niryuu/sni-each-converted huggingface dataset:
Question: After a normal low-level vaginal delivery, in a healthy woman with a healthy newborn, what is the best time to start breastfeeding? 
 Options:  <0> After birth, it is the moment of mother-child recognition. <1> After the first immediate care of the newborn of hygiene, identification and prevention, if this is stable. <2> After the birth and the end of the delivery care, because before the woman is unable to care for your child. <3> After the first two leaves of labor that require extreme surveillance of the woman because of the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. <4> After arriving at the plant, it coincides with the second period of reactivity of the baby and the best conditions for the woman to be able to interact with her child.
Output: nursery
Question: Tamoxifen: 
 Options:  <0> It is used for the treatment of type 2 diabetes. <1> It is an inhibitor of phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase. <2> It is a progesterone receptor agonist. <3> It is an estrogen receptor antagonist. <4> Decreases cellular sensitivity to insulin.
Output: pharmacology
Question: The spectrum of Circular Discipism of a molecule gives information about: 
 Options:  <0> The isosbestic point. <1> The isoelectric point. <2> Optically active chromophores. <3> Functional groups. <4> Molecular weight.
Output: chemistry
Question: A 54-year-old patient with an alcoholic intake of 110 g / day, admitted due to chronic diarrhea and the appearance of muscle cramps in recent days. In the analytical one, glucose stands out 320 mg / dL, Urea 25 mg / dL, Creatinine 0.75 mg / dL, Potassium 2.5 mmol / L (3.5-5.1), Calcium 2.0 mmol / L (2 , 2-2.5), Phosphorus 0.52 mmol / L (0.87-1.55) Magnesium 0.25 mmol / L (0.66-0.99) and Albumin of 28 g / L (3552) With what would initiate the treatment? 
 Options:  <0> Insulin. <1> Potassium. <2> Calcium. <3> Match. <4> Magnesium.
Output: medicine
Question: Indicate the correct answer regarding the Lawton index as a scale of assessment in geriatrics: 
 Options:  <0> Due to its complexity to be applied, it requires that the interviewer has been previously trained. <1> It must always be applied by direct observation of the person evaluated. <2> Several of its items are related to domestic tasks. <3> Evaluate the advanced activities of daily life. <4> Many of its items value activities associated with the male role.
Output: nursery
Question: In which patient would an urgent coronary angiography be performed? 
 Options:  <0> 66-year-old diabetic woman with a single episode of pain at rest and elevation of troponins. <1> A 77-year-old man admitted for two 30-minute episodes of pain with a decrease in the ST segment on the ECG during the episode of pain. <2> A 55-year-old man who, after a week of treatment with double antiaggregation, underwent an isotopic ergometry showing extensive ischemia in the anterior face. <3> A 65-year-old woman with pain at rest and positive clinical ergometry in the third stage of Bruce. <4> A 55-year-old patient admitted for chest pain and dyspnea saturating 80% despite the administration of oxygen and with an ECG with ST-segment depression in the anterolateral aspect that does not revert with the administration of intravenous nitroglycerin.
Output: medicine
Question: A 38-year-old man consulted for dyspnea and hemoptysis. Blood tests have creatinine 7 mg / dl, urea 250 mg / dl and anti-MBG (anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies) positive high titer. A renal biopsy was performed, showing crescents in 75% of the glomeruli, and in the immunofluorescence a linear Ig deposition pattern appeared. Which of the following is the correct answer? 
 Options:  <0> It is an Ig A Nephropathy with acute renal failure. <1> The performance of plasmapheresis would be indicated. <2> It is a membranous glomerulonephritis. <3> Mycophenolate mofetil is the initial treatment of choice. <4> Glomerular involvement is caused by the presence of circulating immune complexes.
Output: medicine
Question: A 67-year-old patient on ticlopidine treatment went to the emergency department with headache, asthenia and petechiae in the lower extremities. In the analytical sample hemoglobin 8.2 g / dl, VCM 100 fl, platelets 25000 / ul and leukocytes 7500 / ul with normal formula. The number of reticulocytes is high and in the blood smear numerous schistocytes are observed. The coagulation studies (APTT, TP and Fibrinogen) are normal. In the biochemistry highlights LDH 2700 IU / l and bilirubin 2.6 mg / dl. What is the most likely diagnosis of the patient? 
 Options:  <0> Autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura. <1> Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura. <2> Medullary aplasia. <3> Drug-induced thrombocytopenia. <4> Disseminated intravascular coagulation.
Output: medicine
Question: A 45-year-old woman with a history of a heart murmur detected in the pediatric age. Enter the Emergency Department for symptoms of palpitations, easy fatigue and malignant edema. Physical examination reveals absence of cyanosis. Oxygen Saturation by pulse oximeter 97%. TA: 120/80 mm Hg. Irregular heart rate at 100 bpm. Systolic ejection murmur (2/6) in pulmonary focus. 2nd R unfolded, wide and fixed. No death rattles. Slight hepatomegaly (2-3 cm). Slight malleolar edema. ECG: complete arrhythmia due to atrial fibrillation at 100 bpm. AQRS: + 120º. Conduction disorder of the right branch of the bundle of His. What is your diagnostic orientation? 
 Options:  <0> Ventricular communication. <1> Aortic stenosis. <2> Mitral stenosis. <3> Interauricular communication. <4> Persistent ductus arteriosus.
