niryuu/sni-each-converted huggingface dataset:
Question: Affective rigidity is characterized by: 
 Options:  <1> Rapid changes in mood. <2> Affective expression is discordant with the situation. <3> Absence of reactive positive feelings. <4> Inability to modulate affect depending on situations. <5> Little intense emotional responses.
Output: 4
Question: What are the characteristics of the obfuscation of consciousness ?: 
 Options:  <1> Total absence of consciousness that occurs due to illness or brain damage. <2> Transient narrowing of consciousness, of variable duration, with amnesia of what happened during the period. <3> Sleep-like state that is accompanied by intense visual hallucinations. <4> Deep disorder of qualitative and quantitative nature with psychomotor agitation. <5> Reduction of the ability to identify and recognize the environment with attentional difficulties and the course of thought.
Output: 5
Question: The state characterized by a total absence of consciousness, muscle laxity, absence of response to painful stimuli and posterior lacunar amnesia, is called: 
 Options:  <1> Drowsiness. <2> Mental absence <3> Stupor. <4> Coma. <5> Obnubilation.
Output: 4
Question: When a person remains in an immobile attitude, with rigid muscles, and can be placed in different positions without him trying to recover the original position for a while, he is likely to suffer: 
 Options:  <1> Passive negativity <2> Automatic obedience. <3> Reactive mannerisms. <4> Psychomotor alteration of rest. <5> Waxy flexibility.
Output: 5
Question: The appearance of constipation is a symptom that appears frequently when consumed: 
 Options:  <1> Tobacco. <2> Alcohol. <3> Cannabis <4> Cocaine. <5> Heroin.
Output: 5
Question: Under the name of xanthines are grouped: 
 Options:  <1> The coca leaf, cocaine and crack. <2> Methadone and heroin <3> The MDA and the MDMA. <4> Nicotine and inhalants. <5> Caffeine and theophylline.
Output: 5
Question: What characterizes dissociative identity disorder ?: 
 Options:  <1> Confusion about personal identity or assumption of a new identity. <2> Presence of two or more distinct identities or personality states that control the behavior of the individual recurrently. <3> A selective amnesia. <4> A persistent or recurrent experience of feeling distanced. <5> A feeling of unreality
Output: 2
Question: In what disorder is there excessive concern for any mild or nonexistent physical anomaly ?: 
 Options:  <1> Somatization disorder <2> Anorexia nervosa. <3> Anxiety disorder <4> The conversion disorder. <5> Body dysmorphic disorder.
Output: 5
Question: The fear or belief of suffering an important disease, which arises in the subject from the erroneous interpretation of their bodily symptoms, is the nuclear characteristic of: 
 Options:  <1> The conversion disorder. <2> Hypochondria. <3> Panic disorder <4> The Depression <5> Somatization
Output: 2
Question: What disorders are we referring to when we speak of an alteration of the integrating functions of consciousness, identity, and memory ?: 
 Options:  <1> Schizophrenia. <2> Dissociative disorders <3> Somatoform disorders. <4> Post-traumatic stress disorders. <5> Mood disorders
Output: 2
Question: According to Tyrer's classification (1989), what type of dissociation does psychogenic amnesia (dissociative amnesia) belong to ?: 
 Options:  <1> The dissociation of the personality. <2> The dissociation of cognitive function. <3> The dissociation of perception. <4> The dissociation of movement or sensation. <5> The dissociation of complex behaviors.
Output: 2
Question: What characteristic do anorexia and bulimia share ?: 
 Options:  <1> Loss of control over carbohydrates. <2> An extreme concern for body weight and shape. <3> A BMI below 18. <4> Hostility towards the mother. <5> The amenorrhea.
Output: 2
Question: What would be the differential characteristic between an eating disorder and another that presents with significant weight loss and / or anomalous eating patterns ?: 
 Options:  <1> The sleep problems. <2> The pathological fear of getting fat or the overestimated idea of ​​losing weight. <3> The social difficulties. <4> The high anxiety. <5> The fear of malnutrition.
Output: 2
Question: At what age does gender identity develop ?: 
 Options:  <1> Shortly after birth. <2> Between 2 and 4 years. <3> Between 5 and 7 years old. <4> Between 13 and 14 years old. <5> At puberty.
Output: 2
Question: A lack of interest in carrying out sexual relations or behavior in general is, more properly: 
 Options:  <1> Sexual aversion <2> Lack of sexual desire or inhibited sexual desire. <3> Impotence or anorgasmia. <4> Excitation disorder. <5> Orgasmic dysfunction
Output: 2
Question: The main techniques in Social Skills Training for people with schizophrenia include modeling, behavior testing and feedback. But what other techniques are recommended ?: 
 Options:  <1> Relaxation techniques. <2> Targeted discussion techniques and the nominal group technique (TGN). <3> Techniques of instigation (Prompting) and lecturing (Coaching). <4> Biofeedback techniques. <5> Mindfulness techniques.
Output: 3
Question: What causal factors are particularly relevant in female anorgasmia ?: 
 Options:  <1> The hereditary factors. <2> The psychological factors. <3> The organic factors. <4> The environmental factors. <5> The consumption of substances.
Output: 2
Question: A person who does not have schizophrenia, or a mood disorder with psychotic symptoms, but who exhibits a deep pattern of social detachment and a limited range of emotional expression in interpersonal situations (eg, enjoyment with few activities or is indifferent to the praise or criticism), presents more likely: 
 Options:  <1> A delusional disorder <2> A social phobia <3> A schizoid personality disorder. <4> A disorder of depersonalization. <5> A Korsakoff syndrome.
