niryuu/sni-each-converted huggingface dataset:
Question: What aspects characterize the evaluation of children's problems compared to the evaluation of adults? 
 Options:  <1> Employ techniques and instruments with psychometric guarantees of reliability and validity. <2> Use especially observation, emphasize overt behaviors and emphasize the external determinants of them. <3> Enable the planning of the subsequent treatment. <4> Ensure the confidentiality of the information obtained. <5> Carry out the evaluation through the application of different techniques and instruments.
Output: 2
Question: The response trend is an important source of error that diminishes the quality of: 
 Options:  <1> Projective techniques. <2> The semi-structured interview. <3> The methodology of the Observation. <4> The Self-reports. <5> The Objective Techniques.
Output: 4
Question: What attitude should the evaluator show in the first interview? 
 Options:  <1> You must start using closed questions. <2> You should use questions that go from the particular to the general. <3> You must take care of the verbal aspects (intensity, tone, etc.) to promote communication. <4> You should not focus on the problem or problems that you are consulting. <5> It must interrupt the interviewee and limit their interactions.
Output: 3
Question: Given the purpose of the interview, what would be the CORRECT response? 
 Options:  <1> The diagnostic interview has as a priority objective to guide. <2> The research interview has as a priority objective to operate a change. <3> The therapeutic objective of the therapeutic interview is to establish a diagnosis. <4> The vocational orientation interview has as a priority objective to advise on future studies or professions. <5> The main objective of the consultative interview is to investigate the evaluation technique itself.
Output: 4
Question: What quality criteria must a psychological assessment instrument meet? 
 Options:  <1> Validity, or degree to which the scores of a test are free of measurement error. <2> Reliability, or degree to which the scores of a test are free of measurement error. <3> Have a coefficient of internal consistency above 0.40. <4> To have a low proportion of the variance observed explained by the real variance. <5> Include a high error variance.
Output: 2
Question: Within the Psychological Evaluation, the Self Registers, as a strategy to obtain information, how can they be considered? 
 Options:  <1> As a type of Experimental technique. <2> As a type of Self-reports. <3> As a modality of objective techniques. <4> As an Observational technique. <5> As a modality of the Semantic Differential of Osgood.
Output: 2
Question: What characteristic is true with respect to the tests referred to the criterion? 
 Options:  <1> The purpose is to describe the subject in the continuum of some trait. <2> The objective is to maximize individual differences. <3> The scores obtained only have meaning in relation to the results of the normative group. <4> They allow to interpret the scores in absolute sense, without reference to any group. <5> The items are usually derived from some feature theory.
Output: 4
Question: Which of the following reliability calculation methods can not be carried out with a single application of the test? 
 Options:  <1> Alpha coefficient of Cronbach. <2> Guttman-Flanagan. <3> Rulon <4> Method of parallel forms. <5> Method of the two halves.
Output: 4
Question: In a frequency distribution, how do we call the number of times a variable value or any other lower value repeats in the sample? 
 Options:  <1> Proportion. <2> Accumulated absolute frequency. <3> Accumulated percentage. <4> Absolute frecuency. <5> Accumulated relative frequency.
Output: 2
Question: Which of these equalities is INCORRECT? 
 Options:  <1> Decil 1 = Centil 10. <2> Quartile 1 = Percentile 25. <3> Quartil 2 = Centil 20. <4> Decil 5 = Medium. <5> Quartile 3 = Centil 75.
Output: 3
Question: What is the sampling model whose principle is to directly access the natural agglomerations of units in the population? (workers in factories, students in universities ...): 
 Options:  <1> Stratified sampling. <2> Simple random sampling. <3> Conglomerate sampling. <4> Systematic sampling. <5> Sampling in time.
Output: 3
Question: Which of these graphical representations would you use to examine the relationship between two or more quantitative variables? 
 Options:  <1> Sectors diagrams. <2> Scatter plot. <3> Histogram <4> Chart of boxes. <5> Bar chart.
Output: 2
Question: Which of the following multivariate analysis techniques analyzes the covariation presented by a set of metric variables, susceptible of being synthesized in a set of common factors that lie behind them? 
 Options:  <1> Multiple discriminant analysis. <2> Multiple linear regression <3> Multivariate analysis of variance. <4> Factorial analysis. <5> Analysis of structural equations.
Output: 4
Question: What kind of validity does the degree of confidence refer to, with which it can be inferred that the cause-effect relationships between the variables of an investigation are interpretable in the sense suggested by the researcher? 
 Options:  <1> Internal validity <2> External validity <3> Discriminant validity <4> Ecological validity <5> Construct validity
Output: 1
Question: The Latin square designs are a type of: 
 Options:  <1> Random designs. <2> Block designs. <3> Intra-subject designs. <4> Mixed designs <5> Unifactorial designs.
Output: 2
Question: In a quasi-experimental design: 
 Options:  <1> There is no specific intervention by the researcher on the independent variable or treatment. <2> Spontaneous behavior is studied in natural situations. <3> It constitutes the maximum degree of intervention and internal control. <4> Study groups can not be organized by random assignment. <5> It represents the maximum degree of naturalness and the minimum internal control.
Output: 4
Question: What conclusion is reached in Asch's theory about the effects of context on social perception? 
 Options:  <1> If a trait is defined as central, it will be central in any context. <2> Traits, peripheral or central, are independent of the context in which they appear. <3> The same trait can be central in one context and peripheral in another. <4> The final impression is the result of the sum of each of the features separately. <5> The final impression is the result of the arithmetic mean of the values ​​of each of the features separately.
