niryuu/sni-each-converted huggingface dataset:
Question: The maximum urinary excretion of a drug refers to: 
 Options:  <1> The maximum concentration of unchanged drug in urine. <2> The maximum speed at which the drug can be excreted unchanged by urine. <3> The amount of urine collected after 7 biological half-lives after the administration of the drug. <4> The total amount of drug that is excreted unaltered in urine after the administration of a certain dose. <5> The amount of unchanged drug recovered in urine at 24 hours after the administration of a certain dose.
Output: 4
Question: For a drug to permeate through the cornea, you must: 
 Options:  <1> Be totally ionized. <2> Present a very high polarity. <3> Join the lysozyme that is present in the tear fluid. <4> Present a certain lipophilicity and a minimum degree of water solubility. <5> Have weak acid character.
Output: 4
Question: According to the Biopharmaceutical Classification System, a drug that has low permeability and high solubility, such as cimetidine, is a drug of: 
 Options:  <1> Class I. <2> Class II <3> Class III <4> Class IV. <5> Class V.
Output: 3
Question: What dose should you administer orally every 12 hours of a drug whose plasma clearance is equal to 1 L / h if you want to reach an average concentration of 10mg / L equilibrium? Assume complete bioavailability (F = 1): 
 Options:  <1> 120 mg. <2> 12 mg. <3> 200 mg. <4> 10 mg. <5> With this information it is not possible to estimate the dose necessary to reach this equilibrium concentration.
Output: 1
Question: How much drug has been eliminated when 3 elimination half-lives have elapsed if 100 mg of drug has been administered IV via bolus and is adjusted to a monocompartmental model with first-order elimination: 
 Options:  <1> 87.5 mg. <2> 12.5 mg. <3> 75 mg. <4> 25 mg. <5> 50 mg.
Output: 1
Question: What speed of perfusion of a drug should you administer to achieve a plasma equilibrium concentration of 10 mg / L knowing that it has a plasma clearance of 500 mL / h? (continuous perfusion): 
 Options:  <1> 50 mg / h. <2> 5 mL / h. <3> 100 mg / h. <4> 100 mg / mL. <5> 5 mg / h.
Output: 5
Question: The independent parameter of the dissolution model, the solution efficiency, has two limitations. One of them is that the last experimental point has an arbitrary nature. What is the other limitation ?: 
 Options:  <1> At least 50% of the dose must be dissolved. <2> At least 60% of the dose must be dissolved. <3> At least 75% of the dose must be dissolved. <4> At least 80% of the dose must be dissolved. <5> At least 90% of the dose must be dissolved.
Output: 5
Question: Which of the following factors does not influence the permeation of drugs through the stratum corneum ?: 
 Options:  <1> Degree of ionization of the drug. <2> Fixation to the tear fluid proteins. <3> Osmolarity of tears. <4> Instilled volume. <5> Ocular Pigmentation.
Output: 3
Question: Which of the following pharmacokinetic characteristics of aminoglycoside antibiotics is not correct: 
 Options:  <1> They are not absorbed practically in the gastrointestinal tract of normal patients. <2> They are absorbed in patients with severe renal insufficiency. <3> They have a very slow distribution phase. <4> They are not metabolized. <5> They present a second phase of very slow elimination.
Output: 3
Question: The magnitude of the steady state plasma concentration that is reached when a monocompartmental drug is administered in continuous perfusion is conditioned by: 
 Options:  <1> The time the perfusion is maintained. <2> The relationship between the rate of drug entry into the body (mg / h) and the elimination rate constant. <3> The relationship between the speed of entry to the body (mg / h) and the half-life of elimination of the drug. <4> The relationship between the speed of entry to the body (mg / h) and plasma clearance. <5> The administration of a rapid intravenous shock dose at the start of treatment.
Output: 4
Question: Point out the correct answer in relation to the monitoring of plasma drug concentrations: 
 Options:  <1> Allergy reactions are related to the dose administered. <2> The extraction of the blood sample must be done once the balance of drug distribution in the organism has been reached. <3> The information provided by the analytical determination of plasma concentration is sufficient to perform the dosage individualization. <4> Only the immunoassay methods are valid for carrying out the analytical determination of the blood samples. <5> It must be done for all drugs that are administered intravenously.
Output: 2
Question: A drug with a seemingly monocompartmental distribution pattern is administered in the form of i.v. perfusion. at a constant speed of 20 mg / h for 48 h. Once the perfusion is finished, three blood samples are taken, which, when analyzed, allow the calculation of the primary parameters of the model Kel = 0.0495 h-1, concentration at the end of the perfusion (C48h) = 5,553 μg / mL, Vd = 66 L. At what time would the steady state be reached ?: 
 Options:  <1> 14 h. <2> 28 h. <3> 42 h. <4> 56 h. <5> 70 h.
Output: 5
Question: Which of the following administration routes are commonly used for drugs of a peptide and protein nature ?: 
 Options:  <1> Oral. <2> Intravenous, intramuscular and subcutaneous. <3> Oral, intravenous and subcutaneous. <4> Oral, intranasal and inhalation. <5> Oral, intramuscular and intranasal.
Output: 2
Question: Which of the following pharmacokinetic characteristics of rosiglitazone is NOT correct ?: 
 Options:  <1> It has a bioavailability of 99% <2> The inactive metabolites are eliminated by urine after conjugation or in the form of sulfates. <3> It should not be prescribed in patients with liver disease. <4> It is necessary to readjust your dosage in the presence of kidney disease. <5> It should not be prescribed to the nursing mother.
Output: 4
Question: One of the following enzymes is classified as MAL: 
 Options:  <1> Lactate dehydrogenase - Oxidoreductase. <2> Chymotrypsin - Hydrolase. <3> Fumarasa - Liasa. <4> Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase - Ligase <5> Nucleoside monophosphate kinase - Isomerase.
Output: 5
Question: Insulin decreases the expression of the gene: 
 Options:  <1> Fosfofructoquinasa-1. <2> Pyruvate kinase. <3> Pyruvate dehydrogenase. <4> Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase. <5> Acetyl-CoA carboxylase.
