niryuu/sni-each-converted huggingface dataset:
Question: Azidothymidine (AZT) used against the human immunodeficiency virus: 
 Options:  <1> It binds to the cellular RNA polymerase and blocks transcription. <2> It binds to the early promoter of the virus and prevents its recognition by RNA polymerase. <3> Antagonizes the phosphorylation of nucleosides, thus inhibiting the synthesis of viral DNA. <4> Blocks the transport of thymidine to the cellular interior. <5> Inhibits transcriptase
Output: 5
Question: Typically the species of the genus Leptospira: 
 Options:  <1> They have movement by perimeter flagellation. <2> They present endoflagelos. <3> They are anaerobic. <4> They form prostecas. <5> They are diners.
Output: 2
Question: After antigenic recognition, the T cell receptor transmits an activation signal through: 
 Options:  <1> CD3 and chain . <2> Ig and Ig. <3> TAP1 and TAP2. <4> RAG1 and RAG2. <5> Determining regions of complementarity 1 and 2.
Output: 1
Question: Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase: 
 Options:  <1> It is inhibited by citrate. <2> It is activated by the AMP. <3> Releases a phosphate like Pi. <4> It is a mitochondrial enzyme. <5> It catalyzes a reversible reaction.
Output: 3
Question: In a three-point test crossover study, a negative interference indicates that: 
 Options:  <1> More double crossings have occurred than expected. <2> There have been fewer double crossings than expected. <3> The match coefficient is less than 1. <4> A simple crossover decreases the likelihood of a double crossover occurring. <5> There have been fewer simple cross-links than expected.
Output: 1
Question: The number of pairs of metacentric chromosomes of the human karyotype is: 
 Options:  <1> 8 <2> 6 <3> Four. <4> 12 <5> two.
Output: 3
Question: The trophoblast develops from: 
 Options:  <1> The outer layer of the blastocyst. <2> The internal cell mass. <3> The zona pellucida. <4> The bilaminar germinative disc. <5> The endometrium
Output: 1
Question: In the electrophoresis of hemoglobin in cellulose acetate: 
 Options:  <1> Neutral Red or Evans Blue are used as dyes. <2> Three differentiated fractions are obtained: Hb A, Hb A2 and carbonic anhydrase. <3> The majority fraction is HbA2. <4> The hemolysate is obtained using CINH4. <5> Acetone-Ethanol (1: 1) is used as decolorizer.
Output: 2
Question: What are the three types of bone cells? 
 Options:  <1> Trabeculae, mitochondria and osteocytes. <2> Osteoclasts, trabeculae and osteoliths. <3> Osteocytes, osteoblasts and mitochondria. <4> Trabeculae, mitochondria and osteocytes. <5> Osteoblasts, osteoclasts and osteocytes.
Output: 5
Question: How many pairs of spinal nerves are connected to the spinal cord? 
 Options:  <1> Twenty eight. <2> Twenty nine. <3> Thirty one. <4> Thirty-three. <5> Thirty-five.
Output: 3
Question: The specialized type of soft and diffuse connective tissue, called myeloid tissue, is also called: 
 Options:  <1> Spinal cord. <2> Bone marrow. <3> Myelin <4> Endochondral marrow <5> Leukomyelin
Output: 2
Question: What is cardiac output? 
 Options:  <1> The volume of blood that leaves the heart per unit of time (ml / min or l / min). <2> The complete heartbeat constituted by contraction (systole) and relaxation (diastole) in both atria and in both ventricles measured in time (sec). <3> The blood that remains in the heart when the pressure gradient determines the distension of the cardiac fibers. <4> The power gradient of the contraction, also called contractility. <5> The ventricular volume that remains constant.
Output: 1
Question: Substances that prevent abrupt changes in the pH of a solution by adding an acid or a base to it are called: 
 Options:  <1> Aceto-acetic bodies. <2> Tampons. <3> Hydrogens. <4> Anhydrous. <5> Answers 2 and 3 are the correct ones.
Output: 2
Question: Point out the correct answer regarding the regulation of hematopoiesis: 
 Options:  <1> Altitude inhibits hematopoiesis. <2> Erythropoietin inhibits hematopoiesis. <3> Hypoxia stimulates the production of erythropoietin. <4> Erythropoietin is synthesized in the liver. <5> Erythropoietin does not influence the production of red blood cells.
Output: 3
Question: The negative feedback regulation of thyroid hormone is as follows: 
 Options:  <1> High concentrations of circulating free T3 and T4 that elevate HRT. <2> High concentrations of circulating free T3 and T4 that raise TSH. <3> High concentrations of circulating free T3 and T4 that decrease TRH. <4> Decreased TRH that elevates TSH. <5> Decreased TSH that elevates HRT.
Output: 3
Question: Granular or juxtaglomerular cells of the nephron secrete: 
 Options:  <1> Angiotensin I. <2> Renina <3> Angiotensinogen. <4> Aldosterone <5> Vasopressin
Output: 2
Question: The fundamental function of the basal ganglia is: 
 Options:  <1> Control movement <2> Increase hearing <3> Improve the ability of taste. <4> Increase appetite <5> Increase urination
Output: 1
Question: According to the Frank-Starling mechanism of the heart, under physiological conditions the cardiac output is directly proportional to: 
 Options:  <1> The size of the ventricle. <2> The heart rate <3> The venous return. <4> The thickness of the myocardium. <5> All the previous answers are correct.
