diff --git "a/cpt_codes_consolidated.csv" "b/cpt_codes_consolidated.csv" new file mode 100644--- /dev/null +++ "b/cpt_codes_consolidated.csv" @@ -0,0 +1,16176 @@ +cpt_code,sub_header,description,code_type +100,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Head.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a procedure on the salivary glands, including biopsy.",CPT +102,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Head.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a plastic repair of cleft lip.,CPT +103,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Head.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a reconstructive procedure of eyelid such as blepharoplasty or ptosis surgery.,CPT +104,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Head.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing electroconvulsive therapy.,CPT +120,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Head.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing procedures on the external, middle, and inner ear, including biopsy.",CPT +124,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Head.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing procedures on the external, middle, and inner ear, including biopsy and otoscopy.",CPT +126,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Head.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing procedures on the external, middle, and inner ear including biopsy and tympanotomy.",CPT +140,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Head.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing an eye procedure.,CPT +142,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Head.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing an eye lens procedure.,CPT +144,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Head.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a corneal transplant.,CPT +145,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Head.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing vitreoretinal surgery.,CPT +147,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Head.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing an iridectomy, or surgery to remove part of the iris.",CPT +148,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Head.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing an ophthalmoscopy.,CPT +160,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Head.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing procedures on the nose and accessory sinuses, hollow chambers in the skull that open into the nasal cavity. Use this code when there is no more specific code available.",CPT +162,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Head.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing radical surgery on the nose and accessory sinuses.,CPT +164,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Head.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing soft tissue biopsy of the nose and accessory sinuses.,CPT +170,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Head.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing an intraoral procedure, including biopsy.",CPT +172,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Head.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing an intraoral procedure, including biopsy and repair of a cleft palate.",CPT +174,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Head.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing an intraoral procedure, including biopsy and excision of a retropharyngeal tumor.",CPT +176,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Head.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing an intraoral procedure, including biopsy, radical surgery.",CPT +190,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Head.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a procedure on the facial bones or the skull.,CPT +192,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Head.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing radical surgery procedures on the facial bones or skull. This may include prognathism, which is a protrusion of the lower jaw.",CPT +210,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Head.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing intracranial procedures that are not specifically described by another anesthesia code.,CPT +211,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Head.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing intracranial procedures that involve removing a small portion of skull bone to take out a hematoma or blood clot from within the brain or tissues surrounding it.,CPT +212,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Head.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing intracranial procedures involving subdural taps. In this procedure, another provider removes a little fluid from the subdural space, the fluid filled space in between the outer and middle membrane layers covering the brain. The surgical provider performs the procedure to decrease the excess intracranial fluid pressure being exerted on the brain tissues.",CPT +214,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Head.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing intracranial procedures involving burr holes and possibly ventriculography.,CPT +215,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Head.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing extradural intracranial procedures involving cranioplasty or raising a depressed skull fracture.,CPT +216,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Head.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing intracranial vascular procedures.,CPT +218,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Head.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing an intracranial procedure while in a sitting position.,CPT +220,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Head.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing intracranial procedures for cerebrospinal fluid shunting.,CPT +222,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Head.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing an intracranial procedure, including electrocoagulation of an intracranial nerve, which means to stop bleeding using electrocautery, or an electrical current.",CPT +300,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Neck.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing any procedure on the integumentary system, muscles and nerves of head, neck, and posterior trunk.",CPT +320,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Neck.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing any procedure on the esophagus, thyroid, larynx, trachea and lymphatic system of the neck when the patient is one year or older.",CPT +322,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Neck.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing any procedure on the esophagus, thyroid, larynx, trachea and lymphatic system of the neck, including a needle biopsy of the thyroid.",CPT +326,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Neck.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing any procedure on the larynx and trachea in children younger than one year of age.,CPT +350,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Neck.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing any procedure on the major vessels of the neck, not otherwise specified.",CPT +352,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Neck.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing any procedure on the major vessels of neck, including simple ligation.",CPT +400,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Thorax (Chest Wall and Shoulder Girdle).,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing any procedure on the integumentary system on the extremities, anterior trunk and perineum, not otherwise specified.",CPT +402,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Thorax (Chest Wall and Shoulder Girdle).,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a procedure on the integumentary system on the extremities, anterior trunk and perineum, including reconstructive procedures on the breast.",CPT +404,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Thorax (Chest Wall and Shoulder Girdle).,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a procedure on the integumentary system on the extremities, anterior trunk and perineum, including a radical or modified radical procedure on the breast.",CPT +406,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Thorax (Chest Wall and Shoulder Girdle).,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a procedure on the integumentary system of the extremities, anterior trunk, and perineum, including a radical or modified radical procedure on the breast with internal mammary node dissection.",CPT +410,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Thorax (Chest Wall and Shoulder Girdle).,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a procedure on the skin of the upper and lower limbs, the front aspect of the chest and abdomen, or the perineum. For this code, the patient’s treatment includes electrical conversion for treating the irregularity of heartbeats.",CPT +450,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Thorax (Chest Wall and Shoulder Girdle).,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a procedure on the clavicle and scapula, which is not specified by another code. The clavicle and scapula are bones in the upper torso.",CPT +454,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Thorax (Chest Wall and Shoulder Girdle).,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a biopsy procedure on the clavicle, which is the collarbone.",CPT +470,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Thorax (Chest Wall and Shoulder Girdle).,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing partial rib removal in a procedure not otherwise specified by another code.,CPT +472,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Thorax (Chest Wall and Shoulder Girdle).,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing partial rib resection including thoracoplasty, in which another provider partially removes one or more ribs. The surgery may involve a reparative procedure on the thorax.",CPT +474,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Thorax (Chest Wall and Shoulder Girdle).,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a partial rib resection in which the surgical provider removes a portion of the ribs. The radical procedure involves other extensive measures for treating conditions such as pectus excavatum, which is a hollow depression in the center of the lower chest.",CPT +500,Anesthesia for Intrathoracic Procedures.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a procedure on the esophagus, which is the food pipe.",CPT +520,Anesthesia for Intrathoracic Procedures.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing closed chest procedures including bronchoscopy, which means viewing the windpipe for investigation. This code includes procedures that are not specifically described by another anesthesia code.",CPT +522,Anesthesia for Intrathoracic Procedures.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a closed chest procedure involving a needle biopsy of the pleura, which is the double–layered membrane covering the lungs.",CPT +524,Anesthesia for Intrathoracic Procedures.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing the closed chest procedure of pneumocentesis in which another provider inserts a needle into the lung to drain the fluid contents.,CPT +528,Anesthesia for Intrathoracic Procedures.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing the procedure of mediastinoscopy in which another provider inserts a device with a video camera via an opening at the base of the neck to view the structures in the upper chest between the two lungs. The surgical provider may perform thoracoscopy, in which he may insert a device with a viewing camera through an opening in the side of the lower chest to view any abnormality in the contents of the pleura, the double–layered membrane covering the lung.",CPT +529,Anesthesia for Intrathoracic Procedures.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing the procedure of mediastinoscopy in which another provider inserts a device with a video camera via an opening at the base of the neck to view the structures in the upper chest between the two lungs. The surgical provider may perform thoracoscopy, in which he may insert a device with a viewing camera through an opening in the side of the lower chest to view any abnormality in the contents of the pleura, the double layered membrane covering the lung. The procedure involves one lung ventilation.",CPT +530,Anesthesia for Intrathoracic Procedures.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing the procedure of permanent transvenous pacemaker insertion in which another provider inserts a device via a blood vessel in the neck into the chambers of the heart as a treatment for irregular beating of the heart.,CPT +532,Anesthesia for Intrathoracic Procedures.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for the procedure of accessing central venous circulation, which refers to the major veins draining blood into the heart. Another provider may use this access or entry point for various cardiac treatment or monitoring purposes.",CPT +534,Anesthesia for Intrathoracic Procedures.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing the procedure of transvenous cardioverter–defibrillator insertion in which another provider inserts a device, via a blood vessel in the neck, into the chambers of the heart as a treatment for irregular beating of the heart. The surgical provider’s procedure may involve replacing the pacing cardioverter–defibrillator as well.",CPT +537,Anesthesia for Intrathoracic Procedures.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing cardiac electrophysiologic procedures, such as mapping, pacing, recording, arrhythmia induction, lead testing, and similar services, as well as radiofrequency ablation.",CPT +539,Anesthesia for Intrathoracic Procedures.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing the procedure of tracheobronchial reconstruction in which the surgical provider performs repair of injury or malformations in the windpipe and its subdivisions.,CPT +540,Anesthesia for Intrathoracic Procedures.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing procedures that are not specifically described by another anesthesia code in which the surgical provider performs thoracotomy. Thoracotomy is opening the chest for surgical treatment or investigation of structures within the chest.,CPT +541,Anesthesia for Intrathoracic Procedures.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a procedure involving opening the chest wall and using one lung ventilation.,CPT +542,Anesthesia for Intrathoracic Procedures.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a procedure involving opening the chest wall and performing decortication, which is peeling away the lung’s lining.",CPT +546,Anesthesia for Intrathoracic Procedures.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a procedure involving opening the chest wall, removal of all or part of a lung, and surgical repair of the thorax.",CPT +548,Anesthesia for Intrathoracic Procedures.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a procedure involving opening the chest wall, and performing procedures on the trachea, which is the windpipe, and the bronchi, the air passages that lead from the windpipe to the lungs.",CPT +550,Anesthesia for Intrathoracic Procedures.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a procedure involving removing dead or damaged tissue from the breastbone.,CPT +560,Anesthesia for Intrathoracic Procedures.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a procedure involving the heart, the sac around the heart, and the great vessels of the chest, such as the aorta, its major branches, and the major pulmonary vessels. The patient does not require a pump oxygenator to take on the work of the heart and lungs.",CPT +561,Anesthesia for Intrathoracic Procedures.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a procedure involving the heart, the sac around the heart, and the great vessels of the chest, such as the aorta, its major branches, and the major pulmonary vessels. The patient, who is younger than a year old, requires a pump oxygenator to take on the work of the heart and lungs during the procedure.",CPT +562,Anesthesia for Intrathoracic Procedures.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a procedure involving the heart, the sac around the heart, and the great vessels of the chest, such as the aorta, its major branches, and the major pulmonary vessels. The procedure is for something other than a coronary bypass procedure, but it may be a re–operation within a month of the original bypass. The patient is a year old or older and requires a pump oxygenator to take on the work of the heart and lungs.",CPT +563,Anesthesia for Intrathoracic Procedures.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a procedure involving the heart, the sac around the heart, and the great vessels of the chest, such as the aorta, its major branches, and the major pulmonary vessels. The procedure requires a pump oxygenator to take on the work of the heart and lungs. The procedure also involves hypothermic circulatory arrest, which cools the body to stop blood circulation without endangering the patient.",CPT +566,Anesthesia for Intrathoracic Procedures.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a coronary artery bypass graft procedure. The procedure does not require a pump oxygenator to take on the work of the heart and lungs.,CPT +567,Anesthesia for Intrathoracic Procedures.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a coronary artery bypass graft procedure. The procedure requires a pump oxygenator to take on the work of the heart and lungs.,CPT +580,Anesthesia for Intrathoracic Procedures.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing transplant of the heart or of both the heart and lungs,CPT +600,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a procedure on the cervical spine and cord not described by another anesthesia code.,CPT +604,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a procedure on the cervical spine and cord while in a sitting position.,CPT +620,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a procedure on the thoracic spine and cord not described in another anesthesia code.,CPT +625,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a procedure on the thoracic spine and cord, via an anterior transthoracic approach; not utilizing 1 lung ventilation.",CPT +626,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a procedure on the thoracic spine and cord, via an anterior transthoracic approach; utilizing 1 lung ventilation.",CPT +630,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a procedure in lumbar region; not otherwise specified.,CPT +632,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a procedure in the lumbar region, including a lumbar sympathectomy.",CPT +635,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a procedure in the lumbar region, including a diagnostic or therapeutic lumbar puncture.",CPT +640,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a manipulation of the spine or for a closed procedure on the cervical, thoracic, or lumbar spine.",CPT +670,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing an extensive spine and spinal cord procedures including spinal instrumentation, where the provider implants plates and screws into the spine to stabilize it, and vascular procedures on blood vessels.",CPT +700,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Upper Abdomen.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a procedure on the upper anterior abdominal wall, not otherwise specified.",CPT +702,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Upper Abdomen.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a procedure on the upper anterior abdominal wall, including a percutaneous liver biopsy.",CPT +730,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Upper Abdomen.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a procedure on the upper posterior abdominal wall.,CPT +731,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Upper Abdomen.,"The anesthesia provider performs anesthesia services for an unspecified type of upper gastrointestinal endoscopic procedure during which another provider introduces the endoscope to but not beyond the proximal (upper) part of duodenum, the first portion of the small intestines just below the stomach.",CPT +732,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Upper Abdomen.,"The anesthesia provider performs anesthesia services for an endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) during which another provider introduces the endoscope to the proximal (upper) part of the duodenum, the part of the small bowel just below the stomach.",CPT +750,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Upper Abdomen.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for hernia repairs in upper abdomen, not otherwise specified.",CPT +752,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Upper Abdomen.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for hernia repairs in the upper abdomen, including a lumbar and ventral, or incisional, hernia and or wound dehiscence.",CPT +754,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Upper Abdomen.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing hernia repair in the upper abdomen for an omphalocele, a congenital malformation in which part of the intestine or other abdominal organs protrude into the base of the umbilical cord due to a defect in the development of the muscles of the abdominal wall.",CPT +756,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Upper Abdomen.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing transabdominal repair of a diaphragmatic hernia. The surgical procedure involves repairing a discontinuity in the respiratory diaphragm and restoring the protruding abdominal contents back into the abdominal cavity, via the transabdominal approach.",CPT +770,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Upper Abdomen.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a procedure on the major abdominal blood vessels such as embolectomy, thrombectomy, reconstruction, repair of aneurysm, bypass graft, venous anastomosis, etc.",CPT +790,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Upper Abdomen.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing intraperitoneal procedures in the upper abdomen, including laparoscopy, which are not specified by any other anesthesia code.",CPT +792,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Upper Abdomen.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing partial hepatectomy, which is partial removal of the liver, or undergoing management of liver hemorrhage. This code includes laparoscopy. It does not include liver biopsy.",CPT +794,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Upper Abdomen.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a procedure of partial or total pancreatectomy, which is surgical removal of the pancreas. The surgical provider may perform a Whipple procedure, which is removal of the head of the pancreas along with the duodenum and other nearby structures, and rejoining the cut end of the pancreas to the small intestine. This code includes laparoscopy.",CPT +796,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Upper Abdomen.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient receiving a liver transplant, including laparoscopic services.",CPT +797,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Upper Abdomen.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a gastric restrictive procedure for morbid obesity. In this procedure the surgical provider goes through the abdominal wall, possibly laparoscopically, and restricts or shrinks the volume of the stomach by putting a band across the stomach. This way, the stomach fills up sooner and the patient can decrease his food intake and lose weight.",CPT +800,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Lower Abdomen.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing procedures on the lower anterior abdominal wall. This code is used for procedures not specified by other anesthesia codes.,CPT +802,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Lower Abdomen.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing panniculectomy on the lower anterior abdominal wall. In this procedure the surgical provider excises excess fat and skin, called a pannus, via an incision below the navel.",CPT +811,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Lower Abdomen.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing an unspecified lower intestinal endoscopic procedure where the surgical provider introduces an endoscope into the intestines up to but not into the duodenum, the part of the intestines just below the stomach.",CPT +812,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Lower Abdomen.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a screening colonoscopy during which the surgical provider introduces an endoscope into the intestines below the duodenum, the part of the intestines just below the stomach.",CPT +813,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Lower Abdomen.,"The anesthesia provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing both upper and lower intestinal endoscopy where the surgical provider introduces an endoscope into the intestines above and below the duodenum, the part of the intestines just next to the stomach.",CPT +820,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Lower Abdomen.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing procedures on the lower rear aspect of the abdominal wall, such as biopsy, tumor removal, muscle flap procedures, injections in the area for specific purposes, etc.",CPT +830,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Lower Abdomen.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing hernia repairs in the lower abdomen. This code refers to procedures that are not specified by any other anesthesia code.,CPT +832,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Lower Abdomen.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing hernia repairs in the lower abdomen such as ventral hernias and incisional hernias. The patient is older than 1 year of age.,CPT +834,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Lower Abdomen.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing repair of a hernia located in the lower abdomen. The patient is a child younger than 1 year of age. This code refers to procedures not specified by any other anesthesia code.,CPT +836,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Lower Abdomen.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing repair of a hernia located in the lower abdomen. The patient is an infant born at fewer than 37 weeks gestational age and younger than 50 weeks gestational age at the time of surgery. This code refers to procedures not specified by any other anesthesia code.,CPT +840,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Lower Abdomen.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing intraperitoneal procedures in the lower abdomen, including laparoscopy, which are not specified by any other anesthesia code.",CPT +842,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Lower Abdomen.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing amniocentesis, in which another provider extracts fluid from the uterus of a pregnant female using a needle.",CPT +844,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Lower Abdomen.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing abdominoperineal resection in which the surgical provider removes large tumors lying very low down in the rectum along with the anus, the external opening of the intestines.",CPT +846,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Lower Abdomen.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a radical hysterectomy in which the surgical provider removes the uterus along with the surrounding structures.,CPT +848,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Lower Abdomen.,The provider performs anesthesia services for an intraperitoneal procedure in the lower abdomen including laparoscopy and pelvic exenteration.,CPT +851,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Lower Abdomen.,The provider performs anesthesia services for an intraperitoneal procedure in the lower abdomen including laparoscopy and tubal ligation/transection.,CPT +860,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Lower Abdomen.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for an extraperitoneal procedure in lower abdomen, including the urinary tract.",CPT +862,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Lower Abdomen.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for an extraperitoneal procedure in the lower abdomen, including the urinary tract; renal procedures, including upper one third of ureter, or donor nephrectomy.",CPT +864,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Lower Abdomen.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for an extraperitoneal procedure in the lower abdomen, including urinary tract; total cystectomy.",CPT +865,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Lower Abdomen.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing removal of the prostate and some of the surrounding tissue.,CPT +866,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Lower Abdomen.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing removal of one or both adrenal glands.,CPT +868,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Lower Abdomen.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a renal transplant.,CPT +870,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Lower Abdomen.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing removal of a stone from the bladder.,CPT +872,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Lower Abdomen.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient partially submerged in liquid while undergoing treatment of a kidney stone or ureteral stone by extracorporeal shock wave.,CPT +873,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Lower Abdomen.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for lithotripsy, extracorporeal shock wave, without water bath.",CPT +880,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Lower Abdomen.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for procedures on major lower abdominal vessels, not otherwise specified.",CPT +882,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Lower Abdomen.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a procedure on major lower abdominal vessels, including inferior vena cava ligation.",CPT +902,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Perineum.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a procedure involving the anus or rectum.,CPT +904,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Perineum.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a radical (complete removal of all diseased tissue) perineal (the area around the genitali) procedure.,CPT +906,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Perineum.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing vulvectomy, which means excision of the external genitals of the female.",CPT +908,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Perineum.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing perineal prostatectomy. In this procedure the surgical provider partially or completely removes the prostate gland by approaching it through the perineum.,CPT +910,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Perineum.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing transurethral procedures including urethrocystoscopy. The surgical provider may examine the organs of the urinary system from within by inserting a special device through the urethra, which is the external opening for urine outflow. This code is for procedures not specified by any other anesthesia code.",CPT +912,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Perineum.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing excision of one or more tumors within the bladder performed through the urethra, which is the opening for the outflow of urine.",CPT +914,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Perineum.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing removal of the prostate gland through the urethra, which is the opening for the outflow of urine.",CPT +916,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Perineum.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient requiring bleeding control following removal of a specific tissue accessed through the urethra, which is an opening for the outflow of urine.",CPT +918,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Perineum.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing fragmentation, manipulation, and/or removal of a ureteral calculus. The surgical provider accesses the ureter through the urethra, breaks and/or manipulates the stones within the urethra, and may take the stone out.",CPT +920,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Perineum.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a procedure on male genitalia that is not specified by any other anesthesia code. As part of the procedure, the provider may incise the urethra, which is the opening for the outflow of urine.",CPT +921,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Perineum.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing vasectomy. The surgical provider excises the vas deferens, which is the duct that carries the male reproductive cells toward the penis. The provider can perform the procedure unilaterally, with removal of the vas deferens of one side, or bilaterally, involving the vas deferens of each side.",CPT +922,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Perineum.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a procedure related to the seminal vesicles, which are the glands secreting the components of semen.",CPT +924,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Perineum.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a procedure on an undescended testis of one or both sides.,CPT +926,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Perineum.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing surgical removal of one or both testes by an incision made into the inguinal (groin) area, typically for malignancy. The surgical provider also removes the spermatic cord.",CPT +928,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Perineum.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing surgical removal of one or both testes, typically for malignancy, along with the spermatic cord and nearby abdominal lymph nodes. The surgical provider performs the procedure by an incision made into the lower abdominal area.",CPT +930,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Perineum.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing surgical treatment to move an undescended testis on one or both sides into the scrotum.,CPT +932,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Perineum.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing complete amputation or surgical removal of the penis. the male genital organ, comprising primarily erectile tissue.",CPT +934,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Perineum.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing extensive amputation or surgical removal of the penis along with removal of the lymph nodes of the groin on both sides.,CPT +936,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Perineum.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing extensive surgical removal of the penis along with removal of lymph nodes of the inguinal and iliac region on both sides.,CPT +938,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Perineum.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing the procedure through the perineum for penile prosthesis insertion, a procedure performed to treat erectile dysfunction in men.",CPT +940,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Perineum.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing procedures on the female perineum including biopsy of the labia, vagina, cervix, or endometrium. Use this code for procedures not specified by any other anesthesia code.",CPT +942,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Perineum.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing procedures on the female vagina and associated structures including biopsy, incision into the vagina, repair of vaginal tear, or excision of the vagina and open urethral procedures.",CPT +944,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Perineum.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing removal of the uterus through the vaginal approach.,CPT +948,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Perineum.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing cervical cerclage in which the surgical provider uses sutures to close the cervix in a pregnant female who has an incompetent cervix. The procedure helps to prevent premature delivery.,CPT +950,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Perineum.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing culdoscopy in which the surgical provider views the uterus by introducing a flexible tube with a viewing camera.,CPT +952,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Perineum.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing either hysteroscopy or hysterosalpingography or both.,CPT +1112,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Pelvis (Except Hip).,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing the procedure of either bone marrow aspiration or biopsy or both. The procedure site is the anterior or posterior iliac crest.,CPT +1120,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Pelvis (Except Hip).,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing procedures on the bony pelvis.,CPT +1130,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Pelvis (Except Hip).,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing body cast application or revision. Application involves enclosing the body with a plaster shell. Revision refers to redoing the procedure for specific needs.,CPT +1140,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Pelvis (Except Hip).,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing anesthesia for interpelviabdominal amputation, which is removal of one half of the pelvis as well as one entire lower limb.",CPT +1150,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Pelvis (Except Hip).,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing radical procedures for a tumor of the pelvis, other than hindquarter amputation.",CPT +1160,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Pelvis (Except Hip).,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing closed procedures involving the symphysis pubis or sacroiliac joint.,CPT +1170,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Pelvis (Except Hip).,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing open procedures involving the symphysis pubis or sacroiliac joint.,CPT +1173,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Pelvis (Except Hip).,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing open repair of fracture disruption of the pelvis or of column fracture involving the acetabulum.,CPT +1200,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Upper Leg (Except Knee).,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing any closed procedure involving the hip joint. Closed means interventions that do not require an open surgical entry into the joint.,CPT +1202,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Upper Leg (Except Knee).,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing an arthroscopic procedure of the hip joint.,CPT +1210,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Upper Leg (Except Knee).,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing an open procedure of the hip joint.,CPT +1212,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Upper Leg (Except Knee).,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing an open disarticulation procedure of the hip joint.,CPT +1214,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Upper Leg (Except Knee).,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing an open total hip arthroplasty.,CPT +1215,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Upper Leg (Except Knee).,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a revision of an open total hip arthroplasty.,CPT +1220,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Upper Leg (Except Knee).,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing any closed procedure of the upper two thirds of the femur, or the thigh bone, the long bone that extends from the pelvis to the knee.",CPT +1230,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Upper Leg (Except Knee).,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing an open procedure of the upper two thirds of the femur, or the thigh bone, the long bone that extends from the pelvis to the knee.",CPT +1232,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Upper Leg (Except Knee).,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing an amputation, or removal, of the leg at the upper two thirds of the femur, or the thigh bone, the long bone that extends from the pelvis to the knee.",CPT +1234,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Upper Leg (Except Knee).,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a radical resection, or an extensive surgical removal of tissue, of the upper two thirds of the femur, or the thigh bone, the long bone that extends from the pelvis to the knee.",CPT +1250,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Upper Leg (Except Knee).,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing any procedure on the nerves, muscles, tendons, fascia, and bursae of the upper leg.",CPT +1260,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Upper Leg (Except Knee).,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a procedure of the veins of the upper leg, including an exploration.",CPT +1270,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Upper Leg (Except Knee).,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a procedure on the arteries of the upper leg that includes placement of a bypass graft.,CPT +1272,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Upper Leg (Except Knee).,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing ligation and bypass graft placement of the femoral artery in the upper leg.,CPT +1274,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Upper Leg (Except Knee).,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing the surgical removal of an embolus and placement of a bypass graft of the femoral artery in the upper leg.,CPT +1320,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Knee and Popliteal Area.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing any procedure on the nerves, muscles, tendons, fascia, and bursae of the knee and or the popliteal area.",CPT +1340,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Knee and Popliteal Area.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing any closed procedure of the lower one third of the femur, or the thigh bone, the long bone that extends from the pelvis to the knee.",CPT +1360,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Knee and Popliteal Area.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing any open procedure of the lower one third of the femur, or the thigh bone, the long bone that extends from the pelvis to the knee.",CPT +1380,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Knee and Popliteal Area.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing any closed procedure of the knee joint.,CPT +1382,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Knee and Popliteal Area.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a diagnostic arthroscopic procedure of the knee joint.,CPT +1390,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Knee and Popliteal Area.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing any closed procedure of the upper end of the tibia, fibula, and or the patella.",CPT +1392,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Knee and Popliteal Area.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing any open procedure of the upper ends of the tibia, fibula, and or the patella.",CPT +1400,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Knee and Popliteal Area.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing an open or arthroscopic procedure on the knee joint.,CPT +1402,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Knee and Popliteal Area.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing an open or arthroscopic total knee arthroplasty.,CPT +1404,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Knee and Popliteal Area.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing an open or arthroscopic procedure, including disarticulation, at the knee joint.",CPT +1420,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Knee and Popliteal Area.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing the application, removal, or repair of a cast that includes the knee joint.",CPT +1430,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Knee and Popliteal Area.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a procedure to the veins of the knee and the popliteal area. Report this code when there is no other code to represent this procedure.,CPT +1432,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Knee and Popliteal Area.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a procedure for arteriovenous fistula, or AV, in the veins of the knee and popliteal area.",CPT +1440,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Knee and Popliteal Area.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a procedure to the arteries of the knee and popliteal area.,CPT +1442,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Knee and Popliteal Area.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a popliteal thromboendarterectomy procedure that may include a patch graft.,CPT +1444,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Knee and Popliteal Area.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing an excision and graft or repair of the popliteal area due to an occlusion or aneurysm.,CPT +1462,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Lower Leg (Below Knee).,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing any closed procedure of the lower leg, ankle, and foot.",CPT +1464,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Lower Leg (Below Knee).,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing an arthroscopic procedure of the ankle and or foot.,CPT +1470,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Lower Leg (Below Knee).,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a procedure on the nerves, muscles, tendons, and fascia of the lower leg, ankle, and foot. Report this code when no other more specific code applies.",CPT +1472,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Lower Leg (Below Knee).,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a procedure on the nerves, muscles, tendons, and fascia of lower leg, ankle, and foot, including a repair of ruptured Achilles tendon, with or without graft.",CPT +1474,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Lower Leg (Below Knee).,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a procedure on nerves, muscles, tendons, and fascia of lower leg, ankle, and foot, including a gastrocnemius recession (eg, Strayer procedure).",CPT +1480,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Lower Leg (Below Knee).,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing an open procedure on the bones of the lower leg, ankle, and foot.",CPT +1482,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Lower Leg (Below Knee).,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a procedure on the bones of lower leg, ankle, and foot, including a radical resection (including below knee amputation).",CPT +1484,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Lower Leg (Below Knee).,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing an osteotomy or osteoplasty of the tibia and or fibula.,CPT +1486,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Lower Leg (Below Knee).,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a total ankle replacement.,CPT +1490,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Lower Leg (Below Knee).,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing the application, removal or repair of a lower leg cast.",CPT +1500,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Lower Leg (Below Knee).,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a procedure on the arteries of the lower leg that includes placement of a bypass graft.,CPT +1502,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Lower Leg (Below Knee).,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing the direct surgical removal of an embolus or a catheter directed removal, along with the placement of a bypass graft for an artery of the lower leg.",CPT +1520,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Lower Leg (Below Knee).,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a procedure on the veins of the lower leg.,CPT +1522,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Lower Leg (Below Knee).,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a direct or catheter directed venous thrombectomy of a vein in the lower leg.,CPT +1610,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Shoulder and Axilla.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing any procedure of the nerves, muscles, tendons, fascia, and bursae of the shoulder and axilla.",CPT +1620,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Shoulder and Axilla.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing any closed procedure to the humeral head and neck, sternoclavicular, acromioclavicular, and shoulder joints.",CPT +1622,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Shoulder and Axilla.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a diagnostic arthroscopic procedure of the shoulder joint.,CPT +1630,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Shoulder and Axilla.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing an open or arthroscopic procedure to the humeral head and neck, sternoclavicular, acromioclavicular, and shoulder joints.",CPT +1634,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Shoulder and Axilla.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing an open or surgical arthroscopic procedure on humeral head and neck, sternoclavicular joint, acromioclavicular joint, and shoulder joint, including shoulder disarticulation.",CPT +1636,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Shoulder and Axilla.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing an open or surgical arthroscopic procedure on humeral head and neck, sternoclavicular joint, acromioclavicular joint, and shoulder joint, including an interthoracoscapular (forequarter) amputation.",CPT +1638,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Shoulder and Axilla.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing replacement of the shoulder joint.,CPT +1650,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Shoulder and Axilla.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a procedure on the arteries of the shoulder and axilla that another anesthesia code does not describe.,CPT +1652,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Shoulder and Axilla.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing surgery for an axillary–brachial artery aneurysm.,CPT +1654,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Shoulder and Axilla.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a bypass graft procedure for the arteries of the shoulder and axilla.,CPT +1656,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Shoulder and Axilla.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a bypass graft procedure from the axillary artery to the femoral artery.,CPT +1670,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Shoulder and Axilla.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing any procedure on the veins of the shoulder and axilla.,CPT +1680,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Shoulder and Axilla.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing shoulder cast application, removal, or repair not described by another anesthesia code.",CPT +1710,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Upper Arm and Elbow.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing procedures, not described by another anesthesia code, on the nerves, muscles, tendons, fascia, and bursae of the upper arm and elbow.",CPT +1712,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Upper Arm and Elbow.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing an open tenotomy in the area of the elbow to the shoulder.,CPT +1714,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Upper Arm and Elbow.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a procedure on the nerves, muscles, tendons, fascia, and bursae of upper arm and elbow; tenoplasty, elbow to shoulder.",CPT +1716,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Upper Arm and Elbow.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a procedure on the nerves, muscles, tendons, fascia, and bursae of upper arm and elbow; tenodesis, rupture of long tendon of biceps.",CPT +1730,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Upper Arm and Elbow.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a closed procedure on the humerus, or upper arm bone, and elbow.",CPT +1732,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Upper Arm and Elbow.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a diagnostic arthroscopic procedure of the elbow joint.,CPT +1740,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Upper Arm and Elbow.,The provider performs anesthesia services for an open or surgical arthroscopic procedure of the elbow.,CPT +1742,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Upper Arm and Elbow.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing osteotomy of the humerus which is the long bone within the arm. Osteotomy is surgical excision of bone.,CPT +1744,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Upper Arm and Elbow.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing open or arthroscopic repair of nonunion or malunion of the humerus, which is the long bone of the upper arm.",CPT +1756,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Upper Arm and Elbow.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a radical surgical procedure on the elbow through arthroscopy or open approach.,CPT +1758,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Upper Arm and Elbow.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing arthroscopic or open excision of a cyst or tumor of the humerus, which is the long bone of the upper arm.",CPT +1760,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Upper Arm and Elbow.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing total elbow replacement.,CPT +1770,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Upper Arm and Elbow.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing procedures on arteries of the upper arm and elbow such as the brachial, radial, and ulnar arteries. This code is used for an anesthesia procedure not specified by any other anesthesia code.",CPT +1772,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Upper Arm and Elbow.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing embolectomy in arteries of the upper arm and elbow such as the brachial, radial, and ulnar arteries.",CPT +1780,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Upper Arm and Elbow.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing procedures on veins of the upper arm and elbow. This code is used for anesthesia procedure not specified by any other anesthesia code.,CPT +1782,Anesthesia for Procedures on the Upper Arm and Elbow.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing phleborrhaphy, or suturing, of veins of the upper arm and elbow.",CPT +1810,"Anesthesia for Procedures on the Forearm, Wrist, and Hand.","The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing any procedures on the nerves, muscles, tendons, fascia, and bursae of the forearm, wrist, and hand.",CPT +1820,"Anesthesia for Procedures on the Forearm, Wrist, and Hand.","The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a closed procedure the on radius, ulna, wrist, or hand bones.",CPT +1829,"Anesthesia for Procedures on the Forearm, Wrist, and Hand.",The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing arthroscopic procedures on the wrist for the purpose of diagnosis of the pathology.,CPT +1830,"Anesthesia for Procedures on the Forearm, Wrist, and Hand.","The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing procedures on the distal radius, distal ulna, wrist, or hand joints. The provider may perform the procedure by using an open approach or an arthroscopic/endoscopic approach. This code is used for an anesthesia procedure not specified by any other anesthesia code.",CPT +1832,"Anesthesia for Procedures on the Forearm, Wrist, and Hand.",The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing total wrist replacement.,CPT +1840,"Anesthesia for Procedures on the Forearm, Wrist, and Hand.","The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a procedure on arteries of the forearm, wrist, and hand such as the radial, the ulnar, and the digital arteries. Use this code for anesthesia procedures not specified by any other anesthesia code.",CPT +1842,"Anesthesia for Procedures on the Forearm, Wrist, and Hand.","The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing embolectomy in the arteries of the forearm, wrist, and hand such as the radial, ulnar, and digital arteries.",CPT +1844,"Anesthesia for Procedures on the Forearm, Wrist, and Hand.","The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a vascular shunt procedure, or shunt revision of any type, such as for dialysis.",CPT +1850,"Anesthesia for Procedures on the Forearm, Wrist, and Hand.","The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing procedures on veins of the forearm, wrist, and hand. Use this code for anesthesia procedures not specified by any other anesthesia code.",CPT +1852,"Anesthesia for Procedures on the Forearm, Wrist, and Hand.","The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing phleborrhaphy, which is suturing of veins of the forearm, wrist, and hand.",CPT +1860,"Anesthesia for Procedures on the Forearm, Wrist, and Hand.","The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing forearm, wrist, or hand cast application or revision, which means redoing the cast application to meet specific needs.",CPT +1916,Anesthesia for Radiological Procedures.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing diagnostic arteriography or venography.,CPT +1920,Anesthesia for Radiological Procedures.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing coronary angiography and ventriculography, which does not include Swan–Ganz catheterization.",CPT +1922,Anesthesia for Radiological Procedures.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing non–invasive imaging or radiation therapy.,CPT +1924,Anesthesia for Radiological Procedures.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing therapeutic interventional radiological procedures involving the arterial system. This code is used for anesthesia procedures not specified by any other anesthesia code.,CPT +1925,Anesthesia for Radiological Procedures.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing therapeutic interventional radiological procedures involving the carotid or coronary arteries.,CPT +1926,Anesthesia for Radiological Procedures.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing therapeutic interventional radiological procedures involving the arteries that are intracranial, or situated within the skull; intracardiac, or within the heart; or the aorta, which is the main artery that takes blood from the heart to distribute to the rest of the body.",CPT +1930,Anesthesia for Radiological Procedures.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing therapeutic interventional radiological procedures involving the venous/lymphatic system. Use this code for anesthesia procedures not specified by any other anesthesia code.,CPT +1931,Anesthesia for Radiological Procedures.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing therapeutic interventional radiological procedures on intrahepatic or portal circulation, which is the blood circulation within the liver.",CPT +1932,Anesthesia for Radiological Procedures.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing therapeutic interventional radiological procedures involving the jugular vein, which is a major vein bringing blood back from the brain, or the intrathoracic veins, which are blood vessels draining into the heart from within the chest.",CPT +1933,Anesthesia for Radiological Procedures.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing therapeutic interventional radiological procedures involving the intracranial venous or lymphatic system.,CPT +1937,Anesthesia for Radiological Procedures.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing percutaneous image–guided injection, drainage, or aspiration procedures on the cervical or thoracic spine or spinal cord.",CPT +1938,Anesthesia for Radiological Procedures.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing percutaneous image–guided injection, drainage, or aspiration procedures on the lumbar or sacral spine or spinal cord.",CPT +1939,Anesthesia for Radiological Procedures.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing percutaneous image–guided destruction procedures using a neurolytic agent. The anatomic area for the procedure is the cervical or thoracic spine or spinal cord.,CPT +1940,Anesthesia for Radiological Procedures.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing percutaneous image–guided destruction procedures using a neurolytic agent. The anatomic area for the procedure is the lumbar or sacral spine or spinal cord.,CPT +1941,Anesthesia for Radiological Procedures.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing percutaneous image–guided neuromodulation procedures (altering nerve activity through stimulation) or intravertebral procedures (like kyphoplasty or vertebroplasty). The anatomic area for the procedure is the cervical or thoracic spine or spinal cord.,CPT +1942,Anesthesia for Radiological Procedures.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing percutaneous image–guided neuromodulation procedures (altering nerve activity through stimulation) or intravertebral procedures (like kyphoplasty or vertebroplasty). The anatomic area for the procedure is the lumbar or sacral spine or spinal cord.,CPT +1951,Anesthesia for Burn Excisions or Debridement Procedures.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing excision or debridement of less than 4 percent of the total body surface area for second and third degree burns.,CPT +1952,Anesthesia for Burn Excisions or Debridement Procedures.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing excision or debridement of between 4 percent and 9 percent of the total body surface area for second– and third–degree burns.,CPT +1953,Anesthesia for Burn Excisions or Debridement Procedures.,"At the same session as anesthesia services for a patient undergoing second and third degree burn excision or debridement for total body surface area, or TBSA, the provider performs anesthesia services for each additional 9 percent of TBSA or part of that. The service may be for any site and may or may not involve skin grafting.",CPT +1958,Anesthesia for Obstetric Procedures.,The provider performs anesthesia services for an external cephalic version procedure.,CPT +1960,Anesthesia for Obstetric Procedures.,The provider performs anesthesia services for an obstetric patient who delivers vaginally.,CPT +1961,Anesthesia for Obstetric Procedures.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a cesarean delivery.,CPT +1962,Anesthesia for Obstetric Procedures.,The provider performs anesthesia services for an urgent hysterectomy following delivery.,CPT +1963,Anesthesia for Obstetric Procedures.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing cesarean hysterectomy, which is removal of the uterus during a cesarean section. The provider does not provide labor analgesia or anesthesia care.",CPT +1965,Anesthesia for Obstetric Procedures.,The provider performs anesthesia services for an incomplete or missed abortion procedure.,CPT +1966,Anesthesia for Obstetric Procedures.,The provider performs anesthesia services for an induced abortion procedure.,CPT +1967,Anesthesia for Obstetric Procedures.,The provider performs neuraxial  anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a planned vaginal delivery.,CPT +1968,Anesthesia for Obstetric Procedures.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a cesarean delivery after administration of neuraxial anesthetic.,CPT +1969,Anesthesia for Obstetric Procedures.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a cesarean hysterectomy after neuraxial anesthesia.,CPT +1990,Anesthesia for Other Procedures.,The anesthesiology provider gives physiological support to a brain dead patient during organ procurement.,CPT +1991,Anesthesia for Other Procedures.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a diagnostic or therapeutic nerve block or injection that a different provider performs. The provider does not perform this procedure with the patient in a prone position, or lying flat.",CPT +1992,Anesthesia for Other Procedures.,"The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing a diagnostic or therapeutic nerve block or injection that a different provider performs. The provider performs this procedure with the patient in a prone position, or lying flat.",CPT +1996,Anesthesia for Other Procedures.,The provider performs anesthesia services for a patient undergoing epidural or subarachnoid continuous drug administration. This procedure is for the daily management by the provider of the patient receiving this service in the hospital.,CPT +1999,Anesthesia for Other Procedures.,Use to report procedures in the anesthesia section that do not have a specific code.,CPT +3993,Details un-available,Details un-available,CPT +6073,Details un-available,Details un-available,CPT +10004,Fine Needle Aspiration Biopsy Procedures.,"The provider performs a fine needle aspiration (FNA), a diagnostic procedure that involves collecting a specimen from tissue, a cyst, or mass using a specialized needle and syringe. Report this code for each additional lesion biopsied in addition to primary code 10021.",CPT +10005,Fine Needle Aspiration Biopsy Procedures.,"Under ultrasound guidance, the provider performs a fine needle aspiration (FNA), a diagnostic procedure that involves collecting a specimen from tissue, a cyst, or mass using a specialized needle and syringe. Report this code for the first lesion biopsied.",CPT +10006,Fine Needle Aspiration Biopsy Procedures.,"The provider performs a fine needle aspiration (FNA), a diagnostic procedure that involves collecting a specimen from tissue, a cyst, or mass using a specialized needle and syringe. Report this code for each additional lesion biopsied under ultrasound guidance in addition to primary code 10005.",CPT +10007,Fine Needle Aspiration Biopsy Procedures.,"Under fluoroscopic guidance, the provider performs a fine needle aspiration (FNA), a diagnostic procedure that involves collecting a specimen from tissue, a cyst, or mass using a specialized needle and syringe. Report this code for the first lesion biopsied.",CPT +10008,Fine Needle Aspiration Biopsy Procedures.,"The provider performs a fine needle aspiration (FNA), a diagnostic procedure that involves collecting a specimen from tissue, a cyst, or mass using a specialized needle and syringe. Report this code for each additional lesion biopsied under fluoroscopic guidance in addition to primary code 10007.",CPT +10009,Fine Needle Aspiration Biopsy Procedures.,"Under CT imaging guidance, the provider performs a fine needle aspiration (FNA), a diagnostic procedure that involves collecting a specimen from tissue, a cyst, or mass using a specialized needle and syringe. Report this code for the first lesion biopsied.",CPT +10010,Fine Needle Aspiration Biopsy Procedures.,"The provider performs a fine needle aspiration (FNA), a diagnostic procedure that involves collecting a specimen from tissue, a cyst, or mass using a specialized needle and syringe. Report this code for each additional lesion biopsied under CT guidance in addition to primary code 10009.",CPT +10011,Fine Needle Aspiration Biopsy Procedures.,"Under MR imaging guidance, the provider performs a fine needle aspiration (FNA), a diagnostic procedure that involves collecting a specimen from tissue, a cyst, or mass using a specialized needle and syringe. Report this code for the first lesion biopsied.",CPT +10012,Fine Needle Aspiration Biopsy Procedures.,"The provider performs a fine needle aspiration (FNA), a diagnostic procedure that involves collecting a specimen from tissue, a cyst, or mass using a specialized needle and syringe. Report this code for each additional lesion biopsied under MR imaging guidance in addition to primary code 10011.",CPT +10021,Fine Needle Aspiration Biopsy Procedures.,"The provider performs a fine needle aspiration (FNA), a diagnostic procedure that involves collecting a small number of cells, a small amount of tissue, or fluid from a cyst or mass using a specialized needle and syringe. Report this code for the first lesion biopsied.",CPT +10030,"Introduction and Removal Procedures on the Skin, Subcutaneous and Accessory Structures.","The provider places a catheter through the skin of the abdominal wall, extremity, or neck to drain a fluid collection using imaging guidance.",CPT +10035,"Introduction and Removal Procedures on the Skin, Subcutaneous and Accessory Structures.","The provider places a tiny metallic or radioactive device into the patient’s body through a needle he inserts through the patient’s skin in order to mark the exact location of suspicious tissue for a subsequent surgical procedure or radiation treatment. He uses fluoroscopy, a live X–ray that projects on a display screen, or ultrasound imaging to guide the needle to the right location.",CPT +10036,"Introduction and Removal Procedures on the Skin, Subcutaneous and Accessory Structures.","In this add–on procedure, the provider places an additional tiny metallic or radioactive device into the patient’s body through a needle he inserts through the patient’s skin in order to mark the exact location of suspicious tissue for a subsequent surgical procedure or radiation treatment. He uses fluoroscopy or ultrasound imaging, technologies that display live images on a video monitor, to guide the needle to the right location. The provider places this localization device at the same session that he places the initial device for the first lesion.",CPT +10040,"Incision and Drainage Procedures on the Skin, Subcutaneous and Accessory Structures.",The provider may extract the contents of an acne lesion with a suction–type instrument or excise or perform marsupialization on larger lesions or cysts.,CPT +10060,"Incision and Drainage Procedures on the Skin, Subcutaneous and Accessory Structures.","The provider incises the area of abscess and drains the collection of pus from a lesion, such as a carbuncle, hidradenitis, cyst, furuncle, or paronychia, with the help of surgical instruments. A simple incision and drainage usually involves a single incision of an abscess situated just below the skin's surface.",CPT +10061,"Incision and Drainage Procedures on the Skin, Subcutaneous and Accessory Structures.","The provider incises the area of abscess and drains the collection of pus, such as those related to a carbuncle, hidradenitis, cyst, furuncle, or paronychia, with the help of surgical instruments. A complicated incision and drainage can involve multiple incisions, drain placements, extensive packing, and a more complicated wound closure.",CPT +10080,"Incision and Drainage Procedures on the Skin, Subcutaneous and Accessory Structures.",The provider open (incises) and drains the contents of a pilonidal cyst.,CPT +10081,"Incision and Drainage Procedures on the Skin, Subcutaneous and Accessory Structures.","The provider opens (incises) and drains the contents of a pilonidal cyst, a nest of hair and debris that forms at the base of the spine; the procedure requires extra time and technique to perform.",CPT +10120,"Incision and Drainage Procedures on the Skin, Subcutaneous and Accessory Structures.","The provider removes a foreign body such as a thorn, piece of wood, sliver of glass or fishook, from the lower layer of skin.",CPT +10121,"Incision and Drainage Procedures on the Skin, Subcutaneous and Accessory Structures.","The provider removes a foreign body such as a thorn, piece of wood, sliver of glass or fishook, from the lower layer of skin; the incision and removal may be complicated by the need for extensive dissection, imaging guidance, or layered closure.",CPT +10140,"Incision and Drainage Procedures on the Skin, Subcutaneous and Accessory Structures.","The provider makes an incision into the hematoma, seroma, or other collection of fluid and bluntly penetrates it to allow fluid evacuation.",CPT +10160,"Incision and Drainage Procedures on the Skin, Subcutaneous and Accessory Structures.",The provider inserts a needle into a fluid deposit area on the skin and aspirates fluid or pus to obtain a culture.,CPT +10180,"Incision and Drainage Procedures on the Skin, Subcutaneous and Accessory Structures.","The provider incises the area of infection and drains any fluid collection, with the help of surgical instruments; the procedure may be complicated requiring more time and more extensive technique.",CPT +11000,Debridement Procedures on the Skin.,The provider uses surgical instruments to debride the dead tissue in skin for up to 10 percent of the body surface.,CPT +11001,Debridement Procedures on the Skin.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider uses surgical instruments to debride the dead tissue from up to an additional 10 percent of skin after debriding the initial 10 percent at the same encounter.",CPT +11004,Debridement Procedures on the Skin.,"The provider evaluates the extent of necrotic tissue in external genitalia and the perineum, and debrides the infected necrotic skin, subcutaneous tissue, muscle, and fascia.",CPT +11005,Debridement Procedures on the Skin.,"The provider evaluates the extent of necrotic tissue in the abdominal wall and debrides the infected necrotic skin, subcutaneous tissue, muscle, and fascia.",CPT +11006,Debridement Procedures on the Skin.,"The provider evaluates the extent of necrotic tissue in the external genitalia, perineum, and abdominal wall and debrides the infected necrotic skin, subcutaneous tissue, muscle and fascia.",CPT +11008,Debridement Procedures on the Skin.,The provider uses surgical instruments to remove prosthetic materials or mesh from the abdominal wall as part of treating an infection. He performs this service at the same session as a separately reportable debridement or incision and drainage procedure.,CPT +11010,Debridement Procedures on the Skin.,The provider removes necrotic tissue along with all foreign materials from skin and subcutaneous tissues in and around the site of an open fracture or dislocation.,CPT +11011,Debridement Procedures on the Skin.,"The provider removes necrotic tissue along with all foreign materials from skin, subcutaneous tissues, muscle fascia, and muscle in and around the site of an open fracture and/or open dislocation.",CPT +11012,Debridement Procedures on the Skin.,"The provider removes necrotic tissue along with all foreign materials from skin, subcutaneous tissue, muscle fascia, muscle, and bone in and around the site of an open fracture and/or open dislocation.",CPT +11042,Debridement Procedures on the Skin.,"The provider uses surgical instruments to remove the dead tissue in skin down to the subcutaneous layer and including the epidermis and dermis, up to the first 20 cm2.",CPT +11043,Debridement Procedures on the Skin.,"The provider uses surgical instruments to remove the dead tissue in muscle and/or fascia, including any debridement of the epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous tissue, for the first or only 20 cm2 or less.",CPT +11044,Debridement Procedures on the Skin.,"The provider uses surgical instruments to remove the dead, infected tissue in bone, also including the epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous tissue, muscle, and/or fascia as needed. This code covers the first or only 20 cm2 or less.",CPT +11045,Debridement Procedures on the Skin.,"The provider uses surgical instruments to remove dead tissue from the subcutaneous layer, as well as the epidermis and dermis if needed. She performs this service at the same session as a separately reportable debridement procedure of an initial 20 cm2. This code represents up to 20 cm2 of additional area.",CPT +11046,Debridement Procedures on the Skin.,"The provider uses surgical instruments to remove the dead tissue from the muscle and/or fascia, as well as the subcutaneous tissue layer, epidermis, and dermis if needed. She performs this service at the same session, as a separately reportable debridement procedure of an initial 20 cm2. This code represents up to 20 cm2 of additional area.",CPT +11047,Debridement Procedures on the Skin.,"The provider uses surgical instruments to remove dead, infected tissue from bone as well as the epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous tissue, muscle, and/or fascia if needed. She performs this service at the same session, as a separately reportable debridement procedure of an initial 20 cm2. This code represents up to 20 cm2 of additional area.",CPT +11055,Paring or Cutting Procedures on the Skin.,The provider removes a single benign hyperkeratotic lesion by using surgical instruments like a scalpel or curette.,CPT +11056,Paring or Cutting Procedures on the Skin.,The provider removes 2 to 4 benign hyperkeratotic lesions by using surgical instruments like a scalpel or curette.,CPT +11057,Paring or Cutting Procedures on the Skin.,The provider removes more than 4 benign hyperkeratotic lesions by using surgical instruments like a scalpel or curette.,CPT +11102,Biopsy Procedures on the Skin.,The provider biopsies a single skin lesion using a tangential (side–ways) approach; he shaves off the lesion or scoops it out with a knife or curette.,CPT +11103,Biopsy Procedures on the Skin.,The provider biopsies an additional skin lesion using a tangential (side–ways) approach; he shaves off the lesion or scoops it out with a knife or curette. Report + for each separate lesion biopsied in addition to the primary code 11102.,CPT +11104,Biopsy Procedures on the Skin.,The provider biopsies a skin lesion using a punch technique with a sharp hollow instrument; punch biopsies are commonly performed for deeper circular skin lesions.,CPT +11105,Biopsy Procedures on the Skin.,The provider biopsies an additional or separate skin lesion after the first using a punch technique with a sharp hollow instrument; punch biopsies are commonly performed for deeper circular skin lesions. Report this code for each separate or additional lesion in addition to 11104 for the primary procedure.,CPT +11106,Biopsy Procedures on the Skin.,The provider biopsies a skin lesion using an incisional or wedge technique; he may perform this type of biopsy for large or deep skin lesions.,CPT +11107,Biopsy Procedures on the Skin.,The provider biopsies an additional or separate skin lesion after the first using an incisional or wedge technique; he may perform this type of biopsy for large or deep skin lesions. Report + for each additional/separate lesion in addition to primary code 11106.,CPT +11200,Removal of Skin Tags Procedures.,"The provider removes skin tags in any area of the body, up to and including 15 lesions.",CPT +11201,Removal of Skin Tags Procedures.,"The provider removes up to 10 additional skin tags in any area of the body, after removing an initial 15 lesions.",CPT +11300,Shaving of Epidermal or Dermal Lesions Procedures.,"The provider removes one epidermal or dermal lesion of 0.5 cm diameter or less from the trunk, arms, or legs.",CPT +11301,Shaving of Epidermal or Dermal Lesions Procedures.,"The provider shaves off a single epidermal or dermal lesion of 0.6 to 1.0 cm in diameter from the skin of the trunk, arms, or legs.",CPT +11302,Shaving of Epidermal or Dermal Lesions Procedures.,"The provider shaves off a single epidermal or dermal lesion of 1.1 to 2.0 cm in diameter from the skin of the trunk, arms, or legs.",CPT +11303,Shaving of Epidermal or Dermal Lesions Procedures.,"The provider shaves off a single epidermal or dermal lesion greater than 2.0 cm in diameter from the skin of the trunk, arms, or legs.",CPT +11305,Shaving of Epidermal or Dermal Lesions Procedures.,"The provider shaves off a single epidermal or dermal lesion of 0.5 cm or less in diameter from the scalp, neck, hands, feet, or genitals.",CPT +11306,Shaving of Epidermal or Dermal Lesions Procedures.,"The provider shaves off a single epidermal or dermal lesion of 0.6 to 1.0 cm in diameter from the skin of the scalp, neck, hands, feet, or genitals.",CPT +11307,Shaving of Epidermal or Dermal Lesions Procedures.,"The provider shaves off a single epidermal or dermal lesion 1.1 to 2.0 cm in diameter from the skin of the scalp, neck, hands, feet, or genitals.",CPT +11308,Shaving of Epidermal or Dermal Lesions Procedures.,"The provider shaves off a single epidermal or dermal lesion greater than 2.0 cm in diameter from the skin of the scalp, neck, hands, feet, or genitals.",CPT +11310,Shaving of Epidermal or Dermal Lesions Procedures.,"The provider shaves off a single epidermal or dermal lesion of 0.5 cm or less in diameter from the face, ears, eyelids, nose, lips, or mucous membranes.",CPT +11311,Shaving of Epidermal or Dermal Lesions Procedures.,"The provider shaves off a single epidermal or dermal lesion of 0.6 to 1.0 cm in diameter from the face, ears, eyelids, nose, lips, or mucous membranes.",CPT +11312,Shaving of Epidermal or Dermal Lesions Procedures.,"The provider shaves off a single epidermal or dermal lesion of 1.1 to 2.0 cm in diameter from the face, ears, eyelids, nose, lips, or mucous membranes.",CPT +11313,Shaving of Epidermal or Dermal Lesions Procedures.,"The provider shaves off a single epidermal or dermal lesion of 2.0 cm or greater in diameter from the face, ears, eyelids, nose, lips, or mucous membranes.",CPT +11400,Excision-Benign Lesions Procedures on the Skin.,"The provider excises a noncancerous lesion, excluding a skin tag, of 0.5 cm or less in diameter, including margins, from the skin of the trunk, arms, or legs.",CPT +11401,Excision-Benign Lesions Procedures on the Skin.,"The provider excises a noncancerous lesion, excluding a skin tag, of 0.6 to 1.0 cm in diameter, including margins, from the skin of the trunk, arms, or legs.",CPT +11402,Excision-Benign Lesions Procedures on the Skin.,"The provider excises a noncancerous lesion, excluding a skin tag, of 1.1 to 2.0 cm in diameter, including margins, from the skin of the trunk, arms, or legs.",CPT +11403,Excision-Benign Lesions Procedures on the Skin.,"The provider excises a noncancerous lesion, excluding a skin tag, of 2.1 to 3.0 cm in diameter, including margins, from the skin of the trunk, arms, or legs.",CPT +11404,Excision-Benign Lesions Procedures on the Skin.,"The provider excises a noncancerous lesion, excluding a skin tag, of 3.1 to 4.0 cm in diameter, including margins, from the skin of the trunk, arms, or legs.",CPT +11406,Excision-Benign Lesions Procedures on the Skin.,"The provider excises a noncancerous lesion, excluding a skin tag, of greater than 4.0 cm in diameter, including margins, from the skin of the trunk, arms, or legs.",CPT +11420,Excision-Benign Lesions Procedures on the Skin.,"The provider excises a noncancerous lesion, excluding a skin tag, of 0.5 cm or less in diameter, including margins, from the skin of the scalp, neck, hands, feet, or genitals.",CPT +11421,Excision-Benign Lesions Procedures on the Skin.,"The provider excises a noncancerous lesion, excluding a skin tag, of 0.6 to 1.0 cm in diameter, including margins, from the skin of the scalp, neck, hands, feet, or genitals.",CPT +11422,Excision-Benign Lesions Procedures on the Skin.,"The provider excises a noncancerous lesion, excluding a skin tag, of 1.1 to 2.0 cm in diameter, including margins, from the skin of the scalp, neck, hands, feet, or genitals.",CPT +11423,Excision-Benign Lesions Procedures on the Skin.,"The provider excises a noncancerous lesion, excluding a skin tag, of 2.1 to 3.0 cm in diameter, including margins, from the skin of the scalp, neck, hands, feet, or genitals.",CPT +11424,Excision-Benign Lesions Procedures on the Skin.,"The provider excises a noncancerous lesion, excluding a skin tag, of 3.1 to 4.0 cm in diameter, including margins, from the skin of the scalp, neck, hands, feet, or genitals.",CPT +11426,Excision-Benign Lesions Procedures on the Skin.,"The provider excises a noncancerous lesion, excluding a skin tag, greater than 4.0 cm in diameter, including margins, from the skin of the scalp, neck, hands, feet, or genitals.",CPT +11440,Excision-Benign Lesions Procedures on the Skin.,"The provider excises a benign (noncancerous) lesion including margins from the face, ears, eyelids, nose, lips, or mucous membrane that is 0.5 cm in diameter or less and also performs a simple (nonlayered) closure.",CPT +11441,Excision-Benign Lesions Procedures on the Skin.,"The provider excises a benign (noncancerous) lesion including margins from the face, ears, eyelids, nose, lips, or mucous membrane that is 0.6 to 1.0 cm in diameter and also performs a simple (nonlayered) closure.",CPT +11442,Excision-Benign Lesions Procedures on the Skin.,"The provider excises a benign (noncancerous) lesion including margins from the face, ears, eyelids, nose, lips, or mucous membrane that is 1.1 to 2.0 cm in diameter and also performs a simple (nonlayered) closure.",CPT +11443,Excision-Benign Lesions Procedures on the Skin.,"The provider excises a benign (noncancerous) lesion including margins from the face, ears, eyelids, nose, lips, or mucous membrane that is 2.1 to 3.0 cm in diameter or less and also performs a simple (nonlayered) closure.",CPT +11444,Excision-Benign Lesions Procedures on the Skin.,"The provider excises a benign (noncancerous) lesion including margins from the face, ears, eyelids, nose, lips, or mucous membrane that is 3.1 to 4.0 cm in diameter or less and also performs a simple (nonlayered) closure.",CPT +11446,Excision-Benign Lesions Procedures on the Skin.,"The provider excises a benign (noncancerous) lesion including margins from the face, ears, eyelids, nose, lips, or mucous membrane that is over 4.0 cm in diameter and also performs a simple (nonlayered) closure.",CPT +11450,Excision-Benign Lesions Procedures on the Skin.,The provider excises axillary skin and subcutaneous tissue involved with hidradenitis (painful lesions associated with sweat glands); he closes the excision site using simple or intermediate repair techniques.,CPT +11451,Excision-Benign Lesions Procedures on the Skin.,The provider excises axillary skin and subcutaneous tissue involved with hidradenitis (painful lesions associated with sweat glands); he closes the excision site using complex repair techniques.,CPT +11462,Excision-Benign Lesions Procedures on the Skin.,The provider excises inguinal skin and subcutaneous tissue involved with hidradenitis (painful lesions associated with sweat glands); he closes the excision site using simple or intermediate repair techniques.,CPT +11463,Excision-Benign Lesions Procedures on the Skin.,The provider excises inguinal skin and subcutaneous tissue involved with hidradenitis (painful lesions associated with sweat glands); he closes the excision site using complex repair techniques.,CPT +11470,Excision-Benign Lesions Procedures on the Skin.,"The provider excises perianal, perineal, or umbilical skin and subcutaneous tissue involved with hidradenitis (painful lesions associated with sweat glands); he closes the excision site using simple or intermediate repair techniques.",CPT +11471,Excision-Benign Lesions Procedures on the Skin.,"The provider excises perianal, perineal, or umbilical skin and subcutaneous tissue involved with hidradenitis (painful lesions associated with sweat glands); he closes the excision site using complex repair techniques.",CPT +11600,Excision-Malignant Lesions Procedures on the Skin.,"The provider excises a cancerous (malignant) lesion, including margins, of 0.5 cm or less in diameter, from the skin of the trunk, arms, or legs.",CPT +11601,Excision-Malignant Lesions Procedures on the Skin.,"The provider excises a cancerous (malignant) lesion, including margins, of 0.6 to 1.0 cm or less in diameter, from the skin of the trunk, arms, or legs.",CPT +11602,Excision-Malignant Lesions Procedures on the Skin.,"The provider excises a cancerous (malignant) lesion, including margins, of 1.1 to 2.0 cm in diameter, from the skin of the trunk, arms, or legs.",CPT +11603,Excision-Malignant Lesions Procedures on the Skin.,"The provider excises a cancerous (malignant) lesion, including margins, of 2.1 to 3.0 cm in diameter, from the skin of the trunk, arms, or legs.",CPT +11604,Excision-Malignant Lesions Procedures on the Skin.,"The provider excises a cancerous (malignant) lesion, including margins, of 3.1 to 4.0 cm in diameter, from the skin of the trunk, arms, or legs.",CPT +11606,Excision-Malignant Lesions Procedures on the Skin.,"The provider excises a cancerous (malignant) lesion, including margins, over 4.0 cm in diameter, from the skin of the trunk, arms, or legs.",CPT +11620,Excision-Malignant Lesions Procedures on the Skin.,"The provider excises a cancerous (malignant) lesion, including margins, of 0.5 cm or less in diameter, from the skin of the scalp, neck, hands, feet, or genitalia (sex organs).",CPT +11621,Excision-Malignant Lesions Procedures on the Skin.,"The provider excises a cancerous (malignant) lesion, including margins, of 0.6 to 1.0 cm or less in diameter, from the skin of the scalp, neck, hands, feet, or genitalia (sex organs).",CPT +11622,Excision-Malignant Lesions Procedures on the Skin.,"The provider excises a cancerous (malignant) lesion, including margins, of 1.1 to 2.0 cm in diameter, from the skin of the scalp, neck, hands, feet, or genitalia (sex organs).",CPT +11623,Excision-Malignant Lesions Procedures on the Skin.,"The provider excises a cancerous (malignant) lesion, including margins, of 2.1 to 3.0 cm in diameter, from the skin of the scalp, neck, hands, feet, or genitalia (sex organs).",CPT +11624,Excision-Malignant Lesions Procedures on the Skin.,"The provider excises a cancerous (malignant) lesion, including margins, of 3.1 to 4.0 cm in diameter, from the skin of the scalp, neck, hands, feet, or genitalia (sex organs).",CPT +11626,Excision-Malignant Lesions Procedures on the Skin.,"The provider excises a cancerous (malignant) lesion, including margins, of over 4.0 cm in diameter, from the skin of the scalp, neck, hands, feet, or genitalia (sex organs).",CPT +11640,Excision-Malignant Lesions Procedures on the Skin.,"The provider excises a cancerous (malignant) lesion, including margins, of 0.5 cm or less in diameter, from the skin of the face, ears, eyelids, nose, lips.",CPT +11641,Excision-Malignant Lesions Procedures on the Skin.,"The provider excises a cancerous (malignant) lesion, including margins, of 0.6 to 1.0 cm in diameter, from the skin of the face, ears, eyelids, nose, lips.",CPT +11642,Excision-Malignant Lesions Procedures on the Skin.,"The provider excises a cancerous (malignant) lesion, including margins, of 1.1 to 2.0 cm in diameter, from the skin of the face, ears, eyelids, nose, lips.",CPT +11643,Excision-Malignant Lesions Procedures on the Skin.,"The provider excises a cancerous (malignant) lesion, including margins, of 2.1 to 3.0 cm in diameter, from the skin of the face, ears, eyelids, nose, lips.",CPT +11644,Excision-Malignant Lesions Procedures on the Skin.,"The provider excises a cancerous (malignant) lesion, including margins, of 3.1 to 4.0 cm in diameter, from the skin of the face, ears, eyelids, nose, lips.",CPT +11646,Excision-Malignant Lesions Procedures on the Skin.,"The provider excises a cancerous (malignant) lesion, including margins, over 4.0 cm in diameter, from the skin of the face, ears, eyelids, nose, lips.",CPT +11719,Surgical Procedures on the Nails.,The provider performs trimming of one or more normally developed nails of the fingers or toes.,CPT +11720,Surgical Procedures on the Nails.,"The provider surgically debrides (debulks or removes) 1 to 5 abnormal, diseased, or infected nails.",CPT +11721,Surgical Procedures on the Nails.,"The provider surgically debrides (debulks or removes) 6 or more abnormal, diseased, or infected nails.",CPT +11730,Surgical Procedures on the Nails.,The provider removes part or all of a single nail plate using simple avulsion techniques.,CPT +11732,Surgical Procedures on the Nails.,The provider removes part or all of an additional nail plate after the first using simple avulsion techniques.,CPT +11740,Surgical Procedures on the Nails.,"Use CPT code if the physician 'evacuates a nail hematoma,' which is another way of saying that he or she drained blood from under the nail.",CPT +11750,Surgical Procedures on the Nails.,"The provider removes part or all of a fingernail or toenail, including the nail plate and matrix and including the lunula if the excision is complete.",CPT +11755,Surgical Procedures on the Nails.,"This procedural code is used when the physician biopsies the nail plate, bed, hyponychium, proximal nail folds, or lateral nail folds.  Each one is a separate procedure.",CPT +11760,Surgical Procedures on the Nails.,"The nail bed can be injured due to laceration, crush, or avulsion.  This procedure is performed to repair such damage.",CPT +11762,Surgical Procedures on the Nails.,"The nail bed can be injured due to laceration, crush, or avulsion. The provider repairs the damage using a graft.",CPT +11765,Surgical Procedures on the Nails.,"The provider performs a wedge excision of the skin of the nail fold at the lateral margin (groove) of a nail, such as an ingrown toenail.",CPT +11770,Surgical Procedures on the Pilonidal Cyst.,The provider excises a pilonidal cyst or sinus not requiring extensive dissection and without complication.,CPT +11771,Surgical Procedures on the Pilonidal Cyst.,The provider excises a pilonidal cyst or sinus that requires extensive dissection into deeper subcutaneous tissues.,CPT +11772,Surgical Procedures on the Pilonidal Cyst.,The provider excises a pilonidal cyst or sinus requiring extensive dissection and without complication.,CPT +11900,Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"This code describes an intralesional injection of a corticosteroid, such as triamcinolone acetonide, for treatment of large nodules, keloids, lichenified hyperkeratotic lesions, and numerous other conditions.",CPT +11901,Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"This code describes an intralesional injection of a corticosteroid, such as triamcinolone acetonide, for treatment of large nodules, keloids, lichenified hyperkeratotic lesions, and numerous other conditions.",CPT +11920,Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"The provider tattoos an area of skin measuring 6.0 cm2 in size or less using intradermal insoluble opaque pigments to correct skin color defects, which happen because of congenital defects, breast reconstruction, burns, vitiligo, birthmarks, and other such conditions. The procedure provides a 'permanent camouflage' for the defect.",CPT +11921,Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"The provider tattoos an area of skin measuring 6.1 to 20.0 cm2 in size using intradermal insoluble opaque pigments to correct skin color defects, which happen because of congenital defects, breast reconstruction, burns, vitiligo, birthmarks, and other such conditions. The procedure provides a 'permanent camouflage' for the defect.",CPT +11922,Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"The provider tattoos an area of skin using intradermal insoluble opaque pigments to correct skin color defects, which happen because of congenital defects, breast reconstruction, burns, vitiligo, birthmarks, and other such conditions. The procedure provides a 'permanent camouflage' for the defect. This code represents each additional 20.0 cm2, or part thereof, after the first 20.0 cm2.",CPT +11950,Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Integumentary System.,The provider injects 1 cc or less of collagen into the subcutaneous tissue.,CPT +11951,Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Integumentary System.,The provider injects 1.1 cc to 5.0 cc of collagen into the subcutaneous layer of skin.,CPT +11952,Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Integumentary System.,The provider injects 5.1 cc to 10.0 cc of collagen into the subcutaneous layer of skin.,CPT +11954,Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Integumentary System.,The provider injects more than 10.0 cc of collagen into the subcutaneous layer of skin.,CPT +11960,Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"The provider inserts one or more implants under the patient’s skin that helps to expand the tissues. This code represents placement of expanders anywhere in the patient’s body, except the breast, for reconstruction of tissue defects.",CPT +11970,Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Integumentary System.,The provider fits a permanent implant in the patient’s body in place of a previously placed tissue expander.,CPT +11971,Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Integumentary System.,The provider removes a tissue expander without inserting an implant.,CPT +11976,Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"Contraceptive capsules (e.g. Levonorgestrel) are inserted subdermally, under the patient's arm skin.  These capsules then release levels of synthetic hormones to prevent pregnancy.  These capsules eventually release all of their synthetic hormone and have to be removed and/or replaced if the patient chooses.",CPT +11980,Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"The provider inserts hormone pellets subdermally, normally under the patient's arm skin.  These pellets then release levels of synthetic hormones (testosterone and/or estradiol) to treat menopausal symptoms in women or testosterone deficiency in males.",CPT +11981,Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"The provider inserts a bioresorbable, biodegradable, or non–biodegradable implant, such as a capsule or pellet, containing a drug for long–term delivery.",CPT +11982,Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Integumentary System.,The provider removes a non–biodegradable implant (a capsule or pellet with controlled–release properties containing a drug for long term delivery).,CPT +11983,Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Integumentary System.,The provider removes a non–biodegradable implant (a capsule or pellet with controlled–release properties containing a drug for long term delivery) after which he inserts a new one.,CPT +12001,Repair-Simple Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"This CPT code is used for the simple repair of superficial wounds to the scalp, neck, axillae, external genitalia, trunk, and/or extremities (including the hands and feet) that are 2.5 cm or less in size.",CPT +12002,Repair-Simple Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"This CPT code is used for the simple repair of superficial wounds to the scalp, neck, axillae, external genitalia, trunk, and/or extremities (including the hands and feet) that are 2.6 to 7.5 cm in size.",CPT +12004,Repair-Simple Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"This CPT code is used for the simple repair of superficial wounds to the scalp, neck, axillae, external genitalia, trunk, and/or extremities (including the hands and feet) that are 7.6 to 12.5 cm in size.",CPT +12005,Repair-Simple Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"This CPT code is used for the simple repair of superficial wounds to the scalp, neck, axillae, external genitalia, trunk, and/or extremities (including the hands and feet) that are 12.6 to 20 cm in size.",CPT +12006,Repair-Simple Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"This CPT code is used for the simple repair of superficial wounds to the scalp, neck, axillae, external genitalia, trunk, and/or extremities (including the hands and feet) that are 20.1 to 30 cm in size.",CPT +12007,Repair-Simple Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"This CPT code is used for the simple repair of superficial wounds to the scalp, neck, axillae, external genitalia, trunk, and/or extremities (including the hands and feet) that are over 30.0 cm in size or more.",CPT +12011,Repair-Simple Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"This CPT code is used for the simple repair of superficial wounds to the face, ears, eyelids, nose, lips, and/or mucous membranes, that are 2.5 cm or less in size.",CPT +12013,Repair-Simple Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"This CPT code is used for the simple repair of superficial wounds to the face, ears, eyelids, nose, lips and/or mucous membranes, that are 2.6 to 5.0 cm in size.",CPT +12014,Repair-Simple Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"This CPT code is used for the simple repair of superficial wounds to the face, ears, eyelids, nose, lips, and/or mucous membranes, that are 5.1 t0 7.5 cm in size.",CPT +12015,Repair-Simple Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"This CPT code is used for the simple repair of superficial wounds to the face, ears, eyelids, nose, lips, and/or mucous membranes, that are 7.6 to 12.5 cm in size.",CPT +12016,Repair-Simple Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"This CPT code is used for the simple repair of superficial wounds to the face, ears, eyelids, nose, lips, and/or mucous membranes, that are 12.6 to 20 cm in size.",CPT +12017,Repair-Simple Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"This CPT code is used for the simple repair of superficial wounds to the face, ears, eyelids, nose, lips and/or mucous membranes that are 20.1 to 30 cm in size.",CPT +12018,Repair-Simple Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"This CPT code is used for the simple repair of superficial wounds to the face, ears, eyelids, nose, lips and/or mucous membranes, that are more than 30.0 cm or greater in size.",CPT +12020,Repair-Simple Procedures on the Integumentary System.,Wound dehiscence usually describes opening up a previously sutured area that has become infected. The provider cleans the wound and closes it with a simple closure.,CPT +12021,Repair-Simple Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"Wound dehiscence usually describes opening up of a previously sutured area that has become infected. In this procedure, the provider treats a superficial wound dehiscence with packing.",CPT +12031,Repair-Intermediate Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"This CPT® code is used for the intermediate repair of wounds to the scalp, axillae, trunk, and/or extremities (excluding hands and feet) that are 2.5 cm or less in size.",CPT +12032,Repair-Intermediate Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"This CPT® code is used for the intermediate repair of wounds to the scalp, axillae, trunk and/or extremities (excluding hands and feet) that are 2.6 to 7.5 cm in size.",CPT +12034,Repair-Intermediate Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"This CPT® code is used for the intermediate repair of wounds to the scalp, axillae, trunk and/or extremities (excluding hands and feet) that are 7.6 to 12.5 cm in size.",CPT +12035,Repair-Intermediate Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"This CPT® code is used for the intermediate repair of wounds to the scalp, axillae, trunk, and/or extremities (excluding hands and feet) that are 12.6 to 20 cm in size.",CPT +12036,Repair-Intermediate Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"This CPT® code is used for the intermediate repair of wounds to the scalp, axillae, trunk, and/or extremities (excluding hands and feet) that are 20.1 to 30 cm in size.",CPT +12037,Repair-Intermediate Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"This CPT® code is used for the intermediate repair of wounds to the scalp, axillae, trunk, and/or extremities (excluding hands and feet) that are over 30.0 cm or greater in size.",CPT +12041,Repair-Intermediate Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"This CPT® code is used for the intermediate repair of superficial wounds to the neck, hands, feet and/or external genitalia that are 2.5 cm or less in size.",CPT +12042,Repair-Intermediate Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"This CPT® code is used for the intermediate repair of superficial wounds to the neck, hands, feet, and/or external genitalia that are 2.6 to 7.5 cm in size.",CPT +12044,Repair-Intermediate Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"This CPT® code is used for the intermediate repair of superficial wounds to the neck, hands, feet, and/or external genitalia that are 7.6 to 12.5 cm in size.",CPT +12045,Repair-Intermediate Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"This CPT® code is used for the intermediate repair of superficial wounds to the neck, hands, feet and/or external genitalia that are 12.6 to 20 cm in size.",CPT +12046,Repair-Intermediate Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"This CPT® code is used for the intermediate repair of superficial wounds to the neck, hands, feet and/or external genitalia that are 20.1 to 30 cm in size.",CPT +12047,Repair-Intermediate Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"This CPT® code is used for the intermediate repair of superficial wounds to the neck, hands, feet and/or external genitalia that are over 30.0 cm or greater in size.",CPT +12051,Repair-Intermediate Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"This CPT® code is used for the intermediate repair of wounds to the face, ears, eyelids, nose, lips, and/or mucous membranes that are 2.5 cm or less in size.",CPT +12052,Repair-Intermediate Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"This CPT® code is used for the intermediate repair of wounds to the face, ears, eyelids, nose, lips and/or mucous membranes that are 2.6 to 5.0 cm in size.",CPT +12053,Repair-Intermediate Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"This CPT® code is used for the intermediate repair of wounds to the face, ears, eyelids, nose, lips, and/or mucous membranes that are 5.1 to 7.5 cm in size.",CPT +12054,Repair-Intermediate Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"This CPT® code is used for the intermediate repair of wounds to the face, ears, eyelids, nose, lips, and/or mucous membranes that are 7.6 to 12.5 cm in size.",CPT +12055,Repair-Intermediate Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"This CPT® code is used for the intermediate repair of wounds to the face, ears, eyelids, nose, lips and/or mucous membranes that are 12.6 to 20 cm in size.",CPT +12056,Repair-Intermediate Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"This CPT® code is used for the intermediate repair of wounds to the face, ears, eyelids, nose, lips and/or mucous membranes that are 20.1 to 30 cm in size.",CPT +12057,Repair-Intermediate Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"This CPT® code is used for the intermediate repair of wounds to the face, ears, eyelids, nose, lips and/or mucous membranes that are over 30.0 cm or greater in size.",CPT +13100,Repair-Complex Procedures on the Integumentary System.,This is for a complex repair of a wound to the trunk.  This wound should be 1.1 to 2.5 cm in size.,CPT +13101,Repair-Complex Procedures on the Integumentary System.,This is for a complex repair of a wound to the trunk.  This wound should be 2.6 to 7.5 cm in size.,CPT +13102,Repair-Complex Procedures on the Integumentary System.,This is for a complex repair of each additional 5 cm or less of a wound to the trunk.   This CPT code is listed separately in addition to the code for the primary procedure and covers additional wounds.,CPT +13120,Repair-Complex Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"This is for a complex repair of a wound 1.1 to 2.5 cm in size on the scalp, arms, and/or legs.",CPT +13121,Repair-Complex Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"This is for a complex repair of a wound to the scalp, arms, and/or legs.  This wound should be 2.6 to 7.5 cm in size.",CPT +13122,Repair-Complex Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"This is for a complex repair of a wound to the scalp, arms, and/or legs. This code is for each additional 5 cm or less, in addition to the primary wound. This CPT code is listed separately to denote an additional procedure to the primary procedure.",CPT +13131,Repair-Complex Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"The provider repairs a wound measuring 1.1 cm to 2.5 cm in size of the cheeks, chin, mouth, neck, axillae, genitalia, hands, and/or feet, which may require scar revision, debridement extensive undermining of tissues, and stents or retention sutures in addition to a layered closure.",CPT +13132,Repair-Complex Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"The provider repairs a wound measuring 2.6 cm to 7.5 cm in size of the cheeks, chin, mouth, neck, axillae, genitalia, hands, and/or feet, which may require scar revision, debridement extensive undermining of tissues, and stents or retention sutures in addition to a layered closure.",CPT +13133,Repair-Complex Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"The provider repairs a wound of the cheeks, chin, mouth, neck, axillae, genitalia, hands, and/or feet, which may require scar revision, debridement extensive undermining of tissues, and stents or retention sutures in addition to a layered closure. Report this code for each additional 5 cm or less over and above the initial repair.",CPT +13151,Repair-Complex Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"The provider performs closure of a wound/laceration for at least one of the following anatomic areas: eyelids, nose, ears, lips. The repair performed is of a complex nature, which involves more than a layered type closure. Total length or wound diameter repaired in a complex manner must be from 1.1 cm to 2.5 cm.",CPT +13152,Repair-Complex Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"The physician performs closure of a wound/laceration for at least one of the following anatomic areas: eyelids, nose, ears, lips. The repair performed is of a complex nature, which involves more than a layered type closure. Total length or wound diameter repaired in a complex manner must be from 2.6 cm to 7.5 cm.",CPT +13153,Repair-Complex Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"The provider performs closure of a wound/laceration for at least one of the following anatomic areas: eyelids, nose, ears, lips. The repair performed is of a complex nature, which involves more than a layered type closure. This code represents repair of an additional 5 cm or less after a separately reportable 7.5 cm repair.",CPT +13160,Repair-Complex Procedures on the Integumentary System.,This procedure is performed on sites of injury such as abdominal wounds and/or contaminated lacerations to avoid infection and re–epithelialize new tissue.,CPT +14000,Adjacent Tissue Transfer or Rearrangement Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"In an adjacent tissue transfer (ATT) of the trunk, the provider transfers a skin part to another skin segment on the trunk.  This code is for an ATT 10 cm2 in size or less.",CPT +14001,Adjacent Tissue Transfer or Rearrangement Procedures on the Integumentary System.,The provider repairs defects in the patient’s trunk by using healthy tissues from an adjacent body part. This code represents transfer of adjacent tissue for defects that equal 10.1 cm2 and up to 30.0 cm2.,CPT +14020,Adjacent Tissue Transfer or Rearrangement Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"The provider repairs the defects in the patient’s scalp, arms, and/or legs by using healthy tissues from an adjacent site. This code represents services for defects of 10 cm2 or less.",CPT +14021,Adjacent Tissue Transfer or Rearrangement Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"The provider repairs lesions in the patient’s scalp, arms, or legs by using the healthy tissues from an adjacent site. This code represents a defect of 10.1 cm2 to 30.0 cm2.",CPT +14040,Adjacent Tissue Transfer or Rearrangement Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"The provider repairs lesions in the patient’s forehead, cheeks, chin, mouth, neck, axillae or armpits, genitalia, hands, and/or feet by using healthy tissues from an adjacent site. This code represents a defect of 10 cm2 or less.",CPT +14041,Adjacent Tissue Transfer or Rearrangement Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"The provider replaces the lesions in the forehead, cheeks, chin, mouth, neck, axillae or armpits, genitalia, hands, or feet with the healthy tissues from an adjacent site. This code represents a defect of 10.1 cm2 to 30.0 cm2.",CPT +14060,Adjacent Tissue Transfer or Rearrangement Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"The provider replaces the lesions in the eyelids, nose, ears, or lips, with the healthy tissues from an adjacent site. This code represents a defect of 10 cm2 or less.",CPT +14061,Adjacent Tissue Transfer or Rearrangement Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"The provider replaces the lesions in the eyelids, nose, ears, or lips, with the healthy tissues from an adjacent site. This code represents a defect of 10.1 cm2 to 30.0 cm2 in size.",CPT +14301,Adjacent Tissue Transfer or Rearrangement Procedures on the Integumentary System.,The provider replaces the lesions in any area with the healthy tissues from an adjacent site. This code represents a defect of 30.1 cm2 to 60.0 cm2.,CPT +14302,Adjacent Tissue Transfer or Rearrangement Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"At the same session that the provider repairs lesions of 30.1 cm2 to 60.0 cm2, with the healthy tissues from an adjacent site, he extends the repair up to an additional 30.0 cm2. The repair may be in any area.",CPT +14350,Adjacent Tissue Transfer or Rearrangement Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"The provider replaces the affected site with a finger or toe fillet flap, which helps the affected site to regain its function.",CPT +15002,Surgical Preparation or Incisional Release of Scar Contracture.,"The provider incises the skin of a body part with an open wound, burn eschar, or scar contracture to prepare the site to receive a skin graft. This procedure helps in repairing an area of the trunk, arms, or legs. Apply this code to the first 100 cm2 for adults and children 10 and older, or to the first 1 percent of body area for infants and children under 10.",CPT +15003,Surgical Preparation or Incisional Release of Scar Contracture.,"At the same encounter that the provider prepares 100 cm2 of a body part with an open wound, burn eschar, or scar contracture to receive a skin graft, he extends the site up to an additional 100 cm2. This procedure helps in repairing areas of the trunk, arms, or legs. In children under 10, this code applies to each additional 1 percent of body area after the first.",CPT +15004,Surgical Preparation or Incisional Release of Scar Contracture.,"The provider prepares the skin of a body part with an open wound, burn eschar, or scar contracture to receive a skin graft. This procedure helps in repairing areas of the face, scalp, eyelids, mouth, neck, ears, orbits, genitalia, hands, feet, or multiple digits. Apply this code to the first 100 cm2 for adults and children 10 and older, or to the first 1 percent of body area for infants and children under 10.",CPT +15005,Surgical Preparation or Incisional Release of Scar Contracture.,"At the same encounter that the provider prepares 100 cm2 skin of a body part with an open wound, burn eschar, or scar contracture to receive a skin graft, he extends the site up to an additional 100 cm2. This procedure helps in repairing the areas of the face, scalp, eyelids, mouth, neck, ears, orbits, genitalia, hands, feet, or multiple digits. In children under 10, this code applies to each additional 1 percent of body area after the first.",CPT +15040,Autografts/Tissue Cultured Autograft.,The provider harvests 100 cm2 or less of skin for a tissue cultured skin autograft.,CPT +15050,Autografts/Tissue Cultured Autograft.,"The provider surgically removes one or more patches of skin, called pinch grafts, from a healthy donor site and fixes them to the affected part or the recipient site. This procedure helps to cover small ulcers, a toe or fingertip, or other small area up to 2 cm diameter",CPT +15100,Autografts/Tissue Cultured Autograft.,"This procedure is a split–thickness autograft from the trunk, arms, or legs.  This excision and placement is for the first 100 cm2 or less or one percent of the body area of an infant or child.",CPT +15101,Autografts/Tissue Cultured Autograft.,"This procedure is a split–thickness autograft from the trunk, arms, or legs.  This excision and placement is for each additional 100 cm2 or less or each additional one percent of the body area of an infant or child.  This code is listed separately in addition to the code for the primary procedure.",CPT +15110,Autografts/Tissue Cultured Autograft.,"This procedure is the harvesting and placement of an epidermal autograft of the trunk, arms, or legs. The amount covered is the first 100 cm2 or less of an adult, or one percent of the body area of an infant or child.",CPT +15111,Autografts/Tissue Cultured Autograft.,"This CPT code is used for an epidermal autograft of the trunk, arms, or legs. This procedure includes each additional 100 cm2 or additional one percent of body area or an infant or child. This procedure is listed separately from the primary procedure.",CPT +15115,Autografts/Tissue Cultured Autograft.,"This procedure is the harvesting and placement of an epidermal autograft of the face, scalp, eyelids, mouth, neck, ears, orbits, genitalia, hands, feet, and/or multiple digits. The amount covered is the first 100 cm2 or less of an adult, or one percent of the body area of an infant or child.",CPT +15116,Autografts/Tissue Cultured Autograft.,"This CPT code is used for an epidermal autograft of the face, scalp, eyelids, mouth, neck, ears, orbits, genitalia, hands, feet, and/or multiple digits. This procedure includes each additional 100 cm2 or additional one percent of body area of an infant or child. This procedure is listed separately from the primary procedure.",CPT +15120,Autografts/Tissue Cultured Autograft.,"This procedure is a split–thickness autograft of the face, scalp, eyelids, mouth, neck, ears, orbits, genitalia, hands, feet, and/or multiple digits.  This excision and placement is for the first 100 square cm or less or 1% of the body area of an infant or child.",CPT +15121,Autografts/Tissue Cultured Autograft.,"This procedure is a split thickness autograft of the face, scalp, eyelids, mouth, neck, ears, orbits, genitalia, hands, feet, and or multiple digits.  This excision and placement is for an additional 100 square cm, or less, or 1% of the body area of an infant or child.",CPT +15130,Autografts/Tissue Cultured Autograft.,"This procedure is the harvesting and placement of a dermal autograft of the trunk, arms, or legs.  The amount covered by this code is the first 100 cm2 or less of an adult, or 1 percent of the body surface area of an infant or child.",CPT +15131,Autografts/Tissue Cultured Autograft.,"This code is used for a dermal autograft of the trunk, arms, or legs.  This procedure includes each additional 100 cm2 in an adult or each additional 1 percent of body surface area or an infant or child.  This procedure is listed separately in addition to the code for the primary procedure.",CPT +15135,Autografts/Tissue Cultured Autograft.,"This procedure is the harvesting and placement of a dermal autograft of the face, scalp, eyelids, mouth, neck, ears, orbits, genitalia, hands, feet, and/or multiple digits.  The amount covered by this code is the first 100 cm2 or less of an adult or 1 percent of the body surface area of an infant or child.",CPT +15136,Autografts/Tissue Cultured Autograft.,"This code is used for a dermal autograft of the face, scalp, eyelids, mouth, neck, ears, orbits, genitalia, hands, feet, and/or multiple digits.  This procedure includes each additional 100 cm2 for an adult or each additional 1 percent of body surface area for an infant or child.  This procedure is listed separately in addition to the code for the primary procedure.",CPT +15150,Autografts/Tissue Cultured Autograft.,"The provider covers an open wound or burn on the trunk, arms, or legs with a tissue cultured epidermal autograft.  This code covers the first 25 cm2 or less.",CPT +15151,Autografts/Tissue Cultured Autograft.,"The provider covers an open wound or burn on the trunk, arms, or legs with a tissue cultured epidermal autograft.  This code is used for each additional 1 cm2 up to 75 cm2 of grafted skin after the first 25 cm2.",CPT +15152,Autografts/Tissue Cultured Autograft.,"The provider covers an open wound or burn on the trunk, arms, or legs with a tissue cultured epidermal autograft.  This code is used for each additional 100 cm2 or 1 percent of body area of an infant or child after the first 100 cm2.",CPT +15155,Autografts/Tissue Cultured Autograft.,"The provider places a tissue cultured epidermal autograft on the face, scalp, eyelids, mouth, neck, ears, orbits, genitalia, hands, feet, and/or multiple digits.  This procedure covers the first 25 cm2 or less.",CPT +15156,Autografts/Tissue Cultured Autograft.,"The provider places a tissue cultured epidermal autograft of the face, scalp, eyelids, mouth, neck, ears, orbits, genitalia, hands, feet, and/or multiple digits.  This code is used for each additional 1 cm2 up to 75 cm2 of grafted skin after the first 25 cm2.",CPT +15157,Autografts/Tissue Cultured Autograft.,"The provider places a tissue–cultured epidermal autograft of the face, scalp, eyelids, mouth, neck, ears, orbits, genitalia, hands, feet, and/or multiple digits.  This code is used for each additional 100 cm2 or each additional 1 percent of body area of an infant or child after the first 100 cm2.",CPT +15200,Autografts/Tissue Cultured Autograft.,The provider performs a free full–thickness skin graft of the trunk covering an area of 20 cm2 or less; this code includes direct closure of the donor site as well.,CPT +15201,Autografts/Tissue Cultured Autograft.,This code is for a free full–thickness skin graft of the trunk. This code is used for each additional 20 cm2 (or part thereof).,CPT +15220,Autografts/Tissue Cultured Autograft.,"This CPT code is for a free full–thickness skin graft of the scalp, arms, and/or legs that is 20 cm2 or less in size.",CPT +15221,Autografts/Tissue Cultured Autograft.,"This code is for a free full–thickness skin graft of the scalp, arms, and/or legs.  This code is used for each additional 20 cm2 or part thereof, of skin used.",CPT +15240,Autografts/Tissue Cultured Autograft.,"This code is for a free full–thickness skin graft of the forehead, cheeks, chin, mouth, neck, axillae, genitalia, hands, and/or feet that is 20 cm2 or less in size.",CPT +15241,Autografts/Tissue Cultured Autograft.,"This CPT code is for a free full–thickness skin graft of the forehead, cheeks, chin, mouth, neck, axillae, genitalia, hands, and/or feet.  This CPT code is used for each additional 20 cm2, or part thereof, of skin used.",CPT +15260,Autografts/Tissue Cultured Autograft.,"This code is for a free full–thickness skin graft of the nose, ears, eyelids, and/or lips that is 20 cm2 or less in size.",CPT +15261,Autografts/Tissue Cultured Autograft.,"This code is for a free full–thickness skin graft of the nose, ears, eyelids, and/or lips.  This code is used for each additional graft of 20 cm2 or part thereof.",CPT +15271,Skin Substitute Grafts.,"The provider uses a skin substitute, such as an allograft or xenograft, to cover wounds on the patient’s trunk, arms, and/or legs up to an area of 100 cm2. This code covers up to the first 25 cm2.",CPT +15272,Skin Substitute Grafts.,"At the same session that the provider uses a skin substitute, such as an allograft or xenograft, to cover the wounds on the patient’s trunk, arms, and/or legs up to an area of 100 scm2, the provider performs an additional 25 cm2 of grafting after the first 25 cm2.",CPT +15273,Skin Substitute Grafts.,"The provider uses a skin substitute, such as an allograft or xenograft, to cover wounds on the patient’s trunk, arms, and/or legs that are greater than or equal to 100 cm2. This code covers the first 100 cm2 in a patient 10 years or older, or 1 percent of the body area of infants and children under 10.",CPT +15274,Skin Substitute Grafts.,"The provider uses a skin substitute such as an allograft or xenograft to cover a trunk, arms, and/or legs wound surface area of up to an additional 100 cm2 in a patient 10 years or older, or 1 percent of body area of infants and children under 10. He performs this add–on service for a wound 100 cm2 or larger at the same session that he covers the first 100 cm2 in patients 10 and older or covers the first 1 percent of body area in patients under 10.",CPT +15275,Skin Substitute Grafts.,"The provider uses a skin substitute, such as an allograft or xenograft, to cover wounds on the face, scalp, eyelids, mouth, neck, ears, orbits, genitalia, hands, feet, and/or multiple digits, up to an area of 100 cm2. This code covers up to the first 25 cm2.",CPT +15276,Skin Substitute Grafts.,"At the same session that the provider uses a skin substitute such as an allograft or xenograft, to cover the wounds on patient’s face, scalp, eyelids, mouth, neck, ears, orbits, genitalia, hands, feet, and/or multiple digits, the provider performs an additional 25 cm2 of grafting after the first 25 cm2. The total wound size is up to 100 cm2.",CPT +15277,Skin Substitute Grafts.,"The provider uses a skin substitute such as an allograft or xenograft, to cover wounds on the patient’s face, scalp, eyelids, mouth, neck, ears, orbits, genitalia, hands, feet, and/or multiple digits, up to an area greater than or equal to 100 cm2 in patients 10 and older, or 1 percent of body area of children under 10.",CPT +15278,Skin Substitute Grafts.,"The provider uses a skin substitute such as an allograft or xenograft to cover wounds on a patient’s face, scalp, eyelids, mouth, neck, ears, orbits, genitalia, hands, feet, and/or multiple digits, up to an additional 100 cm in a patient 10 years or older, or 1 percent of body area of infants and children under 10. He performs this add–on service for a wound 100 cm2 or larger at the same session that he covers the first 100 cm2 in patients 10 and older, or covers the first 1 percent of body area in patients under 10.",CPT +15570,Flaps (Skin and/or Deep Tissues) Procedures.,The provider prepares a direct or tubed pedicle skin flap with the patient’s healthy skin and tissue to cover an injury or wound on the body. The provider may or may not transfer the flap to the recipient site. This code is specific to the trunk.,CPT +15572,Flaps (Skin and/or Deep Tissues) Procedures.,"The provider prepares a direct or tubed pedicle skin flap with the patient’s healthy skin and tissue to cover an injury or wound on the body. The provider may or may not transfer the flap to the recipient site. This code is specific to the scalp, arms, or legs.",CPT +15574,Flaps (Skin and/or Deep Tissues) Procedures.,"The provider prepares a direct or tubed pedicle skin flap with the patient’s healthy skin and tissue to cover an injury or wound on the body. The provider may or may not transfer the flap to the recipient site. This code is specific to the forehead, cheeks, chin, mouth, neck, axillae, genitalia, hands or feet.",CPT +15576,Flaps (Skin and/or Deep Tissues) Procedures.,"The provider prepares a direct or tubed pedicle skin flap with the patient’s healthy skin and tissue to cover an injury or wound on the body. The provider may or may not transfer the flap to the recipient site. This code is specific to the eyelids, nose, ears, lips, or intraoral space.",CPT +15600,Flaps (Skin and/or Deep Tissues) Procedures.,The provider divides a previously created pedicled flap from its base and completes the inset of the graft at the trunk as well as repairs the remaining wound where the flap was pedicled.,CPT +15610,Flaps (Skin and/or Deep Tissues) Procedures.,"The provider divides a previously created pedicled flap from its base and completes the inset of the graft at the scalp, arms, or legs as well as repairs the remaining wound where the flap was pedicled.",CPT +15620,Flaps (Skin and/or Deep Tissues) Procedures.,"The provider divides a previously created pedicled flap from its base and completes the inset of the graft at forehead, cheeks, chin, neck, axillae, genitalia, hands, or feet as well as repairs the remaining wound where the flap was pedicled.",CPT +15630,Flaps (Skin and/or Deep Tissues) Procedures.,"The provider divides a previously created pedicled flap from its base and completes the inset of the graft at eyelids, nose, ears, or lips as well as repairs the remaining wound where the flap was pedicled.",CPT +15650,Flaps (Skin and/or Deep Tissues) Procedures.,The provider moves a previously created pedicle flap from its donor site to a different location on the patient’s body.,CPT +15730,Flaps (Skin and/or Deep Tissues) Procedures.,"The provider creates a zygomaticofacial flap of skin from the midface of the patient to treat injury or open wounds on the face or scalp, He rotates the flap, complete with vascular supply, to cover the defect.",CPT +15731,Flaps (Skin and/or Deep Tissues) Procedures.,"The provider creates a flap of skin from the forehead of the patient to treat injury or open wounds on the face or scalp, He rotates the flap, complete with vascular supply, to cover the defect.",CPT +15733,Flaps (Skin and/or Deep Tissues) Procedures.,"The provider develops a muscle, myocutaneous, or fasciocutaneous flap from one of the muscles in the forehead, around the jaws, or neck, preserving the vascular supply, and uses it to cover a nearby defect.",CPT +15734,Flaps (Skin and/or Deep Tissues) Procedures.,"The provider develops a muscle, myocutaneous, or fasciocutaneous flap obtained from the trunk (the area between the neck and the waist) and places it over a defect on the patient's body.",CPT +15736,Flaps (Skin and/or Deep Tissues) Procedures.,"The provider creates a muscle, myocutaneous, or fasciocutaneous flap from an upper extremity of the patient to treat an injury or open wound on an affected area.",CPT +15738,Flaps (Skin and/or Deep Tissues) Procedures.,"The provider creates a muscle, myocutaneous, or fasciocutaneous flap from a lower extremity of the patient to treat injury or open wounds on an affected area.",CPT +15740,Other Flaps and Grafts Procedures.,"The provider creates an island pedicle flap by incising the healthy skin and tissue around the donor site, elevating it, and placing it on an area of wound or injury. This flap is rich in blood supply because it retains a connection to a named blood vessel from the donor site.",CPT +15750,Other Flaps and Grafts Procedures.,"The provider creates an island pedicle flap by incising the healthy skin and tissue around the donor site, elevating it, and placing it on an area of wound or injury. This flap is rich in blood supply because it retains a connection to a named blood vessel from the donor site. The flap also has a nerve that remains attached for transmission of motor and sensory signals.",CPT +15756,Other Flaps and Grafts Procedures.,"Myocutaneous (muscle) flaps are used for cosmetic procedures and to aid in repairing a wound. A myocutaneous flap includes the muscle tissue and the skin layers above it. The flap is taken from a donor site and placed at the wound site. Blood circulation to the flap is restored through microvascular reconstruction – a process where the physician joins the existing blood vessels on the flap to the vessels at the wound site under microscopic guidance. This ensures quick healing. This method is called a Free Flap.  In a local flap, the flap is taken from the area surrounding the wound. In such cases one end of the flap remains connected to the skin to maintain blood supply to the flap.",CPT +15757,Other Flaps and Grafts Procedures.,"The provider creates a free skin flap using microvascular techniques. He uses a flap  taken from a donor site and placed at the wound site, connecting vessels in the donor flap to vessels in the wound.",CPT +15758,Other Flaps and Grafts Procedures.,"The provider takes a free fascial flap, a piece of skin along with the underlying fascial tissue and blood vessels, from a donor site in the body and planted at the site of repair using microscopic techniques to attach the blood vessels in the flap to those in the donor site.",CPT +15760,Other Flaps and Grafts Procedures.,"The provider performs an excision of the skin graft from the donor site, such as from the external part of the patient’s ear or nasal ala, which is the external wing part of the nose that includes cartilage. He places this graft on the recipient site to cover its defects. He then closes the donor area with sutures.",CPT +15769,Other Flaps and Grafts Procedures.,"The provider excises (harvests) fat, dermis, fascia, or other tissue and uses the soft tissue to fill in a defect elsewhere on the body of the same patient during the same operative session.",CPT +15770,Other Flaps and Grafts Procedures.,"The provider harvests a composite graft consisting of dermis, fat, and fascia, or a combination thereof, and sutures the graft into a recipient site.",CPT +15771,Other Flaps and Grafts Procedures.,"The provider harvests fat by liposuction technique from one location and injects it in another location on the trunk, breasts, scalp, arms, or legs, or a more than one of those areas, to fill in defects or reshape contours. This code represents 50 cc or less of autologous fat used for injection.",CPT +15772,Other Flaps and Grafts Procedures.,"The provider harvests fat by liposuction technique from one location and injects it in another location on the trunk, breasts, scalp, arms, and/or legs to fill in defects or reshape contours. This code represents each additional 50 cc or part thereof, of autologous fat used for injection.",CPT +15773,Other Flaps and Grafts Procedures.,"The provider harvests fat by liposuction technique from one location and injects it in another location on the face, eyelids, mouth, neck, ears, orbits, genitalia, hands, and/or feet to fill in defects or reshape contours. This code represents 25 cc or less of autologous fat used for injection.",CPT +15774,Other Flaps and Grafts Procedures.,"The provider harvests fat by liposuction technique from one location and injects it in another location on the face, eyelids, mouth, neck, ears, orbits, genitalia, hands, and/or feet to fill in defects or reshape contours. This code represents 25 cc or less of autologous fat used for injection.",CPT +15775,Other Flaps and Grafts Procedures.,"The provider prepares 1 to 15 hair grafts for the patient, from a site of the scalp that bears hair. He then prepares the site devoid of hair by making small holes using a punching instrument and transfers the grafts to the target site.",CPT +15776,Other Flaps and Grafts Procedures.,"The provider prepares more than 15 hair grafts for the patient, from a site of the scalp that bears hair. He then prepares the site devoid of hair and transfers the grafts to the target site.",CPT +15777,Other Flaps and Grafts Procedures.,"During a breast or trunk soft–tissue procedure, the provider attaches a biologic implant to reinforce the tissue.",CPT +15778,Other Flaps and Grafts Procedures.,"The provider implants absorbable mesh or another prosthesis to close one or more defects of the external genitalia, perineum (area between the anus and the scrotum or vulva), and/or abdominal wall. The procedure is delayed closure, occurring after the wound was left open for a given amount of time.",CPT +15780,Other Repair (Closure) Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"The provider rotates a specialized machine on the patient’s face to treat acne, scars, wrinkles, or bumps of the total face.",CPT +15781,Other Repair (Closure) Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"In this procedure, the provider removes acne scars, various types of facial lesions, and tattoos on a portion of the face by lightly sanding the surface of the skin with a specialized tool.",CPT +15782,Other Repair (Closure) Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"In this procedure, the provider removes acne scars, lesions, or tattoos from an area of the body other than the face by lightly sanding the surface of the skin with a specialized tool.",CPT +15783,Other Repair (Closure) Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"In this procedure, the provider removes tattoos and very light scars or lesions on the surface of the skin anywhere in the body by very lightly sanding the area with a specialized tool.",CPT +15786,Other Repair (Closure) Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a single lesion, such as a scar or an abnormal growth, by lightly sanding the surface of the skin with a specialized tool.",CPT +15787,Other Repair (Closure) Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"In this procedure, the provider removes one to four additional lesions, such as scars or abnormal growths, by lightly sanding the surface of the skin with a specialized tool, after removing an initial lesion.",CPT +15788,Other Repair (Closure) Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"A chemical peel, also called chemexfoliation, is the application of chemical agents (e.g. alpha–hydroxy acid, retinoic acid, or phenol) in a controlled manner to remove a superficial scar, sun damage, or acne. It involves the epidermis partially or completely. It may or may not involve the dermis depending on the duration and requirements of the procedure.",CPT +15789,Other Repair (Closure) Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"A chemical peel, also called chemexfoliation, is the application of chemical agents (e.g. alpha–hydroxy acid, retinoic acid, or phenol) in a controlled manner to remove a superficial scar, sun damage, or acne. It involves the epidermis partially or completely. It may or may not involve the dermis depending on the duration and requirements of the procedure.",CPT +15792,Other Repair (Closure) Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"A chemical peel, also called chemexfoliation, is the application of chemical agents (e.g. alpha–hydroxy acid, retinoic acid, or phenol) in a controlled manner to remove a superficial scar, sun damage, or acne. It involves the epidermis partially or completely. It may or may not involve the dermis depending on the duration and requirements of the procedure.",CPT +15793,Other Repair (Closure) Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"A chemical peel, also called chemexfoliaiton, is the application of chemical agents (e.g. alpha–hydroxy acid, retinoic acid, or phenol) in a controlled manner to remove a superficial scar, sun damage, or acne. It involves the epidermis partially or completely. It may or may not involve the dermis depending on the duration and requirements of the procedure.",CPT +15819,Other Repair (Closure) Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"Cervicoplasty, aka neck lift, is done to improve the appearance of the neck by removing loose skin and fat from the region and giving a taut look to the skin. Slack skin in the neck may be ascribed to advancing age. Other conditions such as fat deposits in the neck, and retrognathia (a condition in which a receding jaw gives the impression of absence of jawline or chin) may necessitate a cervicoplasty. Fat deposits under the skin in the neck area are sometimes removed through liposuction which is followed by removal of excess skin.",CPT +15820,Other Repair (Closure) Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically trims excess skin from below the lower eyelid, typically to improve the cosmetic appearance of the face.",CPT +15821,Other Repair (Closure) Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically trims the excess skin and bulging fatty tissue below the lower eyelid, typically to improve the cosmetic appearance of the face.",CPT +15822,Other Repair (Closure) Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically trims excess skin from below the upper eyelid, typically to improve the cosmetic appearance of the face.",CPT +15823,Other Repair (Closure) Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically trims excessive skin that weighs down the upper eyelid, typically to improve the cosmetic appearance of the face and due to the interference of the tissue in the patient’s vision.",CPT +15824,Other Repair (Closure) Procedures on the Integumentary System.,The provider performs a rhytidectomy of the forehead ('brow lift') to smooth out the wrinkled skin of the forehead.,CPT +15825,Other Repair (Closure) Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically tightens loose skin and tissues around the jaw and neck to improve a patient’s cosmetic appearance.",CPT +15826,Other Repair (Closure) Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"Rhytidectomy of the forehead (also known as a 'brow lift') smoothes out the wrinkled skin of the forehead.  In this case, the goal is to reduce or remove ""frown lines"" located at the glabella.",CPT +15828,Other Repair (Closure) Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"The provider performs a rhitidectomy by removing excess skin and fat, thus tightening the skin in the cheek, chin, and neck region.",CPT +15829,Other Repair (Closure) Procedures on the Integumentary System.,The provider performs a rhitidectomy (facelift) by removing excess skin and fat to tighten up the skin and remove wrinkles from the face.,CPT +15830,Other Repair (Closure) Procedures on the Integumentary System.,This procedure is the excision of excess skin and subcutaneous tissue of the abdomen.,CPT +15832,Other Repair (Closure) Procedures on the Integumentary System.,This code is used for removal of excessive skin and subcutaneous tissue of the thigh.,CPT +15833,Other Repair (Closure) Procedures on the Integumentary System.,This code is used for removal of excessive skin and subcutaneous tissue of the leg.,CPT +15834,Other Repair (Closure) Procedures on the Integumentary System.,This code is used for removal of excessive skin and subcutaneous tissue of the hip.,CPT +15835,Other Repair (Closure) Procedures on the Integumentary System.,This code is used for removal of excessive skin and subcutaneous tissue of the buttock.,CPT +15836,Other Repair (Closure) Procedures on the Integumentary System.,This code is used for removal of excessive skin and subcutaneous tissue of the arm.,CPT +15837,Other Repair (Closure) Procedures on the Integumentary System.,This code is used for removal of excessive skin and subcutaneous tissue of the forearm or hand.,CPT +15838,Other Repair (Closure) Procedures on the Integumentary System.,This code is used for removal of excessive skin and subcutaneous tissue of the submental fat pad or double chin.,CPT +15839,Other Repair (Closure) Procedures on the Integumentary System.,The provider excises excessive skin and subcutaneous tissue of an area not specified in another CPT code.,CPT +15840,Other Repair (Closure) Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"The provider removes a removes a piece of tissue from below the skin, from an area of the body like the thigh, and attaches it to the face to restore a more normal appearance in a patient suffering from facial nerve paralysis.",CPT +15841,Other Repair (Closure) Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"The provider removes a removes a piece of muscle tissue from an area of the body like the back, chest, abdomen, or thigh, and attaches it to the face to restore a more normal appearance in a patient suffering from facial nerve paralysis.",CPT +15842,Other Repair (Closure) Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"The provider removes a removes a piece of muscle tissue from an area of the body like the back, chest, abdomen, or thigh, and attaches it to the face to restore a more normal appearance in a patient suffering from facial nerve paralysis. He uses a surgical microscope and small instruments to connect the tiny vessels in the grafted tissue to the vessels in its new location in the face.",CPT +15845,Other Repair (Closure) Procedures on the Integumentary System.,The provider transfers muscle tissue from one area of the head or face to a part of the face afflicted with facial nerve paralysis to restore a more normal appearance to the face. The provider rotates the grafted muscle into place without impacting the nerve and vascular supply in the transferred muscle.,CPT +15847,Other Repair (Closure) Procedures on the Integumentary System.,This procedure is the excision of excessive skin and subcutaneous tissue of the abdomen.,CPT +15851,Other Repair (Closure) Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"With the patient under general anesthesia or moderate sedation, the provider removes sutures or staples.",CPT +15852,Other Repair (Closure) Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"The provider changes the dressing on a wound, unrelated to a burn, in a patient who requires general anesthesia due to the painful nature of the dressing change or in a patient unable to cooperate with a dressing change while awake.",CPT +15853,Other Repair (Closure) Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"As an add–on to an evaluation and management service, the provider removes sutures or staples.",CPT +15854,Other Repair (Closure) Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"As an add–on to an evaluation and management service, the provider removes sutures and staples.",CPT +15860,Other Repair (Closure) Procedures on the Integumentary System.,The provider assesses the blood flow in grafted tissue by injecting an illuminating dye to ensure the graft has an adequate blood supply and will remain healthy.,CPT +15876,Other Repair (Closure) Procedures on the Integumentary System.,The provider performs suction–assisted lipectomy (liposuction) in the neck (submental lipectomy) and head regions to remove the fat deposits that give a double–chin look.,CPT +15877,Other Repair (Closure) Procedures on the Integumentary System.,The provider performs suction–assisted lipectomy (liposuction) of the trunk regions to remove the fat deposits.,CPT +15878,Other Repair (Closure) Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"The provider performs suction–assisted lipectomy (liposuction) of the upper extremity to remove the fat deposits, primarily from the under arm.",CPT +15879,Other Repair (Closure) Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"The provider performs suction–assisted lipectomy (liposuction) of the lower extremity to remove the fat deposits, primarily from the thigh and knee areas.",CPT +15920,Pressure Ulcers (Decubitus Ulcers) Procedures.,The provider removes a pressure sore over the tailbone area and removes a portion of underlying infected bone. He sutures the site to heal the wound.,CPT +15922,Pressure Ulcers (Decubitus Ulcers) Procedures.,The provider removes a pressure ulcer of the tailbone area and removes a portion of underlying infected bone. He closes the wound with a skin flap to ensure complete healing and avoid recurrence.,CPT +15931,Pressure Ulcers (Decubitus Ulcers) Procedures.,The provider removes a pressure sore at the base of the spine. He sutures the skin edges together to heal the wound and prevent infection.,CPT +15933,Pressure Ulcers (Decubitus Ulcers) Procedures.,The provider removes a pressure sore and its underlying bone at the base of the spine. He sutures the site to heal the wound.,CPT +15934,Pressure Ulcers (Decubitus Ulcers) Procedures.,The provider removes a pressure sore at the base of the spine and closes the wound with a skin flap to ensure complete healing and avoid recurrence.,CPT +15935,Pressure Ulcers (Decubitus Ulcers) Procedures.,The provider removes a pressure sore and its underlying bone in the sacral area. He closes the wound with a skin flap to ensure complete healing and avoid recurrence.,CPT +15936,Pressure Ulcers (Decubitus Ulcers) Procedures.,The provider removes a pressure sore in at the base of the spine. He prepares the wound for closure with the use of a graft of skin or skin and muscle.,CPT +15937,Pressure Ulcers (Decubitus Ulcers) Procedures.,The provider removes a pressure sore and its underlying bone in the sacral area. He prepares the wound for closure with the use of a graft of skin or skin and muscle.,CPT +15940,Pressure Ulcers (Decubitus Ulcers) Procedures.,The provider removes a pressure sore from the hip area. He sutures the skin edges together to heal the wound and prevent infection.,CPT +15941,Pressure Ulcers (Decubitus Ulcers) Procedures.,The provider removes a pressure sore and its underlying bone in the hip area when infection in the wound has spread down to bone. He sutures the site to heal the wound.,CPT +15944,Pressure Ulcers (Decubitus Ulcers) Procedures.,The provider removes a pressure sore in the hip area and closes the wound with a skin flap to ensure complete healing and avoid recurrence.,CPT +15945,Pressure Ulcers (Decubitus Ulcers) Procedures.,The provider removes a pressure sore and its underlying bone in the hip area when infection in the wound has spread down to bone. He closes the wound with a skin flap to ensure complete healing and avoid recurrence.,CPT +15946,Pressure Ulcers (Decubitus Ulcers) Procedures.,"The provider removes a pressure sore and its underlying bone in the hip area, when infection in the wound has spread to bone. He prepares the wound for closure with the use of a graft of skin or skin and muscle.",CPT +15950,Pressure Ulcers (Decubitus Ulcers) Procedures.,The provider removes a pressure ulcer of the trochanter of the hip area and sutures the site to close the wound.,CPT +15951,Pressure Ulcers (Decubitus Ulcers) Procedures.,The provider removes the pressure ulcer and underlying bone of the trochanter of the hip area. He sutures the site to close the wound.,CPT +15952,Pressure Ulcers (Decubitus Ulcers) Procedures.,The provider removes the pressure ulcer of the trochanter of the hip area and closes the wound with a skin flap.,CPT +15953,Pressure Ulcers (Decubitus Ulcers) Procedures.,The provider removes the pressure ulcer and underlying bone of the trochanter of the hip area. He closes the wound with a skin flap.,CPT +15956,Pressure Ulcers (Decubitus Ulcers) Procedures.,The provider removes the pressure ulcer of the trochanter of the hip area. He prepares the wound for closure by a myocutaneous flap or skin graft.,CPT +15958,Pressure Ulcers (Decubitus Ulcers) Procedures.,The provider removes a pressure ulcer and underlying bone of the trochanter of the hip area. He prepares the wound for closure by a myocutaneous flap or skin graft.,CPT +15999,Pressure Ulcers (Decubitus Ulcers) Procedures.,Use to report procedures for pressure ulcer excision that do not have a specific code.,CPT +16000,Local Treatment Procedures for Burns.,The provider washes the first degree burn with plenty of cold water and wraps it in clean sterile gauze.,CPT +16020,Local Treatment Procedures for Burns.,This CPT code is for the dressing and/or debridement of a partial–thickness burn (either initially or subsequently). In this instance the burn is small (less than 5% of the total body surface area).,CPT +16025,Local Treatment Procedures for Burns.,"This CPT code is for the dressing and/or debridement of a partial–thickness burn (either initially or subsequently). In this instance the burn is medium (whole face or extremity, or 5 percent to 10 percent of the total body surface area).",CPT +16030,Local Treatment Procedures for Burns.,This code is for the dressing and/or debridement of a partial–thickness burn (either initially or subsequently). In this instance the burn is large (more than one extremity or greater than 10% of the total body surface area).,CPT +16035,Local Treatment Procedures for Burns.,The provider incises the eschar to release the underlying pressure and avoid restriction of blood supply. The provider usually performs this service for third degree burns. This code represents the first incision.,CPT +16036,Local Treatment Procedures for Burns.,The provider incises the eschar to release the underlying pressure and avoid restriction of blood supply. The provider usually performs this service for third degree burns. This code represents each additional incision after the first.,CPT +17000,Destruction Procedures on Benign or Premalignant Lesions of the Integumentary System.,"The provider destroys a premalignant lesion using techniques such as chemosurgery, cryosurgery, electrosurgery, or others. This code reports the destruction of the first or only lesion.",CPT +17003,Destruction Procedures on Benign or Premalignant Lesions of the Integumentary System.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider destroys a premalignant lesion using techniques such as chemosurgery, cryosurgery, electrosurgery, or others. This code is appropriate for the second through the 14th lesion destroyed in an encounter, with one unit representing a single lesion.",CPT +17004,Destruction Procedures on Benign or Premalignant Lesions of the Integumentary System.,"The provider destroys 15 or more premalignant lesions using techniques such as chemosurgery, cryosurgery, electrosurgery, or others.",CPT +17106,Destruction Procedures on Benign or Premalignant Lesions of the Integumentary System.,"Cutaneous vascular destruction is generally performed with a laser (e.g. Argon, pulsed dye, and YAG). This is a bloodless surgery due to the fact that there is no incision made in the skin. This code covers destruction of a cutaneous vascular proliferative lesion that is less than 10 cm2 in area.",CPT +17107,Destruction Procedures on Benign or Premalignant Lesions of the Integumentary System.,"Cutaneous vascular destruction is generally performed with a laser (e.g. Argon, pulsed dye, and YAG). This is a bloodless surgery due to the fact that there is no incision made in the skin.  This code covers destruction of a cutaneous vascular proliferative lesion that is 10.0 cm2 to 50.0 cm2 in area.",CPT +17108,Destruction Procedures on Benign or Premalignant Lesions of the Integumentary System.,"Cutaneous vascular destruction is generally performed with a laser (e.g. Argon, pulsed dye, and YAG). This is a bloodless surgery due to the fact that there is no incision made in the skin.  This code covers destruction of a cutaneous vascular proliferative lesion that is greater than 50 cm2 in size.",CPT +17110,Destruction Procedures on Benign or Premalignant Lesions of the Integumentary System.,"The provider destroys benign lesions using techniques such as chemosurgery, cryosurgery, electrosurgery, or others. This code reports the destruction of one to 14 lesions other than skin tags or cutaneous vascular proliferative lesions.",CPT +17111,Destruction Procedures on Benign or Premalignant Lesions of the Integumentary System.,"The provider destroys benign lesions using techniques such as chemosurgery, cryosurgery, electrosurgery, or others. This code reports the destruction of 15 lesions or more, other than skin tags or cutaneous vascular proliferative lesions.",CPT +17250,Destruction Procedures on Benign or Premalignant Lesions of the Integumentary System.,The provider cauterizes granulation tissue using chemicals like silver nitrate or potassium hydroxide to heal the injured tissue.,CPT +17260,Destruction Procedures on Malignant Lesions of the Integumentary System.,"The provider destroys a malignant lesion on the trunk, arms, or legs using techniques such as chemosurgery, cryosurgery, electrosurgery, or others. The malignant lesion is 0.5 cm or less in diameter.",CPT +17261,Destruction Procedures on Malignant Lesions of the Integumentary System.,"The provider destroys a malignant lesion on the trunk, arms, or legs using techniques such as chemosurgery, cryosurgery, electrosurgery, or others. The malignant lesion is 0.6 cm to 1.0 cm in diameter.",CPT +17262,Destruction Procedures on Malignant Lesions of the Integumentary System.,"The provider destroys a malignant lesion on the trunk, arms, or legs using techniques such as chemosurgery, cryosurgery, electrosurgery, or others. The malignant lesion is 1.1 cm to 2.0 cm in diameter.",CPT +17263,Destruction Procedures on Malignant Lesions of the Integumentary System.,"The provider destroys a malignant lesion on the trunk, arms, or legs using techniques such as chemosurgery, cryosurgery, electrosurgery, or others. The malignant lesion is 2.1 cm to 3.0 cm in diameter.",CPT +17264,Destruction Procedures on Malignant Lesions of the Integumentary System.,"The provider destroys a malignant lesion on the trunk, arms, or legs using techniques such as chemosurgery, cryosurgery, electrosurgery, or others. The malignant lesion is 3.1 cm to 4.0 cm in diameter.",CPT +17266,Destruction Procedures on Malignant Lesions of the Integumentary System.,"The provider destroys a malignant lesion on the trunk, arms, or legs using techniques such as chemosurgery, cryosurgery, electrosurgery, or others. The malignant lesion is over 4.0 cm in diameter.",CPT +17270,Destruction Procedures on Malignant Lesions of the Integumentary System.,"The provider destroys a malignant lesion on the scalp, neck, hands, feet, or genitalia using techniques such as chemosurgery, cryosurgery, electrosurgery, or others. The malignant lesion is 0.5 cm or less in diameter.",CPT +17271,Destruction Procedures on Malignant Lesions of the Integumentary System.,"The provider destroys a malignant lesion on the scalp, neck, hands, feet, or genitalia using techniques such as chemosurgery, cryosurgery, electrosurgery, or others. The malignant lesion is 0.6 cm to 1.0 cm in diameter.",CPT +17272,Destruction Procedures on Malignant Lesions of the Integumentary System.,"The provider destroys a malignant lesion on the scalp, neck, hands, feet, or genitalia using techniques such as chemosurgery, cryosurgery, electrosurgery, or others. The malignant lesion is 1.1 cm to 2.0 cm in diameter.",CPT +17273,Destruction Procedures on Malignant Lesions of the Integumentary System.,"The provider destroys a malignant lesion on the scalp, neck, hands, feet, or genitalia using techniques such as chemosurgery, cryosurgery, electrosurgery, or others. The malignant lesion is 2.1 cm to 3.0 cm in diameter.",CPT +17274,Destruction Procedures on Malignant Lesions of the Integumentary System.,"The provider destroys a malignant lesion on the scalp, neck, hands, feet, or genitalia using techniques such as chemosurgery, cryosurgery, electrosurgery, or others. The malignant lesion is 3.1 cm to 4.0 cm in diameter.",CPT +17276,Destruction Procedures on Malignant Lesions of the Integumentary System.,"The provider destroys a malignant lesion on the scalp, neck, hands, feet, or genitalia using techniques such as chemosurgery, cryosurgery, electrosurgery, or others. The malignant lesion is over 4.0 cm in diameter.",CPT +17280,Destruction Procedures on Malignant Lesions of the Integumentary System.,"The provider destroys a malignant lesion on the face, ears, eyelids, nose, lips, or mucous membrane using techniques such as chemosurgery, cryosurgery, electrosurgery, or others. The malignant lesion is 0.5 cm or less in diameter.",CPT +17281,Destruction Procedures on Malignant Lesions of the Integumentary System.,"The provider destroys a malignant lesion on the face, ears, eyelids, nose, lips, or mucous membrane using techniques such as chemosurgery, cryosurgery, electrosurgery, or others. The malignant lesion is 0.6 cm to 1.0 cm in diameter.",CPT +17282,Destruction Procedures on Malignant Lesions of the Integumentary System.,"The provider destroys a malignant lesion on the face, ears, eyelids, nose, lips, or mucous membrane using techniques such as chemosurgery, cryosurgery, electrosurgery, or others. The malignant lesion is 1.1 cm to 2.0 cm in diameter.",CPT +17283,Destruction Procedures on Malignant Lesions of the Integumentary System.,"The provider destroys a malignant lesion on the face, ears, eyelids, nose, lips, or mucous membrane using techniques such as chemosurgery, cryosurgery, electrosurgery, or others. The malignant lesion is 2.1 cm to 3.0 cm in diameter.",CPT +17284,Destruction Procedures on Malignant Lesions of the Integumentary System.,"The provider destroys a malignant lesion on the face, ears, eyelids, nose, lips, or mucous membrane using techniques such as chemosurgery, cryosurgery, electrosurgery, or others. The malignant lesion is 3.1 cm to 4.0 cm in diameter.",CPT +17286,Destruction Procedures on Malignant Lesions of the Integumentary System.,"The provider destroys a malignant lesion on the face, ears, eyelids, nose, lips, or mucous membrane using techniques such as chemosurgery, cryosurgery, electrosurgery, or others. The malignant lesion is over 4.0 cm in diameter.",CPT +17311,Mohs Micrographic Surgery Procedures.,"Mohs surgery is a multi–staged procedure that is performed to excise a malignant lesion layer by layer, along with histo–pathological assessment. The assessment is performed to ensure that the margins are negative for malignancy.",CPT +17312,Mohs Micrographic Surgery Procedures.,"Mohs surgery is a multi–staged method of excising a malignant lesion layer by layer, along with histo–pathological assessment, to ensure negative malignancy of the margins.",CPT +17313,Mohs Micrographic Surgery Procedures.,"Mohs surgery is a multi–staged method of excising a malignant lesion layer by layer, along with histo–pathological assessment, to ensure negative malignancy of the margins.",CPT +17314,Mohs Micrographic Surgery Procedures.,"Mohs surgery is a multi–staged method of excising a malignant lesion layer by layer, along with histo–pathological assessment, to ensure negative malignancy of the margins.",CPT +17315,Mohs Micrographic Surgery Procedures.,"Mohs surgery is a multistaged method of excising a malignant lesion layer by layer, along with histopathological assessment, to ensure negative malignancy of the margins.",CPT +17340,Other Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"The provider uses cryotherapy to treat acne, typically after the acne fails to respond to topical or systemic medications.",CPT +17360,Other Procedures on the Integumentary System.,The provider uses chemical agents to peel off the acne.,CPT +17380,Other Procedures on the Integumentary System.,The provider uses short wave diathermy current to destroy and remove unwanted hair and prevent further hair growth.,CPT +17999,Other Procedures on the Integumentary System.,"Unlisted procedure, skin, mucous membrane, and subcutaneous tissue.",CPT +19000,"Aspiration, Injection and Drainage Procedures of Breast.",The provider drains out the fluid from a breast cyst by inserting a needle into it.,CPT +19001,"Aspiration, Injection and Drainage Procedures of Breast.","In this add on procedure, the provider performs puncture aspiration of each additional cyst after the first. She might also use separately reportable image guidance during the procedure.",CPT +19020,"Aspiration, Injection and Drainage Procedures of Breast.",The provider performs a mastotomy (incision into the breast) and explores and/or drains a deep abscess in the breast.,CPT +19030,"Aspiration, Injection and Drainage Procedures of Breast.",The provider injects a contrast agent into the breast of a patient for the purpose of performing a mammary ductogram or galactogram to image the mammary (milk) ducts of the breast.,CPT +19081,Breast Biopsy Procedures.,"Under stereotactic guidance, the provider takes breast tissue percutaneously from a single lesion for biopsy. He may place a localization device at the same time.",CPT +19082,Breast Biopsy Procedures.,"Under stereotactic guidance, the provider takes breast tissue percutaneously for biopsy from each additional lesion after the first, separately reportable lesion. He may place a localization device at the same time.",CPT +19083,Breast Biopsy Procedures.,"Under ultrasound guidance, the provider takes breast tissue percutaneously from a single lesion for biopsy. He may place a localization device at the same time.",CPT +19084,Breast Biopsy Procedures.,"Under ultrasound guidance, the provider takes breast tissue percutaneously for biopsy from each additional lesion after the first, separately reportable lesion. He may place a localization device at the same time.",CPT +19085,Breast Biopsy Procedures.,"Under magnetic resonance guidance, the provider takes breast tissue percutaneously from a single lesion for biopsy. He may place a localization device at the same time.",CPT +19086,Breast Biopsy Procedures.,"Under magnetic resonance guidance, the provider takes breast tissue percutaneously for biopsy from each additional lesion after the first, separately reportable lesion. He may place a localization device at the same time.",CPT +19100,Breast Biopsy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a core tissue sample from a breast lesion to diagnose conditions such as breast cancer.",CPT +19101,Breast Biopsy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a small amount of tissue from a breast lesion to identify any abnormality present. The provider uses an open incisional approach.",CPT +19105,"Ablation, Exploration and Excision Procedures.","In this procedure, the provider uses a cryoprobe to destroy a fibroadenoma, which is a solid, noncancerous breast tumor. He performs the procedure using ultrasound guidance.",CPT +19110,"Ablation, Exploration and Excision Procedures.",The provider explores the nipple through an incision and may or may not excise (remove) a single lactiferous (milk) duct or a papilloma (benign tumor) lactiferous duct.,CPT +19112,"Ablation, Exploration and Excision Procedures.",The provider excises (removes) a fistula (a tubular connection) between a lactiferous (milk) duct and the skin.,CPT +19120,"Ablation, Exploration and Excision Procedures.",The provider excises one or more suspicious breast lesions in a man or woman using an open approach.,CPT +19125,"Ablation, Exploration and Excision Procedures.",The provider excises a single lesion previously identified by a preoperative radiological marker through an open incision.,CPT +19126,"Ablation, Exploration and Excision Procedures.",The provider excises an additional lesion previously identified by a preoperative radiological marker through an open incision after excising an initial lesion from the same breast.,CPT +19281,Introduction Procedures on the Breast.,"In this procedure, the provider, under mammographic guidance, places a device for breast lesion localization, such as a clip, metallic pellet, wire, needle, or radioactive seeds. Use this code for the first lesion.",CPT +19282,Introduction Procedures on the Breast.,"In this add on procedure, the provider, under mammographic guidance, places a device for breast localization, such as a clip, metallic pellet, wire/needle, or radioactive seeds. The provider places the localization device at the same session that he places another device at an initial lesion.",CPT +19283,Introduction Procedures on the Breast.,"In this procedure, the provider, under stereotactic guidance, places a device for breast lesion localization, such as a clip, metallic pellet, wire/needle, or radioactive seeds. Use this code for the first lesion.",CPT +19284,Introduction Procedures on the Breast.,"In this add on procedure, the provider uses stereotactic guidance to place a device for breast localization, such as a clip, metallic pellet, wire/needle, or radioactive seeds, at an additional lesion. The provider places the localization device at the same session that he places another device at an initial lesion.",CPT +19285,Introduction Procedures on the Breast.,"In this procedure, the provider uses ultrasound guidance to place a device for breast lesion localization, such as a clip, metallic pellet, wire/needle, or radioactive seeds. Use this code for the first lesion.",CPT +19286,Introduction Procedures on the Breast.,"In this add on procedure, the provider uses ultrasound guidance to place a device for breast localization, such as a clip, metallic pellet, wire/needle, or radioactive seeds. The provider places the localization device at the same session that he places another device at an initial lesion.",CPT +19287,Introduction Procedures on the Breast.,"In this procedure, the provider uses magnetic resonance image guidance to place a device for breast lesion localization, such as a clip, metallic pellet, wire/needle, or radioactive seeds. Use this code for the first lesion.",CPT +19288,Introduction Procedures on the Breast.,"In this add on procedure, the provider uses magnetic resonance image guidance to place an additional device for breast localization, such as a clip, metallic pellet, wire/needle, or radioactive seeds. The provider places the localization device at the same session that he places another device at an initial lesion.",CPT +19294,Introduction Procedures on the Breast.,The provider prepares a tumor cavity for placement of a device that is used to deliver intraoperative radiation therapy (IORT) during the same session as a partial mastectomy.,CPT +19296,Introduction Procedures on the Breast.,"In this procedure, the provider, places a single or multichanneled expandable balloon catheter for radiotherapy treatment at the treatment site after partial mastectomy. He uses image guidance for the correct placement of the catheter.",CPT +19297,Introduction Procedures on the Breast.,"In this add on procedure, the provider inserts a single or multichanneled expandable balloon catheter for radiotherapy treatment at the same session as partial mastectomy. She uses image guidance for the correct placement of the catheter.",CPT +19298,Introduction Procedures on the Breast.,"In this procedure, the provider, places multiple tube and button type after loading brachytherapy catheters at the treatment site for radiotherapy treatment. He uses image guidance for the correct placement of the catheter. This service may take place at the same session as a partial mastectomy or at a later date.",CPT +19300,Mastectomy Procedures.,The provider excises the patient's breast to treat excessive enlargement of the male breast (gynecomastia).,CPT +19301,Mastectomy Procedures.,"The provider removes a lesion, including surrounding margins, or a significant portion (a segment or quadrant) of the breast without removing the entire breast or lymph nodes.",CPT +19302,Mastectomy Procedures.,"The provider removes a lesion, including surrounding margins, or a significant portion (a segment or quadrant) of the breast and removes axillary lymph nodes.",CPT +19303,Mastectomy Procedures.,"The provider removes the entire breast, nipples, and skin surrounding the nipple–areolar complex but leaves the pectoralis major and minor muscles and axillary nodes in place.",CPT +19305,Mastectomy Procedures.,"The provider removes the entire breast, nipples, skin surrounding the nipple–areolar complex, the pectoral (chest) muscles and axillary lymph nodes.",CPT +19306,Mastectomy Procedures.,"The provider removes the entire breast, nipples, skin surrounding the nipple–areolar complex, the pectoral (chest) muscles, and axillary and internal mammary lymph nodes.",CPT +19307,Mastectomy Procedures.,A mastectomy is the removal of the entire breast.,CPT +19316,Repair and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Breast.,"The provider performs a mastopexy, also called a breast lift, which may involve removing excess skin of the breast and tightening surrounding tissue.",CPT +19318,Repair and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Breast.,"Breast reduction is the removal of excess breast tissue which results from top scarring, calcification, or architectural distortion.",CPT +19325,Repair and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Breast.,"In this procedure, the provider increases the size and volume of the breast by placing a breast implant.",CPT +19328,Repair and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Breast.,This procedure is for the removal of a previously placed breast implant.,CPT +19330,Repair and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Breast.,Breast implant material is removed if there is an implant rupture.,CPT +19340,Repair and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Breast.,The physician immediately inserts a breast implant following a mastectomy (breast excision).,CPT +19342,Repair and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Breast.,"After some period of time following a mastectomy (breast excision), the provider performs another procedure to insert or replace a breast implant.",CPT +19350,Repair and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Breast.,"There are several techniques for nipple and areolar reconstruction.  The physician can perform nipple sharing, skate flap, C–v flap, or a local flap.",CPT +19355,Repair and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Breast.,"In this procedure, the provider corrects inverted nipples by releasing the ducts and fibers holding the nipples.",CPT +19357,Repair and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Breast.,"In this procedure, the provider places a tissue expander into the skin and pectoralis major muscles of the chest. The patient has the procedure to increase the size and volume of the breast to make space for a permanent implant, such as following a mastectomy. The provider performs the subsequent expansion portion of the procedure over a period of several weeks.",CPT +19361,Repair and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Breast.,"The provider artificially creates the contour of a breast with a flap of tissue and muscle harvested from behind the shoulder and sutured at the site of the breast to restore cosmetic appearance following a modified or radical mastectomy, or to repair a defect.",CPT +19364,Repair and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Breast.,"The provider artificially creates the contour of a breast by harvesting a free flap of skin and muscle and/or fat from another site such as the inner thigh, buttock, or lower abdomen and suturing it at the site of the breast to restore cosmetic appearance following a modified or radical mastectomy, or to repair a defect.",CPT +19367,Repair and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Breast.,"The provider artificially creates the contour of a breast by harvesting a flap of skin, fat, and transverse rectus abdominis muscle (TRAM) from the lower abdomen, leaving a small strip of vascularized tissue connected to the original site, and sutures the flap to the location of the original breast to restore cosmetic appearance following breast removal surgery or to repair a defect.",CPT +19368,Repair and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Breast.,"The provider artificially creates the contour of a breast by harvesting a flap of skin, fat, and transverse rectus abdominis muscle from the lower abdomen, leaving a small strip of vascularized tissue connected to the original site, sutures the flap to the location of the original breast, and connects the small vessels in the flap to the mastectomy site using microvascular technique to restore cosmetic appearance following breast removal surgery or to repair a defect.",CPT +19369,Repair and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Breast.,"The provider artificially creates the contour of a breast by harvesting a flap of skin, fat, and transverse rectus abdominis muscle from both sides of the lower abdomen, leaving two strips of vascularized tissue connected to the original site, and sutures the flap to the location of the original breast to restore cosmetic appearance following breast removal surgery or to repair a defect.",CPT +19370,Repair and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Breast.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically releases a capsule, or the scar tissue, that forms within the breast tissue around a previous implant. The provider performs this procedure to relieve pain from the contraction of the scar tissue or to address malpositioning of the breast implant.",CPT +19371,Repair and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Breast.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically releases a capsule, or scar tissue, that forms within the breast tissue around a previous implant. He also removes all intracapsular contents such as tissues and fibrous scar.",CPT +19380,Repair and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Breast.,Breast revision is performed to improve unacceptable cosmetic appearance or other complication.,CPT +19396,Repair and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Breast.,"The provider makes a mold, or a model that closely configures to a mastectomy patient’s remaining breast. He performs this procedure to create a customized breast implant that includes identification of any chest wall or other deformity to ensure a good reconstruction.",CPT +19499,Other Procedures on the Breast.,Use this code to report a procedure on the breast for which there is no specific code available.,CPT +20100,"Wound Exploration-Trauma (eg, Penetrating Gunshot, Stab Wound) Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.","The provider explores a penetrating wound in the neck, such as from a sharp object or gunshot, to assess and repair internal damage and remove any foreign material retained in the wound.",CPT +20101,"Wound Exploration-Trauma (eg, Penetrating Gunshot, Stab Wound) Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.","The provider carefully examines the inside of a penetrating chest wound to assess the extent of damage to underlying tissues and structures as well as to identify and remove any foreign bodies that may have entered the wound, such as bullet fragments or a knife tip. In the case of a gunshot wound, a bullet may enter the body at one point and exit at another, causing perforation and damage to internal organs and tissues along its path.",CPT +20102,"Wound Exploration-Trauma (eg, Penetrating Gunshot, Stab Wound) Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.","The provider carefully examines the inside of a penetrating wound of the abdomen, flank, or back to assess the extent of damage to underlying tissues and structures as well as to identify and remove any foreign bodies that may have entered the wound, such as bullet fragments or a knife tip. In the case of a gunshot wound, a bullet may enter the body at one point and exit at another, causing perforation and damage to internal organs and tissues along its path.",CPT +20103,"Wound Exploration-Trauma (eg, Penetrating Gunshot, Stab Wound) Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.","The provider carefully examines the inside of a penetrating wound to an extremity to assess the extent of damage to underlying tissues and structures as well as to identify and remove any foreign bodies that may have entered the wound, such as bullet fragments or a knife tip. In the case of a gunshot wound, a bullet may enter the body at one point and exit at another, causing perforation and damage to tissues along its path.",CPT +20150,General Excision Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The epiphyseal bar, or physis bar, refers to a deformity of the long bones that a fracture, injury, or infection cause. It leads to fusion of the epiphysis to metaphysis and results in premature arrest, or stoppage, of bone growth. By excising the epiphyseal bar and replacing it with autogenous fat tissue, the provider can restore the process of bone growth.",CPT +20200,General Excision Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,A muscle biopsy is a surgical procedure to obtain sample of superficial muscle tissue to further analyze a suspected medical condition or infection. Superficial muscle tissue is just below the surface of the skin or fascia.,CPT +20205,General Excision Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,A muscle biopsy is a procedure to obtain sample of deep muscle tissue to further analyze a suspected medical condition or infection. Deep muscle tissue is well below the fascia or beneath other muscles or bones.,CPT +20206,General Excision Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,A percutaneous needle muscle biopsy is a surgical procedure to obtain a sample of muscle tissue to further analyze a suspected medical condition or infection.,CPT +20220,General Excision Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,A superficial bone biopsy is a procedure to obtain a sample of bone tissue to further analyze a suspected medical condition or infection.,CPT +20225,General Excision Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider extracts samples of bone tissue from a bone in the deep tissue, such as a back bone or thigh bone, using a needle or trocar. He submits the specimen for laboratory analysis to determine the presence of bone disease.",CPT +20240,General Excision Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"An open, superficial bone biopsy is a procedure to obtain a sample of bone tissue to further analyze a suspected medical condition or infection.",CPT +20245,General Excision Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"An open bone biopsy is a procedure to obtain sample bone tissue, typically from a lesion, to further analyze a suspected medical condition or infection.",CPT +20250,General Excision Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"Open biopsy of the vertebral body of the thoracic spine is a procedure done to a obtain tissue samples for diagnostic study of suspected disease conditions, such as a malignancy or an infection, like osteomyelitis.",CPT +20251,General Excision Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"Open biopsy of the vertebral body of the lumbar or cervical spine is a procedure done to a obtain tissue samples, typically from a lesion, for diagnostic study of suspected disease conditions, such as a malignancy or an infection, like osteomyelitis.",CPT +20500,General Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider injects a therapeutic agent, such as an antibiotic, into a sinus tract that connects an abscess in the body to the skin. The provider may use  imaging guidance  to visualize  the procedure.",CPT +20501,General Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider injects a diagnostic agent, such as contrast material, into a sinus tract that connects an abscess in the body to the skin. The provider may use imaging guidance to visualize the procedure. The procedure helps to identify and locate the extent of inflammation, abscess, cyst, or lesion.",CPT +20520,General Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider removes a foreign body, such as a thorn, wood particle, bullet, or gravel, lodged in the muscle or tendon sheath through a surgical incision at the site to relieve swelling, pain, and difficulty in movement of the body part.",CPT +20525,General Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider removes a foreign body, such as a thorn, wood particle, bullet, or gravel, lodged deeply in the muscle or tendon sheath through a surgical incision at the site to relieve swelling, pain, and difficulty in movement of the body part.",CPT +20526,General Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider injects medication into the carpal tunnel to provide short term relief of symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome, or CTS. CTS is a condition where the patient experiences pain, numbness, and tingling affecting the fingers and hand, resulting from compression of the median nerve within the carpal tunnel.",CPT +20527,General Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider injects an enzyme, such as collagenase, into the palmar fascial cord as a therapeutic medical procedure to dissolve an abnormal tissue knot of the palmar fascia, or Dupuytren's contracture.",CPT +20550,General Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,Aponeurosis is an abnormal sheet like extension of the tendon. Injection of a tendon or ligament is the medical therapeutic procedure to reduce the aponeurosis formation.,CPT +20551,General Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider injects a drug into the origin or insertion site of a tendon to relieve pain, inflammation, and swelling from a diseased or damaged tendon.",CPT +20552,General Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"Trigger point injection, or TPI, is a medical procedure that involves injecting an anesthetic or corticosteroid substance to relieve a trigger point, which is a painful area or knot in a muscle.",CPT +20553,General Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"Trigger point injection, or TPI, is a medical procedure in which the provider injects an anesthetic or corticosteroid substance into three or more muscles to relieve painful areas or knots in muscles that form when muscles don’t relax.",CPT +20555,General Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"Interstitial radioelement application, an effective radiotherapy procedure also known as brachytherapy, treats certain types of cancers, such as cancers of the prostate, cervix, and breast. The provider inserts small tubes into which radioactive seeds are inserted immediately or at a subsequent encounter. The seeds emit radiation that damages or destroys cancerous cells.",CPT +20560,General Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider, typically a physical therapist, inserts a needle, without medication, into a trigger point of 1 or 2 muscles to help relieve pain.",CPT +20561,General Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider, typically a physical therapist, inserts a needle, without medication, into a trigger point in 3 or more muscles to help relieve pain.",CPT +20600,General Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts a needle through the skin of a patient and into a small joint or bursa and then uses the syringe attachment to the needle to remove fluid or he may inject a drug into the joint for therapeutic purpose. He performs this procedure without using ultrasound guidance.",CPT +20604,General Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts a needle through the skin of a patient and into a small joint or bursa, typically the fingers or toes, and then uses the syringe attachment to the needle to remove fluid or he may inject a drug into the joint for therapeutic purpose. The provider also uses ultrasound guidance with permanent recording and reporting to perform this service. Arthrocentesis relieves pain and swelling but is also a diagnostic aid, allowing the provider to examine the fluid in the joint, called synovial fluid, for the presence of infection or inflammation.",CPT +20605,General Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts a needle through the skin of a patient and into an intermediate joint or bursa and then uses the syringe attachment to the needle to remove fluid or he may inject a drug into the joint for therapeutic purposes. He performs this procedure without using ultrasound guidance.",CPT +20606,General Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts a needle through the skin of a patient and into an intermediate joint or bursa, typically the temporomandibular, acromioclavicular, wrist, elbow, ankle, or olecranon bursa and then uses the syringe attachment to the needle to remove fluid or he may inject a drug into the joint for therapeutic purposes.  