niryuu/sni-each-converted huggingface dataset:
Question: A study is carried out to investigate the association between factor X and disease Z. To do this, 120 subjects with the disease and 420 controls (without the disease) are matched by age and sex. In both groups it is found that 20 subjects were exposed to factor X. What is the odds ratio (OR) between factor X and disease Z? 
 Options:  <1> OR = 1 (no association). <2> OR = 2. <3> OR = 4 <4> OR = 6 <5> OR = 8
Output: 3
Question: In a clinical trial, the non-inferiority of the HDP-MDI inhaler (experimental) was evaluated against the FDC-ELIPTUS inhaler (control). The lower clinically relevant limit was set at -50 ml in the forced expiratory volume in the first second (FEV1). The results showed an absolute difference in FEV1 between treatments of +8 mL in favor of the HDP-MDI inhaler (95% confidence interval: -59 ml to +67 ml). Point out the CORRECT answer: 
 Options:  <1> The new HDP-MDI inhaler is superior to the control inhaler. <2> The FDC-ELIPTUS inhaler is non-inferior to the experimental inhaler. <3> The study is not conclusive. <4> Both inhalers are equivalent. <5> The HDP-MDI inhaler is non-inferior to the control inhaler.
Output: 3
Question: Does vaccination with inactivated poliomyelitis vaccine generate group immunity? (point to the correct answer). 
 Options:  <1> Yes <2> Do not. <3> Only when vaccines are used with adjuvants. <4> Only against polio virus type 3. <5> Only if it is administered with DTP vaccine.
Output: 1
Question: Regarding vaccination with rubella vaccine in pregnant women, point out the correct answer: 
 Options:  <1> It should be encouraged as it is very convenient for Public Health. <2> It is the procedure of choice for the control of congenital rubella syndrome. <3> It is no longer considered as an indication of abortion. <4> It is allowed in the case of vaccines of strain RA 27/3, but not in the case of vaccines of the strain Cendehill. <5> It must be administered in conjunction with specific immunoglobulin
Output: 3
Question: In a clinical trial that evaluates the efficacy of a hypolipidemic agent in the primary prevention of coronary heart disease, if the researchers have planned analysis of intermediate results and in view of them suspending the study before its completion they must know that: 
 Options:  <1> The study can only be interrupted when in some intermediate analysis there is a difference between the results of the interventions, p <0.05. <2> Only interruption is justified in those studies that have mortality as the outcome variable. <3> If the intervention is safe, the study can not be interrupted before it has finished. <4> When a clinical trial is interrupted early, the effect of the evaluated intervention is often overestimated. <5> The performance of intermediate analyzes decreases the Type I error.
Output: 4
Question: When screening for a disease, aimed at high-risk groups, looking for disease in its initial stage, is called: 
 Options:  <1> Simple screening, non-selective, precocious. <2> Simple, selective, precocious screening. <3> Multiple, non-selective, late screening. <4> Multiple screening, selective, precocious. <5> Simple, selective, delayed screening.
Output: 2
Question: A 52-year-old woman is detected on a mammogram by a nodule and is advised to perform a biopsy by puncture with ultrasound control. The patient asks you about the probability of having cancer if the test comes out positive. Since you have no experience in this area, you are looking for and find a study that includes 112 patients, 18 with cancer and 94 without cancer. Of the 18 patients with cancer, the puncture gave a positive result in 16 and of the 94 patients without cancer the puncture gave a negative result in 88. With these data the correct answer is: 
 Options:  <1> 0,727. <2> 0.93. <3> 0.645. <4> 0.56. <5> It can not be calculated because the prevalence of the disease is not known.
Output: 1
Question: A group of researchers conducted a prospective study to evaluate the efficacy of three alternatives in the treatment of acute otorrhea in children with tympanostomy tubes. Randomized, 76 children received oral amoxicillin-clavulanic acid, 77 received ear drops with hydrocortisone-bacitracinacolistin and other 77 children did not receive any pharmacological treatment, only observation. The main variable was the presence of otorrhea. What kind of study is it? 
 Options:  <1> Cohort study. <2> Post-authorization study of prospective follow-up. <3> Post-authorization study linked to the authorization. <4> Clinical trial <5> Transversal study.
Output: 4
Question: We have the registry of subjects who are vaccinated against the flu in a specific region and campaign, which includes information at the time of vaccination on pathological history, age, sex and type of vaccine. For the same subjects we also have the registry with hospital discharge diagnoses, which occurred after the date of vaccination, and there is a personal identifier common to both registers. Indicate which of these studies would be possible to carry out using only the aforementioned sources of information: 
 Options:  <1> An analytical cohort study to determine if vaccination increases the risk of developing Guillain-Barré syndrome in the first 16 weeks after influenza vaccination. <2> A descriptive analysis to estimate the incidence of acute myocardial infarction in the first 16 weeks after anti-flu vaccination. <3> A descriptive analysis to estimate the incidence of fever in the first week after the influenza vaccination. <4> A clinical trial that compares the risk of serious post-vaccine reactions (involving hospital admission) with two of the types of influenza vaccines used in that campaign. <5> A case-control study to determine if vaccination increases the risk of developing an acute myocardial infarction.
