niryuu/sni-each-converted huggingface dataset:
Question: Infant of 1 month of life who goes to the hospital emergency department referred by his pediatrician for jaundice. He has been referring for 10 days and has been increasing. In the blood test, a total bilirubin of 7 mg / dl stands out, with indirect bilirubin being 1.5 mg / dl. The most likely cause, among the following, of this jaundice is: 
 Options:  <1> Biliary tract atresia <2> Jaundice due to breastfeeding. <3> Isoimmunization 0-A late onset. <4> Gilbert's disease. <5> Hereditary spherocytosis.
Output: 1
Question: Point out the correct answer in relation to breastfeeding: 
 Options:  <1> It is important that the mother disinfect her nipple well before starting each feeding. <2> The first feeding of breastfeeding should not be done before 6 hours of life. <3> Breastfeeding requires a fixed and strict schedule: one feeding every 4 hours. <4> Breastfeeding should not occur after 12 months of life. <5> The WHO recommends exclusive breastfeeding until 6 months of age.
Output: 5
Question: A 4-year-old boy comes to the Health Center who, 5 minutes earlier, begins with angioedema on his face, conjunctivitis, nasal congestion and hoarseness, coinciding with the intake of a spoonful of yogurt that was mistakenly given him at school. Among the background is diagnosed with cow's milk protein allergy. The examination revealed mild hypotension, heart rate 110 beats / min, Sat O2 93%, pale and somewhat sweaty, with disseminated wheezing. What is the first treatment of choice? 
 Options:  <1> Induce vomiting. <2> Adrenaline subcutaneous 1/1000. <3> Adrenaline 1/1000 intramuscular. <4> Intramuscular methylprednisone. <5> Nebulized salbutamol.
Output: 3
Question: Woman of 40 weeks of gestation in labor with 6 cm of dilation. Presents fetal decelerative pattern in cardiotocographic record so it is decided to perform a fetal blood microtome to assess fetal well-being. Result pH 7.22. The correct behavior is: 
 Options:  <1> Severe acidosis Caesarean section urgent. <2> Prepatological value, repeat take in 15-20 minutes. <3> Moderate acidosis, repeat take in 1-2 hours. <4> Value in normal limits, leave natural evolution of childbirth. <5> Repeat at the time, possible error in obtaining the shot.
Output: 2
Question: A 32-year-old woman asks for preconceptional advice. The patient reports that she underwent cervical conization due to a high-grade intraepithelial lesion (H-SIL) and that she subsequently suffered three miscarriages between 20 and 22 weeks of gestation. He does not have living children. On all three occasions he went to the Emergency Department with a sensation of weight in the hypogastrium and there it was found that he arrived with a dilatation of 8 cm and with prominent amniotic membranes. I had never felt contractions. What advice would you give for the next pregnancy? 
 Options:  <1> I would recommend prophylaxis with atosiban orally throughout the pregnancy. <2> It would offer lung maturation with corticosteroids from 19-20 weeks of gestation. <3> I would recommend performing a cervical cerclage programmed from the 14th week of gestation. <4> I would advise you not to try more pregnancies because of the high risk of recurrence. <5> I would recommend resorting to assisted reproduction techniques.
Output: 3
Question: Point out the INCORRECT response regarding infection by human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and pregnancy: 
 Options:  <1> The scheduled cesarean does not reduce the vertical transmission rate of the virus. <2> The pregnant woman will be offered the possibility of performing antiretroviral treatment whatever her stage of the disease, in order to prevent the vertical transmission of the virus. <3> Vertical transmission of the virus is associated with maternal viral load. <4> HIV serology must be offered to every pregnant woman at the first consultation, whatever the time of pregnancy. <5> Women infected with HIV have an increased risk of spontaneous abortions, intrauterine fetal death and intrauterine growth retardation.
Output: 1
Question: A 27-year-old woman, pregnant for 10 weeks and with persistent severe allergic asthma. Currently, it is adequately controlled with daily inhaled budesonide and inhaled salbutamol at the request of rescue. Go to your consultation concerned about the possible teratogenic effects of your antiasthmatic medication. Which of the following would be the correct attitude? 
 Options:  <1> Since asthma improves during pregnancy in most patients, it is best for the patient and the fetus to discontinue anti-asthmatic treatment. <2> Suspend budesonide because it has been linked to an increased risk of fetal malformations and replace it with an oral antileukotriene (montelukast). <3> Remove the current treatment and replace it with oral prednisone at the lowest possible dose. <4> Maintain the current treatment and reassure the patient about its side effects and the need for adequate control of asthma during pregnancy. <5> Replace budesonide with an anti-IgE monoclonal antibody (omalizumab) for its greater safety in pregnancy as it is not a drug.
Output: 4
Question: Which of the following is currently the only contraindication for conservative surgical treatment in breast cancer? 
 Options:  <1> Prior radiotherapy. <2> Tumor of 4 cm. <3> Axillary metastasis. <4> Multifocal tumor <5> Pregnancy of 32 weeks.
Output: 1
Question: A 16-year-old woman consulted for primary amenorrhea. It presents a normal female development of secondary sexual characteristics. The levels of estradiol and testosterone are normal. In the gynecological examination, agenesis of the vagina is appreciated. Ultrasound is performed and there is absence of uterus. The ovaries are normal ultrasound. No left kidney is seen. The most likely diagnosis is: 
 Options:  <1> Rokitansky syndrome. <2> Morris syndrome. <3> Congenital adrenal hyperplasia. <4> Polycystic ovarian syndrome. <5> Kallman syndrome.
