niryuu/sni-each-converted huggingface dataset:
Question: It is not included among the lipids found in biological membranes: 
 Options:  <0> Isopentenyl pyrophosphate. <1> Phosphatidylinositol. <2> Sphingomyelin <3> Phosphatidic acid. <4> Phosphatidylethanolamine.
Output: chemistry
Question: Which of these phrases about gluconeogenesis is not correct? 
 Options:  <0> In gluconeogenesis enzymatic reactions different from glycolysis are used. <1> Gluconeogenesis is the synthesis of glucose from precursors that are carbohydrates. <2> Gluconeogenesis has as main substrates lactate, amino acids, propionate and glycerol. <3> Gluconeogenesis occurs mainly in the cytosol. <4> Gluconeogenesis uses specific enzymes to avoid three irreversible reactions in glycolysis.
Output: chemistry
Question: A 70-year-old woman, worried about her risk of having a stroke, comes to our office because her mother died of this cause a year ago. He has a history of high blood pressure and type 2 diabetes mellitus, so he is being treated with glipizide, aspirin, enalapril and atorvastatin. He smokes 20 cigarettes a day and does not exercise regularly. On examination, a blood pressure of 150/80 mmHg is detected. The analytical highlights a hemoglobin A1c of 8% and an LDL cholesterol of 110 mg / dl. Which of the following is associated with a greater reduction in stroke risk? 
 Options:  <0> Achieve optimal levels of hemoglobin A1C. <1> Achieve an optimal control of blood pressure. <2> Add an antioxidant to the treatment. <3> Abandon tobacco <4> Achieve optimal levels of LDL.
Output: medicine
Question: It is very common the use of rotary valves of 6 doors or routes, alternately switchable, for the injection of samples in liquid chromatography of high resolution. Which of the following answers is correct? 
 Options:  <0> In the injection position, the mobile phase flow is maintained towards the column without passing through the loop. <1> In the loading position, the loop in charge of housing the sample remains open to the atmosphere whereby the sample can be deposited by means of a syringe. <2> In the loading position, the mobile phase flow is maintained towards the column by previously passing through the loop. <3> In the loading position, the sample is inserted into the column without disturbing the moving phase step towards the loop. <4> In the injection position, the entire internal volume of the loop is directed to the waste while the mobile phase carries the sample.
Output: chemistry
Question: Turbidimetry and nephelometry are non-spectroscopic techniques based on the dispersion of light, with interesting applications in biochemical analysis. The criteria to be taken into account when choosing between nephelometry and turbidimetry in the analysis of a sample containing particles in suspension are: 
 Options:  <0> The size of the suspended particles and the detector of the instrument. <1> The size of the suspended particles and the wavelength of the radiation used. <2> The wavelength of the radiation emitted and the shape of the suspended particles. <3> The size of the suspended particles and the color of them. <4> The color of the particles and their fluorescence.
Output: chemistry
Question: What is the closest distance to the eye to which an image can be focused correctly on the retina ?: 
 Options:  <0> Far optical point. <1> Depth of focus. <2> Close point of accommodation. <3> Focal distance. <4> Ocular emmetropia.
Output: pharmacology
Question: After antigenic recognition, the T cell receptor transmits an activation signal through: 
 Options:  <0> CD3 and chain . <1> Ig and Ig. <2> TAP1 and TAP2. <3> RAG1 and RAG2. <4> Determining regions of complementarity 1 and 2.
Output: biology
Question: Antegrade amnesia is a result of brain damage in: 
 Options:  <0> The hippocampus, its afferents or eferences. <1> The hypothalamus, its afferences or eferences. <2> The thalamus, its afferences or eferences. <3> The pituitary gland, its afferences or eferences. <4> The orbitofrontal cortex, its afferents or eferences.
Output: psychology
Question: On a blood agar plate, a greenish or brown halo around a bacterial colony indicates that the bacteria produces: 
 Options:  <0> A siderophore. <1> α hemolysis. <2> Coagulase <3> β galactosidase. <4> Neutral metabolites
Output: biology
Question: What WISC IV tests are part of the perceptual reasoning index ?: 
 Options:  <0> Search for symbols, cubes and digits. <1> Matrices, cubes and concepts. <2> Search for symbols, letters and numbers, and concepts. <3> Matrices, keys and concepts. <4> Cubes, letters and numbers, and concepts.
Output: psychology
Question: Neighboring halohydrins, when treated with a base, are easily transformed into: 
 Options:  <0> Dioles <1> Alquenos <2> Alcohols <3> Epoxides <4> Ketones
Output: chemistry
Question: With what author or authors is the Motivational Interview associated? 
 Options:  <0> Marlatt and Gordon. <1> Hunt and Azrin. <2> Carroll. <3> Miller and Rollnick. <4> Prochaska and Diclemente.
Output: psychology
Question: The DNA-dependent RNA polymerase of eukaryotes and prokaryotes is inhibited by: 
 Options:  <0> Rifampicin <1> α-Amanitin. <2> Oligomycin. <3> Streptomycin. <4> Actinomycin D.
Output: pharmacology
Question: Presents centroacinosas cells the gland: 
 Options:  <0> Parotid. <1> Submaxillary <2> Sublingual <3> Pancreas. <4> Liver.
Output: biology
Question: The reduction of nitriles with diisobutyl aluminum hydride (DIBAL) provides, after the corresponding aqueous acid treatment: 
 Options:  <0> Amines <1> Acids <2> ketones. <3> Aldehydes. <4> None of the above.
Output: chemistry
Question: What does the intersessional sampling used in observation techniques refer to: 
 Options:  <0> To the registration of relevant information between sessions. <1> To the periodicity, number and criteria of start-end of the sessions. <2> To the successive rounds of observation of the subjects to observe. <3> To the temporary selection and its interval or partial modality. <4> To the record of focal events that occur between sessions.
