niryuu/sni-each-converted huggingface dataset:
Question: Indicate which drug, of which they are related, produces mydriasis and cycloplegia: 
 Options:  <1> Bethanechol <2> Timolol <3> Tropicamide <4> Edrophonium. <5> Pralidoxime
Output: 3
Question: One of the following effects is characteristic of morphine consumption: 
 Options:  <1> Mydriasis. <2> Eye flushed. <3> Excessive tearing. <4> Miosis <5> Increased intraocular pressure.
Output: 4
Question: One of the following statements is false in relation to the pharmacological effects of growth hormone: 
 Options:  <1> Acts directly on adipocytes to increase lipogenesis. <2> Stimulates the longitudinal growth of the bones. <3> It has anti-insulin actions in the liver. <4> Increase muscle mass <5> Many effects of growth hormone are due to insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1).
Output: 1
Question: Iron deficiency anemia is treated with oral or parenteral preparations: 
 Options:  <1> Only ferrous salts should be used orally. <2> Only ferric salts should be used orally. <3> Orally, the most appropriate form is the iron-dextran complex. <4> Orally, the treatment should last a maximum of fifteen days. <5> Only ferrous salts should be used parenterally.
Output: 1
Question: Acetylsalicylic acid is a compound whose pKa is 3.5. What percentage of a dose of this product can be absorbed in the stomach fasting (pH 1.5)? 
 Options:  <1> Less than 10% <2> Between 10% and 20%. <3> More than 90% <4> Between 20% and 40%. <5> 50%
Output: 3
Question: Beta-adrenergic receptor blocking drugs: 
 Options:  <1> They cause hypotension in individuals with normal blood pressure. <2> They increase the atrio-ventricular conduction velocity. <3> They cause negative inotropism. <4> They provoke a positive chronotropic effect. <5> They increase the secretion of renin.
Output: 3
Question: The access of drugs to the central Nervous System is conditioned by the existence of the blood-brain barrier (BHE) barrier: 
 Options:  <1> Increases its permeability in case of inflammation. <2> It is homogeneous throughout the encephalon. <3> It is traversed freely by fat-soluble drugs. <4> It is maximum in the chemoreceptor area of ​​the trigger. <5> Decreases its permeability in case of inflammation.
Output: 1
Question: Woman, 63 years old, in treatment for bone cancer. He has intense pains so he uses morphine daily. Faced with complaints of constipation, it is proposed as a laxative of choice: 
 Options:  <1> Methylcellulose <2> Glycerin. <3> Loperamide. <4> Methylnaltrexone <5> Racecadotril.
Output: 4
Question: In relation to clopidogrel, it is false that: 
 Options:  <1> It is structurally related to thienopyridines. <2> It inhibits adenyl cyclase, and therefore increases cAMP levels. <3> It has a low index of myelotoxicity in relation to ticlopidine. <4> It has a longer action in relation to ticlopidine. <5> In case of surgical intervention, it is recommended to interrupt the treatment at least one week in advance.
Output: 2
Question: Of the indicated indications, which of them is authorized for the ACEI? 
 Options:  <1> Angioedema <2> Pulmonary hypertension in neonates. <3> Diabetic nephropathy <4> Benign prostatic hyperplasia. <5> Narrow angle glaucoma.
Output: 3
Question: In patients with digitalized congestive heart failure, when administering a diuretic, it must necessarily be: 
 Options:  <1> A loop diuretic or high ceiling. <2> A thiazide. <3> An osmotic diuretic. <4> A potassium-sparing diuretic. <5> A diuretic carbonic anhydrase inhibitor.
Output: 4
Question: The sedation and drowsiness that mirtazapine produces are directly related to its interaction with the receptors: 
 Options:  <1> 5-HT1. <2> Adrenergic 1 and 2. <3> Histaminergic H1. <4> GABA <5> Muscarinic cholinergic
Output: 3
Question: With regard to the alkaloids derived from ergoline: 
 Options:  <1> They can be obtained by fermentation of pure Claviceps purpurea cultures and derived from phenylalanine and isoprene obtained by the mevalonic acid route (MVA). <2> They can be obtained by fermentation of pure cultures of Claviceps purpurea and derived from tyrosine and isoprene obtained by the DOXP route. <3> They can be obtained by fermentation of pure cultures of Claviceps purpurea and derived from tryptophan and isoprene obtained by the route of mevalonic acid (MVA). <4> They can be obtained by rye infection with Claviceps purpurea spores and derived from tryptophan and isoprene obtained by the DOXP route. <5> They can be obtained by wheat infection with Claviceps purpurea spores and derived from tyrosine and isoprene obtained by the mevalonic acid (MVA) route.
Output: 3
Question: Vinblastine and vincristine are: 
 Options:  <1> Indolemonoterpenic alkaloids, dimeric with antiarrhythmic activity. <2> Alkaloids derived from phenylalanine, monomeric with arrhythmic activity. <3> Indolemonoterpenic alkaloids, dimeric with antitumor activity. <4> Indolemonoterpenic, monomeric alkaloids with antitumor activity. <5> Alkaloids derived from phenylalanine, dimeric and with antitumor activity.
Output: 3
Question: An important factor to be taken into account in drugs with a high degree of binding to plasma albumin is the concentration of this protein. Indicate which of the following assumptions the concentration of plasma albumin is reduced: 
 Options:  <1> Hypothyroidism <2> Neurosis. <3> Psychosis. <4> Multiple myeloma. <5> Schizophrenia.
Output: 4
Question: The third generation cephalosporins: 
 Options:  <1> Your representative is cefepima. <2> They should be avoided in Enterobacter infections. <3> They are not useful in meningitis secondary to pneumococcus. <4> They are of choice in meningitis due to Listeria. <5> They should never be associated with an aminoglycoside.