The provider also uses ultrasound guidance with permanent recording and reporting to perform this service. Arthrocentesis relieves pain and swelling but is also a diagnostic aid, allowing the provider to examine the fluid in the joint, called synovial fluid, for the presence of infection or inflammation.",CPT +20610,General Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts a needle through the skin of a patient and into a major joint or bursa and then uses the syringe attachment to the needle to remove fluid or he may inject a drug into the joint for therapeutic purpose. He performs this procedure without using ultrasound guidance.",CPT +20611,General Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts a needle through the skin of a patient and into a major joint or bursa, typically the shoulder, hip, knee, or subacromial bursa, and then uses the syringe attachment to the needle to remove fluid or he may inject a drug into the joint for therapeutic purposes. The provider also uses ultrasound guidance with permanent recording and reporting to perform this service. Arthrocentesis relieves pain and swelling but is also a diagnostic aid, allowing the provider to examine the fluid in the joint, called synovial fluid, for the presence of infection or inflammation.",CPT +20612,General Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"A ganglion cyst is an abnormal fluid filled mass, or lump, arising from a tendon or joint, commonly occurring in the hand or wrist but can occur in the foot or ankle. Treatment is not required for a ganglion cyst unless it causes pain or restricts movement. Nonsurgical treatment includes aspiration to remove the fluid from the cyst or injection with a substance that destroys the cyst.",CPT +20615,General Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"A bone cyst is a common, benign, fluid filled sac, usually occurring in the metaphysis of long bones. A bone cyst can contain purulent material or clear fluid. Nonsurgical treatment of a bone cyst includes aspiration to remove the fluid from the cyst and injection with a substance that destroys the cyst.",CPT +20650,General Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"Skeletal traction applies a pulling force on bones to treat skeletal disorders and fractures. It aligns and immobilizes bones, while relieving pressure on the muscles and nerves. This allows normal healing of a defect or fracture. Skeletal traction requires the insertion of pins, screws, or wires through the skin and bone and the attachment of weights to the traction device to produce the desired amount of pulling force. This service also includes removal of the traction device.",CPT +20660,General Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"Cranial tongs, calipers, or stereotactic frames are devices that apply traction force to the cervical spine for treatment of cervical spine fractures, dislocations, or spinal cord injuries. These devices also help in maintaining proper alignment of the spine during diagnostic or therapeutic procedures, such as spinal surgery or a magnetic resonance imaging, or MRI procedure. This service includes applying the traction force and removing it.",CPT +20661,General Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,A cranial halo is a ring shaped device on the head that applies a traction force to the skull to stabilize the cervical spine in patients with cervical injuries or fractures. A plastic vest the patient wears attaches to the cranial halo and provides further immobilization. This service also includes removal of the halo.,CPT +20662,General Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"Halo pelvic fixation uses traction force for correction of spinal curvature or dislocation, such as lumbosacral spondylolisthesis, scoliosis, or tuberculous kyphosis, as well as for immobilizing the spine. The pelvic halo consists of a pelvic hoop with two pins, a skull halo, and four vertical threaded bars that connect the pelvic hoop and the skull halo. This service also includes removal of the pelvic halo.",CPT +20663,General Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"Halo femoral traction is an effective procedure for treating spinal deformities, particularly scoliosis, an abnormal curvature of the spine. The provider affixes halo rings  to the femoral bones through threaded pins inserted near the bone ends. This service also includes removal of the halo.",CPT +20664,General Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,Providers apply a cranial halo to correct a deformity or injury to the cervical spine in a patient with an abnormal skull shape. The procedure requires the use of six more pins to secure the halo ring with significantly less force applied to the pins to avoid damage to the skull or nervous system. The patient also wears a vest that attaches to the halo for further stabilization.,CPT +20665,General Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider removes tongs or a halo that another provider applied. Halos and tongs apply traction, or pulling force, to correct a spinal deformity, such as scoliosis, an abnormal rightward or leftward curvature of the spine. A halo is a ring shaped device made of steel, and a tong is a U shaped device. The provider applies weighted traction to the halo or tong over time until proper alignment of the bones is achieved. The provider then removes the halo or tongs.",CPT +20670,General Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"Skeletal deformities or injuries such as fractures often require the use of skeletal fixation devices, like pins, rods, or wires, to join skeletal parts and maintain their normal alignment as healing takes place. Once the defect has healed, the provider then removes the implant.",CPT +20680,General Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"Skeletal deformities or injuries such as fractures often require the use of skeletal fixation devices, like pins, rods, wires, bands, or plates, to join skeletal parts and maintain their normal alignment as healing takes place. Once the defect has healed, the provider then removes the implant.",CPT +20690,General Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider applies a uniplane external fixation on one side of the body. Skeletal deformities or injuries such as fractures often require the use of skeletal fixation devices to join skeletal parts and maintain their normal alignment as healing takes place. An external fixation system, also called an external fixator or ex fix, is a fixation device that is placed inside of bones, and the device itself remains outside of the body. It enables the provider to make adjustments to the fixation externally and eliminates the need for additional invasive procedures.",CPT +20692,General Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider applies a multiplane external fixation system to one side of the patient's body. Skeletal deformities or injuries such as fractures often require the use of skeletal fixation devices to join skeletal parts and maintain their normal alignment as healing takes place. An external fixation system, also called an external fixator or ex fix, is a fixation device that is placed inside of bones, and the device itself remains outside of the body. It enables the provider to make adjustments to the fixation externally and eliminates the need for additional invasive procedures.",CPT +20693,General Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider adjusts an external fixation system while the patient is under anesthesia. Skeletal fixation devices, such as an external fixation, or ex fit, system, a fixation device that is placed inside of bones, and the device itself remains outside of the body, are used to join two skeletal parts and maintain their normal alignment while helping in faster healing. Postoperative adjustment or revision of the external fixation component may be required to treat postoperative complications, improper healing of fractured bone, or mechanical failure or malfunctioning of the fixator device.",CPT +20694,General Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider removes an external fixation system while the patient is under anesthesia. Skeletal fixation devices are used to join two skeletal parts and maintain their normal alignment while helping in faster healing. An external fixation system, also called an external fixator or ex fix, is a fixation device that is placed inside of bones, and the device itself remains outside of the body, It enables the provider to make adjustments to the fixation externally and eliminates the need for invasive procedures. Once the defect has healed, the provider removes the external fixation system and any associated implants.",CPT +20696,General Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"Skeletal deformities or injuries such as fractures may need skeletal fixation devices for repair. Skeletal fixation devices, like pins, rods, or wires, are used to join two skeletal parts and maintain their normal alignment while helping in faster healing. Computer assisted stereotactic guidance is the methodology used to exactly locate and plan the external fixation approach.",CPT +20697,General Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"Skeletal deformities or injuries such as fractures may need skeletal fixation devices for repair. Skeletal fixation devices, like pins, rods, or wires, are used to join two skeletal parts and maintain their normal alignment while helping in faster healing. Computer assisted stereotactic guidance is the methodology used to exactly locate and plan the external fixation approach.",CPT +20700,General Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,The provider manually prepares a drug delivery device for deep insertion into the subfascial tissues and creates the necessary incisions and pocket for insertion of the device as part of a separate primary procedure. Report this code in addition to the code for the primary procedure.,CPT +20701,General Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,The provider removes a previously placed drug delivery device from subfascial tissues and closes the incision in layers as part of a separate primary procedure. Report this code in addition to the code for the primary procedure.,CPT +20702,General Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,The provider manually prepares a drug delivery device for insertion into the intramedullary canal of a bone and inserts the device as part of a separately reported primary procedure. Report this code in addition to the code for the primary procedure.,CPT +20703,General Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,The provider removes a previously inserted intramedullary drug delivery device from the bone marrow canal of a bone as part of a primary procedure. Report this code in addition to the code for the primary procedure.,CPT +20704,General Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,The provider manually prepares a drug delivery device and inserts the device into a joint as part of a separately reported primary procedure. Report this code in addition to the code for the primary procedure.,CPT +20705,General Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,The provider manually removes an intra–articular drug delivery device from a joint as part of a separately reported primary procedure. Report this code in addition to the code for the primary procedure.,CPT +20802,General Replantation Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider replants, or surgically reattaches, the arm after complete amputation. This is a major, i.e., open, invasive medical procedure to reattach the amputated, or severed, arm.",CPT +20805,General Replantation Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The replantation of a forearm after complete amputation is a major, or open, invasive medical procedure to reattach the amputated body part at the relevant body area.",CPT +20808,General Replantation Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The replantation of a hand after complete amputation is a major, or open, invasive medical procedure to reattach the amputated body part at the relevant body area.",CPT +20816,General Replantation Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The replantation of a digit, or finger, excluding the thumb, after complete amputation is a major, or open, invasive medical procedure to reattach the amputated body part at the relevant body area.",CPT +20822,General Replantation Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The replantation of a digit, or finger, excluding the thumb, after complete amputation is a major, or open, invasive medical procedure to reattach the amputated body part at the relevant body area.",CPT +20824,General Replantation Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The replantation of a thumb after complete amputation is a major, or open, invasive medical procedure to reattach the amputated body part at the relevant body area.",CPT +20827,General Replantation Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider reattaches, or replants, the thumb after complete amputation, which is a major, or open, invasive medical procedure to reattach the amputated thumb.",CPT +20838,General Replantation Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"Replantation is the reattachment of a body part, such as the foot, that has been amputated, or severed, from a person's body.",CPT +20900,General Grafts (or Implants) Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"A bone graft restores structural integrity and natural osseous, or bony, tissue to the site of a bony defect, which increases its strength so it will last over a period of time. The provider generally obtains a bone graft from the iliac crest or ribs; however, the preferred site is the fibula because of its versatility, shape, size, and strength.",CPT +20902,General Grafts (or Implants) Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"A bone graft restores structural integrity and natural osseous, or bony, tissue to the site of a bony defect, which increases its strength so it will last over a period of time. The provider generally obtains a bone graft from the iliac crest or ribs; however, the preferred site is the fibula because of its versatility, shape, size, and strength.",CPT +20910,General Grafts (or Implants) Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"Cartilage grafting is a procedure to obtain a cartilage graft from a donor area to fill a larger defect of other cartilage or bones like the temporomandibular joint. A provider uses a costochondral, or rib, cartilage graft in the reconstruction of facial defects, including those of the nose and temporomandibular joint, and in repair of the trachea.",CPT +20912,General Grafts (or Implants) Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"Cartilage grafting is a procedure to obtain a cartilage graft from a donor area to fill a larger defect of other cartilage or bones like the temporomandibular joint. Providers use cartilage grafts harvested from the nasal septum in reconstruction of the nose, or revision rhinoplasty, and larynx, following hemilaryngectomy, taking care to avoid any cosmetic or functional disorder following the cartilage harvest.",CPT +20920,General Grafts (or Implants) Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The fascia lata, the deep fascia of the thigh, is a good source of fascial graft for repairing ruptured tendons, e.g., Achilles tendon, chest wall defects, eyelid and orbital defects, and for treatment of fecal incontinence through unilateral gluteoplasty. The provider uses a stripper device to obtain the graft.",CPT +20922,General Grafts (or Implants) Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The fascia lata, the deep fascia of the thigh, is a good source of fascial graft for repairing ruptured tendons, e.g., Achilles tendon, chest wall defects, or eyelid and orbital defects, and for treatment of fecal incontinence through unilateral gluteoplasty. The provider harvests complex or larger sheet grafts through an open excision procedure.",CPT +20924,General Grafts (or Implants) Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"A provider repairs damage to tendons and ligaments by harvesting graft material from tendons elsewhere in the patient’s body, such as the palmaris tendon in the palm of the hand, the toe extensor tendon in the toes of the feet, or the plantaris tendon in the ankle.",CPT +20930,General Grafts (or Implants) Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,The provider applies small pieces of donor or synthetic bone graft material during a spinal surgery to encourage bone growth during the healing period.,CPT +20931,General Grafts (or Implants) Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"A provider uses a structural allograft, a type of donor bone, to fill in bony defects as she performs a spinal surgery procedure.",CPT +20932,General Grafts (or Implants) Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"During a primary orthopedic operative procedure, the provider places a donor bone graft, including joint cartilage, and other soft tissues, typically to fill a defect such as that caused by excision of a large bone tumor involving joint cartilage/tendons and adjacent bone. This procedure is an add–on procedure and includes designing a template, cutting and shaping the donor tissue to fit the template, placing the graft and fixing it to the joint connective tissues and bone.",CPT +20933,General Grafts (or Implants) Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider uses an allograft to fill in a defect in a portion of the cortex (outer covering) of a long bone between joints. This procedure is an add–on procedure and includes designing a template, cutting and shaping the donor tissue to fit the template, placing the graft, and fixing it to the bone",CPT +20934,General Grafts (or Implants) Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider uses an allograft to fill in a defect in the cortex (outer covering) completely encircling a long bone between joints. This procedure is an add–on procedure and includes designing a template, cutting and shaping the donor tissue to fit the template, placing the graft, and fixing it to the bone.",CPT +20936,General Grafts (or Implants) Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"A provider uses an autograft, a type of donor bone, to fill in bony defects as she performs a spinal surgery procedure. She extracts the autograft from the patient’s own bone, taken from the same surgical incision.",CPT +20937,General Grafts (or Implants) Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider uses an autograft, a type of donor bone, to fill in bony defects as she performs a spinal surgery procedure. She extracts the autograft from the patient’s own body during the surgical procedure, through a separate incision.",CPT +20938,General Grafts (or Implants) Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider uses an autograft, a type of donor bone, to fill in bony defects as she performs a spinal surgery procedure. She extracts the autograft from the patient's own body during the surgical procedure, through a separate incision.",CPT +20939,General Grafts (or Implants) Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider harvests bone marrow, the spongy tissue inside the large bones; as donor material to fill in bony defects in the spine. The provider aspirates the bone marrow during the same session as spine surgery but through a separate skin or fascial incision.",CPT +20950,Other Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider measures interstitial fluid pressure to check for the presence of compartment syndrome, an abnormal buildup of fluid in the tissues within a muscle compartment, a space partitioned by a layer of fascia, which can occur following injury, surgery, or repetitive muscle use. Increasing fluid pressure within a muscle compartment compresses small blood vessels and nerves, requiring immediate attention to avoid permanent tissue damage.",CPT +20955,Other Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"A provider obtains bone graft material from the fibula along with its active vascular supply, arteries and veins, to fill a major bone defect at the recipient site along with the regained vascular supply. The regained vascular supply promotes faster healing and growth at the recipient site.",CPT +20956,Other Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider harvests bone graft material, along with its attached vascular supply, from the hip bone. With the aid of an operative microscope, he reconnects the vascular supply at the recipient site to promote faster healing where bone was missing or damaged due to injury or disease.",CPT +20957,Other Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"A provider obtains bone graft material from metatarsal bone along with its active vascular supply, arteries and veins, to fill a major bone defect at the recipient site along with the regained vascular supply. The regained vascular supply promotes faster healing and growth at the recipient site.",CPT +20962,Other Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"A provider obtains bone graft material from an area other than the fibula, iliac crest, or metatarsal bones, along with its active vascular supply, arteries and veins, to fill a major bone defect at the recipient site along with the regained vascular supply. The regained vascular supply promotes faster healing and growth at the recipient site.",CPT +20969,Other Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider harvests bone graft material, along with its active vascular supply, arteries and veins, and an attached layer of cutaneous tissue, or skin, to fill a bony defect at the recipient site and to compensate for soft tissue loss due to trauma or disease.",CPT +20970,Other Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider harvests bone graft material from the iliac crest, along with its active vascular supply and an attached layer of cutaneous tissue, or skin, to fill a bony defect at the recipient site and to compensate for soft tissue loss due to trauma or disease.",CPT +20972,Other Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider harvests bone graft material from a metatarsal bone, along with its active vascular supply and an attached layer of cutaneous tissue, or skin, to fill a bony defect at the recipient site and to compensate for soft tissue loss due to trauma or disease.",CPT +20973,Other Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider harvests bone graft material from the great toe, along with its active vascular supply and an attached layer of cutaneous tissue, or skin, to fill a bony defect at the recipient site and to compensate for soft tissue loss due to trauma or disease.",CPT +20974,Other Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,The provider places a device that emits electrical impulses at the site of a broken bone to promote bone healing.,CPT +20975,Other Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,The provider surgically implants a device that emits electrical impulses at the site of a broken bone to promote bone healing.,CPT +20979,Other Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,The provider administers low–intensity ultrasound stimulation at the site of a broken bone to promote bone healing.,CPT +20982,Other Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"In this procedure, the provider uses radiofrequency ablation, a type of heat energy, that he applies percutaneously, or through the skin, to destroy one or more metastatic bone tumors. He also destroys the adjacent soft tissue affected by the tumor and may or may not use imaging guidance to help identify and target the diseased tissue, and to visualize and control the treatment of the tumor during the procedure.",CPT +20983,Other Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"In this procedure, the provider uses cryoablation, or cryo energy, an extremely cold energy probe that he applies percutaneously, or through the skin, to destroy one or more metastatic bone tumors. He also destroys the adjacent soft tissues which are affected by the tumor, and he may or may not use imaging guidance to help identify and target the diseased tissue, and to visualize and control the treatment of the tumor during the procedure.",CPT +20985,Other Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"A provider using a computer assisted navigation system, or CANS, performs musculoskeletal procedures, such as a joint replacement surgery, with the aid of a computer screen that provides a three–dimensional digital image of the patient’s anatomy. With the use of a CANS, the provider makes more accurate measurements, ensuring better fitting surgical components, with faster healing and less postoperative pain for patients. An imageless CANS does not require the use of preoperative imaging studies, such as computed tomography, or CT scanning.",CPT +20999,Other Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,Use to report procedures in the musculoskeletal system that do not have a specific code.,CPT +21010,Incision Procedures on the Head.,"The provider incises, or cuts into, the temporomandibular joint on one side of the jaw, to facilitate inspection of the joint for the presence of adhesions, infection, tumors, or other conditions, including temporomandibular joint disorder. He performs minor debridement and irrigation, as required.",CPT +21011,Excision Procedures on the Head.,"During a soft tissue tumor excision, the physician removes a small tumor (less than 2 cm) from the patient's face or scalp directly under the skin.",CPT +21012,Excision Procedures on the Head.,"An abnormal growth of tissue that results in a lump or bump on the face or scalp is a soft tissue tumor. Although a soft tissue tumor is usually benign, the provider excises the tumor and submits it for laboratory analysis to rule out a cancerous condition.",CPT +21013,Excision Procedures on the Head.,"An abnormal growth of tissue that results in a lump or bump on the face or scalp is a soft tissue tumor. Although a soft tissue tumor is usually benign, the provider excises the tumor and submits it for laboratory analysis to rule out a cancerous condition.",CPT +21014,Excision Procedures on the Head.,"An abnormal growth of tissue that results in a lump or bump on the face or scalp is a soft tissue tumor. Although a soft tissue tumor is usually benign, the provider excises the tumor and submits it for laboratory analysis to rule out a cancerous condition.",CPT +21015,Excision Procedures on the Head.,"The provider excises a small tumor, or abnormal mass, from the face or scalp, in a radical, or extensive resection procedure to ensure the tumor has not spread to the surrounding area. He performs a radical resection when the tumor is known or suspected to be malignant, or cancerous.",CPT +21016,Excision Procedures on the Head.,"The provider performs an excision procedure for a soft tissue malignant tumor, such as a sarcoma, from the face or scalp. The excision of the tumor is performed in an extensive manner, not being limited to the dimensions of the tumor itself but expanding to its surrounding area/anatomical structures suspected for involvement. The diameter of the tumor and the margins required measure 2cm or more.",CPT +21025,Excision Procedures on the Head.,"In mandibular osteomyelitis, the mandible, or lower jaw bone, and its surrounding soft tissue become inflamed due to a bacterial infection, such as Staphylococcus aureus, which may have spread from an infected tooth. An abscess cavity, or pocket of infection, in the bone may result. The provider cleans the area and removes infected or dead bone tissue to control the infection and prevent further spread.",CPT +21026,Excision Procedures on the Head.,"In osteomyelitis, the facial bones and surrounding soft tissue become inflamed due to a bacterial infection, such as Staphylococcus aureus, which may have spread from an infected tooth. An abscess cavity, or pocket of infection, in the bone may also be present. The provider excises the diseased bone to control the infection and prevent further spread.",CPT +21029,Excision Procedures on the Head.,"Removal of a benign, or noncancerous, tumor by contouring is a major invasive procedure used to treat severe congenital bone abnormalities, like fibrous dysplasia, a condition in which normal bone growth is disrupted by abnormal embedded fibrous tissue, resulting in abnormal shape of the bone and surrounding soft tissues. The provider removes the abnormal tissue by surgically contouring, or reshaping, it.",CPT +21030,Excision Procedures on the Head.,"A provider removes benign, or noncancerous, tumors of the upper jaw and cheekbone by enucleation and or curettage. Enucleation is the process of removal of an entire tumor as a single mass. Curettage refers to removal of diseased tissue through scraping, using a tool called a curette.",CPT +21031,Excision Procedures on the Head.,"Torus mandibularis is abnormal bone growth with resulting protrusion of the mandible, or lower jaw bone, near the side of the tongue. The provider excises the torus mandibularis to remove the abnormal bone growth of the mandible.",CPT +21032,Excision Procedures on the Head.,"Torus palatinus is an abnormal bone growth, or protrusion, of the hard palate, or roof of the mouth, near the intermaxillary line. The provider excises the torus palatinus to remove the abnormal bone growth of the hard palate.",CPT +21034,Excision Procedures on the Head.,"A malignant, or cancerous, tumor of the maxilla, the upper jaw bone, or zygoma, the cheekbone, is removed in an open surgical procedure. The provider may use either an intraoral approach, through the mouth, or an extraoral approach, through the skin.",CPT +21040,Excision Procedures on the Head.,"Benign, or noncancerous, tumors of the mandible, the bone of the lower jaw, are removed by enucleation and or curettage. Enucleation is the process of removal of an entire tumor as a single mass. Curettage refers to removal of diseased tissue through scraping using a tool called a curette.",CPT +21044,Excision Procedures on the Head.,"A malignant, or cancerous, tumor of the mandible, or lower jaw bone, is removed in an open surgical procedure. The provider may use either an intraoral approach, through the mouth, or an extraoral approach, through the skin.",CPT +21045,Excision Procedures on the Head.,"A malignant, or cancerous, tumor of the mandible, or lower jaw bone, is removed in an open surgical procedure. The provider may use either an intraoral approach, through the mouth, or an extraoral approach, through the skin. For an extensive tumor, he performs radical dissection, surgically removing the blood supply and lymph system surrounding the tumor for laboratory analysis.",CPT +21046,Excision Procedures on the Head.,"A cyst or other benign, or noncancerous, tumor of the mandible, or lower jaw bone, is removed in an open surgical procedure. The provider may use either an intraoral approach, through the mouth, or an extraoral approach, through the skin. For an aggressive, or fast growing, tumor, he performs intraoral osteotomy, cutting into bone to completely excise the tumor.",CPT +21047,Excision Procedures on the Head.,"The provider excises a benign, or noncancerous, mass of the mandible, or lower jaw bone, such as a tumor or cyst. Due to the aggressive growth or destructive nature of the mass, the provider removes a portion of the lower jaw. He uses an extraoral approach, accessing the jaw through an incision in the skin of the face or neck.",CPT +21048,Excision Procedures on the Head.,"A benign, or noncancerous, tumor of the maxilla, the upper jaw bone, is removed in an open surgical procedure. The provider performs an intraoral osteotomy, cutting into the maxillary bone, to remove a fast growing or destructive tumor.",CPT +21049,Excision Procedures on the Head.,"A benign, or noncancerous, tumor of the maxilla, the upper jaw bone, is removed in an open surgical procedure. The provider performs an extraoral osteotomy, cutting into the maxillary bone, and a partial maxillectomy to remove a fast growing or destructive tumor.",CPT +21050,Excision Procedures on the Head.,"A provider performs a condylectomy, or surgical excision of the rounded ends of the mandible, or lower jaw bone, where they connect to the temporomandibular joint (TMJ) to treat dislocated or diseased condyles that interfere with movement of the joint or cause pain.",CPT +21060,Excision Procedures on the Head.,"A provider performs a partial or complete meniscectomy, an open surgical procedure to remove the meniscus of the temporomandibular joint (TMJ), to treat a meniscal tear, injury, ankylosis, arthritis, etc.",CPT +21070,Excision Procedures on the Head.,"A provider performs a partial or complete coronoidectomy, an open surgical procedure to remove the coronoid process of the mandible, or lower jaw bone, to treat injury, ankylosis, arthritis, etc.",CPT +21073,Manipulation Procedures of Head.,"A provider performs temporomandibular joint, or TMJ, manipulation to relieve pain and restore movement and flexibility from disorders of the TMJ . The provider anesthetizes the patient to reduce muscle tone and protective reflex mechanisms so that the joint can be manipulated effectively.",CPT +21076,Prosthesis-Impression and Custom Preparation.,"A surgical obturator prosthesis is a specially molded device used to block a surgically created opening, such as from removal of the palate, the roof of the mouth. The provider applies a substance that conforms to the patient’s intraoral structures in order to form an impression, or negative imprint, from which a mold will be built. A prosthesis to replace a palate, for example, restores the ability of the patient to speak and swallow.",CPT +21077,Prosthesis-Impression and Custom Preparation.,"An orbital prosthesis is an artificial implant made to fill the empty socket following the removal of an eye. The provider applies a substance that conforms to the patient’s orbital structure in order to form an impression, or negative imprint, from which a mold will be built. The final prosthesis restores the patient’s cosmetic appearance.",CPT +21079,Prosthesis-Impression and Custom Preparation.,"An interim obturator prosthesis is a temporary prosthetic implant used to close the cavity created in the mouth after surgical resection of a part or the whole of maxilla, or upper jaw bone. The provider applies a substance that conforms to the patient’s intraoral structures in order to form an impression, or negative imprint, from which a mold will be built.",CPT +21080,Prosthesis-Impression and Custom Preparation.,"The provider fabricates an obturator prosthesis by taking an impression, or negative imprint, of the patient's oral cavity. A definitive obturator prosthesis replaces an interim obturator prosthesis used to close a cavity created in the mouth after a partial or complete surgical resection of the maxilla, or upper jaw bone.",CPT +21081,Prosthesis-Impression and Custom Preparation.,"The provider fabricates a mandibular resection prosthesis by taking an impression, or negative imprint, of the patient's oral cavity. A mandibular resection prosthesis, a prosthetic device, aids in reforming the jaw during the healing process after a complex surgical resection of the mandible.",CPT +21082,Prosthesis-Impression and Custom Preparation.,"The provider prepares a custom palatal augmentation prosthesis to aid in reshaping of the hard palate, or roof of the mouth. Use of the prosthesis improves tongue and palate contact during speech and swallowing in patients with impaired tongue mobility. He prepares the prosthesis by taking an impression, or negative imprint, and building a mold.",CPT +21083,Prosthesis-Impression and Custom Preparation.,"The provider fabricates a palatal lift prosthesis by taking an impression, or negative imprint, of the patient's oral cavity. The palatal lift prosthesis, a removable device, aids in velopharyngeal closure by elevating an incompetent soft palate that is dysfunctional due to clefting, surgery, trauma, or paralysis.",CPT +21084,Prosthesis-Impression and Custom Preparation.,"The provider fabricates a speech aid prosthesis by taking an impression, or negative imprint, of the patient's oral cavity. A speech aid prosthesis, a removable device, aids in restoring soft palate defects. A portion of the prosthesis extends into the throat to separate the oropharynx and nasopharynx during swallowing and speech.",CPT +21085,Prosthesis-Impression and Custom Preparation.,"The provider fabricates an oral surgical splint to match the patient’s facial contours by taking an impression, or negative imprint, of the patient's face. An oral surgical splint supports a patient’s facial structures in orthognathic reconstruction, or surgical repositioning of the jaws, and in other oral surgeries, such as when the mandible, or lower jaw, has been removed due to trauma or ablative surgery.",CPT +21086,Prosthesis-Impression and Custom Preparation.,"The provider fabricates an auricular prosthesis by taking an impression, or negative imprint, of the patient's ear. An auricular prosthesis replaces an ear that is partially or totally missing due to surgery, trauma, or a congenital defect.",CPT +21087,Prosthesis-Impression and Custom Preparation.,"The provider fabricates a nasal prosthesis by taking an impression, or negative imprint, of the patient's nasal area. A nasal prosthesis replaces a patient's nose that is partially or totally missing due to surgery, trauma, or a congenital defect.",CPT +21088,Prosthesis-Impression and Custom Preparation.,"The provider fabricates a facial prosthesis by taking an impression, or negative imprint, of the patient's face. A facial prosthesis restores the normal look of the face after any part of the face has been deformed or lost following surgery or trauma.",CPT +21089,Other Maxillofacial Prosthetic Procedures.,Use to report maxillofacial prosthetic procedures that do not have a specific code.,CPT +21100,Introduction Procedures on the Head.,"A provider applies a halo type appliance to treat maxillofacial defects, which may be congenital in nature or acquired, resulting from trauma, bone growth disturbance, maxillary, or mandibular neoplastic or degenerative processes. The appliance allows for gradual skeletal lengthening and advancement, enabling the skin and soft tissue envelope to adapt to and accommodate the skeletal movement.",CPT +21110,Introduction Procedures on the Head.,"A provider applies an interdental fixation device to treat conditions like obstructive sleep apnea. In maxillary mandibular advancement, or MMA, surgery, or repositioning of the upper and lower jaws, the surgeon may place upper and lower arch bars to promote stability of the area while a patient is healing.",CPT +21116,Introduction Procedures on the Head.,The provider injects contrast material into the temporomandibular joint (TMJ) for imaging during TMJ arthrography.,CPT +21120,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","A provider augments a receding chin with the use of a chin implant, in a genioplasty procedure. He performs the procedure to improve cosmetic appearance or for reasons of medical necessity, such as correcting problems with a patient’s bite.",CPT +21121,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","A provider changes the appearance of a receding chin in a genioplasty procedure. He incises the jaw bone and slides it forward. He performs the procedure to improve cosmetic appearance or for reasons of medical necessity, such as correcting problems with a patient’s bite or to treat obstructive sleep apnea.",CPT +21122,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.",A provider corrects an asymmetrical chin in a genioplasty procedure. He incises the jaw in two or more places and removes or repositions wedges of bone. Genioplasty improves cosmetic appearance but may also be performed to improve conditions like obstructive sleep apnea.,CPT +21123,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","The provider augments a patient's chin in a sliding genioplasty. He slides the chin bone forward to improve the cosmetic appearance of the face or to treat medical conditions like obstructive sleep apnea. He uses bone graft from the patient’s own body to augment, or build up, the chin bone in layers.",CPT +21125,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","A provider performs mandibular augmentation, enlarging the mandible, or lower jaw bone, with placement of an implant. She performs the procedure to improve cosmetic appearance or for reasons of medical necessity, such as correcting problems with a patient’s bite.",CPT +21127,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","The provider enlarges the lower jaw by applying bone graft material on top of the jaw bone to build it up or by inserting the graft material into layers of the bony tissue of the jaw. She performs mandibular augmentation as a cosmetic procedure or for reasons of medical necessity, such as correcting problems with a patient’s bite.",CPT +21137,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","The provider contours the forehead to reduce the size of the forehead and lower the brow or hairline. A provider performs a forehead reduction to correct a facial abnormality, or more commonly, as cosmetic surgery.",CPT +21138,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","The provider reshapes the forehead using contouring and placement of prosthetic material or bone graft from the patient’s own body to lower a patient's brow or hairline. He performs forehead reduction to correct a facial abnormality, or more commonly, to improve cosmetic appearance.",CPT +21139,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.",The provider reshapes the forehead to correct a facial abnormality or improve appearance. She contours the forehead and incises the underlying wall of the frontal sinus cavity,CPT +21141,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","The provider reconstructs the patient's facial bones in a LeFort I midface surgery to correct congenital or acquired deformities such as long face syndrome, an elongation of the lower face caused by childhood mouth breathing. The provider moves the maxilla, or upper jaw bone, and associated bones forward, repositioning the teeth bearing part of the maxilla.",CPT +21142,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","The provider moves the maxilla, or upper jaw bone, and associated bones forward, in two segments, repositioning the teeth bearing part of the maxilla in a LeFort I procedure of the midface. She reconstructs the patient's facial bones to correct congenital or acquired deformities.",CPT +21143,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","The provider reconstructs the patient's facial bones to correct congenital or acquired deformities. She moves the maxilla, or upper jaw bone, and associated bones forward, in 3 or more segments, repositioning the teeth bearing part of the maxilla, in a LeFort I procedure of the midface.",CPT +21145,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","In a LeFort I midface surgery, the provider reconstructs the patient's facial bones using microsurgery and bone grafting to correct congenital or acquired deformities. The provider moves the maxilla, or upper jaw bone, and associated bones forward, repositioning the teeth bearing part of the maxilla.",CPT +21146,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","In a LeFort I midface surgery, the provider reconstructs the patient's facial bones using microsurgery and bone grafting to correct congenital deformities or acquired deformities. The provider moves the maxilla, or upper jaw bone, and associated bones forward, repositioning the teeth bearing part of the maxilla.",CPT +21147,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","In a LeFort I midface surgery, the provider reconstructs the patient's facial bones using microsurgery and bone grafting to correct congenital or acquired deformities. The provider moves the maxilla, or upper jaw bone, and associated bones forward, repositioning the teeth bearing part of the maxilla.",CPT +21150,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","In a LeFort II midface surgery, the provider reconstructs the patient's facial bones to correct deformities, acquired or congenital, such as Treacher Collins syndrome.",CPT +21151,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","In a LeFort II midface surgery, the provider reconstructs the patient's facial bones using microsurgery and bone grafting to correct deformities, acquired or congenital, such as Treacher Collins syndrome.",CPT +21154,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","In a LeFort III midface surgery, the provider performs extensive reconstruction of the patient's facial bones using microsurgery and bone grafting to correct deformities, acquired or congenital.",CPT +21155,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","In a LeFort III midface surgery, in association with a LeFort I procedure, the provider performs extensive reconstruction of the patient's facial bones using microsurgery and bone grafting to correct deformities, acquired or congenital, such as Apert Syndrome or Crouzon syndrome.",CPT +21159,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","In a LeFort III midface surgery, the provider performs extensive reconstruction of the patient's facial bones, including advancing, or moving forward, the forehead, using microsurgery and bone grafting to correct deformities, acquired or congenital, such as Apert Syndrome.",CPT +21160,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","The provider performs extensive reconstruction of the patient's facial bones, including reshaping the forehead, utilizing bone graft material obtained from another location in the patient’s body. She performs this procedure to correct severe facial deformities resulting from trauma, disease, or conditions present from birth, such as Apert syndrome.",CPT +21172,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","The provider performs extensive reconstruction of the patient's facial bones, including reshaping the forehead, utilizing bone graft material obtained from another location in the patient’s body. She performs this procedure to correct severe facial deformities resulting from trauma, disease, or conditions present from birth.",CPT +21175,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","The provider performs extensive reconstruction of the bones of the upper face, over the eye sockets, including reshaping the forehead, and may use bone graft material obtained from another location in the patient’s body. She performs this procedure to correct severe facial deformities resulting from trauma, disease, or conditions present from birth.",CPT +21179,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","A provider reconstructs most or all of the forehead and or the supraorbital rims, the bony structure surrounding the eyes, with placement of prosthetic material or allograft, donor bone. He performs the reconstruction to repair forehead defects due to congenital malformations, cancer surgery, or trauma.",CPT +21180,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","The provider performs extensive reconstruction of the bones of the upper face, over the eye sockets, reshaping the forehead, utilizing bone graft material obtained from another location in the patient’s body. She performs this procedure to correct severe facial deformities resulting from trauma, disease, or conditions present from birth.",CPT +21181,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","A provider reconstructs the cranial bones of the skull in the presence of a benign, or noncancerous, tumor that results in a misshapen skull, such as with fibrous dysplasia. He performs the procedure by removing the tumor from the surface of the cranium without entering the cranium.",CPT +21182,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","The provider performs extensive reconstruction of the bones of the upper face, forehead, and nasal sinus area, using bone graft material obtained from another location in the patient’s body. She performs this procedure following the removal of a benign, or noncancerous, tumor of the skull.",CPT +21183,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","The provider performs extensive reconstruction of the bones of the upper face, forehead, and nasal sinus area, utilizing bone graft material obtained from another location in the patient’s body. She performs this procedure following the removal of a benign, or noncancerous, tumor of the skull.",CPT +21184,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","The provider performs extensive reconstruction of the bones of the upper face, forehead, and nasal sinus area, utilizing bone graft material obtained from another location in the patient’s body. She performs this procedure following the removal of a benign, or noncancerous, tumor of the skull.",CPT +21188,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","The provider performs surgical reconstruction of the midface to correct deformities of the bony structures in the face and cranium, or skull, using bone grafts harvested from the patient's own body to fill in defects.",CPT +21193,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","A provider performs surgical reconstruction of the perpendicular portions, or rami, of the mandible, or lower jaw, to correct facial deformities, often the result of trauma.",CPT +21194,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","A provider performs surgical reconstruction of the perpendicular portions, or rami, of the mandible, or lower jaw, to correct facial deformities, often the result of trauma. She uses bone graft harvested from the patient's own body to fill in defects.",CPT +21195,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","A provider performs surgical reconstruction of the body of the mandible, or lower jaw, and or its perpendicular portions, or rami, to correct facial deformities, often the result of trauma.",CPT +21196,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","A provider performs surgical reconstruction of the body of the mandible, or lower jaw, and or its perpendicular portions, or rami, to correct facial deformities, often the result of trauma.",CPT +21198,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","A provider performs a mandibular osteotomy, incising the mandible, or lower jaw, and moving portions of the bone to correct facial deformities, congenital or acquired, such as a misaligned jaw.",CPT +21199,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","The provider performs a mandibular osteotomy, incising the mandible, or lower jaw, in segments and repositions the genioglossus muscle, to correct a misaligned jaw or other defect.",CPT +21206,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","A provider performs a maxillary osteotomy, incising the maxilla, or upper jaw, and moving portions of the bone to correct facial deformities, congenital or acquired.",CPT +21208,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","The provider surgically repairs and or alters the facial bones in a procedure called osteoplasty, by augmenting, or building up, the bone with an implant made from artificial material or from bone graft taken from the patient or from donor bone. She performs this procedure to correct defects caused by trauma or malformation.",CPT +21209,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","The provider surgically repairs and or alters the facial bones by osteoplasty, surgically incising the bone, to reduce the size of the bony structures. He performs this procedure to correct defects caused by trauma or malformation.",CPT +21210,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","The provider applies bone graft material to the face to correct cosmetic deformities of the bony structures of the nose, upper jaw, and cheeks, caused by injury or disease.",CPT +21215,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","The provider applies bone graft material to the mandible, or lower jaw, to repair deformity of the mandible due to fracture, injury, tumor resection, or congenital defect, such as a thin mandible, to restore functional ability and cosmetic appearance.",CPT +21230,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","The provider applies autogenous cartilage graft, taken from the patient’s own rib, to the face, including the chin, nose, or ear, to repair deformity due to fracture, injury, tumor resection, or congenital defect, such as saddle nose deformity.",CPT +21235,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","The provider applies autogenous cartilage graft, taken from the patient’s own ear, to the nose or ear, to repair deformity due to fracture, injury, tumor resection, or congenital defect.",CPT +21240,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","A provider performs an arthroplasty, joint surgical reconstruction or replacement, of the temporomandibular joint, the hinge that connects the lower jaw to the temporal bone of the skull. He uses graft material he obtains from the patient’s own body to repair, reposition, or replace parts of the temporomandibular joint, or TMJ, to improve function of the jaw.",CPT +21242,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","A provider performs an arthroplasty, joint reconstruction or replacement, of the temporomandibular joint, the hinge that connects the lower jaw to the temporal bone of the skull. He uses donor graft material to repair, reposition, or replace parts of the temporomandibular joint, or TMJ, to improve function of the jaw.",CPT +21243,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","A provider performs an arthroplasty, or joint replacement, of the temporomandibular joint, the hinge structure that connects the lower jaw to the temporal bone of the skull, to improve function of the jaw. He uses an artificial, or prosthetic, joint.",CPT +21244,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","The provider reconstructs the mandible, or lower jaw, and applies a metal plate that extends through the jaw bone to repair defects that inhibit function of the jaw.",CPT +21245,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","The provider reconstructs a portion of the maxilla or mandible, the upper or lower jaw, and applies a metal plate to the top of the jaw bone to repair defects that inhibit function of the jaw.",CPT +21246,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","The provider reconstructs the entire maxilla or mandible, the upper or lower jaw, and applies a metal plate to the top of the jaw bone to repair defects that inhibit function of the jaw.",CPT +21247,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","A provider reconstructs the mandibular condyle, the rounded projection where the lower jaw connects to the skull, to treat facial deformity or jaw dysfunction, typically as a result of a condition present at birth, such as hemifacial microsomia. He uses graft material he obtains from the patient’s own body.",CPT +21248,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","The provider reconstructs a portion of the upper or lower jaw, the maxilla or mandible, to repair defects and restore function. He inserts a metallic or ceramic implant into the bone to strengthen it.",CPT +21249,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","The provider reconstructs the entire maxilla or mandible, the upper or lower jaw, inserting a metallic implant within the jaw bone to repair defects that inhibit function of the jaw.",CPT +21255,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","The provider reconstructs the zygomatic arch, which extends along the side or front of the skull beneath the eye socket, and the glenoid fossa, the cavity at the root of the zygomatic arch that holds the upper jaw in place, to treat injuries or deformities. He uses bone and cartilage graft material he obtains from the patient’s own body.",CPT +21256,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","The provider reconstructs the orbit, or bony cavity that holds the eyes, to correct congenital deformities, such as microphthalmia, a condition marked by abnormally small eyes. He performs osteotomies, incising the bone, and uses bone graft material taken from the patient’s own body.",CPT +21260,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","The providers performs periorbital osteotomies, incisions of the bones around the eye sockets, to treat orbital hypertelorism, a congenital disorder that results in an abnormal amount of space between the eyes. He uses bone grafts to fill in defects.",CPT +21261,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","The providers performs periorbital osteotomies, incisions of the bones around the eye sockets, to treat orbital hypertelorism, a congenital disorder that results in an abnormal amount of space between the eyes. He uses bone grafts to fill in defects.",CPT +21263,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","The provider performs periorbital osteotomies, incisions of the bones around the eye sockets, to treat orbital hypertelorism, a congenital disorder that results in an abnormal amount of space between the eyes. He reshapes the bone structure of the forehead and uses bone grafts to fill in defects.",CPT +21267,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","The provider repositions one side of the orbit, the bony cavity that holds the eyes, to treat facial deformities that result from trauma or congenital conditions. He performs osteotomies, cutting into the bone, without entering the cranium, or skull. He applies bone grafts.",CPT +21268,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","The provider performs periorbital osteotomies, incisions of the bones around the eye sockets, to reposition the eye socket on one side to treat facial deformities that result from trauma or congenital conditions. He uses bone grafts to fill in defects.",CPT +21270,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","The provider augments the malar area, or cheekbones, for cosmetic reasons or to correct facial abnormalities. He uses prosthetic implant material.",CPT +21275,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","A provider performs a secondary revision of a previous orbitocraniofacial reconstruction surgery to make additional repairs to correct deformities in the patient's face, which typically occur due to trauma or congenital abnormalities.",CPT +21280,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","The provider tightens the structures that support the medial canthus, or inner corner of the eyelids. She performs the procedure to improve the appearance of the eye and or to address drainage problems of the lacrimal sac, the upper portion of the tear duct.",CPT +21282,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","The provider performs a canthopexy to repair a damaged lateral canthal tendon, which helps to maintain the shape of the lower eyelid.",CPT +21295,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","A provider reduces the size the masseter muscle, in the cheek area, and its surrounding bone, primarily as a cosmetic procedure to soften the appearance of a square jaw.",CPT +21296,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Head.","A provider reduces the size the masseter muscle, in the cheek area, and the surrounding bone, primarily as a cosmetic procedure to soften a square jaw. He performs the procedure through an incision in the mouth.",CPT +21299,Other Craniofacial and Maxillofacial Procedures of the Head.,Use to report craniofacial and maxillofacial procedures that do not have a specific code.,CPT +21315,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"The provider manipulates the nose to reduce, or realign, a nose bone fracture, without making an incision, to restore functionality and appearance.",CPT +21320,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"The provider manipulates the nose to reduce, or realign, a nose bone fracture, without making an incision, to restore functionality and appearance. The provider applies a stabilization device, such as a splint, to maintain bone positioning during healing.",CPT +21325,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"The provider reduces, or realigns, a nasal fracture, through a nasal incision, to restore both function and cosmetic appearance.",CPT +21330,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"The provider reduces, or realigns, a complex nasal fracture, through a nasal incision, to restore function and cosmetic appearance. He applies a fixation device to maintain the position of the bone as it heals.",CPT +21335,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"A provider reduces, or realigns, fractures of the nasal bones and nasal septum by making an incision to access the fracture site. Open treatment of the fracture restores function and appearance of the nose.",CPT +21336,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"The provider reduces, or realigns, a fracture, of the nasal septum, through a nasal incision, to restore both functionality and appearance. He may use sutures in the septum to hold it in place while it heals.",CPT +21337,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"The provider manipulates the nasal septum to reduce, or realign, a nasal septal fracture to restore function and appearance. He does not make an incision. He applies a splint, if necessary, to maintain the position of the structures as they heal.",CPT +21338,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"The provider reduces, or realigns, a fracture of the nasal and ethmoid bones, through a nasal incision to restore function and appearance.",CPT +21339,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"The provider reduces, or realigns, a fracture of the nasal and ethmoid bones, through a nasal incision to restore function and appearance. He applies an external fixation device to hold the structures in place as they heal.",CPT +21340,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"The provider repairs a fracture of the nasal and ethmoid bones through a skin incision to restore function and appearance. He repairs other tissues and structures in the area, as necessary, and then applies a fixation device to stabilize the fracture as it heals.",CPT +21343,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"The provider repairs a depressed fracture of the bones of the frontal sinus, below the ridge of the brow, by accessing the fracture through an incision. He performs the procedure to repair damage that occurs through blunt force trauma or a crush injury.",CPT +21344,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"The provider repairs a complicated fracture of the bones of the frontal sinus, below the ridge of the brow, by accessing the fracture through one or more incisions in the corona, or crown of the head. He performs the procedure to repair damage that occurs through blunt force trauma or a crush injury.",CPT +21345,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"The provider repairs a nasomaxillary complex fracture to treat an injury of the bones in the nose and the maxilla, or upper jaw, to restore function and appearance. He applies a splint or other fixation device to stabilize the repair as it heals.",CPT +21346,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"The provider repairs a nasomaxillary complex fracture to treat an injury of the bones in the nose and the maxilla, or upper jaw, to restore function and appearance. He applies a splint or other fixation device to stabilize the repair as it heals.",CPT +21347,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"The provider repairs a nasomaxillary complex fracture to treat an injury, typically due to blunt force trauma, of the bones in the nose and the maxilla, or upper jaw, the bridge between the base of the skull and the area where the teeth come together.",CPT +21348,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"The provider repairs a fracture of the nasomaxillary complex to treat an injury to the bones of the nose and maxilla, or jawbone, to restore function and appearance.",CPT +21355,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"The provider repairs a fracture of the cheekbone area, usually the result of injury, using manipulation applied through puncture incisions.",CPT +21356,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"The provider repairs a depressed fracture of the cheekbone, the result of blunt force trauma, by accessing the fracture through an incision behind the hairline.",CPT +21360,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"The provider repairs a depressed fracture of the cheekbone, the result of blunt force trauma, by accessing the fracture through a skin incision.",CPT +21365,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"The provider surgically repairs a complex fracture of the cheekbone area, usually the result of blunt force trauma, using incisions in different areas.",CPT +21366,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"The provider repairs a complicated broken bone or multiple broken bones of the cheekbone area, usually the result of blunt force trauma. He uses multiple surgical approaches and bone grafting to repair the damage.",CPT +21385,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"The provider repairs the floor of the orbit, the bony structure that holds the eyes, to restore function and appearance to the face after a blowout fracture, the result of blunt force trauma. He accesses the orbital floor through an incision in the mouth.",CPT +21386,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"The provider repairs the floor of the orbit, the bony structure that holds the eyes, to restore function and appearance to the face after a blowout fracture, the result of blunt force trauma. He accesses the orbital floor through an incision over the fracture area.",CPT +21387,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"The provider repairs the floor of the orbit, the bony structure that holds the eyes, to restore function and appearance to the face after a blowout fracture, the result of blunt force trauma. He accesses the orbital floor through incisions in different areas.",CPT +21390,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"The provider repairs the floor of the orbit, the bony structure that holds the eyes, to restore function and appearance to the face after a blowout fracture, the result of blunt force trauma. He accesses the orbital floor through a skin incision over the fracture area and applies an alloplastic, or synthetic, implant.",CPT +21395,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"The provider repairs the floor of the orbit, the bony structure that holds the eyes, to restore function and appearance to the face after a blowout fracture, the result of blunt force trauma. He accesses the orbital floor through a skin incision over the fracture area. He applies bone graft material taken from the patient’s own body to fill in bony defects at the fracture site.",CPT +21400,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"The provider assesses and treats a fracture of the orbit, the bony structure that holds the eyes, typically resulting from blunt force trauma but not resulting in a blowout fracture. He treats the fracture without manipulation.",CPT +21401,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"The provider assesses and treats a fracture of the orbit, the bony structure that holds the eyes, typically resulting from blunt force trauma but not resulting in a blowout fracture. He treats the fracture with manipulation, without making an incision.",CPT +21406,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"The provider assesses and treats a fracture of the orbit, the bony structure that holds the eyes, typically resulting from blunt force trauma but not resulting in a blowout fracture. He treats the fracture through an incision over the area of the fracture.",CPT +21407,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"The provider assesses and treats a fracture of the orbit, the bony structure that holds the eyes, typically resulting from blunt force trauma but not resulting in a blowout fracture. He treats the fracture through an incision over the fracture and uses an implant to stabilize the area.",CPT +21408,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"The provider assesses and treats a fracture of the orbit, the bony structure that holds the eyes, typically resulting from blunt force trauma but not resulting in a blowout fracture. He treats the fracture through an incision over the fracture and uses bone graft material to stabilize the area.",CPT +21421,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"A provider treats a fracture of the roof of the mouth or upper jaw bone, typically caused by blunt force trauma, through manipulation and splinting.",CPT +21422,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"A provider treats a fracture of the roof of the mouth or upper jaw bone, typically caused by blunt force trauma, through an incision in the mouth.",CPT +21423,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"A provider treats a complicated fracture of the roof of the mouth or upper jaw bone, typically caused by blunt force trauma, through incisions in different areas.",CPT +21431,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"The provider treats a fracture resulting in separation of the cranium, or skull, from the facial bones, to repair injuries to the nasal bridge or upper jaw following trauma to the face. He uses manipulating and splinting.",CPT +21432,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"The provider treats a fracture resulting in separation of the cranium, or skull, from the facial bones, to repair injuries to the nasal bridge or upper jaw following severe trauma to the face. He accesses the fracture through an incision and applies wire or other fixation to hold the fracture in place as it heals.",CPT +21433,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"The provider treats a complicated fracture resulting in separation of the cranium, or skull, from the facial bones, to repair injuries to the nasal bridge or upper jaw following severe trauma to the face. He accesses the fracture through incisions in different areas.",CPT +21435,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"The provider treats a fracture resulting in separation of the cranium, or skull, from the facial bones, to repair injuries to the nasal bridge or upper jaw following severe trauma to the face. He accesses the fracture through an incision and applies internal and or external fixation devices to hold the fracture in place as it heals.",CPT +21436,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"The provider treats a complicated facial fracture resulting in separation of the cranium, or skull, from the facial bones, to repair injuries to the nasal bridge or upper jaw following severe trauma to the face. He accesses the fracture through incisions in different areas. He applies bone graft material and an internal fixation device to hold the fracture in place as it heals.",CPT +21440,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"The provider treats fractures of the mandibular and maxillary alveolar ridge, the thickened bone along the upper and lower jaw that holds the tooth sockets, to repair damage from blunt force trauma. He uses manipulation, without an incision.",CPT +21445,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"The provider treats fractures of the mandibular and maxillary alveolar ridge, the thickened bone along the upper and lower jaw that holds the tooth sockets, to repair damage from blunt force trauma. He accesses the fracture through an incision.",CPT +21450,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"The provider treats a fracture of the mandible, or lower jaw, to repair damage caused by blunt force trauma to the face, without using manipulation.",CPT +21451,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"The provider treats a fracture of the mandible, or lower jaw, to repair damage caused by blunt force trauma to the face. He uses manipulation, without an incision.",CPT +21452,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"The provider treats a fracture of the mandible, or lower jaw, to repair damage caused by blunt force trauma to the face. He makes small skin incisions to access the fracture and attaches an external fixation device, like a splint.",CPT +21453,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"The provider treats a fracture of the mandible, or lower jaw bone, to repair damage caused by blunt force trauma to the face. He uses a device that connects to the teeth to secure the fracture in place while it heals.",CPT +21454,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"The provider treats a fracture of the mandible, or lower jaw bone, to repair damage caused by blunt force trauma to the face. He accesses the fracture through an incision and applies an external fixation device to secure the fracture in place while it heals.",CPT +21461,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"The provider treats a fracture of the mandible, or lower jaw bone, to repair damage caused by blunt force trauma to the face. He accesses the fracture through an incision.",CPT +21462,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"The provider treats a fracture of the mandible, or lower jaw bone, to repair damage caused by blunt force trauma to the face. He accesses the fracture through an incision and applies a fixation device that attaches to the teeth to secure the fracture while it heals.",CPT +21465,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,The provider treats a fracture of the mandibular condyle in the lower jaw to repair damage caused by blunt force trauma to the face. He accesses the fracture through a skin incision.,CPT +21470,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"The provider treats a complicated fracture of the mandible, or lower jaw bone, to repair damage caused by blunt force trauma to the face. He accesses the fracture through multiple incisions and applies a fixation device to secure the fracture while it heals.",CPT +21480,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"The provider treats a dislocation of the temporomandibular joint, which causes the jaw to lock in an open position and causes significant pain and discomfort. He manipulates it back into its proper location.",CPT +21485,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"The provider treats dislocations of the temporomandibular joint, which causes the jaw to lock in an open position and causes significant pain and discomfort. He manipulates it back into its proper location and then applies a fixation device to prevent movement of the jaw during healing.",CPT +21490,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"The provider treats dislocations of the temporomandibular joint, which causes the jaw to lock in an open position and causes significant pain and discomfort. He accesses the joint through an incision and manipulates it back into its proper location.",CPT +21497,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Head.,"The provider uses interdental wiring to prevent movement of the jaws to allow healing for a jaw injury that does not involve a fracture, such as temporomandibular joint dislocation.",CPT +21499,Other Musculoskeletal Procedures of the Head.,Use to report musculoskeletal procedures of the head that do not have a specific code.,CPT +21501,Incision Procedures on the Neck (Soft Tissues) and Thorax.,A provider performs an incision and drainage procedure in the deep tissues of the neck or chest to relieve pain and pressure from a pocket of blood or pus.,CPT +21502,Incision Procedures on the Neck (Soft Tissues) and Thorax.,A provider performs an incision and drainage procedure in the deep tissues of the neck or chest to relieve pain and pressure from a pocket of blood or pus. He removes a portion of a rib bone during the procedure.,CPT +21510,Incision Procedures on the Neck (Soft Tissues) and Thorax.,"The provider makes a deep incision in the cortex, or outer shell, of a bone in the chest to relieve pain, pressure, or infection due to osteomyelitis or bone abscess.",CPT +21550,Excision Procedures on the Neck (Soft Tissues) and Thorax.,"The provider excises a small portion of soft tissue in the neck or chest for analysis and diagnosis of a suspected medical condition, such as cancer or infection.",CPT +21552,Excision Procedures on the Neck (Soft Tissues) and Thorax.,"The provider removes an abnormal growth, or mass, 3 cm or more in size, from just below the surface of the skin in the neck or front part of the chest. He submits the specimen for analysis and diagnosis of a suspected medical condition.",CPT +21554,Excision Procedures on the Neck (Soft Tissues) and Thorax.,"During this procedure, the surgeon excises a tumor (5 cm or larger in size) from under the fascia on the patient's neck or anterior thorax.",CPT +21555,Excision Procedures on the Neck (Soft Tissues) and Thorax.,"The provider removes an abnormal growth, or mass, less than 3 cm in size, from just below the surface of the skin in the neck or front part of the chest. He submits the specimen for analysis and diagnosis of a suspected medical condition.",CPT +21556,Excision Procedures on the Neck (Soft Tissues) and Thorax.,"The provider removes an abnormal growth, or mass, less than 5 cm in size, located in the muscle tissue in the neck or front part of the chest. He submits the specimen for analysis and diagnosis of a suspected medical condition.",CPT +21557,Excision Procedures on the Neck (Soft Tissues) and Thorax.,"The provider performs an extensive excision of a tumor, or mass, in the soft tissues in the neck or anterior thorax, suspected to be malignant, or cancerous, such as a sarcoma. He excises the surrounding tissues along with the mass, with the diameter of the tumor and its margins measuring less than 5 cm.",CPT +21558,Excision Procedures on the Neck (Soft Tissues) and Thorax.,"The provider performs an excision procedure for a soft tissue malignant tumor, such as a sarcoma, from the neck or the front part of the thorax. The excision of the tumor is performed in an extensive manner, not being limited to the dimensions of the tumor itself but expanding to its surrounding area/anatomical structures suspected for involvement. The diameter of the tumor and the margins required measure 5cm or more.",CPT +21600,Excision Procedures on the Neck (Soft Tissues) and Thorax.,"The provider removes part of a rib to treat conditions such as rib deformities, congenital abnormalities, or bone infections.",CPT +21601,Excision Procedures on the Neck (Soft Tissues) and Thorax.,"The provider excises a tumor involving the chest wall and ribs, necessitating removal of some of the ribs as well as the tumor from the chest wall.",CPT +21602,Excision Procedures on the Neck (Soft Tissues) and Thorax.,"The provider excises a tumor of the chest wall that involves the ribs, which creates defects that need reconstruction; he reconstructs the chest wall using myocutaneous flaps and bone grafts or prosthetic materials for the ribs. He does not remove lymph nodes in the upper chest area.",CPT +21603,Excision Procedures on the Neck (Soft Tissues) and Thorax.,"The provider excises a tumor of the chest wall that involves the ribs, which creates defects that need reconstruction; he excises suspicious lymph nodes in the area of the mediastinum. He reconstructs the chest wall defects using myocutaneous flaps and bone grafts or prosthetic materials for the ribs. He does not remove lymph nodes in the upper chest area.",CPT +21610,Excision Procedures on the Neck (Soft Tissues) and Thorax.,"The provider removes a piece of rib and the transverse process of the vertebra, or back bone, to which it connects, to relieve back pain due to compression of spinal nerves.",CPT +21615,Excision Procedures on the Neck (Soft Tissues) and Thorax.,The provider removes an upper rib to treat conditions like rib deformities or congenital abnormalities such as thoracic outlet syndrome.,CPT +21616,Excision Procedures on the Neck (Soft Tissues) and Thorax.,"The provider removes an upper rib to treat conditions like rib deformities or congenital abnormalities such as thoracic outlet syndrome. He also performs a sympathectomy, severing the sympathetic nerve chain, to correct chronic pain or conditions such as hyperhidrosis.",CPT +21620,Excision Procedures on the Neck (Soft Tissues) and Thorax.,"The provider removes a portion of the patient's sternum, or breast bone, to treat lesions, abnormal bony protrusions, bone infection, or necrotic bone.",CPT +21627,Excision Procedures on the Neck (Soft Tissues) and Thorax.,"The provider removes damaged, diseased, or unhealthy tissue from the sternum, or breast bone, to allow healthy tissue to grow.",CPT +21630,Excision Procedures on the Neck (Soft Tissues) and Thorax.,"The provider removes the entire sternum, or breast bone, typically to treat a malignant, or cancerous, tumor of the bone.",CPT +21632,Excision Procedures on the Neck (Soft Tissues) and Thorax.,"The provider removes the entire sternum, or breast bone, typically to treat a malignant, or cancerous, tumor of the bone. In addition, he removes all mediastinal lymph nodes.",CPT +21685,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Neck (Soft Tissues) and Thorax.","A provider incises the muscle tissue around the hyoid bone, which supports the tongue, and suspends, or attaches it, to another structure for support. This helps in clearing the airway for patients with obstructive sleep apnea.",CPT +21700,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Neck (Soft Tissues) and Thorax.","A provider divides the scalenus anticus muscle, at the side of the neck, to treat scalenus anticus syndrome, a painful condition due to pressure of this muscle on the surrounding nerves.",CPT +21705,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Neck (Soft Tissues) and Thorax.","A provider divides the scalenus anticus muscle, at the side of the neck, and removes the cervical rib to treat scalenus anticus syndrome, a painful condition due to pressure of this muscle on the surrounding nerves.",CPT +21720,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Neck (Soft Tissues) and Thorax.","The provider divides the sternocleidomastoid muscle in the neck to treat torticollis, a condition that causes a stiff neck and muscle spasms that make the head tilt to one side. He does not apply a cast.",CPT +21725,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Neck (Soft Tissues) and Thorax.","The provider divides the sternocleidomastoid muscle in the neck to treat torticollis, a condition that causes a stiff neck and muscle spasms that make the head tilt to one side. He applies a cast to hold the neck in place.",CPT +21740,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Neck (Soft Tissues) and Thorax.","A provider reconstructs the chest wall to repair congenital deformities, such as pectus excavatum, sunken chest deformity, or pectus carinatum, protruding sternum deformity.",CPT +21742,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Neck (Soft Tissues) and Thorax.","A provider reconstructs the chest wall using small incisions through which he repairs congenital deformities, such as pectus excavatum, sunken chest deformity, or pectus carinatum, protruding sternum deformity.",CPT +21743,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Neck (Soft Tissues) and Thorax.","A provider reconstructs the chest wall using small incisions through which he repairs congenital deformities, such as pectus excavatum, sunken chest deformity, or pectus carinatum, protruding sternum deformity. He inserts a thoracoscope, an instrument that carries a video camera to permit viewing the inside of the chest during the procedure.",CPT +21750,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Neck (Soft Tissues) and Thorax.","The provider closes a separation within the sternum, or breast bone, that occurs as a result of an incision in the sternum during a previous surgical procedure.",CPT +21811,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Neck (Soft Tissues) and Thorax.,"The provider treats broken ribs, usually the result of trauma, through an open surgical approach. The provider may treat one to three ribs with internal fixation techniques, and he may perform a thoracoscopy for better visualization of the procedure.",CPT +21812,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Neck (Soft Tissues) and Thorax.,"The provider treats broken ribs, usually as the result of trauma, through an open surgical approach. The provider may treat four to six ribs with internal fixation techniques, and he may perform a thoracoscopy for better visualization of the procedure.",CPT +21813,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Neck (Soft Tissues) and Thorax.,"The provider treats broken ribs, usually as the result of trauma, through an open surgical approach. The provider may treat seven or more ribs with internal fixation techniques, and he may perform a thoracoscopy for better visualization of the procedure.",CPT +21820,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Neck (Soft Tissues) and Thorax.,"The provider uses manipulation to treat a fracture of the sternum, or breast bone, as a result of the trauma to the area.",CPT +21825,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Neck (Soft Tissues) and Thorax.,"The provider treats a fracture of the sternum, or breast bone, as a result of the trauma to the area. He accesses the fracture through an incision and may apply a fixation device to hold the bones in place during healing.",CPT +21899,Other Procedures on the Neck or Thorax.,Use to report procedures in the neck or thorax that do not have a specific code.,CPT +21920,Excision Procedures on the Back and Flank.,"The provider performs a biopsy of the superficial, or surface level, soft tissue in the back or flank area to obtain a sample of suspicious tissue, such as a small lump immediately under the skin. He submits the specimen for analysis to determine the presence of abnormal cells, especially cancerous cells.",CPT +21925,Excision Procedures on the Back and Flank.,"The provider performs a biopsy of the deep soft tissue in the back or flank area to obtain a sample of suspicious tissue, such as a lump that is felt in the deeper tissues. He submits the specimen for analysis to determine the presence of abnormal cells, especially cancerous cells.",CPT +21930,Excision Procedures on the Back and Flank.,"The provider removes a small tumor, or abnormal mass, of less than 3 cm in size, from the soft tissue below the skin in the back or flank. He submits the specimen for analysis to determine the presence of abnormal cells, especially cancerous cells.",CPT +21931,Excision Procedures on the Back and Flank.,"The provider removes a tumor, or abnormal mass, of 3 cm or more in size, from the soft tissue below the skin in the back or flank. He submits the specimen for analysis to determine the presence of abnormal cells, especially cancerous cells.",CPT +21932,Excision Procedures on the Back and Flank.,Physicians perform subfascial soft tissue tumor excisions to remove small tumors (smaller than 5 cm) from under the patient's skin and fascia on the back or flank.,CPT +21933,Excision Procedures on the Back and Flank.,Physicians perform subfascial soft tissue tumor excisions to remove tumors (5 cm or larger) from under the patient's skin and fascia on the back or flank.,CPT +21935,Excision Procedures on the Back and Flank.,"The provider performs an excision procedure for a soft tissue malignant tumor, such as a sarcoma, from the back or flank. The excision of the tumor is performed in an extensive manner, not being limited to the dimensions of the tumor itself but expanding to its surrounding area/anatomical structures suspected for involvement. The diameter of the tumor and the margins required measure less than 5cm.",CPT +21936,Excision Procedures on the Back and Flank.,"The provider performs an excision procedure for a soft tissue malignant tumor, such as a sarcoma, from the back or flank. The excision of the tumor is performed in an extensive manner, not being limited to the dimensions of the tumor itself but expanding to its surrounding area/anatomical structures suspected for involvement. The diameter of the tumor and the margins required measure 5cm or more.",CPT +22010,Incision Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider incises and drains an abscess, or pocket of infection, in the deep tissues at the back of the neck or upper spinal column to relieve pain and pressure.",CPT +22015,Incision Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider incises and drains an abscess, or pocket of infection, in the deep tissues at the back of the lower spinal column to relieve pain and pressure.",CPT +22100,Excision Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider excises a portion of the back part of a cervical vertebra, one of the bones in the neck, to remove a bony lesion, or diseased area, contained within that single bone.",CPT +22101,Excision Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider excises a portion of the back part of a thoracic vertebra, one of the bones in the upper back, to remove a bony lesion, or diseased area, contained within that single bone.",CPT +22102,Excision Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider excises a portion of the back part of a lumbar vertebra, one of the bones in the lower back, to remove a bony lesion, or diseased area, contained within that single bone.",CPT +22103,Excision Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider excises a portion of the back part of a vertebra, one of the bones in the neck or back, to remove a bony lesion, or diseased area, contained within that single bone.",CPT +22110,Excision Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider excises portions of the main body of a cervical vertebra, one of the bones in the neck, to remove a damaged or diseased area contained within that single bone. He does not decompress the spinal cord or nerve roots.",CPT +22112,Excision Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider excises portions of the main body of a thoracic vertebra, one of the bones in the upper back, to remove a damaged or diseased area contained within that single bone. He does not decompress the spinal cord or nerve roots.",CPT +22114,Excision Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider excises portions of the main body of a lumbar vertebra, one of the bones in the lower back, to remove a damaged or diseased area contained within that single bone. He does not decompress the spinal cord or nerve roots.",CPT +22116,Excision Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider excises portions of the main body of a vertebra, one of the bones in the neck or back, to remove a damaged or diseased area contained within that single bone. He does not decompress the spinal cord or nerve roots.",CPT +22206,Osteotomy Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"A provider excises portions of a thoracic vertebra, one of the interlocking bones in the upper back, to correct kyphosis, an abnormal curvature of the spine. He performs the bony excision, or osteotomy, in a three column approach, removing bone from the back and both sides, or columns, of the vertebra.",CPT +22207,Osteotomy Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider incises a vertebra, one of the interlocking bones of the spine, in three areas and removes a wedge of bone to change the alignment of the spinal column. This corrects an abnormal curvature in the lumbar spine, or lower back.",CPT +22208,Osteotomy Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider incises a vertebra, one of the interlocking bones of the spine, in three areas and removes a wedge of bone to change the alignment of the spinal column. This corrects an abnormal curvature in the neck or back. He performs this procedure on an additional vertebral segment.",CPT +22210,Osteotomy Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider incises a vertebra, one of the interlocking bones of the spine, in three areas and removes a wedge of bone to change the alignment of the spinal column. This corrects an abnormal curvature in the cervical spine, or neck area.",CPT +22212,Osteotomy Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider performs an osteotomy, a bony incision, of a thoracic vertebra, one of the bones in the upper back, to realign the spine and correct spinal deformities. He makes the incision in the posterior, or back, portion of the vertebra, or posterolaterally, from the back and side.",CPT +22214,Osteotomy Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider performs an osteotomy, a bony incision, of a lumbar vertebra, one of the bones in the lower back, to realign the spine and correct spinal deformities. He makes the incision in the posterior, or back, portion of the vertebra, or posterolaterally, from the back and side.",CPT +22216,Osteotomy Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider incises a vertebra, one of the interlocking bones in the spine, to remove portions of the bone, changing the alignment of the spinal column. This corrects an abnormal curvature in the cervical spine, or neck area. He performs this procedure on an additional vertebral segment.",CPT +22220,Osteotomy Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider incises a vertebra, one of the interlocking bones in the spine, to remove portions of the bone, changing the alignment of the spine. He excises the disk material adjoining the vertebra. This corrects an abnormal curvature in the cervical spine, or neck area.",CPT +22222,Osteotomy Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider incises a vertebra, one of the interlocking bones in the spine, to remove portions of the bone, changing the alignment of the spine.  He excises the disk material adjoining the vertebra. This corrects an abnormal curvature in the thoracic spine, or upper back.",CPT +22224,Osteotomy Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider incises a vertebra, one of the interlocking bones in the spine, to remove portions of the bone, changing the alignment of the spine.  He excises the disk material adjoining the vertebra. This corrects an abnormal curvature in the lumbar spine, or lower back.",CPT +22226,Osteotomy Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider incises a vertebra, one of the interlocking bones in the spine, to remove portions of the bone, changing the alignment of the spine.  He excises the disk material adjoining the vertebra. This corrects an abnormal curvature in the neck or spine. He performs this procedure on an additional vertebral segment.",CPT +22310,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider treats a fracture of the vertebral body, the main part of a vertebra, one of the interlocking bones of the spine, in a closed procedure without manipulation. He places a cast or brace to prevent movement of the fracture while it heals.",CPT +22315,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider treats a fracture or dislocation of the vertebral body, the main part of a vertebra, one of the interlocking bones of the spine, in a closed procedure. He manually realigns the bone or applies a traction device. He places a cast or brace to prevent movement of the fracture while it heals.",CPT +22318,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider treats a fracture or dislocation of the odontoid, the uppermost bone in the neck, in an open procedure. He makes an incision in the neck, restores normal alignment, and inserts screws or wires to secure the fracture while healing takes place. He does not apply a bone graft.",CPT +22319,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider repairs a fracture or dislocation of the odontoid, or first cervical vertebra, the uppermost neck bone, from its normal attachment to the second cervical vertebra. The provider accesses the odontoid through an incision in the front of the neck. He uses internal fixation and bone grafting to repair the vertebra. Odontoid fractures, the most common cervical spine fractures, typically result from trauma to the neck.",CPT +22325,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider treats a fracture or dislocation of a lumbar vertebra, one of the interlocking bones of the lower back, in an open procedure. He makes an incision and realigns the fractured or displaced vertebra from the back of the vertebra.",CPT +22326,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider repairs a fracture or dislocation of a cervical vertebra, one of the bones in the neck. He accesses the fracture or dislocation through an incision over the vertebra at the back of the neck. Vertebral fractures and dislocations typically result from trauma to the neck.",CPT +22327,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider treats a fracture or dislocation of a thoracic vertebra, one of the interlocking bones of the upper back, in an open procedure. He makes an incision and realigns the fractured or displaced vertebra from the back of the vertebra.",CPT +22328,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider repairs a fracture or dislocation of a vertebra, one of the interlocking bones in the neck and back. The provider accesses the vertebra through an incision over the vertebra. Vertebral fractures and dislocations typically result from trauma.",CPT +22505,Manipulation Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,The provider manipulates the spine under general anesthesia to treat spinal dysfunction and to alleviate acute and chronic neck and back pain. He doesn’t make an incision.,CPT +22510,Percutaneous Vertebroplasty and Vertebral Augmentation Procedures.,"The provider performs cervicothoracic vertebroplasty, or the surgical repair of a fractured vertebra in the cervicothoracic (neck and upper back) spine, usually involving the injection of bone cement. The provider commonly performs this procedure to treat osteoporotic compression fractures in patients where conservative treatment fails. He may also perform a bone biopsy for diagnostic purposes. The procedure takes place under imaging guidance.",CPT +22511,Percutaneous Vertebroplasty and Vertebral Augmentation Procedures.,"The provider performs lumbosacral vertebroplasty, or the surgical repair of a fractured vertebra in the lumbosacral (lower) spine, usually involving the injection of bone cement. The provider commonly performs this procedure to treat osteoporotic compression fractures in patients where conservative treatment fails. He may also perform a bone biopsy for diagnostic purposes. The procedure takes place under imaging guidance.",CPT +22512,Percutaneous Vertebroplasty and Vertebral Augmentation Procedures.,"At the same session as percutaneous vertebroplasty of the cervicothoracic or lumbosacral vertebral body, the provider repeats the procedure on each additional vertebral body. The provider performs cervicothoracic or lumbosacral vertebroplasty, the surgical repair of a fractured vertebra in the spine, usually involving the injection of bone cement. The provider commonly performs this procedure to treat osteoporotic compression fractures in patients where conservative treatment fails. He may also perform a bone biopsy for diagnostic purposes. The procedure takes place under imaging guidance.",CPT +22513,Percutaneous Vertebroplasty and Vertebral Augmentation Procedures.,"The provider performs a percutaneous vertebral augmentation of the thoracic spine, such as kyphoplasty, a surgical procedure that treats compression fractures of the spine. He also may perform a reduction of a fracture and bone biopsy for diagnostic purposes. The procedure takes place under imaging guidance.",CPT +22514,Percutaneous Vertebroplasty and Vertebral Augmentation Procedures.,"The provider performs a percutaneous vertebral augmentation of the lumbar spine, such as kyphoplasty, a surgical procedure that treats compression fractures of the spine. He also may perform a reduction of a fracture and bone biopsy for diagnostic purposes. The procedure takes place under imaging guidance.",CPT +22515,Percutaneous Vertebroplasty and Vertebral Augmentation Procedures.,"At the same session as percutaneous vertebral augmentation of a thoracic or lumbar vertebral body, the provider repeats the procedure on each additional vertebral body. The provider performs a percutaneous vertebral augmentation of the thoracic or lumbar spine, such as kyphoplasty, a surgical procedure that treats compression fractures of the spine. He also may perform a reduction of a fracture and bone biopsy for diagnostic purposes. The procedure takes place under imaging guidance.",CPT +22526,Percutaneous Augmentation and Annuloplasty Procedures.,"The provider applies heat energy through a needle inserted into an invertebral disk, one of the cartilage cushions between the interlocking bones of the spine, to treat chronic back pain. He uses fluoroscopy, live X–ray, to guide the application of the treatment on one or both sides.",CPT +22527,Percutaneous Augmentation and Annuloplasty Procedures.,"The provider applies heat energy through a needle inserted into an invertebral disk, one of the cartilage cushions between the interlocking bones of the spine, to treat chronic back pain. He uses fluoroscopy, live X–ray, to guide the application of the treatment on one or both sides. He performs this procedure on an additional level after performing the procedure on one or more other levels.",CPT +22532,Lateral Extracavitary Approach Technique Arthrodesis Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider performs arthrodesis, also known as spinal fusion, in the thoracic spine, or upper back, to permanently join two vertebrae, the interlocking bones of the spine. He accesses the vertebra in a lateral extracavitary approach to obtain a wider view. He removes some of the cartilage cushion, or disk material, from between the vertebrae to prepare the bony surfaces for fusion. The procedure helps to alleviate persistent pain caused by various spinal conditions, including herniated, or bulging, intervertebral disks, narrowing of the spinal canal, or spinal injuries.",CPT +22533,Lateral Extracavitary Approach Technique Arthrodesis Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"A provider performs arthrodesis, also called spinal fusion, to permanently join two or more vertebrae in the lumbar spine. Spinal arthrodesis restores mobility and alleviates persistent pain resulting from a spinal condition, such as a herniated disk, spinal stenosis, or spinal injury. He accesses the spine from the sides of the vertebrae without entering the chest cavity. He excises a small amount of intervertebral disk material, the cushion of cartilage material separating two vertebrae, and inserts bone graft material to strengthen the fusion site.",CPT +22534,Lateral Extracavitary Approach Technique Arthrodesis Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider performs arthrodesis, also known as spinal fusion, in the upper or lower back, to permanently join two vertebrae, the interlocking bones of the spine. He accesses the vertebra in a lateral extracavitary approach to obtain a wider view. He removes some of the cartilage cushion, or disk material, from between the vertebrae to prepare the bony surfaces for fusion. The procedure helps to alleviate persistent pain caused by various spinal conditions, including herniated, or bulging, intervertebral disks, narrowing of the spinal canal, or spinal injuries. He performs this procedure on an additional vertebra after performing the procedure on one or more vertebrae in the upper or lower back.",CPT +22548,Anterior or Anterolateral Approach Technique Arthrodesis Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider performs arthrodesis, also known as spinal fusion, in the neck, to permanently join two vertebrae, the interlocking bones of the spine. He accesses the vertebrae through an incision in the mouth or in the neck and may excise the first cervical vertebra. The procedure helps to alleviate persistent pain caused by various spinal conditions, including herniated, or bulging, intervertebral disks, narrowing of the spinal canal, or spinal injuries.",CPT +22551,Anterior or Anterolateral Approach Technique Arthrodesis Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,A cervical disc is removed through the front of the neck to help ease spinal pain and related symptoms. Fusion is performed to stabilize the vertebrae.,CPT +22552,Anterior or Anterolateral Approach Technique Arthrodesis Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider performs arthrodesis, also known as spinal fusion, in the neck, to permanently join two vertebrae, the interlocking bones of the spine, to alleviate persistent pain caused by a herniated, or bulging, disk, or other spinal condition. He makes an incision in the front of the neck, removes disk material, excises bony protuberances, and releases pressure on the spinal cord and nerve root. He performs this procedure on an additional vertebra after performing the procedure on one or more vertebrae in the same encounter.",CPT +22554,Anterior or Anterolateral Approach Technique Arthrodesis Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider performs arthrodesis, also known as spinal fusion, in the neck, to permanently join two vertebrae, the interlocking bones of the spine, to alleviate persistent pain caused by a herniated, or bulging, disk, or other spinal condition. He makes an incision in the front of the neck and removes disk material.",CPT +22556,Anterior or Anterolateral Approach Technique Arthrodesis Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider performs arthrodesis, also known as spinal fusion, in the upper back, to permanently join two vertebrae, the interlocking bones of the spine, to alleviate persistent pain caused by a herniated, or bulging, disk, or other spinal condition. He makes an incision in the side of the chest to access the spine and remove disk material.",CPT +22558,Anterior or Anterolateral Approach Technique Arthrodesis Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider performs arthrodesis, also known as spinal fusion, in the lower back, to permanently join two vertebrae, the interlocking bones of the spine, to alleviate persistent pain caused by a herniated, or bulging, disk, or other spinal condition. He makes an incision in the abdomen to access the spine and remove disk material.",CPT +22585,Anterior or Anterolateral Approach Technique Arthrodesis Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider performs arthrodesis, also known as spinal fusion, to permanently join two vertebrae, the interlocking bones of the spine, to alleviate persistent pain caused by a herniated, or bulging, disk, or other spinal condition. He removes disk material. He performs this procedure on an additional vertebra after performing the procedure on one or more vertebrae in the neck or back.",CPT +22586,Anterior or Anterolateral Approach Technique Arthrodesis Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider performs spinal fusion, permanently joining two vertebrae, for correction of herniated nucleus pulposus, a bulging disk, at the base of the lower back near the tailbone. He excises the disk material and may fill the space with bone graft in a presacral interbody technique. He uses image guidance and employs posterior spinal instrumentation.",CPT +22590,"Posterior, Posterolateral or Lateral Transverse Process Technique Arthrodesis Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).","The provider performs arthrodesis, also known as spinal fusion, to permanently join the second cervical vertebra in the neck to the base of the cranium. He applies bone graft material to fuse the spine at the back of the vertebra. The procedure helps to alleviate persistent pain caused by various spinal conditions, including herniated intervertebral disks, stenosis, or spinal injuries.",CPT +22595,"Posterior, Posterolateral or Lateral Transverse Process Technique Arthrodesis Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).","The provider performs arthrodesis, also known as spinal fusion, to permanently join the first two vertebrae, the interlocking bones of the neck. He applies bone graft material to fuse the spine at the back of the vertebrae. The procedure helps to alleviate persistent pain caused by various spinal conditions, including herniated intervertebral disks, stenosis, or spinal injuries.",CPT +22600,"Posterior, Posterolateral or Lateral Transverse Process Technique Arthrodesis Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).","The provider performs arthrodesis, also known as spinal fusion, in the neck, to permanently join two vertebrae, the interlocking bones of the spine. The provider applies bone graft material to fuse the spine at the back of the vertebrae or at the back and side. The procedure helps to alleviate persistent pain caused by various spinal conditions, including herniated intervertebral disks, stenosis, and spinal injuries.",CPT +22610,"Posterior, Posterolateral or Lateral Transverse Process Technique Arthrodesis Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).","The provider performs arthrodesis, also known as spinal fusion, in the thoracic spine (upper back), to permanently join two vertebrae, the interlocking bones of the spine. The provider applies bone graft material to fuse the spine at the back of the vertebrae, at the back and side, or at the side and across. The procedure helps to alleviate persistent pain caused by various spinal conditions, including herniated intervertebral disks, stenosis, and spinal injuries.",CPT +22612,"Posterior, Posterolateral or Lateral Transverse Process Technique Arthrodesis Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).","The provider performs arthrodesis, also known as spinal fusion, in the lumbar spine (lower back), to permanently join two vertebrae, the interlocking bones of the spine. The provider applies bone graft material to fuse the spine at the back of the vertebrae, at the back and side, or at the side and across. The procedure helps to alleviate persistent pain caused by various spinal conditions, including herniated intervertebral disks, stenosis, and spinal injuries.",CPT +22614,"Posterior, Posterolateral or Lateral Transverse Process Technique Arthrodesis Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).","The provider performs arthrodesis, also known as spinal fusion, to permanently join two vertebrae, the interlocking bones of the spine. The provider applies bone graft material to fuse the spine. The procedure helps to alleviate persistent pain caused by various spinal conditions, including herniated intervertebral disks, stenosis, and spinal injuries. This add–on code represents arthrodesis on each additional interspace at an encounter.",CPT +22630,"Posterior, Posterolateral or Lateral Transverse Process Technique Arthrodesis Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).","The provider performs an arthrodesis, also known as spinal fusion, in the lumbar spine, or lower back, to permanently join two vertebrae, the interlocking bones of the spine. He excises the lamina and disk material and applies bone graft between the disks to fuse them. The procedure helps to alleviate persistent pain caused by various spinal conditions, including herniated intervertebral disks, stenosis, or spinal injuries.",CPT +22632,"Posterior, Posterolateral or Lateral Transverse Process Technique Arthrodesis Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).","The provider performs an arthrodesis, also known as spinal fusion, in the lumbar spine, or lower back, to permanently join two vertebrae, the interlocking bones of the spine. He excises the lamina and disk material and applies bone graft between the disks to fuse them. The procedure helps to alleviate persistent pain caused by various spinal conditions, including herniated intervertebral disks, stenosis, or spinal injuries. He performs this procedure on an additional level after completing an initial arthrodesis in the same encounter.",CPT +22633,"Posterior, Posterolateral or Lateral Transverse Process Technique Arthrodesis Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).","In this procedure the provider joins two adjoining lumbar vertebral bodies permanently, accessing the operative site with a combination of approaches for a better outcome. The provider performs this procedure to prevent any further damage or pain in the joint.",CPT +22634,"Posterior, Posterolateral or Lateral Transverse Process Technique Arthrodesis Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).","In this add–on procedure, the provider joins two additional adjoining lumbar vertebral bodies permanently, accessing the operative site with a combination of approaches for a better outcome. The provider performs this procedure to prevent any further damage or pain in the joint.",CPT +22800,"Arthrodesis Procedures for Spine Deformity (eg, Scoliosis, Kyphosis).","The provider performs arthrodesis, also known as spinal fusion, to secure different vertebrae to one another. This procedure helps to treat and alleviate persistent pain caused by various spinal deformities, such as scoliosis or kyphosis, abnormal curvatures of the spine. He performs the procedure on up to six vertebral segments. He may apply a body cast.",CPT +22802,"Arthrodesis Procedures for Spine Deformity (eg, Scoliosis, Kyphosis).","The provider performs arthrodesis, also known as spinal fusion, to secure different vertebrae to one another. This procedure helps to treat and alleviate persistent pain caused by various spinal deformities, such as scoliosis or kyphosis, abnormal curvatures of the spine. He performs the procedure on seven to twelve vertebral segments. He may apply a body cast.",CPT +22804,"Arthrodesis Procedures for Spine Deformity (eg, Scoliosis, Kyphosis).","The provider performs arthrodesis, also known as spinal fusion, to secure different vertebrae to one another. This procedure helps to treat and alleviate persistent pain caused by various spinal deformities, such as scoliosis or kyphosis, abnormal curvatures of the spine. He performs the procedure on 13 or more vertebral segments. He may apply a body cast.",CPT +22808,"Arthrodesis Procedures for Spine Deformity (eg, Scoliosis, Kyphosis).","The provider performs arthrodesis, also known as spinal fusion, to secure different vertebrae to one another. This procedure helps to treat and alleviate persistent pain caused by various spinal deformities, such as scoliosis or kyphosis, abnormal curvatures of the spine. He uses an anterior, or front, approach to the spine, and fuses two to three vertebral segments. He may apply a body cast.",CPT +22810,"Arthrodesis Procedures for Spine Deformity (eg, Scoliosis, Kyphosis).","The provider performs an arthrodesis, also known as spinal fusion, to permanently join four to seven vertebrae, the interlocking bones of the spine. He applies bone graft to the anterior, or front, of the vertebrae to fuse them. The procedure helps to alleviate persistent pain caused by various spinal deformities, such as scoliosis or kyphosis, abnormal curvatures of the spine. He may apply a body cast to immobilize the spine.",CPT +22812,"Arthrodesis Procedures for Spine Deformity (eg, Scoliosis, Kyphosis).","The provider performs arthrodesis, also known as spinal fusion, to secure different vertebrae to one another. This procedure helps to treat and alleviate persistent pain caused by various spinal deformities, such as scoliosis or kyphosis, abnormal curvatures of the spine. He uses an anterior, or front, approach to the spine, and fuses eight or more vertebral segments. He may apply a body cast.",CPT +22818,"Arthrodesis Procedures for Spine Deformity (eg, Scoliosis, Kyphosis).","The provider performs kyphectomy to alleviate persistent pain caused by various spinal deformities, such as spina bifida or kyphosis. He excises one or two complete vertebral segments.",CPT +22819,"Arthrodesis Procedures for Spine Deformity (eg, Scoliosis, Kyphosis).","The provider performs kyphectomy to alleviate persistent pain caused by various spinal deformities, such as spina bifida or kyphosis. He excises three or more complete vertebral segments.",CPT +22830,Exploration Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider explores a prior spinal fusion, or arthrodesis, to assess the status of the spinal bone.",CPT +22836,Spinal Instrumentation Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider places screws in the anterior thoracic vertebrae and connects the screws using a flexible cable, typically to treat spinal curvature caused by scoliosis. This code applies to up to seven vertebral segments.",CPT +22837,Spinal Instrumentation Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider places screws in the anterior thoracic vertebrae and connects the screws using a flexible cable, typically to treat spinal curvature caused by scoliosis. This code applies to eight or more vertebral segments.",CPT +22838,Spinal Instrumentation Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider revises, replaces, or removes thoracic vertebral body tethering, which uses screws and a flexible cable, typically to treat spinal curvature caused by scoliosis. The provider may use thoracoscopy for the procedure.",CPT +22840,Spinal Instrumentation Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider places spinal instrumentation in the neck across a single interspace (C1–C2) to correct a spinal deformity during the course of a spinal surgery, such as a spinal fusion, or arthrodesis.",CPT +22841,Spinal Instrumentation Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider applies spinal wiring for vertebral fixation during the course of a spinal surgery, such as a spinal fusion, or arthrodesis.",CPT +22842,Spinal Instrumentation Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider places spinal instrumentation at the back of the spine across three to six vertebral segments to correct a spinal deformity during the course of a spinal surgery, such as a spinal fusion, or arthrodesis.",CPT +22843,Spinal Instrumentation Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider places spinal instrumentation at the back of the spine across seven to twelve vertebral segments to correct a spinal deformity during the course of a spinal surgery, such as a spinal fusion, or arthrodesis.",CPT +22844,Spinal Instrumentation Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider places spinal instrumentation at the back of the spine across 13 or more vertebral segments to correct a spinal deformity during the course of a spinal surgery, such as a spinal fusion, or arthrodesis.",CPT +22845,Spinal Instrumentation Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider places spinal instrumentation at the front of the spine across two to three vertebral segments to correct a spinal deformity during the course of a spinal surgery, such as a spinal fusion, or arthrodesis.",CPT +22846,Spinal Instrumentation Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider places spinal instrumentation at the front of the spine across four to seven vertebral segments to correct a spinal deformity during the course of a spinal surgery, such as a spinal fusion, or arthrodesis.",CPT +22847,Spinal Instrumentation Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider places spinal instrumentation at the front of the spine across eight or more vertebral segments to correct a spinal deformity during the course of a spinal surgery, such as a spinal fusion, or arthrodesis.",CPT +22848,Spinal Instrumentation Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider attaches the lower end of a spinal fixation device to the pelvic bones, but not the tailbone, during the course of a spinal surgery, such as a spinal fusion, or arthrodesis.",CPT +22849,Spinal Instrumentation Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,The provider reinserts a spinal fixation device due to failure of the device or one of its components.,CPT +22850,Spinal Instrumentation Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider removes a previously implanted nonsegmental spinal instrumentation device, such as a Harrington rod, from the posterior, or back, portion of the spine, due to infection, pain, rejection, or failure of the device.",CPT +22852,Spinal Instrumentation Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider removes a previously implanted segmental spinal instrumentation device from the posterior, or back, portion of the spine, due to infection, pain, rejection, or failure of the device.",CPT +22853,Spinal Instrumentation Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider inserts a metallic cage or mesh device between two vertebrae and may use screws or flanges to attach it to the front part of the vertebrae; the device maintains the disc space, provides spinal stability, and yet preserves some range of motion, which helps relieve persistent pain caused by a herniated, or bulging, disk or other spinal condition. The provider performs this procedure during a spinal interbody arthrodesis procedure, which is fusion, or permanent joining, of vertebrae over the joint space.",CPT +22854,Spinal Instrumentation Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider inserts a metallic cage or mesh device(s) to cover one or more defects caused by the complete or partial removal (resection) of a vertebral body (corpectomy) and may use screws or flanges to attach it to the front of the vertebrae on either side of the defect where a partial or complete removal of a vertebral body was performed; the device helps maintain the distance between vertebrae. The provider performs this procedure during a spinal interbody arthrodesis procedure, which is fusion, or permanent joining, of vertebrae over the joint space.",CPT +22855,Spinal Instrumentation Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider removes a previously implanted spinal instrumentation device from the anterior, or front, portion of the spine, due to infection, pain, rejection, or failure of the device.",CPT +22856,Spinal Instrumentation Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"In this procedure, the provider places an artificial disc into a single cervical interspace to treat conditions such as degenerative disc disease, disc disruption, internal disc derangement, and symptomatic disc desiccation. He also removes the intervertebral disc and removes bone spurs, or growths, that may develop on the upper or lower edges of the vertebrae to reduce pressure on the nerve root or spinal cord.",CPT +22857,Spinal Instrumentation Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider performs a total disc arthroplasty on a single interspace in the lower back. The provider approaches the spine from the front, excises the disc, and replaces it with an artificial disc.",CPT +22858,Spinal Instrumentation Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"At the same session as an initial interspace cervical spine total disc arthroplasty, the provider uses an anterior approach to perform a second level interspace procedure. He removes the painful degenerated disc and replaces it with an artificial mobile disc that helps in the normal movement of the disc.  He also removes the intervertebral disc and removes bone spurs, or growths, that may develop on the upper or lower edges of the vertebrae to reduce pressure on the nerve root or spinal cord.",CPT +22859,Spinal Instrumentation Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"The provider inserts a metallic cage or mesh device in the disc interspace between two vertebral bodies or over a defect caused by partial or complete removal of a vertebral body; the device maintains the interspace and vertebral height, which helps relieve persistent pain caused by a spinal condition. The provider performs this procedure during a primary spinal procedure.",CPT +22860,Spinal Instrumentation Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"At the same session as a primary arthroplasty service, the provider performs a total disc arthroplasty on a second interspace in the lower back. The provider approaches the spine from the front, excises the disc, and replaces it with an artificial disc.",CPT +22861,Spinal Instrumentation Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,The provider revises a prior total disk arthroplasty in the neck to treat a degenerated or diseased intervertebral disk. He replaces the device due to infection or device failure.,CPT +22862,Spinal Instrumentation Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,The provider revises a prior total disk arthroplasty in the lower back to treat a degenerated or diseased intervertebral disk. He replaces the device due to infection or device failure.,CPT +22864,Spinal Instrumentation Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,The provider removes a single artificial disk in the neck placed in a prior total disk arthroplasty procedure to treat degenerative disk disease or other symptomatic disk condition.,CPT +22865,Spinal Instrumentation Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,The provider removes a single artificial disk in the lower back placed in a prior total disk arthroplasty procedure to treat degenerative disk disease or other symptomatic disk condition.,CPT +22867,Spinal Instrumentation Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"Through an open approach, the provider inserts an interlaminar stabilization or interspinous distraction, or decompression, device (IPD) and attaches it to the bony projections (spinous processes) on the back of adjacent vertebrae at one site in the lumbar spine to restrict painful motion (stabilize) or open up (distract) the neural foramina, relieving pressure on the nerve roots. The provider does not fuse (permanently join) the vertebrae.",CPT +22868,Spinal Instrumentation Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"At the same session as the primary procedure and through an open approach, the provider inserts an additional interlaminar stabilization or interspinous distraction, or decompression, device (IPD) and attaches it to the bony projections (spinous processes) on the back of adjacent vertebrae at one site in the lumbar spine to restrict painful motion (stabilize) or open up (distract) the neural foramina, relieving pressure on the nerve roots. The provider does not fuse (permanently join) the vertebrae.",CPT +22869,Spinal Instrumentation Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"Through a minimally invasive approach, the provider inserts an interlaminar stabilization or interspinous distraction, or decompression, device (IPD) and attaches it to the bony projections (spinous processes) on the back of adjacent vertebrae at one site in the lumbar spine to restrict painful motion (stabilize) or open up (distract) the neural foramina, relieving pressure on the nerve roots. The provider does not fuse (permanently join) the vertebrae.",CPT +22870,Spinal Instrumentation Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,"Through an additional minimally invasive approach, the provider inserts an interlaminar stabilization or interspinous distraction, or decompression, device (IPD) and attaches it to the bony projections (spinous processes) on the back of adjacent vertebrae at an additional level in the lumbar spine to restrict painful motion (stabilize) or open up (distract) the neural foramina, relieving pressure on the nerve roots. The provider does not fuse (permanently join) the vertebrae.",CPT +22899,Other Procedures on the Spine (Vertebral Column).,Use to report procedures in the spinal column that do not have a specific code.,CPT +22900,Excision Procedures on the Abdomen.,"The provider excises an abnormal mass from within the muscle layer beneath the abdominal wall. He submits the specimen, less than 5 cm in size, to a laboratory for analysis to determine its nature.",CPT +22901,Excision Procedures on the Abdomen.,"The provider excises an abnormal mass from within the muscle layer beneath the abdominal wall. He submits the specimen, 5 cm or greater in size, to a laboratory for analysis to determine its nature.",CPT +22902,Excision Procedures on the Abdomen.,"The provider excises an abnormal mass from within the soft tissue immediately below the surface of the skin of the abdominal wall. He submits the specimen, less than 3 cm in size, to a laboratory for analysis to determine its nature.",CPT +22903,Excision Procedures on the Abdomen.,"The provider excises an abnormal mass from within the soft tissue immediately below the surface of the skin of the abdominal wall. He submits the specimen, 3 cm or greater in size, to a laboratory for analysis to determine its nature.",CPT +22904,Excision Procedures on the Abdomen.,"The provider performs an excision procedure for a soft tissue malignant tumor, such as a sarcoma, from the abdominal wall. The excision of the tumor is performed in an extensive manner, not being limited to the dimensions of the tumor itself but expanding to its surrounding area/anatomical structures suspected for involvement. The diameter of the tumor and the margins required measure less than 5cm.",CPT +22905,Excision Procedures on the Abdomen.,"The provider performs an excision procedure for a soft tissue malignant tumor, such as a sarcoma, from the abdominal wall. The excision of the tumor is performed in an extensive manner, not being limited to the dimensions of the tumor itself but expanding to its surrounding area/anatomical structures suspected for involvement. The diameter of the tumor and the margins required measure 5cm or more.",CPT +22999,Other Procedures on the Abdomen.,Use to report procedures in the abdomen that do not have a specific code.,CPT +23000,Incision Procedures on the Shoulder.,"The provider excises calcium deposits from the shoulder area, the result of prior injuries. He makes an incision in the deltoid muscle near the shoulder.",CPT +23020,Incision Procedures on the Shoulder.,The provider releases a contracture involving the joint capsule in the shoulder to improve range of motion in a stiff or frozen shoulder.,CPT +23030,Incision Procedures on the Shoulder.,"The provider incises and drains a pocket of infection or blood deep in the shoulder area, to relieve pain and pressure and or treat infection.",CPT +23031,Incision Procedures on the Shoulder.,"The provider incises and drains an infected bursa, one of several fluid–filled sacs that prevent friction in the shoulder joint, to treat the infection and relieve pain and pressure.",CPT +23035,Incision Procedures on the Shoulder.,"The provider incises the outer shell, or cortex, of a bone in the shoulder to treat a pocket of infection, such as abscess or osteomyelitis.",CPT +23040,Incision Procedures on the Shoulder.,"The provider incises the shoulder joint to inspect the interior, drain any fluid, and or remove any debris due to recurrent dislocations or traumatic injury.",CPT +23044,Incision Procedures on the Shoulder.,"The provider incises the acromioclavicular or sternoclavicular joint to inspect the structures inside the joint. He removes any loose material, such as pieces of cartilage, to relieve pain and restore mobility to the joint.",CPT +23065,Excision Procedures on the Shoulder.,"The provider performs a biopsy of the superficial, or surface level, soft tissue in the shoulder area to obtain a sample of suspicious tissue, such as a small lump immediately under the skin. He submits the specimen for analysis to determine the presence of abnormal cells, especially cancerous cells.",CPT +23066,Excision Procedures on the Shoulder.,"The provider biopsies the deep soft tissue of the shoulder to determine whether a patient's cells are malignant or benign, or in some cases, precancerous. Typically, the provider will examine a lump under the patient's skin and determine that an excisional biopsy is required to determine the nature of the lump.",CPT +23071,Excision Procedures on the Shoulder.,"The provider excises an abnormal mass, or tumor, from the soft tissues immediately below the skin in the shoulder. He submits the specimen, 3 cm or greater in size, to a laboratory for analysis and diagnosis.",CPT +23073,Excision Procedures on the Shoulder.,"The provider excises an abnormal mass, or tumor, from within the muscle tissue of the shoulder. He submits the specimen, 5 cm or greater in size, to a laboratory for analysis and diagnosis.",CPT +23075,Excision Procedures on the Shoulder.,"The provider excises an abnormal mass, or tumor, from within the subcutaneous tissue of the shoulder. He submits the specimen, less than 3 cm in size, including margins, to a laboratory for analysis and diagnosis.",CPT +23076,Excision Procedures on the Shoulder.,"The provider excises an abnormal mass, or tumor, from within the intramuscular tissue of the shoulder. He submits the specimen, less than 5 cm in size, including margins, to a laboratory for analysis and diagnosis.",CPT +23077,Excision Procedures on the Shoulder.,"The provider performs an excision procedure for a soft tissue malignant tumor, such as a sarcoma, from the shoulder area. The excision of the tumor is performed in an extensive manner, not being limited to the dimensions of the tumor itself but expanding to its surrounding area/anatomical structures suspected for involvement. The diameter of the tumor and the margins required measure less than 5cm.",CPT +23078,Excision Procedures on the Shoulder.,"The provider performs an excision procedure for a soft tissue malignant tumor, such as a sarcoma, from the shoulder area. The excision of the tumor is performed in an extensive manner, not being limited to the dimensions of the tumor itself but expanding to its surrounding area/anatomical structures suspected for involvement. The diameter of the tumor and the margins required measure 5cm or more.",CPT +23100,Excision Procedures on the Shoulder.,In this procedure the provider makes an incision to expose the glenohumeral joint of the shoulder and takes a biopsy.,CPT +23101,Excision Procedures on the Shoulder.,"The provider incises the acromioclavicular or sternoclavicular joint to remove torn cartilage, relieving pain and restoring mobility, and or take a tissue sample for submission to a laboratory for analysis and diagnosis.",CPT +23105,Excision Procedures on the Shoulder.,"The provider incises the shoulder joint to inspect and repair the synovium, the membrane covering the bony surfaces of the joint. He excises synovial tissue that has become inflamed, to relieve pain and limitation of motion. If needed, he takes a sample of the tissue to submit to a laboratory for analysis and diagnosis.",CPT +23106,Excision Procedures on the Shoulder.,"The provider incises the sternoclavicular joint, where the breastbone joins the collar bone at the shoulder. He removes some of the membrane in the joint to relieve pain and inflammation due to conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis. He may take a sample of tissue to submit to a laboratory for analysis.",CPT +23107,Excision Procedures on the Shoulder.,"The provider incises the shoulder joint to inspect the structures inside the joint. He removes any loose material, such as pieces of cartilage, to relieve pain and restore mobility to the joint.",CPT +23120,Excision Procedures on the Shoulder.,"In a partial claviculectomy, or Mumford procedure, the provider incises the shoulder and removes part of the collarbone to relieve pain from chronic joint conditions, like arthritis and arthrosis.",CPT +23125,Excision Procedures on the Shoulder.,"The provider excises the clavicle, or collarbone, to treat malignant tumors, trauma, or infection.",CPT +23130,Excision Procedures on the Shoulder.,"The provider reshapes the acromion, the bony projection at the end of the shoulder blade, to restore motion to the shoulder and protect the rotator cuff. He may partially remove the acromion and or incise the ligament that attaches the muscle the shoulder blade.",CPT +23140,Excision Procedures on the Shoulder.,The provider removes a noncancerous mass or cyst from the collar bone or shoulder blade by excising or scraping the bone. He submits the specimen to a laboratory for analysis.,CPT +23145,Excision Procedures on the Shoulder.,The provider removes a noncancerous mass or cyst from the collarbone or shoulder blade by excising or scraping the bone. He fills the defect with bone harvested elsewhere from the patient. He submits the specimen to a laboratory for analysis.,CPT +23146,Excision Procedures on the Shoulder.,"The provider removes a noncancerous mass or cyst from the collarbone or shoulder blade, by excising or scraping the bone. He fills the defect with donor bone. He submits the specimen to a laboratory for analysis.",CPT +23150,Excision Procedures on the Shoulder.,"The provider removes a noncancerous mass or cyst from the top portion of the humerus, the bone of the upper arm, by excising or scraping the bone. He submits the specimen to a laboratory for analysis.",CPT +23155,Excision Procedures on the Shoulder.,"The provider removes a cyst or other noncancerous mass from the humerus, a bone in the upper arm, with a cutting or scraping instrument. He fills the defect with bone graft taken from another location in the patient’s body. He submits the specimen to a laboratory for analysis to confirm its nature.",CPT +23156,Excision Procedures on the Shoulder.,"The provider removes a cyst or other noncancerous mass from the proximal humerus, the top part of the bone in the upper arm, with a cutting or scraping instrument. He fills the defect with donor bone graft. He submits the specimen to a laboratory for analysis to confirm its nature.",CPT +23170,Excision Procedures on the Shoulder.,"The provider excises a sequestrum, a dead fragment of bone, from the collarbone, likely the result of infection in the bone.",CPT +23172,Excision Procedures on the Shoulder.,"The provider excises a sequestrum, a dead fragment of bone, from the shoulder blade, likely the result of infection in the bone.",CPT +23174,Excision Procedures on the Shoulder.,"The provider excises a sequestrum, a dead fragment of bone, from the area near the top of the upper arm bone, likely the result of infection in the bone.",CPT +23180,Excision Procedures on the Shoulder.,"The provider excises a portion of infected bone in the top part of the upper arm, likely the result of osteomyelitis or abscess.",CPT +23182,Excision Procedures on the Shoulder.,"The provider excises a portion of infected shoulder blade, likely the result of osteomyelitis or abscess.",CPT +23184,Excision Procedures on the Shoulder.,"The provider excises a portion of infected bone in the top part of the upper arm, likely the result of osteomyelitis or abscess.",CPT +23190,Excision Procedures on the Shoulder.,"The provider removes a portion of the shoulder blade, generally to treat infection, tumor, or deformity.",CPT +23195,Excision Procedures on the Shoulder.,"The provider removes the rounded portion of the upper arm bone where it connects to the shoulder joint, to treat conditions like osteomyelitis, necrotic bone, or tumor.",CPT +23200,Excision Procedures on the Shoulder.,"The provider performs a radical resection of a tumor in the collarbone, which may be a sarcoma or other cancer. He submits the specimen to a laboratory for analysis to determine its nature.",CPT +23210,Excision Procedures on the Shoulder.,"The provider performs a radical resection of a tumor in the shoulder blade, which may be a sarcoma or other cancer. He submits the specimen to a laboratory for analysis to determine its nature.",CPT +23220,Excision Procedures on the Shoulder.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a radical resection, or extensive removal of a tumor from the upper end of a patient's humerus bone. He performs this procedure to treat bone cancer.",CPT +23330,Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Shoulder.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a foreign body from the subcutaneous tissue, or from just under the skin, of a patient's shoulder.",CPT +23333,Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Shoulder.,Use this code when the provider removes a foreign body from the shoulder's subfascial or intramuscular tissue.,CPT +23334,Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Shoulder.,Use this code when the provider removes a prosthesis from the humeral OR glenoid areas of the shoulder.,CPT +23335,Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Shoulder.,Use this code when the provider removes a prosthesis involving both the humeral AND glenoid areas of the shoulder.,CPT +23350,Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Shoulder.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an injection of a contrast agent into the shoulder joint for a shoulder arthrography procedure, a diagnostic test in which the provider obtains a series of X–ray images of the shoulder joint after injection of the contrast. He uses this test to assess the joint for any soft tissue injury. The provider may also perform computed tomography, or CT, or magnetic resonance imaging, or MRI images, after the injection of contrast, which is referred to as an enhanced CT or MRI shoulder arthrography.",CPT +23395,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Shoulder.","In this procedure, the provider transfers a muscle from another location of the patient’s body to the shoulder or upper arm. He performs this procedure to treat injuries that impair the upper extremity function due to damage of the muscle in the upper arm or shoulder.",CPT +23397,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Shoulder.","In this procedure, the provider transfers multiple muscles from another location on the patient’s body to the shoulder or upper arm. He performs this procedure to treat injuries that impair the upper extremity function due to damage to the muscles in the upper arm or shoulder.",CPT +23400,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Shoulder.","In this procedure, the provider attaches the patient's scapula to a rib or vertebra to correct shoulder asymmetries or deformities that create issues with the patient's motion. The provider performs this service for conditions such as sprengels deformity, a congenital deformity in which the person has one shoulder blade that sits higher on the back than the other.",CPT +23405,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Shoulder.","In this procedure, the provider performs a tenotomy in the shoulder area in which he incises or divides a single tendon through a small incision in the skin. The provider performs this procedure to correct painful conditions of the shoulder joint caused by congenital or acquired conditions.",CPT +23406,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Shoulder.","In this procedure, the provider performs a multiple tenotomy in the shoulder area in which he incises or divides multiple tendons through the same incision in the skin. The provider performs this procedure to correct painful conditions of the shoulder joint caused by congenital or acquired conditions.",CPT +23410,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Shoulder.","In this procedure, the provider performs an open surgical repair of an acute tear of the rotator cuff in the shoulder. The rotator cuff is a group of four muscles that stabilizes the shoulder joint.",CPT +23412,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Shoulder.","In this procedure, the provider performs an open surgical repair of a chronic, or persistent, tear of the rotator cuff in the shoulder. A rotator cuff is a group of four muscles that stabilizes the shoulder joint.",CPT +23415,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Shoulder.","In this procedure, the provider performs a release of the coracoacromial ligament to restore shoulder function when the patient experiences a stiff, painful, or frozen shoulder. The provider may perform acromioplasty, a process in which the provider shaves a portion of the bone from the underside of the acromion process to release the abnormal pressure that it might be causing on underlying muscle or tendon.",CPT +23420,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Shoulder.","In this procedure, the provider reconstructs the complete shoulder in a patient with chronic rotator cuff tear or rupture. He also performs an acromioplasty, a procedure in which the provider shaves a portion of bone from the underside of the acromion process to release abnormal pressure that it might be causing on underlying muscles or tendons.",CPT +23430,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Shoulder.","In this procedure, the provider surgically cleans the long tendon of the biceps from its damaged fragment and fixes the tendon to the upper end of the humerus to improve the stability of the joint. He performs this procedure to restore function to patients with severe damage of the biceps tendon due to conditions such as recurrent shoulder impingement or degenerative changes in the shoulder joint.",CPT +23440,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Shoulder.","In this procedure, the provider surgically resects or transplants the long tendon of the biceps to a new point of attachment. He performs this procedure to improve the stability of the shoulder joint.",CPT +23450,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Shoulder.","In this procedure, the provider repairs a tear in a patient’s shoulder joint capsule and tightens the joint capsule in case of hyperlaxity, an excessive movement in an abnormal plane of movement for the shoulder. He performs this procedure to treat conditions like severe shoulder instability.",CPT +23455,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Shoulder.","In this procedure, the provider repairs a tear in a patient’s shoulder joint capsule and tightens the joint capsule in the case of hyperlaxity, an excessive movement in an abnormal plane of movement for the shoulder. He performs this procedure to treat conditions like a severe shoulder instability. He also performs a repair of a labrum tear in a procedure such as a Bankart procedure.",CPT +23460,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Shoulder.","In this procedure, the provider repairs a tear in the shoulder joint capsule and tightens the joint capsule in the case of hyperlaxity, an excessive movement in an abnormal plane of movement for the shoulder. He performs this procedure to treat conditions like severe shoulder instability. He also performs a bone block procedure in which the provider replaces the damaged portion of the glenoid cavity with a graft from the scapula, or shoulder blade bone.",CPT +23462,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Shoulder.","In this procedure, the provider repairs a tear in the shoulder joint capsule and tightens the joint capsule in the case of hyperlaxity, an excessive movement in an abnormal plane of movement for the shoulder. He performs this procedure to treat conditions like severe shoulder instability. He performs capsulorraphy with transfer of the coracoid process of the shoulder blade.",CPT +23465,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Shoulder.","The provider repairs the capsule, or membrane covering, of the posterior shoulder joint to improve shoulder stability. He may perform this procedure in conjunction with other shoulder surgeries in cases where the shoulder condition is severe.",CPT +23466,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Shoulder.","In this procedure, the provider repairs a tear in the shoulder joint capsule and tightens the joint capsule in the case of hyperlaxity, an excessive movement in an abnormal plane of movement for the shoulder. He performs this procedure to treat multidirectional instability of the shoulder.",CPT +23470,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Shoulder.","In this procedure, the provider performs glenohumeral joint hemiarthroplasty in which the provider replaces the damaged head of a humerus with a prosthetic implant while the other half of the shoulder, the glenoid cavity is left intact. The provider performs this procedure when arthritis damages only the humerus head of the shoulder joint.",CPT +23472,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Shoulder.","In this procedure, the provider performs a total shoulder arthroplasty in which the provider replaces the damaged head of the humerus and the glenoid cavity with prosthetic implants. The provider performs this procedure to treat severe arthritis of the shoulder joint. The aim of this procedure is to relieve the pain and disability in a severely damaged shoulder.",CPT +23473,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Shoulder.","In this procedure, the provider performs a revision arthroplasty of the shoulder joint, or he removes a previous artificial shoulder joint implant, or prosthesis, and replaces it with a new prosthesis. He revises either the glenoid or humeral component. He may use an allograft to perform this procedure. The provider performs this procedure to remove a loose or damaged prosthesis before it does irreversible harm to the joint.",CPT +23474,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Shoulder.","In this procedure, the provider performs a revision arthroplasty of the shoulder joint. He revises both the glenoid and humeral components. He may use an allograft to perform this procedure. The provider performs this procedure to remove and replace a loose or damaged prosthesis before it does irreversible harm to the joint.",CPT +23480,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Shoulder.","In this procedure, the provider incises a portion of the clavicle, or the collar bone, to repair a patient's poor clavicular alignment or a fracture, to shorten or lengthen the bone, or to correct damage due to arthritis. The provider may also internally fixate the bone with implants as part of this procedure.",CPT +23485,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Shoulder.","In this procedure, the provider incises a portion of the clavicle, or collar bone to repair a patient's poor clavicular alignment or a fracture, to shorten or lengthen the bone, or to correct damage due to arthritis. He performs this procedure with a bone graft and may internally fixate the bone.",CPT +23490,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Shoulder.","In this procedure, the provider treats a defect in the clavicle, or collar bone using fixation implants such as nails, plates, or screws to prevent further problems. He may also use methylmethacrylate, a type of bone cement for additional stability.",CPT +23491,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Shoulder.","In this procedure, the provider treats a defect in the upper end of the humerus bone using fixation implants such as nails, plates, or screws to prevent further problems. He may or may not use methylmethacrylate, a type of bone cement for additional stability.",CPT +23500,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Shoulder.,"In this procedure, the provider performs closed treatment of a clavicular bone fracture. Treatment does not include manipulation, or adjustment, of the fractured bone nor is surgery necessary.",CPT +23505,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Shoulder.,"In this procedure, the provider performs closed treatment of a clavicular bone fracture. Treatment includes manipulation, or adjustment, of the fractured bone, but surgery is not necessary.",CPT +23515,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Shoulder.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an open treatment of a clavicle, or collar bone fracture. He may use internal fixation implants such as pins or screws to fix the fracture.",CPT +23520,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Shoulder.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a closed treatment of a sternoclavicular joint dislocation, which is abnormal separation of a joint. He performs this procedure without manipulation, or adjustment, of the separated bones nor is surgery necessary.",CPT +23525,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Shoulder.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a closed treatment of a sternoclavicular joint dislocation, which is an abnormal separation of a joint. He performs this procedure with manipulation, or adjustment, of the separated bones, but surgery is not necessary.",CPT +23530,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Shoulder.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an open treatment of an acute or chronic sternoclavicular dislocation, which is a new or recurring abnormal separation of a joint. He uses internal fixation implants such as pins or screws to fix the dislocation.",CPT +23532,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Shoulder.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an open treatment of an acute or chronic sternoclavicular dislocation, which is a new or recurring abnormal separation of a joint. He uses a graft of fascia to help fixate the bones in place. He also uses internal fixation implants such as pins or screws to repair the dislocation.",CPT +23540,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Shoulder.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a closed treatment of an acromioclavicular joint dislocation, which is an abnormal separation of a joint. He performs this procedure without manipulation, or adjustment, of the separated bones, nor is surgery necessary.",CPT +23545,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Shoulder.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a closed treatment of an acromioclavicular joint dislocation, which is an abnormal separation of a joint. He performs this procedure with manipulation, or adjustment, of the separated bones, but surgery is not necessary.",CPT +23550,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Shoulder.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an open treatment of an acute or chronic acromioclavicular dislocation, which is a new or recurring abnormal separation of a joint. He uses internal fixation implants such as pins or screws to fix the dislocation.",CPT +23552,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Shoulder.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an open treatment of an acute or chronic acromioclavicular dislocation, which is an abnormal separation of a joint, using a graft of fascia. He uses internal fixation implants such as pins or screws to fix the dislocation.",CPT +23570,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Shoulder.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a closed treatment of a scapular bone fracture. Treatment does not include manipulation, or adjustment, of the fractured bone nor is surgery necessary.",CPT +23575,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Shoulder.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a closed treatment of a scapular bone fracture. Treatment includes manipulation, or adjustment, of the fractured bone. He may also perform skeletal traction to reduce the fracture but the patient does not require surgery.",CPT +23585,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Shoulder.,"The provider repairs a fracture of the scapula, or shoulder blade, through an open incision. He may apply screws or a metal plate to stabilize the repair until healing takes place.",CPT +23600,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Shoulder.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a closed treatment of a surgical or anatomical neck fracture of the upper end of the humerus. Treatment does not include manipulation, or adjustment, of the fractured bone nor does it require open surgery.",CPT +23605,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Shoulder.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a closed treatment of a surgical or anatomical neck fracture of the upper end of the humerus. Treatment includes manipulation, or adjustment, of the fractured bone with or without skeletal traction but open surgery is not necessary.",CPT +23615,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Shoulder.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an open treatment of a surgical or anatomical neck fracture of the upper end of the humerus. He may or may not use internal fixation implants such as pins or screws to fix the fracture. Also, he may repair the tuberosities, or the rounded projections on the upper end of the humerus.",CPT +23616,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Shoulder.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an open treatment of a surgical or anatomical neck fracture of the upper end of the humerus. He may or may not use internal fixation implants such as pins or screws to fix the fracture. Also, he may repair the tubercles, or the rounded projections on the upper end of the humerus along with the prosthetic replacement of the humeral head.",CPT +23620,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Shoulder.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a closed treatment of a greater humeral tuberosity fracture. Treatment does not include manipulation, or adjustment, of the fractured bone.",CPT +23625,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Shoulder.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a closed treatment of a greater humeral tuberosity fracture. Treatment includes manipulation, or adjustment, of the fractured bone.",CPT +23630,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Shoulder.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an open treatment of a greater humeral tuberosity fracture. He may use internal fixation implants such as pins or screws to fix the fracture.",CPT +23650,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Shoulder.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a closed treatment of a shoulder joint dislocation, which is an abnormal separation of a joint. He performs this procedure with manipulation, or adjustment, of the separated bones but does not use anesthesia.",CPT +23655,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Shoulder.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a closed treatment of a shoulder joint dislocation, which is an abnormal separation of a joint. He performs this procedure using anesthesia.",CPT +23660,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Shoulder.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an open treatment of an acute shoulder dislocation, which is an abnormal separation of a joint. He makes an incision to open the shoulder joint and reduces the dislocation. The provider performs this service most often for a posterior shoulder dislocation, where the humeral head dislodges from the joint and exits toward the back rather than an anterior shoulder dislocation, where the humeral exits the joint and moves toward the front of the body.",CPT +23665,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Shoulder.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a closed treatment of a shoulder joint dislocation, which is an abnormal separation of a joint. He also reduces a fracture of the greater humeral tuberosity and performs manipulation to passively move and stretch the shoulder joint.",CPT +23670,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Shoulder.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an open treatment of a shoulder dislocation which is an abnormal separation of a joint. He makes an incision to open the shoulder joint and reduce, or realign the dislocation. Also, he performs an open treatment of a fracture of the greater humeral tuberosity with or without using internal fixation implants such as pins or screws.",CPT +23675,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Shoulder.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a closed treatment of a shoulder joint dislocation, which is an abnormal separation of a joint. He also reduces, or realigns, a surgical or anatomical neck fracture at the upper end of the humerus bone and performs manipulation to passively move and stretch the shoulder joint.",CPT +23680,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Shoulder.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an open treatment of the shoulder dislocation, which is an abnormal separation of a joint. He makes an incision to open the shoulder joint and reduces, or realigns the dislocation. Also, he performs an open repair of a surgical or anatomical neck fracture of the upper end of the humerus with or without using internal fixation implants such as pins or screws.",CPT +23700,Manipulation Procedures on the Shoulder.,"In this procedure, the provider manipulates a patient’s shoulder joint with the patient under anesthesia. He may also apply a fixation apparatus. He performs this service to treat conditions such as a frozen shoulder.",CPT +23800,Arthrodesis Procedures on the Shoulder.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically immobilizes the glenohumeral joint with the help of fixation devices. He performs this procedure to restore function to the shoulder for conditions such as arthritis or a failed shoulder replacement.",CPT +23802,Arthrodesis Procedures on the Shoulder.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically immobilizes the glenohumeral joint with the help of fixation devices. He induces artificial bone generation in the joint area with the help of a graft he obtains from another part of the patient’s body. He performs this procedure to restore function to the shoulder for conditions such as arthritis or failed shoulder replacements.",CPT +23900,Amputation Procedures on the Shoulder.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically removes the upper extremity, scapula, or shoulder blade, and clavicle, or collar bone usually due to bone cancer of the shoulder. This procedure is also known as a forequarter amputation.",CPT +23920,Amputation Procedures on the Shoulder.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically removes the entire upper extremity through the shoulder joint. The provider removes the humerus, or upper arm bone, and the entire arm from the scapula, or shoulder blade and the clavicle, or collar bone without incising bones.",CPT +23921,Amputation Procedures on the Shoulder.,"In this procedure, the provider remodels the skin and muscle structures of a stump left after disarticulation of the upper extremity through the shoulder. The provider performs this procedure following an improper initial closure or because of pain due to contracture in the wound.",CPT +23929,Other Procedures on the Shoulder.,Use to report a shoulder procedure that does not have a specific code.Â,CPT +23930,Incision Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,In this procedure the provider makes an incision to drain any abscess or swelling of clotted blood that is in the deep structures of the upper arm or elbow.,CPT +23931,Incision Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"In this procedure, the provider incises a bursa and drains the fluid to relieve pain, pressure, and infection from a localized site on the upper arm or elbow area.",CPT +23935,Incision Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"In this procedure, the provider incises the bone cortex to relieve pain, pressure, or infection due to such conditions as osteomyelitis or a bone abscess in a localized site on the upper arm or elbow area.",CPT +24000,Incision Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically examines the elbow joint and drains or removes loose bodies within the elbow joint.",CPT +24006,Incision Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically repairs the elbow joint to treat a recurrent dislocation and osteochondritis dissecans, or OCD.",CPT +24065,Excision Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a biopsy of a lump present in the upper arm and elbow area to determine whether it is cancerous.",CPT +24066,Excision Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a biopsy of a lump present deep within the upper arm and elbow area to determine whether it is cancerous.",CPT +24071,Excision Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically removes a tumor of greater than 3 cm in size present in the subcutaneous tissue in the upper arm or elbow area.",CPT +24073,Excision Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,The provider surgically removes a tumor of greater than 5 cm in size present deep in the upper arm and elbow area.,CPT +24075,Excision Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,The provider surgically removes a tumor of less than 3 cm in size present in the soft tissues of the upper arm and elbow area.,CPT +24076,Excision Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,The provider surgically removes a tumor of less than 5 cm in size that is present in the subfascial or intramuscular region of the upper arm and elbow area.,CPT +24077,Excision Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"The provider performs a radical resection of a tumor in the soft tissue of the upper arm or elbow, which may be a sarcoma or other cancer. He submits the specimen, less than 5 cm in size, to a laboratory for analysis to determine its nature.",CPT +24079,Excision Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"The provider performs a radical resection of a tumor in the soft tissue of the upper arm or elbow, which may be a sarcoma or other cancer. He submits the specimen, 5 cm or larger in size, to a laboratory for analysis to determine its nature.",CPT +24100,Excision Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a piece of tissue from within the elbow joint to assist in diagnosis of conditions such as gout or rheumatoid arthritis.",CPT +24101,Excision Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"In this procedure the provider incises the elbow joint and joint capsule for exploration, possibly with biopsy and/or removal of a loose or foreign body.",CPT +24102,Excision Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"In this procedure, the provider incises a patient’s elbow joint and performs an elbow synovectomy to remove the synovium. He often performs this procedure to relieve pain and inflammation due to conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis.",CPT +24105,Excision Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"In this procedure, the provider excises the olecranon bursa to treat conditions such as bursitis. The provider typically performs the bursectomy this code describes, only after other, more conservative treatments have failed.",CPT +24110,Excision Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"The provider removes a cyst or other noncancerous mass from the humerus, a bone in the upper arm, with a cutting or scraping instrument. He submits the specimen to a laboratory for analysis to confirm its nature.",CPT +24115,Excision Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"In this procedure,the provider excises or removes a bone cyst or noncancerous tumor from the humerus, a bone in the arm. The provider then removes a part of a bone in the humerus on which the tumor or cyst has grown on and then fills the defect with grafting material he harvests from the patient.",CPT +24116,Excision Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"In this procedure, the provider excises or removes a bone cyst or noncancerous tumor from the humerus, a bone in the arm. The provider then removes a part of the bone in the humerus on which the tumor or cyst has grown and fills the defect with grafting material from a donor.",CPT +24120,Excision Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"In this procedure, the provider excises or removes a bone cyst or noncancerous tumor from part of the radius bone.",CPT +24125,Excision Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"In this procedure, the provider excises or removes a bone cyst or noncancerous tumor from part of the radius bone. He then fills the defect with grafting material, which he harvests from the patient.",CPT +24126,Excision Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"In this procedure, the provider excises or removes a bone cyst or noncancerous tumor from part of the radius bone. He then fills the defect with grafting material from a donor.",CPT +24130,Excision Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"In this procedure, the provider enters the elbow joint and excises the radial head following an elbow injury or fracture of the radial head. These are the most common elbow fractures in adults, and can result in major disability. The radial head has a specific role of fixation in the joint. So, the decision to excise the radial head fracture is influenced by the presence of injuries and their severity.",CPT +24134,Excision Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"In this procedure, the provider enters the abscessed area of the humeral shaft or distal humerus and removes the necrotic portion of the bone to limit the surrounding area from becoming infected.",CPT +24136,Excision Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"In this procedure, the provider enters the abscessed area of the radial head or neck and removes the necrotic portion of the bone to limit the surrounding area from getting infected.",CPT +24138,Excision Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"In this procedure, the provider enters the abscessed area of the olecranon process of the elbow and removes the necrotic portion of the bone to limit the surrounding area from getting infected.",CPT +24140,Excision Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"In this procedure, the provider removes the infected part of the humerus bone by partially scraping out the area to free it from infection.",CPT +24145,Excision Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"In this procedure, the provider removes the infected part of the radial head or neck by partially scraping out the area to free it from infection.",CPT +24147,Excision Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"In this procedure, the provider removes the infected part of the olecranon process by partially scraping out the area to free it from infection.",CPT +24149,Excision Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"In this procedure, the provider excises the elbow joint capsule with surrounding tissues to remove any abnormal bony growth. He also incises muscle or tendon to release the contracture of the elbow joint.",CPT +24150,Excision Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"In this procedure, the provider excises the shaft or distal humerus with surrounding tissues to remove any abnormal growth of tissue or mass.",CPT +24152,Excision Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"In this procedure, the provider excises the radial head or neck with surrounding tissues to remove the abnormal growth of a tissue or mass.",CPT +24155,Excision Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"In this procedure, the provider excises the distal part of the humerus and the proximal part of the radius and ulna that collectively form the elbow joint.",CPT +24160,Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,The provider removes a previously implanted prosthesis from the elbow joint. The implant being removed has a humeral component as well as an ulnar component.,CPT +24164,Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,The provider removes a previously implanted prosthesis from the elbow joint. The implant being removed has a radial component.,CPT +24200,Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,In this procedure the provider makes an incision into the subcutaneous layer of the skin and removes a foreign body down to the level of fascia.,CPT +24201,Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,In this procedure the provider makes an incision into the muscle layer and removes a foreign body that is below the fascia or inside the muscle.,CPT +24220,Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"The provider injects contrast material into the elbow joint cavity to enhance radiographic imaging to evaluate internal structures such as cartilage, ligaments, and bones and diagnose joint conditions and unexplained pain.",CPT +24300,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.","In this procedure, the provider evaluates the elbow and moves it while the patient is anesthetized to enable the patient to gain full range of motion following an injury.",CPT +24301,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.","In this procedure, the provider moves the tendons or muscles from the upper arm or elbow, allowing the patient to regain full function of the affected area without reducing the the function of the graft harvest area.",CPT +24305,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.","In this procedure the provider surgically increases the length of a tendon of the upper arm or elbow, to release the contracture.",CPT +24310,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.",In this procedure the provider makes an incision over the elbow and upper arm area to expose and incise the tendon and release the contracture.,CPT +24320,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.","In this procedure, known as a tenoplasty, the provider surgically repairs  a tendon along with transferring of a muscle. The provider restores the lost elbow flexion function due to paralysis of the bicep muscle. He does this by transferring the pectoralis major muscle to the biceps tendon.",CPT +24330,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.",In this procedure the provider increases elbow flexion strength by transferring the group of flexor muscles from the medial condyle of the humerus to a few inches up on the humeral bone surface.,CPT +24331,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.","In this procedure the provider increases elbow flexion strength by transferring the group of flexor muscles from the medial condyle of the humerus to a few inches up on the humeral bone surface above the neck of humerus. In addition, he transfers the extensor tendon down from the lower end of the humerus to just below the neck of the radius bone to the radial tuberosity.",CPT +24332,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.",The provider frees the triceps tendons in the elbow area to provide better joint flexion (bending).,CPT +24340,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.","In this procedure, the provider repairs a rupture of the distal biceps tendon to restore elbow function.",CPT +24341,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.","In this procedure, the provider repairs a tendon or muscle wound in the upper arm or elbow.",CPT +24342,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.","In this procedure, the provider reattaches the torn or separated distal end of a biceps or triceps tendon back to the bone from where it detached.",CPT +24343,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.",In this procedure the provider repairs the damaged collateral ligament on the elbow end or in the middle without using any graft.,CPT +24344,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.",In this procedure the provider repairs the damaged collateral ligament on the elbow end or in the middle of the collateral ligament with the help of a tendon graft.,CPT +24345,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.","In this procedure, the provider repairs damage or injured medial collateral ligament, MCL, of the elbow using local tissue.",CPT +24346,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.","In this procedure, the provider uses a tendon graft to reconstruct the patient’s injured medial collateral ligament to restore the function of the elbow.",CPT +24357,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.","In this procedure, the provider breaks up scar tissue by poking the enthesis several times with a needle. The goal is to improve vascularization and relieve the contracture of the tendon caused by the scar tissue.",CPT +24358,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.","In this procedure, the provider incises the medial or lateral site of a tenotomy for debridement of the fibrosed tissue to relieve the contracture of the tendon.",CPT +24359,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.","In this procedure, the provider incises the medial or lateral site of a tenotomy for debridement of the fibrosed tissue to relieve the contracture of the tendon. He also reattaches the residual tendons.",CPT +24360,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.","In this procedure, the provider performs membrane arthroplasty of an elbow, a procedure that is also known as interposition arthroplasty. In this procedure, the provider uses a graft like fascia lata, dermis, or Achilles tendon to resurface the articular surface of the arthritic elbow. The aim of this procedure is to relieve the pain and disability in a severely damaged elbow.",CPT +24361,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.","In this procedure, the provider performs elbow joint arthroplasty in which he replaces the arthritic end of the humerus bone with a prosthesis.",CPT +24362,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.",In this procedure the provider fits an artificial prosthesis cap on the distal end of the humerus and reconstructs the joint capsule with the fascia lata graft taken from the thigh.,CPT +24363,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.","In this procedure, the provider repairs the elbow using a prosthetic for the upper and lower parts of the elbow.",CPT +24365,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.","The provider excises the end of the radius, one of the bones of the forearm, to reconstruct the elbow joint after a traumatic injury.",CPT +24366,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.",In this procedure the provider fits an artificial prosthesis cap on the upper end of the radius for smooth and painless movement of the elbow.,CPT +24370,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.","The provider revises a prior total elbow replacement surgery due to failure of one of the components of the artificial joint, i.e., the humerus in the upper arm or the ulna in the lower arm. She replaces the component and may insert donor bone graft material.",CPT +24371,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.","The provider revises a prior total elbow replacement surgery due to failure of both components of the artificial joint, i.e., the humerus in the upper arm and the ulna in the lower arm. She replaces the components and may insert donor bone graft material.",CPT +24400,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.","The provider excises a segment of the humerus, the bone in the upper arm, to realign the bone and enable external rotation of the arm in the presence of a congenital deformity. He may apply hardware to strengthen the repair.",CPT +24410,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.","In this procedure, the provider cuts an improperly developed humeral bone shaft in multiple sections to straighten it with the help of an intramedullary rod.",CPT +24420,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.",In this procedure the provider takes out a piece of the humerus bone shaft to correct the length of the bone.,CPT +24430,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.",In this procedure the provider treats a nonunion or malunion deformity in the upper arm by cutting the undeveloped or improperly grown bone and fixing it by pulling together the ends.,CPT +24435,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.",In this procedure the provider treats a nonunion or malunion deformity in the upper arm by cutting the undeveloped or improperly grown bone and fixing it with the help of a bone graft taken from the patient’s own body.,CPT +24470,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.","In this procedure, the provider uses a technique such as stapling or placing a plate in part of the epiphyseal area near the elbow to halt growth.",CPT +24495,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.","The provider incises the fascia of a membrane enclosed compartment in the forearm to relieve pressure and increase blood flow in the presence of compartment syndrome, after an injury or surgery. He examines the brachial artery for signs of damage.",CPT +24498,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.",In this procedure the provider strengthens a weak area of the humerus bone. He performs the procedure with the help of various fixation devices to prevent any impending fracture.,CPT +24500,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"The provider treats a fracture of the humeral shaft, the bone in the upper arm. He does not make an incision or manipulate the fracture.",CPT +24505,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"The provider treats a fracture of the humeral shaft, the bone in the upper arm, without making an incision. He manipulates the fracture to restore the alignment and may use a traction device to apply additional force.",CPT +24515,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"The provider treats a fracture of the humeral shaft, the bone in the upper arm, in an open procedure. He makes an incision over the arm to access the fracture. He secures it with wires and screws and may use a cerclage technique, encircling the bone with wire.",CPT +24516,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,The provider performs the treatment of the humeral shaft fracture. He uses internal fixation implants like intramedullary rod and may or may not use cerclage and or locking screws.,CPT +24530,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"The provider treats a fracture of the humerus, the upper arm bone, through or above a condyle, a rounded projection at the end of the bone, but without extending between the condyles. He does not make an incision or manipulate the fracture.",CPT +24535,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"The provider treats a fracture of the humerus, the upper arm bone, through or above a condyle, a rounded projection at the end of the bone, but without extending between the condyles in a closed procedure. He manipulates the fracture into alignment without making an incision. He may apply tape to the skin or attach an external device to apply traction force to aid in restoring alignment.",CPT +24538,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"The provider treats a fracture of the humerus, the upper arm bone, through or above a condyle, a rounded projection at the end of the bone, but without extending between the condyles, in a percutaneous procedure. He inserts pins or wires through the skin, into the bone, to hold the fracture in place.",CPT +24545,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"The provider treats a fracture of the humerus, the upper arm bone, through or above a condyle, a rounded projection at the end of the bone, but without extending between the condyles in a open procedure. He makes an incision in the arm and may apply hardware to stabilize the fracture during healing.",CPT +24546,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"The provider treats a fracture of the humerus, the upper arm bone, through or above a condyle, a rounded projection at the end of the bone, that extends between the two condyles in a open procedure. He makes an incision in the arm and may apply hardware to stabilize the fracture during healing.",CPT +24560,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"The provider treats a fracture of an epicondyle of the humerus, a small bump on either side of the elbow, above the condyle, the rounded projection at the top of the upper arm bone, in a closed procedure. He does not make an incision and does not manipulate the fracture.",CPT +24565,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"The provider treats a fracture of an epicondyle of the humerus, a small bump on either side of the elbow, above the condyle, the rounded projection at the top of the upper arm bone, in a closed procedure using manipulation only. She does not make an incision.",CPT +24566,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"The provider treats a fracture of an epicondyle of the humerus, a small bump on either side of the elbow, above the condyle, the rounded projection at the top of the upper arm bone, in a percutaneous procedure. He manipulates the fracture to realign it. He inserts pins or wires through the skin, into the bone, to hold the fracture in place.",CPT +24575,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"The provider treats a fracture of an epicondyle of the humerus, a small bump on either side of the elbow, above the condyle, the rounded projection at the top of the upper arm bone, in an open procedure. She makes an incision in the arm and may apply hardware to stabilize the fracture during healing.",CPT +24576,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"The provider treats a fracture of a condyle of the humerus, one of two rounded projections at the top of the upper arm bone, in a closed procedure. He does not make an incision or use manipulation.",CPT +24577,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"The provider treats a fracture of a condyle of the humerus, one of two rounded projections at the top of the upper arm bone, in a closed procedure, using manipulation only. He does not make an incision.",CPT +24579,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"The provider treats a fracture of a condyle of the humerus, one of two rounded projections at the top of the upper arm bone, in an open procedure.  He makes an incision in the arm and may apply hardware to stabilize the fracture during healing.",CPT +24582,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"The provider treats a fracture of a condyle of the humerus, one of two rounded projections at the top of the upper arm bone, in a percutaneous procedure. He manipulates the fracture to realign it. He inserts pins or wires through the skin, into the bone, to hold the fracture in place.",CPT +24586,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"The provider treats a fracture of the elbow joint and or displacement of the bones in the elbow joint, the upper arm bone, or humerus, and one or both of the lower arm bones, the radius and ulna. He makes one or more incisions over the elbow to make the repair.",CPT +24587,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"Through an opening in the skin, the provider treats a fracture related to the elbow joint, an elbow dislocation, or both using one or more implants.",CPT +24600,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,The provider treats a displacement of the bones in the elbow joint in a closed procedure. He does not make an incision or use general anesthesia.,CPT +24605,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,The provider treats a displacement of the bones in the elbow joint in a closed procedure. He does not make an incision but does use general anesthesia.,CPT +24615,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,The provider treats an elbow joint dislocation by surgically opening the site of dislocation. He realigns the joint and may fix the joint capsule to the bone to prevent recurrence.,CPT +24620,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,The provider treats a Monteggia type of fracture dislocation at the elbow. He manipulates the bones into correct anatomical position. He does not make an incision. He applies a splint to maintain the reduction.,CPT +24635,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"The provider repairs a fracture of the ulna at the elbow with displacement of the head of the radius, the bones in the forearm. He realigns the joint and may attach wires and plates to stabilize it during healing.",CPT +24640,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,The provider treats a partially dislocated elbow in a child without surgically opening the site of dislocation. He manipulates the joint into correct anatomical position.,CPT +24650,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,The provider treats a fracture of the top of the radius bone at the elbow without surgically opening the site or manipulating the bone. He checks the alignment and applies a splint.,CPT +24655,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"The provider treats a fracture at the head or neck of the radius, one of the bones in the forearm, at its end near the elbow. He manually realigns the bones and applies a splint to maintain the position of the fracture until it heals.",CPT +24665,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"The provider treats a fracture at the head or neck of the radius, one of the bones in the forearm, through an incision at the elbow. He may excise a portion of bone and or apply screws or wires to hold the fracture in place.",CPT +24666,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"The provider treats a fracture at the head or neck of the radius, one of the bones in the forearm, through an incision at the elbow. He excises a portion of bone and replaces it with a prosthesis. He may apply screws or wires to hold the fracture in place.",CPT +24670,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"The provider treats a fracture of the ulna, one of the bones in the forearm, at its proximal end, or near the elbow, with a splint to maintain the position of the fracture until it heals. He does not manipulate the bones.",CPT +24675,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"The provider treats a fracture of the ulna, one of the bones in the forearm, at its proximal end, or near the elbow. He manually realigns the bones and applies a splint to maintain the position of the fracture until it heals.",CPT +24685,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"The provider treats a fracture of the ulna, one of the bones in the forearm, at its proximal end, through an incision at the elbow. He may apply screws or wires to hold the fracture in place.",CPT +24800,Arthrodesis Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,In this procedure the provider creates surgical immobilization of the elbow joint with the help of fixation devices. He induces artificial bone generation in the joint area with the help of a graft he obtains from the area near the elbow joint.,CPT +24802,Arthrodesis Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,In this procedure the provider creates surgical immobilization of the elbow joint with the help of fixation devices. He induces artificial bone generation in the joint area with the help of a graft he obtains from another part of the patient’s body.,CPT +24900,Amputation Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,In this procedure the provider completely removes the arm at any point on the humerus and closes the wound left with remaining muscular and skin layers.,CPT +24920,Amputation Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"In this procedure the provider completely cuts through the upper arm at any location on the humerus by running the cutting instrument around the humerus in a circular motion followed by cutting through the bone at the same level, such as with a saw.",CPT +24925,Amputation Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"In this procedure the provider remodels the skin and muscle structures of an already amputated upper limb, due to improper closure or because of pain due to contracture in the wound.",CPT +24930,Amputation Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"In this procedure the provider cuts out an additional length from an already amputated humerus, due to non–healing or because it is not appropriate in its current form to fit a prosthesis.",CPT +24931,Amputation Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,In this procedure the provider completely cuts through the upper arm at any point on the humerus and inserts an implant to maintain the length of the amputated limb or to place an artificial limb in the future.,CPT +24935,Amputation Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"In this procedure the provider increases the length of the amputated upper limb with the help of a bone graft, usually taken from the patient’s body.",CPT +24940,Amputation Procedures on the Humerus (Upper Arm) and Elbow.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically isolates a loop of muscle in the amputated stump of a patient's arm, covers it with skin, and attaches it to a prosthetic device that operates by contraction of the muscle in the loop.",CPT +24999,Other Procedures on the Humerus or Elbow.,Use to report procedures in the humerus or the elbow that do not have a specific code.,CPT +25000,Incision Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,The provider makes an incision into the wrist’s extensor tendon sheath to release the contracture of the tendon.,CPT +25001,Incision Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,The provider incises a flexor tendon sheath in the wrist to relieve pain and improve mobility in inflammatory conditions like rheumatoid arthritis or carpal tunnel syndrome.,CPT +25020,Incision Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,The provider incises the forearm and or wrist down to the level of fascial tissue to relieve a build up of pressure in a membrane covered compartment that could damage muscles and nerves.,CPT +25023,Incision Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,The provider incises the forearm and or wrist down to the level of fascial tissue to relieve a build up of pressure in a membrane covered compartment. He excises damaged muscle and or nerve tissue.,CPT +25024,Incision Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,The provider incises the forearm and or wrist down to the level of fascial tissue to relieve a buildup of pressure in a membrane covered compartment that could damage muscles and nerves.,CPT +25025,Incision Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,The provider incises the forearm and or wrist down to the level of fascial tissue to relieve a buildup of pressure in a membrane covered compartment. He excises damaged muscle and or nerve tissue.,CPT +25028,Incision Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,In this procedure the provider makes an incision to drain an abscess or hematoma that is in the deep structures of the forearm or wrist.,CPT +25031,Incision Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,In this procedure the provider makes an incision to drain an abscess in the infected bursa in the forearm or wrist.,CPT +25035,Incision Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,The provider incises the infected bone to treat a condition such as osteomyelitis or abscess of the forearm or wrist.,CPT +25040,Incision Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"In this procedure the provider incises the wrist joint for exploration, drainage of any fluid or abscess, or removal of a foreign body.",CPT +25065,Excision Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,The provider removes a sample of suspicious tissue from the superficial soft tissues of forearm and or wrist. He submits it to a laboratory for analysis to determine its nature.,CPT +25066,Excision Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,The provider removes a sample of suspicious tissue from the subfascial or intramuscular soft tissues of forearm and or wrist. He submits it to a laboratory for analysis to determine its nature.,CPT +25071,Excision Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"The provider excises a mass from below the skin in the soft tissues of forearm and or wrist. He submits the specimen, 3 cm or greater in size, to a laboratory for analysis to determine its nature.",CPT +25073,Excision Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"The provider performs the excision of an abnormal mass in the deep soft tissues or within the muscle of the forearm or wrist. He submits the specimen, 3 cm or greater in size, to a laboratory for analysis to determine its nature.",CPT +25075,Excision Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"The provider performs the excision of an abnormal mass in the subcutaneous tissue, immediately below the skin, of the forearm or wrist. He submits the specimen, 3 cm or less in size, to a laboratory for analysis to determine its nature.",CPT +25076,Excision Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"The provider performs the excision of an abnormal mass in the deep soft tissues or within the muscle of the forearm or wrist. He submits the specimen, 3 cm or less in size, to a laboratory for analysis to determine its nature.",CPT +25077,Excision Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"The provider performs a radical resection of a tumor in the soft tissue of the forearm and or wrist, which may be a sarcoma or other cancer. He submits the specimen, less than 3 cm in size, to a laboratory for analysis to determine its nature.",CPT +25078,Excision Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,The provider surgically removes a soft tissue tumor and an extensive amount of surrounding tissue (3 cm or more) of the forearm and/or wrist area.,CPT +25085,Excision Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,In this procedure the provider makes an incision into the wrist joint capsule to release any contracture.,CPT +25100,Excision Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,In this procedure the provider makes an incision into the wrist joint and takes a biopsy.,CPT +25101,Excision Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"In this procedure the provider incises the wrist joint and joint capsule for exploration, possibly with biopsy and/or removal of a loose or foreign body.",CPT +25105,Excision Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"In this procedure the provider makes an incision to expose the wrist joint and excises the synovium tissue around the bones, typically in a patient with rheumatoid arthritis or other inflammatory conditions.",CPT +25107,Excision Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"In this procedure the provider makes an incision to expose the wrist joint and treat the triangular cartilage using sutures or by debridement, typically in patients with cartilage damage due to injury or degenerative diseases.",CPT +25109,Excision Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,The provider surgically removes all or a portion of tendon from the forearm/wrist area.,CPT +25110,Excision Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,The provider cuts out a lesion from a tendon sheath in the forearm or wrist area.,CPT +25111,Excision Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"The provider excises the first occurrence of a ganglion, a fluid filled mass, from the wrist to relieve pain or discomfort.",CPT +25112,Excision Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"The provider excises a recurrent ganglion, a fluid filled mass, from the wrist to relieve pain or discomfort.",CPT +25115,Excision Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"The provider performs extensive removal of diseased tissue, with bursa, synovium, and/or tendon anatomy involved.",CPT +25116,Excision Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,In this procedure the provider opens up the wrist joint and performs extensive excision of the structures near the extensor tendons to manage a disease condition spread around the extensor tendons.,CPT +25118,Excision Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,In this procedure the provider makes an incision to expose the extensor tendon to excise the synovial layer from the extensor tendon sheath. He performs this in a specific limited area of the wrist know as a compartment.,CPT +25119,Excision Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,In this procedure the provider makes an incision to expose the extensor tendon to excise the synovial layer from the extensor tendon sheath. He performs this in a specific limited area of the wrist known as a compartment. In addition to this the provider excises a part of the distal ulna near the wrist.,CPT +25120,Excision Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,In this procedure the provider incises and exposes a section of the arm's radius or ulna bones distal to the elbow. He removes a benign abnormal growth from any area except the head and neck of the radius and the olecranon process of the ulna.,CPT +25125,Excision Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,In this procedure the provider removes any abnormal benign growth from a large area of the arm's radius or ulna bones. He repairs the defect created due to cyst or tumor excision with the help of a graft taken from any other body part of the patient.,CPT +25126,Excision Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,In this procedure the provider removes any abnormal benign growth from a large area of the arm's radius or ulna bones. He repairs the defect created due to cyst or tumor excision with the help of a graft taken from the body of another human.,CPT +25130,Excision Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,In this procedure the provider exposes the carpal bones of the wrist and removes any benign abnormal growth there.,CPT +25135,Excision Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,In this procedure the provider exposes the carpal bones of the wrist and removes any benign abnormal growth there. He repairs the defect created due to cyst or tumor excision with the help of a graft taken from any other body part of the patient.,CPT +25136,Excision Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,In this procedure the provider exposes the carpal bones of the wrist and removes any benign abnormal growth there. He repairs the defect created due to cyst or tumor excision with the help of a graft taken from the body of another human.,CPT +25145,Excision Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,In this procedure the provider incises and opens the forearm or wrist area to remove any separated dead piece of bone in that area.,CPT +25150,Excision Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,The provider removes bone from a small area using a technique that often leaves a crater– or saucer–like depression or excavation site on the bone.,CPT +25151,Excision Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,In this procedure the provider excises or scoops out a piece of infected radius bone.,CPT +25170,Excision Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"In this procedure the provider excises a tumor of the arm's radius or ulna bones, including some of the surrounding healthy tissues to make sure that no diseased bony or soft tissue is left in that area.",CPT +25210,Excision Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,In this procedure the provider removes any one of the eight carpal bones in the wrist area.,CPT +25215,Excision Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"In this procedure, the provider removes all three carpal bones (scaphoid, lunate, and triquetrum) of the proximal row, which is nearer to the radius and ulna in the wrist area than the distal row is.",CPT +25230,Excision Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,In this procedure the provider excises the styloid process of the radius bone.,CPT +25240,Excision Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"The provider excises the distal, or wrist end of the ulna, a bone in the forearm, partially or completely, to treat pain from arthritis or malunion, a deformity from an old fracture.",CPT +25246,Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"The provider injects a contrast dye into the wrist for arthrography, an imaging study to evaluate the internal joint structures such as cartilage, ligaments, and bones and diagnose joint conditions and unexplained pain.",CPT +25248,Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"The provider removes a foreign body deeply embedded in the forearm or wrist, typically as a result of traumatic injury.",CPT +25250,Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"The provider removes a previously implanted artificial wrist joint, generally due to an adverse reaction, infection, or failure of the device.",CPT +25251,Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"The provider removes a previously implanted artificial wrist joint, generally due to an adverse reaction, infection, or failure of the device. The procedure requires a complicated dissection.",CPT +25259,Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,The provider manipulates the wrist under general anesthesia to improve the range of motion of a stiff joint.,CPT +25260,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.",The provider repairs a flexor tendon or muscle in the forearm or wrist. He performs the repair soon after a traumatic injury.,CPT +25263,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.",The provider repairs a flexor tendon or muscle in the forearm or wrist. He performs the repair after the passage of time from the original traumatic injury.,CPT +25265,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.",The provider repairs a flexor tendon or muscle in the forearm or wrist. He applies a tissue graft obtained from another location in the patient’s body. He performs the repair after the passage of time from the original traumatic injury.,CPT +25270,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.",The provider repairs an extensor tendon or muscle in the forearm or wrist. He performs the repair soon after a traumatic injury.,CPT +25272,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.",The provider repairs an extensor tendon or muscle in the forearm or wrist. He performs the repair after the passage of time from the original traumatic injury.,CPT +25274,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.",The provider repairs an extensor tendon or muscle in the forearm or wrist. He applies a tissue graft obtained from another location in the patient’s body. He performs the repair after the passage of time from the original traumatic injury.,CPT +25275,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.",The provider repairs an extensor tendon in the forearm or wrist. He applies a tissue graft obtained from another location in the patient’s body. He performs the repair to treat a subluxing extensor carpi ulnaris that causes wrist pain.,CPT +25280,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.",The provider adjusts the length of a tendon in the forearm or wrist to repair damage due to injury.,CPT +25290,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.",The provider incises a flexor tendon in the forearm or wrist in an open procedure to release the pressure of a contracted tendon on the joint and restore range of motion.,CPT +25295,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.","The provider frees a tendon in the forearm or wrist from adhesions, or scar tissue, the result of a prior surgery or injury, to restore normal movement.",CPT +25300,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.",The provider anchors flexor tendons of the fingers to bone in the wrist to restore normal motion to the hand.,CPT +25301,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.",The provider anchors extensor tendons of the fingers to bone in the wrist to restore normal motion to the hand.,CPT +25310,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.",The provider transfers a tendon from one location in the forearm or wrist to another to replace a damaged or diseased tendon and restore motion of the hand.,CPT +25312,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.",The provider transfers a tendon from one location in the forearm or wrist to another to replace a damaged or diseased tendon and restore motion of the hand. He harvests and applies a graft.,CPT +25315,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.","The provider releases the origin of the flexor tendons to allow the muscles to slide distally in a procedure to improve the appearance and function of a severely deformed hand, wrist, or fingers.",CPT +25316,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.","The provider releases the origin of the flexor tendons to allow the muscles to slide distally in a procedure to improve the appearance and function of a severely deformed hand, wrist, or fingers. The provider transfers a tendon from one location in the forearm or wrist to another.",CPT +25320,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.","The provider reconstructs the wrist joint. He repairs the joint capsule and excises synovial membrane. He repairs ligaments and tendons as necessary, to restore the stability of the wrist, due to arthritis, an inflammatory condition of the joints, or prior trauma.",CPT +25332,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.","In this procedure the provider excises the diseased cartilage and bone sections of the distal radius and carpal bones of the wrist. He may affix a metal implant or fixation devices to provide stability to the joint, or he may reposition the radius and carpal bones and stabilize them using nearby soft tissues.",CPT +25335,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.","In this procedure, the provider centralizes the wrist over the ulna to surgically treat conditions like radial club hand, a congenital anomaly in which the radius bone in the forearm is missing or underdeveloped causing the hand to bend radially, or towards the body.",CPT +25337,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.",The provider strengthens the radioulnar joint near the wrist mainly through work on tendon structures. The provider also may use open reduction of the distal radioulnar joint to stabilize the joint and restore its alignment.,CPT +25350,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.",In this procedure the provider excises bone from the lower one third of the arm's radius to correct conditions such as an angular deformity of the forearm.,CPT +25355,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.",In this procedure the provider excises bone from the middle or upper one third of the arm's radius to correct conditions such as an angular deformity of the forearm.,CPT +25360,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.",In this procedure the provider excises a piece from the ulna bone to correct conditions such as an angular deformity of the forearm.,CPT +25365,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.",In this procedure the provider excises pieces from both the radius and ulna bones of the arm to correct conditions such as an angular deformity of the forearm.,CPT +25370,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.","In this procedure, the provider cuts an improperly developed radius or ulna bone shaft in multiple sections to straighten it with the help of an intramedullary rod.",CPT +25375,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.","In this procedure, the provider cuts improperly developed radius and ulna bone shafts in multiple sections to straighten these with the help of intramedullary rods.",CPT +25390,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.",In this procedure the provider takes out a piece of either the radius or ulna bone shaft to reduce the length of the bone.,CPT +25391,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.","In this procedure, the provider cuts the radius or ulna and affixes an additional piece of bone graft taken from the patient’s body to increase the length of the radius or ulna.",CPT +25392,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.",In this procedure the provider takes out a piece of either the radius or ulna bone shaft to reduce the length of the bone.,CPT +25393,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.","In this procedure, the provider cuts through the radius and ulna. He affixes additional pieces of bone grafts taken from the patient’s body to increase the length of both the radius and ulna.",CPT +25394,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.",In this procedure the provider takes out a piece of bone to reduce the size of a carpal bone of the wrist.,CPT +25400,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.",In this procedure the provider treats a nonunion or malunion deformity in a radius or ulna bone of the lower arm. He cuts through the undeveloped or improperly grown bone and fixes it by pulling together the ends.,CPT +25405,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.",In this procedure the provider treats a nonunion or malunion deformity in a radius or ulna bone of the lower arm by cutting the undeveloped or improperly grown bone and fixing it with the help of a bone graft taken from the patient’s own body.,CPT +25415,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.",In this procedure the provider treats a nonunion or malunion deformity in the radius and ulna bones of the lower arm by cutting the undeveloped or improperly grown bones and fixing them by pulling together the ends.,CPT +25420,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.",In this procedure the provider treats a nonunion or malunion deformity in the radius and ulna bones of the lower arm by cutting the undeveloped or improperly grown bones and fixing them with the help of bone grafts taken from the patient’s own body.,CPT +25425,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.","In this procedure the provider treats a defect formed due to injury, bone disease, or surgical procedure in the radius or ulna bone of the lower arm. He excises the area and fixes it with the help of a bone graft taken from the patient’s own body.",CPT +25426,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.","In this procedure the provider treats a defect formed due to injury, bone disease, or surgical procedure in the radius and ulna bones of the lower arm. He excises the areas and fixes them with the help of bone grafts taken from the patient’s own body.",CPT +25430,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.",This procedure provides blood supply to dead bone tissue of a carpal bone of the wrist. The blood supply is created via implant of a vein/artery or a bone graft with live supply of blood.,CPT +25431,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.","In this procedure the provider treats a nonunion deformity in any of the carpal bones, except the scaphoid, by fixing it with a graft and with the help of fixation devices if needed.",CPT +25440,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.","The provider repairs a nonhealing fracture of a scaphoid carpal bone in the wrist. If necessary, he excises the radial styloid, a bony projection at the end of the radius bone in the forearm, and applies a bone graft.",CPT +25441,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.",In this procedure the provider fits an artificial prosthesis on the lower end of the radius after excising the head of the bone. The goal is smooth and painless movement of the wrist.,CPT +25442,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.",In this procedure the provider fits an artificial prosthesis on the lower end of the ulna after excising the head of the bone. Providers may perform this procedure to prevent any overgrowth of the ulna after radial head resection or to manage degenerative bone disease.,CPT +25443,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.","In this procedure the provider fits an artificial prosthesis replacing the wrist’s scaphoid bone, typically in the case of a non–healing scaphoid fracture.",CPT +25444,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.","In this procedure the provider fits an artificial prosthesis replacing the wrist’s lunate bone, commonly in cases of avascular necrosis.",CPT +25445,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.","In this procedure the provider fits an artificial prosthesis replacing the wrist’s trapezium bone, typically in cases of arthritis of the thumb’s base.",CPT +25446,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.","In this procedure the provider treats the wrist joint by replacing the radial head on the lower part of the arm as well as the wrist's carpal bones with artificial prostheses. To complete this procedure, he excises the heads of the radius and ulna, and removes all or a few carpal bones.",CPT +25447,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.","Arthroplasty of the intercarpal or carpometacarpal joint generally involves a ligament reconstruction and tendon interposition (LRTI) or Burton LRTI, a procedure in which the surgeon inserts a prosthesis or tendon tissue graft in a joint to reconstruct the joint and restore mobility of the joint. The surgery is primarily performed in a patient suffering from degenerative arthritis, traumatic injury, or infection.",CPT +25449,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.","In this procedure the provider reopens the previously repaired wrist joint, and either removes or replaces the artificial prosthesis placed on the forearm’s radius and metacarpals of the hand. He typically performs this procedure in cases of a joint infection due to the prosthesis or loosening of the prosthesis.",CPT +25450,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.",The provider implants screws or specialized staples into the epiphyseal area of the radius or ulna near the wrist (distal). This causes a temporary pause in the growth of that bone.,CPT +25455,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.",The provider implants screws or specialized staples into the epiphyseal area of the radius and ulna near the wrist (distal). This causes a temporary pause in the growth of that bone.,CPT +25490,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.","In this procedure, the provider treats a defect in the arm's radius bone using fixation implants like nails, plates, or screws to prevent future issues. He may or may not use methylmethacrylate, a type of bone cement.",CPT +25491,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.","In this procedure, the provider treats a defect in the arm's ulna bone using fixation implants like nails, plates, or screws to prevent future issues. He may or may not use methylmethacrylate, a type of bone cement.",CPT +25492,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.","In this procedure, the provider treats a defect in the arm's radius and ulna bones using fixation implants like nails, plates, or screws to prevent future issues. He may or may not use methylmethacrylate, a type of bone cement.",CPT +25500,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"The provider treats a fracture of the shaft of the radius, one of the bones in the forearm, in a closed procedure. He does not make an incision and does not manipulate the fracture.",CPT +25505,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"The provider treats a fracture of the shaft of the radius, one of the bones in the forearm, in a closed procedure. He manipulates the fracture into alignment. He does not make an incision.",CPT +25515,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"The provider treats a fracture of the shaft of the radius, one of the bones in the forearm, in an open procedure. He accesses the fracture through an incision in the forearm. He applies hardware, if needed, to stabilize the fracture while it heals.",CPT +25520,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"The provider repairs a fracture of the shaft of the radius in combination with displacement of the two bones in the forearm at the wrist, or distal radioulnar joint, in a closed procedure. He does not make an incision.",CPT +25525,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"The provider repairs a fracture of the shaft of the radius in combination with displacement of the two bones in the forearm at the wrist, or distal radioulnar joint. He makes an incision over the fracture and may apply hardware, if necessary. He realigns the dislocation without an incision and may insert pins or wires through the skin to stabilize the bones.",CPT +25526,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"The provider repairs a fracture of the shaft of the radius in combination with displacement of the two bones in the forearm at the wrist, or distal radioulnar joint in an open procedure. He makes an incision to repair the fracture and the dislocation, applying hardware for stabilization, as necessary. He repairs the triangular fibrocartilage complex cartilage, or TFCC.",CPT +25530,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"The provider treats a fracture of the shaft of the ulna, one of the bones in the forearm, in a closed procedure. He does not make an incision and does not manipulate the fracture.",CPT +25535,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"The provider treats a fracture of the shaft of the ulna, one of the bones in the forearm, in a closed procedure. He manipulates the fracture into alignment. He does not make an incision.",CPT +25545,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"The provider treats a fracture of the shaft of the ulna, one of the bones in the forearm, in an open procedure. He makes an incision to realign the bones and may apply hardware to stabilize it.",CPT +25560,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"The provider treats a both bone fracture of the forearm, involving the shafts of the radius and ulna, in a closed procedure. He does not make an incision and does not manipulate the fractures.",CPT +25565,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"The provider treats a both bone fracture of the forearm, involving the shafts of the radius and ulna, in a closed procedure. He manipulates the fractures into alignment. He does not make an incision.",CPT +25574,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"The provider treats a both bone fracture of the forearm, involving the shafts of the radius and ulna, in an open procedure. He makes an incision to realign one of the bones and may apply hardware to stabilize it. The other bone does not require realignment or hardware.",CPT +25575,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"The provider treats a both bone fracture of the forearm, involving the shafts of the radius and ulna, in an open procedure. He makes an incision to realign both bones and may apply hardware to stabilize the fractures.",CPT +25600,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"The provider treats a fracture of the wrist end of the radius, one of the bones in the forearm, in which the fracture fragment displaces upward or downward, in a closed procedure. The growth plate at the end of the bone may be displaced or the ulnar styloid, the bony bump on the ulna, fractured. He does not make an incision and does not manipulate the bones.",CPT +25605,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"The provider treats a fracture of the wrist end of the radius, one of the bones in the forearm, in which the fracture fragment displaces upward or downward, in a closed procedure. The growth plate at the end of the bone may be displaced or the ulnar styloid, the bony bump on the ulna, fractured. He manipulates the fracture to realign the bony structures. He does not make an incision.",CPT +25606,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"In this procedure, the provider performs treatment of a distal radial fracture or epiphyseal separation using screws and pins through the skin. A distal radius fracture is a break in the lower end of the arm’s radius bone. Epiphyseal separation is a break in the epiphyseal plate, the growth plate of the radius bone at the lower end.",CPT +25607,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"The provider surgically repairs a fracture of the lower radius, the larger of the two lower arm bones, beyond the joint or a separation of the radius from the joint through an incision and fixes the radius in place with internal wires, screws, or pins.",CPT +25608,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"The provider surgically repairs a fracture of the lower radius, the larger of the two lower arm bones, beyond the joint or a separation of the radius from the joint through an incision and fixes two radial bone fragments in place with internal wires, screws, or pins.",CPT +25609,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"The provider surgically repairs a fracture of the lower radius, the larger of the two lower arm bones, beyond the joint or a separation of the radius from the joint through an incision and fixes three or more radial bone fragments in place with internal wires, screws, or pins.",CPT +25622,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"The provider treats a fracture of the scaphoid bone in the wrist, in a closed procedure. He does not make an incision and does not manipulate the fracture.",CPT +25624,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"The provider treats a fracture of the scaphoid bone, one of the carpal bones in the wrist, in a closed procedure, using manipulation only. He does not make an incision. A scaphoid bone fracture commonly results from extending the hand to break a fall.",CPT +25628,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"The provider treats a fracture of the scaphoid bone, one of the carpal bones in the wrist, in an open procedure. He makes an incision in the wrist to access the fracture and may apply wires or screws to secure the bones while healing takes place. A scaphoid bone fracture commonly results from extending the hand to break a fall.",CPT +25630,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"The provider treats a fracture of one of the carpal bones in the wrist, excluding the scaphoid bone, in a closed procedure. He does not make an incision or use manipulation. A carpal fracture results from trauma to the wrist. A wrist fracture commonly results from extending the hand to break a fall.",CPT +25635,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"The provider treats a fracture of one of the carpal bones in the wrist, excluding the scaphoid bone, in a closed procedure, using manipulation only. A wrist fracture commonly results from extending the hand to break a fall.",CPT +25645,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"The provider treats a fracture of one of the carpal bones in the wrist, excluding the scaphoid bone, in an open procedure. He makes an incision in the wrist to access the fracture and may apply wires or screws to secure the bones while healing takes place. A wrist fracture commonly results from extending the hand to break a fall.",CPT +25650,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"The provider treats a fracture of the ulnar styloid, in the wrist, in a closed procedure. He does not make an incision. A wrist area fracture commonly results from extending the hand to break a fall.",CPT +25651,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"The provider treats a fracture of the ulnar styloid, in the area of the wrist, in a percutaneous procedure. He inserts a pin or wire through the skin, into the bone, to hold the fracture in place. A wrist area fracture commonly results from extending the hand to break a fall.",CPT +25652,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"The provider treats a fracture of the ulnar styloid, in the area of the wrist, in an open procedure. He makes an incision in the wrist to access the fracture. He may insert pins or wires to stabilize the fracture while it heals. A wrist area fracture commonly results from extending the hand to break a fall.",CPT +25660,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"The provider treats a dislocation injury of one or more bones in the wrist, in a closed procedure, using manipulation only. He does not make an incision. Radiocarpal dislocations occur infrequently, usually the result of an impact injury of considerable force.",CPT +25670,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"The provider treats a dislocation injury of one or more bones in the wrist, in an open procedure. He makes an incision in the wrist to access the dislocated bones and may apply wires or screws to secure the bones while healing takes place. Radiocarpal dislocations occur infrequently, usually the result of an impact injury of considerable force.",CPT +25671,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"The provider treats a dislocation of the radioulnar joint, the union of the two forearm bones at the wrist, in a percutaneous procedure. He inserts pins or wires through the skin, into the bones, to hold them in place. A radioulnar dislocation commonly results from extending the hand to break a fall.",CPT +25675,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"The provider treats a dislocation of the radioulnar joint, the union of the two forearm bones at the wrist, in a closed procedure, using manipulation only. He does not make an incision. A radioulnar dislocation commonly results from extending the hand to break a fall.",CPT +25676,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"The provider treats a dislocation of the radioulnar joint, the union of the two forearm bones at the wrist, in an open procedure. He makes an incision in the wrist area to access the joint and may apply wires or screws to secure the bones while healing takes place. A radioulnar dislocation commonly results from extending the hand to break a fall.",CPT +25680,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,The provider treats a dislocation of bones in the wrist in a closed procedure. He manipulates the bones back into place.,CPT +25685,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,The provider treats a dislocation of bones in the wrist in an open procedure. He accesses the bones through an incision at the wrist. He realigns the bone and uses internal fixation to hold them in place.,CPT +25690,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,The provider treats a dislocation of the lunate bone in the wrist in a closed procedure. He manipulates the bone back into place.,CPT +25695,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,The provider repairs a fracture of the bones of the wrist through a skin incision. The fracture is typically the result of major trauma to other bones of the wrist and hand.,CPT +25800,Arthrodesis Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,The provider fuses wrist joints together without using a bone graft.,CPT +25805,Arthrodesis Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,The provider fuses wrist joints together using a sliding graft.,CPT +25810,Arthrodesis Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"The provider joins wrist joints together using a bone graft from the patient's iliac, or top of the pelvis.",CPT +25820,Arthrodesis Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically fuses a limited portion of the wrist joint. The aim is to reduce pain by surgically immobilizing the affected joint and to preserve as much motion as possible.",CPT +25825,Arthrodesis Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically immobilizes the wrist joint with the help of fixation devices. He induces artificial bone generation in the joint area with the help of a graft he obtains from another part of the patient’s body.",CPT +25830,Arthrodesis Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,The provider performs arthrodesis of the distal radioulnar joint and resecting the ulna. The provider may also perform a bone graft.,CPT +25900,Amputation Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,In this procedure the provider completely removes the forearm at any point on the radius and ulna. He then closes the wound left with remaining muscular and skin layers.,CPT +25905,Amputation Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,In this procedure the provider completely cuts through the forearm at any location on the arm's radius and ulna bones by running the cutting instrument around them in circular motion and then cutting through the bone. A common goal of this procedure is to control the infection in severely infected limb.,CPT +25907,Amputation Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"In this procedure the provider remodels the skin and muscle structures of already amputated forearm bones, following improper closure initially or because of pain due to contracture in the wound.",CPT +25909,Amputation Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"In this procedure, the provider cuts out an additional length from already amputated radius and ulna bones, due to non–healing, or when the stump is not appropriate in its current form to fit a prosthesis.",CPT +25915,Amputation Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"In this procedure, the provider separates the ulna and radius bones of the forearm stump left after amputation to create a pincer or forceps–like grasp controlled by the pronator teres muscle.",CPT +25920,Amputation Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically separates the hand from the forearm at the wrist joint.",CPT +25922,Amputation Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"In this procedure the provider remodels the skin and muscle structures of a stump left after disarticulation through the wrist, following improper closure initially or because of pain due to contracture in the wound.",CPT +25924,Amputation Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"In this procedure, the provider cuts an additional length of stump following previous disarticulation of the hand from the forearm bones through the wrist joint. Providers perform the procedure due to non–healing or when the stump is not appropriate in its current form to fit a prosthesis.",CPT +25927,Amputation Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"In this procedure, the provider amputates the fingers and a portion of the hand, cutting them across the metacarpal bones.",CPT +25929,Amputation Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"In this procedure the provider remodels the skin and muscle structures of a stump left after transmetacarpal amputation, which involved removal of the fingers and a portion of the hand. The provider performs the procedure because of improper closure initially or pain due to contracture in the wound.",CPT +25931,Amputation Procedures on the Forearm and Wrist.,"The provider performs amputation, or surgical removal, through the bones of the hand. The provider commonly performs amputation of metacarpal bones due to trauma, infection, or tumor resection. For this code, he performs another amputation following initial amputation, commonly to correct a problem left after the first amputation.",CPT +25999,Other Procedures on the Forearm or Wrist.,Use to report procedures of the forearm or wrist that do not have a specific code.,CPT +26010,Incision Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,The provider drains an abscess of the finger.,CPT +26011,Incision Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"The provider drains a finger abscess, such as a felon, an infection of the pulp of the fingertip.",CPT +26020,Incision Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this procedure, the provider drains fluid from the infected tendon sheath of a finger and/or palm.",CPT +26025,Incision Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this procedure, the provider drains fluid from an infected palmar bursa of the hand.",CPT +26030,Incision Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this procedure, the provider drains fluid from more than one infected palmar bursa.",CPT +26034,Incision Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this procedure, the provider incises the bone cortex, the superficial part of the bone, to treat an infection in a bone of the hand or finger.",CPT +26035,Incision Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this procedure, the provider decompresses the fingers and/or hand following an injection injury, an injury sustained by an individual following an injection of fluid usually while operating pressurized hydraulic equipment. The fluid or materials involved may be paint or paint solvents, grease, etc.",CPT +26037,Incision Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this procedure, the provider cuts through the fascia in the hand to relieve pressure and increase blood flow.",CPT +26040,Incision Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"The provider incises the palmar fascia, which is connective tissue under the skin in the palm of the hand. The procedure treats Dupuytren's contracture, a condition which causes the tissues of the hand to contract and the fingers to permanently bend, impairing movement.",CPT +26045,Incision Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"The provider incises the palmar fascia in an open procedure. The palmar fascia is connective tissue under the skin in the palm of the hand. The procedure treats Dupuytren's contracture, a condition which causes the tissues of the hand to contract and the fingers to permanently bend, impairing movement.",CPT +26055,Incision Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"Trigger finger, or stenosing tenosynovitis, is when a finger remains in a bent position. It is painful to open or close the finger. A swollen tendon or formation of knots or nodules in the tendon may cause trigger finger, as well as trauma or medical conditions like rheumatoid arthritis.",CPT +26060,Incision Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"The provider performs a tenotomy, the surgical division of a tendon to relieve a deformity due to a congenital or acquired shortening of the muscle. The provider commonly performs a tenotomy to treat spastic hand disorders in which a tendon contracture occurs. The provider performs tenotomy of a single digit using a minimally invasive percutaneous approach.",CPT +26070,Incision Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision to open the carpometacarpal joint in the wrist. He then explores the joint and drains out or pulls out any foreign or loose body present.",CPT +26075,Incision Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision to open the metacarpophalangeal joint. He then explores the joint and drains out or pulls out any foreign or loose body present.",CPT +26080,Incision Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision to open the interphalangeal joint. He then explores the joint and drains out or pulls out any foreign or loose body present.",CPT +26100,Excision Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision to open the carpometacarpal joint in the wrist and takes a biopsy of the soft tissue.",CPT +26105,Excision Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision to open the metacarpophalangeal joint at a finger's base and takes a biopsy of the soft tissue.",CPT +26110,Excision Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision to open the interphalangeal joint in a finger and takes a biopsy of the soft tissue.",CPT +26111,Excision Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,The provider excises a subcutaneous tumor or vascular malformation from the soft tissue of the hand or finger. The resection size is 1.5 cm or more.,CPT +26113,Excision Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,The provider excises a subfascial tumor or vascular malformation from the soft tissue of the hand or finger. The resection size is 1.5 cm or more.,CPT +26115,Excision Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,The provider excises a subcutaneous tumor or vascular malformation from the soft tissue of the hand or finger. The resection size is under 1.5 cm.,CPT +26116,Excision Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,The provider excises a subfascial tumor or vascular malformation from the soft tissue of the hand or finger. The resection size is under 1.5 cm.,CPT +26117,Excision Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"The provider performs an extensive excision of a tumor, or mass, in the soft tissues in the hand or finger, suspected to be malignant, such as a sarcoma. He excises the surrounding tissues along with the mass, with the diameter of the tumor and its margins measuring less than 3 cm.",CPT +26118,Excision Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"You'll use this code for extensive surgical removal of a soft tissue tumor and surrounding tissues of the hand or finger, measuring 3cm or more.",CPT +26121,Excision Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"The provider surgically removes fascial tissue of the palm. Treatment may include Z–plasty, rearranging local tissue, or skin grafting.",CPT +26123,Excision Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"The provider surgically removes fascial tissue from part of the palm and releases one finger, including the middle joint of that finger. Treatment may include Z–plasty, rearranging local tissue, or skin grafting.",CPT +26125,Excision Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this add on procedure to palmar fasciectomy, the provider surgically releases constriction in an additional finger, including the middle joint of that finger. Treatment may include Z–plasty, rearranging local tissue, or skin grafting.",CPT +26130,Excision Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"The provider removes the synovium, which is membrane lining the joint, from the carpometacarpal joint. This joint occurs where a carpal bone of the wrist meets a metacarpal bone of the hand.",CPT +26135,Excision Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"The provider surgically removes the synovial membrane over the metacarpophalangeal, or MCP, joint between the finger and hand. He divides the intrinsic muscles and performs reconstruction of the extensor hood tissue. He may perform this procedure in patients with rheumatoid arthritis. The code applies to each digit separately.",CPT +26140,Excision Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"The provider surgically removes the synovial membrane over the proximal interphalangeal, or IP, joint. He also performs reconstruction of the extensor tendons. He commonly performs this procedure to treat patients with rheumatoid arthritis. The code applies to a procedure on a single IP joint.",CPT +26145,Excision Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,The provider surgically removes the synovial membrane from the finger or palm flexor tendon sheath in a procedure called tenosynovectomy. He commonly performs this procedure in patients with finger flexor tendon injuries. Apply the code once for each tendon that undergoes the tenosynovectomy procedure.,CPT +26160,Excision Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this procedure, the provider excises a lesion, like a cyst or ganglion, from a tendon sheath or joint capsule in the hand or finger.",CPT +26170,Excision Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"The provider excises, or removes, a flexor or extensor tendon of the palm of the hand. He commonly performs this procedure to help the patient regain grasping motion of the hand or to correct the movement controlling the opening of the hand. Use this code once for each tendon the provider excises.",CPT +26180,Excision Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"The provider excises, or removes, a flexor or extensor tendon of the finger. The provider commonly performs this procedure to repair the finger’s ability to bend and straighten. Use this code once for each tendon the provider excises.",CPT +26185,Excision Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"The provider excises, or removes, the sesamoid bone of the thumb or finger. He commonly performs this procedure to correct sesamoid bone fracture.",CPT +26200,Excision Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this procedure, the provider incises the skin over the dorsal side of the hand, to remove a cyst or noncancerous tumor of the metacarpal bones.",CPT +26205,Excision Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this procedure, the provider incises the skin over the dorsal side of the hand, to remove a cyst or noncancerous tumor of the metacarpal bones. The provider also applies a healthy graft from another part of the patient’s body to fill the cavity to help with healing.",CPT +26210,Excision Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this procedure, the provider incises the skin of the affected finger to remove a bone cyst or tumor from the phalanx bone.",CPT +26215,Excision Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,In this procedure a provider incises the skin over the affected area of a patient's finger to remove a bone cyst or tumor.,CPT +26230,Excision Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this procedure, the provider partially excises a portion of the metacarpal bone in the hand using a variety of techniques like craterization, saucerization, or diaphysectomy.",CPT +26235,Excision Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this procedure, the provider partially excises a portion of the proximal or middle phalanx of the finger using a variety of techniques like craterization, saucerization, or diaphysectomy.",CPT +26236,Excision Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this procedure, the provider partially excises a portion of the distal phalanx at the end of the finger using a variety of techniques like craterization, saucerization, or diaphysectomy.",CPT +26250,Excision Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this procedure, the provider resects a fast growing benign or malignant metacarpal bone tumor along with healthy surrounding tissues. A provider performs a radical resection for recurrent tumors, aggressive tumors, and metastatic tumors.",CPT +26260,Excision Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this procedure, the provider resects a fast growing benign or malignant proximal or middle phalanx tumor along with healthy surrounding tissues. A provider performs a radical resection for recurrent tumors, aggressive tumors, and metastatic tumors.",CPT +26262,Excision Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this procedure, the provider resects a fast growing benign or malignant tumor of distal phalanx finger along with healthy surrounding tissues. A provider performs a radical resection for recurrent tumors, aggressive tumors, and metastatic tumors.",CPT +26320,Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this procedure, the provider removes an implant from a patient’s finger or hand, which was previously put in place.",CPT +26340,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider manipulates a finger joint, meaning he performs passive movements and stretching of the finger joint, with anesthesia administered.",CPT +26341,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.",The provider applies manual force to a finger bent by a condition such as Dupuytren's contracture. This service takes place following and on a different day than enzyme injection into the palmar fascial cord to treat the condition.,CPT +26350,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.",The provider repairs or advances a flexor tendon of the hand or finger in an area other than zone 2. He does not use a free graft for this procedure.,CPT +26352,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","The provider repairs or advances a flexor tendon of the hand or finger in an area other than zone 2. He uses a free graft for this procedure, which does not take place at the time of initial injury.",CPT +26356,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","The provider repairs an injury, such as a laceration, to the flexor tendon of one of the fingers to restore function and relieve pain.",CPT +26357,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","The provider repairs an injury, such as a laceration, to the flexor tendon of one of the fingers to restore function and relieve pain. He performs the procedure more than seven days following the injury.",CPT +26358,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","The provider repairs an injury, such as a laceration, to the flexor tendon of one of the fingers. He incorporates a free graft to complete the repair of the injured tendon. He performs the procedure to restore function and relieve pain.",CPT +26370,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider repairs the profundus tendon in the finger while keeping the superficialis tendon intact. The provider performs a primary repair within a few days of injury.",CPT +26372,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider performs secondary repair of the profundus tendon in the finger using a free graft while keeping the superficialis tendon intact. Secondary repair is repair done at least a few days after the initial injury or after the previous surgical repair.",CPT +26373,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider performs secondary repair of the profundus tendon in the finger while keeping the superficialis tendon intact. Secondary repair is repair done at least a few days after the initial injury or after the previous surgical repair.",CPT +26390,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.",In this procedure the provider incises the skin over a flexor tendon in a patient’s finger or hand to place a synthetic rod in place of the tendon for future tendon graft harvesting. Report this code once for each rod implant.,CPT +26392,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.",In this procedure the provider incises the skin over a synthetic rod he previously put in place in a patient’s finger or hand to create a site for a tendon graft. He then removes the rod and replaces it with a flexor tendon graft he harvests from the patient. Report this code once for each rod the provider removes.,CPT +26410,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","The provider carries out extensor tendon repair without a graft when one or more tendons in a patient’s hand has a laceration or rupture, leading to loss of normal hand movements.  