Output: 2
Question: In a meta-analysis of 15 studies, the incidence of myocardial infarction with the new drug Tromboclean is 10.8% compared to 8% with heparin. The relative risk is 1.35, with a 95% confidence interval of 1.15 to 1.50 and absence of significant heterogeneity between studies (p-value of heterogeneity = 0.95). Point out the CORRECT answer: 
 Options:  <1> The heterogeneity is not significant, which suggests that the results are inconclusive. <2> Trombo Clean presents a risk of myocardial infarction similar to that of heparin. <3> It can not be ruled out with a 95% confidence that Tromboclean reduces the risk of myocardial infarction by 50%. <4> Thromboclean increases the absolute risk of myocardial infarction between 15% and 50%. <5> Heparin presents a significantly lower risk of myocardial infarction than Tromboclean.
Output: 5
Question: Which of the following cranial nerves has the longest path through a bone canal? 
 Options:  <1> The trigeminal. <2> The pathetic or troclear. <3> The optician <4> The facial. <5> The olfactory.
Output: 4
Question: Reviewing the CT angiography of a 70-year-old man under study for abdominal aortic aneurysm, the radiologist reports the presence of complete occlusion of the inferior mesenteric artery. The patient is completely asymptomatic. Occlusion of the inferior mesenteric artery occurs asymptomatically on many occasions since the irrigating territory can receive flow from: 
 Options:  <1> The middle colic artery. <2> The gastroduodenal artery. <3> The left inferior epigastric artery. <4> The splenic artery. <5> The gastroepiploic artery.
Output: 1
Question: What is the most common malignant tumor of the thyroid? 
 Options:  <1> Oxyphilic carcinoma <2> Papillary carcinoma <3> Follicular carcinoma. <4> Anaplastic carcinoma <5> Spinal carcinoma
Output: 2
Question: In which of the following entities is NOT the Epstein-Barr Virus involved? 
 Options:  <1> Infectious mononucleosis <2> Burkitt lymphoma. <3> Large B cell lymphoma in immunosuppressed patients. <4> Nasopharyngeal carcinoma <5> Cervical carcinoma
Output: 5
Question: Among the exogenous factors that favor the appearance of gout are the drugs. Of the following indicated, which one do you consider that it does NOT favor hyperuricemia? 
 Options:  <1> Acetylsalicylic acid at doses lower than 1g daily. <2> Hydrochlorothiazide <3> Cyclosporin A. <4> Ethambutol <5> Estrogens
Output: 5
Question: The development of generic drugs is based on the evaluation of the bioequivalence of the generic compared to a reference product already marketed. This concept refers to: 
 Options:  <1> The evaluation of equivalence in clinical efficacy trials. <2> The assessment of similarity in clinical trials of tolerance. <3> The equivalence in the distribution process of a drug and, therefore, to the verification that it has the same concentrations in the place of action. <4> The evaluation of pharmacokinetic equivalence. <5> The verification of a similar effect of the factors that influence the bioavailability of a drug.
Output: 4
Question: In a 60-year-old man with moderate renal insufficiency, treatment is started, without administration of loading dose, with a digitalis medication. Under these conditions, the half-life or plasma half-life of digitalis is estimated at 72 hours. Indicate how much treatment time in days should elapse from the start of treatment to reach the steady state concentration or equilibrium concentration. 
 Options:  <1> In 3 days. <2> Between 3 and 9 days. <3> Between 12 and 15 days. <4> More than 30 days <5> More than 60 days
Output: 3
Question: Of the following anticoagulants which is a direct inhibitor of thrombin: 
 Options:  <1> Dabigatran <2> Apixaban. <3> Rivaroxaban. <4> Acenocoumarol. <5> Clopidogrel
Output: 1
Question: Which of the following conditions causes a decrease in the O2 saturation of the hemoglobin that is not due to a decrease in the partial pressure of oxygen? 
 Options:  <1> Ventilation-perfusion ratio lower than normal. <2> Anemia. <3> Carbon monoxide poisoning. <4> Hypoventilation. <5> Shunt venoarterial.
Output: 3
Question: Which of the mentioned vasoactive substances preferentially contracts the glomerular efferent arterioles in most physiological states? 
 Options:  <1> Adrenalin. <2> Noradrenaline <3> Endothelin <4> Angiotensin II. <5> Bradykinin
Output: 4
Question: What studies should be performed in an adenocarcinoma with prominent mucinous differentiation of ascending colon diagnosed in a 32-year-old man? 
 Options:  <1> Reorganization of the MYC gene. <2> Analysis of microsatellite instability. <3> Study of mutations of the RET gene. <4> Study of BRCA1-2 mutations. <5> Studies of TP53 mutations.
Output: 2
Question: A healthy couple has an 8-year-old daughter with hepatosplenomegaly. The laboratory of biochemical genetics has detected in it a deficiency of the acid beta-glucosidase enzyme (glucocerebrosidase) and molecularly presents the mutation N370S in homozygosis. Which diagnosis is correct? 
 Options:  <1> Fabry disease (Xq22.1). <2> Huntington's disease (4p16.3). <3> Autosomal dominant cerebellar ataxia SCA1 (6p22.3). <4> Adrenoleukodystrophy (Xq28). <5> Gaucher disease (1q22).
Output: 5
Question: Which of the following in an oncogene whose transcription product is a membrane receptor with tyrosine kinase activity of a growth factor? 
 Options:  <1> HER2 / neu. <2> p53. <3> myc <4> APC. <5> Ras.
Output: 1
Question: Point out the correct answer regarding B lymphocytes. 
 Options:  <1> Its two main subpopulations are called B-helper and B-cytotoxic. <2> They are the cells responsible for the production of antibodies in the rejection of an autologous transplant of hematopoietic progenitors. <3> They are the target cells of the anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody (rituximab). <4> They require co-stimulation CD20-CD19 for the expression of the CD3 molecule on its surface. <5> It is the type of majority lymphocyte in the peripheral blood of patients with Bruton's disease.
