niryuu/sni-each-converted huggingface dataset:
Question: To replicate, paramyxoviruses must introduce their genetic material into the cell and one: 
 Options:  <0> DNA polymerase RNA dependent. <1> DNA polymerase dependent DNA. <2> RNA polymerase dependent RNA. <3> DNA polymerase dependent DNA. <4> They do not require the introduction of viral enzymes.
Output: biology
Question: By reaction of carbonyls with primary and secondary amine, the following are obtained: 
 Options:  <0> Iminas and oximes. <1> Iminas and enaminas. <2> Oxazones and hydrazones. <3> Semicarbazones and nitrones. <4> None of the above.
Output: chemistry
Question: The reaction conditions for the preparation of 2-methyl-1-methoxypropan-2-ol from 2,2-dimethyloxirane are: 
 Options:  <0> The reaction with methanol in an acid medium. <1> There is no effective synthetic route. <2> The reaction with methylmagnesium bromide and subsequent hydrolysis. <3> The reaction with sodium methoxide in methanol. <4> The reaction with triphenylphosphine.
Output: chemistry
Question: A spontaneous process is characterized because: 
 Options:  <0> In isolated systems the entropy decreases (ΔS <0). <1> At constant pressure and temperature, the Gibbs energy decreases (ΔG <0). <2> At constant pressure and temperature, the Helmholtz energy decreases (ΔA <0). <3> At constant volume and temperature, the Gibbs energy increases (ΔG> 0). <4> It is reversible.
Output: pharmacology
Question: The Baeyer-Villiger oxidation is an important procedure to transform ketones into: 
 Options:  <0> Acids <1> Aldehydes. <2> Esters. <3> Ethers <4> Alquenos
Output: chemistry
Question: JMC, a 14-year-old patient admitted to the Emergency Department. The attending physician considers a blood transfusion necessary. The parents of the patient express their refusal to be given blood, signing the corresponding document of refusal to transfusion. The doctor warns that if the transfusion is not carried out, his life is in danger. They insist on their refusal, the alleged reason for the rejection is basically religious. Which of the following options would be the most correct? 
 Options:  <0> Transfuse the patient. <1> Transfuse the patient, but only when he has lost consciousness. <2> Transfer the case to the healthcare ethics committee so that it adopts the decision. <3> Respect expressed preference and attend without transfusion <4> I would inform the judge and not administer any treatment until the latter indicated it.
Output: medicine
Question: For what illness has Moorey and Greer's Adjuvant Psychological Therapy been developed ?: 
 Options:  <0> Fibromyalgia <1> Cancer. <2> Irritable colon. <3> Bronchial asthma. <4> Hypertension.
Output: psychology
Question: A patient with Diabetes Mellitus type 1, which starts with high fever should: 
 Options:  <0> Assess the evolution of fever and wait. <1> Do not eat <2> Assess the need to increase insulin. <3> Drink plenty of water. <4> Do not administer insulin.
Output: nursery
Question: The integral psychological therapy (IPT) of Brenner et al. (1992) consists of different subprograms. Which of these subprograms does NOT belong to such therapy ?: 
 Options:  <0> Cognitive differentiation <1> Solution of interpersonal problems. <2> Social perception. <3> Social skills. <4> Management and control of stress.
Output: psychology
Question: The alkaline error is defined as: 
 Options:  <0> Error that is committed when a strong base is valued. <1> Error that presents a glass electrode when the medium is very basic. <2> Error that is committed when a strong acid is valued. <3> Error affecting a reference electrode. <4> Own error of liquid membrane electrodes.
Output: chemistry
Question: The Life Orientation Test (LOT developed by Scheier and Carver in 1985) is a test that measures: 
 Options:  <0> General expectations related to optimism. <1> Psychological well-being throughout the life cycle. <2> Emotional coping styles. <3> Orientation and sexual preferences. <4> Positive emotions and happiness.
Output: psychology
Question: In accounting, which of the following elements should be included in the LIABILITIES of an estate? 
 Options:  <0> Credits in favor of third parties. <1> Quantities that customers owe. <2> Money in banks. <3> Money in credit institutions. <4> The store.
Output: pharmacology
Question: Which of the following cytokines exert an anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive effect? 
 Options:  <0> Interleukin-1 alpha, interleukin-1 beta. <1> Tumor necrosis factor-alpha, Tumor necrosis factor-beta. <2> Interleukin-17, Interleukin-22. <3> Interleukin-10, Transforming growth factor beta. <4> Interleukin 2, Interferon-gamma.
Output: medicine
Question: Crohn's disease: 
 Options:  <0> It only affects the colon. <1> It presents as perianal disease, with development of fistulas or abscesses. <2> It is characterized by continuous involvement of the mucosa. <3> It is associated with alcohol consumption. <4> It starts in the infant stage of the individual.
Output: pharmacology
Question: Which of the following is a more reliable marker of malnutrition in the elderly patient? 
 Options:  <0> Weight loss of 1 kg in the last month. <1> Body mass index greater than 24. <2> Difficulty swallowing, chewing and / or lack of appetite. <3> Albumin 4.5 gr / dl. <4> Mini Nutritional Assessment less than 17.
Output: medicine
Question: The eggs are operculated: 
 Options:  <0> Hymenolepis nana. <1> Trichinella spiralis. <2> Enterobius vermicularis. <3> Fasciola hepatica. <4> Ascaris lumbricoides.
Output: biology
Question: In the process of defecation is TRUE: 
 Options:  <0> When the feces penetrate the rectal ampulla, relaxation of the internal anal sphincter occurs consciously. <1> When the feces penetrate the rectal ampulla, the external anal sphincter relaxes unconsciously. <2> The external anal sphincter is controlled by nerve fibers of the pudendal nerve, part of the somatic nervous system, and therefore under voluntary conscious control. <3> The propulsive movements of the colon under normal conditions require one hour to move the chyme through the entire colon from the ileocal valve. <4> During defecation the contraction of the floor of the pelvis occurs.
