first establishing a quantitative relationship between monomer secondary structural propensity and fibril assembly kinetics, and secondly by demonstrating in the N-terminal acetylated form of the early onset A53T mutation, that N-terminal transient helices formed and/or inhibited by N-terminal acetylation modulate the fibril assembly rates. Using NMR chemical shifts and fluorescence experiments, we report that secondary structural propensity in residues 5-8, 14-31, and 50-57 are highly correlated to fibril growth rate. A four-way comparison of secondary structure propensity and fibril growth rates of N-terminally acetylated A53T and WT Syn with non-acetylated A53T and WT Syn present novel mechanistic insight into the role of N-terminal acetylation in amyloid fibril formation. We show that N-terminal acetylation inhibits the formation of the "fibrillation promoting" transient helix at residues 14-31 resulting from the A53T mutation in the non-acetylated variant and supports the formation of the "fibrillation inhibiting" transient helix in residues 1-12 thereby resulting in slower fibrillation rates relative to the previously studied non-acetylated A53T variant. Our results highlight the critical interplay of the region-specific transient secondary structure of the N-terminal region with fibrillation, and the inhibitory role of the N-terminal acetyl group in fibril formation. 
 Question: Which is the primary protein component of Lewy bodies?
Output: αsyn
Context: Aggregation of -synuclein (Syn), the primary protein component in Lewy body inclusions of patients with Parkinson's disease, arises when the normally soluble intrinsically disordered protein converts to amyloid fibrils. In this work, we provide a mechanistic view of the role of N-terminal acetylation on fibrillation by first establishing a quantitative relationship between monomer secondary structural propensity and fibril assembly kinetics, and secondly by demonstrating in the N-terminal acetylated form of the early onset A53T mutation, that N-terminal transient helices formed and/or inhibited by N-terminal acetylation modulate the fibril assembly rates. Using NMR chemical shifts and fluorescence experiments, we report that secondary structural propensity in residues 5-8, 14-31, and 50-57 are highly correlated to fibril growth rate. A four-way comparison of secondary structure propensity and fibril growth rates of N-terminally acetylated A53T and WT Syn with non-acetylated A53T and WT Syn present novel mechanistic insight into the role of N-terminal acetylation in amyloid fibril formation. We show that N-terminal acetylation inhibits the formation of the "fibrillation promoting" transient helix at residues 14-31 resulting from the A53T mutation in the non-acetylated variant and supports the formation of the "fibrillation inhibiting" transient helix in residues 1-12 thereby resulting in slower fibrillation rates relative to the previously studied non-acetylated A53T variant. Our results highlight the critical interplay of the region-specific transient secondary structure of the N-terminal region with fibrillation, and the inhibitory role of the N-terminal acetyl group in fibril formation. 
 Question: Which is the primary protein component of Lewy bodies?
Output: α-synuclein
Context: Aggregation of -synuclein (Syn), the primary protein component in Lewy body inclusions of patients with Parkinson's disease, arises when the normally soluble intrinsically disordered protein converts to amyloid fibrils. In this work, we provide a mechanistic view of the role of N-terminal acetylation on fibrillation by first establishing a quantitative relationship between monomer secondary structural propensity and fibril assembly kinetics, and secondly by demonstrating in the N-terminal acetylated form of the early onset A53T mutation, that N-terminal transient helices formed and/or inhibited by N-terminal acetylation modulate the fibril assembly rates. Using NMR chemical shifts and fluorescence experiments, we report that secondary structural propensity in residues 5-8, 14-31, and 50-57 are highly correlated to fibril growth rate. A four-way comparison of secondary structure propensity and fibril growth rates of N-terminally acetylated A53T and WT Syn with non-acetylated A53T and WT Syn present novel mechanistic insight into the role of N-terminal acetylation in amyloid fibril formation. We show that N-terminal acetylation inhibits the formation of the "fibrillation promoting" transient helix at residues 14-31 resulting from the A53T mutation in the non-acetylated variant and supports the formation of the "fibrillation inhibiting" transient helix in residues 1-12 thereby resulting in slower fibrillation rates relative to the previously studied non-acetylated A53T variant. Our results highlight the critical interplay of the region-specific transient secondary structure of the N-terminal region with fibrillation, and the inhibitory role of the N-terminal acetyl group in fibril formation. 
 Question: Which is the primary protein component of Lewy bodies?
Output: alpha-synuclein
Context: Father of Lies is a 1998 novel by Brian Evenson. 
 Question: Who is the Father of Lies by?
