niryuu/sni-each-converted huggingface dataset:
Question: Which halogens react with methane by a radical chain reaction generating haloamines? 
 Options:  <1> Fluor and chlorine. <2> Bromine and chlorine. <3> Fluor, chlorine and bromine. <4> Everyone. <5> Iodo.
Output: 3
Question: The reduction of nitriles with diisobutyl aluminum hydride (DIBAL) provides, after the corresponding aqueous acid treatment: 
 Options:  <1> Amines <2> Acids <3> ketones. <4> Aldehydes. <5> None of the above.
Output: 4
Question: Markovnikov's rule predicts regioselectivity in the reactions of: 
 Options:  <1> Nucleophile substitution. <2> Electrophilic aromatic substitution. <3> Electrophilic addition. <4> Nucleophilic addition. <5> Oxidation of alcohols.
Output: 3
Question: The lithium dialkyl-heptarate reacts with alkyl halides to produce, by formation of carbon-carbon bonds between the alkyl group of the halide and the alkyl group of the dialkyl acetate: 
 Options:  <1> Alcanes. <2> Alquenos <3> Alquinos. <4> Aromatics <5> Piranos.
Output: 1
Question: The treatment of 1-hexyne with 1 mole of hydrogen bromide results in: 
 Options:  <1> 1-bromo-1-hexene. <2> 1-bromo-2-hexene. <3> 1-bromo-3-hexene. <4> 2-bromo-1-hexene. <5> 2-bromo-2-hexene.
Output: 4
Question: The chemistry of diazonium salts provides the main synthetic method for preparing aryl fluorides by a process called: 
 Options:  <1> Reorganization of Claisen. <2> Gabriel's reaction. <3> Diazotization reaction. <4> Sandmeyer reaction. <5> Schiemann reaction.
Output: 5
Question: The terpene that contains 10 carbon atoms and is derived from two isoprene units is called: 
 Options:  <1> Diterpene <2> Monoterpene <3> Sesquiterpene <4> Triterpene <5> Meroterpeno.
Output: 2
Question: Choose among the following phrases the one that most appropriately defines a concerted reaction: 
 Options:  <1> Reaction in a single stage in which all the links that are formed and break do so at the same time. <2> Reaction in several stages in which all the links that are formed and break do so at the same time in the slowest stage. <3> Reaction in which the speed of all stages is identical. <4> It is an equilibrium reaction in which K = 1. <5> Reaction in several stages in which all the links that are formed and break do so at the same time in the fastest stage.
Output: 1
Question: The liver converts ethanol into: 
 Options:  <1> Methanol <2> Acetone. <3> Acetaldehyde <4> Hydrogen peroxide. <5> Glycerol.
Output: 3
Question: The deoxyribonucleotides are synthesized: 
 Options:  <1> From the ribonucleotide triphosphate. <2> From the ribonucleotides diphosphate. <3> From NADPH. <4> By oxidation of ribonucleotides. <5> For DNA polymerase III.
Output: 2
Question: Which of the enzymes contains manganese? 
 Options:  <1> Glutathione S-transferase. <2> Glutathione reductase. <3> Peroxidated glutathione. <4> Superoxide dismutase. <5> Catalase
Output: 4
Question: In which of the following types of enzymatic inhibition does the value of Vmax not decrease? 
 Options:  <1> Competitive <2> Not competitive <3> Acompetitive <4> Mixed <5> It decreases in all of them.
Output: 1
Question: According to the N-terminal end rule, the N-terminal residue of a protein determines: 
 Options:  <1> Its folding rate. <2> Its intracellular concentration. <3> Its intracellular location. <4> Your average life <5> Your translation rate
Output: 4
Question: Glutathione fulfills everything that follows except: 
 Options:  <1> It is a dipeptide. <2> Eliminates peroxides and free radicals. <3> Participates in the detoxification of compounds. <4> Acts as a cofactor of some enzymes. <5> Protects against oxidative stress.
Output: 1
Question: With respect to the characteristics of the amino acids, indicate which of the following statements is false: 
 Options:  <1> Amino acids are amphoteric substances that can act as acids or bases. <2> The side chains of the amino acids can be apolar, polar without charge or they can be charged at certain pH values. <3> The side chain of the wing can undergo a process of phosphorylation. <4> The proteins are constituted by Lamino Acids. <5> The amino acids Ser, Thr and Tyr can form ester bonds with a phosphate group.
Output: 3
Question: COMPLETE: in the Krebs cycle 4 oxidation reactions occur, in 3 of them the final acceptor electron is ___ and in the other is ___: 
 Options:  <1> FAD / FMN. <2> NAD + / FMN. <3> NADP + / FAD. <4> NAD + / FAD. <5> FAD / NAD +.
Output: 4
Question: The unwinding and supercoiling of DNA are controlled by the: 
 Options:  <1> Helicasas <2> Topoisomerases <3> DNA ligases. <4> Telomerases <5> DNA polymerase
Output: 2
Question: Which of the following definitions of fluorimetry is correct? 
 Options:  <1> Fluorimetry is less sensitive than spectrometry. <2> Fluorimetry is less specific than spectrometry. <3> Unsaturated cyclic molecules are frequently fluorescent. <4> The fluorescence is directly proportional to the temperature. <5> None of the options is correct.
Output: 3
Question: Which of the following compounds provides nitrogen atoms to the purine and pyrimidine rings? 
 Options:  <1> Aspartate <2> Carbamoyl phosphate. <3> Carbon dioxide. <4> Glutamine <5> Tetrahydrofolate.
Output: 1
Question: What will be the charge of the glutamic amino acid at pH 7? 
 Options:  <1> It will not have a net charge. <2> It will have negative net charge. <3> It will have positive net charge. <4> Its side chain will be protonated. <5> Your α-amino group will be deprotonated.
Output: 2
Question: The HDL: 
 Options:  <1> They are rich in triglycerides. <2> They lack minority apoproteins. <3> They transport cholesterol from the tissues to the liver. <4> They are activated by A-III. <5> They transport essential fatty acids.
Output: 3
Question: The great diversity of immunoglobulins is mainly due to the recombination of: 
 Options:  <1> Epitopes. <2> Light chains <3> Heavy chains <4> Exons <5> Introns
Output: 4
Question: The term isocratic is used in high pressure liquid chromatography (HPLC) when: 
 Options:  <1> The mobile phase is at a constant temperature. <2> The stationary phase is in equilibrium with the mobile phase. <3> The mobile phase consists of a single solvent with a constant composition. <4> The flow rate of the mobile phase is regulated. <5> All the options are correct.
