niryuu/sni-each-converted huggingface dataset:
Question: The excitatory postsynaptic potentials: 
 Options:  <1> They are all or nothing. <2> They are hyperpolarizing. <3> They can be added. <4> They spread long distances. <5> They present a refractory period.
Output: 3
Question: Motor plate is the union between the motor neuron and the: 
 Options:  <1> Smooth muscle. <2> Skeletal muscle <3> Cardiac muscle <4> Muscle spindle <5> Tendon.
Output: 2
Question: DO NOT generate action potentials: 
 Options:  <1> Smooth muscle fibers. <2> Bipolar neurons of the retina. <3> Skeletal striated muscle fibers. <4> Cardiac muscle fibers. <5> Ganglion neurons of the retina.
Output: 2
Question: In the initiation of voluntary movements the first area that is activated is: 
 Options:  <1> Premotor cortex. <2> Primary motor cortex. <3> Brain stem <4> Cerebellum. <5> Basal ganglia
Output: 1
Question: The corpuscles of Pacini: 
 Options:  <1> They are innervated by unmyelinated fibers. <2> They are mechanoreceptors of slow adaptation. <3> They have small receptor fields. <4> They are located in deep areas of the dermis. <5> They are thermoreceptors.
Output: 4
Question: The color of the eyes depends on the pigment present in: 
 Options:  <1> Pupil. <2> Cornea. <3> Iris. <4> Choroid <5> Retina.
Output: 3
Question: In the layer closest to the pigment epithelium of the retina are the cells: 
 Options:  <1> Ganglionares <2> Cones and canes. <3> Amacrinas. <4> Bipolar <5> Horizontal
Output: 2
Question: The Purkinje cells of the cerebellum receive direct input from: 
 Options:  <1> Spinal neurons <2> Neurons of deep cerebellar nuclei. <3> Climbing fibers <4> Mossy fibers. <5> Pyramidal neurons of cerebral cortex.
Output: 3
Question: They release noradrenaline the: 
 Options:  <1> Sympathetic preganglionic fibers. <2> Sympathetic Postganglionic Fibers <3> Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers <4> Postganglionic parasympathetic fibers <5> Only the chromaffin cells.
Output: 2
Question: Circadian rhythms are established in: 
 Options:  <1> Pineal gland. <2> Suprachiasmatic nucleus. <3> Retina. <4> Spinal cord. <5> Centromedianic thalamic nucleus.
Output: 2
Question: A motor neuron and all the muscle fibers that it innervates constitute: 
 Options:  <1> Motor plate. <2> Motor unit <3> Neuromuscular junction <4> Motor synapse <5> Motor filament
Output: 2
Question: In the ear of mammals: 
 Options:  <1> The sterocilies of the hair cells contact the basilar membrane. <2> The tympanic ramp contains endolymph. <3> The basilar membrane is wider and more flexible at the level of the helicotrema. <4> The sensory cells are those of Deiter. <5> The oval membrane has a larger surface than the tympanic membrane.
Output: 3
Question: Calcitriol or active Vitamin D induces: 
 Options:  <1> Hypocalcemia <2> Synthesis of calbindin in enterocytes. <3> Calcium secretion in urine. <4> PTH secretion. <5> Decrease in intestinal absorption of phosphate.
Output: 2
Question: Increase the activity of Na + / K + -ATPase: 
 Options:  <1> Insulin. <2> Aldosterone <3> ACTH. <4> Atrial natriuretic peptide. <5> ADH.
Output: 2
Question: The glucocorticoids: 
 Options:  <1> Increase ACTH levels. <2> They stimulate the secretion of CRH. <3> They are anti-inflammatory. <4> They are hypoglycemic. <5> Increase immune responses.
Output: 3
Question: Placental lactogen has equivalent effects to: 
 Options:  <1> GH <2> Insulin. <3> Oxytocin <4> Estrogens <5> FSH.
Output: 1
Question: Lacks hypothalamic control: 
 Options:  <1> Glucagon. <2> ACTH. <3> Prolactin <4> GH <5> LH
Output: 1
Question: The kidneys secrete the hormone: 
 Options:  <1> Calcitriol. <2> Renina <3> Angiotensin II. <4> Aldosterone <5> Calcitonin
Output: 1
Question: The neurohypophysis: 
 Options:  <1> It is a continuation of the hypothalamus. <2> It presents dual hypothalamic control. <3> It receives hypothalamic hormones via blood. <4> It is irrigated by the portal system hypothalamus pituitary gland. <5> It produces prolactin.
Output: 1
Question: GH secretion: 
 Options:  <1> It stops after puberty. <2> Increase during the fast. <3> It decreases during sleep. <4> It is stimulated by somatostatin. <5> It is inhibited by exercise.
Output: 2
Question: Thyroid hormones inhibit: 
 Options:  <1> The basal metabolism. <2> The production of body heat. <3> Growth. <4> The development and maturation of the central nervous system. <5> The secretion of TSH.
Output: 5
Question: Prolactin stimulates the: 
 Options:  <1> Milk secretion <2> Milky ejection. <3> Deposit of fat in the breasts. <4> Formation of the mammary ducts. <5> Formation of mammary secretory cells.
Output: 1
Question: The second heart sound coincides with: 
 Options:  <1> End of ventricular diastole. <2> End of atrial diastole. <3> Opening of the aortic valve. <4> Atrial systole <5> Closing of the semilunar valves.
Output: 5
Question: The activation of arterial baroreceptors causes: 
 Options:  <1> Stimulation of the bulbar pressure center. <2> Activation of the parasympathetic. <3> Increased blood pressure. <4> Tachycardia. <5> Positive inotropic effect.
Output: 2
Question: The blood flow velocity is maximum in: 
 Options:  <1> Great arteries <2> Distribution arteries. <3> Arterioles <4> Capillaries <5> Venules
Output: 1
Question: They are essential for blood coagulation: 
 Options:  <1> Red blood cells. <2> White blood cells <3> Platelets. <4> The lymph. <5> Serum glucose
Output: 3
Question: Fibrinogen is activated by: 
 Options:  <1> Platelet stopper <2> Plasmina. <3> Thrombin <4> Thromboplastin. <5> Factor von Willebrand.
Output: 3
Question: Ventricular filling is greater during: 
 Options:  <1> Isovolumetric ventricular relaxation. <2> First third of the ventricular diastole. <3> Atrial systole <4> Intermediate phase of ventricular diastole. <5> It is uniform.
Output: 2
Question: The main vessels that regulate blood flow are: 
 Options:  <1> Arteries <2> Arterioles <3> Capillaries <4> Venules <5> Veins.