Output: 4
Question: Hepatic glycolysis differs from muscle glycolysis in that: 
 Options:  <1> A low blood glucose concentration results in the inhibition of hepatic pyruvate kinase but not of muscle. <2> Hexative hexokinase has more affinity for glucose than muscle hexokinase. <3> The glycolytic enzymes in the liver are located in the cytoplasm, while in the muscle they are in cytoplasms and mitochondria. <4> Hepatic glycolysis is anaerobic, while muscle glycolysis is aerobic. <5> The final product of hepatic glycolysis is acetyl-CoA, while in muscle glycolysis that pyruvate.
Output: 1
Question: What two non-protein amino acids participate in the urea cycle ?: 
 Options:  <1> Proline and hydroxyproline. <2> Ornithine and citrulline. <3> Alanine and arginine. <4> Oxalacetate and malate. <5> Serine and GABA.
Output: 2
Question: Heparin is: 
 Options:  <1> A plasma protein with no net charge with coagulant function. <2> A glycosaminoglycan with high density of sulphate groups in its structure and anticoagulant function. <3> A protease that facilitates the transformation of prothrombin into thrombin. <4> An extracellular matrix protein with no net charge, which gives rise to highly viscous solutions with a lubricating function. <5> A homopolysaccharide with anticoagulant function thanks to the high density of positive charges in its structure.
Output: 2
Question: Protein kinase A (PKA): 
 Options:  <1> It induces the synthesis of glycogen in response to an increase in glucagon in the blood. <2> It is a membrane protein that is activated in response to an increase in circulating GTP. <3> It is activated through the cAMP produced in response to an increase in adrenaline in the circulation. <4> It inhibits the lipolysis of triacylglycerides accumulated in adipose tissue, in response to an increase in intracellular cAMP. <5> It is a monomeric protein that inhibits the synthesis of ATP and muscle contraction.
Output: 3
Question: Malonyl-CoA produced in 
 Options:  <1> the beta-oxidation of fatty acids, inhibits the fatty acid synthase complex. <2> the citric acid cycle inhibits beta-oxidation. <3> the respiratory chain, inhibits the absorption of lipids during digestion. <4> the synthesis of fatty acids, inhibits beta-oxidation. <5> the synthesis of triacylglycerides, inhibits the production of cholesterol.
Output: 4
Question: Which coenzyme acts as an inhibitor of the citric acid cycle (or tricarboxylic acid cycle): 
 Options:  <1> Lipoic acid. <2> Ascorbic acid. <3> Biocytin. <4> Coenzyme Q. <5> NADH + H +.
Output: 5
Question: Glucocorticoids are hormones that are synthesized from: 
 Options:  <1> Cholesterol. <2> Glucose. <3> Glucagon. <4> Insulin. <5> Hill.
Output: 1
Question: The oxidation of fatty acids in cells of higher plants takes place in: 
 Options:  <1> Endoplasmic reticulum. <2> Chloroplasts <3> Peroxisomes <4> Citosol <5> Mitochondria
Output: 3
Question: One of the following types of transport through membranes does NOT exist: 
 Options:  <1> Ion transport facilitated by ionophore (against electrochemical gradient). <2> Facilitated diffusion (in favor of electrochemical gradient) <3> Primary active transport (against electrochemical gradient). <4> Ionic channel (in favor of electrochemical gradient). <5> Simple diffusion (in favor of concentration gradient).
Output: 1
Question: One of the following coenzyme ratios with chemical groups transferred is NOT correct: 
 Options:  <1> Biocitin - CO2. <2> Coenzyme A - acyl groups. <3> Flavin adenine dinucleotide - electrons. <4> Thiamine pyrophosphate - amino groups. <5> Tetrahydrofolate - monocarbonated groups.
Output: 4
Question: The structure of one of the following globular proteins is mostly in alpha helix and lacks beta sheet: 
 Options:  <1> Myoglobin <2> Chymotrypsin <3> Ribonuclease. <4> Lysozyme <5> Carboxypeptidase
Output: 1
Question: How many macromolecular complexes form the electronic transport chain ?: 
 Options:  <1> 6 macromolecular complexes. <2> 5 macromolecular complexes. <3> 4 macromolecular complexes. <4> 3 macromolecular complexes. <5> 2 macromolecular complexes.
Output: 3
Question: All components of the respiratory chain: 
 Options:  <1> They pump protons. <2> They exchange electrons. <3> They are high molecular weight complexes. <4> They are membrane proteins. <5> They are soluble.
Output: 2
Question: Which of the following sequences is added during the maturation or processing of the eukaryotic transfer RNA ?: 
 Options:  <1> Splicing site 5 'of the intron. <2> CCA sequence of amino acid charge. <3> Anticodon <4> 3 'splicing site of the intron. <5> Leading sequence of the 5 'end.
Output: 2
Question: Histone deacetylases (HDAC) promote: 
 Options:  <1> A less condensed chromatin. <2> A weaker link between histones and DNA in nucleosomes. <3> The acetylation of lysine residues in histones. <4> That the poly (A) tail of the histone messenger RNAs be more extensive. <5> The termination of the transcription and the genetic silencing.
Output: 5
Question: The mission of the spliceosome is: 
 Options:  <1> Ensure that the transfer RNAs adopt the trefoil configuration. <2> Prevent ribosomes from entering the nucleus. <3> Perform polyadenylation of messenger RNA (mRNA). <4> Degrade defective proteins. <5> Facilitate the maturation of the mRNA precursor, since it approximates the splice points.
Output: 5
Question: The primosome: 
 Options:  <1> It is also called primasa or Dna G protein. <2> It is the complex responsible for the synthesis of the Okazaki fragments. <3> It is a bacterial DNA ligase. <4> It is located in the mitochondria. <5> It is a functional unit of the bacterial replication complex.
Output: 5
Question: In the replication of the eukaryotic genes it participates: 
 Options:  <1> The Dna A and Dna B proteins <2> The complex of six proteins called ORC. <3> The eight protein complex called Dam methylase. <4> The MutL-MutS complex. <5> The MutH complex.