Output: 3
Question: The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) encompasses three processes. Select sequence order: 
 Options:  <1> Extension → Fusion → Denaturation. <2> Fusion → Denaturing → Extension. <3> Denaturing → Fusion → Extension. <4> Denaturing → Extension → Fusion. <5> Extension → Denaturation → Fusion.
Output: 3
Question: All of the following statements that describe restriction endonucleases are true EXCEPT: 
 Options:  <1> They do not provide single chain ends in complementary pieces of DNA. <2> They are limited by the methylation of the recognition sequences. <3> They recognize palidromic sequences. <4> They break both chains in the DNA duplex. <5> They are specific to short symmetric sequences.
Output: 1
Question: Acetylation of histones affects transcription: 
 Options:  <1> Blocking the incorporation of other components of the transcription machinery. <2> Preventing the remodeling of chromatin. <3> Facilitating the action of helicases. <4> Decreasing sensitivity to nuclear receptors. <5> Reducing the affinity of histones for DNA.
Output: 5
Question: What group of amino acids, when they are part of the proteins, can be phosphorylated? 
 Options:  <1> Val, Ser, Thr. <2> Phe, Ala, Gly. <3> Val, Glu, Asp. <4> Tyr, Ser, Thr. <5> Lys, Ser, Ile.
Output: 4
Question: The aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases: 
 Options:  <1> They participate in the synthesis of the TRANs. <2> They participate in the maturation of the precursors of the TRANs. <3> They are responsible for the synthesis of amino acids. <4> They are responsible for the interpretation of the genetic code. <5> They synthesize parts of the ribosomes.
Output: 4
Question: A key reaction in the regulation of gene expression is acetylation / desatethylation in the histones of some of its residues: 
 Options:  <1> Serina <2> Threonine <3> Lysine <4> Tryptophan <5> To the girl.
Output: 3
Question: During DNA replication: 
 Options: <1> The two strands are synthesized continuously. <2> Ribozymes intervene. <3> The deoxyribonucleotide triphosphates are oxidized. <4> A primasa intervenes. <5> The two strands remain joined by hydrogen bonds.
Output: 4
Question: Which amino acid serves as a starting point for the synthesis of porphyrins (heme group)? 
 Options:  <1> Valina <2> To the girl. <3> Asparagine <4> Lysine <5> Glycine
Output: 5
Question: What pair of modified amino acids is very common in collagen? 
 Options:  <1> 4-Hydroxy-proline and 5-Hydroxy-lysine. <2> Histamine and 5-Methyl-lysine. <3> Carboxyglutamate and 4-Hydroxy-proline. <4> S-Adenosyl-methionine and 5-Methyl-proline. <5> Methyl-Phenylalanine and Histamine.
Output: 1
Question: The electron transport molecules: 
 Options:  <1> They are coenzymes of a nucleotide nature. <2> They exchange electrons in oxidation-reduction reactions. <3> They are molecules capable of oxidation and reduction. <4> FAD (flavin adenine dinucleotide) and FMN (flavin mononucleotides) are electron transport molecules. <5> All are true.
Output: 5
Question: Which of these compounds directly donates the 2nd amino group to the urea cycle? 
 Options:  <1> Aspartic. <2> Glutamic <3> Glutamine <4> Glycine <5> Ornithine
Output: 1
Question: The mitochondrial complex α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase needs all the following compounds EXEPT: 
 Options:  <1> CoA. <2> FAD. <3> NAD +. <4> NADP +. <5> Thiamine pyrophosphate.
Output: 4
Question: Which of the following strands of DNA has the same nucleotide sequence (except the change of T per U) as its primary transcript? 
 Options:  <1> The leading thread. <2> The Watson strand. <3> The Crick strand. <4> The mold thread. <5> The coding strand.
Output: 5
Question: The term DOMAIN refers to: 
 Options:  <1> The ends of the polypeptide chains of a protein. <2> Compact segments of globular proteins, which are structurally independent and have specific functions. <3> Combinations of alpha helices and beta sheets without a particular function. <4> Each of the individual polypeptide chains of an oligomer. <5> The structure of fibrous proteins.
Output: 2
Question: In prothrombin, the conversion reaction of glutamate to γ-carboxyglutamate is dependent on: 
 Options:  <1> Vitamin K. <2> Vitamin D. <3> Vitamin A. <4> Vitamin C. <5> Vitamin E.
Output: 1
Question: Pyruvate carboxylase is allosterically activated by one of the following compounds, what is it? 
 Options:  <1> Pyruvate. <2> Acetyl-CoA. <3> Malate. <4> Oxalacetate. <5> NAD +.
Output: 2
Question: Which of the following values ​​is closest to the estimated value for the standard free energy increase of ATP hydrolysis? 
 Options:  <1> - 1.4 Kcal / mol. <2> - 2.6 Kcal / mol. <3> + 3.5 Kcal / mol. <4> - 7.0 Kcal / mol. <5> + 7.0 Kcal / mol.
Output: 4
Question: What amino acids can be bound to a sugar by an O-glycosidic bond? 
 Options:  <1> Ser and Thr. <2> Cys and Ser. <3> Asn and Thr. <4> Lys and His. <5> Val and Leu.
Output: 1
Question: In the alcaptonuria the defective enzyme can be: 
 Options:  <1> Dihydrobiopterin reductase. <2> Tyrosine aminotransferase. <3> p-hydroxyphenylpyruvate dioxygenase. <4> Homogentisic 1,2-dioxygenase. <5> Fumarilacetoacetasa.
Output: 4
Question: Indicate which of the following vitamins is not fat-soluble: 
 Options:  <1> Vitamin E. <2> Vitamin D. <3> Vitamin K. <4> Vitamin B. <5> Vitamin A.
Output: 4
Question: Which of the following steps is not part of gluconeogenesis? 
 Options:  <1> Oxalacetate to pyruvate. <2> Pyruvate to oxaloacetate. <3> Glucose-6-P to glucose. <4> Fructose-1, 6-bisP to fructose-6-P. <5> Oxalacetate to phosphoenolpyruvate.
Output: 1
Question: The carboxypeptidases A and B: 
 Options:  <1> They are endopeptidases. <2> They are excreted by exocrine cells of the intestine. <3> They are excreted by exocrine cells of the stomach. <4> They are synthesized by endocrine cells of the liver. <5> They are synthesized by exocrine cells of the pancreas.
