niryuu/sni-each-converted huggingface dataset:
Question: The primary prevention measures of sexually transmitted infections do NOT include: 
 Options:  <1> Perform anamnesis from age 12 to identify risky sexual behaviors and practices. <2> Encourage the correct and regular use of the male or female condom from the first sexual relationship. <3> Develop HBV vaccination campaigns in risk groups such as injecting drug users. <4> Performing frequent cytologies in sexually active women. <5> Redirect school sexual education programs towards a healthy and responsible sexuality.
Output: 4
Question: Is the implantation of the fertilized egg in a place other than the uterine endometrium called? 
 Options:  <1> Mola hidatiforme. <2> Septic abortion. <3> Previous placenta. <4> Ectopic pregnancy. <5> Abruptio placentae.
Output: 4
Question: Reva Rubin identifies maternal behavior after delivery in three stages: 
 Options:  <1> Acceptance, Support and Abandonment. <2> Acceptance, Denial and Encounter. <3> Denial, Affirmation and Dependency. <4> Affirmation, Affirmation and Support. <5> Coping, Dependence and Help.
Output: 1
Question: Cardiac output (CG) increases between 40 and 50% during pregnancy. When does it return to normal values? 
 Options:  <1> One week before delivery <2> During labor <3> Seven to ten days after delivery. <4> At the end of the puerperium. <5> At the end of breastfeeding.
Output: 3
Question: When assessing the position held by the baby suckling, which of the following signs indicate that the position and grip of the baby is NOT correct? 
 Options:  <1> The chin touches the chest. <2> The mouth is very open. <3> Everted lips <4> Nose very close to the chest. <5> More areola visible above the mouth.
Output: 4
Question: A fetal heartbeat is heard in a 32-week pregnant woman. What Leopold maneuver should be done to know where the fetal dorsum is located ?: 
 Options:  <1> The first. <2> The second. <3> Third. <4> The fourth. <5> The fifth.
Output: 2
Question: After a normal low-level vaginal delivery, in a healthy woman with a healthy newborn, what is the best time to start breastfeeding? 
 Options:  <1> After birth, it is the moment of mother-child recognition. <2> After the first immediate care of the newborn of hygiene, identification and prevention, if this is stable. <3> After the birth and the end of the delivery care, because before the woman is unable to care for your child. <4> After the first two leaves of labor that require extreme surveillance of the woman because of the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. <5> After arriving at the plant, it coincides with the second period of reactivity of the baby and the best conditions for the woman to be able to interact with her child.
Output: 1
Question: When assessing the most appropriate contraceptive method for a person, the following should be taken into account: 
 Options:  <1> The Pearl index that reflects the percentage of non-pregnancies of a contraceptive method in relation to the number of cycles of use of this method. <2> The acceptability of the method that is determined by the absence of collateral defects. <3> The innocuousness of the method that is determined by the absence of health risks that its use may entail. <4> The motivation or sociocultural conditions such as the level of education. <5> The reversibility or surgical possibilities of recovering fertility after using the method.
Output: 3
Question: What care should be planned when a woman reaches menopause? 
 Options:  <1> None, menopause is a normal period of the woman's reproductive cycle. <2> None, but it must be sent to gynecology so that hormone replacement therapy begins as soon as possible and does not suffer from climacteric symptoms. <3> You have to assess your general condition and plan preventive care for climacteric depression. <4> You have to plan prevention care for vasomotor symptoms, osteoporosis and obesity. <5> It is necessary to plan a detailed study of the hormonal levels that allow us to determine the medication and the most appropriate care for your hormonal deficit.
Output: 4
Question: From the following suggestions to the family about the school feeding for the prevention of obesity, indicate which is NOT recommended: 
 Options:  <1> Avoid chewing gum (chewing gum), even without sugar, because it is customary to have a full mouth between meals. <2> Increase the intake of fresh foods, vegetables and fruits. <3> Eat as a family, accompanied, at least some main meal of the 5 recommended daily. <4> Chop between meals to avoid being hungry at main meals. Enriched juices are recommended. <5> Try not to eat watching television, because distraction prevents enjoy the food and know what you eat.
Output: 4
Question: Indicate which of the following alterations does NOT correspond to the clinical manifestations of type 1 diabetes in children: 
 Options:  <1> Weight gain. <2> Polydipsia <3> Constipation. <4> Polyphagy <5> Sweating
Output: 1
Question: Point out the FALSE response regarding bronchiolitis: 
 Options:  <1> It is clinically manifested by cough, nasal discharge and respiratory distress. <2> It is the most frequent disease of the lower respiratory tract in the first two years of life. <3> Prolonged breastfeeding can act as a protective factor. <4> The bacterial etiology produces more severe symptoms than the viral etiology. <5> General measures are required such as respiratory isolation, oxygen therapy, fluid therapy and humidification of the environment.
Output: 4
Question: After a normal term delivery it is observed that the baby has a heartbeat of 130 beats per minute, breathes with harmony and tranquility, has spontaneous movements, rosy color and good response to the stimulation of suction. What value will result in the completion of the Apgar Test? 
 Options:  <1> Apgar 7. Moderately depressed. <2> Apgar 8. Depressed. <3> Apgar 9. Satisfactory state. <4> Apgar 9. Moderately depressed. <5> Apgar 12. Satisfactory state.
Output: 3
Question: Indicate which of the following options does NOT suppose a normal response of the child's motor development in its first year of life: 
 Options:  <1> By 3 months, he is able to hold his head when he is incorporated. <2> By 4 months, the trunk begins to straighten up although the balance is still immature. <3> By 8 months, he dominates the sitting position and frees his hands to hold objects while maintaining balance. <4> Towards 10 months, start some steps. <5> By 12 months, the act of running appears.
Output: 5
Question: The game is one of the strategies used by the nurse in caring for children aged 2 years. Point out which of the following is favorable to the understanding of the disease process and therapy: 
 Options:  <1> Ride <2> Variations of cu-cu or hiding place. <3> Body silhouettes to paint or dolls to point. <4> Consoles of electronic games. <5> Cell phone.