Output: 2
Question: The DNA-dependent RNA polymerase of eukaryotes and prokaryotes is inhibited by: 
 Options:  <1> Rifampicin <2> α-Amanitin. <3> Oligomycin. <4> Streptomycin. <5> Actinomycin D.
Output: 5
Question: In protein biosynthesis, base pairing takes place during the translation process between: 
 Options:  <1> RNA and DNA. <2> DNA and ribosomal RNA. <3> The transfer RNA and the ribosomal RNA. <4> The messenger RNA and the transfer RNA. <5> 18S ribosomal RNA and 5S ribosomal RNA.
Output: 4
Question: The synthesis of a human protein by a bacterium, to which human DNA has been introduced, demonstrates that: 
 Options:  <1> Evolution can be questioned. <2> Bacteria can acquire nucleus. <3> The genetic code is universal. <4> The human proteins are identical to the proteins of the bacteria. <5> The bacteria can be pathogenic.
Output: 3
Question: What consequence of RNA bases will be produced when the AGGCCTTTACGC DNA fragment is transcribed ?: 
 Options:  <1> TCCGGAAATGCG. <2> AGGCCUUUACGC. <3> UGGCCUUUUGCG <4> UGGCCUUUUCGC. <5> UCCGGAAAUGCG.
Output: 5
Question: The RISC complex (RNA-induced silencing complex) of RNA silencing based on interference RNA: 
 Options:  <1> It degrades the guide strand of the small interfering RNA molecules (siRNA). <2> It recognizes defective proteins and promotes their degradation. <3> It has a structure similar to the ribosome, formed by numerous RNAs and proteins. <4> It is formed, among others, by the Dicer protein, a type III ribonuclease. <5> It is part of both the interference mechanism of the siRNA and the microRNA.
Output: 5
Question: What type of enzymatic activity does primase present in DNA replication ?: 
 Options:  <1> RNA polymerase <2> Helicasa <3> DNA polymerase <4> RNA ligase. <5> DNA ligase.
Output: 1
Question: Analyzing several DNA polymerases involved in the replication of E. coli, one of them was found that had low processivity and low synthesis speed, what enzyme could be treated ?: 
 Options:  <1> DNA pol I. <2> DNA B. <3> DNA pol III. <4> Primasa. <5> DNA gyrase.
Output: 1
Question: Ribosomes have three binding sites for the transfer RNAs (RNAs), which are: 
 Options:  <1> Site A of acetyl, P of propyl and E of ethyl. <2> A site of aminoacyl, P of peptidyl and E of exit (from English, exit). <3> A site of aminoacyl, peptidyl P and transferase T of the peptide. <4> Site A of previous, P of posterior and E of entry (of English, entry). <5> A site of aminoacyl, peptidyl P and terminating T.
Output: 2
Question: Given three DNA molecules of the same length (A, B and C) and in the same solvent, but with different richness in terms of G + C content (A: 50%, B: 60%, and C: 75% ), How would your melting temperatures (Tm) be ?: 
 Options:  <1> A> B> C. <2> Being in the same solvent, they would be the same in all three cases. <3> The DNA molecule C would not belong to a thermophilic bacterium, given its lower Tm. <4> C> B> A. <5> You can not know with the information of the statement.
Output: 4
Question: In which part of the cell is ribosomal RNA synthesized ?: 
 Options:  <1> Nucleolo. <2> Ribosomes <3> Vacuolas <4> Golgi apparatus. <5> Endoplasmic reticulum.
Output: 1
Question: The differential modification of RNA: 
 Options:  <1> It can result in multiple products from one gene. <2> It occurs thanks to the transcription bubble. <3> It is catalyzed by RNA polymerase I. <4> It is catalyzed by RNA polymerase II. <5> It is catalyzed by RNA polymerase III.
Output: 1
Question: The structures of the condensed chromosomes are maintained by: 
 Options:  <1> Topoisomerases <2> Nucleolus proteins. <3> Fragments of Okazaki. <4> SMC proteins. <5> DNMT1 protein.
Output: 4
Question: In a determination of the activity of an enzyme, the depletion of the substrate: 
 Options:  <1> It is essential for most trials. <2> It may give falsely low results in sera with high enzymatic activity. <3> It occurs when the reagent is finished. <4> It occurs due to a defect in the spectrophotometer. <5> It can lead to falsely elevated results in sera with high enzymatic activity.
Output: 2
Question: From the following answers, which best defines a patient with microalbuminuria: 
 Options:  <1> Presence of renal disease in the terminal stage. <2> Nephrotic disease <3> Predictive diabetic nephropathy. <4> Glomerulonephritis <5> Orthostatic proteinuria
Output: 3
Question: Synovial fluid from patients with gout often contains: 
 Options:  <1> Hippuric acid crystals. <2> Tyrosine crystals. <3> Triple phosphate crystals. <4> Urate crystals. <5> Calcium oxalate crystals.
Output: 4
Question: The syndrome of inadequate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by: 
 Options:  <1> Hyponatremia <2> Hypovolemia <3> Concentrations of sodium ion in urine less than 20 mmol / L. <4> Osmolality in urine less than serum osmolality. <5> High concentrations of calcium ion.
Output: 1
Question: The determination of the concentration of one of the following proteins in serum can give us information of a possible hemolytic anemia. Indicate which: 
 Options:  <1> Transferrin <2> Hemosiderin. <3> Ceruloplasmin. <4> Ferritin. <5> Haptoglobin.
Output: 5
Question: Being the standard deviation and the number of data, the standard error of the mean, Sm, of a data set is: √𝑠 
 Options:  <1> 𝑆𝑚 = 𝑁 . <2> 𝑆𝑚 = 𝑠 𝑁 . 𝑁 <3> 𝑆𝑚 = √𝑠 . √𝑠 <4> 𝑆𝑚 = √𝑁 . 𝑠 <5> 𝑆𝑚 = √𝑁 .