Output: 3
Question: The Law of Bases of the National Health of 1944 established with obligatory character: 
 Options:  <1> That in each Spanish province a College of Health Assistants was created that would integrate practitioners, midwives and nurses. <2> The creation of the Body of Ministers, Practitioners of Surgery and Midwives. <3> The official program to be followed by nurses in the Faculties of Medicine. <4> The creation of the Nursing Corps of the Traditionalist Spanish Falange and of the JONS. <5> The requirements to obtain the title and to be able to get registered as Professional Nurses of the Spanish Red Cross.
Output: 1
Question: In charge of who was the regulation of the exercise of health professions in Spain during the fifteenth century and later? 
 Options:  <1> The Faculties of Medicine. <2> The Protomedical Court. <3> The General Board of Health. <4> The Ministry of Education. <5> The General Benevolence of the State.
Output: 2
Question: The History of Nursing is narrated around the relationships between the different elements and the factors that define periods or stable phases of history, called: 
 Options:  <1> Domestic; Preprofessional; Religious and Postprofessional. <2> Tribal / Domestic; Religious / Institutional; Preprofessional and Professional. <3> Tribal; Religious; Domestic and Institutional. <4> Tribal / Domestic; Antigua / Relational; Scientific / Professional and Postprofessional. <5> Empirical Vocational and Scientific.
Output: 2
Question: By what legal norm were regulated for the first time the specialties for the Diploma in Nursing and obtaining the title of Specialist Nurse? 
 Options:  <1> Order June 1, 1992 (BOE June 2). <2> Royal Decree 450/2005, of April 22 (BOE May 6). <3> Royal Decree 992/1987, of July 3 (BOE 1 of August). <4> Royal Decree 943/1986 (BOE May 14). <5> Order of July 15, 1980 (BOE of July 23).
Output: 3
Question: What is the name of the specialty of the History of Nursing that is dedicated to the study of existing care systems in Prehistory? 
 Options:  <1> Paleodermia. <2> Neo-nursing <3> Primo Nursing. <4> Ethno-nursing <5> Meso-nursing
Output: 1
Question: The author who showed in her writings her interest in the control of the environment, as well as the importance of the influence of Nature in the health of the people is: 
 Options:  <1> V. Henderson. <2> H. Peplau. <3> F. Nightingale. <4> M. Leininger. <5> D. Orem.
Output: 3
Question: Virgina Henderson describes the relationship of the nurse with the patient in the following structure: 
 Options:  <1> Levels: Substitution. Help. Accompaniment. <2> Roles: Strange. Person resource. Teacher. Leadership. Substitute. Advice. <3> Skills: Beginner Advanced beginner Effective. Expert. <4> Help modes: Act for another. Lead another. Support another. Provide an environment that fosters development. Teach another <5> Styles: Stimulation. Confirmation. Conservation and continuity of life. Self-image Compensation and rest.
Output: 1
Question: The conception of person based on the idea that he is a being inseparably linked to his culture is developed in the care model of: 
 Options:  <1> M. E. Rogers. <2> N. J. Pender. <3> J. Watson. <4> M. Leininger. <5> M. K. Chisman and J. Riehl-Sisca.
Output: 4
Question: E. H. is a 64-year-old lady diagnosed with hypertension and assisted by her nurse in the corresponding program. The activities carried out by the nurse are aimed at regulating the exercise and development of the self-care agency of E. H. The lady performs her self-care and regulates the exercise and development of her self-care agency. This organization of care is described by Orem as a system: 
 Options:  <1> Partially compensatory. <2> Support-education. <3> Completely compensatory. <4> Complementation <5> Of shared regulation and development.
Output: 2
Question: According to Alfaro-Lefevre, thinking critically in the context of nursing situations means that: 
 Options:  <1> It is constantly revaluing, self-correcting and seeking to improve. <2> It replaces the process of nursing care. <3> Supports concrete proposals to maintain priorities and interventions. <4> It makes our own limitations and predispositions lose importance. <5> Provide the arguments to justify that the best answer is the perfect one.
Output: 1
Question: One of the characteristics of the Nursing Process is: 
 Options:  <1> Decision making is characteristic of the planning stage. <2> It focuses on the nurse. <3> The data of each phase provide information for the next. <4> Decision making must be linked to standard response. <5> It must be designed so that it remains static.
Output: 3
Question: The validation or verification of information is an essential step in critical thinking that helps you avoid: 
 Options:  <1> Make assumptions <2> Skip pertinent information <3> Misinterpreting situations. <4> Draw hasty conclusions or focus in the wrong direction. <5> All the previous answers are correct.
Output: 5
Question: In the interview with a patient during the assessment stage, open questions present a disadvantage because: 
 Options:  <1> They can reveal the affectivity of the interviewee with respect to one aspect. <2> The answers are difficult to register and doing it requires skill. <3> They let the interviewee speak. <4> Too much importance is attached to the opinions of the interviewee. <5> They can attract interest and confidence for the freedom they provide.
Output: 2
Question: The nurse identifies that the person she has evaluated presents a series of manifestations that correspond to the defining characteristics of a diagnostic label, however, does not identify any possible cause. How should you enunciate the diagnosis following the guidelines of the PES format? 
 Options:  <1> Problem related to unknown cause manifested by the defining characteristics identified. <2> Using the term related to instead of due to, between problem and etiology. <3> As a risk diagnosis. <4> Problem related to the defining characteristics identified. <5> The absence of cause means that there is no problem, so a diagnosis could not be stated.
Output: 1
Question: When recording the data obtained during the execution of the care, the appropriate thing is: 
 Options:  <1> Take some time to make the annotations, after a reflection based on what is remembered. <2> Focus on the important problems and events that communicate what is different that day in that person. <3> Collect all that has been perceived about the answer, even if it is subjective, because it is an important information for the team. <4> Record all the normal manifestations that the person presents. <5> Make the annotations in a general manner, without describing temporal concretions that would hinder interpretation.
