niryuu/sni-each-converted huggingface dataset:
Question: With regard to child abuse, point out the aspects that indicate the non-accidental nature of injuries and suggest that they are due to mistreatment: 
 Options:  <1> Delay in asking for help or going to the consultation. <2> When the story of the accident or the facts is unconvincing. <3> The explanations given by the parents, separately, are discordant. <4> History with numerous accidents or traumatisms. <5> All the answers include situations that are associated with abuse.
Output: 5
Question: In our interview with a 14-year-old adolescent and her family, the following information is collected: her character has changed, she is sad and irritable; excessive worry about what you eat; obsession with the gym and stagnation or decrease in body weight, although its size has increased. The adolescent does not recognize any of these observations claiming that she is growing. We would think that: 
 Options:  <1> Although it may correspond to diagnostic criteria for an eating disorder, the signs and symptoms alone are not enough and sometimes stigmatize young people causing them suffering. <2> These data correspond on their own to the diagnostic criteria of Anorexia according to the DSM-IV. <3> These data correspond by themselves to the diagnostic criteria of Bulimia Nerviosa according to the DSM-IV. <4> These data are not very relevant to establish a diagnosis, so it will be less important. <5> All the answers are correct.
Output: 1
Question: Which of the following problems of the newborn is associated with folate deficiency during the first weeks after conception ?: 
 Options:  <1> Anemia. <2> Defects of the neural tube. <3> Low birth weight <4> Premature delivery. <5> Hemorrhage of the newborn.
Output: 2
Question: Mr. G. A., caregiver of his wife who suffers from Alzheimer's Disease, consults his nurse because it has started with disruptive behaviors, shouting and wandering. Point out the correct answer regarding this type of behavior: 
 Options:  <1> They are unavoidable and unpredictable. <2> They depend solely on anatomical alterations. <3> Always try to make the patient reason about their failures. <4> They can be a way of expressing insecurity or frustration on the part of the patient. <5> Pharmacological treatment is the first option to reassure the patient.
Output: 4
Question: In relation to the sensory changes that occur in vision during aging, it is correct that: 
 Options:  <1> The visual field is not modified. <2> The pupil is more sensitive to light, favoring glare. <3> The perception of depth is distorted. <4> The threshold for the perception of light decreases. <5> There is a uniform loss of perception of all colors.
Output: 3
Question: During the aging process there are changes in the different systems and devices, being true that in the cardiovascular system: 
 Options:  <1> Increased sensitivity of the baroreceptors intensifies postural hypotension. <2> The three layers of the blood vessels are affected equally in the aging process. <3> The left ventricle decreases in size. <4> The cycle of diastolic filling and systolic emptying requires less time to complete. <5> The atrioventricular valves suffer from sclerosis and fibrosis.
Output: 5
Question: In the health report of Mrs. P. T. of 83 years of age, it is reported that she has a depressive picture. Regarding depression in the elderly has been described that: 
 Options:  <1> It is uncommon for them to have somatic symptoms. <2> It is not characteristic that cognitive disorders appear. <3> The Yesavage scale is an instrument to establish a safe diagnosis of depression. <4> There is unanimity in stating that it has specific manifestations in the elderly. <5> There may be pictures of pseudodementia, with symptoms of dementia but caused by depressive states.
Output: 5
Question: Mr. T. T., 92 years old, admitted to the hospitalization unit recently, has started with different symptoms that suggest that he has an acute confusional syndrome. Within the measures of prevention and care for this problem is indicated: 
 Options:  <1> Advise the family not to stop constantly stimulating the patient. <2> Use physical restraint in all these patients to prevent falls. <3> Avoid joining two patients with this problem in the same room. <4> Remove dental, hearing and visual prosthetics to prevent injuries. <5> Avoid any type of night lighting in the room to promote relaxation.
Output: 3
Question: Urinary incontinence affects a significant population of elderly people. When applying different behavioral therapies, we must take into consideration that urinary bladder training or bladder training: 
 Options:  <1> It can be applied if the patient is motivated and has no cognitive or physical impairment. <2> Improves the function of the bladder in people with functional incontinence. <3> It has been shown to be effective in people with cognitive deficits. <4> It is defined as the establishment of a predictable bladder emptying scheme. <5> It is defined as the improvement of the function of the bladder in any type of incontinence in people with or without cognitive impairment.
Output: 1
Question: In a hospitalization unit, 15% of elderly people with dementia enter the year, most of them in very advanced stages. Pain is a frequent symptom in this type of patients. Point out the correct answer in patients with very advanced dementia: 
 Options:  <1> Untreated pain may manifest by agitation. <2> The Analog Visual Scale is the most appropriate for the assessment of pain due to its simplicity. <3> One-dimensional subjective scales are those recommended by experts to assess pain. <4> There are no specifically available scales designed to assess pain. <5> The administration of opioids for pain control is discouraged.
Output: 1
Question: Mrs. H. H. 69 years old complains that she does not sleep well. Regarding sleep in the elderly, it has been proven that: 
 Options:  <1> The non-pharmacological approach to insomnia has proved ineffective in this population. <2> The aging process is one of the main causes of insomnia. <3> They have a worse quality sleep, more fragmented and with early awakenings. <4> For the treatment of insomnia, the benzodiazepines of long half-life are those with the least side effect. <5> All hypnotics have the same side effects in the elderly.
Output: 3
Question: Indicate the correct answer regarding the Lawton index as a scale of assessment in geriatrics: 
 Options:  <1> Due to its complexity to be applied, it requires that the interviewer has been previously trained. <2> It must always be applied by direct observation of the person evaluated. <3> Several of its items are related to domestic tasks. <4> Evaluate the advanced activities of daily life. <5> Many of its items value activities associated with the male role.
Output: 3
Question: With what aspect does the difficulty of the elderly relate to solve new problems ?: 
 Options:  <1> Creativity. <2> Motivation. <3> Verbal fluency. <4> Memory. <5> Response time.