Output: 1
Question: Homosexual male of 30 years of age HIV (+) who participates as a volunteer in a help center for patients with AIDS. According to her clinical history she received diphtheria toxoid (Td) 6 years ago, the MMR vaccine in childhood and adolescence, and hepatitis B three years ago. He is currently asymptomatic with a CD4 count greater than 200 cls / μl. What vaccines should we recommend? 
 Options:  <1> Seasonal influenza, pneumococcal, tetravalent meningitis and hepatitis A. <2> Seasonal flu, Td, pneumococcal and tetravalent meningitis. <3> Templavalent meningitis, pneumococcal and seasonal influenza. <4> Td, tetravalent, pneumococcal meningitis. <5> Viral triple, seasonal flu, pneumococcal.
Output: 1
Question: In order to check the efficacy of a treatment to stop smoking, a control group (placebo) is compared with a treated group. For groups to be comparable it is important that they do not differ much in the age of the participants. We are informed that the average age in the control group is 52 years and that in the treated group it is also 52 years. From this information we can say that: 
 Options:  <1> The groups do not differ with respect to the distribution of the age variable. <2> If the study is well designed, it can not give us the same average age in both groups. <3> To compare the distribution of the age variable in both groups, it would be convenient to know a measure of dispersion as the standard deviation in addition to the mean. <4> For the final conclusion it does not matter the distribution of age in both groups, only if the treatment is effective or not. <5> If, in addition to the mean, the median and the fashion agree, we can affirm that the groups do not differ with respect to the distribution of the age variable.
Output: 3
Question: A pediatrician wants to study overweight in children of 14 years, according to the values ​​of the BMI (body mass index). To estimate the necessary sample size, it proposes a confidence level of 95% and a precision of 1 unit of BMI. What other parameters do you need to know to determine the sample size? 
 Options:  <1> The average BMI in the population. <2> The variance of the BMI. <3> The mean and standard deviation of the BMI. <4> The size of the population and the average BMI. <5> The standard deviation of the BMI and the population size.
Output: 2
Question: The Pearson correlation coefficient indicates that there is a statistical association between two variables when: 
 Options:  <1> Its value is positive. <2> Its value is between -1 (minus one) and 1 (one). <3> Its value approaches zero. <4> Its value is equal or very similar to the sample size used for its calculation. <5> Its value approaches its possible extreme values, -1 (minus one) or 1 (one).
Output: 5
Question: If you want to estimate the effects of an intervention, you will use: 
 Options:  <1> A transversal design. <2> A retrospective design <3> An ecological study. <4> A randomized clinical trial. <5> An observational design with random selection of the participants.
Output: 4
Question: Which of the following statements about the meta-analysis is correct? 
 Options:  <1> The objective of the meta-analysis is to quantitatively summarize the results of the studies carried out. <2> The meta-analysis is a large clinical trial. <3> It would be desirable to avoid negative clinical trials, as well as unpublished ones, to prevent selection biases. <4> By definition, all meta-analyzes are a reliable source of evidence, the quality of the trials being irrelevant or if they include the results of randomized clinical trials. <5> The meta-analysis will correct the errors of carrying out the tests.
Output: 1
Question: Point out the correct definition: 
 Options:  <1> The Necessary Number to Treat (NNT) is the inverse of the Relative Risk (RR). <2> The Relative Risk Reduction (RRR) can clearly differentiate the big risks and benefits of the small ones. <3> The Relative Risk Reduction (RRR) is a measure of the therapeutic effort that clinicians and patients must make to avoid negative results of their illnesses. <4> The Number Necessary to Damage (NND) is calculated by dividing the unit by the Number Needed to Treat (NNT). <5> The Absolute Risk Reduction (RRA) is calculated by the absolute difference of the episode rate in the control group minus the episode rate in the intervention group.
Output: 5
Question: In a cohort study, the number of new cases of disease per person per unit of time is: 
 Options:  <1> The annual incidence. <2> The cumulative incidence or probability. <3> The prevalence rate <4> The density or incidence rate. <5> The relative risk of developing the disease.
Output: 4
Question: In a clinical study to evaluate the efficacy of a new medication in the treatment of migraine crisis (point out the CORRECT): 
 Options:  <1> Strict inclusion criteria increase the external validity of the study. <2> Strict exclusion criteria reduce the internal validity of the study. <3> Control with a placebo arm increases the external validity of the study. <4> Masking reduces the internal validity of the study. <5> Randomization increases the internal validity of the study.
Output: 5
Question: We want to know if coffee consumption can be associated with neonatal malformation, so a control case study is designed. We interview a group of women who have had children with malformations and the same in a group of mothers without children with malformations. The interviews will be conducted by two interviewers trained through a previously validated questionnaire. In addition, interviewers ignore whether the interviewee is a case or a control. What kind of bias can we introduce? 
 Options:  <1> Information bias <2> Memory bias <3> Interviewer bias <4> Selection bias <5> Ecological fallacy
Output: 2
Question: We want to study if Vitamin D can increase the incidence of breast cancer. In our area we have a population registry of cancer. To achieve our goal, all women diagnosed with breast cancer are selected from the register we have and each case pairs with two controls. What study design has been chosen? 
 Options:  <1> Prospective cohort study. <2> Cases and controls study. <3> Case-control study nested. <4> Retrospective cohort study. <5> Ecological study
Output: 3
Question: We want to conduct a study to assess the effect of exposure to alcohol consumption on pancreatic cancer. It is possible that the relationship may be affected by the effect of exposure to tobacco use. If you only want to analyze the effect of alcohol consumption, what type of bias can occur? 