Output: medicine
Question: The number of Barr corpuscles of the cells of a man with karyotype 48, XXXY is: 
 Options:  <0> two. <1> one. <2> 0 <3> 3. <4> Four.
Output: biology
Question: A columbimétrica valuation: 
 Options:  <0> It is always done at controlled potential. <1> Always use a platinum macroelectrode. <2> It does not need a system indicating the end point. <3> You need the current to be controlled. <4> You always need the titrant to be added from a burette.
Output: chemistry
Question: During the nineteenth century, the reform movement greatly influenced the development of Spanish nursing at that time, being one of the most relevant figures: 
 Options:  <0> Sara Barton. <1> Concepción Arenal. <2> María Teresa Junquera. <3> María de Madariaga <4> María de Maeztu.
Output: nursery
Question: In the postoperative period, clinical signs such as high temperature, cough, expectoration, dyspnea and chest pain correspond to a patient who presents: 
 Options:  <0> Pulmonary embolism. <1> Pulmonary emphysema <2> Pneumonia. <3> Atelectasis <4> Asthma crisis
Output: nursery
Question: One patient is diagnosed with a 4 cm lung cancer without pleural contact in the right upper lobe. The extension study reveals the presence of metastasis in right parahilar nodes, without evidence of distant metastasis. The staging of the tumor will be: 
 Options:  <0> Stage I. <1> Stage IIA. <2> Stage IIB. <3> Stage IIIA. <4> Stage IIIB.
Output: medicine
Question: In the human eye: 
 Options:  <0> Photoreceptors contact the vitreous humor. <1> The accommodation is due to the increase in the curvature of the cornea. <2> The pigmentary epithelium participates in the regeneration of rhodopsin. <3> The cones and rods are distributed homogeneously throughout the retina. <4> The greatest refractive power is in the lens.
Output: biology
Question: Aflatoxin B1 is a natural product that owes its toxicity to a product of its metabolism, very reactive, of the nature of: 
 Options:  <0> 1,2-Diol. <1> Quinonymine <2> Epoxide <3> Α, β-unsaturated carbonyl. <4> Radical hydroperoxide.
Output: pharmacology
Question: From the point of view of the metabolism of xenobiotics, what is the cause of the hepatotoxicity and the carcinogenic action of aflatoxins? 
 Options:  <0> Its hydrolysis releases aromatic amines. <1> Its metabolism of phase II generates a nitrenium cation, which is cytotoxic by reacting with DNA. <2> Its hepatic metabolism originates an epoxide, which forms a covalent bond with DNA guanine. <3> Your metabolism leads to a reactive species through a process of reductive bioactivation. <4> They facilitate the information of reactive oxygen species through a radical mechanism.
Output: pharmacology
Question: The appearance of constipation is a symptom that appears frequently when consumed: 
 Options:  <0> Tobacco. <1> Alcohol. <2> Cannabis <3> Cocaine. <4> Heroin.
Output: psychology
Question: A patient comes to the clinic for general malaise and yellowing of the skin and his doctor suspects that it is a hepatitis A picture. Which of the following answers constitutes the most accurate and safest factor to determine the pre-test probability ( before carrying out any study) of what is said table? 
 Options:  <0> Intensity of jaundice. <1> Frequency of hepatitis A in the environment. <2> Days of duration of the painting. <3> Professional experience on jaundice pictures. <4> Previous illnesses of the patient.
Output: medicine
Question: Question linked to image # 7 Among the complementary tests that could help us better define the clinical picture of the patient are all but one. Point it out 
 Options:  <0> Thoracoabdominal CT. <1> Gynecological exploration. <2> Autoantibodies that include ANA and antisintetase. <3> Electromyography <4> Arteriography of the renal arteries.
Output: medicine
Question: One purpose of the scales for measuring the results of the NOC classification is: 
 Options:  <0> Determine the patient's condition and show the score of the result. <1> Make a clinical judgment about the patient's situation. <2> Determine the degree of achievement of the objectives raised in the care plan. <3> Check if the identified problem has been solved or a new diagnosis needs to be made. <4> Check the evolution of the patient and replace the evaluation phase of the care process.
Output: nursery
Question: The brainstem or brainstem is the part of the Nervous System formed by: 
 Options:  <0> The mesencephalon, the protuberance and the medulla oblongata. <1> The spinal cord and the 31 pairs of cranial nerves. <2> The thalamus and the spinal cord. <3> The telencephalon, with the cerebral hemispheres. <4> The corpus callosum and the limbic system.
Output: psychology
Question: They cause diarrhea in children: 
 Options:  <0> Togavirus. <1> Coronavirus. <2> Arenavirus. <3> Parvovirus. <4> Astrovirus
Output: biology
Question: Ultraviolet radiation changes the structure of DNA by: 
 Options:  <0> Rupture of phosphodiester bonds. <1> Deamination of nitrogenous bases. <2> Depurinization <3> Formation of cyclobutyl rings of pyrimidines. <4> Hydroxylation of nitrogenous bases.
Output: chemistry
Question: The solubility of copper hydroxide in the presence of a high concentration of ammonia: 
 Options:  <0> Increased by formation of a complex ion of Cu2 + with NH3. <1> It is not affected because there is no common ion effect. <2> Decreases by common ion effect. <3> It decreases upon oxidation of bromide to molecular bromine. <4> It decreases because the hydroxides are more soluble in acidic medium.
Output: chemistry
Question: What is the purpose of the phthalyl group in phthalisulfatiazole ?: 
 Options:  <0> Improve intestinal absorption. <1> Prevent intestinal absorption. <2> Improve the passage through the blood-brain barrier. <3> Prevent passage through the blood-brain barrier. <4> Increase the affinity towards the therapeutic target of the drug.
