No. Although predicate acts of domestic violence are themselves also outlawed by criminal statutes, an alleged victim of domestic violence seeking a restraining order only needs to prove you committed a predicate act of domestic violence by a “preponderance of the evidence” -- in other words, it is more likely than not that you committed the predicate act. As a result, you can still have a restraining order taken out against you for an alleged act of domestic violence even if there is insufficient evidence to arrest and convict you for a crime for that act.