Output: 3
Question: On certain occasions, when we form an impression of others, we are influenced by our beliefs about the traits that go together in people. What theories put this fact in relief? 
 Options:  <1> Implicit Theories of the Personality. <2> Theories of Corresponding Inferences. <3> Theories of the Integration of Information. <4> Theories of the Central Traits. <5> Theory of Social Identity.
Output: 1
Question: What is the tendency to think that others behave as oneself in a certain situation? 
 Options:  <1> Perceptive selection. <2> Last attribution error. <3> False consensus. <4> Self-centered attribution error. <5> Confirmatory trends
Output: 3
Question: Imagine that you are in the supermarket with your neighbor and notice that you have a bruise on your eye. What heuristic would be applied if it overestimates the possibility that it is due to a problem of abuse? 
 Options:  <1> Representativeness <2> Availability / Accessibility <3> Simulation. <4> Anchoring-Adjustment. <5> False consensus.
Output: 2
Question: What theory would explain our need to reduce or eliminate the psychological distress produced when we have to choose between two equally attractive alternatives? 
 Options:  <1> Ingenuous Theory of Action. <2> Theory of Cognitive Dissonance. <3> Theory of Social Comparison <4> Theory of the Psychological Reactance. <5> Theory of the Cognitive Response.
Output: 2
Question: According to Ajzen's Theory of Planned Action, what would be the direct determinant of the behavior? 
 Options:  <1> The intention. <2> The definition of the situation. <3> The definition of the event. <4> The attitude towards behavior. <5> The perceived behavioral control.
Output: 1
Question: In relation to the process of formation of impressions, what does the phenomenon of Perceptual Defense refer to? 
 Options:  <1> Low threshold to perceive threatening stimuli. <2> Low threshold of recognition before stimuli that satisfy our needs. <3> High threshold to perceive threatening stimuli. <4> High threshold of recognition before positive stimuli. <5> Low threshold to perceive both negative and positive stimuli.
Output: 3
Question: Point out the CORRECT statement about the treatment program for the challenging defiant disorder created by Barkley: 
 Options:  <1> Its main scope of application is the classroom. <2> It makes an intensive use of modeling. <3> It is a training program for parents. <4> Comorbidity with ADHD discourages the application of this program. <5> It consists of twelve steps.
Output: 3
Question: For what kind of interventions in the problems of child and youth behavior has Patterson's theory of coercion served as a conceptual model? 
 Options:  <1> For the training of parents of children with behavioral disorders. <2> For rehabilitation interventions based on cognitive-behavioral. <3> For interventions carried out in therapeutic communities. <4> For referral programs that try to avoid the stigmatizing effects of labeling. <5> For the economies of tokens carried out in prisons and reformatories.
Output: 1
Question: For which of the following children's problems has the effectiveness of the symbolic modeling technique been demonstrated? 
 Options:  <1> Childhood depression <2> Behavioral disorders associated with ADHD. <3> The autism <4> The shyness. <5> The selective mutism.
Output: 4
Question: On what model are the intervention programs most successful in the early treatment of childhood autism based? 
 Options:  <1> In the applied analysis of behavior. <2> In the neomediational behaviorism. <3> In the theory of social learning. <4> In Lacanian psychoanalysis. <5> In the theory of attachment.
Output: 1
Question: What technique, based on the theory of social learning, is considered well established for the treatment of childhood fears? 
 Options:  <1> The practice reinforced. <2> The self-instructions of courage. <3> The modeling <4> Modeling with participation. <5> The live exhibition.
Output: 4
Question: What are the components of the habit inversion procedure for the treatment of tics? 
 Options:  <1> The self-registration of tics and relaxation. <2> Self-control and contingency management by parents. <3> Exposure with response prevention and cognitive restructuring. <4> The training in increasing awareness of the occurrence of tics and the practice of a competitive response. <5> Relaxation and the practice of a competitive response.
Output: 4
Question: Which of the following is an advantage of the alarm method for the treatment of enuresis? 
 Options:  <1> Its mechanism of action is well known. <2> It does not require awakening the child on a scheduled basis throughout the night. <3> It acts faster than desmopressin. <4> It does not require extra fluid intake (overlearning) as part of the treatment protocol. <5> Acts faster than dry bed training.
Output: 2
Question: The program of Deblinger and Heflin (1996) for the treatment of minors who have suffered sexual abuse is based on different modules, among which is: 
 Options:  <1> The training in coping skills. <2> Active avoidance of aversive situations. <3> Flood. <4> Avoidance of stereotyped behaviors. <5> Overcorrection
Output: 1
Question: The treatment of choice for Post Traumatic Stress Disorder in childhood is: 
 Options:  <1> The cognitive restructuring. <2> The exhibition, both in imagination and live. <3> No treatment has been proven more effective than the rest. <4> Planning of pleasant activities and training in social skills. <5> The relaxation technique alone has proven to be more effective than the rest.
Output: 2
Question: With what author or authors is the Motivational Interview associated? 
 Options:  <1> Marlatt and Gordon. <2> Hunt and Azrin. <3> Carroll. <4> Miller and Rollnick. <5> Prochaska and Diclemente.
Output: 4
Question: For what type of addiction has the community reinforcement program plus incentive therapy been proven to be a well-established treatment? 
