niryuu/sni-each-converted huggingface dataset:
Question: A 14-year-old boy, 158 cm tall and weighing 76 kg, who came to our clinic for presenting for 4 months, without a previous traumatic event, mechanical pain in the right inguinal region, presented in the current clinical exploration, lameness with March with slight attitude in external rotation of said lower limb and limitation of hip flexion in neutral rotation. The diagnosis of suspicion will be: 
 Options:  <0> Fracture of the femoral neck. <1> Proximal femoral epiphysiolysis. <2> Perthes disease. <3> Still's disease <4> Transient synovitis of the hip.
Output: medicine
Question: The practice of posteroanterior chest x-ray in forced expiration is very useful for the diagnosis of: 
 Options:  <0> Loculated pleural effusion. <1> Pneumothorax minimum. <2> Hemothorax <3> Pulmonary atelectasis. <4> Pericarditis
Output: medicine
Question: To silence messenger RNA (mRNA) siRNAs and miRNAs are usually linked to your: 
 Options:  <0> TATA box. <1> 5'-UTR. <2> 5 'cap. <3> 3'-UTR. <4> Poly (A) 3 tail.
Output: biology
Question: Why is chlorophyll green ?: 
 Options:  <0> Absorbs all wavelengths of the visible spectrum. <1> Absorbs wavelengths only from the red and ultra-red parts of the spectrum (680nm, 700nm). <2> Absorbs wavelengths in the red and blue parts of the visible spectrum. <3> Absorbs wavelengths only from the blue part of the visible spectrum. <4> Absorbs in the near ultraviolet.
Output: chemistry
Question: Which of the following tests is more important for the diagnosis of acute leukemia? 
 Options:  <0> Karyotype <1> Medulogram <2> Hemogram <3> PET. <4> Lumbar puncture.
Output: pharmacology
Question: Question linked to image nº13 Which treatment do you consider most appropriate? 
 Options:  <0> Ceftriaxone 1 g / day parenterally. <1> Doxycycline 100 mg / 12h oral. <2> Paracetamol 500 mg / 6h oral. <3> Chloramphenicol 500 mg / 6h oral. <4> Amoxicillin / clavulanic acid 1 g / 8h oral.
Output: medicine
Question: Indicate which of the following options does NOT correspond to the objectives of the pre-anesthetic medication: 
 Options:  <0> Reduce anxiety <1> Relieve preoperative pain. <2> Relieve postoperative pain <3> Facilitate the induction of anesthesia. <4> Reduce the anesthetic needs.
Output: nursery
Question: The retrovirus envelope comes from (the): 
 Options:  <0> Plasma membrane. <1> Nuclear membrane. <2> Endoplasmic reticulum. <3> Golgi apparatus. <4> Mitochondria.
Output: biology
Question: The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) encompasses three processes. Select sequence order: 
 Options:  <0> Extension → Fusion → Denaturation. <1> Fusion → Denaturing → Extension. <2> Denaturing → Fusion → Extension. <3> Denaturing → Extension → Fusion. <4> Extension → Denaturation → Fusion.
Output: chemistry
Question: Determines the isotype change of the immunoglobulin heavy chain: 
 Options:  <0> The receptor of cell B. <1> The CD40 molecule and the cytokines. <2> IgM or IgD of the lymphocyte membrane. <3> Age. <4> The location of the lymphocyte within the germinal center.
Output: biology
Question: Among the biological advantages of fever is NOT found. 
 Options:  <0> Inhibits bacterial growth. <1> Increases bactericidal activity of phagocytes. <2> Stimulates the alternative route of the complement. <3> It stimulates the synthesis of acute phase proteins and immunoglobulins. <4> It produces serum iron sequestration.
Output: medicine
Question: The antitumor agent cis-platinum: 
 Options:  <0> It is a flat square complex of Pt (II) with 2 molecules of ammonia and 2 chloride anions located in cis. <1> It is a flat square complex of Pt (IV) with 2 molecules of ammonia and 2 chloride anions located in cis. <2> It is an octahedral complex of Pt (IV) with 2 molecules of ammonia in cis and 4 chloride anions in the other positions. <3> It is an octahedral complex of Pt (II) with 2 chloride anions in cis and 4 ammonia molecules in the other positions. <4> It is an alkene with two Pt atoms in the two cis positions with respect to the double bond.
Output: chemistry
Question: Affective rigidity is characterized by: 
 Options:  <0> Rapid changes in mood. <1> Affective expression is discordant with the situation. <2> Absence of reactive positive feelings. <3> Inability to modulate affect depending on situations. <4> Little intense emotional responses.
Output: psychology
Question: Which of the following statements regarding Eating Disorders is true? 
 Options:  <0> In restrictive type anorexia nervosa there are compensatory strategies of a non-purgative nature, such as dieting / fasting and intense exercise. <1> The patient with anorexia nervosa does not have episodes of binge eating in any case. <2> The patient with bulimia nervosa, unlike the patient with anorexia nervosa, does not intend to lose weight. <3> Alterations in eating behavior do not affect patients' cognition. <4> Interpersonal relationships are one of the few areas that are not altered in eating behavior disorders.
Output: psychology
Question: In chemiluminescent measurements, the analyte to be determined must first pass to the excited state by: 
 Options:  <0> Absorption of electromagnetic radiation. <1> Emission of electromagnetic radiation. <2> A chemical reaction <3> Radio waves. <4> Sound waves.
Output: chemistry
Question: Quinolones are antibacterial compounds that target: 
 Options:  <0> The 50 S subunit of the bacterial ribosome. <1> The plasma membrane. <2> The enzyme DNA polymerase. <3> The enzyme RNA polymerase. <4> The enzyme DNA gyrase.
Output: pharmacology
Question: The main mediators of the antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicdiad are: 
 Options:  <0> The eosinophils. <1> The NK lymphocytes. <2> The mast cells <3> The neutrophils. <4> The CD8 + lymphocytes.