Output: pharmacology
Question: The equation of speed of a chemical reaction: 
 Options:  <0> It must be determined from kinetic measurements and can not be deduced directly from the stoichiometry of the reaction. <1> Allows the units of s-1 (s = second) to be assigned to the velocity constant. <2> It depends on the total reaction order that, in turn, is obtained from the stoichiometric coefficients of the products. <3> Report in detail about the reaction mechanism. <4> It depends on the experimental conditions of the process.
Output: chemistry
Question: Liquid chromatography using linked stationary phases can be divided into normal phase and reverse phase phases. In this context it can be said that: 
 Options:  <0> The main separation mechanism in reverse phase is the distribution, while adsorption also plays a very important role in the normal phase. <1> In normal phase chromatography, a large number of non-polar stationary phases can be used. <2> The main separation mechanism in normal phase is the distribution, while the adsorption plays a very important role in the reverse phase. <3> In reverse phase chromatography, the stationary phase is polar and the non-polar eluents. <4> In reverse phase chromatography, a large number of polar stationary phases can be used.
Output: chemistry
Question: The primary function of interleukin 2 (IL-2) is: 
 Options:  <0> Induce activation of macrophages. <1> Promote isotype changes in immunoglobulins produced by activated B cells. <2> Induce the synthesis of acute phase proteins by hepatocytes. <3> Promote the proliferation of T lymphocytes <4> Promote the proliferation of B lymphocytes
Output: pharmacology
Question: The maximum speed of an enzymatic reaction: 
 Options:  <0> It depends on the substrate concentration. <1> It depends on the enzyme concentration. <2> It doubles when duplicating the substrate concentration. <3> It is Km / 2. <4> It is the same for all enzymes.
Output: biology
Question: Which of the following molecules has the highest number of antibonding electrons? 
 Options:  <0> B2. <1> N 2 <2> Li2. <3> F 2 <4> O 2
Output: pharmacology
Question: What is the sampling model whose principle is to directly access the natural agglomerations of units in the population? (workers in factories, students in universities ...): 
 Options:  <0> Stratified sampling. <1> Simple random sampling. <2> Conglomerate sampling. <3> Systematic sampling. <4> Sampling in time.
Output: psychology
Question: The groups with resonant electroacoustic effect are: 
 Options:  <0> Deactivators and ortho / para-leaders. <1> Activators and ortho / para-leaders. <2> Deactivators and meta-leaders. <3> Activators and meta-leaders. <4> Deactivators and do not orient to any position.
Output: chemistry
Question: A 4-year-old boy with no history of vaccination against rabies is attacked spontaneously by a dog, causing numerous injuries to the neck and limbs that were unprotected. The animal flees and it is not possible to locate it. What is the initial attitude to follow with the patient to prevent a possible transmission of rabies? 
 Options:  <0> Administer specific antivirals against the rabies virus. <1> Administer the rabies vaccine. <2> Administer the vaccine plus anti-rabies immunoglobulin. <3> Administer anti-rabies immunoglobulin. <4> Administer the vaccine, more immunoglobulin, more antivirals.
Output: pharmacology
Question: The validation or verification of information is an essential step in critical thinking that helps you avoid: 
 Options:  <0> Make assumptions <1> Skip pertinent information <2> Misinterpreting situations. <3> Draw hasty conclusions or focus in the wrong direction. <4> All the previous answers are correct.
Output: nursery
Question: In what units is usually expressed the coefficient of molar absorptivity? 
 Options:  <0> mL mol-1 cm. <1> L mol-1 cm-3. <2> Photons per mole. <3> M-1 cm-1. <4> It is dimensionless.
Output: chemistry
Question: Mycoplasmas: 
 Options:  <0> They do not contain phospholipids in their membrane. <1> They have a positive Gram type wall. <2> They contain mycolic acids. <3> They grow quickly in simple means. <4> They are naturally insensitive to penicillin.
Output: biology
Question: Mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation is regulated by: 
 Options:  <0> Mitochondrial steroid hormones. <1> Apoptosis <2> Thermogenin <3> The cytochrome c. <4> The cellular energy charge.
Output: chemistry
Question: The ceramic materials are: 
 Options:  <0> Hard and fragile. <1> Tenacious and ductile. <2> Soft and malleable. <3> Ductile and malleable. <4> Soft and fragile
Output: chemistry
Question: What favors the appearance of atherosclerotic plaques? 
 Options:  <0> Stress. <1> Asthma. <2> Angina of the chest. <3> Cannabis <4> Physical exercise.
Output: psychology
Question: Of the drugs reviewed, which one is used in the prophylactic treatment of migraine ?: 
 Options:  <0> Dihydroergotamine <1> Meperidine <2> Flunarizine <3> Chlorpromazine <4> Sumatriptan
Output: pharmacology
Question: A patient diagnosed with chronic renal failure has tingling and paresthesias in the legs. This is due to: 
 Options:  <0> Vascular alterations produced by hyperlipidemia. <1> Peripheral neuropathy associated with uremia. <2> Hyperphosphatemia secondary to renal osteodystrophy. <3> Decreased peripheral perfusion as a result of anemia. <4> Hypercalcemia produced by decreased glomerular filtration.
Output: nursery
Question: In 1994, Spitzer and collaborators developed a questionnaire and a joint interview for the evaluation of the main most frequent disorders in primary care health services. This instrument is called: 
 Options:  <0> DIS-CIDI <1> SCID II. <2> PRIME-MD. <3> ADIS. <4> SADS.
Output: psychology
Question: The number of chains of the IgG is: 
 Options:  <0> one. <1> two. <2> 3. <3> Four. <4> 5.
Output: biology
Question: One of the following answers is FALSE regarding breast cancer. 
