niryuu/sni-each-converted huggingface dataset:
Question: The secretion of the sebaceous glands is: 
 Options:  <1> Merocrine <2> Apocrine <3> Paracrine <4> Holocrine <5> Endocrine
Output: 4
Question: It has superficial cells with abundant glycogen: 
 Options:  <1> Language. <2> Esophagus. <3> Thin skin <4> Vagina. <5> Thick skin.
Output: 4
Question: The nucleosomes are: 
 Options:  <1> Only in hetrochromatin. <2> Only in euchromatin. <3> Only in the chromosomes. <4> In euchromatin, in heterochromatin and in chromosomes. <5> In all types of chromatin, but not in chromosomes.
Output: 4
Question: Contains abundant glycogen: 
 Options:  <1> Hepatocytes <2> Plasma cells. <3> Lymphocytes <4> Baited cells. <5> Fibroblasts.
Output: 1
Question: Dyneins are proteins: 
 Options:  <1> Motorboats <2> Responsible for the dynamism of the extracellular matrix. <3> Exclusive of the cilia. <4> Exclusives of the flagella. <5> Actin type
Output: 1
Question: In the receptor-mediated endocytosis intervenes: 
 Options:  <1> Only the clathrin. <2> Only the adaptin. <3> Adaptine and clathrin. <4> Chaperones <5> Only the proteins of the membrane.
Output: 3
Question: Classify proteins and regulate their traffic to their cell destinations: 
 Options:  <1> Golgi apparatus. <2> Ribosomes <3> Rough endoplasmic reticulum. <4> Mitochondria <5> Lysosomes
Output: 1
Question: In skeletal muscle, they have the capacity to regenerate, although limited, the cells: 
 Options:  <1> Of smaller size. <2> Satelite. <3> Endomysial fibroblasts. <4> Of the glia of the motor plates. <5> Anyone.
Output: 2
Question: The most important proteoglycan in hyaline cartilage is: 
 Options:  <1> Agrecano <2> Chondroitin sulfate 4. <3> Heparin. <4> Versicano <5> Dermatan sulfate.
Output: 1
Question: It allows to compare proportions of two independent samples the statistical test: 
 Options:  <1> From McNemar. <2> Of Snedecor. <3> Of the median. <4> Exact Fisher. <5> U of Mann-Whitney.
Output: 4
Question: If a 3% false-positive test is observed in a diagnostic test, it can be stated that: 
 Options:  <1> The sensitivity is 97%. <2> The specificity is 97%. <3> The positive predictive value is 97%. <4> The specificity is 3%. <5> The sensitivity is 3%.
Output: 2
Question: The arithmetic mean and not the median: 
 Options:  <1> It is a measurement of location. <2> All the values ​​of the sample are involved in its calculation. <3> It is dimensionless. <4> It is not influenced by extreme values. <5> None is correct.
Output: 2
Question: In a hypothesis test, the beta error is called the probability of: 
 Options:  <1> Accept a null hypothesis being true. <2> Reject a null hypothesis being false. <3> Accept an alternative hypothesis being true. <4> Reject an alternative hypothesis being false. <5> Accept a null hypothesis being false.
Output: 5
Question: Are concepts that refer to the same probability the level of: 
 Options:  <1> Confidence and type II error: <2> Significance and type I error <3> Significance and specificity. <4> Confidence and sensitivity <5> Significance and type II error.
Output: 2
Question: African trypanosomes (T. Rhodesiense and T. Gambiense) are transmitted by insects of the genus: 
 Options:  <1> Glossina <2> Triatoma. <3> Panstrongylus. <4> Rhodnius. <5> Phlebotomus.
Output: 1
Question: In relation to malaria, pre-erythrocytic schizonts can be found in: 
 Options:  <1> Reticulocytes <2> Liver cells. <3> Renal cells <4> Lymphocytes <5> Eosinophils
Output: 2
Question: We can find sputum eggs of: 
 Options:  <1> Clonorchis sinensis. <2> Paragonimus westermani. <3> Hepatic fasciola. <4> Schistosoma japonicum. <5> Dicrocoelium dendriticum.
Output: 2
Question: The genus Anisakis is a: 
 Options:  <1> Digestive trematode. <2> Monogenetic trematode. <3> Nematode <4> Platelminto. <5> Arthropod.
Output: 3
Question: The vector of tularemia is a / a: 
 Options:  <1> Coleoptera. <2> Louse. <3> Flea. <4> Tick. <5> Mosquito.
Output: 4
Question: In general, viruses that have a naked capsid: 
 Options:  <1> They are stable against drying. <2> They are commonly released from the host cell by budding. <3> They are very sensitive to detergents. <4> They are very sensitive to the conditions in the intestinal tract. <5> They can not be neutralized by host antibodies.
Output: 1
Question: The virion of retroviruses: 
 Options:  <1> It has helical shape. <2> It has an icosahedral form. <3> It contains a single copy of its genome. <4> It contains two copies of its genome. <5> It contains a segmented genome.
Output: 4
Question: The hepatitis B virus: 
 Options:  <1> It has circular double-stranded RNA as a genetic material. <2> It has circular single-stranded RNA as a genetic material. <3> It is transmitted by air. <4> Encode a reverse transcriptase. <5> It does not have tissue tropism.
Output: 4
Question: In latent human herpes simplex virus infections, viral particles typically remain in: 
 Options:  <1> Neurons. <2> The B lymphocytes <3> The T lymphocytes <4> The myeloid cells <5> The granulocytes.
Output: 1
Question: The enzymes present inside the virion of the poxviruses are necessary for the replication of their genetic material because: 
 Options:  <1> Its genome is single-stranded DNA (-). <2> Its genome is single-stranded RNA (-). <3> They replicate in the cell cytoplasm. <4> It contains a very high percentage of unusual nitrogenous bases such as inosine. <5> At the beginning of the infection, a blockage of the transcriptional system of the host cell occurs.
Output: 3
Question: The virions of the Arenavirus contain: 
 Options:  <1> A linear single-stranded RNA molecule. <2> Two equal molecules of linear double-stranded RNA. <3> Two different molecules of linear single-stranded RNA. <4> Two distinct molecules of single-stranded circular RNA. <5> Two identical molecules of single-stranded circular RNA.