Output: psychology
Question: On the thick ascending branch of the loop of Henle: 
 Options:  <0> Water is reabsorbed. <1> The tubular liquid is diluted. <2> Water reabsorption depends on ADH. <3> The reabsorption of urea depends on ADH. <4> Aldosterone stimulates Na + reabsorption.
Output: biology
Question: The hepatic clearance of a drug, mainly eliminated by metabolism, which has a high degree of hepatic extraction and a high binding to plasma proteins: 
 Options:  <0> It is significantly influenced by the hepatic blood flow. <1> It is significantly influenced by changes in the degree of plasma protein binding. <2> It is significantly influenced both by hepatic blood flow and by changes in the degree of plasma protein binding. <3> It will not be influenced by the hepatic blood flow or by changes in the degree of binding to plasma proteins. <4> It will depend on the absolute bioavailability of the drug.
Output: pharmacology
Question: Indicate the amino acid that, under physiological conditions, has an uncharged side chain: 
 Options:  <0> Arginine <1> Aspartic acid. <2> Glutamic acid. <3> Lysine <4> Threonine
Output: chemistry
Question: Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase: 
 Options:  <0> It is inhibited by citrate. <1> It is activated by the AMP. <2> Releases a phosphate like Pi. <3> It is a mitochondrial enzyme. <4> It catalyzes a reversible reaction.
Output: biology
Question: A study is carried out to investigate the association between factor X and disease Z. To do this, 120 subjects with the disease and 420 controls (without the disease) are matched by age and sex. In both groups it is found that 20 subjects were exposed to factor X. What is the odds ratio (OR) between factor X and disease Z? 
 Options:  <0> OR = 1 (no association). <1> OR = 2. <2> OR = 4 <3> OR = 6 <4> OR = 8
Output: medicine
Question: At what age range is the Batelle Development Inventory administered ?: 
 Options:  <0> 0-2 years. <1> 0-4 years. <2> 0-6 years. <3> 0-8 years. <4> 0-10 years.
Output: psychology
Question: The gluten-free diet is the cornerstone in the treatment of celiac disease. In this regard, there are numerous products manufactured with an uncertain composition in terms of gluten, often being misleading labeling. Of the following food groups, which one can we consider completely safe in the diet of a celiac patient? 
 Options:  <0> Canned meat: Hamburgers, meatballs. <1> Milk and derivatives: yogurt, cheese, cream, curd. <2> Sauces, condiments and food additives. <3> Integral pasta: noodles, macaroni, noodles. <4> Delicatessen products, sausages, pâtés.
Output: medicine
Question: Which of the following data is NOT specific to hypertrophic pyloric stenosis? 
 Options:  <0> Metabolic alkalosis <1> Projective vomiting of bilious content. <2> Family incidence <3> Predominance of the masculine sex. <4> Palpable mesoepigastric mass.
Output: medicine
Question: Increase the stroke volume if: 
 Options:  <0> Increase afterload. <1> Increase the preload. <2> The sympathetic is inhibited. <3> Decreases venous return. <4> Increase heart rate
Output: biology
Question: A 68-year-old patient who consulted for edema and asthenia. In the analytical carried out, creatinine of 5 mg / dl, hemoglobin of 10 gr / dl and marked serum hypogammaglobulinemia at the expense of IgG, IgA and IgM are observed. A urinalysis reveals the presence of kappa light chains. What is your diagnostic suspicion? 
 Options:  <0> Disease due to deposit of light chains kappa. <1> Nephrotic syndrome. <2> Amyloidosis <3> IgA myeloma with Bence Jones preoteinuria. <4> Myeloma of light chains.
Output: medicine
Question: From a tissue to which oligomycin is added, it can be expected that: 
 Options:  <0> Consume oxygen and produce ATP. <1> Do not consume oxygen and produce ATP. <2> Consume oxygen and do not produce ATP. <3> Increase the production of ATP. <4> Neither consume oxygen nor produce ATP.
Output: biology
Question: Which of the following pairings between anticoagulant drug and mechanism of action is INCORRECT? 
 Options:  <0> Heparin - cofactor of antithrombin III. <1> Acenocoumarol - inhibits vitamin K epoxide reductase. <2> Dabigatran - inhibits thrombin. <3> Rivaroxaban - inhibits factor Xa. <4> Warfarin - inhibits the absorption of vitamin K.
Output: medicine
Question: Question linked to the image nº5 62-year-old man, smoker of 20 cigarettes a day for 30 years and hypertensive, who comes to the clinic because of pain when walking in the gluteal area that begins at a distance of 300 meters and disappears with rest at 5 minutes. An Ankle / Arm index is made whose image is attached. Which is the diagnosis? 
 Options:  <0> Critical ischemia of right lower limb. <1> Acute ischemia due to arterial embolism. <2> Chronic ischemia due to left iliac occlusion. <3> Leriche syndrome due to bilateral iliac occlusion. <4> Radiculopathy
Output: medicine
Question: Iodine is poorly soluble in water ( 0.001M). Therefore, to obtain useful solutions as an analytical reagent it is dissolved in: 
 Options:  <0> 0.1 M potassium nitrate <1> Perchloric acid 0.01 M. <2> Excess of calcium nitrate. <3> Potassium iodide. <4> Hot water.
Output: chemistry
Question: In what disorder of eating behavior, the personality of patients is characterized as impulsive people, with a tendency to make quick decisions and act unpredictably? 
 Options:  <0> Anorexia nervosa of restrictive type. <1> Pica. <2> Obesity. <3> Bulimia nervosa. <4> Night dining
Output: psychology
Question: When the behaviors learned by repetition, such as driving, become automatic and routine, they become controlled by: 
 Options:  <0> The primary motor cortex <1> The prefrontal cortex. <2> The ganglia or basal nuclei. <3> The central nucleus of the amygdala. <4> The hippocampus.