 Options:  <0> The majority of tumors (70%) have receptors for hormones. <1> The stage measured according to the TNM system is one of the prognostic factors of the disease. <2> The presence of axillary adenopathies contraindicates breast surgery. <3> Anthracyclines and taxanes are the chemotherapeutic agents most used in the complementary treatment. <4> The breast-conserving surgery associated with radiotherapy has comparable results to mastectomy.
Output: medicine
Question: What is the arrhythmia that most often triggers sudden death in a context of acute ischemic heart disease? 
 Options:  <0> Extrasist. <1> Ventricular tachycardia <2> Ventricular fibrillation. <3> Atrial fibrillation <4> Autrioventricular block.
Output: pharmacology
Question: Ophthalmological ointments: 
 Options:  <0> They may contain solid particles but only with a controlled size. <1> They do not need to be sterile. <2> They require the test of pyrogens. <3> They can not be W / O emulsions. <4> Always your excipients must be fatty
Output: pharmacology
Question: When assessing the position held by the baby suckling, which of the following signs indicate that the position and grip of the baby is NOT correct? 
 Options:  <0> The chin touches the chest. <1> The mouth is very open. <2> Everted lips <3> Nose very close to the chest. <4> More areola visible above the mouth.
Output: nursery
Question: Point out which of the following is a characteristic of childhood phobias: 
 Options:  <0> They can not be easily eliminated. <1> They are specific to a certain age. <2> They are short-lived. <3> They do not interfere with the child's daily life. <4> They are related to objectively dangerous stimuli.
Output: psychology
Question: Th1 lymphocytes: 
 Options:  <0> They produce interferon gamma (IFN-γ). <1> They mediate allergic diseases. <2> Activate mast cells <3> They are very active against extracellular bacteria. <4> They recruit neutrophils at the sites of antigen recognition.
Output: biology
Question: Indicate which of the following statements about dead space of the airway is correct: 
 Options:  <0> It is the air that occupies the airway and is used in the exchange of gases. <1> In an adult person it is about 3250 ml. <2> In each respiratory cycle the air from the dead space is poor in O2. <3> It is the lung area that is not ventilated and therefore does not contain gases. <4> It includes airways and alveoli that do not participate in the exchange of gas with blood.
Output: nursery
Question: Within the perceptual distortions we can find: 
 Options:  <0> Hallucinations <1> The metamorphopsias. <2> The eidetic images. <3> Autoscopy (or double phenomena). <4> The parasitic images.
Output: psychology
Question: In which of these patients would the appropriate surgical treatment be the performance of an atypical wedge gastrectomy by laparoscopy without extended lymphadenectomy? 
 Options:  <0> Infiltrating and ulcerated gastric adenocarcinoma at the antro-pylorus level. <1> Subcardial infiltrating gastric adenocarcinoma. <2> Gastrointestinal stromal tumor at the level of the gastric body-greater curvature. <3> Lymphoma MALT. <4> Barrett's esophagus with intestinal metaplasia and dysplasia.
Output: medicine
Question: We have two tests to diagnose a serious prognosis disease. Test A has a sensitivity of 95% and a specificity of 60% and test B has a sensitivity of 70% and a specificity of 99%. We have an effective treatment but that produces important adverse effects and also has a very high cost. What test would we choose to make the diagnosis? 
 Options:  <0> Test A because it will detect less false positives. <1> Test A because it has a higher sensitivity. <2> Test B because it will detect more false positives. <3> Test A because it will detect more false negatives. <4> Test B because it has a greater specificity.
Output: medicine
Question: Serum disease is a hypersensitivity: 
 Options:  <0> Mediated by IgE. <1> Against molecules of the extracellular matrix. <2> Mediated by deposition of immune complexes in certain tissues. <3> With formation of granulomas. <4> With activation of mast cells associated with blood vessels.
Output: biology
Question: The sensory signals arrive mainly at the layer of the cerebral cortex number: 
 Options:  <0> II. <1> III. <2> IV. <3> V. <4> SAW.
Output: biology
Question: Starch is a specific indicator used to indicate the endpoint in redox titrations with: 
 Options:  <0> Cerium. <1> Iodo. <2> Bromine. <3> Permanganate. <4> Dichromate
Output: pharmacology
Question: What is the mechanism of action of octreotide ?: 
 Options:  <0> Serotonergic receptor 5-HT4 agonist. <1> Motilin receptor agonist. <2> Somatostatin receptor agonist. <3> Antagonist of the motilin receptor. <4> Somatostatin receptor antagonist.
Output: pharmacology
Question: The genetic material of parvoviruses is: 
 Options:  <0> Double-stranded DNA <1> Single chain DNA <2> Single-stranded positive RNA <3> Single negative chain RNA. <4> Double-stranded RNA
Output: biology
Question: What is the approach that studies self-concept through polarities ?: 
 Options:  <0> The transactional analysis. <1> Aversive therapy. <2> Self-control <3> Gestalt therapy. <4> The concealed conditioning.
Output: psychology
Question: In smooth muscle fibers: 
 Options:  <0> The functional unit is the sarcomere. <1> The contraction is regulated by troponin. <2> The autonomous system always innervates all fibers. <3> Actinamyosin cross bridges do not form. <4> There may be hormone receptors.
Output: biology
Question: At neutral pH, a mixture of amino acids in solution would be predominantly: 
 Options:  <0> Dipolar Ions <1> Non-polar molecules. <2> Positive and monovalent. <3> Hydrophobic <4> Negative and monovalent.
Output: chemistry
Question: Question linked to image nº7 A 31-year-old patient, with no previous history of interest, consulted due to muscle weakness of a few months of evolution that has progressively made it difficult for her to go up and down stairs. Physical examination is notable for the desquamative papuloerithematous lesions seen in the figure. To achieve the diagnosis, a muscle biopsy is performed, among other tests, which can be seen in the figure. What do you think is the most likely diagnosis? 
