niryuu/sni-each-converted huggingface dataset:
Context: Most ocean pollution comes as runoff from land and originates as agricultural, industrial, and municipal wastes (Figure 1.1). The remaining 20% of water pollution enters the ocean directly from oil spills and people dumping wastes directly into the water. Ships at sea empty their wastes directly into the ocean, for example. Coastal pollution can make coastal water unsafe for humans and wildlife. After rainfall, there can be enough runoff pollution that beaches must be closed to prevent the spread of disease from pollutants. A surprising number of beaches are closed because of possible health hazards each year. A large proportion of the fish we rely on for food live in the coastal wetlands or lay their eggs there. Coastal runoff from farm waste often carries water-borne organisms that cause lesions that kill fish. Humans who come in In some areas of the world, ocean pollution is all too obvious. contact with polluted waters and affected fish can also experience harmful symptoms. More than one-third of the shellfish-growing waters of the United States are adversely affected by coastal pollution. Fertilizers that run off of lawns and farm fields are extremely harmful to the environment. Nutrients, such as nitrates, in the fertilizer promote algae growth in the water they flow into. With the excess nutrients, lakes, rivers, and bays become clogged with algae and aquatic plants. Eventually these organisms die and decompose. Decomposition uses up all the dissolved oxygen in the water. Without oxygen, large numbers of plants, fish, and bottom-dwelling animals die. Every year dead zones appear in lakes and nearshore waters. A dead zone is an area of hundreds of kilometers of ocean without fish or plant life. The Mississippi is not the only river that carries the nutrients necessary to cause a dead zone. Rivers that drain regions where human population density is high and where crops are grown create dead zones all over the world (Figure 1.2). 
 Question: this contaminant gets washed from farms and yards into rivers, causing algae to grow.
Output: fertilizers
Context: Sevenoaks railway station was opened on 2 March 1868. 
 Question: When did Sevenoaks railway station open?
Output: 2 march 1868
Context: Al-e Yusefi-ye Sofla (Persian: , also Romanized as Al-e Yusefi-ye Sofla; also known as Al-e Safi-ye Pa'in and Al-e Yusefi-ye Pa'in) is a village in Zirrah Rural District, Sadabad District, Dashtestan County, Bushehr Province, Iran. 
 Question: What is the name of Al-e Yusefi-ye Sofla's country?
Output: iran
Context: Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) is caused by the BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase, the product of the Philadelphia chromosome. Imatinib mesylate, formerly STI571, is a selective inhibitor of this kinase. A total of 532 patients with late--chronic-phase CML in whom previous therapy with interferon alfa had failed were treated with 400 mg of oral imatinib daily. Patients were evaluated for cytogenetic and hematologic responses. Time to progression, survival, and toxic effects were also evaluated. Imatinib induced major cytogenetic responses in 60 percent of the 454 patients with confirmed chronic-phase CML and complete hematologic responses in 95 percent. After a median follow-up of 18 months, CML had not progressed to the accelerated or blast phases in an estimated 89 percent of patients, and 95 percent of the patients were alive. Grade 3 or 4 nonhematologic toxic effects were infrequent, and hematologic toxic effects were manageable. Only 2 percent of patients discontinued treatment because of drug-related adverse events, and no treatment-related deaths occurred. Imatinib induced high rates of cytogenetic and hematologic responses in patients with chronic-phase CML in whom previous interferon therapy had failed. 
 Question: What tyrosine kinase, involved in a Philadelphia- chromosome positive chronic myelogenous leukemia, is the target of Imatinib (Gleevec)?
Output: bcr-abl
Context: Sweet 'n Short is a 1991 Leon Schuster movie made in South Africa. 
 Question: Which place does Sweet 'n Short exist in?
Output: south africa
Context: Hermann Friedrich Kohlbrugge, or Kohlbrugge (August 15, 1803, Amsterdam - March 5, 1875, Elberfeld) was a Dutch (German father) minister. 
 Question: Where did Hermann Friedrich Kohlbrugge live when he died?
Output: elberfeld
Context: In 2011, Macaus free-market economy produced total exports of US$1.119 billion (MOP 8.94 billion) and consisted mainly of clothing, textiles, footwear, toys, electronics, machinery and parts. Total imports for the same period reached US$8.926 billion (MOP 71.32 billion), and consisted mostly of raw materials and semi-manufactured goods, consumer goods (foodstuffs, beverages, tobacco), capital goods, mineral fuels and oils. Macaus primary export partner in 2011 was Hong Kong (44.6%). Other exports go to Mainland China (15.9%) and United States (7.9%). Macau import partners are Mainland China (30.4%), Hong Kong (12%), France (10.4%), Switzerland (7.5%), Italy (7.5%), Japan (6.2%), and United States (6.1%). 
 Question: Where does Macau import more products from, Japan or the United States?
Output: japan
Context: Dayal Thakur was born in Mumbai, India. 
 Question: Which country is Dayal Thakur a citizen of?