Output: brian evenson
Context: Bloodstream infections with Staphylococcus aureus are clinically significant and are often treated with empirical methicillin resistance (MRSA, methicillin-resistant S. aureus) coverage. However, vancomycin has associated harms. We hypothesized that MRSA screening correlated with resistance in S. aureus bacteremia and could help determine the requirement for empirical vancomycin therapy. We reviewed consecutive S. aureus bacteremias over a 5-year period at two tertiary care hospitals. MRSA colonization was evaluated in three ways: as tested within 30 days of bacteremia (30-day criterion), as tested within 30 days but accounting for any prior positive results (ever-positive criterion), or as tested in known-positive patients, with patients with unknown MRSA status being labeled negative (known-positive criterion). There were 409 S. aureus bacteremias: 302 (73.8%) methicillin-susceptible S. aureus (MSSA) and 107 (26.2%) MRSA bacteremias. In the 167 patients with MSSA bacteremias, 7.2% had a positive MRSA test within 30 days. Of 107 patients with MRSA bacteremia, 68 were tested within 30 days (54 positive; 79.8%), and another 21 (19.6%) were previously positive. The 30-day criterion provided negative predictive values (NPV) exceeding 90% and 95% if the prevalence of MRSA in S. aureus bacteremia was less than 33.4% and 19.2%, respectively. The same NPVs were predicted at MRSA proportions below 39.7% and 23.8%, respectively, for the ever-positive criterion and 34.4% and 19.9%, respectively, for the known-positive criterion. In MRSA-colonized patients, positive predictive values exceeded 50% at low prevalence. MRSA screening could help avoid empirical vancomycin therapy and its complications in stable patients and settings with low-to-moderate proportions of MRSA bacteremia. 
 Question: What is MRSA?
Output: mrsa
Context: Bloodstream infections with Staphylococcus aureus are clinically significant and are often treated with empirical methicillin resistance (MRSA, methicillin-resistant S. aureus) coverage. However, vancomycin has associated harms. We hypothesized that MRSA screening correlated with resistance in S. aureus bacteremia and could help determine the requirement for empirical vancomycin therapy. We reviewed consecutive S. aureus bacteremias over a 5-year period at two tertiary care hospitals. MRSA colonization was evaluated in three ways: as tested within 30 days of bacteremia (30-day criterion), as tested within 30 days but accounting for any prior positive results (ever-positive criterion), or as tested in known-positive patients, with patients with unknown MRSA status being labeled negative (known-positive criterion). There were 409 S. aureus bacteremias: 302 (73.8%) methicillin-susceptible S. aureus (MSSA) and 107 (26.2%) MRSA bacteremias. In the 167 patients with MSSA bacteremias, 7.2% had a positive MRSA test within 30 days. Of 107 patients with MRSA bacteremia, 68 were tested within 30 days (54 positive; 79.8%), and another 21 (19.6%) were previously positive. The 30-day criterion provided negative predictive values (NPV) exceeding 90% and 95% if the prevalence of MRSA in S. aureus bacteremia was less than 33.4% and 19.2%, respectively. The same NPVs were predicted at MRSA proportions below 39.7% and 23.8%, respectively, for the ever-positive criterion and 34.4% and 19.9%, respectively, for the known-positive criterion. In MRSA-colonized patients, positive predictive values exceeded 50% at low prevalence. MRSA screening could help avoid empirical vancomycin therapy and its complications in stable patients and settings with low-to-moderate proportions of MRSA bacteremia. 
 Question: What is MRSA?
Output: methicillin-resistant s. aureus
Context: Menua (Armenian: ) was the fifth known king of Urartu from c. 810 BC to approximately 786 BC. A younger son of the preceding Urartuan King, Ishpuini, Menua was adopted as co-ruler by his father in the last years of his reign. 
 Question: What noble title does Menua hold?
Output: king of urartu
Context: Heavily in debt, Clinton lobbied the Duke of Newcastle for profitable employment as an American governor: he was appointed Governor of the Province of New York in July 1741 and arrived in New York in September 1743 to take up his position. Promoted to rear-admiral on 10 December 1743 and vice-admiral on 23 June 1744, he sought to protect New York's Northern border from attack by the French: however liberal members of the New York assembly resisted his proposals as they wanted to maintain trade links with the French and with the Native Americans who were under French influence. James De Lancey, who had initially been his main adviser, turned against him and sought to block the governor's salary. Clinton therefore invited Sir William Johnson to take over responsibility for Native American affairs in 1746 and appointed Cadwallader Colden to be his advisor. Clinton was promoted to full admiral on 15 July 1747. Working with the Mohawk chief Hendrick Theyanoguin, Johnson was able to recruit Mohawk warriors to fight on the side of the British in 1747 during King George's War. After continuing disputes with the assembly over military expenditure and payment of the governor's salary, Clinton resigned as governor in October 1753. 
 Question: Which happened first resignation of Clinton or working with the Mohawk chief?
Output: working with the mohawk chief
Context: The War of Jenkins' Ear was a conflict between Britain and Spain lasting from 1739 to 1748, with major operations largely ended by 1742. Its unusual name, coined by Thomas Carlyle in 1858, refers to an ear severed from Robert Jenkins, a captain of a British merchant ship. There is no evidence of the stories that the severed ear was exhibited before the British Parliament. The seeds of conflict began with the separation of an ear from Jenkins following the boarding of his vessel by Spanish coast guards in 1731, eight years before the war began. Popular response to the incident was tepid until several years later when opposition politicians and the British South Sea Company hoped to spur outrage against Spain, believing that a victorious war would improve Britain's trading opportunities in the Caribbean. Also ostensibly providing the impetus to war against the Spanish Empire was a desire to pressure the Spanish not to renege on the lucrative asiento contract, which gave British slavers permission to sell slaves in Spanish America. The war resulted in heavy British casualties in North America. After 1742, the war was subsumed by the wider War of the Austrian Succession, which involved most of the powers of Europe. Peace arrived with the Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle in 1748. From the British perspective, the war was notable because it was the first time that a regiment of colonial American troops was raised and placed "on the Establishment" - made a part of the regular British Army - and sent to fight outside North America. 