Output: 5
Question: With respect to the peptide bond, indicate which of the following statements is FALSE: 
 Options:  <1> It has partial character of double bond. <2> Form a small dipole. <3> Its formation involves the elimination of a molecule of water. <4> The peptide chain rotates freely through the peptide bond. <5> In an amide link.
Output: 4
Question: In collagen, what is the amino acid that is repeated every three residues? 
 Options:  <1> Glycine <2> To the girl. <3> Proline <4> Lysine <5> Hydroxyproline
Output: 1
Question: An unknown enzyme that affects DNA has been isolated from E. coli. When a solution of this enzyme is mixed with supercoiled plasmid DNA, its only effect is to relax DNA. At the end of the exposure to the enzyme solution, the plasmid DNA is covalently closed and is still circular. This enzyme is one: 
 Options:  <1> Restriction endonuclease. <2> Primasa <3> Reverse transcriptase <4> Helicasa <5> Topoisomerase
Output: 5
Question: With respect to the control points of the expression of eukaryotic genes, indicate which of the following statements is false: 
 Options:  <1> Modification of the gene structure. <2> Regulation of transcription. <3> Ripening of RNA <4> Maturation of DNA. <5> Stability of RNA.
Output: 4
Question: Indicate the net charge of an amino acid with a neutral R group for a pH value below its pI: 
 Options:  <1> Negative net charge. <2> Positive net charge. <3> Without charge. <4> It is necessary to know the exact pH value to answer this question. <5> It is necessary to know the concentration of the amino acid to answer this question.
Output: 2
Question: The RNA Polymerase I of eukaryotes transcribes the genes of: 
 Options:  <1> The precursors of mRNAs. <2> The precursors of the TRANs. <3> The ribosomal RNAs 18S, 5,8S and 28S. <4> All precursors of cellular RNAs. <5> The catalytic RNAs.
Output: 3
Question: The degree of fluidity of the biological membranes depends on the percentage of: 
 Options:  <1> Lipids with hill. <2> Glycolipids. <3> Sphingolipids <4> Free fatty acids. <5> Unsaturated fatty acids.
Output: 5
Question: Where does glycosylation take place in a eukaryotic cell? 
 Options:  <1> In the endoplasmic reticulum and the Golgi Apparatus. <2> Only in the Golgi Apparatus. <3> In the mitochondria and the Golgi Apparatus. <4> Only in the endoplasmic reticulum. <5> In the endoplasmic reticulum and the plasma membrane.
Output: 1
Question: In what type of reaction does the cytochrome P-450 of the liver typically intervene? 
 Options:  <1> Hydration. <2> Reduction. <3> Hydrolysis. <4> Esterification <5> Hydroxylation
Output: 5
Question: The clinical sensitivity of an analytical parameter (test) is defined as: 
 Options:  <1> The mean concentrations of this test in healthy patients. <2> A pathological concentration of the test in the presence of the disease. <3> A pathological concentration of the test in the absence of the disease. <4> A normal concentration of the test in the absence of the disease. <5> A normal concentration of the test in the presence of the disease.
Output: 2
Question: What is the relationship between turbidimetry and nephelometry? 
 Options:  <1> Nephelometry is the inverse of turbidimetry. <2> Turbidimetry is more sensitive than nephelometry. <3> Nephelometry can be measured with a conventional spectrophotometer. <4> Both technologies measure the dispersion of light. <5> Both technologies are the most sensitive and used in clinical laboratories.
Output: 4
Question: How does the increase in temperature affect the reaction between antigen and antibody? 
 Options:  <1> Increases the reaction rate and decreases binding affinity. <2> It decreases the reaction rate and increases the binding affinity. <3> Increases the reaction rate and binding affinity. <4> Decreases the reaction rate and binding affinity. <5> None of the above options is correct.
Output: 1
Question: Which of the following modifications is not part of the maturation process suffered by the precursors of the tRNAs? 
 Options:  <1> Modification of bases. <2> Elimination of the 5'-end leader sequence. <3> Elimination of the final segment of the 3 'end. <4> Addition of CCA to the 3 'end. <5> Polyadenylation of the 3'-end.
Output: 5
Question: The proofreading activity of DNA Polymerase: 
 Options:  <1> It is a 5'-3'exonuclease activity. <2> It is a 3'-5'exonuclease activity. <3> It is a 5'-3'polymerizing activity. <4> It is an endonuclease activity. <5> It is a transesterification activity.
Output: 2
Question: Glycolysis is the only ATP-producing route in: 
 Options:  <1> Erythrocytes <2> Lymphocytes <3> Hepatocytes <4> Neurons <5> Adipocytes
Output: 1
Question: The ribonucleotide reductase: 
 Options:  <1> Involved in the synthesis of deoxyribonucleotides. <2> It uses NADPH as a coenzyme. <3> It is an enzymatic system. <4> Acts in collaboration with the thioredoxin. <5> All the above is true.
Output: 5
Question: On which of the following enzymes does citrate exert a positive allosteric effect? 
 Options:  <1> Pyruvate kinase. <2> Acetyl CoA carboxylase. <3> Fosfofructoquinasa. <4> Fatty acid synthetase. <5> Enolasa
Output: 2
Question: Glucagon increases the activity of: 
 Options:  <1> Protein kinase A. <2> Acetyl-CoA carboxylase. <3> Pyruvate kinase. <4> Glycogen synthase. <5> Fosfofructoquinasa-1.
Output: 1
Question: The aminotransferases: 
 Options:  <1> They participate only in the synthesis of amino acids. <2> They participate only in the degradation of amino acids. <3> They participate in the synthesis and degradation of amino acids. <4> Your heart levels are very low. <5> None of the previous answers is true.
Output: 3
Question: The enzyme succinate dehydrogenase catalyses the dehydrogenation reaction dependent on: 
 Options:  <1> NADPH. <2> FMN <3> NAD +. <4> FAD. <5> CoA.
Output: 4
Question: Nitric Oxide (NO) is synthesized from the amino acid: 
 Options:  <1> Arginine <2> Asparagine <3> To the girl. <4> Aspartate <5> Valina
Output: 1
Question: One of the enzymes mentioned below does not intervene in glycogen metabolism: 
 Options:  <1> Glycogen synthase. <2> Glycogen phosphorylase. <3> Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase. <4> Phosphoglucomutase <5> UDP-glucose pyrophosphorylase.