Output: 3
Question: In IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reactions: 
 Options:  <1> Eosinophils and mast cells play an important role. <2> There are no cellular elements involved. <3> Antibody-mediated cytotoxicity reactions play a key role. <4> There are no elements of the immune system involved in atopy. <5> The IgE immunoglobulin receptor does not intervene.
Output: 1
Question: An 8-month-old girl meets diagnostic criteria for hemophagocytic syndrome / hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis-fever, hepatosplenomegaly, anemia, thrombocytopenia, hipetransaminasemia, increased sCD25-and has a defect in the capacity of degranulation of her lymphocytes (expression of CD107a). Point out the correct therapeutic attitude in this case: 
 Options:  <1> Quickly initiate HLA typing and immunosuppressive therapy for the donor search (haematopoietic stem cell transplant). <2> Biological treatment with Daclizumab (antiCD25) as the only therapy until the molecular diagnosis of the disease is obtained. <3> Symptomatic and supportive treatment (transfusion of red blood cells and platelets) and avoid any immunosuppressant drug. <4> Broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy via iv for the treatment of an eventual microorganism that triggers hemophagocytosis. <5> Treatment with intravenous gamma globulins, to maintain for life.
Output: 1
Question: A 43-year-old man consulted for diarrheal syndrome, and reported among his background 3 pneumonias in adulthood. Which of the following immunological studies should we request ?: 
 Options:  <1> Serum immunoglobulin count and antibody production capacity test. <2> Phagocytosis test and oxidative metabolism of neutrophils. <3> Apoptosis test (programmed cell death) in the circulating lymphocytes of the patient. <4> Study of the repertoire and clonality of the T lymphocytes (alpha / beta). <5> In this patient, it would not be appropriate to request any immunological study.
Output: 1
Question: In what clinical situation would you use a combined antimicrobial treatment? 
 Options:  <1> In an acute pharyngotonsillitis in a child. <2> In a community pneumonia due to Mycoplasma pneumoniae in a teenager. <3> In an acute meningitis in an elderly patient. <4> In a postmenopausal patient with a recurrent urinary infection. <5> In a skin abscess in a young patient.
Output: 3
Question: 8-year-old boy who goes to the Emergency Room because he has been bitten by a child while playing, about 6 hours ago. It presents a slight incisocontuse wound on the right forearm. In addition to considering other measures, what antimicrobial would you recommend? 
 Options:  <1> Ciprofloxacin, thinking that the oral flora is composed of mixed flora with predominance of anaerobic flora. <2> Aztreonam, thinking that the oral flora is composed of mixed flora with a predominance of Enterobacteriaceae. <3> Amoxicillin-clavulanate, thinking that the oral flora is composed of mixed flora with a predominance of gram-positive and anaerobic flora. <4> Fluconazole, thinking that the oral flora is composed of mixed flora with predominance of yeasts such as Candida albicans. <5> Metronidazole, thinking that the oral flora is composed of mixed flora with predominance of anaerobic flora.
Output: 3
Question: Which of the following bacterial species is not an Enterobacteriaceae? 
 Options:  <1> Escherichia coli <2> Proteus vulgaris. <3> Klebsiella pneumoniae. <4> Pseudomonas aeruginosa. <5> Salmonella enteritidis.
Output: 4
Question: A 69-year-old woman consulted for dysuria and frequency, symptoms that she has suffered numerous times in the last two years. He says that he has been taking cotrimoxazole in a daily dose for three months, prescribed by his family doctor. In the hospital's emergency department, a sediment and a urine culture were taken. The urinary sediment was pathological (significant pyuria, positive nitrites). He was prescribed ciprofloxacin, and was re-cited with his primary care physician. The urine culture was positive (Escherichia coli,> 10 (5) CFU / ml) and the results of the antibiogram showed resistance to ampicillin, cotrimoxazole and quinolones, but sensitivity to fosfomycin, the antimicrobial agent that you prescribe. Which of the following answers is FALSE? 
 Options:  <1> The change from ciprofloxacin to norfloxacin would have been correct, according to the results of the antibiogram. <2> Cotrimoxazole was being used as a prophylaxis. <3> The choice of fosfomycin constitutes a targeted treatment. <4> The choice of ciprofloxacin constitutes an empirical treatment. <5> The change from ciprofloxacin to fosfomycin was correct, according to the results of the antibiogram.
Output: 1
Question: Before a 7-month-old girl who comes to the emergency room with a picture suggestive of bronchiolitis, what would be the most probable etiologic agent? 
 Options:  <1> Adenovirus. <2> Parainfluenza virus 1 <3> Influenza B virus <4> Bocavirus <5> Respiratory syncytial virus.
Output: 5
Question: Which of the following drugs is NOT used in the treatment of autoimmune hepatitis? 
 Options:  <1> Prednisone. <2> Azathioprine <3> Budesonide <4> Lamivudine <5> Mycophenolate mofetil.
Output: 4
Question: Acute aortic syndrome includes entities such as aortic dissection, intramural aortic hematoma, and penetrating atherosclerotic ulcer. Regarding the diagnostic and therapeutic considerations of this entity, point out the CORRECT statement: 
 Options:  <1> Currently, in our environment, the diagnosis of this pathology is established routinely by percutaneous arteriography. <2> Computed tomography is not a good imaging technique for its diagnosis. <3> The echocardiographic techniques do not usually provide data of interest in the diagnosis and study of these nosological entities. <4> It is considered a Stanford type A aortic intramural dissection or hematoma when the ascending aorta is affected, regardless of the place of origin of the lesion or its extension. <5> The surgical indication of an aortic dissection is independent of the involvement of the ascending aorta.