Output: medicine
Question: If the arterial pO2 decreases to 60 mm of Hg: 
 Options:  <0> Decreases ventilation. <1> Central chemoreceptors are activated. <2> The central chemoreceptors are depressed. <3> The arterial chemoreceptors are activated. <4> It produces loss of consciousness.
Output: biology
Question: In a three-point test crossover study, a negative interference indicates that: 
 Options:  <0> More double crossings have occurred than expected. <1> There have been fewer double crossings than expected. <2> The match coefficient is less than 1. <3> A simple crossover decreases the likelihood of a double crossover occurring. <4> There have been fewer simple cross-links than expected.
Output: biology
Question: Which of the following psychopharmacological treatments would NOT be indicated in the long-term treatment of a person diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder? 
 Options:  <0> Pregabalin <1> Venlafaxine <2> Escitalopram. <3> Alprazolam <4> Duloxetine
Output: psychology
Question: To which of the following variables have the best therapeutic results been associated in Social Phobia ?: 
 Options:  <0> Training in HHSS. <1> Family support. <2> Fulfillment of the tasks of exposure between sessions. <3> Previous experience in psychotherapy. <4> Absence of physiological symptoms.
Output: psychology
Question: Which of the following is considered a normal response of the cardiovascular system originated in the baroreceptors as a consequence of hypotension ?: 
 Options:  <0> Increase in systemic vascular resistance. <1> Increase in parasympathetic stimulation. <2> Decrease in heart rate <3> Decreased stroke volume. <4> Decrease in cardiac output
Output: nursery
Question: A 49-year-old woman came to the emergency room due to shivering, fever of 39ºC, pain in the right hypochondrium, jaundice and vomiting. The scan reveals TA 100/50 mmHg. FC 110 lpm. Prostration and pain on palpation in the right quadrant, with positive Murphy. The analytical sample shows leukocytosis with left deviation and abdominal ultrasound, cholelithiasis, choledocholithiasis and dilation of the extrahepatic bile duct. Empirical treatment is started with antibiotic and fluid therapy. What is the most effective procedure to perform next? 
 Options:  <0> Maintain antibiotic treatment and support measures with posterior regulated cholecystectomy. <1> Laparoscopic cholecystectomy. <2> Placement of an external biliary drainage. <3> Urgent cholecystectomy with cannulation of the common bile duct. <4> Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography with sphincterotomy.
Output: medicine
Question: The proportion of environmental variance due to the influences that a person receives from their family environment and that are shared by the rest of their family: 
 Options:  <0> It is the specific variance. <1> It is called genotypic variance. <2> It matches the heritability. <3> It is dismissed in the investigations. <4> It is the variance coming from the shared environment.
Output: psychology
Question: In the respiratory chain: 
 Options:  <0> Ferrosulfurized proteins contain heme groups. <1> The heme groups are in carotenoids. <2> Cytochromes contain iron and sulfur groups. <3> Ubiquinones transport protons and electrons. <4> All transporters carry two electrons.
Output: biology
Question: Which statement regarding the substitution treatment with L-thyroxine in a patient with hypothyroidism is correct? 
 Options:  <0> Thyroid function will be determined 48 hours after its initiation to assess efficacy. <1> In elderly patients and in order to improve symptomatology quickly, treatment with L-T4 is started at a dose of 150-200 micrograms per day. <2> In pregnancy, thyroid hormone requirements usually increase by about 50 micrograms per day, over the previous dose. <3> The medication should be taken in the middle of meals. <4> It is advisable to administer a gastric protector simultaneously to avoid gastritis.
Output: medicine
Question: 78-year-old man with poorly controlled rheumatoid arthritis (RA). A history of 2 admissions for heart failure and atrial fibrillation in the last 6 months. In current treatment with infliximab, prednisone, furosemide, enalapril, carvedilol and acenocoumarol. Enter again for biventricular heart failure clinic. The ECG showed atrial fibrillation at 102 bpm and advanced left bundle branch block. An echocardiogram shows biatrial dilation, thickening of the left ventricular wall with ejection fraction of 45% and restrictive pattern. The analytical highlights: Hb 10 gr / dL, creatinine 2.1 mg / dL (FG 20 mL / min), CRP 124 mg / L, rheumatoid factor 240 U / L, BNP 980 ng / L, proteinuria 4.8 g / 24h. What is the most likely diagnosis? 
 Options:  <0> Cardio-renal syndrome type 2. <1> Amyloidosis AA. <2> Myocarditis of giant cells. <3> Toxicity due to infliximab. <4> Membranous glomerulonephritis associated with RA.
Output: medicine
Question: The state of adaptation characterized by the diminution of the response to the same amount of drug or the need for a higher dose to cause the same degree of pharmacological effect, defines: 
 Options:  <0> The adaptation to a drug. <1> The route of administration. <2> Intoxication <3> Tolerance to a drug <4> Addictive behavior
Output: psychology
Question: The main techniques in Social Skills Training for people with schizophrenia include modeling, behavior testing and feedback. But what other techniques are recommended ?: 
 Options:  <0> Relaxation techniques. <1> Targeted discussion techniques and the nominal group technique (TGN). <2> Techniques of instigation (Prompting) and lecturing (Coaching). <3> Biofeedback techniques. <4> Mindfulness techniques.
Output: psychology
Question: In humans, the synthesis of aspartate from oxaloacetate is catalysed by: 
 Options:  <0> Oxalacetate decarboxylase. <1> Aspartate synthetase. <2> Aspartate dehydrogenase. <3> Pyridoxal phosphate-dependent transaminase. <4> Oxalacetate ligase.