Output: 3
Question: It is not included among the lipids found in biological membranes: 
 Options:  <1> Isopentenyl pyrophosphate. <2> Phosphatidylinositol. <3> Sphingomyelin <4> Phosphatidic acid. <5> Phosphatidylethanolamine.
Output: 1
Question: A non-immunogenic low molecular weight molecule, which is when coupled to an antigenic carrier protein, is a: 
 Options:  <1> Glycoconjugate. <2> Paratope <3> Isotype. <4> Epitope. <5> Hapteno.
Output: 5
Question: Among the many molecules of high energy phosphate compounds that are formed as a consequence of the functioning of the citric acid cycle, a molecule is synthesized at the substrate level. In which of the following reactions does it produce you? 
 Options:  <1> Citrate → α-ketoglutarate. <2> Succinyl-CoA → succinate. <3> Succinate → fumarate. <4> Fumarate → malate. <5> Malate → oxaloacetate.
Output: 2
Question: What does it mean that hemoglobin binds O2 cooperatively? 
 Options:  <1> That the binding of an O2 molecule to a subunit of hemoglobin drives the binding of other subunits to form a complete protein hemoglobin. <2> That the binding of an O2 molecule to a subunit of hemoglobin increases the affinity of the same subunit to bind more O2 molecules. <3> That the binding of an O2 molecule to a subunit of hemoglobin increases the affinity of other subunits for O2. <4> That the union of an O2 molecule to a protein hemoglobin causes the union of another O2 molecule to another protein different hemoglobin. <5> None of this is true.
Output: 3
Question: A clathrate is: 
 Options:  <1> A type of covalent interaction. <2> The formation of a regular water network around non-polar molecules. <3> The formation of a regular network of water around polar molecules. <4> The structure of a lipid network around a protein. <5> A nucleoprotein complex.
Output: 2
Question: The cyclic electronic flow of photosynthesis: 
 Options:  <1> It uses the components of photosystem II together with plastocyanin and cytochrome b6f. <2> Generates ATP and NADPH. <3> It occurs in situations in which NADPH is in short supply. <4> It generates ATP without reducing NADP +. <5> Free O2.
Output: 4
Question: The α-keratin consists of: 
 Options:  <1> Two dextrorotative α-propellers coiled to form a left-handed helix. <2> Two dextrorotary propellers coiled to form a left-handed helix. <3> Two levorotylar helices coiled to form a levorotatory helix. <4> Two levógiras α helices coiled to form a dextrorotatory helix. <5> One helix α levorotatory and one dextrorotatory coiled to form a levorotatory helix.
Output: 1
Question: Indicate the amino acid that, under physiological conditions, has an uncharged side chain: 
 Options:  <1> Arginine <2> Aspartic acid. <3> Glutamic acid. <4> Lysine <5> Threonine
Output: 5
Question: The clinical specificity of an analytical parameter (test), with respect to a certain pathology, is defined as: 
 Options:  <1> The mean concentrations of this test in healthy patients. <2> A pathological concentration of the test in the presence of the disease. <3> A pathological concentration of the test in the absence of the disease. <4> A normal concentration of the test in the absence of the disease. <5> A normal concentration of the test in the presence of the disease.
Output: 4
Question: Linolenic acid (18: 39, 12, 15) is a fatty acid: 
 Options:  <1> Polyunsaturated. <2> Saturated. <3> Polysaturated <4> With triple link. <5> Branched.
Output: 1
Question: Transcription factors: 
 Options:  <1> They bind to chromatin by interaction with histone H2A. <2> They bind to RNA and regulate the start of transcription. <3> They join the DNA. <4> They are organized into nucleosomes. <5> They regulate DNA mutilation.
Output: 3
Question: The metal that appears most frequently in the active site of metalloproteases is: 
 Options:  <1> Calcium. <2> Magnesium. <3> Selenium. <4> Sodium. <5> Zinc.
Output: 5
Question: The Aminoacyl-tRNAs: 
 Options:  <1> They are the precursors of the RANs. <2> They are enzymes that catalyze the synthesis of amino acids. <3> They are part of the ribosomes. <4> They are the tRNAs loaded with the amino acid specified by its anticodon sequence. <5> They are synthesized by RNA Polymerase II.
Output: 4
Question: Which of the following products of the degradation of triacylglycerols and subsequent oxidation can undergo gluconeogenesis? 
 Options:  <1> Propionyl CoA. <2> Acetyl CoA <3> All the ketone bodies. <4> Some amino acids <5> -Hydroxybutyrate.
Output: 1
Question: The standard free energy of activation of a reaction is: 
 Options:  <1> The difference in free energy between the basal state of the products and the substrates. <2> The difference of the enthalpy minus the entropy of the system. <3> The basal energy of the substrates in a catalyzed reaction. <4> The additional free energy that molecules must reach to reach the state of transition. <5> The energy released from a catalysed reaction.
Output: 4
Question: Mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation is regulated by: 
 Options:  <1> Mitochondrial steroid hormones. <2> Apoptosis <3> Thermogenin <4> The cytochrome c. <5> The cellular energy charge.
Output: 5
Question: The carbon skeleton of proline enters the citric acid cycle in the form of: 
 Options:  <1> Fumarate <2> Isocitrate. <3> α-Cetuglutarate. <4> Oxalacetate. <5> Succinate
Output: 3
Question: The pyruvate carboxylase activity depends on the positive allosteric effector: 
 Options:  <1> Succinate <2> AMP. <3> Isocitrate. <4> Citrate. <5> Acetyl CoA
Output: 5
Question: The key regulatory enzyme in the pentose phosphate pathway is regulated positively by: 
 Options:  <1> NADH <2> ADP. <3> GTP <4> NADP +. <5> FADH.
Output: 4
Question: Ribonuclease H hydrolyzes specifically: 
 Options:  <1> The DNA with DNA matching complementary sequence. <2> RNA with DNA matching of complementary sequence. <3> The RNA primer in the replication. <4> RNA without pairing with DNA of complementary sequence <5> Certain introns in the maturation process.
Output: 2
Question: In the urea cycle: 
 Options:  <1> Enzymes that participate are located in the mitochondria. <2> Genetic defects can be treated with benzoate. <3> An intermediate metabolite is N-acetylglutamate. <4> Lysine is synthesized. <5> Carbamylphosphate synthetase II intervenes.