Output: biology
Question: The fundamental criterion for the choice of interventions in a nursing plan is that they are: 
 Options:  <0> Achievable with the available resources. <1> Those recommended in the standardized care plan. <2> Effective regardless of the criteria of the person. <3> Based exclusively on the knowledge of the nurse. <4> All are correct.
Output: nursery
Question: What type of receptor is responsible for activating most of the responses to the hormone T3 ?: 
 Options:  <0> A protein G. <1> An ABC protein. <2> A nuclear receiver. <3> A receiver coupled to an ion channel. <4> A plasma membrane glycoprotein.
Output: pharmacology
Question: Indinavir is a selective inhibitor of HIV protease because: 
 Options:  <0> By hydrolysis, the active drug is generated. <1> Rents irreversibly the active center of the enzyme. <2> Its structure mimics the transition state of the reaction catalyzed by the enzyme. <3> It is a suicide inhibitor. <4> Its symmetric structure interacts effectively with the active center of the enzyme.
Output: pharmacology
Question: What taste do you think can mask the bitter taste of an oral solution: 
 Options:  <0> Licorice. <1> Apricot. <2> Vanilla. <3> Anise. <4> Raspberry.
Output: pharmacology
Question: Question linked to image # 8 Conducting an ultrasound in this patient: 
 Options:  <0> It would only allow assessing the tendon affectation. <1> It has no use. <2> It detects synovitis but not erosions. <3> It does not detect synovitis or erosions. <4> It detects both synovitis and erosions.
Output: medicine
Question: A 78-year-old woman went to the Emergency Department for pain in the left iliac fossa of 24 hours of evolution associated with fever and occasional vomiting. On examination, pain is palpated selectively in the left iliac fossa with a feeling of occupation, defense and positive decompression. Upon suspicion of acute diverticulitis. Which of the following statements is correct? 
 Options:  <0> The safest and best performing complementary scan is the enema with barium contrast. <1> In the case of a pelvic abscess, the placement of a percutaneous drainage guided with CT or ultrasound is indicated. <2> If surgical intervention is necessary after the acute episode is resolved, the laparoscopic approach is contraindicated. <3> In the case of acute uncomplicated diverticulitis, elective sigmoidectomy is indicated after the first acute episode has been cured. <4> If generalized peritonitis occurs, the most appropriate surgical technique is the practice of a derivative colostomy without resection of the affected sigmoid segment.
Output: medicine
Question: Which of the following antitumor agents acts forming a covalent and irreversible complex with the thymidylate synthase and its cofactor, previous activation to the corresponding deoxynucleotide? 
 Options:  <0> Methotrexate <1> Bortezomib. <2> Cyclophosphamide <3> 5-Fluorouracil. <4> Taxol.
Output: pharmacology
Question: The reaction of peroxycarboxylic acids with the carbonyl group of ketones produces: 
 Options:  <0> Acids <1> Esters. <2> Alcohols <3> Ethers <4> Amides
Output: chemistry
Question: Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) is one of the emerging health problems. Indicate with which of the following activities the family nurse can advance their detection and approach: 
 Options:  <0> Carefully review milestones of development and acquisition of social skills, since from birth they show symptoms. <1> Pay attention to family information about rude motor development, since early and unambiguous signs of ADHD usually appear. <2> Observing and carefully assessing the child, regarding their distractions, impulsivity and their ability to concentrate and answer our questions. <3> Assess the activities in the consultation of all children because those who suffer ADHD are always hyperactive and aggressive and register them as such. <4> The answers 1 and 2 are correct.
Output: nursery
Question: Indicate in what clinical situation would NOT indicate beginning interferon beta in a patient diagnosed with multiple sclerosis: 
 Options:  <0> Multiple recurring outbreaks. <1> Bad response to corticosteroids in outbreaks. <2> Having suffered a single outbreak of the disease with sequelae. <3> Be over 50 years old <4> A progressive primary clinical form.
Output: medicine
Question: Rhombic sulfur, the most stable form of sulfur, is made up of molecules of the following type: 
 Options:  <0> S 2. <1> S 8. <2> S 4. <3> S 6 <4> Sn (n = 10-14).
Output: pharmacology
Question: Observe that the liquids coming from the synthesis of chloroquine had an antibacterial activity gave rise to the discovery of the quinolones. This group of antibiotics has various characteristics such as: 
 Options:  <0> Fluoroquinolones have a smaller spectrum of activity than first-generation quinolones. <1> The second generation quinolones are very effective against anaerobes. <2> Fluoroquinolones are not effective against enterobacteria. <3> Fluoroquinolones are effective against Gram-positive but less than Gram-negative. <4> The third and fourth generation fluoroquinolones are not effective against streptococci or staphylococci.
Output: pharmacology
Question: In the health area, safety problems are identified in two schools. To deal with the situation, educational sessions are held with parents and teachers of the centers, prevention posters are drawn up, signatures are collected to support the elimination of black spots, and risks are eliminated and regulations that favor safety of the schools. This type of intervention is considered: 
 Options:  <0> Health promotion. <1> Advice and information. <2> Education for individual health. <3> Education for group health. <4> Education for massive health.
Output: nursery
Question: They release noradrenaline the: 
 Options:  <0> Sympathetic preganglionic fibers. <1> Sympathetic Postganglionic Fibers <2> Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers <3> Postganglionic parasympathetic fibers <4> Only the chromaffin cells.
Output: biology
Question: What drugs are useful to stop endogenous hypercortisolism? 
 Options:  <0> Ketokonazol. <1> Methimazole <2> Octreotide. <3> Fludrocortisone <4> Propylthiouracil.