Output: 3
Question: In what disorder does the individual transgress the established social norms, through fraudulent or illegal behaviors, to the weight of knowing well the moral and legal sense of his actions but not putting them into practice ?: 
 Options:  <1> The delusional disorder. <2> The Kleine-Levin syndrome. <3> Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. <4> The antisocial personality disorder. <5> Bipolar disorder type II.
Output: 4
Question: In which personality disorder can the individual have unfounded and recurrent suspicions about the fidelity of the couple, as well as having doubts about the loyalty or honesty of the friends or acquaintances ?: 
 Options:  <1> In the celotypic personality disorder. <2> In delusional personality disorder. <3> In the dependent personality disorder. <4> In the paranoid personality disorder. <5> In narcissistic personality disorder.
Output: 4
Question: The symptoms of excessive daytime sleepiness, cataplexy, sleep paralysis and hypnagogic hallucinations describe: 
 Options:  <1> Simple schizophrenia <2> Refractory insomnia. <3> Narcolepsy <4> The conversion disorder. <5> Cryptoamnesia
Output: 3
Question: The interruption of the naso-oral airflow accompanied by muscular respiratory efforts that are not sufficient to open the upper airways, constitutes: 
 Options:  <1> The main side effect of electroshock. <2> A symptom of the heroin withdrawal syndrome. <3> An effect of the amnestic syndrome. <4> The apneic episode <5> The acute phase of social phobia.
Output: 4
Question: The central feature of phobic disorders is: 
 Options:  <1> Fear but not avoidance of the situation. <2> The avoidance of the situation, but not the fear of it. <3> That fear and avoidance are associated with more or less specific stimuli. <4> That fear is not associated with specific stimuli. <5> That the adult who suffers from this disorder is not aware that his fear is excessive and irrational.
Output: 3
Question: A general pattern of social and interpersonal deficits associated with acute distress and a reduced capacity for personal relationships, as well as cognitive or perceptual distortions and behavioral eccentricities, beginning at the beginning of adulthood, refers to a personality disorder: 
 Options:  <1> Schizoid. <2> Schizotypic <3> Antisocial. <4> Limit. <5> Paranoid
Output: 2
Question: The anxiety disorder that according to studies with monozygotic and dizygotic twins seems less influenced by genetic factors is: 
 Options:  <1> The generalized anxiety. <2> Panic disorder (or distress) <3> The phobias <4> Obsessive-compulsive disorder <5> Factitious disorder
Output: 1
Question: Indicate which of the manifestations or clinical subtypes is more frequent in the case of obsessive-compulsive disorder: 
 Options:  <1> Verification compulsions. <2> The obsessive slowness (perform activities such as dressing or showering in an obsessively slow manner). <3> The compulsions of cleaning / washing. <4> The compulsions of touching (for example, all corners). <5> The compulsions referred to religion (especially pray).
Output: 3
Question: In obsessive-compulsive disorder the compulsions: 
 Options:  <1> They do not cause discomfort to the individual. <2> They do not take long to complete (less than an hour a day). <3> These are behaviors or mental acts that are realistically connected to the objective of neutralizing the feared situation. <4> They are behaviors to mental acts whose objective is to prevent or reduce anxiety. <5> They are independent of the type of obsession suffered.
Output: 4
Question: Social phobia is a problem: 
 Options:  <1> Infrequent in the general population (less than 1%). <2> More frequent among the male population than in the female population. <3> More frequent among the female population than the male population. <4> That is given equally in both sexes. <5> More frequent after the 25 years than before that age.
Output: 3
Question: Point out which of the following is more clearly a positive symptom of schizophrenia: 
 Options:  <1> The flat or dull affection. <2> The poverty of language. <3> The associability. <4> Hallucinations <5> The bulimia.
Output: 4
Question: The epidemiology of schizophrenia reflects that: 
 Options:  <1> 0.1% of the general population suffers from this disorder and that percentage increases by 50% among first-degree relatives affected by schizophrenia. <2> 1% of the general population suffers from this disorder and that percentage increases by 10% among first-degree relatives affected by schizophrenia. <3> 3% of the general population is affected by this disorder without being influenced by relatives who suffer from it. <4> 5% of the general population is affected by this disorder without being influenced by relatives who suffer from it. <5> Epidemiology varies between 5% and 10% according to cultures.
Output: 2
Question: What is the main diagnostic characteristic of a Bipolar I Disorder ?: 
 Options:  <1> A disorder in which there is or has been an episode of mania. <2> A disorder in which there is or has been an episode of mania or hypomania. <3> A disorder in which there is or has been an episode of hypomania. <4> A disorder in which cycles of mania and psychosis alternate. <5> A disorder in which cycles of hypomania and depression alternate.
Output: 1
Question: How is the recovery of depression operationalized? (eg, Thase, 2003, APA, 2000): 
 Options:  <1> Reduction of more than 50% of symptoms from the baseline. <2> Reduction of symptoms by more than 75% from the baseline. <3> A score greater than 70 on the Global Activity Assessment Scale (EEAG). <4> Cessation of significant symptoms maintained for at least 6 months and a return to normal functioning. <5> Cessation of significant symptoms for at least the last two months.
