niryuu/sni-each-converted huggingface dataset:
Question: When the organism passes successively through the phases of alarm reaction, resistance phase and exhaustion phase, we refer to: 
 Options:  <0> The autonomous nervous system. <1> The placebo effect. <2> Electrokinesiological biofeedback. <3> Restrictive anorexia nervosa. <4> The general adaptation syndrome.
Output: psychology
Question: If a statistical test offers a value p <0.05: 
 Options:  <0> The null hypothesis is accepted. <1> The alternative hypothesis is rejected. <2> the null hypothesis is rejected. <3> The null hypothesis can not be rejected. <4> There is no evidence in favor of the alternative hypothesis.
Output: biology
Question: The thromboxanes: 
 Options:  <0> They induce platelet aggregation. <1> They inhibit platelet aggregation. <2> They act as bronchodilators in the respiratory system. <3> They are produced in the membranes of all cells. <4> They are derived from saturated fatty acids.
Output: chemistry
Question: The complexes of cobalt (III): 
 Options:  <0> They are all neutral or anionic. <1> They form the basis of our knowledge about the properties and reaction mechanisms of octahedral complexes. <2> They are usually flat-squares. <3> They present very fast substitution kinetics. <4> Almost all are prepared by replacing some ligands with others.
Output: chemistry
Question: What does it mean that hemoglobin binds O2 cooperatively? 
 Options:  <0> That the binding of an O2 molecule to a subunit of hemoglobin drives the binding of other subunits to form a complete protein hemoglobin. <1> That the binding of an O2 molecule to a subunit of hemoglobin increases the affinity of the same subunit to bind more O2 molecules. <2> That the binding of an O2 molecule to a subunit of hemoglobin increases the affinity of other subunits for O2. <3> That the union of an O2 molecule to a protein hemoglobin causes the union of another O2 molecule to another protein different hemoglobin. <4> None of this is true.
Output: chemistry
Question: The cholera toxin: 
 Options:  <0> Inhibits protein synthesis. <1> It is hemolytic and dermonecrotic. <2> Alters the flow of electrolytes in the intestine. <3> It is formed by a single polypeptide that is cleaved by the effect of proteases. <4> It produces food poisoning.
Output: biology
Question: A karyotype 45, XX, rob (15; 21) (q10; q10) can correspond to: 
 Options:  <0> A girl with Down syndrome with a Robertsonian translocation. <1> A girl with Angelman syndrome. <2> A healthy woman with a Robertsonian translocation. <3> A healthy woman with Turner syndrome. <4> A healthy male carrier of a Robertsonian translocation.
Output: biology
Question: Which of the following statements about the consolidation of the fractures is FALSE ?: 
 Options:  <0> The presence of metabolic diseases inhibits consolidation. <1> There are bones that consolidate later due to their state of nutrition and blood supply. <2> In children they consolidate faster. <3> Intraarticular fractures delays consolidation. <4> The space between the fragments favors consolidation.
Output: nursery
Question: What is the approach proposed by the relationship model between therapist and client as expert to expert ?: 
 Options:  <0> The behavioral model. <1> The constructivist perspective <2> The psychoanalysis. <3> The strategic school. <4> The therapy centered on the client.
Output: psychology
Question: With which of the following disorders does nocturnal enuresis have a higher comorbidity ?: 
 Options:  <0> Nightmares. <1> Attention deficit disorder with hyperactivity. <2> Insomnia. <3> Night Bruxism. <4> Night terrors.
Output: psychology
Question: What coenzyme is used in amino acid transamination reactions: 
 Options:  <0> FAD. <1> Biotin <2> Pyridoxal. <3> NAD +. <4> NADP +.
Output: chemistry
Question: Which of the following covalent bonds does not appear in proteins ?: 
 Options:  <0> Phosphodiester linkage. <1> Amide link. <2> O-glucosidic bond. <3> Disulfide bond. <4> Hydrogen bond.
Output: chemistry
Question: Pyridoxal phosphate is a prosthetic group of enzymes involved in reactions of: 
 Options:  <0> Acetylation <1> Desulfation. <2> Methylation <3> Reduction. <4> Transamination.
Output: chemistry
Question: Taking into account the relationships between the theory of the four temperaments and the personality model of H.J. Eysenck, an angry temper will correspond to a person: 
 Options:  <0> Introverted and Stable Emotional. <1> Apathetic and Stable Emotional. <2> Introverted and Unstable Emotional. <3> Extroverted and Unstable Emotional. <4> Introverted and Anxious
Output: psychology
Question: In the treatment of depression, therapy or training in social skills focuses mainly on improving classes or repertoires of behaviors that are especially relevant for depressed individuals and among which is the positive assertion. What kind of behavior does the positive assertion refer to? 
 Options:  <0> Behaviors that allow the person to defend their rights and interests. <1> Conduct to initiate conversations, ask questions and perform appropriate self-revelations. <2> Conduct regarding the expression of affection, approval and praise towards other people. <3> Behaviors to impose one's own interests over the interests of others. <4> Behaviors to generate positive emotions when a person is alone.
Output: psychology
Question: All the following statements describe characteristics of the peptide link EXCEPT: 
 Options:  <0> It has a trans configuration. <1> It is polar but without charge. <2> It forms a single bond by directly joining the α carbons of adjacent amino acids. <3> It does not present rotation around the link. <4> Is flat.
Output: chemistry
Question: Which of the following values ​​is closest to the estimated value for the standard free energy increase of ATP hydrolysis? 
 Options:  <0> - 1.4 Kcal / mol. <1> - 2.6 Kcal / mol. <2> + 3.5 Kcal / mol. <3> - 7.0 Kcal / mol. <4> + 7.0 Kcal / mol.
Output: chemistry
Question: It has superficial cells with abundant glycogen: 
 Options:  <0> Language. <1> Esophagus. <2> Thin skin <3> Vagina. <4> Thick skin.