 Options:  <1> Alcohol. <2> Cocaine. <3> Heroin. <4> Tobacco. <5> Cannabis
Output: 2
Question: In the treatment of alcoholism, what is Exposure Therapy based on the behavior of drinking? 
 Options:  <1> In the Respondent Conditioning. <2> In operant conditioning. <3> In social learning. <4> In the Saciation. <5> In Cognitive Reatribution.
Output: 1
Question: From the behavioral cognitive perspective, for the treatment of schizotypal personality disorder it is recommended: 
 Options:  <1> Exposure therapy <2> The operating techniques. <3> Interpersonal therapy <4> The training in mindfulness. <5> The training in social skills.
Output: 5
Question: The therapy based on mentalization focuses on: 
 Options:  <1> The promotion of the relaxation of the maladaptive functioning pattern. <2> The transferential interpretations that emerge in the relationship between patient and therapist. <3> The promotion of motivation to relate to significant others and establish safe limits. <4> The regulation of emotions. <5> The ability to acquire a sense of self and others in terms of subjective states and mental processes.
Output: 5
Question: Young's schema therapy for personality disorders derives from: 
 Options:  <1> The therapy of acceptance and commitment. <2> The emotive rational therapy. <3> Cognitive therapy of Beck. <4> Cognitive assessment therapy. <5> Interpersonal therapy
Output: 3
Question: Among the strategies of Emotional Regulation, which of the following would be an acceptance strategy within cognitive-behavioral therapies? 
 Options:  <1> Distraction. <2> Behavioral Activation <3> Exposure with Prevention of Response. <4> Emotional Expression Adjusted. <5> Emotional Inhibition.
Output: 4
Question: Acceptance and Commitment Therapy is structured around two central concepts, what are they? 
 Options:  <1> Experiential Avoidance and Personal Values. <2> Acceptance and Validation <3> Activation and Commitment <4> Experiential Avoidance and Cognitive Restructuring. <5> The emotional Vulnerability and the cognitive defusion.
Output: 1
Question: When training in self-instruction is done in young children, which of the following indications may NOT help the success of the training? 
 Options:  <1> Begin training with play activities. <2> Work with two children. <3> Use imagination techniques. <4> Encourage the child to memorize and mechanically use the self-instructions. <5> Combine with reinforcement techniques.
Output: 4
Question: What is the last phase in the basic procedure of self-instruction training of Meichenbaum? 
 Options:  <1> Masked self-instructions (in a low voice). <2> Cognitive modeling <3> Covert self-instructions. <4> Self-instructions aloud <5> Participant cognitive modeling.
Output: 3
Question: At what stage of problem-solving therapy are the principles of quantity, deferment of judgment and variety used? 
 Options:  <1> Decision making. <2> Orientation towards the problem. <3> Definition and formulation of the problem. <4> Generation of alternative solutions. <5> Implementation and verification of the solution.
Output: 4
Question: Regarding the molding technique, which of the following characteristics is TRUE? 
 Options:  <1> A structured environment is required. <2> It can be carried out forward and backward. <3> It implies the successive application of reinforcement and extinction. <4> The successive approximations are necessarily part of the final behavior. <5> The goal behavior can be simple or complex.
Output: 3
Question: Regarding the use of virtual reality on display, what is the correct answer? 
 Options:  <1> It totally replaces the real exposure. <2> Any real stimulus can be programmed with accuracy virtually. <3> Virtual reality allows the therapist to build a clinically meaningful environment. <4> Studies indicate better results than imaginative techniques. <5> Patients usually do not present difficulties in the virtual context.
Output: 3
Question: Regarding the prevention of relapses in major depressive disorder, current data indicate that the cognitive therapy of Beck's depression: 
 Options:  <1> It is an effective treatment. <2> It is an effective treatment only if it is applied in combination with antidepressant medication. <3> It is a less effective treatment than the continuation antidepressant medication. <4> It is a treatment that has not yet been examined in its efficacy compared to the continuation antidepressant medication. <5> It is effective for the acute treatment of major antidepressant disorder, but not to prevent its relapse.
Output: 1
Question: Currently, which of the following behavioral treatments is considered an effective treatment for major depressive disorder? 
 Options:  <1> The applied relaxation. <2> The problem solving therapy. <3> The Flood. <4> Interpersonal therapy <5> The arrest of thought.
Output: 2
Question: In which four problem areas does interpersonal therapy for depression focus? 
 Options:  <1> Interpersonal disputes, sexual relationships, interpersonal deficits and mother-child relationships during childhood. <2> Interpersonal deficits, mother-child relationships during childhood, sexual relations and role transition. <3> Mourning, interpersonal disputes, role transition and interpersonal deficits. <4> Sexual relations, mother-child relationships during childhood, relationship problems and current family problems. <5> Grief, mother-child relationships during childhood, interpersonal disputes and sexual relationships.
Output: 3
Question: What is interpersonal therapy of social rhythm (or interpersonal and social rhythm therapy)? 
 Options:  <1> An adaptation of interpersonal therapy to the treatment of dysthymic disorder. <2> An adaptation of interpersonal therapy to the treatment of severe major depressive disorder. <3> A therapy resulting from combining interpersonal therapy, behavioral activation therapy and social problem solving therapy. <4> An adaptation of interpersonal therapy for patients with major depressive disorder who have serious problems in their social relationships. <5> An adaptation of interpersonal therapy to the treatment of bipolar disorder.