 Options:  <1> Exposure bias <2> Diagnostic bias <3> Performance bias <4> Bias due to surveillance effect (or Hawthorne). <5> Confusing bias
Output: 5
Question: A study is conducted to evaluate the relationship between lung cancer and exposure to silica. 400 patients diagnosed with lung cancer are selected from the provincial tumor registry and 400 healthy people are chosen randomly from the population resident in the province. The result of the evaluation of this relationship is OR = 1.67; 95% CI = 1.27 - 2.21. It is true: 
 Options:  <1> There is no relationship between exposure to silica and lung cancer. <2> With this study, the relationship between silica and lung cancer can not be evaluated. <3> It is a randomized experimental study with a positive association between exposure to silica and lung cancer. <4> These data show that there is no statistical significance between exposure to silica and lung cancer. <5> It is a case-control study with a positive association between exposure to silica and lung cancer.
Output: 5
Question: Regarding the designs of clinical trials to demonstrate efficacy of antidepressants, which of the following is FALSE? 
 Options:  <1> The inclusion in the design of clinical trials of secondary safety variables is important in order to establish the therapeutic location of the drugs studied. <2> In studies of depression it is not considered ethical to use a control group with placebo. <3> The efficacy of antidepressants is measured by the proportion of subjects with a predetermined percentage reduction in specific depression scales, such as Hamilton's or Beck's. <4> Due to the great variability of the response between one study and another, comparisons between active drugs with a noninferiority design do not allow to conclude efficacy in a robust way. <5> Although clinical improvement can be seen in one or two weeks, it usually takes 4 weeks of follow-up in clinical trials to establish significant differences.
Output: 2
Question: Regarding the phases of the clinical development of a drug, which of the following characteristics does NOT correspond to a clinical trial in phase 2? 
 Options:  <1> They are exploratory therapeutic studies. <2> They are performed in a large number of patients (between 100 and 1000). <3> They are used to delimit a range of therapeutic doses. <4> The informed consent of the patients is required for their inclusion in the study. <5> They are usually of short duration.
Output: 2
Question: A randomized phase III clinical trial compared the efficacy of a new analgesic (experimental) with a control treatment (tramadol) in patients with chronic pain. The working hypothesis was that experimental treatment reduces pain more than tramadol. The effect of the two treatments was determined at 48 hours by reducing the score marked by the patient on an analog - visual scale from 0 to 100 mm. The mean reduction in the tramadol group was -27 and in the experimental group of -31. The hypothesis was contrasted for the differences, with the corresponding statistical test and a value of p = 0.03 was obtained. Regarding the previous study, which of the following conclusions seems more correct? 
 Options:  <1> The study demonstrated clinically relevant differences. <2> The differences in the analgesic effect between the two treatments studied were significant. <3> The benefit - risk of the experimental treatment was better than that of tramadol. <4> The experimental treatment was 20% better than tramadol. <5> We can recommend the widespread use of experimental treatment, because it is more effective than tramadol in the treatment of chronic pain.
Output: 2
Question: A clinical trial is conducted in hypertensive patients to assess the effectiveness of a new drug in reducing the occurrence of heart failure. The Relative Risk (RR) of heart failure in relation to the usual drug is 0.69 with a 95% CI of 0.31 to 1.17. What do these results mean? 
 Options:  <1> The new drug decreases the risk of heart failure significantly. <2> The new drug is very effective and should be marketed. <3> The reduction of the risk of heart failure with the new drug is clinically irrelevant. <4> There are no statistically significant differences between the effect of the drugs studied. <5> The new drug increases the risk of heart failure but not significantly.
Output: 4
Question: If we define the cut-off point to diagnose renal failure through the Glomerular Filtering Index (GFR) as 15 ml / min instead of 60 ml / min it is increasing: 
 Options:  <1> The sensitivity of the IFG. <2> The specificity of the IFG. <3> The Positive Predictive Value of the IFG. <4> The Negative Predictive Value of the IFG. <5> The internal and external validity of the IFG.
Output: 2
Question: We have two tests to diagnose a serious prognosis disease. Test A has a sensitivity of 95% and a specificity of 60% and test B has a sensitivity of 70% and a specificity of 99%. We have an effective treatment but that produces important adverse effects and also has a very high cost. What test would we choose to make the diagnosis? 
 Options:  <1> Test A because it will detect less false positives. <2> Test A because it has a higher sensitivity. <3> Test B because it will detect more false positives. <4> Test A because it will detect more false negatives. <5> Test B because it has a greater specificity.
Output: 5
Question: What type of economic evaluation analysis in health compares the costs of the results of different health interventions measured in years of life adjusted for quality (QALY)? 
 Options:  <1> Analysis of minimization of costs. <2> Cost effectiveness analysis. <3> Cost utility analysis. <4> Cost benefit analysis. <5> Analysis of the cost of health.
Output: 3
Question: How would you define quality of care? 
 Options:  <1> The quality of care is the set of rules to ensure that things are done well. <2> The quality of care can be defined as the absence of incidents in the care of the sick. <3> The quality of care can be defined as the satisfaction of the needs and aspirations of patients-clients, both real and perceived, with the least consumption of resources. <4> The quality of care is defined through the implementation of improvement actions that ensure compliance with the objectives of the Quality Plan of the Health Center. <5> The quality of care is to treat the sick with all possible means.
