I am so sorry for your situtipn.  It sounds as if there is a lot going on here.  Generally speaking, assets purchased prior to marriage are considered separate property.  In some jurisdicitions the courts allow a party to show that there was an intent for the property to become marital property and an increae in value during the marriage is marital property.  If marital and non marital funds went toward the upkeep and mortgage that is another factor.  But I would go and speak with an attorney as t the time line and that law in your jurisdiction.  Good luck.