Output: 5
Question: Point out the INCORRECT RESPONSE on the psychological treatment protocol for social phobia proposed by D.M. Clark, A. Wells and collaborators: 
 Options:  <1> He resorts frequently to behavioral experiments. <2> It includes the abandonment of security behaviors. <3> It is applied almost always in group format. <4> Use techniques to modify the distorted self-image. <5> The patient is encouraged to ask other people about their beliefs.
Output: 3
Question: What cognitive technique is used in Rational Emotive Behavior therapy to help people who have intellectual difficulties? 
 Options:  <1> Reduction to the absurd. <2> Cognitive distraction <3> Training in social skills. <4> Rational-emotive imagination. <5> Training in self-instructions.
Output: 5
Question: What aspect related to the therapeutic style would NOT a therapist adopt in Rational Emotive Behavioral Therapy? 
 Options:  <1> Promote catharsis. <2> Be active and directive. <3> Be verbally very active <4> Be didactic <5> Be nice.
Output: 1
Question: When the person only observes the behavior of the model and learns its behavior or patterns of action, without reproducing it during the training session, what type of modeling is it? 
 Options:  <1> Modeling in vivo. <2> Participant modeling <3> Symbolic modeling <4> Passive modeling <5> Modeling self-instructions.
Output: 4
Question: What model of Family Therapy states that the change occurs when the pathological family game is replaced by another less harmful game? 
 Options:  <1> Therapy of the group of Milan. <2> Palo Alto MRI Therapy. <3> Therapy focused on solutions. <4> Structural therapy <5> Strategic therapy
Output: 1
Question: What is the use of the descending arrow technique in the cognitive therapy of depression? 
 Options:  <1> To identify the assumptions and beliefs (cognitive schemes) that underlie the patient's depressive problems. <2> To program an increasing number of pleasant activities. <3> To identify situations of high risk of relapse. <4> To name the cognitive distortions that the patient commits. <5> To establish the agenda or agenda of the session.
Output: 1
Question: What do behavioral treatments for major depressive disorder have in common? 
 Options:  <1> The use of exposure techniques to stressful situations. <2> The main objective of modifying maladaptive beliefs and assumptions that make a person vulnerable to depression. <3> Which are unstructured therapies and without a limited number of sessions. <4> The main objective of increasing the positive reinforcement received by the depressed person. <5> The main objective of relating depression to problematic interpersonal situations.
Output: 4
Question: In the treatment of major depressive disorder, what are the advantages of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) compared to tricyclic antidepressants? 
 Options:  <1> They are more effective. <2> They have been used for a longer time, while tricyclic antidepressants are more modern and are not well known. <3> They have fewer side effects. <4> Its efficacy has been proven in controlled studies, while tricyclic antidepressants have not yet been evaluated in controlled studies. <5> They have no clear advantage.
Output: 3
Question: Among the differences in the treatment of affective disorders between Beck's cognitive therapy and interpersonal therapy, which of the following is CORRECT? 
 Options:  <1> Interpersonal therapy has been applied to the treatment of bipolar disorder, but Beck's cognitive therapy has not yet. <2> Beck cognitive therapy is a structured therapy with a short number of sessions, while interpersonal therapy does not. <3> Beck's cognitive therapy was created by a psychiatrist, while interpersonal therapy was created by a psychologist. <4> Interpersonal therapy is based on the notion of emotional attachment of evolutionary psychology, while Beck's cognitive therapy does not. <5> Beck's cognitive therapy is one of the psychological treatments that have well established efficacy in major depressive disorder in adults, while interpersonal therapy has not yet.
Output: 4
Question: Which of the following interventions is NOT part of the training in defecatory habits for the treatment of corporpresis? 
 Options:  <1> The use of enemas to achieve initial disimpaction and prevent constipation. <2> The establishment of a specific time of the day to carry out the defecation on a regular basis. <3> Positive contingent punishment to defecation in inappropriate places (underwear). <4> Provide restrictions and dietary recommendations. <5> The reinforcement for keeping the clothes clean at the end of the day.
Output: 3
Question: In the treatment of depression, therapy or training in social skills focuses mainly on improving classes or repertoires of behaviors that are especially relevant for depressed individuals and among which is the positive assertion. What kind of behavior does the positive assertion refer to? 
 Options:  <1> Behaviors that allow the person to defend their rights and interests. <2> Conduct to initiate conversations, ask questions and perform appropriate self-revelations. <3> Conduct regarding the expression of affection, approval and praise towards other people. <4> Behaviors to impose one's own interests over the interests of others. <5> Behaviors to generate positive emotions when a person is alone.
Output: 3
Question: For which disorder is the technique of fading stimulated frequently used? 
 Options:  <1> Enuresis <2> The selective mutism. <3> Childhood asthma <4> Posttraumatic stress disorder secondary to sexual abuse. <5> The encopresis.
Output: 2
Question: Which of the following statements about the technique of emotive images is FALSE? 
 Options:  <1> It is a variant of systematic desensitization. <2> It was developed to treat phobias of small children or with difficulties to relax. <3> It is a multicomponent program for the treatment of childhood phobias. <4> It is usually induced an inhibitory response to anxiety other than relaxation. <5> It can be used for the treatment of medical fears.
Output: 3
Question: Which of the following alternatives is CORRECT in relation to the treatment of sleepwalking? 