Output: 4
Question: Which of the following statements is correct regarding the epidemiology of mood disorders ?: 
 Options:  <1> Bipolar disorders account for 25-30% of all mood disorders. <2> The average duration of a depressive episode is usually about 2-3 months. <3> The percentage of relapses of depression throughout life is estimated at 75%. <4> The risk of suicide in depressive disorder is greater than bipolar disorder. <5> 50% or more of the history of bipolar disorder is found in the families of patients with depression.
Output: 3
Question: What is the factor, among the following, that has shown a greater ability to predict a bipolar disorder ?: 
 Options:  <1> Have a serious personality disorder <2> Be under 24 years old and be male. <3> Pregnancy. <4> Consumption of alcohol and / or substances. <5> Having a family history of having suffered the disorder.
Output: 5
Question: What is the definition of a fast cycler ?: 
 Options:  <1> The presence of at least four episodes of mood (depressive, manic, or hypomanic) in a period of 12 months. <2> The presence of at least 6 episodes of mood in a period of 6 months. <3> The change from one mood episode to another in a period less than 48 hours. <4> The presence of more than two episodes of mania or hypomania detectable in a month. <5> Patients with Bipolar Disorder I or II with extreme hyperreactivity to minimal stressors.
Output: 1
Question: The concept of latent scheme in the cognitive theory of depression by Aaron Beck means that they are cognitive schemes: 
 Options:  <1> Of which the individual is not aware. <2> That directly influence the mood in a continuous but subtle way. <3> They are not permanently activated in vulnerable individuals and are activated only in the face of specific stressors. <4> They are active permanently but with an intensity that increases in each relapse or recurrence. <5> That do not require mental effort for its activation.
Output: 3
Question: The state of adaptation characterized by the diminution of the response to the same amount of drug or the need for a higher dose to cause the same degree of pharmacological effect, defines: 
 Options:  <1> The adaptation to a drug. <2> The route of administration. <3> Intoxication <4> Tolerance to a drug <5> Addictive behavior
Output: 4
Question: According to the results studies, when the Exposure technique is being applied, it must be taken into account that massive and prolonged exposure produces: 
 Options:  <1> Worst immediate results than spaced exposure. <2> Better immediate results than exposure spaced. <3> There are no differences in results regarding the type of exposure. <4> Worst immediate results if done in more than a day. <5> Best immediate results only in patients with depression.
Output: 2
Question: One of the main concepts of Acceptance and Commitment Therapy is: 
 Options:  <1> The relativization of the context. <2> The underlying reason. <3> The experiential avoidance. <4> The resistance to change. <5> Emotional vulnerability
Output: 3
Question: What is the therapeutic objective of Covert Sensitization ?: 
 Options:  <1> Develop an attraction response to a stimulus that was previously a source of aversion. <2> Increase the tolerance to an aversive stimulus and reduce the emotional activation it produces. <3> Postpone immediate positive reinforcers of undesirable behaviors. <4> Develop an aversion response to a stimulus that was previously a source of attraction. <5> Mentally reinforce successful trials aimed at achieving objective behavior.
Output: 4
Question: In Beck Cognitive Therapy, automatic thoughts are considered: 
 Options:  <1> A scheme. <2> A cognitive process <3> An action guide <4> An interference <5> A cognitive product.
Output: 5
Question: Which of the following processes would be responsible for the results that are achieved through mindfulness meditation ?: 
 Options:  <1> Change the contents of the mind. <2> Change the relationship with the contents of the mind. <3> Remove the spectator's role from the contents of the mind. <4> Judging the contents of the mind. <5> Merge with the contents of the mind.
Output: 2
Question: Among the techniques most used in Beck's Cognitive Therapy to identify or detect cognitive schemes is: 
 Options:  <1> The technique of the descending arrow. <2> To promote a new image. <3> The repetition of goals. <4> The self-instructions <5> The behavioral experiment.
Output: 1
Question: According to Kazdin, what is the meaning of the significant increase in the intensity or frequency of a behavior when an extinction program is applied to said behavior ?: 
 Options:  <1> Burst of extinction. <2> Spontaneous recovery <3> Graduation of extinction. <4> Efficacy of extinction. <5> Positive punishment
Output: 1
Question: In its origins, the technique of Systematic Desensitization was explained from: 
 Options:  <1> Operant conditioning. <2> Conditioning in a single trial. <3> Classical conditioning. <4> Vicar conditioning. <5> Instrumental conditioning.
Output: 3
Question: The research strategy in psychotherapy consisting of comparing all the components of one treatment with another in which one of the components of said treatment is eliminated, is known as: 
 Options:  <1> Unique case design. <2> Dismantling. <3> Process study <4> Standardization of treatments. <5> Placebo design
Output: 2
Question: In studies that use meta-analysis for the systematic review of the results of psychotherapies, which is the most used dependent variable? : 
 Options:  <1> The number of depressive symptoms. <2> The size of the effect. <3> The systematized observation of the therapist. <4> The number of patients that has been cured. <5> The expectations of the patient.
Output: 2
Question: What is the correct statement about paradoxical interventions ?: 
 Options:  <1> They can include the prescription of no change. <2> They consist in discussing with the patient the paradoxical attitude with respect to change. <3> Its origin is Systemic Therapy. <4> They have been included by psychodynamic psychotherapy to achieve greater brevity. <5> They are contraindicated in cases of resistance.
Output: 1
Question: What is the approach proposed by the relationship model between therapist and client as expert to expert ?: 
 Options:  <1> The behavioral model. <2> The constructivist perspective <3> The psychoanalysis. <4> The strategic school. <5> The therapy centered on the client.