When the provider repairs extensor tendons within seven days of injury it’s a primary repair. If the provider repairs the tendons more than seven days after the injury and not immediately then it’s known as a secondary repair.",CPT +26412,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","The provider carries out extensor tendon repair with a free graft, when one or more tendons in a patient’s hand has a laceration or rupture, leading to loss of normal hand movements.  When the provider repairs extensor tendons within seven days of injury it’s a primary repair. If the provider repairs the tendons more than seven days after the injury and not immediately then it’s known as a secondary repair.",CPT +26415,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.",The provider implants a rod into the tendon of the hand or finger to provide support until a tendon graft can be performed.,CPT +26416,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider  incises the skin over a synthetic rod he previously put in place in a patient’s finger or hand to create a site for an extensor tendon graft. He then removes synthetic rod that was put in during the first session and replaces the rod with an extensor tendon graft. Report this code once for each rod the provider removes and replaces with a tendon graft.",CPT +26418,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider repairs the extensor tendon of a finger without using a graft. The provider may perform either a primary or secondary repair. Primary repair is repair done within a few days of injury. Secondary repair is repair done at least a few days after the initial injury or after the previous surgical repair.",CPT +26420,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider repairs the extensor tendon of a finger using a free graft. The provider may perform either a primary or secondary repair. Primary repair is repair done within a few days of injury. Secondary repair is repair done at least a few days after the initial injury or after the previous surgical repair.",CPT +26426,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","The provider repairs the central slip, i.e., the portion of the extensor tendon that slides over the proximal interphalangeal joint. He manipulates local tissue and the lateral bands back into their normal location to hold the tendon in place close to the bone. A secondary repair involves shortening of the functional scar and repair of the tendon. He performs the procedure to correct a boutonniere deformity and restore function and flexibility to the finger.",CPT +26428,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","The provider repairs the central slip, i.e., the portion of the extensor tendon that slides over the proximal interphalangeal joint. He places a graft in the central slip to lengthen it. A secondary repair involves shortening of the functional scar and repair of the tendon. He performs the procedure to repair a boutonniere deformity and restore function and flexibility to the finger.",CPT +26432,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","The provider places the injured finger joint in extension and applies a splint to keep the joint in extension. He may or may not place a screw, pin, or wire percutaneously across the joint for added stability. He performs the procedure primarily to prevent further deformity and complications.",CPT +26433,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.",The provider uses an open approach to repair the distal insertion of the extensor tendon with sutures. He does not use a graft on the tendon. He performs the procedure to prevent further deformity and complications.,CPT +26434,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.",The provider uses an open approach to repair the distal insertion of the extensor tendon with sutures and a graft. He performs the procedure to prevent further deformity and complications.,CPT +26437,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider repositions an extensor tendon in a patient’s hand to return the patient’s fingers to a normal position on the hand. The provider performs this procedure to straighten the fingers, which may bend due to conditions such as arthritis. The provider reports this code for each tendon he realigns.",CPT +26440,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider performs tenolysis, which releases the flexor tendon of the palm or finger from adhesions. This surgical procedure is limited to either the palm or finger.",CPT +26442,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider performs tenolysis, which releases the flexor tendon of the palm and finger from adhesions. This surgical procedure extends from finger to palm.",CPT +26445,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider performs tenolysis, which releases the extensor tendon of a hand or finger from adhesions.",CPT +26449,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider performs tenolysis, which releases the extensor tendon of the finger from adhesions. This surgical procedure is complex and extends from finger to forearm.",CPT +26450,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider performs an open tenotomy, which is surgical division of a flexor tendon of the palm.",CPT +26455,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider performs an open tenotomy, which is surgical division of a flexor tendon of a finger.",CPT +26460,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider performs an open tenotomy, which is surgical division of an extensor tendon of the hand or finger.",CPT +26471,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider surgically affixes a tendon to a finger’s proximal interphalangeal joint to improve the stability of the joint.",CPT +26474,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider surgically affixes a tendon to the distal interphalangeal joint, the finger joint nearest the fingernail, to improve the stability of the joint.",CPT +26476,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider lengthens the extensor tendon of a hand or finger to treat muscle contracture.",CPT +26477,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider shortens the extensor tendon of a hand or finger to treat an elongated muscle causing instability at a joint.",CPT +26478,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider lengthens the flexor tendon of a hand or finger to treat muscle contracture.",CPT +26479,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider shortens the flexor tendon of a hand or finger to treat an elongated muscle causing instability at a joint.",CPT +26480,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider transfers or transplants a tendon in the carpometacarpal area or the back of the hand. The carpometacarpal area is the articulation of the wrist’s carpal bones with the proximal bases of the hand’s five metacarpal bones.",CPT +26483,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider transfers or transplants a tendon in the carpometacarpal area or back of the hand with the help of a tendon graft. The carpometacarpal area is the articulation of the wrist’s carpal bones with the proximal bases of the hand’s five metacarpal bones.",CPT +26485,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider transfers or transplants a tendon in the palmar area of the hand without using a free graft.",CPT +26489,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider transfers or transplants a tendon in the palmar area of the hand with the help of a free tendon graft.",CPT +26490,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider performs opponensplasty, a surgical procedure in which the provider transfers a tendon to restore opposition function of the thumb. Thumb opposition is the ability of the thumb to move across the palm and oppose the other finger tips.",CPT +26492,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider performs opponensplasty, a surgical procedure in which the provider augments a tendon by transfer and with a graft to restore the opposition function of the thumb. Thumb opposition is the ability of the thumb to move across the palm and oppose the other finger tips.",CPT +26494,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider performs opponensplasty, a surgical procedure in which the provider transfers a tendon to restore opposition function of the thumb. Thumb opposition is the ability of the thumb to move across the palm and oppose the other finger tips.",CPT +26496,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider performs opponensplasty, a surgical procedure in which the provider transfers a tendon to restore the opposition function of the thumb. Thumb opposition is the ability of the thumb to move across the palm and oppose the other finger tips.",CPT +26497,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider transfers the tendon from one location to another to restore the intrinsic function of the ring and small fingers. Loss of intrinsic function of the hand results in hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints, between the palm and fingers, and flexion of the proximal and distal interphalangeal joints of the fingers.",CPT +26498,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider transfers the tendons from one location to another to restore the intrinsic function of all 4 fingers. Loss of intrinsic function of the hand results in hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints, between the palm and fingers, and flexion of the proximal and distal interphalangeal joints of the fingers. This is also called a claw hand deformity.",CPT +26499,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider corrects the curved finger deformity known as claw finger using a method not represented by a more specific code. In a typical example, the provider rearranges the location of a flexor tendon from the palm side to the side of the finger so that the flexor tendon functions as an extensor tendon from its new location.",CPT +26500,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure the provider repairs the damaged tendon pulley, which is a ring–like structure around the tendon sheath that helps the tendon to keep its shape during the movement of the finger. The provider reconstructs the pulley with the help of nearby soft tissues.",CPT +26502,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure the provider repairs the damaged tendon pulley, which is a ring–like structure around the tendon sheath that helps the tendon to keep its shape during the movement of the finger. The provider reconstructs the pulley with the help of a tendon or fascial graft.",CPT +26508,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.",In this procedure the provider makes an incision into the thenar muscle or muscles to mobilize the scarred muscle tissue causing contracture of the thumb or palm.,CPT +26510,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure the provider transfers a tendon from one side of a finger to the other side to correct the deviation of the fingers and hand toward the small–finger side, known as ulnar drift. Most commonly rheumatoid conditions cause ulnar drift.",CPT +26516,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider treats instability of the joint between a metacarpal bone and the proximal phalanx by incising the joint capsule and attaching it with increased tension to the metacarpal and phalanx. This code applies to work on a single digit.",CPT +26517,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider treats instability of joints in two digits between the metacarpals and proximal phalanges by incising the joint capsule and attaching it with increased tension to the metarcarpal and phalanx.",CPT +26518,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider treats instability of joints in three or four digits, between the metacarpals and proximal phalanges, by incising the joint capsule and attaching it with increased tension to the metarcarpal and phalanx.",CPT +26520,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.",In this procedure the provider releases joint contracture by either making an incision into or excising the joint capsule between the metacarpal and proximal phalanx of a hand.,CPT +26525,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.",In this procedure the provider releases the joint contracture by either making an incision into or excising the joint capsule that is between two phalanges of a finger.,CPT +26530,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","The provider excises part or all of one or more of the metacarpal bones where they articulate, or connect, with the phalanges at the metacarpophalangeal joints. He places a soft tissue spacer in place of the excised bone. He performs the procedure to correct deformity, reduce inflammation, and improve function.",CPT +26531,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","The provider excises part or all of one or more of the metacarpal bones where they articulate with the phalanges, i.e., the metacarpophalangeal joints. He places a silicone spacer in place of the excised bone. He performs the procedure to correct deformity, reduce inflammation, and improve function.",CPT +26535,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider reconstructs or replaces one or more interphalangeal joints using adjoining tissues. He performs the procedure to correct deformity, reduce inflammation, and improve function, typically in a patient with arthritis or prior injuries.",CPT +26536,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider reconstructs or replaces one or more interphalangeal joints with an artificial implant. He performs the procedure to correct deformity, reduce inflammation, and improve function, typically in a patient with arthritis or prior injuries.",CPT +26540,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.",The provider repairs a tear in the collateral ligament of a metacarpophalangeal joint or interphalangeal joint.,CPT +26541,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider repairs the collateral ligament, the ligament that holds the joint between the hand's metacarpal and the finger's proximal phalanx together from the sides. The provider uses a tendon or fascial graft to replace the damaged part.",CPT +26542,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider repairs the collateral ligament, the ligament that holds the joint between the hand's metacarpal and the finger's proximal phalanx together from the sides. The provider uses a nearby tendon to repair the damaged part. The provider uses this technique in cases of partial tears.",CPT +26545,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider repairs the collateral ligament, the ligament that holds the joint between any two phalanges, or finger bones, together from the sides. The provider uses a tendon or fascial graft to replace the damaged part.",CPT +26546,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.",In this procedure the provider treats a nonunion deformity in any of the phalanx bones of the fingers or metacarpal bones of the hand. He fixes the nonunion with a graft and with the help of fixation devices if needed.,CPT +26548,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider repairs a torn volar plate, thick ligament sheaths on the palmar side of the joint between the metacarpal bone of the hand and proximal phalanx of the finger, or between two phalanges. The provider repairs the volar plate with the help of sutures.",CPT +26550,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider creates a thumb by rearranging bony and soft tissues from a finger, typically the index finger. Providers perform this procedure in patients with an absence of the thumb by birth or due to injury.",CPT +26551,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider reconstructs the thumb of the patient who has no thumb because of trauma or a congenital absence of the thumb. The provider uses the great toe to create a thumb because of its similarity in shape and size to the thumb. He removes the toe from the foot, taking with it all the related blood vessels, nerves, bones, and tendons, and then transplants it to the hand using a bone graft.",CPT +26553,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider reconstructs the thumb or finger of the patient who has no thumb or finger because of trauma or a congenital absence of the digit. The provider uses the great toe or another toe other than the great toe to reconstruct a thumb or finger. He removes the toe from the foot, taking with it all the related blood vessels, nerves, bones, and tendons, and then transplants it to the hand.",CPT +26554,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider reconstructs two digits in the patient who has no thumb or finger because of trauma or a congenital absence of the digits. The provider uses the toes other than the great toe to reconstruct a thumb or finger. She removes the toes from the foot, taking with them all the related blood vessels, nerves, bones, and tendons, and then transplants it to the hand.",CPT +26555,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider surgically removes an extra finger and positions the duplicate finger or thumb in a more suitable anatomic position. This procedure treats a patient with polydactyly, or the presence of one or more extra fingers.",CPT +26556,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider transfers the free toe joint to replace the finger joint in a patient who has lost the finger joint function because of trauma or congenital deformity. She removes the toe from the foot, taking with it all related blood vessels, nerves, bones, and tendons, and then transplants it to the hand using a bone graft.",CPT +26560,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider separates congenitally joined fingers by incising between them. He repairs the incision with the help of skin flaps created when the web was divided.",CPT +26561,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider separates congenitally joined fingers by incising between them. He repairs the incision with the help of skin flaps created when the web was divided and skin grafts.",CPT +26562,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.",The provider separates congenitally joined fingers by incising between them; the repair involves division (osteotomy) or excision of bone and release of fused nail beds with nail fold reconstruction.,CPT +26565,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.",In this procedure the provider excises part of the metacarpal bone to correct conditions such as a rotational deformity or abnormal bone growth.,CPT +26567,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.",In this procedure the provider excises part of the phalanx bone of the finger to correct conditions such as angular deformity or abnormal bone growth.,CPT +26568,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider performs a surgery to lengthen a metacarpal or phalanx bone, usually by a technique known as osteodistraction. In this technique, the provider moves the two segments of a bone slowly apart in such a way that new bone fills in the gap.",CPT +26580,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider repairs a cleft hand, a congenital deformity of the hand characterized by the absence of one or more central digits resulting in a V shaped cleft in the center of the hand.",CPT +26587,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.",The provider removes an extra digit that contains both soft tissue and bone.,CPT +26590,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider repairs macrodactylia, a condition characterized by enlargement of one or more digits.",CPT +26591,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider repairs the intrinsic muscles of the hand. Intrinsic muscles of the hand include thenar or thumb muscles, hypothenar or little finger muscles, interossei muscles originating from metacarpal bones, and the lumbrical muscles originating from the finger and hand tendons.",CPT +26593,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","In this procedure, the provider releases an intrinsic muscle of the hand from adhesions formed along the surface of a tendon after injury or repair. Intrinsic muscles of the hand include thenar or thumb muscles, hypothenar or little finger muscles, interossei muscles originating from the metacarpal bones, and the lumbrical muscles originating from the finger and hand tendons.",CPT +26596,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.","The provider uses Z–shaped incisions to repair a constricting fibrous ring encircling the finger and avoid the need for a skin graft to the finger. He performs the procedure to relieve edema, or swelling, caused by the constricting band.",CPT +26600,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"The provider treats each metacarpal bone fracture without manipulation or surgical intervention. He performs the procedure to prevent deformity, relieve pain, and restore function.",CPT +26605,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"The provider performs a closed reduction of each metacarpal bone fracture with manipulation. He performs the procedure to prevent deformity, relieve pain, and restore function.",CPT +26607,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"The provider performs closed reduction of each metacarpal bone fracture with manipulation and external fixation. He performs the procedure to prevent deformity, relieve pain, and restore function.",CPT +26608,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,The provider inserts wires or pins directly through the skin into a fractured metacarpal bone in the hand to hold it in place as it heals.,CPT +26615,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,The provider repairs a fractured metacarpal bone through an incision in the hand. She may apply hardware to the bone to hold it in place as it heals.,CPT +26641,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,The provider manipulates dislocated bones in the joint at the base of the thumb near the wrist to return them to their normal position. He does not make an incision.,CPT +26645,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,The provider manipulates a fracture with displacement of the bones in the joint at the base of the thumb near the wrist to restore normal alignment and facilitate healing. He does not make an incision.,CPT +26650,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,The provider manipulates a fracture with displaced bones in the joint at the base of the thumb near the wrist to restore normal alignment and facilitate healing. He inserts wires or pins directly through the skin into the bones to hold them in place while they heal.,CPT +26665,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,The provider repairs a fracture of the bone at the base of the thumb and dislocation of the articulation (joint) between the thumb bone (metacarpal bone) and the wrist (carpal) bone through an open incision; he may use small nails or wires to secure the bones.,CPT +26670,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"The provider manipulates displaced bones in a joint where the hand joins the wrist, except near the base of the thumb, to restore normal alignment and facilitate healing. He does not make an incision and does not use general anesthesia.",CPT +26675,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"The provider manipulates displaced bones in a joint where the hand joins the wrist, except near the base of the thumb, to restore normal alignment and facilitate healing. He does not make an incision but uses general anesthesia.",CPT +26676,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"The provider manipulates displaced bones in a joint where the wrist joins the hand, not involving the thumb area, to restore normal alignment and facilitate healing. He inserts wires or pins directly through the skin into the bones to hold them in place while they heal.",CPT +26685,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"The provider repairs displaced bones in a joint where the wrist joins the hand, not involving the thumb area, through an incision near the wrist. She may apply hardware to the bones to hold them in place during healing.",CPT +26686,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"The provider repairs displaced bones in a joint where the wrist joins the hand, not involving the thumb area, in a procedure complicated by complex dislocations, multiple dislocations, or a delay between the time of the injury and the surgical repair.",CPT +26700,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,The provider manipulates displaced bones in a joint at the base of a finger or thumb to restore normal alignment and facilitate healing. He does not make an incision and does not use general anesthesia.,CPT +26705,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"The provider treats a major metacarpophalangeal dislocation by manipulating it under anesthesia. He performs the procedure to correct deformity, restore function, and relieve pain.",CPT +26706,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"The provider manipulates the metacarpophalangeal dislocation and stabilizes it with screws, pins, or wires. He performs the procedure to correct deformity, restore function, and relieve pain.",CPT +26715,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an open treatment of a single metacarpophalangeal dislocation, which is an abnormal separation of a joint in the hand at the base of a finger. He may use internal fixation implants like pins, wires, or screws to fix the dislocation.",CPT +26720,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this procedure, the provider performs closed treatment of a phalangeal shaft fracture in a proximal, or middle, phalanx of a finger or thumb. Treatment does not include manipulation, or adjustment, of the fractured bone.",CPT +26725,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a closed treatment of a phalangeal shaft fracture in a proximal, or middle, phalanx of a finger or thumb. Treatment includes manipulation, or adjustment, of the fractured bone. He may also use skin or skeletal traction to reduce the fracture as part of this procedure.",CPT +26727,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this procedure, the provider performs treatment of a phalangeal shaft fracture in a proximal, or middle, phalanx of a finger or thumb using wires, screws, or pins he applies through the skin. He also performs manipulation or adjustment of the phalanx first to realign the unstable fracture.",CPT +26735,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an open treatment of a phalangeal shaft fracture in a proximal, or middle, phalanx of a finger or thumb. He may use internal fixation implants like pins, wires, or screws to fix the fracture.",CPT +26740,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a closed treatment of an articular fracture involving the metacarpophalangeal or interphalangeal joint. Treatment does not include manipulation, or adjustment, of the fractured bone.",CPT +26742,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a closed treatment of an articular fracture involving a metacarpophalangeal or interphalangeal joint. Treatment includes manipulation, or adjustment, of the fractured bone.",CPT +26746,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an open treatment of an articular fracture involving a metacarpophalangeal or interphalangeal joint. The provider confirms the fracture with X–rays. He may use internal fixation implants such as pins, wires, or screws to fix the fracture.",CPT +26750,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a closed treatment of a distal phalangeal fracture in a finger or thumb. Treatment does not include manipulation, or adjustment, of the fractured bone.",CPT +26755,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a closed treatment of a distal phalangeal fracture in a finger or thumb. Treatment includes manipulation, or adjustment, of the fractured bone.",CPT +26756,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this procedure, the provider performs treatment of a distal phalangeal fracture in a finger or thumb using screws, wires, or pins that he places through the skin. Phalanges are the bones present in the fingers of hand; there are fourteen in each hand, three in each finger and two in the thumb.",CPT +26765,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an open treatment of a distal phalangeal fracture in a finger or thumb. He may use internal fixation implants like pins or screws to fix the fracture.",CPT +26770,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a closed treatment of a single interphalangeal joint dislocation, an abnormal separation of a joint. He performs this procedure with manipulation or adjustment, of the dislocated bone without using anesthesia.",CPT +26775,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a closed treatment of a single interphalangeal joint dislocation, which is an abnormal separation of a joint. He performs this procedure with manipulation or adjustment of the dislocated bone using anesthesia.",CPT +26776,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a treatment of a single interphalangeal joint dislocation, which is an abnormal separation of a joint using a screw, wire, or pin through the skin.",CPT +26785,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an open treatment of a single interphalangeal joint dislocation, which is an abnormal separation of a joint. He may or may not use internal fixation implants like pins or screws to fix the dislocation.",CPT +26820,Arthrodesis Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically immobilizes the metacarpophalangeal joint of the thumb in opposition position using an autograft. A metacarpophalangeal joint is a joint where the metacarpal bone of the hand attaches to the phalanx bone of the digit. Thumb opposition is the ability of the thumb to move across the palm and oppose the other finger tips.",CPT +26841,Arthrodesis Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically immobilizes the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb with or without the help of internal fixation devices. The carpometacarpal joint is a joint where the metacarpal bone of the thumb attaches to the trapezium bone of the wrist.",CPT +26842,Arthrodesis Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically immobilizes the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb with or without the help of internal fixation devices. He induces artificial bone generation in the joint area with the help of a graft he obtains from another part of the patient’s body. The carpometacarpal joint is a joint where the metacarpal bone of the thumb attaches to the trapezium bone of the wrist.",CPT +26843,Arthrodesis Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically immobilizes the carpometacarpal joint of a digit other than the thumb. He may or may not use an internal fixation device to fuse the joint. A carpometacarpal joint is a joint where the metacarpal bone of the digit attaches to the carpal bone of the wrist.",CPT +26844,Arthrodesis Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically immobilizes the carpometacarpal joint of a digit other than a thumb. He may or may not use an internal fixation device to fuse the joint. He induces artificial bone generation in the joint area with the help of a graft he obtains from another part of the patient’s body. A carpometacarpal joint is a joint where the metacarpal bone of the digit attaches to the carpal bone of the wrist.",CPT +26850,Arthrodesis Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically immobilizes a metacarpophalangeal joint. He may or may not use an internal fixation device to fuse the joint. A metacarpophalangeal joint is a joint where the metacarpal bone of the hand attaches to the phalanx bone of the digit.",CPT +26852,Arthrodesis Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically immobilizes the metacarpophalangeal joint. He may or may not use an internal fixation device to fuse the joint. He induces artificial bone generation in the joint area with the help of a graft he obtains from another part of the patient’s body. A metacarpophalangeal joint is a joint where the metacarpal bone of the hand attaches to the phalanx bone of the digit.",CPT +26860,Arthrodesis Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically immobilizes an interphalangeal joint with or without the help of fixation devices. The goal of this procedure is often to treat pain in patients with end stage osteoarthritis of an interphalangeal joint.",CPT +26861,Arthrodesis Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider surgically immobilizes an additional interphalangeal joint of the finger following arthrodesis of one interphalangeal joint at the same session. He may or may not use an internal fixation device to fuse the joint. An interphalangeal joint is a joint between phalanges of the hand.",CPT +26862,Arthrodesis Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically immobilizes an interphalangeal joint of the finger. He may or may not use an internal fixation device to fuse the joint. He induces artificial bone generation in the joint area with the help of a graft he obtains from another part of the patient’s body. An interphalangeal joint is a joint between phalanges of the hand.",CPT +26863,Arthrodesis Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider surgically immobilizes an additional interphalangeal joint of the finger following arthrodesis of an initial interphalangeal joint at the same session. He may or may not use an internal fixation device to fuse the joint. He induces artificial bone generation in the joint area with the help of a graft he obtains from another part of the patient’s body. An interphalangeal joint is a joint between phalanges of the hand.",CPT +26910,Amputation Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this hand surgery procedure, the provider amputates the metacarpal bone along with a finger or thumb. He may or may not transfer the interosseous muscle.",CPT +26951,Amputation Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this procedure, the provider performs primary or secondary amputation of a finger or thumb at any joint or phalanx level along with the removal of nerve tissue. He performs direct closure of the wound. Primary amputation is when the provider amputates the finger or thumb at any joint or phalanx immediately after the acute injury or infection. Secondary amputation is when the provider amputates the finger or thumb at any joint or phalanx after a previous amputation that has failed to heal properly.",CPT +26952,Amputation Procedures on the Hand and Fingers.,"In this procedure, the provider performs primary or secondary amputation of a finger or thumb at any joint or phalanx level along with the removal of nerve tissue. He performs local advancement flap closure of the wound. Primary amputation is when the provider amputates the finger or thumb at any joint or phalanx immediately after the acute injury or infection. Secondary amputation is when the provider amputates the finger or thumb at any joint or phalanx after a previous amputation that has failed to heal properly.",CPT +26989,Other Procedures on the Hands or Fingers.,Use to report a procedure of the hands or fingers that does not have a specific code.,CPT +26990,Incision Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider incises and drains a deep abscess or hematoma in the pelvis or hip joint area.",CPT +26991,Incision Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider incises the skin over an infected bursa of the pelvis or hip joint, to drain the pus from the joint.",CPT +26992,Incision Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider incises the bone cortex, the superficial part of the bone, to treat an infection in a bone of the pelvis and/or hip joint.",CPT +27000,Incision Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a percutaneous tenotomy in which he incises or divides the adductor muscles of the hip through a small incision in the skin to correct a deformity that occurs due to a tight adductor muscle.",CPT +27001,Incision Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an open tenotomy, which is surgical division of a tendon, of the adductor muscle of the hip.",CPT +27003,Incision Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an open tenotomy, which is surgical division of a tendon, of the adductor muscle of the hip. He also performs obturator nerve removal.",CPT +27005,Incision Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an open tenotomy, which is surgical division of a tendon, of one or more flexor muscles of the hip.",CPT +27006,Incision Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an open tenotomy, which is surgical division of a tendon, of one or more abductor and/or extensor muscles of the hip.",CPT +27025,Incision Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider cuts through the fascia in the hip or thigh to relieve pressure and increase blood flow.",CPT +27027,Incision Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider incises into the fascia surrounding the pelvic, or buttock compartment, in the hip to relieve pressure and increase blood flow. He performs this procedure on only one side of the buttock.",CPT +27030,Incision Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision to open the hip joint. He then explores the joint and drains out the abnormal infectious fluid.",CPT +27033,Incision Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision to open the hip joint. He then explores the joint and drains out or pulls out any foreign or loose body present.",CPT +27035,Incision Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider cuts or burns the intrapelvic or extrapelvic nerve supply of the intra–articular branches of the sciatic, femoral, or obturator nerves to the hip joint to reduce the pain caused by arthritis.",CPT +27036,Incision Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs surgery on a hip joint capsule, which might involve excision of the heterotopic bone and release of the hip flexor muscle.",CPT +27040,Excision Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a biopsy of the superficial soft tissue of the pelvis and hip area. He performs this to determine whether a patient's cells are malignant or benign, or in some cases, precancerous.",CPT +27041,Excision Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a biopsy of the deep subfascial or intramuscular soft tissue of the pelvis and hip area. He performs this to determine whether a patient's cells are malignant or benign, or in some cases, precancerous.",CPT +27043,Excision Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider excises a subcutaneous soft tissue tumor of about a size of 3 centimeters or greater, from the pelvis and hip area.",CPT +27045,Excision Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider excises a subfascial, or intramuscular soft tissue tumor of a size 5 centimeters or greater, from the pelvis and hip area.",CPT +27047,Excision Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a tumor from the soft tissue of the pelvis and hip area situated at the subcutaneous tissue level. The size of the tumor excision is less than 3 cm.",CPT +27048,Excision Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a tumor from the soft tissue of the pelvis and hip area situated at the subfascial level. The size of the tumor excision is less than 5 cm.",CPT +27049,Excision Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"The provider performs an extensive excision of a tumor, or mass, in the soft tissues in the pelvis and hip area, suspected to be malignant, such as a sarcoma. He excises the surrounding tissues along with the mass, with the diameter of the tumor and its margins measuring less than 5 cm.",CPT +27050,Excision Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision to open the sacroiliac joint where the spine meets the pelvis and takes a biopsy of the soft tissue.",CPT +27052,Excision Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision to open the hip joint and takes a biopsy of the soft tissue.",CPT +27054,Excision Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision to open the hip joint. He then explores the joint and removes the inflamed synovial membrane lining the joint.",CPT +27057,Excision Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider incises into the fascia surrounding the pelvic, or buttock compartment, in the hip to relieve pressure and increase blood flow. He performs this procedure on only one side of the buttock. He also removes the dead or damaged tissue.",CPT +27059,Excision Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"You'll use this code for extensive surgical removal of a soft tissue tumor and surrounding tissues of the pelvis and hip area, measuring 5cm or more.",CPT +27060,Excision Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically excises the ischial bursa, a bursa situated at the base of the pelvis at the level of the bony prominence called the ischial tuberosity.",CPT +27062,Excision Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically excises the trochanteric bursa, a bursa situated at the outer side of the hip at the level of the bony prominence called the greater trochanter.",CPT +27065,Excision Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider excises a superficial bone cyst or benign tumor from the wing of the ilium, symphysis pubis, or greater trochanter of the femur. He may also rebuild the excised portion of bone with the help of a graft he obtains from the patient’s body.",CPT +27066,Excision Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider excises a deep bone cyst or benign tumor from the wing of the ilium, symphysis pubis, or greater trochanter of the femur. He may also rebuild the excised portion of bone with the help of a graft he obtains from the patient’s body.",CPT +27067,Excision Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider excises a bone cyst or benign tumor from the wing of the ilium, symphysis pubis, or greater trochanter of the femur. He also rebuilds the excised portion of bone with the help of a graft he obtains from another part of the patient’s body through a separate incision.",CPT +27070,Excision Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a superficial partial excision of a portion of the wing of the ilium, symphysis pubis, or greater trochanter of the femur using a variety of techniques like craterization or saucerization.",CPT +27071,Excision Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a deep partial excision of a portion of the wing of the ilium, symphysis pubis, or greater trochanter of the femur using a variety of techniques like craterization or saucerization.",CPT +27075,Excision Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs the radical resection of a tumor of a wing of the ilium, one pubic or ischial ramus, or symphysis pubis. Radical resection is a procedure in which the provider excises the tumor along with a few inches of healthy tissue on either side of the tumor.",CPT +27076,Excision Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs radical resection of a tumor of the ilium, including the acetabulum, both pubic rami, or the ischium and acetabulum. Radical resection is a procedure in which the provider excises the tumor along with a few inches of healthy tissue on either side of the tumor.",CPT +27077,Excision Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs radical resection of a tumor of the innominate bone. Radical resection is a procedure in which the provider excises the tumor along with a few inches of healthy tissue on either side of the tumor. An innominate bone is either of the two bones that form the sides of the pelvis, consisting of three fused components: the ilium, ischium, and pubis.",CPT +27078,Excision Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a radical resection of a tumor of the ischial tuberosity and greater trochanter of the femur. Radical resection is a procedure in which the provider excises the tumor along with a few inches of healthy tissue on either side of the tumor.",CPT +27080,Excision Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically removes the coccyx, also known as the tail bone, which is the last part of the back bone.",CPT +27086,Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a foreign body from the subcutaneous tissue of the pelvis or hip.",CPT +27087,Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a foreign body from the deep tissue of the pelvis or hip.",CPT +27090,Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"As a separate procedure, the provider surgically removes a hip joint prosthesis.",CPT +27091,Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically removes the total hip prosthesis by breaking the methylmethacrylate, a type of bone cement. He may or may not insert a spacer in the vacant space.",CPT +27093,Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider injects contrast material into a hip joint for hip arthrography, an X–ray examination of the hip joint. He performs this procedure without administration of anesthesia to the patient.",CPT +27095,Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider injects contrast material into a hip joint for hip arthrography, an X–ray examination of the hip joint that he performs after the injection of contrast. He performs this procedure with administration of anesthesia to the patient.",CPT +27096,Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"The provider performs an injection in the joint between the sacrum and ilium on one side of the body, with the aid of imaging equipment to locate the injection site. He injects an anesthetic to relieve pain and or a corticosteroid, a powerful antiinflammatory medication. He may record a series of images to document the condition of the joint.",CPT +27097,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.","In this procedure, the provider releases the hamstring muscle at its upper end, present on the back of the thigh.",CPT +27098,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.","In this procedure, the provider transfers the adductor tendons from their origin on the pubic bones to the ischium, the lowest part of the rear hip bone. There are three main adductor muscles in a hip joint: adductor longus, brevis, and gracilis.",CPT +27100,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.","In this procedure, the provider transfers the external oblique muscle to the greater trochanter to compensate for paralyzed hip abductor muscles. The external oblique is the largest and most superficial of the muscles of the front abdominal wall.",CPT +27105,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.","In this procedure, the provider transfers a paraspinal muscle to the hip joint using a fascial or tendon graft.",CPT +27110,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.","In this procedure, the provider transfers the iliopsoas muscle from the lesser trochanter of the femur to the greater trochanter to compensate for weak hip abductor muscles. The lesser trochanter is a bony prominence on the inner side of the neck of the femur bone. The greater trochanter is a bony projection on the outer and upper side of the femur.",CPT +27111,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.","In this procedure, the provider transfers the iliopsoas muscle to the neck of the femur to compensate for a weak hip abductor muscles. The goal of this procedure is to improve the lateral stability of the hip joint by transferring the iliopsoas muscle to the neck of the femur.",CPT +27120,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.","In this procedure, the provider performs acetabuloplasty in which he surgically modifies the shape of the acetabulum, a cup–shaped socket of the hip joint. The aim is to correct congenital dislocation of the hip or to treat hip osteoarthritis.",CPT +27122,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.","In this procedure, the provider performs acetabuloplasty in which she surgically modifies the shape of the acetabulum, a cup–shaped socket of the hip joint. She also resects, or cuts out the femoral head. The aim is to alleviate pain in a patient with a severe hip infection or in a patient whose bones cannot tolerate reconstruction of the joint.",CPT +27125,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.","In this procedure, the provider removes a damaged head of the femur and replaces it with a prosthetic device. The provider does not replace the acetabulum. The goal of the procedure is to achieve stabilization.",CPT +27130,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.","In this procedure, the provider surgically replaces the hip joint by prosthesis, or artificial hip joint. He replaces both the femoral and acetabular components with or without using an autograft or allograft.",CPT +27132,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.","In this procedure, the provider exposes a hip joint that has undergone a previous hip surgery other than total hip arthroplasty and replaces the hip joint by prosthesis, or artificial hip joint. He replaces both the femoral and acetabular components with or without using an autograft or allograft.",CPT +27134,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.","In this procedure, the provider removes a previously implanted artificial hip joint or prosthesis and replaces it with a new prosthesis. He replaces both the femoral and acetabular components. He may or may not use a graft for the revision surgery.",CPT +27137,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.","In this procedure, the provider removes a previously implanted artificial hip joint or prosthesis and replaces it with a new prosthesis. He replaces only the acetabular component. He may or may not use a graft for the revision surgery.",CPT +27138,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.","In this procedure, the provider removes a previously implanted artificial hip joint or prosthesis and replaces it with a new prosthesis. He replaces only the femoral component. He may or may not use a graft for the revision surgery.",CPT +27140,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.","In this procedure, the provider performs an osteotomy, cutting the greater trochanter of the thigh’s femur bone and transferring the trochanter downward and outward on the femur bone. The greater trochanter is a bony prominence on the outer side of the hip.",CPT +27146,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.","In this procedure, the provider performs an osteotomy, cutting a portion of the iliac, acetabular, or innominate bone of the pelvis. The iliac is the upper portion of the pelvic girdle. The acetabulum is the cup–shaped socket of the hip joint. The innominate bone is either of the two bones that form the sides of the pelvis, consisting of three fused components: the ilium, ischium, and pubis.",CPT +27147,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.","In this procedure, the provider performs an osteotomy, cutting a portion of the iliac, acetabular, or innominate bone of the pelvis. He also reduces the dislocated hip, restoring the normal alignment of the hip joint. The iliac is the upper portion of the pelvic girdle. The acetabulum is the cup–shaped socket of the hip joint. The innominate bone is either of the two bones that form the sides of the pelvis, consisting of three fused components: the ilium, ischium, and pubis.",CPT +27151,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.","In this procedure, the provider performs an iliac osteotomy, cutting a portion of ilium along the acetabular or innominate bone. He also performs femoral osteotomy in which he cuts the thigh bone to correct its alignment. The acetabulum is a cup–shaped socket of the hip joint. An innominate bone is either of the two bones that form the sides of the pelvis, consisting of three fused components: the ilium, ischium, and pubis.",CPT +27156,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.","In this procedure, the provider performs an osteotomy, cutting a portion of the iliac, acetabular, or innominate bone of the pelvis. He then reduces the dislocated hip. He also performs femoral osteotomy in which he cuts the thigh bone to correct its alignment. The iliac is the upper portion of the pelvic girdle. The acetabulum is the cup–shaped socket of the hip joint. The innominate bone is either of the two bones that form the sides of the pelvis, consisting of three fused components: the ilium, ischium, and pubis.",CPT +27158,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.","In this procedure, the provider performs a pelvic osteotomy, by incising a portion of the pelvic bones or repairing the pelvic side of the socket. There are different types of pelvic osteotomy such as dega osteotomy or salter osteotomy. When the child suffers an alignment problem of the pelvis from birth, the provider corrects the deformity in both pelvises by any of the pelvic osteotomy methods. He does this to stabilize the hip and return it to a more normal shape and function. The provider performs this procedure usually in young children.",CPT +27161,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.","In this procedure, the provider performs femoral neck osteotomy, cutting a wedge–shaped portion of the femur neck to correct the femoral alignment. The femoral neck is a flat portion of the thigh’s femur bone that connects the femoral head with the femoral shaft.",CPT +27165,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.","In this procedure, the provider performs an osteotomy, or a division of a portion of the bone from an area of the femur between the greater and lesser trochanter or just below the lesser trochanter to correct the alignment or deformity. He may also use an internal or external fixation device or cast to stabilize the area.",CPT +27170,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.","In this procedure, the provider treats the defect in the femoral head, neck, intertrochanteric, or subtrochanteric area using a bone graft obtained from another area of the body.",CPT +27175,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.","In this procedure, the provider treats a slipped femoral epiphysis, the end portion of the thigh bone, the result of a fracture in the growth plate of the bone, common in children. He uses traction but does not use reduction to realign the bones.",CPT +27176,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.","In this procedure, the provider treats a slipped femoral epiphysis, the end portion of the thigh bone, the result of a fracture in the growth plate of the bone, common in children. He uses one or more pins that he inserts through a small stab incision to hold the bone in position.",CPT +27177,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.","In this procedure, the provider performs open treatment of a slipped femoral epiphysis using single or multiple pins or by using a graft obtained from another part of the body. Slipped femoral epiphysis is a condition encountered in growing children and characterized by the femoral head, or epiphysis, slipping off the femoral neck due to fracture of the growth plate, called the physis.",CPT +27178,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.","In this procedure, the provider first reduces the slipped femoral epiphysis through manipulation, restoring the epiphysis into normal alignment. He then creates an incision and uses single or multiple pins to secure the reduced fracture in the growth plate. Slipped femoral epiphysis is a condition encountered in growing children and characterized by the femoral head, or epiphysis, slipping off the femoral neck due to fracture of the growth plate, called the physis.",CPT +27179,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.","In this procedure, the provider performs open treatment of a slipped femoral epiphysis by removing a wedge–shaped portion of bone from the neck of the femur to reduce the fracture in the growth plate, restoring the normal alignment of the epiphysis. Slipped femoral epiphysis is a condition encountered in growing children and characterized by the femoral head, or epiphysis, slipping off the femoral neck due to fracture of the growth plate, called the physis.",CPT +27181,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.","In this procedure, the provider performs an open treatment of a slipped femoral epiphysis by removing a wedge shaped portion of bone from the neck of the femur to reduce a fracture in the growth plate. He also uses internal fixation implants to stabilize the correction in the bone. A slipped femoral epiphysis is a condition encountered in growing children characterized by slippage of the overlying end of the femur, or epiphysis, due to a fracture of the growth plate, or physis.",CPT +27185,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.",The provider implants screws or specialized staples into the epiphyseal area of the greater trochanter of the femur. This causes a temporary pause in the growth of that bone.,CPT +27187,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.","In this procedure, the provider treats a defect in the femoral neck and proximal femur using fixation implants like nails, plates, or screws to prevent future issues. He may or may not use methylmethacrylate, a type of bone cement.",CPT +27197,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"The provider treats a fracture and/or a complete or partial separation of one or both sides of the posterior (back) side of the pelvic bones, with or without an anterior component, without manipulation.",CPT +27198,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"With the patient under general or regional anesthesia or moderate sedation, the provider employs manipulation to treat a fracture and/or a complete or partial separation of one or both sides of the posterior (back) side of the pelvic bones, with or without an anterior component.",CPT +27200,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a closed treatment of a fracture of the coccyx, the tailbone.",CPT +27202,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an open treatment of a coccyx fracture. He may use internal fixation implants like pins or screws to fix the fracture.",CPT +27215,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an open treatment of the iliac spine, tuberosity avulsion, or iliac wing fractures on one side of the pelvis bone. He may use internal fixation like plates or screws to fix the fracture.",CPT +27216,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts pins through the skin and into the pelvic bone to which he attaches a frame to stabilize and reduce, or realign, a fracture or dislocation that disrupt the ring of bones on one side of the pelvis.",CPT +27217,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an open treatment of an anterior pelvic bone fracture and or dislocation for fracture patterns that disrupt the pelvic ring on one side of the pelvis. He may use internal fixation implants like plates and screws to fix the fracture.",CPT +27218,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an open treatment of a posterior pelvic bone fracture and or dislocation with fracture patterns that disrupt the pelvic ring on one side of the pelvis. He may use internal fixation like plates and screws to fix the fracture.",CPT +27220,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a closed treatment of a fracture of the acetabulum, or hip socket. Treatment does not include manipulation, or adjustment, of the fractured bones.",CPT +27222,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a closed treatment of a fracture of the acetabulum, or hip socket. Treatment includes manipulation, or adjustment, of the fractured bone with or without skin or skeletal traction.",CPT +27226,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an open treatment of a posterior or anterior acetabular wall fracture. He uses internal fixation implants such as a plate, pins, or screws to fix the fracture.",CPT +27227,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an open treatment of a posterior or anterior column fracture of the acetabulum or a fracture that extends across the acetabulum. He uses internal fixation implants such as a plate and pins, wires or screws to fix the fracture.",CPT +27228,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"The provider performs an open treatment of a complex fracture of the acetabulum, the cup–shaped socket of the hip joint.",CPT +27230,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a closed treatment of a femur neck fracture in the upper end of the femur. Treatment does not include manipulation, or adjustment, of the fractured bone.",CPT +27232,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a closed treatment of a femur neck fracture, or a fracture in the upper end of the femur. Treatment includes manipulation, or adjustment, of the fractured bone. The provider may also use skeletal traction as part of this procedure.",CPT +27235,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider treats a femur neck fracture, or a fracture in the upper end of the femur, using screws and pins through the skin.",CPT +27236,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an open treatment of a femur neck fracture, or a fracture in the upper end of the femur. He uses internal fixation implants such as pins, wires, or screws to fix the fracture. He may also replace the damaged portion of bone with an artificial implant, if necessary.",CPT +27238,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a closed treatment of a femoral fracture between, around, or below the trochanters. Treatment does not include manipulation, or adjustment, of the fractured bone. The provider performs this service for a stable, nondisplaced fracture.",CPT +27240,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a closed treatment of a femoral fracture between, around, or below the trochanters. Treatment includes manipulation, or adjustment, of the fractured bone with or without skin or skeletal traction.",CPT +27244,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an open treatment of a femoral fracture between, around, or below the trochanters. He fixes the fracture using a plate and screws to stabilize the fractured bone. He may also use cerclage, a metal band or wire loop that the provider wraps around the fragments to help hold the fracture fragments in place.",CPT +27245,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an open treatment of a femoral fracture between, around, or below the trochanters. He fixes the fracture using an intramedullary implant, or an implant the provider places inside the canal of the femur to stabilize the fractured bones. He may also use interlocking screws and or cerclage, a metal band or wire loop, that the provider wraps around the fragments to help hold the fracture fragments in place.",CPT +27246,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a closed treatment of a greater trochanteric fracture in the upper end of the femur. Treatment does not include manipulation, or adjustment, of the fractured bone.",CPT +27248,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,The provider performs an open treatment of a greater trochanteric fracture in the upper end of the femur. He may use internal fixation implants like pins or screws to repair the fracture.,CPT +27250,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a closed treatment of a traumatic hip joint dislocation, an abnormal separation of a joint. He performs this procedure without using general anesthesia.",CPT +27252,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a closed treatment of a traumatic hip joint dislocation, an abnormal separation of a joint. He performs this procedure using general anesthesia.",CPT +27253,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"The provider performs an open treatment of a hip joint dislocation, an abnormal separation of a joint, often due to a physical injury or violence. He does not use internal fixation implants like pins, wires, or screws to fix the dislocation.",CPT +27254,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"The provider performs an open treatment of a traumatic hip joint dislocation, an abnormal separation of a joint, often due to a physical injury or violence. He performs this procedure along with treatment of an acetabular wall and femoral head fracture. He may or may not use internal fixation implants like pins or screws to fix the dislocation.",CPT +27256,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a closed treatment of a developmental, congenital, or pathological hip joint dislocation, or an abnormal separation of a joint. He performs this procedure by performing abduction, or applying a splint or traction without administering general anesthesia to the patient and without performing manual manipulation.",CPT +27257,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a closed treatment of a spontaneous developmental hip dislocation, including congenital or pathological hip joint dislocation, which is an abnormal separation of a joint. He performs this procedure using abduction, a splint, or traction and using anesthesia and manipulation, or the adjustment of the bone to realign the dislocation.",CPT +27258,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an open treatment of a spontaneous developmental hip dislocation including a congenital or pathological hip joint dislocation, which is an abnormal separation of a joint. He performs this procedure by reducing the femoral head into the acetabulum. He also performs an adductor muscle tenotomy as part of this procedure.",CPT +27259,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"The provider treats a spontaneous dislocation of the hip, a condition present from birth or the result of disease. Through an incision in the hip, he repositions the head of the thigh bone and shortens its shaft.",CPT +27265,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"The provider corrects a minor dislocation in a hip joint that has formerly undergone a total hip replacement. She uses force to realign the hip, without anesthesia.",CPT +27266,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"The provider corrects a minor dislocation in a hip joint that has formerly undergone a total hip replacement. She uses force to realign the hip, with the patient under a regional or general anesthetic.",CPT +27267,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"The provider treats a fracture at the head of the femur, or thigh bone, without an incision or manipulation.",CPT +27268,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"The provider treats a fracture at the head of the femur, or thigh bone, with manual manipulation but without an incision.",CPT +27269,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"The provider treats a fracture at the head of the femur, or thigh bone, with an open reduction procedure. She may apply internal fixation.",CPT +27275,Manipulation Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs manipulation of the hip joint under anesthesia. Manipulation consists of passive movement and stretching of the hip joint with an aim to break up the fibrous and scar tissue to relieve pain and improve range of motion.",CPT +27278,Arthrodesis Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,The provider uses a minimally invasive percutaneous approach to place one or more stabilization implants into the sacroiliac joint for joint fusion. The procedure takes place under imaging guidance.,CPT +27279,Arthrodesis Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically immobilizes the sacroiliac joint with the help of fixation devices, after gaining access to the joint through the skin. He may also induce artificial bone generation into the joint area with the help of a graft he obtains from the patient. The procedure takes place under image guidance.",CPT +27280,Arthrodesis Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"The provider uses an open approach to surgically immobilize the sacroiliac joint in the pelvis by inducing artificial bone generation in the joint area. The code includes obtaining a bone graft from the patient’s body and use of instrumentation, when performed.",CPT +27282,Arthrodesis Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically immobilizes the symphysis pubis joint of the pelvis with the help of fixation devices. He induces artificial bone generation in the joint area with the help of a graft he obtains from another part of the patient’s body.",CPT +27284,Arthrodesis Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"The provider performs arthrodesis, or fusion, of the hip joint. He applies a bone graft obtained from another location on the patient’s body.",CPT +27286,Arthrodesis Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically immobilizes the hip joint with the help of fixation devices. He induces artificial bone generation in the joint area with the help of a graft he obtains from another part of the patient’s body. He also performs subtrochanteric osteotomy, a surgical procedure that divides the shaft of the femur below the lesser trochanter, which is just below the femur’s neck.",CPT +27290,Amputation Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider amputates an entire leg along with one outer half of the pelvis on the same side. The provider performs this surgery very rarely, typically for severe trauma, infection, or tumor.",CPT +27295,Amputation Procedures on the Pelvis and Hip Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically removes the entire lower extremity through the hip joint.",CPT +27299,Other Procedures on the Pelvis or Hip Joint.,Use to report a pelvis or hip joint procedure that does not have a specific code.,CPT +27301,Incision Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider incises and drains an abscess, bursa, or hematoma that is in the deep structures of the thigh or knee region. He performs the procedure to treat an infection and relieve pain.",CPT +27303,Incision Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider incises the bone cortex to relieve pain, pressure, or infection due to such conditions as osteomyelitis or a bone abscess in a localized site on the upper leg or knee area.",CPT +27305,Incision Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an open tenotomy involving surgical division or cutting of the iliotibial band, a thick band of fibers that runs the length of the outside of the hip and thigh.",CPT +27306,Incision Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs percutaneous tenotomy, dividing a single tendon of the adductor or hamstring through a small incision in the skin.",CPT +27307,Incision Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs percutaneous tenotomy, dividing multiple tendons of the adductor or hamstrings through a small incision in the skin.",CPT +27310,Incision Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider incises the knee joint. He then explores the joint and drains out pus or removes any foreign body or loose material present.",CPT +27323,Excision Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,The provider removes a sample of suspicious superficial soft tissue from the thigh or knee. She submits the specimen to a laboratory for analysis to determine its nature.,CPT +27324,Excision Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,The provider removes a sample of suspicious tissue from below the fascia or within the muscle of the thigh or knee. She submits the specimen to a laboratory for analysis to determine its nature.,CPT +27325,Excision Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"The provider performs a neurectomy, full or partial excision of a nerve, along the hamstring muscle in the leg to relieve painful muscle spasms.",CPT +27326,Excision Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider excises part of or a nerve from the popliteal or gastrocnemius muscle. The goal of the procedure is to relieve spasms.",CPT +27327,Excision Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider excises a tumor of less than three cm in size from the subcutaneous tissue within the thigh or knee.",CPT +27328,Excision Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider excises a tumor smaller than five cm in size from the intramuscular area of the thigh or knee.",CPT +27329,Excision Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"The provider performs an extensive excision of a tumor, or mass, in the soft tissues in the thigh or knee area, suspected to be malignant, such as a sarcoma. He excises the surrounding tissues along with the mass, with the diameter of the tumor and its margins measuring less than 5 cm.",CPT +27330,Excision Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision over the knee joint and performs a biopsy of the synovium for diagnostic purposes.",CPT +27331,Excision Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs arthrotomy, surgical incision of the knee joint, along with a biopsy and removal of a loose body from the synovium.",CPT +27332,Excision Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs arthrotomy and excises either the medial or lateral meniscus of the knee to relieve pain and improve gait.",CPT +27333,Excision Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"The provider incises the knee joint to remove damaged crescent moon shaped cartilages, or menisci, from both the medial and lateral joint compartments that separate the femur, or thigh bone, from the tibia bone in the lower leg. A torn or frayed meniscus results from a twisting injury to the knee.",CPT +27334,Excision Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs arthrotomy of the knee joint along with anterior or posterior synovectomy to relieve pain and improve gait.",CPT +27335,Excision Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs arthrotomy of the knee joint along with anterior and posterior synovectomy that includes the popliteal area to relieve pain and improve gait.",CPT +27337,Excision Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider excises a tumor of 3 cm or larger in size from the subcutaneous region of the thigh or knee.",CPT +27339,Excision Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider excises a tumor that is five cm in size or larger from the intramuscular area of the thigh or knee.",CPT +27340,Excision Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider excises the prepatellar bursa, a fluid filled covering in front of the knee, to relieve pain.",CPT +27345,Excision Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a synovial cyst, commonly called a Baker’s cyst, from the popliteal space to relieve pain and improve range of motion.",CPT +27347,Excision Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a lesion, such as a cyst or ganglion, from the meniscus or capsule of the knee to eliminate pain.",CPT +27350,Excision Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider removes the patient’s knee cap, either partially or completely, to treat conditions such as a patellar fracture or arthritis.",CPT +27355,Excision Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a benign tumor or cyst from the femur to reduce pain and improve range of motion.",CPT +27356,Excision Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a benign tumor or cyst from the femur using allograft to repair it. This is often performed in cases when the tumor or cyst is causing pain or preventing a normal range of motion.",CPT +27357,Excision Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a bone cyst from the femur, using autograft, typically to relieve pain and improve range of motion.",CPT +27358,Excision Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this add on procedure, the provider applies internal fixation devices, such as screws or plates, to give the patient more stability.",CPT +27360,Excision Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider partially excises the femur, proximal tibia, or fibula, or both, to remove any disease or infection.",CPT +27364,Excision Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"You'll use this code for extensive surgical removal of a soft tissue tumor and surrounding tissues of the thigh or knee area, measuring 5cm or more.",CPT +27365,Excision Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a tumor from the femur or knee, typically to treat cancer or diagnose potential malignancies.",CPT +27369,Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,,CPT +27372,Introduction or Removal Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,In this procedure the provider makes an incision into the muscle layer and removes a foreign body that is below the fascia or inside the muscle.,CPT +27380,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider performs primary repair of the infrapatellar tendon, a tendon of the quadriceps muscle that extends from the patella to the tibia. Primary repair is a repair performed within a few days of injury.",CPT +27381,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider performs secondary repair of the infrapatellar tendon, a tendon of the quadriceps muscle that extends from the patella to the tibia. Secondary repair is a repair performed at least a few days after initial injury or when the primary repair has failed.",CPT +27385,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider sutures the primary rupture of the hamstring or quadriceps muscles to relieve pain and reinstate appropriate gait.",CPT +27386,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider performs secondary repair of a quadriceps or hamstring muscle tear using a graft he takes from a tendon or the fascia of the patient’s body. Secondary reconstruction is one in which the provider repairs the torn muscle at least afew days after initial rupture of the muscle or when the initial repair is not satisfactory.",CPT +27390,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider performs an open tenotomy, involving surgical division or cutting of any single tendon of the hamstring muscles from knee to hip. Hamstring muscles are a group of three muscles, the biceps femoris, the semitendinosus, and the semimembranosus, which are responsible for bending the knee joint and for backward movement of the thigh.",CPT +27391,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider performs an open tenotomy, involving surgical division or cutting of multiple tendons of the hamstring muscles from knee to hip in one leg. Hamstring muscles are a group of three muscles, the biceps femoris, the semitendinosus, and the semimembranosus, which are responsible for bending the knee joint and for backward movement of the thigh.",CPT +27392,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider performs an open tenotomy, involving surgical division or cutting of multiple tendons of the hamstring muscles from knee to hip in both legs. Hamstring muscles are a group of three muscles, the biceps femoris, the semitendinosus, and the semimembranosus, which are responsible for bending the knee joint and for backward movement of the thigh.",CPT +27393,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider lengthens any single tendon of the hamstring muscles from knee to hip by incising it. Hamstring muscles are a group of three muscles, the biceps femoris, the semitendinosus, and the semimembranosus, which are responsible for bending the knee joint and for backward movement of the thigh.",CPT +27394,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider lengthens multiple tendons of the hamstring muscles from knee to hip in one leg by incising them. Hamstring muscles are a group of three muscles, the biceps femoris, the semitendinosus, and the semimembranosus, which are responsible for bending the knee joint and for backward movement of the thigh.",CPT +27395,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider lengthens multiple tendons of the hamstring muscles from knee to hip in both legs by incising the tendons. Hamstring muscles are a group of three muscles, the biceps femoris, the semitendinosus, and the semimembranosus, which are responsible for bending the knee joint and for backward movement of the thigh.",CPT +27396,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider transfers or transplants a single muscle tendon in the thigh. For example, he may transfer an extensor tendon to the flexor side allowing it to function as a flexor.",CPT +27397,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider transfers or transplants multiple muscle tendons in the thigh. For example, he may transfer an extensor tendon to the flexor side allowing it to function as a flexor.",CPT +27400,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider transfers the hamstring muscle or tendon to the femur, often to treat cerebral palsy.",CPT +27403,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider performs an arthrotomy of the knee joint along with meniscus repair to relieve pain.",CPT +27405,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider performs primary repair of the torn collateral ligament and/or capsule of the knee. Primary repair is when the provider repairs the torn ligament or capsule immediately after the injury. Collateral ligaments are the ligaments on the inner or outer side of the knee joint.",CPT +27407,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider repairs a primary tear in the cruciate ligament or capsule of the knee to alleviate pain and restore gait.",CPT +27409,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider performs primary repair of the torn collateral and cruciate ligaments and/or capsule of the knee. Primary repair is one when the provider repairs the torn ligament or capsule immediately after the injury. Collateral ligaments are the ligaments on the inner or outer side of the knee joint. Cruciate ligaments are a pair of ligaments on the underside of the knee arranged like a letter X.",CPT +27412,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider transplants cartilage from the patient’s own body into the knee to repair an abnormality or defect that occurs due to damage of the hyaline cartilage.",CPT +27415,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.",The provider uses an open approach to directly access the knee joint. She places an allograft to repair an osteochondral defect.,CPT +27416,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider harvests, or obtains, small circular bone grafts from a non–weight bearing area of the joint that has a cartilage covering. He then transfers them to another area in the body to repair the damaged articular cartilage. This procedure is also known as mosaicplasty. The provider most commonly obtains grafts from non–weight bearing areas of femoral condyles.",CPT +27418,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider moves the tibial tubercle up from the bone and brings the tubercle forward to bring the knee cap, or patella, forward. The tibial tuberosity is a bony prominence in the shin bone below the knee cap where the patellar tendon inserts. The provider performs this procedure to reduce load on the patellofemoral joint to treat knee cap pain that occurs without arthritis.",CPT +27420,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider transfers the entire patellar tendon insertion as a bone block to treat a dislocating patella, a condition in which the patella, the knee cap, slips out of its normal position and causes pain and swelling.",CPT +27422,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider transfers the entire patellar tendon insertion as a bone block to treat a dislocating patella, a condition in which the patella, the knee cap, slips out of its normal position and causes pain and swelling. He also performs realignment of the extensor muscles along with muscle transfer or release to improve the knee joint stability.",CPT +27424,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider surgically removes the patella to treat a dislocating patella, a condition in which the patella, the knee cap, slips out of its normal position and causes pain and swelling.",CPT +27425,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider incises or divides the tight lateral retinaculum, a band of fibrous tissue on the outer side of the knee that supports the patella in its position against the thigh's femur bone beneath it. The provider most commonly performs this procedure to treat patellar subluxation or partial dislocation.",CPT +27427,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider reconstructs the extra–articular ligaments of the knee joint. He may also use a graft to reinforce the repair of the ligament. Extra–articular ligaments are the ligaments located outside the knee joint.",CPT +27428,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider reconstructs the intra–articular ligaments of the knee joint. He may also use a graft to reinforce the repair of the ligament. Intra–articular ligaments are the ligaments located inside the knee joint.",CPT +27429,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider reconstructs both the intra–articular and extra–articular ligaments of the knee joint. He may also use a graft to reinforce the repair of the ligament. Intra–articular ligaments are the ligaments located inside the knee joint. Extra–articular ligaments are the ligaments located outside the knee joint.",CPT +27430,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider performs a surgical procedure on the quadriceps femoris muscle to release adhesions and improve mobility. The aim is to improve the range of the bending motion at the knee joint. Quadriceps femoris is a large muscle group on the front of the thigh and includes four muscles: rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, and vastus intermedius.",CPT +27435,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider divides the joint capsule on the back of the knee to correct the flexion contracture of the knee joint. Flexion contracture is an abnormal tightening of the capsule leading to an inability to straighten the knee.",CPT +27437,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider repairs a painful damaged knee cap without inserting an artificial knee joint prosthesis.",CPT +27438,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider repairs and replaces a painful, damaged knee cap with an artificial knee cap prosthesis.",CPT +27440,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider reconstructs the diseased or damaged tibial part of the knee joint to relieve pain and improve gait.",CPT +27441,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider reconstructs the diseased or damaged tibial part of the leg, along with debridement and partial synovectomy of the knee joint, to relieve pain and improve the patient’s gait.",CPT +27442,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider reconstructs the defects in the femoral condyles or tibial plateaus of the knee to relieve pain and improve the patient’s gait.",CPT +27443,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider reconstructs the defects in the femoral condyles or tibial plateaus along with performing a partial synovectomy and knee debridement to relieve pain and improve the patient’s gait.",CPT +27445,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider replaces the damaged weight–bearing surfaces of the knee joint using a hinge prosthesis, which is an artificial implant. The aim of this procedure is to relieve the pain and disability in a severely damaged knee.",CPT +27446,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider reconstructs the diseased or damaged medial or lateral compartment of the knee along with the femoral condyles and tibial plateaus to relieve pain and improve the patient’s gait.",CPT +27447,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider replaces the damaged weight bearing surfaces of both the medial and lateral compartments in the knee joint using implants of metal or other strong materials. She may or may not replace the patella with an implant. The aim of this procedure is to relieve the pain and disability in a severely damaged knee.",CPT +27448,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider performs an osteotomy, cutting a portion of the bone from the shaft or supracondylar area of the thigh’s femur bone to correct the alignment and any deformity. She does not use any fixation devices.",CPT +27450,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider performs an osteotomy, cutting a portion of the bone from the shaft or supracondylar area of the thigh’s femur bone to correct the alignment and any deformity. He also uses fixation devices to correct the alignment of the bone.",CPT +27454,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider performs multiple osteotomies, cutting portions of the femoral shaft at multiple sites to correct the alignment and any deformity. He uses an intramedullary rod to reunite the bone fragments for realignment.",CPT +27455,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider removes a portion of the tibia bone near the knee and a portion of the fibula bone to assist with function and correcting deformities of the leg. The procedure takes place before the patient’s bones stop growing.",CPT +27457,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider surgically removes a portion of the tibia bone near the knee and a portion of the fibula bone to assist with function and correcting deformities of the leg. Typically, the provider’s aim is to shift the patient’s body weight from a damaged side of the knee to the other side of the knee, where the cartilage is still healthy. The procedure takes place after the patient’s bones stop growing.",CPT +27465,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider surgically performs shortening of the femur, which is the thigh bone,to treat discrepancy of leg length in a patient or to treat a patient whose thigh bone has not healed in its proper alignment.",CPT +27466,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider performs a surgery to lengthen the femur bone, usually by a technique known as osteodistraction. In this technique, the provider moves the two segments of a bone slowly apart in such a way that new bone fills in the gap.",CPT +27468,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider surgically lengthens and shortens the femur. He also transfers a femur segment from one portion of bone to another. The provider performs this service most often to treat legs of unequal lengths, typically legs with a large leg length discrepancy, or LLD.",CPT +27470,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider repairs the nonunion or malunion of a femur fracture below the femur head and neck. She does not use a graft for this procedure.",CPT +27472,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider repairs the nonunion or malunion of a femur fracture below the femur head and neck. He also obtains a graft from iliac bone or another site on the patient and uses the bone graft to reinforce the repair.",CPT +27475,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider partially or totally destroys a part of the epiphysis, known as the growth plate, at the lower end of the femur. The aim is to slow the growth of a normal leg to allow a shorter leg to grow to a matching length.",CPT +27477,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider partially or totally destroys the part of the epiphysis, known as the growth plate, at the upper end of the tibia and fibula. The aim is to slow the growth of a normal leg to allow a shorter leg to grow to a matching length.",CPT +27479,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","To stop growth of the leg bones, the provider uses a technique such as implanting screws into the epiphyseal area near the knee.",CPT +27485,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","To stop growth of a leg bone, the provider uses a technique such as stapling or placing a plate in the epiphyseal area near the knee. The procedure may help conditions such as genu varus, in which legs curve outward at the knee, or genu valgus, in which legs curve inward at the knee.",CPT +27486,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider performs revision arthroplasty of any one component of the knee joint. He may or may not use an allograft to perform this procedure. Revision arthroplasty is a procedure in which the provider removes a previously implanted artificial knee joint component, or prosthesis, and replaces it with a new prosthesis.",CPT +27487,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider performs revision arthroplasty of the knee joint. She revises both the femoral and tibial components. She may or may not use an allograft to perform this procedure. Revision arthroplasty is a procedure in which the provider removes a previously implanted artificial knee joint, or prosthesis, and replaces it with a new prosthesis.",CPT +27488,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider surgically removes the total knee prosthesis by breaking the methylmethacrylate, a type of bone cement. He may or may not insert a spacer in the vacant space.",CPT +27495,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider treats a defect in the femur using fixation implants like nails, plates, or screws to prevent future issues. She may or may not use methylmethacrylate, a type of bone cement.",CPT +27496,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider cuts into the fascia of any one compartment in the thigh and/or knee to relieve pressure and increase blood flow.",CPT +27497,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider cuts into the fascia of any one compartment in the thigh and/or knee to relieve pressure and increase blood flow. He also removes the dead or damaged tissue.",CPT +27498,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider cuts into the fascia of multiple compartments in the thigh and/or knee to relieve pressure and increase blood flow.",CPT +27499,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.","In this procedure, the provider cuts into the fascia of multiple compartments in the thigh and/or knee to relieve pressure and increase blood flow. He also removes the dead or damaged tissue.",CPT +27500,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider reduces the fracture in the femoral shaft into the correct position, without any manipulation, to repair the fracture and set it for healing.",CPT +27501,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a closed reduction of a supracondylar fracture of the femur with or without an intercondylar extension and without manipulation to repair a broken bone and set it for healing.",CPT +27502,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a closed reduction of a femoral shaft fracture with manipulation to repair the broken bone and set it for healing. The major goal for applying traction is to achieve stability and correct alignment of the bones.",CPT +27503,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a closed reduction of a supracondylar fracture of the femur with manipulation to repair the broken bone and set it for healing. The major goal for applying traction is to achieve stability and correct alignment of the bones.",CPT +27506,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an open reduction of the femoral shaft fracture with insertion of intramedullary fixation, with or without external fixation. The main goal of the procedure is to return the bones to normal alignment to ensure healthy, complete healing.",CPT +27507,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs open reduction of the femoral shaft fracture with plates or screws, with or without cerclage. The goal of the procedure is to attain stability and proper bone position to ensure healthy healing.",CPT +27508,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs closed reduction of the distal end fracture of the femur that includes the medial and lateral condyles, without any manipulation. The goal of the procedure is to ensure stability of the fracture without any external manipulation.",CPT +27509,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider treats the condylar fracture of the femur by inserting a pin, screw, or wire through the skin and into the bone. The provider may also perform correction for an intercondylar extension or distal femoral epiphyseal separation. The goal of the procedure is to attain the stability of the fracture to ensure healing of the bones in a normal alignment.",CPT +27510,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider manipulates fracture fragments and performs closed reduction of a fracture at the distal end of the femur (thigh bone) that involves the medial or lateral condyles. The goal of the procedure is to ensure a correct alignment of the medial and lateral condyles of the femur along with stability.",CPT +27511,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"The provider performs an open reduction and uses screws, pins, or wires to stabilize a supracondylar fracture of the femur (thigh bone); the fracture does not extend into the area between the condyles. The goal is to properly align the bones to ensure complete healing.",CPT +27513,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an open reduction of a fracture of the femur (thigh bone) that extends above or across the condyle and into the space between the condyles, which may require the use of hardware, such as plates, screws, nails, and/or wires to stabilize the fracture. The goal of the procedure is to ensure correct alignment of the bones to promote early healing of the fracture.",CPT +27514,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs open reduction and internal fixation of the fracture of femoral condyles using pins, screws, or wires. The goal of the procedure is to align the fractured fragment in a normal alignment thereby assuring the proper position of the fractured bones.",CPT +27516,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"The provider performs a closed reduction of the distal femoral epiphyseal separation without manipulation. The goal of the procedure is to stabilize and reduce the separation between the epiphysis, the lower end part of the femur (thigh bone). Separation or fracture of the epiphyseal plate (growth plate) is a common, often missed injury in young children.",CPT +27517,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"The provider performs a closed reduction of the distal femoral epiphyseal separation with manipulation; skin or skeletal traction may be employed. The goal of the procedure is to stabilize and reduce the separation between the epiphysis, the lower end part of the femur (thigh bone). Separation or fracture of the epiphyseal plate (growth plate) is a common, often missed injury in young children.",CPT +27519,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"The provider performs open reduction and may perform internal fixation of the distal femoral epiphyseal separation. The goal of the procedure is to ensure fixation of the epiphysis by using external devices. Separation or fracture of the epiphyseal plate (growth plate) is a common, often missed injury in young children.",CPT +27520,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a closed reduction of a knee cap fracture without manipulation. The goal of the procedure is to ensure a stable position of the patella.",CPT +27524,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an open reduction and internal fixation of the knee cap fracture, along with partial or complete excision of the patella and soft tissue repair. The goal of the procedure is to ensure stability of the patella and to increase healing of the patella.",CPT +27530,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs closed reduction of the proximal tibial plateau without manipulation. The goal of the procedure is to stabilize the tibia and ensure healing of the bone in correct position.",CPT +27532,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a closed reduction of bicondylar proximal tibial plateau fracture using skeletal traction. The goal of the procedure is to ensure correct alignment of the bone with or without traction or manipulation.",CPT +27535,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs open reduction and internal fixation of unicondylar proximal tibial plateau fracture. The goal of the procedure is to ensure a correct alignment of the bones via internal fixation.",CPT +27536,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs open reduction and internal fixation of bicondylar proximal tibial plateau fracture. The goal of the procedure is to ensure correct alignment of the fractured fragments.",CPT +27538,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a closed reduction of the fracture of intercondylar spine or tuberosity of the knee with or without manipulation. The goal of the procedure is to maintain the fractured fragments in correct position so as to ensure normal healing.",CPT +27540,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs open reduction and internal fixation of the fracture of intercondylar spine or tuberosity of the knee. The goal of the procedure is to ensure correct alignment of the fractured fragments.",CPT +27550,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider reduces knee dislocation by closed manipulation without anesthesia.",CPT +27552,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider reduces knee dislocation by closed manipulation with anesthesia.",CPT +27556,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an open reduction and internal fixation to correct a dislocated knee. He does not perform a primary ligament repair or reconstruction.",CPT +27557,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an open reduction and internal fixation to correct a dislocated knee. He also repairs the primary ligament.",CPT +27558,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an open reduction and internal fixation to repair a dislocated knee. He also repairs the primary ligament and performs enhancement or reconstruction.",CPT +27560,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,The provider moves the patella back into place without breaking the skin and without using anesthesia.,CPT +27562,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,The provider moves the patella back into place without breaking the skin. The procedure requires anesthesia.,CPT +27566,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an open reduction of the knee cap to correct patellar dislocation. He may also partially or completely remove the patella.",CPT +27570,Manipulation Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs manipulation of the knee joint under anesthesia. Manipulation consists of passive movement and stretching of the knee joint with an aim to break up the fibrous and scar tissue to relieve pain and improve range of motion.",CPT +27580,Arthrodesis Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs arthrodesis or fusion of the knee joint, using any technique. The provider usually performs this technique to treat infections, loss of quadriceps function, failed total knee replacement, congenital dysgenesis of femur, etc.",CPT +27590,Amputation Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,In this procedure the provider completely removes the leg at any point on the femur bone of the thigh. He then closes the wound left with remaining muscular and skin layers.,CPT +27591,Amputation Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure the provider completely removes the leg at any point on the femur bone of the thigh. He then closes the wound left with remaining muscular and skin layers. This code involves immediate prosthesis fitting after the procedure. The goal is early mobilization of the patient, enabling the best possible restoration of physical fitness.",CPT +27592,Amputation Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,In this procedure the provider completely cuts through the leg at any location on the femur bone of the thigh by running the cutting instrument around the area in a circular motion. The goal of this procedure is to control the infection in a severely infected limb.,CPT +27594,Amputation Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs removes the leg at the thigh through the femur at any level and performs a secondary closure or revision of the scar.  The provider performs amputation in case if the patient suffers a severe injury has tumor or has a severe infection that would spread to the distant parts.",CPT +27596,Amputation Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider cuts out an additional length from an already amputated femur bone of the thigh, due to non–healing, or when it is not appropriate in its current form to fit a prosthesis.",CPT +27598,Amputation Procedures on the Femur (Thigh Region) and Knee Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically separates the tibia and fibula bones of the lower leg from the femur, the thigh bone. The advantage of this procedure to remove the lower leg is that the provider cuts no bones, which allows the patient to bear some weight on the end of the femur or thigh.",CPT +27599,Other Procedures on the Femur or Knee Joint.,Use to report surgical procedures on the femur or knee that do not have a specific code.,CPT +27600,Incision Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a decompression fasciotomy in the anterior and lateral compartment of the leg to reduce pain in the leg.",CPT +27601,Incision Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a decompression fasciotomy in the posterior compartment of the leg to reduce pain. The goal of the procedure is to relieve pressure and increase the blood flow.",CPT +27602,Incision Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,The provider incises the fascia to relieve pressure on the leg. He performs this procedure on anterior and or lateral compartments and the posterior compartment of the leg.,CPT +27603,Incision Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,The provider incises and drains an abscess or hematoma in ankle or leg. He performs the procedure to treat an infection and relieve pain.,CPT +27604,Incision Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,The provider drains an infected bursa from deep within the leg or ankle. He performs the procedure to treat infection and relieve pain.,CPT +27605,Incision Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,The provider incises the Achilles tendon percutaneously under local anesthesia. He performs the procedure to treat tendinitis or to correct clubfoot deformity in children.,CPT +27606,Incision Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,The provider incises the Achilles tendon percutaneously under general anesthesia. He performs the procedure to treat tendinitis or to correct clubfoot deformity in children.,CPT +27607,Incision Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,The provider performs an incision in the leg or ankle and excises a bone abscess to treat osteomyelitis.,CPT +27610,Incision Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,"The provider incises and opens the ankle joint, which he then explores and drains any collected fluid or removes any foreign body. He performs the procedure to diagnose problems in the ankle.",CPT +27612,Incision Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,The provider incises the posterior capsule of the ankle to relieve contracture and correct an equinus deformity of the ankle. He may or may not perform an Achilles tendon lengthening.,CPT +27613,Excision Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,The provider excises a lesion from the skin of the leg or ankle area. He sends the tissue for pathological evaluation. He performs this procedure to diagnose the nature of the skin lesion.,CPT +27614,Excision Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,The provider excises a lesion from the muscle or subfascial tissues of the leg or ankle area. He sends the tissue for pathological evaluation. He performs the procedure to diagnose the nature of the lesion.,CPT +27615,Excision Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,"The provider performs an extensive excision of a tumor, or mass, in the soft tissues in the leg or ankle area, suspected to be malignant, such as a sarcoma. He excises the surrounding tissues along with the mass, with the diameter of the tumor and its margins measuring less than 5 cm.",CPT +27616,Excision Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,"Use this code for extensive surgical removal of a soft tissue tumor and surrounding tissues of the leg or ankle area, measuring 5 cm or more.",CPT +27618,Excision Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,The provider excises a tumor from just beneath the skin without removing a significant amount of surrounding normal tissue. The tumor measures less than 3 cm in diameter.,CPT +27619,Excision Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,The provider excises a tumor within beneath the fascia or in the muscle of the leg or ankle area without removing a significant amount of surrounding normal tissue. The tumor measures less than 5 cm in diameter.,CPT +27620,Excision Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,The provider performs an incision in the ankle joint and explores the joint space. He may or may not take a biopsy and may or may not remove a loose or foreign body. He performs the procedure to diagnose a problem with the ankle.,CPT +27625,Excision Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,The provider incises the ankle joint and removes the synovial membrane. He performs this procedure to diagnose and treat problems of the ankle joint.,CPT +27626,Excision Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,The provider makes an incision in the ankle and removes the diseased tendon sheath along with synovial membrane. He performs this procedure to diagnose and treat ankle problems.,CPT +27630,Excision Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,"The provider removes a lesion, such as a cyst or ganglion, from the tendon sheath or capsule in the leg and or ankle. He performs the procedure to relieve pain and improve function.",CPT +27632,Excision Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,The provider excises a tumor from just beneath the skin without removing a significant amount of surrounding normal tissue. The tumor measures 3 cm or greater in diameter.,CPT +27634,Excision Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,The provider excises a tumor within beneath the fascia or in the muscle of the leg or ankle area without removing a significant amount of surrounding normal tissue. The tumor measures 5 cm or greater in diameter.,CPT +27635,Excision Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,The provider removes a bone cyst or benign tumor from the tibia or fibula. He performs this procedure to prevent infection and relieve pain.,CPT +27637,Excision Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,The provider removes a bone cyst or benign tumor from the tibia or fibula and repairs the defect with an autograft. He performs this procedure to prevent infection and relieve pain.,CPT +27638,Excision Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,The provider removes a bone cyst or benign tumor from the tibia or fibula and applies an allograft. He performs this procedure to prevent infection and relieve pain.,CPT +27640,Excision Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,"The provider removes a part of diseased portion of tibia to treat osteomyelitis. He performs this procedure either by removing the middle portion of bone or scooping out diseased bone, which leaves a saucer like or craterlike depression.",CPT +27641,Excision Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,"The provider removes a part of diseased portion of fibula to treat osteomyelitis. He performs this procedure either by removing the middle portion of bone or scooping out diseased bone, which leaves a saucer like or crater like depression.",CPT +27645,Excision Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,The provider removes the tumor along with wide margins of normal tissue from the tibia. He performs this procedure to treat severe chronic osteomyelitis or bone cancer.,CPT +27646,Excision Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,The provider removes the tumor along with wide margins of normal tissue from the fibula. He performs this procedure to treat severe chronic osteomyelitis or bone cancer.,CPT +27647,Excision Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,The provider removes the tumor along with wide margins of normal tissue from the talus or calcaneus. He performs this procedure to treat severe chronic osteomyelitis or bone cancer.,CPT +27648,Injection Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,The provider administers a contrast dye into the ankle for arthrography.,CPT +27650,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.","In this procedure, the provider performs primary open or percutaneous repair of an Achilles tendon tear. Primary repair is one when the provider repairs the torn tendon within a few days of the tear.",CPT +27652,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.",The provider performs repair of an Achilles tendon rupture with use the placement of a graft. He performs the procedure to restore function and relieve pain.,CPT +27654,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.",The provider performs repair of Achilles tendon for the second time with or without use of graft because the previous one was unsuccessful or the patient reinjured the tendon.,CPT +27656,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.",The provider uses surgical techniques to restore leg fascia to its normal structure.,CPT +27658,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.",The provider performs a primary repair of one or more flexor tendons of the leg without the placement of a graft. He performs this procedure to restore function and relieve pain.,CPT +27659,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.","The provider performs repair of one or more flexor tendons of the leg, with or without placement of a graft, in a patient who had a prior repair. He performs this procedure to restore function and relieve pain.",CPT +27664,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.",The provider performs a primary repair of one or more extensor tendons of the leg without the placement of a graft. He performs this procedure to restore function and relieve pain.,CPT +27665,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.","The provider performs repair of one or more extensor tendons of the leg, with or without placement of a graft, in a patient who had a prior repair. He performs this procedure to restore function and relieve pain.",CPT +27675,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.","The provider repairs dislocated peroneal tendons without cutting into the fibula, the outermost and smallest of the two bones of the lower leg, joining the knee and the ankle. He performs the procedure to restore function and relieve pain.",CPT +27676,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.","The provider repairs dislocated peroneal tendons by inserting them into a groove that he makes in the fibula, the outermost and smallest of the two bones of the lower leg, joining the knee and the ankle. He performs the procedure to restore function and relieve pain.",CPT +27680,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.",The provider performs release of a single flexor or extensor tendon in the leg and or ankle. The tendon may be tight and unable to move freely due to scarring or adhesions. He performs the procedure to restore function and relieve pain.,CPT +27681,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.",The provider releases multiple flexor or extensor tendons from nearby adhesions through separate incisions in the leg and or ankle. He performs the procedure to restore function and relieve pain.,CPT +27685,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.","The provider performs repair of contracture or other congenital or acquired deformity in a single tendon of the leg or foot. If the tendon is short, he increases its length; if it is longer than usual and unable to function properly, he shortens it. He performs the procedure to restore function and relieve pain.",CPT +27686,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.","The provider performs repair of contracture or other congenital or acquired deformity in multiple tendons through same incision in the leg or ankle. If the tendon is short, he increases its length; if it is longer than usual and unable to function properly, he shortens it. He performs this procedure to restore function and relieve pain.",CPT +27687,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.","The provider releases the tendon of the gastrocnemius muscle, or outer calf muscle, to treat stiffness, tightness, or pain that prevents normal ankle movement.",CPT +27690,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.","The provider performs a single tendon transfer or transplant, such as transferring the anterior tibial tendon extensors into the midfoot. He performs the procedure to restore function lost due to diseased, paralyzed, or injured tendon.",CPT +27691,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.","The provider performs single deep tendon transfer or transplant surgery on one of the tendons in the foot to restore function lost due to diseased, paralyzed, or injured tendon.",CPT +27692,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.","After the initial transplant of single tendon, the provider performs a transplant or transfer of one or more additional tendons at the same session. He performs the procedure to restore function lost due to diseased, paralyzed, or injured tendon.",CPT +27695,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.","The provider repairs a single collateral ligament, either the medial collateral ligament or the lateral collateral ligament, disrupted due to an acute injury, such as a dislocation or sprain of the ligaments. He performs the procedure to restore function and relieve pain.",CPT +27696,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.","The provider repairs both the medial and lateral collateral ligaments, disrupted due to an acute injury, such as a dislocation or sprain of the ligaments. He performs the procedure to restore function and relieve pain.",CPT +27698,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.",The provider performs a secondary repair of a disrupted collateral ligament by mobilizing other tendons to replace the collateral ligament. The provider performs this procedure when the injury is not recent. He performs the procedure to restore function and relieve pain.,CPT +27700,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.",The provider performs reconstruction of the ankle joint to treat arthritis or fracture.,CPT +27702,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.","The provider reconstructs the total ankle joint with an implant to treat severe pain, which arthritis or a fracture causes.",CPT +27703,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.","The provider revises and readjusts the implant in the ankle joint, typically to correct a loose component of a prior repair.",CPT +27704,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.",The provider removes a previous placed implant to treat pain and discomfort on weight bearing.,CPT +27705,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.",The provider cuts a segment out of a patient's shin bone.,CPT +27707,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.","In this procedure, the provider cuts a wedge–shaped portion of bone from the fibula, the outer and thinner of the two long bones of the lower leg.",CPT +27709,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.","The provider incises a segment of the tibia and fibula to treat deformities like malunion of fracture, unequal leg length, outward bending of the knee, or knock knee, inward bending of the knees toward the midline of the body.",CPT +27712,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.","The provider incises multiple segments of tibia and fibula and places an intramedullary rod to correct alignment and to treat deformities like malunion of fracture, unequal leg length, outward bending of knee, or knock knee, inward bending of the knees toward the midline of the body.",CPT +27715,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.",The provider lengthens or shortens the tibia and fibula. He performs the procedure to correct a discrepancy in leg lengths.,CPT +27720,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.",The provider repairs a fracture of the tibia that has healed improperly or not at all; he does not place a graft. He performs this procedure to restore function and relieve pain.,CPT +27722,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.","The provider repairs a fracture of the tibia that has healed improperly or not at all; as part of the repair, he places a sliding bone graft between the fragments. He performs this procedure to restore function and relieve pain.",CPT +27724,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.","The provider repairs a fracture of the tibia that has healed improperly or not at all; as part of the repair, he places an iliac or other bone graft between the fragments. He performs this procedure to restore function and relieve pain.",CPT +27725,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.",The provider repairs a tibial fracture that has failed to heal or has healed with poor alignment by fusing it with fibula.,CPT +27726,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.",The provider repairs a fibular fracture that has failed to heal or has healed with poor alignment using internal fixation. He performs the procedure to restore function and relieve pain.,CPT +27727,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.",The provider repairs a fracture that occurs as a result of congenital bowing of the tibia which the patient has had since birth. He performs the procedure to restore function and relieve pain.,CPT +27730,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.",The provider fuses the end plates of the lower tibia to interrupt its growth. This surgical procedure stops the growth of the tibial bone to prevent it from growing longer than the fibula of the same leg or the tibia of the other leg during the growth phase. The provider performs the procedure to equalize the length of both legs as the patient grows.,CPT +27732,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.",The provider fuses the end plates of the lower fibula to interrupt its growth. This surgical procedure stops the growth of the fibula to prevent it from growing longer than the tibia of the same leg or the fibula of the other leg during the growth phase. The provider performs the procedure to equalize the length of both legs as the patient grows.,CPT +27734,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.",The provider fuses the end plates of the lower tibia and fibula to interrupt their growth. This surgical procedure stops the growth of the tibia and fibula to keep them from growing longer than the other leg during the growth phase. The provider performs the procedure to equalize the length of both legs as the patient grows.,CPT +27740,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.",The provider fuses the end plates of upper and lower ends of the tibia and fibula to interrupt their growth. This surgical procedure stops the growth of the tibia and fibula to keep them from growing longer than the other leg during the growth phase. The provider performs the procedure to equalize the length of both legs as the patient grows.,CPT +27742,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.","The provider fuses the end plates of upper and the lower tibia and fibula and the lower femur to interrupt their growth. This surgical procedure stops the growth of the tibia, fibula, and lower femur to keep them from growing longer than the other leg during the growth phase. The provider performs the procedure to equalize the length of both legs as the patient grows.",CPT +27745,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.","The provider strengthens a weak area in the tibia with nails, pins, plate, and or wires to a potential fracture. The provider may also apply a bone cement, such as methylmethacrylate. He performs the procedure on a patient with a bone disease, such as osteoporosis, or benign or malignant neoplasm of the bone.",CPT +27750,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,"The provider treats a fracture of the tibial shaft, typically a nondisplaced or hairline fracture, which does not require manipulation, with or without a fibular fracture. He performs the procedure to keep the fracture in alignment and prevent displacement while the fracture heals and to relieve pain.",CPT +27752,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,"The provider treats a fracture of the tibial shaft, which requires manipulation. A fibular fracture may or may not be present; if present, the provider does not treat it separately. The provider may or may not use skeletal traction. He performs the procedure to keep the fracture in alignment and prevent displacement while the fracture heals and to relieve pain.",CPT +27756,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,"The provider fixes the fracture at the shaft of the tibia with placement of pins or screws through the skin into the bone. He does not treat a fibular fracture, if present. He performs the procedure to keep the fracture in alignment and prevent displacement while the fracture heals and to relieve pain.",CPT +27758,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,"The provider repairs a fracture of the tibial shaft with placement of plates and screws. He may or may not wrap the fracture repair with wires. This procedure may or may not involve a fibular fracture. He does not treat a fibular fracture separately, if present. He performs the procedure to keep the fracture in alignment and prevent displacement while the fracture heals and to relieve pain.",CPT +27759,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,"The provider treats a tibial shaft fracture with by placing a nail or rod in the intramedullary canal. He may or may apply interlocking screws and or cerclage. This procedure may or may not involve fibular fracture. He does not treat a fibular fracture separately, if present. He performs the procedure to keep the fracture in alignment and prevent displacement while the fracture heals and to relieve pain.",CPT +27760,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,"The provider treats a fracture of the medial malleolus, typically a nondisplaced or hairline fracture, which does not require manipulation. He performs the procedure to keep the fracture in alignment and prevent displacement while the fracture heals and to relieve pain.",CPT +27762,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,"The provider treats a fracture of the medial malleolus, typically a nondisplaced or hairline fracture, and manipulates the segments, with or without the use of skin traction. He performs the procedure to keep the fracture in alignment and prevent displacement while the fracture heals and to relieve pain.",CPT +27766,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,"The provider treats a fracture of the medial malleolus through an open incision, with placement of screws and plates. He performs the procedure to keep the fracture in alignment and prevent displacement while the fracture heals and to relieve pain.",CPT +27767,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,"The provider treats a fracture of the posterior malleolus, typically a nondisplaced or hairline fracture, which does not require manipulation. He performs the procedure to keep the fracture in alignment and prevent displacement while the fracture heals and to relieve pain.",CPT +27768,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,The provider treats a medial malleolus fracture with manipulation of the fracture fragments to restore anatomic alignment. He performs the procedure to keep the fracture in alignment and prevent displacement while the fracture heals and to relieve pain.,CPT +27769,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,The provider repairs a posterior malleolus fracture through an open incision with placement of screws and plates if necessary. He performs the procedure to keep the fracture in alignment and prevent displacement while the fracture heals and to relieve pain.,CPT +27780,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,The provider applies a long leg cast for the treatment of fracture of the proximal fibula or the shaft of the fibula.,CPT +27781,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,The provider performs manipulates the bones of the leg to improve position or alignment of a proximal fibular or shaft fracture.,CPT +27784,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically fixes a break in the shaft or end of the fibula bone and may secure it with plates, and screws, wires, or pins, when necessary.",CPT +27786,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider treats a distal fracture of the fibula, or a break in the end of the fibula bone of the leg, which does not require manipulation.",CPT +27788,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider treats a distal fracture of the fibula, or a break in the end of the fibula bone of the leg, including manipulation of the fractured bone.",CPT +27792,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider treats a distal fracture of the fibula, or a break in the end of the fibula bone of the leg, including securing it with a plate and screws, wires, or pins.",CPT +27808,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider fixes two of the broken malleoli bones of the ankle that is the lateral and medial malleoli, or the lateral and posterior malleoli, or the medial and posterior malleoli. He repairs the broken bones without the need for an open incision. The provider generally performs this procedure on stable fractures, which do not require manipulation.",CPT +27810,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,"In this procedure the provider fixes two of the broken malleoli of the ankle that is the lateral and medial malleoli, or the lateral and posterior malleoli, or the medial and posterior malleoli. He performs the repair by nonsurgically adjusting the alignment of the broken bones. The provider generally performs this procedure on an unstable fracture, which requires manipulation.",CPT +27814,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,"In this procedure the provider surgically fixes two of the broken malleoli of the ankle that is the lateral and medial malleoli, the lateral and posterior malleoli, or the medial and posterior malleoli. He secures the malleoli with a plate and screws, wires, or pins. The provider generally performs this procedure on an unstable fracture, which requires fixation for additional support.",CPT +27816,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider fixes fractures of all three malleoli bones of the ankle that is the medial, lateral, and posterior malleoli. This procedure does not require manipulation. The provider generally performs this procedure on stable fractures, which do not require manipulation.",CPT +27818,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider treats a closed fracture of all the three malleoli of the ankle that is medial, lateral, and posterior malleoli by adjusting the alignment non surgically.",CPT +27822,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically fixes all three fractured malleoli of the ankle, the medial, lateral, and posterior malleoli. He secures the malleoli with plates, screws, wires, or pins at two malleoli, the medial and lateral malleoli, but he applies no fixation to the posterior malleolus. The provider generally performs this procedure on unstable fractures that require fixation for additional support.",CPT +27823,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically fixes all three fractured malleoli of the ankle, the medial, lateral, and posterior malleoli. He secures the malleoli with plates, screws, wires, or pins at two malleoli, the medial and lateral malleoli. He applies fixation to the posterior malleolus. The provider generally performs this procedure on unstable fractures which require fixation for additional support.",CPT +27824,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider treats a fracture of the distal tibia extending into the ankle joint without performing open surgery or manipulation of the fractured pieces.",CPT +27825,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider fixes a fracture of the weight bearing articular portion of the distal tibia by adjusting the alignment nonsurgically using skeletal traction and manipulation. The provider generally performs this procedure on unstable fractures which require manipulation to align the bones.",CPT +27826,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically fixes a fracture of the weight bearing articular surface, or portion of the distal tibia, by securing the fibula with plates and screws, wires, or pins. The provider generally performs this procedure on unstable fractures which require fixation for additional support.",CPT +27827,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically fixes a fracture of the weight bearing articular surface, or portion of the distal tibia by securing the tibia with plates and screws, wires, or pins.",CPT +27828,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically fixes a fracture of the weight bearing articular surface or portion of the distal tibia, by securing the tibia and the fibula with plates and screws, wires, or pins.",CPT +27829,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically repairs the disrupted ligaments of the tibiofibular joint and secures the tibia and the fibula with plates and screws, wires, or pins.",CPT +27830,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider treats a dislocated proximal tibiofibular joint near the patient’s knee by adjusting the alignment nonsurgically and without the need for anesthesia.",CPT +27831,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,The provider treats a proximal tibiofibular joint dislocation without surgically opening the site of dislocation. He realigns the joint in a correct anatomical position with the use of anesthesia.,CPT +27832,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,The provider treats a proximal tibiofibular joint dislocation. He surgically opens the site of dislocation. He realigns the joint and fixes it with wires.,CPT +27840,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,"The provider treats a dislocated ankle in a closed procedure. He does not make an incision and does not use an anesthetic agent. A dislocation injury results from flexing the ankle abnormally with force, common in sports injuries.",CPT +27842,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,"The provider treats an ankle dislocation without surgically opening the site of dislocation and with the use of anesthesia for the patient. If the provider applies percutaneous skeletal fixation, this code includes that service.",CPT +27846,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,The provider treats an ankle joint dislocation. He surgically opens the site of dislocation. He realigns the joint and may hold it in place with hardwire inserted through the skin.,CPT +27848,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,The provider treats an ankle joint dislocation. He surgically opens the site of dislocation. He reduces the joint and repairs any damaged tissues. He applies hardware from within or from the outside through the skin as necessary.,CPT +27860,Manipulation Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,The provider manipulates an ankle with the patient under general anesthesia to return mobility to a stiff joint. He may also apply traction and other fixators to maintain the position of the ankle.,CPT +27870,Arthrodesis Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,The provider permanently fuses an ankle joint to relieve pain and disability from severe arthritis.,CPT +27871,Arthrodesis Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,The provider permanently fuses the union of the tibia and fibula at the ankle to relieve pain and disability.,CPT +27880,Amputation Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider amputates the leg below the knee, through the bones in the lower leg, to relieve pain and or remove nonhealing tissue in the presence of poor vascular supply. He closes the remaining skin flaps around the amputation site.",CPT +27881,Amputation Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider amputates the leg below the knee, through the bones in the lower leg, to relieve pain and or remove nonhealing tissue in the presence of poor vascular supply. He closes the remaining skin flaps around the amputation site and applies a cast in a manner that permits immediate fitting of a prosthesis, or artificial leg.",CPT +27882,Amputation Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider amputates the patient's leg below the knee without leaving a skin flap. He performs the procedure when rapid amputation aids in stopping rapidly ascending necrosis, or tissue death, or hemodynamic compromise.",CPT +27884,Amputation Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,"The provider closes a surgical wound left open at a prior below knee amputation, likely due to infection, or revises the stump scar to permit the use of an artificial leg.",CPT +27886,Amputation Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,"The provider reamputates the leg below the knee, through the bones in the lower leg, due to nonhealing of the original stump and or persistent infection.",CPT +27888,Amputation Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,The provider amputates the foot across the bone knobs on either side of the ankle to treat nonhealing wounds of the foot due to infection or poor circulation. He excises the nerves and reconstructs the skin and tissues around the amputation site to enable walking on the stump.,CPT +27889,Amputation Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,"The provider amputates the foot due by separating it from the lower leg at the ankle, without incising bone. He performs the procedure primarily due to nonhealing wounds from infection or poor circulation or to treat a traumatic injury.",CPT +27892,Other Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,"In this procedure, the provider cuts into the fascia surrounding the anterior and/or lateral compartments in the lower leg to relieve pressure and increase blood flow. He also removes the dead or damaged tissue.",CPT +27893,Other Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,The provider cuts into the fascia surrounding at least one of the posterior compartments. He also removes dead or damaged tissue.,CPT +27894,Other Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,The provider cuts into the fascia surrounding multiple lower leg compartments: the anterior and/or lateral and at least one of the posterior compartments. He also removes dead or damaged tissue.,CPT +27899,Other Procedures on the Leg (Tibia and Fibula) and Ankle Joint.,Use to report procedures in the lower extremity that does not have a specific code.,CPT +28001,Incision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider drains fluid from an infected bursa of the foot. A bursa is a fluid filled sac that lies between the muscle, tendon, and bones.",CPT +28002,Incision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"The provider makes an incision in a bursa, a fluid filled sac that prevents friction where a tendon rubs against a bone, to drain infected material that may involve the covering of the tendon.",CPT +28003,Incision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider drains fluid from multiple infected bursal spaces underneath the fascia of the foot. The infection may or may not spread to the tendon sheath. A bursa is a fluid filled sac that lies between the muscle, tendon, and bones.",CPT +28005,Incision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider incises the bone cortex, the superficial part of the bone, to treat an infection in a bone of the foot.",CPT +28008,Incision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"The provider makes an incision deep in the deep tissues of the sole of the foot or toe to relieve tension or pressure from plantar fasciitis, a painful inflammatory condition of the foot, or to release a contracture of the toe.",CPT +28010,Incision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a percutaneous tenotomy in which he incises or divides a single tendon in a toe through a small incision in the skin to correct a deformity like hammer toe.",CPT +28011,Incision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a percutaneous tenotomy in which he incises or divides multiple tendons in a toe through a small incision in the skin to correct deformity like hammer toe.",CPT +28020,Incision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,The provider incises a joint in the foot or where the foot joints the ankle to look for causes of infection and drain fluid and debris.,CPT +28022,Incision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,The provider incises a joint where the foot joins the toes to look for causes of infection and drain fluid and debris.,CPT +28024,Incision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,The provider incises a toe joint to look for causes of infection and drain fluid and debris.,CPT +28035,Incision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"The provider incises a fibrous band trapping the posterior tibial nerve in the lower leg to relieve the symptoms of tarsal tunnel syndrome, primarily pain, numbness, and tingling.",CPT +28039,Excision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"The provider excises an abnormal mass from the soft tissue below the skin in the foot or toe. He submits the specimen, 1.5 cm or greater in size, to a laboratory for analysis to determine its nature.",CPT +28041,Excision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"The provider excises an abnormal mass from within the muscles of the foot or toe. He submits the specimen, 1.5 cm or greater in size, to a laboratory for analysis to determine its nature.",CPT +28043,Excision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"The provider excises an abnormal mass from immediately below the skin  of the foot or toe. He submits the specimen, less than 1.5 cm in size, to a laboratory for analysis to determine its nature.",CPT +28045,Excision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"The provider excises an abnormal mass from within the muscles of the foot or toe. He submits the specimen, less than 1.5 cm in size, to a laboratory for analysis to determine its nature.",CPT +28046,Excision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"The provider performs an extensive excision of a tumor, or mass, in the soft tissues in the foot or toe, suspected to be malignant, such as a sarcoma. He excises the surrounding tissues along with the mass, with the diameter of the tumor and its margins measuring less than 3 cm.",CPT +28047,Excision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"Use this code for extensive surgical removal of a soft tissue tumor and surrounding tissues of the foot or toe area, measuring 3 cm or more.",CPT +28050,Excision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider opens a joint in the foot and takes a biopsy of the soft tissue.",CPT +28052,Excision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision to open the metatarsophalangeal joint, where the foot and toe join, and takes a biopsy of the soft tissue.",CPT +28054,Excision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,The provider cuts into a toe or finger joint to remove a biopsy sample.,CPT +28055,Excision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider removes the inflamed bursal tissue and dissects the nerve, dividing it at the upper point to relieve pain.",CPT +28060,Excision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider removes part of the plantar fascia to relieve tension or pressure.",CPT +28062,Excision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider removes both involved and uninvolved plantar fascia to relieve tension or pressure.",CPT +28070,Excision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a synovectomy, removing the inflamed or diseased synovium from the intertarsal or tarsometatarsal joint. Synovium is a thin membrane that lines the joint cavity. Intertarsal joints are the joints between the tarsal bones near the rear area of the foot. Tarsometatarsal joints are the joints between the tarsal and metatarsal bones of the foot.",CPT +28072,Excision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a synovectomy, removing the inflamed or diseased synovium from the metatarsophalangeal joint, to relieve pain.",CPT +28080,Excision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a Morton’s neuroma, which is a painful condition that causes thickening of the plantar nerve between the metatarsal heads.",CPT +28086,Excision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a synovectomy, removing the inflamed or diseased synovium from the flexor tendon sheath of the foot, to relieve pain.",CPT +28088,Excision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a synovectomy, removing the inflamed or diseased synovium from the extensor tendon sheath of the foot, to relieve pain.",CPT +28090,Excision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider excises the lesion affecting the tendon, tendon sheath, or capsule, and may perform a synovectomy, removing the inflamed or diseased synovium from the extensor tendon sheath of the foot to relieve pain.",CPT +28092,Excision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider excises the lesion of the tendon, tendon sheath, or capsule of each toe and may perform a synovectomy, removing the inflamed or diseased synovium from the extensor tendon sheath of the foot.",CPT +28100,Excision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider excises or curettes a bone cyst or benign tumor of the talus or calcaneus to relieve pain and improve range of motion.",CPT +28102,Excision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a bone cyst or benign tumor of the talus or calcaneus, then harvests and implants an autograft to repair the site.",CPT +28103,Excision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a bone cyst or benign tumor of the talus or calcaneus, then harvests and implants an allograft to repair the site.",CPT +28104,Excision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a bone cyst or benign tumor from the tarsal or metatarsal region, not including the talus or calcaneus.",CPT +28106,Excision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a bone cyst or benign tumor of the tarsal or metatarsal region, then harvests and implants an autograft to fill the area of defect.",CPT +28107,Excision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a bone cyst or benign tumor of the tarsal or metatarsal region, and then implants an allograft.",CPT +28108,Excision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider removes the bone cyst or benign tumor from the phalanges of the patient’s foot.",CPT +28110,Excision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"The provider incises the head of the fifth bone of the foot, the part of the bone that is closest to the toes, to remove a bony lesion from the outside of the foot.",CPT +28111,Excision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically removes the bone of the first metatarsal head when there is a necrosis or infection of the metatarsal head.",CPT +28112,Excision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically removes the bone of the second, third, or fourth metatarsal head when there is a necrosis or infection of the metatarsal head.",CPT +28113,Excision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically removes the bone of the fifth metatarsal head when there is a necrosis or infection of the metatarsal head.",CPT +28114,Excision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,The provider surgically removes the bones of the second to fifth metatarsal heads completely along with their corresponding proximal phalanges to treat necrosis or infection.,CPT +28116,Excision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider removes the tarsal coalition, a condition in which the tarsal bones or small bones in the foot are fused abnormally by a bridge of tissue which limits the motion between them.",CPT +28118,Excision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider removes the calcaneus bone when there is an infection or necrosis of the bone.",CPT +28119,Excision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider removes the calcaneus bone, and may perform a plantar fascial release if necessary to relieve pain and improve range of motion.",CPT +28120,Excision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider removes the infected portion of the talus or calcaneus bone using craterization, saucerization, or diaphysectomy.",CPT +28122,Excision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider removes the infected portion of the tarsal or metatarsal bone, not including the talus or calcaneus, using craterization, saucerization, or diaphysectomy.",CPT +28124,Excision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider removes the infected portion of the phalanx of the toe using craterization, saucerization, or diaphysectomy.",CPT +28126,Excision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider removes the infected portion of the toe bones.",CPT +28130,Excision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"The provider surgically removes the astragalus, also known as the talus bone, to stabilize the ankle.",CPT +28140,Excision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"The provider surgically removes the metatarsal bone or portion of the metatarsal bone to treat disease or deformity of that bone. If there is major disease of the metatarsal and the provider cannot treat the condition with a partial excision, he must perform a complete removal of the bone.",CPT +28150,Excision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"The provider surgically removes one phalanx of the toe to treat disease or deformity in the affected toe. If there is major disease of the phalanx and the provider cannot treat the condition with a partial excision, he must perform a complete removal of the bone.",CPT +28153,Excision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"The provider surgically removes the condyle at the distal end of the phalanx, which amputates the toe.",CPT +28160,Excision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"The provider surgically removes a portion of the toe's phalanges or interphalangeal joint to treat conditions such as trauma, infection, or tumors.",CPT +28171,Excision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"The provider surgically removes the affected tarsal bone and surrounding tissue to remove a tumor. Providers generally perform radical resection for malignant tumors, excising a wide margin of normal tissue along with the tumor to avoid leaving any malignant tissue.",CPT +28173,Excision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"The provider surgically removes the affected metatarsal bone and surrounding tissue to remove a tumor. Providers generally perform radical resection for malignant tumors, excising a wide margin of normal tissue along with the tumor to avoid leaving any malignant tissue.",CPT +28175,Excision Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"The provider surgically removes the affected phalanx bone and surrounding tissue to remove a tumor. Providers generally perform radical resection for malignant tumors, excising a wide margin of normal tissue along with the tumor to avoid leaving any malignant tissue.",CPT +28190,Removal of Foreign Body Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"The provider removes a foreign body, which is situated beneath the skin in the subcutaneous tissue, from the foot.",CPT +28192,Removal of Foreign Body Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"The provider removes a foreign body, which is situated deep beneath the skin, from the foot.",CPT +28193,Removal of Foreign Body Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"The provider removes a foreign body, which is situated deep beneath the skin, from the foot. Because of excessive tissue or nerve damage, the provider must also repair torn nerves and tendon damage.",CPT +28200,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Foot and Toes.","The provider performs open surgery to repair a torn or ruptured flexor tendon of the foot to restore the joints to normal motion. Surgery could involve the flexor hallucis longus, which bends down the big toe, or the flexor digitorum longus or its branches that bend down the second, third, fourth, and fifth toes. The provider does not obtain or place a tendon graft during this procedure. The procedure can take place within 24 hours of the injury or at a later time.",CPT +28202,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Foot and Toes.",The provider performs a delayed repair of a rupture or tear of the tendon that enables the foot and toes to flex (bend) using a free graft that he has obtained from another part of the body. This code may be reported for each tendon repaired and includes obtaining the graft used for repair.,CPT +28208,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Foot and Toes.",The provider repairs an extensor tendon of the foot.,CPT +28210,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Foot and Toes.",The provider performs a delayed repair of a rupture or tear of the tendon that enables the foot and toes to straighten or unbend using a free graft that he has obtained from another part of the body. This code may be reported for each tendon repaired and includes obtaining the graft used for repair.,CPT +28220,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Foot and Toes.",The provider surgically removes adhesions affecting a single flexor tendon in the foot. The procedure allows for movement and reduces pain caused by the tendonitis.,CPT +28222,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Foot and Toes.",The provider surgically removes adhesions affecting multiple flexor tendons in the foot. The procedure allows for movement and reduces pain caused by the tendonitis.,CPT +28225,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Foot and Toes.",The provider surgically removes adhesions affecting a single extensor tendon in the foot. The procedure allows for movement and reduces pain caused by tendonitis.,CPT +28226,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Foot and Toes.","In this procedure, the provider performs tenolysis, which releases the extensor tendon of the foot from adhesions. He performs this procedure for multiple tendons. The procedure allows for movement and reduces pain caused by tendonitis.",CPT +28230,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Foot and Toes.",The provider divides one or more flexor tendons in the foot to correct a deformity caused by congenital or acquired tendon shortening.,CPT +28232,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Foot and Toes.",The provider cuts into or through a single flexor tendon of the toe using an open incision during the performance of a more extensive procedure.,CPT +28234,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Foot and Toes.","The provider uses an opening in the skin to access an extensor tendon of the foot or toe and divides the tendon, such as by making a small incision to relieve tightness.",CPT +28238,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Foot and Toes.","The provider repositions the posterior tibial tendon in the ankle and excises an accessory tarsal navicular bone, an extra bone on the inner side of the foot, to relieve pain and discomfort.",CPT +28240,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Foot and Toes.",The provider incises the tendon that connects the abductor hallucis muscle to a bone in the big toe to lengthen the tendon or release the tension on the muscle and relieve foot pain.,CPT +28250,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Foot and Toes.",The provider divides the plantar fascia and muscle at the bottom of the foot to treat a painful instep.,CPT +28260,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Foot and Toes.","The provider incises the capsule that encloses the talonavicular joint to correct clubfoot, a congenital deformity.",CPT +28261,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Foot and Toes.","The provider incises the capsule that encloses the talonavicular joint and divides a tendon to lengthen it in a patient with clubfoot, a congenital deformity.",CPT +28262,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Foot and Toes.","The provider performs an extensive repair on a clubfoot, a congenital defect, that did not respond to previous surgical correction. He incises the capsule that encloses the talotibial joint in the ankle and divides one or more tendons to lengthen them and relieve tension on the foot.",CPT +28264,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Foot and Toes.",The provider incises the capsule of a midtarsal joint in the foot to increase the range of motion and or release a joint contracture. He incises the soft tissues to treat resistant contractures of the foot.,CPT +28270,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Foot and Toes.",The provider incises the capsule of a metatarsophalangeal joints of the toes to restore range of motion and relieve pain from a contracture. He may suture the tendon to strengthen it.,CPT +28272,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Foot and Toes.","The provider incises the capsule of an interphalangeal joint in the toes to release a contracture and increase range of motion or to treat clubfoot deformity, a congenital condition.",CPT +28280,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Foot and Toes.",The provider creates an artificial web (syndactylization) between two existing toes to correct a flail (floppy) toe caused by a congenital deformity.,CPT +28285,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Foot and Toes.","The provider repairs a hammertoe deformity, a painful condition in which the toe remains permanently bent in a downward position.",CPT +28286,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Foot and Toes.",The provider corrects a hammer toe deformity in which the fifth toe curls upward by performing resection of the proximal phalanx with a volar plastic closure.,CPT +28288,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Foot and Toes.","The provider removes part of a single metatarsal head of the foot. The bone removal might involve the metatarsal head, called condylectomy, or any associated bony growth, called exostectomy.",CPT +28289,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Foot and Toes.","In this procedure, the provider surgically corrects a hallux rigidus deformity without the need for an implant. Hallux rigidus is pain and stiffness due to arthritis, or inflammation in the metatarsophalangeal joint of the big toe, or the joint where the head of the metatarsal bone attaches to the first bone of the greater toe. The condition causes pain, stiffness, and restriction of movement. The provider also performs a cheilectomy, or the removal of bone spurs from the joint, along with debridement and capsular release of the metatarsophalangeal joint to free tightened connective tissue and loosen the ball and socket joint.",CPT +28291,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Foot and Toes.","The provider surgically corrects a hallux rigidus deformity, immobility of the first joint of the great toe, and also performs cheilectomy, i.e., chiseling away the bone spurs from the joint, along with cutting away of damaged tissues (debridement) and release of cartilage and other capsular structures of the metatarsophalangeal joint and places a silicone (a type of plastic) implant in the joint space to keep the toe straight and to relieve pain, stiffness, and restriction of movement.",CPT +28292,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Foot and Toes.","The provider removes bone from a bunion, a foot deformity that causes a bump near where the big toe joins the foot. The provider also may remove the sesamoid bones (pea–shaped bones under the big toe joint).",CPT +28295,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Foot and Toes.","The provider removes bone from a bunion, a foot deformity that causes a bump near where the big toe joins the foot. The procedure includes proximal metatarsal osteotomy, cutting and realigning a long bone in the foot. The provider also may remove the sesamoid bones (pea–shaped bones under the big toe joint).",CPT +28296,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Foot and Toes.","The provider removes bone from a bunion, a foot deformity that causes a bump near where the big toe joins the foot. The procedure includes distal metatarsal osteotomy, cutting and realigning a long bone in the foot. The provider also may remove the sesamoid bones (pea–shaped bones under the big toe joint).",CPT +28297,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Foot and Toes.","The provider removes bone from a bunion, a foot deformity that causes a bump near where the big toe joins the foot. The procedure includes fusing the joint between the foot’s first metatarsal bone and the medial cuneiform bone, a bone of the middle foot located behind the first metatarsal. The provider also may remove the sesamoid bones (pea–shaped bones under the big toe joint).",CPT +28298,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Foot and Toes.","The provider removes bone from a bunion, a foot deformity that causes a bump near where the big toe joins the foot. The procedure includes proximal phalanx osteotomy, cutting and realigning a toe bone. The provider also may remove the sesamoid bones (pea–shaped bones under the big toe joint).",CPT +28299,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Foot and Toes.","The provider removes bone from a bunion, a foot deformity that causes a bump near where the big toe joins the foot. The procedure includes double osteotomy, cutting and realigning one or more toe bones. The provider also may remove the sesamoid bones (pea–shaped bones under the big toe joint).",CPT +28300,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Foot and Toes.","The provider chooses among various approaches to perform an osteotomy of the calcaneus, or heel bone. He surgically incises the bone to create a controlled break and then realigns the bone. He performs this procedure to treat conditions such as abnormally high or low arches or other conditions affecting foot alignment.",CPT +28302,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Foot and Toes.","The provider chooses among various approaches and performs an osteotomy of the talus, or ankle bone, i.e., he surgically incises or transects the bone and then realigns it. He performs this procedure to treat an irreducible dislocation of the ankle or fractures of the body and neck of the talus and reduce chronic ankle instability.",CPT +28304,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Foot and Toes.","The provider performs an osteotomy of the tarsal bones, i.e., he surgically incises or transects the foot bones adjacent to the articulation, or joint, between the foot and the leg, and then realigns the bones. This procedure excludes the two tarsal bones closest to the articulation, i.e., the calcaneus, or heel bone, and the talus, or ankle bone. He performs this procedure to treat chronic ankle instability, tarsal coalition, dislocation, or fracture.",CPT +28305,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Foot and Toes.","The provider performs an osteotomy of the tarsal bones, i.e., he surgically incises or transects the foot bones adjacent to the articulation, or joint, between the foot and the leg, and then realigns the bones. He also places a bone graft to fill in gaps in the tarsal bones and straighten the deformity. This procedure excludes the two tarsal bones closest to the articulation, i.e., the calcaneus, or heel bone, and the talus, or ankle bone. The provider performs this procedure to fixate a talus fracture or repair a deformity such as a tarsal coalition and maximize the movement of the ankle joint.",CPT +28306,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Foot and Toes.","The provider performs an osteotomy of the first metatarsal bone to remove a bunion and realign the metatarsal bone and the toe. He may or may not lengthen, shorten, or correct an angular deformity of the first metatarsal.",CPT +28307,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Foot and Toes.","The provider performs an osteotomy of the first metatarsal bone, other than the one that articulates, or connects, with the first toe. He may or may not lengthen, shorten, or correct an angular deformity of the first metatarsal. He performs a bone graft using bone harvested from the patient to correct shortening of the first metatarsal. He performs the procedure to correct a deformity and relieve pain.",CPT +28308,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Foot and Toes.","The provider performs an osteotomy of any metatarsal bone other than the first. He may or may not lengthen, shorten, or correct an angular deformity of the metatarsal. He performs the procedure to repair a foot deformity and realign the metatarsal bone and the toe.",CPT +28309,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Foot and Toes.",The provider performs an osteotomy of multiple metatarsal bones to treat a foot deformity called pes cavus and realign the bones in their proper position.,CPT +28310,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Foot and Toes.","In this procedure, the provider performs an osteotomy, cutting a portion of the bone of the proximal phalanx in the first toe to correct alignment and deformity.",CPT +28312,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Foot and Toes.","In this procedure, the provider performs an osteotomy, cutting a portion of the bone of the phalanx in any toe, except the proximal phalanx of the greater toe, to correct alignment and deformity.",CPT +28313,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Foot and Toes.","In this procedure, the provider surgically corrects an angular deformity of the toe, like curly toes, by releasing the tight soft tissues and by transferring the muscle tendons.",CPT +28315,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Foot and Toes.",The provider removes a sesamoid bone from beneath the first toe as a separate stand alone procedure. He performs the procedure to relieve pain.,CPT +28320,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Foot and Toes.","The provider performs surgical repair of fractured tarsal bones that have either healed in the wrong position, i.e., malunion, or have not rejoined, i.e., nonunion. These complications occur when the fractured site has a poor blood supply or gets infected. He performs the procedure to restore function and relieve pain.",CPT +28322,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Foot and Toes.","The provider performs surgical repair, which includes placement of a bone graft, of fractured metatarsal bones that have either healed in the wrong position, i.e., malunion, or have not rejoined, i.e., nonunion. These complications occur when the fractured site has a poor blood supply or gets infected. He performs the procedure to restore function and relieve pain.",CPT +28340,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Foot and Toes.",The provider resects soft tissue from an overly large toe to reconstruct it to more normal dimensions.,CPT +28341,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Foot and Toes.","The provider resects overgrown bone from an overly large toe to give it more normal dimensions and reconstructs the toe, including tendon shortening, to correct macrodactyly. The resection may involve removing one or more phalanges (individual bones) or the entire digit.",CPT +28344,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Foot and Toes.",The provider removes extra toe(s) on the foot (polydactyly) and repairs any defects.,CPT +28345,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Foot and Toes.","The provider incises connective tissue (web) between fused digits, one web at a time, to treat syndactyly (digits fused together by a web of tissue). Skin graft, if performed, is included with this procedure.",CPT +28360,"Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction Procedures on the Foot and Toes.","A cleft foot is a congenital anomaly where the patient's foot has a cleft, or depressed space in the shape of a V, extending toward the andle. Toes may also be missing. The provider reconstructs the foot, removing the cleft.",CPT +28400,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a closed treatment of a calcaneal fracture, a crack or break in the calcaneus, or the heel bone. Treatment does not include manipulation, or adjustment, of the fractured bone nor does it require open surgery.",CPT +28405,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"A calcaneal fracture is a crack or break in the calcaneus, the largest tarsal bone, which forms the heel prominence. In this procedure, the provider treats the fracture, realigning the bones, without incising the skin.",CPT +28406,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"A calcaneal fracture is a crack or break in the calcaneus, the largest tarsal bone, which forms the heel prominence. In this procedure, the provider manipulates a fractured bone back into its original position using hardware, such as pins and wires, to secure the bones.",CPT +28415,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider performs open surgical treatment of a calcaneal, or heel bone, fracture. He may or may not use implants like screws or nails to fix the fracture.",CPT +28420,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider performs open surgical treatment of a calcaneal, or heel bone, fracture. He may or may not use implants like screws or nails to fix the fracture. The provider also obtains a cancellous bone graft, typically from the iliac crest, through a separate incision and uses it to fix the fracture.",CPT +28430,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"The provider stabilizes a nondisplaced fracture of the talus, a small bone that sits between the calcaneus (heel bone) and the two long bones of the lower leg, typically by applying a cast.",CPT +28435,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider performs closed treatment of a talus fracture with manipulation or adjustment of the fractured bone.",CPT +28436,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider performs treatment of a talus fracture using screws and pins through the skin. He also performs manipulation, or adjustment, of the fractured bone.",CPT +28445,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider performs open treatment of a talus fracture. She may or may not use the internal fixation implants like pins or screws to fix the fracture.",CPT +28446,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"The  provider performs osteochondral autograft on a patient's talus to treat a symptomatic osteochondritis dissecans lesion, abbreviated as OCD. The procedure involves moving healthy tissue from one area of the patient’s body to a defective area of the ankle bone through an open incision.",CPT +28450,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider performs closed treatment of a tarsal bone fracture, except the talus and calcaneus. Treatment does not include manipulation, or adjustment, of the fractured bone. Tarsal bones are located in the midfoot and rearfoot area and are seven in number: talus, calcaneus, navicular, cuboid, medial cuneiform, intermediate cuneiform, and lateral cuneiform.",CPT +28455,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider performs closed treatment of a tarsal bone fracture, except the talus and calcaneus. Treatment includes manipulation, or adjustment, of the fractured bone. Tarsal bones are located in the midfoot and rearfoot area and are seven in number: talus, calcaneus, navicular, cuboid, medial cuneiform, intermediate cuneiform, and lateral cuneiform.",CPT +28456,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider performs treatment of a tarsal bone fracture, except the talus and calcaneus, using screws and pins through the skin. Treatment includes manipulation, or adjustment, of the fractured bone. Tarsal bones are located in the midfoot and rearfoot area and are seven in number: talus, calcaneus, navicular, cuboid, medial cuneiform, intermediate cuneiform, and lateral cuneiform.",CPT +28465,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"The provider performs open reduction on a patient's displaced tarsal bone fracture and applies internal fixation when necessary, by affixing screws to repair the broken bone. This code does not include work on the talus or calcaneus.",CPT +28470,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,The provider treats a metatarsal fracture without making a skin incision and without manipulating the fracture.,CPT +28475,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider performs closed treatment of a metatarsal fracture with manipulation, or adjustment, of the fractured bone. Metatarsals are the five long bones located between the tarsal bones of the foot and phalanges of the toes.",CPT +28476,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider performs treatment of a metatarsal bone fracture using screws and pins through the skin. Treatment includes manipulation, or adjustment, of the fractured bone. Metatarsals are the five long bones located between the tarsal bones of the foot and phalanges of the toes.",CPT +28485,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider performs open treatment of a metatarsal fracture. She may or may not use internal fixation implants like pins or screws to fix the fracture. Metatarsals are the five long bones located between the tarsal bones of the foot and phalanges of the toes.",CPT +28490,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,The provider repairs a great toe or phalanx fracture without surgery and without manipulation.,CPT +28495,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider performs closed treatment of a phalanx or phalanges fracture in the great toe with manipulation, or adjustment, of the fractured bone. Phalanges are bones of the toe. There are three in each toe except the great toe, which has two phalanges.",CPT +28496,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider performs treatment of a phalanx or phalanges fracture in a great toe using screws and pins through the skin. Treatment includes manipulation, or adjustment, of the fractured bone. Phalanges are bones of the toe. There are three in each toe except the greater toe, which has two phalanges.",CPT +28505,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider performs open treatment of a phalanx or phalanges fracture in a great toe. He may or may not use internal fixation implants like pins or screws to fix the fracture. Phalanges are bones of the toe. There are three in each toe except the greater toe, which has two phalanges.",CPT +28510,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider performs closed treatment of a phalanx or phalanges fracture in a toe other than the great toe without manipulation, or adjustment, of the fractured bone. Phalanges are bones of the toe. There are three in each toe except the great toe, which has two phalanges.",CPT +28515,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider performs closed treatment of a phalanx or phalanges fracture in a toe other than the great toe with manipulation, or adjustment, of the fractured bone. Phalanges are bones of the toe. There are three in each toe except the great toe, which has two phalanges.",CPT +28525,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider performs open treatment of a phalanx or phalanges fracture in a toe other than the great toe. He may or may not use internal fixation implants like pins or screws to fix the fracture. Phalanges are bones of the toe. There are three in each toe except the greater toe, which has two phalanges.",CPT +28530,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider performs closed treatment of a sesamoid bone fracture in the foot. Sesamoid bones are small irregular bones present within a muscle tendon or capsule. In the foot, the most common location of a sesamoid bone is the underside of the ball of the foot under the great toe.",CPT +28531,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider performs open treatment of a sesamoid bone fracture in the foot. He may or may not use internal fixation implants like pins or screws to fix the fracture. Sesamoid bones are small irregular bones present within a muscle tendon or capsule. In the foot, the most common location of a sesamoid bone is the underside of the ball of the foot under the great toe.",CPT +28540,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider performs closed treatment of a tarsal bone dislocation, which is abnormal separation of a joint. This code excludes talotarsal joints. She performs this procedure without using anesthesia on the patient. Tarsal bones are located in the midfoot and rearfoot area and are seven in number: talus, calcaneus, navicular, cuboid, medial cuneiform, intermediate cuneiform, and lateral cuneiform. A talotarsal joint is a joint of the talus with another tarsal bone.",CPT +28545,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider performs closed treatment of a tarsal bone dislocation, which is abnormal separation of a joint. This code excludes talotarsal joints. He performs this procedure using anesthesia on the patient. Tarsal bones are located in the midfoot and rearfoot area and are seven in number: talus, calcaneus, navicular, cuboid, medial cuneiform, intermediate cuneiform, and lateral cuneiform. A talotarsal joint is a joint of the talus with another tarsal bone.",CPT +28546,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider performs treatment of a tarsal bone dislocation, which is abnormal separation of a joint, using screws and pins through the skin. He also performs manipulation, or adjustment, of the separated bones to reduce the dislocation. This code excludes talotarsal joints. Tarsal bones are located in the midfoot and rearfoot area and are seven in number: talus, calcaneus, navicular, cuboid, medial cuneiform, intermediate cuneiform, and lateral cuneiform. A talotarsal joint is a joint of the talus with another tarsal bone.",CPT +28555,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider performs open treatment of a tarsal bone dislocation, which is abnormal separation of a joint. She may or may not use internal fixation implants like pins or screws to fix the dislocation. This code excludes talotarsal joints. Tarsal bones are located in the midfoot and rearfoot area and are seven in number: talus, calcaneus, navicular, cuboid, medial cuneiform, intermediate cuneiform, and lateral cuneiform. A talotarsal joint is a joint of the talus with another tarsal bone.",CPT +28570,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider performs closed treatment of a talotarsal joint dislocation, which is abnormal separation of a joint. He performs this procedure without using anesthesia. Tarsal bones are located in the midfoot and rearfoot area and are seven in number: talus, calcaneus, navicular, cuboid, medial cuneiform, intermediate cuneiform, and lateral cuneiform. A talotarsal joint is a joint of the talus with another tarsal bone.",CPT +28575,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider performs closed treatment of a talotarsal joint dislocation, which is abnormal separation of a joint. She performs this procedure using anesthesia. Tarsal bones are located in the midfoot and rearfoot area and are seven in number: talus, calcaneus, navicular, cuboid, medial cuneiform, intermediate cuneiform, and lateral cuneiform. A talotarsal joint is a joint of the talus with another tarsal bone.",CPT +28576,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider performs treatment of a talotarsal joint dislocation, which is abnormal separation of a joint, using screws and pins through the skin. He also performs manipulation, or adjustment, of the separated bones to reduce the dislocation. Tarsal bones are located in the midfoot and rearfoot area and are seven in number: talus, calcaneus, navicular, cuboid, medial cuneiform, intermediate cuneiform, and lateral cuneiform. A talotarsal joint is a joint of the talus with another tarsal bone.",CPT +28585,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider performs open treatment of a talotarsal joint dislocation, which is abnormal separation of a joint. She may or may not use internal fixation implants like pins or screws to fix the dislocation. Tarsal bones are located in the midfoot and rearfoot area and are seven in number: talus, calcaneus, navicular, cuboid, medial cuneiform, intermediate cuneiform, and lateral cuneiform. A talotarsal joint is a joint of the talus with another tarsal bone.",CPT +28600,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider performs closed treatment of a tarsometatarsal joint dislocation, which is abnormal separation of a joint. He performs this procedure without using anesthesia on the patient. Tarsal bones are located in the midfoot and rearfoot area and are seven in number: talus, calcaneus, navicular, cuboid, medial cuneiform, intermediate cuneiform, and lateral cuneiform. Metatarsals are the five long bones in the foot that connect the ankle to the toes. A tarsometatarsal joint is a joint between the tarsal and metatarsal bones.",CPT +28605,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider performs closed treatment of a tarsometatarsal joint dislocation, which is abnormal separation of a joint. She performs this procedure using anesthesia for the patient. Tarsal bones are located in the midfoot and rearfoot area and are seven in number: talus, calcaneus, navicular, cuboid, medial cuneiform, intermediate cuneiform, and lateral cuneiform. Metatarsals are the five long bones in the foot that connect the ankle to the toes. A tarsometatarsal joint is a joint between the tarsal and metatarsal bones.",CPT +28606,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider performs treatment of a tarsometatarsal joint dislocation, which is abnormal separation of a joint, using screws and pins through the skin. He also performs manipulation, or adjustment, of the separated bones to reduce the dislocation. Tarsal bones are located in the midfoot and rearfoot area and are seven in number: talus, calcaneus, navicular, cuboid, medial cuneiform, intermediate cuneiform, and lateral cuneiform. Metatarsals are the five long bones in the foot that connect the ankle area to the toes. A tarsometatarsal joint is a joint between the tarsal and metatarsal bones.",CPT +28615,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider performs open treatment of tarsometatarsal joint dislocation, which is abnormal separation of a joint. She may or may not use internal fixation implants like pins or screws to fix the dislocation. Tarsal bones are located in the midfoot and rearfoot area and are seven in number: talus, calcaneus, navicular, cuboid, medial cuneiform, intermediate cuneiform, and lateral cuneiform. Metatarsals are the five long bones in the foot that connect the ankle area to the toes. A tarsometatarsal joint is a joint between the tarsal and metatarsal bones.",CPT +28630,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider performs closed treatment of a metatarsophalangeal joint dislocation, which is abnormal separation of a joint. He performs this procedure without using anesthesia for the patient. Metatarsals are the five long bones in the foot that connect the ankle area to the toes. Phalanges are bones of the toe. There are three in each toe except the greater toe, which has two phalanges. The metatarsophalangeal joint is a joint where the metatarsal bone of the foot attaches to the phalanx bone of the toe.",CPT +28635,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider performs closed treatment of a metatarsophalangeal joint dislocation, which is abnormal separation of a joint. She performs this procedure using anesthesia for the patient. Metatarsals are the five long bones in the foot that connect the ankle area to the toes. Phalanges are bones of the toe. There are three in each toe except the greater toe, which has two phalanges. The metatarsophalangeal joint is a joint where the metatarsal bone of the foot attaches to the phalanx bone of the toe.",CPT +28636,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider performs treatment of a metatarsophalangeal joint dislocation, which is abnormal separation of a joint, using screws and pins through the skin. He also performs manipulation, or adjustment, of the separated bones to reduce the dislocation. Metatarsals are the five long bones in the foot that connect the ankle area to the toes. Phalanges are bones of the toe. There are three in each toe except the greater toe, which has two phalanges. The metatarsophalangeal joint is a joint where the metatarsal bone of the foot attaches to the phalanx bone of the toes.",CPT +28645,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider performs open treatment of a metatarsophalangeal joint dislocation, which is abnormal separation of a joint. She may or may not use internal fixation implants like pins or screws to fix the dislocation. Metatarsals are the five long bones in the foot that connect the ankle area to the toes. Phalanges are bones of the toe. There are three in each toe except the greater toe, which has two phalanges. The metatarsophalangeal joint is a joint where the metatarsal bone of the foot attaches to the phalanx bone of the toe.",CPT +28660,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider performs closed treatment of an interphalangeal joint dislocation, which is abnormal separation of a joint. He performs this procedure without using anesthesia for the patient. Phalanges are bones of the toe. There are three in each toe except the greater toe, which has two phalanges. An interphalangeal joint is a joint between two phalanges of a toe.",CPT +28665,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider performs closed treatment of an interphalangeal joint dislocation, which is abnormal separation of a joint. She performs this procedure using anesthesia. Phalanges are bones of the toe. There are three in each toe except the greater toe, which has two phalanges. An interphalangeal joint is a joint between two phalanges of a toe.",CPT +28666,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider performs treatment of an interphalangeal joint dislocation, which is abnormal separation of a joint, using screws and pins through the skin. He also performs manipulation, or adjustment, of the separated bones to reduce the dislocation. Phalanges are bones of the toe. There are three in each toe except the greater toe, which has two phalanges. An interphalangeal joint is a joint between two phalanges of a toe.",CPT +28675,Fracture and/or Dislocation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider performs open treatment of an interphalangeal joint dislocation, which is abnormal separation of a joint. She may or may not use internal fixation implants like pins or screws to fix the dislocation. Phalanges are bones of the toe. There are three in each toe except the greater toe, which has two phalanges. An interphalangeal joint is a joint between two phalanges of a toe.",CPT +28705,Arthrodesis Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"The provider performs pantalar arthrodesis, where he fuses joints together, to treat cases of degenerative arthritis, trauma, or fractures. During this procedure, the provider fuses joints of the ankle, subtalar, talonavicular, and calcaneocuboid joints with K wires and screws.",CPT +28715,Arthrodesis Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"A triple arthrodesis is performed in patients with degenerative arthritis or trauma. During this procedure, the provider fuses three joints of the ankle (subtalar, talonavicular and calcaneocuboid joints) together to completely mobilize the ankle joint.",CPT +28725,Arthrodesis Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,The provider fuses the subtalar joint of the foot to treat degenerative arthritis or trauma.,CPT +28730,Arthrodesis Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically immobilizes multiple or transverse midtarsal or tarsometatarsal joints with the help of fixation devices. Midtarsal joints are combined joints of either the talus with the navicular bone or the calcaneum with the cuboid bone. Tarsometatarsal joints are also known as Lisfranc joints. They are the joints of the first, second, and third cuneiforms, and the cuboid with the bases of the metatarsal bones.",CPT +28735,Arthrodesis Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"The provider surgically immobilizes multiple or transverse midtarsal or tarsometatarsal joints with the help of fixation devices. He also performs an osteotomy, the surgical removal of a portion of the shaft of the metatarsal bone to correct a flat foot deformity. The goal of this procedure is to treat pain in patients with end stage osteoarthritis of the midtarsal or tarsometatarsal joints.",CPT +28737,Arthrodesis Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically immobilizes the navicular and cuneiform tarsal bones with the help of fixation devices like screws, k–wire or plates. She also performs a lengthening and advancement of the tibialis posterior tendon.",CPT +28740,Arthrodesis Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically immobilizes a single midtarsal or tarsometatarsal joint with the help of fixation devices. Midtarsal joints are combined joints of either the talus with the navicular bone or the calcaneum with the cuboid bone. Tarsometatarsal joints are also known as Lisfranc joints. They are the joints of the first, second, and third cuneiforms, and the cuboid with the bases of the metatarsal bones.",CPT +28750,Arthrodesis Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically immobilizes the metatarsophalangeal joint of the great toe. A metatarsophalangeal joint is a joint between the first metatarsal of the foot and the first phalanx of the great toe.",CPT +28755,Arthrodesis Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically immobilizes the interphalangeal joint of the great toe. An interphalangeal joint is a joint between the two phalanges of the great toe.",CPT +28760,Arthrodesis Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically immobilizes the interphalangeal joint of the great toe. He also transfers the extensor hallucis longus tendon from its insertion on the toe’s phalanx bone to the metatarsal bone of the foot. An interphalangeal joint is a joint between the two phalanges of the great toe. The goal of this procedure is typically to treat pain in patients with end stage osteoarthritis of an interphalangeal joint of the great toe.",CPT +28800,Amputation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider amputates the foot just in front of the heel and ankle. The amputation is at the midtarsal joints through the talonavicular and calcaneocuboid joints. Midtarsal joints are also known as transverse tarsal joints. They are combined joints of either the talus with the navicular bone or the calcaneum with the cuboid bone.",CPT +28805,Amputation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider amputates the foot by cutting it across the metatarsal bones. Metatarsals are the five long bones located between the tarsal bones of the foot/ankle and phalanges of the toes.",CPT +28810,Amputation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider amputates a single metatarsal bone along with its attached toe. Metatarsals are the five long bones located between the tarsal bones of the foot/ankle and phalanges of the toes.",CPT +28820,Amputation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider amputates the toe at the metatarsophalangeal joint. The metatarsophalangeal joint is the joint between the first metatarsal of the foot and the first phalanx of the toe.",CPT +28825,Amputation Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"In this procedure, the provider amputates the toe at an interphalangeal joint. An interphalangeal joint is a joint between the two bones, called phalanges, in a toe.",CPT +28890,Other Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,"The provider administers high energy sound waves, to the sole of the foot to stimulate healing of the plantar fascia, the thick band of connective tissue that holds up the arch of the foot. She uses ultrasound guidance as a directional aid. She performs the procedure with the patient under regional or general anesthesia due to the painful nature of the treatment.",CPT +28899,Other Procedures on the Foot and Toes.,Use to report procedures in the foot or toe that do not have a specific code.,CPT +29000,Body and Upper Extremity Application of Casts.,"The provider applies a body cast in the form of a sheepskin lined rigid vest that attaches with bars to a halo (metal ring) connected with screws to the skull. The halo body cast keeps the head and neck motionless after major spinal surgery, particularly of the cervical spine (neck area), after a traumatic injury. A halo–type body cast can also be attached to the pelvis with a pelvic hoop or to the thigh bone (femur) with pins.",CPT +29010,Body and Upper Extremity Application of Casts.,"The provider applies a Risser jacket (Risser localizer cast) for the preoperative treatment of scoliosis, an abnormal lateral curvature of the spine. The Risser localizer jacket encases the entire trunk of the body, extending over the neck area up to the level of the chin, and applies localized pressure to the scoliotic curve.",CPT +29015,Body and Upper Extremity Application of Casts.,"The provider applies a Risser jacket (Risser localizer cast) for the preoperative treatment of scoliosis, an abnormal lateral curvature of the spine. The Risser localizer jacket encases the entire trunk of the body, extending over the neck to include the head, and applies localized pressure to the scoliotic curve of the spine.",CPT +29035,Body and Upper Extremity Application of Casts.,The provider applies a body cast to limit motion of the trunk and spine after a surgical procedure to correct a congenital spinal deformity or repair damage from trauma to the spine. The cast extends from the shoulders to the hips.,CPT +29040,Body and Upper Extremity Application of Casts.,"The provider applies a Minerva–type body cast to the trunk and spine, including the neck, jaw, and head. The Minerva body cast stabilizes the cervical spine to treat torticollis, cervical or thoracic spine injuries, and scoliosis, an abnormal lateral curvature of the spine.",CPT +29044,Body and Upper Extremity Application of Casts.,The provider applies a body cast to limit motion of the trunk and spine after a surgical procedure to correct a congenital spinal deformity or repair damage from trauma to the spine. The cast extends from the shoulders to the hips and down one thigh.,CPT +29046,Body and Upper Extremity Application of Casts.,The provider applies a body cast to limit motion of the trunk and spine after a surgical procedure to correct a congenital spinal deformity or repair damage from trauma to the spine and pelvis. The cast extends from the shoulders to the hips and down both thighs.,CPT +29049,Body and Upper Extremity Application of Casts.,"The provider applies a figure of eight cast to immobilize a structure, typically an arm, after a surgical procedure. She applies the cast material with one turn of the cast wrapping crossing the other in the middle, giving the appearance of the numeral eight.",CPT +29055,Body and Upper Extremity Application of Casts.,The provider applies a semi–full body cast encasing the chest and one shoulder. This shoulder spica cast treats shoulder dislocations and injuries and immobilizes the shoulder after surgery.,CPT +29058,Body and Upper Extremity Application of Casts.,"The provider applies a plaster cast to the upper forearm and shoulder. The plaster Velpeau cast holds a flexed forearm against the patient's trunk and prevents movement in all joints in the treatment of a fracture of the humerus, scapula, clavicle, or following the reduction of a dislocated glenohumeral, sternoclavicular, or acromioclavicular joint.",CPT +29065,Body and Upper Extremity Application of Casts.,"The provider applies a cast encasing the upper and lower arm. A long arm cast treats fractures of the arm bones and corrects deformities of the forearm, elbow, and humerus.",CPT +29075,Body and Upper Extremity Application of Casts.,The provider applies a cast encasing the lower arm. A short arm cast treats fractures of the bones in the lower arm and corrects deformities of the hand and wrist.,CPT +29085,Body and Upper Extremity Application of Casts.,"The provider applies a cast encasing the forearm to the palm and includes the thumb. A gauntlet cast, shaped like a glove that comes up over the wrist, treats fractures of the wrist and hand and immobilizes the area after a surgical procedure.",CPT +29086,Body and Upper Extremity Application of Casts.,The provider applies a cast encasing the middle joint of a patient's finger to treat a flexion contracture resulting in an abnormally bent finger.,CPT +29105,Body and Upper Extremity Application of Splints.,"The provider applies a splint, rigid or flexible, to the upper and lower arm to immobilize an injured arm to reduce pain during healing or for stabilization of a fracture prior to surgical repair.",CPT +29125,Body and Upper Extremity Application of Splints.,"The provider applies a static, or rigid, splint to the lower arm extending from the elbow to the palm to immobilize an injury to the forearm or wrist during healing or for stabilization of a fracture prior to surgical repair.",CPT +29126,Body and Upper Extremity Application of Splints.,"The provider applies a dynamic, or hinged, splint to the lower arm extending from the elbow to the palm to stretch a stiff joint, improving the range of motion of the joint after a surgical procedure or injury. A dynamic splint also improves flexion contractures in chronic neurologic or orthopedic conditions.",CPT +29130,Body and Upper Extremity Application of Splints.,"The provider applies a static, or rigid, splint to hold a finger or fingers in a fixed position and not permit any movement, allowing a sprain or fracture to heal.",CPT +29131,Body and Upper Extremity Application of Splints.,"The provider applies a dynamic, or hinged, splint to the hand and finger to stretch a stiff finger joint, improving the range of motion of the joint after a surgical procedure or injury. A dynamic splint also improves flexion contractures in chronic neurologic or orthopedic conditions.",CPT +29200,Body and Upper Extremity Application of Strapping-Any Age.,"The provider applies elastic adhesive tape to the thorax, or chest, to hold the muscles in a fixed position and limit excessive or abnormal movements. Strapping treats muscle strains, dislocations, sprains, and certain fractures.",CPT +29240,Body and Upper Extremity Application of Strapping-Any Age.,"The provider applies elastic adhesive tape to the shoulder to hold the joint and muscles in a fixed position and limit excessive or abnormal movements. Strapping treats muscle strains, dislocations, sprains, and certain fractures.",CPT +29260,Body and Upper Extremity Application of Strapping-Any Age.,"The provider applies elastic adhesive tape to the elbow or wrist to hold the joint or muscles in a fixed position and limit excessive or abnormal movements. Strapping treats muscle strains, dislocations, sprains, and certain fractures.",CPT +29280,Body and Upper Extremity Application of Strapping-Any Age.,"The provider applies elastic adhesive tape to the hand or finger to hold the muscles in a fixed position and limit excessive or abnormal movements. Strapping treats muscle strains, dislocations, sprains, and certain fractures.",CPT +29305,Lower Extremity Application of Casts.,The provider applies a body cast encasing the trunk and one leg down to the ankle or foot. A hip spica cast immobilizes the hip and thigh to aid in healing a hip fracture.,CPT +29325,Lower Extremity Application of Casts.,"The provider applies a body cast encasing the trunk and both legs down to the ankle or foot, or one leg down to the ankle or foot and one leg down to the knee in a one and one half spica cast. A hip spica cast immobilizes the hip and thigh to aid in healing a hip fracture.",CPT +29345,Lower Extremity Application of Casts.,"The provider applies a long leg cast, immobilizing the leg and knee, to treat fractures of the leg bones and correct deformities of the knee, distal leg, ankle, and foot. A long leg cast extends from the thigh down over the foot but leaving the toes free.",CPT +29355,Lower Extremity Application of Casts.,"The provider applies a long leg ambulatory cast, immobilizing the leg and knee, to treat fractures and deformities. A long leg cast extends from the thigh down over the foot but leaves the toes free. She forms the bottom of the cast to accommodate a cast shoe that straps on over the cast and permits ambulation when able to bear weight on that leg. Alternatively, she applies a footplate and rubber heel to the bottom of the cast.",CPT +29358,Lower Extremity Application of Casts.,"The provider applies a long leg brace type cast to immobilize the leg for treatment of a femur fracture. The cast incorporates a brace that allows the knee to bend, maintaining range of motion during the healing process, and permitting ambulation when able to bear weight on that leg.",CPT +29365,Lower Extremity Application of Casts.,"The provider applies a cast to immobilize the leg and knee for treatment of a fracture of the femur, tibia, fibula, or patella. The cylinder type cast extends from the mid to upper thigh down to the bottom of the lower leg, leaving the foot and ankle free.",CPT +29405,Lower Extremity Application of Casts.,"The provider applies a cast to the lower leg to treat a fracture of one or both bones of the lower leg, the tibia and fibula, or a severe ankle sprain. The short leg cast extends from just below the knee down over the foot, leaving the toes free.",CPT +29425,Lower Extremity Application of Casts.,"The provider applies a cast to the lower leg to treat a fracture of one or both bones of the lower leg, the tibia and fibula, or a severe ankle sprain. She forms the bottom of the cast to accommodate a cast shoe that straps on over the cast and permits ambulation when able to bear weight on that leg. Alternatively, she applies a footplate and rubber heel to the bottom of the cast.",CPT +29435,Lower Extremity Application of Casts.,"The provider applies a cast to immobilize the lower leg and foot but allow the knee to bend, in the treatment of tibia and fibula shaft fractures. The cast covers the lower leg but includes a segment in the front that comes up over the knee. The pressure applied to the fracture site stimulates bone growth as the patient walks.",CPT +29440,Lower Extremity Application of Casts.,"The provider adds a removable walker to an existing leg cast in the later stages of treatment when the patient is permitted to bear weight. Alternatively, she applies a rubber pad to the heel of the cast.",CPT +29445,Lower Extremity Application of Casts.,"The provider applies a short leg walking cast, called a total contact cast, or TCC, that covers the lower leg, ankle, and foot to treat diabetic ulcers. The TCC is formed to fit a removable cast shoe that straps on or is embedded with a footplate and rubber heel to permit walking.",CPT +29450,Lower Extremity Application of Casts.,"The provider gently stretches the foot and applies a temporary cast in the ongoing treatment of clubfoot deformity, generally a congenital condition, but also the result of childhood polio. Progressive application of molded casts apply pressure on the ligaments of the foot, continuing the stretching process and gradually repositioning the foot.",CPT +29505,Lower Extremity Application of Splints.,"The provider applies a long leg splint to treat injuries of the leg, including fractures, dislocations, and sprains of the leg, knee, and ankle. The splint covers and immobilizes the entire leg from the top of the thigh down to the ankle and or foot.",CPT +29515,Lower Extremity Application of Splints.,"The provider applies a short leg splint to treat injuries of the leg, including fractures, dislocations, and sprains of the lower leg, ankle, and foot. The splint covers and immobilizes the lower leg from just below the knee down to the foot.",CPT +29520,Lower Extremity Application of Strapping-Any Age.,"The provider applies elastic adhesive tape to the hip to hold the joint or muscles in a fixed position and limit excessive or abnormal movements. Strapping treats muscle strains, dislocations, sprains, and certain fractures. Injuries to the hamstring muscle in the thigh also affect the hip.",CPT +29530,Lower Extremity Application of Strapping-Any Age.,"The provider applies elastic adhesive tape to the knee to hold the joint or muscles in a fixed position and limit excessive or abnormal movements. Strapping treats muscle strains, dislocations, sprains, and certain fractures.",CPT +29540,Lower Extremity Application of Strapping-Any Age.,"The provider applies elastic adhesive tape to the ankle or foot to hold the joint or muscles in a fixed position and limit excessive or abnormal movements. Strapping treats muscle strains, dislocations, sprains, and certain fractures.",CPT +29550,Lower Extremity Application of Strapping-Any Age.,"The provider applies elastic adhesive tape to the toes to hold the joints or muscles in a fixed position and limit excessive or abnormal movements. Strapping treats muscle strains, dislocations, sprains, and certain fractures.",CPT +29580,Lower Extremity Application of Strapping-Any Age.,"The provider applies an Unna boot, a spiral compression dressing, made of cotton and zinc oxide paste or other emollients, that keeps the skin moist and free of irritation while applying pressure to the leg. Unna boots treat venous stasis ulcers by controlling blood flow in the leg and providing a stable environment for ulcer healing. Unna boots also provide healing properties for strains and sprains.",CPT +29581,Lower Extremity Application of Strapping-Any Age.,"The provider applies a layered bandage to the lower leg, ankle, and foot, to treat venous stasis ulcers and venous insufficiency, the failure of the blood veins immediately below the skin. A multilayer compression system controls blood flow in the extremity and reduces swelling, providing a stable environment for ulcer healing.",CPT +29584,Lower Extremity Application of Strapping-Any Age.,"The provider applies a layered bandage to the upper and lower arm down to the fingers to treat venous stasis ulcers and venous insufficiency (the failure of the blood veins immediately below the skin). A multilayer compression system controls blood flow in the extremity and reduces swelling, providing a stable environment for wound healing.",CPT +29700,Removal or Repair of Casts and Strapping.,"The provider removes or modifies an existing cast covering the body, foot, or hand when no longer required, needs replacement, or has become too tight due to excessive swelling.",CPT +29705,Removal or Repair of Casts and Strapping.,"The provider removes or modifies an existing cast covering an entire arm or leg when no longer required, needs replacement, or has become too tight due to excessive swelling.",CPT +29710,Removal or Repair of Casts and Strapping.,"The provider removes or modifies an existing spica cast of the shoulder or hip or a body cast of the Minerva or Risser type when no longer required, needs replacement, or has become too tight due to excessive swelling.",CPT +29720,Removal or Repair of Casts and Strapping.,"In this procedure, the provider repairs the spica cast, body cast, or jacket cast for reasons such as wear and tear that may happen over time.",CPT +29730,Removal or Repair of Casts and Strapping.,The provider removes a small section of a cast to inspect an underlying wound or check for skin breakdown.,CPT +29740,Removal or Repair of Casts and Strapping.,"The provider corrects the alignment of a long bone fracture, such as in the lower leg, by inserting wedges into a previously applied cast to apply pressure to the bones at specific points. Wedging realigns a fracture without requiring a surgical incision.",CPT +29750,Removal or Repair of Casts and Strapping.,The provider repositions the foot in an existing cast applied for the treatment of clubfoot deformity by cutting into the cast and inserting material as a wedge to hold the correct the alignment. The provider wedges the foot in the cast to correct inward or outward bowing of the ankle.,CPT +29799,Other Casting or Strapping Procedures.,Use to report casting or strapping procedures that do not have a specific code.,CPT +29800,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider inserts an arthroscope into the temporomandibular joint, or jaw joint, to inspect the joint for damage or disease that cause pain or dysfunction of the jaw, such as temporomandibular joint disorder. If necessary, she takes a biopsy, or tissue sample, of the synovial membrane that covers the joint.",CPT +29804,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider inserts an arthroscope into the temporomandibular joint, or the jaw joint, to view the joint and repair damage or disease that cause pain or dysfunction of the jaw, such as temporomandibular joint disorder.",CPT +29805,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider examines the tissue inside the shoulder joint with an arthroscope, inspecting for causes of pain and limitation of motion. If necessary, she takes a sample of the synovial tissue that lines the joint and submits it to a laboratory for analysis and diagnosis.",CPT +29806,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider examines the tissue inside the shoulder joint with an arthroscope. He inserts additional instruments to repair any tears found in the joint capsule. Tearing of the joint capsule can be caused by falling on an outstretched arm, a twisting injury, or a forceful blow to the shoulder area, and lead to dislocation of the shoulder.",CPT +29807,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider examines the tissue inside the shoulder joint with an arthroscope to treat a suspected tear of the lining of the shoulder socket. She inserts instruments through the arthroscope to make the repair. The shoulder socket tear, called a SLAP lesion, frequently occurs in association with sports activities as well as with shoulder trauma.",CPT +29819,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider examines the tissue inside the shoulder joint with an arthroscope to look for and remove loose or foreign bodies. Loose and foreign bodies, which include things like small pieces of broken cartilage or suture anchors inserted at a prior surgical procedure, lead to pain, inflammation, scar tissue formation, adhesions, and restriction of motion of the joint.",CPT +29820,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider examines the tissue inside the shoulder joint with an arthroscope to inspect and repair the membrane between the bony surfaces and the joint capsule. She inserts instruments and excises a portion of synovial tissue that has become inflamed, causing the patient pain and limitation of motion.",CPT +29821,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,The provider examines the tissue inside the shoulder joint with an arthroscope to inspect and remove damaged synovial membrane between the bony surfaces and the joint capsule. She inserts instruments and excises all of the synovial tissue in the joint. The provider performs a complete synovectomy for chronic inflammatory conditions causing pain and limitation of motion or to remove a tumor.,CPT +29822,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,The provider examines the tissue inside the shoulder joint with an arthroscope. He inserts additional instruments and excises a minimal amount of damaged tissue in the shoulder joint caused by trauma to the shoulder.,CPT +29823,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,The provider examines the tissue inside the shoulder joint with an arthroscope. He inserts additional instruments and excises extensive damaged tissues in the shoulder joint caused by trauma to the shoulder.,CPT +29824,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider examines the tissue inside the shoulder joint with an arthroscope and inserts additional instruments to remove a portion of the clavicle, or collarbone. An arthroscopic Mumford procedure relieves pain from chronic inflammatory conditions, like arthritis, impingement of the tendons, and bone spurs.",CPT +29825,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider examines the tissue inside the shoulder joint with an arthroscope. She inserts additional instruments to lyse, or destroy, adhesions, and restore free movement of the shoulder. She manipulates the shoulder as necessary.",CPT +29826,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider examines the tissue inside the shoulder joint with an arthroscope. He inserts additional instruments and repairs the shoulder blade and coracoacromial ligament to alleviate shoulder joint impingement, which causes irritation and pain.",CPT +29827,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider examines the tissue inside the shoulder joint with an arthroscope. She inserts additional instruments to repair a torn rotator cuff, the grouping of muscles and tendons that surround and support the shoulder joint. Rotator cuff tears frequently result from sports injuries and repetitive overhead motion of the arm, causing pain and limitation of movement.",CPT +29828,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider examines the tissue inside the shoulder joint with an arthroscope. She inserts additional instruments to repair an unstable biceps tendon, the fibrous band that connects the biceps muscle in the forearm to its bony attachment at the shoulder join. Biceps tenodesis corrects instability of the biceps tendon due to biceps tendonitis, inflammation of the tendon, which tends to accompany other shoulder problems, such as chronic instability, arthritis, and impingement syndrome.",CPT +29830,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider examines the tissue inside the elbow joint with an arthroscope to assess for causes of pain and limitation of movement. If necessary, she takes a sample of the synovial tissue that lines the joint and submits it to a laboratory for analysis and diagnosis.",CPT +29834,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider examines the tissue inside the elbow joint with an arthroscope to look for and remove loose or foreign bodies. Loose and foreign bodies, which include things like small pieces of broken cartilage or suture anchors inserted at a prior surgical procedure, lead to pain, inflammation, scar tissue formation, adhesions, and restriction of motion of the joint.",CPT +29835,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider examines the tissue inside the elbow joint with an arthroscope to inspect and repair the membrane between the bony surfaces and the joint capsule. She inserts instruments and excises a portion of synovial tissue that has become inflamed, causing the patient pain and limitation of motion.",CPT +29836,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,The provider examines the tissue inside the elbow joint with an arthroscope to inspect and remove the damaged synovial membrane between the bony surfaces and the joint capsule. She inserts instruments and excises all of the synovial tissue in the joint. The provider performs a complete synovectomy for chronic inflammatory conditions causing pain and limitation of motion or to remove a tumor.,CPT +29837,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,The provider examines the tissue inside the elbow joint with an arthroscope. She inserts additional instruments and excises a minimal amount of damaged tissue in the elbow joint caused by trauma to the elbow.,CPT +29838,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,The provider examines the tissue inside the elbow joint with an arthroscope. She inserts additional instruments and excises extensive damaged tissues in the elbow joint caused by trauma to the elbow.,CPT +29840,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider examines the tissue inside the wrist joint with an arthroscope to assess for causes of pain and limitation of movement. If necessary, she takes a sample of the synovial tissue that lines the joint and submits it to a laboratory for analysis and diagnosis.",CPT +29843,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,The provider examines the tissue inside the wrist joint with an arthroscope to inspect a suspected area of infection. She washes out the joint and drains it to clean it of any infected debris.,CPT +29844,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider examines the tissue inside the wrist joint with an arthroscope to inspect and repair the membrane between the bony surfaces and the joint capsule. She inserts instruments and excises a portion of synovial tissue that has become inflamed, causing the patient pain and limitation of motion.",CPT +29845,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,The provider examines the tissue inside the wrist joint with an arthroscope to inspect and remove the damaged synovial membrane between the bony surfaces and the joint capsule. She inserts instruments and excises all of the synovial tissue in the joint. The provider performs a complete synovectomy for chronic inflammatory conditions causing pain and limitation of motion or to remove a tumor.,CPT +29846,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider examines the tissue inside the wrist joint with an arthroscope. She inserts additional instruments to repair or remove the triangular fibrocartilage, a supporting cartilage in the wrist that is a common source of pain when damaged. She excises a minimal amount of additional damaged tissue in the wrist joint.",CPT +29847,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider examines the tissue inside the wrist joint with an arthroscope. She inserts additional instruments to reduce, or realign, the bones in the wrist in the presence of a fracture or chronic instability. She inserts screws to hold the bones in place.",CPT +29848,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,The provider inserts an endoscope into the wrist joint to divide the transverse carpal ligament and reduce compression on the median nerve in the carpal tunnel that results in pain and numbness.,CPT +29850,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"In this lower leg procedure, the provider performs treatment of a fracture of the upper tibia’s intercondylar spine and/or tuberosity using an arthroscope. The provider may perform the procedure with or without manipulation. He does not use internal or external fixation devices to fix the fracture. Arthroscopy is also known as keyhole surgery because the provider uses an arthroscope, a tiny camera, to look inside the joint and to treat joint problems.",CPT +29851,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"In this lower leg procedure, the provider performs treatment of a fracture of the upper tibia’s intercondylar spine and or tuberosity using an arthroscope. The provider may perform the procedure with or without manipulation. He also uses internal or external fixation devices to fix the fracture. Arthroscopy is also known as keyhole surgery because the provider uses an arthroscope, a tiny camera, to look inside the joint and to treat joint problems.",CPT +29855,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"In this procedure, the provider performs treatment of a tibial plateau fracture involving either the inner or outer tibial condyle using an arthroscope. She may or may not use internal fixation devices to fix the fracture. Arthroscopy is also known as keyhole surgery because the provider uses an arthroscope, a tiny camera, to look inside the joint and to treat joint problems.",CPT +29856,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"In this procedure, the provider performs treatment of a tibial plateau fracture involving both the inner and outer tibial condyles using an arthroscope. He may or may not use an internal fixation device to fix the fracture. Arthroscopy is also known as keyhole surgery because the provider uses an arthroscope, a tiny camera, to look inside the joint and to treat joint problems.",CPT +29860,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider examines the tissue inside the hip joint with an arthroscope, inspecting for causes for pain and limitation of motion. If necessary, she takes a sample of the synovial tissue that lines the joint and submits it to a laboratory for analysis and diagnosis.",CPT +29861,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider examines the tissue inside the hip joint with an arthroscope to look for and remove loose or foreign bodies. Loose and foreign bodies, which include things like small pieces of broken cartilage or suture anchors inserted at a prior surgical procedure, lead to pain, inflammation, scar tissue formation, adhesions, and restriction of motion of the joint.",CPT +29862,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider examines the inside of the hip joint with an arthroscope. She repairs the joint by reshaping articular cartilage covering its ball and socket and removes the tissue rim, or labrum. The procedure relieves pain and improves mobility in the joint.",CPT +29863,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider examines the inside of the hip joint with an arthroscope to inspect and repair the membrane between the bony surfaces and the joint capsule. She inserts instruments and excises synovial tissue that has become inflamed, causing the patient pain and limitation of motion.",CPT +29866,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,The provider examines the inside of the knee joint with an arthroscope to inspect and repair the cartilage covering the bony surfaces of the knee joint. She inserts instruments to harvest healthy cartilage and transplant it to replace damaged tissue.,CPT +29867,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,The provider examines the inside of the knee joint with an arthroscope to inspect and repair the cartilage covering the bony surfaces of the knee joint. She inserts instruments to transplant healthy articular cartilage from a donor source to replace damaged tissue that causes pain and limitation of motion.,CPT +29868,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider examines the inside of the knee joint with an arthroscope to inspect and repair a damaged meniscus, a cushion of cartilage in the joint, that causes pain and limitation of motion. She inserts instruments to incise the joint, remove the damaged cartilage, and insert healthy donor cartilage.",CPT +29870,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider examines the inside of the knee joint with an arthroscope to assess for causes of pain and limitation of movement. If necessary, she takes a sample of the synovial tissue that lines the joint and submits it to a laboratory for analysis and diagnosis.",CPT +29871,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,The provider examines the tissue inside the knee joint with an arthroscope to evaluate a suspected area of infection. She washes out the joint and drains it to clean it of any infected debris.,CPT +29873,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider examines the inside of the knee joint with an arthroscope to assess the fibrous tissues that hold the patella, or kneecap, in place. She incises the lateral retinaculum, the tight band of tissue on the outer aspect of the patella, to release excessive constriction that causes pain.",CPT +29874,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider examines the inside of the knee joint with an arthroscope to look for and remove loose or foreign bodies. Loose and foreign bodies, which include things like small pieces of broken cartilage, lead to pain, inflammation, scar tissue formation, adhesions, and restriction of motion of the joint.",CPT +29875,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider examines the inside of the knee joint with an arthroscope to inspect and repair the membrane between the bony surfaces and the joint capsule. She inserts instruments and excises a fold of synovial tissue that has become inflamed or damaged, causing the patient pain and limitation of motion.",CPT +29876,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider examines the inside of the knee joint with an arthroscope to inspect and repair the membrane between the bony surfaces and the joint capsule. She inserts instruments and excises synovial tissue that has become inflamed or damaged, causing the patient pain and limitation of motion. She removes the synovium from two or more compartments in the knee, including the medial or lateral compartments, or both, in a major synovectomy procedure.",CPT +29877,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider examines the inside of the knee joint with an arthroscope. She repairs the joint by reshaping the articular cartilage covering its ball and socket, trimming or shaving damaged tissue. The procedure relieves pain and improves mobility in the joint.",CPT +29879,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider examines the inside of the knee joint with an arthroscope. She repairs the joint by reshaping the articular cartilage covering its ball and socket, grinding its surface and in some cases drilling the cartilage or excising it and puncturing the underlying bone to create small fractures, or breaks, encouraging new growth. The procedure relieves pain and improves mobility in the joint.",CPT +29880,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"In this procedure, the provider performs arthroscopic examination of the knee joint. She removes the damaged and torn meniscus from the medial and lateral compartments of the knee joint along with meniscal shaving. She may also perform shaving or debridement of the damaged articular cartilage, or chondroplasty, in the same or a separate compartment. Arthroscopy is also known as keyhole surgery and involves the provider using an arthroscope, a tiny camera, to look inside the joint and to treat joint problems.",CPT +29881,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider examines the inside of the knee joint with an arthroscope. She repairs the joint by removing the meniscus, a crescent shaped cartilage cushion, from either the medial or lateral compartments of the knee joint. If required, she reshapes the articular cartilage covering the bony surfaces in either compartment by excising or shaving tissue from its surface. The procedure relieves pain and improves mobility in the joint.",CPT +29882,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider examines the inside of the knee joint with an arthroscope. She repairs a torn meniscus, a crescent shaped cartilage cushion, in either the medial or lateral compartments of the knee joint. The procedure relieves pain and improves mobility in the joint.",CPT +29883,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider examines the inside of the knee joint with an arthroscope. She repairs torn menisci, crescent shaped cartilage cushions, in both the medial and lateral compartments of the knee joint. The procedure relieves pain and improves mobility in the joint.",CPT +29884,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider examines the tissue inside the knee joint with an arthroscope. She inserts additional instruments to lyse, or destroy, adhesions, and restore free movement of the knee. She manipulates the knee as necessary.",CPT +29885,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider examines the tissue inside the knee joint with an arthroscope to identify areas of osteochondritis dissecans, where the cartilage separates from underlying bone. She excises a portion of the lesion and drills damaged cartilage to encourage growing bone to reattach. She applies bone grafts and in some cases inserts screws to hold the cartilage in place. The procedure relieves pain and improves mobility in the joint.",CPT +29886,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider examines the tissue inside the knee joint with an arthroscope to identify intact osteochondritis dissecans lesions, those for which the cartilage is cracked but not yet separated from the bone. She drills the damaged cartilage to encourage growth of healthy tissue. The procedure relieves pain and improves mobility in the joint.",CPT +29887,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider examines the tissue inside the knee joint with an arthroscope to identify intact osteochondritis dissecans lesions, those for which the cartilage is cracked but not yet separated from the bone. She drills the damaged cartilage to encourage growth of healthy tissue. She inserts screws to secure the cartilage to the underlying bone. The procedure relieves pain and improves mobility in the joint.",CPT +29888,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider examines the tissue inside the knee joint with an arthroscope. She identifies and repairs a tear in the anterior cruciate ligament and repairs it with tissue taken from elsewhere in the knee or, if necessary, from a donor source. The procedure relieves pain and improves mobility in the joint.",CPT +29889,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider examines the tissue inside the knee joint with an arthroscope. She identifies and repairs a tear in the posterior cruciate ligament and repairs it with tissue taken from elsewhere in the knee or, if necessary, from a donor source. The procedure relieves pain and improves mobility in the joint.",CPT +29891,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider examines the tissue inside the ankle joint with an arthroscope. She identifies and repairs a defect in the cartilage covering the bony surfaces of the talus, or ankle bone, and or the tibia, one of the bones of the lower leg. She excises the defect and drills holes in the underlying bony tissue to encourage growth of healthy tissue. The procedure relieves pain and improves mobility in the joint.",CPT +29892,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider examines the tissue inside the ankle joint with an arthroscope to identify areas of osteochondritis dissecans, where the cartilage separates from underlying bone, with fracturing of the cartilages called the talar dome and tibial plafond. She makes repairs to these defects and inserts screws to secure cartilage to bone, if needed.",CPT +29893,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider examines the tissue inside the heel with an endoscope to access the fascia of the plantar surface, or bottom, of the foot. She incises the fascia to relieve pain from plantar fasciitis, a chronic inflammatory condition of the heel, when nonsurgical treatments fail.",CPT +29894,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider examines the inside of the tibiotalar and fibulotalar joints of the ankle with an arthroscope to look for and remove loose or foreign bodies. Loose and foreign bodies, which include things like small pieces of broken cartilage, lead to pain, inflammation, scar tissue formation, adhesions, and restriction of motion of the joint.",CPT +29895,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider examines the inside of the tibiotalar and fibulotalar joints of the ankle with an arthroscope to inspect and repair the membrane between the bony surfaces and the joint capsule. She inserts instruments and excises the portion of synovial tissue that has become inflamed, causing the patient pain and limitation of motion.",CPT +29897,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,The provider examines the inside of the tibiotalar and fibulotalar joints of the ankle with an arthroscope to inspect and repair the membrane between the bony surfaces and the joint capsule. She trims damaged areas of tissue to reduce patient pain and limitation of motion.,CPT +29898,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider examines the inside of the tibiotalar and fibulotalar joints of the ankle with an arthroscope to inspect and repair the membrane between the bony surfaces and the joint capsule. She performs extensive removal of damaged areas of tissue, including bone spurs, to reduce patient pain and limitation of motion.",CPT +29899,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider examines the inside of the tibiotalar and fibulotalar joints of the ankle with an arthroscope. She excises damaged tissues and uses hardware to permanently fuse the joint. Ankle arthrodesis resolves pain and limitation of motion in the case of chronic joint disease, like arthritis, that fails nonsurgical treatment.",CPT +29900,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"In this procedure, the provider performs arthroscopic examination of the metacarpophalangeal joint. He also obtains a synovial biopsy using an arthroscope. Arthroscopy is also known as keyhole surgery and involves the provider using an arthroscope, a tiny camera, to look inside the joint and to treat joint problems.",CPT +29901,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"In this procedure, the provider performs arthroscopic examination of the metacarpophalangeal joint in the hand. He also debrides any dead tissue and loose bodies present within the joint. Arthroscopy is also known as keyhole surgery involving the provider using an arthroscope, a tiny camera, to look inside the joint and to treat joint problems.",CPT +29902,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"In this procedure, the provider performs arthroscopic examination of the thumb’s metacarpophalangeal joint. He also restores the original position of the ruptured ulnar collateral ligament, thus reducing the displacement.",CPT +29904,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"In this procedure, the provider performs arthroscopic examination of the subtalar joint near the foot’s heel. He also removes any loose body or foreign body present within the joint. Arthroscopy is also known as keyhole surgery involving the provider using an arthroscope, a tiny camera, to look inside the joint and to treat joint problems.",CPT +29905,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"In this procedure, the provider performs arthroscopic examination of the subtalar joint near the foot’s heel. He also removes inflamed synovium present within the joint. Arthroscopy is also known as keyhole surgery involving the provider using an arthroscope, a tiny camera, to look inside the joint and to treat joint problems.",CPT +29906,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"In this procedure, the provider performs arthroscopic examination of the subtalar joint near the foot’s heel. He also debrides any dead tissue or debris present within the joint. Arthroscopy is also known as keyhole surgery involving the provider using an arthroscope, a tiny camera, to look inside the joint and to treat the joint problems.",CPT +29907,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"In this procedure, the provider performs arthroscopic examination of the subtalar joint near the foot’s heel. He also fuses the joint with the help of a graft or implants. Arthroscopy is also known as keyhole surgery involving the provider using an arthroscope, a tiny camera, to look inside the joint and to treat the joint problems.",CPT +29914,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"In this procedure, the provider performs surgical arthroscopy of a hip with femoroplasty to treat a cam lesion. Femoroplasty means re–shaping the head of the thigh’s femur bone to restore its spherical shape. A cam lesion is a bump on the surface of the femoral head that causes femoroacetabular impingement, a condition of too much friction in the hip joint. It commonly occurs in athletes.",CPT +29915,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"In this procedure, the provider performs surgical arthroscopy of a hip using acetabuloplasty to treat a pincer lesion. Acetabuloplasty means re–shaping the acetabulum, a cup shaped socket of the hip joint, to restore its normal shape. A pincer lesion involves an abnormally shaped socket that excessively covers the femoral head thus causing femoroacetabular impingement, a condition of too much friction in the hip joint. It reduces the range of motion in the hip joint.",CPT +29916,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"In this procedure, the provider performs surgical arthroscopy of a hip along with labral repair. The labrum is fibrocartilage that lines the rim of the acetabulum, a cup–shaped socket of the hip joint. A labral tear may happen because of hip dislocation or may occur because a structural abnormality of the hip joint causes wear and tear of the labrum.",CPT +29999,Endoscopy/Arthroscopy Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,Use to report arthroscopy procedures in the musculoskeletal system that does not have a specific code.,CPT +30000,Incision Procedures on the Nose.,"In this procedure, the provider aspirates the excess fluid from within the nasal cavity, which may be due to an abscess or hematoma.",CPT +30020,Incision Procedures on the Nose.,"In this procedure, the provider aspirates excess pus or blood from within the nasal septum due to an abscess or hematoma. A nasal hematoma results from the reaccumulation of blood or previous necrosis.",CPT +30100,Excision Procedures on the Nose.,The provider removes a tissue sample from within the nasal cavity for investigation.,CPT +30110,Excision Procedures on the Nose.,In this procedure the provider removes a nasal polyp or polyps from within the nasal cavity. The provider performs this procedure to remove the obstruction that the polyp is causing.,CPT +30115,Excision Procedures on the Nose.,"In this procedure the provider removes a complicated nasal polyp or polyps from within the nasal cavity. The provider performs this detailed procedure with the help of a snare, or a wire loop, and a low power current to remove the obstruction that the polyp is causing.",CPT +30117,Excision Procedures on the Nose.,"In this procedure, the provider excises or destroys a lesion in the nose through an internal approach, in which the provider places the surgical instruments into the nose to perform the procedure.",CPT +30118,Excision Procedures on the Nose.,"In this procedure, the provider excises or destroys a lesion present within the nose through an external approach, in which he creates a full thickness incision in the nose to destroy the intranasal lesion.",CPT +30120,Excision Procedures on the Nose.,"The provider surgically excises or abrades the diseased skin tissue of the nose that results from rhinophyma, a skin condition usually affecting the tip of the nose in which skin is congested, swollen, and thickened, and the sebaceous glands are enlarged.",CPT +30124,Excision Procedures on the Nose.,The provider removes a dermoid cyst from the subcutaneous tissue of the nose requiring only a simple removal.,CPT +30125,Excision Procedures on the Nose.,"The provider removes a dermoid cyst from under the bone or cartilage of the nose, which requires complex surgical techniques.",CPT +30130,Excision Procedures on the Nose.,Excision of the inferior turbinate is generally performed due to hypertrophy of the turbinate which causes airway obstruction.,CPT +30140,Excision Procedures on the Nose.,This CPT code is for a submucous resection of the inferior turbinate (partial or complete by any method).,CPT +30150,Excision Procedures on the Nose.,Surgical removal of part of the nose is referred to as a partial rhinectomy.  Removal of an entire external nose including the soft tissue is referred to as a total rhinectomy.,CPT +30160,Excision Procedures on the Nose.,Surgical removal of part of the nose is referred to as a partial rhinectomy.  Removal of an entire external nose including the soft tissue is referred to as a total rhinectomy.,CPT +30200,Introduction Procedures on the Nose.,"Therapeutic turbinate(s) injection (also known as an intraturbinal injection) is administered in the case of rhinorrhea, nasal obstruction, or sleep disturbance.",CPT +30210,Introduction Procedures on the Nose.,"To treat an infection of the ethmoid and sphenoid sinuses, the physician drains them in a Proetz–type displacement therapy.",CPT +30220,Introduction Procedures on the Nose.,In this procedure the provider inserts a silastic button prosthesis to repair a  tear of the nasal septum.,CPT +30300,Removal of Foreign Body Procedures on the Nose.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a foreign body from a patient’s nasal cavity. It is a simple procedure that the provider may perform in an office setting.",CPT +30310,Removal of Foreign Body Procedures on the Nose.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a foreign body from a patient’s nasal cavity. Due to the shape and or deeper position of the foreign body, the provider administers general anesthesia to the patient. A general anesthetic may also be necessary if the patient is unable to tolerate the procedure or if there is edema, or swelling, near the foreign body.",CPT +30320,Removal of Foreign Body Procedures on the Nose.,"In this complex procedure, the provider creates a full thickness incision in the nose to remove a foreign body from a patient’s nasal cavity. The foreign body for this procedure is deeper and implanted within the tissues due to trauma.",CPT +30400,Repair Procedures on the Nose.,"The provider performs rhinoplasty, a surgery to repair or change the shape of the nose, on a patient who has not had the surgery before. The procedure includes surgery on the lateral (side) and alar (tip) cartilages, elevation of the nasal tip, or all of these.",CPT +30410,Repair Procedures on the Nose.,"The provider performs rhinoplasty, a surgery to repair or change the shape of the nose, on a patient who has not had the surgery before. The procedure includes surgery on the bony portions of the external nose with surgery on the lateral (side) and alar (tip) cartilages and/or elevation of the nasal tip.",CPT +30420,Repair Procedures on the Nose.,"The provider performs rhinoplasty, a surgery to repair or change the shape of the nose, on a patient who has not had the surgery before. The procedure also includes straightening the septum or other major septal repair.",CPT +30430,Repair Procedures on the Nose.,"The provider performs rhinoplasty, a surgery to repair or change the shape of the nose, on a patient who has had rhinoplasty before. The procedure is a minor revision with a small amount of work on the nasal tip.",CPT +30435,Repair Procedures on the Nose.,"The provider performs rhinoplasty, a surgery to repair or change the shape of the nose, on a patient who has had rhinoplasty before. The procedure is an intermediate revision including cutting the bone.",CPT +30450,Repair Procedures on the Nose.,"The provider performs rhinoplasty, a surgery to repair or change the shape of the nose, on a patient who has had rhinoplasty before. The procedure is a major revision, including work on the nasal tip and cutting the bone.",CPT +30460,Repair Procedures on the Nose.,"A rhinoplasty is performed either through the open or closed approach. In an open approach, transfixion and infracartilaginous (rim) incisions are made. Closed approaches can be performed through a number of approaches such as an intercartilaginous incision, infracartilaginous incision, or transfixion incision.",CPT +30462,Repair Procedures on the Nose.,"A rhinoplasty is performed either through the open or closed approach. In an open approach, transfixion and infracartilaginous (rim) incisions are made. Closed approaches can be performed through a number of approaches such as an intercartilaginous incision, infracartilaginous incision, or transfixion incision.",CPT +30465,Repair Procedures on the Nose.,"Nasal vestibular stenosis occurs due to congenital defects, trauma, or previous stenosis surgery leading to breathing problems.",CPT +30468,Repair Procedures on the Nose.,The provider repairs the collapse (narrowing) of a nasal valve by using one or more implants that rest beneath the skin or mucous membrane in the lateral wall of the nose.,CPT +30469,Repair Procedures on the Nose.,The provider applies radiofrequency energy to reshape the nasal valve in both nostrils.,CPT +30520,Repair Procedures on the Nose.,"Septoplasty is most often performed for a deviated septum which can be either C–shaped, S–shaped, or a cartilaginous deviation.",CPT +30540,Repair Procedures on the Nose.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically repairs an intranasal choanal atresia, an acquired or congenital condition, causing a blockage of the choana, an inverted funnel shaped passageway from the back of the nose to the upper throat that allows for breathing through the nose. The provider performs the repair through an intranasal approach, where he inserts surgical instruments through the nostrils.",CPT +30545,Repair Procedures on the Nose.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically repairs an intranasal choanal atresia, an acquired or congenital condition causing a blockage of the choana, an inverted funnel shaped passageway from the back of the nose to the upper throat that allows for breathing through the nose. The provider performs the repair through a transpalatine approach, or through an incision in the roof of the mouth.",CPT +30560,Repair Procedures on the Nose.,"In this procedure, the provider removes nasal synechia, or adhesions that form in the nose due to the fusion, or connection, of scar tissue that interferes with the passage of air. This condition may occur as a result of trauma, or complication of nasal surgery and the nasal packing. He uses the intranasal approach, meaning he inserts the surgical instruments through the nose.",CPT +30580,Repair Procedures on the Nose.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically repairs an oromaxillary fistula, which is an abnormal connection between the mouth and the maxillary sinus, an air cavity in the body of the maxilla.",CPT +30600,Repair Procedures on the Nose.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically repairs an oronasal fistula, or an abnormal connection between the mouth and the nasal cavity through the maxillary hard palate.",CPT +30620,Repair Procedures on the Nose.,"In this procedure, the provider removes damaged intranasal mucosal tissue and covers it with a graft.",CPT +30630,Repair Procedures on the Nose.,The provider repairs nasal septal perforations.,CPT +30801,Destruction Procedures on the Nose.,"In this procedure, the provider uses methods like bipolar cautery, reducing the tissue volume, radiofrequency, or somnoplasty to ablate the superficial area of the inferior turbinates.",CPT +30802,Destruction Procedures on the Nose.,"In this procedure, the provider uses methods like bipolar cautery, reducing the tissue volume, radiofrequency, or somnoplasty to perform ablation of the submucosal area of the inferior turbinates.",CPT +30901,Other Procedures on the Nose.,The provider uses a simple or limited approach to stop a nosebleed caused by a vessel in the front area of the nose.,CPT +30903,Other Procedures on the Nose.,The provider uses a complex or extensive approach to stop a heavy nosebleed caused by a vessel in the front area of the nose.,CPT +30905,Other Procedures on the Nose.,"In this procedure, the provider controls posterior nasal bleeding by any method. This code represents initial treatment.",CPT +30906,Other Procedures on the Nose.,CPT code is used when the patient makes a subsequent visit after the initial treatment.,CPT +30915,Other Procedures on the Nose.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision in the side of the nasal cavity to advance into the ethmoid arteries. He then binds the arteries using clips or sutures.",CPT +30920,Other Procedures on the Nose.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision in the upper gums to reach the internal maxillary artery and then ligates it using sutures or clips.",CPT +30930,Other Procedures on the Nose.,"In this procedure, the provider fractures one or more inferior turbinates to correct the overgrowth of the inferior turbinates and release the nasal airway obstruction.",CPT +30999,Other Procedures on the Nose.,Use to report procedures in the nose that do not have a specific code.,CPT +31000,Incision Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts a flexible cannula in the maxillary sinus through a cut in the antrum or through a natural opening to wash out the contents of the maxillary sinus.",CPT +31002,Incision Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts a flexible cannula to wash out the contents of the sphenoid sinus.",CPT +31020,Incision Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an intranasal incision. The provider then uses cutting forceps to perform a middle meatal sinusotomy.",CPT +31030,Incision Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,"In this procedure, the provider enters the sinus using an osteotome and removes the entire mucosa of the antrum creating a nasoantral window. He then removes the diseased materials.",CPT +31032,Incision Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision in the gums. The provider then uses an instrument to remove the entire mucus membrane of the antrum creating better drainage to the nose from the maxillary sinus. She then dissects the anterior wall to remove the polyp and other diseased material.",CPT +31040,Incision Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,"In this procedure, the provider uses any approach for a surgery involving the pterygomaxillary fossa, a trench–like structure roughly located between the upper jaw and orbit of the eye.",CPT +31050,Incision Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision into the sphenoid sinus and may perform biopsy as part of the procedure.",CPT +31051,Incision Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,"In this procedure, the provider incises the sphenoid sinus. She strips the mucosa or removes one or more polyps.",CPT +31070,Incision Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,"The provider performs trephination, meaning he punctures the skull, as part of a procedure to create an opening into the frontal sinus, Air spaces on each side of the forehead’s frontal bone lying above the eye’s orbits.",CPT +31075,Incision Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision along the inner wall of the orbit of eye to reach the frontal sinus. The provider then removes the diseased tissue, such as a cyst or a benign neoplasm, from the frontal sinus.",CPT +31080,Incision Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision above the eyebrow and extends it over to the opposite eyebrow to reach the frontal sinus. She then packs the sinus with material to obliterate the sinus, making it nonfunctional.",CPT +31081,Incision Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,"In this procedure, the provider makes a coronal incision on the scalp and advances into the frontal sinus. He then packs the sinus with material to obliterate the sinus, making it nonfunctional.",CPT +31084,Incision Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,"In this procedure, the provider makes a brow incision and advances into the frontal sinus. The provider creates a bone flap to expose the contents of the frontal sinus. He then packs the sinus with material to obliterate the sinus, making it nonfunctional. He then repositions and sutures the flap.",CPT +31085,Incision Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,"In this procedure, the provider makes a coronal incision and advances into the frontal sinus. The provider then resects an osteoplastic flap of the forehead’s frontal bone. He then packs the sinus with material to obliterate the sinus, making it nonfunctional. The provider then repositions the frontal bone flap with sutures.",CPT +31086,Incision Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,"In this procedure, the provider makes a brow incision to gain access to the frontal sinus. The provider then resects an osteoplastic flap of the frontal bone of the forehead. She excises the diseased frontal sinus tissues, such as a benign neoplasm or polyp. The provider then repositions the frontal bone flap with sutures.",CPT +31087,Incision Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,"In this procedure, the provider makes a coronal incision across the top of the scalp to gain access to the frontal sinus. The provider then cuts an osteoplastic flap of the frontal bone of the forehead. He excises the diseased tissues of the frontal sinus, such as a benign neoplasm or polyp. The provider then repositions the frontal bone flap with sutures.",CPT +31090,Incision Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,"In this procedure, the provider approaches three or more paranasal sinuses, incises them, and removes their diseased contents. The provider can use this technique to treat sinusitis of any sinus.",CPT +31200,Excision Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an intranasal incision to gain access into the anterior ethmoid sinus. The provider then removes all diseased contents from the anterior ethmoid sinus.",CPT +31201,Excision Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,"In this procedure, the provider uses an intranasal approach to access the anterior and posterior ethmoid sinuses. The provider then removes the diseased tissues and applies drains.",CPT +31205,Excision Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,"In this procedure, the provider uses an approach other than through the nose to reach the ethmoid sinuses. He clears the diseased contents of the ethmoid sinus.",CPT +31225,Excision Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an intraoral incision to expose the maxilla, which she then fractures intraoperatively to remove all or part of the diseased bone.",CPT +31230,Excision Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,"In this procedure, the provider removes the maxilla, which is the upper jaw, and the contents of the eye’s orbit as a single unit.",CPT +31231,Endoscopy Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts an endoscope into the nasal cavity to examine the structures of the nasal cavity on one or both sides.",CPT +31233,Endoscopy Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,The provider perforates the canine fossa or inferior meatus to advance an endoscope into the maxillary sinus. She then opens the maxillary sinus to perform a diagnostic endoscopy.,CPT +31235,Endoscopy Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,The provider performs a diagnostic endoscopy of the sphenoid sinus either through a puncture or through the natural opening of the sinus.,CPT +31237,Endoscopy Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts an endoscope into the nasal cavity. She examines the nasal contents. The provider then performs a nasal biopsy, polypectomy, or debridement.",CPT +31238,Endoscopy Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts an endoscope into the nasal cavity. The provider then uses bipolar cautery or other means to control bleeding.",CPT +31239,Endoscopy Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,Dacryocystorhinostomy (DCR) reduces or eliminates tearing or recurrent infections of the lacrimal system of the eye. The procedure involves the construction of a new pathway for tears to exit the eye.  This is performed by way of an incision along the side of the nose that creates an opening in the nasal bone.,CPT +31240,Endoscopy Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts an endoscope into the nasal cavity to assist with concha bullosa removal. Concha bullosa refers to an air pocket in a turbinate bone of the nose.",CPT +31241,Endoscopy Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts an endoscope through a nostril and into the nasal cavity. She examines the nasal cavity and sinuses. The provider ties off the sphenopalatine artery (SPA) to control epistaxis (nosebleed) or to control bleeding during removal of a tumor.",CPT +31242,Endoscopy Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,The provider inserts an endoscope into the nose and performs radiofrequency ablation (destruction using heat from focused radio waves) of the posterior nasal nerve.,CPT +31243,Endoscopy Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,The provider inserts an endoscope into the nose and performs cryoablation (destruction by freezing) of the posterior nasal nerve.,CPT +31253,Endoscopy Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,The provider performs a complete excision of the ethmoid air cells (anterior and posterior) with exploration of the frontal sinus; he may or may not remove tissue from frontal sinus. The procedure is performed to treat chronic sinusitis.,CPT +31254,Endoscopy Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,"Partial surgical anterior ethmoidectomy involves the removal of the uncinate process (infundibulotomy), opening of the bulla, and partial removal of the anterior ethmoid cells.",CPT +31255,Endoscopy Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,"The provider performs anterior and posterior ethmoidectomy (removal or excision of cells in the ethmoid bone or ethmoid sinus), generally performed if the anterior part and the posterior compartment of ethmoid sinus are involved with sinusitis.",CPT +31256,Endoscopy Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts an endoscope into the nasal cavity. He then gains access to the maxillary sinus through a cut in the uncinate process. The provider opens the maxillary sinus.",CPT +31257,Endoscopy Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,The provider performs a complete excision of the ethmoid air cells (anterior and posterior) and widens the opening of the sphenoid sinus cavity. The procedure is performed to treat chronic sinusitis.,CPT +31259,Endoscopy Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,The provider performs a complete excision of the ethmoid air cells (anterior and posterior) and widens the opening of the sphenoid sinus cavity via surgical nasal/sinus endoscopy. The procedure is performed to treat chronic sinusitis.,CPT +31267,Endoscopy Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts an endoscope into the nasal cavity. She then gains access to the maxillary sinus through a cut in the uncinate process. The provider opens the maxillary sinus and removes diseased tissues.",CPT +31276,Endoscopy Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts an endoscope into the frontal sinus to explore it for abnormalities. The provider may also remove bone, scar tissue, polyps, or other tissue from the frontal sinus.",CPT +31287,Endoscopy Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts an endoscope into the nasal cavity and creates an opening in the sphenoid sinus.",CPT +31288,Endoscopy Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts an endoscope into the nasal cavity. The provider widens the sphenoid sinus opening. He then removes tissues from the sphenoid sinus.",CPT +31290,Endoscopy Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts an endoscope in the nasal cavity. The provider then repairs the cerebrospinal fluid, CSF, leak in the ethmoid sinus such as by using a muscle tissue graft.",CPT +31291,Endoscopy Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts an endoscope in the nasal cavity. The provider then repairs the cerebrospinal fluid, CSF, leak in the sphenoid sinus such as by using a muscle tissue graft.",CPT +31292,Endoscopy Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,"In this procedure, the provider decompresses either the medial or inferior wall of the orbit during rigid or flexible endoscopy.",CPT +31293,Endoscopy Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,The provider passes an endoscope through the nasal cavity of the patient as part of a procedure to decompress the medial and inferior orbital walls.,CPT +31294,Endoscopy Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,The provider passes an endoscope into the nasal cavity as part of a procedure to decompress the optic nerve.,CPT +31295,Endoscopy Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,"The provider passes an endoscope into the nasal cavity of the patient. He also dilates the ostium, or opening, of the maxillary sinus. The approach is either through the nose or via a depression on the outer surface of the jaw bone called the canine fossa.",CPT +31296,Endoscopy Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,"The provider passes an endoscope through the nasal cavity of the patient to bring about dilation of the ostium, or opening, of the frontal sinus.",CPT +31297,Endoscopy Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,"The provider passes an endoscope through the nasal cavity of the patient to bring about dilation of the ostium, or opening, of the sphenoid sinus.",CPT +31298,Endoscopy Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,The provider passes an endoscope into the nasal cavity of the patient through which he passes a balloon–tipped catheter and dilates the ostium (opening) of the frontal and sphenoid sinuses.,CPT +31299,Other Procedures on the Accessory Sinuses.,Use to report procedures in the accessory sinuses that do not have a specific code.,CPT +31300,Excision Procedures on the Larynx.,"The provider performs an incision in the voice box (larynx) and removes a tumor or an abnormal air sac called a laryngocele, requiring removal of all or part of a vocal cord (cordectomy).",CPT +31360,Excision Procedures on the Larynx.,The provider removes the larynx (voice box) without radical neck dissection.,CPT +31365,Excision Procedures on the Larynx.,The provider performs a surgical procedure in which he removes the larynx (voice box) with radical neck dissection (removal of lymph nodes and other adjacent tissues).,CPT +31367,Excision Procedures on the Larynx.,"The provider performs a subtotal (partial or extended near–total) laryngectomy, removing the part of the larynx (voice box) above the vocal cords without radical neck dissection (excision of additional tissue and lymph nodes).",CPT +31368,Excision Procedures on the Larynx.,"The provider performs supraglottic laryngectomy, which is a surgical procedure in which he removes the upper part of the larynx (voice box) along with radical neck dissection (removal of lymph nodes and surrounding tissues).",CPT +31370,Excision Procedures on the Larynx.,"The provider removes part of the larynx, or voice box, through a horizontal approach.",CPT +31375,Excision Procedures on the Larynx.,"The provider removes part of the larynx, or voice box. In laterovertical hemilaryngectomy, the provider removes a vocal cord and nearby cartilage.",CPT +31380,Excision Procedures on the Larynx.,"The provider removes part of the larynx, or voice box. In anterovertical hemilaryngectomy, the provider removes the anterior commissure, where the vocal cords come together, and usually takes a portion of vocal cord, as well.",CPT +31382,Excision Procedures on the Larynx.,"The provider removes part of the larynx, or voice box. In anterovertical hemilaryngectomy, the provider removes the anterior commissure, where the vocal cords come together, and usually removes a vocal cord and underlying cartilage, as well.",CPT +31390,Excision Procedures on the Larynx.,"The provider performs pharyngolaryngectomy, in which the provider removes the pharynx and larynx. The provider commonly performs this procedure in patients with difficulty swallowing. This code does not include reconstruction.",CPT +31395,Excision Procedures on the Larynx.,"The provider performs pharyngolaryngectomy, in which the provider removes the pharynx and larynx. The provider commonly performs this procedure in patients with difficulty swallowing. This code represents pharyngolaryngectomy with reconstruction.",CPT +31400,Excision Procedures on the Larynx.,"The provider performs arytenoidectomy or arytenoidopexy using an external, rather than endoscopic, approach. Arytenoidectomy is a surgical procedure in which the provider excises the arytenoids cartilage. Arytenoidopexy is a procedure in which the provider surgically affixes the arytenoid cartilage or muscles. These procedures usually help patients with vocal cord paralysis to improve breathing.",CPT +31420,Excision Procedures on the Larynx.,"The provider performs epiglottidectomy, in which the provider excises all or a part of the patient’s epiglottis. Providers may perform this procedure in patients who have difficulty swallowing, who snore while sleeping, or who have a tumor.",CPT +31500,Introduction Procedures on the Larynx.,The provider inserts a flexible tube into the trachea (windpipe) typically via the mouth in an emergency situation to maintain an open airway in a patient with a compromised airway.,CPT +31502,Introduction Procedures on the Larynx.,The provider changes the tracheotomy tube before a fistula tract is established. This tube change helps prevent infection before the fistula tract matures.,CPT +31505,Endoscopy Procedures on the Larynx.,The provider uses a laryngeal mirror to look inside the larynx (voice box) to detect any abnormalities. This code represents a diagnostic procedure.,CPT +31510,Endoscopy Procedures on the Larynx.,"The provider uses a laryngeal mirror to look inside the larynx, which is the voice box, to detect any abnormalities. He also performs a biopsy to take a sample of the abnormal or diseased tissues of the larynx.",CPT +31511,Endoscopy Procedures on the Larynx.,"The provider uses a laryngeal mirror to look inside the larynx, which is the voice box, to detect any abnormalities. He also uses forceps to remove any foreign body inside the larynx.",CPT +31512,Endoscopy Procedures on the Larynx.,"The provider uses a laryngeal mirror to look inside the larynx, which is the voice box, to detect any abnormalities. He also uses instruments to remove any lesion inside the larynx.",CPT +31513,Endoscopy Procedures on the Larynx.,"The provider uses a laryngeal mirror to look inside the larynx, which is the voice box, to detect any abnormalities. He also injects a medication into the vocal cord to treat vocal cord paralysis, laryngitis, or other such conditions.",CPT +31515,Endoscopy Procedures on the Larynx.,"The provider uses a laryngoscope to look directly inside the larynx, which is the voice box, and aspirate any fluids or material present. He may or may not perform tracheoscopy to visualize the trachea, which is the wind pipe, from inside to detect any abnormality.",CPT +31520,Endoscopy Procedures on the Larynx.,"The provider uses a laryngoscope to look directly inside the larynx, which is the voice box, to detect any abnormality. He may or may not perform tracheoscopy to visualize the trachea, which is the wind pipe, from inside to detect any abnormality. This code is applicable for diagnostic procedures performed on an infant age 30 days or fewer.",CPT +31525,Endoscopy Procedures on the Larynx.,"The provider uses a laryngoscope to look directly inside the larynx, which is the voice box, to detect any abnormality. He may or may not perform tracheoscopy to visualize the trachea, which is the wind pipe, from inside to detect any abnormality. This code is applicable for diagnostic procedures performed on a person more than 30 days old.",CPT +31526,Endoscopy Procedures on the Larynx.,"The provider uses a laryngoscope to look directly inside the larynx, which is the voice box, to detect any abnormality. To properly visualize difficult areas, the provider uses an operating telescope or microscope. He may or may not perform tracheoscopy to visualize the trachea, which is the wind pipe, from inside to detect any abnormality. This code represents a diagnostic procedure.",CPT +31527,Endoscopy Procedures on the Larynx.,"The provider uses a laryngoscope to look directly inside the larynx, which is the voice box, to detect any abnormality and to insert an obturator. He may or may not perform tracheoscopy to visualize the trachea, which is the wind pipe, from inside to detect any abnormality.",CPT +31528,Endoscopy Procedures on the Larynx.,"The provider uses a laryngoscope to look directly inside the larynx, which is the voice box, to detect any narrowing. He also inserts a dilator through the larynx to correct the abnormal stenosis. The provider may or may not perform tracheoscopy to visualize the trachea, which is the wind pipe, from inside to detect any abnormality. This code represents initial dilation.",CPT +31529,Endoscopy Procedures on the Larynx.,"The provider uses a laryngoscope to look directly inside the larynx, which is the voice box, to detect any narrowing. He also inserts a dilator through the larynx to correct the abnormal stenosis. The provider may or may not perform tracheoscopy to visualize the trachea, which is the wind pipe, from inside to detect any abnormality. This code represents subsequent dilation.",CPT +31530,Endoscopy Procedures on the Larynx.,"The provider uses a laryngoscope to look directly inside the larynx, which is the voice box, to detect the presence of any foreign bodies. The provider uses a forceps to remove the foreign body. This code represents an operative procedure.",CPT +31531,Endoscopy Procedures on the Larynx.,"The provider uses a laryngoscope to look directly inside the larynx, which is the voice box, to detect the presence of any foreign bodies. The provider uses a forceps to remove the foreign body. The provider uses an operating telescope or microscope to properly visualize difficult areas or hidden foreign bodies.",CPT +31535,Endoscopy Procedures on the Larynx.,"The provider uses a laryngoscope to look directly inside the larynx, which is the voice box, to detect the presence of any abnormalities. He also surgically removes a sample of the abnormal or diseased tissues from the inside of the voice box for further study. This procedure is called biopsy.",CPT +31536,Endoscopy Procedures on the Larynx.,"The provider uses a laryngoscope to look directly inside the larynx, which is the voice box, to detect the presence of any abnormalities. He also surgically removes a sample of the abnormal or diseased tissues from the inside of the voice box for further study. This procedure is called biopsy. The provider uses an operating telescope or microscope to properly visualize difficult areas.",CPT +31540,Endoscopy Procedures on the Larynx.,"The provider uses a laryngoscope to look directly inside the larynx, which is the voice box, to detect the presence of an abnormal mass of tissues in the voice box of the patient. He may remove the outer layers of the vocal cord or epiglottis, which is called stripping, and/or he may excise the tumor.",CPT +31541,Endoscopy Procedures on the Larynx.,"The provider uses a laryngoscope to look directly inside the larynx, which is the voice box, to detect the presence of an abnormal mass of tissues in the voice box of the patient. He may remove the outer layers of the vocal cord or epiglottis, which is called stripping, and/or he may excise the tumor. The provider uses an operating microscope or a telescope.",CPT +31545,Endoscopy Procedures on the Larynx.,"The provider uses a laryngoscope and an operating microscope or a telescope to look directly inside the larynx, which is the voice box, to detect the presence of any abnormalities. He identifies one or more vocal cord lesions, then he excises and removes them. He creates a tissue flap and transfers it over the vocal fold.",CPT +31546,Endoscopy Procedures on the Larynx.,"In this procedure, the provider performs laryngoscopy, examination of the larynx using a flexible tube–shaped endoscope with a camera at one end. He also uses an operating microscope or telescope to assist with the procedure. He then removes one or more non–cancerous lesions, such as polyps, from the vocal cord. He also reconstructs the defect left after lesion removal by separately obtaining a mucosal tissue graft.",CPT +31551,Repair Procedures on the Larynx.,"The provider performs a laryngoplasty, or surgical repair of the larynx (voice box) and/or its structures, in a child younger than 12 years of age, using a tracheotomy to access the larynx; after dilating and releasing webs as necessary, he places a cartilage graft on the larynx for stability of the larynx and trachea (windpipe) and to correct laryngeal stenosis, or narrowing.",CPT +31552,Repair Procedures on the Larynx.,"The provider performs a laryngoplasty, or surgical repair of the larynx (voice box) and/or its structures, in a patient 12 years old or older, using a tracheotomy to access the larynx; after dilating and releasing webs as necessary, he places a cartilage graft on the larynx for stability of the larynx and trachea (windpipe) and to correct laryngeal stenosis (narrowing).",CPT +31553,Repair Procedures on the Larynx.,"The provider performs a laryngoplasty, or surgical repair of the larynx (voice box) and/or its structures, in a child younger than 12 years of age, using a tracheotomy to access the larynx; after dilating and releasing webs as necessary, he places a cartilage graft on the larynx and inserts an indwelling stent for stability of the larynx and trachea (windpipe) and to correct laryngeal stenosis, or narrowing.",CPT +31554,Repair Procedures on the Larynx.,"The provider performs a laryngoplasty, or surgical repair of the larynx (voice box) and/or its structures, in a patient 12 years old or older, using a tracheotomy to access the larynx; after dilating and releasing webs as necessary, he places a cartilage graft on the larynx and inserts an indwelling stent for stability of the larynx and trachea (windpipe) and to correct laryngeal stenosis, or narrowing.",CPT +31560,Endoscopy Procedures on the Larynx.,"The provider uses a laryngoscope to look directly inside the larynx, which is the voice box, to detect the presence of any abnormalities. The provider also performs arytenoidectomy, excising the arytenoids cartilage present at the back of the voice box.",CPT +31561,Endoscopy Procedures on the Larynx.,"The provider uses a laryngoscope to look directly inside the larynx, which is the voice box, to detect the presence of any abnormalities. The provider also performs arytenoidectomy, in which the provider excises the arytenoids cartilage present at the back of the voice box. He performs arytenoidectomy under the guidance of an operating telescope or microscope.",CPT +31570,Endoscopy Procedures on the Larynx.,"The provider uses a laryngoscope to look directly inside the larynx, which is the voice box, to detect the presence of any abnormalities. The provider then injects a therapeutic agent into one or more vocal cords.",CPT +31571,Endoscopy Procedures on the Larynx.,"The provider uses a laryngoscope to look directly inside the larynx, which is the voice box, to detect the presence of any abnormalities. The provider then injects a therapeutic agent into the one or more vocal cords under the guidance of an operating telescope or microscope.",CPT +31572,Endoscopy Procedures on the Larynx.,"The provider uses a flexible laryngoscope, a tubular instrument with a fiberoptic light source, to look inside the larynx, or voice box, to detect the presence of any abnormalities and uses a laser to ablate (destroy) any lesions he finds on a single side of the larynx.",CPT +31573,Endoscopy Procedures on the Larynx.,"The provider uses a flexible laryngoscope, a tubular instrument with a fiberoptic light source, to look inside the larynx, or voice box, to detect the presence of any abnormalities; he injects a chemical agent, such as botulinum toxin, or a corticosteroid on one side of the larynx to treat muscle spasms that cause symptoms such as spasmodic dysphonia, or to relieve swelling and inflammation that can cause stenosis (narrowing) and hoarseness.",CPT +31574,Endoscopy Procedures on the Larynx.,"The provider uses a flexible laryngoscope, a tubular instrument with a fiberoptic light source, to look inside the larynx, or voice box, to detect the presence of any abnormalities; he injects one side of the vocal folds with a temporary or permanent filler–type material to enlarge them and treat full or partial paralysis, atrophy (wasting away of tissue), or scarring of the vocal folds.",CPT +31575,Endoscopy Procedures on the Larynx.,"The provider uses a flexible laryngoscope to look inside the larynx, or voice box, to detect the presence of any abnormalities. This code applies to diagnostic services.",CPT +31576,Endoscopy Procedures on the Larynx.,"The provider uses a flexible laryngoscope to look inside the larynx, or voice box, to detect the presence of any abnormalities. He also performs a biopsy of the tissues of the larynx.",CPT +31577,Endoscopy Procedures on the Larynx.,"The provider uses a flexible laryngoscope to look inside the larynx, or voice box, to detect the presence of any abnormalities. He then removes any foreign bodies present inside the larynx.",CPT +31578,Endoscopy Procedures on the Larynx.,"The provider uses a flexible laryngoscope to look inside the larynx, or voice box, to detect the presence of any abnormalities. He then removes any lesions present inside the larynx by non–laser.",CPT +31579,Endoscopy Procedures on the Larynx.,"The provider uses a flexible or rigid laryngoscope to look inside the larynx, or voice box, to detect the presence of any abnormalities. He also performs stroboscopy, which is a method of examination of the vocal cords in which the provider illuminates and vibrates the vocal folds with a bright light for a fraction of a second allowing the examination of the voice box structure and function.",CPT +31580,Repair Procedures on the Larynx.,"The provider performs laryngoplasty, a surgical procedure in which the provider repairs or alters the larynx (voice box) or its structures. He performs this procedure to remove a congenital or acquired laryngeal web, a membranous structure spread in the larynx and vocal cords, sometimes from birth, that narrows the airway. The provider removes the laryngeal web and places a keel, or stent to prevent scar tissue from forming, and web reformation and restenosis. After the larynx has healed, the keel or stent may be removed in a separate procedure.",CPT +31584,Repair Procedures on the Larynx.,"The provider performs laryngoplasty, the surgical repair or alteration of the larynx (voice box) to repair a fracture of the larynx; the provider may also perform a tracheostomy as part of this procedure to allow the patient to breath during the procedure. A fracture may occur due to a penetrating or blunt injury caused by a motor vehicle accident (MVA), sports injury, or assault.",CPT +31587,Repair Procedures on the Larynx.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a laryngoplasty, the surgical repair or alteration of the larynx, or voice box in a procedure, known as a cricoid split. This procedure may be necessary for congenital or acquired subglottic stenosis, a narrowing of the airway below the vocal cords and above the trachea, which may be congenital or occur due to trauma or infection. A cricoid split includes transection or division by cutting across the circular laryngeal cartilage, or cricoid without placing a graft in order to enlarge the subglottic airway.",CPT +31590,Repair Procedures on the Larynx.,The provider resupplies nerves to the larynx using a neuromuscular flap to treat laryngeal and facial paralysis.,CPT +31591,Repair Procedures on the Larynx.,"The provider restores the function of the larynx, or voice box, by moving a displaced or paralyzed vocal cord, which is displaced to one side, back toward the midline (medialization) in order to improve breathing, vocalization, and swallowing.",CPT +31592,Repair Procedures on the Larynx.,"The provider removes a narrowed segment of the trachea, or windpipe, and joins the two ends back together to relieve subglottic stenosis, narrowing of the airway at the level of the cricoid cartilage, ringlike fibrous connective tissue at the base and back of the larynx, the part of the throat above the trachea.",CPT +31599,Other Procedures on the Larynx.,The provider performs a procedure on the larynx that is not otherwise listed.,CPT +31600,Incision Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,"The provider performs tracheostomy, which is a surgical procedure in which the provider exposes the trachea, which is the windpipe, and creates an opening in it. This code represents a planned tracheostomy.",CPT +31601,Incision Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,"The provider performs tracheostomy, which is a surgical procedure in which the provider exposes the trachea, which is the windpipe, and creates an opening in it. This code represents a planned tracheostomy in patients younger than two years.",CPT +31603,Incision Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,"The provider performs tracheostomy, making a transtracheal incision to expose the trachea, which is the windpipe, and to create an opening in it. This code represents an emergency procedure.",CPT +31605,Incision Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,"The provider performs tracheostomy, in which the provider makes an incision to expose the trachea, which is the windpipe, and create an opening in it. This code represents an emergency procedure with an incision into the cricothyroid membrane.",CPT +31610,Incision Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,"In this procedure, the provider creates a permanent opening through skin into the trachea by using skin flaps. The aim is to help patients with chronic conditions that cause breathing difficulties.",CPT +31611,Incision Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,"The provider surgically creates a fistula between the trachea, or wind pipe, and the esophagus, or food pipe. This code also includes subsequent insertion of a speech prosthesis in the passage created.",CPT +31612,Incision Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,"The provider punctures the trachea, which is the windpipe. He either percutaneously conducts a transtracheal aspiration and removes the secretions, or injects a medicine.",CPT +31613,Incision Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,"The provider performs a revision without flap rotation of the opening, or stoma, into the trachea, which is the wind pipe.",CPT +31614,Incision Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,"The provider performs a revision with flap rotation of the opening, or stoma, into the trachea, which is the wind pipe.",CPT +31615,Endoscopy Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,"In this procedure, the provider performs tracheobronchoscopy through a tracheal opening created earlier. In tracheobronchoscopy, the provider passes a flexible tube with a camera at one end through the opening in the trachea to view the airways of the lungs.",CPT +31622,Endoscopy Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,"In this procedure, the provider performs diagnostic rigid or flexible bronchoscopy, a test to view airways and diagnose lung disease. He may or may not use fluoroscopic guidance to perform this test. He may also perform cell washing in which he obtains a sample of suspicious cells.",CPT +31623,Endoscopy Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,"In this procedure, the provider uses a rigid or flexible bronchoscope for brushing or protected brushing, a procedure using a soft brush to gently wipe the lung tissue or to scrape a lesion. The provider may use fluoroscopic guidance.",CPT +31624,Endoscopy Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,"In this procedure, the provider uses a rigid or flexible bronchoscope for bronchial alveolar lavage, a procedure using saline solution to wash the cells from alveoli, the air sacs at the end of the bronchioles. The provider may use fluoroscopic guidance.",CPT +31625,Endoscopy Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,The provider uses a rigid or flexible bronchoscope to obtain one or more bronchial or endobronchial biopsies to diagnose lung disease. The provider may use fluoroscopic guidance.,CPT +31626,Endoscopy Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,"In addition to normal bronchoscopic examination, the provider places one or more markers to create a reference point for future treatment/surgery.",CPT +31627,Endoscopy Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider uses previously taken CT or MRI images integrated with specialized software to facilitate bronchoscopy.",CPT +31628,Endoscopy Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,The provider uses a rigid or flexible bronchoscope to obtain one or more transbronchial biopsies from a single lobe of the lung. The provider may use fluoroscopic guidance.,CPT +31629,Endoscopy Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,"The provider uses a diagnostic rigid or flexible bronchoscope to obtain one or more biopsies from the trachea, main stem, and/or lobar bronchus using a transbronchial needle aspiration technique.",CPT +31630,Endoscopy Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,"In this procedure, the provider performs rigid or flexible bronchoscopy to view airways during a procedure. He may or may not use fluoroscopic guidance. He dilates the stenosis, or narrowing, of the trachea or bronchi using techniques like balloon dilatation. He may treat tracheobronchial fracture, a tear or break that occurs in the airways, leading to obstruction or narrowing.",CPT +31631,Endoscopy Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,"In this procedure, the provider performs rigid or flexible bronchoscopy to view airways during a procedure. She may or may not use fluoroscopic guidance. She places one or more stents in the narrowed area of the trachea and may also perform dilatation of the narrowed area if required before stent placement.",CPT +31632,Endoscopy Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider uses a rigid or flexible bronchoscope to obtain one or more transbronchial biopsies from an additional lobe of the lung following biopsy of an initial lobe. The provider may use fluoroscopic guidance.",CPT +31633,Endoscopy Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider uses a diagnostic rigid or flexible bronchoscope to obtain one or more biopsies from an additional lobe using a transbronchial needle aspiration technique. The provider may use fluoroscopic guidance. This is at the same session as transbronchial needle aspiration biopsy(s) of the trachea, main stem, and/or lobar bronchus(i).",CPT +31634,Endoscopy Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,The provider uses a rigid or flexible bronchoscope to insert a balloon and inflate it in the lungs. The provider assesses for air leak and may use an occlusive substance to fix the leakage permanently. The provider may use fluoroscopic guidance.,CPT +31635,Endoscopy Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,"In this procedure, the provider performs rigid or flexible bronchoscopy to view the airways. She may or may not use fluoroscopic guidance to perform this test. She also removes a foreign body present within the airways using forceps.",CPT +31636,Endoscopy Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,"In this procedure, the provider performs rigid or flexible bronchoscopy to view airways during a procedure. He may or may not use fluoroscopic guidance. He places one or more stents in the narrowed area of the bronchus and may also perform dilatation of the narrowed area if required before stent placement.",CPT +31637,Endoscopy Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider performs rigid or flexible bronchoscopy to view airways during a procedure. She may or may not use fluoroscopic guidance. She places a stent in the narrowed area of an additional major bronchus after stent placement in an initial bronchus at the same session. She may also perform dilatation of the narrowed area if required before stent placement.",CPT +31638,Endoscopy Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,"In this procedure, the provider performs rigid or flexible bronchoscopy to view airways during a procedure. He may or may not use fluoroscopic guidance. He revises or replaces a stent placed in a narrowed area of a bronchus or trachea at a previous session. He may also perform dilatation of the narrowed area if required before revising the stent.",CPT +31640,Endoscopy Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,"In this procedure, the provider performs rigid or flexible bronchoscopy to view airways during a procedure. She may or may not use fluoroscopic guidance. She excises a tumor present in the airways.",CPT +31641,Endoscopy Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,"In this procedure, the provider performs rigid or flexible bronchoscopy to view airways during a procedure. She may or may not use fluoroscopic guidance. She uses a nonexcision method, such as by cryoprobe or laser probe, to destroy a tumor or an area of narrowing present in the airways.",CPT +31643,Endoscopy Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,"In this procedure, the provider performs rigid or flexible bronchoscopy to view airways during a procedure. He may or may not use fluoroscopic guidance. He uses the bronchoscope to introduce one or more catheters into the lung for later placement of radioactive elements in the lung cavity for radiotherapy.",CPT +31645,Endoscopy Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,"The provider uses a rigid or flexible bronchoscope to view the airways and aspirates (sucks out) fluid from the tracheobronchial tree, the branched distribution of airways of the lung that includes the trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles, or tiny branches of the airways. She may or may not use fluoroscopic guidance.",CPT +31646,Endoscopy Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,"The provider uses a rigid or flexible bronchoscope to view the airways and aspirates (sucks out) fluid from the tracheobronchial tree, the branched distribution of airways of the lung that includes the trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles, or tiny branches of the airways. She may or may not use fluoroscopic guidance. This code is for a subsequent bronchoscopy and aspiration after an initial procedure during the same hospital visit.",CPT +31647,Endoscopy Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,"Under bronchoscopic visualization, the provider assesses the extent of an air leakage and the size of the bronchial airway involved. He then places a valve in the bronchus. Placement of the valve controls inflow of air in the lung where the elasticity has been lost.",CPT +31648,Endoscopy Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,"Under bronchoscopic visualization, the provider removes one or more previously placed bronchial valves from the bronchus.",CPT +31649,Endoscopy Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider removes one or more bronchial valves from an additional lobe of the lung, subsequent to the removal of one or more bronchial valves from an initial lobe at the same session. She uses bronchoscopic visualization.",CPT +31651,Endoscopy Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider assesses the extent of an air leakage and size of the bronchial airway involved. He then places a valve in the bronchus of an additional lobe of the lung, subsequent to the placement of the bronchial valve in an initial lobe in the same session. He uses bronchoscopic visualization.",CPT +31652,Endoscopy Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,"The provider inserts a rigid or flexible lighted tubular instrument (endoscope) into the patient's lungs, with or without the aid of fluoroscopy, live X–ray images on a video display. The provider uses ultrasound guidance in the throat (trachea) and/or the major air passages to the lungs (bronchi) to take samples from one or two lymph node groupings, or stations, from the root of the lungs (hilum) or from between the lungs (mediastinal space).",CPT +31653,Endoscopy Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,"The provider inserts a rigid or flexible lighted tubular instrument (endoscope) into the patient's lungs, with or without the aid of fluoroscopy, live X–ray images on a video display. The provider uses ultrasound guidance in the throat (trachea) and/or the major air passages to the lungs (bronchi) to take samples from three or more lymph node groupings, or stations, from the root of the lungs (hilum) or from between the lungs (mediastinal space).",CPT +31654,Endoscopy Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider uses ultrasound guidance in the throat (trachea) and/or the major air passages to the lungs (bronchi) in addition to passing a rigid or flexible scope into the patient's lungs for evaluation and treatment of peripheral lesions (lesions along the margins of the areas being examined), with or without the aid of fluoroscopy, live X–ray images on a video display.",CPT +31660,Thermoplasty Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,"Under bronchoscopic visualization, the provider introduces a radiofrequency catheter into the bronchus to treat airway muscles with radiofrequency energy. The procedure is performed on any single lobe of the lungs in patients with conditions such as severe asthma.",CPT +31661,Thermoplasty Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,"Under bronchoscopic visualization, the provider introduces a radiofrequency catheter into the bronchus to treat airway muscles with radiofrequency energy. The procedure is performed on any two or more lobes of the lungs in the patients with conditions such as severe asthma.",CPT +31717,Introduction Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts a catheter with attached brush into the trachea and down to the target area to take brush biopsies for pathology.",CPT +31720,Introduction Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,"In this procedure, the provider removes excess secretions, or aspirates, from the patient’s nasopharynx and trachea with the help of a suctioning catheter.",CPT +31725,Introduction Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,"In this bedside procedure, the provider removes excess secretions, or aspirates, from the patient’s tracheobronchial tree with the help of a suctioning catheter introduced using a fiberscope.",CPT +31730,Introduction Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,The provider administers oxygen to the patient through a catheter that it is inserted into the windpipe.,CPT +31750,Excision and Repair Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,"A repair of the cervical trachea, or windpipe, to treat patients who require open airway reconstruction.",CPT +31755,Excision and Repair Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a surgical procedure of the trachea with an aim of creating a connection between the trachea and pharynx.",CPT +31760,Excision and Repair Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,"A repair of the intrathoracic trachea, or windpipe, to treat patients who require open airway reconstruction.",CPT +31766,Excision and Repair Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,The provider reconstructs the carina after removing a tumor.,CPT +31770,Excision and Repair Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,"Repair of an airway with a graft, or patch.",CPT +31775,Excision and Repair Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,The provider treats bronchial stensosis by dissecting the bronchus to treat the stenosis and then joining mucosal flaps to reestablish the airway.,CPT +31780,Excision and Repair Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,The provider excises a narrowing of the trachea and then joins tracheal segments to repair the defect and reestablish the airway.,CPT +31781,Excision and Repair Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,The provider excises a narrowing of the cervicothoracic trachea and then joins tracheal segments to repair the defect and reestablish the airway.,CPT +31785,Excision and Repair Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,The provider excises a cervical tracheal tumor.,CPT +31786,Excision and Repair Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,The provider excises a thoracic tracheal tumor.,CPT +31800,Excision and Repair Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,The provider sutures a wound closed that is in the cervical trachea.,CPT +31805,Excision and Repair Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,"In this procedure, the provider performs surgical repair of a tracheal wound or injury within the chest cavity.",CPT +31820,Excision and Repair Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,"In this procedure, the provider performs surgical closure of a tracheostomy, an opening in the trachea through the neck, or of a tracheocutaneous fistula. A tracheocutaneous fistula is a complication of a tracheostomy in which the tracheostomy does not heal properly, typically accompanied by a depressed scar over the opening between the trachea and skin. He performs the closure without plastic repair.",CPT +31825,Excision and Repair Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,"In this procedure, the provider performs surgical closure of a tracheostomy, an opening in the trachea, or of a tracheocutaneous fistula. A tracheocutaneous fistula is a complication of a tracheostomy in which the tracheostomy does not heal properly, typically accompanied by a depressed scar over the opening between the trachea and skin. He performs the closure with plastic repair.",CPT +31830,Excision and Repair Procedures on the Trachea and Bronchi.,"In this procedure, the provider removes the scar tissue formed around a tracheostomy site.",CPT +31899,Other Procedures on the Trachea or Bronchi.,Use to report a trachea and/or bronchi procedure that does not have a specific code.,CPT +32035,Incision Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,"The provider performs thoracostomy, creating an artificial opening in the chest wall. He then performs excision of a rib to remove empyema, which is accumulation of pus usually in the pleural cavity of the patient’s lungs.",CPT +32036,Incision Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,"The provider performs thoracostomy, creating an artificial opening in the chest wall to remove empyema, and making a skin flap into the pleural space to prevent tract closure.",CPT +32096,Incision Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,"In this procedure, the provider creates an open surgical incision into the pleural space/cavity of chest and takes one or more biopsies of abnormal lung infiltrates.",CPT +32097,Incision Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,"In this procedure, the provider creates an open surgical incision into the pleural space/cavity of chest and takes one or more abnormal lung mass biopsies.",CPT +32098,Incision Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,"In this procedure, the provider creates an open surgical incision into the pleural space/cavity of the chest and takes one or more biopsies of the pleura of the lung.",CPT +32100,Incision Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,"The provider performs thoracotomy, which is a surgical incision into the chest, to explore the anatomic structures and look for abnormalities.",CPT +32110,Incision Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,"The provider performs thoracotomy, which is a surgical incision into the chest, to control bleeding from trauma and/or repair any torn lung tissues.",CPT +32120,Incision Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,"The provider performs thoracotomy, which is a surgical incision into the chest. The provider performs this procedure for the surgical re–exploration of the patient’s chest to diagnose and/or treat complications from a prior procedure.",CPT +32124,Incision Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,"The provider performs thoracotomy, which is a surgical incision into the chest. The provider performs this procedure with pneumonolysis, which is the separation of an adherent lung from the pleura covering the lungs.",CPT +32140,Incision Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,"The provider performs thoracotomy, which is a surgical incision into the chest. The provider performs this procedure for removing one or more cysts from the patient’s lungs. The provider may or may not perform also perform procedure on the membrane surrounding the lungs, which is the pleura.",CPT +32141,Incision Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,"The provider performs thoracotomy, which is a surgical incision into the chest. The provider performs this procedure for the purpose of cutting out or folding over the bullae present in the patient's lung. The provider may or may not also perform a procedure on the membrane surrounding the lungs, which is the pleura.",CPT +32150,Incision Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,"The provider performs thoracotomy, which is a surgical incision into the chest. The provider performs this procedure for the purpose of removing a foreign body or protein deposits within the pleural membranes lining the lungs and chest cavity.",CPT +32151,Incision Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,"The provider performs thoracotomy, which is a surgical incision into the chest. The provider performs this procedure for the purpose of removing a foreign body from the patient's lung.",CPT +32160,Incision Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,"In cases of cardiac arrest, the provider creates an incision in the patient’s chest cavity to perform manual cardiac massage.",CPT +32200,Incision Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,The provider drains an abscess or cyst in the lungs using an open approach.,CPT +32215,Incision Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,The provider performs surgical abrasion to remove trapped air in lungs in a patient with a repeat pneumothorax.,CPT +32220,Incision Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,The provider removes the fibrous layer surrounding a lung and restricting lung expansion. Use this code for total decortication.,CPT +32225,Incision Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,The provider removes the fibrous layer surrounding a lung and restricting lung expansion. Use this code for partial decortication.,CPT +32310,Excision/Resection Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,The provider performs parietal pleurectomy by removing the lining of the chest wall.,CPT +32320,Excision/Resection Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,The provider performs decortication to remove the fibrous layer surrounding a lung and restricting lung expansion. The provider performs parietal pleurectomy by removing the lining of the chest wall.,CPT +32400,Excision/Resection Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,The provider takes tissue samples from the pleura by using a percutaneous needle. She sends the samples for pathological analysis.,CPT +32408,Excision/Resection Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a core tissue sample from a lung or the mediastinum to diagnose conditions such as lung or mediastinal cancer. The code includes imaging guidance, when performed.",CPT +32440,Removal Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,The provider performs thoracotomy to remove a lung.,CPT +32442,Removal Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,The provider performs thoracotomy to remove a lung. The provider also performs the removal of a tubular section of the trachea and then reconstructs the bronchial/tracheal passage via broncho–tracheal anastomosis.,CPT +32445,Removal Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,"The provider removes the entire lung and any visible cancer in the parietal pleural lining of the chest, heart, and diaphragm.",CPT +32480,Removal Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,The provider removes a single lobe of the lung.,CPT +32482,Removal Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,The provider removes two lobes of a lung.,CPT +32484,Removal Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,The provider removes a segment of the lung smaller than a lobe.,CPT +32486,Removal Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,The provider removes a part of the lung and repairs the resected bronchus by connecting the cut ends.,CPT +32488,Removal Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,The provider removes the remaining lung tissue in a patient who had a prior lobectomy or segmentectomy of that lung.,CPT +32491,Removal Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,The provider surgically removes the diseased emphysematous lung tissue by accessing the lung through a sternal split or transthoracic approach.,CPT +32501,Removal Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider, after removing lung lobes or a lobe segment, repairs a portion of damaged bronchus.",CPT +32503,Removal Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,The provider removes an apical lung tumor without chest wall reconstruction.,CPT +32504,Removal Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,The provider removes an apical lung tumor and performs chest wall reconstruction.,CPT +32505,Removal Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,"In this procedure, the provider creates an open surgical incision into the pleural space/cavity of chest and excises a portion of the lung as a triangular piece. This code represents the first resection during the procedure.",CPT +32506,Removal Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider excises an additional portion of lung on the same side after initial wedge resection through an open surgical incision.",CPT +32507,Removal Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider creates a surgical incision into the pleural space/cavity of the chest and performs an initial wedge resection. At the same session, he performs a separately reportable lung resection, removing all or part of the lung.",CPT +32540,Removal Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,The provider removes an intact abscess called an empyema from above the pleura (covering) of the lungs along with surrounding pleural lining.,CPT +32550,Introduction and Removal Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,The provider places a chest tube with cuff via thoracostomy using a tunneled procedure.,CPT +32551,Introduction and Removal Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,The provider uses an open cutdown incision to insert a plastic tube into the chest cavity to remove fluids and/or air from the chest cavity.,CPT +32552,Introduction and Removal Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a previously placed catheter from the pleural space, which is secured under the skin.",CPT +32553,Introduction and Removal Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,"In this procedure, the provider places one or more markers through the skin and into tumor tissue in the chest region, which can be used as a reference point for providing radiation therapy.",CPT +32554,Introduction and Removal Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,"In this procedure, the provider uses a long needle or a catheter to remove the fluid, blood, or air from the space between the lungs and chest wall.",CPT +32555,Introduction and Removal Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,"In this procedure, the provider removes the fluid, blood, or air from the space between the lungs and chest wall using a needle or catheter.  He performs the procedure using imaging guidance.",CPT +32556,Introduction and Removal Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,"Without the use of imaging guidance, the provider places a small tube through a small incision into the patient’s chest for drainage.",CPT +32557,Introduction and Removal Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,"Using imaging guidance, the provider places a small tube through a small incision into the patient’s chest for drainage.",CPT +32560,Destruction Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,The provider instills a chemical agent such as talc into the pleural space via a chest tube or catheter.,CPT +32561,Destruction Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,The provider injects a chest tube or catheter with an agent to dissolve fibrin proteins in a patient's chest. This code describes all related services on the first day of treatment.,CPT +32562,Destruction Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,The provider injects a chest tube or catheter with an agent to dissolve fibrin proteins in the patient’s chest. This code describes all related services on each day of treatment after the first.,CPT +32601,Thoracoscopy (Video-assisted thoracic surgery [VATS]) on the Lungs and Pleura.,"The provider uses an endoscope to visually examine an area of the lung, pericardial sac, or mediastinal or pleural space.",CPT +32604,Thoracoscopy (Video-assisted thoracic surgery [VATS]) on the Lungs and Pleura.,The provider uses an endoscope to visualize the thorax and takes a pericardial sac sample for pathological evaluation.,CPT +32606,Thoracoscopy (Video-assisted thoracic surgery [VATS]) on the Lungs and Pleura.,The provider uses an endoscope to visualize the thorax and takes a mediastinal sample for pathological evaluation.,CPT +32607,Thoracoscopy (Video-assisted thoracic surgery [VATS]) on the Lungs and Pleura.,"Using a video–assisted endoscopic approach, the provider takes one or more samples involving one or more abnormal substances in a single lung.",CPT +32608,Thoracoscopy (Video-assisted thoracic surgery [VATS]) on the Lungs and Pleura.,"Using a video–assisted endoscopic approach, the provider takes one or more samples of one or more nodules or masses in a single lung.",CPT +32609,Thoracoscopy (Video-assisted thoracic surgery [VATS]) on the Lungs and Pleura.,"Using a video–assisted endoscopic approach, the provider takes one or more tissue samples from the pleura, the membrane lining the chest cavity and enveloping the lungs.",CPT +32650,Thoracoscopy (Video-assisted thoracic surgery [VATS]) on the Lungs and Pleura.,"In this procedure, the provider performs thoracoscopy, using an endoscope to visually examine the pleura and lungs, to assist in performing pleurodesis. The procedure prevents pleural effusion, an abnormal accumulation of fluid within the chest cavity. In the pleurodesis procedure, she mechanically or chemically irritates the pleura, the layers covering the lungs. This in turn causes inflammation that makes the pleural layers stick together to prevent accumulation of fluid.",CPT +32651,Thoracoscopy (Video-assisted thoracic surgery [VATS]) on the Lungs and Pleura.,"Using a video–assisted endoscopic approach, the provider strips away part of the thin membrane layer surrounding the lungs.",CPT +32652,Thoracoscopy (Video-assisted thoracic surgery [VATS]) on the Lungs and Pleura.,"Using a video–assisted endoscopic approach, the provider strips away the thin membrane layer surrounding the lung, removing adhesions in the pleural space and dividing tissues attaching the lungs to the chest wall.",CPT +32653,Thoracoscopy (Video-assisted thoracic surgery [VATS]) on the Lungs and Pleura.,"Using a video–assisted endoscopic approach, the provider removes a foreign body or fibrin protein deposit from the area inside the membranes lining the lungs and pulmonary cavity.",CPT +32654,Thoracoscopy (Video-assisted thoracic surgery [VATS]) on the Lungs and Pleura.,This procedure involves visualizing the chest cavity with an endoscope and stopping a chest wound from bleeding.,CPT +32655,Thoracoscopy (Video-assisted thoracic surgery [VATS]) on the Lungs and Pleura.,"In this procedure, the provider performs thoracoscopy, using an endoscope to visually examine the pleura and lungs, to assist in removing the bullae, which are air–filled cavities within the lung tissues.",CPT +32656,Thoracoscopy (Video-assisted thoracic surgery [VATS]) on the Lungs and Pleura.,"This procedure involves visualizing the chest cavity with an endoscope and performing a parietal pleurectomy, or removing the pleura from the chest cavity.",CPT +32658,Thoracoscopy (Video-assisted thoracic surgery [VATS]) on the Lungs and Pleura.,This procedure involves visualizing the pericardial sac with an endoscope and removing a blood clot or foreign body.,CPT +32659,Thoracoscopy (Video-assisted thoracic surgery [VATS]) on the Lungs and Pleura.,"This procedure involves visualizing the pericardial sac with an endoscope, incising it, and creating a flap to drain the fluid.",CPT +32661,Thoracoscopy (Video-assisted thoracic surgery [VATS]) on the Lungs and Pleura.,"This procedure involves visualizing the pericardial sac with an endoscope to remove a pericardial cyst, tumor, or mass.",CPT +32662,Thoracoscopy (Video-assisted thoracic surgery [VATS]) on the Lungs and Pleura.,"This procedure involves visualizing the mediastinum, the middle of the chest cavity that contains the heart, aorta, and esophagus. It is located between the lungs. The provider then removes a mediastinal cyst, tumor, or mass.",CPT +32663,Thoracoscopy (Video-assisted thoracic surgery [VATS]) on the Lungs and Pleura.,This procedure involves visualizing the chest cavity and the lobe of the lung to remove it.,CPT +32664,Thoracoscopy (Video-assisted thoracic surgery [VATS]) on the Lungs and Pleura.,"In this procedure, the provider performs thoracoscopy, using an endoscope to visually examine the pleura and lungs, to assist with destroying a portion of the sympathetic nerve trunk in the chest area. The provider may perform this procedure to treat hyperhydrosis, a condition characterized by excessive sweating.",CPT +32665,Thoracoscopy (Video-assisted thoracic surgery [VATS]) on the Lungs and Pleura.,The provider uses a thoracoscope (an endoscope used in the chest) to access and incise the muscular wall of the esophagus.,CPT +32666,Thoracoscopy (Video-assisted thoracic surgery [VATS]) on the Lungs and Pleura.,"This procedure involves visualizing the chest cavity and the lung in order to resect, or remove, a section of the lung where a mass or nodule is located.",CPT +32667,Thoracoscopy (Video-assisted thoracic surgery [VATS]) on the Lungs and Pleura.,"This procedure involves visualizing the chest cavity and the lung in order to resect, or remove, an additional section of the lung where a mass or nodule is located. The provider performs this procedure after first resecting another section of the lung.",CPT +32668,Thoracoscopy (Video-assisted thoracic surgery [VATS]) on the Lungs and Pleura.,"This procedure involves visualizing the chest cavity and the lung in order to resect, or remove, more than one section of the lung for diagnostic and therapeutic purposes.",CPT +32669,Thoracoscopy (Video-assisted thoracic surgery [VATS]) on the Lungs and Pleura.,This procedure involves visualizing the chest cavity and the lung in order to excise a segment of the lung.,CPT +32670,Thoracoscopy (Video-assisted thoracic surgery [VATS]) on the Lungs and Pleura.,This procedure involves visualizing the chest cavity and the lobes of the right lung to remove them.,CPT +32671,Thoracoscopy (Video-assisted thoracic surgery [VATS]) on the Lungs and Pleura.,This procedure involves visualizing the chest cavity and the left or right lung in order to remove it.,CPT +32672,Thoracoscopy (Video-assisted thoracic surgery [VATS]) on the Lungs and Pleura.,This procedure involves visualizing the chest cavity and the section of the emphysematous lung to remove. Lung volume reduction involves removing approximately 30% of lung tissue that functions poorly due to emphysema.,CPT +32673,Thoracoscopy (Video-assisted thoracic surgery [VATS]) on the Lungs and Pleura.,"This procedure involves visualizing the chest cavity and the thymus in order to remove one of its lobes, unilateral, or both, bilateral.",CPT +32674,Thoracoscopy (Video-assisted thoracic surgery [VATS]) on the Lungs and Pleura.,This procedure involves visualizing the chest cavity and the mediastinal lymph nodes in order to remove them.,CPT +32701,Stereotactic Radiation Therapy Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,"Target delineation identifies the borders of tumors, their volume, and how far they have spread to adjacent structures to determine where to direct radiation treatment for cancer.",CPT +32800,Repair Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,"The provider surgically repairs part of a lung that is pushing through a tear or weak spot in the chest wall, neck passageway, or diaphragm.",CPT +32810,Repair Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,"In this procedure, the provider performs closure of the chest wall after continuous drainage and irrigation of empyema, which is pus in the chest cavity.",CPT +32815,Repair Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,"The provider performs surgical closure of a fistula, which is a large abnormal passage or communicating tract between a bronchus and another body part such as the pleural surface of the lung or cutaneous surface of the thoracic wall.",CPT +32820,Repair Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,"The provider performs surgical stabilization of the chest wall after trauma using various approaches to bridge any defect and provide support for the chest wall. The provider aims to restore the chest wall’s function and structure, including protection, respiration, support, and an acceptable aesthetic appearance.",CPT +32850,Lung Transplantation Procedures.,The provider removes a lung or lungs from a deceased donor. This code also includes the cold preservation of the lung or lungs for transplantation.,CPT +32851,Lung Transplantation Procedures.,The provider performs a surgical procedure without cardiopulmonary bypass to replace a single lung with a healthy lung from a cadaver or living donor.,CPT +32852,Lung Transplantation Procedures.,The provider performs a surgical procedure including cardiopulmonary bypass to replace a single lung with a healthy lung from a cadaver or living donor.,CPT +32853,Lung Transplantation Procedures.,The provider performs a surgical procedure without cardiopulmonary bypass to replace both lungs with healthy lungs from a cadaver or living donor.,CPT +32854,Lung Transplantation Procedures.,The provider performs a surgical procedure including cardiopulmonary bypass to replace both lungs with healthy lungs from a cadaver or living donor.,CPT +32855,Lung Transplantation Procedures.,The provider prepares a single donor lung for transplant into the patient.,CPT +32856,Lung Transplantation Procedures.,The provider prepares donor lungs for transplant into the patient.,CPT +32900,Surgical Collapse Therapy Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,"In this procedure, the provider removes one or more of the patient’s ribs or a section of a rib.",CPT +32905,Surgical Collapse Therapy Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,"This procedure repairs the chest cavity, most typically performed to treat empyema.",CPT +32906,Surgical Collapse Therapy Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,"In this procedure, the provider performs excision of the ribs to remove support around the lungs. This causes lateral collapse of the chest wall and pleural cavity in patients suffering from empyema, cavitary tuberculosis, or a bronchopleural fistula. In addition to rib excision, the provider also closes a bronchopleural fistula.",CPT +32940,Surgical Collapse Therapy Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,"In this procedure, the provider incises the chest cavity and releases the adherent lung from the surrounding chest wall tissues.",CPT +32960,Surgical Collapse Therapy Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,"In this procedure, the provider injects air inside the pleural cavity to partially collapse the lungs for treatment purposes, most commonly for tuberculosis.",CPT +32994,Other Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,"In this unilateral procedure, the provider uses a minimally invasive approach to introduce a wandlike needle (cryoprobe) into the chest cavity to destroy (ablate) tumor cells in the lung, pleura, or chest wall by freezing the tissue. Imaging guidance, if used, is included.",CPT +32997,Other Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,"In this procedure, the provider washes out the lung using saline water and the help of bronchoscopy.",CPT +32998,Other Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,"In this unilateral procedure, the provider uses a minimally invasive approach to introduce a needle electrode into the chest cavity. The electrode generates heat using radio waves, which the provider uses to destroy tumor cells in the lung, pleura, or chest wall. The provider may or may not use imaging guidance.Â",CPT +32999,Other Procedures on the Lungs and Pleura.,Use to report procedures in the lungs and pleura that do not have a specific code.,CPT +33016,Surgical Procedures on the Pericardium.,The provider uses a needle inserted through the chest wall and into the pericardium to drain fluid from the pericardial space; imaging guidance is included in this code when performed.,CPT +33017,Surgical Procedures on the Pericardium.,The provider uses a needle inserted through the chest wall to drain fluid from around the heart in a patient without congenital cardiac anomaly who is 6 years old or older; he also inserts a catheter and leaves it indwelling for continued drainage. Fluoroscopy and/or ultrasound guidance is included in this code when performed.,CPT +33018,Surgical Procedures on the Pericardium.,The provider uses a needle inserted through the chest wall to drain fluid from around the heart in a patient who is newborn up through 5 years of age or in any patient of any age with a congenital cardiac anomaly; he also inserts a catheter and leaves it indwelling for continued drainage. Fluoroscopy and/or ultrasound guidance is included in this code when performed.,CPT +33019,Surgical Procedures on the Pericardium.,The provider uses a needle inserted through the chest wall to drain fluid from around the heart; he also inserts a catheter and leaves it indwelling for continued drainage. Computed tomography guidance is included in this code when performed.,CPT +33020,Surgical Procedures on the Pericardium.,The provider removes a clot or foreign body from pericardial space.,CPT +33025,Surgical Procedures on the Pericardium.,The provider creates an opening in the pericardium to facilitate drainage of pericardial fluids.,CPT +33030,Surgical Procedures on the Pericardium.,The provider removes damaged pericardial tissue without cardiopulmonary bypass.,CPT +33031,Surgical Procedures on the Pericardium.,"In this procedure, the provider excises pericardium, the outer covering of the heart, completely or partially. He places the patient on cardiopulmonary bypass to take over the function of the heart and lungs during the procedure.",CPT +33050,Surgical Procedures on the Pericardium.,"The provider removes a tumor or cyst from the pericardium, the membrane covering the heart.",CPT +33120,Excision Procedures of Cardiac Tumor.,The provider removes a tumor from the heart with the patient on cardiopulmonary bypass.,CPT +33130,Excision Procedures of Cardiac Tumor.,The provider removes a tumor from the pericardium.,CPT +33140,Transmyocardial Revascularization Procedures.,The provider uses laser revascularization to restore blood flow to the heart using a thoracotomy for approach.,CPT +33141,Transmyocardial Revascularization Procedures.,The provider uses laser revascularization to restore blood flow to the heart. She performs this service at the same encounter as another open cardiac procedure such as coronary artery bypass.,CPT +33202,Pacemaker or Implantable Defibrillator Procedures.,The provider inserts one or more electrodes on the epicardial surface and pericardium as necessary through an open incision.,CPT +33203,Pacemaker or Implantable Defibrillator Procedures.,"The provider inserts one or more electrodes on the outside of the heart using an endoscopic approach, such as thoracoscopy or pericardioscopy.",CPT +33206,Pacemaker or Implantable Defibrillator Procedures.,The provider inserts a permanent pacemaker generator and implants one or more leads into the right atrium.,CPT +33207,Pacemaker or Implantable Defibrillator Procedures.,The provider inserts or replaces a permanent pacemaker and implants one or more electrodes into the right ventricle.,CPT +33208,Pacemaker or Implantable Defibrillator Procedures.,The provider inserts or replaces a permanent pacemaker and implants electrodes into the right atrium and right ventricle.,CPT +33210,Pacemaker or Implantable Defibrillator Procedures.,The provider inserts or replaces a temporary pacemaker and implants it into the appropriate chamber.,CPT +33211,Pacemaker or Implantable Defibrillator Procedures.,The provider inserts or replaces temporary transvenous dual chamber pacing electrodes and attaches them to an external temporary generator box.,CPT +33212,Pacemaker or Implantable Defibrillator Procedures.,"The provider places a new pacemaker pulse generator in the patient in a subcutaneous pocket in front of the chest. The provider performs this procedure primarily for artificial regulation of heart beats by the device in patients with arrhythmia, which is irregular heart rhythm. He performs this procedure for a patient with a lead in a single chamber of the heart.",CPT +33213,Pacemaker or Implantable Defibrillator Procedures.,The provider inserts a dual pacemaker pulse generator and connects it to previously placed leads.,CPT +33214,Pacemaker or Implantable Defibrillator Procedures.,The provider converts a single chamber pacemaker to dual chamber system by adding an electrode to the right atrium and replacing the generator.,CPT +33215,Pacemaker or Implantable Defibrillator Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider repositions an electrode that is already in place within the right atrium or right ventricle of a patient’s heart. This procedure is done for a pacemaker implant or implantable defibrillator that is not functioning properly due to improper electrode placement or lead dislodgement.",CPT +33216,Pacemaker or Implantable Defibrillator Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts a single electrode transvenously, or through a vein, and connects it to a permanent pacemaker or implantable defibrillator already in place. This procedure is done for a pacemaker implant or implantable defibrillator that is not functioning properly due to a problem with the electrode.",CPT +33217,Pacemaker or Implantable Defibrillator Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts two electrodes transvenously, through the vein and connects it to a permanent pacemaker or implantable defibrillator already in place. This procedure is done for a pacemaker implant or implantable defibrillator that is not functioning properly due to a problem with the electrode.",CPT +33218,Pacemaker or Implantable Defibrillator Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider disconnects and repairs a single electrode from an impulse generator, like a pacemaker or an implanted cardiac defibrillator, and then reattaches the electrode to the generator. He performs this service for a pacemaker implant or implantable defibrillator that is not functioning properly due to a problem with the electrode.",CPT +33220,Pacemaker or Implantable Defibrillator Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider disconnects and repairs two electrodes from an impulse generator, like a pacemaker or an implanted cardiac defibrillator, and then reattaches the electrodes to the generator. He performs this service for a pacemaker implant or implantable defibrillator that is not functioning properly due to a problem with the electrode.",CPT +33221,Pacemaker or Implantable Defibrillator Procedures.,"The provider places a new pacemaker pulse generator in the patient in a subcutaneous pocket in front of the chest. The provider performs this procedure primarily for artificial regulation of heart beats by the device in patients with arrhythmia, which is irregular heart rhythm. He performs this procedure for a patient with a lead in at least three chambers of the heart.",CPT +33222,Pacemaker or Implantable Defibrillator Procedures.,"In a patient with an existing pacemaker pocket, the physician creates a new pocket in a different location and relocates the pacer",CPT +33223,Pacemaker or Implantable Defibrillator Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider creates a new pocket in a different location and relocates the defibrillator device pocket in a patient with an existing implantable defibrillator. The provider performs this procedure as a result of a complication such as an infection or erosion at the original site.",CPT +33224,Pacemaker or Implantable Defibrillator Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider introduces an additional pacing electrode for left ventricular pacing through a vein and advances it to the left ventricle. He attaches the electrode to an existing pacemaker or implantable defibrillator. He may also revise, remove and insert, or replace the existing impulse generator. The provider performs this procedure in patients with a high risk of heart failure who need biventricular pacing to help keep the heart beat in balance.",CPT +33225,Pacemaker or Implantable Defibrillator Procedures.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider introduces an additional pacing electrode for left ventricular pacing through a vein and advances it to the left ventricle at the same time as he inserts an implantable defibrillator or pacemaker pulse generator. The provider performs this procedure in patients with sick sinus syndrome, arterioventricular block, or both, with the goal to upgrade the pacemaker to a dual chamber system.",CPT +33226,Pacemaker or Implantable Defibrillator Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider repositions the electrode already in place in the left ventricular chamber of the heart. He also revises the skin pocket and removes, inserts, and or replaces the existing generator.",CPT +33227,Pacemaker or Implantable Defibrillator Procedures.,"The provider removes a previously placed pacemaker pulse generator from the patient and replaces it with a new one. The provider performs this procedure primarily for artificial regulation of heart beats by the device in patients with arrhythmia, which is irregular heart rhythm. He performs this procedure for a patient with a lead in a single chamber of the heart.",CPT +33228,Pacemaker or Implantable Defibrillator Procedures.,"The provider removes a previously placed pacemaker pulse generator from the patient and replaces it with a new one. The provider performs this procedure primarily for artificial regulation of heart beats by the device in patients with arrhythmia, which is irregular heart rhythm. He performs this procedure for a patient with leads in two chambers of the heart.",CPT +33229,Pacemaker or Implantable Defibrillator Procedures.,"The provider removes a previously placed pacemaker pulse generator from the patient and replaces it with a new one. The provider performs this procedure primarily for artificial regulation of heart beats by the device in patients with arrhythmia, which is irregular heart rhythm. He performs this procedure for a patient with leads in at least three chambers of the heart.",CPT +33230,Pacemaker or Implantable Defibrillator Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider places a new implantable defibrillator pulse generator in a subcutaneous pocket in the front of a patient’s chest. The provider performs this procedure for a patient with a lead in two chambers of the heart. This service is primarily done for artificial regulation of a patient’s heart rate by the device in patients with arrhythmia, which is an irregular heart rhythm.",CPT +33231,Pacemaker or Implantable Defibrillator Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider places a new implantable defibrillator pulse generator in a patient in a subcutaneous pocket in the front of a patient’s chest. The provider performs this procedure for a patient with a lead in at least three chambers of the heart. This service is primarily done for artificial regulation of a patient’s heart rate by the device in patients with arrhythmia, which is an irregular heart rhythm.",CPT +33233,Pacemaker or Implantable Defibrillator Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider opens the cardiac device pocket and removes the permanent pacemaker pulse generator.",CPT +33234,Pacemaker or Implantable Defibrillator Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision to open the pacemaker pocket and disconnects and removes a single atrial or ventricular electrode lead.",CPT +33235,Pacemaker or Implantable Defibrillator Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision to open the pacemaker pocket and disconnects and removes two electrode leads from the generator.",CPT +33236,Pacemaker or Implantable Defibrillator Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a thoracotomy, to open the chest wall and remove the pacemaker system along with the atrial or ventricular electrode lead from the heart surface. He removes the subcutaneous pacemaker generator, from just under the skin in the chest wall. The pacemaker system includes the pacemaker generator, which a small battery powered computer like device and the lead wires that connect the heart muscle to the pacemaker generator.",CPT +33237,Pacemaker or Implantable Defibrillator Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a thoracotomy, to open the chest wall and remove the pacemaker system along with the two electrode leads from the heart surface. She also removes the subcutaneous pacemaker generator, just under the skin in the chest wall. A pacemaker system includes a pacemaker generator, a small battery powered computer like device and lead wires that connect the heart muscle to the pacemaker generator.",CPT +33238,Pacemaker or Implantable Defibrillator Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a thoracotomy, to open the chest wall and remove the permanent transvenous electrode from the heart surface. This procedure usually occurs after the removal of the generator and the cutting only of the leads in a prior procedure.",CPT +33240,Pacemaker or Implantable Defibrillator Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider places a new implantable defibrillator pulse generator in a patient in a subcutaneous pocket in the front of the patient’s chest. The provider performs this procedure for a patient with a lead in one chamber of the heart. The service is primarily done for artificial regulation of a patient’s heart rate by the device in patients with arrhythmia, which is an irregular heart rhythm.",CPT +33241,Pacemaker or Implantable Defibrillator Procedures.,The provider opens the surgically created pocket in the chest wall and removes an implantable defibrillator pulse generator. Defibrillators sense and regulate the heart rate by delivering a mild electric shock when the patient requires it. Components need to be removed when they no longer function properly or when an infection occurs.,CPT +33243,Pacemaker or Implantable Defibrillator Procedures.,"The provider performs a thoracotomy, an incision in the chest wall, and opens the chest cavity to remove a single or dual chamber implantable defibrillator electrode. Defibrillators sense and regulate the heart rate by delivering a mild electric shock when the patient requires it. Components need to be removed when they no longer function properly or when an infection occurs.",CPT +33244,Pacemaker or Implantable Defibrillator Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider incises the skin of the chest over the cardiac device pocket and disconnects and removes a single or dual chamber implantable defibrillator. She removes the electrode lead by transvenous extraction, which means she pulls it out through a vein. Defibrillators sense and regulate the heart rate by delivering a mild electric shock when the patient requires it. Components need to be removed when they no longer function properly or when an infection occurs.",CPT +33249,Pacemaker or Implantable Defibrillator Procedures.,The provider either replaces or implants a new permanent defibrillator system with single or dual chamber transvenous leads or electrodes. Defibrillators sense and regulate the heart rate by delivering a mild electric shock when the patient requires it. Components need to be removed when they no longer function properly or when an infection occurs.,CPT +33250,Incisional Electrophysiologic Procedures on the Heart and Pericardium.,"In this procedure, the provider destroys a small area of the heart above the ventricles of the heart that is causing an abnormal heart rhythm. The provider does not place the patient on cardiopulmonary bypass during this procedure.",CPT +33251,Incisional Electrophysiologic Procedures on the Heart and Pericardium.,"In this procedure, the provider destroys a small area of the heart above the ventricles of the heart that is causing an abnormal heart rhythm. The provider places the patient on cardiopulmonary bypass during the procedure.",CPT +33254,Incisional Electrophysiologic Procedures on the Heart and Pericardium.,"In this procedure, the provider destroys tissue of the atria of the heart causing an abnormal heart rhythm, and then she reconstructs the left and right atrium, or the chambers at the top of the heart that receive the blood returning from the veins. The procedure treats atrial fibrillation, a condition in which abnormal electrical signals cause the atria, or the upper two chambers of the heart to contract rapidly and irregularly.",CPT +33255,Incisional Electrophysiologic Procedures on the Heart and Pericardium.,"In this procedure, the provider destroys extensive tissue of the atria of the heart causing an abnormal heart rhythm and then reconstructs the left and right atrium, or the chambers at the top of the heart that receive the blood returning from the veins. The procedure treats atrial fibrillation, a condition in which abnormal electrical signals cause the atria, the upper two chambers of the heart to contract rapidly and irregularly. The provider does not place the patient on cardiopulmonary bypass during this procedure.",CPT +33256,Incisional Electrophysiologic Procedures on the Heart and Pericardium.,"In this procedure, the provider destroys extensive  tissue of the atria of the heart causing an abnormal heart rhythm and then reconstructs the left and right atrium, or the chambers at the top of the heart that receive the blood returning from the veins. The procedure treats atrial fibrillation, a condition in which abnormal electrical signals cause the atria, the upper two chambers of the heart to contract rapidly and irregularly. The provider places the patient on cardiopulmonary bypass during this procedure.",CPT +33257,Incisional Electrophysiologic Procedures on the Heart and Pericardium.,"In this add–on procedure, at the same time as another cardiac procedure, the provider destroys abnormal tissue of the atria of the heart causing an abnormal heart rhythm, and then she reconstructs the left and right atrium, or the chambers at the top of the heart that receive the blood returning from the veins. The procedure treats atrial fibrillation, a condition in which abnormal electrical signals cause the atria to contract rapidly and irregularly.",CPT +33258,Incisional Electrophysiologic Procedures on the Heart and Pericardium.,"In this procedure, and at the same time as another cardiac procedure, the provider destroys the extensive abnormal tissue of the atria of the heart causing an abnormal heart rhythm and then performs extensive reconstruction of the left and right atrium, or the chambers at the top of the heart that receive the blood returning from the veins. The procedure treats atrial fibrillation, a condition in which abnormal electrical signals cause the atria, or the upper two chambers of the heart, to contract rapidly and irregularly. The provider does not place the patient on cardiopulmonary bypass during this procedure.",CPT +33259,Incisional Electrophysiologic Procedures on the Heart and Pericardium.,"In this procedure, at the same time as another cardiac procedure, the provider destroys extensive tissue of the atria of the heart causing an abnormal heart rhythm and then performs an extensive reconstruction of the left and right atrium, or the chambers at the top of the heart that receive the blood returning from the veins. The procedure treats atrial fibrillation, a condition in which abnormal electrical signals causes the atria, the upper two chambers of the heart, to contract rapidly and irregularly. The provider places the patient on cardiopulmonary bypass during this procedure.",CPT +33261,Incisional Electrophysiologic Procedures on the Heart and Pericardium.,"In this procedure, the provider destroys a small area of the ventricle of the heart that is causing an abnormal heart rhythm. The provider places the patient on cardiopulmonary bypass during this procedure.",CPT +33262,Pacemaker or Implantable Defibrillator Procedures.,The provider removes a previously placed implantable defibrillator pulse generator from the patient and replaces it with a new one. He performs this procedure for a patient with a lead to a single chamber of the heart. Defibrillators sense and regulate the heart rate by delivering a mild electric shock when the patient requires it. Components need to be removed when they no longer function properly or when an infection occurs.,CPT +33263,Pacemaker or Implantable Defibrillator Procedures.,The provider removes a previously placed implantable defibrillator pulse generator from the patient and replaces it with a new one. He performs this procedure for a patient with leads to two chambers of the heart. Defibrillators sense and regulate the heart rate by delivering a mild electric shock when the patient requires it. Components need to be removed when they no longer function properly or when an infection occurs.,CPT +33264,Pacemaker or Implantable Defibrillator Procedures.,The provider removes a previously placed implantable defibrillator pulse generator from the patient and replaces it with a new one. He performs this procedure for a patient with leads to at least three chambers of the heart. Defibrillators sense and regulate the heart rate by delivering a mild electric shock when the patient requires it. Components need to be removed when they no longer function properly or when an infection occurs.,CPT +33265,Endoscopic Electrophysiologic Procedures on the Heart and Pericardium.,"In this procedure, the provider uses an endoscope, to destroy tissue of the atria of the heart and to reconstruct the left and right atrium, or the chambers at the top of the heart that receive the blood returning from the veins. This procedure treats atrial fibrillation and aims to restore the normal rhythm of the heart. The provider performs this procedure without cardiopulmonary bypass.",CPT +33266,Endoscopic Electrophysiologic Procedures on the Heart and Pericardium.,"In this procedure, the provider uses an endoscope to perform a procedure, known as a maze procedure, to destroy tissue of the atria of the heart and to reconstruct the left and right atrium, or the chambers at the top of the heart that receive the blood returning from the veins. This procedure treats atrial fibrillation and aims to restore the normal rhythm of the heart. The provider performs this procedure without cardiopulmonary bypass.",CPT +33267,Incisional Electrophysiologic Procedures on the Heart and Pericardium.,"The provider performs exclusion, such as by excision, of the left atrial appendage, a small, pouchlike sac in the top left chamber of the heart. This is an open surgical procedure.",CPT +33268,Incisional Electrophysiologic Procedures on the Heart and Pericardium.,"At the same session as a primary procedure requiring sternotomy or thoracotomy, the provider performs exclusion, such as by excision, of the left atrial appendage, a small, pouchlike sac in the top left chamber of the heart.",CPT +33269,Endoscopic Electrophysiologic Procedures on the Heart and Pericardium.,"The provider performs exclusion, such as by excision, of the left atrial appendage, a small, pouchlike sac in the top left chamber of the heart. This is a minimally invasive thoracoscopic surgical procedure.",CPT +33270,Pacemaker or Implantable Defibrillator Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts or replaces a permanent subcutaneous implantable cardioverter defibrillator system. When necessary, he evaluates the device functionality by performing a defibrillation threshold evaluation, induction of arrhythmia, evaluation of sensing for arrhythmia termination, and he programs or reprograms the sensing or therapeutic parameters as the patient requires.",CPT +33271,Pacemaker or Implantable Defibrillator Procedures.,The provider inserts a subcutaneous implantable defibrillator electrode into the patient’s heart. The provider commonly performs this procedure to treat life threatening cardiac dysrhythmias that cause irregular heartbeats.,CPT +33272,Pacemaker or Implantable Defibrillator Procedures.,The provider removes a subcutaneous implantable defibrillator electrode from the patient’s heart without replacing it.,CPT +33273,Pacemaker or Implantable Defibrillator Procedures.,The provider repositions a previously implanted subcutaneous implantable defibrillator electrode in the patient’s heart.,CPT +33274,Pacemaker or Implantable Defibrillator Procedures.,"The provider inserts or replaces a permanent leadless pacemaker into the right ventricle via a catheter inserted through the femoral vein. This code includes imaging guidance and testing/programming of the leadless pacemaker when performed, so those services cannot be reported separately.",CPT +33275,Pacemaker or Implantable Defibrillator Procedures.,"The provider removes a permanent leadless pacemaker (LP) from the right ventricle via a steerable catheter placed through the femoral vein. This code includes imaging guidance and testing/programming of the leadless pacemaker when performed, so those services cannot be reported separately.",CPT +33276,Phrenic Nerve Stimulation System.,"The provider inserts a phrenic nerve stimulator system, including a pulse generator and one or more stimulating leads. The code includes all necessary vessel catheterization, imaging guidance, and pulse generator analysis and diagnostic activation, if performed.",CPT +33277,Phrenic Nerve Stimulation System.,"At the same session as phrenic nerve stimulator system insertion or pulse generator replacement, the provider inserts a sensing lead into a vein.",CPT +33278,Phrenic Nerve Stimulation System.,"The provider removes a phrenic nerve stimulator system, including a pulse generator and one or more leads. The code includes all necessary vessel catheterization, imaging guidance, and interrogation and programming, if performed.",CPT +33279,Phrenic Nerve Stimulation System.,"The provider removes a phrenic nerve stimulator system’s stimulation or sensing leads. The code includes all necessary vessel catheterization, imaging guidance, and interrogation and programming, if performed.",CPT +33280,Phrenic Nerve Stimulation System.,"The provider removes a phrenic nerve stimulator system’s pulse generator. The code includes all necessary vessel catheterization, imaging guidance, and interrogation and programming, if performed.",CPT +33281,Phrenic Nerve Stimulation System.,The provider repositions one or more leads for a phrenic nerve stimulator system.,CPT +33285,Introduction or Removal of Subcutaneous Cardiac Rhythm Monitor.,The provider inserts a cardiac rhythm monitor with self–contained electrodes into a pocket in the tissues beneath the patient's skin and programs the device according to manufacturer’s directions.,CPT +33286,Introduction or Removal of Subcutaneous Cardiac Rhythm Monitor.,The provider removes a cardiac rhythm monitor from a pocket in the tissues below the patient’s skin.,CPT +33287,Phrenic Nerve Stimulation System.,"The provider removes and replaces a phrenic nerve stimulator system’s pulse generator. The code includes all necessary vessel catheterization, imaging guidance, and interrogation and programming, if performed.",CPT +33288,Phrenic Nerve Stimulation System.,"The provider removes and replaces a phrenic nerve stimulator system’s lead or leads. The code includes all necessary vessel catheterization, imaging guidance, and interrogation and programming, if performed.",CPT +33289,Implantation of Hemodynamic Monitor.,The provider permanently implants a wireless sensor into the pulmonary artery (PA) during catheterization to monitor pulmonary artery pressures and calibrates the sensor; this code covers both right heart and pulmonary artery catheterization and pulmonary arteriography with radiological supervision and interpretation (RS&I) when performed.,CPT +33300,Surgical Procedures on the Heart (Including Valves) and Great Vessels.,"In this procedure, the provider repairs a wound to the heart without the need to place the patient on a cardiopulmonary bypass, or CPB, machine.",CPT +33305,Surgical Procedures on the Heart (Including Valves) and Great Vessels.,"In this procedure, the provider repairs a wound to the heart with the patient on a cardiopulmonary bypass, or CPB, machine.",CPT +33310,Surgical Procedures on the Heart (Including Valves) and Great Vessels.,"In this procedure, the provider incises the heart to find and remove a foreign body or clot in the heart. The provider does not place the patient on a cardiopulmonary bypass, or CPB, machine to perform this procedure.",CPT +33315,Surgical Procedures on the Heart (Including Valves) and Great Vessels.,"In this procedure, the provider incises the heart to find and remove a foreign body or clot in the heart. The provider places the patient on a cardiopulmonary bypass, or CPB, machine to perform this procedure.",CPT +33320,Surgical Procedures on the Heart (Including Valves) and Great Vessels.,"In this procedure, the provider uses sutures to repair the great vessels of the heart, or the large vessels that bring blood to and from the heart, including the aorta, the pulmonary arteries and veins, or the vena cava. The provider does not use a shunt or cardiopulmonary bypass, or CPB, to perform this procedure.",CPT +33321,Surgical Procedures on the Heart (Including Valves) and Great Vessels.,"In this procedure, the provider uses sutures to repair the great vessels of the heart, or the large vessels that bring blood to and from the heart, including the aorta, the pulmonary arteries and veins, or the vena cava. The provider uses a shunt bypass to perform this procedure.",CPT +33322,Surgical Procedures on the Heart (Including Valves) and Great Vessels.,"In this procedure, the provider uses sutures to repair the great vessels of the heart, or the large vessels that bring blood to and from the heart, including the aorta, the pulmonary arteries and veins, or the vena cava. The provider uses cardiopulmonary bypass, or CPB, to perform this procedure.",CPT +33330,Surgical Procedures on the Heart (Including Valves) and Great Vessels.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts a graft into the great vessels of the heart, or the large vessels that bring blood to and from the heart, including the aorta, the pulmonary arteries and veins, or the vena cava. The provider does not use a shunt or cardiopulmonary bypass, or CPB, to perform this procedure.",CPT +33335,Surgical Procedures on the Heart (Including Valves) and Great Vessels.,The provider repairs the aorta or another great vessel using a graft while the patient is on cardiopulmonary bypass.,CPT +33340,Surgical Procedures on the Heart (Including Valves) and Great Vessels.,"The provider implants a device that he delivers through a catheter placed through the skin under fluoroscopic guidance and across the septum to close off the left atrial appendage, uses angiography to visualize and define the left atrium (upper chamber of the heart) and appendage if necessary, and interprets the angiography if performed.",CPT +33361,Surgical Procedures on the Aortic Valve.,"The provider uses a catheter to insert an aortic valve replacement through the lumen of a catheter, in a service known as TAVI or TAVR. This code is specific to inserting the valve using a percutaneous femoral artery approach.",CPT +33362,Surgical Procedures on the Aortic Valve.,"The provider uses a catheter to insert an aortic valve replacement through the lumen of a catheter, in a service known as TAVI or TAVR. This code is specific to inserting the valve using an open femoral artery approach.",CPT +33363,Surgical Procedures on the Aortic Valve.,"The provider uses a catheter to insert an aortic valve replacement through the lumen of a catheter, in a service known as TAVI or TAVR. This code is specific to inserting the valve using an open axillary artery approach.",CPT +33364,Surgical Procedures on the Aortic Valve.,"The provider uses a catheter to insert an aortic valve replacement through the lumen of a catheter, in a service known as TAVI or TAVR. This code is specific to inserting the valve using an open iliac artery approach.",CPT +33365,Surgical Procedures on the Aortic Valve.,"The provider uses a catheter to insert an aortic valve replacement through the lumen of a catheter, in a service known as TAVI or TAVR. This code is specific to inserting the valve using a transaortic approach.",CPT +33366,Surgical Procedures on the Aortic Valve.,"This code describes aortic valve replacement through the lumen of a catheter, known as TAVI/TAVR. This code is specific to transapical exposure, which is through the apex, or tip, of the left ventricle.",CPT +33367,Surgical Procedures on the Aortic Valve.,"The provider uses cardiopulmonary bypass, or CPB, during the primary TAVI/TAVR service. This code is specific to CPB involving percutaneous peripheral arterial and venous cannulation.",CPT +33368,Surgical Procedures on the Aortic Valve.,"The provider uses cardiopulmonary bypass, or CPB, during the primary TAVI/TAVR service. This code is specific to CPB involving open peripheral arterial and venous cannulation.",CPT +33369,Surgical Procedures on the Aortic Valve.,"The provider uses cardiopulmonary bypass, or CPB, during the primary TAVI/TAVR service. This code is specific to CPB involving central arterial and venous cannulation.",CPT +33370,Surgical Procedures on the Aortic Valve.,"At the same session as a primary transcatheter aortic valve replacement (TAVR/TAVI) procedure, the provider percutaneously places one or more cerebral embolic protection devices to prevent clots and debris caused by the TAVR from reaching the brain.",CPT +33390,Surgical Procedures on the Aortic Valve.,"The provider creates an open incision in the chest through which he repairs a malfunctioning aortic valve with the heart placed in arrest (not beating) and blood circulation maintained by a machine, i.e., cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB). The provider performs this procedure to treat aortic stenosis.",CPT +33391,Surgical Procedures on the Aortic Valve.,"The provider creates an open incision in the chest through which he reconstructs a severely malfunctioning aortic valve with the heart placed in arrest (not beating) and blood circulation maintained by a machine, i.e., cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB). The provider performs this procedure to treat aortic stenosis.",CPT +33404,Surgical Procedures on the Aortic Valve.,"An apicoaortic conduit (AAC), also called an aortic valve bypass (AVB), is a cardiovascular procedure the provider performs to reduce symptoms due to blood flow obstruction from the left ventricle of the heart. The provider treats the obstruction of blood flow by creating an apicoaortic conduit (channel) and valve to bypass the native aortic valve.",CPT +33405,Surgical Procedures on the Aortic Valve.,The provider replaces the aortic valve with an artificial valve (but not a homograft or ventless valve) via open access with the patient on cardiopulmonary bypass. She performs this procedure to restore proper blood supply to the body.,CPT +33406,Surgical Procedures on the Aortic Valve.,"A provider places the patient on cardiopulmonary bypass and, using an open surgical approach, replaces a diseased or defective aortic valve with an allograft (a tissue graft harvested from one person for another) using a freehand technique. She performs this procedure to restore proper blood supply to the body.",CPT +33410,Surgical Procedures on the Aortic Valve.,"The provider replaces the patient's heart valve with an artificial stentless valve, which is an artificial valve not attached to a stent or frame. A stentless valve may provide for better blood flow and surgical implant options. The procedure treats aortic valve stenosis or regurgitation.",CPT +33411,Surgical Procedures on the Aortic Valve.,The provider replaces the patient's heart valve with an artificial one. Enlargement of the aortic annulus during aortic valve replacement permits insertion of a larger prosthetic valve. The procedure treats aortic valve stenosis or regurgitation.,CPT +33412,Surgical Procedures on the Aortic Valve.,"The provider replaces the patient's heart valve with an artificial one. Enlargement of the aortic annulus during aortic valve replacement permits insertion of a larger prosthetic valve. The procedure treats aortic valve stenosis or regurgitation. In the Konno procedure, the provider repairs a congenital, or present since birth, aortic stenosis of the junction of the left ventricle and aorta and replaces the valve.",CPT +33413,Surgical Procedures on the Aortic Valve.,"In this surgery known as the Ross procedure, the provider replaces the aortic valve with the pulmonary valve. The procedure treats aortic valve stenosis or regurgitation.",CPT +33414,Surgical Procedures on the Aortic Valve.,The provider treats a left ventricular outflow tract obstruction by using a patch to enlarge the outflow tract.,CPT +33415,Surgical Procedures on the Aortic Valve.,"The provider removes or incises the subvalvular tissue of the aorta to treat subvalvular aortic stenosis, a rare congenital disorder where the heart's walls become thick, thereby reducing the size of the heart's chambers and obstructing blood flow.",CPT +33416,Surgical Procedures on the Aortic Valve.,"The provider performs a ventriculomyotomy or ventriculomyectomy, an incision into the muscular heart wall, which may include removing part of the muscle. The procedure treats idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis, a disorder that causes hypertrophy, or enlargement of the left ventricle, which causes obstructed blood flow.",CPT +33417,Surgical Procedures on the Aortic Valve.,"The provider performs an aortoplasty (repair of the aorta) to treat supravalvular stenosis, a congenital heart defect that causes aortic stenosis.",CPT +33418,Surgical Procedures on the Mitral Valve.,"In this procedure, the provider repairs a narrowed and stiff mitral valve using a percutaneous (through the skin) approach. The mitral valve controls the passage of blood from the left atrium of the heart, which is the collecting chamber, to the left ventricle, which is the pumping chamber. He may also puncture the heart through the septum. The provider releases the stiff valve while the patient is on an artificial heart lung machine and he can place a prosthesis.",CPT +33419,Surgical Procedures on the Mitral Valve.,"At the same session as an initial mitral valve repair and placement of a prosthesis in the mitral valve, the provider places additional prostheses during the same session. The provider repairs the narrowed and stiff mitral valve using a percutaneous approach. He may also puncture the heart through the septum. The provider releases the stiff valve while the patient is under the control of an artificial heart–lung machine and places additional prostheses.",CPT +33420,Surgical Procedures on the Mitral Valve.,"The provider corrects mitral valve stenosis dilating the cusps, or leaflets, of the mitral valve without stopping the heart from beating or putting the patient on cardiopulmonary bypass.",CPT +33422,Surgical Procedures on the Mitral Valve.,"In this procedure, the provider opens the chest to repair the narrowed and stiff mitral valve. The mitral valve controls the passage of blood from the left atrium, which is the collecting chamber, to the left ventricle, which is the pumping chamber. The provider releases the stiff valve while the patient is under the control of an artificial heart–lung machine.",CPT +33425,Surgical Procedures on the Mitral Valve.,"The provider performs an open heart mitral valve repair to dilate a stenosed mitral valve, using a heart–lung machine to reroute the circulation of blood and bypass the heart and lungs.",CPT +33426,Surgical Procedures on the Mitral Valve.,A valvuloplasty is performed to repair the valve so that it closes properly and prevents the backflow of blood from the left ventricle to the left atrium.,CPT +33427,Surgical Procedures on the Mitral Valve.,"The provider performs a valvuloplasty, which is a surgical repair of the mitral valve or subvalvular structures to correct mitral stenosis or subvalvular fibrosis with the patient on a heart–lung machine to reroute the circulation of blood and bypass the heart and lungs. The provider may insert a band or ring around the anulus to correct mitral insufficiency if the valve is leaking due to annular dilatation.",CPT +33430,Surgical Procedures on the Mitral Valve.,"The mitral valve of the heart controls the passage of blood from the left atrium to the left ventricle. When it fails to perform this duty due to disease, then a replacement surgery might be the only option if a repair is not feasible. Stenosis, or narrowing, of the mitral valve leads to failure of the valve to open fully. Stenosis may be caused by rheumatic heart disease or calcification of the leaflets. Another condition that may require a valve replacement is regurgitation in which the valve fails to prevent the reverse flow of blood to the atrium and lungs. Mitral regurgitation could be the result of a genetic disorder or due to a disease such as cardiomyopathy and ischemic heart disease.",CPT +33440,Surgical Procedures on the Aortic Valve.,"The provider replaces the aortic valve using the patient’s own pulmonary valve, enlarges the aortic annulus of the left ventricular outflow tract (LVOT), and replaces the translocated pulmonary valve with a valved conduit.",CPT +33460,Surgical Procedures on the Tricuspid Valve.,"The provider performs a valvectomy, which is an excision of the tricuspid valve to treat regurgitation, which is often the result of vegetations on the valve from infective endocarditis.",CPT +33463,Surgical Procedures on the Tricuspid Valve.,The provider performs surgical repair of the tricuspid valve to correct tricuspid valve regurgitation.,CPT +33464,Surgical Procedures on the Tricuspid Valve.,"The provider performs tricuspid valvuloplasty, which is the repair of a valve, with ring insertion to treat tricuspid regurgitation.",CPT +33465,Surgical Procedures on the Tricuspid Valve.,The provider replaces the tricuspid valve with the patient on cardiopulmonary bypass. The tricuspid valve consists of three triangular membranous flaps (leaflets or cusps) and is situated at the opening of the right atrium into the right ventricle.,CPT +33468,Surgical Procedures on the Tricuspid Valve.,The provider performs tricuspid valve repositioning and plication to correct the displacement of the septal and posterior leaflets in Ebstein anomaly.,CPT +33471,Surgical Procedures on the Pulmonary Valve.,"The provider accesses the pulmonary valve through the pulmonary artery, without the use of cardiopulmonary bypass, and performs a valvotomy, incising and dilating the valve to treat pulmonary valve stenosis.",CPT +33474,Surgical Procedures on the Pulmonary Valve.,"With the patient on cardiopulmonary bypass, the provider accesses the pulmonary valve via the pulmonary artery and incises the valve leaflets, or cusps, to enlarge the valve opening and correct pulmonary stenosis.",CPT +33475,Surgical Procedures on the Pulmonary Valve.,"The provider removes the pulmonary valve and replaces it with an artificial valve. Adults who had procedures to correct congenital heart defects as infants sometimes require this procedure, which corrects pulmonary regurgitation that often results in right ventricular hypertrophy.",CPT +33476,Surgical Procedures on the Pulmonary Valve.,"The provider performs right ventricular resection, removing obstructive bands of fiber in the infundibulum and, if necessary, performs a commissurotomy, i.e., he incises the junctions of the leaflets. This procedure treats infundibular stenosis.",CPT +33477,Surgical Procedures on the Pulmonary Valve.,"The provider implants a pulmonary valve percutaneously, through an incision through the skin and into the heart, as an alternative to an open procedure for pulmonary valve replacement. The provider typically performs this procedure on patients who have previously had pulmonary valve repair for congenital heart disease when the repaired valve no longer functions properly. He may place a stent at the valve site to keep it open before performing the replacement.",CPT +33478,Surgical Procedures on the Pulmonary Valve.,"The provider places a graft to enlarge the ventricular outflow tract. If necessary, he incises the junctions of the valve leaflets or removes thickened muscular tissue from the infundibulum. This procedure relieves obstruction of the ventricular outflow tract. Indications for this procedure include pulmonary atresia.",CPT +33496,Other Cardiac Valvular Procedures.,"With the patient on cardiopulmonary bypass, the provider repairs a dysfunctional or leaking prosthetic valve that is not working properly due to overgrowth of vascular structures or exudate.",CPT +33500,Coronary Artery Anomaly Procedures.,"With the patient on cardiopulmonary bypass, the provider closes a fistula, either from outside the heart or from inside a cardiac chamber. He performs this procedure to close off the abnormal passageway that allows blood to flow where it should not.",CPT +33501,Coronary Artery Anomaly Procedures.,"The provider ties off or closes a fistula, an abnormal passageway from a coronary artery to the pulmonary vein or from a coronary artery to a cardiac chamber. He does not put the patient on cardiopulmonary bypass. The procedure prevents complications such as thrombus, endocarditis, or aneurysm rupture.",CPT +33502,Coronary Artery Anomaly Procedures.,The provider ties off a coronary artery arising irregularly from the pulmonary artery. The pulmonary artery cannot handle the higher pressure associated with blood flowing from a coronary artery; this procedure prevents congestive heart failure and corrects failure to thrive that results from such an anomaly in an infant.,CPT +33503,Coronary Artery Anomaly Procedures.,The provider ligates the coronary artery that arises irregularly from the pulmonary artery and places a graft to restore circulation to the heart.,CPT +33504,Coronary Artery Anomaly Procedures.,"With the patient on cardiopulmonary bypass, the provider uses a graft to repair a coronary artery arising irregularly from the pulmonary artery. He performs this procedure to improve circulation to the heart and to treat congestive heart failure caused by the defect.",CPT +33505,Coronary Artery Anomaly Procedures.,"The provider creates a tunnel inside the pulmonary artery to access the opening of the anomalous coronary artery. He then anastomoses, or joins, the coronary artery to the aorta. He performs this procedure to treat congestive heart failure, typically in infants with congenital heart defects but sometimes in adults.",CPT +33506,Coronary Artery Anomaly Procedures.,"After excising, or cutting out, the anomalous coronary artery opening on the pulmonary artery, the provider relocates it to the aorta by means of an anastomosis. He uses a patch graft to close the opening in the pulmonary artery. He performs the procedure to restore circulation to the heart and prevent or correct congestive heart failure, typically in infants with congenital heart defects.",CPT +33507,Coronary Artery Anomaly Procedures.,"The provider relocates the opening or origin of an anomalous coronary artery arising from within the wall of the aorta. This rare condition, often diagnosed secondary to workup for something else, can result in sudden cardiac death. The provider removes a portion of the artery wall and reconnects the aorta and coronary artery in a more anatomical position. Alternatively, the provider probes the coronary artery and creates an opening in it to connect it to the aorta.",CPT +33508,Endoscopy Procedures on the Heart and Pericardium.,The provider employs surgical endoscopy to visualize structures surrounding the vein he harvests for a coronary artery bypass procedure.,CPT +33509,Endoscopy Procedures on the Heart and Pericardium.,The provider uses an endoscopic approach to obtain a portion of a healthy artery from the patient’s arm to use to create an alternative route around a blockage in a coronary (heart) artery.,CPT +33510,Venous Grafting Only for Coronary Artery Bypass.,"The provider diverts blood flow from a damaged vessel in the heart by grafting in a segment of a vein taken from another location, such as the leg, to restore circulation, improve the function of the heart, and decrease symptoms like angina.",CPT +33511,Venous Grafting Only for Coronary Artery Bypass.,"The provider diverts blood flow from damaged vessels in the heart by grafting in two vein segments taken from another location, such as the leg, to restore circulation, improve the function of the heart, and decrease symptoms like angina.",CPT +33512,Venous Grafting Only for Coronary Artery Bypass.,"The provider diverts blood flow from damaged vessels in the heart by grafting in three vein segments taken from another location, such as the leg, to restore circulation, improve the function of the heart, and decrease symptoms like angina.",CPT +33513,Venous Grafting Only for Coronary Artery Bypass.,"The provider diverts blood flow from damaged vessels in the heart by grafting in four vein segments taken from another location, such as the leg, to restore circulation, improve the function of the heart, and decrease symptoms like angina.",CPT +33514,Venous Grafting Only for Coronary Artery Bypass.,"The provider diverts blood flow from damaged vessels in the heart by grafting in five vein segments taken from another location, such as the leg, to restore circulation, improve the function of the heart, and decrease symptoms like angina.",CPT +33516,Venous Grafting Only for Coronary Artery Bypass.,"The provider diverts blood flow from damaged vessels in the heart by grafting in six or more vein segments taken from another location, such as the leg, to restore circulation, improve the function of the heart, and decrease symptoms like angina.",CPT +33517,Combined Arterial-Venous Grafting for Coronary Bypass.,"The provider diverts blood flow from damaged vessels in the heart by grafting a single vein segment taken from another location, such as the leg, while the patient is undergoing a coronary artery bypass grafting procedure that includes both venous and arterial grafting. He performs the procedure to restore circulation, improve the function of the heart, and decrease symptoms like angina.",CPT +33518,Combined Arterial-Venous Grafting for Coronary Bypass.,"The provider diverts blood flow from damaged vessels in the heart by grafting two vein segments taken from another location, such as the leg, while the patient is undergoing a coronary artery bypass grafting procedure that includes both venous and arterial grafting. He performs the procedure to restore circulation, improve the function of the heart, and decrease symptoms like angina.",CPT +33519,Combined Arterial-Venous Grafting for Coronary Bypass.,"The provider diverts blood flow from damaged vessels in the heart by grafting three vein segments taken from another location, such as the leg, while the patient is undergoing a coronary artery bypass grafting procedure that includes both venous and arterial grafting. He performs the procedure to restore circulation, improve the function of the heart, and decrease symptoms like angina.",CPT +33521,Combined Arterial-Venous Grafting for Coronary Bypass.,"The provider diverts blood flow from damaged vessels in the heart by grafting four vein segments taken from another location, such as the leg, while undergoing a coronary artery bypass grafting procedure that includes both venous and arterial grafting. He performs the procedure to restore circulation, improve the function of the heart, and decrease symptoms like angina.",CPT +33522,Combined Arterial-Venous Grafting for Coronary Bypass.,"The provider diverts blood flow from damaged vessels in the heart by grafting five vein segments taken from another location, such as the leg, while undergoing a coronary artery bypass grafting procedure that includes both venous and arterial grafting. He performs the procedure to restore circulation, improve the function of the heart, and decrease symptoms like angina.",CPT +33523,Combined Arterial-Venous Grafting for Coronary Bypass.,"The provider diverts blood flow from damaged vessels in the heart by grafting six or more vein segments taken from another location, such as the leg, while undergoing a coronary artery bypass grafting procedure that includes both venous and arterial grafting. He performs the procedure to restore circulation, improve the function of the heart, and decrease symptoms like angina.",CPT +33530,Combined Arterial-Venous Grafting for Coronary Bypass.,The provider repeats a coronary artery bypass grafting procedure or valve procedure more than one month after the original surgery primarily due to failure of the original procedure.,CPT +33533,Arterial Grafting for Coronary Artery Bypass.,"The provider diverts blood flow from a damaged vessel in the heart by grafting in a single segment of an artery from another location, such as in the chest or abdomen, to restore circulation, improve the function of the heart, and decrease symptoms like angina.",CPT +33534,Arterial Grafting for Coronary Artery Bypass.,"The provider diverts blood flow from damaged vessels in the heart by grafting in two arterial segments from another location, such as in the chest or abdomen, to restore circulation, improve the function of the heart, and decrease symptoms like angina.",CPT +33535,Arterial Grafting for Coronary Artery Bypass.,"The provider diverts blood flow from damaged vessels in the heart by grafting in three arterial segments from another location, such as in the chest or abdomen, to restore circulation, improve the function of the heart, and decrease symptoms like angina.",CPT +33536,Arterial Grafting for Coronary Artery Bypass.,"The provider diverts blood flow from damaged vessels in the heart by grafting in four or more arterial segments from another location, such as in the chest or abdomen, to restore circulation, improve the function of the heart, and decrease symptoms like angina.",CPT +33542,Arterial Grafting for Coronary Artery Bypass.,"The provider opens and removes an aneurysm sac from the wall of a ventricle of the heart and sutures the defect closed to strengthen the heart wall and prevent rupture of the aneurysm, typically during a coronary artery bypass graft procedure.",CPT +33545,Arterial Grafting for Coronary Artery Bypass.,"The provider patches a defect in the ventricular septum, the wall between the ventricles of the heart, after a myocardial infarction, which results in a blood clot or other mass causing an obstruction. This obstruction decreases blood circulation to a part of the heart muscle. The provider may also perform a myocardial resection, removing damaged tissue from the septum, itself, if necessary.",CPT +33548,Arterial Grafting for Coronary Artery Bypass.,"The provider employs various surgical techniques to restore function, size, and shape to the ventricle, which is damaged, enlarged, and scarred by myocardial infarction.",CPT +33572,Coronary Endarterectomy Procedures.,"The provider accesses the coronary artery during a coronary artery bypass graft procedure, incises the artery needing treatment, and removes plaque as necessary. Plaque reduces blood flow in the coronary arteries and may break off and lodge in a narrow portion. This causes complete obstruction of the artery, resulting in an infarction and damage to the ventricle.",CPT +33600,Repair Procedures for Single Ventricle and Other Complex Cardiac Anomalies.,The provider patches or sutures an incompetent valve to restore appropriate blood flow between the chambers of the heart.,CPT +33602,Repair Procedures for Single Ventricle and Other Complex Cardiac Anomalies.,"When the aortic or pulmonary semilunar valves fail to close completely, resulting in a leaky valve, the provider repairs the leak using sutures or a patch. A leaky valve allows blood to flow backward into the heart, reducing heart function and causing the ventricle to pump harder. The ventricle enlarges, causing further loss of function.",CPT +33606,Repair Procedures for Single Ventricle and Other Complex Cardiac Anomalies.,"The provider joins the pulmonary artery to the aorta to correct a congenital deformity called double inlet ventricle in which the patient has only one functional ventricle, the left, which both the aorta and the pulmonary artery enter. The procedure reduces excessive blood flow into the ventricle.",CPT +33608,Repair Procedures for Single Ventricle and Other Complex Cardiac Anomalies.,"The provider uses a variety of surgical techniques, such as tube grafts or conduits, to repair heart defects unrelated to pulmonary artery narrowing or a ventricular septal defect. The provider connects the ventricle to the pulmonary artery.",CPT +33610,Repair Procedures for Single Ventricle and Other Complex Cardiac Anomalies.,"The provider surgically enlarges a ventricular septal defect, an abnormal opening in the wall between the left and right ventricles that did not close at birth or soon after. He places a valved device to regulate the amount of blood flow out of the ventricle and correct the restriction of blood flow through the ventricular outlet.",CPT +33611,Repair Procedures for Single Ventricle and Other Complex Cardiac Anomalies.,"The provider places a tunnel graft using artificial graft material between the ventricular septal defect, an abnormal opening in the wall between the left and right ventricles, and the aorta, to redirect blood flow into the aorta.",CPT +33612,Repair Procedures for Single Ventricle and Other Complex Cardiac Anomalies.,"The provider places an intraventricular tunnel graft from the aorta to the ventricular septal defect (VSD), to reroute blood flow. When the tunnel graft obstructs blood flow through the ventricular outflow tract, he repairs the outflow tract with a patch graft.",CPT +33615,Repair Procedures for Single Ventricle and Other Complex Cardiac Anomalies.,"The provider closes an atrial septal defect, or hole in the wall between the atria, with a patch graft. He then anastomoses, or connects, the pulmonary artery to either the atria or vena cava to correct tricuspid atresia, or congenital absence of the opening between the right atrium and the right ventricle.",CPT +33617,Repair Procedures for Single Ventricle and Other Complex Cardiac Anomalies.,"The provider directly connects the superior vena cava to the pulmonary artery, allowing blood flow to bypass the atrium. She may create a dividing wall in the atrium to improve the flow of blood to the superior vena cava opening.",CPT +33619,Repair Procedures for Single Ventricle and Other Complex Cardiac Anomalies.,"The provider typically performs a Norwood procedure as the first stage of several operations to repair aortic arch hypoplasia, or hypoplastic left heart syndrome (HLHS). In HLHS, the left ventricle fails to develop sufficiently along with the aorta and mitral valve.",CPT +33620,Repair Procedures for Single Ventricle and Other Complex Cardiac Anomalies.,"The provider places a band, typically of umbilical tape, around both the right and left pulmonary arteries. The procedure reduces the left to right blood flow and relieves or prevents congestive heart failure and pulmonary hypertension. This procedure is part of other staged procedures.",CPT +33621,Repair Procedures for Single Ventricle and Other Complex Cardiac Anomalies.,The provider inserts a catheter through the thorax (chest) into a blood vessel and places a stent into a stenosed (narrowed) portion of the vessel. He expands the stent to keep the vessel open and restore blood flow.,CPT +33622,Repair Procedures for Single Ventricle and Other Complex Cardiac Anomalies.,The provider performs a complex series of procedures to improve blood flow in and out of the heart and prevent further complications such as congestive heart failure and pulmonary hypertension.,CPT +33641,Repair Procedures for Septal Defect.,The provider performs surgical closure of an atrial septal defect by opening up the atrium and closing the defect with a patch under direct visualization of the area.,CPT +33645,Repair Procedures for Septal Defect.,The provider closes a sinus venosus defect directly or with a patch in a patient with or without anomalous pulmonary venous drainage.,CPT +33647,Repair Procedures for Septal Defect.,The provider closes a hole or defect in the atrial and ventricular septa (walls) using stitches or a patch of Dacron® or pericardium to prevent the mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood into different chambers of the heart.,CPT +33660,Repair Procedures for Septal Defect.,"The provider closes a ""hole"" in the wall between the atria and ventricles by suturing the area or by using a patch made of Dacron® material or pericardium. Based on the severity of valve defect, the tricuspid and mitral valves are also repaired while making sure that the valve leaflets are properly placed.",CPT +33665,Repair Procedures for Septal Defect.,"An atrioventricular (AV) canal defect is repaired by closing the hole in the cardiac septa that causes mixing of blood inside the heart chambers. Valve competence also needs to be restored. Based on the severity of the defect, sometimes the valve is replaced with a mechanical or tissue valve.",CPT +33670,Repair Procedures for Septal Defect.,Cardiac surgery is used to repair defects of the septa and valves of the heart. This is usually performed by using sutures and patches of Dacron® or pericardium. A prosthetic valve may also be used to replace the defective valve.,CPT +33675,Repair Procedures for Septal Defect.,The provider closes several ventricular septal defects with sutures or patch grafts to prevent the mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in the ventricles.,CPT +33676,Repair Procedures for Septal Defect.,"The provider closes several ventricular septal defects with sutures or patch grafts to prevent the mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in the ventricles. He then performs a valvotomy, where he incises or resects the leaflets of the pulmonary valve. Alternatively, he removes muscle tissue at the ventricular outflow tract in an infundibular resection. This relieves blockage of blood flow through the outflow tract.",CPT +33677,Repair Procedures for Septal Defect.,"The provider closes several ventricular septal defects with sutures or patch grafts to prevent the mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in the ventricles. He removes a band previously placed around the pulmonary artery and repairs the pulmonary artery defect, and may use a gusset for reinforcement.",CPT +33681,Repair Procedures for Septal Defect.,The provider closes a hole in the septum (wall) between the ventricles with a patch or sutures to prevent the mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood.,CPT +33684,Repair Procedures for Septal Defect.,The provider closes a hole in the septum (wall) between the ventricles with a patch or sutures to prevent the mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood. He incises the pulmonary valve leaflets at their junction and removes anything obstructing blood flow through the ventricular outflow tract.,CPT +33688,Repair Procedures for Septal Defect.,The provider closes a hole in the septum (wall) between the ventricles with a patch or sutures to prevent the mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood. He removes a pulmonary artery band from a previous surgery to temporarily treat a ventricular septal defect. He may add a gusset to reinforce the patch on the pulmonary artery.,CPT +33690,Repair Procedures for Septal Defect.,"In this procedure, the provider places a band, made of a material such as umbilical tape, to reduce pulmonary blood flow, protect pulmonary vessels, and prepare the heart for more definitive procedures in the future.The provider places a pulmonary artery band around the aortopulmonary trunk, aorta, and pulmonary artery to restrict pulmonary blood flow and prevent enlargement of the ventricle and elevation of blood pressure in the pulmonary artery.",CPT +33692,Repair Procedures for Septal Defect.,The provider repairs tetralogy of Fallot by placing a patch graft to close off a ventricular septal defect and removing muscle from the infundibulum to correct right ventricular outflow tract obstruction.,CPT +33694,Repair Procedures for Septal Defect.,The provider repairs tetralogy of Fallot by closing off the ventricular septal defect with a patch. She removes muscle tissue to restore blood flow through the ventricular outflow tract if necessary. She also enlarges the pulmonary anulus with a patch graft to correct narrowing of the pulmonary valve.,CPT +33697,Repair Procedures for Septal Defect.,The provider closes off the ventricular septal defect with a patch graft and places a tube graft between the right ventricle and pulmonary artery. This bypasses the obstruction of blood flow that the underdevelopment or absence of the pulmonary valve causes.,CPT +33702,Repair Procedures for the Sinus of Valsalva.,The provider closes off a fistula (abnormal passageway) between the sinus of Valsalva and one of the coronary arteries to prevent rupture.,CPT +33710,Repair Procedures for the Sinus of Valsalva.,"The provider surgically repairs a sinus of Valsalva fistula, an abnormal connection between the aortic sinus, or a structural dilation in the ascending aorta, and the heart. He also repairs a ventricular septal defect, or a hole in the tissue wall separating the two ventricles. The provider places the patient on cardiopulmonary bypass during the procedure.",CPT +33720,Repair Procedures for the Sinus of Valsalva.,"The provider surgically repairs a sinus of Valsalva aneurysm, an abnormal bulge in the aortic sinus, or a structural dilation in the ascending aorta. The provider places the patient on cardiopulmonary bypass during the procedure.",CPT +33724,Repair Procedures for Venous Anomalies.,"The provider incises the chest wall and repairs an isolated partial anomalous pulmonary venous return (PAPVC), a congenital condition in which one or more of the pulmonary veins fail to reach the left atrium of the heart, instead it drains oxygenated blood from the lungs into the right atrium of the heart by way of an abnormal, or anomalous, connection.",CPT +33726,Repair Procedures for Venous Anomalies.,"The provider surgically repairs pulmonary venous stenosis, a condition in which the blood vessels that carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart become narrowed.",CPT +33730,Repair Procedures for Venous Anomalies.,"In this procedure, the provider incises the chest wall and performs a complete repair of an anomalous pulmonary venous return, a congenital condition in which all four pulmonary veins fail to reach the left atrium of the heart; instead they drain oxygenated blood from the lungs into the right atrium of the heart. This condition is usually associated with an atrial septal defect, a hole in the tissue wall that separates the right and left atrium.",CPT +33732,Repair Procedures for Venous Anomalies.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically repairs a cor triatriatum or a supravalvular mitral ring defect by removing the excess membrane that restricts the flow of blood. A cor triatriatum is a congenital anomaly in which the left or right atrium is divided into two compartments by a fold of tissue, also referred to as a triatrial heart. A supravalvular mitral ring is a congenital defect in which an abnormal membrane of tissue on the atrial side of the mitral valve restricts the flow of blood from the left atrium to the left ventricle.",CPT +33735,Shunting Procedures on the Heart and Pericardium.,"In this procedure, the provider removes the atrial septum or he intentionally creates an opening in the atrial septum, the wall of tissue separating the right and left atrium of the heart.",CPT +33736,Shunting Procedures on the Heart and Pericardium.,"The provider removes the atrial septum or he intentionally creates an opening in the atrial septum, a wall of tissue separating the right and left atrium of the heart. This is an open heart surgery, meaning that he places the patient on cardiopulmonary bypass to perform this service.",CPT +33737,Shunting Procedures on the Heart and Pericardium.,"In this procedure, the provider removes the atrial septum or he intentionally creates an opening in the atrial septum, a wall of tissue separating the right and left atrium of the heart. This is an open heart surgery, meaning that he places the patient on cardiopulmonary bypass to perform this service. He also performs inflow occlusion, meaning that he covers the vena cavae and the azygous vein with tourniquets to temporarily interrupt the venous blood returning to the heart and provide a brief period of complete circulatory arrest.",CPT +33741,Shunting Procedures on the Heart and Pericardium.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts a catheter through a vessel and threads the catheter into the right side of the heart under imaging guidance. The provider creates an opening between the atria, or upper chambers of the heart, to improve atrial flow in a patient with a cardiac birth defect.",CPT +33745,Shunting Procedures on the Heart and Pericardium.,The provider creates an intracardiac shunt using one or more stents after advancing a catheter through vessels to reach the heart under imaging guidance. The provider may also perform left and right heart diagnostic cardiac catherization for congenital cardiac anomalies and target zone angioplasty. Report this code for the initial intracardiac shunt.,CPT +33746,Shunting Procedures on the Heart and Pericardium.,"At the same session as creation of an initial transcatheter intracardiac shunt, the provider creates an additional intracardiac shunt using one or more stents. The provider may also perform left and right heart diagnostic cardiac catherization for congenital cardiac anomalies and target zone angioplasty. Report this code once for each additional intracardiac shunt.",CPT +33750,Shunting Procedures on the Heart and Pericardium.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically creates a shunt between the subclavian and the pulmonary artery. A shunt forms the bypass channel or passageway in the blood circulation connecting two blood vessels and diverts blood from one region to the other. The aim of this procedure is to improve oxygenation of the blood in a patient with cyanosis from insufficient pulmonary, or lung, blood flow due to a congenital heart defect. The provider performs this procedure as a temporary measure until he can perform another procedure to correct the actual heart defect. This procedure is also known as a Blalock Taussig operation.",CPT +33755,Shunting Procedures on the Heart and Pericardium.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically creates a shunt between the ascending aorta and the pulmonary artery. A shunt forms the bypass channel or passageway in the blood circulation connecting two blood vessels and diverts blood from one region to the other. The aim of this procedure is to improve oxygenation of the blood in a patient with cyanosis from insufficient pulmonar blood flow due to a congenital heart defect. This procedure is also known as Waterston type operation.",CPT +33762,Shunting Procedures on the Heart and Pericardium.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically creates a shunt between the descending aorta and the pulmonary artery. A shunt forms the bypass channel or passageway in the blood circulation connecting two blood vessels and diverts blood from one region to the other. The aim of this procedure is to improve oxygenation of the blood in a patient with cyanosis from insufficient pulmonary blood flow due to a congenital heart defect.  This procedure is also known as Potts Smith type operation.",CPT +33764,Shunting Procedures on the Heart and Pericardium.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically creates a shunt between the aorta and the main pulmonary artery. A shunt forms the bypass channel or passageway in the blood circulation connecting two blood vessels and diverts blood from one region to the other. The aim of this procedure is to improve oxygenation of the blood in a patient with cyanosis from insufficient pulmonary blood flow due to a congenital heart defect.",CPT +33766,Shunting Procedures on the Heart and Pericardium.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically creates a shunt between the superior vena cava and the right pulmonary artery. A shunt forms the bypass channel or passageway in the blood circulation connecting two blood vessels and diverts blood from one region to the other. The provider performs this procedure so that blood bypasses the defective right chamber of the heart and reaches directly into one lung through the pulmonary artery for oxygenation. This procedure is also known as classical Glenn procedure.",CPT +33767,Shunting Procedures on the Heart and Pericardium.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically creates a shunt between the superior vena cava and the right pulmonary artery diverting deoxygenated blood directly to both the lungs. A shunt forms the bypass channel or passageway in the blood circulation connecting two blood vessels and diverting blood from one region to the other. The provider performs this procedure so that blood bypasses the defective right chamber of the heart and reaches directly into the lungs through the pulmonary artery for oxygenation. This procedure is also known as bidirectional Glenn procedure.",CPT +33768,Shunting Procedures on the Heart and Pericardium.,"During a separate cardiac anomaly correction procedure, the provider surgically creates a shunt between the left superior vena cava and the left pulmonary artery. The aim of this procedure is to completely divert the deoxygenated blood to the lungs so as to reduce the work of the heart.",CPT +33770,Repair Procedures for Transposition of the Great Vessels.,"In this procedure, the provider repairs a cardiac defect present from birth, in which the aorta arises from the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery arises from the left ventricle. This causes problems in circulation of oxygenated blood in the body. The provider switches the aorta and the pulmonary artery to their normal positions without the need to enlarge the hole in the ventricular septum. The provider also removes an obstructive band of fibrous muscle present at the tip of pulmonary artery.",CPT +33771,Repair Procedures for Transposition of the Great Vessels.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically repairs a cardiac defect present from birth, in which the aorta arises from the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery arises from the left ventricle. The patient also has a ventricular septal defect that he must enlarge the hole in septum during the procedure and use a graft to connect the left ventricle to the aorta through this hole. In this procedure the provider must also repair a narrowing of the pulmonary artery, a blood vessel that carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs for purification.",CPT +33774,Repair Procedures for Transposition of the Great Vessels.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically repairs a cardiac defect present from birth, by constructing a baffle or tunnel from the pericardium or the atrial wall that directs the deoxygenated blood to the left ventricle and the pulmonary artery, and directs the oxygenated blood to the right ventricle and the aorta. The provider places the patient on cardiopulmonary bypass during this procedure. This procedure is also called a Mustard or Senning procedure.",CPT +33775,Repair Procedures for Transposition of the Great Vessels.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically repairs a cardiac defect present from birth, in which the aorta arises from the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery arises from the left ventricle, by constructing a baffle or tunnel from the pericardium or the atrial valve that directs the deoxygenated blood to the left ventricle and the pulmonary artery, and directs the oxygenated blood to the right ventricle and aorta. The provider places the patient on cardiopulmonary bypass, during the procedure. The provider also removes a band from around the pulmonary artery that was placed during a previous surgery.This procedure is also known as a Mustard or Senning type procedure.",CPT +33776,Repair Procedures for Transposition of the Great Vessels.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically repairs a cardiac defect present since birth, in which the aorta arises from the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery arises from the left ventricle, by constructing a baffle or tunnel from the pericardium or the atrial valve that directs the deoxygenated blood to the left ventricle and the pulmonary artery and directs the oxygenated blood to the right ventricle and aorta. The provider places the patient on cardiopulmonary bypass during this procedure. The provider also performs the closure of a ventricular septal defect, or a defect in the tissue wall separating the two ventricles. This procedure is also known as a Mustard or Senning type procedure.",CPT +33777,Repair Procedures for Transposition of the Great Vessels.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically repairs a cardiac defect present since birth, in which the aorta arises from the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery arises from the left ventricle, by constructing a baffle or tunnel from the pericardium or the atrial valve that directs the deoxygenated blood to the left ventricle and the pulmonary artery and directs the oxygenated blood to right ventricle and aorta. The provider places the patient on cardiopulmonary bypass. The provider also repairs a subpulmonic obstruction, or an obstruction in the pulmonary artery caused by a band of fibrous tissue at the junction of the right ventricle with the pulmonary artery. This procedure is also known as a Mustard or Senning type procedure.",CPT +33778,Repair Procedures for Transposition of the Great Vessels.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically repairs a cardiac defect present since birth, in which the aorta arises from the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery arises from the left ventricle. The pulmonary artery is normally located in the right ventricle and the aorta is located in the left ventricle. The provider switches the transposed, or abnormally attached, pulmonary artery and aorta. This procedure is also known as an arterial switch or Jatene procedure.",CPT +33779,Repair Procedures for Transposition of the Great Vessels.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically repairs a cardiac defect present since birth, in which the aorta arises from the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery arises from the left ventricle. The pulmonary artery is normally located in the right ventricle and the aorta is located in the left ventricle. The provider switches the transposed or abnormally attached pulmonary artery and aorta. The provider also removes a pulmonary band that might have been placed during a previous surgery.This procedure is also known as an arterial switch or Jatene procedure.",CPT +33780,Repair Procedures for Transposition of the Great Vessels.