Output: 4
Question: Inhibits the integrase of HIV the: 
 Options:  <1> Efavirenz. <2> Tenofovir <3> Ritonavir <4> Emtricitabine. <5> Raltegravir
Output: 5
Question: In the coronaviurs, the assembly of the virions takes place in the (the): 
 Options:  <1> Rough endoplasmic reticulum. <2> Mitochondrial matrix. <3> Nucleus. <4> Citosol <5> Cytoplasmic membrane.
Output: 1
Question: The respiratory syncytial virus is a: 
 Options:  <1> Ortomixovirus. <2> Filovirus. <3> Parvovirus. <4> Togavirus. <5> Paramyxovirus.
Output: 5
Question: To multiply, the rhabdoviruses enter the host cell by: 
 Options:  <1> Viropexy <2> Endocytosis <3> Depopolimerization of the virion as a consequence of the interaction with the cellular receptor. <4> Direct translocation <5> Opsonic phagocytosis.
Output: 2
Question: All RNA (-) viruses present: 
 Options:  <1> Segmented genome. <2> Lipid envelope. <3> Helical nucleocapsid <4> Icosahedral nucleocapsid. <5> Reverse transcriptase.
Output: 2
Question: They synthesize a single polyprotein precursor of all the proteins necessary for the rest of the multiplication cycle: 
 Options:  <1> Coronavirus. <2> Picornavirus <3> Rotavirus. <4> Paramyxovirus. <5> Calcivirus.
Output: 2
Question: The following are zoonotic: 
 Options:  <1> Rotavirus. <2> Paramyxovirus. <3> Cytomegalovirus. <4> Arenavirus. <5> Parvovirus.
Output: 4
Question: To replicate, paramyxoviruses must introduce their genetic material into the cell and one: 
 Options:  <1> DNA polymerase RNA dependent. <2> DNA polymerase dependent DNA. <3> RNA polymerase dependent RNA. <4> DNA polymerase dependent DNA. <5> They do not require the introduction of viral enzymes.
Output: 3
Question: The reovirus .: 
 Options:  <1> They are released from the cell by budding. <2> They replicate their genetic material in the cell nucleus. <3> They have a lipid envelope. <4> They form virions resistant to acid pH. <5> They are transmitted by blood.
Output: 4
Question: The most appropriate microscopy to identify Treponema pallidum in exudates from syphilitic lesions is: 
 Options:  <1> Clear field without staining. <2> Clear field with simple staining. <3> Dark field <4> Phase contrast. <5> Polarized light
Output: 3
Question: Acid-resistant alcohol staining is positive in bacteria of the genus: 
 Options:  <1> Mycoplasma. <2> Helicobacter <3> Borrelia. <4> Mycobacterium <5> Clostridium
Output: 4
Question: HEPA filters are used for the sterilization of: 
 Options:  <1> Organic liquids <2> Air. <3> Culture broth <4> Antibiotics <5> Sugar solutions
Output: 2
Question: If after 200 microliters of a 10-4 dilution (10 exp. -4) of a broth on an agar plate grows 100 colonies, the estimated number of colony forming units per mL of broth is: 
 Options:  <1> 0.2 x 104 <2> 2 x 106 <3> 5 x 104 <4> 5 x 105 <5> 5 x 106
Output: 5
Question: The non-selective medium commonly used for the growth of gonococcus (Neisseria gonorrhoeae) is: 
 Options:  <1> Chocolate agar. <2> Agar blood. <3> Mannitol saline agar. <4> Nutritious agar <5> MacConkey agar.
Output: 1
Question: On a blood agar plate, a greenish or brown halo around a bacterial colony indicates that the bacteria produces: 
 Options:  <1> A siderophore. <2> α hemolysis. <3> Coagulase <4> β galactosidase. <5> Neutral metabolites
Output: 2
Question: If, by adding a drop of H2O2 to a bacterial suspension, bubbles (O2) are generated, the bacteria produce: 
 Options:  <1> Cytochrome C oxidase. <2> Oxygenase <3> Superoxide dismutase. <4> Catalase <5> Anhydrase
Output: 4
Question: The component of the Gram-negative bacteria directly responsible for the endotoxic activity is: 
 Options:  <1> Lipid A. <2> The porinas. <3> The penicillin binding proteins. <4> The O antigen <5> The lipoproteins.
Output: 1
Question: A characteristic component of murein or peptidoglycan in most bacterial species is: 
 Options:  <1> The dipicolinic acid. <2> L-glutamic acid <3> The D-alanine. <4> The mannosamine. <5> The diaminoglycoside
Output: 3
Question: The process of bacterial sporulation occurs: 
 Options:  <1> Both Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria. <2> After the depletion of certain essential nutrients. <3> When unfavorable environmental factors such as UV light or heat appear. <4> During the exponential growth. <5> By budding of a stem cell.
Output: 2
Question: The tetracyclines act on the: 
 Options:  <1> DNA polymerase <2> Transpeptidation of the peptidoglycan in the wall. <3> RNA polymeres <4> 30S subunit of the ribosome. <5> DNA gyrase.
Output: 4
Question: The following are obtained only by chemical synthesis: 
 Options:  <1> Penicillins <2> Cephalosporins. <3> Macrolides <4> Aminoglycosides <5> Quinolones
Output: 5
Question: The phosphotransferase (PTS) system of many bacteria: 
 Options:  <1> It is commonly employed to incorporate medium sugars. <2> Participates in oxidative phosphorylation. <3> Participates in phosphorylation at the substrate level. <4> Consume directly ATP. <5> Dephosphorylates substrates as a step prior to transport.
Output: 1
Question: A plasmid contains necessarily: 
 Options:  <1> Genes of resistance to antibiotics. <2> Origin of replication. <3> Integrons <4> Genes of transfer by conjugation. <5> Transposons.
Output: 2
Question: To control the expression of certain genes according to population density, bacteria use systems of: 
 Options:  <1> Strict response <2> Two components <3> Perception of the quorum. <4> Densitometric adaptation. <5> Negative activation
Output: 3
Question: Enterobacteriaceae are bacteria: 
 Options:  <1> Able to breathe and ferment. <2> Cytochrome C oxidase positive. <3> Mobiles with polar flagellation. <4> Lacking lipopolysaccharide. <5> Always associated with the intestine of mammals.