Output: 3
Question: A 45-year-old patient with a moderate smoking habit, no drinker, no other history of interest who has been diagnosed with squamous carcinoma of the oropharynx cT1N2b. It is pending decision of treatment in committee. What infectious agent would you be interested in confusing before proposing the treatment? 
 Options:  <1> Helicobacter pylori. <2> Herpes Simplex virus type 2. <3> Human papilloma virus. <4> Epstein Barr virus. <5> Cytomegalovirus.
Output: 3
Question: A 25-year-old woman with no history of interest or toxic habits who went to the emergency room due to severe pain in her right ear, total inability to open her mouth, sudden onset and no previous history of trauma. It refers to the use of a discharge plate due to a nighttime dental clenching habit. What is your diagnosis? 
 Options:  <1> Dislocation of the mandibular condyle in front of the joint eminence. <2> Acute joint blockage (anterior dislocation of the articular meniscus). <3> Mandibular condyle fracture. <4> Fibrous ankylosis of the temporomandibular joint. <5> Bony ankylosis of the temporomandibular joint.
Output: 2
Question: If a patient presents a facial paralysis that does not affect the musculature of the forehead we should think that the lesion is: 
 Options:  <1> At the supranuclear level. <2> In the geniculate ganglion. <3> In the stylomastoid foramen. <4> In the pontocerebellar angle. <5> In the internal auditory canal.
Output: 1
Question: The association of advanced age, diabetes, otalgia that does not progress favorably despite the treatment and paralysis of the VII cranial nerve lead to think of one of the following clinical pictures as the first option: 
 Options:  <1> Nasopharyngeal carcinoma <2> Granular myringitis. <3> Diffuse labyrinthitis. <4> Carcinoma of the temporal bone. <5> Malignant external otitis
Output: 5
Question: In what type of hearing loss is the phenomenon of recruitment or recruitment characteristic? 
 Options:  <1> Transmission hearing loss. <2> Mixed hearing loss. <3> Central hearing loss. <4> Retrocochlear hearing loss. <5> Cochlear hearing loss.
Output: 5
Question: In the presence of a patient with suspected blistering pemphigoid, which of the following tests should we perform to confirm the diagnosis? 
 Options:  <1> Dermatoscopy. <2> Cultivation of the contents of a blister. <3> Skin biopsy for culture. <4> Skin biopsy for histological study and direct immunofluorescence. <5> Analytical with determination of antinuclear and anti DNA antibodies.
Output: 4
Question: A 24-year-old boy who, after 3 days of high-risk sexual contact, has numerous pustular, small, very pruritic lesions that progress to minute erosions affecting the entire glans and inner face of the prepuce. Indicate which is, among the following, the most probable diagnostic orientation: 
 Options:  <1> Genital candidiasis <2> Chancroid. <3> Secondary syphilis <4> Balanitis by Trichomonas. <5> Fungal infection by dermatophytes.
Output: 1
Question: What is the most important prognostic factor in Stage 1 Melanoma? 
 Options:  <1> Serum LDH level. <2> Tumor thickness measured in the Breslow index. <3> The presence of clinical or histological ulceration. <4> Number of metastases. <5> The mitotic index. The mitotic index.
Output: 2
Question: The most frequent cause of irreversible visual loss in the Western world in people over 50 is: 
 Options:  <1> Diabetic retinopathy. <2> Simple chronic glaucoma. <3> Macular degeneration associated with age. <4> Retinal detachment. <5> Waterfalls.
Output: 3
Question: A 23-year-old woman goes to the emergency room because she is very nervous after an argument with her partner. In his clinical history several similar demands are reflected in the previous year, in two of them after an autolytic gesture. There are also frequent conflicts in relationships, work changes and family discussions. She says she feels misunderstood by everyone including the psychiatrists who care for her. The diagnosis would be: 
 Options:  <1> Borderline personality disorder. <2> Disorder of the histrionic personality. <3> Dysthymia <4> Dissociative disorder <5> Depersonalization disorder.
Output: 1
Question: 50-year-old woman who for 1 month has a depressed mood, anhedonia, memory loss, easy crying, loss of energy, sense of worthlessness and guilt, marked weight loss and early awakening, as well as inability to perform their tasks usual at home. In separation proceedings for 3 months. Point out the most appropriate diagnosis: 
 Options:  <1> Dysthymia <2> Pseudodementia <3> Depressive adaptive disorder. <4> Episode of major depression. <5> Minor depression
Output: 4
Question: A 43-year-old man smokes 20 cigarettes a day, who comes to his clinic taken by a family member, because he has been sleeping for a few days, less than 3 hours a day, without mentioning fatigue. He adds that he has begun to spend large amounts of money, compromising family finances. It is verbose, with acceleration of thought and megalomaniacal appearance. As a personal history, there are no diseases of interest except for a depressive episode 5 years ago. He does not believe that anything happens to him, but he has agreed to go to the consultation with the intention of seeking help to quit smoking. There is no consumption of other toxins and the analytical and neurological examination do not provide abnormal data. In this patient, taking into account his most probable diagnosis, which treatment would be the LESS indicated: 
 Options:  <1> Bupropion. <2> Valproic acid. <3> Lithium carbonate. <4> Risperidone. <5> Olanzapine.
Output: 1
Question: All of the following are common complications of untreated generalized anxiety disorder EXCEPT: 
 Options:  <1> Consumption of alcohol and drug abuse. <2> Psychosomatic disorders. <3> Depressive disorders. <4> Psychotic disorders <5> Suicidal behavior
Output: 4
Question: Which of the following factors is NOT associated with good prognosis of conversion disorder? 