Output: 5
Question: The Amercian Psychiatric Association (1994) defined mental illness as: 
 Options:  <1> A syndrome that has psychological or behavioral manifestations associated with an alteration of functioning secondary to a social, psychological, genetic, physicochemical or biological anomaly. <2> A disorder limited exclusively to the person who suffers. <3> Acceptance by the patient of their actions. <4> The possibility of the person to cope with stress. <5> A disease that confines people to asylums and asylums.
Output: 1
Question: In the field of mental health, the word chronicity: 
 Options:  <1> It is not used in relation to mental disorders. <2> It is replaced by the term Serious Mental Disorder (TMG). <3> It began to be used with psychiatric reform. <4> It is related to acute mental illness. <5> It is a neutral concept, without negative connotations.
Output: 2
Question: The presence of nonspecific prodromes in a psychotic disorder: 
 Options:  <1> It refers to one of the three phases in which a psychotic episode evolves. <2> It refers to the acute phase. <3> It refers to the recovery phase. <4> It defines the abrupt onset of the first psychotic episode. <5> It is a phase in which the patient does not need treatment.
Output: 1
Question: Psychotherapeutic treatment in psychotic disorders: 
 Options:  <1> It is impossible because of the serious deterioration of the reality suffered by patients with this type of disease. <2> It is contraindicated. <3> It improves the course of the disease, prevents relapses and improves coping skills and social and work functioning. <4> It does not take into account family intervention, since this type of disorder is often associated with pathological families. <5> It refers to the establishment of training programs in social skills.
Output: 3
Question: The presence of a mental disorder and the pathological use of toxic substances: 
 Options:  <1> It refers to the concept of Dual Pathology, a specific type of diagnostic comorbidity. <2> It is a pathological entity that does not exist. <3> It is synonymous with bipolar disorder. <4> It refers to elderly people who simultaneously have two or more mental illnesses. <5> It constitutes a diagnostic label without relevance from the clinical or social perspective.
Output: 1
Question: The appearance of difficulties and respiratory infections as a consequence of the diminution of the defenses, is a dysfunction that occurs most likely in: 
 Options:  <1> Manic disorders. <2> Depressive disorders <3> Psychotic disorders <4> Personality disorders. <5> Schizophrenia.
Output: 2
Question: What are the main functions of the managers or leaders of an organization ?: 
 Options:  <1> Control, supervision, information and communication. <2> Recruitment, selection, hiring and supervision. <3> Planning, organization, execution / direction and control. <4> Address, evaluation, authorization / denial and communication. <5> Hiring, training, accreditation and approval.
Output: 3
Question: What is the name of the structure type of an organization, in which each person no longer depends exclusively on a single boss, but can also be affected by different projects and statutes, during a variable or fixed time ?: 
 Options:  <1> Pyramidal. <2> Divisional. <3> Matrix <4> Organization chart of Urwick. <5> Functional.
Output: 3
Question: The Scorecard is: 
 Options:  <1> The set of rules that govern the internal functioning of an institution. <2> A set of data and indicators, which serves as an information and control tool for management. <3> The list of the names and positions of the Steering Committee of an institution. <4> A control panel, used by the Directors of institutions, that allows them to access all electronic services and applications online. <5> An economic-financial report, which allows to know basically the deviations of the expenses and income of an institution.
Output: 2
Question: The process management is: 
 Options:  <1> A management method, aimed at sequencing the supply processes of materials to the clinical units, to reduce replacement times and storage space. <2> The processing of information, through electronic media, to streamline decision making between services or units that are not close to each other, valid both for the Health Center and for hospitals. <3> A way of managing, in which administrative procedures are prioritized, in order to place those related to the client (or user) in the foreground and the procedures related to economic-financial management are relegated to the lower level. <4> A work system focused on achieving the continuous improvement of the functioning of an organization through the identification, selection, description, documentation and improvement of processes. <5> A variant of zero-based budget planning, in which, during the planning process, it is a question of adapting the means to the objectives in each one of the Departments, Services or Units of the Institution.
Output: 4
Question: From the perspective of health management, what do the initials GRD correspond to ?: 
 Options:  <1> An international radiodiagnosis network based on teleradiology. <2> The online reports provided by the advanced information system of some hospitals, on the availability of beds, operating rooms and high-tech diagnostic tests. <3> A report prepared by the Ministry of Health, which contains the conclusions of a panel of experts, which recommends strategies on Information Technology and Communications. <4> An organism, dependent on the World Health Organization specialized in health information systems. <5> A classification system for patients with episodes of hospitalization.
Output: 5
Question: Indicate the correct answer regarding the pancreas: 
 Options:  <1> Your alpha cells secrete insulin. <2> Its F cells produce somatostatin, which accelerates the secretion of glucagon. <3> Your alpha cells secrete glucagon, which increases the concentration of blood glucose. <4> It is an exclusively endocrine gland. <5> Its delta cells secrete pancreatic polypeptide.
Output: 3
Question: Point out the INCORRECT response in relation to the primary prevention measures of skin cancer: 
 Options:  <1> Avoid sun exposure between 12 and 15 hours. <2> Application of sun creams with high sun protection index, 15 minutes before exposure. <3> Use photoprotection to increase the time of exposure to the sun. <4> Use sunglasses, hats and appropriate clothing, as well as awnings and umbrellas. <5> Do not expose babies to the sun or to those who are being treated with immunosuppressants.
Output: 3
Question: The patient's desire not to be informed: 
 Options:  <1> It is regulated by law only for exceptional cases. <2> It is not regulated in any way by law. <3> The professional obligation is to always inform you, even if you do not want to. <4> It is a right that the law grants to all people. <5> They must be reported to the judicial authority.
Output: 4
Question: When choosing the most appropriate intervention, when the NANDA, NOC, and NIC classifications are used together, the fundamental reference element is: 
 Options:  <1> The diagnosis. <2> The patient's preferences <3> The objects of the plan. <4> The result. <5> The activities that can be carried out.