Output: 1
Question: Pseudomonas aeruginosa is: 
 Options:  <1> Able to ferment a large variety of sugars. <2> Often resistant to many antibiotics for medical use. <3> Responsible for toxi-alimentary infections. <4> Part of the normal microbiota of the skin. <5> A commensal bacterium of the digestive tract.
Output: 2
Question: The producers of many antibiotics for medical use are: 
 Options:  <1> Myxobacteria <2> Cyanobacteria <3> Spirochetes <4> Streptomycetes <5> Alpha proteobacteria.
Output: 4
Question: Mycoplasmas: 
 Options:  <1> They do not contain phospholipids in their membrane. <2> They have a positive Gram type wall. <3> They contain mycolic acids. <4> They grow quickly in simple means. <5> They are naturally insensitive to penicillin.
Output: 5
Question: Neisseria meningitidis is: 
 Options:  <1> A gram-negative bacillus. <2> Normally resistant to beta-lactam antibiotics. <3> An anaerobic coconut. <4> An encapsulated diplococcus. <5> Mobile by peritric flagellation.
Output: 4
Question: In humans, Lactobacillus acidophilus is part of the normal microbiota of: 
 Options:  <1> The female genital tract <2> The bucco-pharynx. <3> The urinary tract <4> The skin. <5> The respiratory tract
Output: 1
Question: Streptococcus sobrinus and Streptococcus mutants are responsible for: 
 Options:  <1> Dental cavities. <2> Burns infections. <3> Rheumatic fever <4> Atypical rhinitis. <5> Otitis stockings.
Output: 1
Question: It is an obligate intracellular pathogen: 
 Options:  <1> Neisseria gonorrhoeae. <2> Treponema pallidum <3> Chlamydia trachomatis. <4> Streptococcus pneumoniae <5> Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
Output: 3
Question: It is associated with gastric ulcers and cancers: 
 Options:  <1> Clostridium botulinum. <2> Yersinia enterocolitica. <3> Salmonella enterica <4> Helicobacter pylori. <5> Shigella sonnei.
Output: 4
Question: In a Gram positive pathogen involved in pharyngitis and rheumatic fever: 
 Options:  <1> Staphylococcus aureus. <2> Micrococcus luteus. <3> Moraxella catarrhalis. <4> Haemophilus influenzae. <5> Streptococcus pyogenes.
Output: 5
Question: They are reservoirs of Q fever (Coxiella burnetti): 
 Options:  <1> Bats <2> Poultry. <3> Rodents <4> Dogs. <5> Cows, sheep and goats.
Output: 5
Question: It is a genus of strict anaerobic bacteria that produce endospores and that contain pathogenic species: 
 Options:  <1> Bacteroides. <2> Bacillus. <3> Clostridium <4> Corynebacterium <5> Mycobacterium
Output: 3
Question: It is a disease caused by a pathogenic foodborne bacterium: 
 Options:  <1> The listeriosis <2> Lyme disease <3> Tularemia <4> Scarlet fever <5> The impetigo.
Output: 1
Question: A rat pathogen that has fleas as vectors of transmission to humans is: 
 Options:  <1> Rickettsia rickettsii. <2> Yersinia pestis <3> Borrelia burgdorferi. <4> Ehrlichia ewingii. <5> Brucella abortus.
Output: 2
Question: A positive coagulase test is typical of: 
 Options:  <1> Staphylococcus aureus. <2> Staphylococcus epidermidis. <3> Haemophilus influenzae. <4> Neisseria meningitidis. <5> Escherichia coli
Output: 1
Question: Unlike receptors of adaptive immunity, those of innate immunity are characterized by: 
 Options:  <1> Have a clonal distribution. <2> Its greatest diversity <3> Be identical in cells of the same lineage. <4> Recognize and react against own molecules. <5> Being only on the cell surface.
Output: 3
Question: The Toll-like receptors (TLRs) mainly recognize: 
 Options:  <1> Proteins <2> Superantigens. <3> Non-polymorphic histocompatibility antigens. <4> Various components of microbes. <5> Tolerógenos.
Output: 4
Question: Among the characteristic components of the adaptive immune system are: 
 Options:  <1> The epithelial cells. <2> The macrophages. <3> The NK lymphocytes. <4> C-reactive protein <5> The B lymphocytes
Output: 5
Question: They are primary lymphoid organs: 
 Options:  <1> Spleen and lymph nodes <2> The spleen and bone marrow. <3> The thymus and the bone marrow. <4> The pineal gland <5> Peyer's plates and tonsils.
Output: 3
Question: Generates hydrogen peroxide in the phagosome: 
 Options:  <1> Myeloperoxidase <2> Carbonic anhydrase. <3> NADPH oxidase. <4> Cytochrome C oxidase. <5> Superoxide dismutase.
Output: 5
Question: The complement is produced mostly in: 
 Options:  <1> Lymphocytes <2> Lymph nodes <3> Thymus <4> Spleen. <5> Liver.
Output: 5
Question: In the activation of the serum complement, the assembly of the Membrane Attack Complex begins with: 
 Options:  <1> C9 <2> C5b. <3> C3a. <4> C6 <5> C8.
Output: 2
Question: HLA class I molecules are expressed in: 
 Options:  <1> Leukocytes <2> Erythrocytes <3> All nucleated cells. <4> Antigen presenting cells. <5> NK lymphocytes.
Output: 3
Question: The class I genes of the Major Histocompatibility Complex: 
 Options:  <1> They are few <2> They are very polymorphic. <3> They express their alleles according to allelic exclusion. <4> They are expressed in all the cells of the organism. <5> They code glycolipids.
Output: 2
Question: The loss of MHC class I makes the cells susceptible to lysis by: 
 Options:  <1> NK lymphocytes. <2> Tc lymphocytes. <3> Macrophages <4> Th lymphocytes <5> Complement.
Output: 1
Question: It is a costimulatory molecule that is expressed in the antigen-presenting cells: 
 Options:  <1> CD25. <2> CD20. <3> CD42. <4> CD18. <5> CD80.
Output: 5
Question: The simultaneous expression of IgM and IgD is observed for the first time in lymphocytes: 
 Options:  <1> Early Pro-B. <2> B mature. <3> Late Pro-B. <4> Pre-B. <5> B immature
Output: 2
Question: In the process of maturation of the affinity of the B lymphocytes in the germinal centers, they act as accessory cells: 
 Options:  <1> Macrophages <2> Th1 lymphocytes. <3> Mastocytes <4> Follicular dendritic cells. <5> Langerhans cells.