Output: chemistry
Question: In which of the following types of glomerulonephritis is there a greater indication of IECAS or ARA-II as antiproteinuric therapy? 
 Options:  <0> Segmental and focal glomerulosclerosis secondary to hyperfiltration. <1> Acute postinfectious glomerulonephritis. <2> Extracapillary glomerulonephritis. <3> Glomerulonephritis due to minimal changes. <4> Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis.
Output: medicine
Question: Among the equipment used for the mixing of powders are the rotary mixers, which are usually used when the powder: 
 Options:  <0> It has poor flow. <1> It flows freely. <2> It has an angle of repose> 90º. <3> It is high intensity. <4> It contains moisture.
Output: pharmacology
Question: A 25-year-old woman with no history of interest or toxic habits who went to the emergency room due to severe pain in her right ear, total inability to open her mouth, sudden onset and no previous history of trauma. It refers to the use of a discharge plate due to a nighttime dental clenching habit. What is your diagnosis? 
 Options:  <0> Dislocation of the mandibular condyle in front of the joint eminence. <1> Acute joint blockage (anterior dislocation of the articular meniscus). <2> Mandibular condyle fracture. <3> Fibrous ankylosis of the temporomandibular joint. <4> Bony ankylosis of the temporomandibular joint.
Output: medicine
Question: The neurofibrillary tangles are anomalous structures that are observed in Alzheimer's patients and that consist of: 
 Options:  <0> Neurons in process of extinction by accumulations of intertwined filaments of tau protein that alter the transport of substances in the cytoplasm. <1> Extracellular deposits containing a nucleus of beta-amylase protein surrounded by degenerating axons and dendrites. <2> Proteins that serve to facilitate the production and transport of a cerebral neurotropic factor. <3> Accumulation of astrocytes and microgliocytes with the ability to react to external pathogens. <4> Proteins produced by a defective gene that increases the likelihood of Parkinson's disease.
Output: psychology
Question: Regarding gastroesophageal reflux disease, which of the following statements is true? 
 Options:  <0> The intensity and frequency of heartburn has little relationship with the presence and severity of endoscopic esophagitis. <1> Most patients with gastroesophageal reflux disease have esophagitis at endoscopy. <2> Treatment with proton pump inhibitors usually achieves good control of symptoms but is not superior to placebo in the endoscopic cure of esophagitis. <3> Barrett's esophagus can progress to low-grade epithelial dysplasia, high-grade epithelial dysplasia, and finally squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus. <4> Endoscopic screening and surveillance programs have unequivocally shown to be able to reduce mortality in patients with Barrett's esophagus.
Output: medicine
Question: The Mini Nutritional Assessment (MNA): 
 Options:  <0> It is indicated for older people who live in the community but not for hospitalized patients. <1> It is validated specifically for older people. <2> It consists of anthropometric, biochemical and dietary items. <3> It is a reliable but complex nutritional screening tool. <4> It is formulated around 10 items exclusively referring to dietary and anthropometric parameters.
Output: nursery
Question: A 16-year-old boy who consulted due to pultulose tonsillitis, fever up to 38.5ºC, painful cervical adenopathies, non-pruritic macular exanthema in the thorax and mild hepatosplenomegaly, 4-5 days old. The Paul-Bunnell test and the IgM for the Epstein-Barr virus are positive. During his admission he develops a continuous fever of up to 40ºC, pancytopenia, icteric hepatitis and coagulopathy of progressive intensity. One week after admission, he was transferred to the ICU due to confusion and respiratory failure. The blood cultures and a urine culture are negative, the CSF is normal and the chest plate does not show infiltrates. Procalcitonin is normal, but PCR and ferritin are very high. From the statements below, what would be the most correct diagnostic and therapeutic approach? 
 Options:  <0> It has a bacterial sepsis of undetermined origin and should be administered ceftriaxone and supportive treatment. <1> It has a bacterial sepsis of undetermined origin and should be administered vancomycin, ceftacidime and supportive treatment. <2> It is an infectious mononucleosis of severe course and glucocorticoids must be administered. <3> It is an infectious mononucleosis of severe course and treatment with acyclovir should be started. <4> Perform a biopsy / aspirate of bone marrow and if hemophagocytosis is confirmed, start treatment with immunosuppressants.
Output: medicine
Question: The reovirus .: 
 Options:  <0> They are released from the cell by budding. <1> They replicate their genetic material in the cell nucleus. <2> They have a lipid envelope. <3> They form virions resistant to acid pH. <4> They are transmitted by blood.
Output: biology
Question: A fetal heartbeat is heard in a 32-week pregnant woman. What Leopold maneuver should be done to know where the fetal dorsum is located ?: 
 Options:  <0> The first. <1> The second. <2> Third. <3> The fourth. <4> The fifth.
Output: nursery
Question: Which of the following clinical manifestations is predominant in a patient with acute pancreatitis? 
 Options:  <0> Abdomen rigid or on board. <1> Ecchymosis on the flank or around the navel. <2> Fever. <3> Jaundice. <4> Abdominal pain.
Output: nursery
Question: What is the name of the structure type of an organization, in which each person no longer depends exclusively on a single boss, but can also be affected by different projects and statutes, during a variable or fixed time ?: 
 Options:  <0> Pyramidal. <1> Divisional. <2> Matrix <3> Organization chart of Urwick. <4> Functional.