Output: 2
Question: Regarding the NANDA-I taxonomy, it is correct to affirm that: 
 Options:  <1> All the diagnoses contained in the taxonomy are appropriate for all practicing nurses. <2> All the proposed diagnoses are relevant for all specialties. <3> There are diagnoses that may be outside the scope of exercise that governs the nurse practice of a specific area. <4> The use of the diagnoses contained in the classification supports their use over the regulations that may exist in a specific area. <5> The taxonomy must adjust to each reality, removing those diagnoses that are not usual and including those that do not appear in the classification and represent common problems.
Output: 3
Question: It is NOT a component of the evaluation stage of the Nursing Process: 
 Options:  <1> The collection of data related to the results. <2> The comparison of the data with the desired results. <3> The relationship of the nursing activities with the results. <4> The continuation, modification or termination of the care plan. <5> The election of pertinent results and determination of precise indicators.
Output: 5
Question: The system of norms and sanctions that is established in a mandatory way for professionals based on professional ethics behaviors, is called: 
 Options:  <1> Professional bioethics <2> Practical ethics <3> Professional deontology. <4> Professional rights <5> Hierarchical moral code.
Output: 3
Question: According to the Code of Ethics, in their professional practice, the nurse / guarantor will guarantee and carry out a correct and adequate treatment for all the people who need it: 
 Options:  <1> Less in the assumptions of risks. <2> Regardless of your condition, age or circumstance. <3> Except in the case of patients legally declared dangerous. <4> But it can be exempted from its obligation only when dealing with infectious and contagious patients. <5> Except when the professional presents his objection in writing.
Output: 2
Question: What name do the Codes that define the internal good of the nursing profession receive, according to which obligations and responsibilities are enunciated and professional excellence is promoted? 
 Options:  <1> Deontological. <2> Ethical <3> Bioethics <4> Practical <5> Of Care
Output: 2
Question: In the prevalence of bioethical principles, the principles of justice and nonmaleficence are framed in an ethics: 
 Options:  <1> Of maximums. <2> Of minimums. <3> Deontological <4> Pluralistic. <5> Of excellence
Output: 2
Question: As a health professional, you must have communicative qualities / abilities. Based on the following dialogue, identify what the nurse does: Patient - I do not know what they are going to do to me, I am afraid that something goes wrong in the operation. Nurse - Do not worry, calm down, you will see how everything will turn out well. 
 Options:  <1> It is receptive and encourages the communication of more concrete aspects. <2> It is giving false assurances, offers reassuring answers without reasonable basis. <3> The nurse uses the technique of pointing. <4> It is transmitting the nurse's own safety. <5> It is addressing the patient's anxiety.
Output: 2
Question: To deal directly and effectively with stressful situations, you can use: 
 Options:  <1> Confrontation as a strategy centered on emotion. <2> The distancing as a strategy focused on the problem. <3> Strategies focused on the problem, such as social support. <4> The defensive mechanism of regression. <5> The self-incrimination.
Output: 3
Question: The transactional or processual stress model of Lazarus and Folkman: 
 Options:  <1> It focuses on physiological reactions to any stressful stimulus. <2> Describes the general adaptation syndrome. <3> It establishes three stages: reaction, resistance and exhaustion. <4> It attaches great importance to the cognitive processes that mediate between the stressful stimulus and the stress response. <5> Describes the long-term negative effects of prolonged exposure to stress.
Output: 4
Question: They are signs and symptoms of severe anxiety: 
 Options:  <1> Tachycardia and nausea. <2> Decreased attention and tremors. <3> Vomiting and psychomotor agitation. <4> Insomnia and malaise <5> Distorted perception and inability to communicate.
Output: 1
Question: Point out the correct statement about the relaxation technique: 
 Options:  <1> Visualization decreases the degree of relaxation. <2> The best relaxation is achieved when the person falls asleep. <3> You can practice relaxation, after continuous practice, in any position and place. <4> In deep breaths it is not advisable to hold the air for a few seconds. <5> If tingling appears, it indicates that the person is not relaxing well.
Output: 3
Question: Indicate which of the following options does NOT correspond to the objectives of the pre-anesthetic medication: 
 Options:  <1> Reduce anxiety <2> Relieve preoperative pain. <3> Relieve postoperative pain <4> Facilitate the induction of anesthesia. <5> Reduce the anesthetic needs.
Output: 3
Question: Indicate the wrong option in relation to the most frequent adverse reactions produced by the following drugs: 
 Options:  <1> Penicillins: permanent alteration of the coloring of the teeth. <2> Clindamycin: diarrhea. <3> Quinolones: headaches. <4> Aminoglycosides: ototoxicity. <5> Tetracyclines: photosensitivity.
Output: 1
Question: Point out the correct option: 
 Options:  <1> Long-acting bronchodilators should be used on demand. <2> Rapid-acting bronchodilators should be administered every 3-5 hours. <3> Bradycardia is an adverse effect that frequently appears after the administration of bronchodilators. <4> Glucocorticoids are used as a preventive treatment for seizures in asthmatic patients. <5> The answers 1 and 4 are correct.
Output: 4
Question: Vitamin K is the specific antagonist for: 
 Options:  <1> Oral anticoagulants <2> Insulin. <3> Paracetamol. <4> Heparin. <5> Opiates
Output: 1
Question: Proton pump inhibitor drugs are useful in the treatment of: 
 Options:  <1> Constipation. <2> Corneal ulcer. <3> Peptic ulcer. <4> Traveler's diarrhea. <5> Crohn's disease.