Output: 2
Question: After ventricular systole, the volume of blood in the ventricle is: 
 Options:  <1> Zero. <2> The telesistolic. <3> The systolic. <4> The end-diastolic. <5> Greater in the right ventricle than in the left.
Output: 2
Question: The QT interval of the electrocardiogram indicates the duration of: 
 Options:  <1> Atrial contraction <2> Ventricular contraction. <3> Ventricular relaxation <4> Atrial relaxation <5> Delay in the atrioventricular node.
Output: 2
Question: Activates the renin-angiotensin aldosterone system an increase in: 
 Options:  <1> Blood pressure. <2> Parasympathetic activity <3> Concentration of Ca2 + in plasma. <4> Na + concentration in plasma. <5> Sympathetic activity
Output: 5
Question: During ventricular systole: 
 Options:  <1> All ventricular blood is expelled. <2> Intraventricular pressure is equal in both ventricles. <3> The ventricular volume begins to decrease from the beginning of the contraction. <4> The atrio-ventricular valves are open. <5> The atria are relaxed.
Output: 5
Question: The lymphatic flow from the feet: 
 Options:  <1> It increases when standing up. <2> Increase by external compression. <3> Increases when decreasing capillary permeability. <4> It decreases during inspiration. <5> Decrease by exercise.
Output: 2
Question: The reabsorption of glucose in the nephron: 
 Options:  <1> It has no maximum rate. <2> It is less than 50% of the filtered. <3> It is done in the proximal tubule. <4> It is mediated by insulin. <5> It is by simple diffusion.
Output: 3
Question: Urine is hypoosmolar with respect to plasma in: 
 Options:  <1> Bowman's capsule. <2> Proximal tubule <3> Medulla area of ​​the loop of Henle. <4> Initial zone of the distal tubule. <5> Collecting tubule in the presence of ADH.
Output: 4
Question: In the digestive system, the vagus: 
 Options:  <1> Stimulates the contraction of the cardia. <2> The gastro-colic reflex mediates. <3> Decreases the secretion of gastric acid. <4> Inhibits the secretion of pancreatic bicarbonate. <5> It is not choralgogo.
Output: 2
Question: Inhibits gastrin secretion: 
 Options:  <1> Parasympathetic stimulation. <2> Sight, aroma and taste of the food. <3> Stomach distension <4> Presence of proteins in the stomach. <5> Somatostatin.
Output: 5
Question: Alveolar pressure exceeds atmospheric pressure: 
 Options:  <1> In the initial phase of inspiration. <2> In the middle phase of inspiration. <3> In the middle phase of an expiration. <4> At the end of expiration. <5> At the end of the inspiration.
Output: 3
Question: The anatomical dead space: 
 Options:  <1> It is always greater than the physiological one. <2> Secret surfactants. <3> Includes medium-sized bronchioles. <4> It allows gaseous exchange. <5> Includes the volume of inspiratory reserve.
Output: 3
Question: If the arterial pO2 decreases to 60 mm of Hg: 
 Options:  <1> Decreases ventilation. <2> Central chemoreceptors are activated. <3> The central chemoreceptors are depressed. <4> The arterial chemoreceptors are activated. <5> It produces loss of consciousness.
Output: 4
Question: The pyramidal neurons are in: 
 Options:  <1> Cerebellum. <2> Brain. <3> Spinal cord. <4> Spinal ganglia. <5> Hypophysis.
Output: 2
Question: The lipid inclusion of unilocular adipocytes is surrounded by: 
 Options:  <1> Actin filaments. <2> Myosin filaments. <3> Filaments of vimentin. <4> Microtubules <5> Membrane from the smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
Output: 3
Question: The presence of phosphatidylserine on the cell surface indicates: 
 Options:  <1> Cellular senescence <2> Apoptosis <3> Necrosis. <4> Mitosis. <5> Hormone stimulation
Output: 2
Question: The hydrolases of the lysosomes act in medium: 
 Options:  <1> Acid. <2> Basic. <3> Neutral. <4> It depends on the material to digest. <5> At any pH.
Output: 1
Question: Heterochromatin lacks: 
 Options:  <1> Histone H1. <2> Nucleosomes <3> Exons <4> Transcriptional activity <5> Origins of replication.
Output: 4
Question: The epithelium of the epidermis is: 
 Options:  <1> Stratified keratinized plane. <2> Stratified non-keratinized plane. <3> Simple keratinized cylindrical. <4> Keratinized stratified cylindrical. <5> Cubic stratified.
Output: 1
Question: The cell is destroyed to release the secretion: 
 Options:  <1> Merocrine <2> Apocrine <3> Endocrine <4> Holocrine <5> Paracrine
Output: 4
Question: Among the following, the first precursor cell of neutrophil granulocytes is: 
 Options:  <1> Monoblast. <2> Myeloblast. <3> Metamielocito. <4> Cell in band (or in staff) <5> Promyelocyte
Output: 2
Question: The system in T: 
 Options:  <1> It is present in all muscle cells without exception. <2> It is part of the sarcoplasmic reticulum. <3> It has an ATPase activated by Ca2 +. <4> It is a tubular invagination of the plasma membrane. <5> Releases Ca2 + to the cytosol during recruitment.
Output: 4
Question: In eukaryotic cells the lipids of the membrane are synthesized mainly in: 
 Options:  <1> Rough endoplasmic reticulum. <2> Golgi apparatus. <3> Smooth endoplasmic reticulum. <4> Mitochondria <5> Ribosomes
Output: 3
Question: Fibrous cartilage is typical of: 
 Options:  <1> Windpipe. <2> Bronchi <3> Auricular pavilion <4> Intervertebral discs. <5> External auditive conduct.
Output: 4
Question: Presents centroacinosas cells the gland: 
 Options:  <1> Parotid. <2> Submaxillary <3> Sublingual <4> Pancreas. <5> Liver.
Output: 4
Question: The continuous capillaries are typical of: 
 Options:  <1> Central Nervous System. <2> Liver. <3> Glands <4> Kidney. <5> Digestive tube.
Output: 1
Question: The Müller cells of the retina are: 
 Options:  <1> Modified neurons. <2> Glandular <3> Neurogliales of support. <4> Of the microglia. <5> Of the pigmentary layer.
Output: 3
Question: The ribosomal subunits are formed in the: 
 Options:  <1> Nucleoplasm. <2> Nucleolus <3> Nuclear sheet. <4> Nuclear pore. <5> Cytoplasm.