 Options:  <0> Vasculitis type panarteritis nodosa. <1> Systemic lupus erythematosus. <2> Dermatomyositis <3> Myositis with inclusion bodies. <4> Sarcoidosis
Output: medicine
Question: In relation to osteoarthritis, what statement is correct? 
 Options:  <0> There is a close correlation between the radiological findings and the symptomatology of the patients. <1> The symptomatic involvement of the hip is much more frequent than the involvement of the knee. <2> Obesity has not been shown to be a risk factor for its development. <3> The presence of a high sedimentation rate strongly supports the diagnosis. <4> Morning stiffness usually lasts less than 30 minutes.
Output: medicine
Question: The psychological treatment of generalized anxiety disorder focused on addressing negative beliefs about concerns (eg, that worries are uncontrollable) and positive dysfunctional beliefs about the usefulness of caring (eg, that worry improves outcomes) known as: 
 Options:  <0> Emotion regulation therapy. <1> Metacognitive therapy <2> Behavioral therapy based on acceptance. <3> Integrative therapy <4> Somatic awareness therapy
Output: psychology
Question: An 82-year-old patient comes to the clinic due to sudden and frequent dizziness, without prodromes, of short duration and that subside spontaneously, without ever presenting syncope. The physical examination and the baseline electrocardiogram are normal. In an ambulatory record of the electrocardiogram during 24 hours, short duration phases of absence of P waves before the QRS are detected with an escape rhythm of the atrio-ventricular junction with narrow QRS at 40 bpm and a wave at the beginning of the ST segment corresponding to a retrograde P. No periods of asystole greater than 3 seconds are detected. Before this you would say: 
 Options:  <0> The patient has an atrioventricular block of 3rd degree and requires the implantation of a pacemaker. <1> The absence of periods of asystole> 3 seconds excludes a cardiac cause of dizziness. <2> A pharmacological treatment that would increase conduction in the atrio-ventricular node would be indicated. <3> The patient presents a sinus dysfunction with sinoatrial block and requires implantation of a pacemaker due to the presence of symptoms. <4> The alterations detected in the ambulatory electrocardiogram are typical of patients of this age and there is no indication of therapeutic intervention.
Output: medicine
Question: The hepatitis B virus: 
 Options:  <0> It has circular double-stranded RNA as a genetic material. <1> It has circular single-stranded RNA as a genetic material. <2> It is transmitted by air. <3> Encode a reverse transcriptase. <4> It does not have tissue tropism.
Output: biology
Question: Pyruvate carboxylase: 
 Options:  <0> It requires biotin. <1> Use a methyl group activated as a carbon source. <2> It catalyzes the production of acetyl-CoA and carbon dioxide. <3> It is activated in the muscle during the Cori cycle. <4> It is an intermediate of the citric acid cycle.
Output: biology
Question: Prolactin stimulates the: 
 Options:  <0> Milk secretion <1> Milky ejection. <2> Deposit of fat in the breasts. <3> Formation of the mammary ducts. <4> Formation of mammary secretory cells.
Output: biology
Question: The evaluation of the electrodermal activity allows a measurement of: 
 Options:  <0> The general activation of the Autonomic Nervous System. <1> The parasympathetic activation. <2> The visceral activity. <3> The cortical attitude. <4> The Delta rhythm.
Output: psychology
Question: From a microbial growth control point of view, it can be stated that: 
 Options:  <0> Pasteurization is a method of sterilization for liquid substances. <1> The overpressure is what kills the microorganisms when the autoclave is used. <2> Antiseptic agents are applied to living tissues. <3> The autoclave is the recommended method for sterilizing thermosensitive liquids. <4> The use of ultraviolet radiation is due to its high penetration power.
Output: pharmacology
Question: Which of the following statements regarding the double-stranded DNA molecule is true? 
 Options:  <0> All the hydroxyl groups of the pentoses participate in the bonds. <1> The bases are perpendicular to the axis. <2> Each chain is identical. <3> Each chain is parallel. <4> Each chain replicates itself.
Output: chemistry
Question: In neurons once an action potential has started, a second action potential can not be triggered for a short period of time, regardless of the intensity of the stimulus applied. This period of time is known as: 
 Options:  <0> Synaptic delay. <1> Threshold depolarizing period. <2> Absolute refractory period. <3> Relative refractory period. <4> Spatial sumary.
Output: nursery
Question: Which of the following emotions facilitates more exhaustive behaviors? 
 Options:  <0> Sadness. <1> Go to. <2> Disgust. <3> Guilt. <4> Rage.
Output: psychology
Question: Which of the following symptoms is characteristic of inattention in Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)? : 
 Options:  <0> They usually have difficulty organizing tasks and activities. <1> They usually answer before ending the question. <2> They usually have difficulty playing quietly. <3> They are usually stirred in their seat. <4> They usually interfere in the activities of others.
Output: psychology
Question: It is activated when cyclic AMP joins the: 
 Options:  <0> Adenylate cyclase. <1> Protein kinase A. <2> Glycogen phosphorylase kinase. <3> Pyruvate kinase. <4> Phosphofruct kinase 1.
Output: biology
Question: The four principles of bioethics, non-maleficence, beneficence, justice and autonomy were proposed: 
 Options:  <0> By Beauchamp and Childress. <1> In the Belmont Report. <2> In the Oviedo Convention. <3> In the Universal Declaration of Human Rights. <4> By Diego Gracia.
Output: nursery
Question: On the molecular biology of cancer: 
 Options:  <0> Oncogenes are mutated derivatives of normal genes, called protooncogenes, whose function is to promote cell proliferation or survival. <1> Oncogenes are genes that synthesize proteins that inhibit cell proliferation. <2> The tumor suppressor genes synthesize proteins that inhibit cell death. <3> Protooncogenes synthesize proteins that promote cell death. <4> Apoptosis is a form of activation of proto-oncogenes.