Output: psychology
Question: With what aspect does the difficulty of the elderly relate to solve new problems ?: 
 Options:  <0> Creativity. <1> Motivation. <2> Verbal fluency. <3> Memory. <4> Response time.
Output: nursery
Question: The author who showed in her writings her interest in the control of the environment, as well as the importance of the influence of Nature in the health of the people is: 
 Options:  <0> V. Henderson. <1> H. Peplau. <2> F. Nightingale. <3> M. Leininger. <4> D. Orem.
Output: nursery
Question: In a Gram positive pathogen involved in pharyngitis and rheumatic fever: 
 Options:  <0> Staphylococcus aureus. <1> Micrococcus luteus. <2> Moraxella catarrhalis. <3> Haemophilus influenzae. <4> Streptococcus pyogenes.
Output: biology
Question: In obsessive-compulsive disorder the compulsions: 
 Options:  <0> They do not cause discomfort to the individual. <1> They do not take long to complete (less than an hour a day). <2> These are behaviors or mental acts that are realistically connected to the objective of neutralizing the feared situation. <3> They are behaviors to mental acts whose objective is to prevent or reduce anxiety. <4> They are independent of the type of obsession suffered.
Output: psychology
Question: The epidemiology of schizophrenia reflects that: 
 Options:  <0> 0.1% of the general population suffers from this disorder and that percentage increases by 50% among first-degree relatives affected by schizophrenia. <1> 1% of the general population suffers from this disorder and that percentage increases by 10% among first-degree relatives affected by schizophrenia. <2> 3% of the general population is affected by this disorder without being influenced by relatives who suffer from it. <3> 5% of the general population is affected by this disorder without being influenced by relatives who suffer from it. <4> Epidemiology varies between 5% and 10% according to cultures.
Output: psychology
Question: What is the phase described by Kübler-Ross in his theory about coping with death that is usually an initial reaction to the expectation of death ?: 
 Options:  <0> Depression. <1> Anger or anger <2> Negotiation. <3> Acceptance. <4> Negation.
Output: psychology
Question: It is NOT a component of the evaluation stage of the Nursing Process: 
 Options:  <0> The collection of data related to the results. <1> The comparison of the data with the desired results. <2> The relationship of the nursing activities with the results. <3> The continuation, modification or termination of the care plan. <4> The election of pertinent results and determination of precise indicators.
Output: nursery
Question: Somatic recombination for the generation of diversity in B lymphocytes occurs in: 
 Options:  <0> Bone marrow. <1> Ganglion. <2> Peripherally blood. <3> Thymus <4> Spleen.
Output: biology
Question: Cognitive investigations of intelligence, and as regards the relationship between Reaction Time (RT) and Intellectual Quotient (IQ): 
 Options:  <0> They have found positive associations of great magnitude. <1> They describe negative relationships with differences in magnitude, according to the studies. <2> They have found an absence of association between both constructs. <3> They have not received attention from the scientific community. <4> They start from the study of cultural differences in intelligence.
Output: psychology
Question: In the initiation of voluntary movements the first area that is activated is: 
 Options:  <0> Premotor cortex. <1> Primary motor cortex. <2> Brain stem <3> Cerebellum. <4> Basal ganglia
Output: biology
Question: If a patient presents a facial paralysis that does not affect the musculature of the forehead we should think that the lesion is: 
 Options:  <0> At the supranuclear level. <1> In the geniculate ganglion. <2> In the stylomastoid foramen. <3> In the pontocerebellar angle. <4> In the internal auditory canal.
Output: medicine
Question: Glucagon affects blood glucose by: 
 Options:  <0> Inhibit the degradation of hepatic glycogen. <1> Activate hepatic glycolysis. <2> Activate hepatic gluconeogenesis. <3> Inhibit the mobilization of fatty acids. <4> Inhibit hepatic ketogenesis.
Output: chemistry
Question: The pH that provides a 0.01 M solution of benzoic acid (pKa = 4.2) is: 
 Options:  <0> 1.1. <1> 2.1. <2> 3.1. <3> 4.1. <4> 4.2.
Output: chemistry
Question: Which of the following clinical pictures is compatible with the diagnosis of subacute thyroiditis? 
 Options:  <0> A 38-year-old woman with a 2-week history of thyroid pain, elevated T4 and T3, low TSH, and increased technetium uptake on the scan. <1> A 42-year-old man with a history of pain in the thyroid gland 4 months ago, fatigue, general malaise, low concentrations of free T4 and high TSH levels. <2> A 31-year-old woman with enlarged thyroid gland, painless on palpation, low TSH, high free T4 and T3, and increased technetium uptake on scintigraphy. <3> A 30-year-old woman under treatment with oral contraceptives, with discomfort in the neck and palpable thyroid nodule that behaves as a solid on ultrasound. Increase in total T4 with normal TSH. <4> A 46-year-old man who consulted due to fatigue during the last 3 months. In the analytical, low concentrations of free T4 and T3 and TSH were observed.
Output: medicine
Question: When we perform the triple test (alpha fetoprotein, human chorionic gonadotropin and unconjugated estriol) to pregnant women, the sensitivity and specificity against trisomy 21 (Down's syndrome) are 63 and 95% respectively. This means: 
 Options:  <0> The percentage of false negatives is 5%. <1> The percentage of false positives is 37%. <2> The Area Under the Curve (AUC) ROC would be 1. <3> The probability of not having trisomy 21 (S. Down) being the negative result is 95%. <4> The probability of having a positive test result with trisomy 21 (Down syndrome) is 63%.
