niryuu/sni-each-converted huggingface dataset:
Question: A nurse who bases her professional practice on the Virginia Henderson conceptual model: 
 Options:  <1> It focuses on the fundamental needs of the person, and its interventions are aimed at preserving or restoring the independence of the person in meeting these needs. <2> He sees the care of the person as the establishment and maintenance of a nurse-client relationship that favors development. <3> He bases his actions on strategies to promote the adaptation of the person who is in constant interaction with a changing environment that influences their fundamental needs. <4> It considers in its care, as an authentic presence, the person who goes towards its actualization and who, through his health experiences, creates together to improve the quality of life, as the person and his family define it. <5> Organize your activity to meet the needs of care of the person, with the most appropriate system and nursing mode.
Output: 1
Question: When it comes to interviewing a person, in order to gather information about their situation, it is essential to bear in mind that: 
 Options:  <1> A distance of 20 cm., Makes the person feel more comfortable and provides more information. <2> The right space for each person depends on their personal and cultural needs. <3> Simple physical contact, such as putting your hand on the person interviewed, is always appropriate. <4> Women generally demand more space than men. <5> Anxiety makes the need for space less.
Output: 2
Question: A nurse has detected, on different occasions, a real problem in the patients she attends that does not correspond to any of the diagnoses contained in the NANDA classification. The way to proceed so that it can be included in the taxonomy is to propose a structure that contains at least: 
 Options:  <1> The problem. The etiology Signs and symptoms <2> The problem. The etiology Signs and symptoms Studies of the cases and their results. <3> The problem defined. The most common and possible etiologies. Major and minor characteristics that indicate the existence of the problem. At least the results of an experimental study. <4> The label. Definition. Defining characteristics. Related factors Bibliographic support Appropriate interventions and results. <5> The label. Definition. Defining characteristics. Related factors Risk factor's. Bibliographic support Appropriate interventions and results.
Output: 4
Question: One purpose of the scales for measuring the results of the NOC classification is: 
 Options:  <1> Determine the patient's condition and show the score of the result. <2> Make a clinical judgment about the patient's situation. <3> Determine the degree of achievement of the objectives raised in the care plan. <4> Check if the identified problem has been solved or a new diagnosis needs to be made. <5> Check the evolution of the patient and replace the evaluation phase of the care process.
Output: 1
Question: The fundamental criterion for the choice of interventions in a nursing plan is that they are: 
 Options:  <1> Achievable with the available resources. <2> Those recommended in the standardized care plan. <3> Effective regardless of the criteria of the person. <4> Based exclusively on the knowledge of the nurse. <5> All are correct.
Output: 1
Question: A health professional is exempted from the obligation of professional secrecy in the following circumstance: 
 Options:  <1> Presence of an infectious disease. <2> Suicide attempt. <3> Refusal of the patient to avoid contagion to other people. <4> Suspicion of mistreatment. <5> Upon the request of a lawyer.
Output: 3
Question: The limitation of the therapeutic effort refers to: 
 Options:  <1> Palliative sedation <2> Assisted suicide. <3> To the rejection to the treatment. <4> To the non-therapeutic fierceness. <5> To double effect therapy.
Output: 4
Question: The four principles of bioethics, non-maleficence, beneficence, justice and autonomy were proposed: 
 Options:  <1> By Beauchamp and Childress. <2> In the Belmont Report. <3> In the Oviedo Convention. <4> In the Universal Declaration of Human Rights. <5> By Diego Gracia.
Output: 1
Question: The Code of Ethics of Spanish Nursing: 
 Options:  <1> It constitutes the minimum standards of action for Nursing. <2> It is a deontological Ethics of maximums for Nursing. <3> It is a bridge between patrimonial and collegial responsibility. <4> It is a set of guidelines for professional practice. <5> It addresses the guidelines for proper assistance to the sick.
Output: 1
Question: The model of ethical foundation exposed by Carol Gilligan is called Ethics: 
 Options:  <1> Of Maxima. <2> Of Duty. <3> Of Care <4> Of Minimes. <5> Of Justice.
Output: 3
Question: The ability to grasp the principles by which a distinction is made between what is morally good or bad is called: 
 Options:  <1> Moral action <2> Moral conscience. <3> Moral freedom <4> Ideal moral. <5> Moral capacity
Output: 2
Question: A child must be taught to be more autonomous and learn to eat without help. If he first learns to hold a spoon, then to grab some puree and is finally able to take it to his mouth, and the parents congratulate him, it means that they have used positive reinforcement and the technique of successive approximations. This technique is also called: 
 Options:  <1> Learning by observation. <2> Molding <3> Vicarial learning. <4> Reward. <5> Training with emission.
Output: 2
Question: When a person tries to avoid circumstances that increase their stress, exercises relaxation, plans leisure activities and trivializes their illness, it is said that this person is using coping strategies aimed at: 
 Options:  <1> The action. <2> The problem. <3> The omission <4> The emotion. <5> The attention
Output: 4
Question: C. N. has a significant overweight, can not resist and eats at any time. He tells the nurse that he can not control his actions and that he has very bad luck with the food problem. This lady presents an attributional style: 
 Options:  <1> Of helplessness. <2> Internal. <3> External. <4> Neurotic. <5> Assertive
Output: 3
Question: When a person is affected by a major stressful event or many minor stressful daily events, your body can react by showing up in the target organs by the action of: 
 Options:  <1> Autonomic neural axis producing prolonged effects. <2> Peripheral neural axis producing intermediate effects. <3> Neuroendocrine axis stimulating the adrenal medulla and producing immediate effects. <4> Hypothalamus <5> Endocrine axis on the spinal cord.