Output: 5
Question: The extraction technique that is used for gas chromatographic determinations in which the analyte is desorbed or thermally desorbed is called: 
 Options:  <1> Liquid-liquid extraction. <2> Extraction in solid phase. <3> Microextraction in solid phase. <4> Subextraction in solid phase. <5> Crystallization.
Output: 3
Question: The cyclotron ion resonance by Fourier transform is the basis of: 
 Options:  <1> A mass ionization system useful for elementary analysis. <2> A system of atomization that is applied in atomic absorption for elements capable of generating hydrides. <3> A mass analyzer. <4> A system for introducing the sample in plasma emission spectrometry. <5> A detector system in mass spectrometry.
Output: 3
Question: Affinity chromatography is characterized because: 
 Options:  <1> It is a modality of gas chromatography. <2> It is similar to paper chromatography. <3> It is a separation process based on the very selective or specific interactions that exist between biological macromolecules. <4> It is a technique of separating compounds according to their molecular weight. <5> It is a variant of chromatography that employ relatively non-polar stationary phases and more polar solvents, in contrast to normal phase chromatography.
Output: 3
Question: In what chromatographic mode is the stationary phase formed by solid particles with controlled pore size? : 
 Options:  <1> Chromatography of distribution in normal phase. <2> Distribution chromatography in reverse phase. <3> Ion pair chromatography. <4> Ion exchange chromatography. <5> Chromatography of molecular exclusion or size.
Output: 5
Question: The generation of the cold vapor is a form of introduction of the sample for the atomization that is used in atomic absorption spectrometry (EAA) to analyze: 
 Options:  <1> Lead and Arsenic. <2> Mercury. <3> Elements that have a low vapor pressure at room temperature. <4> Halogens of high molecular weight. <5> Alcalinotérreos.
Output: 2
Question: In certain cases it is necessary to carry out previous treatments with oxidizing or reducing agents in redox evaluations in order to: 
 Options:  <1> Transform the analyte to an adequate oxidation state for subsequent evaluation. <2> Ensure that all the analyte is in solution. <3> Prepare the indicator solution so that it correctly rotates at the end point. <4> Make the reaction between titrator and analyte complete. <5> Improve the accuracy of the assessment.
Output: 1
Question: The quality of a spectrum can be defined: 
 Options:  <1> Based on the relationship between the intensities of the bands containing information (S) and noise (R). <2> Based on the selected wavelength. <3> Only in function of the analytical signal. <4> Depending on the relationship between wavelength and noise. <5> Based on very low frequency noise.
Output: 1
Question: The absorbance of a medium solution at the isosbestic point is that determined to: 
 Options:  <1> The wavelength at which the molar absorption coefficients of two absorbent species in chemical equilibrium, interconvertible to each other, are equivalent. <2> The wavelength at which the molar absorption coefficients of two absorbing species in chemical equilibrium are not equivalent. <3> The wavelength at which the acid form of an indicator is maximum. <4> The wavelength at which the acid form of an indicator is minimal. <5> The wavelength of the species that participate in the equilibrium when it is displaced towards longer wavelengths.
Output: 1
Question: The use of the standard addition method in the calibration of an instrumental analysis method is recommended: 
 Options:  <1> Whenever possible <2> When analyzing complex samples in which important matrix effects are likely to occur and you want to minimize them. <3> When you want to determine very high concentrations of analyte. <4> When you want to use a dilution factor. <5> In automated acid-base volumetries.
Output: 2
Question: 𝐸𝑎 According to the Arrhenius equation, k = 𝐴𝑒 𝑅𝑇 
 Options:  <1> The kinetic constant (k) decreases with increasing temperature. <2> The pre-exponential factor (A) is dimensionless. <3> In reactions with higher activation energy (Ea), the kinetic constant (k) depends enormously on the temperature. <4> The pre-exponential factor (A) and the kinetic constant (k) are inversely proportional. <5> The Arrhenius parameters are the kinetic constant (k) and the preexponential factor (A).
Output: 3
Question: The ethanol-water mixture has an azeotrope, this means that: 
 Options:  <1> From a certain concentration, the two liquids are immiscible. <2> The mixture has a minimum co-solution temperature. <3> Both components comply with Raoult's law. <4> The mixture is frozen at a single temperature. <5> Once the azeotropic composition is reached, the two liquids can not be separated by distillation.
Output: 5
Question: When dissolving a non-volatile solute in a solvent forming a diluted solution, it is observed: 
 Options:  <1> An increase in the freezing temperature of the solvent. <2> An increase in the boiling temperature of the solvent. <3> An increase in the vapor pressure of the solvent. <4> An increase in the chemical potential of the solvent. <5> A change in colligative properties depending on the type of solute.
Output: 2
Question: The triple point of water is at 273.16 K and 611 Pascals: 
 Options:  <1> In no other combination of pressure and temperature it is possible to find the three phases of water in equilibrium. <2> Under these conditions, liquid and vapor become indistinguishable. <3> The sublimation process occurs at a pressure greater than 611 pascals. <4> It is not possible to find steam above 611 Pascals. <5> It is not possible to find water in solid state below 273.16 K.
Output: 1
Question: A spontaneous process is characterized because: 
 Options:  <1> In isolated systems the entropy decreases (ΔS <0). <2> At constant pressure and temperature, the Gibbs energy decreases (ΔG <0). <3> At constant pressure and temperature, the Helmholtz energy decreases (ΔA <0). <4> At constant volume and temperature, the Gibbs energy increases (ΔG> 0). <5> It is reversible.
Output: 2
Question: The work of expanding a gas (W): 
 Options:  <1> It is a state function. <2> Equivalent to the heat associated with the process (Q). <3> Against constant pressure it is calculated with W = -Pext ΔV. <4> In a reversible isothermal process it is calculated with W = -nRTΔV. <5> Equivalent to the internal energy change during the process (ΔU)
Output: 3
Question: The black indicator of Eriochrome T (N.E.T.) has the following colors depending on the pH: 
 Options:  <1> H2In¯rojo, HIn2- blue, In3- orange and when complexed with metal it is red. <2> H2In¯azul, HIn2- red, In3- orange and when complexed with metal it is red. <3> H2In¯rojo, HIn2- blue, In3- red wine and when complexed with metal it is orange. <4> H2In-red, HIn2- orange, In3- blue and when complexed with metal it is orange. <5> H2In¯azul, HIn2- orange, In3- red and when complexed with metal is orange.