 Options:  <1> Early intervention is recommended since it is a disorder that usually becomes chronic. <2> It does not require any intervention since the safety of the child is never in danger. <3> The technique of programmed awakenings has been used successfully. <4> The child is usually asked to draw the dreams he has during the episodes to reduce the anguish. <5> Do not try to reassure the child and take him back to bed because of the danger of waking up in that state.
Output: 3
Question: Which of the following is a characteristic of the psychopharmacological treatment of ADHD? 
 Options:  <1> To reduce motor distress, anxiolytic drugs are usually used. <2> Among its possible side effects are the worsening of behavior at the end of the day (rebound effect) and the intensification of existing tics. <3> The effect of methylphenidate is maintained in the medium term once the treatment has been interrupted. <4> It can improve attention and decrease hyperactivity but is not effective in managing impulsive behaviors. <5> When it is effective in improving attention and controlling hyperactivity, psychological intervention is unnecessary.
Output: 2
Question: One of the most effective techniques included in psychological intervention programs for primary female orgasmic dysfunction is: 
 Options:  <1> Vacuum therapy <2> The exhibition in imagination. <3> The pubococcygeus muscle training. <4> The systematic desensitization. <5> The stop and start technique.
Output: 3
Question: In the first stage of Fairburn's behavioral cognitive treatment for bulimia nervosa, one of the objectives is: 
 Options:  <1> Modify maladaptive social interaction patterns. <2> Establish effective communication patterns. <3> Work on the suppression of diet follow-up. <4> Modify adaptive family functioning patterns. <5> Present the model that explains the maintenance of the problem.
Output: 5
Question: One of the well-established goals of the treatment of anorexia nervosa is: 
 Options:  <1> Substitute the food restriction for physical exercise. <2> Get family support and provide family advice. <3> Carry out intensive and brief interventions. <4> Enhance self-help strategies from the beginning of treatment. <5> Separate the patient from his family environment while the treatment lasts.
Output: 2
Question: There is consensus that the treatment of eating disorders should have an approach: 
 Options:  <1> Psychodynamic <2> Of family therapy. <3> Cognitive. <4> Multidisciplinary <5> Pharmacological.
Output: 4
Question: Which of the following treatments has NOT been shown to be effective in the treatment of schizophrenia? 
 Options:  <1> The assertive community treatment. <2> Protected employment procedures for labor rehabilitation. <3> The integrated programs of cognitive rehabilitation. <4> The psychoeducational family intervention. <5> Psychoanalytic therapy of limited time.
Output: 5
Question: The evaluation of the expressed emotion construct is especially significant in the treatment of schizophrenia when the following intervention is applied: 
 Options:  <1> Behavioral cognitive of psychotic symptoms. <2> Training in Social Skills. <3> Family intervention <4> Cognitive rehabilitation <5> Work rehabilitation.
Output: 3
Question: In the pharmacological treatment of hallucinations and delusions, what is the correct answer? 
 Options:  <1> Between 30-50% of people with psychosis treated with antipsychotics continue to experience difficulties derived from clinical symptoms. <2> Antipsychotics act on the positive symptoms of psychosis, but mainly eliminate the negative symptoms. <3> The extrapyramidal side effects they cause are intractable. <4> When an antipsychotic does not improve symptoms, changing the treatment is not advisable. <5> It is advisable not to combine it with psychological treatment until the psychotic symptoms have disappeared.
Output: 1
Question: What kind of drug is clozapine? 
 Options:  <1> An anxiolytic <2> An antidepressant <3> An antipsychotic <4> A benzodiazepine <5> A hypnotic
Output: 3
Question: Is the goal of focusing techniques for the treatment of auditory hallucinations? 
 Options:  <1> That patients are distracted from hallucinations. <2> That patients gradually rearrange the origin of auditory hallucinations to themselves. <3> That patients do not listen to voices. <4> That patients with hallucinations take medication. <5> That patients do not think about hallucinations.
Output: 2
Question: In the field of schizophrenia, indicate which of the modules of social skills to live independently is NOT part of the program developed by Liberman and collaborators: 
 Options:  <1> Module of reintegration in the community. <2> Module of control / handling of substance abuse (dual pathology). <3> Module of interpersonal and intimate relationships. <4> Module of leisure and free time. <5> Crisis management module.
Output: 5
Question: The psychological treatments in bipolar disorder share several therapeutic objectives, among which is NOT: 
 Options:  <1> Train patients in the detection of the initial symptoms that precede the disorder. <2> Replace the need for a long-term pharmacological treatment. <3> Teach patients strategies to cope with stressful stimuli that can trigger or exacerbate symptoms. <4> Improve adherence to pharmacological treatment. <5> Provide patients with techniques to manage the initial symptoms, thus preventing them from getting worse.
Output: 2
Question: Phototherapy or light therapy is used for the treatment of: 
 Options:  <1> Crisis of panic. <2> Major depression <3> Bipolar disorder. <4> Post-traumatic stress disorder. <5> Seasonal affective disorder.
Output: 5
Question: One of the following elements of cognitive-behavioral therapy for panic disorder (or panic disorder) has been especially questioned and its utility has been minimized. Indicate which: 
 Options:  <1> Interoceptive exposure. <2> Education. <3> Live exhibition. <4> Training in breathing. <5> Cognitive restructuring.
Output: 4
Question: Which of the following drugs has shown in controlled studies that can increase the effectiveness of exposure therapy in the treatment of specific phobias? 