Output: nursery
Question: The type of membrane transport that uses ionic gradients as an energy source is: 
 Options:  <0> Facilitated dissemination. <1> Passive transport <2> Primary active transport. <3> Secondary active transport. <4> Simple diffusion.
Output: chemistry
Question: Question linked to image nº14 Suppose that the patient does not refer any family history of interest, has never taken illicit drugs or receives usual medical treatment. An analysis performed in a private mutual shows a microcytic and hypochromic anemia, a normal thyroid function, a serology for HIV negative and a determination of arsenic also negative. The chest x-ray is normal. To continue the study, numerous tests could be carried out. Which do you think could help us more at this time? 
 Options:  <0> A bone marrow aspirate. <1> A complete immunological study with ANA, ANCA and complement. <2> I would not do more tests immediately and follow the clinical evolution for a month. <3> A fibrogastroscopy. <4> A biopsy of the plantar lesion.
Output: medicine
Question: Which of the following symptoms is NOT present in the Wallemberg syndrome, usually produced by ischemia of the dorsal-lateral region of the bulb? 
 Options:  <0> Diffuse <1> Dysphagia <2> Piramidalism <3> Ataxia. <4> Horner syndrome.
Output: medicine
Question: Glucagon and adrenaline have in common: 
 Options:  <0> Activate the degradation of glycogen in liver and muscle. <1> Facilitate the entry of glucose into all cells of the body. <2> Activate the synthesis of fatty acids. <3> Always free yourself to the blood. <4> Activate glycolysis.
Output: biology
Question: Only one of the following cell types synthesizes interleukin IL-12; which one?: 
 Options:  <0> Cytotoxic T lymphocytes. <1> NK cells. <2> Myeloid dendritic cells. <3> Helper T lymphocytes. <4> Endothelial cells
Output: pharmacology
Question: Hepatocytes in ground glass are characteristic of: 
 Options:  <0> Chronic hepatitis by HBV. <1> Chronic HCV hepatitis. <2> Chronic hepatitis by VH delta. <3> Toxic hepatitis. <4> Hepatitis for alcohol.
Output: medicine
Question: The so-called poly-Ig receptor: 
 Options:  <0> Facilitates the transport of IgA through the mucosal epithelium. <1> Mediates the transport of IgG through the placenta. <2> Stabilizes the polymer structure of an IgM. <3> It is expressed on the surface of B lymphocytes. <4> It is expressed on the surface of tissue macrophages.
Output: biology
Question: The following may occur in multimeric form associated with the J chain: 
 Options:  <0> IgA and IgG. <1> IgD and IgM, <2> IdE and IgD. <3> IgA and IgD. <4> IgA and IgM.
Output: biology
Question: Which of the following hepatitis viruses is a subsidiary of treatment with viral protease inhibitors? 
 Options:  <0> The hepatitis C virus <1> The hepatitis B virus <2> The hepatitis A virus <3> The hepatitis E virus <4> The TTV virus.
Output: medicine
Question: The analysis by potentiometric redisolution is characterized: 
 Options:  <0> By using the square wave as an element of excitation. <1> Because the redisolution stage is carried out without agitation. <2> Because the reoxidation step is carried out by an oxidizing agent. <3> Because currents are measured in the redisolution stage. <4> Because the redisolution is carried out at constant potential.
Output: chemistry
Question: At 30 ° C, butylamine reacts with ethyl acrylate in KOH / EtOH and gives: 
 Options:  <0> N-Butylprop-2-enamide. <1> Prop-2-potassium enoate. <2> 3- (Butylamino) ethyl propanoate. <3> No new compound is formed. <4> Butene, ethanol and prop-2-enamide.
Output: chemistry
Question: A 30-year-old man (index case) affected by Leber's optic atrophy presents the mutation of the mitochondrial genome LHON11778A. In genetic counseling you will be informed of the risks of transmitting the disease to your offspring. What information is correct? 
 Options:  <0> The index case will transmit the disease to all its male descendants (holándrica inheritance). <1> The disease will be transmitted to 50% of the descendants of the index case, regardless of their sex. <2> The disease will be transmitted to all descendants of the index case, as it is of paternal inheritance. <3> The disease will be transmitted to female descendants; but to no man. <4> The disease will not be transmitted to the descendants of the index case, because it is of maternal inheritance.
Output: medicine
Question: Nitric oxide: 
 Options:  <0> It is synthesized from methionine. <1> Activates cAMP-dependent protein kinase (PKA). <2> It binds to receptors coupled to G proteins (GPCR). <3> Induces relaxation of the vascular endothelium. <4> It binds to receptors with protein tyrosine kinase (PTK) activity.
Output: chemistry
Question: What is the first level of organization of DNA in chromosomes': 
 Options:  <0> Histones. <1> Nucleosomes. <2> Sugar-phosphate chains. <3> Proteosomes <4> Nucleotides
Output: chemistry
Question: It gives the plasma membrane high water permeability: 
 Options:  <0> Aquaporins. <1> Ionic channels. <2> Na + / K + -ATPase. <3> Cl / HCO3 exchanger. <4> Its lipid composition.
Output: biology
Question: Diabetes Insipidus: 
 Options:  <0> It is a disease linked to the dysfunction of the anterior pituitary gland. <1> It is controlled by limiting the ingestion of liquids. <2> It manifests by polydipsia and the elimination of large volumes of diluted urine. <3> It originates in the pancreas. <4> It is caused by excessive production of ADH (Vasopressin).