Output: 4
Question: A 58-year-old woman enters the Short Stay Medical Unit due to a clinical picture that began with an episode of syncope and then presented feeling of dizziness and dyspnea. On physical examination, she is sweaty, afebrile at 126 beats per minute and at 30 breaths per minute, with a blood pressure of 88/46 and an oxygen saturation of 85% while breathing room air. Cardiac auscultation shows tachycardia without murmurs or gallop and pulmonary auscultation is clean. Which, among the following, seems the most likely diagnosis? 
 Options:  <1> Pulmonary embolism. <2> Acute cerebrovascular accident of posterior territory. <3> Acute coronary syndrome <4> Hypovolemic shock. <5> Acute pulmonary edema secondary to atrial flutter.
Output: 1
Question: A 69-year-old woman consulted for hemoptotic expectoration. In the two previous months she had low-grade fever, asthenia, anorexia and unquantified weight loss. In the cytological analysis of sputum, hemosiderophages were observed and in the chest radiograph bilateral alveolar infiltrates were observed. Analytically it stood out: Hb 8.2gr / dL, PO2: 58mmHg, creatinine: 5mg / dL, urine: proteinuria +++ microhematuria, cylinders, hematics. ANCAp (antibodies against the cytoplasm of perinuclear neutrophils): positive: anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies: negative. Antinuclear antibodies: negative. The most likely diagnosis would be: 
 Options:  <1> Idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis. <2> Goodpasture syndrome. <3> Systemic lupus erythematosus with severe renal involvement. <4> Classical polyarteritis nodosa. <5> Microscopic polyarteritis.
Output: 5
Question: What is true of essential tremor? 
 Options:  <1> It usually improves with propranolol. <2> Initially it is at rest. <3> It can be improved with levodopa at low doses. <4> It is more serious in cases of family presentation. <5> It usually gets worse with alcohol intake.
Output: 1
Question: A 24-year-old woman, asymptomatic, with a history of father and sister with medullary thyroid carcinoma. Incidentally, an adrenal mass measuring 5 cm in diameter was discovered on computed tomography (CT). Which of the following options should be the next clinical decision? 
 Options:  <1> Given that it is asymptomatic, semestral control is recommended with serial CT scans of said lesion. <2> The search for a possible medullary carcinoma of the thyroid is a priority. <3> A pre-clinical Cushing syndrome should be suspected in the context of multiple endocrine neoplasia. <4> Puncture-aspiration of said lesion should be performed to elucidate the nature of said lesion. <5> Catecholamines should be determined in urine to rule out a pheochromocytoma.
Output: 5
Question: A 45-year-old patient on the 15th day post-transplant of hematopeytic progenitors, with absolute neutropenia, platelets of 15,000 / uL and a hemoglobin of 7 g / dL, which presents a clinical picture of eye pain with periorbital edema with discrete serosanguinous nasal discharge . What is the diagnosis of presumption? 
 Options:  <1> Periorbital hematoma. <2> Allergic reaction, possibly to medication. <3> Acute bacterial sinusitis, probably staphylococcal. <4> Sinusitis due to Aspergillus spp. <5> Mucormycosis
Output: 5
Question: A 76-year-old woman surgically treated for a cataract in her left eye two years before without complications. He says that for the last few months he has had the sensation that the cataract has been reproduced. Point out the most likely diagnosis. 
 Options:  <1> Secondary cataract due to incomplete extraction of the lens. <2> Opacification of the posterior capsule. <3> Cystic macular edema. <4> Dislocation of intraocular lens to the vitreous cavity. <5> Late endophthalmitis.
Output: 2
Question: When we perform the triple test (alpha fetoprotein, human chorionic gonadotropin and unconjugated estriol) to pregnant women, the sensitivity and specificity against trisomy 21 (Down's syndrome) are 63 and 95% respectively. This means: 
 Options:  <1> The percentage of false negatives is 5%. <2> The percentage of false positives is 37%. <3> The Area Under the Curve (AUC) ROC would be 1. <4> The probability of not having trisomy 21 (S. Down) being the negative result is 95%. <5> The probability of having a positive test result with trisomy 21 (Down syndrome) is 63%.
Output: 5
Question: By what experimental procedure can we evaluate the implicit memory ?: 
 Options:  <1> The repetition priming. <2> The partial report technique. <3> The technique of the total report. <4> The method of savings. <5> The free memory.
Output: 1
Question: The highest recall rate of the first items in a list is called: 
 Options:  <1> Primacy effect. <2> Recipe effect. <3> Suffix effect. <4> Von Restorff effect. <5> Proactive interference
Output: 1
Question: What type of mechanism does Gestalt propose as an explanatory mechanism for solving a problem ?: 
 Options:  <1> The trial and error. <2> The search for operations in the problem space. <3> The algorithmic methods. <4> The huerísticos methods. <5> The insight.
Output: 5
Question: What is the main cerebral structure involved in conditioned fear ?: 
 Options:  <1> The hippocampus <2> The cingulate cortex. <3> The olfactory bulb. <4> The hypothalamus <5> The amygdala
Output: 5
Question: What simple reinforcement programs produce a more stable response pattern ?: 
 Options:  <1> Those of fixed ratio. <2> Those of variable reason. <3> Those of fixed interval. <4> Those of variable interval. <5> All reinforcement programs produce similar response rates.