Output: 4
Question: What serum immunoglobulin will synthesize an activated B lymphocyte that has not been stimulated through CD40 ?: 
 Options:  <1> Any. <2> IgE <3> IgM <4> IgA <5> IgG
Output: 3
Question: They are receptors involved in phagocytosis dependent on opsonization: 
 Options:  <1> KIR. <2> TLR1. <3> MR. <4> CR1 <5> TCR
Output: 4
Question: The main mediators of the antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicdiad are: 
 Options:  <1> The eosinophils. <2> The NK lymphocytes. <3> The mast cells <4> The neutrophils. <5> The CD8 + lymphocytes.
Output: 2
Question: With the same affinity of its Fab, the avidity is: 
 Options:  <1> IgM <2> IgE <3> IgA <4> IgG <5> IgD.
Output: 1
Question: The number of chains of the IgG is: 
 Options:  <1> one. <2> two. <3> 3. <4> Four. <5> 5.
Output: 4
Question: Immunoglobulin isotype change affects: 
 Options:  <1> The constant regions of the heavy chains. <2> The constant regions of the light chains. <3> The totality of heavy chains. <4> The entire immunoglobulin molecule. <5> The hypervariable regions of the heavy chains.
Output: 1
Question: The so-called poly-Ig receptor: 
 Options:  <1> Facilitates the transport of IgA through the mucosal epithelium. <2> Mediates the transport of IgG through the placenta. <3> Stabilizes the polymer structure of an IgM. <4> It is expressed on the surface of B lymphocytes. <5> It is expressed on the surface of tissue macrophages.
Output: 1
Question: The humanized antibodies: 
 Options:  <1> They have very low affinity. <2> They contain CDRs of a mouse monoclonal antibody. <3> They have totally murine VH and VL domains. <4> They have totally human VH and VL domains. <5> They have human light chains.
Output: 2
Question: It is a Th1 cytokine: 
 Options:  <1> IL-1. <2> IL-2. <3> IL-3. <4> IL-4. <5> IL-5
Output: 2
Question: IL-10 is a cytokine: 
 Options:  <1> Immunosuppressant. <2> Proinflammatory <3> Associated with Th2 responses. <4> Which activates Th1 lymphocytes. <5> Produced by CD8 lymphocytes.
Output: 1
Question: Immediate hypersensitivity reactions or allergy are mediated by: 
 Options:  <1> Autoantibodies <2> Antigen-antibody complexes. <3> IgE <4> Th1 lymphocytes. <5> Th17 lymphocytes.
Output: 3
Question: The majority of regulatory T lymphocytes express high levels of: 
 Options:  <1> Molecules of the B7 family. <2> CD8. <3> The alpha chain of the receptor for IL-2. <4> IL-17. <5> Perforin
Output: 3
Question: T-independent antigens: 
 Options:  <1> They are mostly proteins. <2> They induce maturation of the affinity of the specific antibodies. <3> Induce isotype change of specific antibodies. <4> They are usually polymeric antigens. <5> They induce intense secondary responses.
Output: 4
Question: The T lymphocyte receptor (TCR): 
 Options:  <1> Experience change of class. <2> Does not experience affinity maturation. <3> It transmits signals to the T lymphocyte on its own. <4> It has two sites of antigen recognition such as antibodies. <5> Performs effector functions mediated by its constant regions.
Output: 2
Question: Th1 lymphocytes: 
 Options:  <1> They produce interferon gamma (IFN-γ). <2> They mediate allergic diseases. <3> Activate mast cells <4> They are very active against extracellular bacteria. <5> They recruit neutrophils at the sites of antigen recognition.
Output: 1
Question: From a tissue to which oligomycin is added, it can be expected that: 
 Options:  <1> Consume oxygen and produce ATP. <2> Do not consume oxygen and produce ATP. <3> Consume oxygen and do not produce ATP. <4> Increase the production of ATP. <5> Neither consume oxygen nor produce ATP.
Output: 5
Question: The exergonic reactions of metabolism: 
 Options:  <1> Consume free energy. <2> They are thermodynamically favorable. <3> They are always quick reactions. <4> They do not require the action of enzymes. <5> They have high values ​​of activation energy.
Output: 2
Question: Stimulates the separation of DNA strands during replication: 
 Options:  <1> Primasa <2> DNA ligase. <3> The single chain DNA binding proteins. <4> Helicasa <5> DNA polymerase I.
Output: 4
Question: It has been transcribed and it is also translated: 
 Options:  <1> mRNA. <2> rRNA. <3> Introns <4> tRNA. <5> Promoter.
Output: 1
Question: The promoter region of a gene is: 
 Options:  <1> The place of completion of the transcript. <2> The binding site of RNA polymerase during the initiation of mRNA synthesis. <3> The place of recognition to process primary transcripts. <4> A sequence located in the 5 'region of all mRNAs to initiate translation. <5> A sequence that is eliminated during RNA splicing.
Output: 2
Question: In the respiratory chain: 
 Options:  <1> Ferrosulfurized proteins contain heme groups. <2> The heme groups are in carotenoids. <3> Cytochromes contain iron and sulfur groups. <4> Ubiquinones transport protons and electrons. <5> All transporters carry two electrons.
Output: 4
Question: It is an amino acid whose side chain contains an amine: 
 Options:  <1> Lysine <2> Glutamine <3> Cysteine <4> Serina <5> To the girl.
Output: 1
Question: In the absence of oxygen, the mitochondrial citric acid cycle is inhibited because: 
 Options:  <1> Increases the concentration of ADP, an inhibitor of isocitrate dehydrogenase. <2> The phosphorylations at the substrate level can not be produced. <3> No pyruvate available. <4> ATP synthase is inhibited. <5> The necessary coenzymes can not be reoxidized.
Output: 5
Question: Ketogenic amino acids: 
 Options:  <1> They may contribute to the synthesis of glucose. <2> They are intermediaries of the urea cycle. <3> They are the substrate of reactions catalyzed by transketolase. <4> They can produce acetyl-coenzyme A. <5> They are eliminated in the form of ketoses.