Output: medicine
Question: Mesna (sodium 2-mercaptoethanesulfonate) is used together with cyclophosphamide in antitumor therapy because: 
 Options:  <0> They form a ternary complex with DNA that prevents replication. <1> Mesna inactivates a toxic metabolite that results from the activation of cyclophosphamide. <2> Both are DNA alkylating agents. <3> The oxidizing properties of mesna increase the cytotoxicity of cyclophosphamide. <4> Mesna inhibits cytochrome P-450 that oxidizes and degrades cyclophosphamide.
Output: pharmacology
Question: The reaction of benzene with tertbutyl chloride, in the presence of aluminum trichloride, is an example of: 
 Options:  <0> Nucleophilic aromatic substitution reaction. <1> Electrophilic aromatic substitution. <2> Addition of halogens. <3> Acid catalyzed hydrolysis. <4> Obtaining alkyl halides.
Output: pharmacology
Question: When two or more major depressive episodes occur, separated by a period of at least two months, during which the individual does not become depressed, what is diagnosed? 
 Options:  <0> Major depressive disorder. <1> Dysthymic disorder. <2> Cyclothymic disorder <3> Major recurrent depressive disorder. <4> Depressive episode
Output: psychology
Question: Which of the following criteria is a predictor of long-term success in exposure therapy to phobic disorders ?: 
 Options:  <0> Let the intensity of fear be intermittent. <1> That the phobia is of recent appearance. <2> That improvement occurs after the first exhibitions. <3> That there is previous experience of psychological treatment. <4> Let the patient be aware of the irravability of their fears.
Output: psychology
Question: Which of the following anti-infectives is a reversible inhibitor of monoamine oxidase that can lead to interactions with antidepressants that increase serotonin? 
 Options:  <0> Neomycin. <1> Teicoplanin <2> Linezolid. <3> Clindamycin <4> Meropenem.
Output: pharmacology
Question: With regard to the intermittent administration of enteral nutrition, point out the INCORRECT response: 
 Options:  <0> It can be administered in bolus. <1> The administration should last 15 to 20 minutes. <2> After the take, you have to wash the probe to remove debris. <3> It is always administered with a pump. <4> The total amount is divided into 4 or 5 daily doses.
Output: nursery
Question: What type of construct is evaluated by the Maslach Inventory ?: 
 Options:  <0> Illness behavior <1> Abnormal behavior of disease. <2> General Adaptation Syndrome. <3> Burnout. <4> Resistant personality
Output: psychology
Question: What is the essential characteristic of dissociative disorders, according to the DSM-IV-TR? 
 Options:  <0> An alteration of the integrating functions of consciousness, identity, memory and perception of the environment, which may be this sudden or gradual, transitory or chronic alteration. <1> The presence of one or more identity or personality states that control the behavior of the subject recurrently with the inability to remember important personal information. <2> The persistent and recurrent sensation of distancing of the mental processes and of the own body with the conservation of the sense of reality. <3> The inability to remember important personal information of a traumatic nature. <4> The presence of sudden and unexpected trips away from home with the inability to remember one's past, confusion about one's identity and assumption of a new identity.
Output: psychology
Question: What explanatory theoretical model of health behaviors emphasizes the importance of the perception of personal susceptibility to the disease and its severity ?: 
 Options:  <0> Transheoretical model. <1> Reasoned Action Model. <2> Health Belief Model. <3> PRECEDE-PROCEED model. <4> Competition Model.
Output: psychology
Question: When the cutoff point of a diagnostic instrument is very high, the risk of: 
 Options:  <0> False positives. <1> False negatives. <2> True positives. <3> Sensitivity of the test. <4> Inconsistencies of validity.
Output: psychology
Question: For what type of addiction has the community reinforcement program plus incentive therapy been proven to be a well-established treatment? 
 Options:  <0> Alcohol. <1> Cocaine. <2> Heroin. <3> Tobacco. <4> Cannabis
Output: psychology
Question: A calomel electrode: 
 Options:  <0> It is a mercury indicator electrode. <1> It is a reference electrode that contains nitrate ions. <2> It is an indicator electrode for nitrate ions. <3> It is a reference electrode that uses silver and silver chloride. <4> It is a reference electrode that contains a saturated solution of mercury chloride (I).
Output: chemistry
Question: In relation to the sensory changes that occur in vision during aging, it is correct that: 
 Options:  <0> The visual field is not modified. <1> The pupil is more sensitive to light, favoring glare. <2> The perception of depth is distorted. <3> The threshold for the perception of light decreases. <4> There is a uniform loss of perception of all colors.
Output: nursery
Question: The respiratory syncytial virus is a: 
 Options:  <0> Ortomixovirus. <1> Filovirus. <2> Parvovirus. <3> Togavirus. <4> Paramyxovirus.
Output: biology
Question: Among the activities of the nurse for a patient with cognitive impairment secondary to Cerebral Vascular Accident, is NOT correct: 
 Options:  <0> Reorient the patient in terms of time, place and situation frequently. <1> Use verbal and auditory cues to guide the patient. <2> Repeat and reinforce instructions frequently. <3> Avoid showing family objects so as not to contribute to their frustration. <4> Use a simple language
Output: nursery
Question: Mr. A. P. has been discharged after being operated on for a gastric resection. What recommendations should you give to avoid the rapid evacuation syndrome? 
 Options:  <0> Drink liquids during the meal. <1> Take a diet high in carbohydrates. <2> After ingestion, the decubitus position is the most beneficial if the patient tolerates it. <3> You should plan rest periods of 15 minutes after meals. <4> Take a diet low in protein and fat, to avoid abdominal distension.
Output: nursery
Question: Which of the following drugs is NOT used for the treatment of psychotic symptoms of schizophrenia: 
 Options:  <0> Olanzapine (Zyprexa). <1> Risperidone (Risperdal). <2> Aripiprazole (Abilify) <3> Clozapine (Leponex). <4> Venlafaxine (Dobupal, Vandral).