Output: 2
Question: In the context of the analysis of the factors that influence the outcome of psychotherapy, state which of the following can be considered a specific (technical) factor (versus other types of factors, such as, for example, extra-therapeutic change, common factors): 
 Options:  <1> Placebo effect. <2> Promote successful experiences in the course of therapy. <3> Establishment of a relationship of trust. <4> Use of empathy. <5> The economy of chips.
Output: 5
Question: What is the approach that studies self-concept through polarities ?: 
 Options:  <1> The transactional analysis. <2> Aversive therapy. <3> Self-control <4> Gestalt therapy. <5> The concealed conditioning.
Output: 4
Question: One of the basic components that usually include all Social Skills Training programs is: 
 Options:  <1> Rational Emotive Imagination. <2> Control techniques stimulate. <3> Perspective shot <4> Behavior test. <5> Contracts of contingencies.
Output: 4
Question: Point out which of the following statements, regarding night terrors in childhood, is correct: 
 Options:  <1> Usually the episode occurs in the last third of the night's sleep. <2> Usually, the child remembers the episode. <3> The symptoms show the existence of a somatic disorder. <4> There is a relative lack of response to other people's attempts to awaken it. <5> The subject has a quick access to the orientation and alert.
Output: 4
Question: Indicate which of the following statements is correct regarding depression: 
 Options:  <1> In childhood, there is a lower prevalence of dysthymia than of major depression. <2> The prevalence of dysthymia in childhood is higher in girls than in boys. <3> Anhedonia is a minor symptom of depression in childhood and adolescence. <4> Neuroendocrine abnormalities are one of the most important internal factors in the genesis of childhood depression. <5> The prevalence of bipolar disorders is lower in childhood than in adulthood.
Output: 5
Question: The disorder characterized by a behavioral pattern that violates the basic rights of others or the main rules or social rules of the subject's age is called: 
 Options:  <1> Attention deficit disorder with hyperactivity. <2> Defiant negativist disorder <3> Dissocial disorder. <4> Generalized development issue. <5> Learning disorder.
Output: 3
Question: With which of the following disorders does nocturnal enuresis have a higher comorbidity ?: 
 Options:  <1> Nightmares. <2> Attention deficit disorder with hyperactivity. <3> Insomnia. <4> Night Bruxism. <5> Night terrors.
Output: 5
Question: What parasomnia is most common in childhood ?: 
 Options:  <1> Night terrors. <2> Nightmares. <3> REM sleep behavior disorder. <4> Restless legs syndrome. <5> Somnambulism.
Output: 2
Question: In what phase or phases of the dream are the night terrors ?: 
 Options:  <1> In the phases of deep slow sleep (phases 3 and 4). <2> In phase 2 <3> In REM sleep. <4> In phase 1 <5> They can occur indistinctly at any stage of the dream.
Output: 1
Question: Retentive encopresis is characterized by: 
 Options:  <1> Absence of constipation <2> Being significantly more frequent than non-retentive encopresis. <3> Decreased rectal accommodation. <4> Being associated with alterations in the perception of rectal distension. <5> Decrease in the contractile capacity of the external anal sphincter.
Output: 2
Question: Point out which of the following is a characteristic of childhood phobias: 
 Options:  <1> They can not be easily eliminated. <2> They are specific to a certain age. <3> They are short-lived. <4> They do not interfere with the child's daily life. <5> They are related to objectively dangerous stimuli.
Output: 1
Question: Hypokalemia is a physiological symptom that can typically occur: 
 Options:  <1> In sleep disorders. <2> In addictions. <3> In anorexia nervosa. <4> In bulimia but not in anorexia nervosa. <5> In disorders of attention deficit and disturbing behavior.
Output: 3
Question: Childhood disintegrative disorder is characterized by: 
 Options:  <1> A seemingly normal development during at least the first two years of life. <2> Present only in the female sex. <3> Do not affect the intellectual capacity of people who suffer from it. <4> Does not affect the communication skills of the person. <5> A developmental delay evident from birth.
Output: 1
Question: What is the fundamental goal of cognitive therapy for auditory hallucinations in schizophrenia ?: 
 Options:  <1> Completely eliminate the appearance of auditory hallucinations. <2> Avoid listening to hallucinations and avoid situations that provoke them. <3> Getting no one to realize that the person is having hallucinations. <4> Reduce beliefs about omnipotence, malevolence, benevolence, and obedience, regarding voices. <5> Modify the beliefs they have about schizophrenia and medication.
Output: 4
Question: The use of psychoeducation in schizophrenia now adopts a prosthetic criterion instead of issuing disqualification judgments. What goal should psychoeducation be set to follow this principle ?: 
 Options:  <1> It is intended that the person discovers everything that he will never be able to do due to his abilities. <2> The person is instructed to avoid making decisions for himself because his disorder prevents him from doing so. <3> It is intended that the person discover the best way to make their life but accepting and taking into account their abilities. <4> He tries to concentrate all his efforts is his strengths and ignore his disabilities. <5> The person is instructed about the fact that he can only achieve his goals if he takes the medication and does psychotherapy.
Output: 3
Question: Patients with schizophrenia usually present the so-called interactive imbalance that is expressed in the conversation with an exaggerated response latency, minimal speech or lack of participation in it. What is the most appropriate method to evaluate the patient and decide if it is convenient to perform a Social skills training ?: 
 Options:  <1> Through scales of intelligence. <2> Through self-report techniques: scales of social functioning. <3> By measuring electrodermal activity and other psychophysiological measures. <4> Through behavioral testing in simulated situations. <5> Through questionnaires and inventories of personality traits.