Output: medicine
Question: The Mantoux test (reaction to tuberculin) is: 
 Options:  <0> A delayed hypersensitivity reaction. <1> An immediate hypersensitivity reaction. <2> A hypersensitivity reaction by immunocomplexes. <3> A non-specific inflammation reaction. <4> A manifestation of autoimmunity.
Output: pharmacology
Question: How does the cerebellum participate in the control of movement ?: 
 Options:  <0> Monitor the intention of the movement. <1> Control posture and balance <2> Compare the movement made with the planned one. <3> Send corrective feedback signals to the motor neurons of the cortex if necessary. <4> All are correct.
Output: nursery
Question: Regarding enzymatic cofactors: 
 Options:  <0> All enzymes are required to be active. <1> Its binding to the enzyme is always covalent. <2> There are no two enzymes that use the same cofactor. <3> They can be metal ions. <4> They only have structural function.
Output: biology
Question: Metformin is recommended as initial treatment in most consensus of treatment of type 2 diabetes, for efficacy, safety and price; However, its use has some limitations and it is obligatory to suspend it in some clinical situations. In which of the following situations would you NOT consider stopping this treatment? 
 Options:  <0> Introduction of long-acting insulin analogue due to poor metabolic control. <1> Alcohol intake greater than 50 g / day as usual. <2> CT scan with intravenous contrast. <3> Diarrheic picture with elevated plasma Cr at 2.5 mg / dL. <4> Acute ischemia of the lower extremities with significant tissue hypoxia.
Output: medicine
Question: Secondary chromosomal constrictions contain: 
 Options:  <0> Single sequence DNA <1> Ribosomal genes. <2> Genes micro-RNAs. <3> Centromeric DNA. <4> Genes of histomnas.
Output: biology
Question: Among the techniques most used in Beck's Cognitive Therapy to identify or detect cognitive schemes is: 
 Options:  <0> The technique of the descending arrow. <1> To promote a new image. <2> The repetition of goals. <3> The self-instructions <4> The behavioral experiment.
Output: psychology
Question: Mrs. P. R. has prescribed a serum therapy at a rate of 2 liters of isotonic saline in 24 hours; How many drops / minute would the infusion graduate ?: 
 Options:  <0> twenty. <1> 24 <2> 28 <3> 32 <4> 36
Output: nursery
Question: In what disorder does the individual transgress the established social norms, through fraudulent or illegal behaviors, to the weight of knowing well the moral and legal sense of his actions but not putting them into practice ?: 
 Options:  <0> The delusional disorder. <1> The Kleine-Levin syndrome. <2> Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. <3> The antisocial personality disorder. <4> Bipolar disorder type II.
Output: psychology
Question: Which of the following chemical equilibria is heterogeneous? 
 Options:  <0> Acid-base balance. <1> Balance of complex formation. <2> Precipitation balance <3> Oxidation-reduction balance. <4> All those balances that take place in a single phase, usually liquid.
Output: pharmacology
Question: The Pearson correlation coefficient indicates that there is a statistical association between two variables when: 
 Options:  <0> Its value is positive. <1> Its value is between -1 (minus one) and 1 (one). <2> Its value approaches zero. <3> Its value is equal or very similar to the sample size used for its calculation. <4> Its value approaches its possible extreme values, -1 (minus one) or 1 (one).
Output: medicine
Question: The O antigen used in the classification of Gram negative bacteria corresponds to: 
 Options:  <0> The flagellar proteins. <1> Components of the capsule. <2> The peptidoglycan. <3> The polysaccharide of lipopolysaccharides. <4> Plasma membrane proteins.
Output: biology
Question: Which of the following molecules has the highest dipole moment ?: 
 Options:  <0> HCI. <1> NH3. <2> HF. <3> CO2 <4> Trans-CHCI = CHCI.
Output: pharmacology
Question: During DNA replication: 
 Options:  <0> The two strands are synthesized continuously. <1> Ribozymes intervene. <2> The deoxyribonucleotide triphosphates are oxidized. <3> A primasa intervenes. <4> The two strands remain joined by hydrogen bonds.
Output: chemistry
Question: Sumatriptan is a first generation anti-migrant triptan, structurally characterized by having a heterocycle: 
 Options:  <0> Imidazoic <1> Piperidinic <2> Indic. <3> Pirrólico. <4> Oxazolic.
Output: pharmacology
Question: After the intake increases the release of: 
 Options:  <0> Insulin. <1> ACTH. <2> Cortisol <3> Adrenaline from the adrenal medulla. <4> GH
Output: biology
Question: In general, and in accordance with the state legislation on pharmacy offices, the minimum population module for the opening of these establishments is: 
 Options:  <0> 2,500 inhabitants per establishment. <1> 1,000 inhabitants per establishment. <2> 1,500 inhabitants per establishment. <3> 2,000 inhabitants per establishment. <4> 2,800 inhabitants per establishment.
Output: pharmacology
Question: A 60-year-old woman, diagnosed with diabetes mellitus type 2 and hypertension, consults for palpitations of weeks of evolution. Provides an electrocardiogram performed a week ago in which he is in atrial fibrillation with an average ventricular rate of 70 beats / min. In the physical examination and in a new electrocardiogram performed in consultation is in sinus rhythm. Is it necessary to anticoagulate it chronically? 
 Options:  <0> It is not necessary to anticoagulate because it has a paroxysmal atrial fibrillation and is not currently in atrial fibrillation. <1> It is not necessary to anticoagulate because it is less than 75 years old and has not had a previous stroke. <2> You must be chronically anticoagulated because you have a CHADS of 2 and a CHADS-VASc of 3. <3> Anticoagulation is not necessary, but antiaggregation with acetylsalicylic acid may be prescribed. <4> Must be anticoagulated only with subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin when in atrial fibrillation.
Output: medicine
Question: Which of the following monoclonal antibodies presents as one of its main indications the treatment of chronic lymphoid leukemia? 