Output: psychology
Question: The DiGeorge syndrome is linked to: 
 Options:  <0> A defective development of the thymus. <1> An alteration of the secondary lymphoid tissue. <2> An alteration of the M cells <3> A maturation defect of B lymphocytes <4> An alteration in the regulatory systems of the complement.
Output: pharmacology
Question: What consonantal sounds of Castilian are later acquired due to their difficulty of articulation, causing a phonological disorder? 
 Options:  <0> African, liquid and nasal. <1> Fricatives, nasals and occlusives. <2> Liquids, fricatives and affricates. <3> Nasals, occlusives and affricates. <4> Occlusives, fricatives and liquids.
Output: psychology
Question: In the process of maturation of the affinity of the B lymphocytes in the germinal centers, they act as accessory cells: 
 Options:  <0> Macrophages <1> Th1 lymphocytes. <2> Mastocytes <3> Follicular dendritic cells. <4> Langerhans cells.
Output: biology
Question: The most accurate measurement of body temperature in an unconscious patient should be obtained at: 
 Options:  <0> Oral. <1> Axillary. <2> It is indifferent. <3> Rectal. <4> Inguinal.
Output: nursery
Question: The Research Diagnostic Criteria (ICD-10) for the crisis of anguish: 
 Options:  <0> They are identical to the DSM-IV, there is no variation. <1> They are identical to those of DSM-IV, except that ICD-10 includes dry mouth and requires that at least one of the symptoms present be palpitations, sweating, tremors or dry mouth. <2> They differ in their entirety from those of the DSM-IV. <3> The ICD-10 Diagnostic Criteria do not require the appearance of a minimum of crisis. <4> The ICD-10 Diagnostic Criteria do not require a period of duration.
Output: psychology
Question: Imagine that you are in the supermarket with your neighbor and notice that you have a bruise on your eye. What heuristic would be applied if it overestimates the possibility that it is due to a problem of abuse? 
 Options:  <0> Representativeness <1> Availability / Accessibility <2> Simulation. <3> Anchoring-Adjustment. <4> False consensus.
Output: psychology
Question: The hydroxy acids can be esterified intramolecularly by forming: 
 Options:  <0> Lactams <1> Nitrones. <2> Imidas <3> Carbamates. <4> Lactones.
Output: chemistry
Question: In a plasma protein electrophoresis pattern, in what region will haptoglobin migrate? 
 Options:  <0> In the region 1. <1> In the region . <2> In the region 2. <3> In the region 1 2. <4> In no position that it is not a protein.
Output: pharmacology
Question: Among the differences in the treatment of affective disorders between Beck's cognitive therapy and interpersonal therapy, which of the following is CORRECT? 
 Options:  <0> Interpersonal therapy has been applied to the treatment of bipolar disorder, but Beck's cognitive therapy has not yet. <1> Beck cognitive therapy is a structured therapy with a short number of sessions, while interpersonal therapy does not. <2> Beck's cognitive therapy was created by a psychiatrist, while interpersonal therapy was created by a psychologist. <3> Interpersonal therapy is based on the notion of emotional attachment of evolutionary psychology, while Beck's cognitive therapy does not. <4> Beck's cognitive therapy is one of the psychological treatments that have well established efficacy in major depressive disorder in adults, while interpersonal therapy has not yet.
Output: psychology
Question: If we value 25 mL of an H2A acid in concentration 0.1000M (pKa1 = 5, pKa2 = 9) with NaOH, the pH when we have evaluated 50% of the initial acid will be: 
 Options:  <0> one. <1> 3. <2> 5. <3> 7 <4> 9
Output: chemistry
Question: What is the most common course of somatization disorder (DSM-IV-TR)? 
 Options:  <0> It is an acute disease. <1> It is a chronic disease that always remits completely. <2> It is a chronic and fluctuating disease that rarely remits completely. <3> It is very common for a year to pass and the individual suffering from this disorder no longer seek medical help for unexplained somatic symptoms. <4> It is not a fluctuating disease but it is not considered chronic.
Output: psychology
Question: The prozone effect of a turbidimetric analysis can be detected by measuring the absorbance: 
 Options:  <0> After an ultracentrifugation. <1> Previous concentration of the sample. <2> After dilution of the sample. <3> Once the sample was treated with SDS. <4> Two consecutive times.
Output: chemistry
Question: A 48-year-old woman who has just been diagnosed with Diabetes Mellitus 2 comes to the nursing consultation. Baseline venous blood glucose values ​​are: 165 mg / dL. Other interesting data are: total cholesterol: 197 mg / dl and BMI 23 Kg / m2. What dietary recommendation is indicated ?: 
 Options:  <0> Distribute carbohydrate intake throughout the day, with a carbohydrate ratio of 30-54%. <1> Plan together with the patient a hypocaloric diet that includes 55-60% of carbohydrates, a reduction of fat intake <30% and fiber intake of 20-30 g. <2> Take supplements of omega 3 fatty acids. <3> The consumption of alcohol should not exceed one-two units / day. <4> Prepare a hyperproteic diet together with the patient, including low glycemic index foods.
Output: nursery
Question: Which of the following actions is NOT specific to prolactin? 
 Options:  <0> It favors the renal retention of water and salt. <1> It favors the corpus luteum. <2> Stimulates milk production <3> Stimulates the hypothalamic secretion of the gonadotrophin releasing hormone. <4> Participates in the control of spermatogenesis.
Output: pharmacology
Question: Question linked to image n ° 16 Patient of 84 years who presents an ulcerated tumor lesion that shows in the scalp of more than 20 years of evolution. No palpable locoregional adenopathies. Obviously the lesion must be biopsied for diagnostic confirmation but, a priori, which of the following diagnoses seems most likely? 