Output: 1
Question: In the treatment of an overdose of paracetamol is used: 
 Options:  <1> Flumazenil. <2> Edetato sodium calcium. <3> Pralidoxime <4> N-acetylcysteine. <5> Nitro of amyl.
Output: 4
Question: The toxicological interest of the hair is due to: 
 Options:  <1> His analysis allows to know the toxic exposure in the past. <2> The change in their coloration can facilitate the diagnosis of poisoning. <3> It constitutes an effective protective barrier against the action of corrosives. <4> Its growth is interrupted by the chronic consumption of amphetamines. <5> Hair analysis is of no interest in Toxicology.
Output: 1
Question: The carcinogenic action of Benzo (a) pyrene: 
 Options:  <1> It is due to the production of oxygen free radicals. <2> It is due to its biotransformation in a dihydrodiol. <3> It is due to its biotransformation in an epoxide. <4> It increases in tissues rich in epoxide hydrolase. <5> It diminishes in tissues rich in cytochrome P450.
Output: 3
Question: Aminoglycosides can produce: 
 Options:  <1> Hepatotoxicity <2> Hematological abnormalities. <3> Adrenal toxicity. <4> Ocular toxicity. <5> Kidney toxicity.
Output: 5
Question: The Iperite or mustard gas is a: 
 Options:  <1> Vesicant agent. <2> Biological weapon <3> Phytotoxic agent. <4> Incendiary agent <5> Neurotoxic agent.
Output: 1
Question: The value of the admitted daily intake (ADI) of a food additive can be calculated from the following previously obtained data in animals: 
 Options:  <1> Level with no observed adverse effect (NOAEL). <2> Lower level with observed adverse effect (LOAEL). <3> Safety margin (MOS). <4> Toxic interval (IT). <5> Toxicity limit value (TLV).
Output: 1
Question: In toxicology, the probability of adverse effects, harmful to health, from exposure to a toxic agent is known as: 
 Options:  <1> Danger. <2> Exposition. <3> Risk. <4> Answer. <5> Effect.
Output: 3
Question: The excitotoxins activate: 
 Options:  <1> Nicotinic receptors <2> GABAA receptors <3> Glycine receptors. <4> NMDA receivers. <5> Na + channels dependent on voltage.
Output: 4
Question: The main method for the preparation of βceto esters is the reaction known as: 
 Options:  <1> Malonic synthesis <2> Acetoacetic synthesis. <3> Condensing of Claisen. <4> Perkin reaction. <5> Hofmann reaction.
Output: 3
Question: The reaction of Diels Alder is an example of reaction: 
 Options:  <1> Concerted and stereospecific. <2> Nucleophilic substitution of order 2. <3> Nucleophilic substitution of order 1. <4> Condensation polymerization. <5> Nucleophilic addition.
Output: 1
Question: The p-nitrobenzoic acid is: 
 Options:  <1> Less acid than benzoic acid. <2> Less acid than p-methoxybenzoic acid. <3> More acid than benzoic acid and with lower pKa. <4> More acid than benzoic acid and with higher pKa. <5> Less acid than p-methoxybenzoic acid and with lower pKa.
Output: 3
Question: The reaction of bromine and cyclopentene leads to the production of 1,2-dibromocyclopentane by a mechanism: 
 Options:  <1> Of anti addition. <2> Of addition syn. <3> Substitution SN1. <4> Substitution SN2. <5> Of elimination.
Output: 1
Question: The Grignard reagents attack the epoxides to give, after the appropriate hydrolysis: 
 Options:  <1> Carboxylic acids. <2> Cyclic amides. <3> Open aliphatic chains. <4> Open-chain alcohols. <5> Cyclic ethers.
Output: 4
Question: Esters can be obtained from carboxylic acids and alcohols, by applying the Fischer esterification reaction in which: 
 Options:  <1> A base is used as a catalyst. <2> A ketone is used as the solvent. <3> A reducing reagent is used. <4> An oxidizing agent is used. <5> Acid catalysis is used.
Output: 5
Question: Which of the following diatomic molecules has the lowest binding energy ?: 
 Options:  <1> N2 <2> H2. <3> I2. <4> O2. <5> Cl2.
Output: 3
Question: Which of the following substances is used as a catalyst in the Contact Process during the manufacture of sulfuric acid ?: 
 Options:  <1> RuO2. <2> V2O5 <3> Cr2O3. <4> RhO2. <5> PdO.
Output: 2
Question: Which of the following molecules has the highest dipole moment ?: 
 Options:  <1> HCI. <2> NH3. <3> HF. <4> CO2 <5> Trans-CHCI = CHCI.
Output: 3
Question: Which of the following molecules has at least a 90º angle ?: 
 Options:  <1> H2O. <2> NH3. <3> CH4 <4> SF4. <5> BF3.
Output: 4
Question: Which of the following molecules has the smallest bond angle ?: 
 Options:  <1> H2O. <2> NH3. <3> CH4 <4> SO2. <5> BF3.
Output: 1
Question: Which statement is true in relation to the Electron Repulsion Model of the Valencia layer applied to AB n molecules: 
 Options:  <1> The AB2 molecules are always linear. <2> The AB6 molecules are always octahedral. <3> The AB3 molecules are always triangular. <4> The AB4 molecules are always tetrahedral. <5> The AB5 molecules are always trigonal bipyramidal.
Output: 2
Question: What cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus synthesize and store renin ?: 
 Options:  <1> The cells of the macula densa. <2> The mesangial cells. <3> The main cells. <4> The juxtaglomerular cells. <5> The cells interspersed.
Output: 4
Question: The thalamus is part of: 
 Options:  <1> The diencephalon <2> The mesencephalon. <3> The telencephalon. <4> The metencephalon. <5> The bulb.