Output: 2
Question: What is the procedure called instrumental conditioning in which the instrumental response eliminates or prevents the occurrence of an aversive stimulus ?: 
 Options:  <1> Positive reinforcement. <2> Punishment. <3> Negative reinforcement. <4> Omission. <5> Extinction.
Output: 3
Question: For Kurt Lewin the set of elements that influence the behavior of an individual at a given time make up: 
 Options:  <1> The living space <2> The place of control of the reinforcement. <3> Cognitive maps <4> Cognitive dissonance <5> The process of organic valuation.
Output: 1
Question: Antegrade amnesia is a result of brain damage in: 
 Options:  <1> The hippocampus, its afferents or eferences. <2> The hypothalamus, its afferences or eferences. <3> The thalamus, its afferences or eferences. <4> The pituitary gland, its afferences or eferences. <5> The orbitofrontal cortex, its afferents or eferences.
Output: 1
Question: It has been proven that amphetamines have reinforcing effects because: 
 Options:  <1> They are GABAergic agonists. <2> They are dopaminergic antagonists. <3> They are serotonergic antagonists. <4> They are dopaminergic agonists. <5> They are serotonergic agonists.
Output: 4
Question: The technique that stimulates the cerebral cortex by applying electrical pulses through an electromagnetic coil, which is used to treat some disorders such as depression, is called: 
 Options:  <1> Transcranial magnetic stimulation. <2> Intracerebral photo stimulation. <3> Functional magnetic resonance or RMf. <4> Evoked potentials of stimulation. <5> Magnetoencephalography
Output: 1
Question: Alcohol is included in the group of sedative or depressant drugs because it acts as: 
 Options:  <1> Cholinergic receptor agonist: nicotinic and muscarinic. <2> Antagonist of serotonergic (5 HT) and cholinergic receptors. <3> Noradrenergic receptor agonist and serotonin antagonist. <4> Antagonist of NMDA receptors and agonist of AMPA receptors. <5> GABA-a receptor agonist and NMDA receptor antagonist.
Output: 5
Question: What neurotransmitter has a type of receptor called muscarinic ?: 
 Options:  <1> Acetylcholine <2> Dopamine <3> Serotonin <4> Noradrenaline <5> Adrenalin.
Output: 1
Question: Which nucleus of the hypothalamus is responsible for regulating sexual behavior in females ?: 
 Options:  <1> Ventromedial. <2> Suprachiasmatic <3> Paraventricular. <4> Medial preopticus <5> Dorsomedial.
Output: 1
Question: The use of intonation changes and emphasis to add meaning to speech is called: 
 Options:  <1> Alexitimia. <2> Tonality. <3> Rhythmicity <4> Melody. <5> Prosody.
Output: 5
Question: Why is the visual information transmitted to the nucleus of the thalamus ?: 
 Options:  <1> Pulvinar core. <2> Arched core. <3> Lateral geniculate nucleus. <4> Medial geniculate nucleus. <5> Ventrolateral nucleus.
Output: 3
Question: Which of the following is the central characteristic of the stage of formal operations according to Piaget ?: 
 Options:  <1> The solution of conservation problems. <2> The reversibility in thought. <3> The overcoming of egocentrism. <4> The theory of the mind <5> The hypothetical-deductive thought.
Output: 5
Question: In adolescence, it is common to think that others are extremely interested in themselves. What is the name of this egocentric bias ?: 
 Options:  <1> Propiocentrism <2> Personal story <3> Fable of invincibility. <4> Imaginary audience <5> Pseudoparanoia
Output: 4
Question: At what approximate age do children begin to understand that a person may have false beliefs about the world ?: 
 Options:  <1> At 18 months. <2> At two years. <3> At four years old <4> At six years old. <5> At eight years old.
Output: 3
Question: What is the name of the distance between what a child is capable of doing for himself and what he is capable of doing if an adult, or another more capable child, helps him ?: 
 Options:  <1> Scaffolding. <2> Self-regulation. <3> Tertiary circular reaction. <4> Near (or proximal) development zone. <5> Shared attention area.
Output: 4
Question: As the degrees of freedom increase, the Student's t distribution approaches: 
 Options:  <1> The normal distribution. <2> The binomial distribution. <3> The F distribution of Snedecor. <4> The uniform distribution. <5> The Chi square distribution.
Output: 1
Question: If after establishing the confidence interval with respect to a difference between two independent means, we find that the zero value is not in the interval: 
 Options:  <1> We can not make any decision regarding the null hypothesis of equality of means. <2> We can not reject the null hypothesis of equality between population means. <3> We must reject the null hypothesis of equality between population means. <4> We accept the null hypothesis of equality between the population means. <5> We reject the alternative hypothesis of equality between population means.
Output: 3
Question: In the Type II error: 
 Options:  <1> The alternative hypothesis is not rejected being true. <2> The null hypothesis is not rejected as false. <3> The null hypothesis is not rejected, I feel certain. <4> The null hypothesis is rejected being true. <5> The alternative hypothesis is accepted as false.
Output: 2
Question: The existence of a statistically significant association between two ordinal variables can be determined by: 
 Options:  <1> The Kruskal-Wallis test. <2> The Pearson correlation. <3> The Kappa test. <4> The Spearman correlation. <5> The Wilcoxon test.
Output: 4
Question: In the survey investigations, we work with a representative sample of the population. What does this mean ?: 
 Options:  <1> The sample faithfully reflects the variables that characterize the population and its size is adequate. <2> The conclusions of the study only describe the specific sample and are not generalizable. <3> We obtain incomplete and biased information by the characteristics of the sample. <4> The basic criterion of inclusion in the sample is the accessibility of the participants. <5> The size of the sample should be as close as possible to that of the population.