Output: biology
Question: A woman of 90 years of dementia, incontinent and immobilized by hemiparesis presents a sacral ulcer of grade III. In the examination we see that he is in bed on a wet pad and with a feeding tube that is well placed. He is afebrile and has a normal pulse and blood pressure. It has a 4 x 4 cm sacral ulcer that extends into the fascia with green exudate and normal skin surrounding the ulcer. What is the first priority in the care of this patient? 
 Options:  <0> Start treatment with antibiotics. <1> Cultivate the decubitus exudate. <2> Apply semi-moist bandages of saline three times a day. <3> Make postural changes to the patient every two hours. <4> Place a permanent urinary catheter.
Output: medicine
Question: What is the role of the helicase in replication ?: 
 Options:  <0> Join the single-stranded DNA to prevent the double helix from forming again. <1> Catalyze the union of nucleotides. <2> Correct the errors that occur in the replication. <3> Synthesize a primer to start replication. <4> Mechanically separate the strands of double-stranded DNA.
Output: chemistry
Question: Which of the following formal aspects of the therapeutic style are part of the motivational interview ?: 
 Options:  <0> Take a directive role during therapy. <1> Promote empathy. <2> Use coercive strategies. <3> Use diagnostic labels. <4> Favor discussions to activate resistances.
Output: psychology
Question: The presence of which of the following structural arrangements in a protein suggests that it is a regulatory protein for DNA binding: 
 Options:  <0> Plate . <1> Disordered region. <2> Helix . <3> Chaperones <4> Finger of zinc.
Output: chemistry
Question: The square of Pearson's correlation coefficient is: 
 Options:  <0> The coefficient of variation. <1> The coefficient of determination. <2> The slope of the regression line. <3> The regression coefficient. <4> The covariance.
Output: pharmacology
Question: In the clinical interview: 
 Options:  <0> The doctor has to show friend before professional. <1> The doctor should avoid warning the patient of the time available to assist him. <2> The professional must verify that the patient has understood the information. <3> It is advisable to take long breaks to avoid fatiguing the patient. <4> The doctor, during the interview, must remain standing or placed behind the head of the bed.
Output: medicine
Question: An adequate recommendation for a patient with a recent diagnosis of osteoporosis is: 
 Options:  <0> Perform isometric exercises. <1> Give up smoking. <2> Take a diet rich in fiber. <3> Limit physical activity <4> Avoid the ingestion of bisphosphonates.
Output: nursery
Question: Which of the following statements regarding Bipolar II Disorder is true? 
 Options:  <0> The essential feature is a clinical course characterized by one or more manic episodes or mixed episodes. <1> The presence of a manic or mixed episode prevents the diagnosis from being made. <2> Episodes of mood disorder induced by substances or due to medical illness are considered valid to establish the diagnosis of bipolar II disorder. <3> The information that other people offer does not help much to establish the diagnosis. <4> Bipolar II disorder is characterized by the appearance of one or more major depressive episodes accompanied by at least one manic episode.
Output: psychology
Question: Which of the following enzymes acts in the pentose phosphate route ?: 
 Options:  <0> Aldolase <1> Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase. <2> Glycogen phosphorylase. <3> Fosfofructoquinasa-1. <4> Pyruvate kinase.
Output: chemistry
Question: Which of the following statistics is NOT affected by outliers in a sample ?: 
 Options:  <0> Sample mean. <1> Standard deviation. <2> Variance <3> Interquartile range. <4> Rank.
Output: pharmacology
Question: If, by adding a drop of H2O2 to a bacterial suspension, bubbles (O2) are generated, the bacteria produce: 
 Options:  <0> Cytochrome C oxidase. <1> Oxygenase <2> Superoxide dismutase. <3> Catalase <4> Anhydrase
Output: biology
Question: A study is conducted to evaluate the relationship between lung cancer and exposure to silica. 400 patients diagnosed with lung cancer are selected from the provincial tumor registry and 400 healthy people are chosen randomly from the population resident in the province. The result of the evaluation of this relationship is OR = 1.67; 95% CI = 1.27 - 2.21. It is true: 
 Options:  <0> There is no relationship between exposure to silica and lung cancer. <1> With this study, the relationship between silica and lung cancer can not be evaluated. <2> It is a randomized experimental study with a positive association between exposure to silica and lung cancer. <3> These data show that there is no statistical significance between exposure to silica and lung cancer. <4> It is a case-control study with a positive association between exposure to silica and lung cancer.
Output: medicine
Question: The virions of the Arenavirus contain: 
 Options:  <0> A linear single-stranded RNA molecule. <1> Two equal molecules of linear double-stranded RNA. <2> Two different molecules of linear single-stranded RNA. <3> Two distinct molecules of single-stranded circular RNA. <4> Two identical molecules of single-stranded circular RNA.
Output: biology
Question: A compound that has a five-membered aromatic heterocyclic skeleton with three carbon atoms and two nitrogens, the latter being positions 1 and 3, is called: 
 Options:  <0> Pirrol. <1> Pyrimidine <2> Pyrazole <3> Pyrazolidine. <4> Imidazole
Output: chemistry
Question: The corpuscles of Pacini: 
 Options:  <0> They are innervated by unmyelinated fibers. <1> They are mechanoreceptors of slow adaptation. <2> They have small receptor fields. <3> They are located in deep areas of the dermis. <4> They are thermoreceptors.
Output: biology
Question: In the processing and presentation of peptides of extracellular origin intervene (n): 
 Options:  <0> The TAP proteins. <1> The tapasina. <2> The HLA-DM molecule. <3> The proteosome. <4> The HLA-B molecules.
Output: biology
Question: NOT true about Rheumatoid Arthritis: 
 Options:  <0> Early diagnosis, intensive treatment and close control of the disease are essential. <1> Methotrexate is the drug of first choice to control the activity of the disease. <2> The rheumatoid factor is typical of the disease and is a mandatory criterion for diagnosis. <3> The specificity of citrullinated peptide antibodies is very high and has a prognostic value. <4> Biological drugs, such as anti TNF, have revolutionized the treatment.