Output: 3
Question: Indicate which of the following drugs has antihypertensive action: 
 Options:  <1> Pancuronium <2> Nitroprusside sodium <3> Procainamide <4> Salbutamol <5> Clarithromycin
Output: 2
Question: In relation to adrenaline it is true that: 
 Options:  <1> It produces uterine contractions. <2> It is used in the treatment of anaphylactic shock. <3> It is used together with ampicillin in situations of sepsis. <4> It is contraindicated in situations of cardiac arrest due to its effect. <5> Encapsulated is rapidly absorbed orally.
Output: 2
Question: In strict vegetarians, a lack of one of the following vitamins may appear: 
 Options:  <1> B12 vitamin. <2> Vitamin C. <3> Retinol <4> Folate <5> Niacin
Output: 1
Question: With regard to the intermittent administration of enteral nutrition, point out the INCORRECT response: 
 Options:  <1> It can be administered in bolus. <2> The administration should last 15 to 20 minutes. <3> After the take, you have to wash the probe to remove debris. <4> It is always administered with a pump. <5> The total amount is divided into 4 or 5 daily doses.
Output: 4
Question: Olive oil has the following nutrients in its composition, EXCEPT: 
 Options:  <1> Cholesterol. <2> Oleic acid. <3> Antioxidants <4> Vitamin E. <5> Linoleic acid.
Output: 1
Question: What is estimated with the measurement of skin folds? 
 Options:  <1> The total body mass. <2> The lean mass. <3> The body fat. <4> The relationship between fat mass and muscle mass. <5> The skeletal muscles.
Output: 3
Question: Which of these foods should reduce a patient with high cholesterol from his diet? 
 Options:  <1> Cereals. <2> Vegetables. <3> Whole milk. <4> Olive oil. <5> Fish.
Output: 3
Question: Which of the following nutrients requires more special attention and recommendation in later life? 
 Options:  <1> Selenium. <2> Calcium. <3> Essential amino acids. <4> Lipids <5> Fiber.
Output: 2
Question: Fatty fish, commonly called blue, are those that contain just over 10% fat. Which of the following is a lean fish and, therefore, with a lower fat intake? 
 Options:  <1> Sardine. <2> Eel. <3> Salmon. <4> Sole. <5> Mackerel.
Output: 4
Question: To diagnose a situation of cardiorespiratory arrest, the correct sequence of assessment according to the recommendations of the Guide 2010 of the Spanish Council of Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation consists of: 
 Options:  <1> Check unconsciousness, check signs of life or presence of pulse, check if you breathe and open the airway. <2> Check unconsciousness, alert, open the airway and check if it breathes. <3> Check pulse, alert, open the airway, check unconsciousness, check if you breathe. <4> Open the airway, check unconsciousness, check for pulse or signs of life (cough, movement) and check if you breathe. <5> Open the airway, alert, check if you breathe, check presence of pulse or signs of life and check unconsciousness.
Output: 2
Question: People affected by chronic heart failure usually present the diagnosis of nursing Intolerance to activity related to: 
 Options:  <1> Fear, because it is a situation that poses a potential risk to life. <2> Imbalance between the supply and oxygen demand due to the decrease in myocardial contractility. <3> Excess fluid volume due to interruption of blood flow. <4> Poor knowledge about the disease and treatment with diuretics. <5> Infection due to decreased immune response.
Output: 2
Question: In acute coronary syndrome with ST-segment elevation, heparin is used because: 
 Options:  <1> It is fibrinolytic, since it destroys the thrombus. <2> It inhibits the formation of more thrombi and prevents their recurrence. <3> It inhibits platelet aggregation. <4> Restores the patency of the coronary artery immediately. <5> All the previous answers are correct.
Output: 2
Question: What self-care recommendations for discharge would you give to a patient with epistaxis? 
 Options:  <1> Sneeze with your mouth closed. <2> Perform deep breaths and instil saline into nostrils. <3> Blow your nose hard. <4> Avoid activities that involve physical effort. <5> Adopt the Fowler position.
Output: 4
Question: J. L. is a patient who has to administer a drug by inhalation with a dispenser in the form of a pressurized cartridge. The recommendation that will give you for its correct administration will be: 
 Options:  <1> Place the inhaler 6 cm in front of the mouth. <2> Perform a slow and deep expiration before administration. <3> Hold the cartridge with your thumb up and your index finger down. <4> Start the inspiration after pressing the inhaler. <5> The mouth should not be rinsed after inhalation.
Output: 2
Question: When administering oxygen therapy to a patient admitted to the emergency room due to exacerbated COPD, you should take into account that: 
 Options:  <1> The flow of oxygen must be high, since respiratory failure is accompanied by hypoxia. <2> The concentration of oxygen is conditioned by the patient's clinical situation. <3> The concentration of oxygen must be equal to the atmospheric concentration, since the patient presents hypercapnia. <4> The flow should be low, since hypoxia is the only stimulus to breathe. <5> The flow must be adjusted to achieve a PO2 greater than 90 mmHg.
Output: 4
Question: What action would you take if you notice that in the chamber of the hydraulic seal of a patient's chest drainage, the water rises on inspiration and descends on expiration? 
 Options:  <1> Observe possible system bids. <2> Check the pressure level of the suction gauge. <3> Milk the tubes for obstruction. <4> None, since it is a normal finding. <5> Check that the system is placed horizontally.
Output: 4
Question: When caring for a patient who has undergone a supraglottic laryngectomy, you should bear in mind that: 
 Options:  <1> He has lost the ability to speak by extirpation of the true vocal cords. <2> The tracheostomy they have performed will be permanent. <3> You have a risk of bronchoaspiration due to difficulty swallowing. <4> You may have constipation due to cervical dissection. <5> A portion of the larynx has been removed along with a vocal cord.