Output: 4
Question: The chemosmotic theory: 
 Options:  <1> It was proposed by Singer and Nicholson. <2> Explains the mechanism of phosphorylation at the substrate level. <3> It requires that the membranes in which it forms are closed compartments. <4> It does not explain the synthesis of ATP in photosynthesis. <5> It has nothing to do with redox reactions.
Output: 3
Question: Gluconeogenesis is active in: 
 Options:  <1> Brain and nervous tissue. <2> Liver and renal cortex. <3> Erythrocytes <4> Testicles and renal medulla. <5> Skeletal muscle
Output: 2
Question: Creatine phosphate: 
 Options:  <1> It is a low-energy hydrolysis compound. <2> It is a compound of energy storage in the kidney. <3> It is formed from ornithine. <4> It is a compound of energy storage in the muscle. <5> It is formed from tyrosine.
Output: 4
Question: The cause of phenylketonuria is a hereditary deficit of: 
 Options:  <1> Homogentisate dioxygenase. <2> Tyrosine aminotransferase. <3> Phenylalanine hydroxylase. <4> Dihydropteridine oxidase. <5> Tryptophan dioxygenase.
Output: 3
Question: Von Gierke's disease is an enzyme deficit: 
 Options:  <1> Muscle glycogen phosphorylase. <2> Branching enzyme. <3> Hepatic glycogen phosphorylase. <4> Glucose 6-phosphatase. <5> Glycogen synthase.
Output: 4
Question: For humans, the essential amino acids are: 
 Options:  <1> All proteins. <2> The non-protein. <3> The basic pH7. <4> Those that are not substrates of any transaminase. <5> Those who do not synthesize them.
Output: 5
Question: It keeps the strands of the DNA duplex separated during replication: 
 Options:  <1> Primasa <2> DNA ligase. <3> SSB protein. <4> Helicasa <5> DNA Polymerase I.
Output: 3
Question: In glycolysis: 
 Options:  <1> Hexokinase catalyzes the transfer of a phosphate group to different hexoses. <2> Phosphofructokinase-1 catalyzes a reaction that provides ATP. <3> All intermediates are phosphorylated compounds of six carbons. <4> It provides ATP, but it does not use it. <5> Fructose 2,6-bisphosphate is a potent inhibitor.
Output: 1
Question: Enzymatic regulation by reversible covalent modification: 
 Options:  <1> It involves the breaking of the peptide bond. <2> It requires the action of another enzyme. <3> It always involves phosphorylation reaction. <4> It never affects allosteric enzymes. <5> The enzyme never comes in two forms.
Output: 2
Question: Does not block the flow of electrons in oxidative phosphorylation: 
 Options:  <1> Cyanide. <2> Antimycin A. <3> CO. <4> 2,4-DNP. <5> Amital.
Output: 4
Question: Glucagon and adrenaline have in common: 
 Options:  <1> Activate the degradation of glycogen in liver and muscle. <2> Facilitate the entry of glucose into all cells of the body. <3> Activate the synthesis of fatty acids. <4> Always free yourself to the blood. <5> Activate glycolysis.
Output: 1
Question: In general, allosteric enzymes: 
 Options:  <1> They join the effectors in the active center. <2> They form covalent bonds with their negative effectors. <3> They originate hyperbolic curves of speed versus substrate concentration. <4> They change their conformation when they join the effectors. <5> They are irreversibly modified when they are inhibited.
Output: 4
Question: RNA polymerases are characterized by: 
 Options:  <1> Begin RNA synthesis without the need for primers. <2> Synthesize RNA in the 3 '-> 5' direction. <3> A lower error rate than DNA polymerases. <4> Incorporate ribonucleotides without the need for a mold. <5> Enter T instead of U.
Output: 1
Question: Topoisomerases: 
 Options:  <1> They modify the degree of DNA supercoiling. <2> They are a type of DNA polymerases. <3> They bind to the single-stranded DNA to prevent the double helix from forming. <4> They exhibit exonuclease activity. <5> They synthesize dNTPs.
Output: 1
Question: Urea: 
 Options:  <1> It is transported to the liver for elimination. <2> It is degraded to ammonium in the urea cycle. <3> It is apolar and easily forms crystals. <4> It is obtained from arginine. <5> It has two ketone groups and one amino group.
Output: 4
Question: Each cycle of oxidation of fatty acids: 
 Options:  <1> Consume two molecules of NADH. <2> It generates two molecules of FADH2. <3> It produces a dehydration. <4> Releases an acetyl-CoA. <5> Consume ATP.
Output: 4
Question: ATP synthase: 
 Options:  <1> It generates ATP by a mechanism of rotational catalysis. <2> It is found in the membrane of the endoplasmic reticulum. <3> It synthesizes ATP when electrons flow through it. <4> It presents an electron channel. <5> Consume ATP by hydrolysis coupled to electron transport.
Output: 1
Question: In the stages of the citric acid cycle, it is required: 
 Options:  <1> NADP +. <2> FAD. <3> Acetyl-coenzyme A carboxylase. <4> Glucose. <5> At least one transaminase.
Output: 2
Question: The soluble globular proteins are characterized by: 
 Options:  <1> Present aromatic and aliphatic amino acids on its surface. <2> Present an inner apolar core. <3> Being partially deployed giving rise to structures that are not very compact. <4> Present in its interior acidic and basic amino acids. <5> A high degree of hydration inside.
Output: 2
Question: Pyruvate dehydrogenase: 
 Options:  <1> Catalyzes an oxidative decarboxylation. <2> It is a monomeric enzyme of low molecular mass. <3> It is located in the cytoplasm. <4> Catalyzes the production of ethanol. <5> Consume ATP.
Output: 1
Question: Phosphofructokinase-1: 
 Options:  <1> Participates in glycolysis and gluconeogenesis. <2> It catalyzes an easily reversible reaction. <3> It is an enzyme with allosteric regulation. <4> Directly transfers a Pi to fructose6P. <5> Produce ATP.
Output: 3
Question: The cyclization of monosaccharides: 
 Options:  <1> It is an enzymatically catalyzed reaction. <2> It gives rise to enantiomers D and L. <3> It happens in the trios and tetrosas. <4> Generates a new asymmetric C, called anomeric C. <5> In ketoses it is produced by the formation of a hemiacetal bond.
Output: 4
Question: D-glyceraldehyde and dihydroxyacetone: 
 Options:  <1> They present an asymmetric carbon. <2> They are aldosas. <3> They are enantiomers. <4> They present optical activity. <5> They have the same formula.