Output: medicine
Question: They are formed by maturation of late endosomes: 
 Options:  <0> Lysosomes <1> Phagosomes <2> Multivesicular bodies. <3> Secretion granules <4> Proteosomes
Output: biology
Question: What factors depends on the apparent volume of distribution of a drug ?: 
 Options:  <0> Its degree of binding to plasma and tissue proteins and its elimination half-life. <1> Of its distribution coefficient and its elimination half-life. <2> Of its elimination half-life and its elimination constant. <3> Its degree of binding to plasma and tissue proteins and their distribution coefficient. <4> Of its constant elimination and its clearing.
Output: medicine
Question: Controls the passage of substances to the central nervous system: 
 Options:  <0> Meninges. <1> Choroid plexus. <2> Hemato-encephalic barrier. <3> White substance <4> Schwann cells and oligodendrocytes.
Output: biology
Question: Which of the following processes would be responsible for the results that are achieved through mindfulness meditation ?: 
 Options:  <0> Change the contents of the mind. <1> Change the relationship with the contents of the mind. <2> Remove the spectator's role from the contents of the mind. <3> Judging the contents of the mind. <4> Merge with the contents of the mind.
Output: psychology
Question: The set of social mechanisms whose function is the transformation of specialized products in the form of health services for society, is called system: 
 Options:  <0> Sanitary. <1> Social. <2> Social insurance. <3> Liberal. <4> From the market
Output: nursery
Question: What is the average life time of an erythrocyte: 
 Options:  <0> Four months. <1> Four weeks. <2> One year. <3> Sixty days <4> Two weeks.
Output: pharmacology
Question: A mixture of iron (III) chloride and potassium hexacyanoferrate (III) (potassium ferricyanide) is used to detect extremely small amounts of hydrogen peroxide in the water. The presence of H2O2 causes, after a short time, an intense dark blue color. This is because hydrogen peroxide: 
 Options:  <0> It reduces hexacyanoferrate (III) to hexacyanoferrate (II). <1> Oxide to hexacyanoferrate (III). <2> Oxide to iron (III) chloride. <3> Peroxo-cyano form complexes of Fe (III). <4> Oxidize cyanocomplexes to complex cyanate.
Output: chemistry
Question: Steric stabilization in dispersed systems is: 
 Options:  <0> More effective in aqueous dispersions. <1> More effective with volume fractions of small particles. <2> Effective in aqueous and non-aqueous dispersions. <3> Coagulates by adding electrolytes. <4> Susceptible to reversible coagulation.
Output: pharmacology
Question: The stimulation of the carotid bodies: 
 Options:  <0> Decreases the pH of arterial blood. <1> PCO2 decreases in arterial blood. <2> Increases the arterial concentration of bicarbonate. <3> Increases the urinary excretion of sodium. <4> Lowers blood pressure
Output: biology
Question: Which interval measure will be the most appropriate to evaluate a brief and high frequency behavior (eg, tic or tacos) in a child ?: 
 Options:  <0> Momentary interval. <1> Proportional interval <2> Full interval. <3> Sequential interval <4> Partial interval
Output: psychology
Question: A homogeneous reaction between ideal gases that has reached chemical equilibrium can evolve (ie, move towards the formation of more reactants or products) in the following way if this equilibrium is altered: 
 Options:  <0> If the temperature is increased at constant pressure, it will go to where more moles will be produced. <1> If the pressure is increased to constant temperature it will go to where the volume is higher. <2> If an inert gas is added it will go to where this gas is consumed. <3> If a gas that participates in the reaction is added, it will go to where more gas is produced. <4> If the temperature is decreased, it will go to where the reaction is exothermic.
Output: chemistry
Question: Which of the following statements is INCORRECT in relation to the alterations of the acid-base balance? 
 Options:  <0> The arterial pH is regulated by the Henderson-Hasselbach equation and is 7.35-7.45. <1> Hypercapnia (increase in PaCO2) is a consequence of the increase in CO2 production. <2> Metabolic acidosis occurs due to increased endogenous acid production, acid accumulation and / or loss of bicarbonates. <3> In patients with lactic acidosis it is common to find an anion gap or difference greater than 12 mmol / L. <4> The use of alkalizing solutions should be reserved for cases of severe acidemia with ph <7.20.
Output: medicine
Question: By what legal norm were regulated for the first time the specialties for the Diploma in Nursing and obtaining the title of Specialist Nurse? 
 Options:  <0> Order June 1, 1992 (BOE June 2). <1> Royal Decree 450/2005, of April 22 (BOE May 6). <2> Royal Decree 992/1987, of July 3 (BOE 1 of August). <3> Royal Decree 943/1986 (BOE May 14). <4> Order of July 15, 1980 (BOE of July 23).
Output: nursery
Question: A 69-year-old woman consulted for dysuria and frequency, symptoms that she has suffered numerous times in the last two years. He says that he has been taking cotrimoxazole in a daily dose for three months, prescribed by his family doctor. In the hospital's emergency department, a sediment and a urine culture were taken. The urinary sediment was pathological (significant pyuria, positive nitrites). He was prescribed ciprofloxacin, and was re-cited with his primary care physician. The urine culture was positive (Escherichia coli,> 10 (5) CFU / ml) and the results of the antibiogram showed resistance to ampicillin, cotrimoxazole and quinolones, but sensitivity to fosfomycin, the antimicrobial agent that you prescribe. Which of the following answers is FALSE? 
 Options:  <0> The change from ciprofloxacin to norfloxacin would have been correct, according to the results of the antibiogram. <1> Cotrimoxazole was being used as a prophylaxis. <2> The choice of fosfomycin constitutes a targeted treatment. <3> The choice of ciprofloxacin constitutes an empirical treatment. <4> The change from ciprofloxacin to fosfomycin was correct, according to the results of the antibiogram.
