nirantk/geneticsQA-train huggingface dataset:
Question: Is the H3K4me3 histone mark related to transcriptional initiation or elongation?

Context:
The histone marks appeared mainly in generic regions and were enriched around the transcription start sites (TSSs) of genes
Trimethylation of histone H3 Lys 4 (H3K4me3) is a mark of active and poised promoters.
Histone H3 lysine 4 trimethylation (H3K4me3) is well known to occur in the promoter region of genes for transcription activation
3'-H3K4me3 is associated with ~15% of protein-coding genes in both tissues
Furthermore, 3'-H3K4me3 modification levels correlate positively with the antisense expression levels of the associated sense genes, implying that 3'-H3K4me3 is involved in the activation of antisense transcription.
Among these are forms of histone 3 that are mono- or tri-methylated at lysine 4 (H3K4me1 or H3K4me3, respectively), which bind preferentially to promoter and enhancer elements in the mammalian genome
we find that H3K4me1 and H3K4me3 are enriched at transcriptional start sites in the genome
H3K4me1 and H3K4me3 generally mark cis regulatory elements

Answer: H3K4me3 is associated with transcriptionally active genes, but its function in the transcription process is still unclear. It is well known to occur in the promoter region of genes for transcription activation but its levels correlate positively with the antisense expression levels of the associated sense genes implying that it may be also involved in the activation of antisense transcription. Although it is mostly associated with transcription initiation H3K4me3 levels determine the efficiency of transcription elongation.
Exact answer: transcriptional initiation
Question: What is the mode of inheritance of Facioscapulohumeral muscular
dystrophy (FSHD)?

Context:
autosomal dominant mode of inheritance

Answer: The mode of inheritance of Facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy is autosomal dominant.
Exact answer: autosomal dominant
Question: Has depression been shown to be a predictor of frailty?

Context:
significant role of frailty as a predictor of depression in a relatively younger old Chinese population
significant relationships between frailty and depressive symptoms and mortality at 1 year
These findings suggest that malnutrition is a major predictor of frailty or the "failure to thrive" syndrome in older persons. Depression is a major cause of poor nutritional status in older persons.
Depressed mood was associated with increased risk of steep strength decline, in particular in older men with low body weight. Low body weight in combination with depressed mood may be an indicator of frailty or severe disease status that leads to accelerated strength loss and disability.
Longitudinally, depressed mood was the only independent predictor of decline in cognition, functional ability, physician-rated health, and mortality;

Answer: Yes
Exact answer: yes
Question: Which factors activate zygotic gene expression during the maternal-to-zygotic transition in zebrafish?

Context:
Nanog, Pou5f1 and SoxB1 activate zygotic gene expression during the maternal-to-zygotic transition.
Our results demonstrate that maternal Nanog, Pou5f1 and SoxB1 are required to initiate the zygotic developmental program and induce clearance of the maternal program by activating miR-430 expression.
Here we show that Nanog, Pou5f1 (also called Oct4) and SoxB1 regulate zygotic gene activation in zebrafish.
Here we show that Nanog, Pou5f1 (also called Oct4) and SoxB1 regulate zygotic gene activation in zebrafish. We identified several hundred genes directly activated by maternal factors, constituting the first wave of zygotic transcription.

Answer: Nanog, Pou5f1 and SoxB1 activate zygotic gene expression during the maternal-to-zygotic transition. Maternal Nanog, Pou5f1 and SoxB1 are required to initiate the zygotic developmental program and induce clearance of the maternal program by activating miR-430 expression.
Exact answer: Nanog, Pou5f1, SoxB1
Question: What are the clinical manifestations of bilateral lens dislocation?

Context:
bilateral lens dislocation
Clinical manifestations include mental retardation, dislocation of the optic lens (ectopia lentis)
Ectopia lentis is a genetically heterogeneous condition that is characterized by the subluxation of the lens resulting from the disruption of the zonular fibers. 

Answer: Clinical manifestations of bilateral lens dislocation include mental retardation and dislocation of the optic lens (ectopia lentis). Ectopia lentis is characterized by the subluxation of the lens due to disruption of the zonular fibers.
Question: What is magnetoreception?