 Options:  <0> Merkel cell tumor. <1> Basal cell carcinoma. <2> Squamous carcinoma <3> Amelanotic malignant melanoma. <4> Cutaneous B-cell lymphoma
Output: medicine
Question: What is the maximum volume of air that a subject can breathe out after maximum inspiration ?: 
 Options:  <0> Total lung capacity. <1> Expiratory reserve volume. <2> Inspiratory capacity <3> Vital capacity <4> Residual volume
Output: pharmacology
Question: A medicine produced and guaranteed by a pharmacist, or under his direction, dispensed in his pharmacy or pharmacy service, listed and described by the National Form, and intended for direct delivery to the sick to whom such pharmacy or pharmaceutical service supplies is: 
 Options:  <0> Master formula <1> Prepared office. <2> Prefabricated medication <3> Intermediate product. <4> Medical device.
Output: pharmacology
Question: The degree of fluidity of the biological membranes depends on the percentage of: 
 Options:  <0> Lipids with hill. <1> Glycolipids. <2> Sphingolipids <3> Free fatty acids. <4> Unsaturated fatty acids.
Output: chemistry
Question: In a potentiometry at zero intensity the electrode: 
 Options:  <0> Indicator always measures balance potentials. <1> Indicator measures the half-wave potential. <2> Indicator can measure a mixed potential. <3> Reference is always a calomel platinum electrode. <4> Indicator is always a platinum electrode.
Output: chemistry
Question: To assess social development in childhood and adolescence, what factors influence the selection of suitable procedures? 
 Options:  <0> The availability of instruments that allow obtaining valid and reliable measures in this area. <1> The age of the child and his / her linguistic expression skills. <2> The nature of the behavior or ability to be evaluated, the level of development and the form of manifestation of the behavior, individually or in a group. <3> The skills and experience of the evaluator with the procedures and evaluation techniques commonly used in this area. <4> Access to standardized tests according to age, sex and special conditions.
Output: psychology
Question: Urea: 
 Options:  <0> It is transported to the liver for elimination. <1> It is degraded to ammonium in the urea cycle. <2> It is apolar and easily forms crystals. <3> It is obtained from arginine. <4> It has two ketone groups and one amino group.
Output: biology
Question: The secretion of insulin by pancreatic cells is regulated positively by: 
 Options:  <0> Inhibition of hexokinase IV. <1> Activation of K + channels. <2> Inactivation of Ca ++ channels. <3> High concentration of ATP. <4> Low blood glucose levels
Output: chemistry
Question: In patients with Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease, which treatments listed below are contraindicated due to the effect they cause: 
 Options:  <0> Bronchodilators, both short and long acting. <1> Mucolytics and expectorants to reduce the viscosity of secretions. <2> Oxygen that in the long term reduces the mortality of the patient with COPD. <3> Respiratory depressants such as opioids and barbiturates. <4> Antibiotics for patients with repeated pulmonary infections.
Output: nursery
Question: A 60-year-old patient who came to the hospital's emergency department due to a left chest pain, cough and yellowish sputum, a temperature of 38.7ºC, a sensation of shortness of breath. Artificial saturation of 02 80%. Hemogram leukocytes 12000 / uL with 86% polymorphonuclear cells. Chest x-ray: alveolar infiltrate on the left base with air bronchogram. On suspicion of pneumonia, pneumococcal Ag is made in urine, which is positive and sputum culture is sent to the Microbiology service. Which empirical antibiotic treatment of the indicated ones is more correct in expectation of microbiological results? 
 Options:  <0> Ceftazidime <1> Clarithromycin <2> Azithromycin <3> Ceftriaxone <4> Doxycycline
Output: medicine
Question: Reva Rubin identifies maternal behavior after delivery in three stages: 
 Options:  <0> Acceptance, Support and Abandonment. <1> Acceptance, Denial and Encounter. <2> Denial, Affirmation and Dependency. <3> Affirmation, Affirmation and Support. <4> Coping, Dependence and Help.
Output: nursery
Question: Regarding the definition of chronic kidney disease, one is INCORRECT: 
 Options:  <0> It requires persistent presence of structural or functional alterations of the kidney for at least 2 months. <1> It includes alterations in urine as proteinuria, independently of the glomerular filtration rate (GFR). <2> It includes a lower GFR of 60 ml / min / 1.73m2 of body surface regardless of the presence or absence of other markers of kidney damage. <3> It is classified into 5 stages according to the TFG. <4> The preparation for renal replacement therapy should be done in stage 4.
Output: medicine
Question: Homosexual male of 30 years of age HIV (+) who participates as a volunteer in a help center for patients with AIDS. According to her clinical history she received diphtheria toxoid (Td) 6 years ago, the MMR vaccine in childhood and adolescence, and hepatitis B three years ago. He is currently asymptomatic with a CD4 count greater than 200 cls / μl. What vaccines should we recommend? 
 Options:  <0> Seasonal influenza, pneumococcal, tetravalent meningitis and hepatitis A. <1> Seasonal flu, Td, pneumococcal and tetravalent meningitis. <2> Templavalent meningitis, pneumococcal and seasonal influenza. <3> Td, tetravalent, pneumococcal meningitis. <4> Viral triple, seasonal flu, pneumococcal.
Output: medicine
Question: Among all the known adverse effects of platelet agents such as Clopidogrel, which of them are considered less serious ?: 
 Options:  <0> Flu-like syndrome, headache, dizziness and rash or pruritus. <1> Profuse sweating and nausea. <2> Arrhythmia and hypotension. <3> Moderate abdominal pain and headache. <4> Dyspnea and edema in MMII.
Output: nursery
Question: Most Gram-positive bacteria do not grow in MacConkey's medium because it contains: 
 Options:  <0> Bile salts and crystal violet. <1> Lactose and casein hydrolyzate. <2> Neutral red <3> Mannitol <4> Basic fuchsin
Output: biology
Question: In relation to the bacterial growth in liquid medium not renewed, which of the following statements is correct? 