Output: 3
Question: In relation to vaccines, indicate the correct option: 
 Options:  <1> The immunization schedule should be suspended during the summer months. <2> The vaccination calendar is fixed and immovable. <3> The appropriate storage temperature is between 2 and 8C. <4> Influenza vaccine should only be given to people older than 14 years. <5> All the previous answers are correct.
Output: 3
Question: Indicate which of the following clinical manifestations are NOT specific to dehydration in the infant: 
 Options:  <1> Weightloss. <2> Fontanelle sunk. <3> Dry mucous membranes <4> Hypotension <5> Bradycardia
Output: 5
Question: In the scheme of the stages of Tanner's pubertal development, the stage or level 5 in women corresponds to: 
 Options:  <1> Light bulge of the breast button and increase of the areolar size. <2> Growth of the breast, presence of light pubic hair and roundness of the hips. <3> Slight mammary protrusion and beginning of roundness of the hips. <4> Full development of the breast and triangle of full pubic hair as in adult women. <5> The beginning of the thelarchy.
Output: 4
Question: In the nursing consultation the Pfeiffer test is being applied to F. P. of 80 years. From this instrument it has been described that: 
 Options:  <1> Unlike other cognitive assessment scales, it only values ​​memory and orientation. <2> It is very sensitive to detect small changes in the evolution of cognitive deterioration. <3> The alteration of the test is sufficient to establish the diagnosis of dementia. <4> It is the most comprehensive and complete of all cognitive assessment scales. <5> It does not detect very mild cognitive impairments.
Output: 5
Question: The 80-year-old family of F. G., who has very advanced dementia, wants to request legal incapacitation. It is known that legal incapacitation: 
 Options:  <1> It supposes the negation of the legal capacity of the person. <2> It aims to protect the person from potential abuse. <3> It limits the capacity to act and the legal capacity of the person. <4> It can be decreed by the doctor responsible for the patient. <5> It can not be requested by the patient's relatives.
Output: 2
Question: In the elderly the total body water: 
 Options:  <1> It is half that in the adult. <2> It decreases fundamentally at the expense of the intravascular compartment. <3> It decreases mainly due to the reduction of extracellular fluid. <4> It decreases greatly as a result of the loss of muscle mass. <5> It represents 30% of body weight.
Output: 4
Question: The most frequent cause of irreversible blindness in people over 60 is: 
 Options:  <1> Macular degeneration <2> Open angle glaucoma. <3> Diabetic retinopathy <4> Acute glaucoma. <5> Retinal detachment.
Output: 1
Question: T. R. of 89 years, presents instability and has suffered a fall. Regarding falls in older people, it is correct that: 
 Options:  <1> Most falls are produced by performing dangerous activities. <2> The factors that most influence the risk of falls are the intrinsic factors influenced by the underlying diseases. <3> The factors that most influence the risk of falls are those related to the changes of aging. <4> It assumes a higher risk of falling down stairs than down stairs. <5> The factors that most influence the genesis of falls in fragile elderly are the extrinsic ones.
Output: 2
Question: What characterizes the physiological aging process of the musculoskeletal system? 
 Options:  <1> Synovial thinning. <2> Lumbar kyphosis more pronounced. <3> Breakage of the articular surfaces. <4> Shortening of muscular latency and relaxation periods. <5> Decrease in bone connective tissue.
Output: 5
Question: What is the main cause of functional urinary incontinence in the elderly? 
 Options:  <1> Detrusor instability. <2> Obstruction due to fecalomas. <3> Laxity of the muscles of the pelvic floor. <4> Environmental barriers. <5> Urinary retention induced by medication.
Output: 4
Question: Which of the following complications may present a geriatric patient diagnosed with Parkinson's disease and in treatment with Levodopa: 
 Options:  <1> Hypoglycemia <2> Urinary retention. <3> Postural hypotension. <4> Dehydration <5> Anorexy.
Output: 3
Question: Why is the presence of lentigo in older people? 
 Options:  <1> Cell dehydration <2> Small hemorrhages due to capillary fragility. <3> Hyperplasia of intraepidermal melanocytes. <4> Deficiency of collagen and elastin. <5> Lipofuscin deposits.
Output: 3
Question: With which of the following parameters is the concept of frailty identified in older people? 
 Options:  <1> Lower physiological reserve. <2> Dependence. <3> Advanced age. <4> Polypharmacy <5> Inability.
Output: 1
Question: The Mini Nutritional Assessment (MNA): 
 Options:  <1> It is indicated for older people who live in the community but not for hospitalized patients. <2> It is validated specifically for older people. <3> It consists of anthropometric, biochemical and dietary items. <4> It is a reliable but complex nutritional screening tool. <5> It is formulated around 10 items exclusively referring to dietary and anthropometric parameters.
Output: 2
Question: J. C, 85 years old, has a history of osteoporosis. A potential complication is fragility fracture, highlighting that: 
 Options:  <1> A significant proportion of vertebral fractures are asymptomatic. <2> The Colles fracture is rare in people older than 65 years. <3> Fractures of the proximal third of the pertrochanteric femur are the less frequent fractures of the hip. <4> Half of the elderly who have a fall suffer a hip fracture. <5> The treatment of a proximal fracture of the femur will always be the prosthetic replacement.
Output: 1
Question: Agoraphobia is an anxiety disorder that consists of: 
 Options:  <1> An anxiety crisis or panic attacks that usually occur in an unexpected way. <2> An intense and persistent fear of performing public performances. <3> The presence of obsessions or compulsions of a recurring nature that cause great losses of time. <4> An acute mental disorder with a low socioeconomic and health burden. <5> The fear and avoidance of crowded places or situations from which it is difficult to escape.