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically repairs a cardiac defect present since birth, in which the aorta arises from the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery arises from the left ventricle. The pulmonary artery is normally located in the right ventricle and the aorta is located in the left ventricle. The provider switches the transposed or abnormally attached pulmonary artery and aorta. The provider also performs the closure of a ventricular septal defect, or a defect in the tissue wall separating the two ventricles. This procedure is also known as an arterial switch or Jatene procedure.",CPT +33781,Repair Procedures for Transposition of the Great Vessels.,"In this procedure, the provider repairs a cardiac defect present from birth, in which the aorta arises from the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery arises from the left ventricle. This causes problems in circulation of oxygenated blood in the body. The provider switches the aorta and the pulmonary artery to their normal positions and moves the coronary arteries to the new aorta. The provider also removes an obstructive band of fibrous muscle present at the tip of the pulmonary artery.",CPT +33782,Repair Procedures for Transposition of the Great Vessels.,"In this procedure, the provider moves the aortic root to the pulmonary position, excises the pulmonary valve, and reconstructs the ventricular outflow tracts. The provider repairs the blood vessels to allow proper circulation of blood in a patient with a ventricular septal defect. He also repairs a pulmonary artery stenosis, or narrowing. The provider does not perform a coronary ostium reimplantation.",CPT +33783,Repair Procedures for Transposition of the Great Vessels.,"In this procedure, the provider moves the aortic root to the pulmonary position, excises the pulmonary valve, and reconstructs the ventricular channels. He also moves one or both coronary arteries to a more favorable position. The provider repairs the blood vessels to allow proper circulation of blood in a patient with a ventricular septal defect. He also repairs the pulmonary artery stenosis or narrowing. The provider also may implant one or both coronary ostia, or openings just above the aortic valve where the left and right coronary arteries begin.",CPT +33786,Repair Procedures for Truncus Arteriosus.,"In this procedure, the provider creates a tunnel giving the left ventricle the job of pumping blood to the body. The provider corrects or repairs a condition known as truncus arteriosus, or a defect present from birth in which one large blood vessel leads out of the heart, where normally there are two separate vessels coming out of the heart.",CPT +33788,Repair Procedures for Truncus Arteriosus.,"The provider repairs and reimplants a pulmonary artery with an existing defect. The provider commonly performs this procedure for repair of anomalous, or abnormal, origin of the pulmonary artery.",CPT +33800,Repair Procedures for Aortic Anomalies.,"The provider performs aortopexy, a surgical procedure in which the provider affixes the aortic arch to the sternum, or breastbone. As a result, the trachea opens up in patients with severe tracheomalacia or tracheal compression.",CPT +33802,Repair Procedures for Aortic Anomalies.,"The provider surgically repairs an aberrant vessel, or a vessel having an unusual course or origin, by dividing it and removing any constricting fibrous bands, which may be hampering the normal blood flow through the vessel.",CPT +33803,Repair Procedures for Aortic Anomalies.,"The provider surgically repairs an aberrant vessel, or a vessel having an unusual course or origin, by dividing it and removing any constricting fibrous bands, which may be hampering the normal blood flow through the vessel. The provider also performs reanastomosis in which he reconnects the anomalous, or abnormal artery with other arteries.",CPT +33813,Repair Procedures for Aortic Anomalies.,"The provider obliterates, or corrects, an aortopulmonary defect in a patient by fixing a pericardial or synthetic patch to the area. The provider performs this procedure in a patient with an anomaly of the heart in which there is abnormal communication between the ascending aorta and the pulmonary artery that has been present from birth. The provider performs this procedure without cardiopulmonary bypass.",CPT +33814,Repair Procedures for Aortic Anomalies.,"The provider obliterates, or corrects, an aortopulmonary defect in a patient by fixing a pericardial or synthetic patch to the area. The provider performs this procedure in a patient with an anomaly of the heart in which there is an abnormal communication between the ascending aorta and the pulmonary artery that has been present from birth. The provider performs this procedure with cardiopulmonary bypass.",CPT +33820,Repair Procedures for Aortic Anomalies.,"The provider repairs an opening between the major blood vessels leading from the heart using ligation to join the vessels with sutures and close the ductus, or opening.",CPT +33822,Repair Procedures for Aortic Anomalies.,"The provider repairs an opening between the major blood vessels leading from the heart by dividing the ductus, or opening, between the blood vessels and then sewing together the stumps, or the bottom part of the blood vessels. The provider reports this code for patients younger than 18 years old.",CPT +33824,Repair Procedures for Aortic Anomalies.,"The provider repairs an opening between the major blood vessels leading from the heart by dividing the ductus, or opening, between the blood vessels and then sewing together the stumps, or the bottom part of the blood vessels. The provider reports this code for patients 18 years old and older.",CPT +33840,Repair Procedures for Aortic Anomalies.,"The provider excises the stricture, which is narrowing the patient’s aorta, and then anastomoses, or connects the two ends of the aorta together. He may also repair a patent ductus arteriosus, which is an abnormal communication between the pulmonary artery and the aorta, if present, by ligating or joining the blood vessels together.",CPT +33845,Repair Procedures for Aortic Anomalies.,"The provider excises a stricture, which is narrowing the aorta of the patient. He may also repair a patent ductus arteriosus if present. The provider uses a tissue graft to perform the repair.",CPT +33851,Repair Procedures for Aortic Anomalies.,"The provider excises tissues, which are narrowing the aorta of the patient. He may also repair a patent ductus arteriosus if present. For the repair, the provider either uses the left subclavian artery or a synthetic material called a prosthesis.",CPT +33852,Repair Procedures for Aortic Anomalies.,The provider repairs an incompletely developed or disrupted aortic arch using either an autogenous graft or prosthetic material. The provider performs this service without cardiopulmonary bypass.,CPT +33853,Repair Procedures for Aortic Anomalies.,The provider repairs an incompletely developed or disrupted aortic arch using either autogenous graft or prosthetic material. The provider performs this service with cardiopulmonary bypass.,CPT +33858,Repair Procedures for Thoracic Aortic Aneurysm.,"The provider repairs a dissection of the aorta using a graft. She initiates cardiopulmonary bypass during the procedure, which allows the patient's blood to bypass the heart and lungs. She may also suspend the aortic valve to a desirable height in the grafted blood vessel.",CPT +33859,Repair Procedures for Thoracic Aortic Aneurysm.,"The provider repairs an ascending aortic aneurysm using a graft. She initiates cardiopulmonary bypass during the procedure, which allows the patient's blood to bypass the heart and lungs. She may also suspend the aortic valve to a desirable height in the grafted blood vessel.",CPT +33863,Repair Procedures for Thoracic Aortic Aneurysm.,The provider repairs a thoracic aorta aneurysm by replacing the root and proximal ascending aorta using a tube graft that contains a prosthetic valve. She reimplants the coronary arteries into the graft. The provider also initiates cardiopulmonary bypass during the procedure.,CPT +33864,Repair Procedures for Thoracic Aortic Aneurysm.,The provider repairs a thoracic aorta aneurysm by replacing the root and proximal ascending aorta using a tube graft that contains a prosthetic valve. She reimplants the coronary arteries into the graft. She initiates cardiopulmonary bypass during the procedure.,CPT +33866,Repair Procedures for Thoracic Aortic Aneurysm.,"During a primary vascular procedure, the provider places a graft in a part of the aortic arch that extends under one or more of the vessels that take off from the arch including isolating and controlling blood flow of the arch vessels with the patient under total circulatory arrest and/or isolated cerebral perfusion. Report this code in addition to the code for the primary procedure.",CPT +33871,Repair Procedures for Thoracic Aortic Aneurysm.,"The provider repairs a defect, such as an aneurysm, in the aortic arch with a synthetic graft with the patient under intermittent cardiopulmonary bypass or deep hypothermic circulatory arrest while isolating the circulation to the brain from the systemic circulation. The arch vessels are individually reimplanted in the aortic arch graft or reimplanted as a two–vessel or three–vessel island, also called a 2– or 3–vessel Carrel patch graft.",CPT +33875,Repair Procedures for Thoracic Aortic Aneurysm.,The provider replaces the descending thoracic aorta with a graft. The provider may perform this procedure with bypass.,CPT +33877,Repair Procedures for Thoracic Aortic Aneurysm.,The provider repairs the swelling on the wall of the thoracoabdominal artery using a graft. The provider may perform this procedure with cardiopulmonary bypass.,CPT +33880,Endovascular Repair Procedures of the Descending Thoracic Aorta.,"The provider repairs the descending thoracic aorta. He uses arteriography, which is a technique to visualize the inside of blood vessels. Then he places an endoprosthesis inside the blood vessels to repair an aneurysm, pseudoaneurysm, ulcer, intramural hematoma, or any traumatic disruption. This procedure also includes repair of the left subclavian artery origin. The provider may use a prosthesis to the level of celiac artery origin.",CPT +33881,Endovascular Repair Procedures of the Descending Thoracic Aorta.,"The provider repairs the descending thoracic aorta. He uses arteriography, which is a technique to visualize the inside of blood vessels. He places an endoprosthesis inside the blood vessels to repair an aneurysm, pseudoaneurysm, ulcer, intramural hematoma, or any traumatic disruption. The provider may use a prosthesis to the level of the celiac artery origin. This procedure does not include repair of the left subclavian artery origin.",CPT +33883,Endovascular Repair Procedures of the Descending Thoracic Aorta.,"The provider places a proximal extension prosthesis inside the descending thoracic aorta. He performs this procedure to repair an aneurysm, pseudoaneurysm, ulcer, intramural hematoma, or any traumatic disruption. This code represents the placement of the initial extension.",CPT +33884,Endovascular Repair Procedures of the Descending Thoracic Aorta.,"At the same session where the provider places a proximal extension prosthesis inside the descending thoracic aorta, he places an additional proximal extension. He performs this procedure to repair an aneurysm, pseudoaneurysm, ulcer, intramural hematoma, or any traumatic disruption. This code is applicable for each additional proximal extension.",CPT +33886,Endovascular Repair Procedures of the Descending Thoracic Aorta.,"The provider places an extension prosthesis in the descending aorta using a guidewire. He commonly performs this procedure to repair an endoleak in the descending thoracic aorta that had been previously grafted due to an aneurysm, pseudoaneurysm, dissection, penetrating ulcer, intramural hematoma, or traumatic disruption. These endoleaks are due to an exclusion of the aneurysm, which causes backflow of blood into the aneurysm.",CPT +33889,Endovascular Repair Procedures of the Descending Thoracic Aorta.,The provider transposes the subclavian artery with the carotid artery. He also makes a unilateral incision on one side of the neck and repairs the descending thoracic aorta.,CPT +33891,Endovascular Repair Procedures of the Descending Thoracic Aorta.,The provider creates a graft from the soft tissues behind the pharynx. He also makes a neck incision and repairs the descending thoracic aorta.,CPT +33894,Endovascular Repair of Congenital Heart and Vascular Defects.,"The provider uses a minimally invasive approach to place a stent (tube) across one or more major side branches of the aorta to treat coarctation (narrowing, generally present at birth).",CPT +33895,Endovascular Repair of Congenital Heart and Vascular Defects.,"The provider uses a minimally invasive approach to place a stent (tube) in the aorta to treat coarctation (narrowing, generally present at birth). The stent does not cross one or more major side branches of the aorta.",CPT +33897,Endovascular Repair of Congenital Heart and Vascular Defects.,"The provider uses a minimally invasive approach to perform angioplasty to widen coarctation of the aorta, which is narrowing, generally present at birth.",CPT +33900,Endovascular Repair of Pulmonary Artery.,"Via normal native connections, the provider performs stent placement to expand the narrowed walls of a pulmonary artery. This is a unilateral service.",CPT +33901,Endovascular Repair of Pulmonary Artery.,"Via normal native connections, the provider performs stent placement to expand the narrowed pulmonary artery walls. This is a bilateral service.",CPT +33902,Endovascular Repair of Pulmonary Artery.,"Via abnormal connections, the provider performs stent placement to expand the narrowed walls of a pulmonary artery. This is a unilateral service.",CPT +33903,Endovascular Repair of Pulmonary Artery.,"Via abnormal connections, the provider performs stent placement to expand the narrowed pulmonary artery walls. This is a bilateral service.",CPT +33904,Endovascular Repair of Pulmonary Artery.,"Via normal or abnormal connections, the provider performs stent placement to expand the narrowed walls of a pulmonary artery. This is an add–on service, placing one or more stents in additional vessels or lesions beyond the primary vessel or lesion treated at the encounter.",CPT +33910,Surgical Procedures on the Pulmonary Artery.,The provider performs an urgent surgical procedure to remove an embolus or blockage from the pulmonary artery. This life–threatening blockage commonly occurs due to a blood clot in the leg that travels to the heart where it is obstructing blood flow to the lungs. This service includes cardiopulmonary bypass.,CPT +33915,Surgical Procedures on the Pulmonary Artery.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an urgent surgical procedure to remove an embolus or blockage from the pulmonary artery. This life threatening blockage commonly occurs due to a blood clot in the leg that travels to the heart where it is obstructing blood flow to the lungs. This code does not include cardiopulmonary bypass.",CPT +33916,Surgical Procedures on the Pulmonary Artery.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically removes a blood clot from the pulmonary artery and may perform an embolectomy. This service is done to treat chronic thromboembolic pulmonary hypertension, or the ongoing high blood pressure in the pulmonary arteries that occurs from clots that clog the arteries in the lungs. The provider performs this procedure with cardiopulmonary bypass.",CPT +33917,Surgical Procedures on the Pulmonary Artery.,"In this procedure, the provider repairs a stenosis of the pulmonary artery by using a patch or graft to enlarge it. Stenosis is an abnormal narrowing of the artery which hampers normal flow of blood.",CPT +33920,Surgical Procedures on the Pulmonary Artery.,"The provider surgically repairs pulmonary atresia, an anomaly present from birth in which the pulmonary valve of the infant does not develop properly. The provider also surgically repairs a ventricular septal defect. He performs these repairs by constructing a channel from the right or left ventricle of the heart to the pulmonary artery.",CPT +33922,Surgical Procedures on the Pulmonary Artery.,The provider surgically transects or incises across the pulmonary artery due to an underlying anomaly of the pulmonary artery. He performs this procedure with cardiopulmonary bypass.,CPT +33924,Surgical Procedures on the Pulmonary Artery.,The provider surgically ligates and reestablishes the connection between the systemic artery and the pulmonary artery following a previous operation to create a shunt between the two arteries. He also performs a heart procedure to correct an anomaly present from birth.,CPT +33925,Surgical Procedures on the Pulmonary Artery.,"The provider performs repairs of the pulmonary arteries and creates a unifocal, or single, pulmonary blood supply, thereby resulting in complete repair of the arborization (branching) anomalies. The provider performs this procedure without cardiopulmonary bypass.",CPT +33926,Surgical Procedures on the Pulmonary Artery.,"The provider repairs the pulmonary arteries and creates a unifocal or single pulmonary blood supply, thereby resulting in complete repair of arborization anomalies. The provider performs this procedure with cardiopulmonary bypass.",CPT +33927,Heart/Lung Transplantation Procedures.,The provider removes the patient’s heart and implants an artificial heart as a temporary measure until a donor heart is found or for patients who are not eligible for a heart transplant and require permanent mechanical cardiac support.,CPT +33928,Heart/Lung Transplantation Procedures.,The provider removes a previously placed artificial heart and implants a new one as a temporary measure until a donor heart is found or for patients who are not eligible for a heart transplant and require permanent mechanical cardiac support. The replaced artificial heart may have failed or a newer model may be required for other reasons.,CPT +33929,Heart/Lung Transplantation Procedures.,,CPT +33930,Heart/Lung Transplantation Procedures.,"The provider surgically removes a donor heart in a procedure known as a cardiectomy. He also removes the lungs, which is called a pneumonectomy, from the donor and preserves the organs in cold storage for future transplantation in a recipient patient who needs them.",CPT +33933,Heart/Lung Transplantation Procedures.,"The provider prepares the donor heart and lung that he receives in a cold solution for transplantation to a recipient’s body. He inspects the heart, and excises or sutures the blood vessels, if they need repair, and removes any blood clots. He examines the lungs and removes any pericardial tissue he finds on the lungs. He also excises the trachea, or windpipe, to the necessary length.",CPT +33935,Heart/Lung Transplantation Procedures.,The provider surgically removes the patient’s heart and lung and transplants a donor heart and lung into the patient’s body.,CPT +33940,Heart/Lung Transplantation Procedures.,"The provider performs a cardiectomy, or surgical removal of the heart, for transplant. He places the heart in a cold preservation solution for a later transplant.",CPT +33944,Heart/Lung Transplantation Procedures.,"The provider prepares the donor heart that he receives in a cold solution for transplantation to a recipient’s body. He inspects the heart, excises, or sutures the blood vessels if they need repair, and removes any blood clots. He also excises the pulmonary artery and aorta as necessary.",CPT +33945,Heart/Lung Transplantation Procedures.,The provider transplants a heart into a patient’s body. He may perform a cardiectomy as part of the procedure.,CPT +33946,Extracorporeal Membrane Oxygenation or Extracorporeal Life Support Services and Procedures.,"The provider initiates extracorporeal circulation by inserting a cannula through a venovenous (VV) route where the blood that drains from the venous system is returned to the venous system. This method is useful in patients experiencing lung failure such as cardiopulmonary insufficiency, acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), or in lung transplantation situations as a bridge to transplantation.",CPT +33947,Extracorporeal Membrane Oxygenation or Extracorporeal Life Support Services and Procedures.,"The provider initiates extracorporeal circulation, by inserting a cannula through a veno–arterial (VA) route, where the blood that drains from the venous system is returned to the arterial system. This method is useful in patients experiencing severe heart failure, or in post cardiac or heart transplant surgeries.",CPT +33948,Extracorporeal Membrane Oxygenation or Extracorporeal Life Support Services and Procedures.,"The provider handles the daily management of a venovenous (VV) ECMO or ECLS circulation for a patient who was previously placed on extracorporeal circulation where the blood that drains from the venous system is returned to the venous system. This method is useful for patients experiencing lung failure such as cardiopulmonary insufficiency, acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), or in lung transplantation situations as a bridge to transplantation.",CPT +33949,Extracorporeal Membrane Oxygenation or Extracorporeal Life Support Services and Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider handles the daily management of a veno–arterial (VA) ECMO or ECLS circulation for a patient who was previously placed on extracorporeal circulation where the blood that drains from the venous system is returned to the venous system. This method is useful for patients experiencing lung failure such as cardiopulmonary insufficiency, acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), or in lung transplantation situations as a bridge to transplantation.",CPT +33951,Extracorporeal Membrane Oxygenation or Extracorporeal Life Support Services and Procedures.,"The provider inserts a peripheral cannula through a percutaneous incision to perform extracorporeal circulation in a child from birth through five years of age. This procedure is commonly done for a child with cardiopulmonary insufficiency, a condition of the heart and lungs where an interruption in the blood circulation in the heart and pulmonary vessels leads to decreased oxygen saturation in the blood and may result in pulmonic regurgitation and heart failure. The procedure includes the use of fluoroscopic guidance.",CPT +33952,Extracorporeal Membrane Oxygenation or Extracorporeal Life Support Services and Procedures.,"The provider inserts a peripheral cannula through a percutaneous incision to perform extracorporeal circulation in a child six years and older. This procedure is commonly done for a child with cardiopulmonary insufficiency, a condition of the heart and lungs where an interruption in the blood circulation in the heart and pulmonary vessels leads to decreased oxygen saturation in the blood and may result in pulmonic regurgitation and heart failure. The procedure includes the use of fluoroscopic guidance.",CPT +33953,Extracorporeal Membrane Oxygenation or Extracorporeal Life Support Services and Procedures.,The provider inserts a peripheral cannula for extracorporeal circulation through an open surgical approach in a child from birth through five years of age.,CPT +33954,Extracorporeal Membrane Oxygenation or Extracorporeal Life Support Services and Procedures.,The provider inserts a peripheral cannula for extracorporeal circulation through an open surgical approach in a child six years and older.,CPT +33955,Extracorporeal Membrane Oxygenation or Extracorporeal Life Support Services and Procedures.,"The provider inserts a central cannula through an open approach, by sternotomy or thoracotomy, in a child from birth through five years of age for extracorporeal circulation.",CPT +33956,Extracorporeal Membrane Oxygenation or Extracorporeal Life Support Services and Procedures.,"The provider inserts a central cannula through an open approach, by sternotomy or thoracotomy, in a child six years and older for extracorporeal circulation.",CPT +33957,Extracorporeal Membrane Oxygenation or Extracorporeal Life Support Services and Procedures.,The provider repositions a peripheral cannula through a percutaneous incision to perform extracorporeal circulation in a child from birth through five years of age. The procedure includes the use of fluoroscopic guidance.,CPT +33958,Extracorporeal Membrane Oxygenation or Extracorporeal Life Support Services and Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider repositions a peripheral cannula through a percutaneous incision to perform extracorporeal circulation in a child six years and older. The procedure includes the use of fluoroscopic guidance.",CPT +33959,Extracorporeal Membrane Oxygenation or Extracorporeal Life Support Services and Procedures.,The provider repositions a peripheral cannula for extracorporeal circulation through an open surgical approach in a child from birth through five years of age. The procedure includes the use of fluoroscopic guidance.,CPT +33962,Extracorporeal Membrane Oxygenation or Extracorporeal Life Support Services and Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider repositions a peripheral cannula, for extracorporeal circulation, through an open surgical approach in a child six years and older. The procedure includes the use of fluoroscopic guidance.",CPT +33963,Extracorporeal Membrane Oxygenation or Extracorporeal Life Support Services and Procedures.,"The provider repositions a central cannula for extracorporeal circulation, through an open approach, by sternotomy or a thoracotomy approach, in a child from birth through five years of age. This procedure includes the use of fluoroscopic guidance.",CPT +33964,Extracorporeal Membrane Oxygenation or Extracorporeal Life Support Services and Procedures.,"The provider repositions the central cannula for extracorporeal circulation, through an open approach, by sternotomy, or a thoracotomy approach, in a child six years and older. The procedure includes the use of fluoroscopic guidance.",CPT +33965,Extracorporeal Membrane Oxygenation or Extracorporeal Life Support Services and Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a peripheral cannula for extracorporeal circulation, percutaneously, or through an incision through the skin, in a child from birth through five years of age.",CPT +33966,Extracorporeal Membrane Oxygenation or Extracorporeal Life Support Services and Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a peripheral cannula for extracorporeal circulation, percutaneously, or through an incision through the skin in a child six years and older.",CPT +33967,Cardiac Assist Procedures.,"The provider inserts an intra–aortic balloon catheter percutaneously, or through the skin, into the aorta. He performs this procedure in patients with an interrupted blood supply.",CPT +33968,Cardiac Assist Procedures.,The provider removes a previous percutaneously inserted intra aortic balloon from the aorta once the patient stabilizes. The placement of the intra aortic balloon catheter is a separate procedure.,CPT +33969,Extracorporeal Membrane Oxygenation or Extracorporeal Life Support Services and Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a peripheral cannula for extracorporeal circulation, through an open approach in a child from birth through five years of age.",CPT +33970,Cardiac Assist Procedures.,The provider inserts an intra–aortic balloon into the aorta through the femoral artery by incising through the skin and the underlying tissue to expose the artery. He performs this procedure in patients with an interrupted blood supply.,CPT +33971,Cardiac Assist Procedures.,The provider removes the previously inserted intra–aortic balloon into the aorta. He also repairs the femoral artery and may use a graft. The provider performs this procedure once the patient stabilizes. The placement of the intra–aortic balloon catheter is a separately reportable procedure.,CPT +33973,Cardiac Assist Procedures.,The provider inserts an intra–aortic balloon into the heart through the ascending aorta. He performs this procedure in patients with an interrupted blood supply for whom a femoral approach is not possible for various reasons.,CPT +33974,Cardiac Assist Procedures.,The provider removes the previously inserted intra–aortic balloon from the ascending aorta. He also repairs the ascending aorta and may use a graft. The provider performs this procedure once the patient stabilizes. The placement of the intra–aortic balloon catheter is a separately reportable procedure.,CPT +33975,Cardiac Assist Procedures.,The provider inserts a ventricular assist device (VAD) in a patient’s heart. The provider performs this procedure in patients who have weak hearts or heart failure. This code is applicable to a single ventricle.,CPT +33976,Cardiac Assist Procedures.,The provider inserts a ventricular assist device (VAD) in a patient’s heart. The provider performs this procedure in patients who have weak hearts or heart failure. This code is applicable to both ventricles.,CPT +33977,Cardiac Assist Procedures.,"The provider removes a previously inserted ventricular assist device (VAD), in the patient’s heart. The provider performs this procedure when the patient stabilizes after the placement of the initial VAD in a separate procedure. This code is applicable to a single ventricle.",CPT +33978,Cardiac Assist Procedures.,The provider removes a previously inserted ventricular assist device (VAD). The provider performs this procedure when the patient stabilizes after the placement of the initial VAD in a separate procedure. This code is applicable to both ventricles.,CPT +33979,Cardiac Assist Procedures.,The provider inserts an implantable ventricular assist device (VAD) into a patient’s heart. The provider performs this procedure in patients who have weak hearts or heart failure. This code is applicable to a single ventricle.,CPT +33980,Cardiac Assist Procedures.,The provider removes a previously inserted ventricular assist device (VAD) in the patient’s heart. The provider performs this procedure once the patient stabilizes after the placement of a ventricular assist device in a separate procedure. This code is applicable to a single ventricle.,CPT +33981,Cardiac Assist Procedures.,The provider replaces the pump in a previously placed ventricular assist device (VAD) with a new pump. This code is applicable for pump replacement in one or both ventricles.,CPT +33982,Cardiac Assist Procedures.,The provider replaces the implanted pump from a previously placed ventricular assist device (VAD) with a new pump. This code is applicable for pump replacement in a single ventricle. The provider performs this procedure without cardiopulmonary bypass.,CPT +33983,Cardiac Assist Procedures.,The provider replaces the implantable pump in a previously placed ventricular assist device (VAD) with a new pump. This code is applicable for replacement of a pump in a single ventricle. The provider places the patient on cardiopulmonary bypass to perform this procedure.,CPT +33984,Extracorporeal Membrane Oxygenation or Extracorporeal Life Support Services and Procedures.,The provider removes a peripheral cannula for extracorporeal circulation through an open approach in a child six years and older.,CPT +33985,Extracorporeal Membrane Oxygenation or Extracorporeal Life Support Services and Procedures.,The provider removes a central cannula for extracorporeal circulation through an open sternotomy or thoracotomy approach in a child from birth through five years of age.,CPT +33986,Extracorporeal Membrane Oxygenation or Extracorporeal Life Support Services and Procedures.,The provider removes the central cannula for extracorporeal circulation through an open sternotomy or thoracotomy approach in a child six years and older.,CPT +33987,Extracorporeal Membrane Oxygenation or Extracorporeal Life Support Services and Procedures.,"For this add–on code, the provider creates a graft channel to help achieve arterial perfusion for extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) or extracorporeal life support (ECLS). ECMO and ECLS involve the use of specialized machines to take on the work of the heart and lungs, allowing those organs to recover.",CPT +33988,Extracorporeal Membrane Oxygenation or Extracorporeal Life Support Services and Procedures.,"The provider inserts a venting catheter in the left heart through a thoracic incision, such as a sternotomy or thoracotomy. The service is part of extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) or extracorporeal life support (ECLS). ECMO and ECLS involve the use of specialized machines to take on the work of the heart and lungs, allowing those organs to recover. The vent helps prevent heart chamber distension.",CPT +33989,Extracorporeal Membrane Oxygenation or Extracorporeal Life Support Services and Procedures.,"The provider removes the vent catheter from the left heart through a thoracic incision, such as a sternotomy or thoracotomy. The service is part of extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) or extracorporeal life support (ECLS). ECMO and ECLS involve the use of specialized machines to take on the work of the heart and lungs, allowing those organs to recover.",CPT +33990,Cardiac Assist Procedures.,"The provider inserts a ventricular assist device (VAD) percutaneously, or through the skin, and into the patient’s left heart under radiological guidance. The provider uses the arterial system to access the left heart.",CPT +33991,Cardiac Assist Procedures.,"The provider inserts a ventricular assist device (VAD) percutaneously, or through the skin, and into the patient’s left heart under radiological guidance. He uses both vein and artery access, puncturing across the septum (dividing wall in the heart) via a transseptal puncture.",CPT +33992,Cardiac Assist Procedures.,"The provider removes a percutaneous left heart ventricular assist device (VAD) and arterial or arterial and venous cannula(s). The provider performs this procedure once the VAD helps the patient stabilize, or the patient receives an artificial heart or heart transplantation. The provider performs this service at a different operative encounter after the placement of the VAD.",CPT +33993,Cardiac Assist Procedures.,"The provider repositions a percutaneous right or left ventricular assist device (VAD), inserted in the patient during a prior procedure. The provider performs the repositioning of the VAD to ensure the appropriate placement of the cannula of the device. He performs this procedure under radiologic or imaging guidance.",CPT +33995,Cardiac Assist Procedures.,"The provider inserts a ventricular assist device (VAD) percutaneously, or through the skin, and into the patient’s right heart under radiological guidance. The provider uses the venous system to access the right heart.",CPT +33997,Cardiac Assist Procedures.,"The provider removes a percutaneous right heart ventricular assist device (VAD) and venous cannula. The provider performs this procedure once the VAD helps the patient stabilize, or the patient receives an artificial heart or heart transplantation. The provider performs this service at a different operative encounter after the placement of the VAD.",CPT +33999,Other Cardiac Surgery Procedures.,Use this code to report surgical procedures on the heart for which there is no specific code available.,CPT +34001,"Arterial Embolectomy/Thrombectomy Procedures, With or Without Catheter.","The provider surgically removes an obstruction, such as a blood clot from the carotid, subclavian, or innominate artery. He may or may not use a catheter for the removal. He reaches the artery by making an incision in the patient’s neck.",CPT +34051,"Arterial Embolectomy/Thrombectomy Procedures, With or Without Catheter.","The provider surgically removes an obstruction, such as a blood clot from the subclavian and innominate artery. He may or may not use a catheter for the removal. He reaches the artery by making an incision in the patient’s thorax.",CPT +34101,"Arterial Embolectomy/Thrombectomy Procedures, With or Without Catheter.","The provider surgically removes an obstruction, such as a fatty deposit or blood clot from the axillary, brachial, subclavian, or innominate artery. He reaches the artery by making an incision in the patient’s arm and may use a catheter for the removal.",CPT +34111,"Arterial Embolectomy/Thrombectomy Procedures, With or Without Catheter.","In this procedure, the provider makes an incision in the arm and divides the vessel and soft tissues. He opens the radial or ulnar artery and clears the blockage with or without using a catheter.",CPT +34151,"Arterial Embolectomy/Thrombectomy Procedures, With or Without Catheter.","In this procedure, the provider makes an incision in the abdomen. The provider enters the renal, celiac, mesentery, or aortoiliac artery and removes the clot that blocks the vessel with or without using a catheter.",CPT +34201,"Arterial Embolectomy/Thrombectomy Procedures, With or Without Catheter.","In this procedure, the provider makes an incision in the leg. The provider enters the femoropopliteal or aortoiliac artery and removes the clot with or without using a catheter.",CPT +34203,"Arterial Embolectomy/Thrombectomy Procedures, With or Without Catheter.","In this procedure, the provider makes an incision in the leg. The provider enters the popliteal–tibio–peroneal artery and removes the clot with or without using a catheter.",CPT +34401,"Venous Embolectomy/Thrombectomy, Direct or With Catheter.","In this procedure, the provider makes an incision in the abdomen. She removes the clot from the vena cava or iliac vein and performs repairs.",CPT +34421,"Venous Embolectomy/Thrombectomy, Direct or With Catheter.","In this procedure, the provider makes an incision in the leg for thrombectomy of the vena cava, iliac, and/or femoropopliteal vein. He removes the clot with or without using catheters.",CPT +34451,"Venous Embolectomy/Thrombectomy, Direct or With Catheter.","In this procedure, the provider makes an incision in the leg and abdomen to gain access to the vena cava, iliac, or femoropopliteal vein. He removes the clot and closes the incision.",CPT +34471,"Venous Embolectomy/Thrombectomy, Direct or With Catheter.","In this procedure, the provider makes an incision in the neck. She advances to the subclavian vein and removes the clot from the vein, with or without using a catheter.",CPT +34490,"Venous Embolectomy/Thrombectomy, Direct or With Catheter.","In this procedure, the provider makes an incision in the arm. She advances to the subclavian or axillary vein and removes the clot from the vein, with or without using a catheter.",CPT +34501,Venous Reconstruction Procedures.,The physician makes an incision in the thigh to access and repair the femoral vein valve.,CPT +34502,Venous Reconstruction Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider rebuilds the vena cava. He may use any method to complete the reconstruction.",CPT +34510,Venous Reconstruction Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider uses an appropriate incision to gain access to the defected valve in the vein. She removes the defected valve and uses a graft to replace it.",CPT +34520,Venous Reconstruction Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider makes incisions over the two veins involved in the procedure. He divides one of the veins and attaches it to the other vein.",CPT +34530,Venous Reconstruction Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision near the knee. She divides the saphenous vein and attaches it to the popliteal vein.",CPT +34701,Endovascular Repair Procedures of the Abdominal Aorta and/or Iliac Arteries.,"The provider places an aorto–aortic tube endograft to repair the infrarenal aorta for reasons other than rupture or injury. This code covers pre–procedure sizing and device selection, any nonselective catheterization, angioplasty or stenting, any endograft extensions performed from the renal arteries to the aortic bifurcation, and all radiological supervision and interpretation.",CPT +34702,Endovascular Repair Procedures of the Abdominal Aorta and/or Iliac Arteries.,"The provider places an aorto–aortic tube endograft to repair a ruptured infrarenal aorta. This code covers pre–procedure sizing and device selection, any nonselective catheterization, temporary aortic or iliac balloon occlusion, angioplasty or stenting, any endograft extensions performed from the renal arteries to the aortic bifurcation, and all radiological supervision and interpretation.",CPT +34703,Endovascular Repair Procedures of the Abdominal Aorta and/or Iliac Arteries.,"The provider places an aorto–uni–iliac endograft (a tube graft that extends from inside the aorta down one limb of the iliac arteries) to repair the infrarenal aorta or iliac artery for reasons other than rupture or injury. This code covers pre–procedure sizing and device selection, any nonselective catheterization, angioplasty/stenting, any endograft extensions performed from the renal arteries to the iliac bifurcation and all radiological supervision and interpretation.",CPT +34704,Endovascular Repair Procedures of the Abdominal Aorta and/or Iliac Arteries.,"The provider places an aorto–uni–iliac endograft (a tube graft that extends from inside the aorta down one limb of the iliac arteries) to repair the infrarenal aorta or iliac artery for reasons other than rupture or injury. This code covers pre–procedure sizing and device selection, any nonselective catheterization, angioplasty/stenting, any endograft extensions performed from the renal arteries to the iliac bifurcation and all radiological supervision and interpretation.",CPT +34705,Endovascular Repair Procedures of the Abdominal Aorta and/or Iliac Arteries.,"The provider places an aorto–bi–iliac endograft (a Y–shaped tube graft that extends from inside the aorta down both iliac arteries) to repair the infrarenal aorta or iliac artery for reasons other than rupture or injury. This code covers pre–procedure sizing and device selection, any nonselective catheterization, angioplasty/stenting, any endograft extensions performed from the renal arteries to the iliac bifurcation and all radiological supervision and interpretation.",CPT +34706,Endovascular Repair Procedures of the Abdominal Aorta and/or Iliac Arteries.,"The provider places an aorto–bi–iliac endograft (a Y–shaped tube graft that extends from inside the aorta down both iliac arteries) to repair a ruptured infrarenal aorta or iliac artery. This code covers pre–procedure sizing and device selection, any nonselective catheterization, angioplasty/stenting, any endograft extensions performed from the renal arteries to the iliac bifurcation and all radiological supervision and interpretation.",CPT +34707,Endovascular Repair Procedures of the Abdominal Aorta and/or Iliac Arteries.,"The provider places an ilio–iliac tube endograft to repair an iliac artery on one side of the body for reasons other than rupture or injury. This code covers pre–procedure sizing and device selection, any nonselective catheterization, angioplasty/stenting, any endograft extensions performed up to the aortic bifurcation and down to the iliac bifurcation and all radiological supervision and interpretation.",CPT +34708,Endovascular Repair Procedures of the Abdominal Aorta and/or Iliac Arteries.,"The provider places an ilio–iliac tube endograft to repair a ruptured iliac artery on one side of the body. This code covers pre–procedure sizing and device selection, any nonselective catheterization, angioplasty/stenting, any endograft extensions performed up to the aortic bifurcation and down to the iliac bifurcation and all radiological supervision and interpretation.",CPT +34709,Endovascular Repair Procedures of the Abdominal Aorta and/or Iliac Arteries.,"Report this add–on code for each vessel treated when the provider places an extension prosthesis (tube graft) to repair an infrarenal abdominal aortic or iliac vessel during the performance of a primary vascular procedure. The procedure includes nonselective catheterization, angioplasty or stenting, device selection, and radiological supervision and interpretation when performed.",CPT +34710,Endovascular Repair Procedures of the Abdominal Aorta and/or Iliac Arteries.,"Report this code for the initial vessel treated when the provider places an extension prosthesis (tube graft) for delayed repair of an infrarenal abdominal aortic or iliac vessel. The procedure includes nonselective catheterization, angioplasty or stenting, device selection, and radiological supervision and interpretation when performed.",CPT +34711,Endovascular Repair Procedures of the Abdominal Aorta and/or Iliac Arteries.,"Report this add–on code for each additional vessel treated after the first when the provider places an extension prosthesis (tube graft) for delayed repair of an infrarenal abdominal aortic or iliac vessel. The procedure includes nonselective catheterization, angioplasty or stenting, device selection, and radiological supervision and interpretation when performed.",CPT +34712,Endovascular Repair Procedures of the Abdominal Aorta and/or Iliac Arteries.,"The provider uses imaging guidance to place one or more fixation devices, such as an anchor, screw or tack, to secure a previously placed endograft (a tubelike device) in place in the artery to treat a leak or migration of the graft. Radiological supervision and interpretation are included, so do not report those services separately.",CPT +34713,Endovascular Repair Procedures of the Abdominal Aorta and/or Iliac Arteries.,"During the performance of a primary vascular procedure, the provider makes a small incision through the skin (percutaneous) and femoral artery and, typically using ultrasound guidance, inserts a 12F or larger sheath (tube) to deliver an endograft to repair the artery following which she closes the incisions in the artery and skin. This code is for one side only and should be reported in addition to the code for the primary endovascular repair procedure.",CPT +34714,Endovascular Repair Procedures of the Abdominal Aorta and/or Iliac Arteries.,The provider makes an incision in the groin down to the femoral artery where she creates a conduit for delivery of an endovascular prosthesis (tube graft) or for establishment of cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB). Report this code in addition to the code for the primary endovascular repair or the heart procedure requiring CPB.,CPT +34715,Endovascular Repair Procedures of the Abdominal Aorta and/or Iliac Arteries.,The provider makes an incision below or above the right or left clavicle down to the axillary or subclavian artery for insertion of an endovascular prosthesis (tube graft). Report this code in addition to the code for the primary endovascular repair procedure.,CPT +34716,Endovascular Repair Procedures of the Abdominal Aorta and/or Iliac Arteries.,The provider makes an incision below or above the right or left clavicle down to the axillary or subclavian artery and creates a conduit in the artery for insertion of an endovascular prosthesis (tube graft). Report this code in addition to the code for the primary endovascular repair procedure.,CPT +34717,Endovascular Repair Procedures of the Abdominal Aorta and/or Iliac Arteries.,"During a procedure to place an endograft in the aortoiliac artery, the provider also places a branched endograft in the main iliac artery and its major branches on one side of the body to repair a rupture or other defect. The procedure includes sizing and device selection, selective catheterization on the same side, all endograft extensions, angioplasty or stenting, and all RS&I, when performed. Report this code in conjunction with the code for the primary procedure.",CPT +34718,Endovascular Repair Procedures of the Abdominal Aorta and/or Iliac Arteries.,"The provider places a branched endograft in the main iliac artery and its major branches on one side of the body to repair a rupture or other defect. The procedure includes sizing and device selection, selective catheterization on the same side, all endograft extensions, angioplasty or stenting, and all RS&I, when performed. Report this code in conjunction with the code for the primary procedure.",CPT +34808,Endovascular Repair Procedures of the Abdominal Aorta and/or Iliac Arteries.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider places an occlusive device into the iliac artery during the same session as infrarenal abdominal aortic or iliac aneurysm, false aneurysm, or dissection repair.",CPT +34812,Endovascular Repair Procedures of the Abdominal Aorta and/or Iliac Arteries.,"While performing a primary procedure, the provider makes an incision in the groin down to the femoral artery in order to insert an endovascular prosthesis, a tubelike device placed within a vessel. She then continues with the primary procedure. Report this procedure separately in conjunction with the primary procedure code.",CPT +34813,Endovascular Repair Procedures of the Abdominal Aorta and/or Iliac Arteries.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider places a graft going from one femoral artery to the other at the same session as a separately reportable endovascular repair of an aortic aneurysm.",CPT +34820,Endovascular Repair Procedures of the Abdominal Aorta and/or Iliac Arteries.,"While performing a primary procedure, the provider makes an incision in the abdominal or retroperitoneal area to locate the iliac artery for placement of an endovascular prosthesis (a tubelike device to improve blood flow) or an occlusion device to obstruct blood flow. She then continues with the primary procedure. Report this procedure separately in conjunction with the primary procedure code.",CPT +34830,Endovascular Repair Procedures of the Abdominal Aorta and/or Iliac Arteries.,"After an unsuccessful endovascular repair, the provider uses an abdominal or retroperitoneal incision to repair an aneurysm or dissection in the infrarenal aorta using a tube prosthesis. He also repairs the associated trauma from the unsuccessful repair.",CPT +34831,Endovascular Repair Procedures of the Abdominal Aorta and/or Iliac Arteries.,"After an unsuccessful endovascular repair, the provider uses an abdominal or retroperitoneal incision to repair an aneurysm or dissection in the infrarenal aorta using an aorto–bi–iliac prosthesis. He also repairs the associated trauma from the unsuccessful repair.",CPT +34832,Endovascular Repair Procedures of the Abdominal Aorta and/or Iliac Arteries.,"After an unsuccessful endovascular repair, the provider uses an abdominal or retroperitoneal incision to repair an aneurysm or dissection in the infrarenal aorta using an aorto–bifemoral prosthesis. He also repairs the associated trauma from the unsuccessful repair.",CPT +34833,Endovascular Repair Procedures of the Abdominal Aorta and/or Iliac Arteries.,"While performing a primary procedure, the provider makes an abdominal or retroperitoneal incision to access the iliac artery and creates a conduit for endovascular prosthesis placement or cardiopulmonary bypass. This code cannot be billed alone; it must be reported in conjunction with the code for the primary procedure.",CPT +34834,Endovascular Repair Procedures of the Abdominal Aorta and/or Iliac Arteries.,"While performing a primary procedure, the provider makes an incision over the brachial artery to expose it for access for endovascular prosthesis placement. Report this code in conjunction with the primary procedure code.",CPT +34839,Fenestrated Endovascular Repair Procedures of the Visceral and Infrarenal Aorta.,"In this procedure, the physician plans the graft for a patient’s fenestrated endovascular aortic aneurysm repair (FEVAR).",CPT +34841,Fenestrated Endovascular Repair Procedures of the Visceral and Infrarenal Aorta.,"Under radiological guidance, the provider places a fenestrated endograft (with holes) to repair the visceral aorta (upper abdominal aorta with the celiac, superior mesenteric, and renal arteries). He also places a single visceral artery prosthesis.",CPT +34842,Fenestrated Endovascular Repair Procedures of the Visceral and Infrarenal Aorta.,"Under radiological guidance, the provider places a fenestrated endograft (with holes) to repair the visceral aorta (upper abdominal aorta with the celiac, superior mesenteric, and renal arteries). He also places two additional visceral artery endoprostheses.",CPT +34843,Fenestrated Endovascular Repair Procedures of the Visceral and Infrarenal Aorta.,"Under radiological guidance, the provider places a fenestrated endograft (with holes) to repair the visceral aorta (upper abdominal aorta with the celiac, superior mesenteric, and renal arteries). He also places three additional visceral artery endoprostheses.",CPT +34844,Fenestrated Endovascular Repair Procedures of the Visceral and Infrarenal Aorta.,"Under radiological guidance, the provider places a fenestrated endograft (with holes) to repair the visceral aorta (upper abdominal aorta with the celiac, superior mesenteric, and renal arteries). He also places four additional visceral artery endoprostheses.",CPT +34845,Fenestrated Endovascular Repair Procedures of the Visceral and Infrarenal Aorta.,"Under radiological guidance, the provider places a fenestrated endograft (with holes) to repair the visceral aorta (upper abdominal aorta with the celiac, superior mesenteric, and renal arteries). He places either a one–piece or multiple–piece endograft in the infrarenal aorta (abdominal aorta below the kidneys). He also places an additional endoprosthesis in a single visceral artery.",CPT +34846,Fenestrated Endovascular Repair Procedures of the Visceral and Infrarenal Aorta.,"Under radiological guidance, the provider places a fenestrated endograft (with holes) to repair the visceral aorta (upper abdominal aorta with the celiac, superior mesenteric, and renal arteries). He places either a one piece or multiple piece endograft in the infrarenal aorta (abdominal aorta below the kidneys). He also places two additional visceral artery endoprostheses.",CPT +34847,Fenestrated Endovascular Repair Procedures of the Visceral and Infrarenal Aorta.,"Under radiological guidance, the provider places a fenestrated endograft (with holes) to repair the visceral aorta (upper abdominal aorta with the celiac, superior mesenteric, and renal arteries). He places either a one–piece or multiple–piece endograft in the infrarenal aorta (abdominal aorta below the kidneys). He also places three additional visceral artery endoprostheses.",CPT +34848,Fenestrated Endovascular Repair Procedures of the Visceral and Infrarenal Aorta.,"Under radiological guidance, the provider places a fenestrated endograft (with holes) to repair the visceral aorta (upper abdominal aorta with the celiac, superior mesenteric, and renal arteries). He places either a one–piece or multiple–piece endograft in the infrarenal aorta (abdominal aorta below the kidneys). He also places four additional visceral artery endoprostheses.",CPT +35001,"Direct Repair of Aneurysm or Excision (Partial or Total) and Graft Insertion for Aneurysm, Pseudoaneurysm, Ruptured Aneurysm, and Associated Occlusive Disease Procedures.","In this procedure, the provider makes an incision in the neck. He then advances to the target area of the carotid or subclavian artery to treat an aneurysm and related occlusive disease. The provider then performs direct repair or places a graft over the site of repair.",CPT +35002,"Direct Repair of Aneurysm or Excision (Partial or Total) and Graft Insertion for Aneurysm, Pseudoaneurysm, Ruptured Aneurysm, and Associated Occlusive Disease Procedures.","In this procedure, the provider makes an incision in the neck. She then advances to the target area of the carotid or subclavian artery to treat a ruptured aneurysm and related occlusive disease. The provider then performs direct repair or places a graft over the site of repair and closes the incision.",CPT +35005,"Direct Repair of Aneurysm or Excision (Partial or Total) and Graft Insertion for Aneurysm, Pseudoaneurysm, Ruptured Aneurysm, and Associated Occlusive Disease Procedures.","In this procedure, the provider makes an incision to advance into the target area of the vertebral artery to treat the aneurysm or pseudoaneurysm and the related occlusive disease. The provider then performs direct repair or places a graft over the site of repair.",CPT +35011,"Direct Repair of Aneurysm or Excision (Partial or Total) and Graft Insertion for Aneurysm, Pseudoaneurysm, Ruptured Aneurysm, and Associated Occlusive Disease Procedures.","In this procedure, the provider makes an incision in the arm to advance into the target area of the axillary–brachial artery to treat the aneurysm and the related occlusive disease. The provider then performs direct repair or places a graft over the site of repair.",CPT +35013,"Direct Repair of Aneurysm or Excision (Partial or Total) and Graft Insertion for Aneurysm, Pseudoaneurysm, Ruptured Aneurysm, and Associated Occlusive Disease Procedures.","In this procedure, the provider makes an incision in the arm to advance into the target area of the axillary–brachial artery to treat the ruptured aneurysm and the related occlusive disease. The provider then performs direct repair or places a graft over the site of repair.",CPT +35021,"Direct Repair of Aneurysm or Excision (Partial or Total) and Graft Insertion for Aneurysm, Pseudoaneurysm, Ruptured Aneurysm, and Associated Occlusive Disease Procedures.","In this procedure, the provider makes an incision in the chest to access the aneurysm or pseudoaneurysm in the subclavian or innominate artery. The provider then performs direct repair or places a graft at the site of repair.",CPT +35022,"Direct Repair of Aneurysm or Excision (Partial or Total) and Graft Insertion for Aneurysm, Pseudoaneurysm, Ruptured Aneurysm, and Associated Occlusive Disease Procedures.","In this procedure, the provider makes an incision in the chest to access the ruptured aneurysm in the subclavian or innominate artery. The provider then performs direct repair or places a graft at the site of repair.",CPT +35045,"Direct Repair of Aneurysm or Excision (Partial or Total) and Graft Insertion for Aneurysm, Pseudoaneurysm, Ruptured Aneurysm, and Associated Occlusive Disease Procedures.","In this procedure, the provider makes an incision in the arm to access the aneurysm or pseudoaneurysm in the radial or ulnar artery. The provider then performs direct repair or places a graft at the site of repair.",CPT +35081,"Direct Repair of Aneurysm or Excision (Partial or Total) and Graft Insertion for Aneurysm, Pseudoaneurysm, Ruptured Aneurysm, and Associated Occlusive Disease Procedures.","In this procedure, the provider makes an incision into the abdomen to access the aneurysm or pseudoaneurysm in the abdominal aorta. The provider then performs direct repair or places a graft at the site of repair.",CPT +35082,"Direct Repair of Aneurysm or Excision (Partial or Total) and Graft Insertion for Aneurysm, Pseudoaneurysm, Ruptured Aneurysm, and Associated Occlusive Disease Procedures.","In this procedure, the provider makes an incision into the abdomen to access the ruptured aneurysm in the abdominal aorta. The provider then performs direct repair or places a graft at the site of repair.",CPT +35091,"Direct Repair of Aneurysm or Excision (Partial or Total) and Graft Insertion for Aneurysm, Pseudoaneurysm, Ruptured Aneurysm, and Associated Occlusive Disease Procedures.","In this procedure, the provider makes an incision into the abdomen to access the aneurysm or pseudoaneurysm in the abdominal aorta and visceral vessels. The provider then performs direct repair or places a graft at the site of repair.",CPT +35092,"Direct Repair of Aneurysm or Excision (Partial or Total) and Graft Insertion for Aneurysm, Pseudoaneurysm, Ruptured Aneurysm, and Associated Occlusive Disease Procedures.","In this procedure, the provider makes an incision into the abdomen to access the ruptured aneurysm in the abdominal aorta and visceral vessels. The provider then performs direct repair or places a graft at the site of repair.",CPT +35102,"Direct Repair of Aneurysm or Excision (Partial or Total) and Graft Insertion for Aneurysm, Pseudoaneurysm, Ruptured Aneurysm, and Associated Occlusive Disease Procedures.","In this procedure, the provider makes an incision into the abdomen and pelvis to access the aneurysm or pseudoaneurysm in the aorta and iliac vessels. The provider then performs direct repair or places a graft at the site of repair.",CPT +35103,"Direct Repair of Aneurysm or Excision (Partial or Total) and Graft Insertion for Aneurysm, Pseudoaneurysm, Ruptured Aneurysm, and Associated Occlusive Disease Procedures.","In this procedure, the provider makes an incision into the abdomen and pelvis to access the ruptured aneurysm in the aorta and iliac vessels. The provider then performs direct repair or places a graft at the site of repair.",CPT +35111,"Direct Repair of Aneurysm or Excision (Partial or Total) and Graft Insertion for Aneurysm, Pseudoaneurysm, Ruptured Aneurysm, and Associated Occlusive Disease Procedures.","In this procedure, the provider makes an incision in the abdomen to access the aneurysm or pseudoaneurysm in the splenic artery. The provider then performs direct repair or places a graft at the site of repair.",CPT +35112,"Direct Repair of Aneurysm or Excision (Partial or Total) and Graft Insertion for Aneurysm, Pseudoaneurysm, Ruptured Aneurysm, and Associated Occlusive Disease Procedures.","In this procedure, the provider makes an incision in the abdomen to repair the ruptured aneurysm in the splenic artery. The provider then performs direct repair or places a graft at the site of repair.",CPT +35121,"Direct Repair of Aneurysm or Excision (Partial or Total) and Graft Insertion for Aneurysm, Pseudoaneurysm, Ruptured Aneurysm, and Associated Occlusive Disease Procedures.","In this procedure, the provider makes an incision into the abdomen to access the aneurysm or pseudoaneurysm in the hepatic, celiac, renal, or mesenteric artery. The provider then performs direct repair or places a graft at the site of repair.",CPT +35122,"Direct Repair of Aneurysm or Excision (Partial or Total) and Graft Insertion for Aneurysm, Pseudoaneurysm, Ruptured Aneurysm, and Associated Occlusive Disease Procedures.","In this procedure, the provider makes an incision into the abdomen to access the ruptured aneurysm in the hepatic, celiac, renal, or mesenteric artery. The provider then performs direct repair or places a graft at the site of repair.",CPT +35131,"Direct Repair of Aneurysm or Excision (Partial or Total) and Graft Insertion for Aneurysm, Pseudoaneurysm, Ruptured Aneurysm, and Associated Occlusive Disease Procedures.","In this procedure, the provider makes an abdominal or retroperitoneal incision to access the aneurysm or pseudoaneurysm in the iliac artery. The provider then performs direct repair or places a graft at the site of repair.",CPT +35132,"Direct Repair of Aneurysm or Excision (Partial or Total) and Graft Insertion for Aneurysm, Pseudoaneurysm, Ruptured Aneurysm, and Associated Occlusive Disease Procedures.","In this procedure, the provider makes an abdominal or retroperitoneal incision to access the ruptured aneurysm in the iliac artery. The provider then performs direct repair or places a graft at the site of repair.",CPT +35141,"Direct Repair of Aneurysm or Excision (Partial or Total) and Graft Insertion for Aneurysm, Pseudoaneurysm, Ruptured Aneurysm, and Associated Occlusive Disease Procedures.","In this procedure, the provider makes an incision in the thigh to access the aneurysm or pseudoaneurysm in the femoral artery. The provider then performs direct repair or places a graft at the site of repair.",CPT +35142,"Direct Repair of Aneurysm or Excision (Partial or Total) and Graft Insertion for Aneurysm, Pseudoaneurysm, Ruptured Aneurysm, and Associated Occlusive Disease Procedures.","In this procedure, the provider makes an incision in the thigh to repair the ruptured aneurysm in the femoral artery. The provider then performs direct repair or places a graft at the site of repair.",CPT +35151,"Direct Repair of Aneurysm or Excision (Partial or Total) and Graft Insertion for Aneurysm, Pseudoaneurysm, Ruptured Aneurysm, and Associated Occlusive Disease Procedures.","In this procedure, the provider makes an incision below the knee to access the aneurysm or pseudoaneurysm in the popliteal artery. The provider then performs direct repair or places a graft at the site of repair.",CPT +35152,"Direct Repair of Aneurysm or Excision (Partial or Total) and Graft Insertion for Aneurysm, Pseudoaneurysm, Ruptured Aneurysm, and Associated Occlusive Disease Procedures.","In this procedure, the provider makes an incision below the knee to repair the ruptured aneurysm in the popliteal artery. The provider then performs direct repair or places a graft at the site of repair.",CPT +35180,Arteriovenous Fistula Repair Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision to approach the congenital arteriovenous fistula in the head and neck area. He repairs the fistula.",CPT +35182,Arteriovenous Fistula Repair Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision to approach the congenital arteriovenous fistula in the abdomen or thorax. He repairs the fistula.",CPT +35184,Arteriovenous Fistula Repair Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision to approach the congenital arteriovenous fistula in the extremities. She repairs the fistula.",CPT +35188,Arteriovenous Fistula Repair Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision in the head or neck to approach the acquired or traumatic arteriovenous fistula. She repairs the fistula.",CPT +35189,Arteriovenous Fistula Repair Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision in the thorax or abdomen to approach the acquired or traumatic arteriovenous fistula. She repairs the fistula.",CPT +35190,Arteriovenous Fistula Repair Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision in an extremity at the site of the arteriovenous fistula. The provider then repairs the fistula that occurred due to trauma or other reasons after birth.",CPT +35201,"Repair Procedures Blood Vessel Other Than for Fistula, With or Without Patch Angioplasty.","In this procedure, the provider makes an incision over the neck vessel requiring repair. The provider regulates bleeding and uses suture to repair the vessel.",CPT +35206,"Repair Procedures Blood Vessel Other Than for Fistula, With or Without Patch Angioplasty.","In this procedure, the provider makes an incision over the affected vessel in the upper extremity. He controls bleeding in the affected vessel and closes the vessel.",CPT +35207,"Repair Procedures Blood Vessel Other Than for Fistula, With or Without Patch Angioplasty.","In the procedure, the provider makes an incision over the affected vessel in the hand or finger. She controls bleeding in the affected vessel and closes the vessel.",CPT +35211,"Repair Procedures Blood Vessel Other Than for Fistula, With or Without Patch Angioplasty.","In this procedure, the provider uses an appropriate incision depending upon the site of the ruptured intrathoracic vessel that requires repair. He repairs the vessel using cardiopulmonary bypass.",CPT +35216,"Repair Procedures Blood Vessel Other Than for Fistula, With or Without Patch Angioplasty.","In this procedure, the provider uses an appropriate incision into the thorax depending upon the site of the ruptured vessel that requires repair. She repairs the vessel without using cardiopulmonary bypass for the patient.",CPT +35221,"Repair Procedures Blood Vessel Other Than for Fistula, With or Without Patch Angioplasty.",The provider repairs the abnormal or damaged blood vessel in the abdomen.,CPT +35226,"Repair Procedures Blood Vessel Other Than for Fistula, With or Without Patch Angioplasty.",The provider repairs the abnormal or injured blood vessel in a lower extremity.,CPT +35231,"Repair Procedures Blood Vessel Other Than for Fistula, With or Without Patch Angioplasty.",The provider repairs the abnormal or injured blood vessel in the neck with a vein graft.,CPT +35236,"Repair Procedures Blood Vessel Other Than for Fistula, With or Without Patch Angioplasty.",The provider repairs the abnormal or injured blood vessel in an upper extremity with a vein graft.,CPT +35241,"Repair Procedures Blood Vessel Other Than for Fistula, With or Without Patch Angioplasty.",The provider repairs the abnormal or injured intrathoracic blood vessel with a vein graft and while using cardiopulmonary bypass.,CPT +35246,"Repair Procedures Blood Vessel Other Than for Fistula, With or Without Patch Angioplasty.",The provider repairs the abnormal or injured intrathoracic blood vessel with a vein graft without cardiopulmonary bypass.,CPT +35251,"Repair Procedures Blood Vessel Other Than for Fistula, With or Without Patch Angioplasty.",The provider repairs the abnormal or injured intra–abdominal blood vessel with a vein graft.,CPT +35256,"Repair Procedures Blood Vessel Other Than for Fistula, With or Without Patch Angioplasty.",The provider repairs the abnormal or injured blood vessel in a lower extremity with a vein graft.,CPT +35261,"Repair Procedures Blood Vessel Other Than for Fistula, With or Without Patch Angioplasty.",The provider repairs the abnormal or injured blood vessel in the neck with a non–venous graft.,CPT +35266,"Repair Procedures Blood Vessel Other Than for Fistula, With or Without Patch Angioplasty.",The provider repairs the abnormal or injured blood vessel in an upper extremity with a non–venous graft.,CPT +35271,"Repair Procedures Blood Vessel Other Than for Fistula, With or Without Patch Angioplasty.",The provider repairs the abnormal or injured intrathoracic blood vessel with a non–venous graft and using cardiopulmonary bypass.,CPT +35276,"Repair Procedures Blood Vessel Other Than for Fistula, With or Without Patch Angioplasty.",The provider repairs the abnormal or injured intrathoracic blood vessel with a non–venous graft without cardiopulmonary bypass.,CPT +35281,"Repair Procedures Blood Vessel Other Than for Fistula, With or Without Patch Angioplasty.",The provider repairs the abnormal or injured intra–abdominal blood vessel with a non–venous graft.,CPT +35286,"Repair Procedures Blood Vessel Other Than for Fistula, With or Without Patch Angioplasty.",The provider repairs the abnormal or injured blood vessel in the lower extremity with a non–venous graft.,CPT +35301,Thromboendarterectomy Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,"The provider removes thrombus and plaques from a carotid, vertebral, or subclavian artery through a neck incision.",CPT +35302,Thromboendarterectomy Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,The provider removes thrombus and plaques from a superficial femoral artery.,CPT +35303,Thromboendarterectomy Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,The provider removes thrombus and plaques from a popliteal artery.,CPT +35304,Thromboendarterectomy Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,The provider removes thrombus and plaques from a tibioperoneal trunk artery.,CPT +35305,Thromboendarterectomy Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,The provider removes thrombus and plaques from an initial tibial or peroneal artery.,CPT +35306,Thromboendarterectomy Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,The provider removes thrombus or plaques from an additional tibial or peroneal artery at the same session as a separately reportable thromboendarterectomy procedure for the initial tibial or peroneal artery. This code represents each additional tibial or peroneal artery.,CPT +35311,Thromboendarterectomy Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,"The provider removes thrombus and plaques from a subclavian or innominate artery via an incision in the thorax, or chest.",CPT +35321,Thromboendarterectomy Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,The provider removes thrombus and plaques from an axillary or brachial artery.,CPT +35331,Thromboendarterectomy Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,The provider removes thrombus and plaques from the abdominal aorta.,CPT +35341,Thromboendarterectomy Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,"The provider removes thrombus and plaques from a mesenteric, celiac, or renal artery.",CPT +35351,Thromboendarterectomy Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,The provider removes thrombus and plaques from an iliac artery.,CPT +35355,Thromboendarterectomy Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,The provider removes thrombus and plaques from an iliofemoral artery.,CPT +35361,Thromboendarterectomy Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,The provider removes aortoiliac arterial thrombus or plaques and places a graft.,CPT +35363,Thromboendarterectomy Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,The provider removes thrombus and plaques from the combined aortoiliofemoral artery.,CPT +35371,Thromboendarterectomy Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,The provider removes thrombus and plaques from a common femoral artery.,CPT +35372,Thromboendarterectomy Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,The provider removes thrombus and plaques from the deep femoral artery.,CPT +35390,Thromboendarterectomy Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,The provider reoperates to remove thrombus from a carotid artery through a neck incision more than a month after performing thromboendarterectomy on the same vessel.,CPT +35400,Angioscopy Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,The provider uses an angioscope to look inside a blood vessel. He performs this service at the same encounter as another surgical procedure.,CPT +35500,Vein Bypass Graft Procedures.,The provider harvests a vein from the upper extremity to use for a separately reportable bypass procedure on a lower extremity or coronary artery at the same encounter.,CPT +35501,Vein Bypass Graft Procedures.,The provider bypasses a blood vessel blockage by inserting a bypass graft that connects the common carotid artery to a portion of the internal carotid artery on the same side of the neck.,CPT +35506,Vein Bypass Graft Procedures.,The provider bypasses a blood vessel blockage by inserting a bypass graft that connects the common carotid artery to a portion of the subclavian artery.,CPT +35508,Vein Bypass Graft Procedures.,The provider bypasses a blood vessel blockage by inserting a bypass graft that connects the common carotid artery to a portion of vertebral artery.,CPT +35509,Vein Bypass Graft Procedures.,The provider bypasses a blood vessel blockage by inserting a bypass graft that connects one carotid artery to a portion of another carotid artery on the opposite side of the neck with a vein graft.,CPT +35510,Vein Bypass Graft Procedures.,The provider bypasses a blood vessel blockage by inserting a bypass graft that connects the carotid artery to a portion of brachial artery with a vein graft.,CPT +35511,Vein Bypass Graft Procedures.,The provider bypasses a blood vessel blockage by inserting a bypass graft that connects one subclavian artery to the other subclavian artery with a vein graft.,CPT +35512,Vein Bypass Graft Procedures.,The provider bypasses a blood vessel blockage by inserting a bypass graft that connects the subclavian artery to a portion of brachial artery with a vein graft.,CPT +35515,Vein Bypass Graft Procedures.,The provider bypasses a blood vessel blockage by inserting a bypass graft that connects the subclavian artery to a portion of vertebral artery with a vein graft.,CPT +35516,Vein Bypass Graft Procedures.,The provider bypasses a blood vessel blockage by inserting a bypass graft that connects the subclavian artery to a portion of axillary artery with a vein graft.,CPT +35518,Vein Bypass Graft Procedures.,The provider bypasses a blood vessel blockage by inserting a bypass graft that connects one axillary artery to the other axillary artery with a vein graft.,CPT +35521,Vein Bypass Graft Procedures.,The provider bypasses a blood vessel blockage by inserting a bypass graft that connects the axillary artery to a portion of femoral artery with a vein graft.,CPT +35522,Vein Bypass Graft Procedures.,The provider bypasses a blood vessel blockage by inserting a bypass graft that connects the axillary artery to a portion of a brachial artery with a vein graft.,CPT +35523,Vein Bypass Graft Procedures.,The provider bypasses a blood vessel blockage by inserting a bypass graft that connects the brachial artery to a portion of ulnar or radial artery with a vein graft.,CPT +35525,Vein Bypass Graft Procedures.,The provider bypasses a blood vessel blockage by inserting a bypass graft that connects the brachial artery to the other brachial artery with a vein graft.,CPT +35526,Vein Bypass Graft Procedures.,"The provider bypasses a blood vessel blockage by inserting a bypass graft that connects the aorta to a portion of subclavian, innominate, or carotid artery with a vein graft.",CPT +35531,Vein Bypass Graft Procedures.,The provider bypasses a blood vessel blockage by inserting a bypass graft that connects the aorta to a portion of celiac or mesenteric artery with a vein graft.,CPT +35533,Vein Bypass Graft Procedures.,The provider bypasses a blood vessel blockage by inserting a bypass graft that connects the axillary artery to a portion of femoral artery on both sides using a vein graft.,CPT +35535,Vein Bypass Graft Procedures.,The provider bypasses a blood vessel blockage by inserting a bypass graft that connects the hepatic artery to a portion of renal artery with a vein graft.,CPT +35536,Vein Bypass Graft Procedures.,The provider bypasses a blood vessel blockage by inserting a bypass graft that connects the splenic artery to a portion of renal artery with a vein graft.,CPT +35537,Vein Bypass Graft Procedures.,The provider bypasses a blood vessel blockage by inserting a bypass graft that connects the aorta to a portion of iliac artery with a vein graft.,CPT +35538,Vein Bypass Graft Procedures.,The provider bypasses a blood vessel blockage by inserting a bypass graft that connects the aorta to portions of both iliac arteries with a vein graft.,CPT +35539,Vein Bypass Graft Procedures.,The provider bypasses a blood vessel blockage by inserting a bypass graft that connects the aorta to a portion of femoral artery with a vein graft.,CPT +35540,Vein Bypass Graft Procedures.,The provider bypasses a blood vessel blockage by inserting a bypass graft that connects the aorta to portions of both femoral arteries with a vein graft.,CPT +35556,Vein Bypass Graft Procedures.,The provider bypasses a blood vessel blockage by inserting a bypass graft that connects the femoral to a portion of popliteal artery with a vein graft.,CPT +35558,Vein Bypass Graft Procedures.,The provider bypasses a blood vessel blockage by inserting a bypass graft that connects the femoral to another portion of femoral artery with a vein graft.,CPT +35560,Vein Bypass Graft Procedures.,The provider bypasses a blood vessel blockage by inserting a bypass graft that connects the aorta to a portion of renal artery with a vein graft.,CPT +35563,Vein Bypass Graft Procedures.,The provider bypasses a blood vessel blockage by inserting a bypass graft that connects the iliac artery to another iliac artery with a vein graft.,CPT +35565,Vein Bypass Graft Procedures.,The provider bypasses a blood vessel blockage by inserting a bypass graft that connects the iliac artery to a portion of femoral artery with a vein graft.,CPT +35566,Vein Bypass Graft Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider creates a femoral to anterior tibial artery, or posterior tibial artery, or peroneal artery bypass using a graft or a vein he harvests from the patient. This service is done to bypass around a damaged or obstructed portion of the femoral artery.",CPT +35570,Vein Bypass Graft Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider creates a tibial to tibial artery bypass, a peroneal to tibial artery bypass, or a tibial peroneal trunk to tibial artery bypass using a graft or a vein he harvests from the patient. This service is done to bypass around a damaged or obstructed portion of the tibial, peroneal, or tibioperoneal trunk artery.",CPT +35571,Vein Bypass Graft Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider creates a popliteal to tibial artery bypass, or popliteal to peroneal bypass, or popliteal to another vessel bypass using a graft or a vein he harvests from the patient. This service is done to bypass around a damaged or obstructed portion of the popliteal artery.",CPT +35572,Vein Bypass Graft Procedures.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider harvests a single femoropopliteal vein to perform a vascular reconstruction procedure on areas such as the aorta, vena cava, coronary or peripheral arteries.",CPT +35583,In-Situ Vein Bypass Graft Procedures.,The provider creates a femoral to popliteal bypass using the patient's saphenous vein to bypass a blockage in the femoral artery. The provider performs this service to restore blood circulation to the lower extremities.,CPT +35585,In-Situ Vein Bypass Graft Procedures.,"The provider creates a femoral to anterior, femoral to posterior tibial, or femoral to peroneal artery bypass using the patient's saphenous vein to bypass a blockage in the artery. The provider performs this service to restore blood circulation to the lower extremities.",CPT +35587,In-Situ Vein Bypass Graft Procedures.,The provider creates a popliteal to tibial artery bypass using the patient's saphenous vein to bypass a blockage in the peroneal artery. The provider performs this service to restore blood circulation to the lower extremities.,CPT +35600,Bypass Graft Procedures Other Than Vein.,The provider uses an open approach to obtain a portion of a healthy artery from the patient’s arm to use to create an alternative route around a blockage in a coronary (heart) artery.,CPT +35601,Bypass Graft Procedures Other Than Vein.,"In this procedure, the provider uses a synthetic graft to bypass a blockage in the common carotid artery.",CPT +35606,Bypass Graft Procedures Other Than Vein.,"In this procedure, the provider uses a synthetic graft to bypass a blockage in the subclavian artery.",CPT +35612,Bypass Graft Procedures Other Than Vein.,"In this procedure, the provider uses a synthetic graft to bypass a blockage in the subclavian artery.",CPT +35616,Bypass Graft Procedures Other Than Vein.,"In this procedure, the provider uses a synthetic graft to bypass a blockage in the subclavian artery by connecting the subclavian artery to the axillary artery.",CPT +35621,Bypass Graft Procedures Other Than Vein.,"In this procedure, the provider uses a synthetic graft to bypass a blockage in the lower aorta or iliac artery by connecting the axillary artery to the femoral artery.",CPT +35623,Bypass Graft Procedures Other Than Vein.,"In this procedure, the provider uses a synthetic graft to bypass a blockage in the lower aorta or iliac artery by connecting the axillary artery to the popliteal or tibial artery.",CPT +35626,Bypass Graft Procedures Other Than Vein.,"In this procedure, the provider uses a synthetic graft to bypass a blockage in the aortosubclavian, aortoinnominate, or aortocarotid artery. The provider does this by rerouting the connection from the aorta around the blocked area of the affected artery.",CPT +35631,Bypass Graft Procedures Other Than Vein.,"The provider uses a synthetic graft to bypass a blockage in the celiac, mesenteric or renal artery. The provider does this by rerouting the connection from the aorta around the blocked area of the affected artery.",CPT +35632,Bypass Graft Procedures Other Than Vein.,The provider uses a synthetic graft to bypass a blockage in the celiac artery by rerouting the connection from the iliac artery around the blocked area of the celiac artery.,CPT +35633,Bypass Graft Procedures Other Than Vein.,The provider uses a synthetic graft to bypass a blockage in the mesenteric artery by rerouting the connection from the iliac artery around the blocked area of the mesenteric artery.,CPT +35634,Bypass Graft Procedures Other Than Vein.,The provider uses a synthetic graft to bypass a blockage in the renal artery by rerouting the connection from the iliac artery around the blocked area of the renal artery.,CPT +35636,Bypass Graft Procedures Other Than Vein.,The provider uses a synthetic graft to bypass a blockage in the renal artery by rerouting the connection from the splenic artery around the blocked area of the renal artery.,CPT +35637,Bypass Graft Procedures Other Than Vein.,The provider uses a synthetic graft to bypass a blockage in the iliac artery by rerouting the connection from the aorta around the blocked area of the iliac artery.,CPT +35638,Bypass Graft Procedures Other Than Vein.,The provider uses a synthetic graft to bypass a blockage in both iliac arteries by rerouting the connection from the aorta around the blocked areas of each of the iliac arteries.,CPT +35642,Bypass Graft Procedures Other Than Vein.,"In this procedure, the provider uses a synthetic graft to bypass a blockage in a vertebral artery by rerouting the connection from the carotid artery around the blockage in the vertebral artery.",CPT +35645,Bypass Graft Procedures Other Than Vein.,"In this procedure, the provider uses a synthetic graft to bypass a blockage in a vertebral artery by rerouting the connection from the subclavian artery around the blockage in the vertebral artery.",CPT +35646,Bypass Graft Procedures Other Than Vein.,"In this procedure, the provider uses a synthetic graft to bypass a blockage in the lower aorta by rerouting the connection to the femoral arteries around the blockage in the aorta.",CPT +35647,Bypass Graft Procedures Other Than Vein.,"In this procedure, the provider uses a synthetic graft to bypass a blockage in the lower aorta by rerouting the connection to a femoral artery around the blockage in the aorta.",CPT +35650,Bypass Graft Procedures Other Than Vein.,"In this procedure, the provider uses a synthetic graft to bypass a blockage in the axillary artery, a continuation of the subclavian artery, by rerouting the connection around the blockage in the axillary artery.",CPT +35654,Bypass Graft Procedures Other Than Vein.,"In this procedure, the provider uses a synthetic graft to bypass a blockage in the lower aorta, or the main arteries in the abdomen, by rerouting the connection around the blockage from the axillary artery to the femoral arteries.",CPT +35656,Bypass Graft Procedures Other Than Vein.,"In this procedure, the provider uses a synthetic graft to bypass a blockage in the femoral artery by rerouting the connection around the blockage to the popliteal artery.",CPT +35661,Bypass Graft Procedures Other Than Vein.,"In this procedure, the provider uses a synthetic graft to bypass a blockage in the femoral artery by rerouting the connection around the blockage to the femoral artery in the other leg.",CPT +35663,Bypass Graft Procedures Other Than Vein.,"In this procedure, the provider uses a synthetic graft to bypass a blockage in one of iliac arteries by rerouting the connection around the blockage to the opposite iliac artery in the other leg.",CPT +35665,Bypass Graft Procedures Other Than Vein.,"In this procedure, the provider uses a synthetic graft to bypass a blockage in an iliac artery by rerouting the connection around the blockage to the femoral artery.",CPT +35666,Bypass Graft Procedures Other Than Vein.,"In this procedure, the provider uses a synthetic graft to bypass a blockage in a femoral artery by rerouting the connection around the blockage in the femoral artery to the anterior or posterior tibial, or peroneal artery in the patient’s calf, the back part of the leg below the knee.",CPT +35671,Bypass Graft Procedures Other Than Vein.,"In this procedure, the provider uses a synthetic graft to bypass a blockage in the popliteal artery in the patient’s calf, or the back part of the leg below the knee, by rerouting the connection around the blockage to the tibial or peroneal artery.",CPT +35681,Composite Graft Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider creates a composite graft, or a conduit, made out of two segments of different graft materials, both vein and synthetic, to use as a bypass graft.",CPT +35682,Composite Graft Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider creates a composite graft, or a conduit, made out of two vein segments from two distal sites for use as a bypass graft.",CPT +35683,Composite Graft Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider creates a composite graft, or a conduit, made out of three or more vein segments from two or more distal sites for use as a bypass graft.",CPT +35685,Adjuvant Techniques Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider places a synthetic patch or cuff at the distal site of the synthetic bypass graft at the same time that he places the bypass graft. The provider typically performs this add–on service to provide a better conduit and improve patency at the distal bypass anastomosis site.",CPT +35686,Adjuvant Techniques Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,"The provider creates a fistula, or connection that would not normally occur, between an artery and a vein, at or beyond the bypass site in a lower extremity. She performs this service at the same time as the lower bypass procedure.",CPT +35691,Arterial Transposition Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider fully exposes the vertebral artery, divides and anastomoses the artery to the carotid artery beyond the site of blockage. The provider performs this service to improve arterial blood flow.",CPT +35693,Arterial Transposition Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider fully exposes the vertebral artery, divides, and anastomoses the artery to the subclavian artery to avoid the area of blockage of blood flow. The provider performs this service to improve arterial blood flow.",CPT +35694,Arterial Transposition Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider fully exposes the subclavian artery, divides, and anastomoses the artery to the carotid artery to avoid the area of blockage of blood flow. The provider performs this service to improve arterial blood flow.",CPT +35695,Arterial Transposition Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider fully exposes the carotid artery, divides, and anastomoses the artery to the subclavian artery to avoid the area of blockage of blood flow. The provider performs this service to improve arterial blood flow.",CPT +35697,Arterial Transposition Procedures.,Arterial transposition and/or reimplantation procedures are meant to improve blood flow within the arteries. Codes 35691– describe the two arteries that are connected to each other during the procedure.,CPT +35700,"Repair, Excision, Exploration, Revision Procedures on Arteries and Veins.","In this procedure, the provider reoperates on an arterial bypass graft more than a month after the initial procedure to place the graft. This service is done to open a stricture in a graft or to replace the graft that bypasses around a damaged or obstructed portion of an artery. He uses this code to report the additional work necessary to reaccess and repair or replace a graft.",CPT +35701,"Repair, Excision, Exploration, Revision Procedures on Arteries and Veins.","The provider incises the skin of the neck and examines the carotid, subclavian, or another artery of the neck and may remove scar tissue as necessary.",CPT +35702,"Repair, Excision, Exploration, Revision Procedures on Arteries and Veins.","The provider explores a previously operated area on the upper extremity to ascertain whether there is postoperative injury, clot, leaking blood vessels, or other abnormality in vessels such as the axillary, brachial, radial, or ulnar arteries. The exploration is not followed by surgical repair.",CPT +35703,"Repair, Excision, Exploration, Revision Procedures on Arteries and Veins.","The provider explores a previously operated area on the lower extremity to ascertain whether there is postoperative injury, clot, leaking blood vessels, or other abnormality in vessels such as the common femoral, deep femoral, superficial femoral, popliteal, tibial, and peroneal arteries. The exploration is not followed by surgical repair.",CPT +35800,"Repair, Excision, Exploration, Revision Procedures on Arteries and Veins.","The provider reopens a patient’s neck to find and correct the source of bleeding, clotting, or infection after a previous operation.",CPT +35820,"Repair, Excision, Exploration, Revision Procedures on Arteries and Veins.","The provider reopens a patient’s chest to find and correct the source of bleeding, clotting, or infection after a previous operation.",CPT +35840,"Repair, Excision, Exploration, Revision Procedures on Arteries and Veins.","The provider reopens the abdomen to find and correct the source of bleeding, clotting, or infection after a previous operation.",CPT +35860,"Repair, Excision, Exploration, Revision Procedures on Arteries and Veins.","The provider reopens the arm or leg to find and correct the source of bleeding, clotting, or infection after a previous operation.",CPT +35870,"Repair, Excision, Exploration, Revision Procedures on Arteries and Veins.",The provider corrects an abnormal opening between a vascular graft and the intestines.,CPT +35875,"Repair, Excision, Exploration, Revision Procedures on Arteries and Veins.","The provider removes a clot from a vascular graft, other than one used for hemodialysis.",CPT +35876,"Repair, Excision, Exploration, Revision Procedures on Arteries and Veins.","The provider treats a clotted vascular graft, other than one used for hemodialysis, and revises the existing graft such as by patching.",CPT +35879,"Repair, Excision, Exploration, Revision Procedures on Arteries and Veins.",The provider opens a lower extremity arterial bypass graft and applies a venous patch to widen a narrowed area.,CPT +35881,"Repair, Excision, Exploration, Revision Procedures on Arteries and Veins.",The provider uses a harvested vein segment to replace a narrowed area in a lower extremity arterial bypass graft.,CPT +35883,"Repair, Excision, Exploration, Revision Procedures on Arteries and Veins.","The provider uses an open approach to apply a patch graft, not made from patient tissue, to revise the femoral connection of a synthetic arterial bypass graft.",CPT +35884,"Repair, Excision, Exploration, Revision Procedures on Arteries and Veins.","The provider applies a patch graft, made from the patient’s vein, to revise the femoral connection of a synthetic arterial bypass graft.",CPT +35901,"Repair, Excision, Exploration, Revision Procedures on Arteries and Veins.",The provider removes an infected vascular graft from the patient’s neck.,CPT +35903,"Repair, Excision, Exploration, Revision Procedures on Arteries and Veins.",The provider excises a previously placed graft of the arm or leg that has become infected.,CPT +35905,"Repair, Excision, Exploration, Revision Procedures on Arteries and Veins.",The provider excises a previously placed graft of the thorax (chest) that has become infected.,CPT +35907,"Repair, Excision, Exploration, Revision Procedures on Arteries and Veins.",The provider excises a previously placed graft of the abdomen hat has become infected.,CPT +36000,Intravenous Vascular Introduction and Injection Procedures.,The provider introduces a needle or intracatheter into a vein to administer or withdraw fluids or other substances.,CPT +36002,Intravenous Vascular Introduction and Injection Procedures.,The provider injects a blood clotting agent into a pseudoaneurysm of an arm or leg.,CPT +36005,Intravenous Vascular Introduction and Injection Procedures.,"The provider injects contrast into a vein of an extremity for a venography to diagnose a vein disorder, including a blood clot. The procedure includes introducing a needle or intracatheter.",CPT +36010,Intravenous Vascular Introduction and Injection Procedures.,"The provider introduces a catheter into the superior or inferior vena cava to administer medication or perform a cardiac procedure, such as angiography, venography, or angioplasty.",CPT +36011,Intravenous Vascular Introduction and Injection Procedures.,"The provider places a catheter into a first order branch vein, including the renal or jugular vein, to diagnose and treat various disorders, including administering medications.",CPT +36012,Intravenous Vascular Introduction and Injection Procedures.,"The provider places a catheter into a second order branch, including the left adrenal vein or the petrosal sinus, to diagnose and treat various disorders, including administering medications.",CPT +36013,Intravenous Vascular Introduction and Injection Procedures.,"This particular code is for introduction of the catheter in the right heart or main pulmonary artery, usually for the purposes of performing an angiography. Angiography is an X–ray study of the blood vessels that helps physicians diagnose and treat medical conditions. Angiography uses a radiopaque substance (dye) to make the blood vessels visible under X–ray.",CPT +36014,Intravenous Vascular Introduction and Injection Procedures.,Angiography is an X–ray study of the blood vessels that helps physicians diagnose and treat medical conditions. Angiography uses a radiopaque substance (dye) to make the blood vessels visible under X–ray.,CPT +36015,Intravenous Vascular Introduction and Injection Procedures.,"This particular code is for selective placement of the catheter in the segmental or subsegmental pulmonary artery, typically for the purpose of performing an angiography. Angiography is an X–ray study of the blood vessels that helps physicians diagnose and treat medical conditions. Angiography uses a radiopaque substance (dye) to make the blood vessels visible under X–ray.",CPT +36100,Intra-arterial and intra-aortic Introduction Procedures.,The provider inserts a needle or intracatheter into the carotid or vertebral artery to diagnose or treat various disorders.,CPT +36140,Intra-arterial and intra-aortic Introduction Procedures.,Code  is used to report introduction of a needle or intracatheter into an upper or lower extremity artery for injection purposes.,CPT +36160,Intra-arterial and intra-aortic Introduction Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts a needle or catheter into the aorta, from the back side in the lumber region, passing the needle through the space between the ribs to treat dilation or stricture in an artery.",CPT +36200,Diagnostic Studies of Cervicocerebral Arteries.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts a catheter into a distal artery and then into the aorta. He uses a needle and inserts a guidewire into the needle. The provider performs the procedure for aortography or for measuring pressure inside aorta.",CPT +36215,Diagnostic Studies of Cervicocerebral Arteries.,"The provider advances a catheter into each first order thoracic or brachiocephalic branch within a vascular family, typically to perform angiography of these arteries.",CPT +36216,Diagnostic Studies of Cervicocerebral Arteries.,"The provider advances a catheter into a second order thoracic or brachiocephalic branch, within a vascular family, typically to perform angiography.",CPT +36217,Diagnostic Studies of Cervicocerebral Arteries.,"The provider advances a catheter into each third order or smaller thoracic or brachiocephalic branch within a vascular family, typically to perform angiography of these arteries.",CPT +36218,Diagnostic Studies of Cervicocerebral Arteries.,"The provider advances a catheter into an additional first, second, third, and even smaller order thoracic or brachiocephalic branch within a vascular family, typically to perform angiography of these arteries. Report this code in addition to the code for the primary selective catheterization.",CPT +36221,Diagnostic Studies of Cervicocerebral Arteries.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation for angiography performed by inserting a catheter through a distal artery into the thoracic aorta and injecting contrast material to take X–ray images of arteries to detect any vascular disease. Report this code to represent only imaging supervision and interpretation for this procedure.",CPT +36222,Diagnostic Studies of Cervicocerebral Arteries.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation for angiography performed by inserting a catheter through a distal artery into the thoracic aorta and farther into the common carotid artery or cervicocerebral arch. He then injects contrast material to take the X–ray images to detect any vascular disease.",CPT +36223,Diagnostic Studies of Cervicocerebral Arteries.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation for angiography performed by inserting a catheter through a distal artery into the thoracic aorta and farther into the common carotid artery or cervicocerebral arch. He then injects contrast material to take the X–ray images of intracranial or extracranial arteries or of the cervicocerebral arch to detect any vascular disease. Report this code to represent only imaging supervision and interpretation for this procedure.",CPT +36224,Diagnostic Studies of Cervicocerebral Arteries.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation for angiography performed by inserting a catheter through a distal artery into the thoracic aorta and farther into the internal carotid artery. He injects contrast material to take the X–ray images of intracranial or extracranial arteries or of the cervicocerebral arch to detect any vascular disease.",CPT +36225,Diagnostic Studies of Cervicocerebral Arteries.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation for angiography performed by inserting a catheter through a distal artery into the thoracic aorta, internal carotid artery, and farther into the subclavian or innominate artery. He injects contrast material to take the X–ray images of the subclavian or innominate arteries and the ipsilateral vertebral circulation or of the cervicocerebral arch to detect any vascular disease.",CPT +36226,Diagnostic Studies of Cervicocerebral Arteries.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation for angiography performed by inserting a catheter through a distal artery into the thoracic aorta and aortic arch. He injects contrast material to take the X–ray images of the artery to detect any vascular disease.",CPT +36227,Diagnostic Studies of Cervicocerebral Arteries.,"In this add on procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation for angiography performed by inserting catheter in the external carotid artery in the same session as placing a catheter and performing angiography of the internal carotid, common carotid, or innominate artery.",CPT +36228,Diagnostic Studies of Cervicocerebral Arteries.,"In this add on procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation for angiography performed by inserting catheter in additional branches of the intracranial subdivisions of the internal carotid or vertebral arteries. He performs angiography of circulation of the middle cerebral artery and posterior inferior cerebellar artery during the same session that he places a catheter and performs angiography of the internal carotid or common carotid artery.",CPT +36245,Intra-Arterial (Catheter and Infusion Pump) Procedures.,Angiography is an X–ray study of the blood vessels that helps physicians diagnose and treat medical conditions. Angiography uses a radiopaque substance (dye) to make the blood vessels visible under X–ray.,CPT +36246,Intra-Arterial (Catheter and Infusion Pump) Procedures.,Angiography is an X–ray study of the blood vessels that helps physicians diagnose and treat medical conditions. Angiography uses a radiopaque substance (dye) to make the blood vessels visible under X–ray.,CPT +36247,Intra-Arterial (Catheter and Infusion Pump) Procedures.,Angiography is an X–ray study of the blood vessels that helps physicians diagnose and treat medical conditions. Angiography uses a radiopaque substance (dye) to make the blood vessels visible under X–ray.,CPT +36248,Intra-Arterial (Catheter and Infusion Pump) Procedures.,Angiography is an X–ray study of the blood vessels that helps physicians diagnose and treat medical conditions. Angiography uses a radiopaque substance (dye) to make the blood vessels visible under X–ray.,CPT +36251,Intra-Arterial (Catheter and Infusion Pump) Procedures.,"The provider inserts a catheter in an artery at groin level and maneuvers the catheter so he can inject a dye into the first order, or main, blood vessel supplying a single kidney. The dye shows up on X–ray, allowing the provider to visualize the renal blood vessels. The provider performs this procedure as an investigation for any blockage, narrowing, or clots in the renal blood vessels.",CPT +36252,Intra-Arterial (Catheter and Infusion Pump) Procedures.,"The provider inserts a catheter in an artery at groin level and maneuvers the catheter so he can inject a dye into the first order, or main, blood vessel supplying the kidney. The dye shows up on X–ray, allowing the provider to visualize the renal blood vessels. The provider performs this procedure on both sides of the body as an investigation for any blockage, narrowing, or clots in the renal blood vessels.",CPT +36253,Intra-Arterial (Catheter and Infusion Pump) Procedures.,"The provider inserts a catheter in an artery at groin level and maneuvers the catheter so he can inject a dye into the second or higher order subdivisions of the main renal artery supplying a single kidney. The dye shows up on X–ray, allowing the provider to visualize the renal blood vessels. The provider performs this procedure as an investigation for any blockage, narrowing, or clots in the renal blood vessels.",CPT +36254,Intra-Arterial (Catheter and Infusion Pump) Procedures.,"The provider inserts a catheter in an artery at groin level and maneuvers the catheter so he can inject a dye into the second or higher order subdivisions of the main renal arteries supplying both the kidneys. The dye shows up on X–ray, allowing the provider to visualize the renal blood vessels. The provider performs this procedure as an investigation for any blockage, narrowing, or clots in the renal blood vessels.",CPT +36260,Intra-Arterial (Catheter and Infusion Pump) Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider places a catheter into the targeted artery, which is most commonly the hepatic artery. He implants  a subcutaneous infusion pump, which attaches to the catheter for continuous drug infusion into the bloodstream.",CPT +36261,Intra-Arterial (Catheter and Infusion Pump) Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider reopens a previous surgery site to either repair or replace a previously placed catheter and infusion pump.",CPT +36262,Intra-Arterial (Catheter and Infusion Pump) Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider reopens the previous surgery site to remove a previously placed catheter and infusion pump.",CPT +36299,Intra-Arterial (Catheter and Infusion Pump) Procedures.,Use to report a vascular injection that does not have a specific code.,CPT +36400,Venipuncture and Transfusion Procedures.,"Venipuncture refers to puncture of the vein which is done to collect a venous blood sample or to provide intravenous infusion of drugs. The most common sites for venipuncture are the jugular, femoral, median cubital, and the scalp vein. In children below three years, the scalp vein is the most preferred site for venipuncture due to its prominence and ease of access. A special kind of needle, such as a butterfly needle that is attached to a flexible tube, is used for the purpose.",CPT +36405,Venipuncture and Transfusion Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts a needle into the vein in the scalp area for a patient who is less than three years old to take a blood sample or inject a drug.",CPT +36406,Venipuncture and Transfusion Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts a needle into the vein other than that of the scalp, jugular, and carotid, for a patient who is less than three years old.",CPT +36410,Venipuncture and Transfusion Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts a needle into a vein to withdraw blood or infuse a drug for a patient who is three years old or older.",CPT +36415,Venipuncture and Transfusion Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts a needle into a vein to collect a blood sample.",CPT +36416,Venipuncture and Transfusion Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider pricks the patient’s finger, heel, or ear with a pointed instrument and collects specimen of droplets of blood by pressing the pricking site.",CPT +36420,Venipuncture and Transfusion Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision on the skin to access a vein and collects a blood sample or injects medication into a patient younger than one year.",CPT +36425,Venipuncture and Transfusion Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision on the skin to access a vein and collects a blood sample or injects medication into a patient older than one year.",CPT +36430,Venipuncture and Transfusion Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider punctures and places a catheter into a vein to transfuse blood or blood components directly into the patient’s bloodstream.",CPT +36440,Venipuncture and Transfusion Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider transfuses blood using an injection device or syringe in the vein of patient age two years old or younger. The procedure delivers blood all at once, rather than slowly over a period of time.",CPT +36450,Venipuncture and Transfusion Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider slowly removes a specific amount of blood from the umbilical blood vessel of a newborn patient. He simultaneously injects an equal amount of healthy blood or plasma from a donor. The provider commonly performs this procedure to treat severe cases of jaundice to control the amount of bilirubin in the blood.",CPT +36455,Venipuncture and Transfusion Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a specific amount of blood from the blood vessel of a patient other than a newborn. He simultaneously injects an equal amount of healthy blood or plasma from a donor. The provider commonly performs this procedure to treat severe cases of jaundice to control the amount of bilirubin in the blood.",CPT +36456,Venipuncture and Transfusion Procedures.,"The provider, who must be a physician or other qualified healthcare professional, injects blood or plasma from a donor or crystalloid solution equal to the amount of blood lost during a surgical procedure or the amount calculated to restore or maintain the blood volume in a newborn infant whose volume is depleted from other causes.",CPT +36460,Venipuncture and Transfusion Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a blood transfusion through the umbilical vein of a fetus while it is inside the mother’s uterus.",CPT +36465,Sclerotherapy of Telangiectasia and Incompetent Veins.,"In this procedure, the provider injects a noncompounded foam sclerosing solution into a single incompetent truncal vein of the extremity under ultrasound guidance to guide the dispersion of foam, most commonly to treat a varicose vein. This code is used for a single truncal vein of the extremity.",CPT +36466,Sclerotherapy of Telangiectasia and Incompetent Veins.,"In this procedure, the provider injects a noncompounded foam sclerosing solution into multiple incompetent truncal veins under ultrasound guidance to guide the dispersion of foam, most commonly to treat a varicose vein. This code is used for multiple incompetent truncal veins of the same leg.",CPT +36468,Sclerotherapy of Telangiectasia and Incompetent Veins.,"The provider performs a single or multiple injections of a sclerosing solution to treat spider veins of the arms, legs, or trunk.",CPT +36470,Sclerotherapy of Telangiectasia and Incompetent Veins.,"The provider injects a sclerosing solution into one vein, most commonly to treat a varicose vein. It may be used to treat other vascular malformations except spider veins (telangiectasia).",CPT +36471,Sclerotherapy of Telangiectasia and Incompetent Veins.,"In this procedure, the provider injects a sclerosing solution into more than one incompetent veins of the same leg, most commonly to treat varicose veins. It may be used to treat other vascular malformations except spider veins (telangiectasia).",CPT +36473,Endovascular Ablation Therapy of Incompetent Extremity Veins.,"Under imaging guidance and monitoring, the provider inserts a specially designed mechanochemical ablation (MOCA) device through a catheter placed through the skin (percutaneously) and destroys (ablates) the thin inner lining of the wall of the vein in an extremity to treat incompetent (varicose) veins. The provider reports this code for treatment of the first vein.",CPT +36474,Endovascular Ablation Therapy of Incompetent Extremity Veins.,"Under imaging guidance and monitoring, the provider inserts a specially designed mechanochemical ablation (MOCA) device through a catheter placed through a separate access site in the skin (percutaneously) and destroys (ablates) the thin inner lining of the wall of the vein in an extremity to treat additional incompetent (varicose) vein(s). Report this code in addition to the primary code for treatment of one or more additional veins.",CPT +36475,Endovascular Ablation Therapy of Incompetent Extremity Veins.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts a specially designed radiofrequency probe through the skin and destroys the wall of a diseased vein in an extremity. The provider reports this code for treatment of the first vein.",CPT +36476,Endovascular Ablation Therapy of Incompetent Extremity Veins.,In this add–on procedure the provider inserts a specially designed radiofrequency probe through the skin to destroy the wall of a diseased vein in an extremity. The provider performs this procedure to ablate subsequent veins in the same session as ablation of the initial vein.,CPT +36478,Endovascular Ablation Therapy of Incompetent Extremity Veins.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts a specially designed laser ablation catheter probe through the skin and destroys the wall of a diseased vein in an extremity. The provider reports this code for treatment of the first vein.",CPT +36479,Endovascular Ablation Therapy of Incompetent Extremity Veins.,In this add–on procedure the provider inserts a specially designed laser ablation catheter probe through the skin and destroys the wall of a diseased vein in a single extremity. The provider performs this procedure to ablate subsequent veins in the same session as ablation of the initial vein.,CPT +36481,Percutaneous Portal Vein Catheterization Procedure.,"In this procedure, the provider places a catheter into the portal vein through the skin for investigation of the portal system of the liver.",CPT +36482,Endovascular Ablation Therapy of Incompetent Extremity Veins.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts a chemical adhesive through a catheter into an incompetent vein in an extremity to ablate the vein. The provider reports this code for treatment of the first vein.",CPT +36483,Endovascular Ablation Therapy of Incompetent Extremity Veins.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider inserts a chemical adhesive through a catheter into an incompetent vein in an extremity to ablate the vein. The provider performs this procedure to ablate subsequent veins in the same session as ablation of the initial vein.",CPT +36500,"Venous Catheterization, Therapeutic Apheresis and Photopheresis Procedures.",The provider inserts a catheter through a vein to a selected organ for the purpose of withdrawing blood from the organ's blood supply.,CPT +36510,"Venous Catheterization, Therapeutic Apheresis and Photopheresis Procedures.","The provider places a catheter into a critically ill newborn's umbilical vein to administer intravenous fluids or medication to save the infant's life. While peripheral access is preferred, the umbilical vein can remain a viable conduit for up to a week after birth to deliver intravenous fluids or medication.",CPT +36511,"Venous Catheterization, Therapeutic Apheresis and Photopheresis Procedures.","Apheresis (also known as pheresis or therapeutic pheresis) is a medical procedure utilizing specialized equipment to remove selected blood constituents (plasma, leukocytes, platelets, or cells) from whole blood. The remainder is retransfused into the person from whom the blood was taken. Report this code for removal of white blood cells, also called leukapheresis.",CPT +36512,"Venous Catheterization, Therapeutic Apheresis and Photopheresis Procedures.","Apheresis (also known as pheresis or therapeutic pheresis) is a medical procedure utilizing specialized equipment to remove selected blood constituents (plasma, leukocytes, platelets, or cells) from whole blood. The remainder is retransfused into the person from whom the blood was taken. Report this procedure for removal of red blood cells.",CPT +36513,"Venous Catheterization, Therapeutic Apheresis and Photopheresis Procedures.","Apheresis (also known as pheresis or therapeutic pheresis) is a medical procedure utilizing specialized equipment to remove selected blood constituents (plasma, leukocytes, platelets, or cells) from whole blood. The remainder is retransfused into the person from whom the blood was taken. Report this code for removal of platelets, cell fragments shaped like a disc that helps in blood clotting.",CPT +36514,"Venous Catheterization, Therapeutic Apheresis and Photopheresis Procedures.","Apheresis (also known as pheresis or therapeutic pheresis) is a medical procedure utilizing specialized equipment to remove selected blood constituents (plasma, leukocytes, platelets, or cells) from whole blood. The remainder is retransfused into the person from whom the blood was taken. Report this procedure for removal of plasma, the liquid portion of blood in which the cells are suspended.",CPT +36516,"Venous Catheterization, Therapeutic Apheresis and Photopheresis Procedures.","Apheresis (also known as pheresis or therapeutic pheresis) is a medical procedure utilizing specialized equipment to remove selected blood constituents (plasma, leukocytes, platelets, or cells) from whole blood. The remainder is retransfused into the person from whom the blood was taken. Report this code for therapeutic apheresis with extracorporeal treatment of the blood outside the body for immune complexes, filtration of specific components, and return of the plasma to the patient.",CPT +36522,"Venous Catheterization, Therapeutic Apheresis and Photopheresis Procedures.","The provider performs extracorporeal photopheresis, a medical procedure in which a patient's white blood cells are exposed first to a drug called 8–methoxypsoralen (8–MOP) and then to ultraviolet A (UVA) light.",CPT +36555,Insertion of Central Venous Access Device.,"The provider inserts a central venous access catheter in the neck, chest, or groin to draw blood or administer medication or nutrients to a patient younger than 5 years of age.",CPT +36556,Insertion of Central Venous Access Device.,"The provider inserts a central venous access catheter in the neck, chest, or groin to draw blood or administer medication or nutrients to a patient 5 years of age or older.",CPT +36557,Insertion of Central Venous Access Device.,"The provider places a catheter, without a subcutaneous port or pump in one of the major veins carrying the blood to the heart or directly into the right atrium, to administer medication, nutrients, or fluid directly into the bloodstream. The provider performs this service in an individual younger than five years of age.",CPT +36558,Insertion of Central Venous Access Device.,"The provider places a catheter, without a subcutaneous port or pump in one of the major veins carrying the blood to the heart or directly into the right atrium, to administer medication, nutrients, or fluid directly into the bloodstream. The provider performs this service in an individual five years of age or older.",CPT +36560,Insertion of Central Venous Access Device.,"A central venous access catheter is a device that the physician inserts beneath the skin to draw blood or administer medication/nutrients to the patient.  The catheter's tip must terminate in the brachiocephalic (innominate) or iliac vein, subclavian, the superior or inferior vena cava, or the right atrium.  Tunneling describes a technique in which the physician places a long catheter under the skin between the vein entry and external access sites.",CPT +36561,Insertion of Central Venous Access Device.,"A central venous access catheter is a device that the physician inserts beneath the skin to draw blood or administer medication/nutrients to the patient.  The catheter's tip must terminate in the brachiocephalic (innominate) or iliac vein, subclavian, the superior or inferior vena cava, or the right atrium.  Tunneling describes a technique in which the physician places a long catheter under the skin between the vein entry and external access sites.",CPT +36563,Insertion of Central Venous Access Device.,"A central venous access device/catheter is a device whose tip must terminate in the brachiocephalic (innominate) or iliac vein, subclavian, the superior or inferior vena cava or the right atrium.  The physician inserts the device beneath the skin to draw blood or administer medication and nutrients to the patient.  Tunneling describes a technique in which the physician places a long catheter under the skin between the vein entry and external access sites.",CPT +36565,Insertion of Central Venous Access Device.,"A central venous access device/catheter is a device whose tip must terminate in the brachiocephalic (innominate) or iliac vein, subclavian, the superior or inferior vena cava or the right atrium.  The physician inserts the device beneath the skin to draw blood or administer medication and nutrients to the patient.  Tunneling describes a technique in which the physician places a long catheter under the skin between the vein entry and external access sites.",CPT +36566,Insertion of Central Venous Access Device.,"A central venous access device/catheter is a device whose tip must terminate in the brachiocephalic (innominate) or iliac vein, subclavian vein, superior or inferior vena cava, or the right atrium.  The physician inserts the device beneath the skin to draw blood or administer medication and nutrients to the patient.  Tunneling describes a technique in which the physician places a long catheter under the skin between the vein entry and external access sites.",CPT +36568,Insertion of Central Venous Access Device.,"The provider places a catheter through a vein in the upper extremity of a patient younger than 5 years of age and passes the catheter into one of the major veins carrying the blood to the heart or directly into the right atrium, without placing a subcutaneous port or pump.",CPT +36569,Insertion of Central Venous Access Device.,"The provider places a catheter through a vein in the upper extremity of a patient 5 years of age or older and passes the catheter into one of the major veins carrying the blood to the heart or directly into the right atrium, without placing a subcutaneous port or pump.",CPT +36570,Insertion of Central Venous Access Device.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts a central venous catheter peripherally through a vein in the arm with a subcutaneous port in patients who are younger than five years old. The provider uses these central lines in patients who require long term intravenous therapy.",CPT +36571,Insertion of Central Venous Access Device.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts a central venous catheter peripherally through a vein in the arm with a subcutaneous port in patients who are five years of age or older. The provider uses these central lines in patients who require long term intravenous therapy.",CPT +36572,Insertion of Central Venous Access Device.,"Under imaging guidance, the provider places a catheter through the basilic or cephalic vein in the arm and directs it into one of the major veins carrying blood to the heart or directly into the right atrium, without placing a subcutaneous port or pump, in a patient younger than five years of age. This code covers image documentation and all radiological supervision and interpretation required for the procedure.",CPT +36573,Insertion of Central Venous Access Device.,"Under imaging guidance, the provider places a catheter through the basilic or cephalic vein in the arm and directs it into one of the major veins carrying blood to the heart or directly into the right atrium, without placing a subcutaneous port or pump, in a patient five years of age of older. This code covers image documentation and all radiological supervision and interpretation required for the procedure.",CPT +36575,Repair of Central Venous Access Device.,"In this procedure, the provider repairs a tunneled or nontunneled central venous access catheter, without a subcutaneous port or pump, that he places in a prior procedure either centrally or peripherally.",CPT +36576,Repair of Central Venous Access Device.,"In this procedure, the provider repairs a central venous access catheter with a subcutaneous port or pump that he previously places either centrally or peripherally in a patient.",CPT +36578,Partial Replacement of Central Venous Access Device (Catheter Only).,"This procedure is the partial replacement of catheter components which are associated with the port/pump which is performed in the case of blockage, damage, or other malfunction.",CPT +36580,Complete Replacement of Central Venous Access Device Through Same Venous Access Site.,"This procedure is a complete replacement of a non–tunneled CVA catheter in cases of blockage, damage, or malfunction.",CPT +36581,Complete Replacement of Central Venous Access Device Through Same Venous Access Site.,"This procedure is a complete replacement of a tunneled CVA catheter in cases of blockage, damage, or malfunction.",CPT +36582,Complete Replacement of Central Venous Access Device Through Same Venous Access Site.,"This procedure is a complete replacement of a tunneled CVA catheter in cases of blockage, damage, or malfunction.",CPT +36583,Complete Replacement of Central Venous Access Device Through Same Venous Access Site.,"This procedure is a complete replacement of a tunneled CVA catheter in cases of blockage, damage, or malfunction.",CPT +36584,Complete Replacement of Central Venous Access Device Through Same Venous Access Site.,"The provider carries out a complete replacement of a peripherally inserted central venous catheter (PICC) in cases of infection, phlebitis, or another malfunction and includes all imaging guidance, documentation, and radiologic supervision and interpretation (RS&I). The procedure does not include subcutaneous port or pump placement.",CPT +36585,Complete Replacement of Central Venous Access Device Through Same Venous Access Site.,"This procedure is a complete replacement of a peripherally inserted central venous catheter (PICC) in cases of infection, phlebitis, or another malfunction.",CPT +36589,Removal of Central Venous Access Device.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a tunneled central venous access device without the subcutaneous port or pump.",CPT +36590,Removal of Central Venous Access Device.,The provider removes a tunneled central venous access device along with the subcutaneous port or pump that was previously placed through a central or peripheral insertion.,CPT +36591,Other Central Venous Access Procedures.,The provider collects a blood specimen from a completely implantable venous access device that he placed in a prior procedure.,CPT +36592,Other Central Venous Access Procedures.,The provider collects a blood specimen from an established central or peripheral catheter; this procedure is not otherwise specified by any other code.,CPT +36593,Other Central Venous Access Procedures.,"The provider administers a drug, such as a tissue plasminogen activator (TPA), to dissolve a clot in an implanted venous access device or catheter.",CPT +36595,Other Central Venous Access Procedures.,The provider inserts a wire or other instrument through a separate venous access into or around a central venous access device tip and removes material such as fibrin that is obstructing flow through the device.,CPT +36596,Other Central Venous Access Procedures.,"The provider inserts a wire, balloon catheter, or other instruments through the outer opening and into the lumen (interior channel) of a central venous device and pushes or pulls out the obstructive material.",CPT +36597,Other Central Venous Access Procedures.,The provider repositions a previously placed central venous catheter that became dislodged or infected using fluoroscopic guidance.,CPT +36598,Other Central Venous Access Procedures.,"The provider injects contrast material to assess the function and placement of a previously placed central venous access device; this code covers the injection as well as fluoroscopic guidance, image documentation, and report.",CPT +36600,Arterial Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider punctures the artery and withdraws blood, which he sends to the laboratory for testing. The aim of this service is to diagnose a disease or condition.",CPT +36620,Arterial Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts a catheter percutaneously (through the skin) into an artery and uses this catheter for the purpose of sampling, transfusion, or continuous real–time blood pressure and heart rate monitoring.",CPT +36625,Arterial Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision in the skin to locate the artery and then inserts a catheter into the artery. He uses this catheter for the purpose of sampling, transfusion, or continuous real time blood pressure and heart rate monitoring.",CPT +36640,Arterial Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision in the skin to locate the artery, dissects tissue around the artery to access it and then inserts a catheter into the artery. He uses this catheter for the purpose of prolonged infusion therapy.",CPT +36660,Arterial Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts a catheter into one of the two arteries of the umbilical cord of a newborn.  The provider performs this procedure to either collect blood for diagnostic purposes or to quickly administer medication directly into circulation.",CPT +36680,Intraosseous Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts a needle directly into the bone marrow for the purpose of intraosseous infusions, or infusing drugs directly into the bone marrow when intravenous access is difficult to obtain.",CPT +36800,"Hemodialysis Access, Intervascular Cannulation for Extracorporeal Circulation, or Shunt Insertion Procedures on Arteries and Veins.","The provider inserts a cannula into two veins for hemodialysis, a process in which a dialysis machine removes harmful wastes, salt, and fluids from the blood and reinfuses the purified blood back into the patient's circulation.",CPT +36810,"Hemodialysis Access, Intervascular Cannulation for Extracorporeal Circulation, or Shunt Insertion Procedures on Arteries and Veins.","The provider performs an external Scribner–type cannulation by inserting one end of a cannula into a vein and the other end into an artery for hemodialysis, a process in which a dialysis machine removes harmful wastes, salt, and fluids from the blood and reinfuses the purified blood back into the patient's circulation.",CPT +36815,"Hemodialysis Access, Intervascular Cannulation for Extracorporeal Circulation, or Shunt Insertion Procedures on Arteries and Veins.","In this procedure, the provider either repositions the cannula that he places previously for hemodialysis, or he removes the cannula and closes the wound. Hemodialysis is a process in which a dialysis machine removes harmful wastes, salt, and fluids from the blood and reinfuses the purified blood back into the patient's circulation.",CPT +36818,"Hemodialysis Access, Intervascular Cannulation for Extracorporeal Circulation, or Shunt Insertion Procedures on Arteries and Veins.","The provider creates an arteriovenous anastomosis by connecting the cephalic vein to the brachial artery in the upper arm, which provides better vascular access in patients with kidney failure who will receive hemodialysis treatment.",CPT +36819,"Hemodialysis Access, Intervascular Cannulation for Extracorporeal Circulation, or Shunt Insertion Procedures on Arteries and Veins.",The provider creates an arteriovenous anastomosis by connecting the basilic vein to the brachial artery in the upper arm to provide better vascular access in patients with kidney failure who will receive hemodialysis treatment.,CPT +36820,"Hemodialysis Access, Intervascular Cannulation for Extracorporeal Circulation, or Shunt Insertion Procedures on Arteries and Veins.",The provider creates an arteriovenous anastomosis by connecting a vein to an artery in the forearm to provide better vascular access in patients with kidney failure who will receive hemodialysis treatments.,CPT +36821,"Hemodialysis Access, Intervascular Cannulation for Extracorporeal Circulation, or Shunt Insertion Procedures on Arteries and Veins.",The provider creates an arteriovenous (AV) anastomosis by connecting a vein to an artery in any site to provide better vascular access in a patient with kidney failure who will receive hemodialysis treatments.,CPT +36823,"Hemodialysis Access, Intervascular Cannulation for Extracorporeal Circulation, or Shunt Insertion Procedures on Arteries and Veins.",The provider inserts one or more cannulas into an artery and vein to perform isolated extracorporeal circulation in patients along with heated or nonheated regional chemotherapy perfusion to an extremity. Extracorporeal circulation is the diversion of the patient’s blood through an external device that takes over the work normally performed by a normal heart and lung. The aim of chemotherapy is to kill cancer cells.,CPT +36825,"Hemodialysis Access, Intervascular Cannulation for Extracorporeal Circulation, or Shunt Insertion Procedures on Arteries and Veins.","The provider surgically creates an arteriovenous fistula, a connection between an artery and a vein, using an autogenous vein graft from the patient. This service is done to allow for hemodialysis treatments.",CPT +36830,"Hemodialysis Access, Intervascular Cannulation for Extracorporeal Circulation, or Shunt Insertion Procedures on Arteries and Veins.","In this procedure, the provider surgically creates an arteriovenous fistula, a connection between an artery and a vein using a nonautogenous graft. This service is done to allow for hemodialysis treatments.",CPT +36831,"Hemodialysis Access, Intervascular Cannulation for Extracorporeal Circulation, or Shunt Insertion Procedures on Arteries and Veins.","In this procedure, the provider surgically opens the autogenous or nonautogenous arteriovenous fistula and removes the clot from the connection between the artery and the vein. He does not revise the fistula. An arteriovenous fistula is a connection between an artery and vein that a provider often locates in the upper arm or forearm and uses for dialysis purposes.",CPT +36832,"Hemodialysis Access, Intervascular Cannulation for Extracorporeal Circulation, or Shunt Insertion Procedures on Arteries and Veins.","In this procedure, the provider surgically opens an autogenous or nonautogenous arteriovenous fistula and revises the connection between the artery and the vein often located in the upper arm or forearm. An arteriovenous fistula is a connection between an artery and a vein that a provider uses for dialysis purposes. In this procedure, the provider does not perform a thrombectomy, or the removal of a thrombus, or blood clot.",CPT +36833,"Hemodialysis Access, Intervascular Cannulation for Extracorporeal Circulation, or Shunt Insertion Procedures on Arteries and Veins.","In this procedure, the provider surgically opens an autogenous or nonautogenous arteriovenous fistula and revises the connection between the artery and the vein. An arteriovenous fistula is a connection between an artery and a vein, often located in the upper arm or forearm that a provider uses for dialysis purposes. He also performs a thrombectomy, or removal of a thrombus, or blood clot.",CPT +36835,"Hemodialysis Access, Intervascular Cannulation for Extracorporeal Circulation, or Shunt Insertion Procedures on Arteries and Veins.","In this procedure, the provider inserts an arteriovenous shunt between an artery and vein. He most often places this shunt in a patient who will receive hemodialysis treatments.  Hemodialysis is a process in which a dialysis machine removes harmful wastes, salt, and fluids from the blood and reinfuses the purified blood back into the patient's circulation.",CPT +36836,"Hemodialysis Access, Intervascular Cannulation for Extracorporeal Circulation, or Shunt Insertion Procedures on Arteries and Veins.",The provider uses a percutaneous approach to create a fistula (connection) between an artery and vein in the patient’s upper limb for hemodialysis. There is a single access site for the peripheral artery and peripheral vein involved.,CPT +36837,"Hemodialysis Access, Intervascular Cannulation for Extracorporeal Circulation, or Shunt Insertion Procedures on Arteries and Veins.","The provider uses a percutaneous approach to create an arteriovenous fistula (connection) in the patient’s upper limb for hemodialysis. The provider uses two separate access sites, one for the peripheral artery and one for the peripheral vein.",CPT +36838,"Hemodialysis Access, Intervascular Cannulation for Extracorporeal Circulation, or Shunt Insertion Procedures on Arteries and Veins.","In this procedure, the provider uses distal revascularization and interval ligation, or DRIL, to surgically correct a dialysis access induced ischemia of the lower part of the upper extremity, also known as Steal syndrome. The provider restores the blood supply to the hand and preserves the access site. The aim of this surgical intervention is to maintain the vascular supply of the forearm and hand while preserving the blood flow towards the hemodialysis access location.",CPT +36860,"Hemodialysis Access, Intervascular Cannulation for Extracorporeal Circulation, or Shunt Insertion Procedures on Arteries and Veins.","In this procedure, the provider removes a clot from the cannula that he places in an earlier procedure. He performs this procedure without using a balloon catheter.",CPT +36861,"Hemodialysis Access, Intervascular Cannulation for Extracorporeal Circulation, or Shunt Insertion Procedures on Arteries and Veins.","In this procedure, the provider removes a clot from a cannula that he places in an earlier procedure. He uses a balloon catheter to remove the clot.",CPT +36901,Dialysis Circuit Procedures.,"The provider introduces a needle and/or catheter under fluoroscopic guidance (live X–rays that can be viewed on a monitor) and injects intravenous contrast material to visualize and record images of the entire dialysis circuit to assess blood flow or locate an obstruction; radiological supervision, interpretation, image capture, and report are included in this code.",CPT +36902,Dialysis Circuit Procedures.,"The provider introduces a needle and/or catheter under fluoroscopic guidance (live X–rays that can be viewed on a monitor) and injects contrast material into the dialysis access point to visualize and record images of the entire dialysis circuit; he finds an obstructed segment, which he dilates and opens up using a balloon expanded within the vessel lumen. Radiological supervision and interpretation for both components of the procedure and image capture and report for the angiography are included in this code.",CPT +36903,Dialysis Circuit Procedures.,The provider introduces a needle and/or catheter under fluoroscopic guidance (live X–rays that can be viewed on a monitor) and injects contrast material into the dialysis access point to visualize and record images of the entire dialysis circuit; he finds an obstructed segment and passes an intravascular stent or stents through the catheter into the vessel lumen to keep it open. Radiological supervision and interpretation for both components of the procedure and image capture and report for the angiography are included in this code.,CPT +36904,Dialysis Circuit Procedures.,"Under fluoroscopic guidance (live X–rays that can be viewed on a monitor), the provider introduces a catheter into a vessel in the dialysis circuit and extracts a blood clot (hematoma) with special instruments (thrombectomy) and/or injects a drug to dissolve the clot (pharmacological thrombolytic injection); the procedure includes diagnostic angiography and radiological supervision and interpretation.",CPT +36905,Dialysis Circuit Procedures.,"Under fluoroscopic guidance (live X–rays that can be viewed on a monitor), the provider introduces a catheter into a vessel in the dialysis circuit and extracts a blood clot (hematoma) with special instruments (thrombectomy) and/or injects a drug to dissolve the clot (pharmacological thrombolytic injection); he also finds a narrowed segment in the outer area of the circuit, which he dilates and opens up using a balloon expanded within the vessel lumen (channel). The procedure includes diagnostic angiography and radiological supervision and interpretation.",CPT +36906,Dialysis Circuit Procedures.,"Under fluoroscopic guidance (live X–rays which can be viewed on a monitor), the provider introduces a catheter into a vessel in the dialysis circuit and extracts a blood clot (hematoma) with special instruments (thrombectomy) and/or injects a drug to dissolve the clot (pharmacological thrombolytic injection); he also finds a narrowed segment in the outer area of the circuit, which he dilates and then places a stent to keep the vessel lumen (channel) open. The procedure includes diagnostic angiography and radiological supervision and interpretation.",CPT +36907,Dialysis Circuit Procedures.,"During a primary procedure on a patient's dialysis circuit, the provider finds an obstructed central segment, which he dilates and opens up using a balloon expanded within the vessel lumen (channel). Radiological supervision and interpretation for any imaging procedure required to carry out the balloon angioplasty is included with this code.",CPT +36908,Dialysis Circuit Procedures.,"During a primary procedure on a patient's dialysis circuit, the provider finds an obstructed central segment, which he dilates and then places a stent through a catheter and into the vessel lumen (channel) to maintain its diameter. Radiological supervision and interpretation for any imaging procedure required to carry out the intravascular stent placement is included with this code.",CPT +36909,Dialysis Circuit Procedures.,"During a primary procedure on a patient's dialysis circuit, the provider finds it necessary to perform permanent endovascular occlusion or embolization to deliberately occlude (block) the dialysis circuit due to a malfunction. Radiological supervision and interpretation for any imaging procedure required to carry out the embolization or occlusion is included with this code.",CPT +37140,Portal Decompression Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,"In this procedure, the provider incises a patient’s thoracic and abdominal area and creates a portocaval venous anastomosis, or a connection between the portal vein of the liver and the inferior vena cava. The provider performs this procedure as a treatment for portal hypertension, which often occurs due to a narrowing or blockage of the portal vein. This procedure lowers the pressure in the veins of the stomach and esophagus, or food pipe, and prevents serious bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract.",CPT +37145,Portal Decompression Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,"In this procedure, the provider incises a patient’s abdomen and creates a renoportal venous anastomosis, or a connection between the renal vein of the kidney and the portal vein of the liver. The provider most commonly performs this procedure for restoration of portal flow in an implanted liver graft in a patient with a stenosed or blocked portal vein.",CPT +37160,Portal Decompression Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,"In this procedure, the provider incises a patient’s abdomen and creates a caval mesenteric venous anastomosis, or a connection between the superior mesenteric vein and the inferior vena cava.  This anastomosis helps in the treatment of portal hypertension as well as provides easy access to portal system for direct delivery of drug.",CPT +37180,Portal Decompression Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,"In this procedure, the provider incises the patient’s abdomen and creates a proximal splenorenal venous anastomosis, or a connection between the upper ends of the splenic vein and the renal vein. The provider often performs this procedure during the removal of spleen.",CPT +37181,Portal Decompression Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,"Code represents the surgical connection of veins by means of an open procedure, as opposed to a percutaneous procedure. During the surgery, the splenic vein (the vein from the spleen) is detached from the portal vein and reattached to the left kidney (renal) vein. This procedure reduces high blood pressure in the stomach and esophagus.",CPT +37182,Portal Decompression Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,"In this procedure, the provider establishes an artificial channel, or tunnel, between the portal vein and one of the hepatic veins. He then places a stent in the tunnel. The provider performs this procedure as a treatment for portal hypertension to lower the pressure in the veins of the stomach and esophagus, or the food pipe, and prevent serious bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract.",CPT +37183,Portal Decompression Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a shunt that he previously places and inserts a new stent in the artificial channel or tunnel between the portal vein and one of the hepatic veins. The provider may perform this service due to a blood clot or narrowing of the artery.",CPT +37184,Arterial Mechanical Thrombectomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider treats an occlusion, or blockage, in a noncoronary or non–intracranial artery or in an arterial bypass graft by using a combined technique of mechanical thrombectomy and pharmacological thrombolytic injection. He also uses fluoroscopic guidance to perform mechanical thrombectomy. Use this code when the provider performs this procedure on the initial vessel.",CPT +37185,Arterial Mechanical Thrombectomy Procedures.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider treats an occlusion or blockage in the second and all subsequent arteries or arterial bypass grafts by using a combined technique of mechanical thrombectomy and pharmacological thrombolytic injection after he treats an occlusion in an initial vessel from the same noncoronary, non–intracranial vascular family using the same method. He also uses fluoroscopic guidance to perform mechanical thrombectomy.",CPT +37186,Arterial Mechanical Thrombectomy Procedures.,"Either before or after the physician performs a percutaneous intervention, such a stent placement or balloon angioplasty, he removes small sections of the thrombus or embolism from a noncoronary or non–intracranial arterial occlusion or from an arterial bypass graft, using various methods under fluoroscopic guidance.",CPT +37187,Venous Mechanical Thrombectomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider treats an occlusion, or blockage, in a vein by using a combined technique of mechanical thrombectomy and pharmacological thrombolytic injection. He also uses fluoroscopic guidance to perform mechanical thrombectomy.",CPT +37188,Venous Mechanical Thrombectomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider repeats the treatment for an occlusion, or blockage, in a vein by using a combined technique of mechanical thrombectomy and pharmacological thrombolytic injection. This procedure is for a subsequent day during the course of thrombolytic therapy. He also uses fluoroscopic guidance to perform mechanical thrombectomy.",CPT +37191,Other Transcatheteral Procedures.,"The provider inserts a catheter in a vein at the patient’s groin level or the neck and maneuvers the catheter to place a filter device in the inferior vena cava, or the IVC. He visualizes the blood vessels through imaging guidance. The provider performs this procedure in patients to prevent blood clots from the lower limbs from travelling up to the heart and lungs.",CPT +37192,Other Transcatheteral Procedures.,"The provider inserts a catheter in a vein at the patient’s groin level or the neck and maneuvers the catheter to reposition an already placed filter device in the inferior vena cava, or the IVC. He visualizes the blood vessels through imaging guidance. The provider performs this procedure in patients to reposition the filter to a more appropriate position within the vein so that it can prevent a blood clot from the lower limbs from travelling up to the heart and lungs.",CPT +37193,Other Transcatheteral Procedures.,"The provider inserts a catheter in a vein at the patient’s groin level or the neck and maneuvers the catheter to remove a filter device already placed in the inferior vena cava, or the IVC. He visualizes the blood vessels through imaging guidance. The provider performs this procedure in patients who do not require the filter anymore to prevent blood clots from the lower limbs from travelling up to the heart and lungs.",CPT +37195,Other Transcatheteral Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider infuses a thrombolytic drug through an intravenous catheter to dissolve a clot in a cerebral, or brain, blood vessel. The provider performs this service to resolve a blockage in the brain and prevent a possible stroke.",CPT +37197,Other Transcatheteral Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a foreign body from a blood vessel using a catheter he places through the skin. This code includes radiological supervision and interpretation, which the provider may use for guiding the catheter to remove the foreign body.",CPT +37200,Other Transcatheteral Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts a catheter into a blood vessel and obtains a tissue sample from the inner wall of the blood vessel. The transcatheter biopsy obtains the tissue samples for laboratory examination to diagnose disease.",CPT +37211,Other Transcatheteral Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts a catheter into an artery to infuse a thrombolytic medication in the area of a vessel where a clot is present. He performs this therapy on an artery other than a coronary or non–intracranial artery and also performs the radiological supervision and interpretation he uses to access the vessel. Use this code for the initial treatment day.",CPT +37212,Other Transcatheteral Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts a catheter into a vein to infuse a thrombolytic medication in the area of a vessel where a clot is present. He performs this therapy in a vein and also performs the radiological supervision and interpretation he uses to access the vessel. Use this code for the initial treatment day.",CPT +37213,Other Transcatheteral Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts a catheter into an artery or a vein to infuse a thrombolytic medicine in the area of a vessel where a clot is present. He also performs the radiological supervision and interpretation necessary to perform the procedure. This code includes catheter contrast injection, position change, or replacement. Use this code for a subsequent treatment day during the course of thrombolytic therapy for other than a coronary vessel.",CPT +37214,Other Transcatheteral Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts a catheter into an artery or a vein to infuse a thrombolytic medicine in the area of a vessel where a clot is present. He also performs the radiological supervision and interpretation necessary to perform the procedure. This code includes catheter contrast injection, position change, or replacement. Use this code for a subsequent treatment day during the course of thrombolytic therapy other than for a coronary vessel. This code also includes the cessation of thrombolytic therapy along with removal of the catheter and vessel closure by any method.",CPT +37215,Other Transcatheteral Procedures.,"The provider places an intravascular stent into a cervical carotid artery under imaging guidance. He may place the stent through a percutaneous catheter or via an open incision. He also places an embolic protection device in the artery before placement of the stent. He may perform an angioplasty, i.e., removal of plaque from the lining of the artery. He uses imaging guidance or angiography to confirm placement of the devices. He performs this procedure to treat carotid artery stenosis, or narrowing of the artery.",CPT +37216,Other Transcatheteral Procedures.,"The provider places an intravascular stent into a cervical carotid artery under imaging guidance. He may place the stent through a percutaneous catheter or via an open incision. He may also perform an angioplasty, that is, removal of plaque from the lining of the artery. He performs this procedure to treat carotid artery stenosis, or narrowing of the artery.",CPT +37217,Other Transcatheteral Procedures.,The provider performs transcatheter stent placement in either the intrathoracic common carotid artery or the innominate artery. The code is specific to retrograde treatment of a lesion through an open cervical carotid artery approach. Any angioplasty or radiological guidance required for the service is also included as well as radiological supervision and interpretation.,CPT +37218,Other Transcatheteral Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider uses a catheter to insert one or more stents in the intrathoracic common carotid artery or the innominate artery. He may use an open or percutaneous antegrade approach. Antegrade means in the normal direction of flow. The service may include angioplasty. The provider performs radiologic supervision and interpretation for the procedure.",CPT +37220,Endovascular Revascularization.,"In this procedure, the provider restores the blood supply in a narrowed or blocked unilateral iliac artery through an endovascular, open or percutaneous approach. He performs this procedure with a transluminal angioplasty, a surgical procedure in which the provider places a balloon catheter at the site of an occlusion in the blood vessel and inflates the balloon to expand the lumen of the vessel. Use this code when the provider performs this procedure on an initial vessel.",CPT +37221,Endovascular Revascularization.,"In this procedure, the provider restores the blood supply in a narrowed or blocked unilateral iliac artery through an endovascular, open or percutaneous approach. He performs this procedure with transluminal stent placement, a surgical procedure in which the provider places a stent at the site of an occlusion in the blood vessel and expands it against the narrow portion of the wall of the vessel. Use this code when the provider performs this procedure on an initial vessel. This code includes an angioplasty procedure when the provider performs it within same vessel.",CPT +37222,Endovascular Revascularization.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider restores the blood supply in an additional narrowed or blocked ipsilateral, iliac artery through an endovascular, open or percutaneous approach after the same procedure on an initial vessel on the same side. He performs this procedure with transluminal angioplasty, a surgical procedure in which the provider places a balloon catheter at the site of occlusion, or blockage, in the blood vessel and inflates the balloon to expand the lumen of the vessel.",CPT +37223,Endovascular Revascularization.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider restores the blood supply in an additional ipsilateral narrowed or blocked unilateral iliac artery through endovascular, open or percutaneous approach after the same procedure in an initial vessel on the same side. He performs this procedure with transluminal stent placement, a surgical procedure in which the provider places a stent at the site of occlusion, or blockage, in the blood vessel and expands it against the narrow portion of the wall of the vessel. Use this code when the provider performs this procedure on each additional vessel. This code includes the angioplasty procedure when the provider performs it within same vessel.",CPT +37224,Endovascular Revascularization.,"In this procedure, the provider restores the blood supply in a narrowed or blocked unilateral femoral or popliteal artery through an endovascular, open or percutaneous approach. He performs this procedure with a transluminal angioplasty, a surgical procedure in which the provider places a balloon catheter at the site of occlusion, or blockage, in the blood vessel and inflates the balloon to expand the lumen of the vessel.",CPT +37225,Endovascular Revascularization.,"In this procedure, the provider restores the blood supply in a narrowed or blocked unilateral femoral or popliteal artery through an endovascular, open or percutaneous approach. He performs this procedure with atherectomy, a surgical procedure to remove plaque from the blood vessel. This code includes an angioplasty procedure when the provider performs it within the same vessel.",CPT +37226,Endovascular Revascularization.,"In this procedure, the provider restores the blood supply in a stenosed, or narrowed, femoral or popliteal artery through an endovascular, open or percutaneous approach. He performs this procedure with transluminal stent placement, a surgical procedure in which the provider places a stent at the site of occlusion in the blood vessel and expands it against the narrow portion of the wall of the vessel. This code includes the angioplasty procedure when the provider performs it within the same vessel.",CPT +37227,Endovascular Revascularization.,"In this procedure, the provider restores the blood supply in a stenosed, or narrowed, femoral or popliteal artery through an endovascular, open or percutaneous approach. He performs this procedure with transluminal stent placement, a surgical procedure in which the provider places a stent at the site of an occlusion in the blood vessel and expands it against the narrow portion of the wall of the vessel. He also performs this procedure with atherectomy, a surgical procedure to remove plaque from the blood vessel. This code includes an angioplasty procedure when the provider performs it within the same vessel.",CPT +37228,Endovascular Revascularization.,"In this procedure, the provider restores the blood supply in the unilateral tibial or peroneal artery through an endovascular, open or percutaneous approach. He performs this procedure with transluminal angioplasty, a surgical procedure in which the provider places a balloon catheter at the site of an occlusion in the blood vessel and inflates the balloon to expand the lumen of the vessel. Use this code when the provider performs this procedure on the initial vessel.",CPT +37229,Endovascular Revascularization.,"In this procedure, the provider restores the blood supply in a tibial or peroneal artery through an endovascular, open or percutaneous approach. He performs this procedure with an atherectomy, a surgical procedure to remove plaque from the blood vessel. This code includes an angioplasty procedure when the provider performs it within the same vessel. Use this code when the provider performs this procedure on the initial vessel.",CPT +37230,Endovascular Revascularization.,"In this procedure, the provider restores the blood supply in a stenosed, or narrowed, tibial or peroneal artery through endovascular, open or percutaneous approach. He performs this procedure with a transluminal stent placement, a surgical procedure in which the provider places a stent at the site of an occlusion in the blood vessel and expands it against the narrow portion of the wall of the vessel. This code includes the angioplasty procedure when the provider performs it within the same vessel. Use this code when the provider performs this procedure on the initial vessel.",CPT +37231,Endovascular Revascularization.,"In this procedure, the provider restores the blood supply in the stenosed, or narrowed, unilateral tibial or peroneal artery through an endovascular, open or percutaneous approach. He performs this procedure with transluminal stent placement, a surgical procedure in which the provider places a stent at the site of occlusion in the blood vessel and expands it against the narrow portion of the wall of the vessel. He also performs this procedure with atherectomy, a surgical procedure to remove plaque from the blood vessel. This code includes an angioplasty procedure when the provider performs it within the same vessel. Use this code when the provider performs this procedure on the initial vessel.",CPT +37232,Endovascular Revascularization.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider restores the blood supply in each additional unilateral tibial or peroneal artery through an endovascular, open or percutaneous approach after he performs the same procedure on an initial tibial or peroneal vessel. He performs this procedure with transluminal angioplasty, a surgical procedure in which the provider places a balloon catheter at the site of an occlusion in the blood vessel and inflates the balloon to expand the lumen of the vessel. Use this code when the provider performs this procedure on each additional vessel.",CPT +37233,Endovascular Revascularization.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider restores the blood supply in each additional unilateral tibial or peroneal artery through endovascular, open or percutaneous approach after he performs the same procedure in an initial vessel. He performs this procedure with an atherectomy, a surgical procedure to remove plaque from the blood vessel. This code includes an angioplasty procedure when provider performs it within same vessel during this procedure. Use this code when the provider performs this procedure on each additional vessel.",CPT +37234,Endovascular Revascularization.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider restores the blood supply in an additional stenosed, or narrowed, unilateral, tibial, or peroneal artery through an endovascular, open or percutaneous approach after he performs the same procedure in an initial vessel. He performs this procedure with transluminal stent placement, a surgical procedure in which the provider places a stent at the site of an occlusion in the blood vessel and expands it against the narrow portion of the wall of the vessel. This code includes an angioplasty procedure when the provider performs it within the same vessel. Use this code when the provider performs this procedure on each additional vessel.",CPT +37235,Endovascular Revascularization.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider restores the blood supply in each additional stenosed, or narrowed, unilateral tibial or peroneal artery through an endovascular, open or percutaneous approach. He performs this procedure with transluminal stent placement, a surgical procedure in which the provider places a stent at the site of the occlusion in the blood vessel and expands it against the narrow portion of the wall of the vessel. He also performs this procedure with an atherectomy, a surgical procedure to remove plaque from the blood vessel. This code includes an angioplasty procedure when the provider performs it within the same vessel.",CPT +37236,Endovascular Revascularization.,"The provider inserts a stent in an artery using a catheter. Access may be either open or percutaneous. It includes any radiologic imaging to complete the procedure and if the provider performs angioplasty within the same vessel. This code does not apply to stent placement in the lower extremity, cervical carotid, intracranial, and coronary arteries.",CPT +37237,Endovascular Revascularization.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider inserts a stent in an artery using a catheter following stent insertion in a separate artery. Access may be either open or percutaneous.",CPT +37238,Endovascular Revascularization.,The physician inserts a stent in a vein using a catheter. Access may be either open or percutaneous. Radiological supervision and interpretation are included.,CPT +37239,Endovascular Revascularization.,The physician inserts a stent in a vein using a catheter following stent insertion in a separate vein. Access may be either open or percutaneous. Radiological supervision and interpretation are included.,CPT +37241,Vascular Embolization and Occlusion Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,"The physician partially or completely blocks venous blood flow in the target area. This code is for services unrelated to hemorrhage. This code is appropriate for services related to venous malformations, hemangiomas, varicoceles, and varices.",CPT +37242,Vascular Embolization and Occlusion Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,"The physician partially or completely blocks arterial blood flow in the target area. This code is for services unrelated to hemorrhage or tumor treatment. This code is appropriate for services related to arteriovenous malformations or fistulas, aneurysms, or pseudoaneurysms.",CPT +37243,Vascular Embolization and Occlusion Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,"The physician partially or completely blocks vascular blood flow in the target area for benign or malignant tumors (including uterine fibroids), organ ischemia, or infarction.",CPT +37244,Vascular Embolization and Occlusion Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,The physician partially or completely blocks vascular blood flow in the target area for hemorrhage or extravasation.,CPT +37246,Endovascular Revascularization.,"Using an open incision or a percutaneous (small incision in the skin) approach, the provider places a balloon–tipped catheter into the lumen (interior) of an artery. He expands the balloon as many times and at as many points as necessary within the same artery to open up the artery and improve blood circulation. The procedure includes all imaging guidance and diagnostic imaging necessary to carry out the angioplasty and all radiological supervision and interpretation (RS&I); do not report this code for this procedure on the dialysis circuit or the lower extremity, intracranial, coronary, or pulmonary arteries.",CPT +37247,Endovascular Revascularization.,"During a procedure for transluminal balloon angioplasty (TBA) on an artery, the provider treats one or more additional arteries. The procedure includes all imaging guidance and diagnostic imaging necessary to carry out the angioplasty and all radiological supervision and interpretation (RS&I); do not report this code for this procedure on lower extremity, intracranial, coronary, or pulmonary arteries or the dialysis circuit.",CPT +37248,Endovascular Revascularization.,"Using an open incision or a percutaneous (small incision in the skin) approach, the provider places a balloon–tipped catheter into the lumen (interior) of a vein (except for the dialysis circuit) and expands the balloon as many times and at as many points as necessary within the same vein to open up the vein and improve blood circulation. The procedure includes all imaging guidance and diagnostic imaging necessary to carry out the angioplasty and all radiological supervision and interpretation (RS&I).",CPT +37249,Endovascular Revascularization.,"After performing transluminal balloon angioplasty on the initial vein, the provider places a balloon through a catheter into the lumen (interior) of one or more additional veins (except for the dialysis circuit) and expands the balloon as many times and at as many points as necessary within the same vein to open up the vein and improve blood circulation. The procedure includes all imaging guidance and diagnostic imaging necessary to carry out the angioplasty and all radiological supervision and interpretation (RS&I).",CPT +37252,Intravascular Ultrasound Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider inserts a specially designed catheter with an ultrasound transducer, a device that sends high–frequency sound waves through the tissues and detects their returning echoes to provide information about the underlying structures, into the vessel and examines its interior during a diagnostic or interventional therapeutic procedure, such as stent placement to treat an obstruction or blockage. This procedure is for the first vessel that is not a heart vessel (noncoronary) and includes radiologic supervision and interpretation of the intravascular ultrasound.",CPT +37253,Intravascular Ultrasound Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider inserts a specially designed catheter with an ultrasound transducer, a device that sends high–frequency sound waves through the tissues and detects their returning echoes to provide information about the underlying structures, into the vessel (intravascular) and examines its interior during a diagnostic or interventional therapeutic procedure, such as stent placement to treat an obstruction or blockage. This code is for intravascular ultrasound for each additional vessel that is not a heart vessel (noncoronary) after the first and includes radiological supervision and interpretation.",CPT +37500,Vascular Endoscopy Procedures.,In this procedure the provider places an endoscope and removes or separates superficial veins which are perforating down through the fascia and connecting to the deep veins.,CPT +37501,Vascular Endoscopy Procedures.,Use to report vascular endoscopy procedures in the cardiovascular system that do not have a specific code,CPT +37565,Ligation Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,"In this procedure, the provider incises the patient’s neck to locate the internal jugular vein and ligates it with a suture or clip. A provider performs this procedure most commonly for a condition called venous hum tinnitus.",CPT +37600,Ligation Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,"In this procedure, the provider incises the neck to locate the external carotid artery and ligates it with a suture or clip. A provider performs this procedure most commonly for a carotid artery aneurysm.",CPT +37605,Ligation Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,"In this procedure, the provider incises the neck to locate the internal or common carotid artery and ligates it with a suture or clip. A provider performs this procedure most commonly for a carotid artery aneurysm.",CPT +37606,Ligation Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,"In this procedure, the provider incises the neck to locate the internal or common carotid artery, and ligates it with a gradual occluding clamp. A provider performs this procedure most commonly for the treatment of an internal or common carotid artery aneurysm or injury.",CPT +37607,Ligation Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision to locate an artificially created arteriovenous fistula, and ligates it with sutures or clamps to control or stop the blood flow through the fistula.",CPT +37609,Ligation Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,"In this procedure, the provider incises in front of the ears to locate the temporal artery, and ligates the artery with a suture or clamp. He may also take a biopsy of the artery as an option. A provider performs this procedure for the treatment of a temporal artery aneurysm.",CPT +37615,Ligation Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,"The provider ligates (closes, clips, or ties off) a ruptured artery of the neck due to injury or trauma.",CPT +37616,Ligation Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,"The provider ligates (closes, clips, or ties off) a ruptured artery of the chest due to injury or trauma.",CPT +37617,Ligation Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,"The provider ligates (closes, ties off, or clamps) a ruptured artery of the abdomen due to injury or trauma.",CPT +37618,Ligation Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,"The provider ligates (ties off, closes, or clamps) a ruptured artery of the upper or lower limbs due to injury or trauma.",CPT +37619,Ligation Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,The provider ties off the inferior vena cava to narrow the diameter of the vessel with the help of sutures or a clip.,CPT +37650,Ligation Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision in the upper leg to access the femoral vein and ligates it with a suture or clip. A provider performs this procedure most commonly for a varicose vein.",CPT +37660,Ligation Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an abdominal incision and enters into the abdominal cavity to access the common iliac vein, and ligates it with a suture or clip.",CPT +37700,Ligation Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,"In this procedure, the provider makes multiple incisions over the affected areas of the thigh and along the long saphenous vein, and he ligates, or ties off, and divides, or separates, the diseased vein at the point where the saphenous and femoral veins meet and along the upper leg as necessary. He performs this procedure most commonly to treat varicose veins.",CPT +37718,Ligation Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,"In this procedure, the provider makes incisions to access the short saphenous vein and remove it with the help of a stripping device. This procedure is most commonly done to treat varicose veins.",CPT +37722,Ligation Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,"In this procedure, the provider makes incisions to access the long saphenous vein and remove it with the help of stripping device. This procedure is most commonly done to treat varicose veins.",CPT +37735,Ligation Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,"In this procedure, the provider makes incisions to access the long or short saphenous vein, ligates and divides the vein, and then removes the vein with the help of a stripping device. The provider also excises an ulcer including the deep fascia and nearby soft tissues and places a skin graft over the site.  He may tie off superficial veins that connect with deeper veins. This procedure is most commonly done to treat varicose veins.",CPT +37760,Ligation Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,"In this procedure, the provider makes incisions along the affected vein and accesses the targeted perforator vein, a vein which connects the superficial vein to the deep veins. The provider incises through the fascia, excises the nearby diseased structures, and ligates the perforator vein, to treat varicose veins in one leg. The provider may also place a skin graft at the excision site to cover the wound.",CPT +37761,Ligation Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,"In this procedure, the provider makes incisions along the affected vein and accesses the targeted perforator vein, a vein which connects the superficial vein to the deep veins. The provider incises through the fascia, excises the nearby diseased structures, and ligates the vein, to treat varicose veins. He performs this procedure using ultrasound guidance.",CPT +37765,Ligation Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,"In this procedure, the provider excises and removes varicose veins through 10 to 20 very small incisions.",CPT +37766,Ligation Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,"In this procedure, the provider excises and removes varicose veins through 20 or more very small incisions.",CPT +37780,Ligation Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision to access the short saphenous vein at the saphenopopliteal junction located posteriorly on the leg, near the knee joint, and he removes a segment of the vein. This procedure is most commonly done to treat varicose veins.",CPT +37785,Ligation Procedures on Arteries and Veins.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision over a cluster of varicose veins and removes the entire cluster or a segment of the cluster.",CPT +37788,Other Artery and Vein Procedures.,,CPT +37790,Other Artery and Vein Procedures.,The provider performs penile vein ligation to prevent venous leakage or the return of venous blood to the body during erection to treat erectile dysfunction.,CPT +37799,Other Artery and Vein Procedures.,Use this code to report a vascular surgery procedure for which there is no specific code available.,CPT +38100,Excision Procedures on the Spleen.,"In this procedure the provider makes an incision into the abdominal cavity and performs a complete excision of the spleen. The provider performs this service for a patient with a traumatic rupture of the spleen, hemolytic anemia, or cancer of the spleen.",CPT +38101,Excision Procedures on the Spleen.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision into the abdominal cavity and excises a part of the spleen. The provider performs this service for a patient with a traumatic rupture of the spleen, hemolytic anemia, or cancer of the spleen.",CPT +38102,Excision Procedures on the Spleen.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider performs a complete excision of the spleen, while performing another extensive procedure that requires excision of abdominal organs. The provider performs this service most often on a patient due to trauma, or cancer of the abdominal organs.",CPT +38115,Repair Procedures on the Spleen.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision into the abdominal cavity and repairs the damaged area of the spleen with sutures. He may also excise a portion of the spleen if that part of spleen is irreparable. He performs this procedure most often for trauma.",CPT +38120,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Spleen.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a complete excision of the spleen using a laparoscope.",CPT +38129,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Spleen.,Use to report laparoscopic procedures on the spleen that does not have a specific code.,CPT +38200,Injection Procedure on the Spleen.,"The provider inserts a catheter in the splenic vein and injects contrast solution to take X–rays, and evaluate the functionality of the portal venous system in a procedure known as a splenoportography.",CPT +38204,Bone Marrow or Stem Cell Services/Procedures.,The provider manages the search for a suitable donor and acquisition of hematopoietic progenitor cells (HPCs) compatible with the recipient.,CPT +38205,Bone Marrow or Stem Cell Services/Procedures.,The provider harvests hematopoietic progenitor cells (HPCs) from the blood of a donor using a technique known as apheresis. The provider performs this service using specially designed equipment for this task.,CPT +38206,Bone Marrow or Stem Cell Services/Procedures.,The provider harvests hematopoietic progenitor cells (HPCs) from a patient’s own blood using a technique known as apheresis. The provider performs this service using specially designed equipment for this task.,CPT +38207,Bone Marrow or Stem Cell Services/Procedures.,The provider manages the preservation and storage of harvested hematopoietic progenitor cells (HPCs). He assures cell preservation according to current protocols for future transplantation of the cells.,CPT +38208,Bone Marrow or Stem Cell Services/Procedures.,The provider manages the process of preparing already frozen and stored hematopoietic progenitor cells (HPCs) for transplantation. The provider thaws each donor’s cells without washing the cells to remove the cryoprotective solution.,CPT +38209,Bone Marrow or Stem Cell Services/Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider manages the process of preparing already frozen and stored hematopoietic progenitor cells (HPCs) for transplantation. The provider thaws each donor’s cells and washes it to remove the cryoprotective solution. He performs this service to remove the solution as well as to remove hemoglobin and debris to make the cells ready for transplantation.",CPT +38210,Bone Marrow or Stem Cell Services/Procedures.,The provider prepares the hematopoietic progenitor cells (HPCs) in such a way that it has minimal numbers of T cells to minimize the chances of rejection.,CPT +38211,Bone Marrow or Stem Cell Services/Procedures.,The provider prepares the hematopoietic progenitor cells (HPCs) using a combination of enrichment and depletion techniques to remove the most tumor cells possible to minimize the chances of reintroduction of tumor cells into the recipient.,CPT +38212,Bone Marrow or Stem Cell Services/Procedures.,"The provider prepares the hematopoietic progenitor cells (HPCs) solution in such a way as to remove the greatest number of red blood cells to minimize transplant complications, especially when transplanting cryopreserved cells such as marrow.",CPT +38213,Bone Marrow or Stem Cell Services/Procedures.,The provider prepares the hematopoietic progenitor cells (HPCs) solution to reduce the number of platelets left and prevent any clumping of the HPC solution.,CPT +38214,Bone Marrow or Stem Cell Services/Procedures.,The provider prepares the hematopoietic progenitor cells (HPCs) in such a way that the solution has minimal plasma volume left. The provider performs this service to facilitate the transplantation process with a smaller volume of HPC solution.,CPT +38215,Bone Marrow or Stem Cell Services/Procedures.,The provider prepares the hematopoietic progenitor cells (HPCs) solution by reducing the plasma concentration and removing agranulocytes and the buffy coat layer to facilitate the transplantation process and minimize post–transplant complications.,CPT +38220,Bone Marrow or Stem Cell Services/Procedures.,"The provider inserts a long, large–bore needle into the sternum or pelvic bone and aspirates (sucks out) bone marrow tissue. This procedure is used for diagnostic purposes only.",CPT +38221,Bone Marrow or Stem Cell Services/Procedures.,The provider takes one or more samples of bone marrow from the sternum or pelvic bone for diagnostic purposes only.,CPT +38222,Bone Marrow or Stem Cell Services/Procedures.,"The provider takes a scraping or sample of bone marrow tissue, using biopsy and aspiration techniques, for diagnostic purposes. Bone marrow aspiration is typically performed prior to the biopsy when both are performed.",CPT +38230,Bone Marrow or Stem Cell Services/Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts a long needle or trocar in the sternum or pelvic bone to take a sufficient amount of bone marrow tissue from the body of a donor for transplantation.",CPT +38232,Bone Marrow or Stem Cell Services/Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider aspirates bone marrow tissue with the help of a needle, to place it back into the bone marrow cavity of the same patient, typically at a later date.",CPT +38240,Transplantation and Post-Transplantation Cellular Infusion Procedures on the Hemic and Lymphatic Systems.,"In this procedure, the provider introduces into the blood stream of a recipient the hematopoietic progenitor cells, or HPCs, which he harvests from another donor.",CPT +38241,Transplantation and Post-Transplantation Cellular Infusion Procedures on the Hemic and Lymphatic Systems.,"In this procedure, the provider introduces into a patient’s blood stream the hematopoietic progenitor cells, or HPCs, which he harvests directly from the patient.",CPT +38242,Transplantation and Post-Transplantation Cellular Infusion Procedures on the Hemic and Lymphatic Systems.,"In this procedure, the provider introduces lymphocytes into the blood stream of a recipient, which he harvests from another donor.  This service is done for patients with recurrent infections or lymphoproliferative disease due to transplant.",CPT +38243,Transplantation and Post-Transplantation Cellular Infusion Procedures on the Hemic and Lymphatic Systems.,"In this procedure, the provider infuses hematopoietic progenitor cells, HPCs, into a patient. The cells are from the same transplant donor whose cells the patient received during a previously performed HPC transplant.",CPT +38300,Incision Procedures on the Lymph Nodes and Lymphatic Channels.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision over an enlarged or inflamed lymph node and drains the abscess or infection inside it.",CPT +38305,Incision Procedures on the Lymph Nodes and Lymphatic Channels.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision over an enlarged or inflamed lymph node and drains the abscess or infection inside it. Provider performs this procedure when the infected area is large or the abscess is in deep lymph nodes.",CPT +38308,Incision Procedures on the Lymph Nodes and Lymphatic Channels.,In this procedure the provider incises or performs other procedures to improve lymph flow or drain any infection of a lymph node or the lymphatic channels.,CPT +38380,Incision Procedures on the Lymph Nodes and Lymphatic Channels.,"In this procedure, the provider repairs the cervical thoracic duct using sutures or by tying it off. The provider accesses the duct through an incision in the neck to reach the thoracic duct. The most common reason for repair is a penetrating trauma to the chest.",CPT +38381,Incision Procedures on the Lymph Nodes and Lymphatic Channels.,"In this procedure, the provider repairs the thoracic duct. The provider accesses the duct  through the thorax by incising either the breastbone or ribs. The most common reason for repair is penetrating trauma of the chest.",CPT +38382,Incision Procedures on the Lymph Nodes and Lymphatic Channels.,"In this procedure, the provider repairs the thoracic duct using sutures or by tying it off. The provider accesses the duct through an incision in the abdomen to reach the thoracic duct. The most common reason for repair is penetrating trauma to the chest.",CPT +38500,Excision Procedures on the Lymph Nodes and Lymphatic Channels.,"The provider performs an open excision or biopsy of the  lymph nodes lying near the surface of the body using a scalpel. The provider commonly performs this procedure to identify and diagnose the cause of disease in the lymph nodes or surrounding tissues. In this procedure, the provider can excise any superficial node.",CPT +38505,Excision Procedures on the Lymph Nodes and Lymphatic Channels.,"The provider excises or biopsies lymph nodes lying near the surface of the body using a needle. The provider commonly performs this procedure to identify and diagnose the cause of disease in the lymph node or surrounding tissues. The provider can excise any superficial node, but more often the nodes in the cervical, axillary, and inguinal areas.",CPT +38510,Excision Procedures on the Lymph Nodes and Lymphatic Channels.,The provider performs an open excision or biopsy of the lymph nodes lying deep in the neck using a scalpel. The provider commonly performs this procedure to identify and diagnose the cause of disease in the lymph node or surrounding tissues.,CPT +38520,Excision Procedures on the Lymph Nodes and Lymphatic Channels.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically removes the lymph nodes in the deep tissues of the neck and the scalene fat pad through an open incision. He may send them to the laboratory for analysis. The provider performs the procedure as an investigation or treatment of tumors in the neck or chest.",CPT +38525,Excision Procedures on the Lymph Nodes and Lymphatic Channels.,The provider surgically removes the lymph nodes in the deep axilla through an open incision. He may send them to the laboratory for analysis. The provider performs the procedure as an investigation or treatment of tumors in the breast or upper torso.,CPT +38530,Excision Procedures on the Lymph Nodes and Lymphatic Channels.,The provider performs an open excision or biopsy of  lymph nodes in the internal mammary gland using a scalpel. The provider commonly performs this procedure to identify and diagnose the cause of disease in the lymph node or surrounding tissues.,CPT +38531,Excision Procedures on the Lymph Nodes and Lymphatic Channels.,The provider incises the skin over the groin and femoral region and dissects down to the lymph nodes where he removes the entirety or a portion of one or more lymph nodes.,CPT +38542,Excision Procedures on the Lymph Nodes and Lymphatic Channels.,"The provider excises lymph nodes deep in the jugular area. The provider performs this service on nodes that lie down under the layer of muscle or bone in the axilla, or armpit. The provider commonly performs this procedure to identify and diagnose the cause of disease in the lymph node or surrounding tissues.",CPT +38550,Excision Procedures on the Lymph Nodes and Lymphatic Channels.,The provider removes a cystic hygroma in the armpit or neck by surgical excision. This procedure does not involve deep dissection or involvement of the critical nerves and blood vessels in the area.,CPT +38555,Excision Procedures on the Lymph Nodes and Lymphatic Channels.,The provider removes a cystic hygroma from deep in the armpit or neck by surgical excision. This procedure involves deep dissection or involvement of the critical nerves and blood vessels in the area.,CPT +38562,Limited Lymphadenectomy for Staging Procedures.,The provider excises lymph nodes (lymphadenectomy) from the pelvic area or near the aorta to identify the stage of cancer in the pelvis.,CPT +38564,Limited Lymphadenectomy for Staging Procedures.,"The provider excises lymph nodes from the retroperitoneal area, behind and outside the peritoneum and near the aorta or spleen to stage of cancer in these areas.",CPT +38570,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Lymph Nodes and Lymphatic Channels.,"The provider makes small incisions and inserts a laparoscope, or camera, and then inserts tools to sample one or more lymph nodes in the retroperitoneum to stage cancer in the retroperitoneum and adjacent areas.",CPT +38571,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Lymph Nodes and Lymphatic Channels.,The provider makes small incisions and inserts a camera into the abdomen to view the lymph nodes. He excises all lymph nodes on both sides of the pelvis. This procedure is done to remove any diseased lymph nodes and prevent cancer from spreading further.,CPT +38572,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Lymph Nodes and Lymphatic Channels.,The provider makes small incisions and inserts a camera into the abdomen to view the lymph nodes. He excises all lymph nodes on both sides of the pelvis. The provider also inspects and removes the diseased lymph nodes in the aortic area. This procedure is done to remove any diseased lymph nodes and prevent cancer from spreading further.,CPT +38573,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Lymph Nodes and Lymphatic Channels.,"The provider excises all lymph nodes on both sides of the pelvis through minimally invasive skin incisions, takes samples of lymph nodes in the aortic area along with peritoneal and diaphragmatic washings, and excises omentum. He may take biopsies of the serosa lining the peritoneal cavity. This procedure is done to remove any diseased lymph nodes and prevent cancer from spreading further.",CPT +38589,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Lymph Nodes and Lymphatic Channels.,Use to report procedures in the lymphatic system that do not have a specific code.,CPT +38700,Radical Lymphadenectomy (Radical Resection of Lymph Nodes).,"The provider excises the lymph nodes from the top of the hyoid bone, a small bone in the midline near the base of the tongue and above the thyroid. In cases of metastatic cancer it may also be necessary to remove the lymph nodes and other tissue in the area of the jaw and upper neck.",CPT +38720,Radical Lymphadenectomy (Radical Resection of Lymph Nodes).,"The provider completely excises the lymph nodes from the cervical area, or neck. In cases of metastatic cancer or other disease in this area, it may be necessary to remove the lymph nodes and other tissues in the cervical area.",CPT +38724,Radical Lymphadenectomy (Radical Resection of Lymph Nodes).,"The provider excises the lymph nodes and any diseased soft tissue he finds in the cervical area. He takes care to dissect free and preserve the spinal accessory nerve, the jugular vein, and the sternocleidomastoid muscle during the procedure. This service is done to excise the diseased lymph nodes, and prevent an extensive disease from spreading further.",CPT +38740,Radical Lymphadenectomy (Radical Resection of Lymph Nodes).,"The provider excises the superficial lymph nodes in the armpit area below the axillary vein, but not lymph nodes buried deep beneath the layers of muscle. The provider commonly removes the axillary lymph nodes for cancer in the breast or chest.",CPT +38745,Radical Lymphadenectomy (Radical Resection of Lymph Nodes).,"The provider surgically removes all of the lymph nodes in the armpit area below the axillary vein, including both superficial tissues and those buried deep beneath layers of muscle. The provider commonly removes the axillary lymph nodes for cancer in the breast or chest.",CPT +38746,Radical Lymphadenectomy (Radical Resection of Lymph Nodes).,"In this add on procedure, the provider incises the chest and removes thoracic and mediastinal lymph nodes. He commonly removes the lymph nodes for cancer of the breast, lung, or chest wall. The provider performs this procedure along with another primary procedure.",CPT +38747,Radical Lymphadenectomy (Radical Resection of Lymph Nodes).,"In this add on procedure, the provider incises the abdomen and removes the abdominal lymph nodes including the lymph nodes of the stomach and pancreas. He may also remove the lymph nodes near the aorta and vena cava. He commonly removes regional lymph nodes in the abdomen for cancer of the intestines, stomach, pancreas, or other organs or structures of the abdomen. The provider performs another primary procedure along with this procedure.",CPT +38760,Radical Lymphadenectomy (Radical Resection of Lymph Nodes).,"The provider surgically excises superficial lymph nodes in the inguinal, or groin area, and femoral, or thigh area. The provider does not excise the lymph nodes buried deep beneath the layers of muscle. The provider typically removes inguinofemoral lymph nodes for cancer in the lower abdomen.",CPT +38765,Radical Lymphadenectomy (Radical Resection of Lymph Nodes).,"The provider surgically excises the superficial lymph nodes in the inguinal, or groin area, and femoral, or thigh area. He also excises the lymph nodes from the pelvic area, in this procedure, including the external iliac, hypogastric, and obturator nodes. The provider does not excise the lymph nodes buried deep beneath the layers of muscle. The provider commonly removes the superficial inguinofemoral lymph nodes for cancer in the lower abdomen; he removes the pelvic lymph nodes at the same time as the disease is also in this area.",CPT +38770,Radical Lymphadenectomy (Radical Resection of Lymph Nodes).,"The provider surgically excises the lymph nodes in the pelvic area, including the external iliac, hypogastric, and obturator nodes. The provider commonly removes the pelvic lymph nodes for cancer in the lower abdomen.",CPT +38780,Radical Lymphadenectomy (Radical Resection of Lymph Nodes).,"The provider performs extensive surgical excision of the lymph nodes from the retroperitoneal area and throughout the abdomen. He also excises pelvic, aortic, and renal lymph nodes. The provider removes the pelvic, aortic, renal, and other lymph nodes in the lower abdomen for cancer in the lower abdomen.",CPT +38790,Introduction Procedures on the Lymph Nodes and Lymphatic Channels.,"In this procedure, the provider injects the lymphatic ducts for examination. The provider performs a two stage lymphangiography, a procedure in which he first injects a dye into the lymphatic ducts and follows with an X–ray examination of the vessels of the lymphatic system.",CPT +38792,Introduction Procedures on the Lymph Nodes and Lymphatic Channels.,"The provider injects a contrast, or radioactive tracer into the target tissues and massages the tissue to move the dye into the lymphatic system. He performs this procedure to identify the sentinel node, and locate any traces of tumor draining into the node. This service is most often done for melanoma or breast cancer.",CPT +38794,Introduction Procedures on the Lymph Nodes and Lymphatic Channels.,"The provider inserts a cannula inside the thoracic duct, administers medication, and then removes the cannula. He commonly performs this procedure to address anomalies of the thoracic duct and to inject substances for therapeutic or diagnostic purposes.",CPT +38900,Other Procedures of the Hemic or Lymphatic System.,The provider injects a nonradioactive dye into the tissues surrounding the lymph nodes. The provider examines the lymph nodes during the procedure to detect the presence of disease and identify the primary lymph nodes to which the tumor drains. The provider often performs this procedure at the time of a lymph node biopsy or tumor resection.,CPT +38999,Other Procedures of the Hemic or Lymphatic System.,Use to report procedures in the lymphatic system that do not have a specific code.,CPT +39000,Incision Procedures on the Mediastinum.,"The provider opens and inspects the mediastinum through a cervical incision in an approach called a mediastinotomy. He inspects the mediastinum, removes any foreign body that may be present, drains any fluid collections, and may take a sample of the adjacent tissue for detection of disease.",CPT +39010,Incision Procedures on the Mediastinum.,"The provider opens and inspects the mediastinum through an approach called a mediastinotomy. He reaches the mediastinum by incising either the thorax, or the sternum, or breastbone. He inspects the mediastinum, removes any foreign body that may be present, drains any fluid collections, and may take a sample of the adjacent tissue for detection of disease.",CPT +39200,Excision/Resection Procedures on the Mediastinum.,"The provider reaches the mediastinum by incising either the thorax or the sternum, or breastbone, inspects the mediastinum, and removes a cyst.",CPT +39220,Excision/Resection Procedures on the Mediastinum.,"The provider incises either the thorax, or the sternum, or breastbone to reach the mediastinum. He inspects the mediastinum and removes a tumor.",CPT +39401,Endoscopy Procedures on the Mediastinum.,"The provider inserts a thin rigid or flexible instrument through a small incision in the neck or upper chest to look inside the mediastinum, the central part of the chest cavity between and in front of the lungs. The procedure includes excision of one or more samples of any abnormal–looking tissue mass for analysis to determine the presence of cancer or other disease, when performed.",CPT +39402,Endoscopy Procedures on the Mediastinum.,"The provider inserts a thin rigid or flexible tubular instrument through a small incision in the lower neck or upper chest to look inside the mediastinum, the central part of the chest cavity between and in front of the lungs, and remove one or more lymph nodes for analysis to determine the type and extent or severity of cancer.",CPT +39499,Other Procedures on the Mediastinum.,Use to report procedures in the mediastinum that do not have a specific code.,CPT +39501,Repair Procedures on the Diaphragm.,The provider repairs a tear in the diaphragm that occurs as a result of rupture or injury usually due to trauma. The provider may repair the diaphragm through any approach.,CPT +39503,Repair Procedures on the Diaphragm.,"The provider surgically repairs a hernia of the diaphragm in a new born child when the diaphragm muscle does not completely form and the organs from the abdomen move into the chest cavity and prevent the lungs from growing normally. He may insert a chest tube during the procedure, and the provider may or may not create a ventral hernia.",CPT +39540,Repair Procedures on the Diaphragm.,The provider surgically repairs a hernia of the diaphragm due to an acute traumatic injury to the diaphragm. This code is not applicable for repair of a neonatal hernia.,CPT +39541,Repair Procedures on the Diaphragm.,The provider surgically repairs a recurrent hernia of the diaphragm due to a chronic traumatic injury to the diaphragm. This code is not applicable for repair of a neonatal hernia.,CPT +39545,Repair Procedures on the Diaphragm.,"The provider arranges the connective tissue of the diaphragm in an overlapping manner, to repair an extreme elevation of the diaphragm, due to a protrusion of the abdominal organs. The provider may approach this procedure through the thorax, in a transthoracic approach, or through the abdomen, in a transabdominal approach. The diaphragm may be paralyzed.",CPT +39560,Repair Procedures on the Diaphragm.,The provider resects the diaphragm and repairs it using simple primary sutures. He commonly performs this procedure to excise diseased tissue possibly from an intrusion of a tumor into the area.,CPT +39561,Repair Procedures on the Diaphragm.,The provider resects the diaphragm and repairs it using an involved repair technique. He may insert a prosthetic material or close the diaphragm using a local muscle flap. He commonly performs this procedure to excise diseased tissue from a spread of a tumor into the area.,CPT +39599,Other Procedures on the Diaphragm.,Use to report procedures in the diaphragm that do not have a specific code.,CPT +40490,Excision Procedures on the Lips.,"The provider performs a biopsy of the lip, by incising the lip and taking a sample of the lesion. The provider commonly performs the biopsy for diagnostic purposes.",CPT +40500,Excision Procedures on the Lips.,"The provider removes a growth from the vermilion border, the area where the lips meet the skin.",CPT +40510,Excision Procedures on the Lips.,The provider excises a patient’s lip in a wedge shape and closes the incision with simple sutures. He commonly performs this procedure to excise diseased tissue for diagnostic purposes or for cosmetic enhancement.,CPT +40520,Excision Procedures on the Lips.,The provider makes a V–shaped incision on the patient’s lips and closes the incision directly in a linear fashion. He typically performs this service to remove a lesion or defect.,CPT +40525,Excision Procedures on the Lips.,The provider removes the affected lip area of the patient including the full thickness of the lip. He then closes the incision with local skin flaps. The provider commonly uses this technique to repair a wound or lesion on the lip.,CPT +40527,Excision Procedures on the Lips.,The provider excises a patient’s lip and removes the affected full thickness lip area. He closes the incision with a skin flap from the other lip. The provider commonly performs this procedure to repair large defects of the lips.,CPT +40530,Excision Procedures on the Lips.,The provider excises more than one fourth of the patient’s lip. This procedure does not include reconstruction of the lip. A provider may perform this procedure to remove a tumor.,CPT +40650,Repair Procedures on the Lips.,The provider closes a full–thickness tear of the vermillion using sutures to repair a wound of the lips.,CPT +40652,Repair Procedures on the Lips.,The provider closes a full–thickness tear of up to half the vertical height of the lip using sutures. The provider commonly performs this procedure for wounds of the lips that occur because of trauma or that a provider creates surgically.,CPT +40654,Repair Procedures on the Lips.,The provider closes a full–thickness tear of the lip that is more than one half the vertical height of the lip using sutures. The provider commonly performs this procedure for wounds of the lips that occur because of trauma or that a provider creates surgically.,CPT +40700,Repair Procedures on the Lips.,"The provider surgically repairs a partial or complete cleft lip defect or nasal deformity. This code is applicable for a unilateral procedure, or a repair of one side only.",CPT +40701,Repair Procedures on the Lips.,The provider surgically repairs a cleft lip defect or nasal deformity in one operation. This code is applicable for a bilateral procedure.,CPT +40702,Repair Procedures on the Lips.,The provider surgically repairs a cleft lip defect or nasal deformity in one of a two stage operation. This code is applicable for a bilateral procedure.,CPT +40720,Repair Procedures on the Lips.,"The provider performs a secondary repair of a cleft lip and or nasal deformity. The provider performs this service if a primary repair of a cleft lip and or nasal deformity does not deliver favorable results. In this procedure, the provider reopens the defect and recloses the surgical site. Unfavorable results can include scar contracture, a tightening of the skin and or shortening of the muscle that restricts movement, the wound splitting or layers separating, and infection.",CPT +40761,Repair Procedures on the Lips.,"The provider uses a pedicle flap from the bottom lip, known as an Abbe Estlander flap to repair a cleft lip and or nasal deformity. This procedure involves sectioning or dissecting a pedicle in the lower lip and inserting it in the upper lip. The provider performs this procedure to close the cleft lip or correct the nasal deformity, which also adds to the cosmetic appearance of the patient.",CPT +40799,Other Procedures on the Lips.,Use to report procedures to the lips that do not have a specific code.,CPT +40800,Incision Procedures on the Vestibule of Mouth.,"The provider drains fluid from an abscess, cyst, or hematoma, from the vestibule or anterior most portion of the oral cavity of the patient’s mouth. This procedure involves a simple drainage.",CPT +40801,Incision Procedures on the Vestibule of Mouth.,"The provider drains fluid from an abscess, cyst, or hematoma, from the vestibule or anterior most portion of the oral cavity of the patient’s mouth. This code is applicable if the procedure requires extended time or the case is complex or complicated. The operative report should indicate the complexity involved and the provider’s additional time.",CPT +40804,Incision Procedures on the Vestibule of Mouth.,The provider removes a foreign body present in the vestibule or anterior most portion of the oral cavity of the patient’s mouth. This procedure involves a simple removal.,CPT +40805,Incision Procedures on the Vestibule of Mouth.,The provider removes a foreign body present in the vestibule or anterior most portion of the oral cavity of a patient’s mouth. This code is applicable if the procedure requires extended time or the given case is complex or complicated. The operative report should indicate the complexity involved and the provider’s additional time.,CPT +40806,Incision Procedures on the Vestibule of Mouth.,"The provider incises the labial frenum, the tag of tissue in the center of the upper or the lower lip that attaches the lip to the gums of the patient. The provider does not remove the frenum. The provider commonly performs this procedure to release a tight frenum and its surrounding tissues.",CPT +40808,Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Vestibule of Mouth.,"The provider performs a biopsy, a surgical procedure in which the provider excises a sample of the tissues from the vestibule of a patient’s mouth. He commonly performs this procedure to diagnose an abnormal condition of the mouth.",CPT +40810,Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Vestibule of Mouth.,"The provider excises a lesion or area of damaged or diseased tissue of the mucosa, a membrane lining the anterior most part of the mouth, and the submucosa, the layer beneath the mucosa. This procedure does not include repair of the surgical wound.",CPT +40812,Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Vestibule of Mouth.,"The provider excises a lesion or area of damaged or diseased tissue of the mucosa, a membrane lining the anterior most part of the mouth, and the submucosa, the layer beneath the mucosa. This procedure involves a simple repair of the surgical wound.",CPT +40814,Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Vestibule of Mouth.,"The provider excises a lesion or area of damaged or diseased tissue of the mucosa, a membrane lining the anterior most part of the mouth, and the submucosa, the layer beneath the mucosa. This procedure involves complex repair of the surgical wound.",CPT +40816,Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Vestibule of Mouth.,"The provider excises a lesion or area of damaged or diseased tissue of the mucosa, a membrane lining the anterior most part of the mouth, and the submucosa, the layer beneath the mucosa. He also excises the muscles lying under the lesion.",CPT +40818,Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Vestibule of Mouth.,"In this procedure, the provider harvests mucosa from the vestibule of the mouth to use as a graft at a different site, typically in the mouth.",CPT +40819,Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Vestibule of Mouth.,"In this procedure, the provider removes the labial or buccal frenum, each of which is a membrane structure in the mouth. Labial refers to the lip and buccal refers to the cheek.",CPT +40820,Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Vestibule of Mouth.,"In this procedure, the provider eradicates a lesion present in the vestibule of the mouth using various techniques, except for excision.",CPT +40830,Repair Procedures on the Vestibule of Mouth.,"In this procedure, the provider repairs a cut or tear, up to 2.5 cm, in the vestibule of the mouth using a suture, staple, or adhesive material.",CPT +40831,Repair Procedures on the Vestibule of Mouth.,"In this procedure, the provider repairs a cut or tear in the vestibule of the mouth that is more than 2.5 cm or requires a complex closure.",CPT +40840,Repair Procedures on the Vestibule of Mouth.,"In this procedure, the provider improves the height of the alveolar ridge by various methods. This code applies to anterior, or front, vestibuloplasty.",CPT +40842,Repair Procedures on the Vestibule of Mouth.,"In this procedure, the provider improves the height of the alveolar ridge by various methods. This code applies to posterior, or rear, vestibuloplasty on one side.",CPT +40843,Repair Procedures on the Vestibule of Mouth.,"In this procedure, the provider improves the height of the alveolar ridge by various methods. This code applies to posterior, or rear, vestibuloplasty on both sides.",CPT +40844,Repair Procedures on the Vestibule of Mouth.,"In this procedure, the provider improves the height of the alveolar ridge by various methods. This code applies to vestibuloplasty of the entire arch.",CPT +40845,Repair Procedures on the Vestibule of Mouth.,"In this procedure, the provider improves the height of the alveolar ridge by various methods. This code applies to complex vestibuloplasty, which may involve extending the ridge or lowering specific muscles.",CPT +40899,Other Procedures on the Vestibule of Mouth.,Use to report procedures in the vestibule of the mouth that do not have a specific code.,CPT +41000,Incision Procedures on the Tongue and Floor of Mouth.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an intraoral incision to drain an abscess, cyst, or hematoma of the tongue.",CPT +41005,Incision Procedures on the Tongue and Floor of Mouth.,"In this procedure, the provider makes a superficial intraoral incision in the sublingual region, the area under the tongue, to drain the abscess, cyst, or hematoma.",CPT +41006,Incision Procedures on the Tongue and Floor of Mouth.,"In this procedure, the provider makes a deep intraoral incision in the sublingual region, the area under the tongue, to drain the abscess, cyst, or hematoma.",CPT +41007,Incision Procedures on the Tongue and Floor of Mouth.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an intraoral incision into the submental space under the chin to drain the abscess, cyst, or hematoma.",CPT +41008,Incision Procedures on the Tongue and Floor of Mouth.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision inside the mouth in the submandibular area, which refers to the space below the lower jaw, to drain an abscess, cyst, or hematoma.",CPT +41009,Incision Procedures on the Tongue and Floor of Mouth.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an intraoral incision through the floor of the mouth to drain the abscess, cyst, or hematoma in the masticator space.",CPT +41010,Incision Procedures on the Tongue and Floor of Mouth.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision in the lingual frenum, a membranous ridge under the tongue, to allow greater movement of the tongue in patients with ankyloglossia.",CPT +41015,Incision Procedures on the Tongue and Floor of Mouth.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision from outside the mouth into the sublingual space, the area under the tongue, to drain the abscess, cyst, or hematoma.",CPT +41016,Incision Procedures on the Tongue and Floor of Mouth.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision from outside the mouth into the submental space, the space under the chin, to drain an abscess, cyst, or hematoma.",CPT +41017,Incision Procedures on the Tongue and Floor of Mouth.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision from outside the mouth into the submandibular space, below the lower jaw, to drain the abscess, cyst, or hematoma.",CPT +41018,Incision Procedures on the Tongue and Floor of Mouth.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an extraoral incision in the floor of the mouth to drain the abscess, cyst, or hematoma of the masticator space.",CPT +41019,Incision Procedures on the Tongue and Floor of Mouth.,"In this procedure, the provider places catheters, needles, or any other similar devices in the head, neck, or both for later placement of any radioelement. Insertion may be through the skin, the mouth, or the nose.",CPT +41100,Excision Procedures on the Tongue and Floor of Mouth.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision in the front two thirds of the tongue and excises the affected tissues for the purpose of biopsy.",CPT +41105,Excision Procedures on the Tongue and Floor of Mouth.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision in the posterior one third of the tongue and excises the affected tissues for the purpose of biopsy.",CPT +41108,Excision Procedures on the Tongue and Floor of Mouth.