 Options:  <1> Alprazolam <2> Quetiapine <3> D-cycloserine. <4> Bupropion. <5> Buspirona.
Output: 3
Question: In which of the following anxiety disorders is considered that there is no pharmacological treatment of choice? 
 Options:  <1> Obsessive-compulsive disorder <2> Panic disorder (anguish disorder). <3> Social phobia. <4> Specific phobia. <5> Post-traumatic stress disorder.
Output: 4
Question: Systematic training for the redirection of attention to aspects or positive external stimuli to counteract the excess of self-consciousness, is part of the psychological treatment protocols especially for: 
 Options:  <1> Obsessive-compulsive disorder <2> The agoraphobia. <3> Anxiety disorder (panic disorder). <4> Social phobia <5> Post-traumatic stress disorder
Output: 4
Question: The psychological treatment of generalized anxiety disorder focused on addressing negative beliefs about concerns (eg, that worries are uncontrollable) and positive dysfunctional beliefs about the usefulness of caring (eg, that worry improves outcomes) known as: 
 Options:  <1> Emotion regulation therapy. <2> Metacognitive therapy <3> Behavioral therapy based on acceptance. <4> Integrative therapy <5> Somatic awareness therapy
Output: 2
Question: Which of the following drugs would be the most indicated initially in a patient with an obsessive-compulsive disorder? 
 Options:  <1> Buspirona. <2> Risperidone. <3> Alprazolam <4> Clomipramine <5> Methylphenidate
Output: 4
Question: Benzodiazepines reduce anxiety because they work as: 
 Options:  <1> Antagonists of GABA receptors. <2> GABA receptor agonists. <3> Antagonist of noradrenergic receptors. <4> Noradrenergic receptor agonist. <5> Antagonists of serotonergic receptors.
Output: 2
Question: What are the leaders of the Structural / Strategic School of Systemic Therapy? 
 Options:  <1> O'Hanlon and Weiner-Davis. <2> Haley and Minuchin. <3> Weakland and Fisch. <4> Keeney and Ross. <5> Stierlin and Weber.
Output: 2
Question: What psychoanalytic author worked in a different way to Freud, sitting face to face, with sessions once a week and his treatment rarely exceeding one year? 
 Options:  <1> Alfred Adler <2> Carl Jung. <3> M. Klein. <4> A. Freud <5> J. Lacan.
Output: 1
Question: Which of the following psychopharmacological treatments would NOT be indicated in the long-term treatment of a person diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder? 
 Options:  <1> Pregabalin <2> Venlafaxine <3> Escitalopram. <4> Alprazolam <5> Duloxetine
Output: 4
Question: With which author is associated the development and evaluation of cognitive-behavioral therapy in group as a gold standard treatment for social phobia? 
 Options:  <1> Clark. <2> Wells <3> There is. <4> Beck. <5> Heimberg.
Output: 5
Question: The best strategy to provide information to patients with cancer is: 
 Options:  <1> Do not inform them so that the patient does not despair. <2> Give them all the possible information to reduce to the maximum the uncertainty that the situation causes. <3> Focus exclusively on providing information relevant to the aspects directly linked to the disease. <4> Adapt the information to the informative demands of the patients. <5> Limit to offering information to family members so they can provide it at the right time to the patient.
Output: 4
Question: Which of the following alterations is found within the alterations of the corporal conscience? 
 Options:  <1> Twilight state. <2> Asthenic-apathetic stadium. <3> Hypnotic dissociation. <4> Astereognosia <5> Automatism.
Output: 4
Question: What is the most commonly used term to designate the most intense degree of distraction and the complete absence of attention? 
 Options:  <1> Attentional perplexity. <2> Attention indifference. <3> Hyperprosexia. <4> Mental absence <5> Aprosexia.
Output: 5
Question: What type of anomalies are the Micropsy and autometamorphopsia? 
 Options:  <1> Abnormalities in the perception of quality. <2> Abnormalities in the perception of size / shape. <3> Abnormalities in the perception of intensity. <4> Perceptive deception. <5> The same perceptual distortion.
Output: 2
Question: What kind of image appears when the individual does not fixate his attention on it and, on the contrary, disappears when he concentrates on the experience? 
 Options:  <1> Consecutive images <2> Mnemic images. <3> Hallucinoid images. <4> Abnormal images <5> Parasitic images
Output: 5
Question: What is one of the differences between Alzheimer's and subcortical patients (especially Huntington and Parkinson's)? 
 Options:  <1> The ability to semantically encode the information seems to be preserved in the subcorticals, while Alzheimer's seems quite deteriorated. <2> There is greater loss of recognition memory in the subcorticals. <3> The rate of forgetfulness is slower in Alzheimer's. <4> Retrograde amnesia is temporarily graded in subcortical patients. <5> There is less loss of recognition memory in Alzheimer's.
Output: 1
Question: In the case of epileptic seizures, which of these data would allow us to state that it is hysterical crisis, and not epileptic seizures? 
 Options:  <1> The presence of apnea. <2> That the EEG record is normal. <3> They appear both when the individual is alone or accompanied. <4> Bites appear on the tongue or injuries due to falls. <5> Urinary incontinence appears.
Output: 2
Question: Tics can be associated with altered behaviors that arise at a certain time. When the symptoms appear between 35 and 45 years, according to Shapiro's classification, to what tic we refer? 
 Options:  <1> Simple acute tic. <2> Chronic simple tic. <3> Huntington's Korea. <4> Chronic multiple tic. <5> Multiple tic of the adult.