Output: 4
Question: Menopause is diagnosed by: 
 Options:  <1> The presence of more frequent and abundant cycles of what corresponds to each woman's own pattern. <2> The absence of menstruation in twelve consecutive months. <3> Symptoms derived from estrogen deprivation, such as insomnia, hot flashes or dry skin and mucous membranes. <4> The spacing of the rules, which are becoming increasingly infrequent. <5> Hormonal analyzes, densitometry, mammography and cytology.
Output: 2
Question: Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) is one of the emerging health problems. Indicate with which of the following activities the family nurse can advance their detection and approach: 
 Options:  <1> Carefully review milestones of development and acquisition of social skills, since from birth they show symptoms. <2> Pay attention to family information about rude motor development, since early and unambiguous signs of ADHD usually appear. <3> Observing and carefully assessing the child, regarding their distractions, impulsivity and their ability to concentrate and answer our questions. <4> Assess the activities in the consultation of all children because those who suffer ADHD are always hyperactive and aggressive and register them as such. <5> The answers 1 and 2 are correct.
Output: 3
Question: What psychosocial theory considers as maladjusted to the elderly who try to maintain previous levels and patterns of activity: 
 Options:  <1> Activity. <2> Empty of roles. <3> Continuity. <4> De-linking <5> Structured dependence.
Output: 4
Question: What does the measurement of skinfolds estimate ?: 
 Options:  <1> The body mass <2> The total body fat. <3> The lean mass. <4> The relationship between fat mass and muscle mass. <5> The fat-free mass.
Output: 2
Question: If you want to help improve the self-esteem of the patient you are treating, you can: 
 Options:  <1> Use Johari's window to promote self-knowledge. <2> Get the ideal self and the real me not too close. <3> Help him to focus on himself exclusively and not to recognize the influence of external factors. <4> Invite him not to interact with others assertively. <5> Even if the person does not want or has an authentic desire to know himself, he does not affect self-knowledge.
Output: 1
Question: Which of the following criteria does NOT correspond to any of the nine established in the Model of the European Foundation for Quality Management (EFQM): 
 Options:  <1> Leadership. <2> People. <3> Processes, products and services. <4> Efficiency. <5> Key results
Output: 4
Question: Sumatriptan is a first generation anti-migrant triptan, structurally characterized by having a heterocycle: 
 Options:  <1> Imidazoic <2> Piperidinic <3> Indic. <4> Pirrólico. <5> Oxazolic.
Output: 3
Question: What is the chemical basis for the reversible inhibition of acetylcholinesterase by the alkaloid physostigmine and related compounds ?: 
 Options:  <1> Allosteric inhibition of the enzyme. <2> Covalent binding to a cofactor essential for the reaction. <3> Coordination of an Mg2 + cation in the active center of the enzyme. <4> Analogy with the transition state of the reaction catalyzed by the enzyme. <5> Formation of a carbamate (carbamoylation) of the serine residue in the active center of the enzyme.
Output: 5
Question: (-) - Deprenyl (or selegiline) is a propargylamine that is used in the treatment of Parkinson's disease because it is: 
 Options:  <1> Dopamine D2 receptor agonist. <2> Dopamine antagonist. <3> COMT inhibitor. <4> Dopamine prodrug. <5> Suicide inhibitor of the MAO-B.
Output: 5
Question: The antitussive dextromethorphan is an enantiomer of the O-methylated derivative of levorphanol that belongs to the structural family of: 
 Options:  <1> 6,7-Benzomorpanos. <2> Morfinanos. <3> 4-Phenylpiperidines. <4> Phenylpropalamine. <5> Oripavinas.
Output: 2
Question: Bortezomib is a proteasome inhibitor approved to treat multiple myeloma. What type of acid group is present in its structure and is necessary for its activity ?: 
 Options:  <1> Boronic. <2> Phosphonic <3> Sulfinic <4> Carb <5> Carboxylic
Output: 1
Question: The 2,4-diaminopteridine systems, such as aminopterin or methotrexate, are good antitumor agents since they reduce the biosynthesis of purines and pyrimidines by inhibiting the enzyme: 
 Options:  <1> Timidylate synthetase <2> Aromatase <3> Topoisomerase <4> Reverse transcriptase <5> Dihydrofolate reductase.
Output: 5
Question: Aflatoxin B1 is a natural product that owes its toxicity to a product of its metabolism, very reactive, of the nature of: 
 Options:  <1> 1,2-Diol. <2> Quinonymine <3> Epoxide <4> Α, β-unsaturated carbonyl. <5> Radical hydroperoxide.
Output: 3
Question: Why does carbenicillin have a low antibacterial activity by mouth ?: 
 Options:  <1> It is degraded by beta-lactamases in the digestive system. <2> He undergoes first-pass hepatic oxidative metabolism. <3> It binds covalently to plasma proteins. <4> It is decarboxylated in the acid medium of the stomach giving rise to benzylpenicillin, which is also unstable in that medium. <5> It is highly lipophilic, which is why it is not released correctly from oral administration forms.
Output: 4
Question: Atenolol is an antihypertensive β-antagonist that belongs to the structural family: 
 Options:  <1> Arylethanolamines <2> Quinazolines <3> β-Haloalkylamines. <4> Aryloxypropanolamines. <5> 2-Imidazolines.
Output: 4
Question: Sulfasalazine is used for the treatment of ulcerative colitis. It is a prodrug of 5-aminosalicylic acid that is activated by a process of: 
 Options:  <1> Hydrolysis of an ester. <2> Hydrolysis of an amide. <3> Oxidative dealkylation. <4> Reducing rupture of the azoderivative. <5> Aromatic hydroxylation.