Output: nursery
Question: Ms. X is a 76-year-old patient who has suffered several falls in recent years with fractures in both arms. The diagnosis by image denotes the evidence of osteoporosis and the traumatologist decides to start a treatment with teriparatide. We must consider that: 
 Options:  <0> Teriparatide is an analogue of vitamin D. <1> It is administered in a daily dose subcutaneously. <2> It is administered only intravenously. <3> Acts as a receptor agonist to vitamin D3. <4> It does not favor the increase of bone mass.
Output: pharmacology
Question: From the following answers, which best defines a patient with microalbuminuria: 
 Options:  <0> Presence of renal disease in the terminal stage. <1> Nephrotic disease <2> Predictive diabetic nephropathy. <3> Glomerulonephritis <4> Orthostatic proteinuria
Output: pharmacology
Question: A child with gluten intolerance asks the nurse what trinkets she can take when she goes out to play with her friends: 
 Options:  <0> Snacks <1> Chocolates <2> Popcorn. <3> Pastries <4> Candies.
Output: nursery
Question: In general, allosteric enzymes: 
 Options:  <0> They join the effectors in the active center. <1> They form covalent bonds with their negative effectors. <2> They originate hyperbolic curves of speed versus substrate concentration. <3> They change their conformation when they join the effectors. <4> They are irreversibly modified when they are inhibited.
Output: biology
Question: In relation to toxoplasmosis and pregnancy, indicate which of the following options is true: 
 Options:  <0> Placental transmission to the fetus can occur. <1> The rate of antibodies should be detected at the beginning of pregnancy and, in their absence, vaccination with killed virus vaccine should be carried out. <2> The infection is less severe but more frequent the younger the pregnant woman is. <3> In our environment, the main cause of infection is the coexistence and management of domestic birds. <4> The infection occurs intrapartum, favored by the rupture of the amniotic sac.
Output: nursery
Question: The target of the aminoglycoside antibacterials is the: 
 Options:  <0> DNA polymerase <1> Transpeptidation of peptidoglycan. <2> 30S subunit of the ribosome. <3> RNA polymerase <4> DNA gyrase.
Output: biology
Question: In which personality disorder can the individual have unfounded and recurrent suspicions about the fidelity of the couple, as well as having doubts about the loyalty or honesty of the friends or acquaintances ?: 
 Options:  <0> In the celotypic personality disorder. <1> In delusional personality disorder. <2> In the dependent personality disorder. <3> In the paranoid personality disorder. <4> In narcissistic personality disorder.
Output: psychology
Question: The main virulence factor of Streptococcus pneumoniae is one (one): 
 Options:  <0> Fímbria. <1> Capsule. <2> Scourge <3> Endotoxin <4> Adhesin
Output: biology
Question: Orally administered proton pump inhibitor drugs: 
 Options:  <0> Neutralize hydrochloric acid from gastric secretion. <1> They dye the stools black. <2> They block the histaminergic receptor. <3> They block the gastrin receptor. <4> They require enteric cover.
Output: medicine
Question: What neurotransmitter has a type of receptor called muscarinic ?: 
 Options:  <0> Acetylcholine <1> Dopamine <2> Serotonin <3> Noradrenaline <4> Adrenalin.
Output: psychology
Question: In the health report of Mrs. P. T. of 83 years of age, it is reported that she has a depressive picture. Regarding depression in the elderly has been described that: 
 Options:  <0> It is uncommon for them to have somatic symptoms. <1> It is not characteristic that cognitive disorders appear. <2> The Yesavage scale is an instrument to establish a safe diagnosis of depression. <3> There is unanimity in stating that it has specific manifestations in the elderly. <4> There may be pictures of pseudodementia, with symptoms of dementia but caused by depressive states.
Output: nursery
Question: With respect to the behavior of obstetric patients exposed to Varicella, it is FALSE: 
 Options:  <0> Infected women should be separated from other obstetric patients. <1> All obstetric patients exposed, without certainty of prior immunity, must make a serological determination of their immunization status. <2> Specific immunoglobulin should be administered to exposed non-immune obstetric patients. <3> The maximum period for administering the specific immunoglobulin after contact is 96 hours. <4> Pregnant women without immunity to Varicella-Zoster virus can be vaccinated during pregnancy to prevent primary infection.
Output: medicine
Question: What is the tendency to think that others behave as oneself in a certain situation? 
 Options:  <0> Perceptive selection. <1> Last attribution error. <2> False consensus. <3> Self-centered attribution error. <4> Confirmatory trends
Output: psychology
Question: Which of the following sequences is added during the maturation or processing of the eukaryotic transfer RNA ?: 
 Options:  <0> Splicing site 5 'of the intron. <1> CCA sequence of amino acid charge. <2> Anticodon <3> 3 'splicing site of the intron. <4> Leading sequence of the 5 'end.
Output: pharmacology
Question: Question linked to image # 12 In the CT that is shown, the most likely diagnosis is: 
 Options:  <0> Polycystic kidney disease <1> Retroperitoneal mass. <2> Renal tuberculosis <3> Renal cystic neoplasia. <4> Obstructive uropathy.