 Question: What war was occuring at the same time as the end of the War of Jenkins' Ear?
Output: war of the austrian succession
Context: Abdali invaded the Mughal Empire seven times from 1748 to 1767. According to Jaswant Lal Mehta, Durrani aroused the Afghans "religious passions" to fire and "sword into the land of infidels India." He crossed the Khyber pass in December 1747 with 40,000 troops for his first invasion of India. He occupied Peshawar without any opposition. He first crossed the Indus River in 1748, the year after his ascension- his forces sacked and absorbed Lahore. The following year , the Mughal ruler was induced to cede Sindh and all of the Punjab including the vital trans Indus River to him, in order to save his capital from being attacked by the forces of the Durrani Empire. Having thus gained substantial territories to the east without a fight, Durrani and his forces turned westward to take possession of Herat, which was ruled by Nader Shah's grandson, Shah Rukh. The city fell to the Afghans in 1750, after almost a year of siege and bloody conflict; the Afghan forces then pushed on into present-day Iran, capturing Nishapur and Mashhad in 1751. Durrani then pardoned Shah Rukh and reconstituted Khorasan, but a tributary of the Durrani Empire. This marked the westernmost border of the Afghan Empire as set by the Pul-i-Abrisham, on the Mashhad-Tehran road. 
 Question: What relation was Shah Rukh to Nader Shah?
Output: grandson
Context: Marino finished the game with 29 out of 50 pass completions for 318 yards, 1 touchdown, and 2 interceptions. Clayton was the top receiver of the game, with 6 receptions for 92 yards. Walker returned 4 kickoffs for 93 yards and gained 15 yards on 2 punt returns. Nathan was the Dolphins leading rusher with 18 yards, while also catching 10 passes for 83 yards. Craig had 58 rushing yards, 77 receiving yards, and 3 touchdowns. He was the first player ever to score 3 touchdowns in a Super Bowl, and his 2 touchdown catches also tied a Super Bowl record. Tyler led San Francisco in rushing with 65 yards, and also caught 4 passes for 70 yards. Clark caught 6 passes for 77 yards. Board recorded 2 sacks. McLemore recorded 51 punt return yards, the second most in Super Bowl history. Sports Illustrated called 49ers defensive tackle Gary Johnson (American football) the Super Bowls "unofficial defensive MVP" after he recorded one sack, flushed Marino out of the passing pocket numerous times, and had four unassisted tackles. 
 Question: Who had a higher average of yards per caught pass, Clayton or Clark?
Output: clayton
Context: Ions come together to create a molecule so that electrical charges are balanced; the positive charges balance the negative charges and the molecule has no electrical charge. To balance electrical charge, an atom may share its electron with another atom, give it away, or receive an electron from another atom. The joining of ions to make molecules is called chemical bonding. There are three main types of chemical bonds that are important in our discussion of minerals and rocks: Ionic bond: Electrons are transferred between atoms. An ion will give one or more electrons to another ion. Table salt, sodium chloride (NaCl), is a common example of an ionic compound. Note that sodium is on the left side of the periodic table and that chlorine is on the right side of the periodic table. In the Figure 1.2, an atom of lithium donates an electron to an atom of fluorine to form an ionic compound. The transfer of the electron gives the lithium ion a net charge of +1, and the fluorine ion a net charge of -1. These ions bond because they experience an attractive force due to the difference in sign of their charges. Covalent bond : In a covalent bond, an atom shares one or more electrons with another atom. Periodic Table of the Elements. Lithium (left) and fluorine (right) form an ionic compound called lithium fluoride. In the picture of methane (CH4 ) below (Figure 1.3), the carbon ion (with a net charge of +4) shares a single electron from each of the the four hydrogens. Covalent bonding is prevalent in organic compounds. In fact, your body is held together by electrons shared by carbons and hydrogens! Covalent bonds are also very strong, meaning it takes a lot of energy to break them apart. Hydrogen bond: These weak, intermolecular bonds are formed when the positive side of one polar molecule is attracted to the negative side of another polar molecule. Water is a classic example of a polar molecule because it has a slightly positive side, and a slightly negative side. In fact, this property is why water is so good at dissolving things. The positive side of the molecule is attracted to Methane is formed when four hydrogens and one carbon covalently bond. negative ions and the negative side is attracted to positive ions. 
 Question: an atom that shares one or more electrons with another atom is a(n)
Output: covalent bond
Context: Can storms in Africa cause asthma in the Caribbean ? Islanders point to the desert insects that land on beaches after a 5,000-kilometer flight across the Atlantic. If they can use winds to get from one continent to another, so can clouds of dust that carry disease. Scientists think that as Africa becomes drier, dust from expanding deserts is being blown away into Caribbean islands. A study in Barbados shows that asthma has increased 17 times since Africa's drought began in 1973. Other forms of life are suffering, too. Among them are the Caribbean's famous coral reefs( ), which began dying in large numbers in the 1900s. Eugene Shinn of the U.S. Geiological Sudrvey(USGS) in Florida went to the virgin Islands to study the reefs. The tests he and his colleagues carried out showed that the coral was dying of disease caused by Africa microbes from across the ocean. William Sprigg of the University of Arizona is studying the problem as part of a major UN project. He says that dust is causing problems in the U.S., too. "We are just beginning to collect the evidence of airborne dust influences on human health," he toldThe Washington Post. 