Output: 4
Question: The focus therapy for auditory hallucinations of Betall, Haddock and Slade (1994) uses different therapeutic strategies. Which of the following options is NOT considered in the targeting therapy model ?: 
 Options:  <1> The patient is asked to fix and describe the physical characteristics of their voices (for example, tone, intensity, location). <2> The patient is asked to observe the relationship between the content of hallucinations and current concerns. <3> The patient is asked to observe the relationship between the content of the hallucinations and their life experiences. <4> The patient is asked to neutralize the content of their voices by focusing on their physiological proprioceptive sensations. <5> You are asked to observe your reactions to the voices and, in particular, to your beliefs about them.
Output: 4
Question: The evaluation of the emotion expressed is useful in the context of the psychological treatment of schizophrenia. But from what sphere is the evaluation of the expressed emotion usually part ?: 
 Options:  <1> Of the evaluation of symptoms. <2> From the evaluation of the insight. <3> Of the cognitive evaluation. <4> Of the family evaluation. <5> Of the rational-emotive evaluation.
Output: 4
Question: The integral psychological therapy (IPT) of Brenner et al. (1992) consists of different subprograms. Which of these subprograms does NOT belong to such therapy ?: 
 Options:  <1> Cognitive differentiation <2> Solution of interpersonal problems. <3> Social perception. <4> Social skills. <5> Management and control of stress.
Output: 5
Question: One of the most important and innovative contributions of behavioral dialectic therapy in the treatment of borderline personality disorder (BPD) is: 
 Options:  <1> The integration of the psychodynamic perspective and the behavioral perspective. <2> The incorporation of group therapy. <3> The introduction of written material for patients to support therapy. <4> The emphasis on acceptance and validation as a prerequisite for achieving change. <5> The treatment of patients with BPD in the context of family therapy.
Output: 4
Question: The therapeutic model that introduces mindfulness training as part of the therapeutic strategies to be used for personality disorders is: 
 Options:  <1> Dialectical behavioral therapy. <2> Interpersonal therapy <3> Mentalization therapy <4> The iconic therapy. <5> Cognitive therapy
Output: 1
Question: Benjamin's Reconstructive Interpersonal Therapy includes as one of the most relevant aspects in the treatment of personality disorders: 
 Options:  <1> Cognitive therapy <2> Group therapy <3> Exposure therapy <4> The solution of emotional problems. <5> The structural analysis of social behavior.
Output: 5
Question: Point out the correct answer regarding the treatment of schizotypal personality disorder: 
 Options:  <1> The treatment program with the most empirical support for this disorder is therapy based on mentalization. <2> Therapeutic strategies that are used for schizophrenia may be useful, given the remarkable relationship between two clinical entities. <3> The focus of treatment is the impulsivity characteristic of this disorder. <4> The program that has received the most empirical support for this disorder is behavioral dialectical therapy. <5> For the treatment of this disorder therapeutic strategies that apply to obsessive-compulsive disorder are used.
Output: 2
Question: Along with Behavioral Cognitive Therapy, what other therapeutic approach has consistently shown to be an effective treatment for bulimia nervosa ?: 
 Options:  <1> Interpersonal psychotherapy <2> Mentalization therapy <3> The exposure therapy in imagination. <4> The economy of chips. <5> The therapy of schemes.
Output: 1
Question: Regarding Nervous Anorexia, it can be stated that: 
 Options:  <1> Even if the weight is stabilized, the patients still present a considerable psychopathology. <2> The suicide rate is 15%. <3> The most frequent comorbid symptoms are obsessive. <4> The purgatives have less psychopathological severity than the restrictive ones. <5> The psychopharmacological treatment of choice is the pharmacological treatment by itself.
Output: 1
Question: What is the cognitive-educational program of Barsky and collaborators for the treatment of hypochondria ?: 
 Options:  <1> In exposing themselves to the vision of photographs or videos about illnesses and visits to patients and hospitals. <2> In learning about the perception of physical symptoms and about the psychological factors that amplify somatic discomfort. <3> In becoming aware of the role of somatic symptoms as mechanisms of manifestation of underlying conflicts. <4> In identifying family functioning patterns that reinforce symptomatic behavior. <5> In repeatedly providing reassuring medical explanations about physical symptoms.
Output: 2
Question: What procedure is part of the cognitive-behavioral intervention program for hypochondria proposed by Warwick and Salkovskis ?: 
 Options:  <1> The systematic desensitization in imagination to extinguish the fear of interoceptive sensations. <2> The stopping of thought to block intrusive thoughts about the disease. <3> The training in mindfulness to reduce the appearance of annoying bodily sensations. <4> The prevention of response to reduce body checking behaviors and search for reassuring information. <5> The resolution of the underlying conflicts related to guilt and dependency needs.
Output: 4
Question: Which procedure is NOT part of the cognitive-behavioral intervention program for body dysmorphic disorder of Rosen et al ?: 
 Options:  <1> Psychoeducation <2> Exposition. <3> Training in problem solving. <4> Cognitive restructuring. <5> Response prevention.
Output: 3
Question: Which authors is the most well-known relapse prevention model with good empirical support in alcoholism ?: 
 Options:  <1> Marlatt and Gordon. <2> Miller and Rollnick. <3> Beck and Ellis. <4> Sobell and Sobell. <5> Hunt and Arzin.
