Yes, there is such a law but it is termed a bit differently.  It is called legal "standing" to sue.  Having "standing" means that you have the legal right to bring the lawsuit in question.  Your claim here is that here that he did not own the bike is contradicted by your own statement "he just bought it."  The court will have to sort through the issue here of who, what, where and when, but I do think that it is an issue that you need to bring up as what is known as an "affirmative defense."  I do not know how much stock the court will put in the matter or if they will put a lot of sock in the matter.  So think of a different defense here.  Like that the estimate and repair was inflated. But good luck to you.