Context:
The ability to perceive geomagnetic fields (GMFs) represents a fascinating biological phenomenon. Studies on transgenic flies have provided evidence that photosensitive Cryptochromes (Cry) are involved in the response to magnetic fields (MFs). 
Cryptochromes, blue-light absorbing proteins involved in the circadian clock, have been proposed to be the receptor molecules of the avian magnetic compass. 
Although it has been known for almost half a century that migratory birds can detect the direction of the Earth's magnetic field, the primary sensory mechanism behind this remarkable feat is still unclear. The leading hypothesis centers on radical pairs-magnetically sensitive chemical intermediates formed by photoexcitation of cryptochrome proteins in the retina. 
Biogenic magnetic particles have been detected in some migratory insects, which implies the basis of magnetoreception mechanism for orientation and navigation. 
Magnetoreception is essential for magnetic orientation in animal migration. The molecular basis for magnetoreception has recently been elucidated in fruitfly as complexes between the magnetic receptor magnetoreceptor (MagR) and its ligand cryptochrome (Cry). MagR and Cry are present in the animal kingdom.
Magnetoreception is an enigmatic, poorly understood sensory ability, described mainly on the basis of behavioural studies in animals of diverse taxa. 
The photoreceptor protein cryptochrome is thought to host, upon light absorption, a radical pair that is sensitive to very weak magnetic fields, endowing migratory birds with a magnetic compass sense.

Answer: Magnetoreception is an enigmatic, poorly understood sensory ability, described mainly on the basis of behavioural studies in animals of diverse taxa. The ability to perceive geomagnetic fields (GMFs) represents a fascinating biological phenomenon. Studies on transgenic flies have provided evidence that photosensitive Cryptochromes (Cry) are involved in the response to magnetic fields (MFs). The photoreceptor protein cryptochrome is thought to host, upon light absorption, a radical pair that is sensitive to very weak magnetic fields, endowing migratory birds with a magnetic compass sense.
Question: Which are the most common methods for ctDNA (circulating tumour DNA) detection?

Context:
existing methods for ctDNA detection are restricted to genetic mutations.
Recently, nanoplasmonics has emerged as a platform for one-step dual detection with high sensitivity and specificity.
These results demonstrate that the sensor can simultaneously detect the hot-spot mutation and epigenetic changes on the ctDNA. Promisingly, other specific-tumor mutants and epigenetic changes can be detected at low concentration with this platform.
The practice of "liquid biopsy" as a diagnostic, prognostic and theranostic tool in non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) patients is an appealing approach, at least in theory, since it is noninvasive and easily repeated
Here we introduce cancer personalized profiling by deep sequencing (CAPP-Seq), an economical and ultrasensitive method for quantifying ctDNA. 
Finally, we evaluated biopsy-free tumor screening and genotyping with CAPP-Seq. We envision that CAPP-Seq could be routinely applied clinically to detect and monitor diverse malignancies, thus facilitating personalized cancer therapy.
Synthesis of a new Ni-phenanthroline complex and its application as an electrochemical probe for detection of nucleic acid
A new DNA sensor using a nickel(II) phenanthroline complex ([Ni(phen)(2)PHPIP]·2ClO(4)) as the electrochemical probe was developed. The sensor is very sensitive and selective for calf thymus DNA (ctDNA) detection in aqueous medium. 

Answer: Recently, nanoplasmonics has emerged as a platform for one-step dual detection with high sensitivity and specificity. The practice of "liquid biopsy" as a diagnostic, prognostic and theranostic tool in non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) patients is an appealing approach, at least in theory, since it is noninvasive and easily repeated. Cancer personalized profiling by deep sequencing (CAPP-Seq), an economical and ultrasensitive method for quantifying ctDNA. A new DNA sensor using a nickel(II) phenanthroline complex ([Ni(phen)(2)PHPIP]·2ClO(4)) as the electrochemical probe was developed. The sensor is very sensitive and selective for calf thymus DNA (ctDNA) detection in aqueous medium.
A new DNA sensor using a nickel(II) phenanthroline complex ([Ni(phen)(2)PHPIP]·2ClO(4)) as the electrochemical probe was developed. The calculated dynamics parameters of the electrode process indicate that there are obvious interactions between the probe and the ctDNA in aqueous solution. Under constant potential conditions, the redox current peak of the probe (Ni-complex) decreases obviously as the probe interacts/binds with ctDNAs. These results demonstrate that the sensor can simultaneously detect the hot-spot mutation and epigenetic changes on the ctDNA.
Exact answer: nanoplasmonics, biosensors, liquid biopsy, Cancer personalized profiling by deep sequencing, CAPP-Seq, electrochemical sensors
Question: Which treatment leads to an increase in neutrophil counts in severe congenital neutropenia?