Output: 3
Question: What is the psychomotor disorder that can appear in an individual who has used phenothiazines for a prolonged period of time? 
 Options:  <1> Acute dyskinesia <2> Hypermymy <3> Hypomimia <4> Mannerisms. <5> Tardive dyskinesia
Output: 5
Question: According to the Scale of Thought Disorders, Language and Communication (Andreasen, 1979), what is the definition of Distracted Speech: 
 Options:  <1> Answers of a longer duration than adequate and that provide little information. <2> The patient stands in the middle of a sentence or idea and changes the subject in response to immediate stimuli. <3> The patient responds obliquely, tangentially or even relevantly. <4> A pattern of spontaneous speech in which ideas slip away from each other. <5> The patient speaks quickly and it is difficult to interrupt him.
Output: 2
Question: The characteristic of delusions that refers to the maintenance of delirium over time, despite the evidence against is: 
 Options:  <1> The intensity or conviction. <2> The unmodifiable, incorrigibility or fixity. <3> Presence of cultural supports. <4> Concern. <5> Communication deviation.
Output: 2
Question: Indicate which of the following is a Primary Delirium according to Jaspers: 
 Options:  <1> Delirious intuition. <2> Delirious control. <3> Ritual delirious. <4> Delirious crisis. <5> Delusional obsession
Output: 1
Question: The delirious atmosphere is defined as: 
 Options:  <1> The delirious interpretation of a normal perception. <2> A self-referential idea, of great importance for the patient. <3> Subjective experience that the world has changed in a subtle but sinister, disturbing and difficult or impossible to define way. <4> The delirious construction of a memory. <5> A rational and easily modifiable idea about an environmental issue.
Output: 3
Question: The bodily delusion idea is defined as: 
 Options:  <1> Delusional idea whose main content refers to the functioning of one's own body. <2> Delusional idea that the subject has lost or will lose all or almost all his physical possessions. <3> Ideal delirious in which the feelings, impulses, thoughts or acts are lived as if they were not their own and were imposed by some external force. <4> Delusional idea whose content implies an exaggerated assessment of personal importance, power, knowledge or identity. <5> Delusional idea about the non-existence of the self.
Output: 1
Question: At what stage is the person when they begin to balance the positive and negative consequences of drug use and, as a result, begin to consider stopping consumption, but basically maintain their ambivalence in this decisional balance? 
 Options:  <1> Stadium of action. <2> Contemplation stadium. <3> Relapse stadium. <4> Pre-contemplation stadium. <5> Post-relapse stadium.
Output: 2
Question: What name does the episode receive with psychotic symptoms that occur after a strong alcohol intoxication in which the individual has been consuming large doses of alcohol for several days? 
 Options:  <1> Delirium tremens. <2> Partial amnesias. <3> Alcoholic hallucinosis <4> abstinence syndrome. <5> Korsakoff syndrome.
Output: 3
Question: When memory adapts to the presence of a drug (eg, subsensitizing receptors, synthesizing new membrane proteins) in such a way that the ability of the drug (eg, in alcohol to disrupt neuronal membranes) is increasingly minor, we are talking about: 
 Options:  <1> Psychological tolerance <2> Cross tolerance <3> Metabolic tolerance <4> Pharmacological tolerance. <5> Reduced tolerance
Output: 4
Question: The oppressive / tightening pain, of light to moderate intensity, of bilateral localization and that does not worsen with routine physical activity, is what occurs in: 
 Options:  <1> Pelvic pain <2> The burnout. <3> Asthma. <4> Irritable bowel syndrome. <5> Tension headache.
Output: 5
Question: The afferent neural activity of the peripheral nocioceptors is modulated in the dorsal horn of the marrow, which acts as a door that prevents or does not allow the passage of nerve impulses that come from the nocioceptors and the cortex, refers to? 
 Options:  <1> The peripheral nervous system. <2> The theory of the door. <3> Chronic stress <4> The theory of climbing. <5> The biological process of relaxation.
Output: 2
Question: What favors the appearance of atherosclerotic plaques? 
 Options:  <1> Stress. <2> Asthma. <3> Angina of the chest. <4> Cannabis <5> Physical exercise.
Output: 1
Question: What is the model that states that health behaviors are determined by the perception of personal susceptibility to the disease and the perceived severity of the consequences of the disease? 
 Options:  <1> The reasoned action. <2> The one about health beliefs. <3> The one of the psychosomatic medicine. <4> The vulnerability to stress. <5> The placebo effect.
Output: 2
Question: What do we mean when a doctor believes firmly in his treatment, even though controlled studies have proven ineffective, the results obtained with it will be better, his patients will be better, and will have more patients? 
 Options:  <1> The opposing process of Solomon. <2> The floor effect. <3> The Asher Paradox <4> The effect of contemplation of Prochaska. <5> The theory of the control door.
Output: 3
Question: When the organism passes successively through the phases of alarm reaction, resistance phase and exhaustion phase, we refer to: 
 Options:  <1> The autonomous nervous system. <2> The placebo effect. <3> Electrokinesiological biofeedback. <4> Restrictive anorexia nervosa. <5> The general adaptation syndrome.
Output: 5
Question: Among the predictors of a poor prognosis in schizophrenia are: 
 Options:  <1> Positive symptoms and late emergence. <2> Do not have precipitating factors and have a good premorbid fit. <3> Early emergence and identifiable precipitating factors. <4> Being married and with a poor support system. <5> A bad premorbid adjustment and negative symptoms.