Output: 4
Question: The goals that improve performance and focus people's attention are: 
 Options:  <1> General, difficult and little challenging. <2> Specific, difficult and challenging. <3> Global, easy and challenging. <4> Specific, easy and challenging. <5> Those that are imposed externally.
Output: 2
Question: The episodic memory is: 
 Options:  <1> Not declarative or implicit, that keeps skills, habits or routines of daily life. Their acquisition depends on the amount of time spent practicing them and the type of training used. <2> Declarative or explicit, of personal experiences based on the memory of concrete events that can be localized in time and in a specific place. <3> Long-term semantics <4> The one that allows to retain concepts, knowledge and events. <5> Which is used in the short term, for example, to remember the verse of a song by repeating it several times for a few minutes.
Output: 2
Question: Persuasion is a way to change attitudes. Which of the following statements is NOT correct ?: 
 Options:  <1> The source that communicates a message must be credible, attractive, close and related. <2> The positive message persuades better than the negative or the neutral. <3> Positive states of mind favor persuasion more than neutral states. <4> The attitudes of people with high cognitive need are more difficult to modify especially if weak arguments are used. <5> The recipient's self-esteem does not influence persuasion.
Output: 5
Question: Point to the FALSE option. The model of the five factors of the personality of McCrae and Costa establishes as basic dimensions to study the person: 
 Options:  <1> Neuroticism and emotional stability. <2> Extraversion and introversion. <3> Mental openness and narrow-mindedness. <4> Kindness and antipathy. <5> Happiness and sadness
Output: 5
Question: Which of the following drugs corresponds to the therapeutic group of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors ?: 
 Options:  <1> Buspirona. <2> Fluoxetine. <3> Zolpidem <4> Lorazepam <5> Phenytoin
Output: 2
Question: Among all the known adverse effects of platelet agents such as Clopidogrel, which of them are considered less serious ?: 
 Options:  <1> Flu-like syndrome, headache, dizziness and rash or pruritus. <2> Profuse sweating and nausea. <3> Arrhythmia and hypotension. <4> Moderate abdominal pain and headache. <5> Dyspnea and edema in MMII.
Output: 1
Question: In relation to the administration of non-opioid analgesics, the recommendations listed below must be considered, EXCEPT: 
 Options:  <1> Do not administer acetylsalicylic acid to children or adolescents. <2> Take the medication with food and plenty of fluids to prevent gastric discomfort. <3> Report a history of bleeding disorders. <4> Adjust the dosage in 600 mg / 24 hours. <5> Keep appointments scheduled for kidney and liver function tests.
Output: 4
Question: Which of the following drugs is included in the group of intermediate-acting glucocorticoids ?: 
 Options:  <1> Chlorpropamide <2> Estradiol. <3> Metformin. <4> Carbamazepine <5> Prednisolone
Output: 5
Question: In the treatment with progestogens, a significant number of adverse effects occur. Of those listed below, the most serious is: 
 Options:  <1> Liver failure. <2> Thromboembolic disease. <3> Respiratory insufficiency. <4> Depression. <5> Heart failure.
Output: 2
Question: In patients with Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease, which treatments listed below are contraindicated due to the effect they cause: 
 Options:  <1> Bronchodilators, both short and long acting. <2> Mucolytics and expectorants to reduce the viscosity of secretions. <3> Oxygen that in the long term reduces the mortality of the patient with COPD. <4> Respiratory depressants such as opioids and barbiturates. <5> Antibiotics for patients with repeated pulmonary infections.
Output: 4
Question: Of all the groups of drugs listed below, those that less frequently provoke an anaphylactic reaction in the patient are: 
 Options:  <1> The NSAIDs. <2> Opioid analgesics. <3> Contrast media containing iodine, used for radiological examinations. <4> The benzodiazepines. <5> Antibiotics, especially penicillins, cephalosporins and sulfonamides.
Output: 4
Question: Point out the correct answer in relation to the posology in the administration of drugs in children: 
 Options:  <1> The body size influences exclusively and therefore the dose must be calculated. <2> There is a dose standard regardless of weight, so that the procedure is fast and efficient. <3> The height in centimeters must be taken into account for the calculation of doses. <4> The calculation of the body surface area is considered the most accurate method for the administration of the correct dose. <5> Some drugs do not differentiate between doses for adults and children.
Output: 4
Question: A patient with Diabetes Mellitus type 1, which starts with high fever should: 
 Options:  <1> Assess the evolution of fever and wait. <2> Do not eat <3> Assess the need to increase insulin. <4> Drink plenty of water. <5> Do not administer insulin.
Output: 3
Question: A patient with chronic renal failure has to follow a controlled diet in potassium. What foods should you suppress to reduce your potassium intake ?: 
 Options:  <1> Sugars <2> Fish. <3> Fruit in compote. <4> Raw vegetables. <5> Fruit nectar
Output: 4
Question: The basal diet, normal or regular, is characterized by: 
 Options:  <1> Be planned by the hotel industry. <2> To be the basic menu of young patients. <3> Always be with salt. <4> Provide around 2200 kcal / day. <5> Be individualized
Output: 4
Question: Strict vegetarians with low sun exposure should consume foods rich in vitamin: 
 Options:  <1> Retinol (A). <2> Ascorbic acid (C). <3> Calciferol (D). <4> Riboflavin (B2). <5> Niacin (B3).
Output: 3
Question: In phase II of the diet due to acute gastroenteritis, what food should be avoided ?: 
 Options:  <1> Potato. <2> Toasted bread. <3> Grape. <4> Quince. <5> Semolina.