Output: 1
Question: What muscle has one of its origins (proximal insertion) in the coracoid process of the scapula ?: 
 Options:  <1> The triceps brachii. <2> The deltoid <3> The trapeze. <4> The supraspinatus. <5> The biceps brachii.
Output: 5
Question: The only autonomic adrenergic fibers are axons of neurons: 
 Options:  <1> Sympathetic preganglions. <2> Postganglionic sympathetics. <3> Preganglionic parasympathetic. <4> Postganglionic parasympathetic. <5> Parasympathetic ganglion.
Output: 2
Question: The pterygoid process belongs to the bone: 
 Options:  <1> Ethmoid. <2> Zygomatic <3> Temporary. <4> Sphenoids <5> Scapula.
Output: 4
Question: Which of the following structures belongs to the peritoneum ?: 
 Options:  <1> The dura mater. <2> The greater omentum. <3> The pleura <4> The pericardium. <5> The spleen
Output: 2
Question: We want to compare the means of two populations that follow normal distributions and have the same variance. We take two samples of size n1 and n2. When constructing a confidence interval we will have to calculate a value t for a Student's T distribution with: 
 Options:  <1> 2 degrees of freedom. <2> n1 + n2 - 2 degrees of freedom. <3> (n1 + n2) - 1 degrees of freedom. <4> (n1 x n2) / 2 degrees of freedom. <5> Degrees of freedom calculated with the formula of Welch or Smith-Satterwhite.
Output: 2
Question: Which of the following statistics is NOT affected by outliers in a sample ?: 
 Options:  <1> Sample mean. <2> Standard deviation. <3> Variance <4> Interquartile range. <5> Rank.
Output: 4
Question: We take sample of five individuals to whom we measure the LDL cholesterol value (mg / ml) obtaining: 180, 203, 104, 90 and 165. What is the median of this sample ?: 
 Options:  <1> 180 <2> 203 <3> 104 <4> 90 <5> 165
Output: 5
Question: The utility value corresponding to a state of health, which can be used later in a cost-utility study, generally has a value: 
 Options:  <1> Between 0 and 1. <2> Between 0 and 10 <3> Between 0 and 100. <4> Between -10 and +10. <5> Between -100 and +100.
Output: 1
Question: The objective of using the economic evaluation in the decision making process regarding drug financing is: 
 Options:  <1> Decrease spending on medicines. <2> Be more efficient <3> Be more effective <4> Use the safest drugs. <5> Use the drugs with the best benefit-risk balance.
Output: 2
Question: Indicate the correct option regarding the defined daily dose of a medicine: 
 Options:  <1> Corresponds to the maximum daily dose. <2> Corresponds to the initial dose of a treatment. <3> Corresponds to the maintenance dose for the indication that requires a lower dose. <4> Corresponds to the average daily maintenance dose. <5> Corresponds to the initial dose for the main indication.
Output: 4
Question: A medicine produced and guaranteed by a pharmacist, or under his direction, dispensed in his pharmacy or pharmacy service, listed and described by the National Form, and intended for direct delivery to the sick to whom such pharmacy or pharmaceutical service supplies is: 
 Options:  <1> Master formula <2> Prepared office. <3> Prefabricated medication <4> Intermediate product. <5> Medical device.
Output: 2
Question: Free samples of industrially manufactured medicines are considered exceptional publicity; as such, they will only be delivered during a maximum time of: 
 Options:  <1> One year from the date of authorization of the medication. <2> Five years from the date of authorization of the medication. <3> Six months from the date of authorization of the medication. <4> Two years from the date of authorization of the medication. <5> One month from the date of authorization of the medication.
Output: 4
Question: Pharmaceutical planning, in Spain, is the responsibility of: 
 Options:  <1> The municipal authorities. <2> The Interterritorial Council of the National Health System. <3> The county entities. <4> The state administration. <5> The autonomous communities.
Output: 5
Question: The molecules of the CD1 family (CD1a, CD1b, CD1c, CD1d and CD1e) are expressed in: 
 Options:  <1> All the cells of the organism. <2> Only in dendritic cells. <3> Only in macrophages. <4> Only in monocytes. <5> Some thymocytes, in dendritic cells, in monocytes and macrophages.
Output: 5
Question: The DiGeorge syndrome is linked to: 
 Options:  <1> A defective development of the thymus. <2> An alteration of the secondary lymphoid tissue. <3> An alteration of the M cells <4> A maturation defect of B lymphocytes <5> An alteration in the regulatory systems of the complement.
Output: 1
Question: In relation to the physiology of the complement system, one of the following statements is false: 
 Options:  <1> Most of its components are inactive. <2> Its mode of activation is similar to the coagulation cascade. <3> It is subject to strict control of regulatory mechanisms. <4> It is only activated by two different routes: the classical and the alternative. <5> During its activation, multimolecular complexes are formed.
Output: 4
Question: The CD40 ligand molecule (CD40L or CD154) is expressed in: 
 Options:  <1> Virgin T lymphocytes. <2> Activated T lymphocytes <3> NK lymphocytes. <4> Virgin B lymphocytes. <5> B activated lymphocytes.
Output: 2
Question: The maturation process for the dendritic cell involves important changes in its physiology, such as: 
 Options:  <1> Decreased expression of the CCR7 marker. <2> Reduction of endocytic capacity. <3> Decreased expression of histocompatibility molecules. <4> Synthesis of IL-13. <5> Reduction of CD40 expression.
Output: 2
Question: Only one of the following cell types synthesizes interleukin IL-12; which one?: 
 Options:  <1> Cytotoxic T lymphocytes. <2> NK cells. <3> Myeloid dendritic cells. <4> Helper T lymphocytes. <5> Endothelial cells
Output: 3
Question: In which of the following cell types is the CD3 complex ?: 
 Options:  <1> T lymphocytes. <2> B lymphocytes <3> Eosinophils <4> Follicular dendritic cells. <5> Endothelial cells
Output: 1
Question: The different subpopulations of effector T lymphocytes secrete different cytokines. Which of the following statements is false?: 
 Options:  <1> TH1 lymphocytes secrete IL-3. <2> TH17 lymphocytes secrete IL-6. <3> TH2 lymphocytes secrete IFN-gamma. <4> Cytotoxic T lymphocytes secrete TNFalpha. <5> The regulatory T lymphocytes secrete IL-10.