Output: chemistry
Question: What conclusion is reached in Asch's theory about the effects of context on social perception? 
 Options:  <0> If a trait is defined as central, it will be central in any context. <1> Traits, peripheral or central, are independent of the context in which they appear. <2> The same trait can be central in one context and peripheral in another. <3> The final impression is the result of the sum of each of the features separately. <4> The final impression is the result of the arithmetic mean of the values ​​of each of the features separately.
Output: psychology
Question: The color centers or F centers are produced: 
 Options:  <0> Exclusively in crystals that contain fluorine. <1> By heating a crystal in the vapor of an alkali metal. <2> By cooling a crystal in the vapor of an alkali metal. <3> By heating a crystal in the presence of fluorine. <4> By cooling a crystal in the presence of fluorine.
Output: chemistry
Question: A program of Health Education (EpS) is organized for women in the climacteric stage. One of the sessions aims to know how they are living this stage and how it is affecting them personally and family. The most appropriate EpS technique is: 
 Options:  <0> Grating. <1> Brainstorming. <2> Phillips 6/6. <3> Fotopalabra <4> All are adequate.
Output: nursery
Question: What are the characteristics of the obfuscation of consciousness ?: 
 Options:  <0> Total absence of consciousness that occurs due to illness or brain damage. <1> Transient narrowing of consciousness, of variable duration, with amnesia of what happened during the period. <2> Sleep-like state that is accompanied by intense visual hallucinations. <3> Deep disorder of qualitative and quantitative nature with psychomotor agitation. <4> Reduction of the ability to identify and recognize the environment with attentional difficulties and the course of thought.
Output: psychology
Question: In what clinical situation would you use a combined antimicrobial treatment? 
 Options:  <0> In an acute pharyngotonsillitis in a child. <1> In a community pneumonia due to Mycoplasma pneumoniae in a teenager. <2> In an acute meningitis in an elderly patient. <3> In a postmenopausal patient with a recurrent urinary infection. <4> In a skin abscess in a young patient.
Output: medicine
Question: Which of the following activities should NOT be carried out in the terminal patient when he presents with xerostomia ?: 
 Options:  <0> Offer you vitamin C pills <1> Give him candy with sugar. <2> Increase fluid intake. <3> Offer ice cubes. <4> Prepare pieces of natural pineapple.
Output: nursery
Question: The General Law of Health (Law 14/1986, of April 25) favored the psychiatric reform in Spain because: 
 Options:  <0> It gave a letter of nature to the model of the asylum. <1> Defined the biomedical model of assistance to the psychiatric patient. <2> Institutionalized the community structure formed by interdisciplinary teams. <3> Regulated the factors and elements of the quality of care. <4> He adopted a paternalistic model of protection for the mentally ill.
Output: nursery
Question: The number 0.0670 has: 
 Options:  <0> 5 significant figures. <1> 4 significant figures. <2> 3 significant figures. <3> 2 significant figures. <4> 1 significant figure.
Output: chemistry
Question: The central feature of phobic disorders is: 
 Options:  <0> Fear but not avoidance of the situation. <1> The avoidance of the situation, but not the fear of it. <2> That fear and avoidance are associated with more or less specific stimuli. <3> That fear is not associated with specific stimuli. <4> That the adult who suffers from this disorder is not aware that his fear is excessive and irrational.
Output: psychology
Question: By means of the angular methods used to evaluate the flow properties of a powder, it is determined: 
 Options:  <0> The ease with which the solid sets in motion. <1> The angle of repose. <2> The flow velocity <3> The resistance to displacement. <4> The density of the powder.
Output: pharmacology
Question: The cells of the sinus node present: 
 Options:  <0> Stable membrane potential. <1> Contractile capacity <2> Depolarization faster than Purkinje fibers. <3> Depolarization mediated by Ca2 + channels. <4> Long plateau.
Output: biology
Question: What percentage of the bicarbonate filtered in the glomerulus is reabsorbed under normal conditions along the nephron and in which segment is most of this reabsorption produced ?: 
 Options:  <0> It is reabsorbed almost 100%, mostly in the collector duct. <1> Approximately 50% is reabsorbed, mostly in the proximal convoluted tubule. <2> Approximately 50% is reabsorbed, mostly in the distal convoluted tubule. <3> Less than 20% is reabsorbed, mostly in the collecting duct. <4> It is almost 100% reabsorbed, mostly in the proximal convoluted tubule.
Output: pharmacology
Question: Indicate which of the following clinical manifestations are NOT specific to dehydration in the infant: 
 Options:  <0> Weightloss. <1> Fontanelle sunk. <2> Dry mucous membranes <3> Hypotension <4> Bradycardia
Output: nursery
Question: Malonyl-CoA produced in 
 Options:  <0> the beta-oxidation of fatty acids, inhibits the fatty acid synthase complex. <1> the citric acid cycle inhibits beta-oxidation. <2> the respiratory chain, inhibits the absorption of lipids during digestion. <3> the synthesis of fatty acids, inhibits beta-oxidation. <4> the synthesis of triacylglycerides, inhibits the production of cholesterol.
Output: pharmacology
Question: A 75-year-old man who reported decreased visual acuity in his right eye of two weeks of evolution. In the fundus examination, soft drusen and serous detachment at the level of the macula are seen. What treatment is currently the most indicated for this disease? 
 Options:  <0> Focal photocoagulation with laser. <1> Photodynamic therapy. <2> Intravitreal injections of anti-angiogenic drugs. <3> Posterior vitrectomy. <4> Observation.