Output: 3
Question: Patients with dysphagia should avoid the following foods, EXCEPT: 
 Options:  <1> Homogeneous purees. <2> With a fibrous texture, such as asparagus, pineapple, serrano ham. <3> That contain thorns and bones. <4> They crumble in the mouth, like rice, potato chips. <5> Sticky and dense foods, like sliced ​​bread.
Output: 1
Question: The screening tool devised by Stratton and Col (2004) to evaluate malnutrition in patients admitted to hospitals is: 
 Options:  <1> Screening Tool (MUST). <2> CONUT. <3> IMC <4> Valuation of intake. <5> INFORNUT.
Output: 1
Question: The involuntary loss of weight can mean malnutrition, if it is higher than: 
 Options:  <1> 4% in 3 months. <2> 5% in 1 month. <3> 10% in 12 months. <4> 15% in 10 months. <5> 20% in 6 months.
Output: 2
Question: The administration of enteral nutrition in bolus is indicated when: 
 Options:  <1> The formula is hyperosmolar. <2> The patient has reflux. <3> The administration is intermittent. <4> Large volumes are administered. <5> The administration is jejunal.
Output: 3
Question: A patient with peripheral occlusive arteriopathy who presents intermittent claudication will be recommended: 
 Options:  <1> Absolute rest to reduce the demands of O2. <2> Elevate the legs to reduce pain. <3> Apply dry heat to the legs to promote vasodilation. <4> Walk on flat surfaces. <5> Use gradual compression stockings.
Output: 4
Question: The INR (international normalized ratio) of a patient with chronic atrial fibrillation treated with Acenocoumarol is 4. This result indicates that: 
 Options:  <1> The appearance of ventricular arrhythmias should be controlled. <2> The patient is correctly anticoagulated. <3> Anticoagulation with heparin is more indicated. <4> There is a risk of thrombus formation. <5> Signs of bleeding should be assessed.
Output: 5
Question: Which of the following signs is characteristic of a patient with left heart failure ?: 
 Options:  <1> Rattles. <2> Increased blood pressure. <3> Decrease in weight <4> Ascitis <5> Bradycardia
Output: 1
Question: A patient with a lateral myocardial infarction will present an obstruction at the level of the artery: 
 Options:  <1> Coronary right. <2> Previous descending <3> Posterior descending. <4> Diaphragmatic <5> Circumflex.
Output: 5
Question: Defibrillation is characterized by: 
 Options:  <1> It requires the patient's previous sedation. <2> It is usually used when the patient is in asystole. <3> It can be applied in ventricular tachycardias with a pulse. <4> The discharge is not synchronized with the patient's heart rate. <5> A minimum intensity discharge should be used.
Output: 4
Question: When performing an electrocardiogram you will notice that the QRS complex is predominantly negative in the derivation: 
 Options:  <1> V1 <2> AVF. <3> V5 <4> V6. <5> DIII.
Output: 1
Question: A patient diagnosed with angina will NOT recommend: 
 Options:  <1> Alternating activity with periods of rest. <2> Take oral nitroglycerin in the morning. <3> Avoid extreme cold. <4> Follow a diet rich in fiber. <5> Leave the tobacco.
Output: 2
Question: Among the activities of the nurse for a patient with cognitive impairment secondary to Cerebral Vascular Accident, is NOT correct: 
 Options:  <1> Reorient the patient in terms of time, place and situation frequently. <2> Use verbal and auditory cues to guide the patient. <3> Repeat and reinforce instructions frequently. <4> Avoid showing family objects so as not to contribute to their frustration. <5> Use a simple language
Output: 4
Question: Among the diseases and neurological disorders influenced by genetic factors, it is NOT found: 
 Options:  <1> Epilepsy. <2> Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis. <3> Spina Bifida. <4> Ictus. <5> Duchenne muscular dystrophy.
Output: 4
Question: One of the drugs that are administered in the treatment of seizures is: 
 Options:  <1> Chlorpropamide <2> Simvastatin. <3> Carbamazepine <4> Propanolol. <5> Escitalopram.
Output: 3
Question: The earliest sign manifested in the increase in Intracranial Pressure (ICP) is: 
 Options:  <1> Orthostatic hypotension. <2> Breathing difficulty <3> Hypertension maintained. <4> Changes in the level of consciousness <5> Frequent vomiting
Output: 4
Question: The most accurate measurement of body temperature in an unconscious patient should be obtained at: 
 Options:  <1> Oral. <2> Axillary. <3> It is indifferent. <4> Rectal. <5> Inguinal.
Output: 4
Question: After the patient has suffered an epileptic seizure, there is a risk of presenting: 
 Options:  <1> Hypoxia, vomiting and pulmonary aspiration. <2> Dizziness, nausea and abdominal pain. <3> Intense headache, hypotension and rigidity. <4> High blood pressure and arrhythmias. <5> Insomnia, altered appetite and loss of energy.
Output: 1
Question: P. L. complains of gastroesophageal reflux and although he takes the prescribed drugs he acknowledges that he did not carry out the diet because he thought it was not important. Now he asks for dietary recommendations. Which one is indicated ?: 
 Options:  <1> Take very cold foods. <2> Take very hot foods. <3> Drink liquids at lunch and dinner. <4> Take low fat diet. <5> Drink citrus juices.
Output: 4
Question: Mr. L. R. is a colostomy carrier. Which of the following recommendations on activities of daily life is adequate ?: 
 Options:  <1> You should avoid bathing, neither with a bag nor without it. <2> You can not do sports activities. <3> You can not wear a sash on top of the bag. <4> It is advisable that you drink plenty of fluids to avoid dehydration. <5> You should avoid sexual intercourse involving contact with the stoma area.