Output: 5
Question: Among the criteria of DSM-IV for the diagnosis of Obsessive Compulsive Personality Disorder, are: 
 Options:  <1> A general pattern of concern for order, perfectionism, mental and interpersonal control at the expense of effectiveness, as well as a tendency to delegate to other tasks or work. <2> It shows rigidity and stubbornness, as well as a tendency to squander money. <3> Concern for details, rules, rules, lists, order, organization, schedules, until losing sight of the main objective of the activity. <4> Lax dedication to work and productivity, excluding leisure activities, unscrupulous in matters of morals and ethics. <5> Tendency to get rid of useless objects, even if they have a sentimental value. Miserly style in terms of expenses, both for him and for others.
Output: 3
Question: Which of the following beliefs is part of the nuclear schemes of a schizoid personality disorder, according to the model of Cognitive Therapy? 
 Options:  <1> I'm better than the others. <2> The others are fools. <3> Being controlled by others is intolerable. <4> I need people to survive. <5> The others do not compensate me.
Output: 5
Question: The negative symptomatology of schizophrenia seems to be caused by: 
 Options:  <1> The excessive activity of some dopaminergic neural circuits. <2> The excessive activity of the GABAergic neurons. <3> The existence of brain damage. <4> Have a gene for schizophrenia that causes negative symptoms. <5> Insufficient activity of the serotonergic neurons of the frontal lobe.
Output: 3
Question: What works best to improve compliance with medical treatments through psychological intervention? 
 Options:  <1> Leave the patient complete freedom to organize his treatment once we explain what is the cause of his illness and its treatment. <2> That he knows how to do a thorough functional analysis of his behavior and to do it with all his problem behaviors, especially those related to his behavior of pain and discomfort. <3> Negotiate the changes, provided that the therapeutic allows it, that the patient perform the least amount of behavior in the minimum possible times and sequentially setting goals or tasks. <4> Train him in the processes of denial, negotiation, coping, memory and despair. <5> Control stressful life events that relate to your life, especially at the family level, and your illness.
Output: 3
Question: According to DSM-IV-TR, obsessive-compulsive disorder and obsessive personality disorder share nominal similarities, but how do clinical manifestations differ? 
 Options:  <1> Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is not characterized by the presence of obsessions or compulsions. <2> Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is characterized by the presence of obsessions without compulsions. <3> Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is characterized by the presence of compulsions. <4> The obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is not characterized by the presence of obsessions or compulsions for at least 6 months. <5> Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is not characterized by the presence of obsessions or compulsions for at least 1 year.
Output: 1
Question: When the individual is unable to remember important personal information, usually a traumatic or stressful event, what disorder can we think of, within the group of dissociative disorders (DSM-IV-TR)? 
 Options:  <1> Dissociative identity disorder. <2> Dissociative trance disorder. <3> The generalized amnesia. <4> The dissociative amnesia. <5> The dissociative leak
Output: 4
Question: Which of the following statements is true with respect to dyspareunia? 
 Options:  <1> This disorder only affects women. <2> The essential feature is the involuntary contraction of the perineal muscles of the external third of the vagina, against the introduction of the penis, fingers, tampons, or speculums. <3> This disorder appears throughout life, can not be acquired. <4> This disorder consists of genital pain during intercourse, although it may appear before or after intercourse. <5> This alteration does not cause discomfort in interpersonal relationships.
Output: 4
Question: Which of the following statements regarding Eating Disorders is true? 
 Options:  <1> In restrictive type anorexia nervosa there are compensatory strategies of a non-purgative nature, such as dieting / fasting and intense exercise. <2> The patient with anorexia nervosa does not have episodes of binge eating in any case. <3> The patient with bulimia nervosa, unlike the patient with anorexia nervosa, does not intend to lose weight. <4> Alterations in eating behavior do not affect patients' cognition. <5> Interpersonal relationships are one of the few areas that are not altered in eating behavior disorders.
Output: 1
Question: When should the diagnosis of distress disorder not be made, according to criterion C of the DSM-IV-TR? 
 Options:  <1> When panic attacks are recurrent. <2> When the crisis of anguish is unexpected. <3> When the crisis of anguish is accompanied by the appearance, during a minimum of one month, of persistent worries of suffering new crises. <4> When the crisis of anguish is accompanied by the appearance, during a minimum of one month, of possible implications or consequences. <5> When panic attacks are considered secondary to the direct physiological effects of a disease.
Output: 5
Question: Depersonalization disorder, according to the DSM-IV-TR, is part of: 
 Options:  <1> The schizophrenic disorders. <2> Dissociative disorders <3> Somatoform disorders. <4> Disorders of the mood. <5> Personality disorders
Output: 2
Question: What is the essential characteristic of dissociative disorders, according to the DSM-IV-TR? 
 Options:  <1> An alteration of the integrating functions of consciousness, identity, memory and perception of the environment, which may be this sudden or gradual, transitory or chronic alteration. <2> The presence of one or more identity or personality states that control the behavior of the subject recurrently with the inability to remember important personal information. <3> The persistent and recurrent sensation of distancing of the mental processes and of the own body with the conservation of the sense of reality. <4> The inability to remember important personal information of a traumatic nature. <5> The presence of sudden and unexpected trips away from home with the inability to remember one's past, confusion about one's identity and assumption of a new identity.
Output: 1