Output: medicine
Question: The thermal conductivity detector was one of the first used in gas chromatography and still has a lot of application. Consists in: 
 Options:  <0> A source that is heated by electricity, whose temperature at a constant electrical energy depends on the thermal conductivity of the gas that surrounds it. <1> A metallic surface on which ions collide, producing emission of electrons or other ions, with the consequent variation in conductivity. <2> An air / hydrogen flame where organic compounds are pyrolyzed producing ions that lead to a change in conductivity. <3> An emitter of beta radiation that allows the measurement of the conductivity of the eluent that leaves the chromatographic column. <4> A source of thermal ionization that produces positive and negative ions that change the conductivity of the gas passing through the detector.
Output: chemistry
Question: The systematic nomenclature rules of the IUPAC give priority as a main function, from among the following functional groups, to: 
 Options:  <0> Amines <1> Carboxylic acids. <2> Nitriles <3> Carboxylic ethers. <4> Aldehydes.
Output: chemistry
Question: Currently, which of the following behavioral treatments is considered an effective treatment for major depressive disorder? 
 Options:  <0> The applied relaxation. <1> The problem solving therapy. <2> The Flood. <3> Interpersonal therapy <4> The arrest of thought.
Output: psychology
Question: In phase II of the diet due to acute gastroenteritis, what food should be avoided ?: 
 Options:  <0> Potato. <1> Toasted bread. <2> Grape. <3> Quince. <4> Semolina.
Output: nursery
Question: Which of these foods should reduce a patient with high cholesterol from his diet? 
 Options:  <0> Cereals. <1> Vegetables. <2> Whole milk. <3> Olive oil. <4> Fish.
Output: nursery
Question: The soluble globular proteins are characterized by: 
 Options:  <0> Present aromatic and aliphatic amino acids on its surface. <1> Present an inner apolar core. <2> Being partially deployed giving rise to structures that are not very compact. <3> Present in its interior acidic and basic amino acids. <4> A high degree of hydration inside.
Output: biology
Question: In the activation of the serum complement, the assembly of the Membrane Attack Complex begins with: 
 Options:  <0> C9 <1> C5b. <2> C3a. <3> C6 <4> C8.
Output: biology
Question: The vaginal microbiota of a healthy fertile woman is dominated by bacteria of the genus: 
 Options:  <0> Peptostreptococcus <1> Bifidobacterium <2> Eubacterium. <3> Lactobacillus <4> Vagococcus
Output: biology
Question: In relation to enzymatic inhibition: 
 Options:  <0> An irreversible inhibitor causes the denaturation of the enzyme. <1> The competing inhibitors bind to the substrate of the reaction. <2> A non-competitive inhibitor does not need to bind to the enzyme to exert its activity. <3> All inhibitors modify Vmax. <4> A competitive inhibitor increases the value of Km.
Output: biology
Question: Indicate which of the following is an alteration of the pyrimidine metabolism: 
 Options:  <0> Thrombophilia <1> Phenylketonuria <2> Wilson's disease <3> Urine disease with the smell of maple syrup. <4> Orotic hereditary acidity.
Output: pharmacology
Question: Depersonalization disorder, according to the DSM-IV-TR, is part of: 
 Options:  <0> The schizophrenic disorders. <1> Dissociative disorders <2> Somatoform disorders. <3> Disorders of the mood. <4> Personality disorders
Output: psychology
Question: Of the following pollutants, which has a greater affinity for hemoglobin producing alterations in brain, myocardial and muscular tissue? 
 Options:  <0> Carbon monoxide. <1> Carbon dioxide. <2> Nitric monoxide <3> Sulfur dioxide. <4> Ozone.
Output: nursery
Question: The work of expanding a gas (W): 
 Options:  <0> It is a state function. <1> Equivalent to the heat associated with the process (Q). <2> Against constant pressure it is calculated with W = -Pext ΔV. <3> In a reversible isothermal process it is calculated with W = -nRTΔV. <4> Equivalent to the internal energy change during the process (ΔU)
Output: pharmacology
Question: What is the name of the set of activities consisting of creating and maintaining an adequate environment in which individuals, working in groups, can carry out pre-established functions and objectives? 
 Options:  <0> Operationalize <1> Manage. <2> Objectify <3> To plan. <4> Assess.
Output: nursery
Question: What is interpersonal therapy of social rhythm (or interpersonal and social rhythm therapy)? 
 Options:  <0> An adaptation of interpersonal therapy to the treatment of dysthymic disorder. <1> An adaptation of interpersonal therapy to the treatment of severe major depressive disorder. <2> A therapy resulting from combining interpersonal therapy, behavioral activation therapy and social problem solving therapy. <3> An adaptation of interpersonal therapy for patients with major depressive disorder who have serious problems in their social relationships. <4> An adaptation of interpersonal therapy to the treatment of bipolar disorder.
Output: psychology
Question: What cognitive technique is used in Rational Emotive Behavior therapy to help people who have intellectual difficulties? 
 Options:  <0> Reduction to the absurd. <1> Cognitive distraction <2> Training in social skills. <3> Rational-emotive imagination. <4> Training in self-instructions.
Output: psychology
Question: The response trend is an important source of error that diminishes the quality of: 
 Options:  <0> Projective techniques. <1> The semi-structured interview. <2> The methodology of the Observation. <3> The Self-reports. <4> The Objective Techniques.
Output: psychology
Question: What type of mechanism does Gestalt propose as an explanatory mechanism for solving a problem ?: 
 Options:  <0> The trial and error. <1> The search for operations in the problem space. <2> The algorithmic methods. <3> The huerísticos methods. <4> The insight.