Output: india
Context: The Philadelphia chromosome translocation (t(9;22)) results in the molecular juxtaposition of two genes, BCR and ABL, to form an aberrant BCR-ABL gene on chromosome 22. BCR-ABL is critical to the pathogenesis of chronic myelogenous leukemia and a subset of acute leukemias. The chimeric Bcr-Abl protein has constitutively elevated tyrosine phosphokinase activity. This abnormal enzymatic activation is critical to the oncogenic potential of Bcr-Abl. Initially, protein kinases were thought to be poor therapeutic targets because of their ubiquitous nature and crucial role in many normal physiologic processes. However, the advent of imatinib mesylate (Gleevec, Novartis Pharmaceuticals, Basel, Switzerland), formerly known as STI571 and CGP57148B, demonstrated that designer kinase inhibitors could be specific. This agent has shown striking activity in chronic myelogenous leukemia. It also inhibits phosphorylation of Kit (stem-cell factor receptor) and platelet-derived growth factor receptor. In addition, it has shown similar impressive responses, with little host toxicity, in gastrointestinal stromal tumors, which harbor activating Kit mutations, and in tumors with activated platelet-derived growth factor receptor. The studies of imatinib mesylate provide proof-of-principle for using aberrant kinases as a therapeutic target and are a model for the promise of molecular therapeutics. This paper reviews the current knowledge on the function of Bcr-Abl and its normal counterparts (Bcr and Abl), as well as the impact of this knowledge on the development of a remarkably successful targeted therapy approach. 
 Question: What tyrosine kinase, involved in a Philadelphia- chromosome positive chronic myelogenous leukemia, is the target of Imatinib (Gleevec)?
Output: bcr-abl
Context: Defects in DNA mismatch repair have been associated with both hereditary and sporadic forms of cancer. Recently, it has been shown that human cell lines deficient in mismatch repair were also defective in the transcription-coupled repair (TCR) of UV-induced DNA damage. We examined whether TCR of ionizing radiation-induced DNA damage also requires the genes involved in DNA mismatch repair. Cells defective in the hMSH2 gene were deficient in the removal of oxidative damage, including thymine glycols, from the transcribed strand of an active gene. However, an hMLH1 mutant showed normal levels of TCR. By comparison, defects in either hMSH2 or hMLH1 resulted in reduced TCR of UV damage. Introducing chromosomes carrying either hMSH2 or hMLH1 into these cell lines restored their ability to carry out TCR. Deficiencies in either hMSH2 or hMLH1 did not result in decreased overall genomic levels of repair or lead to an increased sensitivity to either UV or ionizing radiation. Our results provide the first evidence for a protein that is absolutely required for the preferential removal of UV-induced DNA damage but not oxidative DNA damage from the transcribed strand of an active human gene. 
 Question: Which gene strand is targeted by transcription-coupled repair (TCR)?
Output: the transcribed strand
Context: During the major economic depression of the early 1890s, the Pullman Palace Car Company cut wages in its factories. Discontented workers joined the American Railway Union , led by Eugene V. Debs, which supported their strike by launching a boycott of all Pullman cars on all railroads. ARU members across the nation refused to switch Pullman cars onto trains. When these switchmen were disciplined, the entire ARU struck the railroads on June 26, 1894. Within four days, 125,000 workers on twenty-nine railroads had people quit work rather than handle Pullman cars. Strikers and their supporters also engaged in riots and sabotage. The railroads were able to get Edwin Walker, general counsel for the Chicago, Milwaukee, and St. Paul Railway, appointed as a special federal attorney with responsibility for dealing with the strike. Walker went to federal court and obtained an injunction barring union leaders from supporting the boycott in any way. The court injunction was based on the Sherman Anti-Trust Act which prohibited "Every contract, combination in the form of trust or otherwise, or conspiracy, in restraint of trade or commerce among the several States". Debs and other leaders of the ARU ignored the injunction, and federal troops were called into action. The strike was broken up by United States Marshals and some 2,000 United States Army troops, commanded by Nelson Miles, sent in by President Grover Cleveland on the premise that the strike interfered with the delivery of U.S. Mail. During the course of the strike, 13 strikers were killed and 57 were wounded. An estimated $340,000 worth of property damage occurred during the strike. Debs went to prison for six months for violating the federal court order, and the ARU disintegrated. 
 Question: What did the court injunction that was based on the Sherman Anti-Trust Act bar union leaders from doing?
Output: supporting the boycott
Context: According to the market research firm SuperData, as of May 2015, the global games market was worth USD 74.2 billion. By region, North America accounted for $23.6 billion, Asia for $23.1 billion, Europe for $22.1 billion and South America for $4.5 billion. By market segment, mobile games were worth $22.3 billion, retail games 19.7 billion, free-to-play Massively multiplayer online game 8.7 billion, social games $7.9 billion, PC Downloadable content 7.5 billion, and other categories $3 billion or less each. 
 Question: Which region was worth the least?
Output: south america
Context: In the county, the population was spread out with 23.5% under the age of 18, 7.8% from 18 to 24, 28.5% from 25 to 44, 25.9% from 45 to 64, and 14.2% who were 65 years of age or older. The median age was 40 years. For every 100 females, there were 93.8 males. For every 100 females age 18 and over, there were 90.5 males. 
 Question: Which age group had the second most people?
Output: 45 to 64
Context: There were 22,000 households of which 37.1% had children under the age of 18 living with them, 48.3% were Marriage living together, 12.7% had a female householder with no husband present, 5.1% had a male householder with no wife present, and 33.9% were non-families. 26.7% of all households were made up of individuals and 7.5% had someone living alone who was 65 years of age or older. The average household size was 2.70 and the average family size was 3.24. 
 Question: Which group for households is smaller: Marriage living together or made up of individuals?