 Question: Where does the dust talked about in this passage come from?
Output: africa.
Context: Asia Taylor (born August 22, 1991) is an American professional basketball player for Minnesota Lynx of the WNBA. 
 Question: What team is Asia Taylor on?
Output: minnesota lynx
Context: Dorothea Wieck (3 January 1908, Davos, Switzerland -- 19 February 1986, Berlin, West Germany) was a German theatre and film actress. 
 Question: What city did Dorothea Wieck live when he died?
Output: berlin
Context: Deserts are found where there is little rainfall or where rain for a whole year falls in only a few weeks' time. Ten inches of rain may be enough for many plants to survive if the rain is spread throughout the year. If it falls within one or two months and the rest of the year is dry, those plants may die and a desert may form. Sand begins as tiny pieces of rock that get smaller and smaller as wind and weather wear them down. Sand dunes are formed as winds move the sand across the desert. Bit by bit, the dunes grow over the years, always moving with the winds and changing the shape. Most of them are only a few feet tall, but they can grow to be several hundred feet high. There is, however, much more to a desert than sand. In the deserts of the southwestern United States, cliffs and deep valleys were formed from thick mud that once lay beneath a sea more than millions of years ago. Over the centuries, the water dried up. Wind, sand, rain, heat and cold all wore away at the remaining rocks. The faces of the desert mountains are always changing--very, very slowly--as these forces of nature continue to work on the rock. Most deserts have a surprising variety of life. There are plants, animals and insects that have adapted to life in the desert. During the heat of the day, a visitor may see very few signs of living things, but as the air begins to cool in the evening, the desert comes to life. As the sun begins to rise again in the sky, the desert once again becomes quiet and lonely. 
 Question: What' the best title of this passage?
Output: deserts.
Context: Such Friends Are Dangerous is the second and final studio album by American punk rock band Excuse 17, released on April 24, 1995 by Kill Rock Stars. 
 Question: Which was the record label for Such Friends Are Dangerous?
Output: kill rock stars
Context: Enhanced proliferation, resistance to apoptosis, and metabolic shift to glycolysis of pulmonary arterial vascular smooth muscle cells (PAVSMCs) are key pathophysiological components of pulmonary vascular remodeling in idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH). The role of the distinct mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) complexes mTORC1 (mTOR-Raptor) and mTORC2 (mTOR-Rictor) in PAVSMC proliferation and survival in PAH and their therapeutic relevance are unknown. Immunohistochemical and immunoblot analyses revealed that mTORC1 and mTORC2 pathways are markedly upregulated in small remodeled pulmonary arteries and isolated distal PAVSMCs from subjects with idiopathic PAH that have increased ATP levels, proliferation, and survival that depend on glycolytic metabolism. Small interfering RNA- and pharmacology-based analysis showed that although both mTORC1 and mTORC2 contribute to proliferation, only mTORC2 is required for ATP generation and survival of idiopathic PAH PAVSMCs. mTORC2 downregulated the energy sensor AMP-activated protein kinase, which led to activation of mTORC1-S6 and increased proliferation, as well as a deficiency of the proapoptotic protein Bim and idiopathic PAH PAVSMC survival. NADPH oxidase 4 (Nox4) protein levels were increased in idiopathic PAH PAVSMCs, which was necessary for mTORC2 activation, proliferation, and survival. Nox4 levels and mTORC2 signaling were significantly upregulated in small pulmonary arteries from hypoxia-exposed rats at days 2 to 28 of hypoxia. Treatment with the mTOR kinase inhibitor PP242 at days 15 to 28 suppressed mTORC2 but not Nox4, induced smooth muscle-specific apoptosis in small pulmonary arteries, and reversed hypoxia-induced pulmonary vascular remodeling in rats. These data provide a novel mechanistic link of Nox4-dependent activation of mTORC2 via the energy sensor AMP-activated protein kinase to increased proliferation and survival of PAVSMCs in PAH, which suggests a new potential pathway for therapeutic interventions. 
 Question: What does mTOR stands for?
Output: mammalian target of rapamycin
Context: Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1) is an autosomal dominant genetic disorder affecting one in 3,500 individuals. The mutation rate in the NF1 gene is one of the highest known for human genes. Compared to other methods, the protein truncation test (PTT) provides improved efficiency in detecting NF1 mutations which are dispersed throughout the gene which spans 350 kilobases of genomic DNA. We have applied the PTT and subsequent sequence analysis of cloned cDNA to identify mutations in NF1 patients. We report here the identification of two novel (W336X and Q315X), and one recurrent (R304X) mutation located in exon 7 and show that all three premature termination codons lead to skipping of exon 7 in a proportion of the transcripts derived from the mutated allele. Possible mutation-induced alterations of the RNA secondary structure and their impact on skipping of exon 7 of the NF1 gene are explored and discussed. 
 Question: Which is the gene mutated in type 1 neurofibromatosis?