Output: 1
Question: Intrasubject experimental research designs: 
 Options:  <1> They use independent variables not manipulated directly by the researcher but through the selection of the participants. <2> They are based on the verification of independent groups assigned to the experimental conditions. <3> They combine two independent variables based on the characteristics of the participants. <4> They have lower internal validity than the intersubject designs when they do not use random assignment. <5> They use specific control techniques to control the effects associated with the order of application of the experimental conditions.
Output: 5
Question: What is the characteristic of the quasi-experimental research strategy that differentiates it from the experimental strategy ?: 
 Options:  <1> Single or very small cases are studied. <2> The study is carried out in simulated contexts. <3> There is no random assignment of participants to the different study conditions. <4> Several dependent variables are used. <5> It is done with samples of participants obtained by probabilistic sampling.
Output: 3
Question: Experimental factorial designs or also called complex experimental designs: 
 Options:  <1> They study the effect of an independent variable on several dependent variables. <2> They study the main effects of several independent variables and their possible joint effect or interaction. <3> They are inadequate if it is suspected that some of the study variables may have interaction effects. <4> They can dispense with experimental control techniques because of their complexity. <5> They are based on the application of all experimental conditions to the same group of participants.
Output: 2
Question: What specific procedure of the experimental strategy makes it the most appropriate to test hypotheses of causality? : 
 Options:  <1> The representative sampling of the participants. <2> The manipulation of the independent variable with control of possible strange variables. <3> The realization of the study in real contexts with natural groups. <4> The identification of possible predictor variables through the retrospective analysis of the study phenomenon. <5> The application of statistical techniques for the analysis of data.
Output: 2
Question: The structure of the personality can be organized according to: 
 Options:  <1> The three-dimensional model of R.B. Cattell. <2> The five-factor proposal of Zuckerman. <3> The five basic factors of Cantor and Kihstrom. <4> The sixteen factors of H.J. Eysenck. <5> The Monorrasgo theory of Costa and McCrae.
Output: 2
Question: Cognitive investigations of intelligence, and as regards the relationship between Reaction Time (RT) and Intellectual Quotient (IQ): 
 Options:  <1> They have found positive associations of great magnitude. <2> They describe negative relationships with differences in magnitude, according to the studies. <3> They have found an absence of association between both constructs. <4> They have not received attention from the scientific community. <5> They start from the study of cultural differences in intelligence.
Output: 2
Question: According to the classification of features that R.B. Cattell: 
 Options:  <1> The specific features are observed in the daily behavior of individuals, in all cultures. <2> Ergos and feelings shape the dynamic or motivational structure. <3> Capabilities and competences are temperamental traits. <4> Attitudes are performance traits. <5> The basic features are directly observable and qualitatively objective.
Output: 2
Question: The fluid intelligence: 
 Options:  <1> It is involved in tasks that are new. <2> It is shown in tasks with verbal content. <3> It reflects formal learning. <4> It is not part of the general intelligence. <5> Delimits skills based on previous experience.
Output: 1
Question: Interpersonal intelligence, spatial intelligence and logical-mathematical intelligence, are types of intelligence belonging: 
 Options:  <1> To Cattell's model of intelligence. <2> To the Triarchic Theory of Sternberg. <3> To the proposal offered by Eysenck. <4> To the model of the Multiple Intelligences of Gardner. <5> The structure of the intellect is superfluous to Guilford's proposal.
Output: 4
Question: In personality psychology, when talking about consistency and stability of the personality, one can be referring to the observation that: 
 Options:  <1> The features that the person shows are coherent with their ontogenetic history. <2> The behaviors and situations that are equated through the time points are similar. <3> Personality is the response to situational demands. <4> The items that evaluate a trait maintain high correlations with each other. <5> Stable and consistent behaviors are indicators of mental health.
Output: 2
Question: The heritability of a personality trait: 
 Options:  <1> It is a statistical concept to estimate the influence of phenotypes on genotypes, regardless of the environment. <2> It is generalizable to all humans, regardless of the culture and the historical moment. <3> It calls into question the ability of the environment to modify the genetic endowment. <4> It is studied, among other perspectives, from molecular genetics. <5> It refers to the direct influence of paternal and maternal genes on the behavior of an individual.
Output: 4
Question: Beliefs and values, according to the psychology of personality: 
 Options:  <1> Once established, they do not experience changes during the rest of the individual's life. <2> They direct the person towards transcendence, according to Maslow's motivational proposal. <3> They predispose the person to prefer some modes of behavior over others. <4> They impel people towards the defense of human rights. <5> They encourage group development in the face of individual development.
Output: 3
Question: According to the Theory of Multiple Intelligences, intrapersonal intelligence: 
 Options:  <1> It has been preponderant in our current system of academic evaluation. <2> It is the ability to understand and interact with others. <3> It focuses on the potential to form a mental model of a spatial world. <4> It is the ability to form an adjusted model of oneself and to use it effectively in life. <5> It is exhibited when it comes to making products that need to use the body.
Output: 4
Question: The content validity of an evaluation instrument refers to: 
 Options:  <1> The evidence obtained by factor analysis. <2> The concurrence of measures. <3> The adequacy in the establishment of inferences. <4> The relevance and representativeness of its items. <5> The significant relationships with other measures.
Output: 4
Question: What does the intersessional sampling used in observation techniques refer to: 
 Options:  <1> To the registration of relevant information between sessions. <2> To the periodicity, number and criteria of start-end of the sessions. <3> To the successive rounds of observation of the subjects to observe. <4> To the temporary selection and its interval or partial modality. <5> To the record of focal events that occur between sessions.