 Options:  <1> Acute start <2> Presence of stressors clearly identifiable at the beginning of the disease. <3> High IQ <4> Absence of other psychiatric disorders and legal processes. <5> Presence of convulsions and tremors.
Output: 5
Question: Which of these statements is FALSE regarding stupor? 
 Options:  <1> It is an alteration of consciousness. <2> It can occur in melancholy. <3> It supposes a reversible state by moderate stimuli. <4> The term is used in states of mutism and reduction of motor activity. <5> In Neurology it is a state that precedes coma.
Output: 3
Question: A 26-year-old woman with no previous psychiatric history, she went to the ER brought by her parents, who explained that she had been overactive, nervous, insomniac for a few days. They explain that he obsessively reviews the house's electrical installation in search of video cameras and microphones. In the interview, she tells us that she is being watched by the Police because she is a galactic correspondent with special powers. Which of the following options should NOT be considered as a differential diagnosis? 
 Options:  <1> Obsessive compulsive disorder <2> Schizophrenia. <3> Manic episode. <4> Psychosis due to the consumption of toxic substances. <5> Brain tumor.
Output: 1
Question: We serve a patient who has just suffered a traffic accident. She is conscious and when taking the constants she has a systolic blood pressure of 70 mmHg and a heart rate of 45 beats / minute. In addition, the skin of the extremities is hot. What is the most likely cause of the shock? 
 Options:  <1> Hypovolemic shock <2> Intrinsic cardiogenic shock. <3> Neurogenic shock <4> Septic shock. <5> Obstructive cardiogenic shock.
Output: 3
Question: A 44-year-old patient who suffers a traumatism due to a high intensity traffic accident. Upon admission to the hospital, he is conscious and oriented and manifests pain at the cervical and pelvic level as well as functional impotence in the right lower limb. The physical examination reveals a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg with 100 beats / minute, an abolition of the vesicular murmur in the lower third of the right hemithorax and dullness to the percussion thereof. The chest radiograph shows a right pleural effusion, also in the lower third. Which of these statements do you think is correct? 
 Options:  <1> It is a large pulmonary hemorrhage so the patient must be operated on urgently by thoracotomy. <2> Since it is an intrathoracic hemorrhage, spontaneous hemostasis is expected, so no therapeutic measures are indicated. <3> Drainage of the pleural cavity with a heavy gauge catheter and monitoring of the patient is indicated. <4> The simple needle-evacuator with needle is the treatment of choice. <5> It is most likely a chylothorax, so a treatment with restriction of heavy chain triglycerides should be established.
Output: 3
Question: A 19-year-old man consulted for a 24-hour history of pain, swelling and functional impotence of the right knee accompanied by a fever of 38ºC. Physical examination reveals inflammatory signs and joint effusion in the right knee. The analytical data show a leukocytosis with neutrophilia and an elevation of the C-reactive protein. The syndromic diagnosis of acute monoarthritis is made. What is the most likely etiologic diagnosis? 
 Options:  <1> Arthritis by microcrystals. <2> Reactive arthritis <3> Bacterial infectious arthritis. <4> Infectious arthritis due to mycobacteria. <5> Rheumatoid arthritis.
Output: 3
Question: A 29-year-old woman, obese, with no history of interest, who consulted for a bilateral, intense, pulsatile headache lasting one month, accompanied by horizontal diplopia and episodes of monocular amaurosis of seconds duration. The exploration is normal, except for the presence of bilateral papilledema. Which of these tests do you think will allow you to fully confirm your diagnosis ?: 
 Options:  <1> Ultrasound of supra-aortic trunks. <2> Magnetic resonance of the skull. <3> Electroencephalogram. <4> Lumbar puncture. <5> Visual evoked potentials.
Output: 4
Question: All the following diseases can be accompanied by palpable splenomegaly, EXCEPT one. Indicate the latter: 
 Options:  <1> Non-Hodgkin lymphoma. <2> Multiple myeloma. <3> Tricholeukemia. <4> Gaucher disease. <5> Myelofibrosis with myeloid metaplasia.
Output: 2
Question: Adolescent of 16 years who consults for primary amenorrhea. He does not have medical-surgical history of interest. On physical examination, we found female secondary sex characteristics, female external genitalia, with stage III-IV breast development, scanty pubic and axillary hair. He presents a stature in the 90th percentile for his age. The plain radiograph reveals a bone age of 15.8 years. The analytical study reveals an estradiol of 50 pg / ml, and high gonadotropins. Which of the following clinical entities would be compatible with the diagnosis? 
 Options:  <1> Klinefelter syndrome. <2> Kallman syndrome. <3> Constitutional growth retardation. <4> Congenital adrenal hyperplasia. <5> Complete androgenic insensitivity syndrome.
Output: 5
Question: Which of the following parenteral vaccines is contraindicated during pregnancy? 
 Options:  <1> Vaccine against tetanus. <2> Vaccine against measles. <3> Vaccine against whooping cough. <4> Vaccine against hepatitis B. <5> Vaccine against the flu.
Output: 2
Question: In a patient with liver cirrhosis, which of the following is the most useful procedure for measuring the response of ascites to diuretic therapy? 
 Options:  <1> Measure the volume of urine for 24 hours. <2> Measure the abdominal perimeter daily. <3> Determine each week the albumin gradient between serum and ascites. <4> Record the weight every day. <5> Evaluate natriuresis every 48 hours.