Output: nf1
Context: Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) is characterized by a molecular aberration, a fusion BCR-ABL gene encoding for aberrant tyrosine kinase activity, which is crucial in the pathogenesis of CML. In vitro, inhibition of BCR-ABL protein tyrosine kinase activity by a tyrosine kinase inhibitor, Imatinib mesylate (STI571; formerly CGP57148B), successfully suppressed proliferation/survival of the BCR-ABL positive clones. In clinical studies, hematologic and cytogenetic remissions have been achieved in most patients with chronic phase CML; in accelerated and blastic phases of CML, STI571 appeared less effective. In the current study, the authors tested combinations of STI571 and cytarabine and homoharringtonine (HHT), drugs with documented activity in CML. The single agents and their combinations were studied for in vitro effect on proliferation of BCR-ABL positive cell lines KBM5 and KBM7 by 3(4,5-dimethylthiazol-2yl)-2,5 diphenyl-tetrazolium bromide assay and on primary patient-derived BCR-ABL cells by clonogenic assays. The in vitro additive, synergistic, or antagonistic effects of cytarabine and HHT with STI571 were then investigated by computer-assisted analysis using the CalcuSyn software. STI571 consistently suppressed BCR-ABL positive cell proliferation with a dose-effect correlation. In the model system used, STI571/cytarabine and STI571/HHT combinations were more effective in inhibiting KBM5 and KBM7 cell growth than each drug as single agent. These results were also verified in primary CML-derived clonogenic cells in semisolid cultures. In this experimental system, our studies documented additive or synergistic effects with STI571 plus cytarabine or HHT, supporting the future use of STI571 combinations in clinical trials in patients with Philadelphia chromosome-positive leukemias. 
 Question: What tyrosine kinase, involved in a Philadelphia- chromosome positive chronic myelogenous leukemia, is the target of Imatinib (Gleevec)?
Output: bcr-abl
Context: After two close losses the Rams hoped to bounce back at the Edward Jones Dome for their first win of the season. On the first possession the Rams drove down the field and capped off their drive with a 41-yard touchdown run by Steven Jackson. On the ensuing Redskins drive, Donovan McNabb drove into Rams territory before Na'il Diggs forced a fumble on Santana Moss. James Butler, who was playing for an injured Craig Dahl picked up the fumbled and returned it 49yards before being forced out of bounds. Bradford threw a three-yard touchdown pass to Daniel Fells to make the score 14-0. The Redskins tried to start their offense again, but after being stopped on third down had to punt. Graham Gano's punt was blocked however by Rams rookie wide receiver Dominique Curry, and the Rams took over in striking distance for another touchdown. Sam Bradford threw his first interception of the day, and the Redskins were able to take over again, and were able to score a field goal. On the kickoff after the Redskins field goal, Mardy Gilyard, the Rams rookie kick returner/wide receiver fumbled the ball, and the Redskins took over on the 21yard line. Donovan McNabb hit Santana Moss for a touchdown the next play. Steven Jackson was injured on the next drive for the Rams, and the Rams were unable to score. The next drive the Redskins kicked another field goal to make the score 13-14. The Rams marched down the field one last time, but were stalled in the redzone. With 31seconds left Josh Brown attempted a field goal, but the Redskins blocked the kick and at the half the Rams led 14-13. At the start of the second half, McNabb hit Moss for a 56-yard pass. The Rams kept the Redskins out of the endzone, and Washington settled for the go ahead field goal to make the score 16-14. The next drive St. Louis marched down the field, and Kenneth Darby, playing for an injured Steven Jackson scored his first TD of the year from 12yards out to make the score 21-16. Redskins were unable to score during the fourth quarter however, and McNabb was picked off by Bradly Fletcher as he attempted a comeback. Josh Brown kicked three field goals in the final quarter to seal the Rams first victory of the year with a score of 30-16, snapping a 13-game home losing skid. This win also marked their highest scoring performance in a regular season game since their 34-14 victory over the Dallas Cowboys on October 19, 2008. 
 Question: What team scored the first touchdown of the game?
Output: rams
Context: Antonio Codronchi (5 August 1746, Imola - 22 January 1826, Ravenna) was an Italian priest and archbishop. 
 Question: Which position was held by Antonio Codronchi?
Output: archbishop
Context: In the county, the population was spread out with 23.20% under the age of 18, 7.70% from 18 to 24, 27.00% from 25 to 44, 28.00% from 45 to 64, and 14.10% who were 65 years of age or older. The median age was 40 years. For every 100 females, there were 97.00 males. For every 100 females age 18 and over, there were 96.40 males. 
 Question: Which age group was the most represented?
Output: 45 to 64
Context: Nucleotide excision repair (NER) is a multistep process capable to remove a variety of DNA distorting lesions from prokaryotic and eukaryotic genomes. In eukaryotic cells, the process requires more than 30 proteins to perform the different steps, i.e. recognition of DNA damage, single strand incisions and excision of the lesion-containing DNA fragment and DNA repair synthesis/ligation. NER can operate via two subpathways: global genome repair (GGR) and a specialized pathway coupled to active transcription (transcription-coupled repair, TCR) and directed to DNA lesions in the transcribed strand of active genes. Both in vivo as well as in cultured cells the fast removal of transcription blocking lesions by TCR is crucial to escape from lethal effects of inhibited transcription inhibition The most delicate step in NER is the recognition of the DNA lesions in their different chromatin context and the mechanism of damage recognition in GGR and TCR is principally different and requires specific proteins. In GGR, the XPC-HR23B is essential for the formation of the incision complex. In TCR the Cockayne syndrome (CS) gene products are key players in the recognition of a stalled RNA polymerase the presumed signaling structure for repair of transcribed strands. In this study, we show that the extent of recovery of UV-inhibited transcription and TCR strictly depends on the amount of CSB protein as well as the amount of DNA damage present in the cell. This indicates that the ratio between DNA damage frequency and CSB protein concentration in the cell is rather critical for acute cellular response, i.e. recovery of inhibited transcription upon DNA damage infliction, and hence cellular survival. 