 Options:  <0> Trastuzumab. <1> Bevacizumab. <2> Denosumab. <3> Cetuximab <4> Rituximab
Output: pharmacology
Question: Choose among the following phrases the one that most appropriately defines a concerted reaction: 
 Options:  <0> Reaction in a single stage in which all the links that are formed and break do so at the same time. <1> Reaction in several stages in which all the links that are formed and break do so at the same time in the slowest stage. <2> Reaction in which the speed of all stages is identical. <3> It is an equilibrium reaction in which K = 1. <4> Reaction in several stages in which all the links that are formed and break do so at the same time in the fastest stage.
Output: chemistry
Question: Among the diseases and neurological disorders influenced by genetic factors, it is NOT found: 
 Options:  <0> Epilepsy. <1> Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis. <2> Spina Bifida. <3> Ictus. <4> Duchenne muscular dystrophy.
Output: nursery
Question: What characteristics increase the reliability of the psychophysiological evaluation? 
 Options:  <0> The law of initial values. <1> The autonomic balance and homeostasis. <2> The latency and duration of the answers. <3> The control of environmental artifacts and the organism. <4> The reactivity
Output: psychology
Question: Which of the following medications is used in the treatment of Chagas disease? 
 Options:  <0> Amphotericin B. <1> Cotrimoxazole. <2> Ivermectin <3> Albendazole <4> Benznidazole
Output: pharmacology
Question: T-independent antigens: 
 Options:  <0> They are mostly proteins. <1> They induce maturation of the affinity of the specific antibodies. <2> Induce isotype change of specific antibodies. <3> They are usually polymeric antigens. <4> They induce intense secondary responses.
Output: biology
Question: It has a single nucleus in central position: 
 Options:  <0> Skeletal muscle fiber. <1> Cardiac muscle fiber. <2> Osteoclast <3> Thrombocyte <4> Erythrocyte
Output: biology
Question: Kinesin and dynein are: 
 Options:  <0> Adhesion proteins. <1> Microtubular motors. <2> Degradative enzymes <3> Components of the vesicular cover. <4> Transcriptional factors.
Output: biology
Question: What muscle has one of its origins (proximal insertion) in the coracoid process of the scapula ?: 
 Options:  <0> The triceps brachii. <1> The deltoid <2> The trapeze. <3> The supraspinatus. <4> The biceps brachii.
Output: pharmacology
Question: The unwinding and supercoiling of DNA are controlled by the: 
 Options:  <0> Helicasas <1> Topoisomerases <2> DNA ligases. <3> Telomerases <4> DNA polymerase
Output: chemistry
Question: The 80-year-old family of F. G., who has very advanced dementia, wants to request legal incapacitation. It is known that legal incapacitation: 
 Options:  <0> It supposes the negation of the legal capacity of the person. <1> It aims to protect the person from potential abuse. <2> It limits the capacity to act and the legal capacity of the person. <3> It can be decreed by the doctor responsible for the patient. <4> It can not be requested by the patient's relatives.
Output: nursery
Question: Which of the following antimalarials is the one of choice for the treatment of a patient diagnosed with severe and multidrug-resistant malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum? 
 Options:  <0> Sodium stibogluconate. <1> Primaquine <2> Chloroquine <3> Artemisinin <4> Quinine.
Output: pharmacology
Question: Beliefs and values, according to the psychology of personality: 
 Options:  <0> Once established, they do not experience changes during the rest of the individual's life. <1> They direct the person towards transcendence, according to Maslow's motivational proposal. <2> They predispose the person to prefer some modes of behavior over others. <3> They impel people towards the defense of human rights. <4> They encourage group development in the face of individual development.
Output: psychology
Question: In the systematic examination of a pregnant woman at term (37 weeks of gestation), beta-hemolytic colonies are isolated from a vaginal smear, which are identified as Streptococcus agalactiae. What assessment would you make of this finding and what would be the most advisable therapeutic attitude to follow? ? 
 Options:  <0> It does not matter because it is part of the commensal microbiota of the vagina. <1> Birth by caesarean section is recommended. <2> The search for Streptococcus agalactiae in pregnant women is not indicated. <3> Immediate antibiotic treatment to the newborn. <4> Administer intravenous antibiotic prophylaxis during delivery to the pregnant woman.
Output: pharmacology
Question: The alteration of the reading process in which the global recognition of the words is affected, being preserved the ability to recognize the letters of the words, is called: 
 Options:  <0> Direct dyslexia <1> Phonological dyslexia <2> Superficial dyslexia <3> Alexia pure. <4> Alexia anomic.
Output: psychology
Question: The ethanol-water mixture has an azeotrope, this means that: 
 Options:  <0> From a certain concentration, the two liquids are immiscible. <1> The mixture has a minimum co-solution temperature. <2> Both components comply with Raoult's law. <3> The mixture is frozen at a single temperature. <4> Once the azeotropic composition is reached, the two liquids can not be separated by distillation.
Output: pharmacology
Question: Indicate which of the following statements is correct regarding depression: 
 Options:  <0> In childhood, there is a lower prevalence of dysthymia than of major depression. <1> The prevalence of dysthymia in childhood is higher in girls than in boys. <2> Anhedonia is a minor symptom of depression in childhood and adolescence. <3> Neuroendocrine abnormalities are one of the most important internal factors in the genesis of childhood depression. <4> The prevalence of bipolar disorders is lower in childhood than in adulthood.
Output: psychology
Question: With regard to child abuse, point out the aspects that indicate the non-accidental nature of injuries and suggest that they are due to mistreatment: 
 Options:  <0> Delay in asking for help or going to the consultation. <1> When the story of the accident or the facts is unconvincing. <2> The explanations given by the parents, separately, are discordant. <3> History with numerous accidents or traumatisms. <4> All the answers include situations that are associated with abuse.