Output: 5
Question: The General Law of Health (Law 14/1986, of April 25) favored the psychiatric reform in Spain because: 
 Options:  <1> It gave a letter of nature to the model of the asylum. <2> Defined the biomedical model of assistance to the psychiatric patient. <3> Institutionalized the community structure formed by interdisciplinary teams. <4> Regulated the factors and elements of the quality of care. <5> He adopted a paternalistic model of protection for the mentally ill.
Output: 3
Question: Delusions are characteristic symptoms of schizophrenia that: 
 Options:  <1> They include alterations in sensoperception. <2> They involve psychomotor hallucinations. <3> They represent a false belief based on a mistaken interpretation of reality by the patient. <4> They consist of an inability of the individual to adapt to social norms. <5> They are equated with illusions.
Output: 3
Question: In the DSM-IV classification, bipolar disorder is included within mood disorders. Is defined as: 
 Options:  <1> Syndrome that involves a set of symptoms such as sadness, guilt or loss of vital impulse. <2> Decrease in the ability to obtain pleasure, which leads the person to isolation and unproductivity. <3> Disorder characterized by the presence of episodes of euphoria or depression alternating with eutimia phase. <4> Alteration induced by substances that produce an expansive or irritable mood. <5> Affective state of a relatively autonomous and lasting character over time.
Output: 3
Question: In disorders related to substance use, what is physical dependence? 
 Options:  <1> In a physical process of short duration. <2> In an intense sense of dissatisfaction for not being able to consume the substances. <3> In the action of consuming drugs producing a state of intoxication with psychoactive effect. <4> In a series of physical and psychic changes that take place after the administration of a substance. <5> In a state of physical adaptation manifested by intense physical disturbances when the administration of the drug is interrupted.
Output: 5
Question: Among the competences to be developed by the mental health nurse within the multidisciplinary team is: 
 Options:  <1> Collaborate in the formulation of the medical diagnosis of the mental disorder. <2> Perform, exceptionally, research and innovation activities. <3> Promote, in the shortest possible time, the institutionalization of the patient. <4> Intervene in the promotion and prevention of mental health. <5> Practice an experiential nursing based on the observation of the signs and symptoms of mental illness.
Output: 4
Question: Hallucinations are clinical manifestations of schizophrenia that: 
 Options:  <1> They occur without external stimulation of the sensory organ involved. <2> They are included within the negative symptoms of the disease. <3> They are characterized by the aggrandizement of oneself in a non-realistic way. <4> They need to take into account the cultural context of the person. <5> They are associated with the Minor Neurological Symptoms (NMS).
Output: 1
Question: The set of social mechanisms whose function is the transformation of specialized products in the form of health services for society, is called system: 
 Options:  <1> Sanitary. <2> Social. <3> Social insurance. <4> Liberal. <5> From the market
Output: 1
Question: The assistance model consisting in the systematic coordination of the attention given to specific groups of patients, during an episode of care, to reach the expected clinical results, trying to achieve the lowest cost and the improvement of the quality of care, is called : 
 Options:  <1> Case Management <2> Complex Care <3> Advanced Practice <4> Portfolio of Services. <5> Health Needs
Output: 1
Question: In the field of management, the productive capacity of people that is manifested and measured by their performance, reflecting the knowledge, skills, attitudes and skills to perform an efficient and effective work, is called: 
 Options:  <1> Competition. <2> Leadership. <3> Competitiveness <4> Qualification <5> Motivation.
Output: 1
Question: A fundamental breakthrough in management took place through the creation, by a Yale University team, of a classification system for hospitalization episodes, which were called: 
 Options:  <1> International Classification of Diseases (CIE). <2> Minimum Basic Data Set (CMDB). <3> Record of Medical and Surgical Times (RTMQ). <4> Group of Related Diagnostics (GDR). <5> Functional Surgical-Medical Structure (EFQM).
Output: 4
Question: According to the recommendations of the 2010 Guide of the Spanish Council of Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation, when applying cardiopulmonary resuscitation maneuvers in an infant, the following should be done: 
 Options:  <1> Perform cardiac massage with both hands. <2> Achieve that the thorax descend between 5 and 8 cm in each compression. <3> Blow out as much air as possible when performing mouth-to-mouth ventilation. <4> Maintain a cardiac massage frequency around 200 beats per minute. <5> Use a 15: 2 compression and ventilation ratio.
Output: 5
Question: Within the Interaction Thinking School, the model developed by: 
 Options:  <1> Faye Abdellah <2> Callista Roy. <3> Dorothy Johnson. <4> Rosmarie Parse <5> Hildegard Peplau.
Output: 5
Question: Which of the following statements about aging corresponds to the psychosocial approach known as Theory of Continuity? 
 Options:  <1> Well-being in old age depends on newly acquired roles. <2> Aging successfully is related to the number of activities that are carried out. <3> As you get older it is necessary to voluntarily abandon certain activities. <4> Aging in a healthy way implies not dissociating from social roles. <5> The level of activity in old age is a function of the person's life trajectory.
Output: 5
Question: The evaluation of a health program must consider: 
 Options:  <1> The need of the program. <2> The results achieved. <3> The performance of resources. <4> The fulfillment of the anticipated times. <5> All the previous answers are correct.
Output: 5
Question: Among the rules of administration of Parenteral Nutrition, which is true: 
 Options:  <1> The route of administration of NP can be used to perform blood extractions. <2> The NP bag can be kept out of the refrigerator until it is administered. <3> The administration of other intravenous medications can be done through the same route as the NP. <4> The nutrient solution may be exposed to light. <5> The infusion will be done at a constant rate during the 24 hours.
Output: 5
Question: The prodromal phase of a psychotic episode is characterized by: 
 Options:  <1> A deviation from emotional, cognitive, behavioral or social functioning and the presence of nonspecific symptoms. <2> Being a critical period during which the person should be treated. <3> The appearance of the first psychotic episode. <4> Be comparable to what is called the duration of untreated psychosis. <5> The functional recovery of the patient, which causes that it can be incorporated into working life gradually.