Output: 2
Question: In which group of techniques is included the Thematic Apperception Test (Murray TAT) ?: 
 Options:  <1> Interpretive projects <2> Subjective constructive. <3> Construction projects <4> Rational graphics. <5> Subjective narratives.
Output: 1
Question: What can indicate, among other things, the high scores on the F Scale of the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) ?: 
 Options:  <1> Social desirability and good image intent. <2> A high number of incomplete answers. <3> The degree of sincerity. <4> That the respondent does it at random or with eccentricity. <5> Inconsistency of true answers.
Output: 4
Question: The evaluation of the electrodermal activity allows a measurement of: 
 Options:  <1> The general activation of the Autonomic Nervous System. <2> The parasympathetic activation. <3> The visceral activity. <4> The cortical attitude. <5> The Delta rhythm.
Output: 1
Question: When the cutoff point of a diagnostic instrument is very high, the risk of: 
 Options:  <1> False positives. <2> False negatives. <3> True positives. <4> Sensitivity of the test. <5> Inconsistencies of validity.
Output: 2
Question: The sensitivity of a diagnostic test is related to: 
 Options:  <1> Its ability to discriminate true positives. <2> Its ability to discriminate true negatives. <3> Its ability to discriminate against false positives. <4> Its ability to discriminate against false negatives. <5> The high cut point.
Output: 1
Question: Adaptive tests are characterized by: 
 Options:  <1> The unidirectional relationship between the evaluated and the test. <2> The interactive process of selection of items dependent on the response of the evaluated. <3> The homogeneous and identical application of the items to all those evaluated. <4> The identical length in the number of items to be applied. <5> The selection of items by independent criteria to the response of the evaluated.
Output: 2
Question: The Raven Progressive Matrices test provides an estimate of: 
 Options:  <1> Level of development. <2> Level of maturation. <3> General Intelligence Factor (G Factor). <4> Verbal intelligence level <5> Manipulative intelligence level.
Output: 3
Question: What are, among others, the main biases associated with the observer in the framework of observation techniques ?: 
 Options:  <1> The duration of the experiment. <2> The excess of information. <3> The technical accuracy <4> The illusion of learning. <5> The expectation and mechanical errors of registration.
Output: 5
Question: Indicate which of the following options make possible the criterial evaluation tests (or with reference to criteria): 
 Options:  <1> Assess the performance with respect to a normative group. <2> Determine relative performance among other people. <3> Obtaining a normative score. <4> Evaluate the performance with respect to a content area or domain. <5> Assess a skill considering the performance of your reference group.
Output: 4
Question: In 1994, Spitzer and collaborators developed a questionnaire and a joint interview for the evaluation of the main most frequent disorders in primary care health services. This instrument is called: 
 Options:  <1> DIS-CIDI <2> SCID II. <3> PRIME-MD. <4> ADIS. <5> SADS.
Output: 3
Question: For self-registration to become an effective tool for clinical evaluation, it must meet the requirements of: 
 Options:  <1> Have a complete design that includes each of the significant units of a complex behavior and its memory. <2> Have a simple design, without sophistication or complexity, and always accompanied by a prior training for its completion. <3> Do not limit your compliance to the events that occurred at the time but also to the memory that you have of them at later moments. <4> Cover each and every one of the behaviors problems identified by the client. <5> Be completed by a significant person who knows the client well.
Output: 2
Question: The structured and semi-structured clinical interviews are based on: 
 Options:  <1> The analysis of the problem behaviors. <2> The initial exploration and the demand of the client. <3> The categories and diagnostic criteria. <4> The observation of nonverbal behavior. <5> The adjustment of the patient's demand and the functional hypothesis.
Output: 3
Question: The Family Drawing Test is a projective technique of type: 
 Options:  <1> Thematic. <2> Expressive. <3> Associative <4> Constructive. <5> Perceptual.
Output: 2
Question: Which modality of the Behavioral Approach Test (PAC) is the most appropriate to assess the phobia of darkness in childhood ?: 
 Options:  <1> Active approach. <2> Passive exposure. <3> Passive approach. <4> Successive approximation. <5> Active exhibition.
Output: 2
Question: At what age range is the Batelle Development Inventory administered ?: 
 Options:  <1> 0-2 years. <2> 0-4 years. <3> 0-6 years. <4> 0-8 years. <5> 0-10 years.
Output: 4
Question: What WISC IV tests are part of the perceptual reasoning index ?: 
 Options:  <1> Search for symbols, cubes and digits. <2> Matrices, cubes and concepts. <3> Search for symbols, letters and numbers, and concepts. <4> Matrices, keys and concepts. <5> Cubes, letters and numbers, and concepts.
Output: 2
Question: Which interval measure will be the most appropriate to evaluate a brief and high frequency behavior (eg, tic or tacos) in a child ?: 
 Options:  <1> Momentary interval. <2> Proportional interval <3> Full interval. <4> Sequential interval <5> Partial interval
Output: 5
Question: The deontological code of psychology in Spain is mainly aimed at: 
 Options:  <1> Evaluate the mental health of the therapist. <2> Protect the rights of the authors of the different therapies. <3> Protect the rights of research animals. <4> Protect the rights of research subjects. <5> Regulate applied psychology
Output: 5
Question: We can say that a psychological evaluator uses indirectly or inferentially self-reports of a person when: 
 Options:  <1> From them, something different from the expressed is extracted, interpreting it as an indicator of a psychological construction. <2> He takes it from the results provided by another psychotherapist. <3> They belong to information provided about their past. <4> They belong to information provided about their expectations. <5> The self-report has a behavioral character.