Output: medicine
Question: A 43-year-old man consulted for diarrheal syndrome, and reported among his background 3 pneumonias in adulthood. Which of the following immunological studies should we request ?: 
 Options:  <0> Serum immunoglobulin count and antibody production capacity test. <1> Phagocytosis test and oxidative metabolism of neutrophils. <2> Apoptosis test (programmed cell death) in the circulating lymphocytes of the patient. <3> Study of the repertoire and clonality of the T lymphocytes (alpha / beta). <4> In this patient, it would not be appropriate to request any immunological study.
Output: medicine
Question: It is an obligate intracellular pathogen: 
 Options:  <0> Neisseria gonorrhoeae. <1> Treponema pallidum <2> Chlamydia trachomatis. <3> Streptococcus pneumoniae <4> Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
Output: biology
Question: Regarding intestinal polyposis, which of the following syndromes is NOT hereditary? 
 Options:  <0> Gardner syndrome. <1> Cronkhite-Canada syndrome. <2> Turcot syndrome. <3> Juvenile polyposis <4> Peutz-Jeghers syndrome.
Output: medicine
Question: The human papilloma virus (HPV) is involved in the pathogenesis of: 
 Options:  <0> Cervical cancer <1> Endometrial cancer. <2> Ovarian cancer. <3> Breast cancer <4> Burkitt lymphoma.
Output: medicine
Question: The most common pancreatic cancer is: 
 Options:  <0> The intraductal mucinous papillary tumor. <1> Pancreatic neuroendocrine carcinoma. <2> The pancreatic cystadenocarcinoma. <3> The malignant insulinoma. <4> Ductal adenocarcinoma of the pancreas.
Output: medicine
Question: Phosphatidylinositols: 
 Options:  <0> They are derivatives of glucocerebrosides. <1> They act as intracellular signals. <2> They are lysosomal lipids. <3> They are biological detergents. <4> They contain taurine or glycine.
Output: chemistry
Question: Crohn's disease is an inflammatory process that is characterized by: 
 Options:  <0> It affects the superficial mucosa of the colon. <1> It usually occurs with rectal bleeding. <2> The affectation is uniform, producing continuous injuries. <3> The colectomy cures the disease. <4> It affects any stretch of the gastrointestinal tract.
Output: nursery
Question: Acute aortic syndrome includes entities such as aortic dissection, intramural aortic hematoma, and penetrating atherosclerotic ulcer. Regarding the diagnostic and therapeutic considerations of this entity, point out the CORRECT statement: 
 Options:  <0> Currently, in our environment, the diagnosis of this pathology is established routinely by percutaneous arteriography. <1> Computed tomography is not a good imaging technique for its diagnosis. <2> The echocardiographic techniques do not usually provide data of interest in the diagnosis and study of these nosological entities. <3> It is considered a Stanford type A aortic intramural dissection or hematoma when the ascending aorta is affected, regardless of the place of origin of the lesion or its extension. <4> The surgical indication of an aortic dissection is independent of the involvement of the ascending aorta.
Output: medicine
Question: In suppression ion chromatography: 
 Options:  <0> A single column is used and the conductivity of the mobile phase is kept very low. <1> The eluent must be able to be removed selectively after separation and prior to the conductometric measurement. <2> The eluent incorporates a regenerating solution of strong acid flowing in the same direction as the mobile phase. <3> Weak exchangers are used from polystyrene polymers. <4> A mobile phase with ionic conductivity gradient is used.
Output: chemistry
Question: J. L. is a patient who has to administer a drug by inhalation with a dispenser in the form of a pressurized cartridge. The recommendation that will give you for its correct administration will be: 
 Options:  <0> Place the inhaler 6 cm in front of the mouth. <1> Perform a slow and deep expiration before administration. <2> Hold the cartridge with your thumb up and your index finger down. <3> Start the inspiration after pressing the inhaler. <4> The mouth should not be rinsed after inhalation.
Output: nursery
Question: A positive coagulase test is typical of: 
 Options:  <0> Staphylococcus aureus. <1> Staphylococcus epidermidis. <2> Haemophilus influenzae. <3> Neisseria meningitidis. <4> Escherichia coli
Output: biology
Question: In the treatment of asthma can be used on demand: 
 Options:  <0> Inhaled glucocorticoids at low doses. <1> Long-acting inhaled beta-2 adrenergic agonist. <2> Short-acting inhaled beta-2 adrenergic agonist. <3> Inhaled anticholinergics. <4> Inhaled disodium cromoglycate.
Output: pharmacology
Question: Question linked to image nº17 The following figure describes the survival function of the variable progression free of disease (Progression-free Survival, PFS) by the Kaplan-Meier method of two groups of patients. Group A: patients treated with the best support treatment (Best Suportive Care, BSC). Group B: patients who in addition to BSC receive Panitumumab. Data complementary to the figure: patients with disease progression: Group A = 184/232 (79%), Group B = 161/231 (70%). Percentage of censures: Group A = 24/232 (10%), Group B = 38/231 (16%). Log-rank test p <0.0001. Hazard Ratio [95% CI]: 0.54 [0.44-0.66]. Which of the following statements is correct: 
 Options:  <0> The gain in terms of the median time to progression in Group B does not exceed two weeks in relation to Group A. <1> To interpret the results of these two survival curves, it is necessary and sufficient to evaluate and contrast the percentages of progression, that is, 79% in Group A versus 70% in Group B. <2> The ratio of medians in time to progression of the two treatment groups is 0.54. <3> The log-rank test evaluates the average difference in the follow-up time. <4> The results of the log-rank test and the Hazard Ratio estimate (95% confidence interval, 95% CI), are not compatible since the first one indicates that the differences are significant while the second indicates that they are not.
Output: medicine
Question: A complication of transplantation of hematopoietic precursors is: 
 Options:  <0> Common variable immunodeficiency. <1> Graft-versus-host disease. <2> Immunodeficiencies in complement components. <3> The lack of NK lymphocytes. <4> Chronic granulomatous disease.