Output: 2
Question: The formation of the complex called Aminophylline improves the solubility of one of the following drugs: 
 Options:  <1> Theophylline <2> Digoxin <3> Ampicillin <4> Thioridazine. <5> Ciclosporin
Output: 1
Question: In the monocompartmental model, the shock dose for a drug that follows linear kinetics is administered in multiple doses orally and absorbed extraordinarily quickly; It can be calculated as: 
 Options:  <1> The ratio between the maintenance dose and the dosage interval. <2> The product of the maintenance dose by the rate constant of absorption. <3> The quotient between the dosing interval and the absorption rate constant. <4> The product of the maintenance dose by the accumulation factor. <5> The product of the dosing rate by the absorption rate constant.
Output: 4
Question: For bi-component drugs it is true that: 
 Options:  <1> The apparent volume of the distribution decreases with time from a maximum value to a value that becomes constant. <2> The apparent volume of distribution as a function of the area is greater than the apparent volume of distribution in the steady state of equilibrium. <3> The apparent volume of distribution is constant over time. <4> The so-called initial distribution volume is greater than the apparent volume of distribution in phase . <5> The apparent volume of distribution calculated by extrapolation is less than the apparent volume of distribution in the steady state equilibrium.
Output: 2
Question: It has been proved that the dissolution speed of the solvate that is formed when the griseofulvin and the chloroform are associated, is: 
 Options:  <1> Less than the unsolvated form of the drug. <2> Limiting step of the disintegration of the tablets in which the drug is formulated. <3> Greater than the unsolvated form of the drug. <4> Limiting factor of the distribution of the drug to the aqueous sectors of the organism. <5> Same as the unsolvated form of the drug.
Output: 3
Question: Indicate the correct units of a zero order rate constant: 
 Options:  <1> mg-1. <2> h-1. <3> mg / h. <4> g X h / mL. <5> mL / h.
Output: 3
Question: The following hepatic biotransformation reactions of drugs are type II, except for: 
 Options:  <1> Glucuronidation. <2> Desamination <3> Methylation <4> Conjugation with glycine. <5> Acetylation
Output: 2
Question: Which of the following statements about the steady-state infusion of a drug is true? 
 Options:  <1> The concentration reached in steady state of equilibrium depends exclusively on the clearance. <2> The time necessary to reach the steady state of equilibrium depends on the volume of distribution. <3> The concentration reached in a steady state depends exclusively on the elimination half-life. <4> The concentration achieved in the steady state equilibrium depends on the clearance and the infusion rate. <5> The time required to reach the steady state of equilibrium depends on the clearance.
Output: 4
Question: To estimate the plasma clearance of a drug (CLIR) that presents a linear kinetic behavior and is excreted significantly in the urine, in a patient with renal failure (RI), it is necessary to know: 
 Options:  <1> Clearance of creatinine in the uremic patient (CLcrIR) and in individuals with normal renal function (CLcrFRN). <2> The renal clearance of the drug in patients with normal renal function (CLrFRN), CLcrIR and CLcrFRN. <3> The fraction of drug excreted in unaltered form in the urine (fr), the dose administered (D), CLrFRN, CLcrIR and CLcrFRN. <4> fr, CLcrIR and CLcrFRN and the plasma clearance of the drug in patients with normal renal function <5> fr, CLrFRN, CLcrIR, CLcrFRN and D.
Output: 4
Question: What would be the coefficient of hepatic extraction of a drug and its hepatic clearance if it is known that in a situation of equilibrium the concentration in arterial blood, from the entrance to the liver is 8 g / mL and that of venous blood, from discharge to the same organ, is 4 g / mL? Consider a hepatic flow of 90 L / h: 
 Options:  <1> 4.0 and 360 L / h. <2> 0.5 and 45 L / h. <3> 1.0 and 90 L / h. <4> 0.25 and 20 L / h. <5> 2.0 and 180 L / h.
Output: 2
Question: Grapefruit juice is: 
 Options:  <1> A potent enzyme inducer of cytochrome P450 (CYP3A4). <2> A potent enzyme inhibitor of cytochrome P450 (CYP3A4). <3> A promoter of the absorption of drugs administered orally. <4> An advisable food to increase the bioavailability of drugs of acidic nature. <5> A food without consequence in the kinetics of disposal of drugs eliminated by metabolism in which cytochrome P450 is involved.
Output: 2
Question: The hepatic clearance of a drug, mainly eliminated by metabolism, which has a high degree of hepatic extraction and a high binding to plasma proteins: 
 Options:  <1> It is significantly influenced by the hepatic blood flow. <2> It is significantly influenced by changes in the degree of plasma protein binding. <3> It is significantly influenced both by hepatic blood flow and by changes in the degree of plasma protein binding. <4> It will not be influenced by the hepatic blood flow or by changes in the degree of binding to plasma proteins. <5> It will depend on the absolute bioavailability of the drug.
Output: 1
Question: Indicate which of the following compounds is a fibrous protein: 
 Options:  <1> Chymotrypsin <2> Cytochrome c. <3> Alpha-keratin <4> Lysozyme <5> Ribonuclease.
Output: 3
Question: Thiamine pyrophosphate (PPT) is not coenzyme of: 
 Options:  <1> Pyruvate dehydrogenase (synthesis of acetyl CoA). <2> Alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase (citric acid cycle). <3> Transketolase (pentose phosphate pathway). <4> Transaldolase (pentose phosphate route). <5> Pyruvate decarboxylase (ethanolic fermentation).
Output: 4
Question: Relating components of human milk and immune system, it is FALSE that: 
 Options:  <1> Lactoferrin protects against infections due to its ability to bind iron. <2> The casein peptides have antimicrobial and immunostimulant activity. <3> Cytokines modulate the immune system in childhood. <4> Complex oligosaccharides can be false receptors for bacteria in the intestine. <5> Lysozyme degrades the cell walls of gram-negative organisms.
Output: 5
Question: Which enzyme uses FAD as a coenzyme? 
 Options:  <1> Isocitrate dehydrogenase. <2> Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase. <3> Succinate dehydrogenase. <4> Malate dehydrogenase. <5> Lactate dehydrogenase.