Output: made up of individuals
Context: On 7 July 1899, a part of the territory of Villiers-sur-Marne was detached and merged with a part of the territory of La Queue-en-Brie and a part of the territory of Chennevieres-sur-Marne to create the commune of Le Plessis-Trevise. 
 Question: Which replaced the Villiers-sur-Marne?
Output: le plessis-trévise
Context: May : Happenings from the past May 5,1884 Isaac Murphy , son of a slave and perhaps the greatest horse rider in American history , rides Buchanan to win his first Kentucky Derby . He becomes the first rider ever to win the race three times . May 9 , 1754 Benjamin Franklin's Pennsylvania Gazette produces perhaps the first American political cartoon , showing a snake cut in pieces, with the words " Join or Die" printed under the picture. May 11,1934 The first great dust storm of the Great Plains Dust Bowl , the result of years of drought,blows topsoil all the way to New York City and Washington , D.C. . May 19, 1994 Jacqueline Lee Bouvier Kennedy Onassis , former first lady and one of the most famous people of the 1960s , died of cancer in New York City at the age of 64 . May 24, 1844 Samuel F.B. Morsr taps out the first message , " What Hath God Wrought ," over the experimental long-distance telegraph line which runs from Washington, D.C. , to Baltimeore , Md . 
 Question: What is the title of the first American political cartoon ?
Output: join or die
Context: The 1688 Glorious Revolution replaced James II and VII with his Protestant daughter Mary II and her husband William III and II. Since neither Mary or her sister Anne had surviving children, the 1701 Act of Settlement ensured a Protestant successor by excluding Catholics from the English and Irish thrones, and that of Great Britain after the 1707 Act of Union. When Anne became the last Stuart monarch in 1702, her heir was the distantly related but Protestant Sophia of Hanover, not her Catholic half-brother James Francis Edward. Sophia died two months before Anne in August 1714; her son became George I and the pro-Hanoverian Whigs controlled government for the next 30 years. 
 Question: Which happened first, the death of Sophia or the death of Anne?
Output: sophia
Context: Below are Top 10 Scholarly Stars in America in 2011. It's not always about fame and fortune for these celebs - education is a priority in their lives. Find out what scholarly stars have earned degrees and diplomas or are returning to the classroom as you head back to school. No. 10: James Franco James has attended FOUR prestigious universities in his life: UCLA, New York University, Columbia University and Yale University. We hear he's is so serious about school, he missed the Oscar nominations to attend class! No. 9: Natalie Portman Natalie Portman is so Ivy League: she graduated from Harvard University in 2003, thanks to her parents, who she says always made sure she put her studies before her acting. No. 8: Haley Joel Osment When students at NYU heard Haley Joel would be joining them as a freshman in 2006, they chalked the campus' sidewalks with his famous Sixth Sense movie line: "I see dead people." No. 7: Emma Watson Although Emma Watson put her education on hold to wrap up the Harry Potter film series, in July 2011 she announced that she was going back to school at Brown University to complete her degree. No. 6: Dakota and Elle Fanning Celeb sisters Dakota and Elle Fanning are stars on screen and in class. Dakota was her high school's homecoming queen two years in a row while Elle, who still attends middle school, somehow manages to balance her acting career with math tests and gym class. No. 5: Mara Wilson Mara Wilson graduated from NYU in 2009. Mara, who played the adorable Nattie in Mrs. Doubtfire, eventually grew up and headed to New York to attend NYU's Tisch School of the Arts; she graduated in 2009. No. 4: Tyra Banks Tyra Banks is known for being a savvy businesswoman, but even the best could use some formal training. She enrolled in Harvard Business School in 2011 and even went so far as to live in a dorm with her fellow classmates! "We live in dorms," confirmed the TV star. "I have my own room but we share a kitchen, living room and study area. It's mandatory dorms. I freaked out. In the beginning I was like, 'Oh yes, I'm going to Harvard and I'll be at the Four Seasons down the street.' And they were like, 'Girl, you're living in dorms!'" No. 3: Shakira Singer Shakira is resting her hips and giving her brain a workout at UCLA, attending classes on the history of western civilization so she could "learn from the best". No. 2: Steven Spielberg Director Steven skipped getting a formal education to be an unpaid intern at Universal Studios, where he learned his tricks of the _ . But eventually he did go back and earned his film degree in 2002. No. 1: Danica McKellar Danica McKellar is a math whiz. She used to be known for starring as Winnie Cooper in the Wonder Years, but Danica is also a UCLA graduate, math whiz and education advocate who's written three best-selling books encouraging middle-school girls to have confidence and succeed in mathematics. 
 Question: How many stars referred to in the material studied or will go to UCLA?
Output: three.
Context: The 2010 United States Census reported that Marin County had a population of 252,409. The racial makeup of Marin County was 201,963 (80.0%) White (U.S. Census), 6,987 (2.8%) African American (U.S. Census), 1,523 (0.6%) Native American (U.S. Census), 13,761 (5.5%) Asian (U.S. Census), 509 (0.2%) Pacific Islander (U.S. Census), 16,973 (6.7%) from Race (United States Census), and 10,693 (4.2%) from two or more races. Hispanic (U.S. Census) or Latino (U.S. Census) of any race were 39,069 persons (15.5%). 
 Question: What was the second largest race in Marin County?