Output: 1
Question: Regarding the newborn, point out the correct statement: 
 Options:  <1> Premature immature is one whose birth weight varies between 2,000 and 2,500 gr. and has a gestational age of less than 37 weeks. <2> Newborn of low weight is the one that weighs at birth less than 2,500 gr. and his gestational age is between 37 and 42 weeks. <3> Newborn pseudotérmino is the one that weighs less than 2,500 gr. and her gestational age is greater than 37 weeks. <4> Premature babies are newborns weighing less than 2,500 gr. <5> Post-term newborn is the one with a gestational age greater than 40 weeks.
Output: 2
Question: The document that sets out the principles of Bioethics regarding the autonomy of people, beneficence and justice, and sets the basic requirements of informed consent, the assessment of risks and benefits and the selection of subjects is: 
 Options:  <1> The Declaration of Helsinki of 1964. <2> The Belmont Report of 1978. <3> The principles of the Biomedical Ethics of 1979. <4> The Oviedo Convention of 1997. <5> The Code of Ethics.
Output: 2
Question: What is the name of the set of activities consisting of creating and maintaining an adequate environment in which individuals, working in groups, can carry out pre-established functions and objectives? 
 Options:  <1> Operationalize <2> Manage. <3> Objectify <4> To plan. <5> Assess.
Output: 2
Question: From the point of view of the metabolism of xenobiotics, what is the cause of the hepatotoxicity and the carcinogenic action of aflatoxins? 
 Options:  <1> Its hydrolysis releases aromatic amines. <2> Its metabolism of phase II generates a nitrenium cation, which is cytotoxic by reacting with DNA. <3> Its hepatic metabolism originates an epoxide, which forms a covalent bond with DNA guanine. <4> Your metabolism leads to a reactive species through a process of reductive bioactivation. <5> They facilitate the information of reactive oxygen species through a radical mechanism.
Output: 3
Question: The infrared spectrum of procaine hydrochloride shows an intense band about 1700 cm-1. What information does this data provide about its structure? 
 Options:  <1> It has an aromatic ring. <2> It has a carbonyl group. <3> It is a tertiary amine. <4> It is an aromatic amine. <5> It is a salt.
Output: 2
Question: The eudismic index is a parameter with pharmacological interest that expresses the relationship between: 
 Options:  <1> Two diastereomer drugs. <2> Two bioisostero drugs. <3> Two enantiomers <4> A drug and a prodrug, structural analog. <5> Two structural modifications, one hydrophilic and one lipophilic, of a certain drug.
Output: 3
Question: The local anesthetic procaine is a drug designed by pharmacodynamics of the: 
 Options:  <1> Morphine. <2> Melatonin <3> Tetracycline <4> Cocaine. <5> Noradrenaline
Output: 4
Question: Mesna (sodium 2-mercaptoethanesulfonate) is used together with cyclophosphamide in antitumor therapy because: 
 Options:  <1> They form a ternary complex with DNA that prevents replication. <2> Mesna inactivates a toxic metabolite that results from the activation of cyclophosphamide. <3> Both are DNA alkylating agents. <4> The oxidizing properties of mesna increase the cytotoxicity of cyclophosphamide. <5> Mesna inhibits cytochrome P-450 that oxidizes and degrades cyclophosphamide.
Output: 2
Question: Which of the following structural families of drugs act as neuroleptic agents? 
 Options:  <1> Benzothiazepines (diltiazem). <2> Butyrophenones (haloperidol). <3> Phenylpiperidines (pethidine). <4> Aryloxypropanolamines (atenolol). <5> 1,4-dihydropyridines (nifedipine).
Output: 2
Question: Which of the following antitumor agents acts forming a covalent and irreversible complex with the thymidylate synthase and its cofactor, previous activation to the corresponding deoxynucleotide? 
 Options:  <1> Methotrexate <2> Bortezomib. <3> Cyclophosphamide <4> 5-Fluorouracil. <5> Taxol.
Output: 4
Question: The antiulcer drug called omeprazole has in its structure: 
 Options:  <1> A benzimidazole heterocycle. <2> A thiol group. <3> A pyrazole heterocycle. <4> A dimethylamino group. <5> A thiozolic heterocycle.
Output: 1
Question: Statins are used to reduce cholesterol levels and act as analogs of the transition state of an enzyme involved in its biosynthesis. What enzyme is it? 
 Options:  <1> 14-Alpha-demethylase. <2> Hydroxymethylglutaryl coenzyme A (HMGCoA) reductase. <3> Cyclooxygenase 2 (COX-2). <4> Squalene epoxidase. <5> Aromatase
Output: 2
Question: Ciprofloxacin is an example of an antibacterial quinolone. What substituent does it carry over the nitrogen in position 1? 
 Options:  <1> Cyclopropyl. <2> Acetyl. <3> Phenyl. <4> It is unsubstituted. <5> Hydroxyl
Output: 1
Question: The muscle relaxant suxetonium (succinylcholine), which was designed from decamethonium by substitution of two ethylene groups by two ester functions, susceptible to a hydrolytic metabolism, is a: 
 Options:  <1> Prodrug <2> Hard drug. <3> Apolar drug. <4> Chiral drug. <5> Soft drug
Output: 5
Question: Indinavir is a selective inhibitor of HIV protease because: 
 Options:  <1> By hydrolysis, the active drug is generated. <2> Rents irreversibly the active center of the enzyme. <3> Its structure mimics the transition state of the reaction catalyzed by the enzyme. <4> It is a suicide inhibitor. <5> Its symmetric structure interacts effectively with the active center of the enzyme.