Output: 1
Question: Which of the following formal aspects of the therapeutic style are part of the motivational interview ?: 
 Options:  <1> Take a directive role during therapy. <2> Promote empathy. <3> Use coercive strategies. <4> Use diagnostic labels. <5> Favor discussions to activate resistances.
Output: 2
Question: The Problem Solving Therapy for depression includes within its proposals: 
 Options:  <1> Train relaxation responses in the patient as a means to improve reflection and the search for solutions. <2> Encourage the patient to take positive actions, whatever they may be, even if they are not aimed at solving any specific problem. <3> Train social skills strategies that help solve important problems. <4> Look for problems in your childhood and adolescence that may be having an impact on your current depression. <5> Minimize the impact of depressive symptoms on attempts to solve.
Output: 5
Question: With respect to effective psychological treatments for depression, it can be stated that: 
 Options:  <1> They are more expensive treatments (in terms of efficiency) than psychotropic drugs. <2> They have been proposed by the NICE guide (National Institute for Health and Clinical Excellence) as the second treatment of choice for those cases in which the drugs have not been shown to be effective. <3> In general, those psychological treatments that use active methodologies, limited in time and structured, tend to be more effective. <4> They generate a similar number of dropouts than pharmacological therapy. <5> They generate a higher level of stigma than pharmacological therapies.
Output: 3
Question: Point out the correct answer regarding therapy for Rehm's depression: 
 Options:  <1> It focuses on three processes: self-tracking, self-esteem and self-reinforcement. <2> It has no empirical evidence to be considered well-established treatment. <3> Each of its components separately have been shown to be as effective as the complete treatment. <4> It presents a strong cognitive component. <5> It has been shown superior to interpersonal therapy and problem solving.
Output: 3
Question: With respect to the treatment of depression and, in particular, the comparative efficacy between psychological treatments (especially cognitive-behavioral therapy) and pharmacological treatments, it can be stated that, in general: 
 Options:  <1> Drugs for depression are more effective in patients with severe depression than psychological treatments. <2> Drugs for depression provide a faster improvement response than psychological treatments. <3> Drugs for depression have a long-term relapse prevention effect similar to psychological treatments. <4> Drugs for depression have a similar level of side effects as psychological treatments. <5> The drugs for depression make psychological therapy more effective compared to its application without medication.
Output: 2
Question: With respect to the pharmacological treatment for depression, it can be stated that: 
 Options:  <1> The side effects of Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs), such as fluoxetine, are zero. <2> Treatments with SSRIs are more effective than those using cyclic antidepressants. <3> In general, pharmacological treatments should not be combined with psychological treatments. <4> They have been shown to be effective for 50% of patients, while the efficacy of placebo would be of the order of 30%. <5> Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) have been shown to be superior to other antidepressants in the treatment of severe depression.
Output: 4
Question: Point out the correct answer. Lithium salts are used to treat: 
 Options:  <1> The affective symptoms of schizophrenia. <2> The psychotic symptoms of schizophrenia. <3> As a maintenance treatment for bipolar patients with a history of mania. <4> Depressive episodes of bipolar disorder, but not manic episodes. <5> In a drug in disuse and not recommended in the current clinical guidelines.
Output: 3
Question: Which of the following drugs is NOT used for the treatment of psychotic symptoms of schizophrenia: 
 Options:  <1> Olanzapine (Zyprexa). <2> Risperidone (Risperdal). <3> Aripiprazole (Abilify) <4> Clozapine (Leponex). <5> Venlafaxine (Dobupal, Vandral).
Output: 5
Question: Which of the following criteria is a predictor of long-term success in exposure therapy to phobic disorders ?: 
 Options:  <1> Let the intensity of fear be intermittent. <2> That the phobia is of recent appearance. <3> That improvement occurs after the first exhibitions. <4> That there is previous experience of psychological treatment. <5> Let the patient be aware of the irravability of their fears.
Output: 3
Question: In the training in HHSS applied to social phobia, modeling is used for the learning of certain skills. The chosen model must be: 
 Options:  <1> Very competent and keep that competition constant throughout the training. <2> Be relatively competent (a little more than the subject you train) and increase the competition throughout the training. <3> Be very competent and decrease your competence. <4> Being incompetent so that the patient can identify with him. <5> Must be a little more competent than the patient and not progress so that as the learning progresses the patient will overcome and increase their motivation.
Output: 2
Question: To which of the following variables have the best therapeutic results been associated in Social Phobia ?: 
 Options:  <1> Training in HHSS. <2> Family support. <3> Fulfillment of the tasks of exposure between sessions. <4> Previous experience in psychotherapy. <5> Absence of physiological symptoms.
Output: 3
Question: For what purpose do Foa and Rothbaum (1998) propose the Reformulated Narrative of Trauma in its proposed intervention in PTSD ?: 
 Options:  <1> Identify the activating stimuli of the symptoms. <2> Reduce the frequency of intrusive images. <3> Provide information that belies the beliefs related to the trauma. <4> Help to remember the experience so that it can be assimilated into the person's autobiographical memory. <5> Direct the patient's full attention from his thoughts to the external world.
Output: 4
Question: Cognitive techniques do not seem to enhance the effect of exposure in vivo in most specific phobias, with the possible exception of: 
 Options:  <1> The claustrophobia and the phobia of heights. <2> Phobia to the dark. <3> Water phobia <4> Phobia to drive. <5> Phobia to the snakes.