Output: 4
Question: What is the purpose of the phthalyl group in phthalisulfatiazole ?: 
 Options:  <1> Improve intestinal absorption. <2> Prevent intestinal absorption. <3> Improve the passage through the blood-brain barrier. <4> Prevent passage through the blood-brain barrier. <5> Increase the affinity towards the therapeutic target of the drug.
Output: 2
Question: Which of the following reactions of drug metabolism has an oxidation reaction as an intermediate step ?: 
 Options:  <1> The transformation of a nitro group (for example, the one existing in nitrofurantoin) into amino. <2> The O-demethylation of an ether (for example, the transformation of codeine into morphine). <3> The breaking down of a diazo group to originate an amine (for example, the transformation of Prontosilrubrum into sulfanilamide. <4> The transformation of oxazepam in its glucuronide. <5> The transformation of acetylcholine into choline.
Output: 2
Question: A 5-year-old boy with symptoms of possible meningitis is seen in an emergency department. Gram-negative diplococci and abundant polymorphonuclear leukocytes are observed in the Gram stain of the cerebrospinal fluid sediment. What microorganism does it suggest as a possible cause of the infection ?: 
 Options:  <1> Haemophilus influenzae. <2> Streptococcus pneumoniae <3> Streptococcus agalactiae. <4> Neisseria meningitidis. <5> Listeria monocytogenes.
Output: 4
Question: Echinocandins are antifungal compounds that act by inhibiting: 
 Options:  <1> The synthesis of ergosterol. <2> The synthesis of the cell wall. <3> The synthesis of DNA. <4> The synthesis of proteins. <5> The formation of microtubules.
Output: 2
Question: What is onychomycosis ?: 
 Options:  <1> An infection of the oral mucosa and gums of infants produced by Candida albicans. <2> A brain abscess in immunosuppressed caused by Aspergillus spp. <3> An infection of the nails by fungi dermatophytes. <4> A serious variety of acne in which fungal species also participate. <5> A lung infection caused by Pneumocystis jirovecii.
Output: 3
Question: Ceftazidime is an antibiotic of choice in the treatment of infections due to: 
 Options:  <1> Mycoplasma pneumoniae. <2> Pseudomonas aeruginosa. <3> Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). <4> Chlamydia trachomatis. <5> Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
Output: 2
Question: Which of the following vertebrate viruses has as genetic material single-stranded RNA ?: 
 Options:  <1> Papilloma virus. <2> Smallpox virus <3> HIV. <4> Human rotavirus. <5> Epstein-Barr virus.
Output: 3
Question: The dipicolinic acid is: 
 Options:  <1> One of the first antibiotics of the quinolones group. <2> A compound characteristic of bacterial endospores. <3> A reserve compound present in the metachromatic corpuscles. <4> An acid polysaccharide present in the wall of Gram positive. <5> One of the amino acids of Gram negative peptidoglycan.
Output: 2
Question: Streptococcus pyogenes strains that produce erythrogenic toxin are responsible for: 
 Options:  <1> Erysipelas. <2> Rheumatic fever. <3> Impetigo. <4> Glomerulonephritis <5> Scarlet fever.
Output: 5
Question: From a microbial growth control point of view, it can be stated that: 
 Options:  <1> Pasteurization is a method of sterilization for liquid substances. <2> The overpressure is what kills the microorganisms when the autoclave is used. <3> Antiseptic agents are applied to living tissues. <4> The autoclave is the recommended method for sterilizing thermosensitive liquids. <5> The use of ultraviolet radiation is due to its high penetration power.
Output: 3
Question: Which of these characteristics do bacterial exotoxins have ?: 
 Options:  <1> They have all the Gram negative bacteria. <2> They are lipidic in nature. <3> They are located in the outer membrane. <4> They introduce a weak immune response. <5> Some are used inactivated as a vaccine.
Output: 5
Question: The calcofluor white stain allows observing: 
 Options:  <1> Spirochetes <2> Bacterial endospores. <3> Bacterial flagella. <4> Hyphae of filamentous fungi. <5> Metachromatic corpuscles.
Output: 4
Question: Which Clostridium genus is a producer of enterotoxin A and cytotoxin B responsible for diarrhea (pseudomembranous colitis) associated with treatment with antimicrobials ?: 
 Options:  <1> Clostridium perfringens. <2> Clostridium difficile. <3> Clostridium botulinum. <4> Clostridium novyi. <5> Clostridium histolyticum.
Output: 2
Question: Burkitt's lymphoma and nasopharyngeal carcinoma are related to infection by: 
 Options:  <1> Herpes human virus type 6. <2> Cytomegalovirus. <3> Respiratory syncytial virus. <4> Epstein-Barr virus. <5> HIV.
Output: 4
Question: Which of the following filariasis is diagnosed by finding microfilariae in the skin: 
 Options:  <1> Loa loa <2> Wuchereria bancrofti. <3> Brugia malayi <4> Mansonella perstans. <5> Onchocerca volvulus.
Output: 5
Question: The biological cycle of Trichinella spiralis is of the following type: 
 Options:  <1> Stenoxene <2> Optional. <3> Triheteroxene <4> Autoheteroxene <5> Heterogónico.
Output: 4
Question: The dye-test (Sanbin-Feldman test) is the reference method for the diagnosis of: 
 Options:  <1> Cryptosporidiosis. <2> Sarcocystosis <3> Malaria. <4> Toxoplasmosis <5> Cyclosporosis
Output: 4
Question: The presence of digestive tract with branched caeca extending to the posterior end of the adult worm is characteristic of the species: 
 Options:  <1> Hepatic fasciola. <2> Fasciolopsis buski. <3> Dicrocoelium dentriticum. <4> Paragonimus westermani. <5> Clonorchis sinensis.
Output: 1
Question: Fluid bed dryers are recommended for substances: 
 Options:  <1> With high heat of fusion. <2> Free flowing <3> Termolábiles. <4> Insoluble. <5> Permeable to moisture.