Output: 1
Question: We can consider an antecedent of the cognitive dynamic evaluation the work of: 
 Options:  <1> Thorndike (1974-1949). <2> Binet (1927). <3> Vygotsky (1935). <4> Kelly (1955). <5> Weschler (1967).
Output: 3
Question: Among the phonological elements used to evaluate verbal language in childhood is used: 
 Options:  <1> The babbling. <2> The paralinguistics. <3> The proxemics <4> Kinestesia <5> Artifactual communication.
Output: 1
Question: The gesture imitation test (Berger and Lézine, 1975) is an evaluation tool that is used in childhood, preferably to evaluate: 
 Options:  <1> Laterality <2> The body schema <3> Neural efficiency <4> Muscle tone <5> The motor.
Output: 2
Question: The individual evaluation of the intelligence presents, in front of its collective evaluation, the following advantage: 
 Options:  <1> The application of individual tests implies a shorter duration. <2> The individual evaluation requires less training of the psychologist who administers them (the groups require more expertise). <3> It offers a total score without detailing in the different skill profiles. <4> It is considered more useful for a clinical purpose than the collective evaluation. <5> Individual evaluation does not require time control.
Output: 4
Question: When distinguishing alcoholic patients with Korsakoff Syndrome from patients with alcoholic dementia, we can take into account that: 
 Options:  <1> In patients with Korsakoff syndrome, the IQ measurement remains relatively intact, while this measure is impaired in the case of alcoholic dementia. <2> Patients with dementia do not have memory problems, while those with Korsakoff syndrome do. <3> In cases of dementia, amnesia appears as the first and most relevant symptom. <4> In the case of Korsakoff Syndrome there is no anterograde amnesia (ability to acquire new information). <5> In the case of dementia, the skills learned remain intact, whereas in Korsakoff Syndrome they are very deteriorated.
Output: 1
Question: If a patient claims to hear voices in Paris when he is in London, we say that he suffers: 
 Options:  <1> A hallucination reflects. <2> A paranoid hallucination. <3> An extracampine hallucination. <4> An autoscopic hallucination. <5> A negative hallucination
Output: 3
Question: Within the perceptual distortions we can find: 
 Options:  <1> Hallucinations <2> The metamorphopsias. <3> The eidetic images. <4> Autoscopy (or double phenomena). <5> The parasitic images.
Output: 2
Question: What alteration does a person suffer that believes that their thoughts are not theirs but have been introduced into the mind by an external and irresistible force ?: 
 Options:  <1> Obsessive idea <2> Delusional idea of ​​denial. <3> Fugue of ideas. <4> Delirium to be controlled. <5> Echo of thought.
Output: 4
Question: One of the characteristics of the primary delirium experience is: 
 Options:  <1> Its greater modifiability, compared with the secondary one. <2> The primary obsessive concern of the patient to control reality. <3> That does not have its origin in a previous anomalous experience. <4> That is not maintained with intense conviction. <5> Which is plausible
Output: 3
Question: By what name is the disorder known to be characterized by the constant and persistent repetition of words, ideas, or themes, to which the patient continually appeals ?: 
 Options:  <1> Perseveration of thought. <2> Divagatory thinking. <3> Disintegration of thought. <4> Circumstantiality <5> Inhibition of thought.
Output: 1
Question: The difficulty in finding words that designate objects or people (nouns and names) is called: 
 Options:  <1> Anomia <2> Glosomania. <3> Aprosodia <4> Bradifemia. <5> Paraphemia
Output: 1
Question: When a person speaks a lot spontaneously, quickly, it is difficult to interrupt and does not end his sentences for a kind of urgent need to communicate something, is likely to present the disorder of thought called: 
 Options:  <1> Schizoafasia. <2> Speech pressure <3> Perseveration <4> Tangeciality <5> Circumstantiality
Output: 2
Question: Prosopagnosia is defined as: 
 Options:  <1> Extreme form of agnosia characterized by the inability to recognize familiar faces. <2> Failure to recognize objects by touch. <3> Loss of ability to visualize images. <4> Form of anosognosia in which the patient denies his blindness. <5> Perceptive experience of an amputated limb.
Output: 1
Question: The confabulation is a typical symptom of: 
 Options:  <1> The pathological game. <2> The Munchausen syndrome. <3> The post-traumatic stress syndrome. <4> The burn-out syndrome. <5> The amnestic syndrome
Output: 5
Question: Retrograde amnesia is defined as: 
 Options:  <1> Memory loss that covers the period before the onset of the disorder that gave rise to amnesia. <2> Memory loss that covers the period following the onset of the disorder that gave rise to the amnesia. <3> Partial loss of memory that covers a specific period. <4> Memory loss in the absence of an organic brain disorder. <5> Distortions or memory errors.
Output: 1
Question: Affective lability is characterized because: 
 Options:  <1> Rapid changes in emotion occur and the person has difficulty controlling their emotions. <2> There is an elevation of the attentional affective threshold for negative stimuli. <3> There is a general feeling of being very well, very happy, although there are no causes that justify that state of mind. <4> The mood is predominantly downcast, pessimistic, sad. <5> There is an affective narrowing that restricts the emotional life.
Output: 1
Question: Parathymia is characterized by: 
 Options:  <1> Flexibility and emotional or affective modulation have been lost. <2> There are mixed feelings of love-hate. <3> There are rapid changes of mood. <4> There is an absence of control over the expression of affects. <5> Affective expression is discordant or inappropriate with the situation.
Output: 5