 Options:  <0> The generation time is a constant parameter. <1> The phase of exponential growth is perpetual. <2> There is a direct relationship between the specific growth rate and the generation time. <3> There is an inverse relationship between the specific growth rate and the generation time. <4> The generation time and the specific growth rate are not related.
Output: pharmacology
Question: In an electrochemical cell, the supporting electrolyte serves to: 
 Options:  <0> That the principle of electroneutrality in the dissolution is fulfilled. <1> That their ions are electrolized preferably in order to prevent the consumption of electroactive substance. <2> That in the cell there is transport by migration, in order to achieve greater sensitivity. <3> That the solution has an adequate electrical conductivity. <4> Encourage transport by diffusion of the electroactive substance.
Output: chemistry
Question: Which of these statements is NOT a characteristic of phase I clinical trials? 
 Options:  <0> They usually have non-therapeutic goals. <1> They can be done in healthy volunteers. <2> They can be done in patients. <3> They are usually randomized. <4> They are usually open.
Output: medicine
Question: Counter Coulter® particle counter uses an electrolytic solution of: 
 Options:  <0> 0.9% lithium chloride in water. <1> Ammonium thiocyanate in hydrophilic solvent. <2> 15% lithium chloride in hydrophobic solvent. <3> 0.9% sodium chloride in water. <4> 0.9% sodium chloride in methanol.
Output: pharmacology
Question: Question linked to image no. 2 In the case described above and regarding pharmacological treatment, which is the correct statement. 
 Options:  <0> The pharmacological treatment is not necessary since the bleeding lesion has been identified. <1> The ideal treatment for this patient is perfusion of somatostatin since it is a hepatopathic patient. <2> The use of omeprazole at high doses reduces the recurrence of bleeding. <3> Ranitidine is the drug of choice to avoid pharmacological toxicity when dealing with a patient with chronic liver disease. <4> The eradication of Helicobacter pylori is the first measure to be taken.
Output: medicine
Question: The most appropriate microscopy to identify Treponema pallidum in exudates from syphilitic lesions is: 
 Options:  <0> Clear field without staining. <1> Clear field with simple staining. <2> Dark field <3> Phase contrast. <4> Polarized light
Output: biology
Question: A 70-year-old patient diagnosed three years ago with multiple myeloma who is in a period of neutropenia after a cycle of chemotherapy. It enters due to fever, cough and yellowish expectoration. The chest radiograph shows a condensation image in the right hemithorax. The most likely diagnosis is: 
 Options:  <0> Post-chemotherapy toxic pneumonitis. <1> Pneumococcal pneumonia <2> Pneumonia due to aspergillus. <3> Viral pneumonia due to community respiratory virus. <4> Cytomegalovirus pneumonia.
Output: medicine
Question: For what purpose is the muscle tension technique applied in the treatment of blood phobia used ?: 
 Options:  <0> As a relaxation technique. <1> To divert the patient's attention from the feared stimulus. <2> To accelerate the habituation process. <3> To reduce vasovagal symptoms. <4> It is used in the first sessions to reduce anticipatory anxiety.
Output: psychology
Question: The intestinal villi: 
 Options:  <0> They extend throughout the entire intestine. <1> They are not in the large intestine. <2> They are visible only to the electron microscope. <3> They contain only absorbent cells. <4> They lack glasses in their own lamina.
Output: biology
Question: Liquid chromatography in normal phase: 
 Options:  <0> It uses a column with apolar groups that interact with the apolar part of the analytes differentially. <1> It is a mode of operation that employs a polar stationary phase with a low polarity mobile phase. <2> It uses highly polar mobile phases such as alkanes or chloroalkanes. <3> It is a mode of operation that employs a non-polar surface with a mixed aqueous / organic mobile phase. <4> It uses stationary phases with a large number of hydrophobic alkyl ligands.
Output: chemistry
Question: In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase I transcribes: 
 Options:  <0> Small rRNA <1> Pre-mRNA. <2> ARNsno. <3> ARNt. <4> Large rRNA.
Output: biology
Question: Question linked to image nº17 You receive a biopsy of the duodenum of a 38-year-old woman with no other clinical information. What is the most likely diagnosis? 
 Options:  <0> Intestinal lymphoma: infiltration of the lamina propria and the superficial epithelium by a monotonous lymphoid cell population. <1> Gluten-sensitive enteropathy (celiac disease): intestinal villi atrophy, increased inflammatory infiltrate and intraepithelial lymphocytosis. <2> Lymphangiectasias: dilatation of lymphatic vessels located in the lamina propria of the mucosa. <3> Whipple's disease: accumulations of macrophages of wide cytoplasm and microvacuolate in the lamina propria of the mucosa. <4> Giardiasis: presence of Giardia lamblia trophozoites on the intestinal surface.
Output: medicine
Question: Peritoneal dialysis is a depurative technique that is characterized because: 
 Options:  <0> It is necessary to always administer heparin through the peritoneal catheter. <1> It is indicated in patients with respiratory problems of a restrictive type. <2> Does not produce significant hemodynamic alterations. <3> Requires daily and nightly solution exchanges every four hours. <4> Water and toxic substances are eliminated by ultrafiltration.
Output: nursery
Question: The reaction of ethyl acetate and acetone in the presence of sodium hydride in diethyl ether generates, after hydrolysis: 
 Options:  <0> 2,4-Pentanedione. <1> 4-Methyl-3-penten-2-one. <2> 3-Oxobutanoate of ethyl. <3> 2,3-Pentanedione. <4> 4-Hydroxy-4-methyl-2-pentanone.
Output: chemistry
Question: Neisseria meningitidis is: 
 Options:  <0> A gram-negative bacillus. <1> Normally resistant to beta-lactam antibiotics. <2> An anaerobic coconut. <3> An encapsulated diplococcus. <4> Mobile by peritric flagellation.