Output: 2
Question: The nuclear lamina is formed by: 
 Options:  <1> Actina. <2> Tubulina. <3> Intermediate filaments <4> Fibronectin <5> Laminin
Output: 3
Question: Importin intervenes in the transport of proteins from the cytoplasm to: 
 Options:  <1> Nucleus. <2> Endoplasmic reticulum. <3> Mitochondria. <4> Peroxisome <5> Lysosome
Output: 1
Question: They are formed by maturation of late endosomes: 
 Options:  <1> Lysosomes <2> Phagosomes <3> Multivesicular bodies. <4> Secretion granules <5> Proteosomes
Output: 1
Question: The cell displacement by creep depends on: 
 Options:  <1> Cilia. <2> Stereocilios. <3> Flagella. <4> Actin filaments. <5> Microvilli.
Output: 4
Question: They have their own ribosomes: 
 Options:  <1> Lysosomes <2> Peroxisomes <3> Endosomes <4> Secretion granules <5> Mitochondria
Output: 5
Question: Kinesin and dynein are: 
 Options:  <1> Adhesion proteins. <2> Microtubular motors. <3> Degradative enzymes <4> Components of the vesicular cover. <5> Transcriptional factors.
Output: 2
Question: They produce myelin in the central nervous system: 
 Options:  <1> Astrocytes <2> Ependymal cells. <3> Satellite cells. <4> Schwann cells. <5> Oligodendrocytes
Output: 5
Question: It does NOT occur during apoptosis: 
 Options:  <1> Rupture of the plasma membrane. <2> Condensation of chromatin. <3> Collapse of the cytoskeleton. <4> Fragmentation of DNA <5> Formation of apoptotic bodies.
Output: 1
Question: The desmosomes: 
 Options:  <1> Communicate the cytoplasms of contiguous cells. <2> They seal the intercellular space. <3> They surround the entire cell perimeter. <4> They connect the cell to the basal lamina. <5> They are point intercellular adhesive bonds.
Output: 5
Question: The tissue is avascular: 
 Options:  <1> Cartilaginous. <2> Adipose. <3> Osseous. <4> Muscular. <5> Nervous.
Output: 1
Question: The goblet cells belong to the tissue: 
 Options:  <1> Epithelial. <2> Conjunctive. <3> Cartilaginous. <4> Osseous. <5> Adipose.
Output: 1
Question: Mast cells or mast cells belong to the tissue: 
 Options:  <1> Epithelial. <2> Conjunctive. <3> Adipose <4> Lymphoid <5> Nervous.
Output: 2
Question: They produce bone resorption: 
 Options:  <1> Fibroblasts. <2> Osteoblasts <3> Osteoclasts. <4> Osteocytes <5> Osteona.
Output: 3
Question: They are fragments of the cytoplasm of a precursor cell: 
 Options:  <1> Lymphocytes <2> Megakaryocytes <3> Monocytes <4> Platelets. <5> Erythrocytes
Output: 4
Question: If a statistical test offers a value p <0.05: 
 Options:  <1> The null hypothesis is accepted. <2> The alternative hypothesis is rejected. <3> the null hypothesis is rejected. <4> The null hypothesis can not be rejected. <5> There is no evidence in favor of the alternative hypothesis.
Output: 3
Question: A confidence interval to estimate the population mean will be more precise when: 
 Options:  <1> The lower the confidence level. <2> The greater the dispersion of the sample. <3> The smaller the sample size. <4> The greater the typical sampling error. <5> The higher the confidence level.
Output: 1
Question: If a sample of size 100 has a standard deviation of 10, its typical error is: 
 Options:  <1> 10 <2> 100 <3> 0.1 <4> one. <5> There is not enough data to calculate it.
Output: 4
Question: How many degrees of freedom does a Student's t-test applied to two samples related to a total of 25 individuals? 
 Options:  <1> 26 <2> 24 <3> 2. 3. <4> 48 <5> 47
Output: 2
Question: The most common ectopic pregnancy occurs in: 
 Options:  <1> The fallopian tube. <2> The oviductal tube. <3> The cervix <4> The ovary <5> The abdomen.
Output: 1
Question: The blastocyst is detached from the zona pellucida in: 
 Options:  <1> The ovary <2> The fallopian tube. <3> Oviductal tube. <4> The uterus. <5> The vagina
Output: 4
Question: The term that includes the changes of the endometrium during pregnancy is: 
 Options:  <1> Hatching. <2> Apposition. <3> Accession. <4> Invasion. <5> Decidualization.
Output: 5
Question: After gastrulation, the epiblast is transformed into: 
 Options:  <1> Endoderm <2> Mesoderm <3> Ectoderm <4> Celoma <5> Chorionic villi.
Output: 3
Question: In the formation of the skin they intervene: 
 Options:  <1> Only the ectoderm. <2> The ectoderm, mesoderm and cells of the neural crest. <3> The ectoderm and mesoderm. <4> The ectoderm and cells of the neural crest. <5> Only the mesoderm.
Output: 2
Question: In the human genome, the coding sequences are called: 
 Options:  <1> Exons <2> Promoters <3> Intensifiers <4> Introns <5> Adapters
Output: 1
Question: The amount of DNA in a genome is called value: 
 Options:  <1> TO. <2> D. <3> An. <4> C. <5> Cn.
Output: 4
Question: The most frequent mechanism that induces the activation of the ABL protooncogene in chronic myeloid leukemia is: 
 Options:  <1> Point mutation <2> Gene amplification. <3> Methylation of the promoter. <4> Deletion <5> Translocation
Output: 5
Question: It has a recessive inheritance linked to the X chromosome the: 
 Options:  <1> Acatalasemia <2> Hemophilia A. <3> Rett syndrome. <4> Cystic fibrosis, <5> Hypophosphatemia
Output: 2
Question: In eukaryotes, the RNA polymerase that transcribes small ribosomal RNAs is: 
 Options:  <1> II. <2> I. <3> IV. <4> III. <5> V.
Output: 4
Question: To silence messenger RNA (mRNA) siRNAs and miRNAs are usually linked to your: 
 Options:  <1> TATA box. <2> 5'-UTR. <3> 5 'cap. <4> 3'-UTR. <5> Poly (A) 3 tail.
Output: 4
Question: Generates blunt DNA fragments the restriction enzyme: 
 Options:  <1> Bam HI. <2> Hae III. <3> Hind III. <4> Eco RI. <5> Eco RII.
Output: 2
Question: In eukaryotes, group II introns are in genes: 
 Options:  <1> Of rRNA. <2> From tRNA. <3> They encode proteins in the nucleus. <4> They encode proteins in mitochondria. <5> None is correct.
Output: 4
Question: In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase I transcribes: 
 Options:  <1> Small rRNA <2> Pre-mRNA. <3> ARNsno. <4> ARNt. <5> Large rRNA.
Output: 5
Question: What enzyme does a retrovirus use to synthesize DNA copy of its genome? 