Output: 1
Question: The main utility of behavioral experiments in the treatment of panic disorder is: 
 Options:  <1> Exemplify the psychoeducational content. <2> Facilitate the acceptance of the treatment. <3> Test dysfunctional beliefs about the consequences of certain bodily sensations. <4> Demonstrate that the anxiety experienced by the patient in situations is lower than anticipated. <5> Model the applied practice of relaxation.
Output: 3
Question: Which of these components is not common in cognitive-behavioral therapies for panic disorder ?: 
 Options:  <1> Behavioral activation <2> Interoceptive exposure. <3> Behavioral experiments <4> Training in breathing. <5> Cognitive restructuring.
Output: 1
Question: For what purpose do Clark and Beck (2010) propose, within the cognitive therapy of anxiety disorders, the exercises of induction of symptoms in the treatment of panic disorder ?: 
 Options:  <1> To provoke the integration of the reflective processes of higher level of cognitive processing. <2> To create opportunities to challenge the catastrophic misinterpretations of bodily sensations. <3> To facilitate the use of self-guided meditation. <4> To generate new security search behaviors. <5> The induction of symptoms is not contemplated in the model of cognitive anxiety therapy.
Output: 2
Question: Point out which of the following guidelines belongs to the Stress Reduction Program of Kabat-Zinn (University of Massachusetts): 
 Options:  <1> Acceptance and commitment therapy. <2> Behavioral activation therapy. <3> Psychoeducation and mindfulness. <4> Dialectical therapy. <5> Therapy of common factors.
Output: 3
Question: For what purpose is the muscle tension technique applied in the treatment of blood phobia used ?: 
 Options:  <1> As a relaxation technique. <2> To divert the patient's attention from the feared stimulus. <3> To accelerate the habituation process. <4> To reduce vasovagal symptoms. <5> It is used in the first sessions to reduce anticipatory anxiety.
Output: 4
Question: What name does the technique used in the treatment of Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) in which the person is asked to assume that their worst fear is met, and then look for realistic solutions to it ?: 
 Options:  <1> Script of the worst scenario. <2> Decatastrofization. <3> Coping with uncertainty. <4> Revaluation of the threat. <5> Processing of meta-concern.
Output: 2
Question: One of the main limitations of the behavioral treatment (exposure with prevention of response) of OCD is: 
 Options:  <1> His recent appearance. <2> The reduced efficacy compared to cognitive and pharmacological treatments. <3> The lack of an explanatory theoretical model. <4> The difficulty of application in cases of motor rituals. <5> The existence of a relevant percentage of patients who reject treatment because of its aversive nature.
Output: 5
Question: In the framework of the treatment of Generalized Anxiety, we distinguish (eg, Dugas and Ladouceur, 1997) between concerns about events based on reality, in which case the patient would be trained in problem solving, and concerns about events not based on reality and highly improbable that should be addressed by employing: 
 Options:  <1> Cognitive functional exposure. <2> Applied relaxation <3> Distraction techniques. <4> Meditation. <5> Self instructions
Output: 1
Question: Which of the following techniques is considered, according to the available evidence, a well-established treatment in the case of childhood phobias: 
 Options:  <1> The training in HHSS. <2> The emotive images. <3> The therapy based on the game. <4> Systematic desensitization through eye movements. <5> The practice reinforced.
Output: 5
Question: Point out the INCORRECT statement about the sexual misconduct that occurs in some victims of child sexual abuse: 
 Options:  <1> It is a common problem in children who have suffered sexual abuse. <2> It is a symptom that constitutes a diagnostic criterion of post-traumatic stress disorder and therefore it is expected to disappear if PTSD is properly treated by techniques such as exposure. <3> You can work with the parents and also directly with the children. <4> Your treatment may include a sexual education component also in prepubertal children. <5> The involvement of parents includes their duty to protect and keep the child safe.
Output: 2
Question: Point out the correct statement about the parent training program created by Barkley: 
 Options:  <1> Its main objective is to improve the social and communication skills of children. <2> Its main objective is to improve the children's self-control skills. <3> Prohibits the use of any type of punishment, including time out. <4> One of its objectives is to reduce the conflicts that may arise in the school context. <5> Sessions are held with the children in parallel with those of the parents.
Output: 4
Question: One of the following is NOT a guideline that should guide interventions in Autism Spectrum Disorders. Point out which: 
 Options:  <1> Use personalized teaching programs based on an evolutionary framework. <2> Intervene in a group setting to favor the acquisition of social skills. <3> Intervene in highly structured and predictable contexts. <4> Use learning procedures without mistakes. <5> Favor motivation.
Output: 2
Question: For which disorder of childhood is considered that the combination therapy (more psychological pharmacological treatment) is the most effective alternative ?: 
 Options:  <1> Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. <2> Subclinical depression <3> Enuresis <4> The encopresis. <5> Separation anxiety disorder.
Output: 1
Question: For what disorder of ingestion and eating behavior of childhood is it recommended to use mass practice procedures ?: 
 Options:  <1> The pica. <2> Bulimia nervosa. <3> The rumination. <4> Childhood anorexia <5> The eating disorder of childhood and childhood.
Output: 3
Question: For which of the following disorders has exposure with response prevention been used successfully: 
 Options:  <1> The encopresis. <2> Tourette's syndrome <3> ADHD with predominance of hyperactivity / impulsive. <4> Tobacco use in adolescence. <5> The shyness in childhood.