Output: 3
Question: The MIC-A protein, expressed in various cell types and induced by cellular stress situations, is recognized by: 
 Options:  <1> KIR receivers. <2> The Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC). <3> The NKG2D receptor. <4> B lymphocytes <5> NOD type receivers.
Output: 3
Question: Patient with polyuria and polydipsia with a specific urine density greater than 1.040. From the following options indicate the most probable diagnosis: 
 Options:  <1> Alcohol intoxication <2> Suppression of ADH (vasopressin) by barbiturates. <3> Mellitus diabetes. <4> Lithium toxicity that causes diabetes insipidus. <5> Central deficit of ADH (vasopressin).
Output: 3
Question: Which of the following heterocycles is considered a bioisosterer of the catecholic system ?: 
 Options:  <1> Pyridine <2> Indole. <3> Tetrazol <4> Thiophene <5> Benzimidazole
Output: 5
Question: Suppose that 40% of patients respond to treatment A. The average cost with A for the patients who respond is € 2,000 per patient. The average cost with A for patients who do not respond is € 5,000. What is the expected cost of treatment A for a patient ?: 
 Options:  <1> € 2,000 <2> € 3200 <3> € 3500 <4> € 3,800. <5> € 5,000
Output: 4
Question: Woman 63 years old, hypertensive. When beginning the pharmacological treatment their glycemic values ​​worsen. The antihypertensive pharmacological treatment that this situation may have caused will be: 
 Options:  <1> Fosfinopril. <2> Atenolol. <3> Hydrochlorothiazide. <4> Valsartan <5> Amlodipino
Output: 3
Question: The following metals can be determined by complexometric or chelometric titration: 
 Options:  <1> All without exception. <2> All except transition metals. <3> All except lithium, sodium and potassium. <4> All except alkaline earth metals. <5> All except gold and silver.
Output: 3
Question: In pharmaceutical practice, office alcohol is used that meets the conditions for pharmaceutical use and thus qualifies alcohol: 
 Options:  <1> Of 95º or alcohol of 96º that owns to the exit of factory. <2> 95º or 95º alcohol that it has at the factory outlet. <3> Of greater disinfecting and bactericidal power. <4> Of 100º. <5> Of greater disinfecting power although not bactericidal.
Output: 1
Question: What are the cells of the gastric glands that secrete intrinsic factor called ?: 
 Options:  <1> Main. <2> Parietals <3> Mucous <4> Endocrine <5> Cells of the diffuse neuroendocrine system (SNED).
Output: 2
Question: Within the field of bacteriology, what statement is valid in relation to the phenomenon of phage conversion ?: 
 Options:  <1> It is a consequence of infection by a lytic phage. <2> It does not imply genotypic alterations. <3> It involves the lysogenization of the bacteria by a phage. <4> It does not imply phenotypic alterations. <5> It is a specialized process of conjugation.
Output: 3
Question: Which of the following statements is true with respect to the alkaloid morphine ?: 
 Options:  <1> It is an isoquinoline alkaloid extracted from straw of Papaver somniferum. <2> It is a benzylisoquinol alkaloid extracted from latex of Papaver somniferum. <3> It is a tracheal alkaloid extracted from leaves of Papaver somniferum. <4> It is a quinolizidine alkaloid extracted from capsules of Papaver somniferum. <5> It is a pyrrolidinic alkaloid extracted from roots of Papaver somniferum.
Output: 2
Question: Question linked to image nº1 An 80-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department for acute abdominal pain that is accompanied by hypotension, tachycardia and fever of 38ºC. Between its antecedents it emphasizes a resection of left colon by carcinoma seven days before. After the initial resuscitation, a simple chest radiograph (shown) is performed, which is diagnostic of: 
 Options:  <1> Pneumoperitoneum <2> Intestinal obstruction. <3> Strangled crural hernia. <4> Left pneumothorax <5> Mesenteric ischemia.
Output: 1
Question: Question linked to image No. 1 In the same patient, from the observation of the chest x-ray, it can be deduced: 
 Options:  <1> That the patient has pulmonary metastases. <2> Suspected nosocomial pneumonia. <3> A failure (dehiscence) of the colonic anastomosis should be considered. <4> Suspicion of PET <5> You have an infection of the surgical wound.
Output: 3
Question: Question linked to image nº2 A 65-year-old man with a personal history of chronic alcoholic liver disease in functional stage A of Child in treatment with ibuprofen due to low back pain, presents a picture of red blood hematemesis. Upon his arrival at the emergency room, he presented a blood pressure of 120/60 mm Hg. In the analytical sample, hemoglobin 10 gr / dL, platelets 250,000 / μL, urea 85 mg / dL and creatinine 1.1 mg / dL are the most important data. Urgent endoscopy is performed showing the image. Given these findings, what is the correct answer: 
 Options:  <1> It is only necessary to carry out transfusion of packed red cells and monitor the hemodynamic stability of the patient. <2> The endoscopic findings suggest a Forrest III classification. <3> The placement of bands is the endoscopic treatment of choice since it is a patient with liver disease. <4> It is necessary to perform an endoscopy at 12 o'clock to monitor the possibility of rebleeding in a systematic way. <5> It is necessary to perform endoscopic treatment with adrenaline 1: 10000 associated with the placement of an endoclip.
Output: 5
Question: Question linked to image no. 2 In the case described above and regarding pharmacological treatment, which is the correct statement. 
 Options:  <1> The pharmacological treatment is not necessary since the bleeding lesion has been identified. <2> The ideal treatment for this patient is perfusion of somatostatin since it is a hepatopathic patient. <3> The use of omeprazole at high doses reduces the recurrence of bleeding. <4> Ranitidine is the drug of choice to avoid pharmacological toxicity when dealing with a patient with chronic liver disease. <5> The eradication of Helicobacter pylori is the first measure to be taken.