Output: psychology
Question: Hypoxemic hypoxia occurs when: 
 Options:  <0> Oxygen diffusion of lungs is difficult. <1> There is decreased blood flow due to cardiogenic shock. <2> The decrease in hemoglobin due to anemia prevents its transport. <3> The cell membrane is altered and can not use oxygen. <4> None is correct.
Output: nursery
Question: One of the following is NOT a guideline that should guide interventions in Autism Spectrum Disorders. Point out which: 
 Options:  <0> Use personalized teaching programs based on an evolutionary framework. <1> Intervene in a group setting to favor the acquisition of social skills. <2> Intervene in highly structured and predictable contexts. <3> Use learning procedures without mistakes. <4> Favor motivation.
Output: psychology
Question: With regard to pyrogens and biotechnological medicines, it is possible to say: 
 Options:  <0> They have no tendency to aggregate or form large units with high molecular weight. <1> Ion exchange chromatography procedures (using their positive charge) can reduce endotoxin levels. <2> Ion exchange chromatography procedures (using their negative charge) can reduce endotoxin levels. <3> Ion exchange chromatography procedures (regardless of their charge) can reduce endotoxin levels. <4> They are unstable under standard autoclaving conditions.
Output: pharmacology
Question: Insulin regulates the synthesis of fatty acids: 
 Options:  <0> Activating phosphorylase <1> Dephosphorylating acetyl CoA carboxylase. <2> Inhibiting the formation of malonyl CoA. <3> Controlling the carnitine-acyl CoA transferase activity. <4> Activating the fatty acid synthetase.
Output: chemistry
Question: In our interview with a 14-year-old adolescent and her family, the following information is collected: her character has changed, she is sad and irritable; excessive worry about what you eat; obsession with the gym and stagnation or decrease in body weight, although its size has increased. The adolescent does not recognize any of these observations claiming that she is growing. We would think that: 
 Options:  <0> Although it may correspond to diagnostic criteria for an eating disorder, the signs and symptoms alone are not enough and sometimes stigmatize young people causing them suffering. <1> These data correspond on their own to the diagnostic criteria of Anorexia according to the DSM-IV. <2> These data correspond by themselves to the diagnostic criteria of Bulimia Nerviosa according to the DSM-IV. <3> These data are not very relevant to establish a diagnosis, so it will be less important. <4> All the answers are correct.
Output: nursery
Question: Regarding the exercises with the incentive spirometer, it is true that: 
 Options:  <0> They stimulate the patient to inhale quickly and deeply. <1> The patient must be in the supine position. <2> Spirometers can be of three types: volume, flow or pressure. <3> They are also called sustained maximum inspiration exercises. <4> All are false.
Output: nursery
Question: Beta-adrenergic receptor blocking drugs: 
 Options:  <0> They cause hypotension in individuals with normal blood pressure. <1> They increase the atrio-ventricular conduction velocity. <2> They cause negative inotropism. <3> They provoke a positive chronotropic effect. <4> They increase the secretion of renin.
Output: pharmacology
Question: A 67-year-old man, a schizophrenic in medical treatment, is treated in a city in southern Spain on August 15 for presenting fever and deteriorating levels of consciousness. On examination, she presented a Glasgow coma score of 5 points, tachypnea at 45 breaths per minute, oxygen saturation by pulse oximetry of 75%, rectal temperature of 41 ºC, and in the laboratory the CPK is 30,000 U / L. A lumbar puncture is performed that is normal. Point out the correct answer: 
 Options:  <0> Cooling by immersing the patient in a bathtub with ice is the safest method to reduce the temperature. <1> It is not necessary to sedate the patient, intubate them and connect them to mechanical ventilation. <2> Liver involvement is rare in this pathology. <3> In case of hypotension, dopamine should be used at doses higher than 10 micrograms / kg / minute. <4> The cerebellum is especially sensitive to elevated temperature above 40 degrees.
Output: medicine
Question: Analyzing several DNA polymerases involved in the replication of E. coli, one of them was found that had low processivity and low synthesis speed, what enzyme could be treated ?: 
 Options:  <0> DNA pol I. <1> DNA B. <2> DNA pol III. <3> Primasa. <4> DNA gyrase.
Output: pharmacology
Question: One of the following compounds produces liver damage as the main toxic effect: 
 Options:  <0> Diethylene glycol. <1> Methanol <2> Acetone. <3> Benzene. <4> Carbon tetrachloride.
Output: pharmacology
Question: The area that acts as a connection between automatic emotional responses and the control of complex behaviors, guiding behavior to control the manifestation of emotional responses, is: 
 Options:  <0> The angular gyrus of the limbic system. <1> The convolution or lobe of the insula. <2> The prefrontal orbitofrontal or ventromedial cortex. <3> The thalamus <4> The cortex of somatosensory association.
Output: psychology
Question: Pyruvate carboxylase is allosterically activated by one of the following compounds, what is it? 
 Options:  <0> Pyruvate. <1> Acetyl-CoA. <2> Malate. <3> Oxalacetate. <4> NAD +.