Output: 2
Question: The DNA link number: 
 Options:  <1> It is the number of hydrogen bonds of a double-stranded DNA. <2> It is the number of optimal matings in a double-stranded DNA. <3> It is the number of phosphoester bonds in a single-stranded DNA. <4> It is a topological property and defines the degree of supercoiling of a DNA. <5> It is the number of turns in double-stranded DNA.
Output: 4
Question: In the path that leads in the liver to acetoacetate biosynthesis from acetyl CoA, which of the following substances is the immediate precursor of acetoacetate? 
 Options:  <1> 3-Hydroxybutyrate <2> Acetoacetyl CoA. <3> 3-Hydroxybutyrate CoA. <4> Mevalonic acid. <5> 3-Hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl. CoA.
Output: 5
Question: Which of these compounds is a product generated directly by the pentose route? 
 Options:  <1> NADP +. <2> NADPH. <3> NADH <4> Fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate. <5> CoA.
Output: 2
Question: Which of these vitamins are isoprenoid compounds? 
 Options:  <1> Vitamins A, B2, C and D. <2> Vitamins A, B2 and Folic acid. <3> Vitamins A, K and biotin. <4> Vitamins D, E and C. <5> Vitamins A, D, E and K.
Output: 5
Question: The repeating element of the DNA structure is called: 
 Options:  <1> Spiceosome <2> Nucleosome <3> Chromosome. <4> Replisome <5> Primosoma.
Output: 2
Question: The binding of an allosteric activator to an allosteric enzyme typically results in: 
 Options:  <1> Decrease the Vmax. <2> The transition to a less soluble state. <3> Decrease the Km by its substrate. <4> The transition to hyperbolic kinetics. <5> The dissociation of its subunits.
Output: 3
Question: The secretion of insulin by pancreatic cells is regulated positively by: 
 Options:  <1> Inhibition of hexokinase IV. <2> Activation of K + channels. <3> Inactivation of Ca ++ channels. <4> High concentration of ATP. <5> Low blood glucose levels
Output: 4
Question: How is it possible that during the replication of the bacterial DNA the guide (or forward) and delayed strands are synthesized in a coordinated way? 
 Options:  <1> The guide strand is synthesized in the 5'-3'direction and the delayed one in the 3'-5'direction. <2> The holoenzyme DNA Polymerase III contains two copies of the catalytic core of the enzyme. <3> Proteins bound to the delayed strand control the synthesis speed of the guide strand. <4> Specific enzymes control the opening of the replication fork. <5> The helicase controls the speed of synthesis in both strands.
Output: 2
Question: Point out the correct statement: 
 Options:  <1> At low pO2, myoglobin is more saturated with O2 than hemoglobin. <2> CO2 increases the affinity of hemoglobin for O2. <3> 2,3 Bisphosphoglycerate is strongly bound in oxygenated hemoglobin. <4> The tissues that produce lactate release more O 2. <5> At high pO2, hemoglobin has 2 subunits.
Output: 1
Question: Glucagon affects blood glucose by: 
 Options:  <1> Inhibit the degradation of hepatic glycogen. <2> Activate hepatic glycolysis. <3> Activate hepatic gluconeogenesis. <4> Inhibit the mobilization of fatty acids. <5> Inhibit hepatic ketogenesis.
Output: 3
Question: Which of these phrases about gluconeogenesis is not correct? 
 Options:  <1> In gluconeogenesis enzymatic reactions different from glycolysis are used. <2> Gluconeogenesis is the synthesis of glucose from precursors that are carbohydrates. <3> Gluconeogenesis has as main substrates lactate, amino acids, propionate and glycerol. <4> Gluconeogenesis occurs mainly in the cytosol. <5> Gluconeogenesis uses specific enzymes to avoid three irreversible reactions in glycolysis.
Output: 2
Question: The particles of recognition of the signal have as function: 
 Options:  <1> Break the signal sequence. <2> Detect cytosolic proteins. <3> Direct the signal sequences to the ribosomes. <4> Link the ribosomes to the endoplasmic reticulum. <5> Join the mRNA to the ribosomes.
Output: 4
Question: Which coenzyme is involved in the synthesis of nitric oxide (NO)? 
 Options:  <1> NADH <2> NADPH. <3> FAD. <4> CoA. <5> Thiamine.
Output: 2
Question: The prozone effect of a turbidimetric analysis can be detected by measuring the absorbance: 
 Options:  <1> After an ultracentrifugation. <2> Previous concentration of the sample. <3> After dilution of the sample. <4> Once the sample was treated with SDS. <5> Two consecutive times.
Output: 3
Question: The DNA Girasa is: 
 Options:  <1> A eukaryotic Topoisomerase I. <2> A eukaryotic Topoisomerase II <3> A prokaryotic Topoisomerase I <4> A prokaryotic Topoisomerase II. <5> A prokaryotic Helicasa.
Output: 4
Question: What enzyme is present in complex II that participates in oxidative phosphorylation? 
 Options:  <1> Coenzyme Q: cytochrome c oxidoreductase. <2> NADH dehydrogenase. <3> Succinate-coenzyme Q reductase. <4> ATP synthase. <5> Cytochrome c oxidase.
Output: 3
Question: Which of the following enzyme complexes catalyzes the reduction of molecular oxygen to water during oxidative phosphorylation? 
 Options:  <1> ATP synthase. <2> Cytochrome c oxidase. <3> NADH-Q oxide-reductase. <4> Q-cytochrome c-oxide-reductase. <5> Succinate-Q reductase.
Output: 2
Question: The presence of which of the following structural arrangements in a protein suggests that it is a regulatory protein for DNA binding: 
 Options:  <1> Plate . <2> Disordered region. <3> Helix . <4> Chaperones <5> Finger of zinc.
Output: 5
Question: The chemical reactions of the splicing process of the introns during the maturation of the pre-mRNAs consists of: 
 Options:  <1> An oxidation-reduction reaction. <2> A transesterification reaction. <3> Two sequential transesterification reactions. <4> Three sequential transesterification reactions. <5> A transesterification reaction followed by another oxidation reaction.
Output: 3
Question: DNA fotoliasa: 
 Options:  <1> Repairs cyclobutane pyrimidine dimers in the presence of visible light. <2> It binds to DNA specifically in purine dimers. <3> It contains three chromophores. <4> It is present in all eukaryotic cells. <5> It breaks the bonds that link pyrimidine rings and then dissociates in the presence of visible light.