Output: 3
Question: In the filtration process, the flow velocity is: 
 Options:  <1> Directly proportional to the quantity of the cake deposited. <2> Directly proportional to the amount of materials in suspension. <3> Dependent on the degree of ionization of the substance to be filtered. <4> Dependent on the ambient temperature. <5> Inversely proportional to the quantity of the cake deposited.
Output: 5
Question: By means of the angular methods used to evaluate the flow properties of a powder, it is determined: 
 Options:  <1> The ease with which the solid sets in motion. <2> The angle of repose. <3> The flow velocity <4> The resistance to displacement. <5> The density of the powder.
Output: 2
Question: Porous glass filters of 10-40μm are used in particular in: 
 Options:  <1> Analytical filtering. <2> Fine filtration <3> Help for other filtering materials. <4> Ultra-thin filtration <5> Separation of large diameter microorganisms.
Output: 1
Question: Ophthalmological ointments: 
 Options:  <1> They may contain solid particles but only with a controlled size. <2> They do not need to be sterile. <3> They require the test of pyrogens. <4> They can not be W / O emulsions. <5> Always your excipients must be fatty
Output: 1
Question: The water used in the preparation of medicated syrups must: 
 Options:  <1> Be sterile <2> Be purified or distilled water. <3> It is highly recommended that it contain dissolved carbon dioxide. <4> Contain dissolved calcium ions. <5> Contain an adequate proportion of magnesium ions.
Output: 2
Question: The angular methods for evaluating the flow properties of pulverulent solids allow the determination of the angle of repose parameter. A mixture of pulverulent substances presents a good or optimum flow if the values ​​of this parameter (in degrees) are: 
 Options:  <1> Over 40 <2> Between 45 and 55 <3> Between 38 and 45. <4> Over 37 <5> Near or under 25
Output: 5
Question: The ascorbic acid esters are used in Pharmaceutical Technology as: 
 Options:  <1> Reducers <2> Blockers <3> Synergists <4> Chelators <5> Antiseptics
Output: 2
Question: Steric stabilization in dispersed systems is: 
 Options:  <1> More effective in aqueous dispersions. <2> More effective with volume fractions of small particles. <3> Effective in aqueous and non-aqueous dispersions. <4> Coagulates by adding electrolytes. <5> Susceptible to reversible coagulation.
Output: 3
Question: What taste do you think can mask the bitter taste of an oral solution: 
 Options:  <1> Licorice. <2> Apricot. <3> Vanilla. <4> Anise. <5> Raspberry.
Output: 4
Question: Sulfamethoxazole is microencapsulated by complex coacervation using: 
 Options:  <1> Gelatin and gum arabic. <2> Albumin and gum arabic. <3> Gelatine and sodium alginate. <4> Pectin and gelatin. <5> Gum arabic and pectin.
Output: 1
Question: Within the main phases of extrusion and spheronization we have: 
 Options:  <1> Dry mix, wet kneading and compaction. <2> Wet kneading, compaction and drying. <3> Wet mixing, compaction, and drying. <4> Wet kneading, drying and sieving. <5> Kneading dry, drying and sieving.
Output: 4
Question: A tablet with gastrosoluble film cover is being designed. Which of the following excipients exerts the function of plasticizer in said cover ?: 
 Options:  <1> Hydroxypropylmethylcellulose. <2> Methylcellulose <3> Copolymer of methacrylic acid (Eudragit® E30D (A)) <4> Polyethylene glycol <5> Titanium oxide.
Output: 4
Question: One of the components of injectable formulations are preservatives. This category includes different excipients with different mechanisms of action. Which of the following is used as a chelating agent ?: 
 Options:  <1> Butylhydroxyanisole. <2> Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid. <3> Ascorbic acid. <4> Propyl gelate <5> Tocopherol.
Output: 2
Question: Why do ovarian cycles not appear in nursing mothers for several months after birth ?: 
 Options:  <1> For stress and lack of sleep associated with breastfeeding. <2> Because there are low levels of FSH and LH. <3> Because there are high levels of oxytocin. <4> By saving iron that is derived from breastfeeding. <5> Because there are high levels of progesterone.
Output: 2
Question: What transport system do thyroid follicular cells use to capture iodide through its basal pole ?: 
 Options:  <1> A primary active transporter. <2> An iodide exchanger with chloride. <3> A transporter called pendrina. <4> A process of pinocytosis. <5> A sodium iodide carrier.
Output: 5
Question: What is the maximum volume of air that a subject can breathe out after maximum inspiration ?: 
 Options:  <1> Total lung capacity. <2> Expiratory reserve volume. <3> Inspiratory capacity <4> Vital capacity <5> Residual volume
Output: 4
Question: Which of the following moments of the electrocardiogram corresponds to the depolarization stage of the ventricular myocardium ?: 
 Options:  <1> Onda P. <2> Onda T. <3> Segment T-P. <4> Segment P-Q. <5> QRS wave.
Output: 5
Question: What is the closest distance to the eye to which an image can be focused correctly on the retina ?: 
 Options:  <1> Far optical point. <2> Depth of focus. <3> Close point of accommodation. <4> Focal distance. <5> Ocular emmetropia.
Output: 3
Question: The bile produced by the liver is stored in the gallbladder from where it is secreted into the duodenum when the muscles involved receive this order in the form of hormonal and nervous signals mediated by: 
 Options:  <1> Colecitocinin and beta-adrenergic sympathetic activation. <2> Pancreozimine and beta-adrenergic sympathetic activation. <3> Secretin and parasympathetic activation. <4> Cholecystokinin and parasympathetic activation. <5> Secretin and alphaadrenergic sympathetic activation.
Output: 4
Question: What are the components of a functional heme group ?: 
 Options:  <1> Four molecules of bilirubin and one Fe3 +. <2> Four globins (2alpha + 2beta) and one Fe3 +. <3> One molecule of protoporphyrin and one Fe2 +. <4> One molecule of bilirubin and one Fe2 +. <5> Four globins (2alpha + 2beta) and one Fe2 +.