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an incision in the floor of the mouth and excises tissue for the purpose of biopsy.",CPT +41110,Excision Procedures on the Tongue and Floor of Mouth.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision in the tongue and excises the lesion from the tongue.",CPT +41112,Excision Procedures on the Tongue and Floor of Mouth.,"In this procedure, the provider excises a lesion from the front two thirds of the tongue.",CPT +41113,Excision Procedures on the Tongue and Floor of Mouth.,"In this procedure, the provider excises a lesion from the posterior one thirds of the tongue.",CPT +41114,Excision Procedures on the Tongue and Floor of Mouth.,"In this procedure, the provider excises the lesion from the tongue. She then uses a local flap to repair the site of excision.",CPT +41115,Excision Procedures on the Tongue and Floor of Mouth.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision at the base of the tongue and excises the frenum.",CPT +41116,Excision Procedures on the Tongue and Floor of Mouth.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision in the floor of the mouth and excises a lesion.",CPT +41120,Excision Procedures on the Tongue and Floor of Mouth.,"In this procedure, the provider removes less than half of the tongue.",CPT +41130,Excision Procedures on the Tongue and Floor of Mouth.,"The provider removes a diseased lateral half of the patient's tongue during this procedure, which is often used to treat cancer.",CPT +41135,Excision Procedures on the Tongue and Floor of Mouth.,"The provider removes part of the patient's tongue, as well as lymph nodes and other tissues from one side of the neck. This procedure is often used to treat cancer.",CPT +41140,Excision Procedures on the Tongue and Floor of Mouth.,The provider removes the entire tongue and may perform a tracheostomy to insert an artificial airway to help the patient breathe post–procedure. This procedure does NOT include radical neck dissection. This procedure is most often used to treat cancer.,CPT +41145,Excision Procedures on the Tongue and Floor of Mouth.,The provider removes the entire tongue and may perform a tracheostomy to insert an artificial airway to help the patient breathe post–procedure. This code also includes removal of lymph nodes and other tissues from one side of the neck. This procedure is most often used to treat cancer.,CPT +41150,Excision Procedures on the Tongue and Floor of Mouth.,"The provider removes all or part of the tongue, as well as part of the jaw bone and the tissue of the floor of the mouth using extraoral (outside the mouth) and intraoral (inside the mouth) incisions. This procedure does not include radical neck dissection. This procedure is most often used to treat cancer.",CPT +41153,Excision Procedures on the Tongue and Floor of Mouth.,The provider performs a glossectomy and resects the tissue of the floor of the mouth using extraoral (outside the mouth) and intraoral (inside the mouth) incisions. This procedure also includes a suprahyoid neck dissection and most often treats cancer.,CPT +41155,Excision Procedures on the Tongue and Floor of Mouth.,"The provider removes all or part of the tongue, as well as part of the jaw bone (mandible) and the tissue of the floor of the mouth using extraoral (outside the mouth) and intraoral (inside the mouth) incisions. This code also includes removal of lymph nodes and other tissues from one side of the neck. This procedure is most often used to treat cancer.",CPT +41250,Repair Procedures on the Tongue and Floor of Mouth.,"The provider repairs a 2.5 cm or less laceration of the floor of the mouth or the front (anterior) two–thirds of the tongue, or both.",CPT +41251,Repair Procedures on the Tongue and Floor of Mouth.,"The provider repairs a 2.5 cm or less laceration in the floor of the mouth or on the posterior (back) one–third of the tongue, or both.",CPT +41252,Repair Procedures on the Tongue and Floor of Mouth.,The provider repairs a deep cut or tear (laceration) of the tongue or the floor of the mouth that is more than 2.6 cm or requires complex repair.,CPT +41510,Other Procedures on the Tongue and Floor of Mouth.,The surgeon employs multiple stitching techniques to adhere the tongue to a portion of the lip to surgically treat the underdeveloped alveolar tissue of the jaw and to maintain a patent airway,CPT +41512,Other Procedures on the Tongue and Floor of Mouth.,The provider uses a suture technique to suspend the tongue base and enlarge the retrolingual airway to prevent obstruction during sleep.,CPT +41520,Other Procedures on the Tongue and Floor of Mouth.,"In this procedure, the provider corrects a deformity in the frenum, the band under the tongue, by a method such as Z–plasty.",CPT +41530,Other Procedures on the Tongue and Floor of Mouth.,"During this procedure, the physician ablates submucosal tissue of the tongue base using radiofrequency to reduce tissue volume, often on more than one site. This procedure may also be referred to as radiofrequency tissue volume reduction (RTVR) and is often used to treat obstructive sleep apnea. This code should be reported for each session.",CPT +41599,Other Procedures on the Tongue and Floor of Mouth.,Use this code to report a procedure performed on the tongue or floor of the mouth for which there is no specific code available.,CPT +41800,Incision Procedures on the Dentoalveolar Structures.,"In this procedure, the provider identifies the affected tooth related structure. He drains the abscess, cyst, or hematoma present.",CPT +41805,Incision Procedures on the Dentoalveolar Structures.,"In this procedure, the provider identifies the soft tissues in the dentoalveolar structures that have an embedded foreign body. She removes the foreign body and applies antiseptic solution.",CPT +41806,Incision Procedures on the Dentoalveolar Structures.,"In this procedure, the provider identifies the bone in the dentoalveolar structure that has an embedded foreign body. She removes the foreign body.",CPT +41820,Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Dentoalveolar Structures.,"In this procedure, the provider separates the gingiva, or the gums, from the root. A typical goal of the procedure is to treat a gum infection.",CPT +41821,Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Dentoalveolar Structures.,"In this procedure, the provider excises a small flap of tissue called the operculum from the back or top of a tooth.",CPT +41822,Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Dentoalveolar Structures.,In this procedure the provider removes the fibrous soft tissue over a dentoalveolar tuberosity.,CPT +41823,Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Dentoalveolar Structures.,In this procedure the provider removes bone tissue from the dentoalveolar tuberosities.,CPT +41825,Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Dentoalveolar Structures.,"In this procedure, the provider excises a lesion or tumor from a dentoalveolar structure without performing any repair.",CPT +41826,Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Dentoalveolar Structures.,"In this procedure, the provider excises a tumor or lesion from a dentoalveolar structure and repairs the site using a simple repair.",CPT +41827,Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Dentoalveolar Structures.,"In this procedure, the provider excises a lesion or tumor from a dentoalveolar structure and repairs the site using a complex repair procedure, like grafting or complex suturing.",CPT +41828,Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Dentoalveolar Structures.,"In this procedure, the provider cuts away the hyperplastic, or excessive, alveolar mucosa in a single quadrant using a sharp knife or other implement.",CPT +41830,Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Dentoalveolar Structures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a part of the alveolar process, including inflamed and dead bone.",CPT +41850,Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Dentoalveolar Structures.,"In this procedure, the provider destroys a lesion present in the dentoalveolar structures using any method except for excision.",CPT +41870,Other Procedures on the Dentoalveolar Structures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes mouth tissue, typically from the roof of the mouth, and grafts it to the root of the tooth or teeth.",CPT +41872,Other Procedures on the Dentoalveolar Structures.,"In this procedure, the provider reshapes and corrects a deformity present in a single quadrant of the gums.",CPT +41874,Other Procedures on the Dentoalveolar Structures.,"Alveoloplasty is done prior to placement of a dental prosthesis.  In order to facilitate smooth fitting of the denture, the dentist performs alveoloplasty to make the alveolar process smoother. Sometimes, the alveolar process becomes deformed due to periodontal disease. This is also one of the reasons for performing an alveoloplasty.",CPT +41899,Other Procedures on the Dentoalveolar Structures.,Use this code to report a procedure on the teeth and adjoining alveolar structures for which there is no specific code available.,CPT +42000,Incision Procedures on the Palate and Uvula.,"During this procedure, the provider drains an abscess pocket (collectio of pus) in the palate (roof of the mouth) or uvula (the tissue that hangs down in front of the nasal passage and throat).",CPT +42100,Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Palate and Uvula.,"In this procedure, the provider removes tissues from the palate or uvula for pathological analysis.",CPT +42104,Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Palate and Uvula.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a lesion from the palate or uvula. She does not perform any closure at the site.",CPT +42106,Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Palate and Uvula.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a lesion from the palate or uvula. He closes the site of incision using simple repair.",CPT +42107,Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Palate and Uvula.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a lesion from the palate or uvula. She closes the site using a local flap.",CPT +42120,Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Palate and Uvula.,"In this procedure, the provider resects a lesion over a wide area or resects the palate. The lesion is usually a malignant neoplasm.",CPT +42140,Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Palate and Uvula.,"In this procedure, the provider removes the uvula at the back of the mouth. Providers may use this procedure for the treatment of snoring.",CPT +42145,Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Palate and Uvula.,"Palatopharyngoplasty (e.g. uvulopalatopharyngoplasty, uvulopharyngoplasty) is generally done to widen the oropharyngeal airway, often as a treatment for sleep apnea.",CPT +42160,Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Palate and Uvula.,"In this procedure, the provider destroys a lesion on the palate or uvula using techniques like laser or cryotherapy.",CPT +42180,Repair Procedures on the Palate and Uvula.,"In this procedure, the provider repairs a wound in the palate, up to 2 cm, using a simple repair procedure.",CPT +42182,Repair Procedures on the Palate and Uvula.,"In this procedure, the provider repairs a wound in the palate that is over 2 cm or requires complex repair procedures like debridement or undermining of the damaged tissues.",CPT +42200,Repair Procedures on the Palate and Uvula.,"In this procedure, the provider performs palatoplasty to correct a cleft palate and close a channel between the oral and nasal cavities.",CPT +42205,Repair Procedures on the Palate and Uvula.,"In this procedure, the provider performs palatoplasty to close a developmental breech known as a cleft palate that extends to the soft tissue of the alveolar ridge, the bone that contains the tooth sockets. The procedure closes an abnormal connection between the oral and nasal cavities.",CPT +42210,Repair Procedures on the Palate and Uvula.,"The provider repairs a cleft palate (palatoplasty) which includes closure of a gap in the alveolar ridge and bone graft to the alveolar ridge. This procedure includes obtaining the bone graft, so do not report that separately.",CPT +42215,Repair Procedures on the Palate and Uvula.,"During this procedure, the provider performs a major revision of a prior cleft palate repair (palatoplasty).",CPT +42220,Repair Procedures on the Palate and Uvula.,The provider repairs a cleft palate (palatoplasty) which includes secondary lengthening of the soft palate.,CPT +42225,Repair Procedures on the Palate and Uvula.,"During this procedure, the physician revises previous cleft palate incisions using pharyngeal flap techniques. This procedure is often performed to restore velopharyngeal competence, the functional seal between the nasal cavity and the oral cavity.",CPT +42226,Repair Procedures on the Palate and Uvula.,"In this procedure, the provider lengthens the soft palate by transferring tissue flaps, including pharyngeal flaps and flaps from the hard palate, to the soft palate.",CPT +42227,Repair Procedures on the Palate and Uvula.,The provider lengthens the soft palate by creating island flaps in the mucosal tissue and suturing them in new positions.,CPT +42235,Repair Procedures on the Palate and Uvula.,"In this procedure, the provider repairs the defects in the hard palate by using a flap from the nose’s vomer bone to cover the cleft palate.",CPT +42260,Repair Procedures on the Palate and Uvula.,"In this procedure, the provider repairs a nasolabial fistula, an abnormal connection between the nasal cavity and the space under the upper lip.",CPT +42280,Repair Procedures on the Palate and Uvula.,"The provider takes an impression for later building of a maxillary arch prosthesis, often used in patients with a cleft palate.",CPT +42281,Repair Procedures on the Palate and Uvula.,"In this procedure, the provider places a pin retained device as a palate prosthesis to close an opening or defect present due to cleft palate.",CPT +42299,Other Procedures on the Palate or Uvula.,Use this code to report a procedure on the palate or uvula for which there is no specific code available.,CPT +42300,Incision Procedures on the Salivary Gland and Ducts.,"In this procedure, the provider drains an infected abscess of the parotid salivary gland.",CPT +42305,Incision Procedures on the Salivary Gland and Ducts.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a complex drainage of an abscess present in the parotid salivary gland.",CPT +42310,Incision Procedures on the Salivary Gland and Ducts.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision in the mouth to drain the abscess of the submaxillary or sublingual salivary gland.",CPT +42320,Incision Procedures on the Salivary Gland and Ducts.,The provider uses an external approach to drain pus from a submaxillary salivary gland.,CPT +42330,Incision Procedures on the Salivary Gland and Ducts.,"Sialolithotomy is the removal of a stone from the salivary gland. Salivary glands discharge a fluid secretion and especially saliva into the mouth cavity, and include the parotid glands, the sublingual glands, and the submandibular glands.",CPT +42335,Incision Procedures on the Salivary Gland and Ducts.,Sialolithotomy is the removal of a stone from the salivary gland.,CPT +42340,Incision Procedures on the Salivary Gland and Ducts.,Sialolithotomy is the removal of a stone from the salivary gland. The parotid gland is one of the salivary glands that discharge a fluid secretion and especially saliva into the mouth cavity.,CPT +42400,Excision Procedures on the Salivary Gland and Ducts.,The provider takes tissue samples from the salivary gland by using a percutaneous needle. He sends the samples for pathological analysis.,CPT +42405,Excision Procedures on the Salivary Gland and Ducts.,The provider takes tissue samples from the salivary gland through a skin incision over the salivary gland. He sends the samples for pathological analysis.,CPT +42408,Excision Procedures on the Salivary Gland and Ducts.,"The provider excises a ranula, a large mucous cyst, that is present in the tissues of the floor of the mouth below the tongue.",CPT +42409,Excision Procedures on the Salivary Gland and Ducts.,"The provider performs marsupialization of a sublingual salivary cyst, incising it and leaving it partially open, like a pouch.",CPT +42410,Excision Procedures on the Salivary Gland and Ducts.,The provider removes a tumor from the lateral lobe of the parotid gland without nerve dissection.,CPT +42415,Excision Procedures on the Salivary Gland and Ducts.,The provider excises the lateral lobe of a parotid tumor or the parotid glad with dissection and preservation of the facial nerve.,CPT +42420,Excision Procedures on the Salivary Gland and Ducts.,The provider removes a parotid gland with a tumor and performs dissection and preservation of the facial nerve.,CPT +42425,Excision Procedures on the Salivary Gland and Ducts.,The provider performs removal of the parotid gland with a tumor as a single unit without preserving the facial nerve.,CPT +42426,Excision Procedures on the Salivary Gland and Ducts.,The provider removes the total parotid gland with a tumor and performs radical neck dissection on one side.,CPT +42440,Excision Procedures on the Salivary Gland and Ducts.,The provider surgically removes a submandibular gland.,CPT +42450,Excision Procedures on the Salivary Gland and Ducts.,The provider surgically removes the sublingual gland.,CPT +42500,Repair Procedures on the Salivary Gland and Ducts.,The provider performs primary or simple repair of an infected or damaged salivary gland.,CPT +42505,Repair Procedures on the Salivary Gland and Ducts.,The provider performs secondary or complicated repair of an infected or damaged salivary gland.,CPT +42507,Repair Procedures on the Salivary Gland and Ducts.,"The provider performs a Wilke type procedure, or parotid duct rerouting, typically to treat sialorrhea (drooling).",CPT +42509,Repair Procedures on the Salivary Gland and Ducts.,"The provider performs a Wilke type procedure, or parotid duct rerouting, with excision of both submandibular glands, typically to treat sialorrhea (drooling).",CPT +42510,Repair Procedures on the Salivary Gland and Ducts.,"The provider performs a Wilke type procedure, or parotid duct rerouting, with ligation of both submandibular (Wharton's) ducts, typically to treat sialorrhea (drooling).",CPT +42550,Other Procedures on the Salivary Gland and Ducts.,"A sialography, or radiosialography, is an imaging technique used to visualize the salivary gland ductal system.",CPT +42600,Other Procedures on the Salivary Gland and Ducts.,A salivary fistula may occur due to injury or infection.,CPT +42650,Other Procedures on the Salivary Gland and Ducts.,The provider inserts a probe to dilate the salivary duct.,CPT +42660,Other Procedures on the Salivary Gland and Ducts.,The provider dilates the salivary duct and introduces a catheter. He may or may not inject radiopaque dye to assist with visualization.,CPT +42665,Other Procedures on the Salivary Gland and Ducts.,The provider makes an intraoral incision to access a salivary duct so he can tie it off.,CPT +42699,Other Procedures on the Salivary Gland and Ducts.,"This code is used for procedures performed on the salivary glands or ducts that are not already addressed in previous codes, such as a salivary gland endoscopy to remove salivary stones and other obstructions.",CPT +42700,"Incision Procedures on the Pharynx, Adenoids, and Tonsils.",The provider uses an incision to drain an abscess next to one of the tonsils.,CPT +42720,"Incision Procedures on the Pharynx, Adenoids, and Tonsils.",The provider makes an incision to drain a retropharyngeal abscess in the throat or a parapharyngeal abscess deep in the neck. He approaches the abscess through the mouth.,CPT +42725,"Incision Procedures on the Pharynx, Adenoids, and Tonsils.","In this procedure the physician makes an incision to drain an abscess. In this particular case, a retropharyngeal parapharyngeal abscess is drained via an external approach.",CPT +42800,"Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Pharynx, Adenoids, and Tonsils.","The provider obtains a biopsy sample from the oropharynx, the part of the throat behind the mouth.",CPT +42804,"Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Pharynx, Adenoids, and Tonsils.","The provider obtains a biopsy sample from a visible lesion of the nasopharynx, the part of the throat behind the nose.",CPT +42806,"Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Pharynx, Adenoids, and Tonsils.","The provider obtains a biopsy from a patient with an unknown primary lesion of the nasopharynx, the part of the throat behind the nose.",CPT +42808,"Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Pharynx, Adenoids, and Tonsils.","The physician removes or destructs a lesion of the pharynx via several techniques such as: Laser (YAG, Argon), electrocautery, chemical, or destruction by using freezing or cryosurgery technique (liquid nitrogen, carbon dioxide).",CPT +42809,"Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Pharynx, Adenoids, and Tonsils.",The provider removes a foreign body from the pharynx part of the throat.,CPT +42810,"Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Pharynx, Adenoids, and Tonsils.","A brachial cleft cyst, or vestige, is a congenital cystic swelling arising from the lateral aspect of the neck. It is caused when the second branchial (pharyngeal) cleft fails to close during the embryonic development stage.",CPT +42815,"Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Pharynx, Adenoids, and Tonsils.","A brachial cleft cyst, or vestige, is a congenital cystic swelling arising from the lateral aspect of the neck. It is caused when the second branchial (pharyngeal) cleft fails to close during the embryonic development stage.",CPT +42820,"Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Pharynx, Adenoids, and Tonsils.",The provider removes the tonsils and adenoids in a patient younger than 12 years old.,CPT +42821,"Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Pharynx, Adenoids, and Tonsils.",The provider removes the tonsils and adenoids of a patient age 12 or older.,CPT +42825,"Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Pharynx, Adenoids, and Tonsils.","The provider performs an initial, recurrent, or secondary tonsillectomy procedure in a patient who is less than 12 years old.",CPT +42826,"Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Pharynx, Adenoids, and Tonsils.","The provider performs an initial, recurrent, or secondary tonsillectomy procedure in a patient who is 12 years of age or older.",CPT +42830,"Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Pharynx, Adenoids, and Tonsils.",The provider performs an initial adenoidectomy in a patient who is less than 12 years old.,CPT +42831,"Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Pharynx, Adenoids, and Tonsils.",The provider performs an initial adenoidectomy in a patient that is 12 years of age or older.,CPT +42835,"Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Pharynx, Adenoids, and Tonsils.",The provider performs a recurrent or secondary adenoidectomy procedure in a patient who is less than 12 years old.,CPT +42836,"Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Pharynx, Adenoids, and Tonsils.",The provider performs a recurrent or secondary adenoidectomy procedure in a patient who is 12 years of age or older.,CPT +42842,"Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Pharynx, Adenoids, and Tonsils.","The provider removes the tonsils, tonsillar pillars and/or the retromolar trigone (the small area behind the wisdom teeth). If necessary, he also removes portions of the maxilla or mandible that are affected. The resulting wound is so large that it is left open to be grafted during a later procedure. This procedure is often used to remove cancerous growths.",CPT +42844,"Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Pharynx, Adenoids, and Tonsils.","The provider removes the tonsils, tonsillar pillars and/or the retromolar trigone (the small area behind the wisdom teeth). If necessary, he also removes portions of the maxilla or mandible that are affected. The resulting wound is closed with local tissue flaps. This procedure is often used to remove cancerous growths.",CPT +42845,"Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Pharynx, Adenoids, and Tonsils.","During this procedure, the provider removes the tonsils, tonsillar pillars, and/or the retromolar trigone (the small area behind the wisdom teeth). If necessary, he also removes portions of the maxilla or mandible that are affected. He closes the wound using a skin flap that is rotated from the chest. This procedure is often used to remove cancerous growths.",CPT +42860,"Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Pharynx, Adenoids, and Tonsils.","During this procedure, the physician removes polyps from remnants of the tonsils that were not removed during the primary tonsillectomy.",CPT +42870,"Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Pharynx, Adenoids, and Tonsils.","During this procedure, the provider removes or destroys the lingual tonsils located on the dorsal surface of the base of the tongue. When enlarged, the tonsils can restrict the airway passage.",CPT +42890,"Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Pharynx, Adenoids, and Tonsils.","During this procedure, the provider removes part of the pharyngeal wall, which can include removal of part of the thyroid ala, hyoid bone, and wall of the piriform fossa.",CPT +42892,"Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Pharynx, Adenoids, and Tonsils.",The provider removes a portion of the lateral pharyngeal wall or piriform sinus. He closes the wound by advancing the lateral and posterior pharyngeal walls.,CPT +42894,"Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Pharynx, Adenoids, and Tonsils.","During this procedure, the provider removes part of the pharyngeal wall or pyriform sinus. He closes the wound with myocutaneous or fasciocutaneous flap, or a free muscle, skin, or fascial flap.",CPT +42900,"Repair Procedures on the Pharynx, Adenoids, and Tonsils.",The physician closes a wound or injury of the pharynx with sutures.,CPT +42950,"Repair Procedures on the Pharynx, Adenoids, and Tonsils.",The physician performs plastic or reconstructive surgery on the pharynx in cases where direct wound closure or reapproximation is not possible. The procedure changes the shape of the soft palate and pharynx.,CPT +42953,"Repair Procedures on the Pharynx, Adenoids, and Tonsils.","During this procedure, the physician repairs a tear in the pharyngeal esophageal junction.",CPT +42955,"Other Procedures on the Pharynx, Adenoids, and Tonsils.","During this procedure, the physician creates an artificial opening in the pharynx for long–term feeding.",CPT +42960,"Other Procedures on the Pharynx, Adenoids, and Tonsils.","The provider control bleeding in the mouth and throat within 24 hours (primary) or from 24 hours up to two weeks (secondary), after a surgical procedure such as a tonsillectomy; the procedure is uncomplicated and does not require hospital admission.",CPT +42961,"Other Procedures on the Pharynx, Adenoids, and Tonsils.",The provider uses a variety of means to control bleeding in the mouth and throat within 24 hours (primary) or up to two weeks (secondary) after a surgery such as a tonsillectomy. The procedure is complicated and requires hospitalization.,CPT +42962,"Other Procedures on the Pharynx, Adenoids, and Tonsils.",The provider uses surgical means to control bleeding in the mouth and throat within 24 hours (primary) or up to two weeks (secondary) after surgery such as a tonsillectomy.,CPT +42970,"Other Procedures on the Pharynx, Adenoids, and Tonsils.",The provider uses a variety of means for simple control of post–op nasopharyngeal bleeding within 24 hours (primary) or up to two weeks (secondary) after surgery such as an adenoidectomy.,CPT +42971,"Other Procedures on the Pharynx, Adenoids, and Tonsils.","The provider uses a variety of means to control nasopharyngeal bleeding that is within 24 hours (primary) or up to two weeks (secondary) after surgery such as an adenoidectomy. With this code, hospitalization is required due to extensive blood loss or because control could not be achieved in the provider's office.",CPT +42972,"Other Procedures on the Pharynx, Adenoids, and Tonsils.",The provider uses surgical means to control nasopharyngeal bleeding that is within 24 hours (primary) or up to two weeks (secondary) after surgery such as an adenoidectomy.,CPT +42975,"Other Procedures on the Pharynx, Adenoids, and Tonsils.","After the patient receives sedation and is asleep, the provider uses an endoscope to assess the throat and check the palate and tongue areas. The goal is to determine where airway obstruction is occurring in a patient with sleep–disordered breathing, such as obstructive sleep apnea, to determine the best treatment.",CPT +42999,"Other Procedures on the Pharynx, Adenoids, and Tonsils.","This code is used for procedures performed on the pharynx, adenoids or tonsils that are not already addressed in previous codes, such as removing a Thornwaldt/Tornwaldt cyst. Any procedure reported under should be authorized prior to service. Be sure to include a description of the service with the claim.",CPT +43020,Incision Procedures on the Esophagus.,The provider makes an incision into the neck to reach the esophagus for removal of a foreign body.,CPT +43030,Incision Procedures on the Esophagus.,"The provider incises the cricopharyngeal muscle, part of the upper esophageal sphincter, or UES.",CPT +43045,Incision Procedures on the Esophagus.,"The provider makes an incision into the thorax, or chest, to reach the esophagus for removal of a foreign body.",CPT +43100,Excision Procedures on the Esophagus.,The provider makes an incision into the neck to remove a lesion from the esophagus.,CPT +43101,Excision Procedures on the Esophagus.,The provider makes a thoracic or abdominal incision to remove a lesion in the esophagus.,CPT +43107,Excision Procedures on the Esophagus.,The provider performs removal of all or most of the esophagus and then connects the stomach to the pharynx or the cervical esophagus. He may widen the opening at the bottom of the stomach. He does not use a chest incision for the procedure.,CPT +43108,Excision Procedures on the Esophagus.,The provider performs removal of most of or the entire esophagus by an approach other than thoracotomy. He uses a small bowel or colon graft for reconstruction.,CPT +43112,Excision Procedures on the Esophagus.,The provider performs McKeown esophagectomy or tri–incisional esophagectomy that involves removal of all or most of the esophagus and attaches the stomach to the pharynx or the cervical esophagus via a chest incision. He may widen the pyloric opening at the bottom of the stomach.,CPT +43113,Excision Procedures on the Esophagus.,The provider performs removal of most of or the entire esophagus. He uses a small bowel or colon graft for reconstruction. The procedure involves an incision into the chest.,CPT +43116,Excision Procedures on the Esophagus.,The provider performs removal of a diseased portion of the esophagus in the neck and replaces it with a large or small intestine graft.,CPT +43117,Excision Procedures on the Esophagus.,"The provider performs removal from the two thirds of the esophagus closest to the stomach. He may also remove part of the upper stomach. In the chest, he connects the esophagus to the remaining stomach. He may widen the opening at the bottom of the stomach. He uses abdominal and chest incisions for the procedure.",CPT +43118,Excision Procedures on the Esophagus.,The provider performs removal from the two thirds of the esophagus closest to the stomach. He may also remove the upper part of the stomach. He replaces the esophagus with a segment of colon or small bowel. The procedure requires both abdominal and chest incisions.,CPT +43121,Excision Procedures on the Esophagus.,"The provider performs removal from the two thirds of the esophagus closest to the stomach. He uses a chest incision for the procedure. He may also remove the upper part of the stomach. In the chest, he reattaches the remaining stomach to the remaining esophagus. He may widen the opening at the bottom of the stomach.",CPT +43122,Excision Procedures on the Esophagus.,The provider performs removal of part of the esophagus. He may also remove the upper stomach. He connects the remaining esophagus to the remaining stomach. He may widen the opening at the bottom of the stomach. He uses an incision in the abdomen or a combined abdominal and chest approach.,CPT +43123,Excision Procedures on the Esophagus.,The provider removes part of the esophagus and possibly the upper part of the stomach through an abdominal or combined abdominal and chest incision. He replaces the esophagus with a colon or small bowel segment.,CPT +43124,Excision Procedures on the Esophagus.,"The provider performs removal of all or part of the esophagus without reconstruction. He also performs cervical esophagostomy, connecting the remaining upper portion of the esophagus to an opening in the neck.",CPT +43130,Excision Procedures on the Esophagus.,"The provider removes a diverticulum from the hypopharynx or esophagus through a cervical, or neck, incision.",CPT +43135,Excision Procedures on the Esophagus.,The provider removes a diverticulum from the hypopharynx or esophagus through a thoracotomy (chest incision).,CPT +43180,Esophagoscopy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs rigid endoscopy of the esophagus through the mouth. He also excises the diverticulum of the hypopharynx or cervical esophagus, with incision of the cricopharyngeus muscle. The provider may perform the procedure using an operating microscope or telescope and repair.",CPT +43191,Esophagoscopy Procedures.,"An esophagoscopy is a procedure to view the esophagus, in this case by means of rigid endoscope passed through the mouth. If the provider collects specimens by brushing or washing this is also included.",CPT +43192,Esophagoscopy Procedures.,The provider inserts a rigid endoscope through the mouth and down into the esophagus. The provider performs one or more injections into the submucosa (the tissue below the mucous membrane).,CPT +43193,Esophagoscopy Procedures.,"An esophagoscopy is a procedure to view the esophagus, in this case by means of rigid endoscope passed through the mouth. During this procedure the provider obtains tissue for one or more biopsies.",CPT +43194,Esophagoscopy Procedures.,"The provider examines the esophagus with a rigid esophagoscope, a tubular instrument with a light source and camera, which he inserts through the mouth, to look for a blockage. He identifies and removes foreign bodies, such as pieces of meat or other foodstuffs too large to pass into the stomach.",CPT +43195,Esophagoscopy Procedures.,The provider passes a rigid endoscope through the mouth and into the esophagus; he inserts a balloon through the scope and expands it to less than 30 mm to widen a narrowed area in the esophagus.,CPT +43196,Esophagoscopy Procedures.,"An esophagoscopy is a procedure to view the esophagus, in this case by means of a rigid endoscope passed through the mouth. In this procedure, the provider inserts a guidewire and one or more dilators.",CPT +43197,Esophagoscopy Procedures.,"The provider examines the esophagus with a flexible esophagoscope, a tubular instrument with a light source and camera, which he inserts through the nose to determine the cause for a patient's symptoms, such as difficulty swallowing. He takes samples of any suspicious tissue by brushing or washing the area to collect cells for laboratory analysis.",CPT +43198,Esophagoscopy Procedures.,"An esophagoscopy is a procedure to view the esophagus, in this case by means of a flexible endoscope passed through the nose. During the procedure, the provider performs one or more biopsies.",CPT +43200,Esophagoscopy Procedures.,The provider passes a flexible endoscope through the mouth to collect specimens by brushing or washing for pathologic analysis.,CPT +43201,Esophagoscopy Procedures.,The provider inserts a flexible endoscope through the mouth and down into the esophagus. The provider performs one or more injections into the submucosa (the tissue below the mucous membrane).,CPT +43202,Esophagoscopy Procedures.,The provider inserts a flexible endoscope through the mouth and takes one or more biopsies.,CPT +43204,Esophagoscopy Procedures.,The provider inserts a flexible endoscope through the mouth and injects a sclerosing solution to treat enlarged blood vessels.,CPT +43205,Esophagoscopy Procedures.,The provider passes a flexible endoscope through the mouth and ties a band around swollen esophageal blood vessels (varices).,CPT +43206,Esophagoscopy Procedures.,The provider passes a flexible endoscope through the mouth and uses an endomicroscopy system to evaluate the patient's esophagus.,CPT +43210,Esophagogastroduodenoscopy Procedures.,"The provider inserts a thin, flexible, lighted tubular instrument through the patient's mouth to examine the passage between the mouth and stomach (esophagus), stomach, and the first part of the small intestine (duodenum). He also performs a complete or partial fundoplasty where he wraps the gastric fundus around the esophagus for treatment of gastroesophageal reflux. The procedure may include duodenoscopy.",CPT +43211,Esophagoscopy Procedures.,The provider inserts a flexible endoscope through the patient's mouth through which he passes an instrument to resect (excise) mucosal tissue from the esophagus.,CPT +43212,Esophagoscopy Procedures.,The provider passes a flexible endoscope through the mouth to the esophagus and inserts a stent through the endoscope to treat narrowing in the esophagus.,CPT +43213,Esophagoscopy Procedures.,"The provider views the esophagus by means of a flexible endoscope passed through the mouth and dilates the esophagus from a retrograde approach, meaning against the usual flow. Fluoroscopy, if performed, is included and should not be billed separately.",CPT +43214,Esophagoscopy Procedures.,"The provider inserts a flexible endoscope through the mouth and uses a balloon (30 mm in diameter or larger) to dilate the esophagus; he may use fluoroscopic guidance during the procedure, which is included and cannot be reported separately.",CPT +43215,Esophagoscopy Procedures.,"The provider examines the esophagus with a flexible esophagoscope, a tubular instrument with a light source and a camera, which he inserts through the mouth to look for a blockage. He identifies and removes foreign bodies, such as pieces of meat or other foodstuffs too large to pass into the stomach.",CPT +43216,Esophagoscopy Procedures.,"The provider examines the esophagus with a flexible esophagoscope, a tubular instrument with a light source and camera, which he inserts through the mouth. He removes one or more abnormal masses or growths with an instrument that grasps, excises, and cauterizes it. He sends the specimen to a laboratory for analysis.",CPT +43217,Esophagoscopy Procedures.,The provider inserts a flexible endoscope through the mouth and removes one or more lesions using a snare technique.,CPT +43220,Esophagoscopy Procedures.,"An esophagoscopy is a procedure to view the esophagus, in this case by means of a flexible endoscope passed through the mouth. The provider uses a balloon (less than 30 mm diameter) to dilate the esophagus.",CPT +43226,Esophagoscopy Procedures.,"An esophagoscopy is a procedure to view the esophagus, in this case by means of a flexible endoscope passed through the mouth. The provider then passes one or more dilators over a guidewire to treat a narrowing of the esophagus.",CPT +43227,Esophagoscopy Procedures.,The provider inserts a flexible endoscope through the mouth and examines the esophagus; he controls bleeding by any method.,CPT +43229,Esophagoscopy Procedures.,The provider inserts a flexible endoscope through the mouth and into the esophagus where heablates one or more lesions; he may also pass a guidewire into the esophagus over which he passes a series of dilators to widen the esophagus before and after the tumor ablation.,CPT +43231,Esophagoscopy Procedures.,The provider inserts a flexible endoscope through the mouth and down into the esophagus; he also inserts an ultrasound transducer through the escope and performs endoscopic ultrasound (EUS).,CPT +43232,Esophagoscopy Procedures.,"The provider inserts a flexible endoscope through the mouth and down into the esophagus where he carries out an ultrasound–guided, intramural or transmural fine needle aspiration or biopsy.",CPT +43233,Esophagogastroduodenoscopy Procedures.,"The provider inserts a flexible endoscope through the mouth and down into the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum and dilates (widens) the esophagus with a balloon inflated to 30 mm or more in diameter; he may use fluoroscopic guidance for the dilation.",CPT +43235,Esophagogastroduodenoscopy Procedures.,"The provider inserts an endoscope through the mouth and down into the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum for diagnostic purposes; the provider may collect specimens by brushing or washing.",CPT +43236,Esophagogastroduodenoscopy Procedures.,"The provider inserts a flexible endoscope through the mouth and down into the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum (first part of the small intestine). The provider performs one or more injections into the submucosa (the tissue below the mucous membrane).",CPT +43237,Esophagogastroduodenoscopy Procedures.,"The provider inserts a flexible endoscope through the mouth and down into the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum; he also inserts an ultrasound transducer through the scope to examine these same structures and adjacent tissues.",CPT +43238,Esophagogastroduodenoscopy Procedures.,"The provider inserts a flexible endoscope through the mouth and down into the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum where he carries out an ultrasound–guided, intramural or transmural fine needle aspiration or biopsy.",CPT +43239,Esophagogastroduodenoscopy Procedures.,"The provider inserts a flexible endoscope through the mouth and down into the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum where he removes one or more tissue biopsy specimens for diagnostic analysis.",CPT +43240,Esophagogastroduodenoscopy Procedures.,"The provider inserts a flexible endoscope through the mouth and down into the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum; he drains a pseudocyst during which he may also perform endoscopic ultrasound and place a transmural drainage catheter or stent.",CPT +43241,Esophagogastroduodenoscopy Procedures.,"The provider inserts a flexible endoscope through the mouth and down into the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum and also inserts a tube, such as a feeding tube, or catheter, such as a drainage catheter, through the lumen of the GI tract.",CPT +43242,Esophagogastroduodenoscopy Procedures.,"The provider inserts a flexible endoscope through the mouth and down into the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum where, under endoscopic ultrasound guidance, he carries out a fine needle aspiration or biopsy in or through the wall of the upper GI tract or the jejunum distal to its anastomosis (connection) to a surgically altered stomach.",CPT +43243,Esophagogastroduodenoscopy Procedures.,"The provider inserts a flexible endoscope through the mouth and down into the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum and injects a sclerosing solution to treat enlarged blood vessels in the esophagus or stomach.",CPT +43244,Esophagogastroduodenoscopy Procedures.,"The provider inserts a flexible endoscope through the mouth and down into the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum and treats enlarged blood vessels in the esophagus or stomach with band ligation, i.e., he ties off the vessels with tiny rubber bands.",CPT +43245,Esophagogastroduodenoscopy Procedures.,"The provider inserts a flexible endoscope through the mouth and down into the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum and dilates one or more gastric and/or duodenal strictures.",CPT +43246,Esophagogastroduodenoscopy Procedures.,"The provider inserts a flexible endoscope through the mouth and down into the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum to direct the placement of a tube through the skin and abdominal tissues into the stomach.",CPT +43247,Esophagogastroduodenoscopy Procedures.,"The provider examines the esophagus, stomach, and first portion of the small intestine with a flexible esophagogastroduodenoscope, a tubular instrument with a light source and camera, which he inserts through the mouth to look for a blockage. He identifies and removes foreign bodies.",CPT +43248,Esophagogastroduodenoscopy Procedures.,"The provider inserts a flexible endoscope through the mouth and down into the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum; then through the scope, he passes a guidewire over which he passes dilators through the esophagus.",CPT +43249,Esophagogastroduodenoscopy Procedures.,"The provider inserts a flexible endoscope through the mouth and down into the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum and dilates (widens) the esophagus with a balloon less than 30 mm in diameter.",CPT +43250,Esophagogastroduodenoscopy Procedures.,"The provider examines the esophagus, stomach, and first portion of the small intestine with a flexible esophagogastroduodenoscope, a tubular instrument with a light source and camera, which he inserts through the mouth. He removes one or more abnormal masses or growths with an instrument that grasps, excises, and cauterizes it. He sends the specimen to a laboratory for analysis.",CPT +43251,Esophagogastroduodenoscopy Procedures.,"An esophagogastroduodenoscopy is a procedure to view the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum by means of flexible endoscope through the mouth. The physician removes one or more lesions using a snare technique during this procedure.",CPT +43252,Esophagogastroduodenoscopy Procedures.,"An esophagogastroduodenoscopy is a procedure to view the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum by means of a flexible endoscope passed through the mouth. The provider uses an endomicroscopy system to evaluate the structures during this procedure.",CPT +43253,Esophagogastroduodenoscopy Procedures.,"An esophagogastroduodenoscopy is a procedure to view the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum by means of a flexible endoscope through the mouth. During this procedure, the provider uses ultrasound to guide injection of one or more substance or one or more fiducial markers. He also performs ultrasound examination of the relevant anatomy.",CPT +43254,Esophagogastroduodenoscopy Procedures.,"An esophagogastroduodenoscopy is a procedure to view the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum by means of flexible endoscope passed through the mouth. During the procedure, the provider uses an instrument passed through the endoscope to collect tissue from the mucosa of one or more of these structures.",CPT +43255,Esophagogastroduodenoscopy Procedures.,"An esophagogastroduodenoscopy is a procedure to view the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum by means of flexible endoscope through the mouth. During the procedure, the provider stops patient bleeding.",CPT +43257,Esophagogastroduodenoscopy Procedures.,"An esophagogastroduodenoscopy is a procedure to view the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum by means of flexible endoscope through the mouth. In this procedure the physician treats GERD using thermal energy.",CPT +43259,Esophagogastroduodenoscopy Procedures.,"An esophagogastroduodenoscopy is a procedure to view the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum by means of flexible endoscope through the mouth. During this procedure, the physician uses endoscopic ultrasound to examine the patient.",CPT +43260,Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) Procedures.,"The provider performs a diagnostic procedure that combines upper endoscopy and retrograde (reverse) injection of contrast material, a type of dye, into the biliary ducts to obtain fluoroscopic images of the gallbladder, pancreas, and bile ducts; he may also collect specimen(s) by brushing or washing for diagnostic analysis.",CPT +43261,Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) Procedures.,"The provider performs a diagnostic procedure that combines upper endoscopy and retrograde (reverse) injection of contrast material, a type of dye, into the biliary ducts to obtain fluoroscopic images of the gallbladder, pancreas, and bile ducts; he also takes one or more biopsies of suspicious tissue.",CPT +43262,Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) Procedures.,"The provider performs an endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP), a diagnostic procedure that combines upper endoscopy and retrograde (reverse) injection of contrast material, a type of dye, into the biliary ducts; he also performs a sphincterotomy (incision to open up or enlarge the sphincter of Oddi) and/or a papillotomy (incision of the ampulla of Vater or hepatopancreatic duct, the union of the pancreatic and common bile ducts).",CPT +43263,Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) Procedures.,"The provider performs a diagnostic procedure that combines upper endoscopy and retrograde (reverse) injection of contrast material, a type of dye, into the biliary ducts to obtain fluoroscopic images of the gallbladder, pancreas, and bile ducts and measures the pressure of the sphincter of Oddi.",CPT +43264,Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) Procedures.,"The provider performs a diagnostic procedure that combines upper endoscopy and retrograde (reverse) injection of contrast material, a type of dye, into the biliary ducts to obtain fluoroscopic images of the gallbladder, pancreas, and bile ducts and removes stones or debris from one or more biliary/pancreatic ducts.",CPT +43265,Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) Procedures.,"Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) is endoscopic inspection of the duodenum, the papilla of vater, followed by radiologic assessment of the pancreatic duct and the biliary tree. The physician also performs  stone destruction by any method (eg, mechanical, electrohydraulic, lithotripsy).",CPT +43266,Esophagogastroduodenoscopy Procedures.,"The provider inserts a thin, flexible, lighted tubular instrument through the patient's mouth to examine the passage between the mouth and stomach (esophagus), the stomach, and the first part of the small intestine (duodenum); he inserts a stent through the endoscope into a narrowed area of the esophagus; before and after stent placement, he may insert a guidewire over which he passes dilators to widen the esophagus.",CPT +43270,Esophagogastroduodenoscopy Procedures.,"An esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) is a procedure to view the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum by means of flexible endoscope passed through the mouth. During the EGD, the provider passes guidewires and dilates narrowed areas, if necessary, after which he ablates (destroys) one or more lesions.",CPT +43273,Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) Procedures.,"During a separately reportable endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography, or ERCP, the provider uses a flexible tube to visualize one or more pancreatic or common bile ducts.",CPT +43274,Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) Procedures.,"The physician performs an ERCP (a diagnostic procedure that combines upper endoscopy and retrograde (reverse or backward) injection of contrast material, a type of dye, into the biliary ducts to obtain fluoroscopic images of the gallbladder, pancreas, and bile ducts) and places a stent in a biliary or pancreatic duct. The procedure may require passage of a guidewire and dilators or a incision of a sphincter before placing the stent.",CPT +43275,Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) Procedures.,"Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) is endoscopic inspection of the duodenum, the papilla of vater, followed by radiologic assessment of the pancreatic duct and the biliary tree. The physician also removes one or more foreign bodies or stents from the biliary/pancreatic ducts.",CPT +43276,Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) Procedures.,"Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) is endoscopic inspection of the duodenum, the papilla of vater, followed by radiologic assessment of the pancreatic duct and the biliary tree. For this code, the physician also removes and exchanges a single duct stent.",CPT +43277,Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) Procedures.,"Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) is endoscopic inspection of the duodenum, the papilla of vater, followed by radiologic assessment of the pancreatic duct and the biliary tree. The physician also performs balloon dilation of a duct or the ampulla.",CPT +43278,Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) Procedures.,"Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) is  endoscopic inspection of the duodenum, the papilla of vater, followed by radiologic assessment of the pancreatic duct and the biliary tree. The provider then ablates one or more lesions.",CPT +43279,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Esophagus.,"The provider performs laparoscopic esophagomyotomy, cutting an esophageal muscle, and may or may not perform fundoplasty, wrapping part of the stomach around the esophagus.",CPT +43280,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Esophagus.,"The provider performs laparoscopic esophagogastric fundoplasty, wrapping the upper part of the stomach around the lower part of the esophagus. Providers may choose this procedure for patients with gastroesophageal reflux.",CPT +43281,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Esophagus.,"The provider performs repair of a paraesophageal hernia, where the stomach slides up next to the esophagus, using laparoscopy. He may also perform fundoplasty, wrapping part of the stomach around the esophagus. He does not implant mesh.",CPT +43282,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Esophagus.,"The provider performs repair of a paraesophageal hernia, where the stomach slides up next to the esophagus, using laparoscopy. He may also perform fundoplasty, wrapping part of the stomach around the esophagus. He implants mesh as part of the procedure.",CPT +43283,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Esophagus.,The provider performs laparoscopic esophageal lengthening to extend a short esophagus at the same session as a separately reportable laparoscopic fundoplasty or paraesophageal hernia repair.,CPT +43284,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Esophagus.,"The provider implants a magnetic band around the junction of the esophagus and stomach to narrow the opening and prevent the backflow of stomach contents, known as gastroesophageal reflux (GER), using a laparoscopic approach. The provider may also perform a cruroplasty to strengthen the diaphragm and prevent a hiatal hernia.",CPT +43285,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Esophagus.,"The provider removes a magnetic band from around the junction of the esophagus and stomach, which narrows the opening and prevent the backflow of stomach contents, known as gastroesophageal reflux (GER).",CPT +43286,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Esophagus.,"The provider removes all or most of the esophagus, removes the upper part of the stomach, and frees up (mobilizes) the part of the esophagus behind the mediastinum (if that part remains) using laparoscopic access; he then uses an open cervical approach to connect the stomach to the pharynx (pharyngogastrostomy) or to the remnant of the esophagus (esophagogastrostomy). He may or may not perform a pyloric drainage procedure during the laparoscopic portion of the procedure.",CPT +43287,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Esophagus.,"The provider removes two–thirds of the lower esophagus and part of the upper part of the stomach, after freeing up (mobilizing) the lower part of the esophagus behind the mediastinum and in the abdomen using laparoscopic access; he then mobilizes the upper two–thirds of the esophagus and connects the stomach to the remnant of the esophagus (esophagogastrostomy) through a thoracoscopic approach. He may or may not perform a pyloric drainage procedure during the laparoscopic portion of the procedure.",CPT +43288,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Esophagus.,"The provider removes all or most of the esophagus after mobilization of the upper, middle, and lower mediastinal esophagus via thoracoscopic techniques; he removes the upper part of the stomach and may or may not perform a pyloric drainage procedure using laparoscopic access; finally, he uses an open cervical approach to connect the stomach to the pharynx (pharyngogastrostomy) or to the remnant of the esophagus (esophagogastrostomy).",CPT +43289,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Esophagus.,Use to report procedures in the esophagus that do not have a specific code.,CPT +43290,Esophagogastroduodenoscopy Procedures.,The provider uses a flexible endoscope inserted through the patient’s mouth to place a balloon in the patient’s stomach to assist with weight loss.,CPT +43291,Esophagogastroduodenoscopy Procedures.,The provider uses a flexible endoscope inserted through the patient’s mouth to remove a balloon from the patient’s stomach. The balloon was placed previously to assist with weight loss.,CPT +43300,Repair Procedures on the Esophagus.,"The provider performs plastic repair or reconstruction of an esophageal defect through a cervical, or neck, incision. The procedure does not include tracheoesophageal fistula repair.",CPT +43305,Repair Procedures on the Esophagus.,"The provider performs plastic repair or reconstruction of an esophageal defect through a cervical, or neck, incision. He also incises and repairs the fistula between the trachea and esophagus.",CPT +43310,Repair Procedures on the Esophagus.,"The provider performs plastic repair or reconstruction of an esophageal defect through a chest incision, or thoracotomy. The procedure does not include tracheoesophageal fistula repair.",CPT +43312,Repair Procedures on the Esophagus.,"The provider performs plastic repair or reconstruction of an esophageal defect through a chest incision, or thoracotomy. He also incises and repairs the fistula between the trachea and esophagus.",CPT +43313,Repair Procedures on the Esophagus.,"The provider performs plastic repair or reconstruction of a congenital esophageal defect through a chest incision, or thoracotomy. The procedure does not include tracheoesophageal fistula repair.",CPT +43314,Repair Procedures on the Esophagus.,"The provider performs plastic repair or reconstruction of a congenital esophageal defect through a thoracotomy, or chest incision. The procedure includes congenital tracheoesophageal fistula repair.",CPT +43320,Repair Procedures on the Esophagus.,The provider performs a plastic repair of the lower esophagus and upper stomach through an incision in the abdomen or chest.,CPT +43325,Repair Procedures on the Esophagus.,"The provider performs repair of the distal esophagus, the part near the stomach, with the help of a fundic patch.",CPT +43327,Repair Procedures on the Esophagus.,"The provider performs partial or complete fundoplasty, wrapping the upper part of the stomach around the lower esophagus, through an abdominal incision.",CPT +43328,Repair Procedures on the Esophagus.,"The provider performs partial or complete fundoplasty, wrapping the upper part of the stomach around the lower esophagus, through a chest incision.",CPT +43330,Repair Procedures on the Esophagus.,"Through an abdominal incision, the provider performs repair of the esophagus by incising the muscles of the lower esophagus and upper stomach to create a flap that he then sutures back to the esophagus.",CPT +43331,Repair Procedures on the Esophagus.,"Through a chest incision, the provider performs repair of the esophagus by incising the muscles of the lower esophagus and upper stomach to create a flap that he then sutures back to the esophagus.",CPT +43332,Repair Procedures on the Esophagus.,"Through an abdominal incision, the provider performs repair of a paraesophageal hiatal hernia, where the stomach slides up next to the esophagus. The procedure includes fundoplication. The provider does not use any mesh or other prosthetic implantation. This code is not appropriate for a newborn.",CPT +43333,Repair Procedures on the Esophagus.,"Through an abdominal incision, the provider performs repair of a paraesophageal hiatal hernia, where the stomach slides up next to the esophagus. The procedure includes fundoplication. The provider uses mesh or another prosthetic implantation. This code is not appropriate for a newborn.",CPT +43334,Repair Procedures on the Esophagus.,"Through a chest incision, the provider performs repair of a paraesophageal hiatal hernia, where the stomach slides up next to the esophagus. The procedure includes fundoplication. The provider does not use any mesh or other prosthetic implantation. This code is not appropriate for a newborn.",CPT +43335,Repair Procedures on the Esophagus.,"Through a chest incision, the provider performs repair of a paraesophageal hiatal hernia, where the stomach slides up next to the esophagus. The procedure includes fundoplication. The provider uses mesh or another prosthetic implantation. This code is not appropriate for a newborn.",CPT +43336,Repair Procedures on the Esophagus.,"Through an incision in the abdomen and chest, the provider performs repair of a paraesophageal hiatal hernia, where the stomach slides up next to the esophagus. The procedure includes fundoplication. The provider does not use any mesh or other prosthetic implantation. This code is not appropriate for a newborn.",CPT +43337,Repair Procedures on the Esophagus.,"Through an incision in the abdomen and chest, the provider performs repair of a paraesophageal hiatal hernia, where the stomach slides up next to the esophagus. The procedure includes fundoplication. The provider uses mesh or another prosthetic implantation. This code is not appropriate for a newborn.",CPT +43338,Repair Procedures on the Esophagus.,"The provider performs esophageal lengthening to extend a short esophagus at the same session as a separately reportable fundoplasty, esophagomyotomy, or paraesophageal hernia repair.",CPT +43340,Repair Procedures on the Esophagus.,"Through an abdominal incision, the provider performs removal of the diseased esophagus and part of the stomach. The provider then connects the remaining pieces to ensure an uninterrupted gastrointestinal tract.",CPT +43341,Repair Procedures on the Esophagus.,"Through a chest incision, the provider performs removal of the diseased esophagus and part of the stomach. The provider then connects the remaining pieces to ensure an uninterrupted gastrointestinal tract.",CPT +43351,Repair Procedures on the Esophagus.,"The provider creates a surgical connection between the esophagus and the outside of the body, allowing for drainage. He approaches the esophagus through a chest incision.",CPT +43352,Repair Procedures on the Esophagus.,"The provider creates a surgical connection between the esophagus and the outside of the body, allowing for drainage. He approaches the esophagus through a neck incision.",CPT +43360,Repair Procedures on the Esophagus.,The provider performs repair of the esophagus and other structures of the gastrointestinal system.,CPT +43361,Repair Procedures on the Esophagus.,"The provider reoperates on a patient who had previous removal of all or part of the esophagus. He excises more diseased tissue or scar tissue, dilates, or widens, narrowed segments of the previous repair, or reconstructs the remaining anatomy. He performs the procedure to relieve obstructions and enable the patient to swallow properly.",CPT +43400,Repair Procedures on the Esophagus.,"The provider ligates, or ties off, dilated, or widened, blood vessels in the esophagus to prevent rupture and bleeding.",CPT +43405,Repair Procedures on the Esophagus.,The provider closes off the esophagus at its junction with the stomach using staples or sutures to give a tear or hole in the esophagus time to heal. He typically places a feeding tube in the stomach or jejunum to provide nutrition while the patient cannot eat normally.,CPT +43410,Repair Procedures on the Esophagus.,"The provider repairs a wound or injury to the esophagus through a cervical approach, or through the neck, typically suturing it in layers. This procedure restores function and prevents spillage of food through the wound.",CPT +43415,Repair Procedures on the Esophagus.,"The provider repairs a wound or injury to the esophagus through an incision in the side of the chest or upper midline of the abdomen, or by enlarging the wound in the skin if one exists. He typically sutures the wound in layers to restore function and prevent spillage of food through the wound.",CPT +43420,Repair Procedures on the Esophagus.,"The provider closes a previously placed esophagostomy or fistula through a cervical approach, i.e., through the neck. Typically, the wound or injury for which the esophagostomy was placed has healed, and the patient no longer needs to be fed through a tube.",CPT +43425,Repair Procedures on the Esophagus.,"The provider closes a previously placed esophagostomy or fistula through a transthoracic or midline abdominal incision. Typically, the wound or injury for which the esophagostomy was placed has healed, and the patient no longer needs to be fed through a tube.",CPT +43450,Manipulation Procedures on the Esophagus.,"The provider passes long thin tubular devices of increasing diameter to dilate, or widen, a stricture in the patient’s esophagus to improve swallowing.",CPT +43453,Manipulation Procedures on the Esophagus.,The provider passes dilators over a guide wire to widen a narrowed area of the esophagus and improve swallowing.,CPT +43460,Manipulation Procedures on the Esophagus.,The provider uses balloon compression to control bleeding in the esophagus and at the entrance to the stomach.,CPT +43496,Other Procedures on the Esophagus.,"The provider harvests a portion of the second part of the small intestine, the jejunum, to use as a graft in another area, typically between the throat and the esophagus. The provider uses a microscope to visualize and connect the small vessels to the circulation in the new area. He performs the procedure to replace tissue that disease or injury previously damaged.",CPT +43497,Other Procedures on the Esophagus.,"The provider uses an endoscope inserted through the mouth to cut muscle tissue in the lower esophagus, relaxing the muscles.",CPT +43499,Other Procedures on the Esophagus.,Use to report new or unusual procedures on the esophagus that do not have an assigned code.,CPT +43500,Incision Procedures on the Stomach.,"The provider performs a gastrotomy, i.e., he makes an incision through the abdomen and into the stomach, and explores the area for a foreign body. If a foreign body is found, he removes it.",CPT +43501,Incision Procedures on the Stomach.,The provider makes an incision in the stomach through the abdomen and ties off a bleeding vessel.,CPT +43502,Incision Procedures on the Stomach.,"The provider sutures a preexisting laceration that involves the lower esophagus as it enters the stomach. He performs this procedure to control bleeding. Mallory–Weiss tears result from excessive or continuous coughing or vomiting, often associated with alcohol abuse.",CPT +43510,Incision Procedures on the Stomach.,The provider places an indwelling (permanent) intraluminal tube or stent through an area of stricture (narrowing) in the esophagus. Strictures typically result from cancerous overgrowth or scarring due to radiation therapy. He performs this procedure for palliative treatment of esophageal stricture.,CPT +43520,Incision Procedures on the Stomach.,"The provider incises or cuts into the hypertrophied (overdeveloped) pyloric muscle to correct pyloric stenosis, a narrowing of the part of the stomach that leads into the small intestine. Pyloric stenosis causes projectile vomiting in infants.",CPT +43605,Excision Procedures on the Stomach.,"The provider performs an open biopsy and excises a portion or all of a suspicious lesion in the stomach to determine the origin and nature of the lesion, such as whether it is a malignant cancer or benign lesion.",CPT +43610,Excision Procedures on the Stomach.,"The provider explores the stomach for an ulcer or tumor and excises the lesion if found. If untreated, ulcers or tumors may cause bleeding or obstruction.",CPT +43611,Excision Procedures on the Stomach.,The provider excises a cancerous tumor of the stomach to .prevent metastasis or reduce the bulk of the tumor in preparation for radiation or chemotherapy.,CPT +43620,Excision Procedures on the Stomach.,The provider creates a surgical opening between the esophagus and intestine following excision of the stomach.,CPT +43621,Excision Procedures on the Stomach.,Code explains surgical removal of whole stomach and anastomosis of the distal divided of the small bowel to the stomach.,CPT +43622,Excision Procedures on the Stomach.,The provider removes the entire stomach and creates a pouch between the esophagus and duodenum to maintain an uninterrupted digestive tract. He typically performs this procedure in patients with cancer of the stomach.,CPT +43631,Excision Procedures on the Stomach.,The provider excises the diseased portion of the stomach and reconnects the remnant of the stomach to the duodenum to maintain an uninterrupted digestive tract. He typically performs this procedure in patients with cancer of the stomach.,CPT +43632,Excision Procedures on the Stomach.,The provider excises the diseased portion of the stomach and reconnects the remnant of the stomach to the jejunum to maintain an uninterrupted digestive tract. He typically performs this procedure in patients with cancer of the stomach.,CPT +43633,Excision Procedures on the Stomach.,The provider removes the lower part of the stomach and anastomoses the upper part of the small bowel to the part of the stomach that remains.,CPT +43634,Excision Procedures on the Stomach.,The provider removes part of the distal (lower) stomach and creates an intestinal pouch.,CPT +43635,Excision Procedures on the Stomach.,The provider transects the vagus nerve and removes the distal part of the stomach.,CPT +43640,Excision Procedures on the Stomach.,The provider transects both trunks of the vagus nerve and repairs the pylorus to increase the caliber of the pyloric opening by stretching.,CPT +43641,Excision Procedures on the Stomach.,"The provider performs a highly selective, parietal cell vagotomy and repairs the pylorus to increase its diameter; he may or may not create an opening in the stomach (gastrostomy).",CPT +43644,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Stomach.,The provider surgically reduces the size of the stomach by bypassing a portion of it and creates a connection between the stomach and the jejunum via laparoscopic technique to treat morbid obesity.,CPT +43645,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Stomach.,"The provider creates a small gastric reservoir using the upper portion of the stomach and connects it to the small intestine. In doing so, he bypasses the main body of the stomach, effectively restricting the amount of food a patient can consume at one time and also limiting absorption. He performs the procedure to treat morbid obesity.",CPT +43647,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Stomach.,"The provider places gastric stimulation electrodes laparoscopically on the antrum of the stomach when medical treatment stops helping a patient with gastroparesis, or paralysis of the stomach. Gastroparesis is often a complication of diabetes mellitus.",CPT +43648,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Stomach.,"Using laparoscopic technique, the provider tests and adjusts previously placed gastric neurostimulator electrodes or removes them if they do not function as required. Gastric neurostimulators stimulate gastric emptying by activating the muscles around the pylorus. Gastroparesis, or paralysis of the stomach, is often a complication of diabetes mellitus.",CPT +43651,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Stomach.,"Using laparoscopic technique, the provider transects both main trunks of the vagus nerve to treat a duodenal ulcer.",CPT +43652,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Stomach.,"The provider uses laparoscopic technique to perform a selective (division of the anterior and posterior gastric nerves of Latarjet only) or highly selective vagotomy (denervation of only the stomach fundus and body, the parietal cell–containing areas).",CPT +43653,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Stomach.,The provider places a gastric tube for direct access to the stomach cavity for patients who need to be fed or have their upper gastrointestinal tract emptied directly through the stomach.,CPT +43659,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Stomach.,Use this code to report a new or unusual laparoscopic procedure on the stomach for which there is no specific code available.,CPT +43752,Introduction Procedures on the Stomach.,"A nasogastric or orogastric tube is inserted through the nose (naso–) or mouth (oro–) of the patient into the stomach via the mouth and esophagus. The physician may use radiological guidance to advance the tube to the stomach. This procedure is mainly done to aspirate stomach contents for diagnostic or therapeutic purpose, to prevent aspiration and vomiting in trauma patients, and for enteral feeding. For patients with poisoning or drug overdose, the tube is used to remove the harmful substance from the body by draining the contents of the stomach. The tube is connected to a syringe or a suction pump at the external open end to aspirate or drain the stomach contents.",CPT +43753,Introduction Procedures on the Stomach.,"The provider inserts a tube into the stomach. He instills fluid to wash the stomach and suctions it back out. Indications for gastric intubation include obstruction, severe trauma, drug overdose, gastrointestinal bleeding, etc.",CPT +43754,Introduction Procedures on the Stomach.,The provider inserts a tube into the stomach. He instills fluid to wash the stomach and suctions it back out. He sends the washings to the laboratory for analysis.,CPT +43755,Introduction Procedures on the Stomach.,The provider inserts a tube into the stomach. He administers a stimulant to cause the stomach to produce acid and obtains multiple specimens of stomach secretions through the gastric tube. He sends the specimens to the laboratory for analysis.,CPT +43756,Introduction Procedures on the Stomach.,"For clinical responsibility, terminology, tips and additional info start codify free trial.",CPT +43757,Introduction Procedures on the Stomach.,"For clinical responsibility, terminology, tips and additional info start codify free trial.",CPT +43761,Introduction Procedures on the Stomach.,A nasogastric or orogastric tube inserted through the nose (naso–) or mouth (oro–) of the patient for enteric nutrition normally ends in the duodenum. The physician may take the help of radiological guidance for the placement of the tube. Enteric nutrition is done to patients who cannot take food in the normal way due to disease conditions or trauma.,CPT +43762,Introduction Procedures on the Stomach.,The provider removes a previously placed gastrostomy tube and replaces it without imaging guidance or gastrostomy tract revision. The replacement may be routine or necessary to replace a dislodged or infected/clogged tube.,CPT +43763,Introduction Procedures on the Stomach.,The provider removes a previously placed gastrostomy tube and replaces it after revising or repairing the gastrostomy tract without imaging guidance. The replacement may be routine for necessary to replace a dislodged or infected/clogged tube.,CPT +43770,Laparoscopic Bariatric Surgery Procedures.,The provider places a band around the stomach laparoscopically. He performs this procedure to restrict the size of the stomach to treat morbid obesity.,CPT +43771,Laparoscopic Bariatric Surgery Procedures.,"The provider performs gastric band revision surgery under laparoscopic guidance. Gastric bands need to be revised for a variety of reasons that include displacement or malfunction of the band or erosion, or wearing away, of the stomach wall caused by the band.",CPT +43772,Laparoscopic Bariatric Surgery Procedures.,"For clinical responsibility, terminology, tips and additional info start codify free trial.",CPT +43773,Laparoscopic Bariatric Surgery Procedures.,"For clinical responsibility, terminology, tips and additional info start codify free trial.",CPT +43774,Laparoscopic Bariatric Surgery Procedures.,"The provider removes a previously placed gastric band with its components under laparoscopic guidance. Gastric bands need to be removed for a variety of reasons that include displacement or malfunction of the band or erosion, or wearing away, of the stomach wall caused by the band.",CPT +43775,Laparoscopic Bariatric Surgery Procedures.,"Using laparoscopic technique, the provider reduces the size of the stomach by removing the bulk of the stomach in a vertical fashion. This procedure leaves a long, cylindrical stomach without the need to reroute the digestive tract or create a bypass. The provider performs this procedure as a single procedure or as the first stage of two procedures to treat morbid obesity in high–risk patients.",CPT +43800,Other Procedures on the Stomach.,Code explains the repair of pylorus to increase the caliber of the pyloric opening by stretching.,CPT +43810,Other Procedures on the Stomach.,"The provider creates a surgical connection between the stomach and the duodenum, typically after a portion of the stomach or duodenum has been excised; also known as a gastroduodenal anastomosis.",CPT +43820,Other Procedures on the Stomach.,The provider creates an anastomosis (connection) between the stomach and the proximal (upper) loop of the jejunum; he does not divide the vagus nerve.,CPT +43825,Other Procedures on the Stomach.,"The provider surgically constructs an anastomosis (connection) between the stomach and the jejunum. In uncomplicated duodenal ulcer, the operation is often used along with a vagotomy.",CPT +43830,Other Procedures on the Stomach.,The provider places a gastric tube for the direct access to the stomach cavity for patients who need to be fed or have their upper gastrointestinal tract emptied directly through the stomach.,CPT +43831,Other Procedures on the Stomach.,The provider creates direct access to the lumen of the stomach for babies who need to be fed directly through the stomach.,CPT +43832,Other Procedures on the Stomach.,Code 43830 explains the procedure used for the direct access of the lumen of stomach for patients who need to be fed or have their upper gastrointestinal tract emptied directly through the stomach.,CPT +43840,Other Procedures on the Stomach.,The provider sutures a tear in the stomach that may have occurred as a result of an ulcer eroding through the wall of the stomach or from an external wound or injury.,CPT +43842,Other Procedures on the Stomach.,"The provider removes the portion of the stomach that produces the hormone ghrelin, the hormone believed responsible for the sensation of hunger, and closes the stomach with staples or sutures. The provider avoids gastric bypass to decrease the chance of intestinal obstruction, anemia, osteoporosis, protein deficiency, and vitamin deficiency, typical complications of stomach bypass procedures. He performs this procedure to treat morbid obesity.",CPT +43843,Other Procedures on the Stomach.,"The provider walls off a portion of the stomach with staples or sutures or removes a portion of the stomach and closes the incision. The provider avoids gastric bypass to decrease the chance of intestinal obstruction, anemia, osteoporosis, protein deficiency, and vitamin deficiency, typical complications of stomach bypass procedures. He performs this procedure to treat morbid obesity.",CPT +43845,Other Procedures on the Stomach.,The provider reduces the size of the stomach and creates a bypass of a good portion of the small intestine to limit absorption and treat morbid obesity.,CPT +43846,Other Procedures on the Stomach.,The provider performs Roux–en–Y gastric bypass surgery to treat severe obesity.,CPT +43847,Other Procedures on the Stomach.,The provider performs a gastric restrictive procedure with gastric bypass that also includes a small intestine reconstruction to treat severe obesity.,CPT +43848,Other Procedures on the Stomach.,"The provider either enlarges or reduces the size of the stomach pouch previously created during a gastric restrictive procedure. The provider reduces the size of the pouch if the patient did not experience sufficient weight loss. If the patient has experienced vomiting or severe malabsorption of nutrients, the provider enlarges the size of the pouch. He performs this procedure in patients who have not have an adjustable band placed below the stomach pouch.",CPT +43860,Other Procedures on the Stomach.,"The provider revises and or reconstructions a previously created anastomosis between the stomach and jejunum. He may also perform a partial gastrectomy. He performs these procedures to relieve obstruction, pain, or other symptoms caused by scarring and adhesions resulting from the previous procedure or progression of the disease for which the previous procedure was performed.",CPT +43865,Other Procedures on the Stomach.,"For clinical responsibility, terminology, tips and additional info start codify free trial.",CPT +43870,Other Procedures on the Stomach.,"The provider closes the gastrostomy, which was made for the patients who needed to be fed or have their upper gastrointestinal tract emptied directly through the stomach.",CPT +43880,Other Procedures on the Stomach.,"The provider closes a gastrocolic fistula, with various techniques depending on what he finds. Gastrocolic fistulas often result from prior gastroenteric or bariatric surgery or from untreated gastric ulcers.",CPT +43881,Other Procedures on the Stomach.,"The provider places electrodes on the antrum of the stomach to treat nausea and vomiting caused by gastroparesis, or paralysis of the stomach muscles, that has not responded to drug therapy. Gastroparesis may be a complication of diabetes.",CPT +43882,Other Procedures on the Stomach.,"The provider revises prior electrode placement on the antrum of the stomach or removes previously placed electrodes. The provider removes the gastric neurostimulator if it is not working properly or when the patient has responded sufficiently to no longer need the device. The gastric neurostimulator treats nausea and vomiting caused by gastroparesis, the paralysis of the stomach muscles often caused by diabetes mellitus, that has not responded to drug therapy.",CPT +43886,Other Procedures on the Stomach.,The provider revises the port of a previously placed adjustable gastric restrictive device to correct kinking of the tube that connects the gastric band to the reservoir and or irrigates the subcutaneous pocket with antibiotics to treat infection.,CPT +43887,Other Procedures on the Stomach.,The provider removes the port component of a gastric restrictive band device. He performs this procedure because the port is defective or because of infection.,CPT +43888,Other Procedures on the Stomach.,The provider removes the port component of a gastric restrictive band device and replaces it with another component. He performs this procedure because the port is defective or because of infection.,CPT +43999,Other Procedures on the Stomach.,Use to report new or unusual procedures on the stomach that do not have an assigned code.,CPT +44005,Incision Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,"The provider frees up adhesions from the colon and other abdominal structures using a combination of techniques. Adhesions result from the previous surgical procedures, trauma, or pelvic inflammatory disease and cause pain and sometimes obstruction of the digestive tract.",CPT +44010,Incision Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,"The provider explores the abdomen and duodenum through an abdominal incision. He examines the duodenum for diseased tissue, a lesion, or foreign body. Depending on what he finds, he excises the diseased tissue, takes a biopsy, or removes the foreign body.",CPT +44015,Incision Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,"The provider places a feeding tube into the jejunum and brings it out through an opening in the abdomen to provide the patient with nutritional support, typically to allow healing of the esophagus or stomach from disease or prior surgery.",CPT +44020,Incision Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,"For clinical responsibility, terminology, tips and additional info start codify free trial.",CPT +44021,Incision Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision in the abdomen to identify the affected part of the small intestine other than the duodenum. He places a tube to allow for decompression, such as in a patient with an intestinal obstruction with a buildup of gas pressure.",CPT +44025,Incision Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision in the affected part of the colon and examines it or performs biopsy or removal of a foreign body.",CPT +44050,Incision Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision in the affected part of the intestine for repair of twisted, telescoped, or herniated bowel, other than the rectum.",CPT +44055,Incision Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision to reach the affected part of the intestine other than the rectum. She alleviates and derotates the intestinal malrotation by reduction or by destruction of bands of tissue kinking the duodenum.",CPT +44100,Excision Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,"In this procedure, the provider performs biopsy of the small intestine using a capsule introduced through the mouth.",CPT +44110,Excision Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,"In this procedure, the provider excises one or more lesions from the affected part of the small or large intestine using a single incision. The procedure does not require creation of an anastomosis or fistula or bringing the intestine through the skin.",CPT +44111,Excision Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,"In this procedure, the provider excises one or more lesions from the affected part of the small or large intestine using multiple incisions. The procedure does not require creation of an anastomosis or fistula or bringing the intestine through the skin.",CPT +44120,Excision Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,"In this procedure, the provider removes a single affected segment of the small intestine and connects the remaining intestinal ends.",CPT +44121,Excision Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,"At the same session as initial small intestine resection and anastomosis, the provider resects one or more additional affected segments of the small intestine. He then connects the remaining intestinal ends.",CPT +44125,Excision Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,"In this procedure, the provider makes an abdominal incision to resect a segment of small intestine. He sutures the remaining end of the small bowel, which is attached to the stomach, to the abdominal wall through an opening called a stoma.",CPT +44126,Excision Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,"In this procedure, the provider makes an abdominal incision to remove a single narrowed segment of the small intestine from a patient born with atresia. The provider performs end to end connections between the remaining loops of the intestines.",CPT +44127,Excision Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,"In this procedure, the provider makes an abdominal incision to remove a single narrowed segment of the small intestine from a patient born with atresia. The provider performs anastomosis between the remaining loops of the intestines, narrowing one end to fit with the other.",CPT +44128,Excision Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,"In this procedure, the provider removes an additional narrowed site of the small intestine in a patient with congenital atresia. The provider performs anastomosis between the remaining loops of the intestines.",CPT +44130,Excision Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,The provider creates an anastomosis between two segments of the intestines; she may or may not bring a segment of intestine to the skin to create a stoma.,CPT +44132,Excision Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,The provider performs an open resection of the small intestine from a cadaver and preserves the segment on ice and in cold preservation solution for transplantation into the recipient.,CPT +44133,Excision Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,The provider harvests a segment of the intestines from a living donor and stitches the two severed ends together. This code includes cold preservation of the donor intestines.,CPT +44135,Excision Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,"In this procedure, the provider transects the affected portion of a recipient’s small bowel and then uses the cadaver donor intestine to connect the ends of the recipient’s intestines.",CPT +44136,Excision Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,"In this procedure, the provider transects the affected portion of a recipient’s small bowel and then uses intestine from a living donor to connect the ends of the recipient’s small intestine.",CPT +44137,Excision Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,The provider identifies and completely removes a small intestine graft from a patient.,CPT +44139,Excision Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,"In this add–on procedure, during the same session in which the provider performs a colectomy, he also mobilizes the splenic flexure, a sharp bend between the transverse and the descending colon. The provider does this to prepare a suitable length of the colon in association with partial resection.",CPT +44140,Excision Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,The provider surgically removes a portion of the colon and then reconnects the cut ends of the colon to restore continuity.,CPT +44141,Excision Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,The provider surgically removes a portion of the colon and then brings part of the cecum (part of the large intestine) or the colon through a separate incision on the skin of the abdomen as a skin–level cecostomy or colostomy for waste removal.,CPT +44143,Excision Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision to remove the affected portion of the colon and brings the upper part of the colon through a separate incision on the skin of the abdomen as a colostomy. The provider staples the lower end of the colon and leaves it in the abdomen.",CPT +44144,Excision Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision to remove the affected portion of the colon. She brings the upper end and lower end of the colon through separate incisions on the skin of the abdomen as a colostomy and mucous fistula respectively.",CPT +44145,Excision Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,The provider surgically removes a portion of the colon and then connects an end of the remaining colon to the rectum to restore continuity.,CPT +44146,Excision Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision to remove the affected portion of the colon and performs an anastomosis between the rectum and colon low in the pelvis. He also creates a colostomy, a surgical procedure to connect the colon to an opening through the skin.",CPT +44147,Excision Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision to remove the affected portion of the colon through the combination of the open abdominal and anal approaches and he reconnects the cut ends of the colon.",CPT +44150,Excision Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,"In this procedure, the provider removes the total colon and either connects the end of the ileum to the skin or directly to the rectum.",CPT +44151,Excision Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,"In this procedure, the provider removes the total colon and creates an ileal pouch from the terminal ileum. He connects the ileum to the skin of the abdomen as a continent ileostomy.",CPT +44155,Excision Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,"In this procedure, the provider removes the total colon along with the rectum and connects the terminal ileum to the skin of the abdomen as an ileostomy.",CPT +44156,Excision Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,"In this procedure, the provider removes the total colon along with the rectum. He creates an ileal pouch from the terminal ileum and connects it to the skin of the abdomen as a continent ileostomy.",CPT +44157,Excision Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,"In this procedure, the provider removes the total colon along with the rectum. He connects the ileum to the anus. He may strip the mucosa of the rectum. He also may create an external opening with a loop of ileum connected to it.",CPT +44158,Excision Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,"There are multiple reasons that colon resection might be required including cancer, other diseases of the colon, necrosis from entrapped bowel, and trauma. The surgeon makes an abdominal incision and removes the entire colon and rectum. The rectal mucosa may be removed. The end of the small bowel is attached to the anus. The ileum is folded into an ""S"" or a ""J"" to create a reservoir.",CPT +44160,Excision Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,The provider performs an open resection of the last part of the small intestine and first part of the colon with anastomosis of the two ends.,CPT +44180,Laparoscopic Incision Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,The provider performs laparoscopic removal of intestinal adhesions.,CPT +44186,Laparoscopic Enterostomy - External Fistulization of Intestines.,"The provider performs laparoscopic jejunostomy, which involves creating an opening in the second part of the small intestine.",CPT +44187,Laparoscopic Enterostomy - External Fistulization of Intestines.,The provider performs laparoscopic placement of a nontube ileostomy or jejunostomy.,CPT +44188,Laparoscopic Enterostomy - External Fistulization of Intestines.,The provider performs laparoscopic colostomy or skin level cecostomy.,CPT +44202,Laparoscopic Excision Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,The provider performs laparoscopic removal of part of the small intestine with a single resection and anastomosis.,CPT +44203,Laparoscopic Excision Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,The provider performs an additional laparoscopic small intestine resection and anastomosis after the first.,CPT +44204,Laparoscopic Excision Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,The provider laparoscopically removes a portion of the colon and reconnects the cut ends of the colon to restore continuity.,CPT +44205,Laparoscopic Excision Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,The provider performs laparoscopic partial colectomy with removal of the end of the ileum and connection of the remaining ileum and colon segments.,CPT +44206,Laparoscopic Excision Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,The provider laparoscopically removes part of the colon. He connects the end attached to the stomach to an opening in the abdomen called a stoma. He closes the distal segment of the cut intestine.,CPT +44207,Laparoscopic Excision Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,The provider performs laparoscopic removal of part of the colon with connection of the colon to the rectum.,CPT +44208,Laparoscopic Excision Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,"The provider performs laparoscopic partial colectomy, removing part of the colon. He creates a connection between the colon and rectum, called coloproctostomy. He also creates a colostomy, connecting an opening in the colon to an incision through the skin.",CPT +44210,Laparoscopic Excision Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,"The provider performs laparoscopic total colectomy, removing all of the colon, through the abdomen. He does not connect the colon and rectum by proctectomy. He connects the ileum to the rectum by ileoproctostomy, or he connects the ileum to an external stoma by ileostomy.",CPT +44211,Laparoscopic Excision Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,"The provider performs laparoscopic total colectomy, removing the entire colon, through the abdomen, and proctectomy, removing the rectum. He connects the ileum of the small intestine to the anus and creates an ileal reservoir. He also connects a loop of ileum to an external stoma with loop ileostomy. He may strip the mucosa from the remaining portion of rectum.",CPT +44212,Laparoscopic Excision Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,"The provider performs laparoscopic total colectomy, removing all of the colon, through the abdomen. He also removes the rectum, a procedure called proctectomy. For ileostomy, he connects the ileum of the small intestine to an external opening.",CPT +44213,Laparoscopic Excision Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,"In this laparoscopic add–on procedure, during the same session in which the provider performs partial colectomy, he also mobilizes the splenic flexure, a sharp bend between the transverse and the descending colon. The provider does this to prepare a suitable length of the colon in association with partial resection.",CPT +44227,Laparoscopic Repair Procedure on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,"The provider takes down a previously created enterostomy, a surgically created opening between the large or small bowel and the outside of the abdomen, and cuts away the scarred or devitalized tissue at the ends of the two sections of intestine afterwhich he sutures the two ends together to restore anatomical route of the colon.",CPT +44238,Other Laparoscopic Procedures on the Intestines Except Rectum.,"Use to report laparoscopic procedures on the intestine, excluding the rectum, that do not have a specific code.",CPT +44300,Enterostomy-External Fistulization of Intestines Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider uses an open approach to place a tube that connects the small intestines or cecum to a small external opening. The provider may perform this procedure for reasons such as direct feeding of the patient or to remove built up gas pressure in patients with intestinal obstructions.",CPT +44310,Enterostomy-External Fistulization of Intestines Procedures.,"In this procedure the provider uses an open incision to pull a small loop or segment of the small intestine, from either the ileum or jejunum, to connect to a small opening in the abdominal wall. He does this to provide direct access to the intestines for reasons such as emptying the intestines.",CPT +44312,Enterostomy-External Fistulization of Intestines Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider releases the scar tissue that has grown around the stoma, an artificial opening through the abdominal wall connected to the ileum.",CPT +44314,Enterostomy-External Fistulization of Intestines Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider releases the ileal intestinal segment from its stoma, removes the scar tissue around the stoma, and recreates the stoma at a new site in the abdominal wall.",CPT +44316,Enterostomy-External Fistulization of Intestines Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider creates an opening in the abdominal wall and connects it to an ileal intestinal pouch.",CPT +44320,Enterostomy-External Fistulization of Intestines Procedures.,"In this procedure the provider pulls a small loop of the large intestine, either from the colon or cecum, through an incision in the abdominal wall, incises the intestinal segment, and stitches it to the abdominal wall. He does this to provide direct access to the intestines, typically for emptying them.",CPT +44322,Enterostomy-External Fistulization of Intestines Procedures.,"In this procedure the provider pulls a small loop of the large intestine, either from the colon or cecum, to an incision in the abdominal wall, incises the intestinal segment, and stitches it to the abdominal wall. He does this to provide direct access to the intestines, typically for emptying them. He also collects multiple biopsy samples along the length of the intestine.",CPT +44340,Enterostomy-External Fistulization of Intestines Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider releases the scar tissue that may have grown around the stoma, an artificial opening through the abdominal wall connected to the colon.",CPT +44345,Enterostomy-External Fistulization of Intestines Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider releases the colon segment from its stoma, removes the scar tissue around the stoma, and reattaches the stoma at a new site in the abdominal wall.",CPT +44346,Enterostomy-External Fistulization of Intestines Procedures.,"In this procedure the provider reworks a previously constructed colostomy site. He releases the intestinal segment from its stoma, returns the entrapped bowel of the hernia to its proper place, removes the scar tissue around the stoma, and reattaches the stoma at a new site in the abdominal wall.",CPT +44360,Endoscopic Small Intestine Procedures.,"The provider examines a portion of the small intestine for abnormalities using an endoscope, a tubular instrument with a light source and camera, which he inserts through the mouth. He includes the first and second parts of the duodenum and into the jejunum, but he excludes the ileum, the terminal portion of the small intestine, to look for a cause for gastrointestinal symptom such as bleeding and diarrhea. He takes samples of any suspicious tissue by brushing or washing the area to collect cells for laboratory analysis.",CPT +44361,Endoscopic Small Intestine Procedures.,"The provider uses an endoscope to examine the intestines for abnormalities, going past the second part of the duodenum but not including the ileum, the last part of the small intestine. He also takes one or more biopsy samples.",CPT +44363,Endoscopic Small Intestine Procedures.,"The provider examines a portion of the small intestine for abnormalities with an endoscope, a tubular instrument with a light source and a camera, which he inserts through the mouth. He includes the first and second parts of the duodenum and goes into the jejunum, but he excludes the ileum, the terminal portion of the small intestine. He locates and removes swallowed objects that might obstruct or damage the intestines.",CPT +44364,Endoscopic Small Intestine Procedures.,"The provider uses an endoscope to examine the intestines for abnormalities, going past the second part of the duodenum but not including the ileum, the last part of the small intestine. He also removes one or more tumors, polyps, or other types of lesions by using a snare device.",CPT +44365,Endoscopic Small Intestine Procedures.,"The provider uses an endoscope to examine the intestines for abnormalities, going past the second part of the duodenum but not including the ileum, the last part of the small intestine. He also removes one or more tumors, polyps, or other types of lesions by using hot biopsy forceps or bipolar cautery.",CPT +44366,Endoscopic Small Intestine Procedures.,"The provider uses an endoscope to examine the intestines for abnormalities, going past the second part of the duodenum but not including the ileum, the last part of the small intestine. He also controls bleeding by means such as injections, cautery, heater probe, laser, stapler, or plasma coagulator.",CPT +44369,Endoscopic Small Intestine Procedures.,"The provider examines the entire upper digestive tract except for the ileum, the most distal portion of the small intestine. He destroys any tumors, polyps, or other lesions that he finds using laser or radiofrequency energy rather than other forms of ablation. The lesions are most likely benign but could be precancerous or obstructing the small intestine.",CPT +44370,Endoscopic Small Intestine Procedures.,"The provider examines the entire upper digestive tract except for the ileum, the most distal portion of the small intestine. He dilates the area of stricture or narrowing and inserts a stent through the scope to keep the area open for the passage of food.",CPT +44372,Endoscopic Small Intestine Procedures.,"The provider examines the entire upper digestive tract except for the ileum, the most distal portion of the small intestine. He places a jejunostomy tube through the endoscope into the jejunum and brings it out through a stab incision in the abdomen. The provider performs these procedures to provide the patient with nutritional support, typically to allow healing of the esophagus or stomach from disease or prior surgery.",CPT +44373,Endoscopic Small Intestine Procedures.,"The provider examines the entire upper digestive tract except for the ileum, to evaluate the interior structure for any abnormalities. He then converts an already placed gastrostomy tube into a jejunostomy tube by going through the abdomen. The jejunostomy tube provides a route for nutritional support until the patient can eat normally.",CPT +44376,Endoscopic Small Intestine Procedures.,"The provider performs a visual examination of the upper gastrointestinal tract using a lighted endoscope. He examines the entire upper digestive tract from the esophagus to the ileum. If he finds anything suspicious, he collects specimens by passing a brushlike device through the endoscope and brushing the mucosa or the lining of the digestive tract or by instilling warm water and suctioning it out through the endoscope. He sends the specimens to the pathology laboratory for histopathologic examination.",CPT +44377,Endoscopic Small Intestine Procedures.,"The provider performs a visual examination of the upper gastrointestinal tract using a lighted endoscope. He examines the entire upper digestive tract from the esophagus to the ileum. If he finds anything suspicious, he takes one or more biopsies for pathologic analysis.",CPT +44378,Endoscopic Small Intestine Procedures.,The provider performs a visual examination of the upper gastrointestinal tract using a lighted endoscope. He examines the entire upper digestive tract from the esophagus to the ileum to identify areas of bleeding. He then uses various techniques to control the bleeding.,CPT +44379,Endoscopic Small Intestine Procedures.,"The provider performs a visual examination of the upper gastrointestinal tract using a lighted endoscope. He examines the entire upper digestive tract from the esophagus to the ileum. When he identifies an area of narrowing, or stricture, he dilates the area and then delivers a stent through the endoscope to keep the area expanded. He does this to prevent obstruction and allow the patient to eat normally.",CPT +44380,Endoscopic Stomal Procedures.,"The provider examines the ileum using an endoscope, a tubular instrument with a light source and camera, which he inserts through a previously placed stoma, the opening on the skin of a surgically created passageway into the ileum to check for the presence of a bowel disease. He takes samples of any suspicious tissue by brushing or washing the area to collect cells for laboratory analysis.",CPT +44381,Endoscopic Stomal Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs ileoscopy, using a scope to examine part of the small intestine, through an artificial opening called a stoma. The provider also performs balloon dilation through an endoscope.",CPT +44382,Endoscopic Stomal Procedures.,"The provider examines the ileum using an endoscope passed through a previously placed stoma, an opening, on the skin of a surgically created passageway into the ileum. If he sees any areas of abnormal mucosa or tissue, he biopsies one or more suspicious areas and sends it to the laboratory for histopathologic examination.",CPT +44384,Endoscopic Stomal Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs ileoscopy, using a scope to examine part of the small intestine, through an artificial opening called a stoma. The provider also performs endoscopic placement of a stent. The procedure may include predilation and post dilation along with passage for the guide wire.",CPT +44385,Endoscopic Stomal Procedures.,"The provider passes an endoscope through the anus and examines a previously created small intestinal pouch and the anastomosis, the connection between the ileal pouch and the anus. If he sees any areas of abnormal mucosa or tissue, he takes samples using a brush passed through the scope or irrigates the area with warm saline and aspirates the washings through the scope. He sends the specimens to the laboratory for diagnostic analysis.",CPT +44386,Endoscopic Stomal Procedures.,"The provider passes an endoscope through the anus and examines a previously created small intestinal pouch and the anastomosis, the connection between the ileal pouch and the anus. If he sees any areas of abnormal mucosa or tissue, he biopsies one or more suspicious areas and sends the samples to the laboratory for diagnostic examination.",CPT +44388,Endoscopic Stomal Procedures.,"The provider examines the portion of the colon that remains after a colon removal procedure using a colonoscope, a tubular instrument with a light source and camera. He inserts the scope through a previously placed colostomy stoma, the opening on the skin of a surgically created passageway into the colon. He looks for signs of recurrent disease, such as cancer. He takes samples of any suspicious tissue by brushing or washing the area to collect cells for laboratory analysis.",CPT +44389,Endoscopic Stomal Procedures.,"The provider examines the remaining colon using an endoscope passed through a previously placed stoma, an opening on the skin of a surgically created passageway into the colon. If he sees any areas of abnormal mucosa or tissue, he biopsies one or more suspicious areas and sends the specimens to the laboratory for histopathologic diagnosis.",CPT +44390,Endoscopic Stomal Procedures.,"The provider examines the portion of the colon that remains after a colon removal procedure using a colonoscope, a tubular instrument with a light source and camera. He inserts the scope through a previously placed colostomy stoma, an opening on the skin of a surgically created passageway into the colon. He identifies and removes any foreign bodies that might obstruct or damage the intestines.",CPT +44391,Endoscopic Stomal Procedures.,"The provider examines the portion of the colon that remains after a colon removal procedure using a colonoscope, a tubular instrument with a light source and camera. He inserts the scope through a previously placed colostomy stoma, an opening on the skin of a surgically created passageway into the colon. He identifies and repairs areas of internal bleeding.",CPT +44392,Endoscopic Stomal Procedures.,"The provider examines the portion of the colon that remains after a colon removal procedure using a colonoscope, a tubular instrument with a light source and camera. He inserts the scope through a previously placed colostomy stoma, an opening on the skin of a surgically created passageway into the colon. He removes one or more abnormal masses or growths with an instrument that grasps, excises, and cauterizes it. He sends the specimen to a laboratory for analysis.",CPT +44394,Endoscopic Stomal Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts a colonoscope through an existing artificial opening in the patient’s skin, called a stoma. He visualizes the colon and excises any tumor, polyp, or other abnormal change in the intestinal tissue by snare technique, which uses a wire loop for excision.",CPT +44401,Endoscopic Stomal Procedures.,"The provider inserts a colonoscope through an artificial opening in the patient’s skin, called a stoma. He observes and destroys any tumor, polyp, or other abnormal change in the intestinal tissue; these can be single or multiple in number. The procedure may include predilation and post dilation along with passage for a guide wire.",CPT +44402,Endoscopic Stomal Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs colonoscopy through an artificial opening in the skin called a stoma. He also performs endoscopic introduction of a stent.",CPT +44403,Endoscopic Stomal Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs colonoscopy through an artificial opening in the skin called a stoma. He also performs excision of mucosal tissue using an endoscope.",CPT +44404,Endoscopic Stomal Procedures.,The provider inserts an endoscope to perform colonoscopy through an artificial opening in the skin called a colostomy stoma. The provider performs one or more injections into the submucosa (the tissue below the mucous membrane).,CPT +44405,Endoscopic Stomal Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs colonoscopy through an artificial opening in the skin called a stoma. He also performs transendoscopic balloon dilation, using the balloon to widen a narrowed area.",CPT +44406,Endoscopic Stomal Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs colonoscopy through an artificial opening in the skin called a stoma. She also performs endoscopic ultrasound examination of the large intestine that is confined to the sigmoid, descending, transverse, or ascending colon and cecum, and the nearby structures.",CPT +44407,Endoscopic Stomal Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs colonoscopy through an artificial opening in the skin called a stoma. He also performs endoscopic ultrasound examination along with intramural or transmural aspiration or biopsy of the large intestine, confined to the sigmoid, descending, transverse, or ascending colon and cecum, and the nearby structures.",CPT +44408,Endoscopic Stomal Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs colonoscopy through an artificial opening in the skin called a stoma. She also performs decompression, which may include placing a decompression tube.",CPT +44500,Introduction Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,"The provider inserts a long flexible intestinal tube that consists of two channels and a balloon tip down to the small intestine. He uses one of the channels in the tube to aspirate, or withdraw, fluid and air for the temporary management of intestinal obstruction.",CPT +44602,Repair Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,The provider repairs a tear or hole in the wall of the small intestine with sutures and washes out the abdomen with antibiotic solution or normal saline. He performs this procedure to prevent soiling of the abdominal cavity with food waste and potential infection.,CPT +44603,Repair Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,No Summary found for this code,CPT +44604,Repair Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,The provider repairs a tear or hole in the large intestine with sutures and washes out the abdomen with antibiotic solution or normal saline. He performs this procedure to prevent soiling of the abdominal cavity with food waste and potential infection.,CPT +44605,Repair Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,"The provider repairs a tear or hole in the large intestine with sutures and washes out the abdomen with antibiotic solution or normal saline. In addition, he performs a colostomy to divert food waste into a bag worn externally. He performs this procedure to give the damaged tissue and sutured area time to heal and avoid possible infection from contamination by fecal material.",CPT +44615,Repair Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,"The surgeon repairs an intestinal stricture (narrowing), with or without dilation, by performing an enterotomy (incision of the intestine) or enterorrhaphy (suturing of the intestine) to treat intestinal obstruction.",CPT +44620,Repair Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,"The provider closes a previously created enterostomy, a surgically created passage from the intestines to the external surface of the abdomen, to restore an uninterrupted digestive tract. He performs this procedure because the patient no longer needs the intestinal diversion.",CPT +44625,Repair Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,"In this procedure, the provider performs revision of a previously created enterostomy by cutting the attached portion of the intestine from the abdominal wall and attaching it back to the small or large intestine",CPT +44626,Repair Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,"The provider takes down a previously created enterostomy in the intestine and creates a colorectal anastomosis, i.e., a surgically created connection between the colon and the rectum. This restores an uninterrupted colon and allows the patient to pass stool normally.",CPT +44640,Repair Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,"The provider closes off an intestinal cutaneous fistula, an abnormal passageway between the intestine and the skin. If necessary, he resects damaged sections of intestine and anastomoses, or joins, the ends together to maintain an uninterrupted digestive tract. He performs the procedure to treat a fistula that has not responded to nonsurgical therapy.",CPT +44650,Repair Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,"The provider closes off a fistula that forms a communication between two points on the small intestine, i.e., enteroenteric fistula. Alternatively, he closes off a fistula between the small intestine and the large intestine, i.e., an enterocolic fistula. He performs the procedure to treat or prevent infection, abscess formation, or other complications.",CPT +44660,Repair Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,"The provider closes off an enterovesical fistula, i.e., an abnormal passageway between the small intestines and the urinary bladder. He does this to treat or prevent infection or other complications.",CPT +44661,Repair Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,"The provider closes off an enterovesical fistula, an abnormal passageway between the small intestines and the urinary bladder. He resects the portion of the intestine and or the bladder damaged by the fistula formation and closes the wound. He does this to treat or prevent infection or other complications.",CPT +44680,Repair Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,"The provider arranges loops of intestine in folds and sutures the folds together to prevent them from unfolding. He performs this procedure to prevent fistula formation, adhesions, or kinking of the bowel.",CPT +44700,Other Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,The provider places a barrier between the small intestine and the pelvis to protect it from damage by radiation.,CPT +44701,Other Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,"The provider irrigates, or washes out, the colon until the irrigating fluid returns clear during a primary procedure that involves a colectomy, the partial or total excision of the large intestine, or the repair of a perforation of the large intestine.",CPT +44705,Other Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,"The provider tests donor stool for bacteria, viruses, and syphilis and then prepares it for instillation.",CPT +44715,Other Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,"The provider examines and prepares previously harvested small intestine, which includes preparing the superior mesenteric artery and vein for anastomosis.",CPT +44720,Other Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,The provider examines and prepares previously harvested small intestine which includes preparing the vein for anastomosis.,CPT +44721,Other Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,The provider examines and prepares previously harvested small intestine which includes preparing the artery for anastomosis.,CPT +44799,Other Procedures on the Intestines (Except Rectum).,Use to report new or unusual procedures on the intestine that do not have an assigned code.,CPT +44800,Excision Procedures on the Meckel's Diverticulum and the Mesentery.,"The provider excises, or removes, a Meckel’s diverticulum, an outpouching or saclike structure in the wall of the ileum. Alternatively, the provider removes an omphalomesenteric duct, or yolk stalk, a remnant of the umbilical duct that connects the embryo to the mother’s circulation. It typically disappears before birth, but if the duct does not disappear, it forms a diverticulum in the ileum. The provider excises the structures to treat or prevent bleeding or ulceration, an erosion of the lining of the ileum.",CPT +44820,Excision Procedures on the Meckel's Diverticulum and the Mesentery.,"The provider removes a lesion on the peritoneum, or mesentery, the lining of the abdominal cavity to which the intestines attach. He removes the lesion for pathologic examination and or to prevent intestinal obstruction.",CPT +44850,Suture Procedures on the Meckel's Diverticulum and the Mesentery.,"The provider sutures a defect in the mesentery, the lining of the abdominal cavity to which the intestines attach. He performs the procedure to treat or prevent intestinal obstruction, or blockage.",CPT +44899,Other Procedures on the Meckel's Diverticulum and Mesentery.,Use to report new or unusual procedures on a Meckel’s diverticulum and the mesentery that do not have an assigned code.,CPT +44900,Incision Procedures on the Appendix.,The provider incises an appendiceal abscess and drains the pus to relieve pain and prevent the spread of infection.,CPT +44950,Excision Procedures on the Appendix.,"The provider removes an inflamed appendix, a saclike structure situated in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen at the junction of the large and small intestines. He performs the procedure to relieve pain and to prevent infection or rupture.",CPT +44955,Excision Procedures on the Appendix.,"The provider removes the appendix, saclike structure situated in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen at the junction of the large and small intestines, during the performance of another major procedure; He removes the appendix to relieve pain, because it shows evidence of active inflammation or scarring from previous inflammation, or to prevent rupture.",CPT +44960,Excision Procedures on the Appendix.,"The provider removes a ruptured, or burst, appendix, a saclike structure situated in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen at the junction of the large and small intestines. He performs the procedure because of abscess formation or widespread peritonitis, i.e., inflammation in the peritoneum, and to prevent further complications.",CPT +44970,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Appendix.,"The provider removes the appendix via laparoscopic technique. He performs this procedure because of an inflamed or burst appendix, a saclike structure situated in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen at the junction of the large and small intestines.",CPT +44979,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Appendix.,"For clinical responsibility, terminology, tips and additional info start codify free trial.",CPT +45000,Incision Procedures on the Rectum.,"The provider drains a pelvic abscess, a collection of pus in a walled off sac or pocket, in the pelvis. He uses a transrectal approach. He performs this procedure to treat pain and to prevent the spread of infection, a disease condition that bacteria, viruses, or other microorganisms cause.",CPT +45005,Incision Procedures on the Rectum.,"The provider incises an abscess, a collection of pus in a walled off sac or pocket, below the mucosal surface of the rectum and drains it. He performs the procedure to prevent infection and relieve pain.",CPT +45020,Incision Procedures on the Rectum.,"The provider incises an abscess in the supralevator, pelvirectal, or retrorectal area and drains it. He performs the procedure to prevent infection and relieve pain.",CPT +45100,Excision Procedures on the Rectum.,The provider uses an anal approach to take a biopsy of the anorectal wall. He sends the tissue to the laboratory for pathologic examination.,CPT +45108,Excision Procedures on the Rectum.,The provider excises a tumor of the anorectal muscle and sends it to the laboratory for diagnostic analysis.,CPT +45110,Excision Procedures on the Rectum.,The provider removes the entire rectum along with a portion of the lower colon and the anal sphincter via an abdominoperineal approach. He also performs a colostomy to reroute the intestine above the rectum out through the abdomen. The area of diseased rectum cannot be reached through an anal approach. He performs this procedure to treat Crohn colitis or cancer of the colon and rectum.,CPT +45111,Excision Procedures on the Rectum.,The provider performs a partial resection of the rectum using an abdominal approach. He uses this approach because the diseased portion of the rectum cannot be reached safely using an anal or transperineal approach. He performs the procedure typically to treat Crohn colitis or cancer of the rectum.,CPT +45112,Excision Procedures on the Rectum.,The provider removes the rectum and joins the colon to the anus using both an abdominal and perineal approach. He typically performs the procedure to treat rectal cancer. The procedure leaves the patient with an uninterrupted digestive tract so that the patient can pass stool normally.,CPT +45113,Excision Procedures on the Rectum.,"The provider removes part of the rectum and resects some of the mucosa that lines the remaining rectum. He also performs an ileoanal anastomosis, i.e., joins the ileum to the anus, and creates an ileal reservoir or pouch. He may or may not perform a loop ileostomy. which brings loop of ileum out through the abdominal wall to divert waste material into an external bag. He performs this procedure to treat Crohn colitis or cancer of the rectum.",CPT +45114,Excision Procedures on the Rectum.,"The provider removes part of the rectum and anastomoses, or joins, the remaining rectum to the colon above it via a dual approach, through the abdomen and through the area on the back over the sacrum. He performs this procedure to treat Crohn colitis or cancer of the rectum.",CPT +45116,Excision Procedures on the Rectum.,"The provider removes part of the rectum and anastomoses, or joins, the remaining rectum to the colon above it. He uses a posterior approach, i.e., from the patient’s back, that involves removing the coccyx, or tail bone, and part of the left sacral wing, the wedge–shaped vertebrae at the base of the spine between the hip bones. He performs this procedure typically to treat cancer of the rectum.",CPT +45119,Excision Procedures on the Rectum.,"The provider removes the rectum and joins the colon to the anus using both an abdominal and perineal approach. In addition, he creates a colonic reservoir, a pouch to collect fecal waste, and a temporary diverting enterostomy if needed to allow the colon and anastomosis time to heal. Providers typically perform the procedure to treat Crohn colitis, rectal cancer, or familial polyposis. The procedure leaves the patient with an uninterrupted digestive tract so that the patient can pass stool normally.",CPT +45120,Excision Procedures on the Rectum.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically removes or bypasses a diseased portion of the rectum and connects the colon and anus. He performs this procedure using both an abdominal and perineal approach.",CPT +45121,Excision Procedures on the Rectum.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically removes the diseased portion of the rectum along with removal of part or the entire colon, or ileum. He then connects the remaining colon with the anus. He performs this procedure using both an abdominal and perineal approach. He also performs multiple biopsies of the diseased colon tissue during this procedure.",CPT +45123,Excision Procedures on the Rectum.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically removes a portion of a diseased rectum through a perineal approach. He performs this resection without connecting the remaining portion of the colon to the anus. This service is done due to cancer of the colon or rectum.",CPT +45126,Excision Procedures on the Rectum.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically removes the pelvic organs and may perform a colostomy due to cancer of the colon and rectum. He removes the urinary bladder, urethra, rectum, and anus. He may also remove the uterus in females as well as the removal of one or both ovaries and or fallopian tubes. In the case of a male, he may remove the prostate. The provider most commonly performs this procedure for very advanced or recurrent cancers like genitourinary and colorectal cancers.",CPT +45130,Excision Procedures on the Rectum.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically excises a rectal procidentia, a condition in which the rectum partially or completely prolapses out, or falls out of the anus. He then connects the colon with the remaining portion of the rectum. He performs this procedure through a perineal approach.",CPT +45135,Excision Procedures on the Rectum.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically excises a rectal procidentia, a condition in which the rectum partially or completely prolapses out, or falls out of the anus. He then connects the colon with the remaining portion of the rectum. He performs this procedure using both an abdominal and perineal approach.",CPT +45136,Excision Procedures on the Rectum.,"In this procedure, the provider removes an ileoanal reservoir and creates an ileostomy, where he diverts the ileum, or the terminal portion of the small intestine, out through an opening in the abdomen. An ileoanal reservoir is an internal pouch made up of the small intestine in patients after removal of their colon. This reservoir acts as a storage place for stool in the absence of a colon. The stored stool then expels out of the anus several times during the day.",CPT +45150,Excision Procedures on the Rectum.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically divides, or incises a stricture, or narrowing of the rectum, or the end part of the large intestine that connects with the anus. This procedure is done to treat narrowing due to such conditions as a tumor or scarring.",CPT +45160,Excision Procedures on the Rectum.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision in the rectum to excise a tumor. He may perform this procedure using a transsacral approach through the sacrum, or a transcoccygeal approach through the coccyx.",CPT +45171,Excision Procedures on the Rectum.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision in the rectum to excise a tumor. He performs this procedure by using a transanal approach, through the anus, and the excision the provider makes does not include the muscularis propria, a thin layer of muscle lining the rectum.",CPT +45172,Excision Procedures on the Rectum.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision in the rectum to excise a tumor. He performs this procedure using a transanal approach, through the anus, and the excision the provider makes includes the muscularis propria, a thin layer of muscle lining the rectum.",CPT +45190,Destruction Procedures on the Rectum.,"In this procedure, the provider destroys a tumor in the rectum, or the end part of the large intestine that connects to the anus using a transanal approach, through the anus. He chooses from a variety of destruction methods such as electrodesiccation, electrosurgery, laser ablation, laser resection, or cryosurgery to perform this procedure.",CPT +45300,Endoscopy Procedures on the Rectum.,"In this procedure, the provider examines the inner part of the anus, rectum, and the sigmoid colon using a proctosigmoid scope, a short rigid instrument with a camera at its one end. He may also collect a sample of tissue by brushing or washing.",CPT +45303,Endoscopy Procedures on the Rectum.,"In this procedure, the provider examines the inner part of the anus, rectum, and the sigmoid colon using a proctosigmoid scope, a short rigid instrument with a camera at its one end. He also dilates a stricture, or narrowing, in the passage of the colon and rectum using a balloon or other device.",CPT +45305,Endoscopy Procedures on the Rectum.,"In this procedure, the provider examines the inner part of the anus, rectum, and the sigmoid colon using a proctosigmoid scope, a short rigid instrument with a camera at its one end. He also takes one or more biopsies of tissue from the area.",CPT +45307,Endoscopy Procedures on the Rectum.,"In this procedure, the physician performs a lower GI tract proctosigmoidoscopy.",CPT +45308,Endoscopy Procedures on the Rectum.,"In this procedure, the provider examines the inner part of the anus, rectum, and the sigmoid colon using a proctosigmoid scope, a short rigid instrument with a camera at its one end. He then removes a single tumor, polyp, or other lesion using hot biopsy forceps or bipolar cautery.",CPT +45309,Endoscopy Procedures on the Rectum.,"In this procedure, the provider examines the inner part of the anus, rectum, and the sigmoid colon using a proctosigmoid scope, a short rigid instrument with a camera at its one end. He then removes a tumor, polyp, or other lesion using a snare technique.",CPT +45315,Endoscopy Procedures on the Rectum.,"In this procedure, the provider examines the inner part of the anus, rectum, and the sigmoid colon using a proctosigmoid scope, a short rigid instrument with a camera at its one end. He then removes multiple tumors, polyps, or other lesion using a combination of techniques such as hot biopsy forceps, bipolar cautery, or a snare.",CPT +45317,Endoscopy Procedures on the Rectum.,"In this procedure, the provider examines the inner part of the anus, rectum, and the sigmoid colon using a proctosigmoid scope, a short rigid instrument with a camera at its one end. He then controls the bleeding in the area using various methods like injection, bipolar cautery, unipolar cautery, laser, heater probe, stapler, or plasma coagulator.",CPT +45320,Endoscopy Procedures on the Rectum.,"In this procedure, the provider examines the inner part of the anus, rectum, and the sigmoid colon using a proctosigmoid scope, a shorter rigid instrument with a camera at its one end. He then ablates the tumor, polyp, or other lesion, which are difficult to treat even using techniques like hot biopsy forceps, bipolar cautery, or a snare.",CPT +45321,Endoscopy Procedures on the Rectum.,"In this procedure, the provider examines the inner part of the anus, rectum, and the sigmoid colon using a proctosigmoidoscope, a short rigid instrument with a camera at its one end. He then decompresses the volvulus, an abnormal twisting of the loop of the intestine, which causes a bowel obstruction.",CPT +45327,Endoscopy Procedures on the Rectum.,"In this procedure, the provider examines the inner part of the anus, rectum, and the sigmoid colon using a proctosigmoidoscope, a short rigid instrument with a camera at its one end. He then uses the channel in the scope to introduce a stent and then places the stent at the site of stricture, or abnormal narrowing.",CPT +45330,Endoscopy Procedures on the Rectum.,"The provider examines the rectum and sigmoid colon with a flexible sigmoidoscope, a tubular instrument with a light source and camera, to determine the cause for a patient's symptoms, such as diarrhea, constipation, or abdominal pain. He takes samples of any suspicious tissue by brushing or washing the area to collect cells for laboratory analysis.",CPT +45331,Endoscopy Procedures on the Rectum.,"In this procedure, the provider examines the inner part of the rectum and the sigmoid colon using a sigmoidoscope, a flexible, narrow tube with a camera at its one end. He then takes one or more biopsies from the colon.",CPT +45332,Endoscopy Procedures on the Rectum.,"The provider examines the rectum and colon using a flexible colonoscope, a tubular instrument with a light source and camera. He then identifies and removes foreign bodies that might obstruct or damage the intestine.",CPT +45333,Endoscopy Procedures on the Rectum.,"The provider examines the rectum and sigmoid colon using a flexible colonoscope, a tubular instrument with a light source and camera. He then identifies and removes one or more tumors, polyps, or other lesions using hot biopsy forceps.",CPT +45334,Endoscopy Procedures on the Rectum.,"The provider examines the rectum and sigmoid colon using a flexible colonoscope, a tubular instrument with a light source and camera to identify the source of internal bleeding. He controls the bleeding in the sigmoid colon by any method.",CPT +45335,Endoscopy Procedures on the Rectum.,The provider inserts a flexible endoscope into the anus and navigates the scope to the rectum and lower (sigmoid) colon. The provider performs one or more injections into the submucosa (the tissue below the mucous membrane).,CPT +45337,Endoscopy Procedures on the Rectum.,"The provider examines the rectum and the sigmoid colon using a sigmoidoscope, a flexible, narrow tube with a camera at its inserted end. If he finds a volvulus or megacolon, he introduces a stiff tube and decompresses it.",CPT +45338,Endoscopy Procedures on the Rectum.,"In this procedure, the provider examines the inner part of the anus, rectum, and the sigmoid colon using a flexible sigmoidoscope, a flexible, narrow tube with a camera at its one end. He then removes a single tumor, polyp, or other lesion using a snare technique.",CPT +45340,Endoscopy Procedures on the Rectum.,"In this procedure, the provider examines the anus, rectum, and the sigmoid colon using a sigmoidoscope, a flexible, narrow tube with a camera at its inserted end. He uses a channel in the scope to introduce a balloon catheter and inflates the balloon to dilate a stricture, or abnormal narrowing, of the colon.",CPT +45341,Endoscopy Procedures on the Rectum.,"In this procedure, the provider examines the inner part of the anus, rectum, and the sigmoid colon using a sigmoidoscope, a flexible, narrow tube with a camera at its one end.  He then uses the channel in the scope to introduce an ultrasound probe and performs an ultrasound examination of the colon.",CPT +45342,Endoscopy Procedures on the Rectum.,"In this procedure, the provider examines the inner part of the anus, rectum, and the sigmoid colon using a sigmoidscope, a flexible, narrow tube with a camera at its one end.  He then uses the channel in the scope to perform an ultrasound guided fine needle aspiration and or biopsy of abnormal tissue.",CPT +45346,Endoscopy Procedures on the Rectum.,"In this procedure, the provider uses a flexible sigmoidoscope to examine the sigmoid colon. She also ablates the polyp, tumor or any other lesion present. The procedure may include predilation and postdilation along with passage for a guide wire.",CPT +45347,Endoscopy Procedures on the Rectum.,"In this procedure, the provider examines the rectum and sigmoid colon via a sigmoidoscope. He also performs endoscopic introduction of a stent.",CPT +45349,Endoscopy Procedures on the Rectum.,"In this procedure, the provider performs mucosal resection using a flexible sigmoidoscope, a scope designed to examine the rectum and sigmoid colon.",CPT +45350,Endoscopy Procedures on the Rectum.,"In this procedure, the provider ligates a structure such as a hemorrhoid with a flexible band using a flexible sigmoidoscope, a scope designed to examine the rectum and sigmoid colon.",CPT +45378,Endoscopy Procedures on the Rectum.,"The provider examines the colon and rectum using a colonoscope, a flexible tube with a camera at its inserted end. If he sees any areas of abnormal mucosa or tissue, he takes samples using a brush passed through the scope or irrigates the area with warm saline and aspirates the washings through the scope. He sends the specimens to the laboratory for diagnostic analysis.",CPT +45379,Endoscopy Procedures on the Rectum.,"The provider examines the colon and rectum using a colonoscope, a tubular instrument with a light source and camera, which he inserts through the rectum to look for a blockage. He identifies and removes foreign bodies, such as swallowed objectives that could damage or obstruct the colon.",CPT +45380,Endoscopy Procedures on the Rectum.,"The provider examines the rectum and colon using a flexible colonoscope, a tubular instrument with a light source and camera, to look for the cause of a patient's symptoms, which may include diarrhea, constipation, rectal bleeding, or abdominal pain. He excises one or more suspicious areas of tissue using biopsy forceps and submits the specimens for laboratory analysis.",CPT +45381,Endoscopy Procedures on the Rectum.,The provider inserts a flexible endoscope into the anus and navigates the scope through the entire colon. The provider performs one or more injections into the submucosa (the tissue below the mucous membrane).,CPT +45382,Endoscopy Procedures on the Rectum.,"The provider examines the colon and rectum using a colonoscope, a tubular instrument with a light source and camera, to identify the source of internal bleeding. He then controls the bleeding in the colon by various methods.",CPT +45384,Endoscopy Procedures on the Rectum.,"The provider examines the rectum and colon using a flexible colonoscope, a tubular instrument with a light source and camera. He removes one or more tumors, polyps, or other lesions using hot biopsy forceps.",CPT +45385,Endoscopy Procedures on the Rectum.,"The provider examines the colon and rectum using a colonoscope, a long, thin flexible tubular instrument with a light source and camera. He removes one or more tumors, polyps, or other lesions with a snare, a wire loop that he passes around the base of the lesion and tightens it until the wire cuts through the lesion.",CPT +45386,Endoscopy Procedures on the Rectum.,"The provider examines the inner part of the colon and rectum using a colonoscope, a long, thin flexible tubular instrument with a light source and camera. He then uses a channel in the scope to introduce a balloon catheter and inflates the balloon to dilate one or more sites of stricture, an area of abnormal narrowing.",CPT +45388,Endoscopy Procedures on the Rectum.,"In this procedure, the provider performs flexible colonoscopy to destroy one or more tumors, polyps, or other lesions. The procedure includes, but does not require, guide wire passage and dilating the site before and after the procedure.",CPT +45389,Endoscopy Procedures on the Rectum.,"In this procedure, the provider performs flexible colonoscopy along with placing a stent using an endoscope. The procedure also includes, but does not require, guide wire passage and dilating the site before and after the procedure.",CPT +45390,Endoscopy Procedures on the Rectum.,The provider performs flexible colonoscopy along with excision of mucous membrane tissue using an endoscope.,CPT +45391,Endoscopy Procedures on the Rectum.,"The provider examines the part of the colon that includes the rectum, sigmoid, descending, transverse, or ascending colon, and cecum using a colonoscope, a long, thin flexible tubular instrument with a light source and camera. He uses a channel in the scope to introduce an ultrasound probe and performs an ultrasound examination of the colon. This endoscopic ultrasound examination helps the provider diagnose and stage colon cancer.",CPT +45392,Endoscopy Procedures on the Rectum.,"The provider uses a colonoscope, a flexible tubular instrument with a light source and camera, to examine the colon, rectum, sigmoid, descending, transverse, or ascending colon, the cecum, and adjacent structures. He then uses a channel in the scope to perform an ultrasound–guided fine needle aspiration or biopsy of abnormal tissue.",CPT +45393,Endoscopy Procedures on the Rectum.,The provider performs flexible colonoscopy and decompresses a dilated colon; he may leave a tube in place for continued decompression.,CPT +45395,Excisional Laparoscopic Procedures on the Rectum.,"The provider removes the entire rectum with the help of a laparoscope. After the resection of the rectum, he attaches the remaining end of the large intestine to the wall of the abdomen and creates an opening outside of the body.",CPT +45397,Excisional Laparoscopic Procedures on the Rectum.,"Using laparoscopic techniques, the provider removes the entire rectum, pulls up the anus and attaches it to the end of the colon, and creates a pouch of colon for collection of feces. In addition, he may incise the small intestine, attach it to the wall of the abdomen, and create an opening outside of the body to divert feces until the anastomosis has had time to heal.",CPT +45398,Endoscopy Procedures on the Rectum.,"During a flexible colonoscopy, the provider ligates a structure such as a hemorrhoid using a flexible band.",CPT +45399,Other Procedures on the Colon and Rectum.,Use this code to report a procedure on the colon for which there is no specific code available.,CPT +45400,Laparoscopic Repair Procedures on the Rectum.,In this procedure the provider treats rectal prolapse laparoscopically with sutures and mesh.,CPT +45402,Laparoscopic Repair Procedures on the Rectum.,"In this procedure, the provider treats rectal prolapse and removes part of the sigmoid colon repairing them both laparoscopically with sutures and mesh.",CPT +45499,Laparoscopic Repair Procedures on the Rectum.,Use to report laparoscopic procedures on the rectum that does not have a specific code.,CPT +45500,Repair Procedures on the Rectum.,In this procedure the provider releases a stenosis of the anorectal area by incising the scar tissue and repairing it with the flaps of nearby tissue.,CPT +45505,Repair Procedures on the Rectum.,"In this procedure, the provider excises a prolapsed mucosa of the rectum and repairs the defect with flaps of adjacent tissue.",CPT +45520,Repair Procedures on the Rectum.,"The provider injects a sclerosant, a chemical irritant, to treat prolapsed mucosa in the rectum.",CPT +45540,Repair Procedures on the Rectum.,In this service the provider makes an incision into the lower abdomen and treats rectal prolapse with sutures and mesh.,CPT +45541,Repair Procedures on the Rectum.,"In this service the provider makes an incision between the anus and scrotum if the patient is a male or between the anus and the vulva in a female patient, to treat rectal prolapse with sutures and mesh.",CPT +45550,Repair Procedures on the Rectum.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision into the lower abdomen and treats rectal prolapse with sutures and mesh. The provider also removes the redundant part of the sigmoid colon.",CPT +45560,Repair Procedures on the Rectum.,"In this procedure, the provider repairs a forward protrusion of the rectum into the vagina. The provider performs this service for a female patient most commonly due to the vaginal delivery of a more than average size baby.",CPT +45562,Repair Procedures on the Rectum.,"In this procedure, the provider incises the lower abdomen area to check for any injury to the rectum. He repairs the injury if found and drains any abscess or fluid in the presacral area, or in front of the sacral bone.",CPT +45563,Repair Procedures on the Rectum.,"In this procedure, the provider incises the lower abdomen area to check for any injury to the rectum. He repairs an injury if found and drains any abscess or fluid in the presacral area, or in front of the sacral bone. In addition, he creates a colostomy with the sigmoid colon on the surface of the abdomen, which allows time to heal the rectal injury.",CPT +45800,Repair Procedures on the Rectum.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision in the abdomen to close an abnormal opening between the rectum and the urinary bladder called a rectovesical fistula.",CPT +45805,Repair Procedures on the Rectum.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision in the abdomen to close an abnormal opening between the rectum and the urinary bladder called a rectovesical fistula. In addition, he creates a colostomy with the sigmoid colon on the surface of the abdomen, which allows the closure of the rectovesical fistula time to heal.",CPT +45820,Repair Procedures on the Rectum.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision in the abdomen to close an abnormal opening between the rectum and the urethra called a rectourethral fistula.",CPT +45825,Repair Procedures on the Rectum.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision in the abdomen to close an abnormal opening between the rectum and the urethra called a rectourethral fistula. In addition, he creates a colostomy with the sigmoid colon on the surface of the abdomen, which allows the closure of rectourethral fistula time to heal.",CPT +45900,Manipulation Procedures on the Rectum.,"In this procedure, the provider reduces a rectal prolapse with the patient under general anesthesia, by manually pushing it inside the anal canal.",CPT +45905,Manipulation Procedures on the Rectum.,"In this procedure, the provider manually dilates a stricture of the anal canal with the patient under anesthesia but other than a local anesthetic.",CPT +45910,Manipulation Procedures on the Rectum.,"In this procedure, the provider manually, dilates a stricture of the rectum with the patient under anesthesia but other than a local anesthetic.",CPT +45915,Manipulation Procedures on the Rectum.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a foreign body or fecal impaction from the rectal area with the patient under anesthesia.",CPT +45990,Other Procedures on the Colon and Rectum.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a diagnostic anorectal examination, or an exam of the anus and rectum, with the patient under anesthesia. He may also perform a procedure as necessary to treat any condition he finds.",CPT +45999,Other Procedures on the Colon and Rectum.,Use to report a procedure on the rectum that does not have a specific code.,CPT +46020,Incision Procedures on the Anus.,This procedure is the placement of an anal seton.,CPT +46030,Incision Procedures on the Anus.,"In this procedure, the provider removes an anal seton or other marker already in place for treatment of an anal fistula.",CPT +46040,Incision Procedures on the Anus.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision around the anal canal to access the abscess and drains it by incising the abscess pockets present around the rectum and or area between rectum and pelvic bone called an ischiorectal pocket, or fossa.",CPT +46045,Incision Procedures on the Anus.,"In this procedure, the provider incises and drains the pus from an abscess of the rectum or nearby area at different layers of the tissue by accessing it through the anal canal. He performs this procedure with the patient under anesthesia.",CPT +46050,Incision Procedures on the Anus.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision and drains a superficial abscess located near the anal canal.",CPT +46060,Incision Procedures on the Anus.,"In this procedure, the provider incises and drains the abscess around the rectal area that may be present in different rectal tissue layers and locations. He also treats an anal fistula, and he may place a seton in the fistula tract.",CPT +46070,Incision Procedures on the Anus.,"In this procedure, the provider incises a congenital membrane present in the anal opening of an infant.",CPT +46080,Incision Procedures on the Anus.,"In this procedure, the provider incises the anal sphincter to release a contracture of the anal opening.",CPT +46083,Incision Procedures on the Anus.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision in an external hemorrhoid to remove a thrombus, or blood clot, and relieve pain.",CPT +46200,Excision Procedures on the Anus.,"In this procedure, the provider incises and removes an anal fissure and may incise the anal sphincter to treat an anal fissure.",CPT +46220,Excision Procedures on the Anus.,"In this procedure, the provider removes an external abnormal growth, known as an external papilla or skin tag, from the anal area. A provider removes these lesions as they are often associated with the external edge of an anal fissure or fistula.",CPT +46221,Excision Procedures on the Anus.,"In this procedure, the provider ligates, or ties off, the base of a hemorrhoid inside the rectum with a rubber band. The provider performs this procedure to let the hemorrhoid dry out due to a lack of a blood supply, and shed itself over time.",CPT +46230,Excision Procedures on the Anus.,"In this procedure, the provider removes multiple external abnormal growths, known as external papilla or skin tags, from the anal area. A provider removes these lesions as they are often associated with the external edge of an anal fissure or fistula.",CPT +46250,Excision Procedures on the Anus.,"In this procedure, the provider excises two or more external hemorrhoids or hemorrhoid groups.",CPT +46255,Excision Procedures on the Anus.,"In this procedure, the provider excises a single internal and external hemorrhoid or hemorrhoid group.",CPT +46257,Excision Procedures on the Anus.,"In this procedure, the provider excises a single internal and external hemorrhoids group. In addition he removes an open sore of the lower rectum, known as a fissure.",CPT +46258,Excision Procedures on the Anus.,"In this procedure, the provider excises a single internal and external hemorrhoid group. In addition, he removes, a fistula, or an abnormal connection between structures, and he removes an open sore of the lower rectum known as a fissure.",CPT +46260,Excision Procedures on the Anus.,"In this procedure, the provider excises two or more internal and external hemorrhoids or hemorrhoid groups.",CPT +46261,Excision Procedures on the Anus.,"In this procedure, the provider excises two or more internal and external hemorrhoids or hemorrhoid groups. In addition, he removes an open sore of the lower rectum, known as a fissure.",CPT +46262,Excision Procedures on the Anus.,"In this procedure, the provider excises two or more columns or groups of internal and external hemorrhoids. In addition, he removes a fistula and he may remove an open sore of the lower rectum known as a fissure.",CPT +46270,Excision Procedures on the Anus.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision over the skin where a fistula is present and either removes or incises the fistula tract for treatment.",CPT +46275,Excision Procedures on the Anus.,"In this procedure, the provider treats an anal fistula, which passes in between the internal sphincter and may extend downward to the perianal skin.",CPT +46280,Excision Procedures on the Anus.,"In this procedure, the provider treats multiple or complex fistula found in the high anal areas of the suprasphincteric, high transsphincteric, or extrasphincteric regions of the anal canal, or he may treat multiple anorectal fistulas where the fistula tract runs closer to the anorectal ring.  The provider may also place a seton during this procedure.",CPT +46285,Excision Procedures on the Anus.,"In this procedure, the provider performs the second stage of a fistula treatment in the case of a severe fistula, for which it is not feasible to treat in a single session.",CPT +46288,Excision Procedures on the Anus.,"In this procedure, the provider excises a fistula and repairs the remaining defect by placing nearby tissue over the defect. The provider typically uses a flap in patients with high transsphincteric or suprasphincteric fistulas or for patients with complicated fistulas.",CPT +46320,Excision Procedures on the Anus.,"In this procedure, the provider excises an external thrombosed hemorrhoid, which is a swollen vein or a group of veins containing blood, located in the anal canal distal to the dentate line.",CPT +46500,Introduction Procedures on the Anus.,The provider injects a sclerosing solution into the submucosa of the lower part of the anus under a hemorrhoid. This procedure helps in reducing blood flow to the area and causes the hemorrhoid to shrink in size.,CPT +46505,Introduction Procedures on the Anus.,"The provider performs chemodenervation, a procedure in which he injects a substance into the anal sphincter, a muscular ring surrounding the tip of the anus. This substance interrupts the signal that the nerve normally sends and stops a muscle spasm in the sphincter.",CPT +46600,Endoscopy Procedures on the Anus.,"The provider performs an anoscopy, or an examination of the anus using a small, rigid, tubular instrument called an anoscope. He collects samples for analysis by brushing or washing the anal canal. He sends the samples to the laboratory for diagnostic analysis.",CPT +46601,Endoscopy Procedures on the Anus.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a diagnostic anoscopy, an examination of the anus using a small, tubular instrument called an anoscope. She uses high resolution magnification and chemical agent enhancement to improve visibility. The provider may collect a specimen or specimens of the affected tissues by brushing or washing.",CPT +46604,Endoscopy Procedures on the Anus.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an anoscopy, or an examination of the anus using a small, rigid, tubular instrument called an anoscope. He also dilates any narrowing of the anal cavity using a balloon, guidewire, or bougie.",CPT +46606,Endoscopy Procedures on the Anus.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an anoscopy, or an examination using a small, rigid, tubular instrument called an anoscope. He also removes tissue samples from the inside of the anus for diagnostic purposes.",CPT +46607,Endoscopy Procedures on the Anus.,"In this procedure, the provider performs anoscopy, an examination of the anus using a small, tubular instrument called an anoscope. He uses high resolution magnification and chemical agent enhancement to improve visibility. The provider collects a specimen or specimens of the affected tissues via biopsy.",CPT +46608,Endoscopy Procedures on the Anus.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an anoscopy or an examination using a small, rigid, tubular instrument called an anoscope. He also removes a foreign body from the inside of the anus.",CPT +46610,Endoscopy Procedures on the Anus.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an anoscopy, or an examination using a small, rigid, tubular instrument called an anoscope. He also removes a single tumor, polyp, or lesion using hot biopsy or bipolar cautery techniques.",CPT +46611,Endoscopy Procedures on the Anus.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an anoscopy, or an examination using a small, rigid, tubular instrument called an anoscope. He removes a single tumor, polyp, or lesion using a snare technique in which the provider passes a snare over the polyp or tumor and around its stalk. He then tightens the loop of the snare to grip the stalk, and pulls the polyp or tumor away from the wall of the anus.",CPT +46612,Endoscopy Procedures on the Anus.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an anoscopy, or an examination using a small, rigid, tubular instrument called an anoscope. He then removes multiple tumors, polyps, or lesions using hot biopsy, bipolar cautery, or a snare technique.",CPT +46614,Endoscopy Procedures on the Anus.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an anoscopy, or an examination using a small, rigid, tubular instrument called an anoscope. He identifies and controls bleeding using an injection, bipolar or unipolar cautery, a laser, heat probe, stapler, or plasma coagulator.",CPT +46615,Endoscopy Procedures on the Anus.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an anoscopy, or an examination using a small, rigid, tubular instrument called an anoscope. He removes tumors, polyps, or lesions using a method other than hot biopsy forceps, bipolar cautery, or the snare technique.",CPT +46700,Repair Procedures on the Anus.,"The provider performs an anoplasty, a surgical procedure to treat a stricture (narrowing) of the anus in adults.",CPT +46705,Repair Procedures on the Anus.,"The provider performs an anoplasty, a surgical procedure to treat the stricture (narrowing) of the anus of an infant.",CPT +46706,Repair Procedures on the Anus.,"The provider repairs an anal fistula by inserting fibrin glue into the fistula, which is a small tunnel or tract with an internal opening in the anal canal and an external opening in the skin near the anus.",CPT +46707,Repair Procedures on the Anus.,"The provider repairs an anorectal fistula, which is an abnormal opening between the anus and rectum. This often occurs after previous abdominal surgery but may also be a congenital condition from birth, and can also occur due to trauma, infection, or other conditions. In this procedure, the provider uses a piece of tissue to close the opening.",CPT +46710,Repair Procedures on the Anus.,"In this procedure, the provider repairs an ileoanal pouch fistula or sinus by pouch advancement through the perineum. The provider commonly constructs an ileoanal pouch for patients who have had their large intestine surgically removed due to diseases like ulcerative colitis, Crohn's disease, colon cancer, or injury.",CPT +46712,Repair Procedures on the Anus.,"In this procedure, the provider repairs an ileoanal pouch fistula or sinus by pouch advancement through the perineum and abdomen. The provider commonly constructs an ileoanal pouch for patients who have had their large intestine surgically removed due to diseases like ulcerative colitis, Crohn's disease, colon cancer or injury.",CPT +46715,Repair Procedures on the Anus.,"In this procedure, the provider repairs a low imperforate anus, or malformed anus. He also closes an anoperineal fistula, creates an anal opening, and repositions the rectal pouch into the anal opening.",CPT +46716,Repair Procedures on the Anus.,"In this procedure, the provider repairs a low imperforate anus or malformed anus. He also closes an anoperineal or anovestibular fistula, creates a new anal opening, and repositions the rectal pouch into the anal opening.",CPT +46730,Repair Procedures on the Anus.,"In this procedure, the provider repairs a high imperforate anus, a malformation where the rectal opening is not present. This procedure is done for this type of malformation of the anus, which does not have a fistula. The provider performs this procedure by either perineal or sacroperineal approach.",CPT +46735,Repair Procedures on the Anus.,"In this procedure, the provider repairs a high imperforate anus, a malformation where the rectal opening is not present. This procedure is done for this malformation of the anus when it does not have a fistula. The provider performs this procedure by combining both a transabdominal and sacroperineal approaches.",CPT +46740,Repair Procedures on the Anus.,"In this procedure, the provider repairs a high imperforate anus, a malformation where the rectal opening is not present. This procedure is done for a patient that has this malformation of the anus along with a rectourethral or rectovaginal fistula. The provider performs this procedure using either a perineal or sacroperineal approach.",CPT +46742,Repair Procedures on the Anus.,"In this procedure, the provider repairs a high imperforate anus, a malformation where the rectal opening is not present. This procedure is done for a patient with this malformed anus along with a rectourethral or rectovaginal fistula. The provider performs this procedure combining both a transabdominal and sacroperineal approach.",CPT +46744,Repair Procedures on the Anus.,The provider repairs a cloacal anomaly using a surgical technique to repair a female anorectal and vaginal defect or malformation. He also repairs any injury to the urethral wall. The provider uses a sacroperineal approach to perform this procedure.,CPT +46746,Repair Procedures on the Anus.,The provider repairs a cloacal anomaly using a surgical technique to repair a female anorectal and vaginal defect or malformation. He also repairs any injury to the urethral wall. He combines both an abdominal and sacroperineal approach to perform this procedure.,CPT +46748,Repair Procedures on the Anus.,"The provider repairs a cloacal anomaly using a surgical technique to repair a female anorectal and vaginal defect or malformation, and he also repairs any injury to the urethral wall. The provider combines an abdominal and sacroperineal approach to perform this procedure. He also lengthens the vagina using a graft or pedicle flaps.",CPT +46750,Repair Procedures on the Anus.,"The provider performs an anal sphincteroplasty, which is the reconstruction of the anal sphincter. The provider performs this procedure in patients with fecal incontinence or prolapse.",CPT +46751,Repair Procedures on the Anus.,"In this procedure, the provider reconstructs the anal sphincter of a child. The provider performs this procedure to repair a defect or tear in this muscular covering of the anal canal in a child with incontinence or prolapse.",CPT +46753,Repair Procedures on the Anus.,"The provider performs a Thiersch operation, in which he places a skin graft, suture, or steel wire around the anal canal to treat rectal incontinence or prolapse.",CPT +46754,Repair Procedures on the Anus.,"The provider removes a suture, or wire from the anal canal from a previous placement during a Thiersch procedure. The suture or wire was originally put in place to treat rectal incontinence or prolapse.",CPT +46760,Repair Procedures on the Anus.,"The provider reconstructs the anal sphincter of an adult patient in a procedure known as a sphincteroplasty. In this procedure, he performs a muscle transplant to repair the sphincter muscle. The provider performs this procedure in the event of injury or damage to the anal canal or for fecal incontinence.",CPT +46761,Repair Procedures on the Anus.,"The provider reconstructs the anal sphincter of an adult patient. In this procedure, he covers the damaged anal sphincter muscles with the levator muscle. The provider performs this procedure in the event of an injury or damage to the anal canal, for fecal incontinence, or failure of a prior treatment.",CPT +46900,Destruction Procedures on the Anus.,"The provider performs a simple chemical destruction of an anal lesion, such as a condyloma, papilloma, molluscum contagiosum, or herpetic vesicle.",CPT +46910,Destruction Procedures on the Anus.,"The provider destroys an anal lesion, such as a condyloma, papilloma, molluscum contagiosum, or herpetic vesicle using heat from an electric current to cauterize, or burn the lesions.",CPT +46916,Destruction Procedures on the Anus.,"The provider destroys an anal lesion, such as a condyloma, papilloma, molluscum contagiosum, or herpetic vesicle using cold substances such as liquid nitrogen or carbon dioxide.",CPT +46917,Destruction Procedures on the Anus.,"The provider destroys an anal lesion, such as a condyloma, papilloma, molluscum contagiosum, or herpetic vesicle using a laser.",CPT +46922,Destruction Procedures on the Anus.,"The provider destroys an anal lesion, such as a condyloma, papilloma, molluscum contagiosum, or herpetic vesicle via surgical excision.",CPT +46924,Destruction Procedures on the Anus.,"The provider performs extensive destruction of an anal lesion, such as a condyloma, papilloma, molluscum contagiosum, or herpetic vesicle via techniques such as laser, electric current, cold, or chemical substances.",CPT +46930,Destruction Procedures on the Anus.,"The provider destroys internal hemorrhoids by thermal techniques such as infrared coagulation, cauterization, or radiofrequency.",CPT +46940,Destruction Procedures on the Anus.,"The provider either scrapes off or burns an anal fissure. During this service, he also dilates the anal sphincter. By performing this separate dilation procedure, the provider reduces anal canal pressure. This code represents an initial procedure.",CPT +46942,Destruction Procedures on the Anus.,"The provider either scrapes off or burns an anal fissure. During this service, he also dilates the anal sphincter. By performing this separate dilation procedure, the provider reduces anal canal pressure. This code represents a subsequent procedure after an initial attempt.",CPT +46945,Excision Procedures on the Anus.,"In this procedure, the provider performs one of many techniques other than a rubber band technique to remove a single hemorrhoid or group. A hemorrhoid is a small swollen vessel in the rectum or anus. Report this code when hemorrhoidectomy is performed without imaging guidance.",CPT +46946,Excision Procedures on the Anus.,The provider performs one of many techniques other than the rubber band technique to remove two or more hemorrhoids or groups. Hemorrhoids are small swollen vessels in the rectum or anus.,CPT +46947,Repair Procedures on the Anus.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically removes an abnormally enlarged hemorrhoidal tissue, then repositions the remaining hemorrhoidal tissue back to its normal position and staples the tissue in place.",CPT +46948,Excision Procedures on the Anus.,"Using minimally invasive, techniques, the provider cuts off the blood supply to 2 or more hemorrhoid columns or groups under ultrasound guidance; in addition, he may repair prolapsing mucosa (mucopexy) by plicating it.",CPT +46999,Other Procedures on the Anus.,Use to report procedures of the anus that do not have a specific code.,CPT +47000,Incision Procedures on the Liver.,"The provider removes a small sample of tissue from the liver through a small incision in the skin. The provider commonly performs this service to diagnose liver disease, to assess the severity of a known liver disease, and to monitor the progress of treatment. The provider may perform a liver biopsy to diagnose a liver condition such as jaundice.",CPT +47001,Incision Procedures on the Liver.,"In this add on procedure, the provider performs a liver biopsy, or the removal of a small tissue sample from the liver, at the same time as another primary procedure. The provider commonly performs this service to diagnose liver disease, to assess the severity of a known liver disease, and to monitor the progress of treatment.",CPT +47010,Incision Procedures on the Liver.,"The provider performs a hepatotomy, or an incision into the liver. The provider performs this procedure to drain an abscess or a cyst. The procedure may occur in one or two stages.",CPT +47015,Incision Procedures on the Liver.,"The provider performs a laparotomy, a surgical procedure involving an incision through the abdominal wall to gain access into the abdominal cavity; also known as a coeliotomy. The provider aspirates or injects liver parasites such as amoeba, or echinococci cysts or abscesses.",CPT +47100,Excision Procedures on the Liver.,"The provider performs an excisional liver biopsy, in which she takes out a wedge shaped section of liver tissue with a needle or surgical knife. The provider commonly performs this service to diagnose liver disease, to assess the severity of a known liver disease, and to monitor the progress of treatment.",CPT +47120,Excision Procedures on the Liver.,"The provider performs a hepatectomy, or the surgical resection of a portion of the liver. She also partially resects a lobe of the liver. The provider performs this procedure for the treatment of both a benign or malignant hepatic neoplasm.",CPT +47122,Excision Procedures on the Liver.,"The provider performs a hepatectomy, or the surgical resection of a section of the liver. She also performs a trisegmentectomy in which she resects large lesions from three segments of the left hepatic lobe along with the anterior segment of the right liver. The provider performs this procedure for the treatment of both benign or malignant hepatic neoplasm.",CPT +47125,Excision Procedures on the Liver.,"The provider performs a hepatectomy, or the surgical resection of a portion of the liver. She also totally resects the left lobe of the liver. The provider may perform this procedure because of metastatic cancer, hepatic adenomas, a large hemangioma, or massive trauma to the liver.",CPT +47130,Excision Procedures on the Liver.,"The provider performs a hepatectomy, or the surgical resection of a portion of the liver. She also totally resects the right lobe of the liver. The provider may perform this procedure because of metastatic cancer, hepatic adenomas, a large hemangioma, or massive trauma to the liver.",CPT +47133,Liver Transplantation Procedures.,"The provider performs a donor hepatectomy, or the surgical resection of the liver from a cadaver donor. The provider keeps the liver in cold preservation until the provider transplants the liver into the body of a recipient in a separate procedure.",CPT +47135,Liver Transplantation Procedures.,"The provider performs an allotransplantation of a liver, where she transfers a part or the entire liver from a donor individual to a recipient patient. In this procedure, the provider transfers either part of or the complete liver to the usual anatomic position. The donor may be a cadaver or a living donor of any age.",CPT +47140,Liver Transplantation Procedures.,"The provider performs a donor hepatectomy, or the surgical resection of the liver from a living donor. The provider resects the second and third left lateral segments only. She keeps the liver in a cold preservation until the provider transplants the liver into the body of a recipient in a separate procedure.",CPT +47141,Liver Transplantation Procedures.,"The provider performs a donor hepatectomy, or the surgical resection of the liver from a living donor. The provider totally resects the entire left lobe. She keeps the liver in cold preservation until she transplants the liver into the body of a recipient in a separate procedure.",CPT +47142,Liver Transplantation Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider harvests the right lobe of the liver from a living donor to be used in a separately reportable transplant into the recipient.",CPT +47143,Liver Transplantation Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs backbench standard preparation of a liver from a cadaver donor before transplantation. The procedure includes removing the gallbladder, if needed, and removal of surrounding soft tissues. She also prepares the vena cava, portal vein, hepatic artery, and common bile duct for the liver transplant. The provider does not split the liver into multiple grafts.",CPT +47144,Liver Transplantation Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a backbench standard preparation of a liver from a cadaver donor before transplantation. The procedure includes removing the gallbladder, if needed, and removal of surrounding soft tissues. She also prepares the vena cava, portal vein, hepatic artery, and common bile duct for liver transplant. The provider separates left side segments II and III from right side segments I, IV, V, VI, VII, and VIII to prepare two allografts for the transplant.",CPT +47145,Liver Transplantation Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs backbench standard preparation of a liver from a cadaver donor before transplantation. The procedure includes removing the gallbladder, if needed, and removal of surrounding soft tissues. He also prepares the vena cava, portal vein, hepatic artery, and common bile duct for the liver transplant. The provider separates segments II, III, and IV of the left lobe of the liver from segments I and V to VIII of the right lobe to prepare two allografts in the procedure.",CPT +47146,Liver Transplantation Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider attaches a vein graft to a vein segment on a liver graft. The goal is to provide a single vein of adequate length for anastomosis to the recipient patient’s vein.",CPT +47147,Liver Transplantation Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider attaches an artery graft to an artery segment on the liver graft. The goal is to provide a single artery of adequate length for anastomosis to the recipient patient’s artery.",CPT +47300,Repair Procedures on the Liver.,"In this procedure, the provider incises and drains the cyst or abscess from the liver. He then creates a sort of pouch from the cyst or abscess walls so it can continue to drain.",CPT +47350,Repair Procedures on the Liver.,"In this procedure, the provider repairs any site of hemorrhage in the liver using simple repair.",CPT +47360,Repair Procedures on the Liver.,"In this procedure, the provider repairs any site of hemorrhage in the liver using complex repair procedures.",CPT +47361,Repair Procedures on the Liver.,"In this procedure the provider controls a liver hemorrhage by methods such as debriding the affected site of the liver, encouraging clotting, and closing the site with sutures or staples.",CPT +47362,Repair Procedures on the Liver.,"In this procedure, the provider enters the prior incision created to control the liver hemorrhage, removes the clots and packing, and checks for any bleeding.",CPT +47370,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Liver.,"In this procedure, the provider uses radiofrequency ablation via laparoscope to destroy one or more tumors present in the liver.",CPT +47371,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Liver.,"In this procedure, the provider uses cryosurgery, a freezing technique, via laparoscope to destroy one or more tumors present in the liver.",CPT +47379,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Liver.,Use to report laparoscopic procedures of the liver that do not have a specific code.,CPT +47380,Other Procedures on the Liver.,"In this procedure, the provider uses an open approach to ablate one or more tumors in the liver using radiofrequency.",CPT +47381,Other Procedures on the Liver.,"In this procedure, the provider ablates one or more tumors in the liver by freezing. He performs the cryosurgery through an open approach.",CPT +47382,Other Procedures on the Liver.,The provider uses radiofrequency to ablate one or more tumors in the liver using a minimally invasive approach through the skin.,CPT +47383,Other Procedures on the Liver.,"In this procedure, the provider ablates one or more tumors in the liver using a freezing technique called cryosurgery. She performs the cryosurgery through a percutaneous approach, meaning through the skin.",CPT +47399,Other Procedures on the Liver.,Use to report procedures in the liver that do not have a specific code.,CPT +47400,Incision Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,"In this procedure, the provider incises the hepatic duct to examine it, remove stones, or place a tube for the drainage of fluid.",CPT +47420,Incision Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,"In this procedure, the provider identifies and incises the common bile duct. He may examine the structure, remove a stone, or place a tube in the duct to encourage drainage of fluid.",CPT +47425,Incision Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,"In this procedure, the provider identifies and incises the common bile duct. She may examine the structure, remove a stone, or place a tube in the duct to encourage drainage of fluid. The provider incises the sphincter of Oddi where the duct enters the small intestine for reasons such as improving the drainage.",CPT +47460,Incision Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,"In this procedure, the provider incises the sphincter of Oddi where the duct enters the small intestine for reasons such as improving the drainage.",CPT +47480,Incision Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,"In this procedure, the provider identifies and incises the gallbladder to examine it, remove a stone, or perform drainage.",CPT +47490,Introduction Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,The provider uses a minimally invasive percutaneous approach to create an opening in the gallbladder and place a catheter.,CPT +47531,Introduction Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,"In this procedure, the provider performs the injection for cholangiography, a radiological procedure to image the inside of the bile ducts, using an already existing percutaneous (through the skin) route, using ultrasound (an imaging technique that uses high–frequency sound waves) and/or fluoroscopy (live X–ray) images displayed on a video screen to guide the injection.",CPT +47532,Introduction Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,"In this procedure, the provider injects contrast for cholangiography, a radiological procedure to image the inside of the bile ducts, using ultrasound (an imaging technique that uses high frequency sound waves) and/or fluoroscopy (live X–ray) images displayed on a video screen to guide the injection, after creating a new access route. The procedure includes all radiological supervision and interpretation.",CPT +47533,Introduction Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,"The provider places a catheter through the skin (percutaneous placement) into the bile ducts to allow external drainage of bile, a substance produced in the liver and stored in the gallbladder that helps break down food. He performs this procedure using image guidance such as ultrasound and/or fluoroscopy, imaging technologies that display live images on a video monitor. He may also perform diagnostic cholangiography, a radiological procedure to image the inside of the bile ducts by injecting a contrast dye into the bile ducts.",CPT +47534,Introduction Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,"The provider places a catheter through the skin (percutaneous placement) into the bile ducts to allow internal and external drainage of bile, a substance produced in the liver and stored in the gallbladder that helps break down food. He performs this procedure using image guidance such as ultrasound and/or fluoroscopy, technologies that display live images on a video monitor. He may also perform cholangiography, a radiological procedure to image the inside of the bile ducts by injecting a contrast dye into the bile ducts.",CPT +47535,Introduction Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,"The provider converts an external drainage catheter to an internal–external drainage catheter to allow internal and external drainage of bile, a substance produced in the liver and stored in the gallbladder that helps break down food. He uses a percutaneous, or through the skin, access route and performs the procedure using image guidance such as ultrasound and/or fluoroscopy, imaging technologies that display live images on a video monitor. He may also perform cholangiography, a radiological procedure to image the inside of the bile ducts by injecting a contrast dye into the bile ducts.",CPT +47536,Introduction Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,"The provider exchanges an external or internal–external biliary drainage catheter or converts an internal–external catheter to external only to allow drainage of bile, a substance produced in the liver and stored in the gallbladder that helps break down food. He uses a percutaneous, or through the skin, access route and performs the procedure using image guidance such as ultrasound and/or fluoroscopy, imaging technologies that display live images on a video monitor. He may also perform cholangiography, a radiological procedure to image the inside of the bile ducts by injecting a contrast dye into the bile ducts. This procedure includes all radiological supervision and interpretation.",CPT +47537,Introduction Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,"The provider removes a biliary drainage catheter using image guidance such as ultrasound and/or fluoroscopy, imaging technologies that display live images on a video monitor, from a patient who may have biliary stents that need to remain in place to keep the bile ducts open. He may also perform cholangiography. The procedure includes all associated radiological supervision and interpretation.",CPT +47538,Introduction Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,"The provider places a stent, a tubelike device that keeps the bile duct open, through an existing percutaneous access (a small incision in the patient’s skin). The procedure may include cholangiography, a radiological procedure to image the inside of the biliary tract by injecting contrast dye into the bile ducts; imaging guidance with fluoroscopy and/or ultrasound, imaging technologies that display live images on a video monitor; widening or expanding (dilation) the ducts with a balloon catheter; and removal and/or exchange of a catheter. It also includes all associated radiological supervision and interpretation.",CPT +47539,Introduction Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,"The provider places a stent, a tubelike device that keeps the bile duct open, through a new percutaneous access route (a small incision in the patient’s skin). He does not place a separate drainage catheter. The procedure may include cholangiography, a radiological procedure to image the inside of the bile ducts by injecting a contrast dye into the bile ducts; imaging guidance with fluoroscopy and/or ultrasound, imaging technologies that display live images on a video monitor; widening or expanding (dilation) the ducts with a balloon catheter; and removal and/or exchange of the catheter. The procedure also includes all associated radiological supervision and interpretation.",CPT +47540,Introduction Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,"The provider places a stent, a tubelike device that keeps the bile duct open, through a new percutaneous access (a small incision in the patient’s skin) and also places a separate drainage catheter. The procedure may include cholangiography, a radiological procedure to image the inside of the bile ducts by injecting a contrast dye into the bile ducts; imaging guidance with fluoroscopy and/or ultrasound, imaging technologies that display live images on a video monitor; widening or expanding (dilation) the ducts with a balloon catheter; and removal and/or exchange of the catheter. The procedure also includes all radiological supervision and interpretation.",CPT +47541,Introduction Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,"The provider creates a new percutaneous (through the skin) access through the biliary tract and into the small intestine using ultrasound and/or fluoroscopy, imaging technologies that display live images on a video monitor. He performs this procedure because access could not be established during an initial attempt at an endoscopic biliary procedure. He may also perform diagnostic cholangiography, a radiological procedure to image the inside of the bile ducts by injecting a contrast dye into the bile ducts. The procedure also includes all associated radiological supervision and interpretation.",CPT +47542,Introduction Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,"The provider performs balloon dilation (widening) of the biliary duct or surgical repair and reconstruction (sphincteroplasty) of the ampulla of Vater (also known as the hepatopancreatic ampulla, the union of the pancreatic duct and the common bile duct). The provider performs this procedure using image guidance, such as fluoroscopy, an X–ray technology that displays live images on a video monitor. The procedure includes all radiological supervision and interpretation.",CPT +47543,Introduction Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,"The provider obtains tissue or cells for diagnostic analysis (biopsy) from the bile ducts and/or gallbladder. The provider can use various biopsy methods, such as brush, forceps, and/or needle. The provider performs this procedure using image guidance (live, real–time video monitoring). The procedure includes radiological supervision and interpretation.",CPT +47544,Introduction Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,"The provider inserts a catheter percutaneously (through a small incision in the skin) and removes debris or stonelike material (calculi) from the biliary ducts and/or gallbladder, a small pear shaped organ behind the liver that stores bile. The provider can use various methods to destroy the gallstones. The provider performs this procedure using image guidance, such as fluoroscopy, an X–ray technology that displays live images on a video monitor. The procedure includes radiological supervision and interpretation.",CPT +47550,Endoscopy Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,"The provider inserts a biliary endoscope, or choledochoscope, a tubular instrument with a light source and camera, into the ducts of the biliary system, during a gallbladder surgery to detect any abnormality or blockage.",CPT +47552,Endoscopy Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,"The provider uses an endoscope to perform a diagnostic examination of the biliary tract. If she collects one or more specimens by brushing or washing, that is also included in this code.",CPT +47553,Endoscopy Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,"In this procedure, the provider uses a biliary endoscope, or choledochoscope, a tubular instrument with a light source and camera, to visualize the biliary ducts for any abnormality or defect and obtain a sample of tissue for diagnostic purposes. She inserts the choledochoscope through an existing tube in the abdominal wall, placed in association with another procedure.",CPT +47554,Endoscopy Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,"In this procedure, the provider uses a biliary endoscope, or choledochoscope, a tubular instrument with a light source and camera, to visualize the biliary ducts for blockage and extracts one or more stones or calculi. She inserts the choledochoscope through an existing tube in the abdominal wall, placed in association with another procedure.",CPT +47555,Endoscopy Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,"In this procedure, the provider uses a biliary endoscope, or choledochoscope, a tubular instrument with a light source and camera, to visualize the biliary ducts and dilate, or widen, a narrowed portion of the duct to prevent a blockage but does not leave a stent, a small tube, in place to hold it open. She inserts the choledochoscope through an existing tube in the abdominal wall, placed in association with another procedure.",CPT +47556,Endoscopy Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,"In this procedure, the provider uses a biliary endoscope, or choledochoscope, a tubular instrument with a light source and camera, to visualize the biliary ducts and dilate, or widen, a narrowed portion of the duct to prevent a blockage and leaves a small tube, or stent, in place to keep the passage open. She inserts the choledochoscope through an existing tube in the abdominal wall, placed in association with another procedure.",CPT +47562,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,"The provider removes the gallbladder through a laparoscope, a tubular instrument with a light source and camera inserted through the abdominal wall, to treat gallbladder disease.",CPT +47563,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,"The provider removes the gallbladder through a laparoscope, a tubular instrument with a light source and camera inserted through the abdominal wall, to treat gallbladder disease. She injects dye and views the biliary ducts using X–ray images.",CPT +47564,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,"The provider removes the gallbladder through a laparoscope, a tubular instrument with a light source and camera inserted through the abdominal wall, to treat gallbladder disease. She explores the common bile duct to check for stones and ensure free passage of bile.",CPT +47570,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,"In this procedure, the provider connects the gallbladder directly to the small intestine to permit drainage of bile when an obstruction in the common bile duct cannot be resolved. She uses a laparoscope, a tubular instrument with a light source and camera inserted through the abdominal wall, to perform the procedure.",CPT +47579,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,Use to report laparoscopic procedures in the biliary tract that do not have a specific code.,CPT +47600,Excision Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,"In this procedure, the provider removes the gallbladder, a small pear shaped organ that lies behind the liver, responsible for storage of bile, to treat gallbladder disease.",CPT +47605,Excision Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,"In this procedure, the provider removes the gallbladder, a small pear shaped organ that lies behind the liver, responsible for storage of bile, to treat gallbladder disease. He injects dye to view the biliary ducts using X–ray images.",CPT +47610,Excision Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,"In this procedure, the provider removes the gallbladder, a small pear shaped organ that lies behind the liver, responsible for storage of bile, to treat gallbladder disease. He explores the common bile duct to check for stones and ensure free passage of bile.",CPT +47612,Excision Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,"In this procedure, the provider removes the gallbladder, a small pear shaped organ that lies behind the liver, responsible for storage of bile, to treat gallbladder disease. He explores the common bile duct and finding a blockage that he cannot clear, he makes a new connection between the common bile duct and the small intestine to ensure free passage of bile.",CPT +47620,Excision Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,"In this procedure, the provider removes the gallbladder and explores the common duct that carries bile to the small intestine. He repairs the sphincter of Oddi, the muscular valve that controls the flow of bile to the small intestine. He may inject dye and use X–rays to visualize the biliary ducts.",CPT +47700,Excision Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,"In this procedure, the provider explores the biliary system in a patient born with absent or malformed bile ducts, without making any repairs. He may take a sample of liver tissue for diagnostic purposes. He may inject dye and use X–rays to visualize the biliary ducts.",CPT +47701,Excision Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,"In this procedure, the provider attaches a portion of the small intestine to the surface of the liver where bile normally drains as a substitute for blocked or malformed bile ducts in congenital biliary atresia.",CPT +47711,Excision Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,"In this procedure, the provider removes an abnormal mass from a biliary duct outside of the liver. He repairs the bile duct, as necessary. He submits the mass to a laboratory to determine the presence of cancerous cells or other disease.",CPT +47712,Excision Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,"In this procedure, the provider removes an abnormal mass from a biliary duct within the liver. He repairs the bile duct, as necessary. He submits the mass to a laboratory to determine the presence of cancerous cells or other disease.",CPT +47715,Excision Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a cystic, or saclike, abnormality in the bile duct to restore the flow of bile through the duct.",CPT +47720,Repair Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,"In this procedure, the provider connects the gallbladder directly to the small intestine to provide a pathway for drainage of bile due to injury or tumors involving the biliary tract.",CPT +47721,Repair Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,"In this procedure, the provider creates an anastomosis, or connection, between the gallbladder and the small intestine to provide a pathway for drainage of bile and at the same time makes a new connection between the stomach and the small intestine. He performs the procedure to restore gastric and biliary function in the presence of a condition like inoperable pancreatic cancer.",CPT +47740,Repair Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,"In this procedure, the provider creates an anastomosis, or connection, between the gallbladder and the small intestine in an end to side, or Y shaped fashion, to permit free flow of bile in the presence of blockage due to tumor or other biliary disease.",CPT +47741,Repair Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,"In this procedure, the provider creates an anastomosis, or connection, between the gallbladder and the small intestine, in an end to side, or Y shaped fashion, to provide a pathway for drainage of bile and at the same time makes a new connection between the stomach and the small intestine. He performs the procedure to restore gastric and biliary function in the presence of a condition like inoperable pancreatic cancer.",CPT +47760,Repair Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,"In this procedure the provider connects the biliary ducts outside of the liver to the small intestine to permit the passage of bile due to biliary obstruction, typically from a tumor.",CPT +47765,Repair Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,In this procedure the provider creates an opening between the biliary ducts outside of the liver and the small intestine.,CPT +47780,Repair Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,"In this procedure, the provider attaches the biliary ducts to the small intestine in an end to side, or Y shaped fashion to restore the flow of bile due to blockage from a biliary tumor or other condition.",CPT +47785,Repair Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,The provider performs an anastomosis between the jejunum of the small intestine and the liver's intrahepatic biliary ducts.,CPT +47800,Repair Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,The provider performs reconstruction of the extrahepatic biliary ducts by connecting the ends.,CPT +47801,Repair Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,The provider performs insertion of a stent into the bile duct.,CPT +47802,Repair Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,The provider uses a tube to connect the hepatic ducts and the intestines. This procedure allows bile drainage to the intestines in a patient with a duct blockage.,CPT +47900,Repair Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,The provider uses sutures to repair an injury in the extrahepatic biliary duct.,CPT +47999,Other Procedures on the Biliary Tract.,Use to report procedures in the biliary tract that do not have a specific code.,CPT +48000,Incision Procedures on the Pancreas.,"In a patient with acute pancreatitis, the provider places drains around the pancreas.",CPT +48001,Incision Procedures on the Pancreas.,"In a patient with acute pancreatitis, the provider places drains around the pancreas. He then makes small openings in the gallbladder, stomach, and jejunum for drainage tubes.",CPT +48020,Incision Procedures on the Pancreas.,The provider performs removal of a stone from the pancreas.,CPT +48100,Excision Procedures on the Pancreas.,The provider uses an open approach to take a lesion sample from the pancreas and sends the sample for pathological evaluation.,CPT +48102,Excision Procedures on the Pancreas.,The provider takes tissue samples from the pancreas by using a needle percutaneously. He sends the samples for pathological analysis.,CPT +48105,Excision Procedures on the Pancreas.,"In a patient with acute necrotizing pancreatitis, the provider removes pancreatic tissue via resection and debridement.",CPT +48120,Excision Procedures on the Pancreas.,The provider removes a lesion of the pancreas.,CPT +48140,Excision Procedures on the Pancreas.,The provider performs removal of the distal portion of the pancreas with or without removal of the spleen. The patient does not require connection of the pancreas to the jejunum to allow the flow of pancreatic enzymes to the small intestine.,CPT +48145,Excision Procedures on the Pancreas.,"The provider performs removal of the distal portion of the pancreas with or without removal of the spleen. In a patient with a pancreatic duct obstruction, the provider connects the jejunum to the pancreas.",CPT +48146,Excision Procedures on the Pancreas.,"The provider performs near total pancreatectomy, meaning he removes most of the pancreas.",CPT +48148,Excision Procedures on the Pancreas.,"In this procedure, the provider performs removal of the ampulla of Vater, a structure formed by the combination of the common bile duct and pancreatic duct.",CPT +48150,Excision Procedures on the Pancreas.,"In this procedure, the provider removes most of the pancreas as well as the duodenum, part of the bile duct, and distal stomach with reconstruction and connection of the pancreas to the jejunum.",CPT +48152,Excision Procedures on the Pancreas.,"In this procedure, the provider removes most of the pancreas as well as the duodenum, part of the bile duct, and distal stomach with reconstruction without connecting the pancreas to the jejunum.",CPT +48153,Excision Procedures on the Pancreas.,"In this procedure, the provider removes part of the pancreas and almost all of the duodenum. He connects the bile duct to the intestines, the duodenum to the jejunum, and the jejunum to a pancreatic duct, cyst, or fistula to restore digestive functions.",CPT +48154,Excision Procedures on the Pancreas.,"In this procedure, the provider removes part of the pancreas and almost the entire duodenum. He connects the bile duct to the intestines and the duodenum to the jejunum to restore digestive functions. This procedure does not include connection of the jejunum to a pancreatic duct, cyst, or fistula.",CPT +48155,Excision Procedures on the Pancreas.,"In this procedure, the provider performs removal of the entire pancreas.",CPT +48160,Excision Procedures on the Pancreas.,"In this procedure, the provider performs removal of the entire or part of the affected pancreas. He harvests and transplants the pancreatic tissue or islet cells, typically in the abdominal tissue.",CPT +48400,Introduction Procedures on the Pancreas.,The provider injects a dye for a X–ray study of the pancreatic duct during a pancreatic surgery to ensure there is no obstruction of pancreatic fluids.,CPT +48500,Repair Procedures on the Pancreas.,"The provider performs marsupialization of a pancreatic cyst; incising it and leaving it partially open, like a pouch.",CPT +48510,Repair Procedures on the Pancreas.,"In this procedure, the provider uses an open incision to reach and drain a pancreatic pseudocyst.",CPT +48520,Repair Procedures on the Pancreas.,"In this procedure, the provider creates a surgical opening directly between a cyst in the pancreas and the gastrointestinal tract, usually the small intestine, to provide a method for internal drainage of the contents of the cyst. This reduces pain from an enlarging cystic mass and prevents complications such as internal bleeding due to rupture of the cyst.",CPT +48540,Repair Procedures on the Pancreas.,"In this procedure, the provider creates a surgical opening between a cyst in the pancreas and the gastrointestinal tract, usually the small intestine, in a Y shaped configuration, to provide a method for internal drainage of the contents of the cyst. This reduces pain from an enlarging cystic mass and prevents complications such as internal bleeding due to rupture of the cyst.",CPT +48545,Repair Procedures on the Pancreas.,"In this procedure, the provider repairs and reconstructs the pancreas to restore function following a traumatic injury to the abdomen.",CPT +48547,Repair Procedures on the Pancreas.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically bypasses the duodenum, the first part of the small intestine, by connecting the stomach directly to the jejunum, the second part of the small intestine to restore function of the digestive tract following a traumatic injury to the abdomen with damage to the pancreas.",CPT +48548,Repair Procedures on the Pancreas.