Output: 3
Question: In relation to the consumption of dietary fiber, it is true that: 
 Options:  <1> It must be balanced (25% soluble and 75% insoluble, approximately). <2> The higher the consumption of fiber, the lower the water intake. <3> The products made with refined seeds have a high fiber content. <4> Legumes are a poor source of fiber. <5> In the adult, 10-15 g of fiber are recommended daily.
Output: 1
Question: It is a heteropolysaccharide: 
 Options:  <1> Hyaluronan <2> Cellulose. <3> Chitin <4> Dextran <5> Glycogen
Output: 1
Question: The interaction between the urea cycle and the citric acid cycle is carried out at the level of: 
 Options:  <1> Uric acid. <2> Succinate <3> Ammonia. <4> Urea. <5> Fumarate
Output: 5
Question: Inhibitors of hydroxymethyl-glutaryl-CoA reductase (HMG-CoA reductase), such as statins: 
 Options:  <1> They increase intracellular cholesterol synthesis. <2> They cause a decrease in the number of LDL receptors present on the surface of hepatocytes. <3> They decrease the intracellular synthesis of triacylglycerides. <4> They diminish intracellular cholesterol synthesis and induce the expression of LDL receptors. <5> They increase the synthesis of steroid hormones.
Output: 4
Question: Pyruvate dehydrogenase (PDH): 
 Options:  <1> It catalyzes the reversible transformation of pyruvate into acetyl-CoA and vice versa. <2> It catalyzes the irreversible carboxylation of pyruvate into citrate, and with it, its entry into the citric acid cycle. <3> It connects the degradation of carbohydrates, with the synthesis of acetyl-CoA and its entry into the citric acid cycle. <4> It allows the use of acetyl-CoA derived from the degradation of fatty acids for the synthesis of glucose. <5> It is activated in the presence of high concentrations of acetyl-CoA and NADH + H +.
Output: 3
Question: Aspirin is an inhibitor of the synthesis of: 
 Options:  <1> Sterols <2> Prostaglandins <3> Phosphoacylglycerides. <4> Arachidonic acid. <5> Glycerophospholipids.
Output: 2
Question: In response to an increase in the concentration of adrenaline and circulating glucagon: 
 Options:  <1> It activates the phosphorylation of glycogen phosphorylase and the degradation of glycogen. <2> It increases the intracellular concentration of cAMP, and therefore, the synthesis of glycogen. <3> It decreases the intracellular concentration of cAMP and the degradation of glycogen. <4> The phosphorylation of glycogen synthase and glycogen synthesis is activated. <5> Increases the intracellular concentration of ATP and glycogenesis.
Output: 1
Question: Which of the following metabolites is a gluconeogenic substrate: 
 Options:  <1> Ethanol. <2> Oleic acid. <3> Acetyl-CoA. <4> NADPH + H +. <5> Glycerol.
Output: 5
Question: A carnitine deficiency is associated with: 
 Options:  <1> The inhibition of the mitochondrial respiratory chain. <2> The inhibition of protein catabolism. <3> An increase in renal protein catabolism. <4> A failure in the entry of muscle fatty acids into the mitochondria for oxidation. <5> A decrease in hepatic lipogenesis.
Output: 4
Question: The binding of O2 to hemoglobin: 
 Options:  <1> Follow a hyperbolic kinetics. <2> It favors the transition from Fe2 + to Fe3 + in the heme group of the protein. <3> Induces the deprotonation of the protein. <4> It is facilitated in the presence of 2,3bisphosphoglycerate. <5> It is carried out through a covalent interaction with Fe3 +.
Output: 3
Question: The toxic effect of antimycin and cyanide is due to its interaction with: 
 Options:  <1> The systems of transport of fatty acids into the mitochondria. <2> The cytochromes of the mitochondrial electronic transport chain. <3> The enzymes of glycolysis. <4> The dehydrogenase enzymes of the citric acid cycle. <5> The enzymes that catalyze the replication of DNA.
Output: 2
Question: A coenzyme is: 
 Options:  <1> A molecule of an organic nature, necessary for the activity of an enzyme. <2> The inorganic part of an enzyme. <3> A molecule of a protein nature, necessary for the activity of an enzyme. <4> Any molecule of a non-vitamin nature that contributes to increase the activity of an enzyme. <5> An allosteric effect that modifies the spatial configuration of enzymes.
Output: 1
Question: To analyze the binding sites of proteins to DNA, the technique of: 
 Options:  <1> Western blot. <2> Immunoprecipitation of chromatin. <3> Matrix-assisted laser desorption (MALDI). <4> Fingerprint. <5> Denaturing gel electrophoresis.
Output: 2
Question: The sequencing of an oligosaccharide is done by: 
 Options:  <1> Degradation Edman. <2> Chromatography Whatman. <3> Patch-Clamp. <4> Mass spectrometry. <5> Capillary electrophoresis.
Output: 4
Question: What would happen if the DNA carried OH in carbon 2 'of the pentose? 
 Options:  <1> That instead of thymine should carry uracil. <2> That would be more sensitive to hydrolysis. <3> That instead of in the nucleus it would be in the cytoplasm. <4> That it could not form double helices. <5> That would give a higher absorbance value at 260 mm.
Output: 2
Question: What is the PCNA or nuclear cell proliferation antigen? 
 Options:  <1> It is a protein that prevents the double helix from forming in the replication bubble. <2> It is a protein that increases the ability to replicate long fragments of eukaryotic DNA polymerase. <3> It is the protein responsible for the elimination of positive superhelices. <4> It is the typical conformation of the DNA double helix in eukaryotes. <5> It is the enzyme responsible for copying the DNA of the telomeres.
Output: 2
Question: Which of the following situations would noticeably decrease the transcription of a gene? 
 Options:  <1> The presence of a repressor and an inducing molecule. <2> The binding of RNA polymerase to DNA. <3> The presence of a repressor and a correpressor molecule. <4> The presence of an activator and its signal molecule. <5> The presence of a mutated repressor that could not bind to DNA.
