No you do not, absent an exisiting agreement to the contrary. One owner cannot force another co-owner to pay rent. That having been said, oneowner can force a sale of jointly owned property via a legal remedy known as "partition" (that is unless the other owner can afford to buy out their share for fair market value). Then, upon its sale, each owner would get an equitable share of the proceeds. This means that if one owner put in money to maintain and/or improve the proeprty, a court could provide that that owner get reimbursed for such expensess and then the sale proceeds would be spilt.