Output: medicine
Question: Dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO): 
 Options:  <0> It is a protic polar solvent. <1> It is a polar aprotic solvent. <2> It is not a solvent. <3> It is a colorless solid. <4> None of the above.
Output: chemistry
Question: Which of the following statements about the steady-state infusion of a drug is true? 
 Options:  <0> The concentration reached in steady state of equilibrium depends exclusively on the clearance. <1> The time necessary to reach the steady state of equilibrium depends on the volume of distribution. <2> The concentration reached in a steady state depends exclusively on the elimination half-life. <3> The concentration achieved in the steady state equilibrium depends on the clearance and the infusion rate. <4> The time required to reach the steady state of equilibrium depends on the clearance.
Output: pharmacology
Question: Question linked to the image nº13 A 12-year-old boy who goes to primary care Pediatrics for fever, vomiting, abdominal pain and diarrhea. On cardiopulmonary auscultation, he presents with an ejection systolic murmur II / VI in a pulmonary focus with a fixed second unfolded noise, the remainder being the normal physical examination. For the evaluation of the murmur the pediatrician performs an ECG that is shown below. In relation to the interpretation of it, please indicate below the correct answer: 
 Options:  <0> It is a normal ECG. <1> He presents a first-degree atrioventricular block as the only alteration. <2> It presents a left extreme QRS axis. <3> It presents a QRS axis deviated to the right with an rsR' pattern. <4> There are clear signs of left ventricular hypertrophy.
Output: medicine
Question: What attitude should the evaluator show in the first interview? 
 Options:  <0> You must start using closed questions. <1> You should use questions that go from the particular to the general. <2> You must take care of the verbal aspects (intensity, tone, etc.) to promote communication. <3> You should not focus on the problem or problems that you are consulting. <4> It must interrupt the interviewee and limit their interactions.
Output: psychology
Question: Which of these compounds is a product generated directly by the pentose route? 
 Options:  <0> NADP +. <1> NADPH. <2> NADH <3> Fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate. <4> CoA.
Output: chemistry
Question: The action potential starts in the membrane of the initial segment of the axon by: 
 Options:  <0> Be the place where the synapse occurs. <1> Have a higher excitation threshold. <2> Present high concentration of voltage-dependent channels. <3> Present Na + channels regulated by ligand <4> Start there the axon myelin sheath.
Output: biology
Question: Which of the following muscles is an example of abductor? 
 Options:  <0> Pectoral major. <1> Trapeze. <2> Dorsal width. <3> Anterior rectus of the abdomen. <4> Deltoid.
Output: pharmacology
Question: Which of the following statements of metamizol is FALSE? 
 Options:  <0> The relative risk of agranulocytosis is higher than with other NSAIDs. <1> The risk of producing aplastic anemia is low. <2> It presents a greater risk of producing gastric lesions than other NSAIDs. <3> They can potentiate the effect of oral anticoagulants. <4> If administered rapidly, intravenous can cause hypotension.
Output: pharmacology
Question: 8-year-old boy who goes to the Emergency Room because he has been bitten by a child while playing, about 6 hours ago. It presents a slight incisocontuse wound on the right forearm. In addition to considering other measures, what antimicrobial would you recommend? 
 Options:  <0> Ciprofloxacin, thinking that the oral flora is composed of mixed flora with predominance of anaerobic flora. <1> Aztreonam, thinking that the oral flora is composed of mixed flora with a predominance of Enterobacteriaceae. <2> Amoxicillin-clavulanate, thinking that the oral flora is composed of mixed flora with a predominance of gram-positive and anaerobic flora. <3> Fluconazole, thinking that the oral flora is composed of mixed flora with predominance of yeasts such as Candida albicans. <4> Metronidazole, thinking that the oral flora is composed of mixed flora with predominance of anaerobic flora.
Output: medicine
Question: The denaturing of DNA: 
 Options:  <0> It increases when the temperature decreases. <1> It is accompanied by an increase in the absorption of UV light. <2> DNA with high G / C content does so at a lower temperature than those rich in A / T. <3> It is irreversible. <4> Indicates the hydrolysis of phosphodiester bonds.
Output: chemistry
Question: The disorder characterized by a behavioral pattern that violates the basic rights of others or the main rules or social rules of the subject's age is called: 
 Options:  <0> Attention deficit disorder with hyperactivity. <1> Defiant negativist disorder <2> Dissocial disorder. <3> Generalized development issue. <4> Learning disorder.
Output: psychology
Question: According to Alfaro-Lefevre, thinking critically in the context of nursing situations means that: 
 Options:  <0> It is constantly revaluing, self-correcting and seeking to improve. <1> It replaces the process of nursing care. <2> Supports concrete proposals to maintain priorities and interventions. <3> It makes our own limitations and predispositions lose importance. <4> Provide the arguments to justify that the best answer is the perfect one.
Output: nursery
Question: The placenta is a derivative of: 
 Options:  <0> The zona pellucida. <1> The trophoblast. <2> The ectoderm <3> The mesoderm <4> The primitive line.
Output: medicine
Question: On the link between the nitrogenous base and the ribose of the nucleotides: 
 Options:  <0> The anomeric carbon of ribose is in alpha configuration. <1> It is an N-glycosidic bond. <2> It involves the C5' of the ribose. <3> It involves phosphate groups. <4> It is of a different nature for each nitrogenous base.
Output: biology
Question: According to the results studies, when the Exposure technique is being applied, it must be taken into account that massive and prolonged exposure produces: 
 Options:  <0> Worst immediate results than spaced exposure. <1> Better immediate results than exposure spaced. <2> There are no differences in results regarding the type of exposure. <3> Worst immediate results if done in more than a day. <4> Best immediate results only in patients with depression.