Output: asian
Context: Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infections pose a major challenge in health care, yet the limited heterogeneity within this group hinders molecular investigations of related outbreaks. Pulsed-field gel electrophoresis (PFGE) has been the gold standard approach but is impractical for many clinical laboratories and is often replaced with PCR-based methods. Regardless, both approaches can prove problematic for identifying subclonal outbreaks. Here, we explore the use of whole-genome sequencing for clinical laboratory investigations of MRSA molecular epidemiology. We examine the relationships of 44 MRSA isolates collected over a period of 3 years by using whole-genome sequencing and two PCR-based methods, multilocus variable-number tandem-repeat analysis (MLVA) and spa typing. We find that MLVA offers higher resolution than spa typing, as it resolved 17 versus 12 discrete isolate groups, respectively. In contrast, whole-genome sequencing reproducibly cataloged genomic variants (131,424 different single nucleotide polymorphisms and indels across the strain collection) that uniquely identified each MRSA clone, recapitulating those groups but enabling higher-resolution phylogenetic inferences of the epidemiological relationships. Importantly, whole-genome sequencing detected a significant number of variants, thereby distinguishing between groups that were considered identical by both spa typing (minimum, 1,124 polymorphisms) and MLVA (minimum, 193 polymorphisms); this suggests that these more conventional approaches can lead to false-positive identification of outbreaks due to inappropriate grouping of genetically distinct strains. An analysis of the distribution of variants across the MRSA genome reveals 47 mutational hot spots (comprising 2.5% of the genome) that account for 23.5% of the observed polymorphisms, and the use of this selected data set successfully recapitulates most epidemiological relationships in this pathogen group. 
 Question: What is MRSA?
Output: mrsa
Context: Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infections pose a major challenge in health care, yet the limited heterogeneity within this group hinders molecular investigations of related outbreaks. Pulsed-field gel electrophoresis (PFGE) has been the gold standard approach but is impractical for many clinical laboratories and is often replaced with PCR-based methods. Regardless, both approaches can prove problematic for identifying subclonal outbreaks. Here, we explore the use of whole-genome sequencing for clinical laboratory investigations of MRSA molecular epidemiology. We examine the relationships of 44 MRSA isolates collected over a period of 3 years by using whole-genome sequencing and two PCR-based methods, multilocus variable-number tandem-repeat analysis (MLVA) and spa typing. We find that MLVA offers higher resolution than spa typing, as it resolved 17 versus 12 discrete isolate groups, respectively. In contrast, whole-genome sequencing reproducibly cataloged genomic variants (131,424 different single nucleotide polymorphisms and indels across the strain collection) that uniquely identified each MRSA clone, recapitulating those groups but enabling higher-resolution phylogenetic inferences of the epidemiological relationships. Importantly, whole-genome sequencing detected a significant number of variants, thereby distinguishing between groups that were considered identical by both spa typing (minimum, 1,124 polymorphisms) and MLVA (minimum, 193 polymorphisms); this suggests that these more conventional approaches can lead to false-positive identification of outbreaks due to inappropriate grouping of genetically distinct strains. An analysis of the distribution of variants across the MRSA genome reveals 47 mutational hot spots (comprising 2.5% of the genome) that account for 23.5% of the observed polymorphisms, and the use of this selected data set successfully recapitulates most epidemiological relationships in this pathogen group. 
 Question: What is MRSA?
Output: methicillin-resistant s. aureus
Context: Can you name some fossils? How about dinosaur bones or dinosaur footprints? Animal skeletons, teeth, shells, coprolites (otherwise known as feces), or any other remains or traces from a living creature that becomes rock is a fossil. The same processes that formed these fossils also created some of our most important energy resources, fossil fuels. Coal, oil, and natural gas are fossil fuels. Fossil fuels come from living matter starting about 500 million years ago. Millions of years ago, plants used energy from the Sun to form sugars, carbohydrates, and other energy-rich carbon compounds. As plants and animals died, their remains settled on the ground on land and in swamps, lakes, and seas (Figure 1.1). Over time, layer upon layer of these remains accumulated. Eventually, the layers were buried so deeply that they were crushed by an enormous mass of earth. The weight of this earth pressing down on these plant and animal remains created intense heat and pressure. After millions of years of heat and pressure, the material in these layers turned into chemicals called hydrocarbons (Figure 1.2). Hydrocarbons are made of carbon and hydrogen atoms. This molecule with one carbon and four hydrogen atoms is methane. Hydrocarbons can be solid, liquid, or gaseous. The solid form is what we know as coal. The liquid form is petroleum, or crude oil. Natural gas is the gaseous form. The solar energy stored in fossil fuels is a rich source of energy. Although fossil fuels provide very high quality energy, they are non-renewable. Click image to the left or use the URL below. URL: 
 Question: methane is a molecule made with one carbon and _____ hydrogen atoms.