 Options:  <1> DNA polymerase I. <2> cDNA polymerase I. <3> RNA polymerase I. <4> cDNA polymerase II. <5> Reverse transcriptase
Output: 5
Question: How many palindromic sequences exist on the human Y chromosome that allow Y-Y recombination ?: 
 Options:  <1> 8 <2> 6 <3> Four. <4> 10 <5> 12
Output: 1
Question: It is an oncogen: 
 Options:  <1> NF1 <2> P53 <3> RB <4> cMYC. <5> WT1.
Output: 4
Question: It is a stop codon for translation: 
 Options:  <1> AUG. <2> UAU <3> UGA <4> UAC. <5> UGU
Output: 3
Question: In the replication of eukaryotic DNA the functions that correspond to the gamma (γ) DNA polymerase are: 
 Options:  <1> Translational synthesis of nuclear DNA. <2> Replication and repair of mitochondrial DNA. <3> Initiation of nuclear DNA synthesis. <4> Repair of nuclear DNA. <5> Synthesis of the leading and delayed nuclear DNA chain.
Output: 2
Question: If the guanine percentage of a double-stranded DNA molecule is 30%, that of adenine is: 
 Options:  <1> 10% <2> 70% <3> 80% <4> twenty%. <5> 30%
Output: 4
Question: Among the 5 types of histones of chromatin, the one with the lowest molecular weight is: 
 Options:  <1> H2A. <2> H2B. <3> H1 <4> H4 <5> H3
Output: 4
Question: The three-dimensional structure of B-DNA: 
 Options:  <1> It is shorter and wider than the A-DNA. <2> It has around 20pb for each 360º turn of the propeller. <3> It is the most stable structure under physiological conditions. <4> It appears when the DNA is placed in a saline solution. <5> It is a left-handed helix.
Output: 3
Question: Williams-Beuren syndrome is characterized by a microdeletion of the long arm of the chromosome: 
 Options:  <1> Four. <2> 22 <3> fifteen. <4> 17 <5> 7
Output: 5
Question: The genetic phenomenon that explains that the expression of a gene is influenced by the sex of the parent is: 
 Options:  <1> Character limited by sex. <2> Characteristic linked to sex. <3> Cytoplasmic inheritance. <4> Genomic imprint <5> Maternal genetic effect.
Output: 4
Question: In a pedigree of an autosomal dominant trait it is observed that: 
 Options:  <1> The trait appears more frequently in males. <2> The unaffected people do not transmit the trait. <3> The trait tends to skip generations. <4> The affected people have both affected parents. <5> The trait tends to appear in the progeny of related parents.
Output: 2
Question: In mitosis, the nuclear membrane disintegrates and spindle microtubules bind to the kinetochores in: 
 Options:  <1> Cytokinesis <2> Prometaphase. <3> Metaphase <4> Interface. <5> Prophase.
Output: 2
Question: Has a dominant inheritance linked to the X chromosome the: 
 Options:  <1> Duchenne muscular dystrophy. <2> Fabry disease. <3> Huntington's Korea. <4> Cystic fibrosis. <5> Rett syndrome.
Output: 5
Question: Has an autosomal dominant inheritance: 
 Options:  <1> Alcaptonuria. <2> Huntington's Korea. <3> Rett syndrome. <4> Colour blindness. <5> Duchenne muscular dystrophy.
Output: 2
Question: The number of Barr corpuscles of the cells of a man with karyotype 48, XXXY is: 
 Options:  <1> two. <2> one. <3> 0 <4> 3. <5> Four.
Output: 1
Question: The type of epistasia that explains the 15: 1 dihybrid phenotypic ratio is: 
 Options:  <1> Double dominant. <2> Simple recessive <3> Recessive dominant double. <4> Double recessive <5> Simple dominant.
Output: 1
Question: To calculate the number of different genotypes in any allelic series the formula is applied: 
 Options:  <1> (n-1) / 2. <2> n x (n + 1) / 2. <3> n x (n-1) / 2. <4> (n-1) x (n + 1) / 2. <5> (2n-1) / 2.
Output: 2
Question: The change corresponds to a change mutation: 
 Options:  <1> T → C. <2> A → T. <3> G → A. <4> C → T. <5> A → G.
Output: 2
Question: The order of the stages of the cell cycle is: 
 Options:  <1> S, G1, Mitosis, G2. <2> G2, G1, S, Mitosis. <3> G1, Mitosis, G2, S. <4> S, G0, Mitosis, G1. <5> G1, S, G2, Mitosis.
Output: 5
Question: How many chromosomes would a male with nulisomy have for chromosomes 17 and 18? 
 Options:  <1> 43 <2> Four. Five. <3> 44 <4> 42 <5> 40
Output: 4
Question: It is NOT associated with defects in DNA repair the: 
 Options:  <1> Fanconi anemia. <2> Li-Fraumeni syndrome. <3> Bloom syndrome. <4> Xeroderma pigmentosa. <5> Sickle-cell anemia
Output: 5
Question: The denaturing of proteins: 
 Options:  <1> Alters the native conformation without affecting the biological activity. <2> It is always irreversible. <3> It can only be achieved by treatment with strong acids. <4> It does not affect the primary structure. <5> It produces the hydrolysis of the protein.
Output: 4
Question: In relation to the structure of proteins: 
 Options:  <1> All globular proteins have the same domains. <2> The tertiary structure is present only in oligomeric proteins. <3> Hemoglobin is the only protein that has a quaternary structure. <4> The protein domains are regions of compact folding that exert a certain function. <5> The tertiary and quaternary structures are maintained only by the peptide bonds.
Output: 4
Question: Regarding enzymatic cofactors: 
 Options:  <1> All enzymes are required to be active. <2> Its binding to the enzyme is always covalent. <3> There are no two enzymes that use the same cofactor. <4> They can be metal ions. <5> They only have structural function.
Output: 4
Question: In relation to enzymatic inhibition: 
 Options:  <1> An irreversible inhibitor causes the denaturation of the enzyme. <2> The competing inhibitors bind to the substrate of the reaction. <3> A non-competitive inhibitor does not need to bind to the enzyme to exert its activity. <4> All inhibitors modify Vmax. <5> A competitive inhibitor increases the value of Km.
Output: 5
Question: Sulfur contains the side chain of: 
 Options:  <1> Lysine <2> Tryptophan <3> Cysteine <4> Serina <5> To the girl.
Output: 3
Question: It contains an imidazole group the side chain of: 
 Options:  <1> Arginine <2> Tyrosine <3> Glutamine <4> Histidine <5> Lysine
Output: 4
Question: The pentose phosphate pathway produces: 
 Options:  <1> NADH and acetyl-CoA. <2> NADPH and ribose-5-phosphate. <3> NADH and ribose-5-phosphate. <4> Urea. <5> Ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate.