Output: nursery
Question: Which of the following statements is NOT true about glucagon ?: 
 Options:  <0> Activates hepatic glycogenesis. <1> Activates lipolysis in white adipose tissue. <2> Activates hepatic glycogenolysis. <3> It is a polypeptide. <4> It is synthesized in the α cells of the islets of Langerhans of the pancreas.
Output: chemistry
Question: If the guanine percentage of a double-stranded DNA molecule is 30%, that of adenine is: 
 Options:  <0> 10% <1> 70% <2> 80% <3> twenty%. <4> 30%
Output: biology
Question: In chronic bronchitis, it is characteristic: 
 Options:  <0> Destruction of alveolar walls. <1> Difficulty in the inspiratory flow. <2> Decrease in the volume of inspiratory reserve. <3> Elevation of capillary hydrostatic pressure. <4> Inflammation and mucosal hypersecretion of the respiratory tract.
Output: pharmacology
Question: Which of these compounds directly donates the 2nd amino group to the urea cycle? 
 Options:  <0> Aspartic. <1> Glutamic <2> Glutamine <3> Glycine <4> Ornithine
Output: chemistry
Question: Sulfamethoxazole is microencapsulated by complex coacervation using: 
 Options:  <0> Gelatin and gum arabic. <1> Albumin and gum arabic. <2> Gelatine and sodium alginate. <3> Pectin and gelatin. <4> Gum arabic and pectin.
Output: pharmacology
Question: The hydrolysis of phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate (PIP2) by phospholipase C generates the following second messengers: 
 Options:  <0> Inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate and triacylglycerol. <1> Inositol 1,4, 5-trisphosphate and glycerol. <2> Inositol 1,4, 5-trisphosphate and diacylglycerol. <3> Inositol 4,5-bisphosphate and diacylglycerol. <4> Inositol 4,5-bisphosphate and glycerol.
Output: chemistry
Question: Which statement is correct regarding the objective techniques in psychological evaluation? 
 Options:  <0> The Electroencephalograph allows to collect responses from the somatic nervous system. <1> The Purdue manual precision device allows the central nervous system to collect responses. <2> Most of the answers that measure these techniques are easily controllable by the evaluated. <3> The administration, registration and punctuation is usually done using devices. <4> The polygraph allows to collect cognitive responses.
Output: psychology
Question: The Aminoacyl-tRNAs: 
 Options:  <0> They are the precursors of the RANs. <1> They are enzymes that catalyze the synthesis of amino acids. <2> They are part of the ribosomes. <3> They are the tRNAs loaded with the amino acid specified by its anticodon sequence. <4> They are synthesized by RNA Polymerase II.
Output: chemistry
Question: If an analytical method allows to determine 1 ppm of Pb, we are referring to: 
 Options:  <0> 1 mg / L. <1> 1 mg / mL. <2> 1 μg / L. <3> 1 ng / L. <4> 1 ng / mL.
Output: chemistry
Question: A 34-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital for pulmonary embolism confirmed by angio-CT. He has no history of recent surgery, trauma or travel. He refers to Raynaud's phenomenon for 2 years, and the previous year he had an abortion at 12 weeks of gestation. He has no family history of venous thromboembolic disease. The activated partial thromboplastin time is 56 sg (normal 25-35 sg) and the platelet count is 120000 / uL. Which of the following diagnostic tests would help you most in the diagnosis? 
 Options:  <0> Antithrombin III. <1> Lupus anticoagulant. <2> Factor V of Leiden. <3> Protein C. <4> Protein S.
Output: medicine
Question: The terpene that contains 10 carbon atoms and is derived from two isoprene units is called: 
 Options:  <0> Diterpene <1> Monoterpene <2> Sesquiterpene <3> Triterpene <4> Meroterpeno.
Output: chemistry
Question: A 70-year-old man presented with progressive dyspnea and a non-productive cough several years old. In chest X-ray, pleural plaques are seen in the mediastinal and diaphragmatic pleura. On CT, these plaques are confirmed, also appreciating the presence of reticulonodulillar involvement predominantly in lower fields. Among the following, what attitude would you recommend in the first place? 
 Options:  <0> Complete your smoking history. <1> Inquire about occupational exposure. <2> Request blood tests to rule out eosinophilia. <3> Do complete respiratory functional tests. <4> Propose a transbronchial biopsy.
Output: medicine
Question: The chloride present in a solution can be determined volumetrically, by the Mohr method, using Ag (I) as a reagent. What indicator is used in this assessment ?: 
 Options:  <0> K2Cr2O7. <1> Fe2 (SO4) 3. <2> K2CrO4. <3> KSCN <4> FeSO4.
Output: chemistry
Question: Cause of syphilis: 
 Options:  <0> Trichomonas vaginalis. <1> Neisseria gonorrhoeae. <2> Treponema pallidum. <3> Mycoplasma genitalium. <4> Mobiluncus curtisii.
Output: biology
Question: A 65-year-old man has advanced terminal cancer. What data would indicate that it is near the end of his life? Point out the best option: 
 Options:  <0> Abdominal distension. <1> Temperature of 38º C. <2> Urinary incontinence <3> Stertorous respiration. <4> Drowsiness.
Output: nursery
Question: Transcription factors: 
 Options:  <0> They bind to chromatin by interaction with histone H2A. <1> They bind to RNA and regulate the start of transcription. <2> They join the DNA. <3> They are organized into nucleosomes. <4> They regulate DNA methylation.