Output: biology
Question: The desmosomes: 
 Options:  <0> Communicate the cytoplasms of contiguous cells. <1> They seal the intercellular space. <2> They surround the entire cell perimeter. <3> They connect the cell to the basal lamina. <4> They are point intercellular adhesive bonds.
Output: biology
Question: Which of the following statements is correct with respect to hepatic hemangiomas? 
 Options:  <0> They can be associated with the KasabachMerritt syndrome (thrombocytopenia and consumption coagulopathy), especially giant hemangiomas. <1> Surgical exeresis should be indicated from the moment it is diagnosed if its diameter is greater than 3 cm. <2> Percutaneous embolization is the most recommended therapeutic option for this type of tumor. <3> The best method for its diagnostic confirmation is percutaneous biopsy of the liver lesion. <4> Hepatic MRI does not usually offer much help for its diagnostic characterization.
Output: medicine
Question: The appearance of difficulties and respiratory infections as a consequence of the diminution of the defenses, is a dysfunction that occurs most likely in: 
 Options:  <0> Manic disorders. <1> Depressive disorders <2> Psychotic disorders <3> Personality disorders. <4> Schizophrenia.
Output: nursery
Question: The proteasome: 
 Options:  <0> It is formed by 21 homologous subunits organized in 3 rings. <1> It is a protein complex that catalyzes the hydrolysis of ubiquitinated proteins. <2> It is found only in animal eukaryotic cells. <3> Digest acylated proteins. <4> It is activated by a drug, bertezomil, in therapy for multiple myeloma.
Output: chemistry
Question: Which of the following layers must pass through the sperm to reach the egg during fertilization? 
 Options:  <0> Endometrial zone <1> Pellucid zone. <2> Striated area. <3> Sticky zone <4> Myometrial zone.
Output: pharmacology
Question: The floor of the amniotic cavity is: 
 Options:  <0> Trophoblast. <1> Hypoblast. <2> Epiblast <3> Endometrium <4> Myometrium
Output: biology
Question: The enzymes present inside the virion of the poxviruses are necessary for the replication of their genetic material because: 
 Options:  <0> Its genome is single-stranded DNA (-). <1> Its genome is single-stranded RNA (-). <2> They replicate in the cell cytoplasm. <3> It contains a very high percentage of unusual nitrogenous bases such as inosine. <4> At the beginning of the infection, a blockage of the transcriptional system of the host cell occurs.
Output: biology
Question: Mr. G. A., caregiver of his wife who suffers from Alzheimer's Disease, consults his nurse because it has started with disruptive behaviors, shouting and wandering. Point out the correct answer regarding this type of behavior: 
 Options:  <0> They are unavoidable and unpredictable. <1> They depend solely on anatomical alterations. <2> Always try to make the patient reason about their failures. <3> They can be a way of expressing insecurity or frustration on the part of the patient. <4> Pharmacological treatment is the first option to reassure the patient.
Output: nursery
Question: Creatine phosphate: 
 Options:  <0> It is a low-energy hydrolysis compound. <1> It is a compound of energy storage in the kidney. <2> It is formed from ornithine. <3> It is a compound of energy storage in the muscle. <4> It is formed from tyrosine.
Output: biology
Question: A woman attended a consultation with bruises, mucosal hemorrhages, marked thrombocytopenia (20,000 / mm3), with a normal coagulation study, no history of drug ingestion, and an increase in megakaryocytes in bone marrow without morphological abnormalities. What is the diagnostic suspicion? 
 Options:  <0> Primary immune thrombocytopenia. <1> Acute leukemia. <2> Hemophilia. <3> Trombasthenia of Glanzmann. <4> Purple of Schönlein-Henoch.
Output: pharmacology
Question: The calcofluor white stain allows observing: 
 Options:  <0> Spirochetes <1> Bacterial endospores. <2> Bacterial flagella. <3> Hyphae of filamentous fungi. <4> Metachromatic corpuscles.
Output: pharmacology
Question: One of the characteristics of the primary delirium experience is: 
 Options:  <0> Its greater modifiability, compared with the secondary one. <1> The primary obsessive concern of the patient to control reality. <2> That does not have its origin in a previous anomalous experience. <3> That is not maintained with intense conviction. <4> Which is plausible
Output: psychology
Question: How many pairs of spinal nerves are connected to the spinal cord? 
 Options:  <0> Twenty eight. <1> Twenty nine. <2> Thirty one. <3> Thirty-three. <4> Thirty-five.
Output: nursery
Question: The great diversity of immunoglobulins is mainly due to the recombination of: 
 Options:  <0> Epitopes. <1> Light chains <2> Heavy chains <3> Exons <4> Introns
Output: chemistry
Question: The clinical sensitivity of an analytical parameter (test) is defined as: 
 Options:  <0> The mean concentrations of this test in healthy patients. <1> A pathological concentration of the test in the presence of the disease. <2> A pathological concentration of the test in the absence of the disease. <3> A normal concentration of the test in the absence of the disease. <4> A normal concentration of the test in the presence of the disease.
Output: chemistry
Question: What consequence of RNA bases will be produced when the AGGCCTTTACGC DNA fragment is transcribed ?: 
 Options:  <0> TCCGGAAATGCG. <1> AGGCCUUUACGC. <2> UGGCCUUUUGCG <3> UGGCCUUUUCGC. <4> UCCGGAAAUGCG.
Output: pharmacology
Question: From Piaget's epistemology, individuals are able to construct new schemes because they have inherited two intellectual functions that are: 
 Options:  <0> Reinforcement and punishment. <1> Organization and adaptation. <2> Assimilation and accommodation. <3> Self-regulation and assimilation. <4> Primary and secondary circular reaction.
Output: psychology