Output: 1
Question: In protein biosynthesis: 
 Options:  <1> The information contained in the two DNA chains is translated. <2> The messenger RNA is translated in the 5'-3'direction. <3> Initiation occurs in the promoter sequence. <4> Start with the most abundant amino acid. <5> Start with different amino acid according to the protein to be synthesized.
Output: 2
Question: The new proteins destined for secretion are synthesized in: 
 Options:  <1> Golgi apparatus. <2> Smooth endoplasmic reticulum. <3> Free polysomes. <4> Nucleus. <5> Rough endoplasmic reticulum.
Output: 5
Question: During a prolonged fast: 
 Options:  <1> The low level of blood sugar decreases the secretion of glucagon and increase the insulin. <2> Decreases the concentration of acetyl-CoA. <3> The main fuel of the organism happens to be the fatty acids and the ketone bodies. <4> The proteins are degraded and replenished immediately. <5> The brain and the heart use fatty acids as fuels.
Output: 3
Question: Which of the following answers is correct regarding a tRNA? 
 Options:  <1> The tRNA has an anticodon that recognizes the template DNA. <2> The amino acid is attached to the 5'-end. <3> It contains a polyA tail at its 3 'end. <4> It may contain pseudouridin and inosine. <5> It serves as a gene for some viruses.
Output: 4
Question: Which of the following statements regarding the double-stranded DNA molecule is true? 
 Options:  <1> All the hydroxyl groups of the pentoses participate in the bonds. <2> The bases are perpendicular to the axis. <3> Each chain is identical. <4> Each chain is parallel. <5> Each chain replicates itself.
Output: 2
Question: Relating to topoisomerases: 
 Options:  <1> They are enzymes that convert the D-amino acids into L-amino acids. <2> They are enzymes that synthesize DNA. <3> They are enzymes that participate in the union of the subunits of the ribosome. <4> They are enzymes that denature DNA. <5> DNA gyrase is a special toposiomerase.
Output: 5
Question: An exergonic reaction: 
 Options:  <1> It is always spontaneous. <2> It is always endothermic. <3> It is done at a great speed. <4> G is positive. <5> All are correct.
Output: 1
Question: In what units is usually expressed the coefficient of molar absorptivity? 
 Options:  <1> mL mol-1 cm. <2> L mol-1 cm-3. <3> Photons per mole. <4> M-1 cm-1. <5> It is dimensionless.
Output: 4
Question: Which compound acts as a sulfhydryl buffer and as an antioxidant? 
 Options:  <1> Glycogen <2> Glutamic acid. <3> Glucagon. <4> Glutathione <5> Ascorbic acid.
Output: 4
Question: Heating of 4-methoxy-3,5-dinitrobenzenesulfonic acid with dilute sulfuric acid gives: 
 Options:  <1> 4-Methoxy-3,5-dinitrophenol. <2> 3,5-Diamino-4-methoxybenzenesulfonic acid. <3> 4-methoxy-3,5-dinitrobenzenesulfonic acid anhydride <4> 2-Methoxy-1,3-dinitrobenzene. <5> An organic cation
Output: 4
Question: In the homogeneous nucleation: 
 Options:  <1> If the solid particles formed under solidification have a radius less than the critical radius, the energy of the system will be lower if its size increases. <2> If the solid particles formed under solidification have a radius smaller than the critical radius, the energy of the system will be lower if it is redissolved. <3> If the solid particles formed under solidification have a radius greater than the critical radius, the energy of the system will be lower if it is redissolved. <4> If the solid particles formed under solidification have a radius equal to the critical, the energy of the system will be lower if it is redissolved. <5> There is no relationship between the critical radius and the tendency to grow in size or redissolve.
Output: 2
Question: In the Urea Cycle, where is the hydrolysis of ATP required? 
 Options:  <1> In the formation of Citrulline. <2> In the Ornithine formation. <3> In the formation of Urea. <4> In the formation of Carbamoyl-Phosphate. <5> 3 and 4 are correct.
Output: 4
Question: Ferrous oxide, known as wustite (FeO) is non-stoichiometric because it contains: 
 Options:  <1> Excess iron <2> Oxygen excess <3> Iron defect. <4> Oxygen defect. <5> Defect of iron and oxygen.
Output: 3
Question: Which of the nucleophiles listed below has a greater reactivity to the bimolecular nucleophilic substitution reaction? 
 Options:  <1> Hydroxide. <2> I last. <3> Ammonia. <4> Water. <5> Acetic acid.
Output: 2
Question: The three-dimensional arrangement of a protein corresponds to: 
 Options:  <1> Its primary structure <2> Its secondary structure. <3> Its tertiary structure. <4> Its quaternary structure. <5> With its primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary structure.
Output: 3
Question: It gives the plasma membrane high water permeability: 
 Options:  <1> Aquaporins. <2> Ionic channels. <3> Na + / K + -ATPase. <4> Cl / HCO3 exchanger. <5> Its lipid composition.
Output: 1
Question: The action potential starts in the membrane of the initial segment of the axon by: 
 Options:  <1> Be the place where the synapse occurs. <2> Have a higher excitation threshold. <3> Present high concentration of voltage-dependent channels. <4> Present Na + channels regulated by ligand <5> Start there the axon myelin sheath.
Output: 3
Question: A potential receiver: 
 Options:  <1> It is produced by the opening of voltage-dependent channels. <2> Increase its frequency if the intensity of the stimulus increases. <3> It occurs after the binding of the neurotransmitter to the postsynaptic receptor. <4> They occur if the trigger threshold is exceeded. <5> It can be exciter or inhibitor.
Output: 5
Question: In smooth muscle fibers: 
 Options:  <1> The functional unit is the sarcomere. <2> The contraction is regulated by troponin. <3> The autonomous system always innervates all fibers. <4> Actinamyosin cross bridges do not form. <5> There may be hormone receptors.
Output: 5
Question: Regarding the tendon reflex of Golgi: 
 Options:  <1> It is monosynaptic. <2> The receptors are in series with the extrafusal muscle fibers. <3> It is mediated by afferent fibers type la and ll. <4> Activates α-motor neurons that innervate the muscle in which the receptor is located. <5> It is very sensitive to changes in muscle length.