Output: pharmacology
Question: A 58-year-old woman attended the consultation due to dyspnea of ​​medium effort, muscle weakness in the upper extremities and dysphagia to solids of three months of evolution. Physical examination revealed a loss of strength in the upper limbs with preserved sensitivity. Pulmonary auscultation shows generalized hypophisis. A chest x-ray is performed, showing uninspired lungs and laminar atelectasis in the lung bases. Gasometry shows pH 7.39, PCO2 48 mmHg, PO2 63 mmHg, HCO3 28 mmol / L, SatO2 93%. The combination of physiological mechanisms that best explain this gasometry is: 
 Options:  <0> Decrease in FiO2 (inspired fraction of oxygen) and alteration of diffusion. <1> Alteration of diffusion and disturbance of the ventilation / perfusion relationship. <2> Alveolar hypoventilation and decrease in FiO2. <3> Disorder of the ventilation / perfusion relationship and alveolar hypoventilation. <4> Increased pulmonary artery pressure and decreased diffusion.
Output: medicine
Question: A basic component of spectrophotometers is the monochromator. Its function is: 
 Options:  <0> Connect the different wavelengths from the source to achieve greater light power. <1> Transform the optical signal measured by the detector into an electrical signal. <2> Disperse the light separating the wavelengths that compose it and select a narrow band. <3> Amplify the analytical signal by improving the signal-to-noise ratio. <4> Decrease the power of the light beam to eliminate the background noise of the spectrophotometer.
Output: chemistry
Question: In the titration curve of a diprotic acid, the three points whose pH only depends on the dissociation constants are: 
 Options:  <0> The starting point and the equivalence points. <1> The first point of equivalence and the two points of semi-neutralization. <2> The first semi-neutralization point and the two equivalence points. <3> The starting point, the first semi-neutralization point and the first equivalence point. <4> The starting point and the two semi-neutralization points.
Output: chemistry
Question: Which of the following tests fits within the G-Factor Tests? 
 Options:  <0> The test of primary mental abilities (PMA). <1> The test of progressive matrices (Raven). <2> The battery of differential abilities (DAT). <3> The McCarthy scales (MSCA). <4> The Bayley scales of child development.
Output: psychology
Question: One of the following positions makes the patient more susceptible to developing pressure ulcers due to shearing forces: 
 Options:  <0> Supine decubitus <1> Projection prone. <2> Semiprono decubitus. <3> Fowler. <4> Sims.
Output: nursery
Question: Von Gierke's disease is an enzyme deficit: 
 Options:  <0> Muscle glycogen phosphorylase. <1> Branching enzyme. <2> Hepatic glycogen phosphorylase. <3> Glucose 6-phosphatase. <4> Glycogen synthase.
Output: biology
Question: The glomerular filtration rate increases when: 
 Options:  <0> Increases the resistance in the glomerular afferent arteriole. <1> Decreases the resistance in the glomerular efferent arteriole. <2> Increases the activity of the renal sympathetic nerves. <3> Obstruction of the urinary tract occurs. <4> Decreases the concentration of plasma proteins.
Output: medicine
Question: C. S. who is 40 weeks pregnant and gets rubella, consult with the nurse your doubts about whether you can breastfeed the newborn. What will be the response of the nurse ?: 
 Options:  <0> It is totally contraindicated. <1> The disease is compatible and also vaccination with breastfeeding. <2> You must wait until the baby is 15 days old. <3> It depends on the viral load. <4> Breastfeeding will begin 3 days after putting the gammaglobulin to the baby.
Output: nursery
Question: The precursor of all the pyrimidine nucleotides of the cell is: 
 Options:  <0> Uridine monophosphate (UMP). <1> Thymidine monophosphate (TMP). <2> Cytidine monophosphate (cmp). <3> Inosine monophosphate (IMP). <4> Guanidine monophosphate (GMP).
Output: chemistry
Question: What dose should you administer orally every 12 hours of a drug whose plasma clearance is equal to 1 L / h if you want to reach an average concentration of 10mg / L equilibrium? Assume complete bioavailability (F = 1): 
 Options:  <0> 120 mg. <1> 12 mg. <2> 200 mg. <3> 10 mg. <4> With this information it is not possible to estimate the dose necessary to reach this equilibrium concentration.
Output: pharmacology
Question: The phase of meiosis where the pairs of homologous chromosomes are aligned along the equatorial plane is called: 
 Options:  <0> Profase I. <1> Metaphase II. <2> Profase II. <3> Metaphase I. <4> Prometaphase I.
Output: biology
Question: The process management is: 
 Options:  <0> A management method, aimed at sequencing the supply processes of materials to the clinical units, to reduce replacement times and storage space. <1> The processing of information, through electronic media, to streamline decision making between services or units that are not close to each other, valid both for the Health Center and for hospitals. <2> A way of managing, in which administrative procedures are prioritized, in order to place those related to the client (or user) in the foreground and the procedures related to economic-financial management are relegated to the lower level. <3> A work system focused on achieving the continuous improvement of the functioning of an organization through the identification, selection, description, documentation and improvement of processes. <4> A variant of zero-based budget planning, in which, during the planning process, it is a question of adapting the means to the objectives in each one of the Departments, Services or Units of the Institution.
Output: nursery
Question: HLA class I molecules are expressed in: 
 Options:  <0> Leukocytes <1> Erythrocytes <2> All nucleated cells. <3> Antigen presenting cells. <4> NK lymphocytes.
Output: biology
Question: The fundamental function of the basal ganglia is: 
 Options:  <0> Control movement <1> Increase hearing <2> Improve the ability of taste. <3> Increase appetite <4> Increase urination
Output: nursery
Question: To deal directly and effectively with stressful situations, you can use: 
 Options:  <0> Confrontation as a strategy centered on emotion. <1> The distancing as a strategy focused on the problem. <2> Strategies focused on the problem, such as social support. <3> The defensive mechanism of regression. <4> The self-incrimination.