 Question: Which gene strand is targeted by transcription-coupled repair (TCR)?
Output: the transcribed strand
Context: City Varieties The Headrow, Leeds. Tel. 430808 Oct. 10 - 11 only A Night at the Varieties. All the fun of an old music hall with Barry Cryer, Duggle Brown, 6 dancers, Mystina, Jon Barker, Anne Duval and the Tony Harrison Trio. Laugh again at the old jokes and listen to your favourite songs. Performances: 8 pm nightly. Admission L5; under 16 or over 60: L4 York Theatre Royal St. Leonard's Place, York. Tel. 223568 Sept. 23-Oct. 17 Groping for Words-a comedy by Sue Townsend. Best known for her Adrian Mole Diaries, Townsend now writes about an evening class which two men and a woman attend. A gentle comedy. Performances: 8pm Admission: First night, Mon.: L2; Tues-Fri: L3.25-5.50; Sat.: L3.35 -5.75. Halifax Playhouse King's Cross Street, Halifax. Tel. 365998 Oct. 10 - 17 On Golden Pond by Ernest Thompson. This is a magical comedy about real people. A beautifully produced, well-acted play for everyone. Don't miss it. Performances: 7:30 p. m. Admission: L2. Mon.: 2 seats for the price of one. Grand Theatre Oxford Street, Leeds. Tel. 502116 Oct. 1 - 17 The Secret Diary of Adrian Mole, Aged 13. Sue Townsend's musical play, based on the best-selling book. Performances: Evenings 7:45pm. Oct. 10 - 17, at 2:30 pm. No Monday performances. Admission: Tues-Thurs: L2 - 5; Fri. & Sat. : L2 - 6 
 Question: Where can you see the play On Golden Pond?
Output: halifax playhouse
Context: This article needs an improved plot summary. (November 2015) Sidhu (Akshay Kumar) is a lowly vegetable cutter at a roadside food stall in the Chandni Chowk section of Delhi, who consults astrologers, tarot card readers, and fake fakirs despite his foster father Dada's (Mithun Chakraborty) exhortations. When two strangers from China claim him as a reincarnation of war hero 'Liu Shen' and take him to China, Sidhu, encouraged by trickster Chopstick (Ranvir Shorey), believes he will be feted as a hero, unaware of his own recruitment to assassinate the smuggler Hojo (Gordon Liu). Sidhu travels to China with Chopstick. Along the way he meets Sakhi (Deepika Padukone), the Indian-Chinese spokesmodel known as Ms. Tele Shoppers Media, or Ms. TSM, who also appears in China. Her twin sister Suzy, known as the femme fatale Meow Meow, works for Hojo, not knowing Hojo tried to kill her father, Inspector Chiang (Roger Yuan). Sidhu, through a series of accidents, initially eludes Hojo, but Hojo eventually exposes him as a fraud. Thereupon Hojo kills Dada, and Sidhu is beaten and urinated on by Hojo. Injured and disgraced Sidhu vows revenge. He thereafter encounters an amnesiac vagrant, whom he later identifies to Sakhi as Inspector Chiang. Chiang later recovers his memory and trains Sidhu in kung fu. When Hojo again meets with Sidhu, Suzy injures Chiang; but upon seeing Sakhi, betrays Hojo. Sidhu fights Hojo in single combat, eventually using a modified vegetable-cutting technique to overwhelm him. In the aftermath, Sidhu opens a vegetable stall in China, but is recruited to fight for some African pygmies. The film thereupon concludes with the announcement "To be Continued Chandni Chowk to Africa". 
 Question: Where is Chandni Chowk?
Output: delhi
Context: Marcus Hatten (born December 13, 1980) is an American professional basketball player who plays for Mitteldeutscher BC of the Basketball Bundesliga (BBL). 
 Question: For which sports team does Marcus Hatten play?
Output: mitteldeutscher bc
Context: Esporte Clube Corinthians played their home games at Estadio Eduardo Jose Farah, nicknamed Farahzao. 
 Question: What is the name of the stadium where Esporte Clube Corinthians plays home games?
Output: estádio eduardo josé farah
Context: Vytautas' the Great Church of the Assumption of The Holy Virgin Mary (Lithuanian: Vytauto Didziojo baznycia) is a Roman Catholic church in the Old Town of Kaunas, Lithuania, and is one of the oldest churches in the city and an important example of Gothic architecture in Lithuania. 
 Question: Of what style is Vytautas' the Great Church?
Output: gothic architecture
Context: Antonio Monda (born 19 October 1962) is an Italian writer, film director, essayist, and professor at New York University's Tisch School of the Arts. 
 Question: What is Antonio Monda's place of employment?