Output: 2
Question: In the parasympathetic system: 
 Options:  <1> The preganglionic neuron is in thoracic spinal cord. <2> Postganglionic neurons have short axons. <3> Postganglionic fibers release noradrenaline. <4> Postganglionic neurons have muscarinic receptors. <5> Numerous neurons innervate vascular smooth muscle of the extremities.
Output: 2
Question: They are secondary interoceptor mechanoreceptors: 
 Options:  <1> The corpuscle of Pacini and Ruffini. <2> The taste buds. <3> The receptors of the vestibular apparatus. <4> The hair cells of the organ of Corti. <5> The muscle bones.
Output: 3
Question: Spatial discrimination of tactile stimuli: 
 Options:  <1> It increases with the size of the receiving fields. <2> It increases if the convergence of the afferent pathways is large. <3> Increase if there is lateral inhibition <4> It is independent of the density of innervation. <5> It depends only on the type of activated receiver.
Output: 3
Question: The optical path partially decimates in: 
 Options:  <1> The optical band. <2> The geniculate body. <3> The optic chiasm <4> The retina. <5> The optical disc.
Output: 3
Question: In the human eye: 
 Options:  <1> Photoreceptors contact the vitreous humor. <2> The accommodation is due to the increase in the curvature of the cornea. <3> The pigmentary epithelium participates in the regeneration of rhodopsin. <4> The cones and rods are distributed homogeneously throughout the retina. <5> The greatest refractive power is in the lens.
Output: 3
Question: In the human ear: 
 Options:  <1> The stereocilia of the sensory cells are bathed in perilymph. <2> The abutment fits over the round window. <3> The sensory cells are on the Reissner membrane. <4> The synaptan receptor cells with fibers from the eighth cranial nerve. <5> The helicotrema communicates the middle and tympanic ramps.
Output: 4
Question: After the intake increases the release of: 
 Options:  <1> Insulin. <2> ACTH. <3> Cortisol <4> Adrenaline from the adrenal medulla. <5> GH
Output: 1
Question: Motor cranial nerves: 
 Options:  <1> They have their somas in the dorsal ganglia of the cervical region. <2> They originate in the brainstem. <3> They receive the name of the medullary region through which they exit. <4> They belong only to the somatic nervous system. <5> They originate in the cerebral cortex.
Output: 2
Question: The main function of the cerebellum is: 
 Options:  <1> Coordinate complex muscle movements. <2> Coordinate endocrine and nervous responses. <3> Control digestion, circulation and breathing. <4> Control the wake-sleep cycle. <5> Control the intake.
Output: 1
Question: Controls the passage of substances to the central nervous system: 
 Options:  <1> Meninges. <2> Choroid plexus. <3> Hemato-encephalic barrier. <4> White substance <5> Schwann cells and oligodendrocytes.
Output: 3
Question: They send efferent projections from the cerebellar cortex the: 
 Options:  <1> Purkinje cells. <2> Climbing fibers <3> Granular cells. <4> Horizontal cells. <5> Mossy fibers.
Output: 1
Question: The sensory signals arrive mainly at the layer of the cerebral cortex number: 
 Options:  <1> II. <2> III. <3> IV. <4> V. <5> SAW.
Output: 3
Question: The cells of the sinus node present: 
 Options:  <1> Stable membrane potential. <2> Contractile capacity <3> Depolarization faster than Purkinje fibers. <4> Depolarization mediated by Ca2 + channels. <5> Long plateau.
Output: 4
Question: A hemorrhage: 
 Options:  <1> Activates the arterial baroreceptors. <2> It produces peripheral vasoconstriction. <3> Reduce ADH levels. <4> Inhibits the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone axis. <5> Releases natriuretic atrial peptide.
Output: 2
Question: Vasconstricts systemic arterioles: 
 Options:  <1> Low pO2. <2> Low pH. <3> Angiotensin II. <4> Acetylcholine <5> Nitric oxide.
Output: 3
Question: Increase the stroke volume if: 
 Options:  <1> Increase afterload. <2> Increase the preload. <3> The sympathetic is inhibited. <4> Decreases venous return. <5> Increase heart rate
Output: 2
Question: Cardiac output decreases the increase of: 
 Options:  <1> The volemia. <2> The venous return. <3> Vagal activity. <4> The end-diastolic volume. <5> The myocardial contractility.
Output: 3
Question: An increase in blood pressure between 80 and 150 mmHg increases diuresis because: 
 Options:  <1> The glomerular filtration increases exponentially. <2> Decreases the peritubular reabsorption of water. <3> The efferent arteriole contracts. <4> Proportionally increases renal blood flow. <5> The afferent arteriole contracts.
Output: 2
Question: The atrial syncytium is separated from the ventricular by: 
 Options:  <1> The atrio-ventricular valves. <2> The semilunar valves. <3> The fibrous skeleton. <4> The interventricular septum. <5> The Beam of His.
Output: 3
Question: The papillary muscles: 
 Options:  <1> They contract atrio-ventricular valves. <2> They prevent the reflux of blood to the atria. <3> They avoid the eversion of the semilunar valves. <4> They form the interventricular septum. <5> They are formed by visceral smooth muscle.
Output: 2
Question: The first level of heart rate and respiratory control is: 
 Options:  <1> The cerebral cortex <2> Spinal cord. <3> The cerebellum <4> The bulb. <5> The hypothalamus
Output: 4
Question: The pulmonary surfactant: 
 Options:  <1> It is secreted by type I pneumocytes. <2> Stabilizes the alveoli. <3> Its main component is albumin. <4> Increases the surface tension of the alveolus. <5> It is only in the small alveoli.
Output: 2
Question: The functional residual capacity is volume: 
 Options:  <1> Residual plus expiratory reserve. <2> Pulmonary after forced expiration. <3> Residual. <4> Maximum that can be inspired. <5> Current plus expiratory reserve.
Output: 1
Question: The stimulation of the carotid bodies: 
 Options:  <1> Decreases the pH of arterial blood. <2> PCO2 decreases in arterial blood. <3> Increases the arterial concentration of bicarbonate. <4> Increases the urinary excretion of sodium. <5> Lowers blood pressure
Output: 2
Question: Alveolar ventilation is the volume of air that: 
 Options:  <1> It enters (or exits) the lungs in each breath. <2> It enters (or exits) in the airways every minute. <3> It remains in the alveoli after a normal expiration. <4> Enter (or exit) in the lung exchange zones in one minute <5> It remains in the alveoli after a forced expiration.