Output: psychology
Question: Interpersonal intelligence, spatial intelligence and logical-mathematical intelligence, are types of intelligence belonging: 
 Options:  <0> To Cattell's model of intelligence. <1> To the Triarchic Theory of Sternberg. <2> To the proposal offered by Eysenck. <3> To the model of the Multiple Intelligences of Gardner. <4> The structure of the intellect is superfluous to Guilford's proposal.
Output: psychology
Question: Woman 63 years old, hypertensive. When beginning the pharmacological treatment their glycemic values ​​worsen. The antihypertensive pharmacological treatment that this situation may have caused will be: 
 Options:  <0> Fosfinopril. <1> Atenolol. <2> Hydrochlorothiazide. <3> Valsartan <4> Amlodipino
Output: pharmacology
Question: What type of pathology corresponds to chronic granulomatous disease. 
 Options:  <0> Congenital agammaglobulinemia. <1> T cell deficit <2> Severe combined immunodeficiency. <3> Deficit in the microbicidal capacity of phagocytes. <4> Congenital neutropenia
Output: pharmacology
Question: In a woman with hyperemesis gravidarum, the appearance of: 
 Options:  <0> Convulsive crisis. <1> Hyperglycemia <2> Dehydration <3> Abruptio placentae <4> Polyuria
Output: nursery
Question: At what approximate age do children begin to understand that a person may have false beliefs about the world ?: 
 Options:  <0> At 18 months. <1> At two years. <2> At four years old <3> At six years old. <4> At eight years old.
Output: psychology
Question: As is known, estrogenic treatment can give rise to various adverse effects. Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect due to this pharmacological action? 
 Options:  <0> Edema. <1> Breast pain <2> Ovarian cancer. <3> Sickness. <4> Headaches
Output: pharmacology
Question: Of the following surface markers, one of them is expressed only in the virgin T lymphocytes, while the rest are also found in the population of activated T lymphocytes. Which? 
 Options:  <0> The adhesion molecule L-selectin. <1> The T lymphocyte receptor (TCR). <2> The integrin LFA-1. <3> The CD4 co-receptor molecule. <4> The integrin VLA-4.
Output: pharmacology
Question: Question linked to image # 12 Which of the following is the most likely clinic of this patient's consultation? 
 Options:  <0> Macroscopic hematuria. <1> Poliglobulia, pain and fever. <2> Fever, pain and dark urine. <3> Oligoanuria and pain. <4> Febricule and sterile pyuria.
Output: medicine
Question: The phosphate groups of the nucleotides: 
 Options:  <0> They are stabilized by binding to divalent anions. <1> They form low-energy hydrolysis bonds. <2> They are called X, Y and Z as they move away from ribose. <3> They are attached to the C3' of the ribose. <4> They present negative charge.
Output: biology
Question: With vaginal ultrasound, from how long after conception is it possible to see an embryo with a heartbeat? 
 Options:  <0> Between 14 and 21 days. <1> Between 21 and 28 days. <2> Between 28 and 35 days. <3> Between 35 and 42 days. <4> Between 42 to 49 days.
Output: medicine
Question: Ketogenic amino acids: 
 Options:  <0> They may contribute to the synthesis of glucose. <1> They are intermediaries of the urea cycle. <2> They are the substrate of reactions catalyzed by transketolase. <3> They can produce acetyl-coenzyme A. <4> They are eliminated in the form of ketoses.
Output: biology
Question: Intestinal absorption of carbohydrates by absorptive cells: 
 Options:  <0> It can be carried out with monosaccharides and disaccharides. <1> Sucrose is transported by sucrase. <2> Glucose is transported by facilitated diffusion and by Na + -dependent facilitated transport. <3> The facilitated glucose transporters, which do not bind Na +, are located on the luminal side of the absorptive cell. <4> Glucose and fructose are absorbed by transporters other than glucose.
Output: chemistry
Question: A 25-year-old woman admitted to the hospital with pale skin, fatigue and malaise. It has slightly decreased values ​​of mean corpuscular volume and hemoglobin, 70 μg / dl, 50 μg / dl ferritin, and a significant increase in the HbA2 fraction with normal HbF in hemoglobin electrophoresis. With these data it can be: 
 Options:  <0> Iron-deficiency anemia <1> Anemia of chronic processes. <2> Polycythemia Vera. <3> Beta Thalassemia Minor. <4> Chronic myeloid leukemia
Output: pharmacology
Question: They can be part of the B lymphocyte receptor on the cell surface: 
 Options:  <0> IgM and IgG. <1> IgD and IgG. <2> IgD and IgM. <3> IgA and IgM. <4> IgG and IgE.
Output: biology
Question: The interaction between the urea cycle and the citric acid cycle is carried out at the level of: 
 Options:  <0> Uric acid. <1> Succinate <2> Ammonia. <3> Urea. <4> Fumarate
Output: pharmacology
Question: Porous glass filters of 10-40μm are used in particular in: 
 Options:  <0> Analytical filtering. <1> Fine filtration <2> Help for other filtering materials. <3> Ultra-thin filtration <4> Separation of large diameter microorganisms.
Output: pharmacology
Question: Which of the following criteria does NOT correspond to any of the nine established in the Model of the European Foundation for Quality Management (EFQM): 
 Options:  <0> Leadership. <1> People. <2> Processes, products and services. <3> Efficiency. <4> Key results
Output: nursery
Question: A 20-year-old man, with symptoms of ataxia, headache and solid-cystic mass in the right cerebellar hemisphere, underwent surgery, resecting a lesion that histologically shows cells with long and fine cytoplasmic processes, a fascicular and microcystic pattern, and numerous vessels and fibers. Rosenthal. The most likely antimopathological diagnosis is: 
 Options:  <0> Pilocytic astrocytoma. <1> Pleomorphic Xanthoastrocytoma. <2> Central neurocytoma. <3> Liponeurocytoma <4> Prion disease.