Output: four
Context: Nations that have more industry produce more hazardous waste. Currently, the United States is the worlds largest producer of hazardous wastes, but China, which produces so many products for the developed world, may soon take over the number-one spot. Countries with more industry produce more hazardous wastes than those with little industry. Problems with haz- ardous wastes and their disposal became obvious sooner in the developed world than in the developing world. As a result, many developed nations, including the United States, have laws to help control hazardous waste disposal and to clean toxic sites. As mentioned in the "Impacts of Hazardous Waste" concept, the Superfund Act requires companies to clean up contaminated sites that are designated as Superfund sites (Figure 1.1). If a responsible party cannot be identified, because the company has gone out of business or its culpability cannot be proven, the federal government pays for the cleanup out of a trust fund with money put aside by the petroleum and chemical industries. As a result of the Superfund Act, companies today are more careful about how they deal with hazardous substances. Superfund sites are located all over the nation and many are waiting to be cleaned up. The Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976 requires that companies keep track of any hazardous materials they produce. These materials must be disposed of using government guidelines and records must be kept to show the government that the wastes were disposed of safely. Workers must be protected from the hazardous materials. To some extent, individuals can control the production and disposal of hazardous wastes. We can choose to use materials that are not hazardous, such as using vinegar as a cleanser. At home, people can control the amount of pesticides that they use (or they can use organic methods of pest control). It is also necessary to dispose of hazardous materials properly by not pouring them over the land, down the drain or toilet, or into a sewer or trashcan. Click image to the left or use the URL below. URL: 
 Question: which of these is not hazardous?
Output: vinegar
Context: The 2010 United States Census reported that Marin County had a population of 252,409. The racial makeup of Marin County was 201,963 (80.0%) White (U.S. Census), 6,987 (2.8%) African American (U.S. Census), 1,523 (0.6%) Native American (U.S. Census), 13,761 (5.5%) Asian (U.S. Census), 509 (0.2%) Pacific Islander (U.S. Census), 16,973 (6.7%) from Race (United States Census), and 10,693 (4.2%) from two or more races. Hispanic (U.S. Census) or Latino (U.S. Census) of any race were 39,069 persons (15.5%). 
 Question: Which group from the census is smaller: Asian or African American?
Output: african american
Context: Empagliflozin is an orally available, potent and highly selective inhibitor of the sodium glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2). This study was undertaken to investigate the effect of food on the pharmacokinetics of 25 mg empagliflozin and to assess dose proportionality between 10 mg and 25 mg empagliflozin under fasted conditions. In this open-label, 3-way, cross-over study, 18 healthy volunteers received 3 single doses of empagliflozin in a randomized sequence (25 mg empagliflozin under fasted conditions, 25 mg empagliflozin after a high-fat, high-calorie breakfast and 10 mg empagliflozin under fasted conditions), each separated by a washout period of at least 7 days. Serial plasma samples were collected at selected time points over a period of 72 hours. Administration with food had no clinically relevant effect on the area under the plasma concentration-time curve (AUC0-) of empagliflozin (geometric mean ratio (GMR): 84.04, 90% confidence interval (CI): 80.86 - 87.34). The decrease observed in the maximum plasma concentrations (Cmax) of empagliflozin (GMR: 63.22, 90% CI: 56.74 - 70.44) when administered with food was not considered clinically meaningful. The increases in AUC0- and Cmax for 10 mg vs. 25 mg empagliflozin administered under fasting conditions were roughly dose-proportional, as demonstrated by the slope of the regression lines being slightly less than 1 (slope for AUC0-: 0.94, 95% CI: 0.90 - 0.97; slope for Cmax: 0.91, 95% CI: 0.80 - 1.01). Empagliflozin was well tolerated under fed and fasting conditions. The results support administration of empagliflozin tablets independently of food. Increases in empagliflozin exposure under fasting conditions were roughly dose-proportional between 10 mg and 25 mg empagliflozin. 
 Question: Which protein does empagliflozin inhibit?
Output: sglt2
Context: Brouwerij Nacional Balashi was founded in 1996 by one of Aruba's largest companies, MetaCorp. 
 Question: Which city is Balashi located in?
Output: aruba
Context: What did the arrival of the Internet and 24 hours news mean for British newspapers? At first, this looked like the end of printed newspapers. The national newspapers were worried that they would lose all the readers, so most of them decided to create an online version . But they still had a problem. How to make money? There was simply too much news and too much information freely available "out there". But was it accurate ( )? Whose opinions should we trust? A survey for a "good newspaper", and most of those said.they believe more of what they read in paid-for newspapers. Here was something newspapers understood--here was what they could offer: news plus comment and opinion. And the Internet now offered new opportunities. A newspaper was just that: news printed on paper. But the Internet now offered newspapers different places to print, and in different media. Many newspapers now have podcasts and video too. This may explain why the readership of newspaper online in the UK is very different from people who read printed newspapers. The most popular newspaper in the UK is The Sun, The "mid-market" audience mainly reads The Daily Mail. Online, it's a different story. The most popular is The Mail. And the next popular site is TheGuardian. In fact many of these browsers are not from the UK. The Mail and Guardian are among the most read newspapers in the USA. The Guardian, may become the largest English language paper on the web; a website with a newspaper attached! 
 Question: The largest English language paper on the Internet may be .
Output: the guardian
Context: Researchers from France and Italy discovered that Canadian parents are less strict with their children than mothers and fathers in France and Italy. "Our most important finding was the difference between Canadians and the others," said Professor Michel Claes,the lead author of the study."Canadians focus on independence and negotiation.On the other hand,Italians,for example,exercise more control.We found Canadians seem to focus on negotiation in case of a conflict." Claes said Canada,France and Italy were selected for the study because they share important cultural and social factors."We chose FrenchCanadians because they share the same language as France,and originally came from France and share certain values.Italy was included because it was considered to have similar,strong and important family values," he explained. The researchers examined the emotional ties between parents and their children by questioning 1,256 students aged 11 to 19 years old. Canadian students reported less control and more free actions,according to the study.Italian parents were stricter and French parents were somewhere in the middle. Claes explains that the differences lie in education in Canada,France and Italy. "North America has its own educational values,which promote individualization.Tolerance and comprehension are encouraged.Italy,on the other hand,promotes respect of authority,control,and the need for permission." he said. Children from all three countries described their mothers as warm and communicative.Italian and Canadian children had similar feelings about their fathers,and reported high levels of emotional ties.But French fathers were generally thought by their children to be more distant and cold. "We were surprised by this," Claes admitted."It seems as though the relationships between French mothers and their children were becoming closer over time,while fathers maintain a form of distance and coldness,which is more of a source of conflict in France than in the other countries." 