Output: 3
Question: The management of seizures in a patient, within the ictal phase, includes activities such as reassuring him, protecting him from injuries, administering the prescribed medication and maintaining a permeable airway, among others. But, in addition, it is fundamental: 
 Options:  <1> Introduce any object into the patient's mouth. <2> Put your fingers in your mouth to try to keep it open. <3> Do not waste time in the establishment of a venous line, because in no case will be necessary. <4> Do not force any object into your mouth. <5> Proceed with nasotracheal intubation, always and in all cases.
Output: 4
Question: Guillain-Barré syndrome is an acute inflammatory demyelinating disorder of the peripheral nervous system. The loss of muscular strength in the acute phase can imply an urgency, which in severe cases results in: 
 Options:  <1> Exclusive loss of muscle strength in the lower extremities. <2> Tetraplegia and respiratory failure that need to control the patient's circulatory status, endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation. <3> Psychomotor agitation that leads to sleep disorders. <4> Scarce affectation of costal and / or diaphragmatic muscles. <5> Alterations exclusively sensory.
Output: 2
Question: When you assess a patient with a neurological problem, you check that he has a positive Kerning sign. This finding is related to: 
 Options:  <1> Meningeal irritation <2> Convulsive crisis. <3> Alteration of the I Cranial Pair. <4> Diplopia. <5> Cerebral stroke.
Output: 1
Question: Which of the following statements about Parkinson's disease is true? 
 Options:  <1> The disease begins with obvious manifestations that guide the doctor to formulate the definitive diagnosis. <2> The disease is a neurological disorder characterized by tremor, rigidity and bradykinesia. <3> In the beginning, patients walk more and more slowly. <4> Flaccidity, associated with motor dysfunction, is bilateral. <5> In advanced stages, the patient presents lordosis.
Output: 2
Question: What is the main risk factor in the appearance of ischemic or hemorrhagic ICTUS? 
 Options:  <1> Cardiopathy <2> Mellitus diabetes. <3> Hyperlipidemia <4> Arterial hypertension. <5> Obesity.
Output: 4
Question: The control of vital signs is fundamental in the assessment of the neurological patient. Many neurological disorders can present alterations of the respiratory pattern or frequency, indicating damage to the respiratory center or the nervous system. One of these abnormal breathing patterns, present in meningitis or cases of supratentorial injury, is Cheyne-Stokes respiration, characterized by: 
 Options:  <1> Regular frequency and superficial character. <2> Absence of clearly observable breathing. <3> A series of breaths that increase in amplitude / intensity to a maximum point in which they begin to decrease, followed by an apnea pause. <4> Slow and regular breaths with a frequency less than 10 per minute. <5> It is an abnormal and sustained increase in both depth and respiratory rate.
Output: 3
Question: In which of the following positions should a patient be placed to perform a gastroscopy? 
 Options:  <1> Right lateral decubitus. <2> Left lateral decubitus. <3> Supine decubitus <4> Trendelemburg. <5> Sims position.
Output: 2
Question: Mr. A. P. has been discharged after being operated on for a gastric resection. What recommendations should you give to avoid the rapid evacuation syndrome? 
 Options:  <1> Drink liquids during the meal. <2> Take a diet high in carbohydrates. <3> After ingestion, the decubitus position is the most beneficial if the patient tolerates it. <4> You should plan rest periods of 15 minutes after meals. <5> Take a diet low in protein and fat, to avoid abdominal distension.
Output: 3
Question: The diet of a person with intestinal diverticulosis should be: 
 Options:  <1> Hyperproteic. <2> Hypercaloric. <3> Hyposodic. <4> Rich in fiber. <5> Hypocaloric.
Output: 4
Question: Which of the following clinical manifestations is predominant in a patient with acute pancreatitis? 
 Options:  <1> Abdomen rigid or on board. <2> Ecchymosis on the flank or around the navel. <3> Fever. <4> Jaundice. <5> Abdominal pain.
Output: 5
Question: Which of the following statements about personal care after a laparoscopic cholecystectomy is INCORRECT? 
 Options:  <1> Start light exercise (walking) one week after the intervention. <2> Shower or bathe after 1 or 2 days. <3> Return to sexual activity when desired. <4> If you had fat intolerance before the operation, gradually add fat to your usual diet in small increments. <5> Resume the normal diet.
Output: 1
Question: A patient with dyspepsia will undergo a screening test for Helicobacter pylori. Before carrying out the test, the patient should know that: 
 Options:  <1> Treatment with proton pump inhibitors should be discontinued at least one week before the test. <2> Treatment with proton pump inhibitors should be discontinued at least two weeks before the test. <3> The use of antacids also modifies the results of the test. <4> The use of antibiotics does not modify the diagnostic tests for H. pylori. <5> Antibiotic treatments negativize the diagnostic tests for H. pylori, so these drugs should be avoided for one week before any diagnostic test.
Output: 2
Question: In general, water intake should be increased in patients undergoing chemotherapy with the aim of: 
 Options:  <1> Prevent kidney damage. <2> Fluidify bronchial secretions. <3> Relieve post-chemotherapy nausea. <4> Increase the volume. <5> Decrease the risk of infection.
Output: 1
Question: Indicate which of the following safety precautions used in the care of the patient receiving brachytherapy is NOT true: 
 Options:  <1> Single room. <2> Prohibition of visits of children. <3> Radiation meters for health personnel. <4> Reverse isolation. <5> Limitation of the time of the visits.
Output: 4
Question: Which of the following chemicals is considered the most lethal individual carcinogen? 