Output: new york university
Context: Most sedimentary rocks form from sediments. Sediments are small pieces of other rocks, like pebbles, sand, silt, and clay. Sedimentary rocks may include fossils. Fossils are materials left behind by once-living organisms. Fossils can be pieces of the organism, like bones. They can also be traces of the organism, like footprints. Most often, sediments settle out of water (Figure 4.13). For example, rivers carry lots of sediment. Where the water slows, it dumps these sediments along its banks, into lakes and the ocean. When sediments settle out of water, they form horizontal layers. A layer of sediment is deposited. Then the next layer is deposited on top of that layer. So each layer in a sedimentary rock is younger than the layer under it. It is older than the layer over it. Sediments are deposited in many different types of environments. Beaches and deserts collect large deposits of sand. Sediments also continuously wind up at the bottom of the ocean and in lakes, ponds, rivers, marshes, and swamps. Avalanches produce large piles of sediment. The environment where the sediments are deposited determines the type of sedimentary rock that can form. Sedimentary rocks form in two ways. Particles may be cemented together. Chemicals may precipitate. Over time, deposited sediments may harden into rock. First, the sediments are compacted. That is, they are squeezed together by the weight of sediments on top of them. Next, the sediments are cemented together. Minerals fill in the spaces between the loose sediment particles. These cementing minerals come from the water that moves through the sediments. These types of sedimentary rocks are called clastic rocks. Clastic rocks are rock fragments that are compacted and cemented together. Clastic sedimentary rocks are grouped by the size of the sediment they contain. Conglomerate and breccia are made of individual stones that have been cemented together. In conglomerate, the stones are rounded. In breccia, the stones are angular. Sandstone is made of sand-sized particles. Siltstone is made of smaller particles. Silt is smaller than sand but larger than clay. Shale has the smallest grain size. Shale is made mostly of clay-sized particles and hardened mud. Chemical sedimentary rocks form when crystals precipitate out from a liquid. The mineral halite, also called rock salt, forms this way. You can make halite! Leave a shallow dish of salt water out in the Sun. As the water evaporates, salt crystals form in the dish. There are other chemical sedimentary rocks, like gypsum. Table 4.1 shows some common types of sedimentary rocks and the types of sediments that make them up. Picture Rock Name Conglomerate Type of Sedimentary Rock Clastic Breccia Clastic Sandstone Clastic Siltstone Clastic Limestone Bioclastic Coal Organic Picture Rock Name Rock Salt Type of Sedimentary Rock Chemical precipitate 
 Question: example of a chemical sedimentary rock
Output: rock salt
Context: When you look at the sky on a clear night, you can see dozens, perhaps even hundreds, of tiny points of light. Almost every one of these points of light is a star, a giant ball of glowing gas at a very, very high temperature. Stars differ in size, temperature, and age, but they all appear to be made up of the same elements and to behave according to the same principles. People of many different cultures, including the Greeks, identified patterns of stars in the sky. We call these patterns constellations. Figure 1.1 shows one of the most easily recognized constellations. Why do the patterns in constellations and in groups or clusters of stars, called asterisms, stay the same night after night? Although the stars move across the sky, they stay in the same patterns. This is because the apparent nightly motion of the stars is actually caused by the rotation of Earth on its axis. The patterns also shift in the sky with the seasons as Earth revolves around the Sun. As a result, people in a particular location can see different constellations in the winter than in the summer. For example, in the Northern Hemisphere Orion is a prominent constellation in the winter sky, but not in the summer sky. This is the annual traverse of the constellations. Although the stars in a constellation appear close together as we see them in our night sky, they are not at all close together out in space. In the constellation Orion, the stars visible to the naked eye are at distances ranging from just 26 light-years (which is relatively close to Earth) to several thousand light-years away. Click image to the left or use the URL below. URL: There is no reason to think that the alignment of the stars has anything to do with events that happen on Earth. The constellations were defined by people who noticed that patterns could be made from stars, but the patterns do not reflect any characteristics of the stars themselves. When scientific tests are done to provide evidence in support of astrological ideas, the tests fail. When a scientific idea fails, it is abandoned or modified. Astrologers do not change or abandon their ideas. Click image to the left or use the URL below. URL: 
 Question: in winter and in summer, people in a given location see
Output: different constellations.
Context: The 2001 shoe bomb attempt was a failed bombing attempt that occurred on December 22, 2001, on American Airlines Flight 63. The aircraft, a Boeing 767-300 with 197 passengers and crew aboard, was flying from Charles de Gaulle Airport in Paris, France, to Miami International Airport in Miami, Florida, United States. The perpetrator, Richard Reid, was subdued by passengers after unsuccessfully attempting to detonate plastic explosives concealed within his shoes. The flight was diverted to Logan International Airport in Boston, under escort by American jet fighters, and safely landed without further incident. Reid was arrested and eventually sentenced to 3 life terms plus 110 years without parole. 
 Question: What happened first, the failed bombing attempt, or the flight being diverted to Logan international airport?
Output: failed bombing attempt
Context: Shah Jahan II ( ) (June 1696 -- 19 September 1719, birth name Rafi ud-Daulah ) was Mughal emperor for a brief period in 1719. 
 Question: Which position was held by Shah Jahan II?
Output: mughal emperor
Context: Barbus mimus (Ewaso Nyiro barb) is a species of ray-finned fish in the Cyprinidae family. 
 Question: Is Barbus mimus a genus or species?
Output: species
Context: In human colorectal carcinoma, RICTOR has been shown to association with FBXW7 (outside of mTORC2) to mediate the ubiquitination of growth-promoting factors cyclin E and c-Myc. 
 Question: Which species has the RICTOR gene?