Output: 4
Question: The area that acts as a connection between automatic emotional responses and the control of complex behaviors, guiding behavior to control the manifestation of emotional responses, is: 
 Options:  <1> The angular gyrus of the limbic system. <2> The convolution or lobe of the insula. <3> The prefrontal orbitofrontal or ventromedial cortex. <4> The thalamus <5> The cortex of somatosensory association.
Output: 3
Question: The reinforcement circuit can be activated by electrical stimulation of the mesolimbic system, originating in the ventral tegmental area and projecting: 
 Options:  <1> To the hippocampus, inhibiting the release of dopamine. <2> To the nucleus accumbens, causing release of dopamine. <3> To the prefrontal cortex, stimulating the release of glutamate. <4> A mesencephalic reticular formation, causing release of glutamate. <5> To the pituitary, inhibiting the release of dopamine.
Output: 2
Question: The islets of Langerhans of the pancreas secrete and release: 
 Options:  <1> Cholecystokinin <2> Insulin and glucagon. <3> Vasopressin <4> Adrenaline and noradrenaline. <5> Prolactin
Output: 2
Question: Exposure to androgens in a sensitive or critical period, at the beginning of development, causes masculinization of the sexual and behavioral organs. This effect has received the name of: 
 Options:  <1> Motivational effect <2> Effect of pheromones. <3> Activating effect. <4> Organizer effect. <5> Biological effect
Output: 4
Question: When the behaviors learned by repetition, such as driving, become automatic and routine, they become controlled by: 
 Options:  <1> The primary motor cortex <2> The prefrontal cortex. <3> The ganglia or basal nuclei. <4> The central nucleus of the amygdala. <5> The hippocampus.
Output: 3
Question: The neurofibrillary tangles are anomalous structures that are observed in Alzheimer's patients and that consist of: 
 Options:  <1> Neurons in process of extinction by accumulations of intertwined filaments of tau protein that alter the transport of substances in the cytoplasm. <2> Extracellular deposits containing a nucleus of beta-amylase protein surrounded by degenerating axons and dendrites. <3> Proteins that serve to facilitate the production and transport of a cerebral neurotropic factor. <4> Accumulation of astrocytes and microgliocytes with the ability to react to external pathogens. <5> Proteins produced by a defective gene that increases the likelihood of Parkinson's disease.
Output: 1
Question: In the preoperative period (2-6 years) the child usually thinks that the things of nature (rivers, mountains, etc.) have been built by the human being. This feature is called: 
 Options:  <1> Animism. <2> Realism. <3> Artificialism <4> Utilitarianism. <5> Pre-operative error
Output: 3
Question: The pattern of attachment that is observed more frequently in children is: 
 Options:  <1> Anxious attachment <2> Anxious avoidant attachment. <3> Ambivalent attachment <4> Secure attachment <5> Detachment.
Output: 4
Question: From Piaget's epistemology, individuals are able to construct new schemes because they have inherited two intellectual functions that are: 
 Options:  <1> Reinforcement and punishment. <2> Organization and adaptation. <3> Assimilation and accommodation. <4> Self-regulation and assimilation. <5> Primary and secondary circular reaction.
Output: 2
Question: If I can not learn my new phone number because I always see the first three digits of the old one, what is the name of that type of interference? 
 Options:  <1> Proactive <2> Retroactive. <3> Coactive <4> Reactive <5> Protoactive
Output: 1
Question: What are the characteristics that favor intrinsic motivation? 
 Options:  <1> Self-determination and competence. <2> Condescension and complexity <3> Routine and condescension. <4> Novelty and unpredictability. <5> Simplicity and reward.
Output: 1
Question: What are the attributions to failure that are most likely to produce helplessness? 
 Options:  <1> The internal, unstable and general attributions. <2> The internal attributions, stable and specific. <3> The external, stable and general attributions. <4> The internal, stable and general attributions. <5> The external attributions, stable and specific.
Output: 4
Question: What kind of memory can we use to plan what we have to do to arrive on time for an appointment next Tuesday? 
 Options:  <1> Prospective report. <2> Autobiographical memory <3> Episodic memory. <4> Semantic memory <5> Procedural memory.
Output: 1
Question: Which of the following emotions facilitates more exhaustive behaviors? 
 Options:  <1> Sadness. <2> Go to. <3> Disgust. <4> Guilt. <5> Rage.
Output: 3
Question: The minimum amount of auditory stimulation needed to begin to identify the lyrics of a song is a threshold: 
 Options:  <1> Absolute. <2> Subliminal. <3> Differential. <4> Relative. <5> Musical.
Output: 1
Question: What kind of learning manifests itself without obvious reinforcement? 
 Options:  <1> Latent learning. <2> Vicarial learning. <3> Learning by insight. <4> Instrumental learning <5> None.
Output: 1
Question: If I propose to a friend to solve a problem like the tower in Hanoi, I will be proposing a problem of: 
 Options:  <1> Transformation. <2> Induction of structures. <3> Ordination. <4> Social relationships. <5> Complex analogies
Output: 1
Question: What sleep disorder with onset in childhood and adolescence has a lower family incidence? 
 Options:  <1> Kleine-Levin syndrome. <2> Narcolepsy <3> Circadian rhythm disorder, delayed sleep type. <4> Night terrors. <5> Somnambulism.
Output: 1
Question: What feature or dimension of attention is most relevant when the child looks for a red paint in his school case full of other colors? 