 Options:  <1> Alcohol. <2> Smoke of the tabacco. <3> Tar. <4> Benzene. <5> Nickel.
Output: 2
Question: The gradation of a tumor refers to: 
 Options:  <1> Determine the extent of the disease by considering tumor size and spread. <2> Measure the abnormal cell growth with respect to the size, shape and disposition of the tumor. <3> Obtain a sample of tissue to analyze it under a microscope and detect malignant cells. <4> Identify the type of tissue that caused the tumor and the degree to which the tumor cells retain the characteristics of the tissue of origin. <5> Select specific therapies to destroy tumor cells by interfering with their cellular functions.
Output: 4
Question: You are informing P. T. of hair loss that will occur about the second or third week of beginning chemotherapy treatment. It suggests you start using the wig before hair loss in order to: 
 Options:  <1> Hide alopecia. <2> Decrease depersonalization. <3> Provide alternatives to the patient. <4> Prepare for the loss and facilitate adjustment. <5> Facilitate the choice of the color wig and similar style before alopecia.
Output: 4
Question: A 55-year-old woman with adrenal insufficiency has been prescribed corticosteroid treatment. Which of the following instructions would you provide in relation to this treatment? 
 Options:  <1> Take the drug first thing in the morning. <2> Take the drug before bedtime. <3> Exclude foods rich in calcium and vitamin D from the diet. <4> Eat a diet low in calories and protein. <5> Monitor the decrease in blood pressure.
Output: 1
Question: Mr. P. L., 59, has type 2 diabetes and his Body Mass Index is 27. He asks you if you can have a glass of wine with meals. Your answer is: 
 Options:  <1> You should refrain from drinking alcoholic beverages because of the risk of developing ketoacidosis. <2> You can do it, but you must incorporate the calories of alcohol into the meal plan. <3> You can consume it before meals to reduce the risk of hypoglycaemia. <4> It should be avoided, because the consumption of alcohol even in moderate amounts increases coronary morbidity. <5> No answer is correct.
Output: 2
Question: Which of the following insulins is used for the basal dose in a diabetic patient? 
 Options:  <1> Lispro. <2> Aspart. <3> Metformin. <4> Glargine <5> Regular.
Output: 4
Question: A.C. is hospitalized for presenting a picture of thyrotoxicosis. Which of these measures would you carry out? 
 Options:  <1> Shelter the patient with blankets. <2> Provide hypocaloric diet. <3> Encourage aerobic exercise. <4> Control the frequency and characteristics of the pulse. <5> Administer stool softeners regularly.
Output: 4
Question: Peritoneal dialysis is a depurative technique that is characterized because: 
 Options:  <1> It is necessary to always administer heparin through the peritoneal catheter. <2> It is indicated in patients with respiratory problems of a restrictive type. <3> Does not produce significant hemodynamic alterations. <4> Requires daily and nightly solution exchanges every four hours. <5> Water and toxic substances are eliminated by ultrafiltration.
Output: 3
Question: P. L. is a patient with frequent urinary infections. When explaining the possible causes of the same will comment that a risk factor is: 
 Options:  <1> The presence of urinary stones. <2> The intake of substances that acidify the urine. <3> The increase of leukocytes in urine. <4> The saturation of urine by calcium salts. <5> The emission of urine every 2 or 3 hours.
Output: 1
Question: To detect the occurrence of prerenal acute renal failure in a patient, the nurse should monitor the presence of: 
 Options:  <1> Signs of low cardiac output. <2> Hematuria <3> Urine cloudy and smelly. <4> Colic pain <5> Elevation of creatinine clearance.
Output: 1
Question: A patient with an internal arteriovenous fistula in the left arm will recommend: 
 Options:  <1> Put on a compressive bandage for protection. <2> Perform elbow flexion and extension exercises to activate their maturation. <3> Feel the fistula daily to check that it works. <4> Clean the surrounding skin with an antiseptic every day. <5> Lift weight with that hand to achieve vascular remodeling.
Output: 3
Question: A patient diagnosed with chronic renal failure has tingling and paresthesias in the legs. This is due to: 
 Options:  <1> Vascular alterations produced by hyperlipidemia. <2> Peripheral neuropathy associated with uremia. <3> Hyperphosphatemia secondary to renal osteodystrophy. <4> Decreased peripheral perfusion as a result of anemia. <5> Hypercalcemia produced by decreased glomerular filtration.
Output: 2
Question: A distension is defined as: 
 Options:  <1> Soft tissue injury. <2> Forced movement of abrupt production. <3> Injury by stretching a muscle. <4> Injury of the joint capsule. <5> Interruption in the continuity of a bone.
Output: 3
Question: For a patient with an acute episode of gout, the nurse should recommend: 
 Options:  <1> Avoid foods rich in fat and calories. <2> Apply ice packs to reduce joint pain. <3> Perform daily exercise. <4> Avoid the intake of foods rich in purines. <5> Periodically check the blood count and the white blood cell count.
Output: 4
Question: An adequate recommendation for a patient with a recent diagnosis of osteoporosis is: 
 Options:  <1> Perform isometric exercises. <2> Give up smoking. <3> Take a diet rich in fiber. <4> Limit physical activity <5> Avoid the ingestion of bisphosphonates.
Output: 2
Question: During your working day in the Surgery Unit, you receive a patient surgically removed from the Post-Anesthetic Recovery Unit. When evaluating it, observe that it carries a Penrose drain. Which of the following statements about this type of drainage is correct? 
 Options:  <1> It is an active drainage that acts by gravity. <2> It must be connected to a closed circuit collection bag. <3> It works by aspiration. <4> It is a passive drainage whose mechanism of action is by capillarity. <5> It is placed in the bile ducts.