Output: 3
Question: How is the correction of an erroneous amino acid incorporated in the process of translation in the ribosome carried out? 
 Options:  <1> There is no possibility of elimination of an amino acid in the synthesis of proteins. <2> Through the aminoacyl peptidase activity of the ribosome. <3> A dipeptidase removes the wrong amino acid, before proceeding with the synthesis. <4> Thanks to the fact that amino acids are energy-rich molecules. <5> There is a post-translational sequence review system.
Output: 1
Question: The acetylation of the stories affects the transcription: 
 Options:  <1> Blocking the incorporation of other components of the transcription machinery. <2> Preventing the remodeling of chromatin. <3> Facilitating the action of helicases. <4> Decreasing the sensitivity of nuclear receptors. <5> Reducing the affinity of histones for DNA.
Output: 5
Question: The antibiotic tetracycline: 
 Options:  <1> It binds to the 30S subunit and inhibits the binding of aminoacyl-tRNA. <2> Inhibits the peptidyltransferase activity of the 50S ribosomal subunit. <3> It binds to the 50S ribosomal subunit and inhibits translocation. <4> It inhibits the initiation and originates an erroneous reading of the mRNA. <5> It causes premature termination by acting as an analog of the aminoacyl-tRNA.
Output: 1
Question: The 2-microglobulin: 
 Options:  <1> It is a low molecular weight immunoglobulin. <2> It is found in high concentration in platelets. <3> It filters freely through the glomerulus and is secreted by the tubule. <4> It is absent in urine. <5> It is found on the surface of all nucleated cells.
Output: 5
Question: The diagnostic sensitivity of an analytical magnitude for a certain disease is: 
 Options:  <1> 1 / specificity. <2> It depends on the prevalence of the disease. <3> It is the number of patients that give positive results among all possible individuals. <4> It is the quotient between the number of patients who give positive results for this magnitude and the total number of patients considered. <5> It is deducted directly from the minimum detectable value of this magnitude.
Output: 4
Question: In a plasma protein electrophoresis pattern, in what region will haptoglobin migrate? 
 Options:  <1> In the region 1. <2> In the region . <3> In the region 2. <4> In the region 1 2. <5> In no position that it is not a protein.
Output: 3
Question: Hemolysis in a serum sample interferes with the determination of the enzyme lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) due to: 
 Options:  <1> The release of adenylate cyclase (catalyst enzyme of the reaction). <2> The interference produced by hemoglobin. <3> The high concentration of said enzyme in the cytoplasm of erythrocytes. <4> Hemolysis does not interfere in the determination of LDH. <5> The amount of lactate that is produced.
Output: 3
Question: A dyslipidemia with phenotype IIa of Fredrickson may have its origin in mutations in the gene of: 
 Options:  <1> The LDL receptor. <2> Lipoprotein lipase (LPL). <3> The Apo CII. <4> The Apo A-II. <5> The Apo B-48.
Output: 1
Question: Jaundice (yellowing of the skin and mucous membranes due to increased levels of bilirubin) may be of cholestatic origin (pathway obstruction) or hepatocellular damage. Indicate the correct answer: 
 Options:  <1> In cholestatic jaundice we observed: persistent alanine aminotransferase (ALT) increase without elevation of gamma glutamyltransferase (GGT). <2> In hepatocellular jaundice there is a slight increase in GGT (<5 times the upper limit of reference) and a large increase in ALT (> 10 times the upper limit of reference). <3> In cholestatic jaundice, a decrease in direct bilirubin and prothrombin time is observed. <4> In hepatocellular jaundice, a decrease in alkaline phosphatase and activated partial thromboplastin time is observed. <5> In both jaundices we can observe a clear decrease in aspartate aminotransferase (AST).
Output: 2
Question: The determination of fecal occult blood is useful when there is a suspicion of: 
 Options:  <1> Anemia due to iron deficiency. <2> Biliary cholestasis. <3> Helicobacter pylori infection. <4> Colon carcinoma <5> Celiac Disease.
Output: 4
Question: A 58-year-old patient diagnosed with chronic myeloid leukemia. The most indicated treatment would be: 
 Options:  <1> Interferon. <2> Hydroxyurea <3> Imatinib. <4> Rituximab <5> Busulfan.
Output: 3
Question: When in a laboratory report we observed that the patient presents an increase in the concentration of transferrin with a decrease in its saturation, we can think of: 
 Options:  <1> Pernicious anemia. <2> Sickle-cell anaemia. <3> Thalassemia major. <4> Hereditary spherocytosis. <5> Anemia due to iron deficiency.
Output: 5
Question: Base peak in a mass spectrum is called a: 
 Options:  <1> The largest or most intense peak. <2> The heaviest pair peak. <3> The lightest isotopic peak. <4> The peak that corresponds to its nominal mass. <5> The odd peak heavier.
Output: 1
Question: In ion exchange chromatography, the carboxylic acid functional group is used as: 
 Options:  <1> As a strong anion exchanger in ion exchange resins. <2> As a strong cation exchanger in ion exchange resins. <3> As a weak anion exchanger in ion exchange resins. <4> As a weak cation exchanger in ion exchange resins. <5> It is never used in ion exchange.
Output: 4
Question: In a flight time analyzer in mass spectrometry: 
 Options:  <1> Ions with low m / z or lighter values ​​arrive more quickly at the detector. <2> Ions with high m / z or heavier values ​​arrive more quickly at the detector. <3> The ions do not reach the detector. <4> Ions with odd m / z ratio arrive more quickly at the detector. <5> The analysis time that is usually required is seconds.
Output: 1
Question: The alkaline error in the glass electrode is due to 
 Options:  <1> The membrane responds to other anions besides the hydroxyl ion. <2> The membrane responds to other anions besides the hydrogen ion. <3> The membrane responds to other cations in addition to the hydrogen ion. <4> That the pH is higher than it really is. <5> This error is not described for the glass electrode.