Output: 2
Question: The oxygen we consume in the respiratory chain is transformed into: 
 Options:  <1> Acetyl-CoA. <2> Carbon dioxide. <3> Carbon monoxide. <4> Water. <5> Carbonic acid.
Output: 4
Question: When an enzyme catalyzes a reaction: 
 Options:  <1> It is not modified and can be reused. <2> It does not change, but it loses its activity. <3> It always requires the participation of cofactors. <4> It denatures to facilitate bonding with the substrate. <5> It always requires energy.
Output: 1
Question: The maximum speed of an enzymatic reaction: 
 Options:  <1> It depends on the substrate concentration. <2> It depends on the enzyme concentration. <3> It doubles when duplicating the substrate concentration. <4> It is Km / 2. <5> It is the same for all enzymes.
Output: 2
Question: The ketone bodies: 
 Options:  <1> They are used by the liver to synthesize fatty acids. <2> They only form in conditions of good nutrition. <3> Its formation is especially active in skeletal muscle. <4> It is formed from acetyl-CoA. <5> They never give acetone.
Output: 4
Question: In general, allosteric enzymes: 
 Options:  <1> They link the effectors in the active center. <2> They form covalent bonds with their negative effectors. <3> They originate hyperbolic curves of speed before the concentration of substrate. <4> They change their conformation when they link effectors. <5> They are irreversibly modified when they are inhibited.
Output: 4
Question: It is completely oxidized in the citric acid cycle: 
 Options:  <1> -ketoglutarate. <2> Succinate <3> Citrate. <4> Acetyl-CoA. <5> Oxalacetate.
Output: 4
Question: Animals can NOT synthesize glucose from: 
 Options:  <1> Glycerol. <2> To the girl. <3> Palmitate <4> Oxalacetate. <5> Lactate
Output: 3
Question: Pyruvate carboxylase: 
 Options:  <1> It requires biotin. <2> Use a methyl group activated as a carbon source. <3> It catalyzes the production of acetyl-CoA and carbon dioxide. <4> It is activated in the muscle during the Cori cycle. <5> It is an intermediate of the citric acid cycle.
Output: 1
Question: The Cori cycle: 
 Options:  <1> It involves the synthesis and degradation of glycogen. <2> It does not imply the conversion of lactate into pyruvate. <3> It only takes place in the liver. <4> Oxidizes tricarboxylic acids. <5> It involves glycolysis and gluconeogenesis.
Output: 5
Question: It is activated when cyclic AMP joins the: 
 Options:  <1> Adenylate cyclase. <2> Protein kinase A. <3> Glycogen phosphorylase kinase. <4> Pyruvate kinase. <5> Phosphofruct kinase 1.
Output: 2
Question: The enantiomers of a molecule are: 
 Options:  <1> Very different in all its chemical and physical properties. <2> Superimposed mirror images. <3> Distinguishable by their optical activity. <4> The result of the cyclization of a molecule in different positions. <5> Interconvertible without rupture of covalent bonds.
Output: 3
Question: The forces that stabilize the alpha helix are: 
 Options:  <1> Intra-chain hydrogen bridges parallel to the axis of the helix. <2> Disulfide bridges between methionines. <3> Hydrogen bridges between chains perpendicular to the axis of the helix. <4> Van der Waals forces among the radicals. <5> Links between lysine radicals.
Output: 1
Question: The phosphate groups of the nucleotides: 
 Options:  <1> They are stabilized by binding to divalent anions. <2> They form low-energy hydrolysis bonds. <3> They are called X, Y and Z as they move away from ribose. <4> They are attached to the C3' of the ribose. <5> They present negative charge.
Output: 5
Question: On the link between the nitrogenous base and the ribose of the nucleotides: 
 Options:  <1> The anomeric carbon of ribose is in alpha configuration. <2> It is an N-glycosidic bond. <3> It involves the C5' of the ribose. <4> It involves phosphate groups. <5> It is of a different nature for each nitrogenous base.
Output: 2
Question: The phosphodiester bond: 
 Options:  <1> It is formed by attack from a nitrogenous base to a phosphate. <2> It is formed using NMP as a substrate. <3> In its training PPi is consumed. <4> It involves an alpha phosphate of one nucleotide and an OH group of the ribose of another. <5> It does not need enzymatic catalysis.
Output: 4
Question: The tRNA-aminoacyl-transferases: 
 Options:  <1> They link the amino acid to the ribosome. <2> They bind the amino acid to the anticodon of the tRNA. <3> They are RNA polymerases. <4> They guarantee the fidelity of the translation. <5> They are not important in the translation.
Output: 4
Question: In the translation of prokaryotes, the first tRNA: 
 Options:  <1> It is introduced in site A. <2> Join a methylated amino acid. <3> It is accompanied by the IF2 factor. <4> It is paired with a UGA start codon. <5> Always join serina.
Output: 3
Question: On the synthesis of proteins it is correct to affirm that: 
 Options:  <1> Start at the carboxyl end. <2> The mRNA is translated from the 5'-end to the 3'-end. <3> In eukaryotes it takes place in the nucleus. <4> The first subunit of the ribosome to bind to the mRNA is the largest. <5> It does not consume energy.
Output: 2
Question: In the Michaelis-Menten kinetics, when the values ​​of [s] are much lower (<1/100) than the value of Km: 
 Options:  <1> We are in saturation kinetics. <2> The kinetics is of order 1. <3> The Vo is the Vmax. <4> The speed is independent of the [s]. <5> That situation never occurs.
Output: 2
Question: Enzymatic regulation by phosphorylation: 
 Options:  <1> It is reversible. <2> It requires enzymes that directly introduce the Pi. <3> Introduce the Pi into acidic and basic amino acids. <4> Always activate enzymes. <5> It is carried out by phosphatases.
Output: 1
Question: Glycogenesis: 
 Options:  <1> It is a very active pathway in all tissues. <2> It is activated by insulin. <3> All their reactions occur in the mitochondria. <4> One of its substrates is ribose. <5> It is produced in the liver.
Output: 5
Question: In the urea cycle, the argininsuccinate: 
 Options:  <1> It generates fumarate and arginine by argininesuccinase. <2> It has five amino groups in its structure. <3> Its synthesis produces energy in the form of ATP. <4> It is synthesized in the mitochondria. <5> It is a keto acid.
Output: 1
Question: Acetyl-CoA carboxylase: 
 Options:  <1> It is a mitochondrial enzyme. <2> Its product is Succinyl-CoA. <3> It requires biotin as a cofactor. <4> Free ATP <5> Eat NADH.