Output: 3
Question: Question linked to image nº3 58-year-old liver transplant patient with HCV + cirrhosis. After an uncomplicated postoperative period, the patient is referred to his home. Six weeks after the transplant, he was visited in the outpatient clinic, with a low grade of fever, a worsening of the general condition, a GOT level of 60 IU / L (8-40) and a GPT of 65 IU / L (8-50). with a pattern of marked cholestasis (GGT x 10 and FA x 8) with total bilirubin of 1.7 mg / dL (0.3-1). Likewise, a high number of copies of the HCV was appreciated. It was decided to perform a Doppler ultrasound in which a complete arterial thrombosis was reported. In view of these data, a CT scan and a cholangioresonance were requested, the images of which are presented in the figures. For the clinical, analytical and radiological data, indicate which is the most probable diagnosis of the current problem: 
 Options:  <1> Acute rejection mediated by antibodies with associated arterial thrombosis. <2> Early HCV recurrence. <3> Stenosis of the biliary anastomosis. <4> Extensive ischemic injury of intrahepatic bile ducts. <5> Complete thrombosis of intrahepatic portal branches.
Output: 4
Question: Question linked to image nº3 Taking into account the diagnosis made. What is the treatment that the patient will probably need? 
 Options:  <1> Retransplant hepatic. <2> Treatment with Sofosbuvir and Daclatasvir. <3> Hepatic-jejunostomy. <4> Administration of 3 boluses of methylprednisolone and increase in basal immunosuppression. <5> Anticoagulation
Output: 1
Question: Question linked to the image nº4 34-year-old man, athlete, who presents a picture of oppressive, continuous chest pain radiating to the back that is accentuated with deep inspiration, of 4 days of evolution, without fever. It refers to a picture of tonsillitis 2 months ago. Rhythmic cardiac auscultation without murmurs. It does not present data of hemodynamic alteration or heart failure. Normal analytical, except for discrete leukocytosis. When you arrive at the emergency room, an ECG is performed, shown in the figure. While waiting for the result of markers of myocardial injury, the most likely diagnosis in this patient is: 
 Options:  <1> Subacute myocardial infarction anteroseptal. <2> Tietze syndrome. <3> Osteomuscular thoracic pain with athlete's ECG. <4> Acute pericarditis <5> Unstable angina.
Output: 4
Question: Question linked to image # 4 In this patient, the procedure and / or treatment of choice that I would recommend is: 
 Options:  <1> Urgent catheterization. <2> Primary angioplasty. <3> Fibrinolysis. <4> Prednisone 10 mg / 12 hours. <5> Anti-inflammatories in prolonged treatment.
Output: 5
Question: Question linked to the image nº5 62-year-old man, smoker of 20 cigarettes a day for 30 years and hypertensive, who comes to the clinic because of pain when walking in the gluteal area that begins at a distance of 300 meters and disappears with rest at 5 minutes. An Ankle / Arm index is made whose image is attached. Which is the diagnosis? 
 Options:  <1> Critical ischemia of right lower limb. <2> Acute ischemia due to arterial embolism. <3> Chronic ischemia due to left iliac occlusion. <4> Leriche syndrome due to bilateral iliac occlusion. <5> Radiculopathy
Output: 3
Question: Question linked to image # 5 In this patient, what should be the initial treatment? 
 Options:  <1> Perform a diagnostic angiography plus an associated fibrinolysis. <2> Modify vascular risk factors, physical exercise and medical treatment. <3> The surgery of revascularization by bypass or by endovascular surgery. <4> Perform an urgent embolectomy. <5> Analgesic treatment and decrease physical exercise until symptoms improve.
Output: 2
Question: Question linked to image nº6 29-year-old woman smoker. Consultation for nocturnal cough and dyspnea on exertion. Provides a chest CT performed at your health center (see image). What is the radiological diagnosis of suspicion? 
 Options:  <1> Mediastinal broadening. <2> Bibasal interstitial infiltrate. <3> Aortic dilatation <4> Atelectasia lobar. <5> Growth of right cavities.
Output: 1
Question: Question linked to image # 6 In a recent hemogram, the only notable fact is an eosinophilia of 16%. What diagnostic test of the following would provide more information in the study of the patient? 
 Options:  <1> Echocardiogram. <2> Determination of total Ig E and P-ANCAS. <3> Bronchofibroscopy. <4> Computed tomography. <5> Methacholine test and peak expiratory flow (peak flow).
Output: 4
Question: Question linked to image # 7 A 60-year-old man consulted for dyspnea. A respiratory functional examination is performed (Spirometry with bronchodilator test, CO diffusion capacity test and Plethysmography) whose report is shown in the image. What is the diagnosis most compatible with the results? 
 Options:  <1> Bronchial asthma. <2> Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis. <3> COPD emphysema phenotype. <4> Thoracic restraint due to kyphoscoliosis. <5> Bronchiectasis
Output: 3
Question: Question linked to image # 7 In the previous patient, which of the following attitudes would be less justified? 
 Options:  <1> Perform a chest CT scan. <2> Request serum levels of alpha-1-antitrypsin. <3> Ask for a 6 minute walk test. <4> Request skin allergy tests. <5> Start treatment with bronchodilators.
Output: 4
Question: Question linked to the image nº8 A 63-year-old man with persistent pain and swelling, progressive deformity, functional impotence and prolonged rigidity after inactivity in hands, knees and feet for which he had not consulted previously. In an elemental analysis carried out in his company, he highlighted VSG 78 mm / hour, PCR 54 mg / L and uric acid 7.4 mg / dL. The X-ray of hands is shown in the image. The most likely diagnosis is: 
 Options:  <1> Tophaceous drop <2> Erosive arthrosis <3> Rheumatoid arthritis. <4> Pyrophosphate arthropathy. <5> Polymyalgia rheumatica.
Output: 3
Question: Question linked to image # 8 Conducting an ultrasound in this patient: 
 Options:  <1> It would only allow assessing the tendon affectation. <2> It has no use. <3> It detects synovitis but not erosions. <4> It does not detect synovitis or erosions. <5> It detects both synovitis and erosions.
Output: 5