Output: human
Context: When cDNA containing proteins enriched in the bovine cerebellar cortex were cloned, a clone which seemed to encode a selenoprotein P-like protein was isolated. The coding nucleotide sequence of its cDNA insert displayed high homology to rat and human selenoprotein P cDNA but contained 12 rather than 10 TGAs (12 rather than 10 selenocysteines in deduced amino acids), a tandem repeat of one CACTCC (His-Ser) and seven CATCCCs (His-Pro), and a 3' untranslated region approximately 890 bases shorter than that of rat liver selenoprotein P. RT-PCR using a set of primers flanking to the repeat displayed the existence of mRNA without the repeat. The tandem repeat and its adjacent region consisted of a similar motif of CAC/TCC/AC/T. Thus, these proteins included a (His-Pro) rich domain with a slightly negative free energy change irrespective of having the tandem repeat or not. Such His-Pro repeats reportedly exist in the segmentation gene paired or homeobox protein Om(1D) of Drosophila. Moreover, both this selenoprotein P-like protein mRNA and selenoprotein P mRNA were expressed in all the areas of the brain but most prominently in the cerebellar cortex, hippocampus, and olfactory bulb. These findings suggest the possibility that these selenoproteins are major selenium carriers in the brain and play a role in the morphological response of nerve or glial cells. 
 Question: Which is the human selenoprotein that contains several Se-Cys residues?
Output: selenoprotein p
Context: Alzheimer's disease (AD) is the most common cause of dementia in humans. A pathological hallmark in the brain of an AD patient is extracellular amyloid plaques formed by accumulated beta-amyloid protein (Abeta), a metabolic product of amyloid precursor protein (APP). Studies have revealed a strong genetic linkage in the early-onset familial form (<60 years old) of AD. For example, some mutant APPs are transmitted dominantly and are segregated with inheritance of early onset AD. These mutants facilitate Abeta production. The "Swedish" mutations (APP(SW)) and the "London" mutation (APP(LON)) are examples of these mutants. Selective silencing of these mutant alleles holds therapeutic promise for AD. Here we show that the expression of the mutant APPs was selectively inhibited by RNA interference. The best selectivity was obtained when the mismatches were centrally placed in the antisense strand of small interfering RNAs. Introducing an additional mismatch in the antisense strand may improve the selectivity. The addition of a G at 5' end of the antisense strand may enhance the efficacy of gene silencing by RNA interference. Our results illustrate the guiding principles for selection of targeted sequences to achieve allele-specific silencing. The sequences that are effective to silence APP(SW) and APP(LON) as identified in this study may be useful in both in vivo and in vitro studies to investigate the pathophysiological role of APP(SW) and APP(LON) in AD development. 
 Question: Which disease the London mutation involved in?
Output: alzheimer's disease
Context: Alzheimer's disease (AD) is the most common cause of dementia in humans. A pathological hallmark in the brain of an AD patient is extracellular amyloid plaques formed by accumulated beta-amyloid protein (Abeta), a metabolic product of amyloid precursor protein (APP). Studies have revealed a strong genetic linkage in the early-onset familial form (<60 years old) of AD. For example, some mutant APPs are transmitted dominantly and are segregated with inheritance of early onset AD. These mutants facilitate Abeta production. The "Swedish" mutations (APP(SW)) and the "London" mutation (APP(LON)) are examples of these mutants. Selective silencing of these mutant alleles holds therapeutic promise for AD. Here we show that the expression of the mutant APPs was selectively inhibited by RNA interference. The best selectivity was obtained when the mismatches were centrally placed in the antisense strand of small interfering RNAs. Introducing an additional mismatch in the antisense strand may improve the selectivity. The addition of a G at 5' end of the antisense strand may enhance the efficacy of gene silencing by RNA interference. Our results illustrate the guiding principles for selection of targeted sequences to achieve allele-specific silencing. The sequences that are effective to silence APP(SW) and APP(LON) as identified in this study may be useful in both in vivo and in vitro studies to investigate the pathophysiological role of APP(SW) and APP(LON) in AD development. 
 Question: Which disease the London mutation involved in?
Output: ad
Context: Progress M-34 was launched at 16:04:05 UTC on 6 April 1997, atop a Soyuz-U carrier rocket flying from Site 1/5 at the Baikonur Cosmodrome. 
 Question: What was the date of Progress M-34's launch?
Output: 6 april 1997
Context: Mary Hoyt Wiborg was born on January 28, 1888, to Frank Bestow Wiborg in Cincinnati. 
 Question: What is the name of Mary Hoyt Wiborg father?
Output: frank bestow wiborg
Context: The U.S. Census for 2010 reported 332,199 households in Indianapolis, with an average household size of 2.42 and an average family size of 3.08. Of the total households, 59.3% were family households, with 28.2% of these including the familys own children under the age of 18; 36.5% were husband-wife families; 17.2% had a female householder (with no husband present) and 5.6% had a male householder (with no wife present). The remaining 40.7% were non-family households. , 32% of the non-family households included individuals living alone, 8.3% of these households included individuals age 65 years of age or older. 
 Question: Which group from the census is larger: non-family households or husband-wife families?
Output: non-family households
Context: Diabolical Streak is the second studio album by American Neo-Cabaret artist Jill Tracy, released in 1999. 
 Question: What label was responsible for Diabolical Streak?
Output: jill tracy