Output: medicine
Question: The hydrogen atoms with partial positive charge of one water molecule can interact with the oxygen atoms, with negative partial charge of another water molecule. What name does this interaction receive? : 
 Options:  <0> Hydrophobic <1> Polar. <2> Hydrogen bridge. <3> Van der Wall. <4> Zwitterion.
Output: chemistry
Question: What is the common denominator of well-established psychological treatments for childhood phobias ?: 
 Options:  <0> The change of beliefs regarding the dangerousness of the phobic stimulus. <1> The induction of a feeling of relaxation or well-being in the presence of the phobic stimulus. <2> The interaction of the therapist with the phobic stimulus. <3> The use of coping self-instructions. <4> The gradual relationship in vivo with the phobic stimulus.
Output: psychology
Question: A 36-year-old woman diagnosed with systemic scleroderma diffuse form 2 years ago, is treated with 30 mg of prednisone in her health center for an eye problem. The patient consulted for headache and the clinical examination revealed high blood pressure and a deterioration in kidney function that was not known. The patient is referred to the emergency department with the suspicion of a sclerodermal renal crisis. Indicate which of the following statements is correct: 
 Options:  <0> The sclerodermal renal crisis is more frequent in the limited form of scleroderma. <1> The use of steroids at moderate doses can precipitate its appearance. <2> The diagnosis requires a renal biopsy. <3> Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors are routinely used to prevent its occurrence. <4> The treatment of choice would be a dihydropyridine calcium antagonist.
Output: medicine
Question: If the normal reduction potential of the pair Zn2 + / Zn is -0.76 V: 
 Options:  <0> Aqueous solutions of Zn2 + at pH = 0 release oxygen. <1> Putting metallic Zn in aqueous solution at pH = 0 releases oxygen. <2> Aqueous solutions of Zn2 + at pH = 0 give off hydrogen. <3> By putting metallic Zn in aqueous solution at pH = 0, hydrogen is evolved. <4> Zn2 + dismutates in aqueous solution at pH = 0.
Output: chemistry
Question: A lack of interest in carrying out sexual relations or behavior in general is, more properly: 
 Options:  <0> Sexual aversion <1> Lack of sexual desire or inhibited sexual desire. <2> Impotence or anorgasmia. <3> Excitation disorder. <4> Orgasmic dysfunction
Output: psychology
Question: A 69-year-old woman consulted for hemoptotic expectoration. In the two previous months she had low-grade fever, asthenia, anorexia and unquantified weight loss. In the cytological analysis of sputum, hemosiderophages were observed and in the chest radiograph bilateral alveolar infiltrates were observed. Analytically it stood out: Hb 8.2gr / dL, PO2: 58mmHg, creatinine: 5mg / dL, urine: proteinuria +++ microhematuria, cylinders, hematics. ANCAp (antibodies against the cytoplasm of perinuclear neutrophils): positive: anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies: negative. Antinuclear antibodies: negative. The most likely diagnosis would be: 
 Options:  <0> Idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis. <1> Goodpasture syndrome. <2> Systemic lupus erythematosus with severe renal involvement. <3> Classical polyarteritis nodosa. <4> Microscopic polyarteritis.
Output: medicine
Question: The reaction conditions for transforming nonanamide into octanamine and carbon dioxide are: 
 Options:  <0> H2, metallic catalyst. <1> Excess of CH3I, K2 CO3. <2> Cl2, NaOH, H2O. <3> LiAlH4, diethyl ether and then hydrolysis. <4> CH2N2, diethyl ether.
Output: chemistry
Question: What is the most frequent etiology of aortic stenosis in adults? 
 Options:  <0> Rheumatic <1> Congenital <2> Degenerative or calcified <3> Post endocarditis. <4> Ischemic
Output: medicine
Question: Which of the following moments of the electrocardiogram corresponds to the depolarization stage of the ventricular myocardium ?: 
 Options:  <0> Onda P. <1> Onda T. <2> Segment T-P. <3> Segment P-Q. <4> QRS wave.
Output: pharmacology
Question: The anatomical dead space: 
 Options:  <0> It is always greater than the physiological one. <1> Secret surfactants. <2> Includes medium-sized bronchioles. <3> It allows gaseous exchange. <4> Includes the volume of inspiratory reserve.
Output: biology
Question: In what phase or phases of the dream are the night terrors ?: 
 Options:  <0> In the phases of deep slow sleep (phases 3 and 4). <1> In phase 2 <2> In REM sleep. <3> In phase 1 <4> They can occur indistinctly at any stage of the dream.
Output: psychology
Question: Which authors is the most well-known relapse prevention model with good empirical support in alcoholism ?: 
 Options:  <0> Marlatt and Gordon. <1> Miller and Rollnick. <2> Beck and Ellis. <3> Sobell and Sobell. <4> Hunt and Arzin.
Output: psychology
Question: An Au-Ag alloy: 
 Options:  <0> It is interstitial, and can occur in any composition. <1> It is substitutional, and can occur in any composition. <2> Gold and silver can not be alloyed. <3> A small amount of gold can be dissolved in silver, up to a limit of close to 10%, but not in a greater proportion. <4> A small amount of silver can be dissolved in the gold, up to a limit close to 10%, but not in a greater proportion.
Output: chemistry
Question: The non-protein molecules that bind to the protein part of the enzyme constitute the complete enzyme are called: 
 Options:  <0> Cofactors <1> Metallic ions <2> Coenzymes. <3> Vitamins <4> Prosthetic groups.
Output: chemistry
Question: The limitation of the therapeutic effort refers to: 
 Options:  <0> Palliative sedation <1> Assisted suicide. <2> To the rejection to the treatment. <3> To the non-therapeutic fierceness. <4> To double effect therapy.