Output: 3
Question: Patients with liver cirrhosis may have ascites due to: 
 Options:  <1> Alteration of the coagulation factors. <2> Portal hypertension and serum hypoalbuminemia. <3> Decrease in hydrostatic pressure. <4> Irritation of the peritoneal membrane by bile salts. <5> Post-surgical and abdominal trauma.
Output: 2
Question: Patients undergoing gastric surgery require vitamin B12 replacement therapy for: 
 Options:  <1> CLH deficiency - which hinders the absorption of nutrients. <2> Excessive loss of this vitamin in the stool. <3> Low intake of food as a result of anorexia. <4> Deficiency in its absorption due to lack of intrinsic factor. <5> Excessive loss of this vitamin in the urine.
Output: 4
Question: Crohn's disease is an inflammatory process that is characterized by: 
 Options:  <1> It affects the superficial mucosa of the colon. <2> It usually occurs with rectal bleeding. <3> The affectation is uniform, producing continuous injuries. <4> The colectomy cures the disease. <5> It affects any stretch of the gastrointestinal tract.
Output: 5
Question: Clay-colored stools are indicative of a problem of: 
 Options:  <1> Obstruction of the bile ducts. <2> Severe and prolonged diarrhea. <3> Gastrointestinal bleeding. <4> Long fasting. <5> Enteral feeding
Output: 1
Question: When you value the oncological patient, in which Functional Pattern of M. Gordon is included the Barthel Index ?: 
 Options:  <1> Cognitive-Perceptual. <2> Activity-Exercise. <3> Perception-Health Management. <4> Nutritional-Metabolic. <5> Self-perception-Self-concept
Output: 2
Question: Which of the following statements related to breast cancer is correct ?: 
 Options:  <1> Infiltrative ductal carcinoma is the least frequent histological type (around 510%) <2> If the tumor is located in the nipple, it is called Paget's disease. <3> Total mastectomy involves excision of the breast, the areola-nipple complex, and axillary lymph node dissection. <4> It does not produce metastasis in the bone tissue. <5> When there is metastasis, hormone therapy is contraindicated.
Output: 2
Question: Hypoxemic hypoxia occurs when: 
 Options:  <1> Oxygen diffusion of lungs is difficult. <2> There is decreased blood flow due to cardiogenic shock. <3> The decrease in hemoglobin due to anemia prevents its transport. <4> The cell membrane is altered and can not use oxygen. <5> None is correct.
Output: 1
Question: What values ​​obtained in an arterial blood gas are considered within the normal parameters in an adult person ?: 
 Options:  <1> PaCO2 65mmHg, PaO2 80mmHg, pH 7.55. <2> PaCO2 35mmHg, PaO2 110mmHg, pH 7.55. <3> PaCO2 35mmHg, PaO2 90mmHg, pH 7.35. <4> PaCO2 80mmHg, PaO2 35mmHg, pH 7.35. <5> PaCO2 20mmHg, PaO2 90mmHg, pH 7.45.
Output: 3
Question: Regarding the exercises with the incentive spirometer, it is true that: 
 Options:  <1> They stimulate the patient to inhale quickly and deeply. <2> The patient must be in the supine position. <3> Spirometers can be of three types: volume, flow or pressure. <4> They are also called sustained maximum inspiration exercises. <5> All are false.
Output: 4
Question: When training a patient to perform diaphragmatic breathing exercises correctly, we will indicate that: 
 Options:  <1> Inhale through your nose while counting to 3 and exhale quickly with pursed lips. <2> Inhale through the mouth and contract the abdominal muscles for another 7 seconds. <3> Firmly press the abdomen out and down when exhaling. <4> Inhale slowly and deeply through the nose and push the abdomen outward. <5> Help yourself by supporting your hands on the rib cage while inspiring.
Output: 4
Question: Hyperoxia or oxygen toxicity can cause signs and symptoms such as: 
 Options:  <1> Substernal pain <2> Paresthesias of the extremities. <3> Fatigue and general malaise. <4> Dyspnea and progressive respiratory distress. <5> All are true.
Output: 5
Question: The obturator or catheter in a tracheostomy cannula serves to: 
 Options:  <1> Introduce the external cannula into the tracheal stoma in a non traumatic way. <2> Aspirate secretions if a vacuum source is directly connected. <3> Help maintain the permeability of the artificial airway. <4> Fix the cannula avoiding its accidental displacement. <5> Allow the patient to speak by allowing the air to pass through the vocal cords.
Output: 1
Question: In the postoperative period, clinical signs such as high temperature, cough, expectoration, dyspnea and chest pain correspond to a patient who presents: 
 Options:  <1> Pulmonary embolism. <2> Pulmonary emphysema <3> Pneumonia. <4> Atelectasis <5> Asthma crisis
Output: 3
Question: Which of the following NANDA diagnoses is NOT relevant in the newly operated patient: 
 Options:  <1> Acute pain <2> Risk of liquid volume deficit. <3> Ineffective respiratory pattern <4> Alteration of social interaction. <5> Ineffective cleaning of the respiratory tract.
Output: 4
Question: One of the signs that can appear in the postoperative period is tympanism, which means: 
 Options:  <1> Paralysis of intestinal peristalsis. <2> Tympanic perforation due to increased pressure. <3> Evisceration <4> Retention of gases in the intestine. <5> Severe abdominal pain.
Output: 4
Question: A 48-year-old woman who has just been diagnosed with Diabetes Mellitus 2 comes to the nursing consultation. Baseline venous blood glucose values ​​are: 165 mg / dL. Other interesting data are: total cholesterol: 197 mg / dl and BMI 23 Kg / m2. What dietary recommendation is indicated ?: 
 Options:  <1> Distribute carbohydrate intake throughout the day, with a carbohydrate ratio of 30-54%. <2> Plan together with the patient a hypocaloric diet that includes 55-60% of carbohydrates, a reduction of fat intake <30% and fiber intake of 20-30 g. <3> Take supplements of omega 3 fatty acids. <4> The consumption of alcohol should not exceed one-two units / day. <5> Prepare a hyperproteic diet together with the patient, including low glycemic index foods.