Output: 3
Question: Acetyl-CoA: 
 Options:  <1> It is synthesized from pyruvate in the eukaryotic cytoplasm. <2> It has a phosphate bond rich in energy. <3> Presents a guanine nucleotide in coenzyme A. <4> Activates pyruvate carboxylase and inhibits pyruvate dehydrogenase. <5> It easily crosses the mitochondrial inner membrane.
Output: 4
Question: In the regulation of glycogen metabolism by adrenaline: 
 Options:  <1> Adenylate cyclase is inhibited. <2> Protein kinase A is inhibited through cAMP. <3> Glycogen synthetase is inhibited by phosphorylation. <4> Glycogen phosphorylase is inhibited by phosphorylation. <5> The main enzyme that carries it out is protein kinase C.
Output: 3
Question: Diphyllobothrium latum competes with its definitive host for the vitamin: 
 Options:  <1> TO. <2> B 12 <3> C. <4> D. <5> AND.
Output: 2
Question: Miltefosine and meglumine antimonate are used against: 
 Options:  <1> Plasmodium falciparum. <2> Entamoeba histolytica. <3> Fasciola hepatica. <4> Leishmania <5> Trichinella spiralis.
Output: 4
Question: Praziquantel is indicated against: 
 Options:  <1> Dicrocoelium dendriticum. <2> Plasmodium. <3> Taenia saginata. <4> Toxoplasma gondii. <5> Entamoeba histolytica.
Output: 3
Question: The eggs are operculated: 
 Options:  <1> Hymenolepis nana. <2> Trichinella spiralis. <3> Enterobius vermicularis. <4> Fasciola hepatica. <5> Ascaris lumbricoides.
Output: 4
Question: Miracidium is a larval phase that is part of the biological cycle of a: 
 Options:  <1> Pediculus <2> Ascaris <3> Oxiuro. <4> Fluke. <5> Phlebotomist
Output: 4
Question: The transmission of hepatitis E virus is via: 
 Options:  <1> Fecal-oral <2> Body secretions. <3> Bloodline <4> Placenta. <5> Aerial
Output: 1
Question: The genetic material of parvoviruses is: 
 Options:  <1> Double-stranded DNA <2> Single chain DNA <3> Single-stranded positive RNA <4> Single negative chain RNA. <5> Double-stranded RNA
Output: 2
Question: They have helical symmetry in their capsid the: 
 Options:  <1> Rabies virus. <2> Common cold virus. <3> Papilomavirus. <4> Herpesvirus. <5> Adenovirus.
Output: 1
Question: The genome of the hepatitis B virus is DNA from: 
 Options:  <1> Simple string (+). <2> Simple string (-). <3> Double circular chain. <4> Double linear chain. <5> Incomplete circular double chain (with notches).
Output: 5
Question: The retrovirus envelope comes from (the): 
 Options:  <1> Plasma membrane. <2> Nuclear membrane. <3> Endoplasmic reticulum. <4> Golgi apparatus. <5> Mitochondria.
Output: 1
Question: The Baltimore system of virus classification is based on: 
 Options:  <1> The type of genetic material (DNA or RNA) they possess. <2> The morphology of their virions. <3> The replication of the genome and the synthesis process of its mRNA. <4> The symmetry of the capsid. <5> The presence or absence of wrapping.
Output: 3
Question: They cause diarrhea in children: 
 Options:  <1> Togavirus. <2> Coronavirus. <3> Arenavirus. <4> Parvovirus. <5> Astrovirus
Output: 5
Question: The bodies of Negri are masses of viral particles visible under an optical microscope in cells infected by the virus: 
 Options:  <1> Smallpox <2> Anger. <3> The polyoma. <4> Yellow fever <5> Herpes
Output: 2
Question: The antiviral tamiflu that is used against the bird flu virus acts: 
 Options:  <1> Inhibiting viral neuraminidase. <2> Inactivating the viral protease responsible for the processing of capsomere precursors. <3> Preventing the decapsidation of viral particles. <4> Blocking the interaction of viral particles with their cellular receptor. <5> Altering the activity of the viral DNA polymerase.
Output: 1
Question: The genetic material of the influenza virus is replicated in the: 
 Options:  <1> Lysosome <2> Cellular cytoplasm. <3> Nucleus of the cell. <4> Endosome <5> Golgi apparatus.
Output: 3
Question: Immediately after the herpes virus decapsidation takes place: 
 Options:  <1> Synthesis of an own RNA polymerase. <2> Circularization of its genome. <3> Lysis of the endosome. <4> Transcription of the viral DNA polymerase. <5> Synthesis of a protein that inhibits the replication of the host cell.
Output: 2
Question: The common cold virus has a genome: 
 Options:  <1> Single chain DNA <2> Double-stranded DNA <3> Fragmented. <4> Simple chain RNA <5> Double-stranded RNA
Output: 4
Question: The most important causative agents of cervical cancer are: 
 Options:  <1> Papilomavirus. <2> Polyomavirus <3> Retrovirus. <4> Cytomegalovirus. <5> Parvovirus.
Output: 1
Question: They use a reverse transcriptase during their replication: 
 Options:  <1> Papovavirus. <2> Polyomavirus <3> Hepadnavirus. <4> Parvovirus. <5> Herpesvirus.
Output: 3
Question: The virus (virusoid) of hepatitis D (agent δ) needs to co-infect with the hepatitis virus: 
 Options:  <1> TO. <2> B. <3> C. <4> AND. <5> G.
Output: 2
Question: Most Gram-positive bacteria do not grow in MacConkey's medium because it contains: 
 Options:  <1> Bile salts and crystal violet. <2> Lactose and casein hydrolyzate. <3> Neutral red <4> Mannitol <5> Basic fuchsin
Output: 1
Question: The immersion oil used for microscopic observation: 
 Options:  <1> Protects the sample from the oxidizing effect of air. <2> Lubricate the objective lens. <3> Reduces refraction and increases resolution. <4> It acts as a lens that increases magnification. <5> Avoid dehydration of the preparation.
Output: 3
Question: To observe the bacterial capsules in a clear field microscope, a stain is made: 
 Options:  <1> Resistant acid <2> From Leifson. <3> Simple. <4> Negative. <5> Differential.
Output: 4
Question: The microbiocidal action of iodine and chlorine and many of its derivatives is due to: 
 Options:  <1> They are oxidizing agents. <2> They bind specifically to the active centers of the enzymes. <3> They bind specifically to ribosomal proteins. <4> They induce pores in the membranes. <5> They cause the dissolution of membrane phospholipids.