Output: 3
Question: What is the average life time of an erythrocyte: 
 Options:  <1> Four months. <2> Four weeks. <3> One year. <4> Sixty days <5> Two weeks.
Output: 1
Question: What percentage of the bicarbonate filtered in the glomerulus is reabsorbed under normal conditions along the nephron and in which segment is most of this reabsorption produced ?: 
 Options:  <1> It is reabsorbed almost 100%, mostly in the collector duct. <2> Approximately 50% is reabsorbed, mostly in the proximal convoluted tubule. <3> Approximately 50% is reabsorbed, mostly in the distal convoluted tubule. <4> Less than 20% is reabsorbed, mostly in the collecting duct. <5> It is almost 100% reabsorbed, mostly in the proximal convoluted tubule.
Output: 5
Question: From what compound and where mainly melatonin is produced ?: 
 Options:  <1> From tyrosine in the skin. <2> From tryptophan in the skin <3> From tryptophan in the pineal gland. <4> From tyrosine in the pituitary gland. <5> From tyrosine in the pineal gland.
Output: 3
Question: What type of receptor is responsible for activating most of the responses to the hormone T3 ?: 
 Options:  <1> A protein G. <2> An ABC protein. <3> A nuclear receiver. <4> A receiver coupled to an ion channel. <5> A plasma membrane glycoprotein.
Output: 3
Question: Indicate which of the following deficits leads to a glycogenosis: 
 Options:  <1> Hexokinase. <2> Hexosaminidase. <3> Glucose 6-phosphatase. <4> Fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase <5> Fructokinase
Output: 3
Question: Indicate which of the following will be the most likely diagnosis if an individual has a lipoprotein lipase deficiency: 
 Options:  <1> Type I dyslipidemia <2> Type IIa dyslipidemia. <3> Type III dyslipidemia. <4> Abetalipoproteinemia. <5> Tangier disease.
Output: 1
Question: The BRCA-1 gene mutation is associated with a high risk of: 
 Options:  <1> Acute myocardial infarction. <2> Breast cancer <3> Alzheimer disease. <4> Parkinson's disease <5> Tay-Sach disease.
Output: 2
Question: Becker muscular dystrophy is an alteration of: 
 Options:  <1> The skeletal muscle. <2> The metabolism of lipids. <3> The bones. <4> Hepatic origin. <5> The bilirubin.
Output: 1
Question: Indicate which of the following disorders is a lysosomal disease: 
 Options:  <1> GLUT2 deficiency. <2> HSL deficiency (hormone-sensitive lipase). <3> Deficiency of LPL (lipoprotein lipase). <4> Basic amino acid transporter deficit. <5> Sphingolipidosis
Output: 5
Question: Indicate which of the following disorders will cause jaundice: 
 Options:  <1> Gilbert's syndrome. <2> Zellweger syndrome. <3> Hashimoto's thyroiditis. <4> Cushing's disease <5> Alcaptonuria.
Output: 1
Question: Indicate which of the following deficits is an alteration of the mucopolysaccharide metabolism: 
 Options:  <1> Pyruvate kinase deficiency. <2> Deficiency of branching enzyme. <3> Sphingomyelinase deficiency. <4> N-acetylneuraminidase deficiency. <5> N-acetylglucosaminidase deficiency.
Output: 5
Question: Indicate which of the following deficits leads to a porphyria: 
 Options:  <1> Phenylalanine hydroxylase. <2> 21 α-hydroxylase. <3> Ferrochelatase <4> Glucokinase. <5> Tyrosine hydroxylase.
Output: 3
Question: Indicate which of the following alterations of the metabolism can occur with gout: 
 Options:  <1> Metabolism of porphyrins. <2> Metabolism of acid amino acids. <3> Metabolism of basic amino acids. <4> Metabolism of glycogen. <5> Metabolism of purines.
Output: 5
Question: Indicate which of the following is a mitochondrial disease: 
 Options:  <1> α-thalassemia <2> Essential fructosuria. <3> Leigh syndrome. <4> Cushing's syndrome. <5> Sickle cell anemia
Output: 3
Question: Indicate which of the following is an acquired corpuscular hemolytic anemia: 
 Options:  <1> Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria. <2> Deficit of glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase. <3> Minkowski-Chauffard disease <4> Sickle-cell anaemia. <5> Pyruvatokinase deficiency.
Output: 1
Question: As inclusion of plasma cells, the presence of: 
 Options:  <1> Pelger-Huët anomaly. <2> Alder-Reilly anomaly. <3> Canes de Auer. <4> Howell's bodies. <5> Russell's bodies.
Output: 5
Question: The translocation t (11; 14) is characteristic of mantle lymphoma. Which fusion protein originates, capable of promoting the cells towards the S phase of the cell cycle ?: 
 Options:  <1> BCL-2 <2> Beta-2-microglobulin. <3> Cyclin D1. <4> Transreticulin. <5> ALK protein.
Output: 3
Question: Which of the following laboratory tests is of choice in the diagnosis of autoimmune hemolytic anemias due to hot antibodies ?: 
 Options:  <1> Ham's test <2> Test of Coombs. <3> Autohemolysis test with glucose. <4> Osmotic resistance test. <5> Electrophoresis of membrane proteins.
Output: 2
Question: In a patient with sepsis and coagulopathy of consumption, which of the following analytical tests would indicate a state of hyperfibrinolysis ?: 
 Options:  <1> Lengthening prothrombin time. <2> Antithrombin deficiency. <3> Increase in Dimero D. <4> Increase in protein C. <5> Increase in PAI-1.
Output: 3
Question: The deficit of which of the following enzymes is NOT a cause of porphyria ?: 
 Options:  <1> Protoporphyrinogen oxidase. <2> Delta-amino levulinic synthetase. <3> Coproporphyrinogen III oxidase <4> Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase. <5> Uroporphyrinogen III cosintetase.