Output: 4
Question: Thyroid storm or thyrotoxic crisis is a state of extreme hyperthyroidism characterized by: 
 Options:  <1> High prevalence in patients with endocrine disorders. <2> Hyperthermia, tachycardia, abdominal and neurological disorders, including epileptic seizures, delirium and coma. <3> Hypothermia, bradycardia and lethargy. <4> It does not suppose a situation of vital commitment for the patient with disorders of the endocrine system. <5> Hyperthermia, bradycardia, abdominal disorders and absence of neurological symptoms.
Output: 2
Question: Diabetes Insipidus: 
 Options:  <1> It is a disease linked to the dysfunction of the anterior pituitary gland. <2> It is controlled by limiting the ingestion of liquids. <3> It manifests by polydipsia and the elimination of large volumes of diluted urine. <4> It originates in the pancreas. <5> It is caused by excessive production of ADH (Vasopressin).
Output: 3
Question: Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) causes disorders of the metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins and lipids. The main clinical manifestations of CAD are: 
 Options:  <1> Hypoglycaemia, dehydration with loss of electrolytes and acidosis. <2> Hyperglycemia, dehydration with loss of electrolytes and alkalosis. <3> Hypoglycaemia, increases in volemia and acidosis. <4> Hyperglycemia, dehydration with loss of electrolytes and acidosis. <5> Hyperglycemia, increases in blood volume and alkalosis.
Output: 4
Question: One of the main risk factors for kidney cancer is: 
 Options:  <1> Cardiopathy without treatment. <2> Sex. <3> Liver failure. <4> Alcohol intake. <5> Polycystic kidney disease.
Output: 5
Question: In a patient with Renal Insufficiency, oral drugs must be administered: 
 Options:  <1> With natural fruit juices. <2> With the lowest volume of liquid possible. <3> With the same volume as any other patient. <4> With the largest volume of liquid possible. <5> Always during hemodialysis.
Output: 2
Question: In a postoperative patient with a urinary diversion, the nurse should monitor the urine volume every hour. Below how many ml / h of urine may indicate that the patient is dehydrated or has some type of internal obstruction or loss ?: 
 Options:  <1> 200 ml / h. <2> 100 ml / h. <3> 80 ml / h. <4> 50 ml / h. <5> 30 ml / h.
Output: 5
Question: In the nurse's instruction on home care in peritoneal dialysis, the patient or caregiver should be able to: 
 Options:  <1> Mention the basic principles of aseptic technique. <2> Analyze restrictions on food. <3> Demonstrate the procedure to add medication to the dialysis solution. <4> Describe the actions in case of emergency. <5> All the previous answers are correct.
Output: 5
Question: It has been 24 hours since D. J., 28, has undergone an abdominal surgery. When he enters the room he smiles and jokes with the visitors. The blood pressure is 130/74 mmHg, the heart rate is 80, and the respiratory rate is 18. He tells him that he has pain and on a numerical scale of pain intensity from 0 (without pain) to 10 (the worst possible pain), DJ scores his pain in 8. Based on these data, point out the number you would choose to represent the assessment of this man's pain: 
 Options:  <1> 9. <2> 8 <3> 7 <4> 6 <5> 5.
Output: 2
Question: Mrs. P. R. has prescribed a serum therapy at a rate of 2 liters of isotonic saline in 24 hours; How many drops / minute would the infusion graduate ?: 
 Options:  <1> twenty. <2> 24 <3> 28 <4> 32 <5> 36
Output: 3
Question: One of the following positions makes the patient more susceptible to developing pressure ulcers due to shearing forces: 
 Options:  <1> Supine decubitus <2> Projection prone. <3> Semiprono decubitus. <4> Fowler. <5> Sims.
Output: 4
Question: Which of the following statements about the consolidation of the fractures is FALSE ?: 
 Options:  <1> The presence of metabolic diseases inhibits consolidation. <2> There are bones that consolidate later due to their state of nutrition and blood supply. <3> In children they consolidate faster. <4> Intraarticular fractures delays consolidation. <5> The space between the fragments favors consolidation.
Output: 5
Question: For a skeletal traction to be effective, the principles that must be met are: 
 Options:  <1> Contraction, continuity and body alignment. <2> Body alignment and joint mobility. <3> Joint mobility and continuity. <4> Contraction and body alignment. <5> Continuity, body alignment and joint mobility.
Output: 1
Question: The procedure to apply a plaster includes: 
 Options:  <1> Choose a band 10 cm wide. <2> Cover the previous row with one third of the width of the bandage. <3> Handle the plaster in the process of drying with the palms of the hands. <4> Support the cast member on a hard surface. <5> Cover the plaster to allow it to set.
Output: 3
Question: When performing a central peripheral insertion venous catheterization procedure, the nurse must take into account that: 
 Options:  <1> The catheter is ready for use immediately after insertion, not needing further checks. <2> It is vital to perform a chest X-ray and / or an electrocardiographic record prior to its use. <3> A complete electrocardiogram should be performed in order to avoid possible complications. <4> The location of the tip of the catheter is only checked if parenteral nutrition is to be administered through it. <5> You need to check your position using a chest x-ray and another abdomen.
Output: 2
Question: The specific test to be performed as a previous step to the insertion of a catheter in the radial or ulnar artery, in order to evaluate the presence of an adequate collateral circulation of the hand, is called: 
 Options:  <1> Spencer test modified. <2> Tolerance test for arterial catheterization. <3> Student's test <4> Allen test. <5> Tilt Test (TTT).