Output: 1
Question: The bacteria contain endotoxins: 
 Options:  <1> Of all types except microplasmas. <2> Gram positive. <3> Gram negative <4> Intracellular <5> Endospore formers
Output: 3
Question: The O antigen used in the classification of Gram negative bacteria corresponds to: 
 Options:  <1> The flagellar proteins. <2> Components of the capsule. <3> The peptidoglycan. <4> The polysaccharide of lipopolysaccharides. <5> Plasma membrane proteins.
Output: 4
Question: The alcohol-resistance acid is used to identify: 
 Options:  <1> Fermenting bacteria. <2> Yeasts used in the production of alcoholic beverages. <3> Bacteria that possess mycolic acids. <4> Sporulated organisms. <5> Oxidizing organisms from sulfides to sulfuric acid.
Output: 3
Question: The Archaea differ from the bacteria in that: 
 Options:  <1> Their membranes have a single phospholipid layer. <2> They have several chromosomes. <3> Their membranes have glycerol ethers. <4> They are not susceptible to viral infection. <5> They do not have a cell wall.
Output: 3
Question: Very commonly the autoinducer molecules responsible for the quorum perception of many Gram-negative bacteria are: 
 Options:  <1> N-acyl homoserine lactones. <2> Diaminopimelic acid. <3> Proteins <4> Hills <5> Fatty acids.
Output: 1
Question: The most commonly used data to study the phylogenetic relationship between bacteria is: 
 Options:  <1> The cytosine-guanine composition of their DNA. <2> The degree of DNA-DNA hybridization. <3> The amino acid sequence of ribosomal proteins. <4> The nucleotide sequence of 16S ribosomal RNA. <5> The composition of the cell wall.
Output: 4
Question: It usually protects the DNA of a restriction enzyme: 
 Options:  <1> Methylation of a nitrogenous base. <2> Glycosylation of a nitrogenous base. <3> Acetylation of deoxyribose. <4> Phosphorylation of deoxyribose. <5> Loss of one of the hydroxyl groups of phosphate.
Output: 1
Question: An essential characteristic of plasmids is: 
 Options:  <1> Be able to integrate into the genome of the host cell. <2> Direct the process of bacterial conjugation. <3> Carry genes for antibiotic resistance. <4> Replicate autonomously. <5> Being circular DNA molecules.
Output: 4
Question: The fermentation of glucose used by Escherichia coli is: 
 Options:  <1> Lactic <2> Propionic <3> Alcoholic <4> Butyric <5> Acid-mixed.
Output: 5
Question: The target of the aminoglycoside antibacterials is the: 
 Options:  <1> DNA polymerase <2> Transpeptidation of peptidoglycan. <3> 30S subunit of the ribosome. <4> RNA polymerase <5> DNA gyrase.
Output: 3
Question: In the synthesis of DNA, the quinolones act: 
 Options:  <1> Joining the double helix and thus blocking the progress of the replication fork. <2> Interlacing in the double helix and thus causing errors in the transcription. <3> On DNA gyrase. <4> As nucleotide analogs that are incorporated into DNA. <5> About DNA polymerases.
Output: 3
Question: Isoniazid is effective against: 
 Options:  <1> Brucella. <2> Mycoplasma. <3> Staphylococcus aureus. <4> Mycobacterium tuberculosis. <5> Bacillus anthracis.
Output: 4
Question: A difference between the genus Vibrio and the enterobacteria is to be: 
 Options:  <1> Strict anaerobe. <2> Halophile. <3> Negative oxidase of peritric flogging. <4> Very demanding nutritionally. <5> Do not ferment glucose.
Output: 2
Question: Cause of syphilis: 
 Options:  <1> Trichomonas vaginalis. <2> Neisseria gonorrhoeae. <3> Treponema pallidum. <4> Mycoplasma genitalium. <5> Mobiluncus curtisii.
Output: 3
Question: They incorporate sterols to their plasma membrane: 
 Options:  <1> Mycobacterium tuberculosis. <2> Micrococcus luteus. <3> Mycoplasma pneumoniae <4> Chlamydia trachomatis. <5> Rickettsia prowazekii.
Output: 3
Question: The vaginal microbiota of a healthy fertile woman is dominated by bacteria of the genus: 
 Options:  <1> Peptostreptococcus <2> Bifidobacterium <3> Eubacterium. <4> Lactobacillus <5> Vagococcus
Output: 4
Question: Lyme disease is caused by: 
 Options:  <1> Borrelia burgdorferi. <2> Treponema saccharophilum. <3> Spirillum commune. <4> Leptospira interrogans. <5> Limulus polyphemus.
Output: 1
Question: The cholera toxin: 
 Options:  <1> Inhibits protein synthesis. <2> It is hemolytic and dermonecrotic. <3> Alters the flow of electrolytes in the intestine. <4> It is formed by a single polypeptide that is cleaved by the effect of proteases. <5> It produces food poisoning.
Output: 3
Question: Botulinum toxin: 
 Options:  <1> It occurs in infected and poorly aerated wounds. <2> Blocks protein synthesis. <3> It blocks the secretion of acetylcholine in the myoneural plaque. <4> It interferes with nerve impulse transmission at the level of axons. <5> It causes necrosis of the nerve endings.
Output: 3
Question: An important test to distinguish Staphylococcus aureus from saprophytic staphylococci, such as Staphylococcus epidermidis is: 
 Options:  <1> Oxidase <2> Catalase <3> Indole. <4> Urea <5> Coagulase
Output: 5
Question: Pseudomonas aeruginosa is typically: 
 Options:  <1> Sensitive to most antibiotics used in human medicine. <2> Pathogen obligated. <3> Opportunistic pathogen. <4> Commensal bacteria of the digestive tract. <5> Intracellular pathogen.
Output: 3
Question: Infections caused by Clostridium tetani, Bordetella pertussis, Corynebacterium diphtheriae and Vibrio cholerae have in common: 
 Options:  <1> The type of transmission. <2> The reservoir. <3> The production of exotoxins. <4> The affected organs. <5> The route of infection.
Output: 3
Question: The main virulence factor of Streptococcus pneumoniae is one (one): 
 Options:  <1> Fímbria. <2> Capsule. <3> Scourge <4> Endotoxin <5> Adhesin
Output: 2
Question: Legionella pneumophila is transmitted by: 
 Options:  <1> Air conditioning systems. <2> Contact between individuals. <3> Mosquito bite. <4> Contaminated food. <5> Fecal-oral route.
Output: 1
Question: It contains a Gram negative species that causes meningitis the genus: 
 Options:  <1> Trichomonas. <2> Pasteurella <3> Burkholderia. <4> Francisella. <5> Neisseria.
Output: 5
Question: In mammals, Toll-like receptors (TLRs) are receptors: 
 Options:  <1> Signaling. <2> Antigenic <3> Of histocompatibility alleles. <4> Of phagocytosis. <5> Of chemokines.