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically creates an opening joining the pancreas to the jejunum, or second portion of the small intestine, to restore drainage of pancreatic fluids in the presence of chronic inflammation of the pancreas or other pancreatic disease.",CPT +48550,Pancreas Transplantation Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes the pancreas from a cadaveric, or nonliving, organ donor. He may include a segment of the duodenum, the first portion of the small intestine. He preserves the donor pancreas in a liquid maintained at a carefully controlled cold temperature until the time of transplantation in a recipient patient with pancreatic failure.",CPT +48551,Pancreas Transplantation Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider readies a pancreas from a cadaver, or nonliving donor, for subsequent transplantation in a recipient patient. He removes unneeded tissues and ties off vessels and other connections as routine preparation, in a separate work area of the operating room.",CPT +48552,Pancreas Transplantation Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider reconstructs a vein in a pancreas from a cadaver, or nonliving donor, for subsequent transplantation in a recipient patient. He prepares the organ in a separate work area of the operating room.",CPT +48554,Pancreas Transplantation Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider implants a healthy pancreas from a cadaveric, or nonliving, donor, usually in a patient with pancreatic failure due to traumatic abdominal injury or chronic pancreatic disease. He leaves the patient’s own pancreas in place.",CPT +48556,Pancreas Transplantation Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a previously transplanted donor pancreas in a patient for whom the transplanted pancreas fails to function normally.",CPT +48999,Other Procedures on the Pancreas.,Use to report procedures on the pancreas that does not have a specific code.,CPT +49000,"Incision Procedures on the Abdomen, Peritoneum, and Omentum.","The provider examines the abdominal cavity including the space between the abdominal wall and the membrane that encloses the abdominal organs to determine the cause of abdominal pain, masses, suspected traumatic injury, or signs of infection. He takes a sample of any suspicious tissue and submits it to a laboratory for analysis.",CPT +49002,"Incision Procedures on the Abdomen, Peritoneum, and Omentum.","In this procedure, the provider reopens a previous abdominal incision to check for complications, such as internal bleeding or infection.",CPT +49010,"Incision Procedures on the Abdomen, Peritoneum, and Omentum.","In this procedure, the provider examines the organs in the area located behind and outside of the back wall of the peritoneum, the membrane lining of the abdominal cavity, to determine the cause of abdominal pain, masses, suspected traumatic injury, or signs of infection. He takes a sample of any suspicious tissue and submits it to a laboratory for analysis.",CPT +49013,"Incision Procedures on the Abdomen, Peritoneum, and Omentum.",The provider opens the pelvic cavity and packs the preperitoneal space with absorbent content pads to control hemorrhage from high–energy pelvic trauma.,CPT +49014,"Incision Procedures on the Abdomen, Peritoneum, and Omentum.","The provider reopens the pelvic cavity and removes the absorbent content pads from the preperitoneal space; if bleeding persists, he may repack the area.",CPT +49020,"Incision Procedures on the Abdomen, Peritoneum, and Omentum.","In this procedure, the provider incises the abdomen and drains an area of infection or abscess in the membrane lining of the abdominal contents, not involving the appendix.",CPT +49040,"Incision Procedures on the Abdomen, Peritoneum, and Omentum.","In this procedure, the provider incises the abdomen and drains an abscess located below the diaphragm, the membrane dividing the abdominal and chest cavities.",CPT +49060,"Incision Procedures on the Abdomen, Peritoneum, and Omentum.","In this procedure, the provider incises the abdomen and drains an abscess located in the area behind and outside of the back wall of the peritoneum, the membrane lining of the abdominal cavity.",CPT +49062,"Incision Procedures on the Abdomen, Peritoneum, and Omentum.","In this procedure, the provider incises the abdomen to drain a collection of lymph fluid from the space outside of the peritoneal cavity, a common complication from a traumatic injury or extensive abdominal surgery, in which fluid accumulates faster than it drains and becomes trapped. The provider opens tissues to allow the fluid to drain into the peritoneal cavity to eliminate pain from the enlarging mass and reduce the chance of infection.",CPT +49082,"Incision Procedures on the Abdomen, Peritoneum, and Omentum.","In this procedure, the provider withdraws an abnormal buildup of fluid from the abdominal cavity to relieve pressure and pain or to obtain a sample to submit to a laboratory for analysis. He withdraws the fluid without relying on any type of imaging guidance to view internal structures.",CPT +49083,"Incision Procedures on the Abdomen, Peritoneum, and Omentum.","In this procedure, the provider withdraws an abnormal buildup of fluid from the abdominal cavity to relieve pressure and pain or to obtain a sample to submit to a laboratory for analysis. He withdraws the fluid with the aid of imaging guidance to view internal structures.",CPT +49084,"Incision Procedures on the Abdomen, Peritoneum, and Omentum.","In this procedure, the provider washes out the peritoneal cavity to detect the presence of internal bleeding. He may rely on imaging guidance to view internal structures.",CPT +49180,"Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Abdomen, Peritoneum, and Omentum.",The provider takes a tissue sample from within or behind the abdominal cavity with the use of a needle inserted through the abdominal wall. He sends the tissue to a laboratory for analysis to determine the nature of the mass.,CPT +49185,"Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Abdomen, Peritoneum, and Omentum.","The provider performs percutaneous (through a small incision in the skin) chemical destruction of a fluid collection, such as a lymphocele, cyst, or a seroma, using ultrasound or fluoroscopic guidance, imaging technologies that display live images on a video monitor. He may inject contrast material to enhance visualization during the procedure. The procedure includes the diagnostic study and radiological supervision and interpretation when performed.",CPT +49203,"Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Abdomen, Peritoneum, and Omentum.","In this procedure, the provider opens the abdomen to remove or destroy one or more abnormal growths of various types, including tumors, cysts, and endometriomas, all less than 5 cm in diameter. He targets these growths within or behind the membrane lining of the abdominal cavity, which may or may not be cancerous and in some cases may represent the spread of cancer from another location.",CPT +49204,"Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Abdomen, Peritoneum, and Omentum.","In this procedure, the provider opens the abdomen to remove or destroy one or more abnormal growths of various types, including tumors, cysts, and endometriomas, the largest between 5.1 and 10.0 cm in diameter. He targets these growths within or behind the membrane lining of the abdominal cavity, which may or may not be cancerous and in some cases may represent the spread of cancer from another location.",CPT +49205,"Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Abdomen, Peritoneum, and Omentum.","In this procedure, the provider opens the abdomen to remove or destroy one or more abnormal growths of various types, including tumors, cysts, and endometriomas, with the largest being more than 10.0 cm in diameter. He targets these growths within or behind the membrane lining of the abdominal cavity, which may or may not be cancerous and in some cases may represent the spread of cancer from another location.",CPT +49215,"Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Abdomen, Peritoneum, and Omentum.","In this procedure, the provider removes an abnormal mass from the tissues near the base of the spine to treat or diagnose benign or cancerous tumors. Sacrococcygeal tumors typically involve newborns.",CPT +49250,"Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Abdomen, Peritoneum, and Omentum.","In this procedure, the provider excises the umbilicus, or navel, primarily to treat an umbilical hernia or a nonhealing infection in this area.",CPT +49255,"Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Abdomen, Peritoneum, and Omentum.","In this procedure, the provider excises the omentum, a folded portion of the peritoneum, the membrane that lines the abdominal cavity, generally in treatment for a metastatic, or spreading, abdominal or pelvic cancer.",CPT +49320,"Laparoscopic Procedures on the Abdomen, Peritoneum, and Omentum.","In this procedure, the provider examines the inside of the abdomen through a laparoscope, a tubular instrument with a light source and camera, to look for causes of a patient's abdominal symptoms, including pain, swelling, and organ enlargement. He inspects the peritoneum, the membrane lining of the abdominal cavity, and the fatty vascularized tissues of the omentum, a large fold of membrane that hangs like an apron across the abdomen. He may brush and wash the area to obtain cells for analysis.",CPT +49321,"Laparoscopic Procedures on the Abdomen, Peritoneum, and Omentum.","In this procedure, the provider examines the inside of the abdomen through a laparoscope, a tubular instrument with a light source and camera, to look for the cause of abdominal or pelvic symptoms. He takes one or more samples of suspicious tissue for submission to a laboratory for diagnosis.",CPT +49322,"Laparoscopic Procedures on the Abdomen, Peritoneum, and Omentum.","In this procedure, the provider examines the inside of the abdomen through a laparoscope, a tubular instrument with a light source and camera. He withdraws the fluid from one or more pockets or sacs, such as cysts of the ovary, to prevent rupture and internal bleeding.",CPT +49323,"Laparoscopic Procedures on the Abdomen, Peritoneum, and Omentum.","In this procedure, the provider examines the inside of the abdomen through a laparoscope, a tubular instrument with a light source and camera. The provider opens up tissues to allow a lymphocele, a collection of trapped fluid, to drain into the peritoneal cavity to eliminate pain and reduce the chance of infection. Lymphoceles occur in areas of damaged tissue following abdominal trauma or extensive abdominal surgery.",CPT +49324,"Laparoscopic Procedures on the Abdomen, Peritoneum, and Omentum.","The provider examines the inside of the abdomen through a laparoscope, a tubular instrument with a light source and a camera. He places a catheter, a flexible tube, into the membrane lined portion of the abdomen to provide long term drainage of ascites, an accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity, a common complication in liver disease and abdominal cancers.",CPT +49325,"Laparoscopic Procedures on the Abdomen, Peritoneum, and Omentum.","In this procedure, the provider surgically accesses the abdominal cavity using a laparoscopic technique to locate and remove an obstruction, or blockage, within a previously placed intraperitoneal catheter.",CPT +49326,"Laparoscopic Procedures on the Abdomen, Peritoneum, and Omentum.","In this add–on procedure, done subsequent to laparoscopic surgical exploration of the abdominal cavity for other purposes, the provider tucks away the omental loop that may be occluding the intraperitoneal catheter.",CPT +49327,"Laparoscopic Procedures on the Abdomen, Peritoneum, and Omentum.","In this add–on procedure, the provider places one or more fiducial markers to guide radiation therapy or a dosimeter that can measure the radiation being given to the targeted soft tissue. The provider performs this add–on service along with another laparoscopic abdominal, pelvic, or retroperitoneal procedure such as a tumor removal that the provider performs at the same time.",CPT +49329,"Laparoscopic Procedures on the Abdomen, Peritoneum, and Omentum.","Use to report laparoscopic procedures in the abdomen, peritoneum, and omentum that do not have a specific code.",CPT +49400,Peritoneal Cavity Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider injects air or contrast material into the abdominal cavity to make the intra–abdominal organs and structures show up more clearly on a separately performed radiological study.",CPT +49402,Peritoneal Cavity Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically removes a foreign body from within the abdominal cavity.",CPT +49405,Image Guided Catheter Drainage Procedures.,The provider uses imaging guidance for percutaneous drainage as first line therapy for fluid collection/drainage by catheter of abdominal and chest organs.,CPT +49406,Image Guided Catheter Drainage Procedures.,"The provider uses imaging guidance to direct a catheter through a small incision in the skin to a peritoneal or retroperitoneal area. Once the catheter is properly positioned, the area is drained.",CPT +49407,Image Guided Catheter Drainage Procedures.,"The provider uses imaging guidance to direct a catheter through the vaginal or rectal wall to a peritoneal or retroperitoneal area. Once the catheter is properly positioned, the area is drained.",CPT +49411,Placement of Interstitial Device(s) for Radiation Therapy Guidance.,"The provider places one or more small metal markers or devices known as fiducials within the abdominal cavity adjacent to a previously identified tumor site to guide radiation therapy, or he places a dosimeter that can measure the radiation being given to the targeted soft tissue.",CPT +49412,Placement of Interstitial Device(s) for Radiation Therapy Guidance.,"The provider places one or more fiducial markers to guide radiation therapy or a dosimeter that can measure the radiation being given to the targeted soft tissue. The provider performs this add–on service at the same time that he performs another open abdominal, pelvic, or retroperitoneal procedure, such as tumor removal.",CPT +49418,Tunneled Intraperitoneal Catheter Insertion and Removal Procedures.,"The provider percutaneously places and tunnels a catheter within the abdominal cavity. The provider performs this for management of dialysis, drainage of ascites, and to administer abdominal chemotherapy. This code represents a complete procedure and includes the catheter placement with imaging guidance, the contract injection when done, and radiology supervision and interpretation.",CPT +49419,Tunneled Intraperitoneal Catheter Insertion and Removal Procedures.,"The provider surgically inserts a catheter within the abdominal cavity and also creates a subcutaneous pocket in the fascia of the rectus muscle to hold a pump reservoir, a drug or therapeutic agent reservoir. The tunneled catheter delivers the requisite drug into the cavity from the subcutaneous reservoir. The provider performs this procedure to establish a delivery system to administer chemotherapy drugs for patients treated for abdominal cancer or to administer insulin, morphine, or other drugs.",CPT +49421,Tunneled Intraperitoneal Catheter Insertion and Removal Procedures.,The provider surgically inserts a catheter within the abdominal cavity in a patient with kidney disease who requires dialysis.,CPT +49422,Tunneled Intraperitoneal Catheter Insertion and Removal Procedures.,The provider removes an existing tunneled intraperitoneal catheter that a provider uses to drain a recurrent accumulation of fluid in the abdomen.,CPT +49423,Drainage Catheter Procedures.,"In this procedure the provider removes an already existing catheter that a provider is using to drain an abdominal cyst or an abscess, and replaces it with a new drainage catheter.",CPT +49424,Drainage Catheter Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider injects a contrast material into an existing drainage catheter. He performs this procedure to more clearly visualize and assess the size, type, and location of the abscess or cyst being drained.",CPT +49425,Peritoneal-Venous Shunt Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically creates an outlet for an accumulation of peritoneal fluid to drain into a vein and away from the heart. He does this by inserting a catheter into the abdominal cavity and connecting it with another catheter that he inserts in the jugular vein in the neck.",CPT +49426,Peritoneal-Venous Shunt Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider repairs or replaces an existing peritoneal venous shunt. He performs this service after he identifies a problem in the existing shunt.",CPT +49427,Peritoneal-Venous Shunt Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider injects a contrast, or dye, into the reservoir of an existing peritoneal venous shunt in the peritoneal cavity of a patient. This helps the provider to evaluate the flow of material through the shunt.",CPT +49428,Peritoneal-Venous Shunt Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider ligates, or ties off, an existing peritoneal venous shunt, or the tube connecting a catheter emerging from the abdominal cavity with a catheter draining in the neck vein. The provider performs this service to stop the flow of material through the shunt.",CPT +49429,Peritoneal-Venous Shunt Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider makes one or two incisions to pull out the peritoneal venous catheter.",CPT +49435,Peritoneal-Venous Shunt Procedures.,"At the same session as intraperitoneal cannula or catheter placement, the provider also places an abdominal catheter extension and tunnels it subcutaneously to an upper chest exit site.",CPT +49436,Peritoneal-Venous Shunt Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision to create an exit site for an already installed subcutaneous segment of an intraperitoneal cannula or catheter.",CPT +49440,"Initial Placement Procedures on the Abdomen, Peritoneum, and Omentum.","In this procedure, the provider inserts a gastrostomy tube through the skin using fluoroscopic guidance. The provider may use this treatment for patients suffering from abnormalities of the mouth, esophagus, or stomach, or with an impaired mechanism of swallowing.",CPT +49441,"Initial Placement Procedures on the Abdomen, Peritoneum, and Omentum.","In this procedure, the provider inserts a jejunostomy or duodenostomy tube through the skin using fluoroscopic guidance. The provider may insert the tube into the intestinal tract to feed a patient at higher risk of aspiration and who has undergone gastrectomy to remove the stomach.",CPT +49442,"Initial Placement Procedures on the Abdomen, Peritoneum, and Omentum.","In this procedure, the provider places a cecostomy or colonic tube through the skin under fluoroscopic guidance. Providers may use this procedure to treat patients suffering from fecal incontinence and severe constipation.",CPT +49446,"Conversion Procedures on the Abdomen, Peritoneum, and Omentum.","Under fluoroscopic guidance, the provider converts the existing gastrostomy tube to a gastrojejunostomy tube using a minimally invasive approach through the skin. The provider may perform this change for patients who cannot tolerate feeding into the stomach through the gastrostomy tube.",CPT +49450,"Replacement Procedures on the Abdomen, Peritoneum, and Omentum.","Under fluoroscopic guidance, the provider replaces the existing gastrostomy tube, cecostomy tube, or other colon tube through the skin. Providers may exchange the tube when the existing tube becomes dislodged or no longer functions properly.",CPT +49451,"Replacement Procedures on the Abdomen, Peritoneum, and Omentum.","Under fluoroscopic guidance, the provider replaces the existing duodenostomy or jejunostomy tube through the skin. Providers may exchange the tube when the existing tube becomes dislodged or no longer functions properly.",CPT +49452,"Replacement Procedures on the Abdomen, Peritoneum, and Omentum.","Under fluoroscopic guidance, the provider replaces the existing gastrojejunostomy tube through the skin. Providers may exchange the tube when the existing tube becomes dislodged or no longer functions properly.",CPT +49460,"Mechanical Removal of Obstructive Material on the Abdomen, Peritoneum, and Omentum.","The provider removes a blockage from an existing feeding or drainage tube in the stomach or intestines, under fluoroscopic imaging guidance, to restore flow through the tube. He may inject dye into the tube to improve visualization of its contents.",CPT +49465,"Other Procedures on the Abdomen, Peritoneum, and Omentum.","The provider injects contrast material, or dye, through a feeding or drainage tube in the abdominal wall to visualize the contents of the tube and locate any blockage. This imaging procedure includes both creation of images and report preparation.",CPT +49491,Hernia Open Procedures.,"The provider repairs a reducible hernia in the groin of a premature infant, born before the 37th week of pregnancy. He repairs this initial hernia at any time from the infant’s birth until 50 weeks after the original date of conception. He may also excise a hydrocele, a swelling in the scrotum, the sac that encloses the testicles.",CPT +49492,Hernia Open Procedures.,"The provider repairs an incarcerated or strangulated hernia in the groin of a premature infant, born before the 37th week of pregnancy. He repairs this initial hernia at any time from the infant’s birth until 50 weeks after the original date of conception. He may also excise a hydrocele, a swelling in the scrotum, the sac that encloses the testicles.",CPT +49495,Hernia Open Procedures.,"The provider repairs an initial hernia, reducible type, in the groin of an infant less than six months of age who was born full term or born premature but for whom 50 weeks after the original date of conception. He may also excise a hydrocele, a swelling in the scrotum, the sac that encloses the testicles.",CPT +49496,Hernia Open Procedures.,"The provider repairs an initial hernia, incarcerated or strangulated type, in the groin of an infant less than six months of age who was born full term or born premature but for whom 50 weeks after the original date of conception. He may also excise a hydrocele, a swelling in the scrotum, the sac that encloses the testicles.",CPT +49500,Hernia Open Procedures.,"The provider repairs an initial hernia, reducible type, in the groin of a child who is between the ages of six months and five years. He may also excise a hydrocele, a swelling in the scrotum, the sac that encloses the testicles.",CPT +49501,Hernia Open Procedures.,"The provider repairs an initial hernia, of incarcerated or strangulated type, in the groin of a child, six months to five years of age. He may also excise a hydrocele, a swelling in the scrotum, the sac that encloses the testicles.",CPT +49505,Hernia Open Procedures.,"The provider repairs an initial inguinal hernia on a child, five years of age or older. She pushes the hernia back to reduce it.",CPT +49507,Hernia Open Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically repairs an inguinal hernia that is incarcerated, meaning trapped, or strangulated, meaning the blood supply is cut off. Use this code for initial hernia repair in patients 5 years of age or older.",CPT +49520,Hernia Open Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically repairs a recurrent inguinal hernia that is reducible. The patient may be of any age.",CPT +49521,Hernia Open Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically repairs a recurrent inguinal hernia that is incarcerated, meaning trapped, or strangulated, meaning the blood supply is cut off. The patient may be of any age.",CPT +49525,Hernia Open Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically repairs the sliding inguinal hernia in a patient of any age.",CPT +49540,Hernia Open Procedures.,This procedure is a repair of a lumbar hernia.,CPT +49550,Hernia Open Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically repairs a femoral hernia, a hernia in which abdominal contents, typically intestines, bulge through the canal the femoral artery passes through to reach the upper thigh. The hernia is reducible, and the patient may be any age.",CPT +49553,Hernia Open Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically repairs an initial femoral hernia, a hernia in which abdominal contents, typically intestines, bulge through the canal carrying the femoral artery into the upper thigh. The hernia is incarcerated, meaning trapped, or strangulated, meaning the blood supply is cut off.",CPT +49555,Hernia Open Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically repairs a recurrent femoral hernia, a hernia in which abdominal contents, typically intestines, bulge through the canal carrying the femoral artery into the upper thigh. The hernia is reducible.",CPT +49557,Hernia Open Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically repairs a recurrent femoral hernia, a hernia in which abdominal contents, typically intestines, bulge through the canal carrying the femoral artery into the upper thigh. The hernia is incarcerated, meaning trapped, or strangulated, meaning the blood supply is cut off.",CPT +49591,Hernia Open Procedures.,"The provider uses any approach to perform initial repair of one or more anterior abdominal hernias with a total length of less than 3 cm. The hernias are reducible, or able to be pushed back inside the abdominal wall. The provider may implant mesh or another prosthesis.",CPT +49592,Hernia Open Procedures.,The provider uses any approach to perform initial repair of one or more anterior abdominal hernias with a total length of less than 3 cm. The hernias are incarcerated (trapped) or strangulated (trapped so blood flow is cut off). The provider may implant mesh or another prosthesis.,CPT +49593,Hernia Open Procedures.,"The provider uses any approach to perform initial repair of one or more anterior abdominal hernias with a total length of 3 cm to 10 cm. The hernias are reducible, or able to be pushed back inside the abdominal wall. The provider may implant mesh or another prosthesis.",CPT +49594,Hernia Open Procedures.,The provider uses any approach to perform initial repair of one or more anterior abdominal hernias with a total length of 3 cm to 10 cm. The hernias are incarcerated (trapped) or strangulated (trapped so blood flow is cut off). The provider may implant mesh or another prosthesis.,CPT +49595,Hernia Open Procedures.,"The provider uses any approach to perform initial repair of one or more anterior abdominal hernias with a total length of greater than 10 cm. The hernias are reducible, or able to be pushed back inside the abdominal wall. The provider may implant mesh or another prosthesis.",CPT +49596,Hernia Open Procedures.,The provider uses any approach to perform initial repair of one or more anterior abdominal hernias with a total length greater than 10 cm. The hernias are incarcerated (trapped) or strangulated (trapped so blood flow is cut off). The provider may implant mesh or another prosthesis.,CPT +49600,Hernia Open Procedures.,"The provider repairs a small omphalocele, a birth defect in which the abdominal organs, covered only by a thin layer of membrane, protrude through an opening in the abdomen. He sutures the sides of the opening together, also known as a primary closure.",CPT +49605,Hernia Open Procedures.,"The provider performs repair of a large omphalocele or gastroschisis, which are abdominal wall defects. He may or may not use a prosthesis.",CPT +49606,Hernia Open Procedures.,"In an operating room, the provider completes the repair of a large omphalocele or gastroschisis by removing a previously placed prosthesis, reducing the contents into the abdomen, and closing the site.",CPT +49610,Hernia Open Procedures.,The provider performs the first stage of a Gross type operation to repair the abdominal wall defect called an omphalocele.,CPT +49611,Hernia Open Procedures.,The provider performs the second stage of a Gross type operation to repair the abdominal wall defect called an omphalocele.,CPT +49613,Hernia Open Procedures.,"The provider uses any approach to perform recurrent repair of one or more anterior abdominal hernias with a total length of less than 3 cm. The hernias are reducible, or able to be pushed back inside the abdominal wall. The provider may implant mesh or another prosthesis.",CPT +49614,Hernia Open Procedures.,The provider uses any approach to perform recurrent repair of one or more anterior abdominal hernias with a total length of less than 3 cm. The hernias are incarcerated (trapped) or strangulated (trapped so blood flow is cut off). The provider may implant mesh or another prosthesis.,CPT +49615,Hernia Open Procedures.,"The provider uses any approach to perform recurrent repair of one or more anterior abdominal hernias with a total length of 3 cm to 10 cm. The hernias are reducible, or able to be pushed back inside the abdominal wall. The provider may implant mesh or another prosthesis.",CPT +49616,Hernia Open Procedures.,The provider uses any approach to perform recurrent repair of one or more anterior abdominal hernias with a total length of 3 cm to 10 cm. The hernias are incarcerated (trapped) or strangulated (trapped so blood flow is cut off). The provider may implant mesh or another prosthesis.,CPT +49617,Hernia Open Procedures.,"The provider uses any approach to perform recurrent repair of one or more anterior abdominal hernias with a total length of greater than 10 cm. The hernias are reducible, or able to be pushed back inside the abdominal wall. The provider may implant mesh or another prosthesis.",CPT +49618,Hernia Open Procedures.,The provider uses any approach to perform recurrent repair of one or more anterior abdominal hernias with a total length of greater than 10 cm. The hernias are incarcerated (trapped) or strangulated (trapped so blood flow is cut off). The provider may implant mesh or another prosthesis.,CPT +49621,Hernia Open Procedures.,"The provider uses any approach to perform repair of a parastomal hernia. The hernia is reducible, or able to be pushed back inside the abdominal wall. The provider may implant mesh or another prosthesis.",CPT +49622,Hernia Open Procedures.,The provider uses any approach to perform repair of a parastomal hernia. The hernia is incarcerated (trapped) or strangulated (trapped so blood flow is cut off). The provider may implant mesh or another prosthesis.,CPT +49623,Hernia Open Procedures.,"At the same session as anterior abdominal hernia repair or parastomal hernia repair, the provider performs removal of previously placed noninfected mesh or another prosthesis.",CPT +49650,Hernia Laparoscopic Procedures.,The provider performs laparoscopic repair of an initial inguinal hernia.,CPT +49651,Hernia Laparoscopic Procedures.,"The provider performs laparoscopic repair of an inguinal hernia, in the groin, that has undergone previous repair.",CPT +49659,Hernia Laparoscopic Procedures.,Use to report laparoscopic procedures for hernia repair that do not have a specific code.,CPT +49900,"Suture Procedures on the Abdomen, Peritoneum, and Omentum.","The provider resutures a surgical incision in the abdomen that has broken apart due to wound dehiscence, or rupture, and or evisceration with internal organs protruding through the opening.",CPT +49904,Surgical Procedures on the Omental Flap.,"The provider opens the abdomen and prepares a flap of omentum, a fatty membrane in the abdominal cavity, to fill a defect in the chest during reconstructive chest surgery, such as for a nonhealing wound. He transfers the omental flap to its new location by rotating it, without disrupting its vascular supply.",CPT +49905,Surgical Procedures on the Omental Flap.,"The provider repositions a flap of omentum, a fatty membrane in the abdominal cavity, to fill a defect during an abdominal surgery. He rotates the flap into place, without disrupting its vascular supply.",CPT +49906,Surgical Procedures on the Omental Flap.,"The provider harvests a flap of omentum, as a free graft, detaching it from the vessels in its abdominal location. He uses it to fill defects during reconstructive surgery in other locations in the body, such as the breast, head and neck, or extremities, using an operative microscope and very small instruments to reconnect the vessels at the new location.",CPT +49999,Surgical Procedures on the Omental Flap.,Use to report procedures in the peritoneum and omentum in the abdomen that do not have a specific code.,CPT +50010,Incision Procedures on the Kidney.,"The provider examines the kidney for diagnostic purposes, without any curative surgical intervention, such as inspection for hemorrhage, urinary leakage, or tissue damage due to trauma.",CPT +50020,Incision Procedures on the Kidney.,The provider drains an abscess from the kidney (renal) or the area surrounding the kidney (perirenal) with an open approach.,CPT +50040,Incision Procedures on the Kidney.,"The provider incises the kidney and creates an opening from the kidney to the outside of the abdomen when a blockage prevents urine from draining from the kidneys. Common causes of such a blockage are ovarian cancer, colon cancer, kidney stones, and pyonephrosis (infection of the renal collecting system).",CPT +50045,Incision Procedures on the Kidney.,"This procedure is performed when some kind of blockage prevents urine from draining into the kidneys. Common causes of such a blockage are ovarian cancer, colon cancer, kidney stones, and pyonephrosis (infection of the renal collecting system).",CPT +50060,Incision Procedures on the Kidney.,"This procedure treats kidney stones, or crystallizations of minerals in the urine. Many kidney stones 'pass' through the urinary tract on their own, but sometimes surgical removal is necessary.",CPT +50065,Incision Procedures on the Kidney.,"Nephrolithotomy is a secondary procedure to correct calculus.  Calculus is the accumulation of mineral salts (or other such materials) in the kidney, forming a stone.  This procedure removes the stone.",CPT +50070,Incision Procedures on the Kidney.,"The provider incises the kidney to remove stones, or renal calculi, with the complicating factor of kidney malformation due to a birth defect.",CPT +50075,Incision Procedures on the Kidney.,"The provider removes a large staghorn calculus through an incision in the the kidney. A staghorn calculus is a large branched kidney stone, sometimes referred to as a struvite; this type of kidney stone is formed by spillover of highly acidic urine caused by a bacterial infection that hydrolyzes urine to ammonia.",CPT +50080,Incision Procedures on the Kidney.,The provider removes one or more stones from the kidney or renal pelvis using an antegrade (“downhill”) percutaneous approach. The provider uses imaging guidance and may place a stent and nephrostomy tube. This is a simple procedure.,CPT +50081,Incision Procedures on the Kidney.,"The provider removes one or more stones from the kidney, renal pelvis, or ureter using an antegrade (“downhill”) percutaneous approach. The provider uses imaging guidance and may place a stent and nephrostomy tube. This is a complex procedure for reasons such as stone size, branching, or location.",CPT +50100,Incision Procedures on the Kidney.,"The provider repositions or makes an incision through aberrant, or abnormal, renal vessels, typically to treat an obstruction in the ureteropelvic junction, or UPJ, where the kidney attaches to the ureter.",CPT +50120,Incision Procedures on the Kidney.,The provider makes an incision into the renal pelvis and explores it for disease and abnormalities.,CPT +50125,Incision Procedures on the Kidney.,The provider diverts the urine from the ureter by incising the renal pelvis and inserting a tube that exits the body through an artificial opening.,CPT +50130,Incision Procedures on the Kidney.,"The provider removes the calculus, or stone, from the renal pelvis.",CPT +50135,Incision Procedures on the Kidney.,"The provider performs a complicated pyelotomy, an incision into the renal pelvis. The complicated nature may be due to previous surgery on the kidney or because of a congenital kidney abnormality, such as congenital blockage of the ureteropelvic junction or polycystic kidneys.",CPT +50200,Excision Procedures on the Kidney.,In this procedure.  A physician inserts a collection needle into the kidney to collect a sample for further diagnostic biopsy.,CPT +50205,Excision Procedures on the Kidney.,In this procedure.  A physician inserts a collection needle into the kidney to collect a sample for further diagnostic biopsy.,CPT +50220,Excision Procedures on the Kidney.,Nephrectomy is a surgical procedure for removal of a kidney or part of a kidney.,CPT +50225,Excision Procedures on the Kidney.,Nephrectomy is a surgical procedure for removal of a kidney or part of a kidney.,CPT +50230,Excision Procedures on the Kidney.,Nephrectomy is a surgical procedure for removal of a kidney or part of a kidney.,CPT +50234,Excision Procedures on the Kidney.,Nephrectomy is a surgical procedure for removal of a kidney or part of a kidney.,CPT +50236,Excision Procedures on the Kidney.,Nephrectomy is a surgical procedure for removal of a kidney or part of a kidney.,CPT +50240,Excision Procedures on the Kidney.,Nephrectomy is a surgical procedure for removal of a kidney or part of a kidney.,CPT +50250,Excision Procedures on the Kidney.,"Cryoablation or cryosurgery is a procedure in which very low temperatures are used to destroy a mass lesion, tumor cells, or cancer cells by freezing them. In this procedure cold is introduced to the intended target through a probe containing liquid nitrogen that is inserted into the kidney.",CPT +50280,Excision Procedures on the Kidney.,"Through an open incision, the provider excises one or more cysts or removes the covering of one or more cysts on the kidney surface.",CPT +50290,Excision Procedures on the Kidney.,The provider performs an excision of a cyst from the tissue surrounding the kidney.,CPT +50300,Renal Transplantation Procedures.,Nephrectomy is a surgical procedure for removal of a kidney or part of a kidney.,CPT +50320,Renal Transplantation Procedures.,Nephrectomy is a surgical procedure for removal of a kidney or part of a kidney.,CPT +50323,Renal Transplantation Procedures.,"The provider makes a donor kidney, from a cadaver, ready for transplantation through a standard back table preparation.",CPT +50325,Renal Transplantation Procedures.,"The provider makes a donor kidney, from a living donor, ready for transplantation through a standard back table preparation.",CPT +50327,Renal Transplantation Procedures.,The provider performs backbench venous reconstruction to extend the renal vein on a kidney from either a cadaver or living donor prior to transplantation.,CPT +50328,Renal Transplantation Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider prepares an arterial allograft from a cadaver or living donor kidney in order to transplant it.",CPT +50329,Renal Transplantation Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider prepares a renal allograft, which includes joining arteries, from a cadaver or living donor kidney to prepare for transplantation.",CPT +50340,Renal Transplantation Procedures.,Nephrectomy is a surgical procedure for removal of a kidney or part of a kidney.,CPT +50360,Renal Transplantation Procedures.,The provider transplants a kidney and ureter from a cadaver or living donor into a recipient. The provider does not remove a kidney (nephrectomy) from the recipient.,CPT +50365,Renal Transplantation Procedures.,The provider transplants a kidney and ureter from a cadaver or living donor into a recipient. The provider also removes a kidney (nephrectomy) from the recipient.,CPT +50370,Renal Transplantation Procedures.,The provider removes a previously transplanted donor kidney from the recipient because the recipient's body rejected it.,CPT +50380,Renal Transplantation Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes the patient's kidney from the normal anatomic location and reimplants it into a new site by connecting renal and iliac vessels.",CPT +50382,Internally Dwelling Renal Pelvis Catheter Introduction Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes and replaces an indwelling ureteral stent via a percutaneous approach using imaging guidance.",CPT +50384,Internally Dwelling Renal Pelvis Catheter Introduction Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes an indwelling ureteral stent via percutaneous approach using imaging guidance.",CPT +50385,Internally Dwelling Renal Pelvis Catheter Introduction Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes and replaces an internally dwelling ureteral stent using a transurethral approach and imaging guidance. He does not use an endoscope to perform the procedure.",CPT +50386,Internally Dwelling Renal Pelvis Catheter Introduction Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes an internally dwelling ureteral stent using a transurethral approach and imaging guidance. He does not use an endoscope to perform the procedure.",CPT +50387,Externally Accessible Renal Pelvis Catheter Introduction Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes and replaces an externally accessible nephroureteral stent/catheter using fluoroscopic guidance (live, real–time X–ray imaging). A nephroureteral catheter connects the ureter and renal pelvis, the collecting system of the kidney, to an external drainage system. The procedure includes radiological supervision and interpretation.",CPT +50389,Externally Accessible Renal Pelvis Catheter Introduction Procedures.,"The provider removes a nephrostomy tube from the renal (kidney) collecting system, when it is no longer needed to provide urinary drainage. He performs the procedure with the use of fluoroscopy due to the presence of an indwelling ureteral stent or other reason.",CPT +50390,Other Renal Introduction (Injection/Change/Removal) Procedures.,"The provider aspirates, or drains, a renal cyst or injects the cyst with a fluid. Aspiration is mainly performed by injecting a sclerotic agent, such as an acetic acid or ethanol into the renal cyst when the cyst causes abdominal pain, repeated urination, or hematuria.",CPT +50391,Other Renal Introduction (Injection/Change/Removal) Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider injects a therapeutic agent, such as an anticarcinogenic or antifungal medication, into the renal pelvis and/or ureter through a previously established nephrostomy, pyelostomy, or ureterostomy tube.",CPT +50396,Other Renal Introduction (Injection/Change/Removal) Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider connects an indwelling ureteral catheter or an existing nephrostomy or pyelostomy tube to a manometer line to measure the pressure of any fluids or any variation in pressure between fluids in the kidneys and ureters. This procedure is mainly performed to examine any blockage or obstruction, dilatation, or expansion of the upper urinary tract.",CPT +50400,Repair Procedures on the Kidney.,Pyeloplasty is a surgical procedure used to correct a blockage between the kidney and the ureter.  The provider surgically reconstructs the area of obstruction between the ureteral opening into the renal pelvis.,CPT +50405,Repair Procedures on the Kidney.,Pyeloplasty is a surgical procedure used to correct a blockage between the kidney and the ureter.  The provider surgically reconstructs the area of obstruction between the opening of the ureter into the renal pelvis.,CPT +50430,Other Renal Introduction (Injection/Change/Removal) Procedures.,"The provider creates a new access route percutaneously (through a small incision made in the patient’s skin) and injects contrast material into the ureters (ureterogram) or kidney (nephrostogram) to analyze the internal structures of the kidneys, renal pelvis, and/or ureters using imaging guidance. The provider typically performs this procedure to assess nephrostomy or pyelostomy tube function, identify blockage in the ureteropelvic junction, or check for urine leakage around the tube insertion site. The procedure covers the complete diagnostic procedure and all radiological supervision and interpretation.",CPT +50431,Other Renal Introduction (Injection/Change/Removal) Procedures.,"The provider uses an existing access route and injects contrast material into the ureters (ureterogram) or kidney (nephrostogram) to analyze the internal structures of the kidneys, renal pelvis, and/or ureters using imaging guidance. The provider typically performs this procedure to assess nephrostomy or pyelostomy tube function, identify blockage in the ureteropelvic junction, or check for urine leakage around the tube insertion site. The procedure covers the complete diagnostic procedure and all radiological supervision and interpretation.",CPT +50432,Other Renal Introduction (Injection/Change/Removal) Procedures.,The provider uses ultrasound and/or fluoroscopy (imaging technologies that display live images on a video monitor) to place a catheter through the skin (percutaneously) into the renal pelvis to divert urine due to blockage within the renal pelvis or ureters. He may also inject contrast material to image the internal structures of the kidney (nephrostogram) and ureter (ureterogram). The procedure includes radiological supervision and interpretation.,CPT +50433,Other Renal Introduction (Injection/Change/Removal) Procedures.,"The provider uses ultrasound and/or fluoroscopy, imaging technologies that display live images on a video monitor, to place a catheter through the skin (percutaneously) into the kidney to divert urine due to blockage within the renal pelvis or ureters. He may also inject contrast material to image the internal structures of the kidney (nephrostogram) and ureter (ureterogram). The procedure includes the creation of a new access route into the kidney and all radiological supervision and interpretation.",CPT +50434,Other Renal Introduction (Injection/Change/Removal) Procedures.,"The provider uses ultrasound and/or fluoroscopy, imaging technologies that display live images on a video monitor, to convert a nephrostomy catheter through an existing percutaneous (a small incision in the skin) route to a nephroureteral catheter to divert urine due to blockage within the renal pelvis or ureters. He may also inject contrast material to image the internal structures of the kidney (nephrostogram) and ureter (ureterogram). The procedure covers the complete diagnostic procedure and all radiological supervision and interpretation.",CPT +50435,Other Renal Introduction (Injection/Change/Removal) Procedures.,"The provider uses ultrasound and/or fluoroscopy, imaging technologies that display live images on a video monitor, to exchange a nephrostomy catheter through a percutaneous (through the skin) route to divert urine due to blockage within the renal pelvis or ureters. He may also inject contrast material to image the internal structures of the kidney (nephrostogram) and ureter (ureterogram). The procedure covers the complete diagnostic procedure and all radiological supervision and interpretation.",CPT +50436,Other Renal Introduction (Injection/Change/Removal) Procedures.,"The provider dilates (widens) an existing percutaneous nephrostomy tract, an artificial pathway between the kidney or renal pelvis and the skin. He may leave a tube in place after dilation to keep the tract open. This code covers imaging guidance and radiologic supervision and interpretation when performed.",CPT +50437,Other Renal Introduction (Injection/Change/Removal) Procedures.,"The provider dilates (widens) an existing percutaneous nephrostomy tract, an artificial pathway between the kidney or renal pelvis and the skin. He may leave a tube in place after dilation to keep the tract open. In addition, he creates a new tract between the skin and the renal collecting system (renal pelvis). This code covers imaging guidance and radiologic supervision and interpretation when performed.",CPT +50500,Repair Procedures on the Kidney.,The provider sutures a kidney wound.,CPT +50520,Repair Procedures on the Kidney.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically closes a fistula, which is an abnormal communication between the skin and the kidney, nephrocutaneous, or between the skin and the renal pelvis, pyelocutaneous.",CPT +50525,Repair Procedures on the Kidney.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically closes a fistula, an abnormal passageway from the kidney to other internal organs, such as colon, or  renocolic. He uses an abdominal approach.",CPT +50526,Repair Procedures on the Kidney.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically closes a fistula, an abnormal passageway from the kidney to other internal organs, such as the colon, or renocolic. He uses a thoracic approach.",CPT +50540,Repair Procedures on the Kidney.,The provider incises anomalous tissue connecting two kidneys so that they become two separate structures. The provider may also perform a reconstruction procedure such as pyeloplasty of the kidney’s renal pelvis.,CPT +50541,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Kidney.,The provider destroys renal cysts via laparoscopic approach; he may use cryoablation (freezing) or radiofrequency (focused radio waves to burn) to destroy the renal cysts.,CPT +50542,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Kidney.,The provider destroys renal mass lesion(s) via laparoscopic approach; he may use cryoablation (freezing) or radiofrequency (focused radio waves to burn) to destroy the lesion(s).,CPT +50543,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Kidney.,The provider uses a surgical laparoscopic technique to remove part of a kidney.,CPT +50544,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Kidney.,"The provider performs pyeloplasty, a surgical procedure to correct a blockage between the kidney and the ureter (the connection from the kidney to the bladder).",CPT +50545,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Kidney.,"The provider removes a kidney including surrounding structures such as Gerota's fascia, nearby lymph nodes, adrenal glands, and fatty tissue.",CPT +50546,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Kidney.,The provider uses a surgical laparoscopic technique to remove a kidney and part of a ureter.,CPT +50547,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Kidney.,The provider uses a surgical laparoscopic technique to remove a donor kidney from a living donor and places the removed kidney in a cold preservation device.,CPT +50548,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Kidney.,The provider uses a surgical laparoscopic technique to remove a kidney and the entire ureter with it.,CPT +50549,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Kidney.,Use to report laparoscopic renal procedures that do not have a specific code.,CPT +50551,Endoscopy Procedures on the Kidney.,"The provider inserts an endoscope through a previously established opening between the collecting system of the kidney and the exterior of the body or a previously established opening between the renal pelvis and the exterior of the body. She examines the kidney, renal pelvis, and ureter.",CPT +50553,Endoscopy Procedures on the Kidney.,"The provider inserts an endoscope through a previously established opening between the collecting system of the kidney and the exterior of the body or a previously established opening between the renal pelvis and the exterior of the body. She examines the kidney, renal pelvis, and ureter and introduces a catheter.",CPT +50555,Endoscopy Procedures on the Kidney.,"The provider inserts an endoscope through a previously established opening between the collecting system of the kidney and the exterior of the body or a previously established opening between the renal pelvis and the exterior of the body. She examines the kidney, renal pelvis, and ureter, and takes a biopsy.",CPT +50557,Endoscopy Procedures on the Kidney.,"The provider inserts an endoscope through a previously established opening between the collecting system of the kidney and the exterior of the body or a previously established opening between the renal pelvis and the exterior of the body. She examines the kidney, renal pelvis, and ureter, and destroys or incises tissue.",CPT +50561,Endoscopy Procedures on the Kidney.,"The provider inserts an endoscope through a previously established opening between the collecting system of the kidney and the exterior of the body or a previously established opening between the renal pelvis and the exterior of the body. She examines the kidney, renal pelvis, and ureter, and removes a foreign body or stone.",CPT +50562,Endoscopy Procedures on the Kidney.,"The provider inserts an endoscope through a previously established opening between the collecting system of the kidney and the exterior of the body or a previously established opening between the renal pelvis and the exterior of the body. She examines the kidney, renal pelvis, and ureter, and removes a tumor.",CPT +50570,Endoscopy Procedures on the Kidney.,"The provider inserts an endoscope after creating an opening between the collecting system of the kidney and the exterior of the body or between the renal pelvis and the exterior of the body. She examines the kidney, renal pelvis, and ureter.",CPT +50572,Endoscopy Procedures on the Kidney.,"The provider inserts an endoscope after creating an opening between the collecting system of the kidney and the exterior of the body or between the renal pelvis and the exterior of the body. She examines the kidney, renal pelvis, and ureter.",CPT +50574,Endoscopy Procedures on the Kidney.,"In this procedure, the providers inserts an endoscope through an incision in the skin over the kidney or the renal pelvis to analyze the kidney and ureter, and he takes a tissue sample of the kidney for biopsy. He may perform this procedure with irrigation or instillation of saline to better view the structure. He may also perform ureteropyelography or radiological examination of the ureter and renal pelvis by injection of contrast.",CPT +50575,Endoscopy Procedures on the Kidney.,"To perform an antegrade endopyelotomy, the urologist passes a scope through an incision in the skin and into the kidney.  Then the physician incises the stricture at the UPJ.",CPT +50576,Endoscopy Procedures on the Kidney.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts an endoscope through an incision in the skin over the kidney or the renal pelvis to analyze the kidney and ureter and may take a tissue sample of the kidney for biopsy. He may perform this procedure with irrigation or instillation of saline to better view the structures. He may also perform a ureteropyelography, or a radiological examination of the ureter and renal pelvis by injecting contrast. He also destroys any abnormal renal tissue through electric current or by incising the tissue.",CPT +50580,Endoscopy Procedures on the Kidney.,"In this procedure, the providers inserts an endoscope through an incision in the skin over the kidney or the renal pelvis to analyze the kidney and ureter. He may perform this procedure with irrigation or instillation of saline to better view the structures. He may also perform a ureteropyelography, or a radiological examination of the ureter and the renal pelvis by injecting contrast. He also removes a foreign body or a stone.",CPT +50590,Lithotripsy and Ablation Procedures on the Kidney.,Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL) is a procedure used to destroy calculus (kidney stones) in the kidneys and ureters.,CPT +50592,Lithotripsy and Ablation Procedures on the Kidney.,"The provider ablates, or destroys, one or more small renal masses, in a minimally invasive surgical procedure using radiofrequency heat applied through a percutaneous needle.",CPT +50593,Lithotripsy and Ablation Procedures on the Kidney.,"The provider ablates, or destroys, one or more small renal masses in one kidney in a minimally invasive surgical procedure using cryotherapy, or extreme cold, applied through a percutaneous needle.",CPT +50600,Incision/Biopsy Procedures on the Ureter.,"In this procedure, the provider incises the ureter to inspect the ureter or he drains the ureter by placing a drainage catheter between the ureter and the patient’s skin.",CPT +50605,Incision/Biopsy Procedures on the Ureter.,"In this procedure, the provider places any type of stent into the ureter by making an incision into the ureter.",CPT +50606,Incision/Biopsy Procedures on the Ureter.,The provider performs a biopsy (excision of tissue or lesion) from the inner wall (endoluminal) of the ureter and/or renal pelvis. The provider does not use an endoscopic approach but performs the biopsy through another route such as a nephrostomy catheter. He uses ultrasound and/or fluoroscopy (technologies that provide live images displayed on a video monitor) to guide the procedure. The procedure includes all associated radiological supervision and interpretation.,CPT +50610,Incision/Biopsy Procedures on the Ureter.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision into the upper one third of the ureter to remove a stone from the ureter.",CPT +50620,Incision/Biopsy Procedures on the Ureter.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision into the middle one third of the ureter to remove a stone from the ureter.",CPT +50630,Incision/Biopsy Procedures on the Ureter.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision into the lower one third of the ureter to remove a stone from the ureter.",CPT +50650,Excision Procedures on the Ureter.,"In this procedure, the provider removes all or part of a ureter along with a section of the bladder cuff. He most commonly performs this procedure to treat cancer of the ureter.",CPT +50660,Excision Procedures on the Ureter.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically removes an abnormal ureter, or one which is not in its proper position and terminates at a different site. He performs this procedure through a combination of approaches abdominal, vaginal, and or perineal approach.",CPT +50684,Other Introduction (Injection/Change/Removal) Procedures on the Ureter.,"In this procedure, the provider injects contrast material through an indwelling ureteral catheter already in place or a previously created opening between the skin and ureter. He then performs a separately reportable X–ray examination of the ureter and renal pelvis. He performs this procedure to evaluate the ureterostomy tube for any defects or abnormal functioning of the tube or to identify any symptoms that could indicate reasons for pain, blockage, or urine leakage around the ureterostomy tube insertion site.",CPT +50686,Other Introduction (Injection/Change/Removal) Procedures on the Ureter.,"In this procedure, the provider connects an indwelling ureteral catheter or an existing ureterostomy tube to a manometer to evaluate ureteral function or to measure the pressure of any fluids or variation in pressure between two fluids whether gas or liquid of the kidneys and ureters. He often performs this procedure to examine a blockage or obstruction, dilatation, or expansion of the urinary tract.",CPT +50688,Other Introduction (Injection/Change/Removal) Procedures on the Ureter.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a ureterostomy tube already in place or she removes an externally accessible ureteral stent via an ileal conduit and exchanges the tube or stent for a new one.",CPT +50690,Other Introduction (Injection/Change/Removal) Procedures on the Ureter.,"In this procedure, the provider injects contrast material through an existing artificial opening into the ureter or renal pelvis to analyze the ileal conduit or through a catheter to analyze the ureter, renal pelvis, and kidney.The provider performs this injection procedure mainly to evaluate any defect or abnormal function of the renal collecting system. He may also use this procedure to recognize any reasons for pain, any blockage in the ureteropelvic junction, or urine leakage around the ureter or renal pelvis site, or to study the point of the ureter connection to the ileum.",CPT +50693,Other Introduction (Injection/Change/Removal) Procedures on the Ureter.,"The provider uses a pre–existing nephrostomy tract and ultrasound and/or fluoroscopy, imaging technologies that display live images on a video monitor, to guide placement of a ureteral stent, a thin tube placed into a ureter at an area of stricture, or narrowing, to prevent obstruction or to maintain drainage of urine from the kidney. He may also inject contrast material to image the internal structures of the kidney (nephrostogram) and ureter (ureterogram). The procedure includes radiological supervision and interpretation.",CPT +50694,Other Introduction (Injection/Change/Removal) Procedures on the Ureter.,"The provider uses ultrasound and/or fluoroscopy, imaging technologies that display live images on a video monitor, to create an access route into the ureter and guide placement of a ureteral stent, a thin tube placed into a ureter at an area of stricture (narrowing) to prevent obstruction or to maintain drainage of urine from the ureter. He may also inject contrast material to image the internal structures of the kidney (nephrostogram) and ureter (ureterogram). The provider does not place a separate nephrostomy catheter, an artificial pathway between the kidney and outside of the body to allow drainage of urine from the renal pelvis where urine collects and drains into the ureter and on to the bladder.. The procedure includes radiological supervision and interpretation.",CPT +50695,Other Introduction (Injection/Change/Removal) Procedures on the Ureter.,"The provider uses ultrasound and/or fluoroscopy, imaging technologies that display live images on a video monitor, to create a percutaneous access route into the kidney and guide placement of a nephrostomy catheter to drain urine from the collecting system of the kidney and a ureteral stent to relieve a stricture (narrowing), prevent obstruction, or to maintain flow of urine into the bladder. He may also inject contrast material to image the internal structures of the kidney (nephrostogram) and ureter (ureterogram). The procedure includes radiological supervision and interpretation.",CPT +50700,Repair Procedures on the Ureter.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically repairs a narrowed, injured, or affected portion of a ureter.",CPT +50705,Repair Procedures on the Ureter.,"In this add–on procedure, using ultrasound and/or fluoroscopy (imaging technologies that display live images on a video monitor) to guide him, the provider deliberately occludes the ureter to block the passage of urine, typically for treatment of a ureterovaginal fistula due to unsuccessful treatment with urinary diversion via a nephrostomy (urinary diversion via a catheter placed in the internal structures of the kidney and attached to external drainage). The procedure includes radiological supervision and interpretation.",CPT +50706,Repair Procedures on the Ureter.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider uses ultrasound and/or fluoroscopy, technologies that display live images on a video monitor, to guide dilation (opening up or widening) of a ureteral stricture (narrowing) using a balloon catheter. The procedure includes radiological supervision and interpretation.",CPT +50715,Repair Procedures on the Ureter.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically frees the ureter from fibrous bands of inflamed tissues of the retroperitoneum, or the space between the peritoneum and the abdominal wall.",CPT +50722,Repair Procedures on the Ureter.,"In this procedure, the provider releases a blockage in the ureter caused by a dilated ovarian vein compressing the ureter.",CPT +50725,Repair Procedures on the Ureter.,"In this procedure, the provider frees a ureter from a ureteral obstruction due to a retrocaval ureter, a rare congenital anomaly in which the ureter passes behind the inferior vena cava. The provider uses one of two approaches to repair the anomaly. He may dissect the ureter to repair the retrocaval ureter or he dissects the vena cava into two ends, repositions the ureter in front, and reanastomoses, or surgically reconnects the vena cava. A retrocaval ureter is also known as a circumcaval ureter.",CPT +50727,Repair Procedures on the Ureter.,"In this procedure, the provider revises an artificial opening, or stoma between the skin and the urinary tract that he previously creates. He revises the opening based on the type of urostomy, which may be between the skin and the ureter, bladder, colon segment, or kidney. The provider performs this procedure because of a defect in the urinary or renal collecting system such as a blockage of the stoma, rupture, or other defect in the urinary tract.",CPT +50728,Repair Procedures on the Ureter.,"In this procedure, the provider revises an artificial opening, or stoma, between the skin and the urinary tract that he previously creates. He also repairs a defect in the fascia, or the fibrous tissue surrounding the anastomosis, and or a hernia, or rupture of the ureteral tissue. He revises the opening based on the type of urostomy, which may be between the skin and the ureter, bladder, colon segment, or kidney.",CPT +50740,Repair Procedures on the Ureter.,"In this procedure, the provider excises the occluded or blocked segment of ureter and attaches the healthy portion back to the renal pelvis, which is the upper portion of the ureter.",CPT +50750,Repair Procedures on the Ureter.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically connects the upper pole of a healthy nondilated ureter to the renal calyx for urinary drainage in a procedure known as ureterocalycostomy. He performs this procedure to bypass a ureteropelvic junction obstruction, or a blockage, in the upper part of the ureter and restore the continuity of the upper urinary tract.",CPT +50760,Repair Procedures on the Ureter.,"In this procedure, the provider excises and takes away a blocked portion of the ureter and then rejoins the two ends of the healthy ureter. The provider performs this procedure primarily to remove the blocked or injured part of the ureter.",CPT +50770,Repair Procedures on the Ureter.,"In this procedure, the provider excises and takes away a blocked or injured potion of the ureter and then joins the renal end of the remaining portion of the ureter to the healthy ureter on the other side of the body. The provider performs this procedure primarily if the length of the remaining ureter after removing the blocked or injured part is insufficient for anastomosis to the bladder.",CPT +50780,Repair Procedures on the Ureter.,The provider performs this procedure to reimplant the ureter into the urinary bladder. He performs this procedure primarily to remove an injured portion of ureter near the bladder.,CPT +50782,Repair Procedures on the Ureter.,"In this procedure, the provider detaches the ureter on one end, cuts off any diseased portion, and attaches the remaining portion back to the bladder. Providers perform this procedure on patients with a duplicated ureter, typically a congenital condition involving either two ureters arising from a single kidney and draining urine into the bladder after combining into one, or one ureter draining into the bladder and another into supporting structures like the vagina, urethra, etc.",CPT +50783,Repair Procedures on the Ureter.,The provider surgically transplants the ureter to a different site in the urinary bladder to allow uninterrupted flow of urine. He also performs an extensive ureteral reconstruction.,CPT +50785,Repair Procedures on the Ureter.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically transplants the ureter to a different site in the urinary bladder to allow an uninterrupted flow of urine. He connects the ureter to the new opening in the bladder by suturing the bladder and psoas or by harvesting a long, elliptical flap from the bladder roof.",CPT +50800,Repair Procedures on the Ureter.,"In this procedure, the provider cuts and sutures the ureter to a portion of the large intestine, typically near the sigmoid colon, to divert urine into it. He primarily performs this procedure to facilitate urine excretion following surgical removal of the urinary bladder due to severe trauma or malignancy.",CPT +50810,Repair Procedures on the Ureter.,"The provider creates a bladder structure out of an excised part of the sigmoid colon, inserts the ureters into it, and attaches the structure to allow passage of the patient’s urine through an artificially created outlet in the abdomen or perineum. Providers typically perform this procedure on patients whose urinary bladder has been taken out due to cancer or other reasons.",CPT +50815,Repair Procedures on the Ureter.,"In this procedure, the provider cuts the colon, makes a small incision on it, and attaches a ureter to the incision. He stitches the colon end onto the abdominal wall and creates an artificial opening to the outside of the body to allow the passage of urine. The provider attaches the remaining portion of colon back with the intestine to maintain continuity. Providers typically perform this procedure on patients whose urinary bladder has been taken out due to cancer or other reasons.",CPT +50820,Repair Procedures on the Ureter.,"In this procedure, the provider cuts a portion of the intestine known as the ileum, closes it from one end to form a pouch, sutures the ureter to divert urine into the ileal pouch, and connects the other end of the ileal pouch to the abdominal wall to create an external opening for outflow of urine. He then sutures the cut ends of the intestine together to reestablish bowel continuity. He primarily performs this procedure to facilitate urine excretion following surgical removal of the urinary bladder due to severe trauma or malignancy.",CPT +50825,Repair Procedures on the Ureter.,"In this procedure, the provider creates a pouch or other reservoir with a section cut from the small or large intestine. The provider sutures the ureters to the reservoir so that urine drains through the ureters into the reservoir. From there urine is excreted outside. The provider typically performs this procedure after the removal of the bladder.",CPT +50830,Repair Procedures on the Ureter.,"The provider performs this procedure to reestablish the urinary tract following previous operations of ileal conduits, ureterosigmoidostomy, or ureteroenterostomy with ureteroureterostomy or ureteroneocystostomy. The procedure involves reimplantation of the ureters into the bladder through newly created entry points on the bladder.",CPT +50840,Repair Procedures on the Ureter.,"The provider performs a surgical procedure using a section of an intestine to replace all, or part, of the duct that passes urine from the kidney to the bladder. The procedure is indicated for conditions such as, recurring stones, ureteral cancer, and extensive ureteral injury.",CPT +50845,Repair Procedures on the Ureter.,"In this procedure, the provider cuts a portion of the intestine known as the appendix, joins one end to the urinary bladder to divert urine into the bladder, and connects the other end to the abdominal wall to create an external opening for outflow of urine. He then sutures the cut ends of the intestine together to reestablish bowel continuity. He primarily performs this procedure to facilitate urine excretion following neurogenic or congenital dysfunction of the urinary bladder.",CPT +50860,Repair Procedures on the Ureter.,The provider creates an artificial opening to attach the ureter to the surface of the body to drain urine.,CPT +50900,Repair Procedures on the Ureter.,"In this procedure, the provider stitches a crack or discontinuity in the wall of the ureter. The provider may perform this primarily to regain the patency of the lumen following injury or surgical removal of stones within the ureter.",CPT +50920,Repair Procedures on the Ureter.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically removes a ureterocutaneous fistula, or an abnormal connection between the skin and the ureter.",CPT +50930,Repair Procedures on the Ureter.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically removes a ureterovisceral fistula, or an abnormal connection between the ureter and an internal organ of the body near the ureter. He also repairs the defect in the internal organ.",CPT +50940,Repair Procedures on the Ureter.,"The provider performs a surgical procedure to remove a constricting device, such as a thread, wire, or constricting band placed on the ureter during a previous surgery to control the flow of urine due to urinary incontinence. It may also occur as a result of accidental retention of surgical a device.",CPT +50945,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Ureter.,"In this procedure, the provider uses a laparoscope, a thin tube with a camera at one end to perform ureterolithotomy, or he removes a stone from the ureter.",CPT +50947,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Ureter.,"The provider reimplants the ureter into the bladder using a laparoscopic approach. The procedure includes the use of a laparoscope, and cystoscope, or endoscope, to examine the bladder and lower urinary tract and the placement of a stent. The procedure is done to treat ureteral injury, stricture, and/or obstruction.",CPT +50948,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Ureter.,"The provider reimplants the ureter into the bladder using a laparoscopic approach to treat ureteral injury, stricture, and/or obstruction.",CPT +50949,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Ureter.,Use to report laparoscopic procedures of the ureter that do not have a specific code.,CPT +50951,Endoscopy Procedures on the Ureter.,"The provider examines the kidney, renal pelvis, and ureters using an endoscope, which is passed through an opening already established between the skin, and ureter. The procedure is done for the diagnosis of ureteral lesions and removal of ureteral stones.",CPT +50953,Endoscopy Procedures on the Ureter.,"The provider examines the kidney, renal pelvis, and ureter using an endoscope, which the provider passes through an opening already established between the skin and ureter. The procedure also includes catheterization of the ureter and may include ureteral dilation, or widening of the ureter. Providers perform the service for examination of the area.",CPT +50955,Endoscopy Procedures on the Ureter.,"The provider examines the kidney, renal pelvis, and ureter using an endoscope, which the provider passes through an opening already established between the skin and ureter. Providers perform this biopsy procedure for the diagnosis of ureteral lesions.",CPT +50957,Endoscopy Procedures on the Ureter.,"The provider examines the kidney, renal pelvis, and ureter using an endoscope, which the provider passes through an opening already established between the skin and ureter. The procedure may include a biopsy of a lesion or tissues and may include using different techniques to visualize the procedure. The procedure also includes fulguration, involving high–frequency heat, or incision to destroy tissue. The provider primarily performs the procedure to investigate as well as treat malignancy.",CPT +50961,Endoscopy Procedures on the Ureter.,"The provider examines the kidney, renal pelvis, and ureter using an endoscope, which the provider passes through an opening already established between the skin and ureter. Providers perform the procedure for the removal of ureteral stones or other foreign bodies.",CPT +50970,Endoscopy Procedures on the Ureter.,"The provider examines the kidney, renal pelvis, and ureters by incising the ureter, and passing an endoscope through it to view the structures. The procedure also includes the use of different techniques to help visualize the area during the procedure. It is done for the removal of ureteral stones.",CPT +50972,Endoscopy Procedures on the Ureter.,"The provider examines the kidney, renal pelvis, and ureters by incising the ureter, and passing an endoscope through it to view the structures. The procedure also includes catheterization of the ureter and may include ureteral dilation, or widening of the ureter. It is done for the removal of ureteral stones.",CPT +50974,Endoscopy Procedures on the Ureter.,"The provider examines the kidney, renal pelvis, and ureters by incising the ureter, and passing an endoscope through it to view the structures. The procedure also includes biopsy of tissue. It is done for the removal of ureteral stones.",CPT +50976,Endoscopy Procedures on the Ureter.,"The provider examines the kidneys, renal pelvis and ureters by incising the ureter, and passing an endoscope through it to view the structures. The procedure includes a biopsy of a lesion or tissues and may include using different techniques to visualize the procedure. The procedure also includes fulguration, or high–frequency heat, or incision to destroy tissue.",CPT +50980,Endoscopy Procedures on the Ureter.,"The provider examines the kidneys, renal pelvis and ureters by incising the ureter, and passing an endoscope through it to view the structures. The procedure may include different techniques to visualize the procedure. This procedure includes the removal of any foreign body or stone, referred to as a calculus.",CPT +51020,Incision Procedures on the Bladder.,"In this procedure, the provider makes a surgical incision into the urinary bladder, or he creates an opening in the bladder wall to access the abnormal tissue. He then destroys the abnormal tissue with fulguration and or by placing a radioactive substance in the bladder cavity.",CPT +51030,Incision Procedures on the Bladder.,"In this procedure, the provider makes a surgical incision into the urinary bladder or he creates an opening in the bladder wall to access the abnormal tissue. He then destroys the abnormal tissue found within the bladder by cryosurgery, a method of destruction of tissue by freezing.",CPT +51040,Incision Procedures on the Bladder.,"Cystostomy, cystotomy with drainage.",CPT +51045,Incision Procedures on the Bladder.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision into the urinary bladder to insert a stent or catheter into the ureter. The aim of this procedure is to treat a stricture or blockage in the ureter.",CPT +51050,Incision Procedures on the Bladder.,"In this procedure, the provider incises the urinary bladder to remove a calculus, or stone, from the bladder. He performs this procedure without resection of the bladder neck.",CPT +51060,Incision Procedures on the Bladder.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision in the urinary bladder and ureter to remove a stone from the ureter. He performs this procedure along with resection of the bladder neck.",CPT +51065,Incision Procedures on the Bladder.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision into the urinary bladder and removes a ureteral calculus, or stone, using different techniques of extraction, such as a calculus basket extractor and ultrasonic or electrohydraulic fragmentation of the ureteral calculus.",CPT +51080,Incision Procedures on the Bladder.,"In this procedure, the provider incises an abscess near the urinary bladder and drains out the pus around the bladder.",CPT +51100,Removal Procedures on the Bladder.,"Bladder aspiration is performed to collect urine sample or provide temporary relief from acute urinary retention. Needle aspiration is performed percutaneously. The process is fast, simple, and easy to perform.",CPT +51101,Removal Procedures on the Bladder.,Bladder aspiration is performed to collect urine sample or provide temporary relief from acute urinary retention.,CPT +51102,Removal Procedures on the Bladder.,Aspiration of bladder; with insertion of suprapubic catheter.,CPT +51500,Excision Procedures on the Bladder.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically removes a urachal cyst or sinus. A urachus is an abnormal communication between the urinary bladder and the navel. He may also perform surgical correction of an umbilical hernia.",CPT +51520,Excision Procedures on the Bladder.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision in the bladder to excise the bladder neck. He performs this service to treat any obstruction, stricture, or abnormality in the neck of bladder.",CPT +51525,Excision Procedures on the Bladder.,"The provider makes an incision into the urinary bladder and excises one or more bladder diverticula, which are congenital or acquired herniations in the bladder wall caused by a protrusion or bulging of the lining of the bladder.",CPT +51530,Excision Procedures on the Bladder.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision into the bladder to remove a bladder tumor.",CPT +51535,Excision Procedures on the Bladder.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision into the urinary bladder and then excises, incises, or repairs an ureterocele, a congenital anomaly in which there is an abnormal dilation in the ureter where it inserts into the urinary bladder.",CPT +51550,Excision Procedures on the Bladder.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a simple cystectomy to surgically remove a part of the urinary bladder. The provider most commonly performs this procedure to treat bladder cancer or damage to the bladder.",CPT +51555,Excision Procedures on the Bladder.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a complex cystectomy to surgically remove a part of the urinary bladder. This procedure is complicated because of prior radiation therapy, a previous surgery, or the location of the tumor or other diseased tissues is difficult to reach. The provider most commonly performs this procedure to treat bladder cancer.",CPT +51565,Excision Procedures on the Bladder.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically removes a diseased or injured portion of the bladder close to the ureter and then he reimplants the ureter into the bladder through a newly created entry point in bladder.",CPT +51570,Excision Procedures on the Bladder.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically removes the complete urinary bladder. He performs this procedure most often to treat bladder cancer.",CPT +51575,Excision Procedures on the Bladder.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically removes the complete urinary bladder. He also removes the adjoining bilateral pelvic lymph nodes along with the external iliac, hypogastric, and obturator nodes. He performs this procedure when cancer is present in more than one area of the bladder.",CPT +51580,Excision Procedures on the Bladder.,"The provider completely removes the urinary bladder and adjoining organs. The procedure is most commonly performed as a result of bladder cancer found in more than one area of the bladder, or to treat cancer that has recurred. The procedure also includes a method to reroute urine by surgically implanting a ureter into the colon, or joining the urethra to the skin.",CPT +51585,Excision Procedures on the Bladder.,"The provider completely removes the urinary bladder, adjoining organs, and pelvic lymph nodes bilaterally. The procedure is most commonly performed as a result of bladder cancer found in more than one area of the bladder, or to treat a recurrence of cancer. The procedure also includes a method to re–route urine by the surgically implanting a ureter into the colon, or joining the urethra to the skin.",CPT +51590,Excision Procedures on the Bladder.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically removes the entire urinary bladder. To maintain the outflow of urine he may create a ureteroileal conduit. In this procedure, he cuts a portion of the intestine known as ileum, sutures the ureters to divert urine into it, and connects the other end to the abdominal wall to create an external opening for outflow of urine. As an alternative approach to maintaining the outflow of urine, he may choose to create a sigmoid bladder. In this procedure, he replaces the bladder with a U or J shaped segment of sigmoid colon. He sutures the ureters onto this. He connects the newly made sigmoid bladder to the urethra for outflow of urine. He then sutures the cut ends of the intestine together to reestablish bowel continuity. He primarily performs these procedures to facilitate urine excretion following surgical removal of the urinary bladder due to severe trauma or malignancy.",CPT +51595,Excision Procedures on the Bladder.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically removes the entire urinary bladder including extensive removal of bilateral pelvic lymph nodes, including external iliac, hypogastric, and obturator nodes. To maintain the outflow of urine he may create a ureteroileal conduit. In this procedure, he cuts a portion of the intestine known as ileum, sutures the ureters to divert urine into it, and connects the other end to the abdominal wall to create an external opening for outflow of urine. As an alternative approach to maintaining the outflow of urine, he may choose to create a sigmoid bladder. In this procedure, he replaces the bladder with a U or J shaped segment of sigmoid colon. He sutures the ureters onto this. He connects the newly made sigmoid bladder to the urethra for outflow of urine. He then sutures the cut ends of the intestine together to reestablish bowel continuity. He primarily performs these procedures to facilitate urine excretion following surgical removal of the urinary bladder due to malignancy.",CPT +51596,Excision Procedures on the Bladder.,"The provider completely removes the urinary bladder and adjoining organs. The procedure is most commonly performed as a result of bladder cancer found in more than one area of the bladder, or a recurrence of cancer. The procedure also includes the rerouting of urine from the body, through various techniques.",CPT +51597,Excision Procedures on the Bladder.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a surgical bloc resection of the pelvic structures, which may include the uterus, cervix, and vagina in a female patient, or prostate in a male, along with the bladder, lower ureters, lymph nodes, urethra, colon and or rectum. He performs this procedure in patients suffering from bladder, prostatic, or a urethral malignancy.",CPT +51600,Introduction Procedures on the Bladder.,Voiding cystourethrogram (VCUG) is also known as micturating cystourethrogram (MCUG). This is a technique which is performed to detect reflux by watching a person's urethra and urinary bladder during his or her micturition.,CPT +51605,Introduction Procedures on the Bladder.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts a chain into the urethra and or the bladder during the injection of contrast material for urethrocystography, an X–ray examination of the urethra and bladder using a contrast medium. He performs this examination to identify and diagnose abnormalities in the bladder and or lower urinary tract.",CPT +51610,Introduction Procedures on the Bladder.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts a catheter through the urethra and injects contrast material into the urethra. The provider then follows the flow of the urine backward to the bladder for urethrocystography, an X–ray examination of the urethra and bladder using contrast medium. He performs this examination to identify and diagnose abnormalities in the bladder and or lower urinary tract.",CPT +51700,Introduction Procedures on the Bladder.,Bladder irrigation and instillation are used to deliver medication directly to the bladder via a catheter.  These medications are usually anti–inflammatory agents used to treat infection or conditions like Interstitial Cystitis.,CPT +51701,Introduction Procedures on the Bladder.,"In this procedure, the provider places a non–indwelling catheter into the bladder via the urethra for the purpose of intermittent catheterization or catheterization to obtain residual urine left after voiding. A non–indwelling catheter is one that the provider places temporarily and removes after its purpose is complete, usually on the same day.",CPT +51702,Introduction Procedures on the Bladder.,"The bladder catheter CPT® codes provide options for reporting the procedures that best reflect the exact anatomic location of a catheter insertion, the type of catheter inserted, and, in some cases, the reason for the bladder catheter. The codes differentiate between indwelling and non–indwelling catheterization.",CPT +51703,Introduction Procedures on the Bladder.,"The bladder catheter CPT codes provide options for reporting the procedures that best reflect the exact anatomic location of a catheter insertion, the type of catheter inserted, and, in some cases, the reason for the bladder catheter. The codes differentiate between indwelling and non–indwelling catheterization.",CPT +51705,Introduction Procedures on the Bladder.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a simple removal of a tube that he previously places into a patient’s bladder and replaces it with a new tube through the same incision.",CPT +51710,Introduction Procedures on the Bladder.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a tube that he previously places into a patient’s bladder and replaces it with a new tube through the same incision. This procedure is complicated because of infection, inflammation, bleeding, or due to a narrowing or dilation of the passage.",CPT +51715,Introduction Procedures on the Bladder.,"In this procedure, the provider injects a natural or synthetic material into the submucosal tissue of the urethra and or bladder neck using an endoscope, a stiff or flexible tubular instrument with a camera at its one end that provider uses to examine the interior structures of a body cavity. He performs this injection to treat urinary incontinence, a condition in which there is a loss of bladder control causing urine leakage.",CPT +51720,Introduction Procedures on the Bladder.,This is a common treatment for bladder cancer. It involves instilling an anticarcinogenic agent into the bladder through a catheter. The provider leaves the agent in the bladder for a period of time before draining it out through the catheter.,CPT +51725,Urodynamic Procedures on the Bladder.,"A cystometer measures the bladder's capacity, or bladder pressure. It evaluates the contraction and expulsion activities of the bladder, and is used to diagnose certain urinary disorders.",CPT +51726,Urodynamic Procedures on the Bladder.,"A cystometer measures the bladder's capacity, or bladder pressure. It evaluates the contraction and expulsion activities of the bladder, and is used to diagnose certain urinary disorders.",CPT +51727,Urodynamic Procedures on the Bladder.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a complex cystometrogram along with urethral pressure profile studies to diagnose certain urinary disorders like an overactive bladder, stress incontinence, or urinary obstruction.",CPT +51728,Urodynamic Procedures on the Bladder.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a complex cystometrogram along with voiding pressure studies to diagnose certain urinary disorders like an overactive bladder, stress incontinence, or urinary obstruction.",CPT +51729,Urodynamic Procedures on the Bladder.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a complex cystometrogram along with voiding pressure studies and urethral pressure profile studies to diagnose certain urinary disorders like an overactive bladder, stress incontinence, or urinary obstruction.",CPT +51736,Urodynamic Procedures on the Bladder.,Uroflowmetry (UFR) is the process of measuring how much liquid the patient excretes from the bladder. It is measured in cubic centimeters per second. The rate is the ratio of volume over time.,CPT +51741,Urodynamic Procedures on the Bladder.,Uroflowmetry (UFR) is the process of measuring how much liquid the patient excretes from the bladder. It is measured in cubic centimeters per second. The rate is the ratio of volume over time.,CPT +51784,Urodynamic Procedures on the Bladder.,This test measures the electrical activity in the anal or urethral sphincter muscles.,CPT +51785,Urodynamic Procedures on the Bladder.,This study measures the electrical activity in the anal or urethral sphincter muscles.,CPT +51792,Urodynamic Procedures on the Bladder.,This procedure measures the electrical activity in the anal or urethral sphincter muscles.,CPT +51797,Urodynamic Procedures on the Bladder.,"Voiding pressure (sometimes referred to as leak point pressure) measures contractions of the detrusor muscle and can detect a pressure obstruction if the patient is able to void, or express, urine.",CPT +51798,Urodynamic Procedures on the Bladder.,Providers perform this ultrasound to measure the volume of residual urine in the bladder.,CPT +51800,Repair Procedures on the Bladder.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a plastic surgical repair of a defect or obstruction of the bladder or the vesical neck and the urethra. He may perform this procedure with removal of a portion of the back of the bladder neck.",CPT +51820,Repair Procedures on the Bladder.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically corrects a defect in the urinary bladder and the urethra along with reimplantation of one or both ureters in the bladder.",CPT +51840,Repair Procedures on the Bladder.,The provider performs a simple anterior vesicourethropexy or urethropexy (elevation and fixation of the bladder neck and urethra) to restore the urethrovesical angle and treat urinary incontinence.,CPT +51841,Repair Procedures on the Bladder.,"The provider performs an anterior vesicourethropexy or urethropexy (elevation and fixation of the bladder neck and urethra) that requires additional time due to extensive dissecction of adhesions, excessive bleeding, or other complicating factors; the provider performs the procedure to restore the urethrovesical angle and treat urinary incontinence.",CPT +51845,Repair Procedures on the Bladder.,"In this procedure, the provider suspends the bladder neck of a female patient by anchoring tissues on each side of the bladder neck and then suturing them to the fibrous tissue of the abdomen. He performs this procedure to treat stress incontinence, or the inability to hold urine during physical activities such as coughing, sneezing, laughing, or exercise.",CPT +51860,Repair Procedures on the Bladder.,"In this procedure, the provider repairs a simple wound, injury, or tears in the urinary bladder. He accesses the urinary bladder by making an incision in the abdomen.",CPT +51865,Repair Procedures on the Bladder.,"In this procedure, the provider repairs a complex wound, injury, or tear in the urinary bladder. He accesses the urinary bladder by making an incision in the abdomen. The procedure may be complicated due to previous surgery, or other complication.",CPT +51880,Repair Procedures on the Bladder.,"In this procedure, the provider reopens a previous incision and removes the cystostomy tube that is in place. He then closes the bladder opening with sutures.",CPT +51900,Repair Procedures on the Bladder.,A vesicovaginal fistula is an opening between the vagina and the urinary bladder.  A urethrovaginal fistula is an opening between the vagina and the urethra.  These afflictions often occur following an OB/GYN surgery for an enlarged uterus or other gynecological problem.,CPT +51920,Repair Procedures on the Bladder.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically removes a vesicouterine fistula, or an abnormal connection between the bladder and the uterus.",CPT +51925,Repair Procedures on the Bladder.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically removes a vesicouterine fistula, or an abnormal connection between the bladder and the uterus along with surgically removing the uterus.",CPT +51940,Repair Procedures on the Bladder.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically corrects exstrophy of the bladder, a congenital birth defect in which the urinary bladder protrudes out through a defect in the abdominal wall.",CPT +51960,Repair Procedures on the Bladder.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a portion of the bladder and repairs it with a segment of intestine. He most commonly performs this procedure due to damage to the bladder or to prevent the spread of an infection from the bladder to the surrounding healthy tissues.",CPT +51980,Repair Procedures on the Bladder.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically connects the bladder to an opening in the skin to divert the urine out of the body. This is done for bladder complications that lead to urine flow obstruction.",CPT +51990,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Bladder.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically suspends the urethra by placing several sutures and stitching with the urethra to surrounding tissue. He performs this procedure with a laparoscope, a thin tube with a camera at one end. This service is done for the treatment of stress incontinence, or the inability to control the urine.",CPT +51992,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Bladder.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically suspends the urethra by placing a sling graft at the junction of the bladder and the urethra. He performs this procedure with a laparoscope, a thin tube with a camera at one end. This service treats stress incontinence, or the inability to control the urine.",CPT +51999,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Bladder.,Use to report laparoscopy procedures on the bladder that do not have a specific code.,CPT +52000,"Endoscopy-Cystoscopy, Urethroscopy, Cystourethroscopy Procedures on the Bladder.","In this procedure, the provider performs an examination of the interior of the bladder, the urethra, and the ureteric openings by means of a cystourethroscope, a thin flexible or rigid tube with a camera on one end.",CPT +52001,"Endoscopy-Cystoscopy, Urethroscopy, Cystourethroscopy Procedures on the Bladder.","In this procedure, the provider performs an examination of the interior of the bladder, the urethra, and the ureteric openings by means of a cystourethroscope, a thin flexible or rigid tube with a camera on one end. He then inserts a suction and irrigation probe to evacuate multiple obstructing clots.",CPT +52005,"Endoscopy-Cystoscopy, Urethroscopy, Cystourethroscopy Procedures on the Bladder.","The provider performs a cystourethroscopy, inspection of the interior areas of the bladder, urethra, and ureteric pelvis; he may or may not irrigate the bladder, instill fluids, or perform imaging of the ureter and renal pelvis. Radiologic services, if performed, should be reported separately.",CPT +52007,"Endoscopy-Cystoscopy, Urethroscopy, Cystourethroscopy Procedures on the Bladder.","The provider performs a cystourethroscopy, inspection of the interior areas of the bladder, urethra, and ureteric pelvis, and obtains a biopsy of the ureter and/or renal pelvis using a brush inserted through the scope; he may or may not irrigate the bladder, instill fluids, or perform imaging of the ureter and renal pelvis. Radiologic services, if performed, should be reported separately.",CPT +52010,"Endoscopy-Cystoscopy, Urethroscopy, Cystourethroscopy Procedures on the Bladder.","In this procedure, the provider introduces a well lubricated flexible or rigid cystourethroscope through the external opening of the urethra and up into the bladder. He then inserts a catheter into the ejaculatory duct. He performs this procedure with or without irrigation, instillation, or radiological study of the ejaculatory duct.",CPT +52204,Urethra and Bladder Transurethral Surgical Procedures.,"The provider inspects the urethra, prostatic urethra (in men), the interior of the bladder, and ureteric openings using a cystoscope passed through the urethra and into the bladder and takes biopsies through the cystoscope.",CPT +52214,Urethra and Bladder Transurethral Surgical Procedures.,"The provider uses a cystoscope passed through the urethra and into the bladder to inspect the structures; he destroys (fulgurates) tissue on the bladder trigone, bladder neck, prostatic fossa, urethra, and/or periurethral glands with high–frequency electric current (electrocautery), intense cold (cryosurgery) or heat (laser surgery).",CPT +52224,Urethra and Bladder Transurethral Surgical Procedures.,"The provider inspects the urethra, prostatic urethra (in men), the interior of the bladder, and ureteric openings using a cystoscope passed through the urethra and into the bladder; he destroys (fulgurates) minor lesions of less than 0.5 cm with high–intensity electric current or with intense cold (cryosurgery) or heat (laser surgery); he may or may not perform biopsy.",CPT +52234,Urethra and Bladder Transurethral Surgical Procedures.,"The provider inspects the urethra, prostatic urethra (in men), the interior of the bladder, and ureteric openings using a cystoscope passed through the urethra and into the bladder; he destroys (fulgurates) small lesions between 0.5 cm and 2.0 cm with high–intensity electric current or with intense cold (cryosurgery) or heat (laser surgery).",CPT +52235,Urethra and Bladder Transurethral Surgical Procedures.,"The provider inspects the urethra, prostatic urethra (in men), the interior of the bladder, and ureteric openings using a cystoscope passed through the urethra and into the bladder; he destroys (fulgurates) medium lesions between 2.0 cm and 5.0 cm with high–intensity electric current or with intense cold (cryosurgery) or heat (laser surgery).",CPT +52240,Urethra and Bladder Transurethral Surgical Procedures.,"The provider inspects the urethra, prostatic urethra (in men), the interior of the bladder, and ureteric openings using a cystoscope passed through the urethra and into the bladder; he destroys (fulgurates) lesions larger than 5.0 cm with high–intensity electric current or with intense cold (cryosurgery) or heat (laser surgery).",CPT +52250,Urethra and Bladder Transurethral Surgical Procedures.,"The provider inspects the urethra, prostatic urethra (in men), the interior of the bladder, and ureteric openings using a cystoscope passed through the urethra and into the bladder and inserts a radioactive substance to treat cancer; he may or may not destroy (fulgurate) or take samples of (biopsy) suspiciouis lesions for pathologic examination.",CPT +52260,Urethra and Bladder Transurethral Surgical Procedures.,"With the patient under general or spinal anesthesia, the provider inspects the urethra, prostatic urethra (in men), the interior of the bladder, and ureteric openings using a cystoscope passed through the urethra and into the bladder to assess the bladder for interstitial cystitis.",CPT +52265,Urethra and Bladder Transurethral Surgical Procedures.,"With the patient under local anesthesia, the provider inspects the urethra, prostatic urethra (in men), the interior of the bladder, and ureteric openings using a cystoscope passed through the urethra and into the bladder to assess the bladder for interstitial cystitis.",CPT +52270,Urethra and Bladder Transurethral Surgical Procedures.,"The provider inspects the female urethra, the interior of the bladder, and ureteric openings using a cystoscope passed through the urethra and into the bladder and incises a narrowed area (stricture) in the internal urethra.",CPT +52275,Urethra and Bladder Transurethral Surgical Procedures.,"The provider inspects the male urethra, prostatic urethra, the interior of the bladder, and ureteric openings using a cystoscope passed through the urethra and into the bladder and incises a narrowed area (stricture) in the internal urethra.",CPT +52276,Urethra and Bladder Transurethral Surgical Procedures.,"The provider inspects the urethra, the interior of the bladder, and ureteric openings using a cystoscope passed through the urethra and into the bladder and incises a narrowed area (stricture) in the internal urethra under direct vision.",CPT +52277,Urethra and Bladder Transurethral Surgical Procedures.,"The provider inspects the urethra, prostatic urethra (in men), the interior of the bladder, and ureteric openings using a cystoscope passed through the urethra and into the bladder and incises the muscular valve of the external sphincter to treat bladder outlet obstruction.",CPT +52281,Urethra and Bladder Transurethral Surgical Procedures.,"The provider performs a cystourethroscopy, inspection of the bladder's interior, the urethra, the prostatic urethra, and the ureteric openings using a cystoscope passed through the urethra and into the bladder. In the procedures represented by CPT codes and 52282, the physician dilates a urethral stricture and may perform a meatotomy (make an incision in the urethral meatus) or inject contrast material for radiological study.",CPT +52282,Urethra and Bladder Transurethral Surgical Procedures.,"The provider performs a cystourethroscopy, the inspection of the bladder's interior, the urethra, the prostatic urethra, and the ureteric openings using a cystoscope passed through the urethra and into the bladder, dilates a urethral stricture, and inserts a permanent stent into the urethra to keep it open.",CPT +52283,Urethra and Bladder Transurethral Surgical Procedures.,"The provider performs a cystourethroscopy, the inspection of the interior of the bladder, the urethra, prostatic urethra, and ureteric openings, using cystoscope passed through the urethra and into the bladder and injects a steroid medication into a urethral stricture.",CPT +52284,Urethra and Bladder Transurethral Surgical Procedures.,The provider uses a cystourethroscope and drug–coated balloon catheter to dilate the urethra and deliver a therapeutic drug to treat urethral stricture or narrowing in a male patient. The provider may use fluoroscopy for guidance.,CPT +52285,Urethra and Bladder Transurethral Surgical Procedures.,"The provider performs cystourethroscopy, inspection of the interior of the bladder, the urethra, and ureteric openings using a cystoscope passed through the urethra and into the bladder and treats female urethral syndrome using a variety of methods.",CPT +52287,Urethra and Bladder Transurethral Surgical Procedures.,"The provider performs an examination of the interior of the bladder, the urethra, and the ureteric openings by means of a cystoscope. He then inserts a needle and injects a neurolytic drug into the bladder muscle to treat an overactive bladder.",CPT +52290,Urethra and Bladder Transurethral Surgical Procedures.,"The provider inspects the urethra, prostatic urethra (in men), the interior of the bladder, and ureteric openings using a cystoscope passed through the urethra and into the bladder and incises one or both opening of the ureters.",CPT +52300,Urethra and Bladder Transurethral Surgical Procedures.,"The provider inspects the urethra, prostatic urethra (in men), the interior of the bladder, and ureteric openings using a cystoscope passed through the urethra and into the bladder and resects (cuts out) or fulgurates (destroys with high–frequency electric current) a normally placed (orthotopic) ureterocele (prolapse of a ureter into the bladder) on one or both sides.",CPT +52301,Urethra and Bladder Transurethral Surgical Procedures.,"The provider inspects the urethra, prostatic urethra (in men), the interior of the bladder, and ureteric openings using a cystoscope passed through the urethra and into the bladder and resects (cuts out) or fulgurates (destroys with high–frequency electric current) an abnormally placed (ectopic) ureterocele (prolapse of a ureter into the bladder) on one or both sides.",CPT +52305,Urethra and Bladder Transurethral Surgical Procedures.,"The provider inspects the urethra, prostatic urethra (in men), the interior of the bladder, and ureteric openings using a cystoscope passed through the urethra and incises or resects (cuts out) the opening of one or more bladder diverticula (a pouch in the bladder wall).",CPT +52310,Urethra and Bladder Transurethral Surgical Procedures.,"The provider performs a simple cystourethroscopy, the inspection of the interior of the bladder, the urethra, prostatic urethra, and ureteric openings using a cystoscope passed through the urethra and into the bladder, and removes a foreign body, stone, or displaced ureteral stent through the cystoscope.",CPT +52315,Urethra and Bladder Transurethral Surgical Procedures.,"The provider performs a complicated cystourethroscopy, the inspection of the interior of the bladder, the urethra, prostatic urethra, and ureteric openings using a cystoscope passed through the urethra and into the bladder, and removes a foreign body, stone or displaced ureteral stent through the cystoscope; additional time to carry out the procedure may be required due to excessive bleeding, inadvertent tear of the ureter, stricture, or other complications.",CPT +52317,Urethra and Bladder Transurethral Surgical Procedures.,"The provider performs a simple cystourethroscopy, the inspection of the interior of the bladder, the urethra, prostatic urethra, and ureteric openings using a cystoscope passed through the urethra and into the bladder, and localizes, crushes, and removes a small stone less than 2.5 cm in diameter.",CPT +52318,Urethra and Bladder Transurethral Surgical Procedures.,"The provider performs a complicated cystourethroscopy, the inspection of the interior of the bladder, the urethra, prostatic urethra, and ureteric openings using a cystoscope passed through the urethra and into the bladder, and localizes, crushes, and removes a large stone over 2.5 cm in size.",CPT +52320,Ureter and Pelvis Transurethral Surgical Procedures.,"The provider performs cystourethroscopy, the inspection of the interior of the bladder, the urethra, prostatic urethra, and ureteric openings using a cystoscope passed through the urethra and into the bladder, and also inserts the catheter into the ureter and removes a stone from the ureter.",CPT +52325,Ureter and Pelvis Transurethral Surgical Procedures.,"The provider performs cystourethroscopy, the inspection of the interior of the bladder, the urethra, prostatic urethra, and ureteric openings using a cystoscope passed through the urethra and into the bladder, and also inserts the catheter into the ureter and fragments and removes a stone from the ureter using a technique such as ultrasonic (high–frequency sound waves) or electrohydraulic lithotripsy (shock waves produced by electric discharges).",CPT +52327,Ureter and Pelvis Transurethral Surgical Procedures.,"The provider performs cystourethroscopy, the inspection of the interior of the bladder, the urethra, prostatic urethra, and ureteric openings using a cystoscope passed through the urethra and into the bladder, inserts the catheter tip into the ureteral opening, and injects an implant material below the opening to prevent backflow of urine from the bladder into the ureter (vesicoureteral reflux).",CPT +52330,Ureter and Pelvis Transurethral Surgical Procedures.,"The provider performs cystourethroscopy, the inspection of the interior of the bladder, the urethra, prostatic urethra, and ureteric openings using a cystoscope passed through the urethra and into the bladder, and also inserts the catheter into the ureter and manipulates a stone but doesn't remove it from the ureter.",CPT +52332,Ureter and Pelvis Transurethral Surgical Procedures.,"The provider performs cystourethroscopy, the inspection of the interior of the bladder, the urethra, prostatic urethra, and ureteric openings using a cystoscope passed through the urethra and into the bladder, and also inserts an indwelling stent into the ureter.",CPT +52334,Ureter and Pelvis Transurethral Surgical Procedures.,"The provider performs cystourethroscopy, the inspection of the interior of the bladder, the urethra, prostatic urethra, and ureteric openings using a cystoscope passed through the urethra and into the bladder, and inserts a guidewire through the ureter to create a percutaneous retrograde nephrostomy, an artificial pathway between the kidney and outside of the body to allow drainage of urine or stone removal from the renal pelvis.",CPT +52341,Ureter and Pelvis Transurethral Surgical Procedures.,"The provider performs cystourethroscopy, the inspection of the interior of the bladder, the urethra, prostatic urethra, and ureteric openings using a cystoscope passed through the urethra and into the bladder, and inserts the catheter tip into the ureteral opening; he then chooses from various methods to treat a ureteral stricture.",CPT +52342,Ureter and Pelvis Transurethral Surgical Procedures.,"The provider performs cystourethroscopy, the inspection of the interior of the bladder, the urethra, prostatic urethra, and ureteric openings using a cystoscope passed through the urethra and into the bladder, and inserts the catheter tip into and through the ureter up to the ureteropelvic junction (UPJ), where he chooses from various methods to treat a UPJ stricture.",CPT +52343,Ureter and Pelvis Transurethral Surgical Procedures.,"The provider performs cystourethroscopy, the inspection of the interior of the bladder, the urethra, prostatic urethra, and ureteric openings using a cystoscope passed through the urethra and into the bladder, and inserts the catheter tip into and through the ureter up to the intrarenal structures; he then chooses from various methods to treat an intrarenal stricture.",CPT +52344,Ureter and Pelvis Transurethral Surgical Procedures.,"The provider performs cystourethroscopy, the inspection of the interior of the bladder, the urethra, prostatic urethra, and ureteric openings using a cystoscope passed through the urethra and into the bladder, and inserts the catheter tip into the ureteral opening, where he chooses from various methods to treat a ureteral stricture; the provider also uses a ureteroscope for further visualization of the ureters.",CPT +52345,Ureter and Pelvis Transurethral Surgical Procedures.,"The provider performs cystourethroscopy, the inspection of the interior of the bladder, the urethra, prostatic urethra, and ureteric openings using a cystoscope passed through the urethra and into the bladder, and passes a ureteroscope up to the ureteropelvic junction (UPJ), where he chooses from various methods to treat a UPJ stricture.",CPT +52346,Ureter and Pelvis Transurethral Surgical Procedures.,"The provider performs cystourethroscopy, the inspection of the interior of the bladder, the urethra, prostatic urethra, and ureteric openings using a cystoscope passed through the urethra and into the bladder, and inserts a ureteroscope through the ureters up to the intrarenal structures, where he chooses from various methods to treat an intrarenal stricture.",CPT +52351,Ureter and Pelvis Transurethral Surgical Procedures.,"The provider performs a diagnostic cystourethroscopy, the inspection of the interior of the bladder, the urethra, prostatic urethra, and ureteric openings using a cystoscope passed through the urethra and into the bladder, and performs a ureteroscopy (inspection of the ureters) and/or a pyeloscopy (inspection of the renal pelvis).",CPT +52352,Ureter and Pelvis Transurethral Surgical Procedures.,"The provider performs a cystourethroscopy, the inspection of the interior of the bladder, the urethra, prostatic urethra, and ureteric openings using a cystoscope passed through the urethra and into the bladder, and performs a ureteroscopy (inspection of the ureters) and/or a pyeloscopy (inspection of the renal pelvis). He finds a calculus (stone) and removes or manipulates its position so that it can pass on its own or reduce obstruction.",CPT +52353,Ureter and Pelvis Transurethral Surgical Procedures.,"The provider performs a cystourethroscopy, the inspection of the interior of the bladder, the urethra, prostatic urethra, and ureteric openings using a cystoscope passed through the urethra and into the bladder, and performs a ureteroscopy (inspection of the ureters) and/or a pyeloscopy (inspection of the renal pelvis). He finds a calculus (stone) and uses lithotripsy to fragment the stone so that the fragments can pass or be washed out with irrigation.",CPT +52354,Ureter and Pelvis Transurethral Surgical Procedures.,"The provider performs a cystourethroscopy, the inspection of the interior of the bladder, the urethra, prostatic urethra, and ureteric openings using a cystoscope passed through the urethra and into the bladder, and performs a ureteroscopy (inspection of the ureters) and/or a pyeloscopy (inspection of the renal pelvis). He finds a ureteral or pelvic lesion and biopsies it for pathologic examination or destroys it with high–frequency electric current (fulguration).",CPT +52355,Ureter and Pelvis Transurethral Surgical Procedures.,"The provider performs a cystourethroscopy, the inspection of the interior of the bladder, the urethra, prostatic urethra, and ureteric openings using a cystoscope passed through the urethra and into the bladder, and performs a ureteroscopy (inspection of the ureters) and/or a pyeloscopy (inspection of the renal pelvis). He finds a ureteral or pelvic tumor and resects it (cuts it out).",CPT +52356,Ureter and Pelvis Transurethral Surgical Procedures.,"The provider performs a cystourethroscopy, the inspection of the interior of the bladder, the urethra, prostatic urethra, and ureteric openings using a cystoscope passed through the urethra and into the bladder, and performs a ureteroscopy (inspection of the ureters) and/or a pyeloscopy (inspection of the renal pelvis). He finds a stone which he breaks apart using lithotripsy and inserts an indwelling ureteral stent to keep the ureter open for passage of fragments and allow it to heal.",CPT +52400,Vesical Neck and Prostate Surgical Procedures.,"Cystourethroscopy is the inspection of the interior of the bladder, the urethra, prostatic urethra, and ureteric openings by a cystoscope that is passed through the urethra and into the bladder. It is a common diagnostic procedure for conditions ranging from urinary tract infections and stress incontinence, to the follow up of bladder cancer treatment. It can take as little as 5–10 minutes of surgical time to complete this procedure.",CPT +52402,Vesical Neck and Prostate Surgical Procedures.,The provider uses a cystoscope passed through the urethra to inspect the ejaculatory ducts (a pair of tubes through which semen moves out); he cuts out (excises) a part of the duct that is obstructed or incises (cuts into) the ducts to open a stricture (narrowing).,CPT +52441,Vesical Neck and Prostate Surgical Procedures.,"Using a cystourethroscope, the provider places a single permanent adjustable transprostatic implant to retract prostatic lobes that obstruct the urethra.",CPT +52442,Vesical Neck and Prostate Surgical Procedures.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider uses a cystourethroscope to place an additional permanent adjustable transprostatic implant to retract prostatic lobes that obstruct the urethra.",CPT +52450,Vesical Neck and Prostate Surgical Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider passes a cystourethroscope through the urethra and examines the interior of the urethra, then advances it further and incises the prostate capsule to relax the muscles and facilitate the passage of urine.",CPT +52500,Vesical Neck and Prostate Surgical Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider passes a cystourethroscope through the urethra and examines the interior of the urethra, then advances it further and excises tissue from the bladder neck to treat a urinary obstruction.",CPT +52601,Vesical Neck and Prostate Surgical Procedures.,"During transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), the surgeon inserts a resectoscope via the urethra and removes a portion of the prostate. This procedure includes several other urological surgery services, such as cystoscopy, meatotomy, and urethral dilation. Because these procedures are intrinsically part of the TURP procedure, you can't report them separately.",CPT +52630,Vesical Neck and Prostate Surgical Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider resects prostate tissue left after a previous procedure or regrowth after a previous resection.",CPT +52640,Vesical Neck and Prostate Surgical Procedures.,Postoperative bladder neck contracture (BNC) is generally due to prostatectomy surgery. The surgical procedure involves the removal of these contracture performed under an endoscope.,CPT +52647,Vesical Neck and Prostate Surgical Procedures.,"Transurethral resection of the prostate is performed in cases of BPH (benign prostate hyperplasia) which commonly occurs in middle–aged and elderly men. It often causes lower urinary tract symptoms, with urgency, frequency, straining weak flow, infection, and incomplete bladder emptying.",CPT +52648,Vesical Neck and Prostate Surgical Procedures.,"Transurethral resection of the prostate is performed in cases of BPH (benign prostate hyperplasia) which commonly occurs in middle–aged and elderly men, often causing lower urinary symptoms, with urgency, frequency, straining weak flow, infection and incomplete bladder emptying.",CPT +52649,Vesical Neck and Prostate Surgical Procedures.,"Transurethral resection of the prostate is performed in cases of BPH (benign prostate hyperplasia) which commonly occurs in middle–aged and elderly men. BPH often causes lower urinary symptoms, with urgency, frequency, straining weak flow, infection, and incomplete bladder emptying. Holmium laser enucleation of the prostate (HoLEP) combined with mechanical morcellation represents the latest refinement of holmium:YAG surgical treatment for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH).",CPT +52700,Vesical Neck and Prostate Surgical Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider incises the prostate gland to drain an abscess found within or on the prostate.",CPT +53000,Incision Procedures on the Urethra.,The provider treats a stricture of the urethra by making an incision in the pendulous part of the urethra. He performs the procedure to correct difficulty voiding.,CPT +53010,Incision Procedures on the Urethra.,The provider treats a stricture of the perineal portion of the urethra by making an incision in the anterior part of the urethra. He performs the procedure to treat difficulty voiding.,CPT +53020,Incision Procedures on the Urethra.,The provider enlarges the meatal opening by making an incision in it. He performs the procedure in patients over one year of age. He performs the procedure to improve urination.,CPT +53025,Incision Procedures on the Urethra.,"The provider enlarges the meatal opening by making an incision in it, in a patient younger than one year of age. He performs the procedure to improve urination.",CPT +53040,Incision Procedures on the Urethra.,The provider drains an abscess in the urethra. The abscess may be due to an infection or injury to the urethra. The provider performs the procedure to treat infection and relieve pain.,CPT +53060,Incision Procedures on the Urethra.,The provider drains an abscess or cyst of the Skene's glands.,CPT +53080,Incision Procedures on the Urethra.,The provider drains urine that has collected in the perineal tissues; the drainage is not complicated by any unforeseen issues. The provider performs the procedure to correct the leakage and relieve pain.,CPT +53085,Incision Procedures on the Urethra.,The provider drains urine that has collected in the perineal tissues. The procedure may be complicated and require more dissection or the extravasation may be large. He performs the procedure to correct the leakage and relieve pain.,CPT +53200,Excision Procedures on the Urethra.,The provider excises tissue from the urethra for biopsy. He sends the specimen to the laboratory for diagnosis. He performs the procedure to determine the nature of a lesion in the urethra.,CPT +53210,Excision Procedures on the Urethra.,The provider completely removes the urethra and creates an opening from the urinary bladder to the skin to drain urine in a female patient. He performs the procedure to treat an extensive tumor of the urethra.,CPT +53215,Excision Procedures on the Urethra.,The provider completely removes the urethra and creates an opening from the urinary bladder to the skin to drain the urine in a male patient. He performs the procedure to treat an extensive tumor of the urethra.,CPT +53220,Excision Procedures on the Urethra.,The provider partially or completely excises a tumor in the urethra or exposes it to electric current to destroy it. He performs the procedure to remove a malignant tumor and improve urination.,CPT +53230,Excision Procedures on the Urethra.,The provider removes the urethral diverticulum in a female patient by making an incision in the vaginal wall. He performs the procedure to improve urination and relieve pain.,CPT +53235,Excision Procedures on the Urethra.,The provider removes the urethral diverticulum in a male patient by making an incision in the suprapubic area. He performs the procedure to improve urination and relieve pain.,CPT +53240,Excision Procedures on the Urethra.,The provider creates an opening in a diverticulum by making a surgical incision. He performs the procedure to improve urination and relieve pain in both male and female patients.,CPT +53250,Excision Procedures on the Urethra.,"The bulbourethral glands are a pair of pea–sized exocrine glands located at the base of the penis, lateral and parallel to the urethra, in the deep perineal pouch, surrounded by the fascial layers of the sphincter urethrae membranaceae muscle. They connect to the urethra through a single excretory duct at the base of the penis. The glands are responsible for pre–ejaculatory secretion of a clear, viscous seminal fluid that helps clean and lubricate the urethra while neutralizing the acidity of the urethra for the smooth passing of the semen. The glands also produce a small amount of prostate–specific antigen. The Cowper's glands may be excised for malignancy or other abnormality such as cysts in the gland (Cowper's syringocele) or infection. Diagnostic procedures include retrograde and voiding urethrography, perineal MRI, or cavernosography.",CPT +53260,Excision Procedures on the Urethra.,"The provider excises a polyp from the urethra or exposes it to electric current, which essentially burns the tissue to destroy it. The provider performs this procedure to improve urination and relieve pain in both male and female patients.",CPT +53265,Excision Procedures on the Urethra.,The provider removes a caruncle from the urethra of the patient by excising it or exposing it to electric current. He performs this procedure to improve urination and relieve pain in both male and female patients.,CPT +53270,Excision Procedures on the Urethra.,This procedure is the excision or fulguration of the Skene's glands.,CPT +53275,Excision Procedures on the Urethra.,"The provider treats urethral prolapse by excising prolapsed tissue or exposing it to electric current. He performs the procedure to improve urination, prevent infection, and relieve pain.",CPT +53400,Repair Procedures on the Urethra.,"The provider repairs a urethral defect or injury in two stages. In this first stage, the provider identifies the defect, opens it to remove obstructing tissue, and sutures the mucosal edges of the urethra to the skin.",CPT +53405,Repair Procedures on the Urethra.,"The provider repairs the urethral defect or injury in two stages. In this second stage, the provider creates a new urethral structure to maintain the normal passageway for urine.",CPT +53410,Repair Procedures on the Urethra.,The provider reconstructs the urethra of the male patient by excising the defect and grafting tissue form bladder epithelium or buccal mucosa to the excision site. He performs the procedure to correct a urethral defect.,CPT +53415,Repair Procedures on the Urethra.,The provider repairs and reconstructs a urethral defect or injury by making a transpubic or perineal incision from the back of scrotum to the anal margins. He performs the procedure to correct a deformity and relieve pain.,CPT +53420,Repair Procedures on the Urethra.,"The provider repairs and reconstructs a urethral defect or injury. He performs this in two stages. In this first stage, the provider identifies the stricture and sutures it. He performs the procedure to improve urination, prevent infection, and relieve pain.",CPT +53425,Repair Procedures on the Urethra.,"The provider repairs and reconstructs the urethral defect or injury. He performs this in two stages. In this second stage, the provider places a graft at the site of the defect left from the previous procedure. He performs the procedure to correct a urethral defect, prevent infection, and relieve pain.",CPT +53430,Repair Procedures on the Urethra.,"The provider reconstructs the urethra of a female patient by grafting tissue form perineal or vaginal epithelium to the affected site. He performs the procedure to correct a defect, prevent infection, and relieve pain.",CPT +53431,Repair Procedures on the Urethra.,The provider elongates the urethra using surrounding urethral muscles and fascia and repairs a urethral defect. He performs the procedure to improve urination and prevent infection.,CPT +53440,Repair Procedures on the Urethra.,The provider inserts a synthetic mesh sling or creates a sling using fascia to support the urethra and restore continence in a male patient.,CPT +53442,Repair Procedures on the Urethra.,The provider removes or revises a sling placed for controlling urinary incontinence in male patients. He does so either to cure the infection caused by the sling or to loosen it if the patient suffers from urinary retention due to tightening of the sling.,CPT +53444,Repair Procedures on the Urethra.,"The provider inserts a dual cuff in patients with urinary incontinence, even after insertion of artificial urinary sphincter, or if the patient experiences high grade stress incontinence.",CPT +53445,Repair Procedures on the Urethra.,"The provider places an inflatable artificial sphincter that includes a cuff that fits around the bladder neck, a pressure regulating balloon, and a pump at the scrotum to inflate and deflate the cuff. This procedure treats incontinence due to a lax urinary sphincter or problems with incontinence caused by prostate surgery in males.",CPT +53446,Repair Procedures on the Urethra.,The provider removes an inflatable artificial urinary sphincter if it fails to stop the incontinence in a patient. The provider may also remove the device in case of infection or erosion of the system.,CPT +53447,Repair Procedures on the Urethra.,The provider removes the previously implanted artificial urinary sphincter and replaces it with a new one at the same operative session. He performs the procedure when a patient suffers any complications after the implantation of artificial urinary sphincter.,CPT +53448,Repair Procedures on the Urethra.,The provider removes the previously implanted artificial urinary sphincter and replaces it with a new one at the same operative session. He performs the procedure when an infection occurs in the previously implanted artificial sphincter.,CPT +53449,Repair Procedures on the Urethra.,The provider repairs a previously implanted artificial urinary sphincter due to complications such as tissue atrophy or cuff erosion.,CPT +53450,Repair Procedures on the Urethra.,"The provider enlarges the meatus by making an incision in it to treat meatal stenosis, or narrowing and reconstructs any part of urethra near the meatus.",CPT +53451,Repair Procedures on the Urethra.,"Under cystourethroscopic and imaging guidance, the provider uses a minimally invasive approach through the perineum to place an adjustable balloon on each side of the urethra to treat incontinence.",CPT +53452,Repair Procedures on the Urethra.,"Under cystourethroscopic and imaging guidance, the provider uses a minimally invasive approach through the perineum to place an adjustable balloon on one side of the urethra to treat incontinence.",CPT +53453,Repair Procedures on the Urethra.,The provider removes a balloon continence device from next to the urethra. The balloon was placed previously using a minimally invasive transperineal approach.,CPT +53454,Repair Procedures on the Urethra.,The provider uses a percutaneous approach to adjust the fluid volume of one or more balloons used as a continence device next to the urethra. The balloon was placed previously using a minimally invasive transperineal approach.,CPT +53460,Repair Procedures on the Urethra.,"The provider enlarges the meatal opening by making an incision in it to treat meatal stenosis, or narrowing, and reconstructs any part of urethra near the meatus.",CPT +53500,Repair Procedures on the Urethra.,The provider treats postoperative urethral obstruction in a female patient due to prior antiincontinence surgeries and the formation of excessive scar tissue.,CPT +53502,Repair Procedures on the Urethra.,The provider sutures a laceration or tear in the urethra in a female patient. He performs the procedure to restore function and relieve pain caused by the injury.,CPT +53505,Repair Procedures on the Urethra.,The provider sutures a laceration or tear in the urethra in a male patient. He performs the procedure to restore function and relieve pain caused by the injury.,CPT +53510,Repair Procedures on the Urethra.,"The provider sutures a tear in the urethra due to an injury in the perineal region. He performs the procedure to restore function, prevent infection and fistula formation, and to relieve pain.",CPT +53515,Repair Procedures on the Urethra.,"The provider performs this procedure for stitching of a urethral wound or injury in prostatomembranous region, the part of the urethra passing from the prostate to the bulb of the penis.",CPT +53520,Repair Procedures on the Urethra.,The provider closes an opening or fistula between the urethra and penile skin to prevent infection and improve urination.,CPT +53600,Manipulation Procedures on the Urethra.,"The provider passes a sound or urethral dilator to dilate a urethral stricture, or narrowing, in male patients to improve urinary flow and prevent infection. Use this code for initial visit of the patient.",CPT +53601,Manipulation Procedures on the Urethra.,"The provider passes a sound or urethral dilator to dilate a urethral stricture, or narrowing, in a male patient to improve urinary flow and prevent infection. Use this code for a subsequent visit of the patient.",CPT +53605,Manipulation Procedures on the Urethra.,"The provider passes a sound or urethral dilator to dilate a urethral or bladder neck stricture, or narrowing, in a male patient under general or spinal anesthesia. He performs the procedure to improve urinary flow and prevent infection.",CPT +53620,Manipulation Procedures on the Urethra.,"The provider dilates a urethral stricture, or narrowing, by passing small tools like a filiform and follower, in a male patient. He performs the procedure to improve urinary flow and prevent infection. Use this code for initial visit of the patient.",CPT +53621,Manipulation Procedures on the Urethra.,"The provider dilates a urethral stricture, or narrowing, by passing small tools such as a filiform and follower, in a male patient. He performs the procedure to improve urinary flow and prevent infection. Use this code for subsequent visit of the patient.",CPT +53660,Manipulation Procedures on the Urethra.,"The female urethral dilation CPT codes (–53665) involve the insertion of dilators, usually multiple dilators of progressively increasing size, to widen the urethra, and promote complete voiding of the bladder in patients with voiding problems. The physician may use a suppository or perform instillation of other medication to relieve a urethral stricture.",CPT +53661,Manipulation Procedures on the Urethra.,"The female urethral dilation CPT codes (53660–53665) involve the insertion of dilators, usually multiple dilators of progressively increasing size, to widen the urethra, and promote complete voiding of the bladder in patients with voiding problems. The physician may use a suppository or perform instillation of other medication to relieve a urethral stricture.",CPT +53665,Manipulation Procedures on the Urethra.,"The female urethral dilation CPT codes (53660–) involve the insertion of dilators, usually multiple dilators of progressively increasing size, to widen the urethra, and promote complete voiding of the bladder in patients with voiding problems. The physician may use a suppository or perform instillation of other medication to relieve a urethral stricture.",CPT +53850,Other Procedures on the Urethra.,"Microwave thermotherapy is a treatment method that uses heat to destroy abnormal tissue. It is used to treat benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH), a condition in which the prostate becomes enlarged due to abnormal growth of the stromal and epithelial cells of the prostate. As a result, the urethra becomes obstructed causing obstruction to the flow of urine and subsequent urinary disorders such as dysuria (painful urination), urinary retention, frequent urination, and urinary tract infection. Microwave energy (heat) is applied to the enlarged prostatic tissue, causing reduction of the enlarged tissue with simultaneous protective cooling of adjacent urethral tissue.",CPT +53852,Other Procedures on the Urethra.,"The provider destroys the prostatic tissue by using radiofrequency ablation, in male patients suffering from benign prostatic hypertrophy.",CPT +53854,Other Procedures on the Urethra.,The provider uses a radiofrequency–generated water vapor thermal device to destroy prostate tissue to treat BPH and lower urinary tract symptoms.,CPT +53855,Other Procedures on the Urethra.,"In this procedure the provider inserts a sterile, disposable tube–like device in the urethra to prevent its collapse and allow proper flow of urine. The provider primarily performs this procedure to support and keep patent the prostatic urethra following obstructive swelling of the prostate immediately after treatment for benign prostrate hyperplasia.",CPT +53860,Other Procedures on the Urethra.,This is a minimally invasive treatment for stress continence. In this procedure the provider inserts a probe with a balloon tip into the bladder lumen and delivers radiofrequency in a controlled manner. The procedure reduces local tissue elasticity by denaturation of the tissue’s structural proteins called collagen.,CPT +53899,Other Procedures on the Urethra.,Use to report procedures in the urinary system that do not have a specific code.,CPT +54000,Incision Procedures on the Penis.,The provider cuts or slits the prepuce in a newborn to reduce narrowing and prevent withdrawal of the foreskin back over the head of the penis.,CPT +54001,Incision Procedures on the Penis.,The provider cuts or slits the prepuce in a patient older than 28 days to reduce narrowing and prevent withdrawal of the foreskin back over the head of the penis.,CPT +54015,Incision Procedures on the Penis.,"The provider drains a deep abscess, cyst, or lesion by making an incision in the penile tissue. He performs the procedure to prevent infection and relieve pain.",CPT +54050,Destruction Procedures on the Penis.,"The provider destroys a skin lesion on the penis, such as condyloma, papilloma, molluscum contagiosum, or herpetic vesicle; he uses a local application of a chemical substance to destroy the lesion. He performs the procedure to eradicate the lesion and relieve pain.",CPT +54055,Destruction Procedures on the Penis.,"The provider destroys a skin lesion of the penis, such as condyloma, papilloma, molluscum contagiosum, or herpetic vesicle. He destroys the lesion with high–frequency electric current to the lesion locally. He performs the procedure to eradicate the lesion and relieve pain.",CPT +54056,Destruction Procedures on the Penis.,"The provider destroys the skin lesion of the penis, such as condyloma, papilloma, molluscum contagiosum, or herpetic vesicle with an application of liquid nitrogen to the lesion. This freezes and destroys the lesions. He performs the procedure to eradicate the lesion and relieve pain.",CPT +54057,Destruction Procedures on the Penis.,"The provider destroys a skin lesion of the penis, such as condyloma, papilloma, molluscum contagiosum, or herpetic vesicle, with application of a laser beam to the lesion. This burns the lesion and destroys it. He performs the procedure to eradicate the lesion and relieve pain.",CPT +54060,Destruction Procedures on the Penis.,"The provider destroys a skin lesion of the penis, such as condyloma, papilloma, molluscum contagiosum, or herpetic vesicle, by surgically excising the lesion and removing it. He performs the procedure to eradicate the lesion and relieve pain.",CPT +54065,Destruction Procedures on the Penis.,"The provider destroys one or more extensive skin lesions of the penis, such as condyloma, papilloma, molluscum contagiosum, or herpetic vesicle. He uses various techniques, such as chemical method, electrodesiccation, cryosurgery, laser surgery, or surgical excision.",CPT +54100,Excision Procedures on the Penis.,The provider performs a biopsy of the penis in which he collects a sample of a superficial skin lesion on the penis. The provider performs this procedure for diagnostic purposes.,CPT +54105,Excision Procedures on the Penis.,The provider performs a biopsy of the penis in which he collects a sample of deep skin lesions of the penis. The provider performs this procedure for diagnostic purposes.,CPT +54110,Excision Procedures on the Penis.,"The provider excises plaque, or abnormal fibrous tissues, in the penis. The provider performs this procedure to correct Peyronie’s disease in which a patient may experience severe penile curves and pain during erection, or a lump within the shaft of the penis including shortening of the penis.",CPT +54111,Excision Procedures on the Penis.,"The provider excises plaque or abnormal fibrous tissues in the penis and closes the site with a skin graft of up to five centimeters, or cm, in length. The provider performs this procedure to correct Peyronie’s disease in which a patient may experience severe penile curves and pain during erection, or a lump within the shaft of the penis including shortening of the penis.",CPT +54112,Excision Procedures on the Penis.,"The provider excises plaque or abnormal fibrous tissues in the penis and closes the site with a skin graft that is greater than five centimeters, or cm, in length. The provider performs this procedure to correct Peyronie’s disease in which a patient may experience severe penile curves and pain during erection, or a lump within the shaft of the penis including shortening of the penis.",CPT +54115,Excision Procedures on the Penis.,The provider removes a penile implant or any other foreign body from the deep tissues of the penis.,CPT +54120,Excision Procedures on the Penis.,"In this procedure, the provider partially removes the penis. The provider performs this procedure in the case of serious  injury or disease of the penis.",CPT +54125,Excision Procedures on the Penis.,The provider completely removes the penis. The provider performs this procedure to treat a serious injury or disease of the penis.,CPT +54130,Excision Procedures on the Penis.,The provider completely removes the penis along with surrounding lymph nodes in the groin areas. The procedure is typically performed to treat cancer of the penis that is not responding to standard treatment or when the size and depth of a mass are extensive.,CPT +54135,Excision Procedures on the Penis.,The provider completely removes the penis along with all the lymph nodes in the groin area. The procedure is typically performed to treat cancer of the penis that is not responding to standard treatment or when the size and depth are extensive.,CPT +54150,Excision Procedures on the Penis.,"The provider performs a circumcision, a surgical procedure that removes the foreskin of the penis, using a clamp or other device and regional anesthesia consisting of a dorsal penile or ring block.",CPT +54160,Excision Procedures on the Penis.,"The provider excises the foreskin of a newborn 28 days old or less; he uses a technique other than a clamp, other devices, or dorsal slit.",CPT +54161,Excision Procedures on the Penis.,"The provider excises the foreskin of a patient older than 28 days; the provider uses a technique other than a clamp, other devices, or dorsal slit.",CPT +54162,Excision Procedures on the Penis.,"The provider breaks down or excises adhesions, which form on the penile tissues after circumcision.",CPT +54163,Excision Procedures on the Penis.,"In this procedure, the provider removes excessive residual foreskin left over from a previous circumcision. The provider performs this primarily to treat problems like difficulty in urination and pain in penile erections.",CPT +54164,Excision Procedures on the Penis.,"In this procedure, the provider incises the frenulum of the penis. The provider performs this primarily to release the tissue restricting the movement of the glans penis.",CPT +54200,Introduction Procedures on the Penis.,The provider injects a medication into the external area of the penis. He performs this procedure to treat a disease known as Peyronie disease in which there occurs an abnormal curvature of the erect penis.,CPT +54205,Introduction Procedures on the Penis.,The provider injects a medication into the external area of the penis. He also incises the external skin of the penis and exposes the plaque for injection. The provider performs this procedure to treat a disease known as Peyronie disease in which there occurs an abnormal curvature of the erect penis.,CPT +54220,Introduction Procedures on the Penis.,"The provider irrigates the corpora cavernosa to treat priapism, a condition causing a persistent erect penis.",CPT +54230,Introduction Procedures on the Penis.,The provider injects contrast material into the corpora cavernosa to check the extent of venous leakage.,CPT +54231,Introduction Procedures on the Penis.,"In this procedure, the provider performs dynamic cavernosometry, a study to measure the pressure in the blood vessels of the corpora cavernosa. He also injects the corpora cavernosa with vasoactive drugs that dilate the blood vessels. The provider performs this procedure to measure the blood flow rate during erection and identify the severity of venous leakage.",CPT +54235,Introduction Procedures on the Penis.,"The provider injects pharmacologic agents such as papaverine, phentolamine, or prostaglandin E1 into the corpora cavernosa of the penis. He performs this procedure to treat patients with erectile dysfunction.",CPT +54240,Introduction Procedures on the Penis.,The provider performs a plethysmography of the patient’s penis. A plethysmograph is a device which consists of a flexible band with mercury in it that the provider fits around the penis of the patient and hence records any changes in the penis circumference during erection. This service helps determine penile blood flow and assess erectile dysfunction.,CPT +54250,Introduction Procedures on the Penis.,"The provider performs nocturnal penile tumescence, or NPT, a procedure that electronically monitors the frequency, rigidity, and or circumferential changes of erections during rapid eye movement sleep, or REM, in the night. This helps the provider determine the extent of the patient’s erectile dysfunction.",CPT +54300,Repair Procedures on the Penis.,The provider corrects an abnormal curvature of the penis known as chordee. This deformity commonly occurs in patients with hypospadias. He may also mobilize the urethra during this procedure.,CPT +54304,Repair Procedures on the Penis.,"The provider surgically corrects an abnormal curvature of the penis known as a chordee, or he performs the first stage of an operation to repair a hypospadias, a condition where the opening of the urethra is under the penis. He may also transplant prepuce, which is the foreskin, or skin flaps onto the area of the defect he creates during the procedure.",CPT +54308,Repair Procedures on the Penis.,"The provider surgically repairs a hypospadias in a second stage procedure, commonly six to twelve months after correction of an abnormal curvature of the penis and the first stage of the hypospadias repair. He also diverts the urine by placing a catheter into the patient’s bladder. The provider creates a distal urethra of less than three cm.",CPT +54312,Repair Procedures on the Penis.,"The provider surgically repairs a hypospadias in a second stage procedure, commonly six to twelve months after correction of an abnormal curvature of the penis and the first stage of the hypospadias repair. He also diverts the urine by placing a catheter into the patient’s bladder. The provider creates a distal urethra of greater than three cm in this procedure.",CPT +54316,Repair Procedures on the Penis.,"The provider surgically repairs a hypospadias in a second stage procedure, commonly six to twelve months after correction of an abnormal curvature of the penis and the first stage of the hypospadias repair. He also diverts the urine by placing a catheter into the patient’s bladder. The provider obtains a skin graft from a part of the patient’s body other than the penis.",CPT +54318,Repair Procedures on the Penis.,"The provider performs the third stage of a surgical procedure to correct hypospadias. He releases the temporary sutures put in place previously, and releases the penis from the scrotum, such as in the third stage of cecil repair.",CPT +54322,Repair Procedures on the Penis.,"The provider performs a single stage surgical procedure to correct hypospadias with a meatal advancement or V flap. Providers commonly use this technique to treat glanular hypospadias where the meatus is mobile, which can be pushed to the tip of the glans comfortably. He may perform a circumcision during this procedure and or correction of an abnormal curvature of the penis known as chordee.",CPT +54324,Repair Procedures on the Penis.,The provider performs a single stage surgical procedure to correct hypospadias along with repair of the urethra using a local skin flap such as a flip flap or prepucial flap. He may perform a circumcision during this procedure and or correction of an abnormal curvature of the penis known as chordee.,CPT +54326,Repair Procedures on the Penis.,The provider performs a single–stage surgical procedure to correct hypospadias along with repair of the urethra using local skin flaps and the mobilization of the urethra. He may also perform a circumcision during this procedure and or correction of an abnormal curvature of the penis known as chordee.,CPT +54328,Repair Procedures on the Penis.,"The provider performs a single–stage surgical procedure to correct hypospadias along with extensive dissection to correct an abnormal curvature of the penis known as chordee. The provider may also perform a circumcision during this procedure. He also repairs the urethra with local skin flaps, a skin graft, and or island flap.",CPT +54332,Repair Procedures on the Penis.,"The provider performs a single stage surgical procedure to correct hypospadias at the base of the penis, along with an extensive dissection to correct an abnormal curvature of the penis known as chordee. He also repairs the urethra with a skin graft tube or island flap as part of this procedure.",CPT +54336,Repair Procedures on the Penis.,"The provider performs a single stage surgical procedure to correct hypospadias in the perineal region, along with extensive dissection to correct an abnormal curvature of the penis known as chordee. He also repairs the urethra with a skin graft tube or island flap as part of this procedure.",CPT +54340,Repair Procedures on the Penis.,"The provider repairs one or more complications that may arise because of surgery for hypospadias, a condition in which the urethral opening of the penis is abnormally located. The repair involves simple closure, incision, or excision.",CPT +54344,Repair Procedures on the Penis.,"The provider repairs one or more complications that may arise because of surgery for hypospadias, a condition in which the urethral opening of the penis is abnormally located. The repair involves mobilizing skin flaps and performing a urethroplasty with a flap or a patch graft.",CPT +54348,Repair Procedures on the Penis.,"The provider repairs one or more complications that may arise because of surgery for hypospadias, a condition in which the urethral opening of the penis is abnormally located. The repair involves extensive dissection and urethroplasty with a flap, patch, or tubed graft. The service also may include urinary diversion.",CPT +54352,Repair Procedures on the Penis.,"The provider revises repairs from previous hypospadias surgery. Hypospadias is a condition in which the urethral opening of the penis is abnormally located. These repairs require extensive work, as in the case of a patient who has undergone several failed repairs.",CPT +54360,Repair Procedures on the Penis.,"The provider surgically repairs the angulation, or abnormal curvature, of the penis of the patient.",CPT +54380,Repair Procedures on the Penis.,"The provider corrects an epispadias distal to the external sphincter. Epispadias is the malformation of the penis where the urethra ends in an opening on the top or the upper side of the penis rather than at the tip. In this condition, there is an absence of the upper wall of the urethra. This can cause reflux nephropathy, or the backward flow of urine into the kidney, abnormal curvature of the penis, urinary tract infections, and incontinence.",CPT +54385,Repair Procedures on the Penis.,"The provider corrects an epispadias, distal to the external sphincter. Epispadias is a defect present from birth that involves the malformation of the penis where the urethra ends in an opening on the top or the upper side of the penis rather than at the tip. In epispadias, there is an absence of the upper wall of the urethra. This can cause reflux nephropathy, or the backward flow of urine into the kidney, abnormal curvature of the penis, urinary tract infections, and incontinence. During this procedure, the provider treats both the epispadias and the incontinence.",CPT +54390,Repair Procedures on the Penis.,"The provider corrects epispadias, distal to the external sphincter along with a bladder, which is exposed outside the abdomen, known as a bladder exstrophy. Epispadias is a defect present from birth that involves the malformation of the penis where the urethra ends in an opening on the top or the upper side of the penis rather than at the tip. In epispadias, there is an absence of the upper wall of the urethra. This can cause reflux nephropathy, or the backward flow of urine into the kidney, abnormal curvature of the penis, urinary tract infections, and incontinence. During this procedure, the provider treats both the epispadias and the exstrophy of the bladder.",CPT +54400,Repair Procedures on the Penis.,The provider inserts a semirigid noninflatable synthetic material into the penis of the patient. This procedure is done to treat erectile dysfunction.,CPT +54401,Repair Procedures on the Penis.,The provider inserts an inflatable synthetic material into the penis of the patient. This procedure is done to treat erectile dysfunction.,CPT +54405,Repair Procedures on the Penis.,"The provider inserts inflatable synthetic material for a multicomponent, inflatable penile prosthesis into the penis of the patient. The provider also places a pump, the cylinders, and a reservoir into the penis during this procedure.",CPT +54406,Repair Procedures on the Penis.,"The provider removes the previously placed inflatable synthetic material for a multicomponent, inflatable penile prosthesis from the penis of the patient. The provider also removes the pump, cylinders, and a reservoir. This procedure does not represent replacement of the prosthesis.",CPT +54408,Repair Procedures on the Penis.,"The provider repairs the previously placed inflatable synthetic material for a multi component, inflatable penile prosthesis in the penis of a patient.",CPT +54410,Repair Procedures on the Penis.,"The provider removes all components of a previously placed multicomponent, inflatable penile prosthesis from the penis of a patient, and at the same session replaces it with the same type of penile prosthesis.",CPT +54411,Repair Procedures on the Penis.,"The provider removes and replaces, at the same operative session, the previously placed inflatable synthetic material of a multicomponent inflatable penile prosthesis from the penis of a patient.",CPT +54415,Repair Procedures on the Penis.,"The provider removes the synthetic material for a previously placed noninflatable, semirigid or a self–contained, inflatable penile prosthesis from the penis of a patient. This procedure does not represent replacement of the prosthesis.",CPT +54416,Repair Procedures on the Penis.,"The provider removes and replaces a previously placed noninflatable, semirigid or a self–contained, inflatable penile prosthesis from the penis of a patient. He performs the removal and replacement of the prosthesis at the same operative session.",CPT +54417,Repair Procedures on the Penis.,"The provider removes and replaces a previously placed noninflatable, semirigid or a self–contained, inflatable prosthesis from the penis of a patient. He performs the removal and replacement of the prosthesis, at the same operative session and must debride and irrigate infected tissue at the site.",CPT +54420,Repair Procedures on the Penis.,The provider creates a passage for blood movement between the corpora cavernosa and saphenous vein to allow blood to move freely and relieve pain due to priapism. The provider may create this shunt unilaterally or bilaterally.,CPT +54430,Repair Procedures on the Penis.,The provider creates a passage of blood between the corpora cavernosa and corpora spongiosum to allow blood to move freely between these two areas and relieve pain due to priapism. The provider may create the shunt unilaterally or bilaterally.,CPT +54435,Repair Procedures on the Penis.,"The provider creates a passage through which blood flows out of the corpora cavernosa to the head of the penis. A lesser flow of blood in erectile tissue lowers the penile rigidity and averts or treats a priapic condition. The provider may use a biopsy needle, rongeur, or punch instrument to perform the procedure.",CPT +54437,Repair Procedures on the Penis.,"The provider repairs a tear or tears in the corpora cavernosa, spongelike tissue in the penile shaft region which contains most of the blood in the penis during an erection.",CPT +54438,Repair Procedures on the Penis.,The provider reattaches the penis and repairs the urethra of a patient after its complete amputation or loss due to causes such as an avulsion or crush injury in an industrial accident or a self–mutilation by a psychiatric patient through a sharp amputation.,CPT +54440,Repair Procedures on the Penis.,The provider performs plastic surgery to repair a patient’s penis after an injury due to various causes.,CPT +54450,Manipulation Procedures on the Penis.,The provider manipulates and stretches the foreskin of the penis of a patient to breakdown adhesions. He performs this procedure to treat phimosis by lysing adhesions between the uncircumcised foreskin in an uncircumcised male and the head of the penis or by removing adhesions between the remaining foreskin and glans penis in a circumcised male.,CPT +54500,Excision Procedures on the Testis.,"The provider removes a tissue sample one or both testicles using a needle. After biopsy, the tissue sample is examined under a microscope.",CPT +54505,Excision Procedures on the Testis.,"The provider removes a tissue sample one or both testicles through an open incision in the scrotum. After biopsy, the tissue sample is examined under a microscope.",CPT +54512,Excision Procedures on the Testis.,"The provider excises the lesion of the testis, which is not related to the parenchyma.",CPT +54520,Excision Procedures on the Testis.,The provider surgically removes one or more testicles with or without insertion of a testicular prosthesis. He uses a scrotal or inguinal approach for this procedure.,CPT +54522,Excision Procedures on the Testis.,The provider performs a partial excision for one or both testes as a conservative approach for benign testicular tumor or cyst.,CPT +54530,Excision Procedures on the Testis.,The provider excises and completely removes one or both testes to treat a tumor. He performs the procedure through an inguinal (groin) approach.,CPT +54535,Excision Procedures on the Testis.,The provider excises one or both testes to treat a tumor. He performs this procedure along with abdominal exploration to check the spread of any disease into the abdomen.,CPT +54550,Exploration Procedures on the Testis.,"The provider explores the inguinal or scrotal area for an undescended testes. He performs this procedure to identify the location of the undescended testicle, or cryptorchidism, or to identify an absent testis.",CPT +54560,Exploration Procedures on the Testis.,"In this procedure, the provider explores for an undescended testes, including exploration into the abdomen. He performs this procedure to identify the location of an undescended testicle, or cryptorchidism, or to identify an absent testis.",CPT +54600,Repair Procedures on the Testis.,The provider surgically corrects a twisted testis to restore the blood supply to the testis. He may also fixate the opposite testis.,CPT +54620,Repair Procedures on the Testis.,The provider surgically fixes a twisted testicle on the opposite the one he just operated on to restore the blood supply to the testis. He does this as a separate procedure to fixation of the other testicle.,CPT +54640,Repair Procedures on the Testis.,The provider performs an orchiopexy using an inguinal and/or scrotal approach to move a patient's undescended testicle(s) into the scrotum.,CPT +54650,Repair Procedures on the Testis.,Orchiopexy is a surgical procedure used to move a patient's undescended testicle into the scrotum. Urologists may perform this surgery along with a hernia repair.,CPT +54660,Repair Procedures on the Testis.,The provider inserts a testicular prosthesis in a separate procedure.,CPT +54670,Repair Procedures on the Testis.,The provider sutures or repairs a patient’s testis after testicular injury.,CPT +54680,Repair Procedures on the Testis.,The provider transplants a patient’s testis under the skin of the thigh following injury or surgical loss of the scrotal skin. He performs this procedure to preserve the function of the testis for use in future reconstruction of the testicle.,CPT +54690,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Testis.,The provider surgically removes a patient’s testis using a laparoscope.,CPT +54692,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Testis.,"The provider performs a laparoscopic surgical procedure to move an undescended testis into the scrotum. He uses a laparoscope to perform this service, specific to an intra–abdominal testis.",CPT +54699,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Testis.,Use to report procedures of the testis that do not have a specific code.,CPT +54700,Incision Procedures on the Epididymis.,The provider incises and drains the testis and the scrotal sac due to an abscess or hematoma.,CPT +54800,Excision Procedures on the Epididymis.,The provider performs a biopsy of the epididymis using a needle. The provider performs this procedure for the diagnosis of various medical conditions of the epididymis.,CPT +54830,Excision Procedures on the Epididymis.,"The provider excises a local lesion, or area of damaged or diseased tissue of the epididymis.",CPT +54840,Excision Procedures on the Epididymis.,A spermatocele is a cyst in the area between the epididymis and the testis. The urologist may excise the spermatocele with or without a partial excision of the head of the epididymis. Report the removal of a spermatocele with CPT code .,CPT +54860,Excision Procedures on the Epididymis.,"The provider performs an epididymectomy, or the surgical removal of the epididymis. The provider performs this procedure on one side.",CPT +54861,Excision Procedures on the Epididymis.,"The provider performs an epididymectomy, or the surgical removal of the epididymis. The provider performs this procedure on both sides.",CPT +54865,Exploration of Epididymis.,The provider performs exploratory surgery of the epididymis and may perform a biopsy as part of this procedure. He does this to identify if an obstruction is causing azoospermia.,CPT +54900,Repair Procedures on the Epididymis.,"The provider performs an epididymovasostomy, or the surgical connection of the epididymis to the vas deferens. The provider performs this procedure to correct a blockage of sperm from the epididymis to the vas deferens. The provider performs this procedure on one side.",CPT +54901,Repair Procedures on the Epididymis.,"The provider performs an epididymovasostomy, or the surgical connection of the epididymis to the vas deferens. The provider performs this procedure to correct a blockage of sperm from the epididymis to the vas deferens. The provider performs this procedure on both sides.",CPT +55000,Incision Procedures on the Tunica Vaginalis.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a puncture aspiration of a hydrocele, which is a collection of fluid that results from a defect or irritation in the tunica vaginalis of the scrotum and may arise in the spermatic cord as well. The provider may also inject a medication as part of this procedure.",CPT +55040,Excision Procedures on the Tunica Vaginalis.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a fluid filled sac from one side of the scrotum, the pouch that contains the testes, or testicles, to relieve pain or discomfort.",CPT +55041,Excision Procedures on the Tunica Vaginalis.,"In this procedure, the provider removes fluid filled sacs from both sides of the scrotum, the pouch that contains the testes, or testicles, to relieve pain or discomfort.",CPT +55060,Repair Procedures on the Tunica Vaginalis.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a hydrocele, a fluid filled sac, from the membrane covering of a testis, or testicle, to relieve pain or discomfort. He uses the bottle technique, incising the hydrocele and turning it inside out.",CPT +55100,Incision Procedures on the Scrotum.,"In this procedure, the provider drains a pocket of pus from the scrotum, the pouch that contains the testes, or testicles, to treat an infection.",CPT +55110,Incision Procedures on the Scrotum.,"In this procedure, the provider inspects the scrotum, the pouch that contains the testes, or testicles, and its contents for any defect or abnormality, such as twisting and or entrapment of the vascular supply to a testicle.",CPT +55120,Incision Procedures on the Scrotum.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a foreign body from the scrotum, the pouch that contains the testes, or testicles, after a traumatic injury, to prevent further damage to the scrotum and its contents.",CPT +55150,Excision Procedures on the Scrotum.,"In this procedure, the provider excises a damaged or diseased scrotum, the pouch that contains the testes, or testicles, as a result of tissue damage due to trauma, infection, or other condition.",CPT +55175,Repair Procedures on the Scrotum.,"In this procedure, the provider repairs a simple defect in the scrotum, the pouch that contains the testes, or testicles. A scrotal defect can be either congenital, present from birth, or acquired during the patient's lifetime due to the development of excess skin or tissue damage due to trauma, infection, or other condition.",CPT +55180,Repair Procedures on the Scrotum.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a complicated reconstruction of the scrotum, the pouch that contains the testes, or testicles, to repair birth defects or rebuild a scrotum damaged due to injury or disease. A provider may also construct a scrotum from the labial tissue of a female patient in a sex reassignment surgery.",CPT +55200,Incision Procedures on the Vas Deferens.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts a tube into the vas deferens, the duct that carries sperm away from the testicle, to ensure it is free of blockage that would impair fertility. She may make an incision in the vas deferens, if necessary. She performs the procedure on one or both sides.",CPT +55250,Excision Procedures on the Vas Deferens.,"This procedure involves cutting the vas deferens and suturing the ends, on both the left and right sides.   The provider then performs a postoperative semen examination. Even though the CPT code descriptor specifies unilateral or bilateral, report the procedure the same way whether it's done on one or both sides.",CPT +55300,Introduction Procedures on the Vas Deferens.,"In this procedure, the provider incises the vas deferens, the duct that carries sperm away from the testicle, in order to permit radiological examination of the vas deferens and its associated structures to determine if there are blockages that would impair fertility. He performs this procedure on one or both sides.",CPT +55400,Repair Procedures on the Vas Deferens.,"Vasovasostomy is a technique to reverse a vasectomy and restore fertility –– i.e., connecting the vas to vas or vas to epididymis so that sperm can once again inhabit them.",CPT +55500,Excision Procedures on the Spermatic Cord.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a fluid filled sac from the spermatic cord in the scrotum, the pouch that holds the testicles, to relieve pain or discomfort and or to restore fertility.",CPT +55520,Excision Procedures on the Spermatic Cord.,"In this procedure, the provider removes diseased or damaged tissue from the spermatic cord in the scrotum, the pouch that holds the testicles, to relieve pain or discomfort and or to restore fertility.",CPT +55530,Excision Procedures on the Spermatic Cord.,"In this procedure, the provider excises an area of abnormally enlarged veins in the spermatic cord in the scrotum, the pouch that holds the testicles, to relieve pain or discomfort and or to restore fertility. The provider performs the procedure through an incision in the scrotum.",CPT +55535,Excision Procedures on the Spermatic Cord.,"The provider ligates one or more spermatic veins or excises a varicocele, a dilation of the veins in the spermatic cord, often reaching into the scrotum, via an incision through the abdomen.",CPT +55540,Excision Procedures on the Spermatic Cord.,"The provider excises a varicocele, a dilation of the veins in the spermatic cord, often reaching into the scrotum, or ligates one or more spermatic veins and repairs a hernia.",CPT +55550,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Spermatic Cord.,"In this procedure, the provider excises an area of abnormally enlarged veins in the spermatic cord in the scrotum, the pouch that holds the testicles, to relieve pain or discomfort and or to restore fertility. She uses a laparoscope, a tubular instrument with a light source and camera, to access the structures.",CPT +55559,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Spermatic Cord.,Use to report laparoscopy procedures on the spermatic cord that does not have a specific code.,CPT +55600,Incision Procedures on the Seminal Vesicles.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically incises the seminal vesicles to drain an abscess, or pocket of infection.",CPT +55605,Incision Procedures on the Seminal Vesicles.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically incises the seminal vesicles to drain an abscess, or pocket of infection. He performs complex dissection due to scar tissue in the area.",CPT +55650,Excision Procedures on the Seminal Vesicles.,"In this procedure, the provider excises the seminal vesicles because of a lesion or infection in the vesicles.",CPT +55680,Excision Procedures on the Seminal Vesicles.,"In this procedure, the provider excises a Mullerian duct cyst, a structure in the seminal vesicles that persists abnormally from the development period prior to birth.",CPT +55700,Incision Procedures on the Prostate.,"The provider biopsies the prostate gland with a special biopsy needle or during surgery for pathological examination. Report this code regardless of the approach, for example, transrectal, perineal, or transurethral.",CPT +55705,Incision Procedures on the Prostate.,"A prostate biopsy is a procedure in which small samples are removed from the prostate gland with a special biopsy needle or during surgery, to be tested for the presence of cancer or other abnormal cell growth.",CPT +55706,Incision Procedures on the Prostate.,"A prostate biopsy is a procedure in which small samples are removed from the prostate gland with a special biopsy needle or during surgery, to be tested for the presence of cancer or other abnormal cells.",CPT +55720,Incision Procedures on the Prostate.,"In this procedure, the provider incises the prostate gland to drain an abscess that occurs due to bacterial infection.",CPT +55725,Incision Procedures on the Prostate.,"In this procedure, the provider incises the prostate gland to drain an abscess, or pocket of infection. He encounters complications during the procedure, such as difficulty draining the abscess.",CPT +55801,Excision Procedures on the Prostate.,"In this procedure, the provider excises the prostate gland through an incision in the perineum, along with the vas deferens, or duct that carries sperm. He also incises and enlarges the urethra, or external urinary duct, and takes measures to prevent blood loss after the procedure. He performs the procedure to treat a tumor or persistent enlargement of the prostate that is obstructing urinary flow.",CPT +55810,Excision Procedures on the Prostate.,"In this procedure, the provider excises the prostate to treat prostate cancer through an incision in the perineum. He removes nearby structures to ensure the removal of all cancerous tissue to prevent its spread.",CPT +55812,Excision Procedures on the Prostate.,"In this procedure, the provider excises the prostate to treat prostate cancer through an incision in the perineum. He removes nearby structures to ensure the removal of all cancerous tissue to prevent its spread. He removes nearby lymph nodes and submits them to a laboratory for analysis.",CPT +55815,Excision Procedures on the Prostate.,"In this procedure, the provider excises the prostate to treat prostate cancer through an incision in the perineum. He removes nearby structures to ensure the removal of all cancerous tissue to prevent its spread. He removes nearby lymph nodes, including the external iliac, hypogastric, and obturator lymph nodes, and submits them to a laboratory for analysis.",CPT +55821,Excision Procedures on the Prostate.,"In this procedure, the provider excises the prostate gland, along with the vas deferens, or duct that carries sperm, through an incision in the skin crease above the pubic bone in the lower abdomen. He also incises and enlarges the urethra, or external urinary duct, and takes measures to prevent blood loss after the procedure. He performs the procedure to treat a tumor or persistent enlargement of the prostate that is obstructing urinary flow and may carry it out in stages, in two separate procedures.",CPT +55831,Excision Procedures on the Prostate.,"In this procedure, the provider excises the prostate gland, along with the vas deferens, or duct that carries sperm, through an incision in the skin crease below the pubic bone in the lower abdomen. He also incises and enlarges the urethra, or external urinary duct, and takes measures to prevent blood loss after the procedure. He performs the procedure to treat a tumor or persistent enlargement of the prostate that is obstructing urinary flow and may carry it out in stages, in two separate procedures.",CPT +55840,Excision Procedures on the Prostate.,The provider removes all of the prostate and some of the surrounding structures using a retropubic approach; he may or may not spare the nerve supply.,CPT +55842,Excision Procedures on the Prostate.,The provider removes the prostate and some of the surrounding tissues including some of hte pelvic lymph nodes; he may or may not spare the nerve supply.,CPT +55845,Excision Procedures on the Prostate.,"The provider removes the prostate and surrounding tissues including the external iliac, hypogastric, and obturator lymph nodes; he may or may not spare the nerve supply.",CPT +55860,Excision Procedures on the Prostate.,"In this procedure, the provider incises the perineum to reveal the prostate and enable the insertion of radioactive material, typically by a different provider, to treat malignant cancer of the prostate.",CPT +55862,Excision Procedures on the Prostate.,"In this procedure, the provider incises the perineum to reveal the prostate and enable the insertion of radioactive material, typically by a different provider, to treat malignant cancer of the prostate. He samples nearby lymph nodes and submits the tissues to a laboratory for analysis.",CPT +55865,Excision Procedures on the Prostate.,"In this procedure, the provider incises the perineum to reveal the prostate and enable the insertion of radioactive material, typically by a different provider, to treat malignant cancer of the prostate. He samples nearby iliac, hypogastric, and obturator lymph nodes, on both sides of the abdomen, and submits the tissues to a laboratory for analysis.",CPT +55866,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Prostate.,"The provider uses laparoscopic technique and removes the prostate and some of the surrounding tissue but spares the nerve supply; he may use robotic assistance and, if so, this is included with this code.",CPT +55867,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Prostate.,"The provider excises part of the prostate gland using a laparoscopic approach. The provider also performs a vasectomy, incises and enlarges the urethra, and takes measures to prevent blood loss after the procedure. The procedure may involve robotic assistance.",CPT +55870,Other Procedures on the Prostate.,"In this procedure, the provider uses electrical current to stimulate ejaculation and collect a semen sample. After laboratory analysis, the provider may use the sample for intrauterine insemination, or artificial insemination, to treat infertility.",CPT +55873,Other Procedures on the Prostate.,"In this procedure, the provider uses a rapid freezing technique to destroy cancerous cells in the prostate. She performs the procedure under ultrasound guidance.",CPT +55874,Other Procedures on the Prostate.,"Under imaging guidance, the provider inserts a needle through the perineum, the area between the anus and the scrotum, and injects one or more biodegradable materials, i.e., material that decomposes or is absorbed by the body over time, around the prostate to maintain a space between the prostate and the rectum.",CPT +55875,Other Procedures on the Prostate.,"The provider, a urologist or oncologist, places needles or catheters into the prostate for separate placement of radioactive ""seeds"" to treat prostate cancer; needle or catheter placement may be done independently of or during a concurrent cystoscopy. If cystoscopy is performed, that procedure is included and should not be reported separately.",CPT +55876,Other Procedures on the Prostate.,"In this procedure, the provider places one or more location markers or a device that measures radiation dosage within tissue gaps in the prostate prior to the administration of radiation treatment, or radiotherapy. He inserts the items into the prostate via a needle.",CPT +55880,Other Procedures on the Prostate.,The provider uses a high intensity–focused ultrasound (HIFU) device inserted through the rectum to destroy malignant prostate tissue under ultrasound guidance.,CPT +55899,Other Procedures on the Prostate.,Use to report procedures in the male genital system that does not have a specific code.,CPT +55920,Reproductive System Procedures.,"To facilitate brachytherapy, also called internal cancer radiotherapy, the provider places needles or catheters into a cancerous pelvic organ or genitalia for subsequent placement of radioactive seeds to deliver radiation directly.",CPT +55970,Intersex Surgery.,"The provider performs many staged procedures to convert male anatomy to female anatomy. The procedures include removing the penis, reshaping genital tissue to appear more female and constructing a vagina.",CPT +55980,Intersex Surgery.,The provider performs many staged procedures to convert female anatomy to male anatomy. The procedures can include removing the uterus and ovaries and reshaping genital tissue to appear more male and/or constructing a penis.,CPT +56405,"Incision Procedures on the Vulva, Perineum and Introitus.","In this procedure, the provider incises an abscess in the genital area of a female patient to drain pus in order to relieve pain and treat infection.",CPT +56420,"Incision Procedures on the Vulva, Perineum and Introitus.","In this procedure, the provider incises an abscess in a Bartholin's gland, in the female genital area, to drain pus in order to relieve pain and treat infection.",CPT +56440,"Incision Procedures on the Vulva, Perineum and Introitus.","In this procedure, the provider treats a cyst, or fluid–filled sac, in a Bartholin's gland, in the female genital area, by incising the cyst and sewing its edges to adjacent tissues so that it remains open and continues to drain. This reduces pain and prevents recurrence of the cyst.",CPT +56441,"Incision Procedures on the Vulva, Perineum and Introitus.","In this procedure, the provider destroys fibrous bands adhering to the external genitals in a female that are the result of trauma, inflammation, or low levels of estrogen, the female hormone.",CPT +56442,"Incision Procedures on the Vulva, Perineum and Introitus.","In this procedure, the provider incises the tissue membrane covering the opening to the vagina, or birth canal, to widen an opening that is too narrow, resulting in painful sexual intercourse, or to treat imperforate hymen in which the membrane completely blocks the opening, obstructing menstrual flow.",CPT +56501,"Destruction Procedures on the Vulva, Perineum and Introitus.","In this procedure, the provider eradicates one or more lesions of a simple nature on the external genitals of a female patient with the use of a laser, electrical current, freezing, or chemical application. This relieves patient discomfort and for some types of lesions prevents them from spreading.",CPT +56515,"Destruction Procedures on the Vulva, Perineum and Introitus.","In this procedure, the provider eradicates one or more lesions of an extensive nature on the external genitals of a female patient with the use of a laser, electrical current, freezing, or chemical application. This relieves patient discomfort and for some types of lesions prevents them from spreading.",CPT +56605,"Excision Procedures on the Vulva, Perineum and Introitus.","In this procedure, the provider excises suspicious tissue from a single lesion in the vulva or perineum, in the external female genital area. She submits the specimen to a laboratory for analysis and diagnosis.",CPT +56606,"Excision Procedures on the Vulva, Perineum and Introitus.","In this procedure, the provider excises suspicious tissue from additional lesions in the vulva or perineum, in the external female genital area. She submits the specimens to a laboratory for analysis and diagnosis.",CPT +56620,"Excision Procedures on the Vulva, Perineum and Introitus.",A simple vulvectomy represents a surgical procedure to remove all or part of the vulva for benign or premalignant conditions of the vulva that are extensive or numerous and their removal cannot be accomplished by local excision of a discrete lesion.,CPT +56625,"Excision Procedures on the Vulva, Perineum and Introitus.",A simple vulvectomy represents a surgical procedure to remove all or part of the vulva for benign or premalignant conditions of the vulva that are extensive or numerous and their removal cannot be accomplished by local excision of a discrete lesion.,CPT +56630,"Excision Procedures on the Vulva, Perineum and Introitus.","A radical vulvectomy represents a surgical procedure to remove all or part of the vulva for malignant disease of various stages. The surgery may or may not include removal of lymph nodes and the clitoris depending on the extent of the disease. Since it is radical surgery, tissue adjacent to the malignancy will be removed as well.",CPT +56631,"Excision Procedures on the Vulva, Perineum and Introitus.","A radical vulvectomy represents a surgical procedure to remove all or part of the vulva for malignant disease of various stages. The surgery includes removal of unilateral inguinofemoral lymph nodes. The surgery may include removal of the clitoris, depending on the extent of the disease.  Since it is radical surgery, tissue adjacent to the malignancy will be removed as well.",CPT +56632,"Excision Procedures on the Vulva, Perineum and Introitus.","A radical vulvectomy represents a surgical procedure to remove all or part of the vulva for malignant disease of various stages. The surgery includes removal of bilateral inguinofemoral lymph nodes. The provider may remove the clitoris depending on the extent of the disease. Since it is radical surgery, tissue adjacent to the malignancy will be removed as well.",CPT +56633,"Excision Procedures on the Vulva, Perineum and Introitus.","A radical vulvectomy represents a surgical procedure to remove all or part of the vulva for malignant disease of various stages.  The surgery may or may not include removal of lymph nodes and the clitoris depending on the extent of the disease.  Since it is radical surgery, tissue adjacent to the malignancy will be removed as well.",CPT +56634,"Excision Procedures on the Vulva, Perineum and Introitus.","A radical vulvectomy represents a surgical procedure to remove all or part of the vulva for malignant disease of various stages.  This surgery includes unilateral removal of the inguinofemoral lymph nodes. The provider may remove the clitoris depending on the extent of the disease  Since it is radical surgery, tissue adjacent to the malignancy will be removed as well.",CPT +56637,"Excision Procedures on the Vulva, Perineum and Introitus.","A radical vulvectomy represents a surgical procedure to remove all or part of the vulva for malignant disease of various stages. The surgery includes bilateral removal of inguinofemoral lymph nodes. The provider may remove the clitoris depending on the extent of the disease. Since it is radical surgery, tissue adjacent to the malignancy will be removed as well.",CPT +56640,"Excision Procedures on the Vulva, Perineum and Introitus.","A radical vulvectomy represents a surgical procedure to remove all or part of the vulva for malignant disease of various stages. This surgery includes removal of inguinofemoral, iliac, and pelvic lymph nodes. The provider may also remove the clitoris depending on the extent of the disease. Since it is radical surgery, tissue adjacent to the malignancy will be removed as well.",CPT +56700,"Excision Procedures on the Vulva, Perineum and Introitus.","In this procedure, the provider either partially removes the hymenal membrane or revises the hymenal ring.",CPT +56740,"Excision Procedures on the Vulva, Perineum and Introitus.",Providers perform this procedure for persistent and recurrent Bartholin’s gland abscesses or cysts.,CPT +56800,"Repair Procedures on the Vulva, Perineum and Introitus.","In this procedure, the provider performs plastic repair of the vaginal opening.",CPT +56805,"Repair Procedures on the Vulva, Perineum and Introitus.","During this procedure, the provider either constructs or repairs the patient's clitoris. In some instances, the clitoris is created for the patient, and sometimes the provider reconstructs the clitoris to change its appearance.",CPT +56810,"Repair Procedures on the Vulva, Perineum and Introitus.","In this procedure, the providers performs a repair of the damaged area of perineum.",CPT +56820,"Endoscopy Procedures on the Vulva, Perineum and Introitus.","In this procedure, the provider inserts a colposcope, which is an endoscope, into the vulva to examine it for abnormalities or lesions.",CPT +56821,"Endoscopy Procedures on the Vulva, Perineum and Introitus.","In this procedure, the provider inserts a colposcope, which is an endoscope, into the vulva to examine it for abnormalities or lesions. The provider then performs a biopsy of any suspicious site.",CPT +57000,Incision Procedures on the Vagina.,The provider incises the vaginal wall and explores the pelvic cavity for any abnormalities.,CPT +57010,Incision Procedures on the Vagina.,"In this procedure, the provider incises the vaginal wall to drain an abscess in the pelvic cavity.",CPT +57020,Incision Procedures on the Vagina.,The provider aspirates peritoneal fluid from the vaginal vault using a spinal needle in a procedure referred to as colpocentesis or culdocentesis.,CPT +57022,Incision Procedures on the Vagina.,The provider incises and drains a hematoma from the vaginal wall of a pregnant patient or one who has recently delivered and places a Foley catheter for continued drainage.,CPT +57023,Incision Procedures on the Vagina.,The provider makes incises and drains a hematoma from the vaginal wall and places a Foley catheter for continued drainage in a nonpregnant patient.,CPT +57061,Destruction Procedures on the Vagina.,"In this procedure, the provider destroys one or more small or simple vaginal lesions.",CPT +57065,Destruction Procedures on the Vagina.,"In this procedure, the provider destroys one or more large or complex vaginal lesions.",CPT +57100,Excision Procedures on the Vagina.,The provider evaluates a lesion on the vaginal mucosa and performs a biopsy.,CPT +57105,Excision Procedures on the Vagina.,The provider evaluates a large lesion or cyst on the vaginal mucosa and performs a biopsy.,CPT +57106,Excision Procedures on the Vagina.,The provider removes either the upper one third or the lower two thirds of the vagina.,CPT +57107,Excision Procedures on the Vagina.,The provider removes either the upper one third or the lower two thirds of the vagina along with paravaginal tissue.,CPT +57109,Excision Procedures on the Vagina.,The provider removes the upper half of the vagina along with paravaginal tissue and all the pelvic lymph nodes on both sides of the vagina and biopsies lymph nodes in the para–aortic area.,CPT +57110,Excision Procedures on the Vagina.,The provider removes the entire vaginal wall.,CPT +57111,Excision Procedures on the Vagina.,The provider removes the entire vaginal wall with removal of paravaginal tissues.,CPT +57120,Excision Procedures on the Vagina.,"In this procedure, the provider closes the vagina to treat vaginal prolapse.  It is a vaginal approach procedure.",CPT +57130,Excision Procedures on the Vagina.,"In this procedure, the physician removes a flap of tissue that is dividing the vaginal canal.  This is a vaginal approach surgery.",CPT +57135,Excision Procedures on the Vagina.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically removes a cyst or tumor in the vaginal wall.  This is a vaginal approach surgery.",CPT +57150,Introduction Procedures on the Vagina.,"In this procedure, the provider washes out the vaginal canal and may also instill medication when the patient has a bacterial, fungal, or parasitic disease.",CPT +57155,Introduction Procedures on the Vagina.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts devices into the uterus and into the sides of the cervix that will hold radioactive material to treat cancer cells.",CPT +57156,Introduction Procedures on the Vagina.,"In this procedure, the provider fits and places into the vaginal canal a device that will hold radioactive material. She performs this service prior to treatment with radiation.",CPT +57160,Introduction Procedures on the Vagina.,"In this procedure, the provider fits and inserts a pessary or similar device into the vagina to treat vaginal wall prolapse or other disorders.",CPT +57170,Introduction Procedures on the Vagina.,"In this procedure, the provider fits the patient with a diaphragm or cervical cap and educates the patient on self–insertion. The purpose of a diaphragm is to prevent sperm from entering the uterus during intercourse to prevent pregnancy. The purpose of the cervical cap is for collecting menstrual flow or to assist in artificial insemination. The cervical cap is not a contraceptive.",CPT +57180,Introduction Procedures on the Vagina.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts a hemostatic agent, a substance to stop bleeding, into the vagina, or places a gauze pack into the vagina to stop bleeding. The bleeding is not a result of pregnancy or childbirth.",CPT +57200,Repair Procedures on the Vagina.,"In this procedure, the provider sutures a laceration of the vaginal wall that is not related to childbirth or pregnancy.",CPT +57210,Repair Procedures on the Vagina.,"In this procedure, the provider sutures a laceration of the vaginal wall and or perineum that is not related to childbirth or pregnancy.",CPT +57220,Repair Procedures on the Vagina.,The purpose of the surgery is to reduce the diameter of the urethra and or provide support for the urethra in front of the bladder neck.,CPT +57230,Repair Procedures on the Vagina.,"In this procedure, the physician repairs a urethrocele, when the urethra prolapses into the vagina.",CPT +57240,Repair Procedures on the Vagina.,"In this procedure, the provider repairs the vaginal wall where a prolapsing bladder is pushing through.  He uses a vaginal approach. The provider may or may not perform a urethrocele repair and cystourethroscopy, examination of the bladder using a lighted tubular instrument.",CPT +57250,Repair Procedures on the Vagina.,"In this procedure, the provider repairs the vaginal wall where the rectum is pushing through to the vaginal canal. The provider also usually repairs and strengthens the perineum below the vaginal opening.",CPT +57260,Repair Procedures on the Vagina.,The provider repairs the vaginal tissues over the weakened spots to support the area and return the bladder and rectum to their correct positions.  This is a vaginal approach procedure. The provider may or may not perform cystourethroscopy. Patients need this procedure because they have problems with the bladder prolapsing into the vaginal canal and also into the rectum.,CPT +57265,Repair Procedures on the Vagina.,"In this procedure, the vaginal walls that hold the bladder, the rectum and the small bowel in place are weak, and the provider must repair the areas in the wall to support these structures with sutures.  This is a vaginal approach procedure and includes the repair of an enterocele, when the small intestines and perineum protrude into the vaginal canal. The provider may or may not perform cystourethroscopy, examination of the bladder and urethra with a lighted tubular instrument.",CPT +57267,Repair Procedures on the Vagina.,The provider inserts a prosthetic graft over the anterior and or posterior vaginal wall because of the lack of reasonable tissue strength. This is a vaginal approach procedure. This is an add–on procedure and must be reported in conjunction with a code for the primary procedure.,CPT +57268,Repair Procedures on the Vagina.,"In this procedure, the provider repairs the vaginal wall where the small bowel is pushing through to the vaginal canal. This is a vaginal approach procedure.",CPT +57270,Repair Procedures on the Vagina.,"In this procedure, the physician performs either a Halban or a Moschowitz repair of the vaginal wall over the area where the small bowel is prolapsing into the vaginal canal.  This is an abdominal approach procedure.",CPT +57280,Repair Procedures on the Vagina.,The provider pulls up the vaginal vault that is prolapsing and attaches it to a strong structure using sutures. The provider performs this procedure through an abdominal incision.,CPT +57282,Repair Procedures on the Vagina.,"The surgeon in this procedure performs a colpopexy, which is the suspension of the vaginal apex via a vaginal approach using the extraperitoneal technique. This procedure, also known as vault repair, is performed with suspension of the vaginal apex by attaching it to the sacrospinous or iliococcygeus ligaments.",CPT +57283,Repair Procedures on the Vagina.,The provider pulls up the vaginal vault that is prolapsing using a vaginal approach and attaches it to a ligament inside the peritoneal lining.,CPT +57284,Repair Procedures on the Vagina.,The provider repairs a paravaginal defect using an abdominal approach. Cystocele repair is included when performed.,CPT +57285,Repair Procedures on the Vagina.,"The provider repairs a paravaginal defect by dissecting the tissues between the vagina, the bladder, and the urethra using a vaginal approach. The provider may also perform a cystocele repair as part of this procedure.",CPT +57287,Repair Procedures on the Vagina.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a sling that was placed under the urethra to correct stress urinary incontinence. The provider removes the sling  because it is eroding, has become infected, is causing urinary retention, or is protruding from the site. This surgery includes a vaginal or combination vaginal and abdominal approach.",CPT +57288,Repair Procedures on the Vagina.,The provider places a sling made of fascia or synthetic material under the urethra to support it in the correct position to treat urinary stress incontinence. The procedure can be performed abdominally or vaginally depending on whether the provider uses a pubocervical or transvaginal sling.,CPT +57289,Repair Procedures on the Vagina.,This procedure treats both a cystocele and stress urinary incontinence by repairing the vaginal wall. Providers perform it through a vaginal incision.,CPT +57291,Repair Procedures on the Vagina.,"In this procedure, the provider constructs an artificial vagina without use of a graft to treat patients with congenital absence of a vagina or vaginal agenesis.",CPT +57292,Repair Procedures on the Vagina.,"In this procedure, the provider constructs an artificial vagina with application of a graft. Providers can construct an artificial vagina in various ways, and providers perform the procedure mostly to treat a congenital absence of a vagina or vaginal agenesis.",CPT +57295,Repair Procedures on the Vagina.,"The provider revises or removes a prosthetic vaginal graft that was previously placed. He removes it because it has eroded, or the tissue over the mesh has thinned and the mesh is now exposed. The provider uses a vaginal approach.",CPT +57296,Repair Procedures on the Vagina.,"The provider revises or removes, through an abdominal incision, a prosthetic vaginal graft that was previously placed because it has eroded or the tissue over the mesh has thinned and the mesh is now exposed.",CPT +57300,Repair Procedures on the Vagina.,"In this procedure, the provider closes a fistula tract between the rectum and the vagina using either a vaginal approach or closing it through the anus. Providers only use these approaches for small fistula tracts. An ob gyn normally uses the vaginal approach, while a gastrointestinal surgeon normally uses the transanal approach.",CPT +57305,Repair Procedures on the Vagina.,In this procedure the provider excises a rectovaginal fistula through an abdominal incision.,CPT +57307,Repair Procedures on the Vagina.,"In this procedure, the provider excises the rectovaginal fistula, and cuts one end of the colon and brings it out of the body so that stool is excreted through this new artificial opening in the abdominal wall. This is an abdominal approach procedure.",CPT +57308,Repair Procedures on the Vagina.,"In this procedure, the provider closes the rectovaginal fistula but makes an incision through the perineum. The provider must repair the perineum  afterward and may shorten the levator muscle, when necessary, during this procedure.",CPT +57310,Repair Procedures on the Vagina.,"In this procedure, the provider repairs a fistula that has formed between the urethra and the vagina. The provider uses a vaginal approach.",CPT +57311,Repair Procedures on the Vagina.,"In this procedure, the physician repairs a fistula that has formed between the urethra and the vagina and uses the bulbocavernosus muscle to create flaps that go over the repair.",CPT +57320,Repair Procedures on the Vagina.,In this procedure the physician repairs a fistula that has formed between the bladder and the vagina using a vaginal approach.,CPT +57330,Repair Procedures on the Vagina.,"In this procedure the surgeon repairs a fistula between the bladder and the vagina by making an incision into the bladder with an abdominal incision, and he also performs the vaginal part of the repair from the vaginal approach.",CPT +57335,Repair Procedures on the Vagina.,In this procedure the physician uses existing tissue to create a vaginal canal in female patients with birth defects or genitalia injuries.,CPT +57400,Manipulation Procedures on the Vagina.,"In this procedure, the physician uses calibrated instruments to gradually dilate the vagina that is closed due to adhesion formation or injury.",CPT +57410,Manipulation Procedures on the Vagina.,"In this procedure, the physician examined the female genital organs while the patient is under anesthesia other than local.",CPT +57415,Manipulation Procedures on the Vagina.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a foreign body that is wedged into the vaginal wall while the patient is under anesthesia other than local.",CPT +57420,Endoscopy/Laparascopy Procedures on the Vagina.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a diagnostic examination of the vagina and cervix, if present, using a colposcope.",CPT +57421,Endoscopy/Laparascopy Procedures on the Vagina.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a diagnostic examination of the vagina and the cervix, if present. It includes a biopsy of vagina/cervix.",CPT +57423,Endoscopy/Laparascopy Procedures on the Vagina.,"In this procedure, the provider repairs a paravaginal defect using a laparoscopic approach. The provider may also perform a cystocele repair as part of this procedure.",CPT +57425,Endoscopy/Laparascopy Procedures on the Vagina.,The provider uses a laparoscopic approach to suspend the top of the vagina to a strong structure to treat vaginal vault prolapse using sutures or mesh.,CPT +57426,Endoscopy/Laparascopy Procedures on the Vagina.,"The provider revises or removes a previously placed vaginal graft using a laparoscope. The graft may require removal due to erosion, exposure, or inflammation.",CPT +57452,Endoscopy Procedures on the Cervix Uteri.,"In this procedure, the provider uses a colposcope to examine the cervix, including the upper/adjacent portion of the vagina.",CPT +57454,Endoscopy Procedures on the Cervix Uteri.,"In this procedure, the provider examines the cervix, including the upper/adjacent portion of the vagina, using an instrument called a colposcope, and also performs biopsy(s) of the cervix and collection of tissue from the endocervical canal.",CPT +57455,Endoscopy Procedures on the Cervix Uteri.,"The provider examines the cervix, including the upper adjacent portion of the vagina using an instrument called a colposcope and also performs biopsy(ies) of the cervix.",CPT +57456,Endoscopy Procedures on the Cervix Uteri.,"In this procedure, the physician analyzes the cervix, including the upper/adjacent portion of the vagina, using an instrument called a colposcope. He also performs endocervical curettage, meaning he obtains tissue by using a spoon–shaped scraping instrument.",CPT +57460,Endoscopy Procedures on the Cervix Uteri.,"In this procedure, the provider examines the cervix, including upper/adjacent portion of the vagina, using an instrument called a colposcope, and also performs loop electrode biopsy(s) of the cervix.",CPT +57461,Endoscopy Procedures on the Cervix Uteri.,"In this procedure, the provider examines the cervix, including upper/adjacent portion of the vagina, using an instrument called a colposcope. The provider also performs loop electrode conization of the cervix.",CPT +57465,Endoscopy Procedures on the Cervix Uteri.,"As an add–on procedure, the provider uses specially designed computer–aided mapping to identify potential abnormalities of the cervix uteri during colposcopy (endoscopic exam). The service measures and maps light–scattering characteristics of the cervical epithelium (outer layer of tissue) treated with acetic acid. A typical device provides a high–resolution digital view of the cervix that can be displayed real–time, or stored, printed, or manipulated by a computer.",CPT +57500,Excision Procedures on the Cervix Uteri.,"The provider removes a lesion, such as a polyp, on the cervix, or performs single or multiple biopsies of the cervix. The provider may or may not use fulguration, a high frequency electric current during the procedure.",CPT +57505,Excision Procedures on the Cervix Uteri.,"In this procedure, the provider collects tissue samples from the endocervix using a curette, but the procedure is not part of a dilation and curettage.",CPT +57510,Excision Procedures on the Cervix Uteri.,"In this procedure, the provider uses electric current or thermal cautery to generate heat and destroy cervical lesions.",CPT +57511,Excision Procedures on the Cervix Uteri.,"In this procedure, the provider uses cryocautery one or more times to destroy cervical tissue.",CPT +57513,Excision Procedures on the Cervix Uteri.,"In this procedure, the provider uses laser ablation to destroy cervical tissue.",CPT +57520,Excision Procedures on the Cervix Uteri.,"In this procedure, the physician performs conization of the cervix using a scalpel or a laser and may use electrical current, called fulguration. The procedure may also include dilation and curettage or repair.",CPT +57522,Excision Procedures on the Cervix Uteri.,"In this procedure, the physician uses a loop electrode to perform a conization of the uterus. The procedure may also include a dilation and curettage  or repair.",CPT +57530,Excision Procedures on the Cervix Uteri.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically removes the uterine cervix, also called amputation of the cervix, trachelectomy, or cervicectomy.",CPT +57531,Excision Procedures on the Cervix Uteri.,"In this procedure, the physician performs radical surgical removal of the uterine cervix, called a trachelectomy, along with removal of bilateral total pelvic lymph nodes. He also performs a biopsy of para aortic lymph nodes. The procedure may include removing the ovaries.",CPT +57540,Excision Procedures on the Cervix Uteri.,"In this procedure, the provider excises the cervical stump, remaining after a previous subtotal hysterectomy, where the provider removes the uterus but leaves the cervix intact. The procedure includes amputation through the abdominal approach.",CPT +57545,Excision Procedures on the Cervix Uteri.,"In this procedure, the provider excises the cervical stump remaining after a previous subtotal hysterectomy, a procedure in which the provider removes the uterus but leaves the cervix intact. The procedure includes amputation through the abdominal approach, along with repair of the pelvic floor.",CPT +57550,Excision Procedures on the Cervix Uteri.,"The provider excises the cervical stump remaining after a previous subtotal hysterectomy, a procedure where the provider removes the uterus but leaves the cervix intact. The provider performs the procedure through a vaginal approach.",CPT +57555,Excision Procedures on the Cervix Uteri.,"In this procedure, the physician excises the cervical stump remaining after a previous subtotal hysterectomy, through a vaginal approach and also performs anterior and or posterior repair.",CPT +57556,Excision Procedures on the Cervix Uteri.,"In this procedure, the physician excises the cervical stump remaining after a previous subtotal hysterectomy through a vaginal approach and also performs repair of enterocele.",CPT +57558,Excision Procedures on the Cervix Uteri.,"In this procedure, the provider widens a cervical stump and scrapes tissue samples using a curette.",CPT +57700,Repair Procedures on the Cervix Uteri.,"In this procedure, the physician performs cerclage, which is using stitching to repair a defect in the cervix, prior to the patient becoming pregnant.",CPT +57720,Repair Procedures on the Cervix Uteri.,"In this procedure, the physician performs plastic repair of the uterine cervix through a vaginal approach.",CPT +57800,Manipulation Procedures on the Cervix Uteri.,"In this procedure, the physician performs instrumental stretching of the cervical canal. This procedure is performed as the only procedure.",CPT +58100,"Endometrial sampling, D&C and Uterus Tumor Excision Procedures.",The provider takes a tissue sample from the lining of the uterus to perform an endometrial biopsy without widening the cervix. The provider may also perform endocervical biopsy.,CPT +58110,"Endometrial sampling, D&C and Uterus Tumor Excision Procedures.","In this add–on procedure, the physician performs endometrial biopsy at the same session as colposcopy.",CPT +58120,"Endometrial sampling, D&C and Uterus Tumor Excision Procedures.",The provider dilates the cervix to gain access to the uterine cavity in order to scrape the lining of the uterus as a treatment for excessive bleeding or to obtain a large sample of tissue.,CPT +58140,"Endometrial sampling, D&C and Uterus Tumor Excision Procedures.","In this procedure, the physician excises 1 to 4  fibroid tumor(s) of the uterus, weighing 250 g or less, through an abdominal approach.",CPT +58145,"Endometrial sampling, D&C and Uterus Tumor Excision Procedures.","In this procedure, the physician excises 1 to 4 fibroid tumor(s), weighing 250 g or less, that are located inside the body of the uterus through a vaginal approach.",CPT +58146,"Endometrial sampling, D&C and Uterus Tumor Excision Procedures.","In this procedure, the physician excises 5 or more fibroid tumors of the uterus through an abdominal approach. The total weight of the tumors is greater than 250 g.",CPT +58150,Hysterectomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes the uterus and cervix via an abdominal incision. The provider may also remove the fallopian tubes and ovaries  totally or partially.",CPT +58152,Hysterectomy Procedures.,"The provider removes the uterus and cervix via an abdominal incision. The provider may also remove the fallopian tubes and ovaries, totally or partially. Because the patient also has stress urinary incontinence, the provider suspends the urethra to supporting structures with sutures.",CPT +58180,Hysterectomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes the uterus via an abdominal incision. The provider may also removes the fallopian tubes and ovaries.",CPT +58200,Hysterectomy Procedures.,"The provider removes the uterus and cervix and may also remove the fallopian tubes and ovaries, all through via an abdominal incision. The provider removes the upper one–third of the vaginal canal and some of the pelvic and para–aortic lymph nodes.",CPT +58210,Hysterectomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes the uterus and cervix including the parametrium via an abdominal incision, known as a radical abdominal hysterectomy. The provider may also remove all or part of the vagina, all the pelvic lymph nodes on the right and left side, and biopsy a few of the para aortic lymph nodes. The provider may remove part or all of the fallopian tubes and ovaries.",CPT +58240,Hysterectomy Procedures.,"The provider performs pelvic exenteration on patients who have had a recurrence of cancer of the cervix after they have had radiation therapy or patients who have stage IV cancer, and the tumor is in the bladder and rectum. There is no standard procedure, and organs and tissues that the provider removes depend on where the cancer is located and the stage.",CPT +58260,Hysterectomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically removes the uterus and cervix only using a vaginal approach, known as a vaginal hysterectomy. The uterus is normal in size, which means it weighs 250 g or less.",CPT +58262,Hysterectomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically removes the uterus, cervix, fallopian tubes, and ovaries using a vaginal approach, known as a vaginal hysterectomy. The uterus is normal in size, which means it weighs 250 g or less.",CPT +58263,Hysterectomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically removes the uterus, cervix, fallopian tubes, and ovaries using a vaginal approach, known as a vaginal hysterectomy. Because the patient has small bowel prolapsing into the vaginal canal, called an enterocele, he also repairs this area. The uterus is normal in size, which means it weighs 250 g or less.",CPT +58267,Hysterectomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically removes the uterus and cervix only using a vaginal approach, known as a vaginal hysterectomy. The patient also has stress urinary incontinence which requires the suspension of the urethra. The uterus is normal in size, which means it weighs 250 g or less, and the provider may use an endoscope during the procedure.",CPT +58270,Hysterectomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically removes the uterus and cervix only using a vaginal approach, known as a vaginal hysterectomy.  The provider also repairs a small bowel prolapse into the vaginal canal. The uterus is normal in size, which means it weighs 250 grams or less.",CPT +58275,Hysterectomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically removes the uterus and the cervix using a vaginal approach, known as a vaginal hysterectomy. The provider also partially or completely excises the vagina.",CPT +58280,Hysterectomy Procedures.,"The provider surgically removes the uterus and the cervix using a vaginal approach, known as a vaginal hysterectomy. The provider also partially or completely excises the vagina and repairs a small bowel prolapse into the vaginal canal.",CPT +58285,Hysterectomy Procedures.,"In this procedure the provider removes the uterus, fallopian tubes and ovaries, the parametrium, which includes the uterosacral, cardinal, broad, and round ligaments, and the upper one third of the vagina. This procedure treats cervical cancer.",CPT +58290,Hysterectomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the physician surgically removes the uterus and cervix only using a vaginal approach. The uterus is larger than normal, usually due to the presence of fibroids, which means it weighs more than 250 g.",CPT +58291,Hysterectomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the physician surgically removes the uterus, cervix, the fallopian tubes, and ovaries using a vaginal approach. The uterus is larger than normal usually due to the presence of fibroids, which means it weighs more than 250 g.",CPT +58292,Hysterectomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the physician surgically removes the uterus, cervix, the fallopian tubes and ovaries using a vaginal approach. Because the patient has small bowel prolapse into the vaginal canal, the provider also repairs this area. The uterus is larger than normal usually due to the presence of fibroids, which means it weighs more than 250 grams.",CPT +58294,Hysterectomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the physician surgically removes the uterus and cervix only using a vaginal approach. Because the patient has small bowel prolapsing into the vaginal canal, this area is repaired. The uterus is larger than normal usually due to the presence of fibroids, which means it weighs more than 250 grams.",CPT +58300,Introduction Procedures on the Corpus Uteri.,"In this procedure, the provider places a contraceptive intrauterine device (IUD) in the uterine cavity.",CPT +58301,Introduction Procedures on the Corpus Uteri.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a contraceptive intrauterine device (IUD) from the uterine cavity.",CPT +58321,Introduction Procedures on the Corpus Uteri.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts prepared live sperm into the cervical canal.",CPT +58322,Introduction Procedures on the Corpus Uteri.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts prepared live sperm into the uterus through the cervical canal.",CPT +58323,Introduction Procedures on the Corpus Uteri.,"In this procedure, the provider prepares sperm for insemination by cleaning it of debris, antibodies, bacteria, and abnormal sperm.",CPT +58340,Introduction Procedures on the Corpus Uteri.,"In this procedure, the provider introduces a catheter with saline or contrast material into the woman's uterus or the fallopian tubes at the same time as ultrasound or X–ray imaging. This procedure is done to examine the uterus and fallopian tubes for a blockage or abnormality.",CPT +58345,Introduction Procedures on the Corpus Uteri.,"In this procedure, the provider introduces a catheter through the cervix and into the fallopian tube to diagnose and clear blockages of the tube. The procedure may include the injection of contrast material and taking an X–ray in a procedure called a hysterosalpingogram done to evaluate the fallopian tubes and uterus for abnormalities or blockage. This service is done as a treatment for infertility.",CPT +58346,Introduction Procedures on the Corpus Uteri.