Output: 2
Question: About the treatment of depression in children and adolescents, point out the INCORRECT statement: 
 Options:  <1> In moderate to severe depression, antidepressant medication should only be offered in combination with a simultaneous psychological therapy. <2> Both cognitive-behavioral therapy and interpersonal therapy have strong evidence of its efficacy in children who have not yet reached puberty. <3> Guided self-help and non-directive supportive therapy are acceptable treatment alternatives for mild depression. <4> The minimum duration of psychological therapy in moderate to severe depression should be at least 3 months. <5> Both individual and family therapy are recommended treatment alternatives for moderate to severe depression.
Output: 2
Question: What is the common denominator of well-established psychological treatments for childhood phobias ?: 
 Options:  <1> The change of beliefs regarding the dangerousness of the phobic stimulus. <2> The induction of a feeling of relaxation or well-being in the presence of the phobic stimulus. <3> The interaction of the therapist with the phobic stimulus. <4> The use of coping self-instructions. <5> The gradual relationship in vivo with the phobic stimulus.
Output: 5
Question: In the psychological treatment of recurrent childhood nightmares: 
 Options:  <1> The parents are trained to extinguish, ignoring them, the manifestations of anxiety of the child who has suffered a nightmare. <2> The main objective is to ensure the physical safety of the child. <3> Exposure techniques and systematic desensitization are considered well-established treatments. <4> The technique of review in imagination is the one that has received the greatest empirical support. <5> There are no studies about the therapeutic efficacy of hypnosis.
Output: 4
Question: What is the phase described by Kübler-Ross in his theory about coping with death that is usually an initial reaction to the expectation of death ?: 
 Options:  <1> Depression. <2> Anger or anger <3> Negotiation. <4> Acceptance. <5> Negation.
Output: 5
Question: What theoretical orientation prevailed in the first phase of Psychosomatic Medicine ?: 
 Options:  <1> Behaviorism <2> Psychoanalysis. <3> Existentialism. <4> Cognitivism <5> Systemic Psychology
Output: 2
Question: What weight class corresponds to a Body Mass Index of 26 and what degree of risk does it entail for health ?: 
 Options:  <1> Normal weight and zero risk. <2> Overweight grade I and zero risk. <3> Obesity grade I and moderate risk. <4> Obesity grade II and high risk. <5> Morbid obesity and very high risk.
Output: 2
Question: What type of construct is evaluated by the Maslach Inventory ?: 
 Options:  <1> Illness behavior <2> Abnormal behavior of disease. <3> General Adaptation Syndrome. <4> Burnout. <5> Resistant personality
Output: 4
Question: Which were the first authors who investigated the role that stressful life events could have on health ?: 
 Options:  <1> Mechanic <2> Matarazzo <3> Zola <4> Lazarus <5> Holmes and Rahe.
Output: 5
Question: With what scope is the Theory of the Melzack Gate and Wall related ?: 
 Options:  <1> Cancer. <2> HIV infection <3> Renal problems. <4> Pain. <5> Cardiovascular disorders
Output: 4
Question: For what illness has Moorey and Greer's Adjuvant Psychological Therapy been developed ?: 
 Options:  <1> Fibromyalgia <2> Cancer. <3> Irritable colon. <4> Bronchial asthma. <5> Hypertension.
Output: 2
Question: What name do we give to the continuous increase of the caloric restriction that is required in the diet to continue losing weight ?: 
 Options:  <1> Soil effect of the diets. <2> Roof effect of the diets. <3> Setpoint. <4> Self-imposed maintenance. <5> Effect of resistance.
Output: 1
Question: What explanatory theoretical model of health behaviors emphasizes the importance of the perception of personal susceptibility to the disease and its severity ?: 
 Options:  <1> Transheoretical model. <2> Reasoned Action Model. <3> Health Belief Model. <4> PRECEDE-PROCEED model. <5> Competition Model.
Output: 3
Question: The proportion of environmental variance due to the influences that a person receives from their family environment and that are shared by the rest of their family: 
 Options:  <1> It is the specific variance. <2> It is called genotypic variance. <3> It matches the heritability. <4> It is dismissed in the investigations. <5> It is the variance coming from the shared environment.
Output: 5
Question: In a normal distribution: 
 Options:  <1> The average of the scores is zero. <2> The Standard Deviation is equal to the unit. <3> The Average is equal to the Median. <4> The Media does not have to coincide with the Median. <5> You can not calculate Fashion.
Output: 3
Question: The gastrointestinal system releases a peptide hormone that increases during fasting and decreases after ingestion, called: 
 Options:  <1> Leptin <2> Cholecystokinin <3> Ghrelin <4> Insulin. <5> Glycogen
Output: 3
Question: For classical automaticity theories, what characterizes automatic versus controlled processes ?: 
 Options:  <1> The automatic processes are under control of the person's intentions. <2> Automatic processes consume great attentional capacity. <3> Automatic processes process information only sequentially. <4> Automatic processes consume a lot of time. <5> Automatic processes do not have to access conscious knowledge.
Output: 5
Question: The approach to the Psychological Evaluation from a constructivist model is characterized by the use of techniques: 
 Options:  <1> Projectives that evaluate traits. <2> Subjectives that evaluate meanings. <3> Psychometrics that evaluate constructs. <4> Behaviors that evaluate repertoires. <5> Observationals that evaluate environmental variables.
Output: 2