Output: 5
Question: The activation energy of a reaction: 
 Options:  <1> It is not modified by the action of enzymes. <2> It is the energy necessary to reach the state of transition. <3> It is lower than the energy of the substrates. <4> It is lower than the energy of the products. <5> It is an average of the value of ΔG of the reaction.
Output: 2
Question: It is characteristic of the alpha helix: 
 Options:  <1> Present 3.6 amino acid residues per turn. <2> Be levorotatory <3> Be stabilized by intrachain disulfide bridges. <4> Present ionic bonds between amino and ketone groups loaded with peptide bonds. <5> Have the side chains of the amino acids inwards.
Output: 1
Question: The denaturation of proteins: 
 Options:  <1> It is accompanied by the loss of their activity. <2> It supposes the rupture of peptide bonds. <3> It is always an irreversible process. <4> Alter its primary structure. <5> It is carried out by chaperone proteins.
Output: 1
Question: The conversion of pyruvate into ethanol and CO2 by yeasts: 
 Options:  <1> It produces an extra amount of ATP. <2> Reduce the NAD +. <3> Reoxidates the NADPH that forms in glycolysis. <4> It allows glycolysis to continue even in the absence of oxygen. <5> Allows CO2 to be used in the synthesis of fatty acids.
Output: 4
Question: The completion of the translation: 
 Options:  <1> It takes place in AUG codons. <2> It is produced by incorporation of an empty tRNA. <3> It occurs when the ribosome reaches the end of the mRNA. <4> It does not consume energy. <5> It is mediated by proteins with structure similar to tRNA.
Output: 5
Question: It is well associated with its function: 
 Options:  <1> Ribosomal RNA - messenger preRNA processing. <2> Messenger RNA - amino acid binding. <3> MicroRNA - inhibition of the translation of messenger RNA. <4> Transfer RNA - structural component of the ribosome. <5> Small interference RNA - processing of ribosomal RNA.
Output: 3
Question: In eukaryotes, the DNA polymerase β: 
 Options:  <1> It is a polymerase of family B. <2> It carries out the synthesis and repair of mitochondrial DNA. <3> Replicate DNA with injuries. <4> It is involved in the repair of nuclear DNA. <5> The synthesis of nuclear DNA begins.
Output: 4
Question: In the analysis of a pedigree of an autosomal dominant trait it is observed that: 
 Options:  <1> The trait appears more frequently in males. <2> The unaffected people do not transmit the trait. <3> The trait tends to skip generations. <4> The affected people have both affected parents. <5> The trait tends to appear in the progeny of related parents.
Output: 2
Question: What effect would chromatin have on neutralizing the positive charge of histones ?: 
 Options:  <1> The DNA would change charge. <2> Histones would bind more closely to DNA. <3> The DNA would be supercoiled. <4> The histones would separate from the DNA. <5> The histones would be grouped together.
Output: 4
Question: What type of ploidy defines an individual 2n2 ?: 
 Options:  <1> Double monosomy. <2> Tetrasomy <3> Trisomy <4> Nulisomy <5> Triploidy
Output: 4
Question: Under physiological conditions, the secondary structure of the most frequent DNA in the cells is: 
 Options:  <1> B-DNA. <2> Z-DNA. <3> A-DNA. <4> G-DNA. <5> H-DNA.
Output: 1
Question: Corresponds to a gene mutation by transversion: 
 Options:  <1> T → C. <2> A → T. <3> G → A. <4> C → T. <5> A → G.
Output: 2
Question: A neutral gene mutation: 
 Options:  <1> Change a coding codon by another synonym without altering the amino acid sequence of the protein. <2> A coding codon changes with a different one and the protein is functionally different. <3> It generates a non-functional protein. <4> It changes the amino acid sequence of the protein without altering its function. <5> Suppresses the effect of a previous mutation.
Output: 4
Question: The approximate percentage of the human genome that encodes proteins is a: 
 Options:  <1> 25% <2> 10% <3> two% <4> 6% <5> 8%
Output: 3
Question: In DNA the sequences of 10 to 60 nucleotides repeated in tandem are called: 
 Options:  <1> Pseudogenes <2> LINES. <3> SINES <4> Microsatellites <5> Minisatellites.
Output: 5
Question: Secondary chromosomal constrictions contain: 
 Options:  <1> Single sequence DNA <2> Ribosomal genes. <3> Genes micro-RNAs. <4> Centromeric DNA. <5> Genes of histomnas.
Output: 2
Question: The set of all the RNA molecules of a cell transcribed from a genome are called: 
 Options:  <1> Proteome <2> Metagenome <3> Transcriptome. <4> Mebaoloma <5> Methyloma
Output: 3
Question: To detect small deletions or duplications at the genomic level, the technique of choice would be: 
 Options:  <1> Karyotype of bands G. <2> Genomic microarrays. <3> Expression microarrays. <4> PCR <5> RT-PCR.
Output: 2
Question: The R-bands of human metaphase chromosomes: 
 Options:  <1> They contain DNA rich in AT pairs. <2> They have high gene density. <3> They contain poor DNA in GC pairs. <4> They replicate at the end of phase S. <5> They have low gene density.
Output: 2
Question: ASO-PCR is a technique of: 
 Options:  <1> Detection of mutations without identifying the type. <2> Detection of specific mutations. <3> Sequencing <4> DNA amplification. <5> Molecular cytogenetics
Output: 2
Question: The phase of meiosis where the pairs of homologous chromosomes are aligned along the equatorial plane is called: 
 Options:  <1> Profase I. <2> Metaphase II. <3> Profase II. <4> Metaphase I. <5> Prometaphase I.
Output: 4
Question: How many DNA molecules does a diploid cell contain 2n = 46 during the G2 phase ?: 
 Options:  <1> 92 <2> 2. 3. <3> 46 <4> 44 <5> twenty-one.
Output: 1
Question: What type of epistasia explains the dihybrid phenotypic ratio of 13: 3 ?: 
 Options:  <1> Double dominant. <2> Simple recessive <3> Recessive dominant double. <4> Double recessive <5> Simple dominant.