Output: biology
Question: In the framework of the treatment of Generalized Anxiety, we distinguish (eg, Dugas and Ladouceur, 1997) between concerns about events based on reality, in which case the patient would be trained in problem solving, and concerns about events not based on reality and highly improbable that should be addressed by employing: 
 Options:  <0> Cognitive functional exposure. <1> Applied relaxation <2> Distraction techniques. <3> Meditation. <4> Self instructions
Output: psychology
Question: What name does the technique used in the treatment of Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) in which the person is asked to assume that their worst fear is met, and then look for realistic solutions to it ?: 
 Options:  <0> Script of the worst scenario. <1> Decatastrofization. <2> Coping with uncertainty. <3> Revaluation of the threat. <4> Processing of meta-concern.
Output: psychology
Question: The negative feedback regulation of thyroid hormone is as follows: 
 Options:  <0> High concentrations of circulating free T3 and T4 that elevate HRT. <1> High concentrations of circulating free T3 and T4 that raise TSH. <2> High concentrations of circulating free T3 and T4 that decrease TRH. <3> Decreased TRH that elevates TSH. <4> Decreased TSH that elevates HRT.
Output: nursery
Question: The glycolic fraction of the glycolipids of the membrane of eukaryotic cells: 
 Options:  <0> It is located on the cytoplasmic side of the membrane. <1> It always has sialic acid. <2> They are synthesized by the action of several glycosyl transferases. <3> It is a glucose oligomer. <4> It has no antigenic power.
Output: chemistry
Question: The administration of enteral nutrition in bolus is indicated when: 
 Options:  <0> The formula is hyperosmolar. <1> The patient has reflux. <2> The administration is intermittent. <3> Large volumes are administered. <4> The administration is jejunal.
Output: nursery
Question: P. L. is a patient with frequent urinary infections. When explaining the possible causes of the same will comment that a risk factor is: 
 Options:  <0> The presence of urinary stones. <1> The intake of substances that acidify the urine. <2> The increase of leukocytes in urine. <3> The saturation of urine by calcium salts. <4> The emission of urine every 2 or 3 hours.
Output: nursery
Question: The difference in solute concentration inside and outside the cell gives rise to an osmotic pressure: 
 Options:  <0> Whose measurement allows to determine molar masses of small molecules. <1> Due to the passage of solute through the cell membrane. <2> That corresponds to the pressure that must be applied to interrupt the passage of solvent through the membrane. <3> That causes a difference of chemical potential of the solvent on both sides of the membrane. <4> Whose effect is minimal and complicated to measure.
Output: pharmacology
Question: The covers of connective tissue that surround, protect and maintain the brain and spinal cord within the cranial cavity and the spinal canal are called meninges. Which of the following statements is correct? 
 Options:  <0> The meninges are not made up of connective tissue. <1> The pia mater adheres to the brain and spinal cord. <2> The arachnoid is the thickest and most external. <3> The dura adheres to the inner surface of the arachnoid. <4> The meninges only cover the brain.
Output: pharmacology
Question: DO NOT generate action potentials: 
 Options:  <0> Smooth muscle fibers. <1> Bipolar neurons of the retina. <2> Skeletal striated muscle fibers. <3> Cardiac muscle fibers. <4> Ganglion neurons of the retina.
Output: biology
Question: Regarding the prevention of relapses in major depressive disorder, current data indicate that the cognitive therapy of Beck's depression: 
 Options:  <0> It is an effective treatment. <1> It is an effective treatment only if it is applied in combination with antidepressant medication. <2> It is a less effective treatment than the continuation antidepressant medication. <3> It is a treatment that has not yet been examined in its efficacy compared to the continuation antidepressant medication. <4> It is effective for the acute treatment of major antidepressant disorder, but not to prevent its relapse.
Output: psychology
Question: Indicate which of the following compounds is a fibrous protein: 
 Options:  <0> Chymotrypsin <1> Cytochrome c. <2> Alpha-keratin <3> Lysozyme <4> Ribonuclease.
Output: pharmacology
Question: From the following suggestions to the family about the school feeding for the prevention of obesity, indicate which is NOT recommended: 
 Options:  <0> Avoid chewing gum (chewing gum), even without sugar, because it is customary to have a full mouth between meals. <1> Increase the intake of fresh foods, vegetables and fruits. <2> Eat as a family, accompanied, at least some main meal of the 5 recommended daily. <3> Chop between meals to avoid being hungry at main meals. Enriched juices are recommended. <4> Try not to eat watching television, because distraction prevents enjoy the food and know what you eat.
Output: nursery
Question: Within which diagnosis, of the DSM-IV-TR, is premenstrual dysphoric disorder framed? 
 Options:  <0> As a mixed disorder of anxiety and depression. <1> As a depressive disorder not specified. <2> As a dysthymic disorder. <3> As a cyclothymic disorder. <4> Anxiety disorder not specified.
Output: psychology
Question: Which were the first authors who investigated the role that stressful life events could have on health ?: 
 Options:  <0> Mechanic <1> Matarazzo <2> Zola <3> Lazarus <4> Holmes and Rahe.
Output: psychology
Question: Point out the INCORRECT response regarding infection by human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and pregnancy: 
 Options:  <0> The scheduled cesarean does not reduce the vertical transmission rate of the virus. <1> The pregnant woman will be offered the possibility of performing antiretroviral treatment whatever her stage of the disease, in order to prevent the vertical transmission of the virus. <2> Vertical transmission of the virus is associated with maternal viral load. <3> HIV serology must be offered to every pregnant woman at the first consultation, whatever the time of pregnancy. <4> Women infected with HIV have an increased risk of spontaneous abortions, intrauterine fetal death and intrauterine growth retardation.
Output: medicine