Output: 4
Question: When a terminal patient presents pain: 
 Options:  <1> Analgesia will be prescribed. <2> The treatment must be limited to the use of drugs. <3> The drugs will be administered on demand. <4> The route of choice for the administration of drugs will be the one determined by the physician. <5> The route to be used for the administration of analgesia, preferably, will be intramuscular.
Output: 1
Question: Which of the following activities should NOT be carried out in the terminal patient when he presents with xerostomia ?: 
 Options:  <1> Offer you vitamin C pills <2> Give him candy with sugar. <3> Increase fluid intake. <4> Offer ice cubes. <5> Prepare pieces of natural pineapple.
Output: 2
Question: Which of the following statements regarding constipation in the terminal patient is correct ?: 
 Options:  <1> It is a rare symptom. <2> Its most common cause is the administration of opioids. <3> The basic therapy will consist in the administration of enemas. <4> Its etiology is unifactorial. <5> It must be treated with a diet rich in fiber.
Output: 2
Question: The type of epidemiological study indicated to evaluate, in a population initially exempt from the health problem under study, the association between a risk factor and the onset of the disease is: 
 Options:  <1> Randomized clinical trial. <2> Quasi experimental. <3> Ecological studies <4> Cases and controls study. <5> Cohort study.
Output: 3
Question: In the health area, safety problems are identified in two schools. To deal with the situation, educational sessions are held with parents and teachers of the centers, prevention posters are drawn up, signatures are collected to support the elimination of black spots, and risks are eliminated and regulations that favor safety of the schools. This type of intervention is considered: 
 Options:  <1> Health promotion. <2> Advice and information. <3> Education for individual health. <4> Education for group health. <5> Education for massive health.
Output: 1
Question: A program of Health Education (EpS) is organized for women in the climacteric stage. One of the sessions aims to know how they are living this stage and how it is affecting them personally and family. The most appropriate EpS technique is: 
 Options:  <1> Grating. <2> Brainstorming. <3> Phillips 6/6. <4> Fotopalabra <5> All are adequate.
Output: 5
Question: The Program of Preventive Activities and Health Promotion (PAPPS) DOES NOT include as a minimum package in the Infant Subprogram: 
 Options:  <1> Screening for congenital hypothyroidism. <2> Promotion of breastfeeding. <3> Prevention of pregnancy and sexually transmitted diseases in adolescents. <4> Prevention of suicide. <5> Prevention of active and passive smoking.
Output: 4
Question: In the control of chronic diseases that require continuous treatment, one of the main challenges for the primary care nurse is to favor adherence to pharmacological treatment and to make recommendations related to lifestyles. Of the following recommendations, which would NOT be indicated to encourage such adhesion ?: 
 Options:  <1> Provide clear advice on the benefits and possible adverse effects of the treatment and on the posology and its duration. <2> Take into account the habits and preferences of the patient. <3> Use standardized diets and exercise charts that reduce monitoring. <4> Establish a therapeutic relationship based on the motivational interview. <5> Offer multiple or combined sessions of behavioral interventions.
Output: 3
Question: A 45-year-old man of Moroccan origin, who arrived in Spain three years ago, goes to the nurse's office, with a clean superficial wound, and tells us that six months after arrival he was given a dose of the diphtheriate bath vaccine. Of the following interventions, which is indicated ?: 
 Options:  <1> Start diphtheria tetanus vaccination. <2> Administration of the 2nd dose of tetanus diphtheria. <3> Administration of antitetanus gammaglobulin. <4> Administration of antitetanic gamma globulin and 2nd dose of diphtheria tetanus. <5> No intervention would be indicated since he has a dose of diphtheria tetanus.
Output: 2
Question: P.C. is a 27-year-old woman who was given the first dose of the HBV vaccine 3 weeks ago. He has just been given the results of the serological markers of rubella: Ac anti rubella negative. Taking into account the vaccination situation, what intervention is adequate ?: 
 Options:  <1> Vaccinate the triple viral and the 2nd dose of HBV, at the time of consultation. <2> Vaccinate the triple virus at the time of consultation and wait a week for the administration of the 2nd dose of the HBV vaccine. <3> Vaccinate the 2nd dose of the HBV vaccine at the time of the consultation and wait a week for the administration of the triple virus. <4> Vaccinate from the 2nd dose of the HBV vaccine at the time of consultation, and do not vaccinate from the triple virus since it is immunized. <5> Do not vaccinate for the anti-rubella ACs.
Output: 2
Question: A 38-year-old man comes to the nursing consultation and says he has maintained risky sexual practices with a source + HBV. The result of the serology performed is HBsAc> 10mUl / ml. Taking into account the data provided, what intervention is indicated ?: 
 Options:  <1> Immediate administration of the lgHB, initiate HBV vaccination and EpS of safe sex practices. <2> Only immediate administration of the lgHB and EpS of safe sex practices. <3> Put HBV and EpS recall doses of safe sex practices. <4> Start vaccination and EpS of safe sex practices. <5> EpS of safe sex practices.
Output: 5
Question: Within the direct care functions developed by the Primary Care Teams is NOT: 
 Options:  <1> Promotion of healthy lifestyles. <2> Secondary prevention of more prevalent problems in the community. <3> Preparation and implementation of health education projects in school environments. <4> Undergraduate and postgraduate training of health personnel. <5> Rehabilitation.
Output: 4
Question: The recommended secondary prevention measure for the prevention of cervical cancer is: 
 Options:  <1> Vaccine against HPV. <2> Promote the use of condoms. <3> Substitute treatment of estrogen and progesterone in postmenopausal women. <4> Performing cervical cytology for women between 25 and 65 years <5> All are recommendations for secondary prevention.