Output: 2
Question: Which of the following is a poor prognostic factor in acute lymphoblastic leukemia ?: 
 Options:  <1> Age 1-9 years. <2> Phenotype B. <3> Karyotype with translocation 9; 22. <4> Leucocytosis of 25,000 / microL. <5> Hyperploid DNA index.
Output: 3
Question: Crohn's disease: 
 Options:  <1> It only affects the colon. <2> It presents as perianal disease, with development of fistulas or abscesses. <3> It is characterized by continuous involvement of the mucosa. <4> It is associated with alcohol consumption. <5> It starts in the infant stage of the individual.
Output: 2
Question: The hypertension developed in hyperaldosteronism is produced by: 
 Options:  <1> Increase in blood calcium. <2> Desensitization of the vascular wall to the vasoconstrictors. <3> Greater release of adrenaline and noradrenaline. <4> Increase in the reabsorption of Na + and H2O. <5> Decrease in blood volume.
Output: 4
Question: If the thyroid hormones are increased and both TSH (thyroid stimulating hormone) and the uptake of radioactive iodine by the thyroid gland are decreased, it is a process of: 
 Options:  <1> Thyrotoxicosis not hyperthyroid. <2> Primary hyperthyroidism. <3> Hypophyseal hyperthyroidism. <4> Graves-Basedow disease. <5> Increase in gonadotropins.
Output: 1
Question: Pneumothorax occurs as a result of the entry of air into: 
 Options:  <1> The interstitial space. <2> The pleural space. <3> The peribronchial space. <4> The pulmonary circulation. <5> The systemic circulation.
Output: 2
Question: Non-fluid, motor or expressive aphasia is associated with injuries in: 
 Options:  <1> The Wernicke area. <2> The arched fascicle. <3> The motor cortex <4> The Broca area. <5> The angular gyrus.
Output: 4
Question: In chronic bronchitis, it is characteristic: 
 Options:  <1> Destruction of alveolar walls. <2> Difficulty in the inspiratory flow. <3> Decrease in the volume of inspiratory reserve. <4> Elevation of capillary hydrostatic pressure. <5> Inflammation and mucosal hypersecretion of the respiratory tract.
Output: 5
Question: What is allodynia ?: 
 Options:  <1> Painful sensation triggered by non-painful stimuli. <2> Abnormal sensation, but not painful. <3> Sensation in which the patient has a high threshold of stimulation. <4> Tingling or numbness <5> Painful sensation increased in front of a painful stimulus.
Output: 1
Question: What is the mechanism of action of the immunosuppressant drug everolimus ?: 
 Options:  <1> Inhibition of the activation of lymphocytes as membrane receptors. <2> Inhibition of the transmission of the activation signals. <3> Inhibition of nucleotide synthesis. <4> Inhibition of lymphocyte migration. <5> Inhibition of proliferation signals.
Output: 5
Question: Which of the following antidiabetics acts by inhibiting DPP-4 and prolonging the duration of the endogenous incretins GLP-1 and GIP ?: 
 Options:  <1> Glimepiride <2> Repaglinide. <3> Sitagliptin <4> Rosiglitazone. <5> Tolbutamide
Output: 3
Question: Which of the following antifungals is used in the treatment of invasive aspergillosis and severe candidiasis including Candida krusei and Candida glabrata ?: 
 Options:  <1> Voriconazole <2> Miconazole <3> Ketoconazole <4> Fluconazole <5> 1 and 3 are correct.
Output: 1
Question: Which of the following antibiotics could be used in a patient with hypersensitivity to penicillin by skin tests ?: 
 Options:  <1> Piperacillin / tazobactam <2> Aztreonam <3> Ampicillin <4> Amoxicillin <5> Ceftazidime
Output: 2
Question: Which of the following medications can cause renal failure in patients with bilateral renal artery stenosis by inhibiting the constrictor tone of the efferent arteriole ?: 
 Options:  <1> Acetaminophen. <2> Diclofenac <3> Enalaprilo. <4> Metamizole <5> Furosemide.
Output: 3
Question: Why mechanism produces hyperprolactinemia haloperidol ?: 
 Options:  <1> Blockade of alpha 1 adrenergic receptors. <2> Blockade of alpha-2 adrenergic receptors <3> Blocking of H1 receivers. <4> Blockade of D2 receivers. <5> Blocking of 5-HT2 receptors.
Output: 4
Question: What is the mechanism of action of octreotide ?: 
 Options:  <1> Serotonergic receptor 5-HT4 agonist. <2> Motilin receptor agonist. <3> Somatostatin receptor agonist. <4> Antagonist of the motilin receptor. <5> Somatostatin receptor antagonist.
Output: 3
Question: Which of the following drugs can alleviate the compensatory increases in heart rate and the release of renin that occur in heart failure ?: 
 Options:  <1> Milrinona. <2> Digoxin <3> Dobutamine <4> Enalapril <5> Metoprolol
Output: 5
Question: A 45-year-old man, diagnosed with hypertension, has started a monotherapy treatment to decrease peripheral resistance and prevent the retention of CINa and water. The patient has developed a persistent cough. Which of the following drugs would have identical beneficial actions to that already used, but without coughing the patient ?: 
 Options:  <1> Losartán. <2> Nifedipine <3> Prazosin <4> Propranolol <5> Enalaprilo.
Output: 1
Question: Amantadine is a drug that can be used as: 
 Options:  <1> Antiviral and antiparkinsonian. <2> Antipsychotic and antiemetic. <3> Anxiolytic and antifungal. <4> Antifungal and antiparkinsonian. <5> Antifungal and anti-migraine.