Output: chemistry
Question: Enter in our plant from the Emergency Room to study an 80-year-old patient reporting weight loss and nonspecific central-abdominal discomfort, together with loss of appetite. The diagnostic process that we must develop during your admission will be guided by the following principles EXCEPT: 
 Options:  <0> All those tests that can bring light to the process suspected by the doctor covering the widest differential diagnosis from the beginning will be carried out. <1> The healthcare process will be adapted to the individual clinical context of the patient and it will be sought that the latter be a participant in the decisions regarding diagnosis and treatment. <2> It is important to think first of all in the most ordinary way, only later, once the most frequent entities are discarded with certainty, to consider the odd. <3> Some complementary tests may be redundant and may not add value to the diagnostic process, but at the cost of health. Thus, before two complementary tests of similar performance, it will always be decided by the most economical and least risky. <4> It is essential that the doctor does not add new discomforts with the practice of complementary explorations that are not strictly necessary.
Output: medicine
Question: What mineral deficit has been especially observed in pica cases? 
 Options:  <0> Calcium deficit <1> Zinc deficit. <2> Lead deficit <3> Potassium deficit <4> Sodium deficit
Output: psychology
Question: A 58-year-old patient diagnosed with chronic myeloid leukemia. The most indicated treatment would be: 
 Options:  <0> Interferon. <1> Hydroxyurea <2> Imatinib. <3> Rituximab <4> Busulfan.
Output: pharmacology
Question: The approach to the Psychological Evaluation from a constructivist model is characterized by the use of techniques: 
 Options:  <0> Projectives that evaluate traits. <1> Subjectives that evaluate meanings. <2> Psychometrics that evaluate constructs. <3> Behaviors that evaluate repertoires. <4> Observationals that evaluate environmental variables.
Output: psychology
Question: The medium that is used to detect the production of acetoin (butylene glycol) from pyruvic acid in the fermentation of glucose is called: 
 Options:  <0> Kligler. <1> Methyl red. <2> Voges Proskauer. <3> ONPG (ortho-nitrophenyl-galactopyranoside) <4> Beta-glucuronidase.
Output: pharmacology
Question: To measure the pulmonary wedge pressure (PEP) by means of a pulmonary artery catheter, it is advisable to take into account that: 
 Options:  <0> It is not necessary to inflate the ball. <1> The catheter should always be inserted with the balloon inflated, but at half the recommended volume. <2> The volume of balloon inflation is usually 1.5 ml of air. <3> The volume of inflation of the balloon is usually 3 ml of air. <4> You have to leave the balloon always inflated after making the determinations of PEP.
Output: nursery
Question: The degrees of freedom of the intragroup variance in a 1-way Anova comparing 4 groups of 10 individuals each are: 
 Options:  <0> 38 <1> 39 <2> 3. <3> 40 <4> 36
Output: biology
Question: Social phobia is a problem: 
 Options:  <0> Infrequent in the general population (less than 1%). <1> More frequent among the male population than in the female population. <2> More frequent among the female population than the male population. <3> That is given equally in both sexes. <4> More frequent after the 25 years than before that age.
Output: psychology
Question: The biological cycle of Trichinella spiralis is of the following type: 
 Options:  <0> Stenoxene <1> Optional. <2> Triheteroxene <3> Autoheteroxene <4> Heterogónico.
Output: pharmacology
Question: The process of bacterial sporulation occurs: 
 Options:  <0> Both Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria. <1> After the depletion of certain essential nutrients. <2> When unfavorable environmental factors such as UV light or heat appear. <3> During the exponential growth. <4> By budding of a stem cell.
Output: biology
Question: Hydroxylation of Lys and Pro residues in collagen requires: 
 Options:  <0> Vitamin B. <1> Vitamin A. <2> Vitamin D. <3> Vitamin C. <4> None of the above options.
Output: chemistry
Question: In a patient with asthma symptoms, diagnostic confirmation of the disease will be made first by: 
 Options:  <0> The finding of a reversible obstruction of air flow in spirometry. <1> A positive allergic skin test. <2> An increase in the number of eosinophils in the induced sputum. <3> The elevation of nitric oxide in exhaled air (FENO). <4> The presence of a specific IgE in blood to an aeroallergen.
Output: medicine
Question: Thiamine pyrophosphate (PPT) is not coenzyme of: 
 Options:  <0> Pyruvate dehydrogenase (synthesis of acetyl CoA). <1> Alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase (citric acid cycle). <2> Transketolase (pentose phosphate pathway). <3> Transaldolase (pentose phosphate route). <4> Pyruvate decarboxylase (ethanolic fermentation).
Output: pharmacology
Question: Hypokalemia is a physiological symptom that can typically occur: 
 Options:  <0> In sleep disorders. <1> In addictions. <2> In anorexia nervosa. <3> In bulimia but not in anorexia nervosa. <4> In disorders of attention deficit and disturbing behavior.
Output: psychology
Question: The thalamus is part of: 
 Options:  <0> The diencephalon <1> The mesencephalon. <2> The telencephalon. <3> The metencephalon. <4> The bulb.
Output: pharmacology
Question: Strict vegetarians with low sun exposure should consume foods rich in vitamin: 
 Options:  <0> Retinol (A). <1> Ascorbic acid (C). <2> Calciferol (D). <3> Riboflavin (B2). <4> Niacin (B3).
Output: nursery
Question: Glycolysis and hepatic gluconeogenesis are regulated reciprocally by facilitated hormonal mechanisms, in addition to an important metabolite that determines whether glucose should be synthesized or degraded. Which?: 
 Options:  <0> Fructose 6-phosphate. <1> Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate. <2> Fructose 2,6-bisphosphate. <3> Pyruvate. <4> Lactate
Output: chemistry