Output: 4
Question: An essential aspect that should be included in the assessment of a smoker is: 
 Options:  <1> Degree of dependency. <2> Stage of the change process. <3> Degree of motivation <4> Supports and difficulties. <5> All are correct.
Output: 5
Question: According to the Strategy of the National Drug Plan (2009-2016), among the population groups that benefit from programs and activities aimed at social assistance and integration, there are NO people who: 
 Options:  <1> They consume drugs and they go to the general health network for problems related to their consumption or other health problems. <2> They frequent environments and participate in situations where there is a special facility for consumption. <3> They are affected by dual pathology, they present complicated comorbid conditions that become chronic and worsen the evolution and prognosis of the addictive problem. <4> They are interned in prisons or following alternative programs to the enforcement of prison sentences. <5> They are minors and drug users, inmates in protection or reform centers.
Output: 2
Question: What type of primary prevention intervention is indicated during the pre-pathogenic period of cardiovascular diseases ?: 
 Options:  <1> Carry out the assessment of cardiovascular risk using the SCORE scale from adolescence. <2> Control of total cholesterol levels periodically based on age. <3> Blood pressure control periodically based on age. <4> Promotion of healthy lifestyles: tobacco consumption, diet and exercise mainly. <5> All measurements are indicated.
Output: 4
Question: What measure defines the frequency of lung cancer among people who smoke 20 cigarettes a day compared to those who do not smoke ?: 
 Options:  <1> Accumulated incidence. <2> Incidence density. <3> Relative risk. <4> Attributable risk. <5> Etiological risk fraction.
Output: 3
Question: Of the following variables, which is considered a risk marker in the onset of cardiovascular disease: 
 Options:  <1> Elevated figures of LDL-cholesterol and total cholesterol. <2> Man over 55 years old. <3> Smoker of 20 cigarettes daily. <4> Sedentary. <5> All are correct.
Output: 2
Question: Dengue is an infectious disease endemic in certain communities. When 38% of the population of a community has said disease, we talk about: 
 Options:  <1> Holoendemia <2> Hyperendemia <3> Mesoendemia. <4> Hypoendemia <5> Pandemic.
Output: 3
Question: Taking into account the WHO classification of methods and means of education for health, campaigns to prevent traffic accidents carried out on television are considered a method: 
 Options:  <1> Indirect and visual <2> Direct and visual <3> Indirect and audiovisual. <4> Mixed. <5> Mixed, sound, visual and audiovisual.
Output: 3
Question: According to the article 15 of the Law of Prevention of Labor Risks, it is NOT considered a principle in the preventive activity: 
 Options:  <1> Avoid the risks and fight them from their origin. <2> Adapt the job to the person. <3> Adopt measures that put individual protection before collective protection. <4> Substitute the dangerous for what it means little or no danger. <5> Training of workers
Output: 3
Question: The least effective prevention measure in the appearance of an outbreak of salmonellosis is: 
 Options:  <1> Active immunization to the population at risk. <2> Rigorous and frequent hand washing, as well as utensils and surfaces that will be used for cooking. <3> Keep food in the refrigerator. <4> Cook food with sufficient temperature (at least 70ºC). <5> Quick refrigeration of cooked foods.
Output: 1
Question: In the health diagnosis of a community, if the objective is to know how the environment influences the community, the indicator that must be included in the analysis is: 
 Options:  <1> Unemployment rate. <2> Geographic characteristics. <3> General structure of the population. <4> Fertility rate. <5> Population correctly vaccinated.
Output: 2
Question: Point out the INCORRECT response in relation to the Portfolio of Primary Care Services: 
 Options:  <1> It is the selection of services prioritized and organized in a specific way, which responds exclusively to health policy priorities. <2> The basic unit of the Portfolio of Services is a set of activities or action criteria that guide the attention to a problem or process of clinical or preventive health with specification of the population to which it is directed. <3> The general structure may have variants depending on the service in question or the different Autonomous Communities. <4> Its purpose is to promote the attention of the most frequent and relevant processes in PA in accordance with agreed scientific and technical criteria. <5> It reduces the avoidable clinical variability and facilitates equity in the provision of services.
Output: 1
Question: Among the sources used to make the diagnosis of health of a community, it is essential to know: 
 Options:  <1> Census of the population. <2> Notifiable diseases registration. <3> Potable water supply. <4> Waiting lists. <5> All are correct.
Output: 5
Question: The quotient between the number of live births registered in a year and the female population of reproductive age (15-49 years) refers to the concept of: 
 Options:  <1> Crude birth rate. <2> General fertility rate. <3> Synthetic fertility index. <4> Gross reproduction rate. <5> Net reproduction rate.
Output: 2
Question: If in an epidemiological study, the participating population has voluntariness as an inclusion criterion, the validity of the results are subject to a bias of: 
 Options:  <1> Information. <2> Confusion. <3> Selection. <4> Interpretation. <5> Publication.
Output: 3
Question: A 55-year-old man came to the nursing consultation for follow-up of newly diagnosed hypertension. In the assessment he says that he smokes 15 cigars a day. Taking advantage of the opportunity of the consultation, the nurse provides information on the importance of quitting smoking and offers support if you decide to quit. This type of EpS intervention is considered: 
 Options:  <1> Advice / Information. <2> Individual attention <3> Health promotion. <4> EpS sued. <5> All are correct.
Output: 1
Question: Among the epidemiological criteria of causality defined by Bradford Hill (1965) is NOT: 
 Options:  <1> Strength of association. <2> Temporal sequence. <3> Biological gradient <4> Cessation or reversibility effect. <5> Presence of alternative explanations.