Context:
This chapter focuses on cyclic and congenital neutropenia, two very interesting and rare hematological conditions causing severe chronic neutropenia. Both disorders respond well to treatment with the myeloid growth factor, granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)
Data on more than 600 patients with CN collected by the Severe Chronic Neutropenia International Registry (SCNIR) demonstrate that, regardless of the particular CN subtype, more than 95% of these patients respond to recombinant human (rHu)G-CSF with ANCs that can be maintained above 1.0 x 10(9)/L.
Long-term safety of treatment with recombinant human granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (r-metHuG-CSF) in patients with severe congenital neutropenias
In phase I/II/III studies in patients with severe congenital and cyclic neutropenia, treatment with recombinant human granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (r-metHuG-CSF) resulted in a rise in the absolute neutrophil counts (ANC) and a reduction in infections
A sustained ANC response was seen in 40/44 severe congenital neutropenia patients and 10/10 cyclic neutropenia patients
We examined peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMC) of SCN patients who demonstrated normalization of their blood neutrophil counts in a phase II clinical study with recombinant human granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (rhG-CSF)
Severe congenital neutropenia (SCN) is a disorder of myelopoiesis characterized by severe neutropenia secondary to a maturational arrest at the level of promyelocytes
In contrast to rhGM-CSF treatment, all five patients responded to rhG-CSF during the first 6 weeks of treatment with an increase in the ANC to above 1,000/microL. The level of ANC could be maintained during maintenance treatment
Treatment of these patients with granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) leads to a significant increase in circulating neutrophils and a reduction in infection-related events in more than 95% of the patients
In patients with chronic neutropenia, rhGM-CSF may increase neutrophil counts

Answer: In phase I/II/III studies in patients with severe congenital and cyclic neutropenia, treatment with recombinant human granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (r-metHuG-CSF) resulted in a rise in the absolute neutrophil counts (ANC) and a reduction in infections  
In patients with severe congenital and cyclic neutropenia, treatment with recombinant human granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (r-metHuG-CSF) resulted in a rise in the absolute neutrophil counts (ANC) and a reduction in infections.
Question: Are there any clinical trials of the effect of evening primrose oil on postmenopausal symptoms ?

Context:
To analyze whether the time (morning/evening) of administration of a compound containing 60 mg of dry soy seed extract (glycine max) with 40% of total isoflavones, primrose oil and α-tocopherol modifies the effect on the climacteric syndrome.
The object of this study was to evaluate the effect of different doses of a compound containing isoflavones 60 mg, primrose oil 440 mg and vitamin E 10 mg. (IOVE) on menopausal complaints. This was an open, multicentre, randomised, group comparative, efficacy and safety trial.
Emphasis was placed on randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled clinical trials, as these provide the best efficacy and safety data
Nonprescription therapies reviewed include black cohosh, dong quai, evening primrose oil, physical activity, phytoestrogens, and red clover
The effect of oral evening primrose oil on menopausal hot flashes: a randomized clinical trial.
The aim of this study was to compare the efficacy of evening primrose with placebo in improvement of menopausal hot flashes. 
 The application of oral evening primrose oil compared with placebo for controlling hot flashes may decrease more the intensity of attacks 
Our search identified 58 randomised controlled trials of which 11 involved the use of clonidine, six for SSRIs, four for gabapentin, seven for black cohosh, seven for red clover, 18 for phytoestrogens, two for ginseng, one for evening primrose,
Single clinical trials have found no benefit for dong quai, evening primrose oil,
Single clinical trials have found that dong quai, evening primrose oil,
To evaluate the efficacy of gamolenic acid provided by evening primrose oil in treating hot flushes and sweating associated with the menopause. DESIGN: Randomised, double blind, placebo controlled study.

Answer: Yes
Exact answer: yes
Question: When was empagliflozin FDA approved?

Context:
To review available studies of empagliflozin, a sodium glucose co-transporter-2 (SGLT2) inhibitor approved in 2014 by the European Commission and the United States Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM).
To review available studies of empagliflozin, a sodium glucose co-transporter-2 (SGLT2) inhibitor approved in 2014 by the European Commission and the United States Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM)
To review available studies of empagliflozin, a sodium glucose co-transporter-2 (SGLT2) inhibitor approved in 2014 by the European Commission and the United States Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM).