Output: 4
Question: On the thick ascending branch of the loop of Henle: 
 Options:  <1> Water is reabsorbed. <2> The tubular liquid is diluted. <3> Water reabsorption depends on ADH. <4> The reabsorption of urea depends on ADH. <5> Aldosterone stimulates Na + reabsorption.
Output: 2
Question: In the kidney, sympathetic stimulation increases: 
 Options:  <1> The renal excretion of sodium. <2> The renal excretion of water. <3> The radius of the afferent arteriole. <4> Glomerular filtration. <5> The release of renin.
Output: 5
Question: ADH increases the osmolality of the renal interstitial medium because it increases: 
 Options:  <1> The permeability to urea in the collector tube. <2> The water permeability of the ascending loop of Henle. <3> The flow in the straight vessels. <4> The reabsorption of NaCl in the collecting tubule. <5> The renal excretion of water.
Output: 1
Question: In biliary secretion there are: 
 Options:  <1> Carboxypeptidase <2> Trypsin <3> Chymotrypsin <4> Lecithin. <5> Elatasa
Output: 4
Question: The main stimulus for secretion of secretin is the presence in the duodenum of: 
 Options:  <1> acid pH <2> Carbohydrates <3> Proteins <4> Hypoosmolar chimo. <5> Hyosmolar chyme.
Output: 1
Question: Glucagon stimulates: 
 Options:  <1> Glycogen synthesis <2> Formation of fat deposits. <3> Protein synthesis. <4> Insulin secretion <5> Glucolysis
Output: 4
Question: Somatomedin IGF-1 causes: 
 Options:  <1> Secretion of GHRH. <2> Protein catabolism. <3> Hyperglycemia <4> Activation of osteoblasts <5> GH secretion
Output: 4
Question: An increase in ACTH stimulates the synthesis and release of: 
 Options:  <1> Aldosterone <2> Cortisol <3> Thyroxine <4> CRH <5> TRH
Output: 2
Question: Angiotensin II: 
 Options:  <1> It is formed by the action of renin on angiotensin I. <2> Inhibits the secretion of aldosterone. <3> It inhibits the secretion of ADH. <4> Induces renal reabsorption of Na +. <5> Reduce thirst
Output: 4
Question: It is under the control of the hypothalamic-pituitary axis the secretion of: 
 Options:  <1> Cortisol <2> Insulin. <3> Calcitonin <4> Glucagon. <5> Parathormone.
Output: 1
Question: The secretion of GH or growth hormone: 
 Options:  <1> It stops at 20 years old. <2> It last for ever. <3> During the day it is greater than at night. <4> It is stimulated by somatostatin. <5> It is stimulated by the substances.
Output: 2
Question: The anterior pituitary gland: 
 Options:  <1> It is part of the hypothalamus. <2> It is regulated hormonally. <3> It communicates with the neurohypophysis. <4> It releases ADH and oxytocin. <5> It is formed by neurons.
Output: 2
Question: Stimulates lipogenesis and glycogen synthesis: 
 Options:  <1> Insulin. <2> Glucagon. <3> Cortisol <4> Adrenalin. <5> GH
Output: 1
Question: The ribosomal proteins bind to the rRNA in the: 
 Options:  <1> Nuclear pore complex. <2> Cytoplasm. <3> Nucleoplasm. <4> Nucleolo. <5> Citosol
Output: 4
Question: Proteins that do not fold properly in the endoplasmic reticulum are degraded into: 
 Options:  <1> Golgi complex. <2> Endosomes <3> Lysosomes <4> Citosol <5> Nucleus.
Output: 4
Question: The synthesis of membrane phospholipids occurs in: 
 Options:  <1> Citosol <2> Polyribosomes <3> Endoplasmic reticulum. <4> Golgi complex. <5> Peroxisome
Output: 3
Question: The ARP2 / 3 complex: 
 Options:  <1> It is an intermediate filament nucleator agent. <2> It is located in the centrosome. <3> It is responsible for the branching of the actin filaments. <4> It is part of the nuclear sheet. <5> Involved in the formation of transport vesicles.
Output: 3
Question: The microvilli contain a beam of: 
 Options:  <1> Microtubules <2> Actin filaments. <3> Intermediate filaments <4> Spectrine <5> Collagen fibers.
Output: 2
Question: Anaphase A is characterized by the shortening of microtubules: 
 Options:  <1> Kinetochore <2> Polar <3> Interpolar <4> Astral <5> Longitudinal
Output: 1
Question: The p53 factor induces: 
 Options:  <1> Survival. <2> Proliferation. <3> Senescence <4> Apoptosis <5> Increase.
Output: 4
Question: They join the epithelial cells to each other: 
 Options:  <1> Cadherins. <2> Integrins <3> Fibronectins. <4> Elastins. <5> Laminins
Output: 1
Question: It is absent from connective tissues: 
 Options:  <1> Goblet cell. <2> Adipocy <3> Mastocito <4> Lymphocyte <5> Eosinophilic
Output: 1
Question: The feet of the following are an integral part of the blood-brain barrier: 
 Options:  <1> Astrocytes <2> Timocytes. <3> Podocytes <4> Ependymal cells. <5> Oligodendrocytes
Output: 1
Question: The tissue is avascular: 
 Options:  <1> Epithelial. <2> Conjunctive. <3> Osseous. <4> Muscular. <5> Nervous.
Output: 1
Question: Derived from blood monocytes: 
 Options:  <1> Protoplasmic astrocyte. <2> Fibrous astrocyte. <3> Oligodendrocyte <4> Microgliocyte <5> Satellite cell.
Output: 4
Question: The transmembrane proteins that bind to intracellular and extracellular proteins are: 
 Options:  <1> Ocludines. <2> Cadherins. <3> Actins. <4> Integrins <5> Desmocolinas.
Output: 4
Question: Dense neat or patterned connective tissue is part of: 
 Options:  <1> Hemopoietic stroma. <2> Tendons <3> Digestive mucosa <4> Mucosa of the uterus. <5> Sclera
Output: 2
Question: The intestinal villi: 
 Options:  <1> They extend throughout the entire intestine. <2> They are not in the large intestine. <3> They are visible only to the electron microscope. <4> They contain only absorbent cells. <5> They lack glasses in their own lamina.
Output: 2
Question: The Merkel cells are: 
 Options:  <1> Secretors of neuropeptides and sensory. <2> Secretors of mucus. <3> Migratory <4> From Schwann. <5> Fibroblasts.
Output: 1