 Question: According to Michel Claes,what mainly leads to the differences in parentchildren relationships among Canada,France and Italy?
Output: educational values.
Context: In the county, the population was spread out with 23.5% under the age of 18, 7.8% from 18 to 24, 28.5% from 25 to 44, 25.9% from 45 to 64, and 14.2% who were 65 years of age or older. The median age was 40 years. For every 100 females, there were 93.8 males. For every 100 females age 18 and over, there were 90.5 males. 
 Question: Which age group is smaller: 25 to 44 or 45 to 64?
Output: 45 to 64
Context: After Attila's death in 453 AD, his Empire crumbled and its remains were ruled by his three sons, Ellac, Dengizich and Ernak. 
 Question: Who was the brother of Ellac?
Output: dengizich
Context: The Chargers' fourteenth game was an interconference duel with the 49ers which was played on Thursday Night. The Chargers took a quick lead with QB Philip Rivers throwing a 58-yard TD pass to WR Vincent Jackson. The lead was extended in the second quarter by kicker Nate Kaeding nailing a 25-yard field goal, followed by Rivers finding Jackson on an 11-yard touchdown pass. The Chargers continued to dominate with FB Mike Tolbert getting a 1-yard TD run, followed by Rivers connecting to Jackson on a 48-yard TD pass, then with Kaeding hitting a 39-yard field goal. The 49ers made their only score of the game with RB Brian Westbrook getting a 1-yard TD run. This game was also a blowout and San Diego improved to 8-6. 
 Question: What was the 49ers single play of the game
Output: 1-yard td run
Context: Rosenmontag (English: Rose Monday) is the highlight of the German ''Karneval'' (carnival), and is on the Shrove Monday before Ash Wednesday, the beginning of Lent. 
 Question: Who is the Rosenmontag named after?
Output: monday
Context: This was a 12-week randomized, placebo-controlled trial to assess the efficacy of quetiapine monotherapy in the treatment of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Eighty patients were randomly assigned to treatment with either quetiapine or placebo. The primary outcome measure was the Clinician-Administered PTSD Scale (CAPS). Secondary efficacy measures included the CAPS subscales, the Davidson Trauma Scale, the Positive and Negative Syndrome Scale (PANSS), the Clinical Global Impressions (CGI) scales for severity of Illness and improvement, the Hamilton Depression Rating Scale (HAM-D), and the Hamilton Anxiety Rating Scale (HAM-A). Safety measurements included adverse events, vital signs, the Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale, the Barnes Akathisia Scale, the Simpson-Angus Scale, and the Arizona Sexual Experiences Scale. After a 1-week placebo run-in, quetiapine was started at a daily dosage of 25 mg and increased to a maximum of 800 mg; the average was 258 mg (range, 50-800 mg). Reductions in CAPS total, re-experiencing, and hyperarousal scores were significantly greater for the quetiapine group than for the placebo group. Greater improvements were also observed for quetiapine in scores on the Davidson Trauma Scale, CGI severity and improvement ratings, PANSS positive symptom and general psychopathology subscales, HAM-A, and HAM-D than for placebo. Adverse events were generally mild and expected based on prior studies of quetiapine in this and other patient population. There were no differences in safety measures between groups. Quetiapine monotherapy was efficacious in the treatment of PTSD. These findings suggest quetiapine as a single agent is effective in treating military PTSD. 
 Question: Symptoms of which disorder are evaluated with the Davidson Trauma Scale?
Output: ptsd
Context: This was a 12-week randomized, placebo-controlled trial to assess the efficacy of quetiapine monotherapy in the treatment of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Eighty patients were randomly assigned to treatment with either quetiapine or placebo. The primary outcome measure was the Clinician-Administered PTSD Scale (CAPS). Secondary efficacy measures included the CAPS subscales, the Davidson Trauma Scale, the Positive and Negative Syndrome Scale (PANSS), the Clinical Global Impressions (CGI) scales for severity of Illness and improvement, the Hamilton Depression Rating Scale (HAM-D), and the Hamilton Anxiety Rating Scale (HAM-A). Safety measurements included adverse events, vital signs, the Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale, the Barnes Akathisia Scale, the Simpson-Angus Scale, and the Arizona Sexual Experiences Scale. After a 1-week placebo run-in, quetiapine was started at a daily dosage of 25 mg and increased to a maximum of 800 mg; the average was 258 mg (range, 50-800 mg). Reductions in CAPS total, re-experiencing, and hyperarousal scores were significantly greater for the quetiapine group than for the placebo group. Greater improvements were also observed for quetiapine in scores on the Davidson Trauma Scale, CGI severity and improvement ratings, PANSS positive symptom and general psychopathology subscales, HAM-A, and HAM-D than for placebo. Adverse events were generally mild and expected based on prior studies of quetiapine in this and other patient population. There were no differences in safety measures between groups. Quetiapine monotherapy was efficacious in the treatment of PTSD. These findings suggest quetiapine as a single agent is effective in treating military PTSD. 