Output: 3
Question: In capillary electrophoresis, in relation to the electroosmotic flow, it can be stated that: 
 Options:  <1> The flow profile is parabolic. <2> The flow profile is practically flat and / or uniform. <3> You can not know its form and direction. <4> The profile of the flow is always inverted. <5> The profile of the flow is never reversed.
Output: 2
Question: HPLC (High Efficiency Liquid Chromatography) uses packings with a range of size or particle diameter typical of: 
 Options:  <1> 3-10 Armstrong. <2> 3-10 Nanometers. <3> 3-10 Millimeters. <4> 3-10 Micrometers. <5> 3-10 Centimeters
Output: 4
Question: The calibration curves used in chemical analysis: 
 Options:  <1> They represent the response of an analytical method to unknown concentrations of analyte. <2> They use standard samples that contain the solvent used in the analytical method, but without analyte. <3> They use a standard solution that allows knowing the response of the analytical method to the interfering species that exist in the reagents. <4> They are constructed by preparing samples of known analyte concentration (standards) and determining the response of the analytical procedure to these standards. <5> They are constructed using samples of unknown analyte concentration and measuring the response of the analytical procedure to them.
Output: 4
Question: The determined (or systematic) errors that can be committed in an analytical method: 
 Options:  <1> They cause the data to spread more or less symmetrically with respect to a mean value. <2> They have a definite value and an assignable cause, giving rise to a bias in the results of a series of measures. <3> They come reflected in the precision of a measurement. <4> They are never attributable to instrumental measuring devices. <5> They result in outliers, which differ greatly from the others in a set of duplicate measures data.
Output: 2
Question: What does the amperometric detector measure in high performance liquid chromatography (HPLC)? 
 Options:  <1> Potential difference. <2> Electric conductivity. <3> Thermal conductivity. <4> Electric resistance. <5> Intensity of electric current.
Output: 5
Question: The deviation of Beer's law by the use of non-monochromatic radiation can lead to deviations from linearity when representing absorbance versus concentration due to: 
 Options:  <1> Different molar absorptivities of the absorbent species. <2> Very similar molar absorptivities of the radiations of the polychromatic beam. <3> That the radiant power of the incident beam is modified. <4> That the use of a polychromatic beam always implies significant differences with respect to a monochromatic one. <5> That the relation of incident and transmitted powers is different.
Output: 1
Question: Which of the following chemical equilibria is heterogeneous? 
 Options:  <1> Acid-base balance. <2> Balance of complex formation. <3> Precipitation balance <4> Oxidation-reduction balance. <5> All those balances that take place in a single phase, usually liquid.
Output: 3
Question: Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) is a chelating agent widely used as a titrator in complexometric assessments that are characterized by: 
 Options:  <1> To make possible the EDTA titration of many metals in alkaline solutions an auxiliary complexing agent is used which prevents the metal ion from precipitating as hydroxide. <2> EDTA forms complexes of 1: 2 stoichiometry with some metal ions and therefore has a poor application in quantitative analysis. <3> It is important to choose an adequate pH to carry out the titration because metal-EDTA complexes are more stable at low pH than at high pH. <4> When evaluating a metal ion with EDTA, there is an excess of EDTA at the equivalence point. <5> When evaluating a metal ion with EDTA, there is an excess of metallic ion at the equivalence point.
Output: 1
Question: Starch is a specific indicator used to indicate the endpoint in redox titrations with: 
 Options:  <1> Cerium. <2> Iodo. <3> Bromine. <4> Permanganate. <5> Dichromate
Output: 2
Question: In consecutive reactions of first order, the global kinetic constant: 
 Options:  <1> Presents units of concentration-1 time-1. <2> Presents units of time-1. <3> Equivalent to the ratio of the kinetic constants of each stage. <4> Corresponds to the sum of the kinetic constants of each stage. <5> Equivalent to the product of the kinetic constants of each stage.
Output: 2
Question: An ideal diluted solution is characterized by: 
 Options:  <1> All components comply with Raoult's law. <2> Only the solute complies with Raoult's law. <3> The solvent complies with Henry's law. <4> All components comply with Henry's law. <5> Only the solute complies with Henry's law.
Output: 1
Question: The triple point of a phase diagram of a component: 
 Options:  <1> Presents 3 degrees of freedom, according to the rule of the phases. <2> Presents 1 degree of freedom, according to the rule of the phases. <3> It is characterized because the liquid and gas phases are indistinguishable. <4> It is characterized because there are three phases in equilibrium. <5> It is characterized because there are four phases in equilibrium.
Output: 4
Question: The entropy of a system: 
 Options:  <1> It is a state function. <2> It is an intensive variable. <3> Indicates the spontaneity of any process. <4> It is defined in the First Principle of Thermodynamics. <5> It varies according to the route traveled between the initial and final conditions.
Output: 1
Question: The difference in solute concentration inside and outside the cell gives rise to an osmotic pressure: 
 Options:  <1> Whose measurement allows to determine molar masses of small molecules. <2> Due to the passage of solute through the cell membrane. <3> That corresponds to the pressure that must be applied to interrupt the passage of solvent through the membrane. <4> That causes a difference of chemical potential of the solvent on both sides of the membrane. <5> Whose effect is minimal and complicated to measure.
Output: 3
Question: According to the Arrhenius equation (k = A e-Ea / RT): 
 Options:  <1> The speed of a reaction is directly proportional to the temperature. <2> A high activation energy implies that the speed constant depends markedly on the temperature. <3> The pre-exponential factor or frequency factor (A) is dimensionless. <4> The activation energy depends on the temperature. <5> The activation energy is always negative.
Output: 2
Question: The molecularity of an elementary reaction corresponds: 
 Options:  <1> At the initial concentration of reagent. <2> To the number of molecules that are found to react. <3> To the number of collisions of the reactants per unit of time. <4> At the final concentration of the product. <5> To the reaction between the reaction rate and the reagent concentration.