Output: 4
Question: For wound care and depending on their evolution, there is a wide variety of dressings on the market. From the following statements, point out the correct one: 
 Options:  <1> The gauzes always keep the wound in humid conditions. <2> The hydrogel dressing is used to maintain a dry wound. <3> Transparent films are used for infected wounds. <4> Hydrocolloid dressings are used in moist environment cures. <5> The foam dressing is used to maintain a dry wound environment.
Output: 4
Question: When you assess the nutritional status of the patient in the preoperative period, you should know that if he suffers from a deficit of Vitamin C, he may present in the postoperative period: 
 Options:  <1> Problems in the synthesis of prothrombin. <2> Tachycardia. <3> Leukopenia <4> Healing problems in the wound. <5> Alteration in the metabolism of carbohydrates.
Output: 4
Question: To measure the pulmonary wedge pressure (PEP) by means of a pulmonary artery catheter, it is advisable to take into account that: 
 Options:  <1> It is not necessary to inflate the ball. <2> The catheter should always be inserted with the balloon inflated, but at half the recommended volume. <3> The volume of balloon inflation is usually 1.5 ml of air. <4> The volume of inflation of the balloon is usually 3 ml of air. <5> You have to leave the balloon always inflated after making the determinations of PEP.
Output: 3
Question: Central Venous Pressure (PVC) monitoring is a procedure performed frequently by nurses in the Critical Care Unit. Indicate the correct option regarding the performance of this hemodynamic measurement: 
 Options:  <1> It is only possible to perform it using electronic pressure transducers, expressing the measurement in cmH2O. <2> It is only possible to carry it out by using electronic pressure transducers, expressing the measurement in mmHg. <3> It can only be done through the distal lumen of a pulmonary artery catheter. <4> It can be done by using electronic pressure transducers and pressure gauges with a water column. <5> It is a good reflection of the functioning of the left ventricle.
Output: 4
Question: In a patient connected to invasive mechanical ventilation, when all movements are generated by the ventilator, supplying a certain volume with a constant flow during a preset time, without allowing the synchronization with spontaneous or additional respirations of the patient, we refer to: 
 Options:  <1> Assisted ventilation <2> Controlled mechanical ventilation. <3> Synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation. <4> Spontaneous ventilation with continuous positive pressure. <5> Positive pressure at the end of expiration.
Output: 2
Question: A 65-year-old man has advanced terminal cancer. What data would indicate that it is near the end of his life? Point out the best option: 
 Options:  <1> Abdominal distension. <2> Temperature of 38º C. <3> Urinary incontinence <4> Stertorous respiration. <5> Drowsiness.
Output: 4
Question: P. C. is a terminally ill patient with oral mucositis and pain, although he retains the ability to eat a solid diet. Which of the following actions would be indicated? 
 Options:  <1> Encourage him to suck pineapple chips. <2> Rinse the mouth with ¾ parts of 0.9% saline and ¼ part of oxygenated water. <3> Make gargles with nystatin alternating with chlorhexidine. <4> Administer viscous lidocaine 2% before meals. <5> Provide a tremix diet.
Output: 4
Question: Of the following pollutants, which has a greater affinity for hemoglobin producing alterations in brain, myocardial and muscular tissue? 
 Options:  <1> Carbon monoxide. <2> Carbon dioxide. <3> Nitric monoxide <4> Sulfur dioxide. <5> Ozone.
Output: 1
Question: A 18-year-old male with a dog bite wound on the lateral face of the right lower limb comes to a nursing consultation. The wound occurred 30 hours ago and affects the subcutaneous tissue, is shaped like a moon (about 5 cm long) and is deep. Considering that you have the complete childhood immunization schedule, what intervention would be indicated in relation to tetanus vaccination? 
 Options:  <1> It does not require any intervention. <2> Put a booster dose of the tetanus vaccine (dTe). <3> Administration of antitetanic gamma globulin (GGAT). <4> Administration of antitetanus gammaglobulin and booster dose of tetanus vaccine. <5> Administration of antitetanus gammaglobulin and reinitiate tetanus vaccination.
Output: 1
Question: Point out the secondary prevention measure that has been shown to be effective in colon cancer: 
 Options:  <1> Facilitate the realization of fecal occult blood test every year or biennially and / or sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy every 5 years in people with high risk. <2> Encourage the consumption of milk and other dairy products, fish and fruits. <3> Avoid the consumption of cooked meat very made or in direct contact with the fire. <4> Avoid the consumption of tobacco and the ingestion of alcohol. <5> All the previous answers are correct.
Output: 1
Question: A 32-year-old pregnant woman of 16 weeks, a habitual consumer of cocaine and heroin with a history of failure in outpatient detoxification, goes to the comprehensive care center for drug addicts. He has no family support and says he wants to stop using drugs, but he needs support to do so. Which resource would be indicated? 
 Options:  <1> Detoxification hospital unit. <2> Therapeutic communities <3> Day centers. <4> Re-entry floors. <5> All the previous answers are correct.
Output: 1
Question: A 57-year-old woman with a history of HTA grade 1, controlled with a low-sodium diet, a BMI 23 and an ex-smoker, attended the nursing consultation. Data from the last analysis: Total cholesterol 225 mg / dl; LDL cholesterol: 123 mg / dl and glucose 129 mg / dl. Of the following recommendations, which would be indicated for the control of cardiovascular risk? 
 Options:  <1> Regular anaerobic exercise with a minimum duration of 30 minutes per session. <2> Hypocaloric diet of 1500 kcal. <3> Encourage coconut consumption due to its hypocholesterolemic effect. <4> Promote the consumption of natural sterols, as well as mono and polyunsaturated fats and dietary fiber. <5> All the previous answers are correct.