 Question: Symptoms of which disorder are evaluated with the Davidson Trauma Scale?
Output: post-traumatic stress disorder
Context: In the county, the population was spread out with 23.20% under the age of 18, 7.70% from 18 to 24, 27.00% from 25 to 44, 28.00% from 45 to 64, and 14.10% who were 65 years of age or older. The median age was 40 years. For every 100 females, there were 97.00 males. For every 100 females age 18 and over, there were 96.40 males. 
 Question: What gender has smaller numbers, females or males?
Output: males
Context: The Texans came home in Week 3 to take on the Washington Redskins. In the first quarter, Houston got off to a good start, as TE Mark Bruener caught a 2-yard TD pass. However, the Redskins would tie the game up on a 9-yard run by RB Ladell Betts. From there, things went downhill in the second quarter, as WR Antwaan Randle El caught a 23-yard TD pass and RB Clinton Portis ran 30 yards for a touchdown. In the third quarter, Washington continued to pound Houston, with Portis getting a 1-yard TD run. In the fourth quarter, the Redskins would get one more scoring strike as kicker John Hall kicked a 46-yard field goal. The Texans would get another touchdown, as QB David Carr threw a 2-yard pass to TE Owen Daniels and RB Ron Dayne would run it in for the 2-point conversion. Unfortunately, Houston would fall to 0-3, losing 31-15. 
 Question: Which team scored first in the game?
Output: houston
Context: Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) is caused by Bcr-Abl, a constitutively active tyrosine kinase that is the result of a reciprocal translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22 and cytogenetically evident as the Philadelphia chromosome. Imatinib (Glivec, Gleevec), a specific small molecule inhibitor of Bcr-Abl, has become the standard drug therapy for CML, and has dramatically diminished the use of allogeneic stem cell transplantation. Despite unprecedented rates of complete cytogenetic response, residual disease remains detectable in the majority of patients, suggesting that imatinib fails to eradicate leukemic stem cells. In this publication, the current perspectives for CML patients treated with imatinib are reviewed, focusing on the results of both standard and high-dose therapy. Monitoring of time-dependent prognostic factors is reviewed. The reasons imatinib may not be able to eradicate the disease are discussed, and potential strategies to achieve disease elimination are presented. Lastly, resistance to imatinib and the potential of second-generation Abl kinase inhibitors in the setting of clinical resistance are considered. 
 Question: What tyrosine kinase, involved in a Philadelphia- chromosome positive chronic myelogenous leukemia, is the target of Imatinib (Gleevec)?
Output: bcr-abl
Context: Soyuz T-3 was launched on 27 November 1980, and carried the 15th expedition to the Salyut 6 space station. 
 Question: What was the date Soyuz T-3 was launched?
Output: 27 november 1980
Context: ESSENTIALS: When high probability of pulmonary embolism (PE), sensitivity of computed tomography (CT) is unclear. We investigated the sensitivity of multidetector CT among 134 patients with a high probability of PE. A normal CT alone may not safely exclude PE in patients with a high clinical pretest probability. In patients with no clear alternative diagnosis after CTPA, further testing should be strongly considered. Whether patients with a negative multidetector computed tomographic pulmonary angiography (CTPA) result and a high clinical pretest probability of pulmonary embolism (PE) should be further investigated is controversial. This was a prospective investigation of the sensitivity of multidetector CTPA among patients with a priori clinical assessment of a high probability of PE according to the Wells criteria. Among patients with a negative CTPA result, the diagnosis of PE required at least one of the following conditions: ventilation/perfusion lung scan showing a high probability of PE in a patient with no history of PE, abnormal findings on venous ultrasonography in a patient without previous deep vein thrombosis at that site, or the occurrence of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in a 3-month follow-up period after anticoagulation was withheld because of a negative multidetector CTPA result. We identified 498 patients with a priori clinical assessment of a high probability of PE and a completed CTPA study. CTPA excluded PE in 134 patients; in these patients, the pooled incidence of VTE was 5.2% (seven of 134 patients; 95% confidence interval [CI] 1.5-9.0). Five patients had VTEs that were confirmed by an additional imaging test despite a negative CTPA result (five of 48 patients; 10.4%; 95% CI 1.8-19.1), and two patients had objectively confirmed VTEs that occurred during clinical follow-up of at least 3 months (two of 86 patients; 2.3%; 95% CI 0-5.5). None of the patients had a fatal PE during follow-up. A normal multidetector CTPA result alone may not safely exclude PE in patients with a high clinical pretest probability. 
 Question: What can be predicted with the Wells criteria?