Output: 2
Question: He has been considered the father of modern Toxicology for his clinical, pathological and forensic contributions to this science: 
 Options:  <1> Paracelsus <2> Claudio Bernard. <3> Richard Alzheimer. <4> Mateo Orfila. <5> Hippocrates
Output: 4
Question: The FAB (antibody fragments that bind antigens) are used as antidotes to poisoning by: 
 Options:  <1> Digoxin <2> Barbiturates <3> Derived amphetamines. <4> Salicylates. <5> Antihistamines
Output: 1
Question: One of the following compounds produces liver damage as the main toxic effect: 
 Options:  <1> Diethylene glycol. <2> Methanol <3> Acetone. <4> Benzene. <5> Carbon tetrachloride.
Output: 5
Question: Naloxone is used in the treatment of poisoning with: 
 Options:  <1> Opiates <2> Benzodiazepines. <3> Barbiturates <4> Tricyclic antidepressants. <5> Digitálicos.
Output: 1
Question: The paraquat herbicide produces mainly: 
 Options:  <1> Lung damage <2> Hematological abnormalities. <3> Neurotoxicity <4> Ocular toxicity. <5> Ototoxicity
Output: 1
Question: When performing the Ames test, what result would reveal that the compound is a mutagen? 
 Options:  <1> Abnormal division in mouse uterus cells. <2> Abnormal growth in mouse. <3> Proliferation of a hamster ovary cell culture. <4> Reversal in the growth characteristics of Salmonella. <5> No option is correct.
Output: 4
Question: The most reactive oxygen radical species and, therefore, most dangerous is: 
 Options:  <1> Superoxide anion <2> Hydrogen peroxide. <3> Ion superoxide <4> Radical hydroxyl. <5> It depends on the tissue.
Output: 4
Question: From among the following, indicate the most toxic substance according to the 50 lethal dose value: 
 Options:  <1> Strychnine. <2> Nicotine. <3> Morphine. <4> Botulinum toxin. <5> Curare.
Output: 4
Question: Cinnamaldehyde is an aldehyde present in: 
 Options:  <1> Camphor. <2> Vanilla. <3> Almond oil. <4> Jasmine oil <5> Cinnamon.
Output: 5
Question: The reaction of ketones and aldehydes by the presence of their carbonyl group preferably gives: 
 Options:  <1> Nucleophilic substitution reactions. <2> Oxidation reactions to alcohols. <3> Nucleophilic addition reactions. <4> Reduction reactions to carboxylic acids. <5> They are not reactive towards nucleophiles.
Output: 3
Question: The reaction of benzene with tertbutyl chloride, in the presence of aluminum trichloride, is an example of: 
 Options:  <1> Nucleophilic aromatic substitution reaction. <2> Electrophilic aromatic substitution. <3> Addition of halogens. <4> Acid catalyzed hydrolysis. <5> Obtaining alkyl halides.
Output: 2
Question: Acid chlorides can be transformed into carboxylic acids: 
 Options:  <1> Through a hydrolysis catalyzed by an acid or a base. <2> Through a reduction reaction with lithium aluminum hydride. <3> Through a reduction reaction with sodium borohydride. <4> Through a reduction reaction with diborane. <5> It is not possible due to the lack of reactivity that characterizes acyl halides.
Output: 1
Question: The organometallic compounds are derivatives: 
 Options:  <1> With a radical nature. <2> With covalent bonds between carbon atoms and metal atoms. <3> With electronic deficit and electrophilic character. <4> Practically not reactive. <5> With essentially reducing character.
Output: 2
Question: An amine, due to the pair of non-bonding electrons that nitrogen possesses: 
 Options:  <1> It can be considered as an electrophile. <2> It can be considered as a Lewis acid. <3> It can act as a nucleophilic reagent attack center. <4> It can be considered as a nucleophile. <5> It is an example of apolar product.
Output: 4
Question: Which of the following hydrides has the highest normal boiling point? 
 Options:  <1> SiH4. <2> CH4 <3> HCl. <4> PH3. <5> HF
Output: 5
Question: Which of the following atoms provides the strongest hydrogen bond in the corresponding hydrides? 
 Options:  <1> F. <2> Cl. <3> OR. <4> S. <5> P.
Output: 1
Question: Rhombic sulfur, the most stable form of sulfur, is made up of molecules of the following type: 
 Options:  <1> S 2. <2> S 8. <3> S 4. <4> S 6 <5> Sn (n = 10-14).
Output: 2
Question: Which of the following molecules has triangular plane geometry? 
 Options:  <1> BF3. <2> NH3. <3> AsH3. <4> XeO3. <5> ClF3.
Output: 1
Question: Which of the following molecules has a simple covalent bond? 
 Options:  <1> C2. <2> N 2 <3> O 2 <4> O 3. <5> F 2
Output: 5
Question: Which of the following molecules has the highest number of antibonding electrons? 
 Options:  <1> B2. <2> N 2 <3> Li2. <4> F 2 <5> O 2
Output: 4
Question: The covers of connective tissue that surround, protect and maintain the brain and spinal cord within the cranial cavity and the spinal canal are called meninges. Which of the following statements is correct? 
 Options:  <1> The meninges are not made up of connective tissue. <2> The pia mater adheres to the brain and spinal cord. <3> The arachnoid is the thickest and most external. <4> The dura adheres to the inner surface of the arachnoid. <5> The meninges only cover the brain.
Output: 2
Question: How is the pigmented and highly vascularized layer of the posterior wall of the eyeball called? 
 Options:  <1> Iris. <2> Choroid <3> Ciliary body. <4> Sclera <5> Retina.
Output: 2
Question: Which glands are located between the skin and the masseter muscle, in front and under the outer ear? 
 Options:  <1> Parotid glands <2> Submandibular glands <3> Sublingual glands <4> Mouth glands <5> Lieberkühn's glands.
Output: 1
Question: The tube of very small diameter and about 6 meters in length that runs along the posterolateral side of the testicle and connects with the vas deferens, is it called? 