Output: nursery
Question: Question linked to the image nº16 Patient of 48 years smoker. Consultation due to symmetrical and bilateral reddening in both feet accompanied by burning pain (image). The general examination, the neurological examination and the peripheral pulses are normal. The analytical highlights: Hb 16.8 g / dl, leukocytes 12,400 / mm3, platelets 720,000 / mm3. Biochemistry: Glucose 87 mg / dl, Creatinine 0.7 mg / dl, Protein 7.5 g / dl, Calcium 9.4 mg / dl, GOT 40 U / L, GPT 35 U / L, GGT 64 U / L, FA 124 U / L, LDH 187 U / L, VSG 24 mm / h. Hemostasis and normal immunoglobulins. Serology against hepatitis B and C negative virus. What is the most likely diagnosis? 
 Options:  <0> Livedo reticularis. <1> Erythromelalgia. <2> Buerger's disease <3> Systemic mastocytosis. <4> Mixed cryoglobulinemia.
Output: medicine
Question: A 26-year-old woman with no previous psychiatric history, she went to the ER brought by her parents, who explained that she had been overactive, nervous, insomniac for a few days. They explain that he obsessively reviews the house's electrical installation in search of video cameras and microphones. In the interview, she tells us that she is being watched by the Police because she is a galactic correspondent with special powers. Which of the following options should NOT be considered as a differential diagnosis? 
 Options:  <0> Obsessive compulsive disorder <1> Schizophrenia. <2> Manic episode. <3> Psychosis due to the consumption of toxic substances. <4> Brain tumor.
Output: medicine
Question: For a patient with an acute episode of gout, the nurse should recommend: 
 Options:  <0> Avoid foods rich in fat and calories. <1> Apply ice packs to reduce joint pain. <2> Perform daily exercise. <3> Avoid the intake of foods rich in purines. <4> Periodically check the blood count and the white blood cell count.
Output: nursery
Question: C. N. has a significant overweight, can not resist and eats at any time. He tells the nurse that he can not control his actions and that he has very bad luck with the food problem. This lady presents an attributional style: 
 Options:  <0> Of helplessness. <1> Internal. <2> External. <3> Neurotic. <4> Assertive
Output: nursery
Question: One of the following statements about the epidemiology and prognosis of heart failure is INCORRECT. Point it out 
 Options:  <0> Between 60 and 70% of patients die in the first 5 years after establishing the diagnosis of heart failure. <1> The functional situation of the patient with heart failure is the one that best correlates with the expectation of survival. <2> Diastolic dysfunction predominates in elderly women with a history of chronic hypertension. <3> Heart failure due to systolic dysfunction is usually observed in male patients with ischemic heart disease. <4> The prevalence of heart failure is decreasing in the last decade thanks to better control of cardiovascular risk factors.
Output: medicine
Question: Ethidium bromide is a molecule that has a very low fluorescence yield in solution. However, its quantum yield increases remarkably when: 
 Options:  <0> It is atomized. <1> It is interspersed between consecutive base pairs of the DNA double helix. <2> The aqueous solution containing it is oxygenated. <3> It binds to a heavy metal forming a complex. <4> It is oxidized by the action of the enzyme glucoxaoxidase.
Output: chemistry
Question: What alteration does a person suffer that believes that their thoughts are not theirs but have been introduced into the mind by an external and irresistible force ?: 
 Options:  <0> Obsessive idea <1> Delusional idea of ​​denial. <2> Fugue of ideas. <3> Delirium to be controlled. <4> Echo of thought.
Output: psychology
Question: Pseudomonas aeruginosa is typically: 
 Options:  <0> Sensitive to most antibiotics used in human medicine. <1> Pathogen obligated. <2> Opportunistic pathogen. <3> Commensal bacteria of the digestive tract. <4> Intracellular pathogen.
Output: biology
Question: The muscle relaxant suxetonium (succinylcholine), which was designed from decamethonium by substitution of two ethylene groups by two ester functions, susceptible to a hydrolytic metabolism, is a: 
 Options:  <0> Prodrug <1> Hard drug. <2> Apolar drug. <3> Chiral drug. <4> Soft drug
Output: pharmacology
Question: The ribonucleotide reductase: 
 Options:  <0> Involved in the synthesis of deoxyribonucleotides. <1> It uses NADPH as a coenzyme. <2> It is an enzymatic system. <3> Acts in collaboration with the thioredoxin. <4> All the above is true.
Output: chemistry
Question: Point out the correct answer regarding the hormonal control of reproduction: 
 Options:  <0> The gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) of the pituitary gland controls the secretion of two gonadotropins from the anterior lobe of the hypothalamus. <1> The gonadotropins are the follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and the luteinizing hormone (LH). <2> FSH acts mainly on endocrine cells, stimulating the synthesis of sex hormones. <3> LH is necessary, together with steroid sex hormones, to initiate and maintain gametogenesis. <4> All the above are correct.
Output: nursery
Question: The use of intonation changes and emphasis to add meaning to speech is called: 
 Options:  <0> Alexitimia. <1> Tonality. <2> Rhythmicity <3> Melody. <4> Prosody.
Output: psychology
Question: Which of the following parenteral vaccines is contraindicated during pregnancy? 
 Options:  <0> Vaccine against tetanus. <1> Vaccine against measles. <2> Vaccine against whooping cough. <3> Vaccine against hepatitis B. <4> Vaccine against the flu.
Output: medicine
Question: When we inject 1 nanoliter (nL) sample we are referring to the injection of: 
 Options:  <0> 10-1 L. <1> 10-3 L. <2> 10-6 L. <3> 10-9 L. <4> 10-12 L.
Output: chemistry
Question: According to the theory of social learning of J.B. Rotter, both general and specific expectations are: 
 Options:  <0> Goals or objectives. <1> Innate predispositions. <2> Judgments or beliefs. <3> Objective odds <4> Incentives or reinforcers.