Output: 3
Question: Which vector would be used to clone a DNA fragment up to 15 Kb ?: 
 Options:  <1> BAC. <2> Plasmid <3> Cosmic <4> YAK. <5> Phage
Output: 2
Question: A karyotype 45, XX, rob (15; 21) (q10; q10) can correspond to: 
 Options:  <1> A girl with Down syndrome with a Robertsonian translocation. <2> A girl with Angelman syndrome. <3> A healthy woman with a Robertsonian translocation. <4> A healthy woman with Turner syndrome. <5> A healthy male carrier of a Robertsonian translocation.
Output: 3
Question: The three human chromosomes estimated to contain fewer genes are: 
 Options:  <1> 21, 22 and Y. <2> 18, 22 and Y. <3> 18, 21 and Y. <4> 13, 21 and Y. <5> 13, 22 and Y.
Output: 3
Question: The repeated sequence of human telomeres is: 
 Options:  <1> 5'-GGGATT-3'. <2> 3'-CCCTAA-5'. <3> 5'-CCCCAA-5 '. <4> 5'-CCTTAA-3. <5> 5'-CCCTAA-3 '.
Output: 5
Question: What hormone causes ovulation ?: 
 Options:  <1> The FSH. <2> The LH. <3> Estrogens <4> Progesterone <5> The prostaglandins.
Output: 2
Question: Usually the training of sperm occurs in: 
 Options:  <1> The seminiferous tubules. <2> The epididymis <3> The male urethra. <4> The vagina <5> The uterus.
Output: 5
Question: The floor of the amniotic cavity is: 
 Options:  <1> Trophoblast. <2> Hypoblast. <3> Epiblast <4> Endometrium <5> Myometrium
Output: 3
Question: The first morphological sign of human gastrulation is: 
 Options:  <1> Formation of the neural tube. <2> Formation of the primitive line. <3> Implantation. <4> Compaction <5> Ovulation.
Output: 2
Question: Inhibin: 
 Options:  <1> Inhibits the secretion of FSH. <2> Blocks the secretion of estrogen. <3> Stimulates the secretion of GnRH. <4> The adenohypophysis produces it. <5> Stimulates the secretion of LH.
Output: 1
Question: Neuraminidase of the influenza virus: 
 Options:  <1> It is found inside the capsid and is released after entering the cell. <2> Its function is to facilitate the encapsulation of genetic material. <3> It is one of the spicules of the envelope. <4> It is not antigenic. <5> It facilitates the adsorption of the virus to the cell.
Output: 3
Question: Bacteria of the species Haemophilus influenzae: 
 Options:  <1> They grow in the middle of MacConkey. <2> Causes meningitis in children. <3> They are anaerobic Gram positive bacilli. <4> They are anaerobic Gram positive cocci. <5> They are hemolytic.
Output: 2
Question: Somatic recombination for the generation of diversity in B lymphocytes occurs in: 
 Options:  <1> Bone marrow. <2> Ganglion. <3> Peripherally blood. <4> Thymus <5> Spleen.
Output: 1
Question: The typical red cells of sickle cell anemia are: 
 Options:  <1> Dianocitos. <2> Drepanocytes <3> Dacryocytes <4> Ovalocitos. <5> Acanthocytes
Output: 2
Question: It is a stop codon for translation: 
 Options:  <1> AUG. <2> UAU <3> UUU <4> UAC. <5> UAA
Output: 5
Question: Histidine is characterized by: 
 Options:  <1> Present an indole group in its structure. <2> Present a unique N in its structure. <3> A side chain of aromatic character. <4> A side chain that can take or release protons at physiological pH. <5> Being a protein involved in inflammation.
Output: 4
Question: The cells of the seminiferous tubules that support and nourish the germ cells are: 
 Options:  <1> The cells of Leydig. <2> The Sertoli cells. <3> The primary spermatocytes. <4> Secondary spermatocytes <5> The spermatids.
Output: 2
Question: The degrees of freedom of the intragroup variance in a 1-way Anova comparing 4 groups of 10 individuals each are: 
 Options:  <1> 38 <2> 39 <3> 3. <4> 40 <5> 36
Output: 5
Question: The period of 1 to 2 years after puberty, in which the growth of the skeleton is completed and the reproductive functions are established, is called: 
 Options:  <1> Postpubescence <2> Prepubescence <3> Adolescence. <4> Menarchy <5> Premenarquía.
Output: 1
Question: Indicate the correct answer: 
 Options:  <1> The enteric nervous system consists of the submucosal plexus and the myenteric plexus. <2> The myenteric plexus has sensory and motor neurons. <3> The myenteric plexus regulates the movements of the mucosa and the secretion of glands and the submucosal plexus regulates gastric motility. <4> 1 and 2 are correct. <5> All are correct.
Output: 4
Question: In neurons once an action potential has started, a second action potential can not be triggered for a short period of time, regardless of the intensity of the stimulus applied. This period of time is known as: 
 Options:  <1> Synaptic delay. <2> Threshold depolarizing period. <3> Absolute refractory period. <4> Relative refractory period. <5> Spatial sumary.
Output: 3
Question: How does the cerebellum participate in the control of movement ?: 
 Options:  <1> Monitor the intention of the movement. <2> Control posture and balance <3> Compare the movement made with the planned one. <4> Send corrective feedback signals to the motor neurons of the cortex if necessary. <5> All are correct.
Output: 5
Question: Indicate which of the following statements about dead space of the airway is correct: 
 Options:  <1> It is the air that occupies the airway and is used in the exchange of gases. <2> In an adult person it is about 3250 ml. <3> In each respiratory cycle the air from the dead space is poor in O2. <4> It is the lung area that is not ventilated and therefore does not contain gases. <5> It includes airways and alveoli that do not participate in the exchange of gas with blood.
Output: 5
Question: In relation to the hearing and balance processes, indicate which statement is correct: 
 Options:  <1> The sounds are perceived in the organ of Corti and the balance in ampullary crests and maculae. <2> The auditory signal is processed in the cerebellum. <3> The inner ear is full of air. <4> Otoliths are composed of quartz. <5> All answers are false.
Output: 1
Question: The rhythmic movements like walking or running are: 
 Options:  <1> Reflex movements. <2> Voluntary movements <3> Initiated and terminated by the cerebral cortex. <4> A combination of reflex and voluntary movements. <5> 3 and 4 are correct.