 Options:  <1> Prostate. <2> Epididymis <3> Urethra. <4> Epéndimo. <5> Seminiferous tubule.
Output: 2
Question: Indicates which bone is the lesser trochanter: 
 Options:  <1> Fibula. <2> Tibia. <3> Humerus. <4> Femur. <5> Radio.
Output: 4
Question: Which of the following muscles is an example of abductor? 
 Options:  <1> Pectoral major. <2> Trapeze. <3> Dorsal width. <4> Anterior rectus of the abdomen. <5> Deltoid.
Output: 5
Question: We took a simple random sample of 1000 people, and for each one we checked whether or not he got the flu in 2012 and whether or not he got the flu in 2012. We obtained two responses for each of the 1000 people. To evaluate if there is an association between these two qualitative variables (having flu or not) and (having been vaccinated or not) from the data of our sample: 
 Options:  <1> We draw a quantile-quantile graph. <2> We perform a t test for the difference of means. <3> We calculate the Pearson correlation coefficient. <4> We make a contrast of the signs for the difference of medians. <5> We make a contingency table and an independence test.
Output: 5
Question: The square of Pearson's correlation coefficient is: 
 Options:  <1> The coefficient of variation. <2> The coefficient of determination. <3> The slope of the regression line. <4> The regression coefficient. <5> The covariance.
Output: 2
Question: The second quartile is the same as the: 
 Options:  <1> Arithmetic average. <2> Geometric mean. <3> Harmonic half <4> Fashion. <5> Median.
Output: 5
Question: Indicate the correct option regarding the quality of life of a patient who goes through three consecutive health conditions with utility values ​​of 0.45 the first, 0.68 the second and 0.95 the third: 
 Options:  <1> The best quality of life corresponds to the third state of health through which it passes. <2> The best quality of life corresponds to the first state of health through which it passes. <3> The quality of life depends on the time you are in each state of health. <4> The utility does not serve to assess the quality of life. <5> In all three states the quality of life is very bad because they are values ​​less than 1.
Output: 1
Question: Which of the following is NOT a complete economic evaluation? 
 Options:  <1> Cost minimization analysis. <2> Analysis of direct and indirect costs. <3> Cost-effectiveness analysis. <4> Cost-utility analysis. <5> Cost-benefit analysis.
Output: 2
Question: In accounting, which of the following elements should be included in the LIABILITIES of an estate? 
 Options:  <1> Credits in favor of third parties. <2> Quantities that customers owe. <3> Money in banks. <4> Money in credit institutions. <5> The store.
Output: 1
Question: The acronym ECM, in the labeling of medicines, has the meaning of: 
 Options:  <1> European Competency Medication [acronym in English]. <2> Marketing Container for Wholesalers. <3> Special Medical Control. <4> Mechanical Control Package. <5> Specialty of Massive Consumption.
Output: 3
Question: In general, and in accordance with the state legislation on pharmacy offices, the minimum population module for the opening of these establishments is: 
 Options:  <1> 2,500 inhabitants per establishment. <2> 1,000 inhabitants per establishment. <3> 1,500 inhabitants per establishment. <4> 2,000 inhabitants per establishment. <5> 2,800 inhabitants per establishment.
Output: 5
Question: The complementary drug protection certificate has a maximum duration of: 
 Options:  <1> Five years. <2> Seven years. <3> Ten years. <4> Fifteen years. <5> Twenty five years.
Output: 1
Question: What type of pathology corresponds to chronic granulomatous disease. 
 Options:  <1> Congenital agammaglobulinemia. <2> T cell deficit <3> Severe combined immunodeficiency. <4> Deficit in the microbicidal capacity of phagocytes. <5> Congenital neutropenia
Output: 4
Question: Type III hypersensitivity reactions are characterized by: 
 Options:  <1> The activation of mast cells. <2> The deposit of immunocomplexes. <3> The activation of macrophages. <4> Appearance of a neutrophil infiltrate. <5> Cytotoxicity reactions.
Output: 2
Question: Of the following pairs of surface molecules, what is used by the virgin T lymphocytes to extravasate to the lymph node? 
 Options:  <1> CCR7 and L-selectin. <2> VCAM and L-selectin. <3> CCR7 and ICAM-1. <4> CCR9 and L-selectin. <5> CCR4 and VCAM-1.
Output: 1
Question: The primary function of interleukin 2 (IL-2) is: 
 Options:  <1> Induce activation of macrophages. <2> Promote isotype changes in immunoglobulins produced by activated B cells. <3> Induce the synthesis of acute phase proteins by hepatocytes. <4> Promote the proliferation of T lymphocytes <5> Promote the proliferation of B lymphocytes
Output: 4
Question: What type of pathology corresponds to type I insulin-dependent diabetes? 
 Options:  <1> Congenital immunodeficiency. <2> Autoimmune disease. <3> IgE-mediated hypersensitivity. <4> Hypersensitivity due to immunocomplexes. <5> Immunoproliferative syndrome.
Output: 2
Question: The simultaneous expression of IgM and IgD as membrane immunoglobulins occurs in: 
 Options:  <1> B cells that respond to thymoindependent antigens. <2> B cells that respond to thymus-dependent antigens. <3> Activated B cells stimulated by Interleukin 4 (IL-4). <4> Immature virgin B cells. <5> Mature virgin B cells.
Output: 5
Question: Different cytokines induce the isotype change of the different classes of antibodies. Of the following cytokine / isotype pairs, choose the correct one: 
 Options:  <1> IL-4 / IgE. <2> IL-4 / IgM. <3> IL-5 / IgG. <4> IFN- / IgM. <5> TGF- / IgA.
Output: 1
Question: The Mantoux test (reaction to tuberculin) is: 
 Options:  <1> A delayed hypersensitivity reaction. <2> An immediate hypersensitivity reaction. <3> A hypersensitivity reaction by immunocomplexes. <4> A non-specific inflammation reaction. <5> A manifestation of autoimmunity.