Output: psychology
Question: Clostridium perfringens can cause various infections, including: 
 Options:  <0> The anthrax. <1> Pseudomembranous colitis. <2> The gas gangrene. <3> Tetanus <4> The syndrome of scalded skin.
Output: pharmacology
Question: Chymotrypsin is a digestive enzyme with activity: 
 Options:  <0> DNAsa. <1> Protease <2> RNAsa. <3> Lipasa <4> Glycosidase
Output: chemistry
Question: They are receptors involved in phagocytosis dependent on opsonization: 
 Options:  <0> KIR. <1> TLR1. <2> MR. <3> CR1 <4> TCR
Output: biology
Question: In a patient with symptoms of heart failure who have a disproportionately high ascites in relation to peripheral edema, the most likely etiology would be: 
 Options:  <0> A severe aortic stenosis. <1> A dilated cardiomyopathy with significant left ventricular dysfunction. <2> A primary pulmonary hypertension. <3> An obstructive hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. <4> A constrictive pericarditis.
Output: medicine
Question: Relating components of human milk and immune system, it is FALSE that: 
 Options:  <0> Lactoferrin protects against infections due to its ability to bind iron. <1> The casein peptides have antimicrobial and immunostimulant activity. <2> Cytokines modulate the immune system in childhood. <3> Complex oligosaccharides can be false receptors for bacteria in the intestine. <4> Lysozyme degrades the cell walls of gram-negative organisms.
Output: pharmacology
Question: Which of the following filariasis is diagnosed by finding microfilariae in the skin: 
 Options:  <0> Loa loa <1> Wuchereria bancrofti. <2> Brugia malayi <3> Mansonella perstans. <4> Onchocerca volvulus.
Output: pharmacology
Question: Which of the following chemicals is considered the most lethal individual carcinogen? 
 Options:  <0> Alcohol. <1> Smoke of the tabacco. <2> Tar. <3> Benzene. <4> Nickel.
Output: nursery
Question: The anxiety disorder that according to studies with monozygotic and dizygotic twins seems less influenced by genetic factors is: 
 Options:  <0> The generalized anxiety. <1> Panic disorder (or distress) <2> The phobias <3> Obsessive-compulsive disorder <4> Factitious disorder
Output: psychology
Question: The differential modification of RNA: 
 Options:  <0> It can result in multiple products from one gene. <1> It occurs thanks to the transcription bubble. <2> It is catalyzed by RNA polymerase I. <3> It is catalyzed by RNA polymerase II. <4> It is catalyzed by RNA polymerase III.
Output: chemistry
Question: The enantiomers of a molecule are: 
 Options:  <0> Very different in all its chemical and physical properties. <1> Superimposed mirror images. <2> Distinguishable by their optical activity. <3> The result of the cyclization of a molecule in different positions. <4> Interconvertible without rupture of covalent bonds.
Output: biology
Question: What is the main cause of functional urinary incontinence in the elderly? 
 Options:  <0> Detrusor instability. <1> Obstruction due to fecalomas. <2> Laxity of the muscles of the pelvic floor. <3> Environmental barriers. <4> Urinary retention induced by medication.
Output: nursery
Question: Generates hydrogen peroxide in the phagosome: 
 Options:  <0> Myeloperoxidase <1> Carbonic anhydrase. <2> NADPH oxidase. <3> Cytochrome C oxidase. <4> Superoxide dismutase.
Output: biology
Question: Acute ischemia of a limb consists of a sharp decrease in arterial perfusion. It is important to differentiate between thrombosis and arterial embolism to be able to indicate the most appropriate treatment. Which of the following is correct? 
 Options:  <0> The presence of embolic focus and distal pulses in the contralateral limb leads to the suspicion of arterial thrombosis. <1> If the patient has a history of claudication and the clinic is of sudden onset, we will suspect arterial embolism in the first place. <2> If the contralateral limb has all the pulses present and the clinic starts slowly, we will suspect an arterial thrombosis. <3> If the clinic starts abruptly in a patient with embolism focus, we will suspect arterial embolism. <4> If the patient is a carrier of a previous arterial derivation, we will suspect arterial embolism.
Output: medicine
Question: Defibrillation is characterized by: 
 Options:  <0> It requires the patient's previous sedation. <1> It is usually used when the patient is in asystole. <2> It can be applied in ventricular tachycardias with a pulse. <3> The discharge is not synchronized with the patient's heart rate. <4> A minimum intensity discharge should be used.
Output: nursery
Question: The second quartile is the same as the: 
 Options:  <0> Arithmetic average. <1> Geometric mean. <2> Harmonic half <3> Fashion. <4> Median.
Output: pharmacology
Question: A 71-year-old man presented with severe pancytopenia without any immature cells and with a medullar study suggestive of severe aplastic anemia. What would be the fundamental therapeutic approach? 
 Options:  <0> Treatment with methylprednisolone at a dose of 1 g / Kg / day for 5 days. <1> Study of siblings and if any is HLA compatible, allogeneic transplant of hemopoietic progenitors. <2> Immunosuppressive therapy with cyclosporine and antitimocitic immunoglobulin. <3> Hemotherapeutic support. <4> Chemotherapy and if autologous transplant response of hemopoietic progenitors.
Output: medicine
Question: It is a disease caused by a pathogenic foodborne bacterium: 
 Options:  <0> The listeriosis <1> Lyme disease <2> Tularemia <3> Scarlet fever <4> The impetigo.
Output: biology
Question: The most important causative agents of cervical cancer are: 
 Options:  <0> Papilomavirus. <1> Polyomavirus <2> Retrovirus. <3> Cytomegalovirus. <4> Parvovirus.
Output: biology
Question: When you assess a patient with a neurological problem, you check that he has a positive Kerning sign. This finding is related to: 
 Options:  <0> Meningeal irritation <1> Convulsive crisis. <2> Alteration of the I Cranial Pair. <3> Diplopia. <4> Cerebral stroke.
Output: nursery