Output: pulmonary embolism
Context: British author JK Rowling was at the release of her latest Harry Potter book called "Harry Potter and the Deathly Hallows" at the Natural History Museum in London, Friday July 20, 2007. J.K. Rowling has been spotted at cafes in Scotland working on a detective novel, a British newspaper reported Saturday. The Sunday Times newspaper quoted Ian Rankin, a fellow author and neighbor of Rowling's, as saying the creator of the "Harry Potter" books is turning to crime fiction. "My wife spotted her writing her Edinburgh criminal detective novel," the newspaper quoted Rankin as telling a reporter at an Edinburgh literary festival. "It is great that she has not abandoned writing or Edinburgh cafes," said Rankin, who is known for his own police novels set in the historic Scottish city. Rowling famously wrote initial drafts of the Potter story in the Scottish city's cafes. Back then, she was a struggling single mother who wrote in cafes to save on the heating bill at home. Now she's Britain's richest woman - worth $1 billion, according to Forbes magazine - and her seven Potter books have sold more than 335 million copies worldwide. In an interview with The Associated Press last month, Rowling said she believed she was unlikely to repeat the success of the Potter series, but confirmed she had plans to work on new books. "I'll do exactly what I did with Harry - I'll write what I really want to write," Rowling said. 
 Question: What is JK Rowling famous for?
Output: harry potter books
Context: Lee Ze-ha (This is his preferred Romanization per LTI Korea, or Hangul: ) is a South Korean writer, poet and painter. 
 Question: The nationality of Lee Ze-ha is?
Output: korean
Context: East Fife secured the 2007-08 Scottish Third Division title after beating East Stirlingshire F.C. at Firs Park, Falkirk 3-0 on 15 March 2008. This gave them a points total of 74, 26 points ahead of Stranraer who could post the next best total in the league of 69 points if they were to win their remaining fixtures. This was East Fifes first league title for 60 years and their first piece of silverware since 1954. On 14 April 2009 their manager David Baikie resigned from his position. On 23 August 2011, the Fifers delivered an emphatic victory against Dunfermline Athletic F.C. of the Scottish Premier League in the Scottish League Cup. Then on 20 September 2011, East Fife recorded yet another cup shock, defeating SPL Aberdeen F.C. 7-6 on penalties, after a 3-3 draw, at Pittodrie Stadium, to advance to the quarter finals on the Scottish League Cup. 
 Question: Who won more points, East Fife or Stranraer?
Output: east fife
Context: A volcano is a vent through which molten rock and gas escape from a magma chamber. Volcanoes differ in many features, such as height, shape, and slope steepness. Some volcanoes are tall cones and others are just cracks in the ground (Figure 1.1). As you might expect, the shape of a volcano is related to the composition of its magma. Composite volcanoes are constructed of felsic to intermediate rock. The viscosity of the lava means that eruptions at these volcanoes are often explosive. Viscous lava cannot travel far down the sides of the volcano before it solidifies, which creates the steep slopes of a composite volcano. In some eruptions the pressure builds up so much that the material explodes as ash and small rocks. The volcano is constructed layer by layer, as ash and lava solidify, one upon the other (Figure 1.3). The result is the classic cone shape of composite volcanoes. Mount St. Helens was a beautiful, classic, cone-shaped volcano. In May 1980 the volcano blew its top off in an explosive eruption, losing 1,300 feet off its summit. Mt. Fuji in Japan is one of the worlds most easily recognized composite volca- noes. Shield volcanoes get their name from their shape. Although shield volcanoes are not steep, they may be very large. Shield volcanoes are common at spreading centers or intraplate hot spots (Figure 1.4). Hawaii has some spectacular shield volcanoes including Mauna Kea, which is the largest mountain on Earth from base to top. The mountain stands 33,500 ft high, about 4,000 feet greater than the tallest mountain above sea level, Mt. Everest. A cross section of a composite volcano reveals alternating layers of rock and ash: (1) magma chamber, (2) bedrock, (3) pipe, (4) ash layers, (5) lava layers, (6) lava flow, (7) vent, (8) lava, (9) ash cloud. Frequently there is a large crater at the top from the last eruption. Mauna Kea on the Big Island of Hawaii is a classic shield volcano. The lava that creates shield volcanoes is fluid and flows easily. The spreading lava creates the shield shape. Shield volcanoes are built by many layers over time and the layers are usually of very similar composition. The low viscosity also means that shield eruptions are non-explosive. Cinder cones are the most common type of volcano. A cinder cone has a cone shape, but is much smaller than a composite volcano. Cinder cones rarely reach 300 meters in height, but they have steep sides. Cinder cones grow rapidly, usually from a single eruption cycle. These volcanoes usually flank shield or composite volcanoes. Many cinder cones are found in Hawaii. A lava fountain erupts from Puu Oo, a cinder cone on Kilauea. Cinder cones are composed of small fragments of rock, such as pumice, piled on top of one another. The rock shoots up in the air and doesnt fall far from the vent. The exact composition of a cinder cone depends on the composition of the lava ejected from the volcano. Cinder cones usually have a crater at the summit. Most cinder cones are active only for a single eruption. Click image to the left or use the URL below. URL: 
 Question: this is the largest shield volcano on earth.
Output: mauna kea
Context: The 10th Cavalry returned from the Philippines in late 1902 and settled down in different posts in the south western United States. Patrols and garrison life was the routine for the regiment. Under war plans, the 10th was designated for service in the Pacific and support in the Philippines from 1915 through 1942 but never rotated there. The 9th Cavalry Regiment became "Park Rangers" in 1905 for Yosemite National Park and other state and federal lands. The Troopers' Campaign Hat, sporting the "Montana Pinch" used to help shed the tropical downpours. That "Montana Pinch" gave the hat the distinctive look we recognize today as the "Smokey Bear Hat". 
 Question: How many years 1915-1942 was the 10th Calvary designated for service in the Phillipines?
Output: never rotated there