Output: 1
Question: Observe that the liquids coming from the synthesis of chloroquine had an antibacterial activity gave rise to the discovery of the quinolones. This group of antibiotics has various characteristics such as: 
 Options:  <1> Fluoroquinolones have a smaller spectrum of activity than first-generation quinolones. <2> The second generation quinolones are very effective against anaerobes. <3> Fluoroquinolones are not effective against enterobacteria. <4> Fluoroquinolones are effective against Gram-positive but less than Gram-negative. <5> The third and fourth generation fluoroquinolones are not effective against streptococci or staphylococci.
Output: 4
Question: Which of the following drugs obtained by means of molecular engineering techniques is not applicable in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis ?: 
 Options:  <1> Infliximab. <2> Denosumab. <3> Adalimumab. <4> Anakinra <5> Etanercept.
Output: 2
Question: A man suffering from bronchial asthma is undergoing a chronic treatment lasting several years with glucocorticoids. Which of the following adverse reactions detected in said patient is not due to the prolonged use of corticoid therapy ?: 
 Options:  <1> Poor healing of wounds. <2> Osteoporosis. <3> Arterial hypotension. <4> Thinning of the skin <5> Muscular atrophy.
Output: 3
Question: GnRH (ganodorelin) is a hypothalamic decapeptide that is secreted in a pulsatile manner. Lately a series of analogues have been developed that: 
 Options:  <1> All of them inhibit prolonged secretion of LH and FSH. <2> All of them are GnRH receptor agonists. <3> Goserelin and buserelin are antagonists of the GnRH receptor. <4> The prolonged treatment gives rise to a typical symptomatology of an excess of gonadal steroids. <5> GnRH agonists are contraindicated in prostate and breast cancer.
Output: 1
Question: Ms. X is a 76-year-old patient who has suffered several falls in recent years with fractures in both arms. The diagnosis by image denotes the evidence of osteoporosis and the traumatologist decides to start a treatment with teriparatide. We must consider that: 
 Options:  <1> Teriparatide is an analogue of vitamin D. <2> It is administered in a daily dose subcutaneously. <3> It is administered only intravenously. <4> Acts as a receptor agonist to vitamin D3. <5> It does not favor the increase of bone mass.
Output: 2
Question: Mr. X is a 67-year-old patient who has been prescribed atorvastatin orally due to high cholesterol levels that have not improved after dietary measures. Among the clinical applications of the HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors we have: 
 Options:  <1> They are the drugs of choice in the case of pregnant women. <2> They are drugs of first choice in the treatment of hypertriglyceridemia. <3> They are not effective in the secondary prevention of myocardial infarction. <4> In severe dyslipidemias, in the case of heterozygous familial hypercholesterolemia, they should be combined with ezetimibe. <5> They are not effective in the secondary prevention of stroke.
Output: 4
Question: The akathisia produced by some drugs is directly related to receptor blockade: 
 Options:  <1> Dopaminergic. <2> Serotoninergic <3> Histaminergic <4> Adrenergic <5> Cholinergic
Output: 1
Question: Mesalazine is used in therapy in the treatment of: 
 Options:  <1> Bronchial asthma in children. <2> The motion sickness. <3> The Syndrome of Gilles de la Tourette. <4> Crohn's disease <5> The hypogonadism.
Output: 4
Question: Of the antiemetic drugs reviewed, in which of them their pharmacological activity is NOT related to dopaminergic receptors ?: 
 Options:  <1> Granisetron. <2> Cleboprida. <3> Droperidol <4> Tietilperazine. <5> Domperidone
Output: 1
Question: Of the drugs reviewed, which one is used in the prophylactic treatment of migraine ?: 
 Options:  <1> Dihydroergotamine <2> Meperidine <3> Flunarizine <4> Chlorpromazine <5> Sumatriptan
Output: 3
Question: Of the drugs reviewed, which of them does NOT act on the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system ?: 
 Options:  <1> Atenolol. <2> Captopril. <3> Minoxidil <4> Eplerenone. <5> Aliskiren.
Output: 3
Question: In the treatment of asthma can be used on demand: 
 Options:  <1> Inhaled glucocorticoids at low doses. <2> Long-acting inhaled beta-2 adrenergic agonist. <3> Short-acting inhaled beta-2 adrenergic agonist. <4> Inhaled anticholinergics. <5> Inhaled disodium cromoglycate.
Output: 3
Question: What is the biosynthetic route of terpenes in plants ?: 
 Options:  <1> They are synthesized by the mevalonic acid route or by the fatty acid route. <2> They are synthesized by the mevalonic acid route or by the deoxy-xylulose phosphate (DOXP) pathway also called GAP / Pyruvate. <3> They are synthesized by the mevalonic route and the sikimico route. <4> They are synthesized by the sikimic acid route or by the deoxy-xylulose phosphate (DOXP) pathway also called GAP / Pyruvate. <5> They are synthesized by the polyacetate route.
Output: 2
Question: Among other properties with respect to hypericin we can indicate: 
 Options:  <1> It is a powerful hepatoprotector extracted from the roots of Hypericum perforatum. <2> It is a powerful cholagogue that is extracted from the resin of the Hypericum perforatum rhizome. <3> It is a removable antiretroviral of the aerial parts of Hypericum perforatum. <4> It is a laxative that is extracted from the leaves of Hypericum perforatum. <5> It is a potent hepatoprotective present in the fruits of Hypericum perforatum.
Output: 3
Question: With respect to the pharmacological activity of artemisinin (sesquiterpene lactone) extracted from Artemisia annua: 
 Options:  <1> It is a powerful hepatoprotective. <2> It is a powerful cholagogue. <3> It is a potent antitumor. <4> It is a selective antimalarial. <5> It is a potent antiviral.
Output: 4
Question: In an animal species, the value of the elimination rate constant of a drug with linear pharmacokinetic behavior depends on: 
 Options:  <1> The route of administration. <2> The dose of drug administered. <3> The percentage of administered dose that arrives unaltered to the general circulation. <4> The speed at which the drug reaches systemic circulation. <5> The distribution and elimination of the drug.
Output: 5