Output: 4
Question: The functional organizational structure formed by health and non-health professionals, who is responsible for health care in a comprehensive, shared and continuous manner in the basic health area, is called: 
 Options:  <1> Autonomic Health Service. <2> National system of health. <3> Clinic. <4> Primary Care Team. <5> Portfolio of Services.
Output: 4
Question: The probability that a person free of a disease develops it during a period of time, corresponds to: 
 Options:  <1> Chance. <2> Prevalence <3> Specificity <4> Forecast. <5> Risk.
Output: 5
Question: According to the General Health Law 14/1986 of April 25, the territorial framework of Primary Health Care is: 
 Options:  <1> The Health District. <2> The Health Area. <3> The Basic Health Zone. <4> The First Level of Assistance. <5> The Primary Care Center.
Output: 3
Question: According to Berman et al., From the sanitary point of view, to the basic social group constituted by persons of feminine or masculine gender, young or adult, united by legal, friendship, related or not genetically and that others consider close friends, he calls you: 
 Options:  <1> Collective. <2> Informal system <3> Control group. <4> Citizenship. <5> Family.
Output: 5
Question: The set of means and systems that facilitate the contact of the infectious agent with the recipient subject corresponds to: 
 Options:  <1> Source of infection. <2> Habitat. <3> Transmission mechanism. <4> Biotope <5> Reservoir.
Output: 3
Question: Those avoidable inequalities, considered unfair in the access to health services between regions or between subgroups of population in the same country, corresponds to the term of: 
 Options:  <1> Social inequality in health. <2> Equity in health. <3> Social determinants. <4> Inequity in health. <5> Poverty.
Output: 2
Question: In a program whose objective is to train adolescents so that they can choose health-oriented behaviors and help parents to promote the healthy adaptation of their children, the target population will be formed by: 
 Options:  <1> Parents of adolescents of both sexes residing in the basic health area. <2> Adolescents of both sexes and their parents residing in the basic health area. <3> Parents, teachers and caregivers of adolescents living in the basic health area. <4> The friends and teenage friends of the basic health area. <5> Adolescents of both sexes who reside in the basic health area.
Output: 2
Question: In 1984, the process of healthcare reform began in Spain with the publication of: 
 Options:  <1> The General Law of Health. <2> The General Law of Social Security. <3> The Law of Cohesion and Quality of the National Health System. <4> The Royal Decree of Basic Health Structures. <5> The Royal Decree of National Health.
Output: 4
Question: Among the specific objectives that have been developed in order to make a health education intervention, aimed at providing people 65 years and older with the incorporation of preventive activities for heat stroke in daily self-care, identify the one that is INCORRECTLY formulated: 
 Options:  <1> Teach people of 65 and older the signs and symptoms of heat stroke, during the first two sessions, of the total 10. <2> Select the relevant footwear-dress to use during the hot season in the place of residence, at the end of the 3rd session. <3> Enunciate the activities that are most done every day and that are influenced by excess heat, at the end of all sessions. <4> Point to a list of 15 foods, which facilitate body hydration, at the end of the 2nd session and with a maximum of 3 errors. <5> Argue each of the actions that must be done when a heat stroke occurs, one week after the end of the intervention.
Output: 1
Question: A procedure to identify health problems is through the agreement of people who have qualified information about the community. Two of the most frequently used techniques are: 
 Options:  <1> The questionnaire and the programs. <2> The techniques by indicators and by criteria. <3> The Delphi technique and the Nominal Group technique. <4> The questionnaire and the community forum. <5> All the previous answers are correct.
Output: 3
Question: Primary prevention: 
 Options:  <1> It consists of avoiding the appearance or diminishing the probability of suffering from a certain disease. <2> It deals with the diagnosis and early treatment of the disease. <3> It acts when the disease has already been established but trying to delay its course. <4> It is aimed at identifying patients at risk of suffering unnecessary, unethical and unnecessarily invasive interventions. <5> The correct answers are 2 and 3.
Output: 1
Question: You are evaluating the site where 100 abandoned dogs are collected. Of the data coming from the observation they emphasize the situation of overcrowding of the animals, the environment full of dust and the state of excitation of the animals. While interviewing one of the workers, he informs her that he has been working for 6 years from 7:00 a.m. to 1:30 p.m., feeding and drinking the animals and cleaning the living quarters where they live. He has never felt bad, believes that no dog is going to bite him and that he knows nothing of the precautions and cares that must be maintained while he works. With the data you have, determines that there is a situation of: 
 Options:  <1> Personal oversight <2> Infective role performance. <3> Provision to improve self-care. <4> Risk of infection <5> Risk of contamination.
Output: 4
Question: Epidemiology allows early detection of changes in the incidence of a certain disease in the population. For this, the most correct thing is to use: 
 Options:  <1> The etiological investigation. <2> The description of the natural history of the disease. <3> Epidemiological surveillance. <4> The evaluation of the functioning of the services. <5> None of the previous answers is correct.
Output: 3
Question: According to the World Health Organization, the action taken on individuals to change their behavior is called: 
 Options:  <1> Health Impact Evaluation. <2> Education for health. <3> Participatory intervention in Health. <4> Empowerment <5> Educational Transition in Health.
Output: 2
Question: The system that integrates the assistance and care provided by the family, neighbors or relatives without any contractual relationship and based on close personal relationships, corresponds to: 
 Options:  <1> Social care. <2> Comprehensive care system. <3> Informal care system. <4> Geriatric care. <5> Social benefit
Output: 3