Output: 3
Question: The use of microorganisms to transform contaminants present in the environment into non-toxic products is called: 
 Options:  <1> Biodeterioration. <2> Bioremediation. <3> Bioleaching. <4> Bioconversion <5> Biosensor
Output: 2
Question: Transpeptidation is the step in the biosynthesis of peptidoglycan in which: 
 Options:  <1> The union of N-acetylmuramic acid with N-acetyl glucosamine occurs inside the bacterial cell. <2> The exit of the precursors from the cytoplasm to the outside takes place. <3> The binding of the precursor to the peptidoglycan occurs outside, by glycosidic bonds. <4> The binding, by means of interpeptide bridges, between peptidoglycan chains. <5> The autolisinas act forming pores in its structure.
Output: 4
Question: In the systematic examination of a pregnant woman at term (37 weeks of gestation), beta-hemolytic colonies are isolated from a vaginal smear, which are identified as Streptococcus agalactiae. What assessment would you make of this finding and what would be the most advisable therapeutic attitude to follow? ? 
 Options:  <1> It does not matter because it is part of the commensal microbiota of the vagina. <2> Birth by caesarean section is recommended. <3> The search for Streptococcus agalactiae in pregnant women is not indicated. <4> Immediate antibiotic treatment to the newborn. <5> Administer intravenous antibiotic prophylaxis during delivery to the pregnant woman.
Output: 5
Question: Quinolones are antibacterial compounds that target: 
 Options:  <1> The 50 S subunit of the bacterial ribosome. <2> The plasma membrane. <3> The enzyme DNA polymerase. <4> The enzyme RNA polymerase. <5> The enzyme DNA gyrase.
Output: 5
Question: A 4-year-old boy with no history of vaccination against rabies is attacked spontaneously by a dog, causing numerous injuries to the neck and limbs that were unprotected. The animal flees and it is not possible to locate it. What is the initial attitude to follow with the patient to prevent a possible transmission of rabies? 
 Options:  <1> Administer specific antivirals against the rabies virus. <2> Administer the rabies vaccine. <3> Administer the vaccine plus anti-rabies immunoglobulin. <4> Administer anti-rabies immunoglobulin. <5> Administer the vaccine, more immunoglobulin, more antivirals.
Output: 3
Question: Which of the following staining techniques is important in the diagnosis of infections caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae? 
 Options:  <1> The capsule staining. <2> Staining of metachromatic granules. <3> The acid-alcohol resistance stain. <4> Negative staining <5> The staining of endospores.
Output: 2
Question: The septic shock that can occur in the course of systemic infections due to Gram-negative bacteria is due to: 
 Options:  <1> Lipopolysaccharide. <2> Peptide-glucan. <3> Teicoic acids. <4> Flagellin <5> K. Antigen
Output: 1
Question: Which of the following vertebrate viruses does it require during its multiplication cycle of a polymerase with reverse transcriptase activity? 
 Options:  <1> Herpes simplex virus type 1. <2> Smallpox virus <3> Varicella-zoster virus. <4> Hepatitis B virus <5> Epstein-Barr virus.
Output: 4
Question: Clostridium perfringens can cause various infections, including: 
 Options:  <1> The anthrax. <2> Pseudomembranous colitis. <3> The gas gangrene. <4> Tetanus <5> The syndrome of scalded skin.
Output: 3
Question: The medium that is used to detect the production of acetoin (butylene glycol) from pyruvic acid in the fermentation of glucose is called: 
 Options:  <1> Kligler. <2> Methyl red. <3> Voges Proskauer. <4> ONPG (ortho-nitrophenyl-galactopyranoside) <5> Beta-glucuronidase.
Output: 3
Question: From the point of view of microbial growth, which of the following statements is true in relation to the term colony? 
 Options:  <1> It is a formation that is not visible macroscopically. <2> Corresponds to a single cell. <3> It derives from a single cell. <4> It is usually formed in liquid culture medium. <5> It is always formed by the aggregation of different microbial species.
Output: 3
Question: Thermolabile (LT) and thermostable (ST) enterotoxins are responsible for diarrhea caused by some strains of: 
 Options:  <1> Salmonella enterica <2> Vibrio cholerae <3> Campylobacter jejuni. <4> Yersinia enterocolitica. <5> Escherichia coli
Output: 5
Question: In relation to the bacterial growth in liquid medium not renewed, which of the following statements is correct? 
 Options:  <1> The generation time is a constant parameter. <2> The phase of exponential growth is perpetual. <3> There is a direct relationship between the specific growth rate and the generation time. <4> There is an inverse relationship between the specific growth rate and the generation time. <5> The generation time and the specific growth rate are not related.
Output: 4
Question: Which of the following statements about leishmaniasis in Spain is correct? 
 Options:  <1> It is eradicated. <2> It is anthroponotic. <3> It is associated with HIV. <4> It is transmitted by Lutzomyia. <5> It is exclusively visceral.
Output: 3
Question: Which of the following medications is used in the treatment of Chagas disease? 
 Options:  <1> Amphotericin B. <2> Cotrimoxazole. <3> Ivermectin <4> Albendazole <5> Benznidazole
Output: 5
Question: Which of the following nematodes is a large intestine parasite? 
 Options:  <1> Trichuris trichiura. <2> Ancylostoma duodenale. <3> Trichinella spiralis. <4> Necator americanus. <5> Ascaris lumbricoides.
Output: 1
Question: It is a larval stage in the biological cycle of trematodes: 
 Options:  <1> Procercoid <2> Plerocercoide. <3> Cercaria <4> Cisticerco <5> Cysticercoid
Output: 3
Question: It is the etiological agent of cutaneous myiasis: 
 Options:  <1> Glossina palpalis. <2> Dermatobia hominis. <3> Simulimum damnosum. <4> Pulex irritans. <5> Tunga penetrans.
Output: 2
Question: With regard to pyrogens and biotechnological medicines, it is possible to say: 
 Options:  <1> They have no tendency to aggregate or form large units with high molecular weight. <2> Ion exchange chromatography procedures (using their positive charge) can reduce endotoxin levels. <3> Ion exchange chromatography procedures (using their negative charge) can reduce endotoxin levels. <4> Ion exchange chromatography procedures (regardless of their charge) can reduce endotoxin levels. <5> They are unstable under standard autoclaving conditions.