Output: 1
Question: The innate immune response to viruses is mainly mediated by lymphocytes: 
 Options:  <1> B1 <2> Th1. <3> Cytolytic T <4> NK <5> Tγδ.
Output: 4
Question: The main function of chemokines is: 
 Options:  <1> Regulate lymphocyte traffic. <2> Stimulate cell proliferation in response to chemical agents. <3> Amplify the production of antiviral cytokines. <4> Regulate the selection in the thymus. <5> Antagonize some cytokines.
Output: 1
Question: Interactions between selectins and vascular targeins: 
 Options:  <1> They are very strong. <2> They mediate the first phase of the leukocyte / endothelium adhesion. <3> They are permanent. <4> They mediate firm adhesion to the endothelium. <5> They are very intense in the spleen.
Output: 2
Question: In the processing and presentation of peptides of extracellular origin intervene (n): 
 Options:  <1> The TAP proteins. <2> The tapasina. <3> The HLA-DM molecule. <4> The proteosome. <5> The HLA-B molecules.
Output: 3
Question: The main autocrine growth factor for most T lymphocytes after antigen recognition is: 
 Options:  <1> Interleukin 2 <2> Interleukin 4 <3> Interleukin 10 <4> TGF-beta. <5> All the previous ones
Output: 1
Question: Tα CD4 + lymphocytes: 
 Options:  <1> They are functionally cooperative with B lymphocytes and other T lymphocytes. <2> They recognize native antigens in soluble form. <3> They recognize peptides in the MHC class I context. <4> They are less abundant than CD8 + in human blood. <5> They release perforins.
Output: 1
Question: It is more characteristic of Th1 than Th2 lymphocytes: 
 Options:  <1> Interleukin 5 <2> The TGF-beta. <3> Interleukin 10 <4> Interleukin 17 <5> The IFN-γ.
Output: 5
Question: Th1 lymphocytes: 
 Options:  <1> Activate B lymphocytes and eosinophils. <2> Activate macrophages and NK lymphocytes. <3> They secrete mainly IL-4. <4> They promote the production of IgE. <5> They are a type of Treg lymphocytes.
Output: 2
Question: They are involved in the lytic action of cytotoxic T lymphocytes: 
 Options:  <1> Granzimas <2> Opsonins. <3> Histamines <4> Integrins <5> Cathepsins.
Output: 1
Question: The development of B cells in the bone marrow: 
 Options:  <1> It is dependent on the antigen. <2> It begins with gene rearrangements in the kappa light chain. <3> It is dependent on stromal cells. <4> It begins with gene rearrangements in the delta heavy chain. <5> It is dependent on T lymphocytes.
Output: 3
Question: They can be part of the B lymphocyte receptor on the cell surface: 
 Options:  <1> IgM and IgG. <2> IgD and IgG. <3> IgD and IgM. <4> IgA and IgM. <5> IgG and IgE.
Output: 3
Question: Determines the isotype change of the immunoglobulin heavy chain: 
 Options:  <1> The receptor of cell B. <2> The CD40 molecule and the cytokines. <3> IgM or IgD of the lymphocyte membrane. <4> Age. <5> The location of the lymphocyte within the germinal center.
Output: 2
Question: In comparison with the primary humoral responses, the secondary ones: 
 Options:  <1> They are based primarily on IgM. <2> They are faster and more durable. <3> They generate antibodies of low affinity for the antigen. <4> They present a low level of hypermutation. <5> They generate much lower amount of antibodies.
Output: 2
Question: The most abundant immunoglobulin isotype produced by plasma cells of mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue is: 
 Options:  <1> IgM <2> IgD. <3> IgG <4> IgA <5> IgE
Output: 4
Question: The following may occur in multimeric form associated with the J chain: 
 Options:  <1> IgA and IgG. <2> IgD and IgM, <3> IdE and IgD. <4> IgA and IgD. <5> IgA and IgM.
Output: 5
Question: The classical pathway of complement is activated in response to: 
 Options:  <1> Antigen-antibody complexes. <2> Direct binding of C3b to bacterial walls. <3> Microbial glycolipids. <4> Properdin <5> The C-reactive protein.
Output: 1
Question: They are directly involved in allergic reactions: 
 Options:  <1> T lymphocytes. <2> Dendritic cells <3> Monocytes <4> Platelets. <5> Mastocytes
Output: 5
Question: Serum disease is a hypersensitivity: 
 Options:  <1> Mediated by IgE. <2> Against molecules of the extracellular matrix. <3> Mediated by deposition of immune complexes in certain tissues. <4> With formation of granulomas. <5> With activation of mast cells associated with blood vessels.
Output: 3
Question: Contact dermatitis is mediated by: 
 Options:  <1> IgE <2> IgG <3> Activated eosinophils. <4> Activated NK lymphocytes. <5> Activated Th1 lymphocytes.
Output: 5
Question: A complication of transplantation of hematopoietic precursors is: 
 Options:  <1> Common variable immunodeficiency. <2> Graft-versus-host disease. <3> Immunodeficiencies in complement components. <4> The lack of NK lymphocytes. <5> Chronic granulomatous disease.
Output: 2
Question: The most common use of indirect ELISA is the quantification of: 
 Options:  <1> Serum proteins. <2> The cytotoxicity mediated by NK lymphocytes. <3> The activation of the complement. <4> Specific antibodies in a serum. <5> Apoptosis
Output: 4
Question: As an immunoanalytical technique, flow cytometry is mainly based on the detection of signals: 
 Options:  <1> Chemiluminescent <2> Fluorescent <3> Bioluminescent <4> Piezoelectric. <5> Magnetic
Output: 2
Question: When centrifuging human peripheral blood in a density gradient in Ficoll: 
 Options:  <1> The mononuclear cells float on the Ficoll. <2> The lymphocytes remain in the background. <3> The erythrocytes float on the Ficoll. <4> The granulocytes float on the Ficoll. <5> The monocytes remain in the background.
Output: 1
Question: In comparison with polyclonal antibodies, a monoclonal antibody: 
 Options:  <1> It has low cost. <2> It has heterogeneous specificity. <3> It is of variable specificity. <4> Recognizes a single epitope. <5> It is of variable affinity.
Output: 4
Question: Type I pneumocytes: 
 Options:  <1> They produce surfactant. <2> They give rise to type II pneumocytes. <3> They have a lot of organelles. <4> They are responsible for gas exchange. <5> They are mesenchymal cells.
Output: 4
Question: It has a single nucleus in central position: 
 Options:  <1> Skeletal muscle fiber. <2> Cardiac muscle fiber. <3> Osteoclast <4> Thrombocyte <5> Erythrocyte
Output: 2