Output: 1
Question: In the Th2-B cooperation process, what does the Th2 cell recognize on the surface of the B cell? 
 Options:  <1> The antigen bound to a surface immunoglobulin. <2> A fragment of antigen bound to the CD21 molecule. <3> Several cross-linked antigen fragments. <4> A fragment of antigen bound to a class II histocompatibility molecule. <5> A fragment of antigen bound to a class I histocompatibility molecule.
Output: 4
Question: In which of the drugs with antiviral activity does the purine base called guanine appear? 
 Options:  <1> Lamivudine <2> Zidovudine <3> Ribavirin <4> Acyclovir <5> Didanosine
Output: 4
Question: Streptococcus agalactiae, Escherichia coli and Listeria monocytogenes are the microorganisms most commonly found in meningitis in: 
 Options:  <1> Neonates <2> Immunocompromised. <3> Women. <4> Hospitalized patients. <5> Elderly.
Output: 1
Question: Indicate which of the following is an alteration of the pyrimidine metabolism: 
 Options:  <1> Thrombophilia <2> Phenylketonuria <3> Wilson's disease <4> Urine disease with the smell of maple syrup. <5> Orotic hereditary acidity.
Output: 5
Question: The control of the acid-peptic disease is mainly achieved with PPIs (proton pump inhibitors). The PPIs: 
 Options:  <1> They induce the maximum inhibition of gastric secretion after 3-5 days. <2> They are less effective than H-2 antagonists. <3> They are used as monotherapy to eradicate Helicobacter pylori. <4> They have a faster onset of action than H-2 antagonists. <5> They are not useful in the treatment of stress ulcers.
Output: 1
Question: Transcription factors: 
 Options:  <1> They bind to chromatin by interaction with histone H2A. <2> They bind to RNA and regulate the start of transcription. <3> They join the DNA. <4> They are organized into nucleosomes. <5> They regulate DNA methylation.
Output: 3
Question: As to the height of the plate (H) in a column chromatographic separation it can be said that: 
 Options:  <1> It is inversely proportional to the variance (standard deviation of the band). <2> It is directly proportional to the number of theoretical plates and inversely proportional to the length of the column. <3> It is directly proportional to the variance and inversely proportional to the distance traveled by the center of the band to the detector (L). <4> It is directly proportional to the variance and distance traveled by the center of the band to the detector (L). <5> It does not depend on the variance or the distance traveled by the center of the band.
Output: 3
Question: The humerocubital joint is an example of: 
 Options:  <1> Saddle joint. <2> Condylar articulation. <3> Pivot joint (trochoid). <4> Hinge joint (trochlea) <5> Artrodia.
Output: 4
Question: In Spain, the body in charge of determining the special conditions of prescription and dispensing of medicines in the National Health System (S.N.S.) is: 
 Options:  <1> The Spanish Agency of Medicines and Health Products. <2> The National Institute of Consumption. <3> The General Directorate of the Basic Portfolio of Services of the S.N.S. and Pharmacy. <4> The General Technical Secretariat. <5> The General Directorate of Public Health, Quality and Innovation.
Output: 3
Question: Of the following surface markers, one of them is expressed only in the virgin T lymphocytes, while the rest are also found in the population of activated T lymphocytes. Which? 
 Options:  <1> The adhesion molecule L-selectin. <2> The T lymphocyte receptor (TCR). <3> The integrin LFA-1. <4> The CD4 co-receptor molecule. <5> The integrin VLA-4.
Output: 1
Question: Question linked to image nº1 40-year-old man with no relevant background. For 4 weeks, refers to diarrheic stools, associated with jaundice of skin and mucous membranes, coluria, hypocholia and pain in right hypochondrium, accompanied by weight loss (10 kg approx) and intense itching. In the analytical highlights: Total bilirubin: 15.3 mg / dl. Alanine aminotransferase: 70 U / l Aspartate aminotransferase: 85 U / l. Serology for negative hepatitis and elevation of CA 19-9. Abdominal CT is performed. 3 axial sections are shown. In relation to the findings of the radiological test, which of the following statements is true? 
 Options:  <1> A tumoral mass is observed in the head of the pancreas that causes biliary and ductal dilatation compatible with adenocarcinoma. <2> Presence of diffuse thickening of the pancreas with arcuate Wirsung compatible with lymphoplasmacytic pancreatitis. <3> A tumoral mass is identified in a vesicular infundibulum compatible with vesicular adenocarcinoma. <4> Voluminous tumor lymphadenopathies are observed in the hepatic hilum that produce dilation of the bile duct. <5> Presence of multiple solid focal liver lesions compatible with diffuse liver metastases.
Output: 1
Question: Question linked to image # 1 In the previous patient, which of the following treatments is indicated? 
 Options:  <1> Biliary drainage through retrograde endoscopic and systemic chemotherapy. <2> Duodenopancretectomy cephalic with vascular resection. <3> Hepatic embolization with charged spheres of chemotherapy. <4> Bilirubic-hepatic bile drainage and systemic chemotherapy. <5> Treatment with corticoids.
Output: 2
Question: Question linked to image nº2 A 67-year-old woman with a history of poorly controlled hypertension, undergoing insulin treatment for diabetes mellitus and controlled by a hematology service for the study of myelodysplastic syndrome. Three weeks ago, a pustular lesion with necrotic borders began to grow, causing a large ulcer to appear with the appearance shown in the attached image. Intense pain. Which of the following diagnoses do you think is most likely? 
 Options:  <1> Specific cutaneous infiltration of its myeloproliferative process. <2> Necrobiois lipoidica. <3> Ulcer due to diabetic microangiopathy. <4> Pyoderma gangrenosum. <5> Hypertensive ulcer.
Output: 4
Question: Question linked to image nº2 The same type of pathology can occur in other contexts. Point out which of them is more likely: 
 Options:  <1> Hypothyroidism <2> Hyperthyroidism. <3> Ulcerative colitis <4> Scleroderma <5> Glucagonoma
Output: 3