 Options:  <1> Orientation. <2> Flexibility. <3> Concentration. <4> Alert. <5> Persistence.
Output: 2
Question: Which of the following is NOT a component of dry bed training for bedwetting? 
 Options:  <1> The use of the alarm. <2> The positive practice <3> The programmed awakening. <4> The positive reinforcement. <5> The sphincteric exercises.
Output: 5
Question: According to Rehm's theory, what failure of the self-control process explains to a greater extent the pessimistic view of life in adolescent depression? 
 Options:  <1> Selective attention to immediate consequences. <2> The establishment of unrealistic goals. <3> The erroneous attributions. <4> Deficit self-reinforcement. <5> The excessive punishment.
Output: 1
Question: What degree of mental disability corresponds to an IQ of thirty-six? 
 Options:  <1> Mental disability limit. <2> Mild mental disability. <3> Moderate mental disability. <4> Severe mental disability. <5> Deep mental disability.
Output: 3
Question: In what phases of the dream do the enuretic episodes occur? 
 Options:  <1> In the phases of light sleep. <2> In the phases of deep sleep. <3> In the phases of paradoxical sleep. <4> In the dream phases. <5> Indistinctly in any phase of the dream.
Output: 5
Question: With what explanatory theory of childhood phobias is the Napalkov effect more closely related? 
 Options:  <1> The theory of the two factors of Mowrer. <2> The theory of the incubation of Eysenck. <3> The theory of social learning of Bandura. <4> The bioinformational theory of Lang's emotion. <5> The anxiety sensitivity theory of Reiss.
Output: 2
Question: On Tuesday after dinner an eight-year-old boy asks permission to play with the video game console, but the parents refuse because it is too late and he has to go to bed the next day. The child starts giving the murga until the parents give in. According to the theoretical approach of Patterson's family coercion process, what happens to the parental giving behavior? 
 Options:  <1> It is punished positively. <2> It is punished negatively. <3> Extinguishes. <4> It is reinforced positively. <5> It is reinforced negatively.
Output: 5
Question: What mineral deficit has been especially observed in pica cases? 
 Options:  <1> Calcium deficit <2> Zinc deficit. <3> Lead deficit <4> Potassium deficit <5> Sodium deficit
Output: 2
Question: In what kind of tasks do the attentional problems characteristic of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder manifest themselves? 
 Options:  <1> Simple, novel and targeting tasks. <2> Complex, novel and capacity tasks. <3> Simple, routine and selection tasks. <4> Complex, novel and organizational tasks. <5> Complex, routine and surveillance tasks.
Output: 5
Question: A teenager with obsessive-compulsive disorder phones the Toxicological Information Service to ask if he can safely use an insecticide for cockroaches. What is the name of this escape behavior? 
 Options:  <1> Ascertainment. <2> Rationalization. <3> Reinsurance. <4> Ritualization <5> Testing.
Output: 3
Question: What author proposes that the structure and functions of the personality are organized in three levels: dispositional traits, personal interests or concerns and life history? 
 Options:  <1> Pelechano <2> Singer. <3> Coast. <4> McAdams. <5> Pervin.
Output: 4
Question: According to the theory of social learning of J.B. Rotter, both general and specific expectations are: 
 Options:  <1> Goals or objectives. <2> Innate predispositions. <3> Judgments or beliefs. <4> Objective odds <5> Incentives or reinforcers.
Output: 3
Question: What construct refers to the degree to which people are able to express commitment, control and challenge in their actions, thoughts and feelings? 
 Options:  <1> Coping strategies. <2> Resistant personality <3> Subjective well-being. <4> Type A behavior pattern <5> Extraversion
Output: 2
Question: The Life Orientation Test (LOT developed by Scheier and Carver in 1985) is a test that measures: 
 Options:  <1> General expectations related to optimism. <2> Psychological well-being throughout the life cycle. <3> Emotional coping styles. <4> Orientation and sexual preferences. <5> Positive emotions and happiness.
Output: 1
Question: Within the framework of the Theory of Self-Discrepancy (E.T. Higgins), aspects of the self that contain information about aspirations, goals, expectations or desires are called: 
 Options:  <1> I Real. <2> I Ideal <3> I should. <4> Selfconcept. <5> Ego.
Output: 2
Question: Which author proposes a personality model with dimensions of temperament and character ?: 
 Options:  <1> H.J. Eysenck <2> J.A. Gray. <3> P.T. Costa and R.R. McCrae. <4> C.R. Cloninger. <5> G. Kelly.
Output: 4
Question: The Big Five are dimensions of personal functioning that have been obtained from the analysis of: 
 Options:  <1> The behavior registered in the laboratory. <2> The genetic polymorphisms of the individual. <3> The common language present in the dictionary. <4> Observation in the clinical context. <5> The electrical functioning of the Nervous System.
Output: 3
Question: For R.B. Cattell, the T data would correspond to the information collected through: 
 Options:  <1> Self-reports <2> Third party evaluation scales. <3> Objective tests. <4> A questionnaire like the 16PF. <5> The grid technique.
Output: 3
Question: Taking into account the relationships between the theory of the four temperaments and the personality model of H.J. Eysenck, an angry temper will correspond to a person: 
 Options:  <1> Introverted and Stable Emotional. <2> Apathetic and Stable Emotional. <3> Introverted and Unstable Emotional. <4> Extroverted and Unstable Emotional. <5> Introverted and Anxious
Output: 4
Question: What characteristics increase the reliability of the psychophysiological evaluation? 