Output: 3
Question: With respect to those known as solubility enhancers in biotechnological drugs we can say: 
 Options:  <1> Which are not necessary given the good solubility of the active ingredients. <2> Which are necessary given the low solubility of the excipients. <3> They are not necessary in proteins, especially in non-glycosylated ones. <4> The use of lysine or arginine is often resorted to as exalting agents. <5> None of the above.
Output: 4
Question: Among the equipment used for the mixing of powders are the rotary mixers, which are usually used when the powder: 
 Options:  <1> It has poor flow. <2> It flows freely. <3> It has an angle of repose> 90º. <4> It is high intensity. <5> It contains moisture.
Output: 2
Question: Regarding the stability of the drugs of a proteinaceous nature of biotechnological drugs, we can say: 
 Options:  <1> Which is strongly dependent on pH. <2> That is little affected by ionic strength. <3> That being generally so high does not usually give problems in the formulation. <4> That its maximum value occurs at the pH value of lower solubility. <5> That has a slight dependence on the temperature.
Output: 1
Question: Which of the following tests aims to determine the loss of mass of the tablets by abrasion processes? 
 Options:  <1> Hardness. <2> Disintegration <3> Friability. <4> Dissolution. <5> Uniformity of mass.
Output: 3
Question: When formulating tablets with active ingredients that are used at relatively low doses, it is necessary to add excipients whose primary function is to obtain a tablet of a reasonable size. What are these excipients called? 
 Options:  <1> Adsorbents <2> Binders <3> Disintegrators <4> Thinners <5> Lubricants
Output: 4
Question: The protection of a functional group, susceptible to hydrolysis, by the formation of a complex constitutes a procedure for stabilization of drugs in solution. Among the excipients used for this purpose are those that are made up of different glucose monomers with a cyclic arrangement and are called: 
 Options:  <1> Cyclodextrins. <2> Sorbitol <3> Citrates <4> Glucuronates <5> Propylene glycols
Output: 1
Question: Which of the following excipients acts as a plasticizer in hard gelatine capsules? 
 Options:  <1> Jelly. <2> Titanium dioxide. <3> Glycerin. <4> Sodium bisulfite. <5> For methyl aminobenzoate.
Output: 3
Question: The limit of bacterial endotoxins established by the European Pharmacopoeia for water for injection is: 
 Options:  <1> 0.25 IU / ml. <2> 0.10 IU / ml. <3> 0 IU / ml. <4> 0.22 IU / ml. <5> 0.15 IU / ml.
Output: 1
Question: The method of choice for the sterilization of products stable to heat but sensitive to moisture is: 
 Options:  <1> Sterilization by dry heat. <2> Filtration. <3> UV radiation. <4> Autoclaved. <5> Sterilization by humid heat.
Output: 1
Question: The cellulose acetate filter membranes are compatible with: 
 Options:  <1> Organic solvents. <2> Aqueous solutions <3> All solvents <4> Organic solvents, except nitrogen. <5> Nitrogen solvents.
Output: 2
Question: In the compression process occurs: 
 Options:  <1> An aggregation of the powder to be compressed. <2> A decrease in porosity. <3> A decrease in interparticular contact. <4> An increase in porosity. <5> An unpacking of the particles.
Output: 2
Question: To proceed to the elaboration of suppositories by the method of discharge it is necessary to calculate the displacement factor that indicates: 
 Options:  <1> The weight, in grams, of drug that is displaced by one gram of excipient. <2> The volume of excipient that is displaced by 100 mL of drug. <3> The weight, in grams, of excipient that is displaced by 1mL of drug. <4> The weight, in grams, of drug that is displaced by 1 mL of excipient. <5> The weight, in grams, of excipient displaced by one gram of drug.
Output: 5
Question: Counter Coulter® particle counter uses an electrolytic solution of: 
 Options:  <1> 0.9% lithium chloride in water. <2> Ammonium thiocyanate in hydrophilic solvent. <3> 15% lithium chloride in hydrophobic solvent. <4> 0.9% sodium chloride in water. <5> 0.9% sodium chloride in methanol.
Output: 4
Question: Which of the following changes is the most potent stimulus for glucagon secretion? 
 Options:  <1> Gastric filling <2> Hyperglycemia <3> Hypernatremia <4> Pass from chyme to duodenum. <5> Hypoglycemia
Output: 5
Question: Which of the following actions does insulin exert on liver tissue? 
 Options:  <1> It inhibits the uptake of glucose. <2> Activates lipolysis. <3> Inhibits the synthesis of fatty acids. <4> Activates glycogen synthesis. <5> Activates glycogenolysis.
Output: 4
Question: What proportion of insulin and C-peptide synthesize the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans? 
 Options:  <1> One molecule of insulin per C peptide <2> Two molecules of insulin for each peptide C. <3> One molecule of insulin for every two peptides C. <4> Peptide C is synthesized in C cells <5> There is a variable proportion between the synthesis of insulin and that of peptide C.
Output: 1
Question: Which of the following actions is NOT specific to prolactin? 
 Options:  <1> It favors the renal retention of water and salt. <2> It favors the corpus luteum. <3> Stimulates milk production <4> Stimulates the hypothalamic secretion of the gonadotrophin releasing hormone. <5> Participates in the control of spermatogenesis.
Output: 4
Question: Which of the following statements related to growth hormone is false? 
 Options:  <1> Its secretion is increased during sleep. <2> It is secreted by the adenohypophysis. <3> It is a cyclic peptide of 8 amino acids. <4> It is hyperglycemic. <5> Stimulates the production of somatomedins.
Output: 3
Question: Which of the following functions is not typical of the stomach? 
 Options:  <1> Food storage. <2> Protein digestion. <3> Secretion of intrinsic factor. <4> Secretion of hormones <5> Amylase secretion.