Output: nursery
Question: In which of the following cell types is the CD3 complex ?: 
 Options:  <0> T lymphocytes. <1> B lymphocytes <2> Eosinophils <3> Follicular dendritic cells. <4> Endothelial cells
Output: pharmacology
Question: Azidothymidine (AZT) used against the human immunodeficiency virus: 
 Options:  <0> It binds to the cellular RNA polymerase and blocks transcription. <1> It binds to the early promoter of the virus and prevents its recognition by RNA polymerase. <2> Antagonizes the phosphorylation of nucleosides, thus inhibiting the synthesis of viral DNA. <3> Blocks the transport of thymidine to the cellular interior. <4> Inhibits transcriptase
Output: biology
Question: Among the partial reactions that lead to sodium carbonate by the Solvay Process, are: 
 Options:  <0> The reaction between calcium carbonate and sodium chloride. <1> The precipitation of sodium hydrogen carbonate. <2> The thermal decomposition of ammonium chloride. <3> The formation of CaCO3 from CaO and CO2. <4> The reaction of ammonia with calcium oxide.
Output: chemistry
Question: In the filtration process, the flow velocity is: 
 Options:  <0> Directly proportional to the quantity of the cake deposited. <1> Directly proportional to the amount of materials in suspension. <2> Dependent on the degree of ionization of the substance to be filtered. <3> Dependent on the ambient temperature. <4> Inversely proportional to the quantity of the cake deposited.
Output: pharmacology
Question: If a sample of size 100 has a standard deviation of 10, its typical error is: 
 Options:  <0> 10 <1> 100 <2> 0.1 <3> one. <4> There is not enough data to calculate it.
Output: biology
Question: The number of molecules per unit cell is a structure centered on all faces is: 
 Options:  <0> A. <1> Two. <2> Three. <3> Four. <4> Six.
Output: chemistry
Question: In the valuation of a strong base with a strong acid the pH of the equivalence point: 
 Options:  <0> It depends on the strong base that is valued. <1> It is determined by the excess OH ̄ of the solution. <2> It depends on the strong acid used as a titrant. <3> It is determined by the dissociation of water. <4> It is determined by the excess H + of the solution.
Output: chemistry
Question: If we try to dissolve ammonia in water we observe that: 
 Options:  <0> It is completely soluble. <1> It is not very soluble. <2> It should be poorly soluble, but the solubility increases markedly by acid-base reaction between them, resulting in an acid solution. <3> It should be poorly soluble, but the solubility increases markedly by redox reaction between them, releasing hydrogen. <4> It is very soluble, favored by the formation of hydrogen bonds between the two compounds.
Output: chemistry
Question: Why mechanism produces hyperprolactinemia haloperidol ?: 
 Options:  <0> Blockade of alpha 1 adrenergic receptors. <1> Blockade of alpha-2 adrenergic receptors <2> Blocking of H1 receivers. <3> Blockade of D2 receivers. <4> Blocking of 5-HT2 receptors.
Output: pharmacology
Question: The assistance model consisting in the systematic coordination of the attention given to specific groups of patients, during an episode of care, to reach the expected clinical results, trying to achieve the lowest cost and the improvement of the quality of care, is called : 
 Options:  <0> Case Management <1> Complex Care <2> Advanced Practice <3> Portfolio of Services. <4> Health Needs
Output: nursery
Question: The Nernst equation: 
 Options:  <0> It is true both for reversible and highly irreversible galvanic cells. <1> It allows to calculate the electromotive force of a galvanic cell with only knowing the Gibbs energy standard of the chemical reaction of the cell. <2> It depends solely on the activities of the species that participate in the chemical reaction of the cell. <3> It relates the electromotive force of the cell with the activities of the species that participate in the chemical reaction of the cell and with the standard potential of the reaction. <4> It is independent of the number of electrons transferred in the electrochemical reaction of the cell
Output: chemistry
Question: We can find sputum eggs of: 
 Options:  <0> Clonorchis sinensis. <1> Paragonimus westermani. <2> Hepatic fasciola. <3> Schistosoma japonicum. <4> Dicrocoelium dendriticum.
Output: biology
Question: Which nucleus of the hypothalamus is responsible for regulating sexual behavior in females ?: 
 Options:  <0> Ventromedial. <1> Suprachiasmatic <2> Paraventricular. <3> Medial preopticus <4> Dorsomedial.
Output: psychology
Question: In relation to DNA replication, the term processivity indicates: 
 Options:  <0> Error rate of the polymerase. <1> Deletion of one or more bases in the DNA. <2> Specificity in the speed of replication. <3> The ability of the enzyme to catalyze multiple consecutive reactions without detaching from the substrate. <4> 1,2 and 3.
Output: chemistry
Question: A patient consulted for recent and progressive development of acropachies and general deterioration. The search for possible underlying neoplasia begins. Which of the following tumors is more likely to be diagnosed? 
 Options:  <0> Gastric adenocarcinoma. <1> Esophageal epidermoid. <2> Mediastinal thymoma. <3> Follicular thyroid. <4> Pleural mesothelioma.
Output: medicine
Question: Agoraphobia is an anxiety disorder that consists of: 
 Options:  <0> An anxiety crisis or panic attacks that usually occur in an unexpected way. <1> An intense and persistent fear of performing public performances. <2> The presence of obsessions or compulsions of a recurring nature that cause great losses of time. <3> An acute mental disorder with a low socioeconomic and health burden. <4> The fear and avoidance of crowded places or situations from which it is difficult to escape.
Output: nursery
Question: Question linked to image # 1 In the previous patient, which of the following treatments is indicated? 
 Options:  <0> Biliary drainage through retrograde endoscopic and systemic chemotherapy. <1> Duodenopancretectomy cephalic with vascular resection. <2> Hepatic embolization with charged spheres of chemotherapy. <3> Bilirubic-hepatic bile drainage and systemic chemotherapy. <4> Treatment with corticoids.
Output: medicine
Question: Which of the following characteristics defines an endogenous depression? 
 Options:  <0> Its course is continuous. <1> There is an evening worsening. <2> There is an early awakening. <3> There is a good response to placebo. <4> A neurotic personality intervenes in the etiopathogenesis.