 Options:  <1> The law of initial values. <2> The autonomic balance and homeostasis. <3> The latency and duration of the answers. <4> The control of environmental artifacts and the organism. <5> The reactivity
Output: 4
Question: What characterizes the objective techniques of psychophysiological evaluation? 
 Options:  <1> They are tests with a high ecological validity. <2> Environmental factors (e.g., light, temperature) can affect the reliability of the record. <3> The anxious subjects usually have the same level of activation as the non-anxious ones. <4> Subjects with different anxiety disorders usually have similar patterns of activation at baseline. <5> Subjects with different anxiety disorders usually have similar responses to different stimuli.
Output: 2
Question: Reactivity is considered a source of error when using Observation as a method of obtaining information. Where does it come from? 
 Options:  <1> From the context in which the Observation is generated. <2> Of the observed subject. <3> Of the chosen procedure. <4> From the observer. <5> Of the type of instrument chosen.
Output: 2
Question: The psychological report must have the possibility of: 
 Options:  <1> Be written as the format of a structured interview. <2> Use any psychological test even if they are not adapted and measured in our country. <3> Be replicated or contrasted <4> Be binding for the Judge (in case of judicial Report). <5> Be impersonalized
Output: 3
Question: The verbal type report can also be considered as: 
 Options:  <1> The Barnum Effect. <2> A return interview. <3> A structured interview <4> As a simple recount of the data obtained from the tests. <5> A report of this type is never advisable.
Output: 2
Question: Following the classification of Pervin (1979) and Campbell (1953-1957) on the methods of collecting information, point out one of the techniques representative of the psychometric methodology: 
 Options:  <1> The Wechsler Intelligence Scale. <2> Incomplete sentences, by Kelly and Fisher. <3> Thematic Appreciation Test, by Murray. <4> Test of Personal Construct, by Kelly (1955). <5> The autorregistros.
Output: 1
Question: In what kind of technique can the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Assessment Questionnaire be framed? 
 Options:  <1> Self-report <2> Scalar techniques. <3> As a self-registration technique. <4> Within the projective techniques. <5> Of personal constructions.
Output: 1
Question: From which model of the psychological evaluation are the grid techniques and others appropriate to evaluate the meanings of the subject? 
 Options:  <1> Constructivist or constructionist model. <2> Behavioral Model <3> Clinical-dynamic model, Medical-psychiatric perspective. <4> Correlational model. <5> Clinical-dynamic model, Psychoanalytical perspective.
Output: 1
Question: What model of psychological evaluation jointly contemplates the basic objectives of: Description, Classification, Comparison and Prediction? 
 Options:  <1> Clinical-dynamic model, medical-psychiatric perspective. <2> Humanist Model <3> Clinical-dynamic model, Psychoanalytical perspective. <4> Behavioral Model <5> Psychometric, Correlational or Attribute Model.
Output: 5
Question: What is the model of psychological evaluation whose basic assumption is that abnormal behavior is associated with endogenous or internal factors, whether biological or intrapsychic, whose object of study is the symptom, which will allow us to build syndromes and subsequently be able to apply a treatment? 
 Options:  <1> The Behavior model. <2> The model of the Attribute. <3> The Clinical-dynamic model, Psychoanalytical perspective. <4> The Clinical-dynamic model, Medical-Psychiatric perspective. <5> The Constructivist model.
Output: 4
Question: In the history of the Psychological Evaluation, the Aristotelian Physiognomy makes its influence felt in the later works of the authors: 
 Options:  <1> Krestschmer and Sheldon. <2> Binet and Simon. <3> Discards <4> Juan Huarte from SAN. Juan. <5> Hermann Rorschach.
Output: 1
Question: Which statement is correct regarding the objective techniques in psychological evaluation? 
 Options:  <1> The Electroencephalograph allows to collect responses from the somatic nervous system. <2> The Purdue manual precision device allows the central nervous system to collect responses. <3> Most of the answers that measure these techniques are easily controllable by the evaluated. <4> The administration, registration and punctuation is usually done using devices. <5> The polygraph allows to collect cognitive responses.
Output: 4
Question: To assess social development in childhood and adolescence, what factors influence the selection of suitable procedures? 
 Options:  <1> The availability of instruments that allow obtaining valid and reliable measures in this area. <2> The age of the child and his / her linguistic expression skills. <3> The nature of the behavior or ability to be evaluated, the level of development and the form of manifestation of the behavior, individually or in a group. <4> The skills and experience of the evaluator with the procedures and evaluation techniques commonly used in this area. <5> Access to standardized tests according to age, sex and special conditions.
Output: 3
Question: With respect to which psychological problems are the correlations between the different informants consulted in child evaluation higher? 
 Options:  <1> Internalized problems. <2> Behavioral problems <3> Personality problems. <4> Socialization problems <5> In relation to the temporary start and intensity of the problems reported.
Output: 2
Question: Which of the following tests fits within the G-Factor Tests? 
 Options:  <1> The test of primary mental abilities (PMA). <2> The test of progressive matrices (Raven). <3> The battery of differential abilities (DAT). <4> The McCarthy scales (MSCA). <5> The Bayley scales of child development.
Output: 2
Question: What are the advantages of the inventories usually used in child assessment? 
 Options:  <1> They provide standardized scores and reduce evaluation costs. <2> They facilitate obtaining detailed information about the problem. <3> They provide eneatipos. <4> They allow to gather information from different areas related to the current problem. <5> They can be applied to both adults and children.
Output: 1