Answer: Empagliflozin was approved in 2014 by the European Commission and the United States Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM).
Exact answer: 2014
Question: What is the INSURE procedure in premature babies.

Context:
 intubation-surfactant-extubation (INSURE) method in the treatment of neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (NRDS)
INSURE method can improve the oxygenation function of the lung, decrease the incidence of VAP and shorten the duration of oxygen therapy in neonates with NRDS
intubation, surfactant, and extubation (InSurE)
Nasal continuous positive airway pressure (NCPAP) plus intubation, surfactant, and extubation (InSurE) with the option of back-up ventilation for those infants for whom noninvasive ventilatory support failed resulted in a significant increase in survival in extremely low birth weight (ELBW) infants.
The INSURE method, which consists of an intubation-surfactant-extubation sequence, is effective in reducing the need for mechanical ventilation (MV), the duration of respiratory support, and the need for surfactant replacement in preterm infants with respiratory distress syndrome
intubation-surfactant-extubation (INSURE) procedures
 INSURE (Intubation SURfactant Extubation) procedure in preterm neonates.
INtubation-SURfactant-Extubation (INSURE) treatment
Surfactant given during brief intubation followed by immediate extubation on nasal continuous positive airway pressure [Intubation-Surfactant-Extubation (InSurE) approach] is used to treat respiratory distress syndrome in newborns.
INSURE (intubatio-surfactant-extubation) method 
In preterm infants with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) nasal continuous positive airway pressure (nCPAP) with the "InSurE" procedure (intubation, surfactant, extubation) is increasingly used. 
INSURE method ( INtubation- SURfactant- Extubation) during nasal continuous positive airway pressure for preterm infants with respiratory distress syndrome
a method for surfactant administration by transient intubation, INSURE (i.e. INtubation SURfactant Extubation) during nasal continuous positive airway pressure (nCPAP) for moderately preterm infants with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)
(INSURE method: INtubation-SURfactant-Extubation) during treatment with nasal Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (CPAP).
INSURE (Intubation-SURfactant-Extubation) approach--i.e., surfactant therapy during brief intubation, immediately followed by extubation and continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) treatment
InSurE (Intubate, Surfactant, Extubate) procedure.

Answer: The INSURE procedure includes intubation, surfactant administration, and extubation (InSurE). It is used to treat respiratory distress syndrome in newborns.
InSurE stands for Intubation-surfactant-extubation and is a method in the treatment of neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (NRDS)
Question: What is the major adverse effect of Doxorubicin-induced cardiotoxicity in cancer patients?

Context:
It remains to be seen whether inhibition by adriamycin of these systems is related to the severe cardiotoxicity, the major adverse effect of the drug that limits its clinical usefulness.
Leukocytopenia was the major adverse effect among patients undergoing systemic THP administration
The major adverse effect was bone-marrow suppression;
The major adverse effect was bone marrow suppression;
Cardiotoxicity is a major adverse effect of the anthracycline antibiotics and can be acute or chronic;
chronic cardiotoxicity represents a serious adverse effect that may be lethal due to the development of irreversible, cumulative dose-dependent, congestive cardiomyopathy
Myelosuppression, predominantly neutropenia and leucopenia, is the dose-limiting toxicity; in addition to this, mucositis, nausea, vomiting and alopecia are frequent, whereas hepatopathy, characterised by elevated bilirubin concentrations, occurs less frequently
In spite of the routine use of this drug its major adverse effect, the dose-dependent cardiotoxicity, cannot be prevented yet
The major adverse effect was myelosuppression
Cardiac toxicity is a major adverse effect caused by doxorubicin (DOX) therapy
Antioxidative and cardioprotective effects of Phyllanthus urinaria L. on doxorubicin-induced cardiotoxicity
The major adverse effect of DOX treatment in cancer patients is the onset of cardiomyopathy and heart failure

Answer: The major adverse effect of DOX treatment in cancer patients is the onset of cardiomyopathy and heart failure
Question: Which are the main clinical features of Fanconi anemia?