Output: 5
Question: During the exchange process in the capillaries, the net active force that attracts fluid from the interstitial space back into the capillaries is: 
 Options:  <1> Gravity. <2> Osmotic pressure of interstitial fluid. <3> Colloidal osmotic pressure of the plasma. <4> Hydrostatic blood pressure. <5> Glomerular hydrostatic pressure.
Output: 3
Question: Point out the correct answer regarding the hormonal control of reproduction: 
 Options:  <1> The gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) of the pituitary gland controls the secretion of two gonadotropins from the anterior lobe of the hypothalamus. <2> The gonadotropins are the follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and the luteinizing hormone (LH). <3> FSH acts mainly on endocrine cells, stimulating the synthesis of sex hormones. <4> LH is necessary, together with steroid sex hormones, to initiate and maintain gametogenesis. <5> All the above are correct.
Output: 2
Question: Which of the following factors influences the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) ?: 
 Options:  <1> Blood pressure <2> The renal blood flow. <3> Self-regulation by myogenic responses and tubuloglomerular feedback. <4> Hormones such as Angiotensin II and neurons of the sympathetic nervous system. <5> All are correct.
Output: 5
Question: The cells of the stomach that are responsible for the secretion of hydrochloric acid are: 
 Options:  <1> The main cells. <2> The G cells <3> The parietal cells. <4> The enterocytes. <5> The mucosites of surface.
Output: 3
Question: Which of the following is considered a normal response of the cardiovascular system originated in the baroreceptors as a consequence of hypotension ?: 
 Options:  <1> Increase in systemic vascular resistance. <2> Increase in parasympathetic stimulation. <3> Decrease in heart rate <4> Decreased stroke volume. <5> Decrease in cardiac output
Output: 1
Question: Indicate the correct answer regarding the forces that influence the filtration through the capillaries of the renal glomeruli (Glomerular Filtration) that takes place in the renal corpuscle: 
 Options:  <1> The hydrostatic pressure of the blood circulating in the glomerular capillaries favors filtration to the Bowman's capsule. <2> The colloid osmotic pressure due to the plasma proteins within the glomerular capillaries favors filtration towards the Bowman capsule. <3> The hydrostatic pressure of the liquid inside the Bowman's capsule favors filtration into Bowman's capsule. <4> The net gradient of the sum of these three pressures is 100 mm Hg in favor of filtration. <5> All the above are correct.
Output: 1
Question: According to practically all of the nursing literature, which is considered the first secular school of regulated nurse training in the world: 
 Options:  <1> The Kaiserwerth Institute of Nursing Education. <2> The school of nurses of the Saint Thomas Hospital in London. <3> The Catalina de Siena Foundation for the teaching of nursing. <4> Royal School of Nurses of Saint Elizabeth of Hungary. <5> Civil Institution of the Nursing Sisters of La Merced.
Output: 2
Question: In 1916, in the House of Health of Santa Cristina in Madrid, the Regulation was approved for the first: 
 Options:  <1> School of Midwives of Spain. <2> School of Military Nurses. <3> Royal Certificate of Ministers. <4> Collegiate of Surgeons and Bleeders. <5> Board of Nursing Training Board.
Output: 1
Question: At the beginning of the Christian World, it is NOT considered a characteristic of the care that was carried out to treat the sick person as: 
 Options:  <1> An evangelical mandate for Christians. <2> A way to imitate the life of Jesus. <3> A human consideration related to the activities of helping the patient in their needs. <4> An opportunity for redemption for the patient and for those who provide it. <5> A person in need of technical assistance exclusively.
Output: 5
Question: During the nineteenth century, the reform movement greatly influenced the development of Spanish nursing at that time, being one of the most relevant figures: 
 Options:  <1> Sara Barton. <2> Concepción Arenal. <3> María Teresa Junquera. <4> María de Madariaga <5> María de Maeztu.
Output: 2
Question: Royal Decree 450/2005, of April 22, regulates: 
 Options:  <1> The Plans of Studies of Diploma in Nursing. <2> Accreditation minimums for the transformation of ATS Schools into Nursing Diploma Schools. <3> The professional competences of the Diploma in Nursing. <4> The Own Titles of Advanced Nursing. <5> The Nursing Specialties.
Output: 5
Question: During the second half of the 20th century there are several theoretical nurses who develop different definitions about nursing. Which of the following characteristics can be considered common to all of them ?: 
 Options:  <1> It focuses on the patient. <2> It focuses on the disease. <3> It is a feminine profession. <4> It has meaning from an interprofessional perspective. <5> All can be considered common to all definitions.
Output: 1
Question: Raile and Marriner in their studies on the theoretical works in nursing, review different aspects among which are those referred to semantics and structure. This analysis of the concrete theoretical framework refers to: 
 Options:  <1> The simplicity <2> The generality <3> The empirical precision. <4> The deductible consequences. <5> The clarity.
Output: 5
Question: The conception of the person from a holistic perspective has achieved all its meaning from the works belonging to the School: 
 Options:  <1> Of the caring. <2> Of health promotion. <3> Of the desired effects. <4> Integrality <5> Of the unitary human being.
Output: 5
Question: The basis of Watson's theory is the nurse practice focused on: 
 Options:  <1> The 10 fundamental needs. <2> The 10 factors of care. <3> The 8 self-care requirements. <4> The 4 modes of adaptation. <5> The 21 nursing problems.
Output: 2
Question: Which of the following theorists is considered to be the founder of transcultural nursing ?: 
 Options:  <1> Madeleine M. Leininger. <2> Rosemarie Rizzo. <3> Dorothy Johnson. <4> Martha E. Rogers. <5> Ramona T. Mercer.
Output: 1
Question: When using the Callista Roy model in practice, the organization of the factors that influence the person's responses are grouped as stimuli: 
 Options:  <1> Innatos and acquired. <2> Adaptive and ineffective <3> Focal, contextual and residual. <4> Internal and external. <5> Physiological, psychological and sociocultural.
Output: 3
Question: D. Orem describes the meaning of dependent care agency as: 
 Options:  <1> The skills developed and acquired by the nurse in their training and learning process. <2> The capacities developed, or in the process of development, that a person has to take care of the self-care of another that depends on it. <3> The skills of the mature person to meet their demands for self-care following the recommendations of professionals. <4> The relationship that occurs between the nurse and the person who requires their care establishing a nursing system agreed between them. <5> The capabilities of the person, developed or in the process of development to meet the demands of health diversion requirements.
Output: 2