Output: 5
Question: The results of the evaluation of a prevention program carried out in a specific context, environment and population refer to the concept of: 
 Options:  <1> Effectiveness. <2> Efficiency. <3> Effectiveness. <4> Feasibility. <5> Sustainability
Output: 1
Question: The demographic dynamics of a community is determined by: 
 Options:  <1> Natality <2> Mortality. <3> Immigration. <4> Emigration. <5> All are correct.
Output: 5
Question: It is NOT considered a tertiary prevention intervention in a situation of mistreatment of women: 
 Options:  <1> Perform a periodic and systematic assessment of the indicators of abuse risk. <2> Perform a comprehensive physical assessment (injuries produced), psychological (emotional state) and social (social support networks). <3> If there is an immediate life risk, an urgent transfer to the hospital or to the guardhouse will be necessary. <4> Contact and inform the pediatrician if the woman has children, both because of the potential risk (when witnessing the abuse) and the possibility of being victims of it. <5> Inform of the legal steps.
Output: 1
Question: Which of the following manifestations is an emergency for the pregnant woman ?: 
 Options:  <1> Appearance of varicose veins <2> Leucorrhea <3> Polaquiuria. <4> Intense headache <5> Sickness.
Output: 4
Question: C. S. who is 40 weeks pregnant and gets rubella, consult with the nurse your doubts about whether you can breastfeed the newborn. What will be the response of the nurse ?: 
 Options:  <1> It is totally contraindicated. <2> The disease is compatible and also vaccination with breastfeeding. <3> You must wait until the baby is 15 days old. <4> It depends on the viral load. <5> Breastfeeding will begin 3 days after putting the gammaglobulin to the baby.
Output: 2
Question: Between 24 and 36 hours after the peak of release of the hormone LH occurs, it is triggered: 
 Options:  <1> The menstruation. <2> Maturation of the Graaf follicle. <3> The ovulation <4> Oogenesis <5> The formation of the primordial follicle.
Output: 3
Question: In the Pap test, cytological samples should be collected from: 
 Options:  <1> The vulva, the cervix and the inside of the uterine cavity. <2> The vaginal walls and the uterine fundus. <3> The inside of the cervix, the external cervical os and the posterior vaginal sac. <4> The vaginal introitus and the ectocervix. <5> The endocervix and the lateral vaginal sacs.
Output: 3
Question: Due to its high mercury content, the Spanish Agency for Food Safety and Nutrition recommends pregnant women not to consume: 
 Options:  <1> Mature soft cheeses, type Brie or Camembert. <2> Pate or foie gras. <3> Large fatty fish. <4> Raw sausages <5> Green leaf vegetables.
Output: 3
Question: The effect of anti-D gammaglobulin given to Rh negative women who have developed an Rh positive fetus is: 
 Options:  <1> Eliminate fetal red blood cells from maternal blood. <2> Destroy the antigens formed by the mother's immune system. <3> Avoid the formation of anti-Rh negative antibodies. <4> Induce the formation of maternal antibodies against fetal antigen. <5> Provide the woman with permanent active immunity.
Output: 1
Question: In a woman with hyperemesis gravidarum, the appearance of: 
 Options:  <1> Convulsive crisis. <2> Hyperglycemia <3> Dehydration <4> Abruptio placentae <5> Polyuria
Output: 3
Question: For the care of the nipple cracks during lactation it is recommended: 
 Options:  <1> Washed with water and neutral pH soap after each feeding. <2> Spread a few drops of milk and let air dry after the tetada. <3> The use of healing ointments. <4> 70º alcohol applied through sterile gauze between shots. <5> Apply cold between shots.
Output: 2
Question: In relation to toxoplasmosis and pregnancy, indicate which of the following options is true: 
 Options:  <1> Placental transmission to the fetus can occur. <2> The rate of antibodies should be detected at the beginning of pregnancy and, in their absence, vaccination with killed virus vaccine should be carried out. <3> The infection is less severe but more frequent the younger the pregnant woman is. <4> In our environment, the main cause of infection is the coexistence and management of domestic birds. <5> The infection occurs intrapartum, favored by the rupture of the amniotic sac.
Output: 1
Question: A child with gluten intolerance asks the nurse what trinkets she can take when she goes out to play with her friends: 
 Options:  <1> Snacks <2> Chocolates <3> Popcorn. <4> Pastries <5> Candies.
Output: 3
Question: Regarding the exploration of psychomotor development, the area of ​​language and sociability in a four-year-old child, which of the following findings can be considered a sign of alarm in the maturation process ?: 
 Options:  <1> Abrupt stop of the acquisition of skills or loss of some already acquired. <2> Hyperactivity He does not know how to entertain himself, he needs constant vigilance. <3> Excessive sociability; he goes with anyone indiscriminately. <4> Repeat questions instead of answering them. <5> All these situations are warning signs.
Output: 5
Question: The presence of foreign bodies such as small buttons, sunflower seeds, etc., in the respiratory tract in young children is a relatively frequent accident. Point out the signs that appear when these objects are lodged in the lower respiratory tract: 
 Options:  <1> Episodes of cough, hoarseness and dyspnea. <2> Chronic cough, hypoventilation on auscultation, signs of infection. <3> Asphyxia, dyspnea, cyanosis, respiratory failure. <4> Fever, cough and dysphonia. <5> Tachypnea, increased respiratory effort.
Output: 2
Question: Of the following scales of pain assessment in childhood, which is recommended for school children aged 7 to 8 ?: 
 Options:  <1> NFCS scale. <2> Numerical or analog scale. <3> CHEOPS scale. <4> Scale Oucher. <5> Ladder of Wong and Baker.
Output: 2