Context:
The clinical features of cytopenia, developmental defects, and tumor predisposition are similar in each group, suggesting that the gene products participate in a common pathway.
Fanconi anemia (FA) is a genetically and phenotypically heterogeneous recessive disorder characterized by diverse congenital malformations, progressive pancytopenia and predisposition to both hematologic malignancies and solid tumors
Patients with FA exhibit a heterogeneous spectrum of clinical features. The most significant and consistent phenotypic characteristics are stem cell loss, causing progressive bone marrow failure and sterility, diverse developmental abnormalities and a profound predisposition to neoplasia
Fanconi anemia (FA) is an autosomal recessive, cancer susceptibility disorder characterized by diverse clinical features, such as short stature, skeletal or skin abnormalities, progressive bone marrow (BM) failure, and increased risk of malignancies
Fanconi anaemia (FA) is an autosomal recessive disease characterised by congenital abnormalities, defective haemopoiesis, and a high risk of developing acute myeloid leukaemia and certain solid tumours
Fanconi anemia (FA), a recessive syndrome with both autosomal and X-linked inheritance, features diverse clinical symptoms, such as progressive bone marrow failure, hypersensitivity to DNA cross-linking agents, chromosomal instability and susceptibility to cancer.
Fanconi anemia (FA) consists of a group of at least five autosomal recessive disorders that share both clinical (e.g., birth defects and hematopoietic failure) and cellular (e.g., sensitivity to cross-linking agents and predisposition to apoptosis) features with each other.
Features of chromosomal aberrations, hypersensitivity to DNA crosslinking agents, and predisposition to malignancy have suggested a fundamental anomaly of DNA repair in Fanconi anemia.
Progressive bone marrow failure starting in the first decade of life is one of the main characteristics of Fanconi anemia
FA is an autosomal recessive disease with three main features: chromosome instability, hypersensitivity to DNA cross-linking agents such as mitomycin C (MMC), cisplatin and so on, and susceptible to a number of cancer types, mainly leukemia and squamous cell carcinomas of the head and neck or gynecologic system
Bone marrow failure resulting in pancytopenia is the main cause of death of FA patients

Answer: Fanconi anaemia (FA) is an autosomal recessive disease characterised by congenital abnormalities, defective haemopoiesis, and increased risk of malignancies.
Fanconi anemia (FA) is a genetically and phenotypically heterogeneous recessive disorder characterized by diverse congenital malformations, progressive pancytopenia and predisposition to both hematologic malignancies and solid tumors
Exact answer: congenital abnormalities, defective haemopoiesis, increased risk of malignancies, cellular hypersensitivity to DNA crosslinking agents
Question: What is the role of IL-18BP?

Context:
Interleukin 18--binding protein ameliorates liver ischemia--reperfusion injury.
 IL-18BP exhibited anti-inflammatory, antioxidant, and protective effects in I/R-mediated hepatic injury via regulating some liver enzyme activities and cytokine levels. 
Because of IL-18's potential pro-inflammatory and tissue destructive effects, its biological activities are tightly controlled in the body by its naturally occurring antagonist called IL-18BP. The antagonist is produced in the body both constitutively and in response to an increased production of IL-18 as a negative feedback mechanism. Under physiological conditions, most of IL-18 in the circulation is bound with IL-18BP and is inactive. However, an imbalance in the production of IL-18 and its antagonist (an increase in the production of IL-18 with a decrease, no increase or an insufficient increase in the production of IL-18BP) has been described in many chronic inflammatory diseases in humans.
L-18 binding protein (IL-18BP) is a natural inhibitor of IL-18. 
Platelets also contain the IL-18 antagonist, the IL-18-Binding Protein (IL-18BP)
The natural inhibitor IL-18BP , whose production is enhanced by IFN-γ and IL-27, further regulates IL-18 activity in the extracellular environment. 
IL-18 binding protein (IL-18BP) is a naturally occurring inhibitor of IL-18. 
IL-18 binding protein (IL-18BP) is a natural inhibitor of IL-18. The balance between IL-18 and IL-18BP has an important role in the inflammatory setting.

Answer: IL-18 binding protein (IL-18BP) is a natural inhibitor of IL-18. The balance between IL-18 and IL-18BP has an important role in the inflammatory setting.
Exact answer: IL-18 binding protein (IL-18BP) is a natural inhibitor of IL-18. The balance between IL-18 and IL-18BP has an important role in the inflammatory setting.