Output: 5
Question: Where are baroreceptors located that play a more important role in regulating blood pressure? 
 Options:  <1> Vessels of the medulla oblongata. <2> Coronary arteries <3> Vena cava <4> Carotid arteries. <5> Renal arteries
Output: 4
Question: What element plays a physiological role in the prevention of gastroesophageal reflux? 
 Options:  <1> Upper esophageal sphincter <2> Angle of His. <3> Hernia of Hiato. <4> Purkinje angle. <5> Pyloric sphincter
Output: 2
Question: Which of the following types of receptors is found in both the sympathetic and parasympathetic ganglia of the vegetative nervous system? 
 Options:  <1> Nicotinics <2> Muscarinic <3> Beta1-adrenergic. <4> Alpha1-adrenergic. <5> Gabaérgicos.
Output: 1
Question: Which of the following structures are in direct contact with the oval window on each of its sides? 
 Options:  <1> The eardrum and the tympanic scale. <2> The stirrup and tympanic scale. <3> The hammer and the vestibular scale <4> The anvil and the tympanic scale. <5> The abutment and the vestibular scale.
Output: 5
Question: Which of the following gases is the most abundant in the alveolar air? 
 Options:  <1> Oxygen. <2> Carbon dioxide <3> Water vapor. <4> Carbon monoxide. <5> Nitrogen.
Output: 5
Question: Which of the following layers must pass through the sperm to reach the egg during fertilization? 
 Options:  <1> Endometrial zone <2> Pellucid zone. <3> Striated area. <4> Sticky zone <5> Myometrial zone.
Output: 2
Question: Which of the following agents has a vasoconstrictor effect? 
 Options:  <1> Endothelin <2> Nitric oxide. <3> Nitrogen. <4> Blastoestimulin. <5> Glycine
Output: 1
Question: One of the following hormones inhibits lipolysis: 
 Options:  <1> Growth hormone (HGH). <2> Insulin. <3> Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). <4> Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH). <5> Glucagon.
Output: 2
Question: The loss of 3 genes of the alpha chain of globin is the main cause of: 
 Options:  <1> Fetal drooping <2> Alpha-thalassemic trait. <3> Cooley's disease <4> Hemoglobin disease H. <5> Silent alpha-thalassemia.
Output: 4
Question: A 25-year-old woman admitted to the hospital with pale skin, fatigue and malaise. It has slightly decreased values ​​of mean corpuscular volume and hemoglobin, 70 μg / dl, 50 μg / dl ferritin, and a significant increase in the HbA2 fraction with normal HbF in hemoglobin electrophoresis. With these data it can be: 
 Options:  <1> Iron-deficiency anemia <2> Anemia of chronic processes. <3> Polycythemia Vera. <4> Beta Thalassemia Minor. <5> Chronic myeloid leukemia
Output: 4
Question: Which of the following tests is more important for the diagnosis of acute leukemia? 
 Options:  <1> Karyotype <2> Medulogram <3> Hemogram <4> PET. <5> Lumbar puncture.
Output: 2
Question: A 5-year-old child presents with a purpuric rash with petechiae, ecchymosis that appeared brutally along with epistaxis and gingivorrhagia. The data of the coagulation study were: Bleeding time (Duke)> 10 min; PLT 20,000 / mm3; null clot netraction; TP 13 sec (normal: 122 sec); APTT 61 sec (normal: 602 sec); TT 18 sec (normal: 182 sec); Fibrinogen 3.2 g / l (normal: 2-4 g / l); Positive platelet autoantibodies. With these data it can be: 
 Options:  <1> Hemophilia. <2> Werlhof disease. <3> Bernard Soulier syndrome. <4> Von Willebrand disease. <5> Thrombosis of Glanzmann.
Output: 2
Question: What thrombophilia study would be of interest to a woman with repeat abortions? 
 Options:  <1> Determination of fibrinogen. <2> C-reactive protein. <3> PAI-1. <4> Lupus anticoagulant. <5> Reptile time.
Output: 4
Question: A woman attended a consultation with bruises, mucosal hemorrhages, marked thrombocytopenia (20,000 / mm3), with a normal coagulation study, no history of drug ingestion, and an increase in megakaryocytes in bone marrow without morphological abnormalities. What is the diagnostic suspicion? 
 Options:  <1> Primary immune thrombocytopenia. <2> Acute leukemia. <3> Hemophilia. <4> Trombasthenia of Glanzmann. <5> Purple of Schönlein-Henoch.
Output: 1
Question: What would be the pathophysiological mechanism that would explain the jaundice that can be observed in choledocholithiasis? 
 Options:  <1> Increase in bilirubin production. <2> Defect in the uptake of bilirubin by the hepatocyte. <3> Disorder in bilirubin conjugation. <4> Defect in the elimination of bilirubin by the hepatocyte. <5> Disorder in the conduction of bilirubin to the duodenum.
Output: 5
Question: The lesion at the level of the posterior roots of the spinal cord produces: 
 Options:  <1> Affectation of all forms of sensitivity in metameric and ipsilateral distribution. <2> Homolateral involvement of all forms of sensitivity below the point of injury. <3> Thermoanalgesia of metameric and bilateral distribution. <4> Thermoanalgesia below the lesion and contralateral. <5> Deep anesthesia below the lesion and contralateral.
Output: 1
Question: What is the arrhythmia that most often triggers sudden death in a context of acute ischemic heart disease? 
 Options:  <1> Extrasist. <2> Ventricular tachycardia <3> Ventricular fibrillation. <4> Atrial fibrillation <5> Autrioventricular block.
Output: 3
Question: The valvulopathy that triggers an overload of volume in both the left atrium and ventricle is: 
 Options:  <1> Mitral stenosis. <2> Mitral insufficiency <3> Aortic stenosis. <4> Aortic insufficiency <5> Tricuspid insufficiency.