Output: psychology
Question: The local anesthetic procaine is a drug designed by pharmacodynamics of the: 
 Options:  <0> Morphine. <1> Melatonin <2> Tetracycline <3> Cocaine. <4> Noradrenaline
Output: pharmacology
Question: The specific test to be performed as a previous step to the insertion of a catheter in the radial or ulnar artery, in order to evaluate the presence of an adequate collateral circulation of the hand, is called: 
 Options:  <0> Spencer test modified. <1> Tolerance test for arterial catheterization. <2> Student's test <3> Allen test. <4> Tilt Test (TTT).
Output: nursery
Question: In relation to the structure of the genomes, the introns: 
 Options:  <0> They frequently occur in prokaryotic genomes. <1> There may be several in the same gene. <2> They encode rare amino acids in proteins. <3> They are transcribed and translated. <4> They have a high content in G: C pairs.
Output: chemistry
Question: A biosensor consists of: 
 Options:  <0> A receiver, a transducer, and an enzymatic brand. <1> A receptor and an enzymatic brand. <2> A transducer and an enzymatic brand. <3> A receiver and a transducer. <4> A receptor and an antibody.
Output: chemistry
Question: What care should be planned when a woman reaches menopause? 
 Options:  <0> None, menopause is a normal period of the woman's reproductive cycle. <1> None, but it must be sent to gynecology so that hormone replacement therapy begins as soon as possible and does not suffer from climacteric symptoms. <2> You have to assess your general condition and plan preventive care for climacteric depression. <3> You have to plan prevention care for vasomotor symptoms, osteoporosis and obesity. <4> It is necessary to plan a detailed study of the hormonal levels that allow us to determine the medication and the most appropriate care for your hormonal deficit.
Output: nursery
Question: In the course of a patient's interview, you realize that you are not understanding what the patient is saying. He decides to focus his attention on the discourse and realizes that he does not have a guiding idea even though specific fragments of it are understandable. This alteration of the thinking language, typical of schizophrenia on the other hand, is what in psychopathology is known as: 
 Options:  <0> Dissociation of thought. <1> Fugue of ideas. <2> Persistent language. <3> Disorganization of thought. <4> Blocking of thought.
Output: medicine
Question: Which of the following complications may present a geriatric patient diagnosed with Parkinson's disease and in treatment with Levodopa: 
 Options:  <0> Hypoglycemia <1> Urinary retention. <2> Postural hypotension. <3> Dehydration <4> Anorexy.
Output: nursery
Question: The Raven Progressive Matrices test provides an estimate of: 
 Options:  <0> Level of development. <1> Level of maturation. <2> General Intelligence Factor (G Factor). <3> Verbal intelligence level <4> Manipulative intelligence level.
Output: psychology
Question: During a prolonged fast: 
 Options:  <0> The low level of blood sugar decreases the secretion of glucagon and increase the insulin. <1> Decreases the concentration of acetyl-CoA. <2> The main fuel of the organism happens to be the fatty acids and the ketone bodies. <3> The proteins are degraded and replenished immediately. <4> The brain and the heart use fatty acids as fuels.
Output: chemistry
Question: In a patient with sepsis and coagulopathy of consumption, which of the following analytical tests would indicate a state of hyperfibrinolysis ?: 
 Options:  <0> Lengthening prothrombin time. <1> Antithrombin deficiency. <2> Increase in Dimero D. <3> Increase in protein C. <4> Increase in PAI-1.
Output: pharmacology
Question: When it comes to pericardial tamponade, which of the following statements is NOT correct? 
 Options:  <0> Chest radiography is very useful for diagnosis. <1> The jugular venous registry allows to objectify a very deep collapse. <2> The presence of a paradoxical arterial pulse is common. <3> Right atrial collapse is very sensitive for diagnosis. <4> Right ventricular collapse is very specific for diagnosis.
Output: medicine
Question: What characteristic do anorexia and bulimia share ?: 
 Options:  <0> Loss of control over carbohydrates. <1> An extreme concern for body weight and shape. <2> A BMI below 18. <3> Hostility towards the mother. <4> The amenorrhea.
Output: psychology
Question: Royal Decree 450/2005, of April 22, regulates: 
 Options:  <0> The Plans of Studies of Diploma in Nursing. <1> Accreditation minimums for the transformation of ATS Schools into Nursing Diploma Schools. <2> The professional competences of the Diploma in Nursing. <3> The Own Titles of Advanced Nursing. <4> The Nursing Specialties.
Output: nursery
Question: Which glands are located between the skin and the masseter muscle, in front and under the outer ear? 
 Options:  <0> Parotid glands <1> Submandibular glands <2> Sublingual glands <3> Mouth glands <4> Lieberkühn's glands.
Output: pharmacology
Question: Which of the following types of receptors is found in both the sympathetic and parasympathetic ganglia of the vegetative nervous system? 
 Options:  <0> Nicotinics <1> Muscarinic <2> Beta1-adrenergic. <3> Alpha1-adrenergic. <4> Gabaérgicos.
Output: pharmacology
Question: A key reaction in the regulation of gene expression is acetylation / desatethylation in the histones of some of its residues: 
 Options:  <0> Serina <1> Threonine <2> Lysine <3> Tryptophan <4> To the girl.
Output: chemistry
Question: The innate immune response to viruses is mainly mediated by lymphocytes: 
 Options:  <0> B1 <1> Th1. <2> Cytolytic T <3> NK <4> Tγδ.
Output: biology
Question: In the Th2-B cooperation process, what does the Th2 cell recognize on the surface of the B cell? 
 Options:  <0> The antigen bound to a surface immunoglobulin. <1> A fragment of antigen bound to the CD21 molecule. <2> Several cross-linked antigen fragments. <3> A fragment of antigen bound to a class II histocompatibility molecule. <4> A fragment of antigen bound to a class I histocompatibility molecule.
Output: pharmacology