Output: 2
Question: Hyponatremia is part of the clinical picture of: 
 Options:  <1> Addison's disease <2> Central diabetes insipidus. <3> Nephrogenic insipid diabetes. <4> Mellitus diabetes. <5> Febrile states.
Output: 1
Question: The glomerulonephritis syndrome occurs with: 
 Options:  <1> Oliguria and hematuria. <2> Polyuria and dehydration. <3> Loss of sodium in the urine. <4> Thrombosis and infections. <5> Loss of glucose in the urine.
Output: 1
Question: Pulmonary hypertension occurs as a consequence of: 
 Options:  <1> Bronchoconstriction and inflammation of the upper respiratory tract. <2> Bronchoconstriction and inflammation of the lower respiratory tract. <3> Bronchiectasis and pulmonary collapse. <4> Vasoconstriction of the arterioles of the systemic circulation. <5> Vasoconstriction of the arterioles of the pulmonary circulation.
Output: 5
Question: Tamoxifen: 
 Options:  <1> It is used for the treatment of type 2 diabetes. <2> It is an inhibitor of phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase. <3> It is a progesterone receptor agonist. <4> It is an estrogen receptor antagonist. <5> Decreases cellular sensitivity to insulin.
Output: 4
Question: The -thalassemia can have its origin in: 
 Options:  <1> The deficit of ferroquetalase. <2> The deficit of HbA2. <3> The presence of HBH. <4> The presence of HbS. <5> The presence of methemoglobin.
Output: 3
Question: Indicate which of the following disorders is a lysosomal disease: 
 Options:  <1> GLUT2 deficiency. <2> HSL deficiency (hormone-sensitive lipase). <3> Deficiency of LPL (lipoprotein lipase). <4> Basic amino acid transporter deficits. <5> Mucopolysaccharidosis
Output: 5
Question: Indicate which of the following disorders will occur with jaundice: 
 Options:  <1> Dubin-Johnson syndrome. <2> Zellweger syndrome. <3> Hashimoto's thyroiditis. <4> Cushing's disease <5> Alcaptonuria.
Output: 1
Question: Indicate which of the following deficits leads to a porphyria: 
 Options:  <1> Phenylalanine hydroxylase. <2> 21-hydroxylase. <3> ALA dehydratase. <4> Glucokinase. <5> Tyrosine hydroxylase.
Output: 3
Question: Which of the following statements of metamizol is FALSE? 
 Options:  <1> The relative risk of agranulocytosis is higher than with other NSAIDs. <2> The risk of producing aplastic anemia is low. <3> It presents a greater risk of producing gastric lesions than other NSAIDs. <4> They can potentiate the effect of oral anticoagulants. <5> If administered rapidly, intravenous can cause hypotension.
Output: 3
Question: Which of the following medications is an anti CD20 monoclonal antibody used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis? 
 Options:  <1> Alemtuzumab <2> Muromunab. <3> Abalizumab <4> Rituximab <5> Visilizumab.
Output: 4
Question: Which of the following anti-infectives can produce increased CPK associated with muscle pain and rhabdomyolysis? 
 Options:  <1> Amikacin <2> Daptomycin <3> Vancomycin <4> Linezolid. <5> Aztreonam
Output: 2
Question: Which of the following anti-infectives is a reversible inhibitor of monoamine oxidase that can lead to interactions with antidepressants that increase serotonin? 
 Options:  <1> Neomycin. <2> Teicoplanin <3> Linezolid. <4> Clindamycin <5> Meropenem.
Output: 3
Question: Which of the following statements about colchicine is not true? 
 Options:  <1> Depolymerizes tubulin. <2> It can cause nausea and vomiting. <3> It is an uricosuric. <4> It is used in prophylaxis of recurrent attacks of gout. <5> It is an alkaloid.
Output: 3
Question: As is known, estrogenic treatment can give rise to various adverse effects. Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect due to this pharmacological action? 
 Options:  <1> Edema. <2> Breast pain <3> Ovarian cancer. <4> Sickness. <5> Headaches
Output: 3
Question: Which of the following drugs used in the treatment of osteoporosis acts by binding to the RANK ligand? 
 Options:  <1> Alendronate. <2> Denosumab. <3> Calcitonin <4> Raloxifene. <5> Teriparatida.
Output: 2
Question: Which of the following antimalarials is the one of choice for the treatment of a patient diagnosed with severe and multidrug-resistant malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum? 
 Options:  <1> Sodium stibogluconate. <2> Primaquine <3> Chloroquine <4> Artemisinin <5> Quinine.
Output: 4
Question: Which of the following monoclonal antibodies presents as one of its main indications the treatment of chronic lymphoid leukemia? 
 Options:  <1> Trastuzumab. <2> Bevacizumab. <3> Denosumab. <4> Cetuximab <5> Rituximab
Output: 5
Question: A patient suffers an infection by Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Which of the following penicillins would be of your choice? 
 Options:  <1> Amoxicillin + Clavulanic acid. <2> Cloxacillin <3> Penicillin V. <4> Piperacillin-tazobactam <5> Ampicillin
Output: 4
Question: Male, 68 years old, presented with muscle cramps, hypotension, fasciculations and bronchoconstriction. He has been using organophosphorus pesticides in the garden. He has not used a mask or gloves. What would be the drug of choice for its treatment? 
 Options:  <1> Carbidopa. <2> Acetylcholine <3> Nicotine. <4> Flumazenil <5> Pralidoxime
Output: 5
Question: A 63-year-old man, who has been receiving an antidepressant for 3 years. He comes to the emergency room due to an intense hypertensive crisis, with tachycardia and headache. The patient reports that the day before he was watching the football game in a bar, and that he has taken a sandwich of cheese and sausages, and over 3 glasses of beers. What antidepressant could it be? 
 Options:  <1> Tranylcypromine <2> Fluoxetine. <3> Venlafaxine <4> Imipramine <5> Duloxetine
Output: 1