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts Heyman capsules into the uterus that will hold radioactive material for brachytherapy treatments. This procedure treats endometrial cancer.",CPT +58350,Introduction Procedures on the Corpus Uteri.,"In this procedure, the provider injects dye into the oviduct, or fallopian tube, to see if it is open in a procedure called chromotubation.",CPT +58353,Other procedures on the corpus Uteri.,"In this procedure, the provider removes the lining of the uterus using a device that produces heat in a procedure known as thermal endometrial ablation. The provider does not use a hysteroscope for guidance during the procedure. This service is done to stop or reduce excessive or abnormal uterine bleeding.",CPT +58356,Other procedures on the corpus Uteri.,"In this procedure, the provider uses extreme cold to destroy the lining of the uterus. He uses ultrasound to guide the cryoprobe instrument to all the quadrants of the uterine cavity. The provider may also perform a suction curettage of the uterus. This service is done to stop or reduce excessive or abnormal uterine bleeding.",CPT +58400,Repair Procedures on the Corpus Uteri.,"In this procedure, the provider suspends the uterus, pleating and suturing the stretched ligaments that normally hold the uterus in place so that the uterus and cervix return to their normal positions. The stretched ligaments that he pleats could include the round ligaments or the sacrouterine ligaments. This service is done for uterine prolapse where a woman's uterus sags or slips from its normal position.",CPT +58410,Repair Procedures on the Corpus Uteri.,"In this procedure the provider suspends the uterus, pleating and suturing the stretched ligaments that normally hold the uterus in place so that the uterus and cervix return to their normal positions. The stretched ligaments that are pleated could include the round ligaments or the sacrouterine ligaments. This procedure includes a presacral sympathectomy. This service is done for uterine prolapse where a woman's uterus sags or slips from its normal position.",CPT +58520,Repair Procedures on the Corpus Uteri.,"In this procedure, the provider sutures a ruptured or lacerated uterus not related to childbirth. The uterus could have been punctured during surgery, such as a dilation and curettage procedure, or D & C, or a hysteroscopic procedure, or have become torn due to an accident or injury.",CPT +58540,Repair Procedures on the Corpus Uteri.,The provider corrects a uterine anomaly such as a uterus with two horns to create a single uterine cavity. The provider performs this procedure via an abdominal approach. A hysteroplasty repair can be quite an extensive surgery depending upon the amount of plastic repair necessary.,CPT +58541,Laparoscopic/Hysteroscopic Procedures on the Corpus Uteri.,"The provider removes the uterus using a laparoscope but leaves the cervix and the fallopian tubes and ovaries. The uterus is normal in size, which means it weighs 250 g or less.",CPT +58542,Laparoscopic/Hysteroscopic Procedures on the Corpus Uteri.,"The provider removes the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries using a laparoscope but leaves the cervix. The uterus is normal in size, which means it weighs 250 g or less.",CPT +58543,Laparoscopic/Hysteroscopic Procedures on the Corpus Uteri.,"The provider removes the uterus using a laparoscope but leaves the cervix and the fallopian tubes and ovaries. The uterus is larger than normal, usually due to the presence of fibroids, which means it weighs more than 250 g.",CPT +58544,Laparoscopic/Hysteroscopic Procedures on the Corpus Uteri.,"The provider removes the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries using a laparoscope but leaves the cervix. The uterus is larger than normal, usually due to the presence of fibroids, which means it weighs more than 250 g.",CPT +58545,Laparoscopic/Hysteroscopic Procedures on the Corpus Uteri.,The provider excises fibroid tumors of the uterus through a laparoscope. The provider removes a total of one to four tumors with a total weight of 250 g or less and may or may not also remove tumors on the surface of the uterus.,CPT +58546,Laparoscopic/Hysteroscopic Procedures on the Corpus Uteri.,The provider excises fibroid tumors of the uterus through a laparoscope; she removes a total of five or more fibroid tumors or any number of fibroid tumors that have a total weight of more than 250 g.,CPT +58548,Laparoscopic/Hysteroscopic Procedures on the Corpus Uteri.,"In this procedure the provider laparoscopically removes the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, the parametrium, cardinal and uterosacral ligaments, and excises the pelvic lymph nodes on both sides of the body as well as removing some of the para–aortic nodes.",CPT +58550,Laparoscopic/Hysteroscopic Procedures on the Corpus Uteri.,"In this procedure, the provider removes the uterus and cervix through the vagina, using a laparoscope to cut the upper uterine attachments. This procedure is done for a normal size uterus, which means it weighs 250 grams or less.",CPT +58552,Laparoscopic/Hysteroscopic Procedures on the Corpus Uteri.,"The provider removes the uterus, cervix, fallopian tubes, and ovaries through the vagina but uses a laparoscope to cut the upper uterine and ovarian attachments. This procedure is done for a normal size uterus, which means it weighs 250 g or less.",CPT +58553,Laparoscopic/Hysteroscopic Procedures on the Corpus Uteri.,"Tthe provider removes the uterus and cervix through the vagina, in a procedure known as a vaginal hysterectomy.  The provider accesses the abdomen through a laparoscope to cut the upper uterine attachments. This procedure is done to treat fibroids and is for a uterus that is larger than normal, which means it weighs more than 250 g.",CPT +58554,Laparoscopic/Hysteroscopic Procedures on the Corpus Uteri.,"Tthe provider removes the uterus, cervix, and fallopian tubes with or without the ovaries through the vagina but uses a laparoscope to cut the upper uterine and ovarian attachments. This procedure is done to treat fibroids and is for a larger than normal uterus, which means it weighs more than 250 g.",CPT +58555,Laparoscopic/Hysteroscopic Procedures on the Corpus Uteri.,The provider exams the uterine cavity using an instrument called a hysteroscope.,CPT +58558,Laparoscopic/Hysteroscopic Procedures on the Corpus Uteri.,"The provider either biopsies the lining of the uterus (endometrium) or removes polyps, or both, through a hysteroscope ; he may or may not perform a dilation and curettage (D&C). He sends all samples he obtains to the laboratory for pathological analysis.",CPT +58559,Laparoscopic/Hysteroscopic Procedures on the Corpus Uteri.,The provider performs lyses (breaks down or separates) scar tissue that has formed inside the uterine cavity through a hysteroscope.,CPT +58560,Laparoscopic/Hysteroscopic Procedures on the Corpus Uteri.,"In this procedure, the provider removes an intrauterine septum, or a band of tissue that separates the uterine cavity into two sections, to restore the uterus to a single cavity. The provider uses a hysteroscope to perform this procedure.",CPT +58561,Laparoscopic/Hysteroscopic Procedures on the Corpus Uteri.,"In this procedure, the provider removes leiomyomata, or fibroids, that have formed inside the uterus. The provider uses a hysteroscope to perform this procedure.",CPT +58562,Laparoscopic/Hysteroscopic Procedures on the Corpus Uteri.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a foreign body that has become lodged in the lining of the uterus. The most common impacted foreign body is an intrauterine device (IUD). The provider uses a hysteroscope to perform this procedure.",CPT +58563,Laparoscopic/Hysteroscopic Procedures on the Corpus Uteri.,"In this procedure, the provider totally destroys the lining of the uterus in a procedure known as an endometrial ablation. He uses a hysteroscope to perform this procedure, which treats abnormal uterine bleeding.",CPT +58565,Laparoscopic/Hysteroscopic Procedures on the Corpus Uteri.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a sterilization procedure to prevent pregnancy by putting coils into both the fallopian tubes where they meet the uterus. The coil implants cause scar tissue to develop, eventually blocking the fallopian tube and preventing pregnancy. The provider uses a hysteroscope to perform this procedure.",CPT +58570,Laparoscopic/Hysteroscopic Procedures on the Corpus Uteri.,"The provider cuts all of the uterine and cervical connections through a laparoscope and removes the uterus and cervix via the trocar ports or through the vaginal canal. The uterus is normal in size, which means it weighs 250 g or less.",CPT +58571,Laparoscopic/Hysteroscopic Procedures on the Corpus Uteri.,"The provider incises all of the uterine, ovarian, and cervical connections through a laparoscope, and removes the uterus, cervix, and fallopian tubes, with or without the ovaries via the trocar ports or through the vaginal canal. The uterus is normal in size, which means it weighs 250 g or less.",CPT +58572,Laparoscopic/Hysteroscopic Procedures on the Corpus Uteri.,"The provider incises all of the uterine and cervical connections through the laparoscope, and removes the uterus and cervix via the trocar ports or through the vaginal canal. The uterus is larger than normal, usually due to the presence of fibroids, which means it weighs more than 250 g.",CPT +58573,Laparoscopic/Hysteroscopic Procedures on the Corpus Uteri.,"The provider incises all of the uterine, ovarian, and cervical connections through the laparoscope and removes the uterus, cervix, and fallopian tubes or ovaries (or both) via the trocar ports or through the vaginal canal. The uterus is larger than normal, usually due to the presence of fibroids, which means it weighs more than 250 g.",CPT +58575,Laparoscopic/Hysteroscopic Procedures on the Corpus Uteri.,"The provider removes the uterus, cervix, ovaries, and fallopian tubes and then removes the entire omentum through the laparoscope, via the trocar ports or through the vaginal canal. The provider performs the procedure because of cancer.",CPT +58578,Laparoscopic/Hysteroscopic Procedures on the Corpus Uteri.,Use to report laparoscopy procedures of the uterus that do not have a specific code in the female genital system. The procedure could involve a new technology or an uncommon one. Do not use this code if there is another code that describes the service using a laparoscopic approach.,CPT +58579,Laparoscopic/Hysteroscopic Procedures on the Corpus Uteri.,Use to report hysteroscopy procedures of the uterus that does not have a specific code in the female genital system. The procedure could involve a new technology or an uncommon one. Do not use this code if there is another code that describes the service using a hysteroscopic approach.,CPT +58580,Other procedures on the corpus Uteri.,The provider inserts a radiofrequency probe through the cervix to destroy one or more uterine fibroids under ultrasound guidance and monitoring.,CPT +58600,Incision Procedures on the Oviduct/Ovary.,The provider ligates (ties off) or transects (cuts in two) one or both fallopian tubes to prevent a future pregnancy.  The provider performs this service through an abdominal or a vaginal approach.,CPT +58605,Incision Procedures on the Oviduct/Ovary.,The provider cuts or ties off one or both fallopian tubes through an abdominal or a vaginal incision to prevent a future pregnancy.  The surgery is performed as a separate procedure after a vaginal delivery and before the patient is discharged from the hospital.,CPT +58611,Incision Procedures on the Oviduct/Ovary.,"After the provider delivers a baby via a cesarean incision and after she closes the uterine incision, the provider ties off or incises one or both of the fallopian tubes to prevent a future pregnancy. The provider reports this add–on code in addition to a primary procedure code.",CPT +58615,Incision Procedures on the Oviduct/Ovary.,"The provider uses a device to close off the fallopian tube or tubes. He performs this procedure either through a vaginal approach, meaning a vaginal wall incision, or a suprapubic approach, incising just above the pubic bone.",CPT +58660,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Oviduct/Ovary.,The provider removes adhesions that have formed around the fallopian tubes and ovaries. She performs the procedure through a laparoscope.,CPT +58661,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Oviduct/Ovary.,The provider removes one or both ovaries and one or both fallopian tubes or a combination of both using a laparoscope.,CPT +58662,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Oviduct/Ovary.,"The provider destroys or excises lesions, tumors, or cysts found on the ovary, around the bladder, uterus, rectum, or on the peritoneum through a laparoscope.",CPT +58670,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Oviduct/Ovary.,The provider fulgurates (seals off) each fallopian tube with electrocautery and may or may not transect them (cut them in half) through a laparoscope to prevent pregnancy.,CPT +58671,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Oviduct/Ovary.,The provider uses a device to close off the fallopian tubes through a laparoscope.,CPT +58672,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Oviduct/Ovary.,The provider removes adhesions that have formed around the end of the fallopian tube to open it up so that eggs from the ovary can pass down to the uterus. The provider performs this procedure through a laparoscope.,CPT +58673,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Oviduct/Ovary.,The provider creates a new opening at the end of the fallopian tube through a laparoscope so that eggs from the ovary can pass into the uterus.,CPT +58674,Laparoscopic/Hysteroscopic Procedures on the Corpus Uteri.,"The provider ablates, or destroys, one or more uterine fibroids, benign tumors made of fibrous tissue, using radio waves. The provider performs the procedure under ultrasound guidance, via a laparoscopic approach.",CPT +58679,Laparoscopic Procedures on the Oviduct/Ovary.,Use to report laparoscopy procedures of the oviduct or ovary that do not have a specific code in the female genital system. The procedure could involve a new technology or an uncommon one. Do not use this code if there is another code that describes the service using a laparoscopic approach.,CPT +58700,Excision Procedures on the Oviduct/Ovary.,"In this procedure, the provider removes all or part of a fallopian tube on one or both sides. The provider performs the procedure via an abdominal incision.",CPT +58720,Excision Procedures on the Oviduct/Ovary.,"In this procedure, the provider removes all or part of a fallopian tube, and all or part of an ovary. The procedure may include only one side, for a unilateral procedure, or both sides in a bilateral procedure. The provider performs this procedure via an abdominal incision.",CPT +58740,Repair Procedures on the Oviduct/Ovary.,"In this procedure, the provider removes adhesions from around the fallopian tubes and or the ovaries. The provider performs the procedure through an abdominal incision.",CPT +58750,Repair Procedures on the Oviduct/Ovary.,"In this procedure, known as a tubotubal anastomosis, the provider sutures back together the portion of the fallopian tube that was previously transected during a sterilization procedure. This provider performs this procedure to reestablish the patient’s ability to become pregnant. The procedure is done via an abdominal incision.",CPT +58752,Repair Procedures on the Oviduct/Ovary.,"In this procedure, known as a tubouterine implantation, the provider sutures the fallopian tube directly into the upper part of the uterus to reestablish the patient’s ability to become pregnant. The provider performs this procedure via an abdominal incision.",CPT +58760,Repair Procedures on the Oviduct/Ovary.,"In this procedure, known as a fimbrioplasty, the provider removes adhesions that form around the end of the fallopian tube to open it up so that eggs from the ovary can pass down to the uterus.  The provider performs the procedure via an abdominal incision.",CPT +58770,Repair Procedures on the Oviduct/Ovary.,The provider creates a new opening at the end of the fallopian tube so that eggs from the ovary can pass into the uterus. The provider performs the procedure via an abdominal incision.,CPT +58800,Incision Procedures on the Ovary.,"In this procedure, the provider drains one or more ovarian cysts from one or both ovaries from a vaginal approach.",CPT +58805,Incision Procedures on the Ovary.,"In this procedure, the provider drains one or more ovarian cysts from one or more ovaries through an abdominal incision.",CPT +58820,Incision Procedures on the Ovary.,"In this procedure, the provider drains an ovarian abscess via a vaginal wall incision.",CPT +58822,Incision Procedures on the Ovary.,"In this procedure, the provider drains an ovarian abscess via an abdominal incision.",CPT +58825,Incision Procedures on the Ovary.,The provider places the ovaries behind the uterus and sutures them in place via an abdominal incision. This procedure protects the ovaries before the patient receives pelvic radiation to treat cancer.,CPT +58900,Excision Procedures on the Ovary.,"In this procedure, the provider takes a tissue sample from one or both ovaries for diagnosis through a vaginal or abdominal approach.",CPT +58920,Excision Procedures on the Ovary.,The provider takes a pie–shaped (wedge) section or he takes half (bisects) of one or both ovaries via an abdominal incision. The procedure treats ovarian cysts.,CPT +58925,Excision Procedures on the Ovary.,The provider removes a cyst from one or both ovaries via an abdominal incision.,CPT +58940,Excision Procedures on the Ovary.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically removes part or all of one or both ovaries via an abdominal incision in a procedure known as an oophorectomy.",CPT +58943,Excision Procedures on the Ovary.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically removes part or all of one or both ovaries depending on the extent of the malignancy, in a procedure known as an oophorectomy. He also takes biopsies of lymph nodes and takes tissue samples. The provider may or may not remove one or both fallopian tubes and the omentum. The provider uses an abdominal approach to perform this procedure. This service is done for ovarian, tubal or primary peritoneal cancer.",CPT +58950,Excision Procedures on the Ovary.,"In this procedure, the provider removes an ovarian, tubal, or primary peritoneal malignancy along with removal of the fallopian tubes, ovaries, and omentum. The provider uses an abdominal approach to this procedure.",CPT +58951,Excision Procedures on the Ovary.,"In this procedure, the provider removes an ovarian, tubal, or primary peritoneal malignancy, and he removes the fallopian tubes, ovaries, omentum, the uterus and cervix, the pelvic lymph nodes, and a limited number of para aortic lymph nodes all through an abdominal incision.",CPT +58952,Excision Procedures on the Ovary.,"In this procedure, the provider removes an ovarian, tubal, or primary peritoneal malignancy by removing the fallopian tubes, ovaries, and omentum. He also performs a radical excision of intraabdominal or peritoneal tumors all through an abdominal incision.",CPT +58953,Excision Procedures on the Ovary.,"In this procedure, the provider removes the uterus and cervix, the ovaries and fallopian tubes and then removes the omentum. He also performs a radical excision of intraabdominal or peritoneal tumors all through an abdominal incision.",CPT +58954,Excision Procedures on the Ovary.,"In this procedure, the provider removes the fallopian tubes, ovaries, omentum, the uterus and cervix, the pelvic lymph nodes, and a limited number of para aortic lymph nodes all through an abdominal incision.",CPT +58956,Excision Procedures on the Ovary.,"In this procedure the provider removes the uterus and cervix, ovaries and fallopian tubes, and then removes the entire omentum via an abdominal incision. The provider performs the procedure because of cancer.",CPT +58957,Excision Procedures on the Ovary.,"In this procedure the provider removes recurring cancer of the ovaries, fallopian tubes, peritoneum or uterus and removes the omentum if necessary. The provider performs this procedure through an abdominal approach.",CPT +58958,Excision Procedures on the Ovary.,"In this procedure the provider removes recurring cancer of the ovaries, fallopian tubes, peritoneum or uterus and removes the omentum if necessary all through an abdominal incision. In addition the provider removes the pelvic lymph nodes and samples the para aortic lymph nodes.",CPT +58960,Excision Procedures on the Ovary.,"In this procedure the provider determines the stage of cancer by taking biopsies within the abdominal cavity and removing pelvic lymph nodes and sampling para aortic lymph nodes. This staging is done for ovarian, fallopian tube or peritoneal cancer.",CPT +58970,Surgical Procedures for In Vitro Fertilization.,"In this procedure, the provider makes a hole in the ovary multiple times to retrieve an egg that he then fertilizes in the laboratory. He performs this procedure using a needle, which he usually introduces through the vaginal wall.",CPT +58974,Surgical Procedures for In Vitro Fertilization.,The provider places fertilized eggs in the uterus after the eggs have undergone 48 to 72 hours of laboratory culture to allow the cells to develop.,CPT +58976,Surgical Procedures for In Vitro Fertilization.,"In this procedure, the provider transfers a gamete, zygote, or embryo directly into the fallopian tube using a catheter.",CPT +58999,Other Procedures on the Female Genital System.,Use to report nonobstetrical procedures in the female genital system that does not have a specific code.,CPT +59000,Antepartum and Fetal Invasive Services for Maternity Care and Delivery.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts a needle through the patient’s abdominal wall into the fetal amniotic sac to withdraw fluid for testing.",CPT +59001,Antepartum and Fetal Invasive Services for Maternity Care and Delivery.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts a needle through the patient’s abdominal wall into the fetal amniotic sac to withdraw excess amniotic fluid to treat a condition known as polyhydramnios. The provider uses real time ultrasound scanning to perform this service.",CPT +59012,Antepartum and Fetal Invasive Services for Maternity Care and Delivery.,"The provider uses a needle and different methods, such as a transplacental or a transamniotic approach, to remove blood from the fetal umbilical cord to diagnoses various blood conditions and infections in the fetus.",CPT +59015,Antepartum and Fetal Invasive Services for Maternity Care and Delivery.,"The provider takes a sample of the chorionic villi, which are part of the placental tissue, to test for chromosomal abnormalities. The provider performs this procedure transvaginally or transabdominally.",CPT +59020,Antepartum and Fetal Invasive Services for Maternity Care and Delivery.,"In this procedure, the provider evaluates fetal responses to inducing contractions in the mother to determine if the fetus can tolerate labor.",CPT +59025,Antepartum and Fetal Invasive Services for Maternity Care and Delivery.,"In this procedure, the provider measures the fetal heart rate of the fetus in response to its own movements.",CPT +59030,Antepartum and Fetal Invasive Services for Maternity Care and Delivery.,"In this procedure, the provider takes a sample of fetal blood from the fetus’s scalp to find out if the fetus is getting enough oxygen during labor.",CPT +59050,Antepartum and Fetal Invasive Services for Maternity Care and Delivery.,"In this procedure, a consulting provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation for a fetal monitoring service at the request of the attending provider. The consulting provider monitors the fetus during labor by supervising or personally attaching an electrode to the fetus and performing the monitoring and interpretation of the results in a written report to the attending provider. Report this code to represent the imaging supervision and interpretation for this procedure.",CPT +59051,Antepartum and Fetal Invasive Services for Maternity Care and Delivery.,"A provider performs the interpretation of this fetal monitoring service that is other than the attending provider. The consulting provider evaluates the data from fetal monitors taken while the patient is in labor, and interprets the results in a written report to the attending provider.",CPT +59070,Antepartum and Fetal Invasive Services for Maternity Care and Delivery.,The provider introduces a warm fluid into the uterus to increase the amount of amniotic fluid in case of oligohydramnios or anhydramnios (scanty or absent amniotic fluid) or to enhance the ability to see fetal anomalies. The provider performs this procedure via a transabdominal approach using ultrasound guidance.,CPT +59072,Antepartum and Fetal Invasive Services for Maternity Care and Delivery.,The provider performs this procedure for advanced stage twin–to–twin fetal transfusion syndrome to terminate the fetus that will not survive and ensure survival of the coexisting normal fetus. The provider performs this procedure via a transabdominal approach using ultrasound guidance.,CPT +59074,Antepartum and Fetal Invasive Services for Maternity Care and Delivery.,"The provider drains excess fluid that has accumulated in the bladder, lungs, or abdominal cavity of the fetus. The provider uses a transabdominal approach and ultrasound guidance to perform this procedure.",CPT +59076,Antepartum and Fetal Invasive Services for Maternity Care and Delivery.,The provider places a shunt that drains fluid from one area of the fetus into the amniotic fluid to relieve pressure or an unsafe accumulation of fluid. The provider performs the procedure via a transabdominal approach using ultrasound guidance.,CPT +59100,Excision Procedures for Maternity Care and Delivery.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a type of cesarean section, or C section, to remove a fetus or hydatidiform mole from the uterus prior to twenty weeks and zero days gestation, but the abdominal and uterine incision are smaller than a standard C section. The provider performs this procedure with an abdominal approach.",CPT +59120,Excision Procedures for Maternity Care and Delivery.,"The provider removes the fallopian tube or ovary, or both, to treat an ectopic pregnancy. There may be a large fetus imbedded around the ovary or in the fallopian tube or an ectopic pregnancy may have already ruptured the fallopian tube. In either circumstance, the provider determines that he must remove the fallopian tube or ovary or both. The provider performs this procedure abdominally or vaginally.",CPT +59121,Excision Procedures for Maternity Care and Delivery.,The provider makes a hole or incision into the fallopian tube or ovary to remove a small ectopic pregnancy from that location. The provider normally performs this procedure through a small abdominal incision.,CPT +59130,Excision Procedures for Maternity Care and Delivery.,"In this procedure, the provider removes an ectopic pregnancy that is located in the abdominal cavity. The provider performs this procedure via an abdominal incision.",CPT +59136,Excision Procedures for Maternity Care and Delivery.,"In this procedure, the provider removes an ectopic pregnancy that is located where the fallopian tube and uterus meet. To remove the ectopic pregnancy, he removes a portion of the fallopian tube and the uterus. The provider performs this procedure via an abdominal approach.",CPT +59140,Excision Procedures for Maternity Care and Delivery.,"In this procedure, the provider removes an ectopic pregnancy that has lodged in the cervical canal. The provider performs this procedure via a vaginal approach.",CPT +59150,Excision Procedures for Maternity Care and Delivery.,"In this procedure, the provider makes a hole or incision into the fallopian tube and or ovary to remove a small ectopic pregnancy from that location, or removes a fetus that is within the pelvic cavity or imbedded within the cornu of the uterus, or the points where the uterus and fallopian tubes meet, also known as the uterine horns. The provider performs this procedure using a laparoscope. The provider does not remove the fallopian tube or ovary.",CPT +59151,Excision Procedures for Maternity Care and Delivery.,"In this procedure, the provider removes the fallopian tube and or an ovary in addition to removing or addressing an ectopic pregnancy. For this procedure, there may be a large fetus imbedded around the ovary or in the fallopian tube, or the ectopic pregnancy may have already ruptured the fallopian tube. In either circumstance, the provider determines that the he must remove the fallopian tube and or ovary. The provider performs this procedure using a laparoscope.",CPT +59160,Excision Procedures for Maternity Care and Delivery.,The provider scrapes the endometrial lining of the uterus following childbirth. The provider performs this procedure using a vaginal approach.,CPT +59200,Introduction Procedures for Maternity Care and Delivery.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts a drug or device that dilates the cervix prior to a gynecological procedure that requires entry into the uterus or to dilate the cervix prior to delivery. The provider performs this procedure using a vaginal approach.",CPT +59300,Repair Procedures for Maternity Care and Delivery.,"The provider, other than the attending physician, incises the perineum with scissors or a scalpel, in a procedure known as an episiotomy, to ease the passage of the baby’s head during birth.",CPT +59320,Repair Procedures for Maternity Care and Delivery.,"The provider sutures closed an incompetent cervix, meaning one that is prematurely dilating prior to a term delivery. The provider performs this procedure via a vaginal approach.",CPT +59325,Repair Procedures for Maternity Care and Delivery.,"The provider closes off a cervix that is damaged by trauma, a previously failed cervical cerclage, or when there is a very short cervix. The provider performs this procedure via an abdominal approach.",CPT +59350,Repair Procedures for Maternity Care and Delivery.,"In this procedure, the provider repairs a uterus that develops a laceration or ruptures during pregnancy. The provider performs this procedure via an abdominal approach.",CPT +59400,"Vaginal Delivery, Antepartum and Postpartum Care Procedures.","In this global service, the provider and nonphysician healthcare providers in the practice provide all of the antepartum care, admission to the hospital for delivery, labor management, including induction of labor, fetal monitoring, use of low forceps and episiotomy, vaginal delivery of the fetus and placenta, and inpatient and outpatient postpartum care. Typical global services begin at eight to ten weeks gestation, with a full term vaginal delivery at thirty–nine to forty weeks gestation, and routine outpatient postpartum care forsix weeks following delivery.",CPT +59409,"Vaginal Delivery, Antepartum and Postpartum Care Procedures.","In this procedure, the provider provides admission to the hospital for delivery, labor management, including induction of labor, fetal monitoring, use of low forceps, and episiotomy, vaginal delivery of the fetus and placenta on the same date of service.",CPT +59410,"Vaginal Delivery, Antepartum and Postpartum Care Procedures.","In this global service, the provider admits the patient to the hospital for delivery, labor management, including induction of labor, fetal monitoring, use of low forceps, and episiotomy, vaginal delivery of the fetus and placenta, and inpatient and outpatient postpartum care. Typical postpartum care ends after one or more outpatient visits up to six weeks following delivery.",CPT +59412,"Vaginal Delivery, Antepartum and Postpartum Care Procedures.","In this procedure, the provider attempts to turn the fetus into the head first position prior to delivery. The provider may use drugs to suppress contractions while he performs the procedure. The provider maneuvers the fetus with his hands on the woman’s abdomen.",CPT +59414,"Vaginal Delivery, Antepartum and Postpartum Care Procedures.","In this procedure, a provider who did not perform the delivery manually removes the afterbirth.",CPT +59425,"Vaginal Delivery, Antepartum and Postpartum Care Procedures.","This service is considered a mini global code for the provider who provides only four to six of the patient’s antepartum visits. This can happen when the patient transfers out of the practice prior to delivery or the pregnancy terminates prior to delivery. In some cases, the provider must use this code when he does not provide all of the antepartum care, but does perform the delivery with or without postpartum care because the patient transfers in from another practice, and the payer does not allow the provider to bill a global services code such as 59400.",CPT +59426,"Vaginal Delivery, Antepartum and Postpartum Care Procedures.","This service is considered a mini global code for the provider who provides seven or more antepartum visits. This can happen when the patient transfers out of the practice prior to delivery or the pregnancy terminates prior to delivery. In some cases, the provider must use this code when he does not provide all of the antepartum care, but does perform the delivery with or without postpartum care because the patient transfers in from another practice and the payer does not allow the physician to report the global services code, such as 59400.",CPT +59430,"Vaginal Delivery, Antepartum and Postpartum Care Procedures.","For this service, the provider or nonphysician healthcare professional provides care to the patient in the outpatient setting following the delivery. Routine postpartum care can involve one or more visits up to six weeks following delivery.",CPT +59510,Cesarean Delivery Procedures.,"In this global service, the provider provides all of the antepartum care, admission to the hospital for delivery, delivery of the fetus and placenta via an abdominal incision, and inpatient and outpatient postpartum care. Typical global services begin at eight to ten weeks gestation and include a full–term cesarean delivery at thirty–nine to forty weeks gestation and routine inpatient and outpatient postpartum care of one or more visits up to six weeks following delivery.",CPT +59514,Cesarean Delivery Procedures.,"The provider admits the patient to the hospital for delivery, delivers the fetus and placenta via an abdominal incision, and provides care immediately after delivery on the same date of service. This service does not include antepartum care or postpartum care beyond the date of delivery.",CPT +59515,Cesarean Delivery Procedures.,"In this global service, the provider provides admission to the hospital for cesarean delivery of the fetus and placenta via an abdominal incision, and inpatient and outpatient postpartum care. Typical postpartum care ends after one or more outpatient visits up to six weeks following delivery.",CPT +59525,Cesarean Delivery Procedures.,"During the same operative session for a cesarean delivery, the provider surgically removes a patient’s uterus. In a subtotal, or partial, hysterectomy, the provider does not remove the cervix.",CPT +59610,Delivery Procedures After Previous Cesarean Delivery.,"In this global service, the provider provides all of the antepartum care, admission to the hospital for delivery, intensive labor management, including fetal monitoring, use of low forceps, and episiotomy, vaginal delivery of the fetus and placenta, and inpatient and outpatient postpartum care. The patient has had a previous cesarean delivery but was able to deliver vaginally at this delivery. Typical global services begin at eight to ten weeks gestation, with a full term vaginal delivery at thirty–nine to forty weeks gestation, and routine outpatient postpartum care at six weeks following delivery.",CPT +59612,Delivery Procedures After Previous Cesarean Delivery.,"The provider admits the patient to the hospital for delivery and provides intensive labor management including fetal monitoring, use of low forceps, and episiotomy, vaginal delivery of the fetus and placenta, and care immediately after delivery on the same date of service.",CPT +59614,Delivery Procedures After Previous Cesarean Delivery.,"In this global service, the provider admits the patient to the hospital for delivery and provides intensive labor management, including fetal monitoring, use of low forceps, and episiotomy, vaginal delivery of the fetus and placenta, and inpatient and outpatient postpartum care. The patient has had a previous cesarean delivery but was able to deliver vaginally at this delivery. Typical postpartum care ends after one or more outpatient visits up to six weeks following delivery.",CPT +59618,Delivery Procedures After Previous Cesarean Delivery.,"In this global service, the provider provides all of the antepartum care, admission to the hospital for delivery, intensive management of labor followed by delivery of the fetus and placenta via an abdominal incision, and inpatient and outpatient postpartum care. The patient’s attempt at a vaginal delivery after a previous cesarean delivery fails, resulting in a repeat cesarean. Typical global services begin at eight to ten weeks gestation, with a full–term cesarean delivery at thirty–nine to forty weeks gestation, and routine outpatient postpartum care of one or more visits up to six weeks following delivery.",CPT +59620,Delivery Procedures After Previous Cesarean Delivery.,The provider admits the patient to the hospital for delivery and provides intensive management of labor with delivery of the fetus and placenta via an abdominal incision and care immediately after delivery on the same date of service.,CPT +59622,Delivery Procedures After Previous Cesarean Delivery.,"In this global service, the provider admits the patient to the hospital for delivery and provides intensive management of labor with delivery of the fetus and placenta via an abdominal incision and inpatient and outpatient postpartum care. The patient’s attempt at a vaginal delivery after a previous cesarean delivery fails, resulting in a repeat cesarean. Typical global services begin with admission for a full–term cesarean delivery at thirty–nine to forty weeks gestation and include routine inpatient care and outpatient postpartum care of one or more visits up to six weeks following delivery.",CPT +59812,Abortion Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically removes products of conception that have not been expelled during a miscarriage. The provider performs this procedure via a vaginal approach.",CPT +59820,Abortion Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider determines that the fetus has died in utero, or in the uterus before birth and the gestational age is less than fourteen weeks and zero days. The provider then surgically removes the fetus and all of the products of conception. The provider performs this procedure via a vaginal approach.",CPT +59821,Abortion Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider determines that the fetus has died in utero, or in the uterus before birth and the gestational age is from fourteen weeks, zero days to less than twenty eight weeks and zero days. The provider surgically removes the fetus and all of the products of conception. The provider performs this procedure via a vaginal approach.",CPT +59830,Abortion Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes the products of conception that are causing a severe uterine infection. The provider performs this procedure via a vaginal approach.",CPT +59840,Abortion Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider deliberately terminates a pregnancy for elective or therapeutic reasons. He removes the fetus and products of conception by dilating the cervix and then using a suction curette. The provider performs this procedure via a vaginal approach. This procedure is normally done during the first trimester, or less than fourteen complete weeks of gestation.",CPT +59841,Abortion Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider deliberately terminates a pregnancy for elective or therapeutic reasons. He removes the fetus and products of conception by dilating the cervix and then evacuating the fetus and products of conception using forceps. The provider performs this procedure via a vaginal approach. This procedure is normally done during the second trimester, or from fourteen weeks, zero days to less than twenty eight weeks and zero days.",CPT +59850,Abortion Procedures.,"In this global procedure, the provider terminates a pregnancy by injecting a saline solution into the amniotic sac to cause the fetal demise, which in turn will usually begin the labor process. The provider admits the patient to the hospital, administers the intra amniotic injections, manages the labor that follows, and delivers the fetus and placenta. The provider then follows the patient in the hospital until discharge. Providers use this method usually after the first trimester, or fourteen weeks, zero days gestation or more.",CPT +59851,Abortion Procedures.,"In this global procedure, the provider terminates a pregnancy by injecting a saline solution into the amniotic sac to cause fetal demise, which in turn will usually begin the labor process. The provider admits the patient to the hospital, administers the intra amniotic injections, manages the labor that follows, and then performs a dilation and curettage. The provider then follows the patient in the hospital until discharge. Providers use this method usually after the first trimester, or fourteen weeks and zero days gestation or more.",CPT +59852,Abortion Procedures.,"In this global procedure, the provider terminates a pregnancy by injecting a saline solution into the amniotic sac to cause fetal demise, which in turn will usually begin the labor process. The provider admits the patient to the hospital, administers the intra amniotic injections, manages the labor that follows, and then performs a hysterotomy to remove the fetus and placenta. The provider then follows the patient in the hospital until discharge. Providers use this method usually after the first trimester, or fourteen weeks, zero days gestation or more.",CPT +59855,Abortion Procedures.,"In this global procedure, the provider terminates a pregnancy by inserting vaginal suppositories to induce labor contractions and may also insert a laminaria to dilate the cervix. The provider admits the patient to the hospital, inserts the drug and cervical dilator, manages the labor that follows, and delivers the fetus and placenta. The provider then follows the patient in the hospital until discharge. Providers use this method usually after the first trimester, or fourteen weeks, zero days gestation or more.",CPT +59856,Abortion Procedures.,"In this global procedure, the provider terminates a pregnancy by inserting vaginal suppositories to induce labor contractions and may also insert a laminaria to dilate the cervix. In this service, the patient fails to abort the fetus or the placenta and the provider performs a surgical removal of the fetus and or the placenta. The provider admits the patient to the hospital, inserts the drug and cervical dilator, manages the labor that follows, and then performs the dilation and curettage. The provider then follows the patient in the hospital until discharge. Providers use this method usually after the first trimester, or fourteen weeks and zero days gestation or more.",CPT +59857,Abortion Procedures.,"In this global procedure, the provider terminates a pregnancy by inserting vaginal suppositories to induce labor contractions and may also insert a laminaria to dilate the cervix. In this service, the patient fails to abort the fetus and the provider performs surgical removal of the fetus and the placenta via an incision into the uterus, like a cesarean delivery. The provider admits the patient to the hospital, inserts the drug and cervical dilator, manages the labor that follows, and then performs the incision into the uterus. The provider then follows the patient in the hospital until discharge. Providers use this method usually after the first trimester, fourteen weeks and zero days gestation or more.",CPT +59866,Other Procedures for Maternity Care and Delivery.,The provider reduces a higher order multifetal gestation pregnancy to either a twin or singleton pregnancy to increase the chances of a successful pregnancy for the remaining fetuses and to help prevent the serious complications that can occur with higher order gestations.,CPT +59870,Other Procedures for Maternity Care and Delivery.,The provider removes a growth in the uterus that results from an overproduction of tissue that was supposed to form the placenta. He removes this tissue through the vaginal canal.,CPT +59871,Other Procedures for Maternity Care and Delivery.,"The provider removes a cerclage suture, which was placed to hold the cervix closed. The provider normally performs this service via a vaginal approach with the patient under general anesthesia",CPT +59897,Other Procedures for Maternity Care and Delivery.,Use to report fetal invasive procedures in maternity care and delivery that do not have a specific code.,CPT +59898,Other Procedures for Maternity Care and Delivery.,Use to report laparoscopic procedures in maternity care and delivery that do not have a specific code.,CPT +59899,Other Procedures for Maternity Care and Delivery.,"Use to report procedures in maternity care and delivery, other than those that employ laparoscopy, that do not have a specific code.",CPT +60000,Incision Procedures on the Thyroid Gland.,The provider incises and drains an infected cyst of the thyroid. A thyroglossal duct cyst is a cyst in the midline of the neck caused by a segment of the thyroglossal duct that did not close or disappear during embryonic development.,CPT +60100,Excision Procedures on the Thyroid Gland.,"This is a diagnostic procedure in which the provider removes a tissue sample from the thyroid gland, typically under imaging guidance, using an automatic, spring–powered core needle.",CPT +60200,Excision Procedures on the Thyroid Gland.,"The provider removes a cyst or a blood–filled growth from the thyroid gland, or incises the tissue that connects the right and left side of the thyroid gland in the front of the throat. The procedure is indicated for nodules that affect breathing or swallowing and for suspected or confirmed cancer.",CPT +60210,Excision Procedures on the Thyroid Gland.,"This is a procedure involving surgical removal of a part of one of the two lobes the thyroid gland is divided into. The provider may perform the procedure with or without surgical removal of the isthmus, the tissue connecting the two lobes of the thyroid gland in the middle.",CPT +60212,Excision Procedures on the Thyroid Gland.,"The procedure involves surgical removal of a part of one lobe of the thyroid gland and most of the portion of the other lobe of the thyroid gland. The provider also performs surgical removal of the isthmus, the tissue connecting the two lobes of the thyroid gland in the middle.",CPT +60220,Excision Procedures on the Thyroid Gland.,"This is a procedure involving complete surgical removal of one of the two lobes the thyroid gland is divided into. The provider may perform the procedure with or without surgical removal of the isthmus, the tissue connecting the two lobes of the thyroid gland in the middle.",CPT +60225,Excision Procedures on the Thyroid Gland.,"The procedure involves surgical removal of one whole lobe of the thyroid gland and most of the other lobe of the thyroid gland. The provider also performs surgical removal of the isthmus, the tissue connecting the two lobes of the thyroid gland in the middle.",CPT +60240,Excision Procedures on the Thyroid Gland.,The procedure involves surgical removal of the entire thyroid gland.,CPT +60252,Excision Procedures on the Thyroid Gland.,"The procedure involves surgical removal of the entire thyroid or most of the thyroid, including the isthmus. The provider also performs limited lymph node dissection of the neck.",CPT +60254,Excision Procedures on the Thyroid Gland.,"The procedure involves surgical removal of the entire thyroid or most of the thyroid, including the isthmus. The provider also performs neck dissection to remove neck structures extensively including malignant lymph nodes of the neck.",CPT +60260,Excision Procedures on the Thyroid Gland.,"The procedure involves surgical removal of the entire remaining thyroid tissue left from a previous thyroid operation, such as lobectomy. The provider typically performs this when there is evidence of cancer in the existing lobe of the thyroid. The procedure is also known as completion thyroidectomy.",CPT +60270,Excision Procedures on the Thyroid Gland.,"The provider removes the thyroid gland including the extension of the gland below the breastbone. The procedure is required for more complex benign conditions, such as a very large goiter, cyst, or benign or malignant conditions that extend into the upper chest.",CPT +60271,Excision Procedures on the Thyroid Gland.,The procedure involves surgical removal of the thyroid gland including its extension into the thorax below the sternum.,CPT +60280,Excision Procedures on the Thyroid Gland.,"The provider removes a thyroglossal duct cyst. A thyroglossal duct cyst is a cyst in the midline of the neck caused by a segment of the thyroglossal duct that did not close or disappear during embryonic development. The procedure is done to prevent infection, a recurrence of the cyst, or malignancy.",CPT +60281,Excision Procedures on the Thyroid Gland.,"This procedure involves complete surgical removal of the thyroglossal duct cyst or sinus, including its full extent up to the back of the tongue as well as a portion of the hyoid bone. This is also known as the Sistrunk procedure. Recurrent cysts may appear when the patient’s infection was not under adequate control prior to previous surgery or when a previous surgery did not remove sufficient tissue.",CPT +60300,Removal Procedures on the Thyroid Gland.,The provider drains a thyroid cyst using a needle or catheter.   The provider may use radiologic imaging to guide the needle/catheter into the target area to drain the cyst.,CPT +60500,"Excision Procedures on the Parathyroid, Thymus, Adrenal Glands, Pancreas, and Carotid Body.","In the traditional procedure of parathyroid exploration, the provider surgically visualizes and screens the parathyroid glands for pathology based on their appearance and relative size. He may then perform parathyroidectomy, which is surgical removal of one or more parathyroid glands as indicated. The glands are a set of four small glands situated on the rear of the four corners of the butterfly shaped thyroid gland.",CPT +60502,"Excision Procedures on the Parathyroid, Thymus, Adrenal Glands, Pancreas, and Carotid Body.","The provider  removes one or more of the parathyroid glands, which are small endocrine glands that are behind the thyroid gland. Providers perform the procedure  to treat recurrent or persistent thyroid overactivity or cancer.",CPT +60505,"Excision Procedures on the Parathyroid, Thymus, Adrenal Glands, Pancreas, and Carotid Body.","The provider examines or removes one  or more of the parathyroid glands, the small endocrine glands, using one of three approaches. Providers typically perform this procedure to treat overactivity of the thyroid caused by a parathyroid adenoma.",CPT +60512,"Excision Procedures on the Parathyroid, Thymus, Adrenal Glands, Pancreas, and Carotid Body.","Providers perform this procedure along with a primary procedure of thyroidectomy or parathyroidectomy. In this procedure, the provider takes the excised parathyroid tissue and places it into a muscle pocket either in the side of the neck or in the forearm muscles. The tissue develops a blood supply and starts working in 4 to 6 weeks.",CPT +60520,"Excision Procedures on the Parathyroid, Thymus, Adrenal Glands, Pancreas, and Carotid Body.","The provider removes a part of the thymus gland or the entire gland. The procedure is often done as a result of a benign or malignant tumor on the thymus gland, called a thymoma.",CPT +60521,"Excision Procedures on the Parathyroid, Thymus, Adrenal Glands, Pancreas, and Carotid Body.","The provider removes a part or the entire thymus gland without removing adjacent structures. The procedure is often done as a result of a benign or malignant tumor on the thymus gland, called a thymoma.",CPT +60522,"Excision Procedures on the Parathyroid, Thymus, Adrenal Glands, Pancreas, and Carotid Body.",This procedure involves removal of the entire thymus gland or a part thereof. The provider performs it using an incision on the sternum or an incision on one or both sides of the chest. The provider removes a part of or the entire thymus gland along with adjacent mediastinal structures.,CPT +60540,"Excision Procedures on the Parathyroid, Thymus, Adrenal Glands, Pancreas, and Carotid Body.","The provider explores or removes one or both of the adrenal glands, which are two small organs located above the kidneys that secrete hormones to help regulate the immune system, metabolism, blood sugar levels, and blood pressure. The procedure covers different surgical approaches and biopsy when performed. The provider performs this procedure primarily to investigate or treat malignancy of the adrenal glands.",CPT +60545,"Excision Procedures on the Parathyroid, Thymus, Adrenal Glands, Pancreas, and Carotid Body.","The provider explores or removes one or both of the adrenal glands, which are two small organs located above the kidneys that secrete hormones to help regulate the immune system, metabolism, blood sugar levels, and blood pressure. The procedure covers different surgical approaches and biopsy when performed. The procedure is done as a result of an overactive gland or glands, benign or cancerous tumors of the adrenal glands, or disease.",CPT +60600,"Excision Procedures on the Parathyroid, Thymus, Adrenal Glands, Pancreas, and Carotid Body.","The provider removes a tumor from the receptors located in the carotid artery near the fork, or bifurcation, in the upper neck but does not excise the carotid artery itself. The procedure is used to remove different types of carotid body tumors, often referred to as CBTs.",CPT +60605,"Excision Procedures on the Parathyroid, Thymus, Adrenal Glands, Pancreas, and Carotid Body.","The provider removes a tumor from the receptors located in the carotid artery near the fork, or bifurcation, in the upper neck along with excision of the carotid artery itself. The provider performs this procedure to remove different types of carotid body tumors, where the carotid artery is also involved.",CPT +60650,"Laparoscopic Procedures on the Parathyroid, Thymus, Adrenal Glands, Pancreas, and Carotid Body.","Using a laparoscope, the provider explores or removes one or both of the adrenal glands, which are two small organs located above the kidneys that secrete hormones to help regulate the immune system, metabolism, blood sugar levels, and blood pressure. The procedure covers different surgical approaches and biopsy when performed. The provider performs this procedure primarily for exploration or removal of small to medium sized benign or cancerous tumors of the adrenal glands.",CPT +60659,"Laparoscopic Procedures on the Parathyroid, Thymus, Adrenal Glands, Pancreas, and Carotid Body.",Use to report laparoscopic procedures of the endocrine system that do not have a specific code.,CPT +60699,Other Procedures of the Endocrine System.,Use to report procedures in the endocrine system that do not have a specific code.,CPT +60722,Details un-available,Details un-available,CPT +61000,"Injection, Drainage, or Aspiration Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","The provider performs an initial puncture of the dura, through the soft spot of the skull, known as the fontanelle, or the fibrous connective joint of the cranial bones in the skull, known as the coronal suture. The procedure is typically performed on infants to remove built up blood or cerebrospinal fluid and to relieve pressure.",CPT +61001,"Injection, Drainage, or Aspiration Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","The provider performs subsequent punctures of the dura, through the soft spot of the skull, known as the fontanelle, or the joint of the cranial bones in the skull, known as the coronal suture. The procedure is typically performed on infants to remove built up blood or cerebrospinal fluid and to relieve pressure.",CPT +61020,"Injection, Drainage, or Aspiration Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this procedure, the provider inserts a needle into one of the brain’s ventricles to withdraw cerebrospinal fluid, or CSF, for testing but does not inject any substance. The provider accesses the brain through the patient’s skull through a previously created burr hole, the fontanelle, or coronal suture, or through an internal ventricular drain. This service is done to measure pressure, remove excess fluid, and or collect fluid samples to analyze the CSF for neurological conditions.",CPT +61026,"Injection, Drainage, or Aspiration Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this procedure, the provider inserts a needle into one of the brain’s ventricles to inject a diagnostic or therapeutic agent. The provider accesses the brain through the patient’s skull through a previously created burr hole, the fontanelle or a coronal suture, or through an internal ventricular drain. This service is done to measure pressure, remove excess fluid, and or collect fluid samples to diagnose or treat neurological conditions such as an infection, known as meningitis.",CPT +61050,"Injection, Drainage, or Aspiration Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this procedure, the provider inserts a needle at the craniocervical junction to access cerebrospinal fluid, or CSF, in a procedure known as a cisternal puncture. Or the provider performs the same in a high cervical approach in a procedure known as a lateral cervical puncture. The provider does not inject a diagnostic or therapeutic agent. This service is done to measure pressure, remove excess CSF fluid, and or collect fluid samples to analyze the CSF for neurological conditions.",CPT +61055,"Injection, Drainage, or Aspiration Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","The provider inserts a needle at the junction between the skull and the first cervical vertebra, directing the needle toward the sagittal suture, the joint line that divides the skull in half vertically. Or, he inserts the needle laterally between the first and second cervical vertebra, which he may refer to as the atlantooccipital, craniovertebral, or occipitovertebral joint. He then injects a medication to treat a neurological condition or contrast material for an imaging study.",CPT +61070,"Injection, Drainage, or Aspiration Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this procedure, called a shunt tap, the provider inserts a needle into the tube of a shunt or its reservoir to withdraw cerebrospinal fluid, or CSF, or he injects a medication or other substance into the CSF. The provider performs this service to measure pressure, test the patency of the shunt device, meaning that it is open and unobstructed, aspirate fluid for diagnosis, or to inject medication or contrast.",CPT +61105,"Twist Drill, Burr Hole(s), or Trephine Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this procedure, the provider uses a hand operated twist drill to create a hole in the skull to withdraw fluid from the area below the dura or from the ventricles of the brain.",CPT +61107,"Twist Drill, Burr Hole(s), or Trephine Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this procedure, the provider uses a hand operated twist drill to create a hole or holes in the skull to access the area below the dura, the intracerebral area, or the space within the ventricles. The service is done to insert a needle to remove fluid, place a drainage catheter, and or implant a pressure or other monitoring device to measure intracranial pressure.",CPT +61108,"Twist Drill, Burr Hole(s), or Trephine Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","The provider drills a hole or holes into the skull to drain and relieve pressure on the brain caused by a collection of blood on the surface of the brain, called a hematoma. A hematoma can occur as a result of trauma or a medical procedure.",CPT +61120,"Twist Drill, Burr Hole(s), or Trephine Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.",The provider drills a hole or holes into the skull to access the intracranial space for diagnostic injections.,CPT +61140,"Twist Drill, Burr Hole(s), or Trephine Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.",The provider drills holes into the skull to remove a small biopsy of abnormal tissue for testing.,CPT +61150,"Twist Drill, Burr Hole(s), or Trephine Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","The provider drills a hole or holes into the skull to drain a brain abscess or cyst. An abscess or cyst can occur as a result of a penetrating head wound or a bacterial or fungal infection, among other reasons.",CPT +61151,"Twist Drill, Burr Hole(s), or Trephine Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.",The provider subsequently aspirates an abscess or cyst on or in the brain through an established burr hole in the skull. This service may be done to treat  a reoccurrence of the lesion.,CPT +61154,"Twist Drill, Burr Hole(s), or Trephine Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","The provider drills a hole or holes into the skull to drain or evacuate a hematoma, a collection of blood on the outside or underneath the dura of the brain.  The service is done to access a hematoma that can occur as a result of trauma or a medical procedure.",CPT +61156,"Twist Drill, Burr Hole(s), or Trephine Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","The provider drills a hole or holes into the skull to aspirate a cyst or a hematoma, a collection of blood on the surface of the brain.  The service is done to access a cyst or a hematoma in the front of the brain that can occur as a result of trauma or a medical procedure.",CPT +61210,"Twist Drill, Burr Hole(s), or Trephine Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","The provider drills a hole or holes into the skull to implant a ventricular drainage catheter, fluid reservoir, EEG electrodes, or a pressure or other monitoring device. This service provides the access for these devices that drain fluid from the brain and or measure intracranial pressure or brain activity.",CPT +61215,"Twist Drill, Burr Hole(s), or Trephine Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","The provider inserts an implantable reservoir, pump, or continuous infusion system under the skin to administer medications through a tunneled catheter. This service may be done to provide pain medication directly into the cerebral spinal fluid, or CSF, or for chemotherapy administration.",CPT +61250,"Twist Drill, Burr Hole(s), or Trephine Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","The provider drills a burr hole or holes into the skull supratentorially, or above the tentorium, and inspects the brain. This procedure is generally done when other diagnostic testing is unable to determine the reason for a condition or the extent of a disorder.  The provider does not at his time perform a surgical procedure subsequent to this service.",CPT +61253,"Twist Drill, Burr Hole(s), or Trephine Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","The provider drills a hole or holes into the skull infratentorially, or below the tentorium, and on one or both sides to inspect the brain. This procedure is generally done when other diagnostic testing is unable to determine the reason for a condition or the extent of a disorder.  The provider does not perform a surgical procedure subsequent to this service.",CPT +61304,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"The provider inspects the front of the brain by accessing the skull above the tentorium. This procedure is generally done when other diagnostic testing is unable to determine the reason for a condition, the location of a lesion or tumor, and the extent of any damage.",CPT +61305,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"The provider inspects the posterior fossa of the brain at the back of the skull by accessing the skull below the tentorium. This procedure is generally done when other diagnostic testing is unable to determine the reason for a condition, the location of a lesion or tumor, and the extent of any damage.",CPT +61312,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"Hematoma is an unusual collection of blood outside the blood vessels due to internal hemorrhage. Subdural or extradural hematoma is caused by head injuries, and it is a life–threatening condition. These hematomas can be removed through suction, for which the physician has to perform an incision of the scalp, craniotomy, or craniectomy. A supratentorial hematoma is the accumulation of blood in the region above the tentorium cerebella (or the cerebellar tentorium –– the extended dura mater that surrounds and separates the cerebellum from the other parts of brain in the posterior cerebral hemisphere).",CPT +61313,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"A hematoma, or clot, is an unusual collection of blood outside the blood vessels due to an internal hemorrhage. In this procedure, the provider drills burr holes in and may open the skull to access the front of the brain above the tentorium to drain and relieve pressure from a hematoma within the brain. A hematoma can occur as a result of trauma, a medical procedure, or when a spontaneous bleeding into the brain tissue occurs from a stroke.",CPT +61314,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"A hematoma, or clot, is an unusual collection of blood outside the blood vessels due to an internal hemorrhage. In this procedure, the provider drills burr holes in and may open the skull to access the brain below the tentorium to drain and relieve pressure from a hematoma on or under the dura. A hematoma can occur as a result of trauma, a medical procedure, or when a spontaneous bleeding into the brain tissue occurs from a stroke.",CPT +61315,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"The provider opens the skull to access the cerebellum below the tentorium to drain and relieve pressure from a hematoma, a collection of blood on the surface of the brain. A hematoma can occur as a result of trauma or a medical procedure.",CPT +61316,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider makes an incision in the skin and temporarily places a cranial bone graft into a remote subcutaneous site for future retrieval. The provider creates a pocket underneath the skin, most often in the abdomen, and places a split thickness  or full thickness bone graft, or shaved or bone dust material into the pocket. This procedure is often necessary when brain swelling makes immediate replacement of the bone flap inadvisable,  as it may aggravate intracranial pressure.",CPT +61320,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"The provider creates an opening in the skull above the tentorium to drain and relieve pressure caused by an abscess.  An abscess can occur as a result of a penetrating head wound or a bacterial or fungal infection. This procedure is performed as a primary procedure or a subsequent procedure if the abscess regrows after an initial aspiration, or drainage.",CPT +61321,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"The provider creates an opening in the skull to drain and relieve pressure that a brain abscess causes. An abscess can occur as a result of a penetrating head wound or a bacterial or fungal infection. This procedure can be a primary procedure or a subsequent procedure if the abscess regrows after an initial aspiration, or drainage.",CPT +61322,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"The provider removes a part of the skull to treat raised intracranial pressure, or ICP, by allowing the swelling brain room to expand. The procedure may also include duraplasty, or reconstruction or expansion of the dura using a synthetic graft, or part of the patient’s pericranium, a membrane that covers the surface of the skull. The procedure excludes the removal of a related hematoma due to conditions such as a closed head injury, and there is no dissection to the lobes of the brain in this service.",CPT +61323,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"The provider removes a part of the skull and a portion of the damaged brain tissue to treat raised intracranial pressure, or ICP, by allowing the swelling brain room to expand. The procedure may also include duraplasty, or reconstruction or expansion of the dura using a synthetic graft or part of the patient’s pericranium, a membrane that covers the surface of the skull. The procedure excludes the removal of the related hematoma.",CPT +61330,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"The provider removes a portion of the eye socket to create more space in the orbit allowing the eye to return to a more normal position. The procedure is often performed to relieve eye proptosis, also known as bulging eyes, or to treat an orbital roof fracture.",CPT +61333,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,The provider incises the scalp and accesses the eye to remove a lesion or tumor.,CPT +61340,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"The provider decompresses the area of the brain below the temples by removing the part of the skull beneath the temporal muscle and opening the dura. This procedure is done when intracranial pressure increases for no obvious reason, a condition known as pseudotumor cerebri, also called idiopathic intracranial hypertension. Another indication for the service is a condition known as slit ventricle syndrome, a complication of shunt implantation for patients with excess cerebrospinal fluid, or CSF, buildup in the ventricles of the brain.",CPT +61343,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a small portion of the occipital bone at the back of the skull including the back of the upper one or two cervical vertebrae to relieve pressure on the medulla, or brain stem, and spinal cord. The provider may have to open and expand the dura by suturing in place a dural graft. The goal of this procedure is to reduce or eliminate compression of the spinal cord.",CPT +61345,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"The provider removes a small bone at the back of the skull and spine to relieve pressure at the base of the brain. The procedure is performed to treat  cerebellar strokes, bleeds, and tumors. Providers also perform it to treat tonsillar herniation and Chiari malformation, where brain tissue extends into the spinal canal due to an abnormally small or misshapen skull, which presses on the brain and forces it downward.",CPT +61450,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"The provider creates an opening in the skull below the temples to section and apply pressure or release pressure on the sensory root of the gasserian ganglion, a large group of nerves that lie at the root of the fifth cranial nerve. This procedure is primarily done to treat facial nerve pain, called trigeminal neuralgia.",CPT +61458,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a small portion of skull at the back of the head to explore the lower back portion of the brain and the cranial nerves or free one or more of the cranial nerves to relieve pressure on the nerves. This service effectively treats the severe pain associated with compression of the cranial nerves.",CPT +61460,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"The provider incises the upper portion of the back of the neck to free one or more of the cranial nerves.  This procedure is often used to treat a vestibular schwannoma, also known as an acoustic neuroma, which is a benign tumor found in the nerves that lead from the brain to the inner ear and control balance and hearing.",CPT +61500,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a small portion of skull bone to remove a tumor or other abnormal growth of the skull.",CPT +61501,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically removes a part of the skull that is infected.",CPT +61510,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a portion of skull bone and excises a brain tumor present above the tentorium cerebelli, a fold of dura mater separating the cerebellum from the occipital and temporal lobes. This procedure is not done for a meningioma.",CPT +61512,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a portion of skull bone and excises a meningioma present above the tentorium cerebelli, a fold of dura mater separating the cerebellum from the occipital and temporal lobes.",CPT +61514,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a portion of skull bone and excises a brain abscess present above the tentorium cerebella, a fold of dura mater separating the cerebellum from the occipital and temporal lobes.",CPT +61516,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a portion of skull bone and excises or creates an opening in a cyst to drain it. The cyst is present above the tentorium cerebelli, a fold of dura mater separating the cerebellum from the occipital and temporal lobes.",CPT +61517,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"In this add–on code, the provider implants a chemotherapy drug at the same time as the procedure where he removes a portion of the skull bone and excises a tumor. The service may be done when resection is incomplete or for cancer cells that might remain after tumor removal.",CPT +61518,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a portion of skull bone and excises a brain tumor present below the tentorium cerebelli, a fold of dura mater separating the cerebellum from the occipital and temporal lobe. Alternately, the tumor may be present in the posterior fossa, a small space in the lower back portion of the brain near the brain stem. This procedure is not done for a meningioma, cerebellopontine angle tumor, or midline tumor at base of skull.",CPT +61519,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a portion of skull bone and excises a tumor of the meninges, which are connective tissue layers covering the brain. The tumor is present below the tentorium cerebella, a fold of dura mater separating the cerebellum from the occipital and temporal lobes. Alternatively, the tumor may be present in the posterior fossa, a small space in the brain near the brainstem.",CPT +61520,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a portion of skull bone and excises a cerebellopontine angle tumor, or better known as an acoustic neuroma. The tumor is present below the tentorium cerebelli, a fold of dura mater separating the cerebellum from the occipital and temporal lobes. Alternately, the tumor may be present in the posterior fossa, a small space in the lower back portion of the brain near the brain stem.",CPT +61521,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a portion of skull bone. He excises a tumor present in the skull base located at the midline below the tentorium cerebella, a fold of dura mater separating the cerebellum from the occipital and temporal lobes. Alternatively, the tumor may be present in the posterior fossa, a small space in the brain near the brainstem.",CPT +61522,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a portion of skull bone and excises a brain abscess present below the tentorium cerebella, a fold of dura mater separating the cerebellum from the occipital and temporal lobes. Alternatively, the tumor may be present in the posterior fossa, a small space in the brain near the brainstem.",CPT +61524,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a portion of skull bone and excises or creates an opening in a cyst to drain it. The cyst is present below the tentorium cerebelli, a fold of dura mater separating the cerebellum from the occipital and temporal lobes. Alternately, the tumor may be present in the posterior fossa, a small space in the lower back portion of the brain near the brain stem.",CPT +61526,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a portion of skull bone and excises a cerebellopontine angle tumor.  The provider uses a transtemporal approach, meaning across the temporal bone area to access the tumor while minimizing brain retraction.",CPT +61530,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a portion of skull bone and excises a cerebellopontine angle tumor, or acoustical neuroma. The provider uses a dual approach,  exposing the nerve through a transtemporal approach, meaning across the temporal bone, and through the middle, or posterior fossa,  to obtain a wide exposure of the skull to access the tumor while minimizing brain retraction. The goal of this procedure is to remove the tumor while maintaining existing hearing and facial function.",CPT +61531,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a portion of skull bone with the help of a burr drill or trephine and places electrodes in the subdural space for seizure monitoring.",CPT +61533,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider elevates a portion of the skull bone and places an electrode array below the dura mater to monitor seizure activity.",CPT +61534,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider elevates a portion of skull bone flap to excise an epileptogenic focus, an area of brain that generates seizure causing electrical impulses. This service does not include the use of electrocorticography.",CPT +61535,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes an electrode array located on or below the dura mater by elevating a portion of skull bone.",CPT +61536,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider elevates a portion of skull bone flap to excise an epileptogenic focus, an area of brain that generates seizure–causing electrical impulses.",CPT +61537,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes the temporal lobe of the brain through an elevated portion of skull bone. This service does not include the use of electrocorticography. The procedure is done when testing indicates epileptic seizures originate in the temporal lobe.",CPT +61538,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes the temporal lobe of the brain through an elevated portion of skull bone. The provider also performs an intraoperative electrocorticography (ECoG), to record the electrical activity in the brain and pinpoint the site of seizures. This procedure helps define the area in the temporal lobe where epileptic seizures begin.",CPT +61539,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider partially or totally removes a brain lobe, other than the temporal lobe, such as the frontal, parietal, or occipital lobe, through an elevated portion of skull bone. The provider also performs an intraoperative electrocorticography (ECoG) to record the electrical activity in the brain and pinpoint the site of seizures. This procedure helps define the area in the brain where epileptic seizures begin.",CPT +61540,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider partially or totally removes a brain lobe other than the temporal lobe, such as the frontal, parietal, or occipital lobe, through an elevated portion of skull bone.",CPT +61541,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider elevates a portion of skull bone. He cuts the nerve fibers of the corpus callosum, a band of nerves connecting the right and left cerebral hemispheres.",CPT +61543,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider elevates a portion of skull bone and partially or totally removes the affected cerebral hemisphere.",CPT +61544,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider excises or coagulates the choroid plexus of the brain, a nerve complex present in the brain ventricles. Coagulation involves applying electrical current or heat to destroy the affected area.",CPT +61545,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a portion of skull bone to excise a craniopharyngioma, a tumor that develops near the pituitary gland and often projects into the area of brain called the hypothalamus.",CPT +61546,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a portion of skull bone to resect a portion of the pituitary gland or excise a pituitary tumor.",CPT +61548,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider resects a portion of the pituitary gland or excises a pituitary tumor by accessing the gland either through the mouth or nose. This procedure does not use imaging guidance.",CPT +61550,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision into the skull over the affected cranial suture, a fibrous tissue connecting skull bones, and reshapes the skull bone to an anatomically appropriate position.",CPT +61552,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision into the skull over the affected cranial sutures, the fibrous tissues connecting skull bones, and reshapes the skull bone to an anatomically appropriate position.",CPT +61556,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision in the skull to remove a frontal or parietal bone flap to treat prematurely fused cranial sutures, and he remodels the skull to its anatomically appropriate shape.",CPT +61557,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an ear to ear incision in the skull to create a bilateral frontal bone flap to remodel the skull to its anatomically appropriate shape. The provider performs this procedure to treat prematurely fused cranial sutures, a condition known as craniosynostosis.",CPT +61558,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider makes incises the skull to remove the cranium and remodel the skull to its anatomically appropriate shape. The provider performs this procedure to treat prematurely fused cranial sutures, a condition known as craniosynostosis.",CPT +61559,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider incises the skull to remove the cranium and remodel the skull to its anatomically appropriate shape. The provider performs this procedure to treat prematurely fused cranial sutures, a condition known as craniosynostosis.",CPT +61563,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision in the scalp over the cranial bone tumor and removes the affected bone. The provider does not decompress the optic nerve when performing this service.",CPT +61564,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider makes an incision in the scalp over the cranial bone tumor and removes the affected bone. Along with this, the provider decompresses the optic nerve by removing the roof of the optic nerve canal.",CPT +61566,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider raises a portion of skull bone and removes the affected portion of the hippocampus and amygdala.",CPT +61567,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider elevates a portion of skull bone. He cuts the nerve fibers in the outer layer of the cerebral cortex in the subpial space, which is the space underneath the pia mater. Pia mater is the innermost layer covering the brain. During the entire surgery, the provider records the electrical activity of the brain by placing electrodes directly on the cerebral cortex.",CPT +61570,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a portion of skull bone and excises a foreign body.",CPT +61571,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a portion of skull bone and repairs a wound to the brain caused by a foreign body.",CPT +61575,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider approaches the skull base, brain stem, or upper spinal cord transorally, or through the mouth. He uses the approach to obtain a biopsy, decompress the brain stem or spinal cord, or excise a lesion.",CPT +61576,Craniectomy or Craniotomy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider approaches the skull base, brain stem, or upper spinal cord through the mouth. This approach requires a tracheostomy, which is an incision in the windpipe, along with midline splitting of the tongue, mandible, or both. He then obtains a biopsy, decompresses the brain stem or spinal cord, or excises a lesion.",CPT +61580,Anterior Cranial Fossa Skull Base Procedures.,"The provider accesses the anterior cranial fossa using a craniofacial approach to expose an extradural (outside the dura) lesion or defect at the skull base. Lateral rhinotomy, ethmoidectomy, and sphenoidectomy are included in this approach procedure, but other surgeries, repairs, or reconstructions should be reported separately. The selection of a particular approach will depend on the location and size of the lesion.",CPT +61581,Anterior Cranial Fossa Skull Base Procedures.,"The provider accesses the anterior cranial fossa using a craniofacial approach to expose an extradural (outside the dura) lesion or defect at the base of the skull. Lateral rhinotomy, orbital exenteration, ethmoidectomy, sphenoidectomy and/or maxillectomy are included in this approach procedure. The selection of a particular approach will depend on the location and size of the lesion.",CPT +61582,Anterior Cranial Fossa Skull Base Procedures.,"The provider accesses the anterior cranial fossa using a craniofacial approach to expose an extradural (outside the dura) lesion or defect at the base of the skull. A unilateral or bilateral craniotomy, elevation of the frontal lobe, and osteotomy of the base of the anterior cranial fossa are included in this approach procedure. The selection of a particular approach depends on the location and size of the lesion.",CPT +61583,Anterior Cranial Fossa Skull Base Procedures.,"The provider accesses the anterior cranial fossa using a craniofacial approach to expose an intradural (inside the dura) lesion or defect at the base of the skull. A unilateral or bilateral craniotomy, elevation or removal of the frontal lobe, and osteotomy of the base of the anterior cranial fossa are included in this approach procedure. The selection of a particular approach will depend on the location and size of the lesion.",CPT +61584,Anterior Cranial Fossa Skull Base Procedures.,The provider accesses the anterior cranial fossa using an orbitocranial (transorbital) approach to expose an extradural (outside the dura mater) lesion or defect at the skull base. A suborbital ridge osteotomy and elevation of the frontal or temporal lobes (or both) are included in this approach procedure. Orbital exenteration is not included in this approach procedure. The selection of a particular approach will depend on the location and size of the lesion.,CPT +61585,Anterior Cranial Fossa Skull Base Procedures.,"The provider accesses the anterior cranial fossa using an orbitocranial (transorbital) approach to expose an extradural (outside the dura) lesion or defect at the skull base. A suborbital ridge osteotomy, elevation of the frontal and or temporal lobes, and orbital exenteration are included in this approach procedure. The selection of a particular approach will depend on the location and size of the lesion.",CPT +61586,Anterior Cranial Fossa Skull Base Procedures.,"The provider accesses the anterior cranial fossa using a bicoronal (both coronal sutures), transzygomatic or Le Fort I osteotomy approach to expose a lesion or defect at the base of the skull. Closure of the approach can require internal fixation. This procedure does not include a bone graft. The selection of a particular approach depends on the location and size of the lesion.",CPT +61590,Middle Cranial Fossa Skull Base Procedures.,"The provider accesses the middle cranial fossa using an infratemporal (below the temporal fossa) preauricular (in front of the external ear) approach, sometimes called a transparotid approach, to expose a lesion or defect at the base of the skull. For lesions that extend posteriorly into the temporal bone, the provider can choose to combine this approach with a transtemporal approach. The selection of a particular approach will depend on the location and size of the lesion.",CPT +61591,Middle Cranial Fossa Skull Base Procedures.,"The provider accesses the middle cranial fossa using an infratemporal (below the temporal fossa) preauricular (in front of the external ear) approach, sometimes called the transparotid approach, to expose a lesion or defect at the base of the skull. The approach can also include a mastoidectomy, resection of the sigmoid sinus and/or decompression/mobilization of the auditory canal or petrous carotid artery. The selection of a particular approach will depend on the location and size of the lesion.",CPT +61592,Middle Cranial Fossa Skull Base Procedures.,"The provider accesses the middle cranial fossa using an orbitocranial approach. This approach includes osteotomy of the zygoma, craniotomy, and extra– or intradural elevation of the temporal lobe. The selection of a particular approach will depend on the location and size of the lesion.",CPT +61595,Posterior Cranial Fossa Skull Base Procedures.,"The provider accesses the posterior cranial fossa, jugular foramen, or midline skull base using a transtemporal approach. This can include a mastoidectomy and/or decompression of the sigmoid sinus and/or facial nerve. The selection of a particular approach will depend on the location and size of the lesion.",CPT +61596,Posterior Cranial Fossa Skull Base Procedures.,"The provider accesses the posterior cranial fossa, jugular foramen, or midline skull base using a transcochlear approach. This can include a labyrinthectomy, decompression and/or mobilization of the facial nerve and/or carotid artery. The selection of a particular approach will depend on the location and size of the lesion.",CPT +61597,Posterior Cranial Fossa Skull Base Procedures.,"The provider accesses the posterior cranial fossa, jugular foramen, or midline skull base using a far lateral transcondylar approach. If needed, the surgeon also removes a portion of the occipital condyle, the mastoid bone, and part of the C1 to C3 vertebrae and/or decompresses the vertebral artery and moves it, if necessary, to access the cerebellum. The selection of a particular approach will depend on the location and size of the lesion. Report other surgeries, repairs or reconstructions separately.",CPT +61598,Posterior Cranial Fossa Skull Base Procedures.,"The provider accesses the posterior cranial fossa, jugular foramen, or midline skull base using a transpetrosal approach. If needed, the surgeon also ligates the superior petrosal sinus and/or sigmoid sinus to better access the lesion or defect. The selection of a particular approach will depend on the location and size of the lesion.",CPT +61600,Base of Anterior Cranial Fossa Procedures.,The provider removes a portion or all of an extradural vascular or infectious neoplasm at the base of the anterior cranial fossa.,CPT +61601,Base of Anterior Cranial Fossa Procedures.,The provider removes a portion or all of an intradural vascular or infectious neoplasm ot he base of the anterior cranial fossa; the provider repairs any tear in the dura with or without a graft.,CPT +61605,Base of Middle Cranial Fossa Procedures.,"The provider removes a portion or all of a vascular or infectious neoplasm at the base of the middle cranial fossa located between the inside of the skull and the outer covering of the brain (extradural). The lesion is located in the infratemporal fossa, parapharyngeal space in the upper neck, or petrous apex area.",CPT +61606,Base of Middle Cranial Fossa Procedures.,"The provider removes a portion or all of a neoplastic, vascular or infectious, lesion at the base of the middle cranial fossa located within or beneath the outer covering of the brain (intradural). The lesion is located in the infratemporal fossa, parapharyngeal space, or petrous apex area. If needed, the physician repairs the dura mater, which can include a dural graft.",CPT +61607,Base of Middle Cranial Fossa Procedures.,"The provider removes a portion or all of a vascular or infectious neoplasm at the base of the middle cranial fossa located between the inside of the skull and the outer covering of the brain (extradural). The lesion is located in the parasellar area, cavernous sinus, clivus, or midline skull base area.",CPT +61608,Base of Middle Cranial Fossa Procedures.,"The provider removes a portion or all of a vascular or infectious neoplasm at the base of the middle cranial fossa located within or beneath the outer covering of the brain (intradural). The lesion is located in the parasellar area, cavernous sinus, clivus, or midline skull base area. If needed, the physician repairs the dura mater, which can include a dural graft.",CPT +61611,Base of Middle Cranial Fossa Procedures.,Use code in addition to codes 61605 to 61608 to report transection or ligation of the carotid artery in the petrous canal during removal of an extradural or intradural lesion. This procedure does not include repair of the carotid artery.,CPT +61613,Base of Middle Cranial Fossa Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider employs a middle cranial fossa approach to excise a carotid aneurysm, arteriovenous malformation, or carotid–cavernous fistula in the cavernous sinus located in the head.",CPT +61615,Base of Posterior Cranial Fossa Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a tumor, infection, or abnormality located outside of the base of the skull.",CPT +61616,Base of Posterior Cranial Fossa Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes defected tissues present at the base of the skull, within or below the covering of the brain to remove any defect or abnormality, such as a neoplasm at the base of the skull.",CPT +61618,Repair and/or Reconstruction of Surgical Defects of Skull Base Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider repairs a leak of cerebrospinal fluid, CSF, in the dura mater using a dural graft. The leak follows a craniotomy, which is an incision into the skull for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes.",CPT +61619,Repair and/or Reconstruction of Surgical Defects of Skull Base Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider repairs a leak of cerebrospinal fluid, CSF, in the dura mater using a pedicle flap. The leak follows a craniotomy, which is an incision into the skull for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes.",CPT +61623,Endovascular Therapy.,"In this procedure, the provider uses temporary balloon occlusion, or TBO, to control the flow of blood in the arteries of the neck during another procedure, such as a procedure to repair an aneurysm.",CPT +61624,Endovascular Therapy.,"In this procedure, the provider percutaneously occludes a central nervous system artery to treat a vascular malformation, destroy a tumor, or stop blood flow.",CPT +61626,Endovascular Therapy.,"In this procedure, the provider percutaneously occludes an artery that is not in the central nervous system to treat a vascular malformation, destroy a tumor, or stop blood flow.",CPT +61630,Endovascular Therapy.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts a catheter into an artery, typically the femoral artery in the groin, using percutaneous access, meaning through the skin. He then advances the catheter through the blood stream to the site in the brain where the stenotic, plaque–narrowed artery is located. He then inflates a small balloon within the narrowed artery to dilate it and to reduce the narrowing of the artery.",CPT +61635,Endovascular Therapy.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts a catheter into an artery, typically the femoral artery in the groin, using percutaneous access, meaning through the skin. He then advances the catheter through the blood stream to the site in the brain where the stenotic, plaque–narrowed artery is located. He may then inflate a small balloon within the narrowed artery to dilate it and to reduce the narrowing of the artery. Finally, he places a self–expanding mesh–like tube called a stent over the plaque.",CPT +61640,Endovascular Therapy.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an intracranial angioplasty to dilate, or widen, an intracranial vessel with a balloon the provider places percutaneously in the femoral artery. Providers perform the procedure to widen a vasospastic segment, meaning a constriction, or narrowing, of the blood vessel, which often occurs after an acute subarachnoid hemorrhage.",CPT +61641,Endovascular Therapy.,"After performing balloon dilatation of an intracranial vasospasm of one vessel, the provider performs additional intracranial angioplasty and balloon dilatation to widen another intracranial vessel in the same vascular territory as the initial vessel.",CPT +61642,Endovascular Therapy.,"After performing balloon dilatation of an intracranial vasospasm of one vessel, the provider performs additional intracranial angioplasty and balloon dilatation to widen another intracranial vessel in a different vascular territory from the location of the initial vessel.",CPT +61645,Cerebral Endovascular Therapeutic Interventions.,"Using fluoroscopy, live X–rays displayed on a video monitor, the provider inserts a catheter percutaneously (through a small incision in the skin) into an intracranial artery, a branch of the carotid artery, and removes a clot using a mechanical device and/or dissolves the clot by means of thrombolytic infusion. The procedure includes catheter placement, injection of thrombolytic medication, and diagnostic angiography (contrast–enhanced imaging of blood vessels).",CPT +61650,Cerebral Endovascular Therapeutic Interventions.,"The provider uses imaging guidance (live, real–time images projected on a video monitor) to place a catheter into an artery (endovascular) inside the skull (intracranial) for long–term administration of a drug that is not a thrombolytic (clot–dissolving) drug. He performs contrast–enhanced imaging of the vascular structures (diagnostic angiography). This code covers access for the first or initial artery.",CPT +61651,Cerebral Endovascular Therapeutic Interventions.,"The provider uses imaging guidance (live, real–time images projected on a video monitor) to place a catheter into an artery (endovascular) inside the skull (intracranial) for long–term administration of a drug that is not a thrombolytic (clot–dissolving) drug. He performs contrast–enhanced imaging of the vascular structures (diagnostic angiography). Report this code for each additional artery intracranial artery the provider accesses after the first.",CPT +61680,"Surgery for Aneurysm, Arteriovenous Malformation or Vascular Disease Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this procedure, the provider removes a portion of skull bone and resects an arteriovenous malformation, or AVM, from the supratentorial region of the brain. This region is located above the tentorium cerebella, a fold of dura mater separating the cerebellum from the occipital and temporal lobes. The AVM the provider treats is simple, meaning it is less than 3 cm and easily accessible with probably no deep venous drainage, meaning the AVM is not involved with the main conduits that drain blood from the brain, which would increase risk of bleeding, or the involvement of the cortex areas that relate to sense, speech, and language.",CPT +61682,"Surgery for Aneurysm, Arteriovenous Malformation or Vascular Disease Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this procedure, the provider removes a portion of skull bone and resects an arteriovenous malformation, AVM, from the supratentorial region of the brain. This region is located above the tentorium cerebella, a fold of dura mater separating the cerebellum from the occipital and temporal lobes. The AVM treated is complex, meaning it is of a size greater than 3 cm with possible deep venous drainage or involvement of cortex areas that relate to areas such as sense, speech, and language.",CPT +61684,"Surgery for Aneurysm, Arteriovenous Malformation or Vascular Disease Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this procedure, the provider removes a portion of skull bone and resects an arteriovenous malformation, AVM, from the infratentorial region of the brain. This region is located below the tentorium cerebella, a fold of dura mater separating the cerebellum from the occipital and temporal lobes. This is surgery for a simple arteriovenous malformation, with a size 3cm or less, easily accessible, without deep venous drainage, and without involvement of areas of the cortex that relate to areas such as senses, speech, and language.",CPT +61686,"Surgery for Aneurysm, Arteriovenous Malformation or Vascular Disease Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this procedure, the provider removes a portion of skull bone and resects an arteriovenous malformation, AVM, from the infratentorial region of the brain. This region is located below the tentorium cerebella, a fold of dura mater separating the cerebellum from the occipital and temporal lobes. This is surgery for a complex arteriovenous malformation, meaning it is of a size greater than 3 cm with possible deep venous drainage and involvement of portions of the cortex related to areas such as the senses, speech, and language.",CPT +61690,"Surgery for Aneurysm, Arteriovenous Malformation or Vascular Disease Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this procedure, the provider removes a portion of skull bone and resects an arteriovenous malformation, AVM, from the dura mater of the brain, a thick outer covering of the brain. This is surgery for a simple arteriovenous malformation, with a size 3cm or less, easily accessible, without deep venous drainage, and without involvement of areas of the cortex that relate to areas such as senses, speech, and language.",CPT +61692,"Surgery for Aneurysm, Arteriovenous Malformation or Vascular Disease Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this procedure, the provider removes a portion of skull bone and resects an arteriovenous malformation, AVM, from the dura mater of the brain, a thick outer covering of the brain. This is surgery for a complex AVM, larger than 3 cm, with possible deep venous drainage, meaning the AVM is involved with the main conduits that drain blood from the brain, which increases risk of bleeding, or the involvement of the cortex areas that relate to sense, speech, and language.",CPT +61697,"Surgery for Aneurysm, Arteriovenous Malformation or Vascular Disease Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","The provider treats a complex intracranial aneurysm using an intracranial surgical technique to repair an abnormal dilation, or widening, of a blood vessel in the internal carotid circulation. This service helps treat an aneurysm that a subarachnoid hemorrhage causes.",CPT +61698,"Surgery for Aneurysm, Arteriovenous Malformation or Vascular Disease Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.",The provider treats a complex intracranial aneurysm using an intracranial surgical technique to repair an abnormal dilation of a blood vessel in the internal vertebrobasilar circulation. The branches of the vertebrobasilar circulation supply the posterior part of the brain with oxygen and vital nutrients and include the posterior cerebral and cerebellar arteries. This service helps treat an aneurysm that a subarachnoid hemorrhage causes.,CPT +61700,"Surgery for Aneurysm, Arteriovenous Malformation or Vascular Disease Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","The provider treats a simple intracranial aneurysm using intracranial surgical techniques to repair an abnormal dilation, or widening, of a blood vessel in the internal carotid circulation. This service helps treat an aneurysm that a subarachnoid hemorrhage causes.",CPT +61702,"Surgery for Aneurysm, Arteriovenous Malformation or Vascular Disease Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","The provider treats a simple intracranial aneurysm using intracranial surgical techniques to repair an abnormal dilation, or widening, of a blood vessel in the internal vertebrobasilar circulation. This service helps treat an aneurysm that a subarachnoid hemorrhage causes.",CPT +61703,"Surgery for Aneurysm, Arteriovenous Malformation or Vascular Disease Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this procedure, the provider removes a portion of skull bone to access an aneurysm and locates the blood vessel that feeds the aneurysm. He also accesses the internal carotid artery by making an incision in the neck and occludes the artery with a clamp. He then places a tiny metal clip on the neck of the aneurysm to stop blood flow to it.",CPT +61705,"Surgery for Aneurysm, Arteriovenous Malformation or Vascular Disease Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this procedure, the provider performs a craniotomy, removing a portion of skull bone. He then stops blood flow to an aneurysm, vascular malformation, or carotid cavernous fistula. During the procedure, the provider occludes, or blocks the blood flow, at the level of the cervical spine by placing surgical clips on the carotid artery, too. This service helps to treat aneurysms that a subarachnoid hemorrhage, congenital vascular malformation, and carotid cavernous fistula cause due to trauma, surgical damage, or rupture of an aneurysm.",CPT +61708,"Surgery for Aneurysm, Arteriovenous Malformation or Vascular Disease Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this procedure, the provider removes a portion of skull bone to access an aneurysm, vascular malformation, or carotid–cavernous fistula. He then uses electric current to completely destroy the malformation.",CPT +61710,"Surgery for Aneurysm, Arteriovenous Malformation or Vascular Disease Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this procedure, the provider removes a portion of skull bone to access an aneurysm, vascular malformation, or carotid–cavernous fistula. He then embolizes the malformation, deliberately occluding the lesion’s blood supply.",CPT +61711,"Surgery for Aneurysm, Arteriovenous Malformation or Vascular Disease Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this procedure, the provider surgically connects, or anastomoses, the arterial and extracranial intracranial arteries, specifically the middle cerebral and cortical arteries. He accesses the arteries through a craniotomy, where he removes a portion of the skull bone. This procedure treats blockage and rupture of vessels in the brain by effectively bypassing the affected area to restore blood flow to the brain.",CPT +61720,"Stereotaxis Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this procedure, the provider makes a lesion in the globus pallidus or thalamus, which are subcortical brain structures, by using a stereotactic method. This method makes use of a three dimensional coordinate system to locate small targets inside the brain.",CPT +61735,"Stereotaxis Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","Medicare National Coverage Determinations Manual Cingulotomy is a psychosurgical procedure designed to interrupt the interconnecting neuronal pathways of the brain involved in the regulation of the emotions and certain autonomic functions. The intent of psychosurgery is to modify or alter disturbances of behavior, thought content, or mood that are not responsive to other conventional modes of therapy, or for which no organic pathological cause can be demonstrated by established methods.",CPT +61736,"Stereotaxis Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.",The provider performs laser interstitial thermal therapy (LITT) of a simple brain lesion requiring a single trajectory (path). The provider uses a laser to heat and damage brain lesion tissue. The provider may use MRI guidance.,CPT +61737,"Stereotaxis Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","The provider performs laser interstitial thermal therapy (LITT) of multiple lesions, or one or more complex lesions requiring multiple trajectories (paths). The provider uses a laser to heat and damage brain lesion tissue. The provider may use MRI guidance.",CPT +61750,"Stereotaxis Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this procedure, the provider removes a portion of skull bone and biopsies, aspirates, and or excises an intracranial lesion using mapped coordinates the provider obtains from computed tomography, or CT, and or magnetic resonance imaging, or MRI, scans to identify the lesion.",CPT +61751,"Stereotaxis Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this procedure, the provider removes a portion of skull bone and biopsies, aspirates, and or excises an intracranial lesion using intraoperative computed tomography, or CT, and or magnetic resonance imaging, or MRI, to guide him during the procedure.",CPT +61760,"Stereotaxis Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.",The provider implants depth electrodes into the cerebrum of the brain using three dimensional imaging to map the implant location. This procedure is done to identify the abnormal area of the brain causing a patient’s epileptic seizures.,CPT +61770,"Stereotaxis Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this procedure, the provider removes a portion of skull bone and inserts a catheter or probe using mapped coordinates from a computed tomography, or CT, and or magnetic resonance imaging, or MRI, scans to identify the site to place a radiation source in a brain lesion.",CPT +61781,"Stereotaxis Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this add–on procedure, the provider uses a computer navigation system along with computed tomography, or CT, and or magnetic resonance imaging, or MRI, scans to guide him and navigate during intradural cranial procedures. The provider uses imaging guidance in high risk clinical situations that require precise localization and navigational assistance such as intracranial procedures for brain tumors and vascular malformations.",CPT +61782,"Stereotaxis Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this add–on procedure, the provider uses a computer navigation system along with computed tomography, or CT, and or magnetic resonance imaging, or MRI, scans to guide him and navigate during extradural cranial procedures. The provider uses imaging guidance in high risk clinical situations that require precise localization and navigational assistance such as cranial procedures for brain tumors and vascular malformations.",CPT +61783,"Stereotaxis Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this add on procedure, the provider uses a computer navigation system along with computed tomography, or CT, and or magnetic resonance imaging, or MRI, scans to guide him and navigate during spinal procedures. The provider uses imaging guidance in high risk clinical situations that require precise localization and navigational assistance such as spinal cord procedures for spinal lesions.",CPT +61790,"Stereotaxis Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this procedure, the provider uses a nerve destroying agent that he administers percutaneously to make a lesion in the gasserian ganglion, a large group of nerves that lie at the root of the fifth cranial nerve. He uses a stereotactic method, which makes use of a three dimensional coordinate system to locate small targets inside the brain. This service is done to relieve pain that extends along a nerve or nerves.",CPT +61791,"Stereotaxis Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this procedure, the provider uses a nerve destroying agent to make a lesion in the trigeminal medullary tract of the brainstem. He uses a percutaneous stereotactic method, which makes use of a three dimensional coordinate system to locate small targets inside the brain.",CPT +61796,"Stereotactic Radiosurgery (Cranial) Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this procedure, the provider uses externally generated ionized radiation to destroy a single, simple cranial lesion in the target area in the brain. The targeted lesion is simple, which typically means the lesion’s maximum dimension is less than 3.5 cm.",CPT +61797,"Stereotactic Radiosurgery (Cranial) Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this add–on procedure, the provider uses externally generated ionized radiation to destroy each additional target area in the brain after destruction of a first cranial lesion at the same session. The targeted lesion is simple, which typically means the lesion’s maximum dimension is less than 3.5 cm.",CPT +61798,"Stereotactic Radiosurgery (Cranial) Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this procedure, the provider uses externally generated ionized radiation to destroy a single, complex cranial lesion in the target area in the brain. The targeted lesion is complex, which typically means the lesion is larger than 3.5 cm.",CPT +61799,"Stereotactic Radiosurgery (Cranial) Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this add–on procedure, the provider uses externally generated ionized radiation to destroy each additional target area in the brain after destruction of a first complex cranial lesion at the same session. The targeted lesion is complex, which typically means the lesion is larger than 3.5 cm.",CPT +61800,"Stereotactic Radiosurgery (Cranial) Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this add on procedure, the provider applies a stereotactic head frame to a patient’s head prior to stereotactic radiosurgery. He attaches the frame to use with image scanning to identify and precisely locate the target area for the surgery. This service is most often done for brain biopsies, drainage of lesions, or placement of a catheter or electrodes.",CPT +61850,"Neurostimulators (Intracranial) Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this procedure, the provider creates one or more holes to remove a portion of skull bone. He then places electrodes on the brain cortex.",CPT +61860,"Neurostimulators (Intracranial) Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this procedure, the provider removes a portion of skull bone and places neurostimulator electrodes on the cerebral cortex, the outermost portion of the cerebrum.",CPT +61863,"Neurostimulators (Intracranial) Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this procedure, the provider removes a portion of the skull, or he may create a twist drill or burr hole in a patient’s skull. He then uses a stereotactic method, which makes use of a three dimensional coordinate system to locate small targets inside the brain and places a neurostimulator electrode array on the targeted location in a subcortical site. In this procedure, the provider does not obtain an intraoperative microelectrode recording. The provider performs this service to treat chronic difficult to control tremors, dystonia, involuntary movements and muscle contractions, or Parkinson’s disease.",CPT +61864,"Neurostimulators (Intracranial) Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this add on procedure, the provider has removed a portion of the skull, or he may create additional twist drill or burr holes in a patient’s skull. He then uses the stereotactic method, which makes use of a three dimensional coordinate system to locate small targets inside the brain, and places an additional neurostimulator electrode array on the targeted location in a subcortical site after placing an initial array during the same session. In this procedure, the provider does not obtain an intraoperative microelectrode recording. The provider performs this service to treat chronic difficult to control tremors, or dystonia, involuntary movements and muscle contractions, or Parkinson’s disease.",CPT +61867,"Neurostimulators (Intracranial) Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this procedure, the provider removes a portion of the skull or he may create burr holes in the skull. He then uses the stereotactic method, which makes use of a three dimensional coordinate system to locate small targets inside the brain, and places a neurostimulator electrode array on the targeted location. He does this procedure with the use of intraoperative microelectrode recording.",CPT +61868,"Neurostimulators (Intracranial) Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this add on procedure, the provider has removed a portion of the skull or he may create burr holes in the skull. He then uses the stereotactic method, which makes use of a three dimensional coordinate system to locate small targets inside the brain, and places an additional neurostimulator electrode array on the targeted location. He does this procedure with the use of intraoperative microelectrode recording.",CPT +61880,"Neurostimulators (Intracranial) Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this procedure, the provider may remove a portion of skull bone to remove or replace neurostimulator electrodes.",CPT +61885,"Neurostimulators (Intracranial) Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","The provider makes an incision and implants or replaces a direct or inductive cranial pulse generator or receiver in a subcutaneous pocket for connection to one electrode array. This service is generally done to treat Parkinson’s disease, tremors, or multiple sclerosis. The provider may replace the pulse generator or receiver due to a component malfunction.",CPT +61886,"Neurostimulators (Intracranial) Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","The provider makes an incision and implants or replaces a direct or inductive cranial pulse generator or receiver in a subcutaneous pocket for connection to two or more electrode arrays, often one on each side of the brain. This service is generally done to treat Parkinson’s disease, tremors, or multiple sclerosis. The provider may replace the pulse generator or receiver due to a component malfunction.",CPT +61888,"Neurostimulators (Intracranial) Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","The provider reincises the skin over a direct or inductive coupling cranial pulse generator or receiver in a subcutaneous pocket and revises or removes it. This procedure can be done for a failed battery or component malfunction, infection, or when the stimulation is ineffective for the patient.",CPT +61889,"Neurostimulators (Intracranial) Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","The provider implants a small neurostimulator pulse generator or receiver in the skull, under the scalp. The generator or receiver connects to one or more electrode arrays in or on the brain.",CPT +61891,"Neurostimulators (Intracranial) Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","The provider revises or replaces a small neurostimulator pulse generator or receiver in the skull, under the scalp. The generator or receiver connects to one or more electrode arrays in or on the brain.",CPT +61892,"Neurostimulators (Intracranial) Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","The provider removes a small neurostimulator pulse generator or receiver from the skull, which may require cranioplasty (reattaching a piece of skull or filling a skull defect).",CPT +62000,"Repair Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this procedure, the provider makes a burr hole in the scalp and elevates the depressed skull fracture, meaning a portion of skull bone moved inward into the brain. It is a closed fracture that has not reached the dura, the outer membrane covering the brain.",CPT +62005,"Repair Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this procedure, the provider incises the scalp and elevates a depressed skull fracture, meaning a portion of skull bone moved inward into the brain. This service is for a compound or comminuted fracture that may involve a break in, or loss of, skin and the skull bone being broken into fragments, but the break does not reached the dura, the outer membrane covering the brain. The procedure corrects the noticeable depression in the skull to restore the normal appearance of the skull.",CPT +62010,"Repair Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this procedure, the provider incises the scalp and elevates a depressed skull fracture, meaning a portion of skull bone moved inward into the brain. The provider also repairs the dura, the outer membrane covering the brain , and debrides the brain when necessary. The procedure reduces pressure on the brain  and corrects the noticeable depression in the skull to restore the normal appearance of the skull.",CPT +62100,"Repair Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this procedure, the provider incises the skull and opens the cranium to repair a leak of cerebrospinal fluid, or CSF, which occurs as a result of a break in the dura, the outer membrane covering the brain. The dural repair also resolves drainage of CSF through the nose or the ear.",CPT +62115,"Repair Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this procedure, the provider reduces a craniomegalic, or enlarged, skull by maneuvering the bones.",CPT +62117,"Repair Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this procedure, the provider removes or reduces a portion of skull bone and reshapes the craniomegalic, or enlarged, skull. He may repair the defect with a bone graft.",CPT +62120,"Repair Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this procedure, the provider repairs the part of the brain that extends through a defect, or gap, in the cranial vault, the bones of the cranium enclosing the brain, and corrects the defect or deformity of the skull.",CPT +62121,"Repair Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this procedure, the provider removes a portion of skull bone and repairs the skull base encephalocele, a protrusion of brain through a defect in the skull.",CPT +62140,"Repair Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this procedure, the provider removes a portion of skull bone and repairs a defect in the skull that is no larger than 5cm in diameter.",CPT +62141,"Repair Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this procedure, the provider removes a portion of skull bone and repairs a defect in the skull that is larger than 5 cm in diameter.",CPT +62142,"Repair Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this procedure, the provider removes a previously placed bone flap or prosthetic skull plate.  The provider performs this service as a result of infection, swelling, overlying wound healing problems or regrowth of a tumor.",CPT +62143,"Repair Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this procedure, the provider replaces a previously placed bone flap or prosthetic skull plate.  The provider usually performs this as a result of an infection or rejection of previously implanted material.",CPT +62145,"Repair Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.",The provider surgically corrects a skull defect. At the same session he repairs brain tissue.,CPT +62146,"Repair Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","The provider repairs a skull bone defect no larger than 5 cm by using bone tissue harvested from another part of the patient and transferred to the cranium.   This service resolves cranial defects as a result of depressed skull fractures, congenital abnormalities, tumors, or other trauma or disease.",CPT +62147,"Repair Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","The provider repairs a skull bone defect larger than 5 cm by using bone tissue harvested from another part of the patient and transferred to the cranium.  This service resolves cranial defects as a result of depressed skull fractures, congenital abnormalities, tumors, or other trauma or disease.",CPT +62148,"Repair Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this add on procedure, the provider incises and retrieves a cranial bone graft that was previously stored in a subcutaneous pocket in the abdomen or in the inner lining of the scalp near the site of the defect to preserve the graft and reduce graft devitalization. The provider then uses the stored graft to repair the skull bone defect in a procedure called a cranioplasty.",CPT +62160,"Neuroendoscopy Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this add on procedure, the provider uses a small endoscope to access the brain to place or replace a ventricular catheter for a shunt system or for external drainage. This service is performed as an initial placement to drain cerebrospinal fluid, or CSF, from the ventricles of the brain and reduce pressure, or the provider replaces a catheter due to a blockage in the flow of the CSF.",CPT +62161,"Neuroendoscopy Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this procedure, the provider uses a small endoscope to access the brain to remove adhesions or a cyst located on the septum pellucidum or a cyst within one of the ventricles. The provider also places, replaces, or removes a ventricular catheter used for a shunt system or for external drainage.",CPT +62162,"Neuroendoscopy Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this procedure, the provider uses a small endoscope to access the brain  to remove, or create an opening to drain, a colloid cyst, a thick, gel like benign tumor typically found in the third ventricle. The provider also places  a ventricular catheter for external drainage.",CPT +62164,"Neuroendoscopy Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this procedure, the provider uses a small endoscope to access the brain to remove a brain tumor. The provider also places a ventricular catheter for external drainage.",CPT +62165,"Neuroendoscopy Procedures on the Skull, Meninges, and Brain.","In this procedure, the provider uses a small neuroendoscope to access the pituitary gland to remove an abnormal growth of the gland. The provider approaches this procedure through the nasal cavity or through the sphenoidal sinuses.",CPT +62180,Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF) Shunt Procedures.,"In a patient with a buildup of cerebrospinal fluid in the brain ventricles, the provider places a shunt to move the fluid from a lateral ventricle to the cisterna magna, a space between the cerebellum at the brain’s base and the medulla part of the brainstem.",CPT +62190,Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF) Shunt Procedures.,"In a patient with a buildup of fluid under the arachnoid or dural membrane covering the brain, the provider inserts a shunt to drain the fluid either to the heart’s atrial chamber, the jugular vein, or the heart’s auricle.",CPT +62192,Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF) Shunt Procedures.,"In a patient with a buildup of fluid under the arachnoid or dural membrane covering the brain, the provider inserts a shunt to drain excess cerebrospinal fluid, or CSF, either to the abdominal cavity, pleural cavity or other terminus, meaning another location to drain. The provider performs this service to treat hydrocephalus, an obstruction in the flow of CSF, which creates pressure on the brain, also referred to as water on the brain.",CPT +62194,Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF) Shunt Procedures.,"In a patient with a failed or malfunctioning cerebrospinal fluid shunt, the provider restores proper function by replacing or flushing a catheter that begins in the subarachnoid or subdural space under the brain’s protective membranes.",CPT +62200,Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF) Shunt Procedures.,"The provider performs a ventriculocisternostomy, creating an artificial opening in the floor of the third ventricle of the brain to the cisterna magna, one of three principal openings in the subarachnoid space where cerebrospinal fluid, or CSF, drains. The provider performs this procedure to treat hydrocephalus, most often a form known as noncommunicating hydrocephalus to allow CSF to drain inside the patient’s body.",CPT +62201,Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF) Shunt Procedures.,"The provider uses a small endoscope to access the brain, along with stereotactic imaging guidance, to perform a ventriculocisternostomy. In this procedure, the provider creates an artificial opening in the floor of the third ventricle of the brain to the cisterna magna, one of three principal openings in the subarachnoid space where cerebrospinal fluid, or CSF, drains. The provider performs this procedure to treat hydrocephalus; most often a form known as noncommunicating hydrocephalus to allow CSF to drain inside the patient’s body.",CPT +62220,Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF) Shunt Procedures.,"The provider creates a shunt, or tube, leading from the ventricles of the brain to the atria, jugular veins, or auricular processes to drain excess cerebrospinal fluid, or CSF. Providers perform the procedure to treat diseases, such as hydrocephalus, where the ventricles enlarge with CSF. The provider may use an endoscope to perform the procedure.",CPT +62223,Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF) Shunt Procedures.,"The provider places a shunt, or tube, leading from the ventricles of the brain to the abdominal cavity, pleural cavity, or other terminus, meaning another location to drain. Providers perform the procedure to treat diseases, such as hydrocephalus, where the ventricles enlarge with CSF and to drain CSF to another area of the body. The provider may use an endoscope to perform the procedure.",CPT +62225,Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF) Shunt Procedures.,"The provider replaces or flushes out a previously placed ventricular catheter for drainage of cerebrospinal fluid, or CSF. Providers may perform the procedure due to a blockage in the catheter preventing the CSF from draining. The provider may use an endoscope to perform the procedure.",CPT +62230,Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF) Shunt Procedures.,"The provider replaces or revises a malfunctioning part of a previously placed shunt system for drainage of cerebrospinal fluid, or CSF. Providers may perform the procedure due to a blockage in the shunt, valve, or distal catheter preventing the CSF from draining. The provider may use a neuroendoscope to perform the procedure.",CPT +62252,Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF) Shunt Procedures.,"The provider reprograms a programmable shunt system, which allows for noninvasive adjustments to correct over or under drainage of cerebrospinal fluid, or CSF.",CPT +62256,Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF) Shunt Procedures.,"The provider removes and does not replace a shunt system for drainage of cerebrospinal fluid, or CSF. Providers may perform the procedure due to a malfunction of the system, an infection of the shunt, or for a patient who no longer requires the device.",CPT +62258,Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF) Shunt Procedures.,"The provider removes a shunt system for drainage of cerebrospinal fluid, or CSF, and then replaces it with a similar or other shunt system during the same operative procedure. Providers may perform the procedure when all three components of the system require replacement or for an infection of the shunt.",CPT +62263,"Injection, Drainage, or Aspiration Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.","The provider places a catheter or introduces a chemical substance to an adhesion in the epidural space to remove the adhesion, in a procedure often referred to as a Racz catheter procedure or epidural neurolysis. The provider uses imaging to identify the site of the adhesions and the procedure occurs over more than one session and more than one day.",CPT +62264,"Injection, Drainage, or Aspiration Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.","In this procedure, the provider places a catheter or introduces a chemical substance to an adhesion in the epidural space to remove the adhesion, in a procedure often referred to as a Racz catheter procedure or epidural neurolysis. The provider uses imaging to identify the site of the adhesions and the procedure occurs over more than one session on the same day.",CPT +62267,"Injection, Drainage, or Aspiration Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.","The provider aspirates fluid or tissue from the soft pads between the vertebrae of the spinal column, called the intervertebral discs. Or he aspirates fluid from within the paravertebral tissue (the tissue adjacent to the spinal column). He may also aspirate the gel–like substance in the middle of a spinal disc (nucleus pulposus). This diagnostic service helps to identify causes of disc inflammation such as bacterial or fungal infections.",CPT +62268,"Injection, Drainage, or Aspiration Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.",The provider aspirates a cyst or a syrinx of the spinal cord. This service is often done as a therapeutic measure to determine whether a cyst is causing a patient’s symptoms and decide whether surgery can help.,CPT +62269,"Injection, Drainage, or Aspiration Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.",The provider inserts a needle into the spinal cord to collect a sample of tissue for testing.,CPT +62270,"Injection, Drainage, or Aspiration Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.","In this diagnostic procedure, the provider obtains a sample of the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) for examination. The provider commonly performs this procedure to rule out meningitis.",CPT +62272,"Injection, Drainage, or Aspiration Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.","During this procedure, the provider reduces cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) pressure on the brain. He inserts a hollow needle or catheter into the subarachnoid space, usually in the lower back of the spinal column, to withdraw CSF. This procedure is also referred to as a spinal tap.",CPT +62273,"Injection, Drainage, or Aspiration Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.","The provider injects a patient's own blood to seal a cerebrospinal fluid, or CSF, leak that a spinal needle often causes. This service treats a post spinal headache which may occur when an epidural, spinal needle, or lumbar puncture leaves a hole or tear in the dura, the lining around the spinal cord, causing spinal fluid to leak.",CPT +62280,"Injection, Drainage, or Aspiration Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.","The provider injects or infuses a neurolytic, a substance that is used to kill a specific nerve or group of nerves, in the subarachnoid space of any spinal level. The provider may include another therapeutic drug along with the neurolytic. This service helps to eliminate severe pain, especially from cancer pain involving the torso.",CPT +62281,"Injection, Drainage, or Aspiration Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.","The provider injects or infuses a neurolytic, a substance that is used to kill a specific nerve or group of nerves, in the epidural space of the cervical or thoracic spinal level. The provider may include another therapeutic drug along with the neurolytic. This service helps to eliminate severe pain after trauma or surgery involving limb amputation or to manage acutely painful conditions such as cancer.",CPT +62282,"Injection, Drainage, or Aspiration Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.","The provider injects or infuses a neurolytic, a substance that is used to kill a specific nerve or group of nerves, in the epidural space of the lumbar or sacral spinal level. The provider may include another therapeutic drug along with the neurolytic. This service helps to eliminate severe pain for painful nerve root compression, where pressure is placed on the nerve root, unexplainable or complex recurrent postoperative pain, or spasm associated with spasticity or paraplegia.",CPT +62284,"Injection, Drainage, or Aspiration Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.","The provider injects contrast into the subarachnoid space of the lumbar spine to conduct an imaging examination of the spinal cord, nerve roots, and membranes of the lumbar spine.",CPT +62287,"Injection, Drainage, or Aspiration Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.","The provider removes a small amount of the gel like substance in the middle of a spinal disc, known as nucleus pulposus. He makes a needle puncture through the skin and into the disc. Then he aspirates a small amount of disc material between two vertebrae in the lumbar region of the spine to relieve pressure on the nerves of the spine. The provider uses fluoroscopy or other imaging technique for visualization. The procedure may include epidural anesthetic injections to one or more treatment levels of the lumbar region.",CPT +62290,"Injection, Drainage, or Aspiration Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.","The provider performs this diagnostic procedure, called discography, by injecting contrast into the nucleus pulposus, or gel like center of a spinal disc, to examine and better visualize the intervertebral disc space. This procedure is also referred to as a discogram, or disc stimulation, and it helps identify damage to lumbar vertebrae causing neck or back pain.",CPT +62291,"Injection, Drainage, or Aspiration Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.","The provider performs this diagnostic procedure, called discography, by injecting contrast into the nucleus pulposus, or gel like center of a spinal disc, to examine and better visualize the intervertebral disc space. This procedure is also referred to as a discogram, or disc stimulation, and it helps identify damaged cervical or thoracic vertebrae causing neck or back pain.",CPT +62292,"Injection, Drainage, or Aspiration Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.","The provider performs this procedure, called chemonucleolysis, by injecting an enzyme into a lumbar vertebral disc to dissolve the bulging nucleus pulposus, or the gel like center of the spinal disc. The provider also performs a discography using fluoroscopy to locate the disc and determine the exact area where the injection should be given. This procedure treats a herniated disc and relieves back pain as a result of bulging disc material that is putting pressure on the spinal nerve.",CPT +62294,"Injection, Drainage, or Aspiration Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.","The provider blocks an arteriovenous malformation, or AVM, of the spinal cord with an injection of particles or glue to cut off its blood supply.",CPT +62302,"Injection, Drainage, or Aspiration Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.",The provider administers an injection of contrast into the lumbar area of the spine and performs myelography at the cervical region. The provider also performs radiological supervision and interpretation of the procedure.,CPT +62303,"Injection, Drainage, or Aspiration Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.",The provider administers an injection of contrast into the lumbar area of the spine and performs myelography at the thoracic region. The provider also performs radiological supervision and interpretation of the procedure.,CPT +62304,"Injection, Drainage, or Aspiration Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.",The provider administers an injection of contrast into the lumbar area of the spine and performs myelography at the lumbosacral region. The provider also performs radiological supervision and interpretation of the procedure.,CPT +62305,"Injection, Drainage, or Aspiration Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.",The provider administers an injection of contrast into the lumbar area of the spine and performs myelography of two or more spinal cord regions. The provider also performs radiological supervision and interpretation of the procedure.,CPT +62320,"Injection, Drainage, or Aspiration Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.","The provider injects a diagnostic or a therapeutic substance, such as pain medication or a steroid, into the space around the spinal nerves of the cervical (neck) or thoracic (upper and middle back) region. She inserts a needle or catheter (tube) to facilitate the injection but does not use imaging guidance.",CPT +62321,"Injection, Drainage, or Aspiration Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.","The provider injects a diagnostic or a therapeutic substance, such as pain medication or a steroid, into the space around the spinal nerves of the cervical (neck) or thoracic (upper and middle back) region, under imaging guidance. She inserts a needle or catheter (tube) to facilitate the injection.",CPT +62322,"Injection, Drainage, or Aspiration Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.","The provider injects a diagnostic or a therapeutic substance, such as pain medication or a steroid, into the space around the spinal nerves of the lumbar (lower back) or sacral (caudal, or tailbone) region. She inserts a needle or catheter (tube) to facilitate the injection but does not use imaging guidance.",CPT +62323,"Injection, Drainage, or Aspiration Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.","The provider injects a diagnostic or a therapeutic substance, such as pain medication or a steroid, into the space around the spinal nerves of the lumbar (lower back) or sacral (caudal, or tailbone) region, under imaging guidance. She inserts a needle or catheter (tube) to facilitate the injection.",CPT +62324,"Injection, Drainage, or Aspiration Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.","The provider injects a diagnostic or a therapeutic substance, such as pain medication or a steroid, into the space around the spinal nerves of the cervical (neck) or thoracic (upper and middle back) region via continuous infusion or intermittent boluses (large doses). She does not use imaging guidance.",CPT +62325,"Injection, Drainage, or Aspiration Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.","The provider injects a diagnostic or a therapeutic substance, such as pain medication or a steroid, into the space around the spinal nerves of the cervical (neck) or thoracic (upper and middle back) region via continuous infusion or intermittent boluses (large doses). She uses imaging guidance.",CPT +62326,"Injection, Drainage, or Aspiration Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.","The provider injects a diagnostic or a therapeutic substance, such as pain medication or a steroid, into the space around the spinal nerves of the lumbar (lower back) or sacral (caudal, or tailbone) region via continuous infusion or intermittent boluses (large doses). She does not use imaging guidance.",CPT +62327,"Injection, Drainage, or Aspiration Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.","The provider injects a diagnostic or a therapeutic substance, such as pain medication or a steroid, into the space around the spinal nerves of the lumbar (lower back) or sacral (caudal, or tailbone) region via continuous infusion or intermittent boluses (large doses). She uses imaging guidance.",CPT +62328,"Injection, Drainage, or Aspiration Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.",The provider obtains a sample of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) under fluoroscopic or CT imaging guidance and sends the specimen to the laboratory for examination. The provider commonly performs this procedure to rule out meningitis or help diagnose cerebral palsy.,CPT +62329,"Injection, Drainage, or Aspiration Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.","The provider inserts a hollow needle or catheter into the subarachnoid space, usually in the lower back (lumbar spine) under fluoroscopic or CT imaging guidance and withdraws CSF to relieve pressure on the brain. This procedure is also referred to as a spinal tap.",CPT +62350,Catheter Implantation Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,"The provider implants, replaces, or repositions a previously implanted and tunneled intrathecal or epidural catheter. This procedure does not include a laminectomy. This service is done to instill medication into the cerebrospinal fluid using an external or internal reservoir pump system to treat many conditions including severe pain after trauma, postoperative pain, pain from diseases like cancer, or for other medical conditions such as spasticity, a muscle control disorder in which muscles are tight or stiff, and they involuntarily spasm.",CPT +62351,Catheter Implantation Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,"The provider implants, replaces, or repositions a previously implanted and tunneled intrathecal or epidural catheter. This procedure includes a laminectomy. This service is done to instill medication into the cerebrospinal fluid using an external or internal reservoir pump system to treat many conditions including severe pain after trauma, postoperative pain, pain from diseases like cancer, or for other medical conditions such as spasticity, a muscle control disorder in which muscles are tight or stiff, and they involuntarily spasm.",CPT +62355,Catheter Implantation Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,"The provider removes a previously implanted and tunneled intrathecal catheter, which may be necessary due to infection or the patient no longer requiring medication administration.",CPT +62360,Reservoir/Pump Implantation Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,"The provider implants or replaces a reservoir under the skin for intrathecal or epidural infusion of medications, such as anesthetics, antispasmodics, opioids, steroids, and other solutions to treat pain and administer chemotherapy.",CPT +62361,Reservoir/Pump Implantation Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,"The provider implants or replaces a nonprogrammable pump under the skin used for intrathecal or epidural infusion of medication. This service allows the continuous infusion of medications such as anesthetics, antispasmodics, opioids, steroids, and other solutions to treat pain and administer chemotherapy.",CPT +62362,Reservoir/Pump Implantation Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,"The provider implants or replaces a programmable pump under the skin used for intrathecal or epidural infusion of medication. This service allows the continuous infusion of medications such as anesthetics, antispasmodics, opioids, steroids, and other solutions to treat pain and administer chemotherapy. This service also includes the preparation of the pump and may include programming of the device.",CPT +62365,Reservoir/Pump Implantation Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,The provider removes a reservoir or pump previously implanted under the skin and used for intrathecal or epidural infusion of medication. This service may be necessary due to infection at the site of the subcutaneous implant or the patient no longer requiring medication administration.,CPT +62367,Reservoir/Pump Implantation Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,The provider analyzes performance of an implantable pump but does not reprogram or refill the pump. Intrathecal or epidural pumps may be used to deliver pain medications or chemotherapy to patients suffering from trauma or disease.,CPT +62368,Reservoir/Pump Implantation Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,The provider analyzes performance of an implantable pump reprograms the pump but does not refill the pump. Intrathecal or epidural pumps may be used to deliver pain medications or chemotherapy to patients suffering from trauma or disease.,CPT +62369,Reservoir/Pump Implantation Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,The provider analyzes performance of an implantable pump and also reprograms the pump and refills it. Intrathecal or epidural pumps may be used to deliver pain medications to patients suffering from trauma or disease.,CPT +62370,Reservoir/Pump Implantation Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,The provider analyzes performance of an implantable pump and also reprograms the pump and refills it. Intrathecal or epidural pumps may be used to deliver pain medications to patients suffering from trauma or disease.,CPT +62380,Endoscopic Decompression of Neural Elements and/or Excision of Herniated Intervertebral Discs.,"The provider removes all or some of a bulging intervertebral disc and/or removes bony portions of the surrounding vertebrae to decompress, or relieve pressure from, the spinal cord and nerve roots in a patient with back pain. She uses an endoscopic approach and performs the procedure at a single interspace level.",CPT +63001,Posterior Extradural Laminotomy or Laminectomy for Exploration/ Decompression of Neural Elements or Excision of Herniated Intervertebral Disks Procedures.,"This procedure is laminectomy of one or two cervical vertebral segments with exploration and/or decompression of the spinal cord and/or cauda equina. This procedure does not contain a facetectomy, foraminotomy, or discectomy.",CPT +63003,Posterior Extradural Laminotomy or Laminectomy for Exploration/ Decompression of Neural Elements or Excision of Herniated Intervertebral Disks Procedures.,"This procedure is the laminectomy of one or two thoracic vertebral segments with exploration and/or decompression of the spinal cord and/or cauda equina. This procedure does not contain a facetectomy, foraminotomy, or discectomy.",CPT +63005,Posterior Extradural Laminotomy or Laminectomy for Exploration/ Decompression of Neural Elements or Excision of Herniated Intervertebral Disks Procedures.,"This procedure is laminectomy of one or two lumbar vertebral segments with exploration and/or decompression of the spinal cord and/or cauda equina. This procedure does not contain a facetectomy, foraminotomy, or discectomy.",CPT +63011,Posterior Extradural Laminotomy or Laminectomy for Exploration/ Decompression of Neural Elements or Excision of Herniated Intervertebral Disks Procedures.,"This procedure is laminectomy of one or two sacral vertebral segments with exploration and/or decompression of the spinal cord and/or cauda equina. This procedure does not contain a facetectomy, foraminotomy, or discectomy.",CPT +63012,Posterior Extradural Laminotomy or Laminectomy for Exploration/ Decompression of Neural Elements or Excision of Herniated Intervertebral Disks Procedures.,This procedure is lumbar laminectomy with the removal of abnormal facets and/or pars inter–articularis with decompression of the cauda equina and nerve roots for spondylolisthesis.,CPT +63015,Posterior Extradural Laminotomy or Laminectomy for Exploration/ Decompression of Neural Elements or Excision of Herniated Intervertebral Disks Procedures.,"This procedure is laminectomy of more than two cervical vertebral segments with exploration and/or decompression of the spinal cord and/or cauda equina. This procedure does not contain a facetectomy, foraminotomy, or discectomy.",CPT +63016,Posterior Extradural Laminotomy or Laminectomy for Exploration/ Decompression of Neural Elements or Excision of Herniated Intervertebral Disks Procedures.,"This procedure is laminectomy of more than two thoracic vertebral segments with exploration and/or decompression of the spinal cord and/or cauda equina. This procedure does not contain a facetectomy, foraminotomy, or discectomy.",CPT +63017,Posterior Extradural Laminotomy or Laminectomy for Exploration/ Decompression of Neural Elements or Excision of Herniated Intervertebral Disks Procedures.,"This procedure is laminectomy of more than two lumbar vertebral segments with exploration and/or decompression of the spinal cord and/or cauda equina. This procedure does not contain a facetectomy, foraminotomy, or discectomy.",CPT +63020,Posterior Extradural Laminotomy or Laminectomy for Exploration/ Decompression of Neural Elements or Excision of Herniated Intervertebral Disks Procedures.,"The provider performs laminotomy of one cervical interspace with decompression of the nerve root(s), and includes a partial facetectomy, foraminotomy, and/or the excision of a herniated intervertebral disc. This procedure covers open and endoscopic approaches.",CPT +63030,Posterior Extradural Laminotomy or Laminectomy for Exploration/ Decompression of Neural Elements or Excision of Herniated Intervertebral Disks Procedures.,"This procedure is laminotomy of one lumbar interspace with decompression of the nerve root(s), and includes a partial facetectomy, foraminotomy, and/or the excision of a herniated intervertebral disc. This procedure covers open and endoscopic approaches.",CPT +63035,Posterior Extradural Laminotomy or Laminectomy for Exploration/ Decompression of Neural Elements or Excision of Herniated Intervertebral Disks Procedures.,"This procedure is laminotomy of each additional cervical or lumbar interspace with decompression of the nerve root(s), and includes a partial facetectomy, foraminotomy, and/or the excision of a herniated intervertebral disc. This procedure covers open and endoscopic approaches.",CPT +63040,Posterior Extradural Laminotomy or Laminectomy for Exploration/ Decompression of Neural Elements or Excision of Herniated Intervertebral Disks Procedures.,"This procedure is laminotomy of one cervical interspace with decompression of the nerve root(s), and includes a partial facetectomy, foraminotomy, and/or the excision of a herniated intervertebral disc. This procedure is a reexploration.",CPT +63042,Posterior Extradural Laminotomy or Laminectomy for Exploration/ Decompression of Neural Elements or Excision of Herniated Intervertebral Disks Procedures.,"This procedure is laminotomy of one lumbar interspace with decompression of the nerve root(s), and includes a partial facetectomy, foraminotomy, and/or the excision of a herniated intervertebral disc. This procedure is a reexploration.",CPT +63043,Posterior Extradural Laminotomy or Laminectomy for Exploration/ Decompression of Neural Elements or Excision of Herniated Intervertebral Disks Procedures.,"This procedure is laminotomy of each additional cervical interspace with decompression of the nerve root(s), and includes a partial facetectomy, foraminotomy, and/or the excision of a herniated intervertebral disc. This procedure is a reexploration.",CPT +63044,Posterior Extradural Laminotomy or Laminectomy for Exploration/ Decompression of Neural Elements or Excision of Herniated Intervertebral Disks Procedures.,"This procedure is laminotomy of each additional lumbar interspace with decompression of the nerve root(s), and includes a partial facetectomy, foraminotomy, and/or the excision of a herniated intervertebral disc. This procedure is a reexploration.",CPT +63045,Posterior Extradural Laminotomy or Laminectomy for Exploration/ Decompression of Neural Elements or Excision of Herniated Intervertebral Disks Procedures.,"This procedure is a single cervical vertebral laminectomy, facetectomy, and foraminotomy.",CPT +63046,Posterior Extradural Laminotomy or Laminectomy for Exploration/ Decompression of Neural Elements or Excision of Herniated Intervertebral Disks Procedures.,"This procedure is a single thoracic vertebral laminectomy, facetectomy, and foraminotomy.",CPT +63047,Posterior Extradural Laminotomy or Laminectomy for Exploration/ Decompression of Neural Elements or Excision of Herniated Intervertebral Disks Procedures.,"The provider performs a laminectomy (excision of the thin bony plate at the back of a vertebra), facetectomy (excision of an area of a vertebra characterized by its smooth surface), and foraminotomy (incision into the vertebral opening through which nerve bundles exit out to the body) at a single lumbar vertebral segment to correct spinal stenosis (narrowing) and decompress the spinal cord or nerve roots.",CPT +63048,Posterior Extradural Laminotomy or Laminectomy for Exploration/ Decompression of Neural Elements or Excision of Herniated Intervertebral Disks Procedures.,"At the same session as laminectomy, facetectomy, and foraminotomy on an initial segment for decompression, the provider performs the procedure on an additional vertebral segment.",CPT +63050,Posterior Extradural Laminotomy or Laminectomy for Exploration/ Decompression of Neural Elements or Excision of Herniated Intervertebral Disks Procedures.,This procedure is a cervical Laminoplasty with decompression of the spinal cord and includes two vertebral segments.,CPT +63051,Posterior Extradural Laminotomy or Laminectomy for Exploration/ Decompression of Neural Elements or Excision of Herniated Intervertebral Disks Procedures.,This procedure is a cervical Laminoplasty with decompression of the spinal cord and includes two or more vertebral segments with reconstruction of the posterior bony elements.,CPT +63052,Posterior Extradural Laminotomy or Laminectomy for Exploration/ Decompression of Neural Elements or Excision of Herniated Intervertebral Disks Procedures.,"At the same session as lumbar posterior interbody arthrodesis (joint fusion), the provider performs laminectomy, facetectomy, or foraminotomy on a single vertebral segment for decompression.",CPT +63053,Posterior Extradural Laminotomy or Laminectomy for Exploration/ Decompression of Neural Elements or Excision of Herniated Intervertebral Disks Procedures.,"At the same session as lumbar posterior interbody arthrodesis (joint fusion) and after the provider performs laminectomy, facetectomy, or foraminotomy on an initial vertebral segment for decompression, the provider performs the decompression procedure on an additional segment.",CPT +63055,Transpedicular or Costovertebral Approach for Posterolateral Extradural Exploration/Decompression Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,"The provider uses a transpedicular approach to repair a bulging thoracic disc without manipulating the spinal cord. The approach is through the side of the pedicle of one thoracic vertebra. This service is done to relieve pressure on the spinal cord, equina, or nerve roots.",CPT +63056,Transpedicular or Costovertebral Approach for Posterolateral Extradural Exploration/Decompression Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,"The provider uses a transpedicular approach to repair a bulging lumbar disc without manipulating the spinal cord. The approach is through the side of the pedicle of one lumbar vertebra, known as a transpedicular approach. A far lateral herniated intervertebral disc may require a different approach such as a transfacet or lateral extraforaminal approach.  This service is done to relieve pressure on the spinal cord, equina, or nerve roots.",CPT +63057,Transpedicular or Costovertebral Approach for Posterolateral Extradural Exploration/Decompression Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,"In this add on procedure, the provider repairs another bulging thoracic or lumbar disc without manipulating the spinal cord. Using the transpedicular approach, the provider accesses the affected disc through the side of the pedicle of another thoracic or lumbar vertebra.",CPT +63064,Transpedicular or Costovertebral Approach for Posterolateral Extradural Exploration/Decompression Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,"To relieve symptoms caused by spinal cord or nerve root pressure, the provider performs a decompression service on a single thoracic segment, such as removing a disc from the spine. He uses a costovertebral approach, which refers to where the ribs and spine meet.",CPT +63066,Transpedicular or Costovertebral Approach for Posterolateral Extradural Exploration/Decompression Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,"To relieve symptoms caused by spinal cord or nerve root pressure, the provider performs a decompression service, such as removing a disc from the spine. This code describes each additional thoracic segment treated after the first at the same session. He uses a costovertebral approach, which refers to where the ribs and spine meet.",CPT +63075,Anterior or Anterolateral Approach for Extradural Exploration/Decompression Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,"The herniation of a cervical disc is one of the most common causes of cervical pain (cervicalgia or neck pain). Herniation occurs when an intervertebral disc moves out of its place, there is a tear in the annulus of the cervical disc caused by an accident or pathological causes, and the nucleus pulposus (the gelatinous substance inside the spinal disc) bulges out. A herniated disc puts pressure on the nerve roots or spinal cord and causes pain in the patient. When medication fails, herniation needs surgical intervention. The surgeon decompresses the nerve roots/spinal cord by removing the herniated portion of the disc. Grafts are used to fill the empty space created by the removal of the disc.",CPT +63076,Anterior or Anterolateral Approach for Extradural Exploration/Decompression Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,"In this add on procedure, the provider repairs another herniated cervical disc. The herniation of a cervical disc is one of the most common causes of cervical pain, called cervicalgia, or neck pain. The provider decompresses the nerve roots or spinal cord by removing all or a portion of the herniated disc. He uses grafts to fill the empty space created by removing the disc.",CPT +63077,Anterior or Anterolateral Approach for Extradural Exploration/Decompression Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,"In this procedure, the provider repairs a herniated thoracic disc. The provider decompresses the nerve roots or spinal cord by removing all or a portion of the herniated disc. He uses grafts to fill the empty space created by removing the disc. The herniation of a thoracic disc occurs less often than in other segments of the spine. A thoracic herniation causes pain which, depending on the type of herniation, may concentrate in the upper back, radiate to the chest or abdomen, or result in myelopathy, the inflammation and swelling of the spinal cord.",CPT +63078,Anterior or Anterolateral Approach for Extradural Exploration/Decompression Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,"In this add on procedure, the provider repairs another herniated thoracic disc. A thoracic herniation causes pain which, depending on the type of herniation, may concentrate in the upper back, radiate to the chest or abdomen or result in myelopathy, the inflammation and swelling of the spinal cord.. The surgeon decompresses the nerve roots or spinal cord by removing all or a portion of the herniated disc. He uses grafts to fill the empty space created by the removal of the disc.",CPT +63081,Anterior or Anterolateral Approach for Extradural Exploration/Decompression Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,The provider excises (removes) part or all of a cervical vertebra via an frontal (anterior) approach and decompresses the spinal cord and/or nerve roots at a single level in the neck.,CPT +63082,Anterior or Anterolateral Approach for Extradural Exploration/Decompression Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,The provider excises (removes) part or all of a cervical vertebra via a frontal (anterior) approach and decompresses the spinal cord and/or nerve roots at an additional level in the neck after the first excision.,CPT +63085,Anterior or Anterolateral Approach for Extradural Exploration/Decompression Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,The provider excises (removes) part or all of a thoracic vertebra via a transthoracic approach (through the anterior chest) and decompresses the spinal cord and/or nerve roots at a single level in the upper back.,CPT +63086,Anterior or Anterolateral Approach for Extradural Exploration/Decompression Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,The provider excises (removes) part or all of a thoracic vertebra via a transthoracic (anterior chest) approach and decompresses the spinal cord and/or nerve roots at an additional level in the upper back after the first excision.,CPT +63087,Anterior or Anterolateral Approach for Extradural Exploration/Decompression Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,"The provider excises (removes) part or all of a lower thoracic or lumbar vertebra via a combined mid and lower back (thoracolumbar) approach and decompresses the spinal cord, cauda equina, and/or nerve roots at a single level.",CPT +63088,Anterior or Anterolateral Approach for Extradural Exploration/Decompression Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,"The provider excises (removes) part or all of a lower thoracic or lumbar vertebra via a combined mid and lower back (thoracolumbar) approach and decompresses the spinal cord, cauda equina, and/or nerve roots at an additional level after the first excision.",CPT +63090,Anterior or Anterolateral Approach for Extradural Exploration/Decompression Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,"The provider excises all or part of a lower thoracic, lumbar, or sacral vertebral via a transperitoneal (abdominal) or retroperitoneal (anterolateral) approach and with decompression of the spinal cord, cauda equina, and/or nerve roots at a single level.",CPT +63091,Anterior or Anterolateral Approach for Extradural Exploration/Decompression Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,"The provider excises all or part of a lower thoracic, lumbar, or sacral vertebral via a transperitoneal (abdominal) or retroperitoneal (anterolateral) approach and with decompression of the spinal cord, cauda equina, and/or nerve roots at an additional level after the first excision.",CPT +63101,Lateral Extracavitary Approach for Extradural Exploration/Decompression Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,"The provider removes part of or an entire thoracic vertebral bone and intervertebral disc material in a procedure called a corpectomy. In this procedure, a lateral extracavitary, or LECA, approach is made to one thoracic vertebra to relieve pressure on the spinal cord and spinal nerves. This approach also allows for the stabilization of the spine at the same time. The service is usually done as a result of a fracture, tumor, or deformity.",CPT +63102,Lateral Extracavitary Approach for Extradural Exploration/Decompression Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,"The provider removes part of or an entire lumbar vertebral bone and intervertebral disc material in a procedure called a corpectomy. In this procedure a lateral extracavitary, or LECA, approach, made to one lumbar vertebra to relieve pressure on the spinal cord and spinal nerves. This approach also allows for the stabilization of the spine at the same time. The service is usually done as a result of a fracture, tumor, or deformity.",CPT +63103,Lateral Extracavitary Approach for Extradural Exploration/Decompression Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,"In this add on procedure, the provider removes part of or an entire thoracic or lumbar vertebral bone and intervertebral disc material from another vertebra during an initial procedure called a corpectomy. In this procedure, a lateral extracavitary, or LECA, approach is made to another lumbar vertebra to relieve pressure on the spinal cord and spinal nerves. This approach also allows for the stabilization of the spine at the same time. The service is usually done as a result of a fracture, tumor, or deformity.",CPT +63170,Incision Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,"A laminectomy with myelotomy, also known as DREZ lesioning, is a surgical procedure that destroys the posterolateral portion of the spinal cord; the procedure is performed to treat chronic severe neuropathic pain unmanageable with other therapies.",CPT +63172,Incision Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,The provider removes the lamina (thin bone that forms the back of a vertebra) as part of a procedure to drain a spinal cyst into the subarachnoid space.,CPT +63173,Incision Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,The provider removes the lamina portion of the vertebra as part of a procedure to drain a spinal cyst into the space between the membranes lining the abdomen or chest.,CPT +63185,Incision Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,Rhizotomy is a surgical procedure that involves the cutting of nerve roots in the spinal cord to relive the symptoms of neuromuscular conditions. The procedure is performed through laminotomy or laminectomy and is performed under general anesthesia.,CPT +63190,Incision Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,Rhizotomy is a surgical procedure that involves the cutting of nerve roots in the spinal cord to relive the symptoms of neuromuscular conditions. The procedure is performed through laminotomy or laminectomy and is performed under general anesthesia.,CPT +63191,Incision Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,"The provider removes the lamina, the arch of the vertebral bone, and part of the spinal accessory nerve, the nerve in the back of the neck, to treat spinal disorders that can cause pain, such as a herniated vertebral disc or lesion.",CPT +63197,Incision Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,"The provider removes the lamina (the arch of the vertebral bone) and divides the spinothalamic tract of the spinal cord, which sends pain signals to the brain. Providers perform the procedure to alleviate pain due to cancer or other disorders. This is a single–stage procedure on the thoracic spine.",CPT +63200,Incision Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,"In this procedure, the provider releases a tethered spinal cord. A tethered spinal cord is a progressive congenital or trauma induced neurological disorder. Abnormal tissue attachments form around the spine, most often at the base, and limit the movement of the spinal cord within the spinal column. This procedure is done to correct functional abnormalities in the lower extremity, referred to as neurological deficits and to stabilize neurologic progression.",CPT +63250,Excision by Laminectomy of Lesion Other Than Herniated Disk Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes or closes off a tangle of arteries and veins that have abnormal communications between them. This condition, known as a neurological arteriovenous malformation, or AVM, is located within, on, or near the spinal cord in the cervical spine. This procedure is done to isolate and eradicate the fistula and draining veins to resolve functional abnormalities such as lower extremity weakness and prevent the progression of the condition.",CPT +63251,Excision by Laminectomy of Lesion Other Than Herniated Disk Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes or closes off a tangle of arteries and veins that have abnormal communications between them. This condition, known as a neurological arteriovenous malformation, or AVM, is located within, on, or near the spinal cord in the thoracic spine. This procedure is done to isolate and eradicate the fistula and draining veins to resolve functional abnormalities such as, lower extremity weakness, and prevent the progression of the condition.",CPT +63252,Excision by Laminectomy of Lesion Other Than Herniated Disk Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes or closes off a tangle of arteries and veins that have abnormal communications between them. This condition, known as a neurological arteriovenous malformation, or AVM, is located within, on, or near the spinal cord in the thoracolumbar spine. This procedure is done to isolate and eradicate the fistula and draining veins to resolve functional abnormalities such as, lower extremity weakness, and prevent the progression of the condition.",CPT +63265,Excision by Laminectomy of Lesion Other Than Herniated Disk Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes or evacuates an extradural growth in the cervical spine using a technique known as a laminectomy to access the site.",CPT +63266,Excision by Laminectomy of Lesion Other Than Herniated Disk Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes or evacuates an extradural growth in the thoracic spine using a technique known as a laminectomy to access the site.",CPT +63267,Excision by Laminectomy of Lesion Other Than Herniated Disk Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes or evacuates an extradural growth in the lumbar spine using a technique known as a laminectomy to access the site.",CPT +63268,Excision by Laminectomy of Lesion Other Than Herniated Disk Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes or evacuates an extradural growth in the sacral spine using a technique known as a laminectomy to access the site.",CPT +63270,Excision by Laminectomy of Lesion Other Than Herniated Disk Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes or evacuates an intradural growth in the cervical spine using a technique known as a laminectomy to access the site.",CPT +63271,Excision by Laminectomy of Lesion Other Than Herniated Disk Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes or evacuates an intradural growth in the thoracic spine using a technique known as a laminectomy to access the site.",CPT +63272,Excision by Laminectomy of Lesion Other Than Herniated Disk Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes or evacuates an intradural growth in the lumbar spine using a technique known as a laminectomy to access the site.",CPT +63273,Excision by Laminectomy of Lesion Other Than Herniated Disk Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a portion of the sacral vertebra called the lamina and excises an intradural lesion of the spinal cord. Intradural means inside the dura, the tough outer membrane surrounding the central nervous system.",CPT +63275,Excision by Laminectomy of Lesion Other Than Herniated Disk Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a portion of the cervical vertebra and excises an extradural growth of the spinal cord, sending a portion of the lesion for testing. Extradural means outside the dura, the tough outer membrane surrounding the central nervous system.",CPT +63276,Excision by Laminectomy of Lesion Other Than Herniated Disk Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a portion of the thoracic vertebra and excises an extradural growth of the spinal cord, sending a portion of the lesion for testing. Extradural means outside the dura, the tough outer membrane surrounding the central nervous system.",CPT +63277,Excision by Laminectomy of Lesion Other Than Herniated Disk Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a portion of the lumbar vertebra and excises an extradural growth of the spinal cord, sending a portion of the lesion for testing. Extradural means outside the dura, the tough outer membrane surrounding the central nervous system.",CPT +63278,Excision by Laminectomy of Lesion Other Than Herniated Disk Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a portion of the sacral vertebra and excises an extradural growth of the spinal cord, sending a portion of the lesion for testing. Extradural means outside the dura, the tough outer membrane surrounding the central nervous system.",CPT +63280,Excision by Laminectomy of Lesion Other Than Herniated Disk Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a portion of the cervical vertebra called the lamina and excises an intradural, extramedullary growth of the spinal cord, sending a portion of the lesion for testing. Intradural means inside the dura, the tough outer membrane surrounding the central nervous system. Extramedullary means outside the spinal cord.",CPT +63281,Excision by Laminectomy of Lesion Other Than Herniated Disk Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a portion of the thoracic vertebra called the lamina and excises an intradural, extramedullary growth of the spinal cord, sending a portion of the lesion for testing. Intradural means inside the dura, the tough outer membrane surrounding the central nervous system. Extramedullary means outside the spinal cord.",CPT +63282,Excision by Laminectomy of Lesion Other Than Herniated Disk Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a portion of the lumbar vertebra called the lamina and excises an intradural, extramedullary growth of the spinal cord, sending a portion of the lesion for testing. Intradural means inside the dura, the tough outer membrane surrounding the central nervous system. Extramedullary means outside the spinal cord.",CPT +63283,Excision by Laminectomy of Lesion Other Than Herniated Disk Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a portion of the sacral vertebra called the lamina and excises an intradural growth of the spinal cord, sending a portion of the lesion for testing. Intradural means inside the dura, the tough outer membrane surrounding the central nervous system.",CPT +63285,Excision by Laminectomy of Lesion Other Than Herniated Disk Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a portion of the cervical vertebra called the lamina and excises an intradural, intramedullary growth, of the spinal cord, sending a portion of the lesion for testing. Intradural means inside the dura, the tough outer membrane surrounding the central nervous system. Intramedullary meaning within the spinal cord.",CPT +63286,Excision by Laminectomy of Lesion Other Than Herniated Disk Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a portion of the thoracic vertebra called the lamina and excises an intradural, intramedullary growth, of the spinal cord, sending a portion of the lesion for testing. Intradural means inside the dura, the tough outer membrane surrounding the central nervous system. Intramedullary meaning within the spinal cord.",CPT +63287,Excision by Laminectomy of Lesion Other Than Herniated Disk Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a portion of the thoracolumbar vertebrae called the lamina and excises an intradural, intramedullary growth of the spinal cord, sending a portion of the lesion for testing. Intradural means inside the dura, the tough outer membrane surrounding the central nervous system. Intramedullary meaning within the spinal cord.",CPT +63290,Excision by Laminectomy of Lesion Other Than Herniated Disk Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a portion of the vertebrae called the lamina and excises an extradural, intradural growth of the spinal cord, sending a portion of the lesion for testing. Extradural means outside the dura. Intradural refers to inside the dura, the tough outer membrane surrounding the central nervous system.",CPT +63295,Excision by Laminectomy of Lesion Other Than Herniated Disk Procedures.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider reconstructs the dorsal spinal elements that were removed during a separate intraspinal procedure. This procedure is done to stabilize the spine where lesions or disease damaged it.",CPT +63300,"Excision, Anterior or Anterolateral Approach, Intraspinal Lesion Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.","The provider performs a partial or complete excision of the main body of a single vertebra, one of the interlocking bones of the back, to remove an extradural lesion within the cervical spine.",CPT +63301,"Excision, Anterior or Anterolateral Approach, Intraspinal Lesion Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.","The provider uses a transthoracic approach to perform a partial or complete excision of the main body of a single vertebra, one of the interlocking bones of the back, to remove an extradural lesion within the thoracic spine.",CPT +63302,"Excision, Anterior or Anterolateral Approach, Intraspinal Lesion Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.","The provider uses a thoracolumbar approach to perform a partial or complete excision of the main body of a single vertebra, one of the interlocking bones of the back, to remove an extradural lesion within the thoracic spine.",CPT +63303,"Excision, Anterior or Anterolateral Approach, Intraspinal Lesion Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.","The provider uses a transperitoneal (through the interior lining of the abdomen) or retroperitoneal (anterolateral) approach to perform a partial or complete excision of the main body of a single vertebra, one of the interlocking bones of the back, to remove an extradural lesion within the lumbar or sacral spine.",CPT +63304,"Excision, Anterior or Anterolateral Approach, Intraspinal Lesion Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.","The provider performs a partial or complete excision of the main body of a single vertebra, one of the interlocking bones of the back, to remove an intradural lesion within the cervical spine.",CPT +63305,"Excision, Anterior or Anterolateral Approach, Intraspinal Lesion Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.","The provider uses a transthoracic approach to perform a partial or complete excision of the main body of a single vertebra, one of the interlocking bones of the back, to remove an intradural lesion within the thoracic spine.",CPT +63306,"Excision, Anterior or Anterolateral Approach, Intraspinal Lesion Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.","The provider uses a thoracolumbar approach to perform a partial or complete excision of the main body of a single vertebra, one of the interlocking bones of the back, to remove an intradural lesion within the thoracic spine.",CPT +63307,"Excision, Anterior or Anterolateral Approach, Intraspinal Lesion Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.","The provider uses a transperitoneal (through the abdomen) or retroperitoneal (through the back) approach to perform a partial or complete excision of the main body of a single vertebra, one of the interlocking bones of the back, to remove an intradural lesion within the lumbar or sacral spine.",CPT +63308,"Excision, Anterior or Anterolateral Approach, Intraspinal Lesion Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.","The provider performs a partial or complete excision of the main body of a single vertebra, one of the interlocking bones of the back, to remove an intraspinal lesion within the vertebra. List this code in addition to the primary code for each additional segment.",CPT +63600,Stereotaxis Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,"In this procedure, the provider uses the stereotactic method, which makes use of a three dimensional coordinate system to locate small targets inside the spinal cord, and inserts a needle electrode through the skin to create lesions on targeted areas of the spinal cord. The provider may also perform stimulation or recording.",CPT +63610,Stereotaxis Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,"In this procedure, the provider uses the stereotactic method, which makes use of a three dimensional coordinate system to locate small targets inside the spinal cord, and inserts a needle electrode through the skin to stimulate targeted areas of the spinal cord.",CPT +63620,Stereotactic Radiosurgery (Spinal) Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,"In this procedure, the provider uses externally generated ionized radiation to destroy one spinal lesion.",CPT +63621,Stereotactic Radiosurgery (Spinal) Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider uses externally generated ionized radiation to destroy an additional spinal lesion following destruction of an initial lesion at the same session.",CPT +63650,Neurostimulators (Spinal) Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider places electrodes in the epidural space to relieve pain and reduce or eliminate spasms.",CPT +63655,Neurostimulators (Spinal) Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a portion of the vertebra called the lamina and places a permanent plate/paddle electrode in the epidural space, or area between the dura membrane and the wall of the vertebra for spinal cord stimulation. This procedure is done when a larger area of coverage is necessary or to reduce the risk of movement of the electrode array. Providers perform this procedure to control pain and spasms.",CPT +63661,Neurostimulators (Spinal) Procedures.,The provider removes one or more spinal neurostimulator electrode percutaneous arrays. The provider may use fluoroscopy to guide the procedure.,CPT +63662,Neurostimulators (Spinal) Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider removes the spinal neurostimulator electrode plates or paddles previously placed through laminotomy or laminectomy, which removed either the entire lamina or part of the lamina. The provider may use fluoroscopy to guide the procedure.",CPT +63663,Neurostimulators (Spinal) Procedures.,The provider revises and or replaces a previous placed permanent percutaneous electrode array for spinal cord stimulation. This service includes fluoroscopy when necessary. This procedure is generally done to improve the effectiveness of the unit by correcting electrode movement or for a component malfunction.,CPT +63664,Neurostimulators (Spinal) Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider revises the spinal neurostimulator electrode plates or paddles that were previously placed through laminotomy or laminectomy, which removed either the entire lamina or part of the lamina. He may also replace the neurostimulator electrode plates or paddles.",CPT +63685,Neurostimulators (Spinal) Procedures.,The provider inserts or replaces a spinal neurostimulator pulse generator or receiver. The system is one that requires surgical creation of a pocket for placement and that requires a connection between the electrode array and the pulse generator or receiver.,CPT +63688,Neurostimulators (Spinal) Procedures.,The provider revises or removes a spinal neurostimulator pulse generator or receiver. The system is one that has a detachable connection between the electrode array and the pulse generator or receiver.,CPT +63700,Repair Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,"In this procedure, the provider repairs a birth defect called a meningocele in which the meninges, the membranous coverings of the brain and spinal cord, protrude through a defect in the skull or spinal column forming a sac filled with cerebrospinal fluid. The diameter of the meningocele is less than 5 cm.",CPT +63702,Repair Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,"In this procedure, the provider repairs a birth defect called a meningocele in which the meninges, the membranous coverings of the brain and spinal cord, protrude through a defect in the skull or spinal column forming a sac filled with cerebrospinal fluid. The diameter of the meningocele is greater than 5 cm.",CPT +63704,Repair Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,"The provider repairs a birth defect called a myelomeningocele, a severe form of spina bifida, in which the spinal membrane and spinal cord protrude through a defect in the vertebral column. The diameter of the myelomeningocele is less than 5cm.",CPT +63706,Repair Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,"The provider repairs a birth defect called a myelomeningocele, a severe form of spina bifida, in which the spinal membrane and spinal cord protrude through a defect in the vertebral column. The diameter of the myelomeningocele is larger than 5cm.",CPT +63707,Repair Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,"The provider repairs a tear in the dura that causes a cerebrospinal fluid, or CSF, leak and can lead to a serious infection. The dura is the tough outer membrane surrounding the central nervous system. This service may be necessary to repair a defect that occurs after spinal or intradural surgery, trauma, or a congenital abnormality.",CPT +63709,Repair Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,"The provider repairs a pseudomeningocele or a tear in the dura that causes a cerebrospinal fluid, or CSF, leak and can lead to a serious infection. The dura is the tough outer membrane surrounding the central nervous system. This service may be necessary to repair a defect that occurs after spinal or intradural surgery, trauma, or a congenital abnormality.",CPT +63710,Repair Procedures on the Spine and Spinal Cord.,"The provider uses a dural graft during a separately reportable procedure to close an opening in the dura, the tough outer membrane surrounding the central nervous system.",CPT +63740,"Shunt, Spinal CSF Procedures.","The provider implants a shunt, which is a small tube the provider places in the lumbar region near the base of the spine to drain cerebrospinal fluid, or CSF, from the cavity surrounding the spinal cord, known as the subarachnoid space. The procedure reduces pressure and diverts an overabundance of CSF to the abdominal, or peritoneal, cavity. The procedure may also divert CSF to the pleural or thoracic, cavity or to another area. The procedure includes a laminectomy where the provider removes a portion of the vertebra to access the surgical site.",CPT +63741,"Shunt, Spinal CSF Procedures.","The provider implants a shunt, which is a small tube the provider places in the lumbar region near the base of the spine to drain cerebrospinal fluid, or CSF, from the cavity surrounding the spinal cord, known as the subarachnoid space. The procedure reduces pressure and diverts an overabundance of CSF to the abdominal, or peritoneal, cavity. The procedure may also divert CSF to the pleural, or thoracic, cavity or to another area. The procedure does not require a laminectomy.",CPT +63744,"Shunt, Spinal CSF Procedures.","In this procedure, the provider replaces or irrigates a shunt previously placed in the lumbosubarachnoid region.",CPT +63746,"Shunt, Spinal CSF Procedures.","The provider removes a previously implanted shunt, a small tube placed in the lumbar region near the base of the lumbar spine, to drain cerebrospinal fluid, or CSF, from the cavity surrounding the spinal cord, known as the subarachnoid space.",CPT +64400,"Introduction/Injection of Anesthetic Agent (Nerve Block), Diagnostic or Therapeutic Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.","The provider injects an anesthetic agent and/or steroid close to each branch of fifth cranial nerve, also called the trigeminal nerve, a mixed cranial nerve that is composed of three large branches — ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular. Report this code for each branch of the trigeminal nerve injected during a single procedure.",CPT +64405,"Introduction/Injection of Anesthetic Agent (Nerve Block), Diagnostic or Therapeutic Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.","The provider injects an anesthetic and/or steroid agent into the greater occipital nerve, a nerve arising from the second cranial nerve, also called the optic nerve. Report this code for one or more injections during a single procedure.",CPT +64408,"Introduction/Injection of Anesthetic Agent (Nerve Block), Diagnostic or Therapeutic Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.","The provider injects an anesthetic, steroid, or both into the tenth cranial nerve, also called the vagus nerve. Report this code for one or more injections during a single procedure.",CPT +64415,"Introduction/Injection of Anesthetic Agent (Nerve Block), Diagnostic or Therapeutic Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.","The provider injects one or more anesthetic agents and/or a steroid into the brachial plexus area, a group of nerves in the arm that originates in the neck. Report this code for one or more injections during a single procedure.",CPT +64416,"Introduction/Injection of Anesthetic Agent (Nerve Block), Diagnostic or Therapeutic Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.","The provider places a catheter and administers one or more anesthetic agents and/or a steroid by continuous infusion into the brachial plexus, a group of nerves in the arm that originates in the neck.",CPT +64417,"Introduction/Injection of Anesthetic Agent (Nerve Block), Diagnostic or Therapeutic Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.","The provider injects one or more anesthetic agents and/or a steroid into the area of the axillary nerve, a large nerve arising from the brachial plexus at the armpit. Report this code for one or more injections during a single procedure.",CPT +64418,"Introduction/Injection of Anesthetic Agent (Nerve Block), Diagnostic or Therapeutic Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.","The provider injects an anesthetic agent and/or steroid close to the suprascapular nerve, which is located above the flat triangular bone at the back of the shoulder known as the shoulder blade. Report this code for one or more injections during a single procedure.",CPT +64420,"Introduction/Injection of Anesthetic Agent (Nerve Block), Diagnostic or Therapeutic Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.","The provider injects an anesthetic agent and/or steroid in one of the ventral branches of the thoracic spinal nerves located under each rib, called an intercostal nerve. Report this code for one or more injections at a single level during a single procedure.",CPT +64421,"Introduction/Injection of Anesthetic Agent (Nerve Block), Diagnostic or Therapeutic Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.","The provider injects an anesthetic agent and/or steroid close to one of the ventral branches of the thoracic spinal nerves located under each rib, called the intercostal nerve. Report this code for one or more injections of each additional level (second, third, fourth intercostal nerve, and so on) after the first level.",CPT +64425,"Introduction/Injection of Anesthetic Agent (Nerve Block), Diagnostic or Therapeutic Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.","The provider injects an anesthetic agent and/or steroid close to the nerves that branch from the first lumbar nerve, i.e., the ilioinguinal nerve or the iliohypogastric nerve. Report this code for one or more injections of the ilioinguinal or iliohypogastric nerves.",CPT +64430,"Introduction/Injection of Anesthetic Agent (Nerve Block), Diagnostic or Therapeutic Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.","The provider injects an anesthetic agent or steroid or both into the pudendal nerve, the main nerve of the perineum. Report this code for one or more injections of the pudendal nerve.",CPT +64435,"Introduction/Injection of Anesthetic Agent (Nerve Block), Diagnostic or Therapeutic Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.","The provider injects an anesthetic agent, steroid, or both in the paracervical or uterine nerve in the area alongside the cervix in females. Report this code for one or more injections of the paracervical or uterine nerve.",CPT +64445,"Introduction/Injection of Anesthetic Agent (Nerve Block), Diagnostic or Therapeutic Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.","The provider injects one or more anesthetic agents and/or a steroid into the area of the sciatic nerve, which supplies the skin and muscles of the leg. Report this code for one or more injections during a single procedure.",CPT +64446,"Introduction/Injection of Anesthetic Agent (Nerve Block), Diagnostic or Therapeutic Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.","The provider places a catheter and administers one or more anesthetic agents and/or a steroid by continuous infusion into the area of the sciatic nerve, which supplies the skin and muscles of the leg.",CPT +64447,"Introduction/Injection of Anesthetic Agent (Nerve Block), Diagnostic or Therapeutic Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.","The provider injects one or more anesthetic agents and/or a steroid into the area of the femoral nerve, which innervates the leg and foot. Report this code for one or more injections during a single procedure.",CPT +64448,"Introduction/Injection of Anesthetic Agent (Nerve Block), Diagnostic or Therapeutic Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.","The provider places a catheter and administers one or more anesthetic agents and/or a steroid by continuous infusion into the area of the femoral nerve, which innervates the leg and foot.",CPT +64449,"Introduction/Injection of Anesthetic Agent (Nerve Block), Diagnostic or Therapeutic Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.","The provider administers an anesthetic agent, steroid, or both via continuous infusion through a catheter as a nerve block of the lumbar plexus to keep the target region anesthetized as long as required. Lumbar plexus is a network of nerves in the lumbar region that supplies the skin and muscles of the lower extremity. Catheter placement is included, so it should not be reported separately.",CPT +64450,"Introduction/Injection of Anesthetic Agent (Nerve Block), Diagnostic or Therapeutic Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.","The provider injects an anesthetic agent, steroid, or both close to a peripheral nerve or branch not represented by another code. Report this code for one or more injections during a single procedure.",CPT +64451,"Introduction/Injection of Anesthetic Agent (Nerve Block), Diagnostic or Therapeutic Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.",The provider injects an anesthetic and/or a steroid under imaging guidance into the nerves supplying the sacroiliac joint to diagnose and/or treat sacroiliac joint pain.,CPT +64454,"Introduction/Injection of Anesthetic Agent (Nerve Block), Diagnostic or Therapeutic Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.","The provider injects an anesthetic agent and/or a steroid into branches of the genicular nerves that supply the knee joint; imaging guidance is included, if performed, so should not be reported separately.",CPT +64455,"Introduction/Injection of Anesthetic Agent (Nerve Block), Diagnostic or Therapeutic Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.",The provider injects a steroid or anesthetic agent or both into the area around the digital nerves on the sole of the foot to treat a condition such as Morton's neuroma.,CPT +64461,"Introduction/Injection of Anesthetic Agent (Nerve Block), Diagnostic or Therapeutic Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.","The provider injects local anesthesia at a single site in the spaces beside or around the vertebrae of the thoracic spine. This results in a nerve blockade which relieves pain.The provider typically performs this type of anesthesia after thoracic surgery for postsurgical pain relief or on patients before breast surgery or patients with rib fractures. He may also use image guidance (live, real–time imaging projected on a video monitor) while performing this procedure.",CPT +64462,"Introduction/Injection of Anesthetic Agent (Nerve Block), Diagnostic or Therapeutic Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.","In this add on procedure, the provider injects local anesthesia at an additional site after the first in the spaces beside or around the vertebrae of the thoracic spine. This results in a nerve blockade which relieves pain.The provider typically performs this type of anesthesia after thoracic surgery for postsurgical pain relief or on patients before breast surgery or patients with rib fractures. He may also use image guidance (live, real–time imaging projected on a video monitor) while performing this procedure.",CPT +64463,"Introduction/Injection of Anesthetic Agent (Nerve Block), Diagnostic or Therapeutic Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.","The provider places a catheter for the purpose of providing continuous infusion of a drug, such as an anesthetic, steroid, or opioid drug, into the space next to and around the vertebrae of the thoracic spine. He may instill these drugs to relieve pain or, in the case of steroids, reduce swelling and inflammation after a surgical procedure. He may also use image guidance (live, real–time images displayed on a video monitor) while performing this procedure.",CPT +64479,"Introduction/Injection of Anesthetic Agent (Nerve Block), Diagnostic or Therapeutic Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.",This procedure is the injection of an anesthetic agent and/or steroid in the form of a transforaminal epidural injection into a single level (either cervical or thoracic).,CPT +64480,"Introduction/Injection of Anesthetic Agent (Nerve Block), Diagnostic or Therapeutic Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.",This procedure is the injection of an anesthetic agent and/or steroid in the form of a transforaminal epidural injection in the cervical or thoracic region. The code applies to each additional level after the initial level.,CPT +64483,"Introduction/Injection of Anesthetic Agent (Nerve Block), Diagnostic or Therapeutic Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.",This procedure is the injection of an anesthetic agent and/or steroid in the form of a transforaminal epidural injection into a single level (either lumbar or sacral).,CPT +64484,"Introduction/Injection of Anesthetic Agent (Nerve Block), Diagnostic or Therapeutic Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.",This procedure is the injection of an anesthetic agent and/or steroid in the form of a transforaminal epidural injection in the lumbar or sacral region. The code applies to each additional level after the initial level.,CPT +64486,"Introduction/Injection of Anesthetic Agent (Nerve Block), Diagnostic or Therapeutic Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.","In this procedure, the provider performs a unilateral transversus abdominis plane block, or TAP block, via injection or injections. A TAP block diminishes the pain that occurs for reasons such as lower abdominal surgery.",CPT +64487,"Introduction/Injection of Anesthetic Agent (Nerve Block), Diagnostic or Therapeutic Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.","In this procedure, the provider performs a unilateral transversus abdominis plane block, or TAP block, by infusion or infusions. A TAP block diminishes the pain that occurs for reasons such as lower abdominal surgery.",CPT +64488,"Introduction/Injection of Anesthetic Agent (Nerve Block), Diagnostic or Therapeutic Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.","In this procedure, the provider performs a bilateral transversus abdominis plane block, or TAP block, by injections. A TAP block diminishes the pain that occurs for reasons such as lower abdominal surgery.",CPT +64489,"Introduction/Injection of Anesthetic Agent (Nerve Block), Diagnostic or Therapeutic Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.","In this procedure, the provider performs a bilateral transversus abdominis plane block, or TAP block, by infusions. A TAP block diminishes the pain that occurs for reasons such as lower abdominal surgery.",CPT +64490,"Introduction/Injection of Anesthetic Agent (Nerve Block), Diagnostic or Therapeutic Procedures on the Paravertebral Spinal Nerves and Branches.","In this service, the provider injects a diagnostic or therapeutic agent into a facet joint, the joint connecting two spinal vertebrae together, at the cervical or thoracic level. Or he may perform the injection for nerves innervating that joint. He uses imaging guidance of either fluoroscopy or CT scan. The goal of this procedure is to treat spinal pain or to identify the exact source of pain.",CPT +64491,"Introduction/Injection of Anesthetic Agent (Nerve Block), Diagnostic or Therapeutic Procedures on the Paravertebral Spinal Nerves and Branches.","In this add–on procedure, the provider injects a diagnostic or therapeutic agent into a facet joint, the joint connecting two spinal vertebrae together, at the cervical or thoracic level. Or he may perform the injection for nerves innervating that joint. He uses imaging guidance of either fluoroscopy or CT scan. The provider injects the second additional level, after an initial separately reportable injection. The goal of this procedure is to treat spinal pain or to identify the exact source of pain.",CPT +64492,"Introduction/Injection of Anesthetic Agent (Nerve Block), Diagnostic or Therapeutic Procedures on the Paravertebral Spinal Nerves and Branches.","In this add–on procedure, the provider injects a diagnostic or therapeutic agent into a facet joint, the joint connecting two spinal vertebrae together, at the cervical or thoracic level. Or he may perform the injection for nerves innervating that joint. He uses imaging guidance of either fluoroscopy or CT scan. The provider injects the third additional level, after two initial separately reportable injections. The goal of this procedure is to treat spinal pain or to identify the exact source of pain.",CPT +64493,"Introduction/Injection of Anesthetic Agent (Nerve Block), Diagnostic or Therapeutic Procedures on the Paravertebral Spinal Nerves and Branches.","In this service, the provider injects a diagnostic or therapeutic agent into a facet joint, the joint connecting two spinal vertebrae together, at the lumbar or sacral level. Or he may perform the injection for nerves innervating that joint. He uses imaging guidance of either fluoroscopy or CT scan. The goal of this procedure is to treat spinal pain or to identify the exact source of pain.",CPT +64494,"Introduction/Injection of Anesthetic Agent (Nerve Block), Diagnostic or Therapeutic Procedures on the Paravertebral Spinal Nerves and Branches.","In this add–on procedure, the provider injects a diagnostic or therapeutic agent into a facet joint, the joint connecting two spinal vertebrae together, at the lumbar or sacral level. Or he may perform the injection for nerves innervating that joint. He uses imaging guidance of either fluoroscopy or CT scan. The provider injects the second additional level, after an initial separately reportable injection. The goal of this procedure is to treat spinal pain or to identify the exact source of pain.",CPT +64495,"Introduction/Injection of Anesthetic Agent (Nerve Block), Diagnostic or Therapeutic Procedures on the Paravertebral Spinal Nerves and Branches.","In this add–on procedure, the provider injects a diagnostic or therapeutic agent into a facet joint, the joint connecting two spinal vertebrae together, at the sacral or lumbar level. Or he may perform the injection for nerves innervating that joint. He uses imaging guidance of either fluoroscopy or CT scan. The provider injects the third additional level, after two initial separately reportable injections.",CPT +64505,"Introduction/Injection of Anesthetic Agent (Nerve Block), Diagnostic or Therapeutic Procedures on the Autonomic Nerves.","In this procedure, the provider performs a nerve block of the sphenopalatine ganglion, called Meckel’s ganglion or nasal ganglion, which is associated with the trigeminal nerve. Blocking pain from the nerve effectively treats a wide variety of pain conditions, from headache to low back pain.",CPT +64510,"Introduction/Injection of Anesthetic Agent (Nerve Block), Diagnostic or Therapeutic Procedures on the Autonomic Nerves.","In this procedure, the provider performs a nerve block on the stellate ganglion, called the cervicothoracic ganglion, which is part of the sympathetic nervous system. Blocking pain from the nerve effectively treats pain located in upper extremities, head, neck, and heart, which various conditions cause. It is done primarily to reduce symptoms from type I complex regional pain syndrome, known as reflex sympathetic dystrophy.",CPT +64517,"Introduction/Injection of Anesthetic Agent (Nerve Block), Diagnostic or Therapeutic Procedures on the Autonomic Nerves.","In this procedure, the provider performs a nerve block on the superior hypogastric plexus, which is part of the thoracolumbar sympathetic chain of the autonomic nervous system. Blocking the superior hypogastric plexus effectively treats chronic pelvic pain that is nonresponsive to medications, which cancer, the menstrual cycle, and other chronic conditions can cause.",CPT +64520,"Introduction/Injection of Anesthetic Agent (Nerve Block), Diagnostic or Therapeutic Procedures on the Autonomic Nerves.","In this procedure, the provider performs a nerve block on the lumbar or thoracic paravertebral sympathetic nerves, which are part of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system. Blocking of the paravertebral sympathetic nerves effectively treats painful conditions of the thorax, abdomen, and lower extremities. It also has use as an analgesic for many thoracic and abdominal procedures.",CPT +64530,"Introduction/Injection of Anesthetic Agent (Nerve Block), Diagnostic or Therapeutic Procedures on the Autonomic Nerves.","In this procedure, the provider performs a nerve block on the celiac plexus, called the solar plexus, which is part of the sympathetic nervous system. Blocking of the celiac plexus effectively treats abdominal pain commonly due to cancer or chronic pancreatitis, an inflammation of the pancreas.",CPT +64553,Neurostimulator Procedures on the Peripheral Nerves.,A neurostimulator includes electrodes which are inserted under the skin and induced by a small pulse generator to stimulate the nerve tissue. Use of this stimulator involves implantation of electrodes around a selected peripheral or cranial nerve.,CPT +64555,Neurostimulator Procedures on the Peripheral Nerves.,A neurostimulator includes electrodes which are inserted under the skin and induced by a generator to stimulate the nerve tissue. Use of this stimulator involves implantation of electrodes around a selected peripheral nerve.,CPT +64561,Neurostimulator Procedures on the Peripheral Nerves.,"The provider, under imaging guidance, implants electrodes around nerves in the sacral region to reduce the pain along the path of the nerve.",CPT +64566,Neurostimulator Procedures on the Peripheral Nerves.,"In this procedure, the provider applies electrical stimulation to the posterior tibial nerve by inserting a needle electrode through the skin.",CPT +64568,Neurostimulator Procedures on the Peripheral Nerves.,"The provider uses an open approach to implant a cranial nerve neurostimulator electrode array and also implants a programmable pulse generator. The provider may perform this service to treat seizures, depression, and other disorders.",CPT +64569,Neurostimulator Procedures on the Peripheral Nerves.,The provider replaces or revises a vagus nerve electrode array and its connections to an existing pulse generator.  This service is generally done for an electrode array or pulse generator component malfunction or infection the patient develops from the implanted device.,CPT +64570,Neurostimulator Procedures on the Peripheral Nerves.,The provider removes a vagus nerve electrode array and existing pulse generator. Report this service only when the provider removes both the electrode array and the pulse generator without replacing them. This service may be done due to infection or the patient is unresponsive or intolerant to treatment.,CPT +64575,Neurostimulator Procedures on the Peripheral Nerves.,"The provider uses an open approach to implant a peripheral nerve neurostimulator electrode array. The provider may perform this service to treat chronic pain. This procedure is not done on a sacral nerve, one of a group of five paired nerves that arise on both sides of the spinal cord.",CPT +64580,Neurostimulator Procedures on the Peripheral Nerves.,"The provider uses an open approach to implant a neuromuscular neurostimulator electrode array. This service is done for various reasons, such as to prevent or slow muscle atrophy or to relax muscle spasms through treatment of a motor nerve, or to decrease pain by treatment of a sensory nerve.",CPT +64581,Neurostimulator Procedures on the Peripheral Nerves.,"The provider uses an open approach to implant a sacral nerve neurostimulator electrode array. Placement is transforaminal, meaning through the foramen (the opening sacral nerves run through). This service is often done to treat conditions such as urinary or fecal incontinence or chronic pelvic pain.",CPT +64582,Neurostimulator Procedures on the Peripheral Nerves.,"The provider uses an open approach to implant a hypoglossal nerve neurostimulator electrode array and also implants a programmable pulse generator and one or more distal respiratory sensor electrodes. The hypoglossal nerve innervates the tongue, and the provider may perform this service to treat sleep apnea, in which breathing stops intermittently during sleep.",CPT +64583,Neurostimulator Procedures on the Peripheral Nerves.,"The provider revises or replaces a hypoglossal nerve neurostimulator electrode array and one or more distal respiratory sensor electrodes, including connection to an existing pulse generator. The hypoglossal nerve innervates the tongue, and the provider may perform this service to treat sleep apnea, in which breathing stops intermittently during sleep.",CPT +64584,Neurostimulator Procedures on the Peripheral Nerves.,"The provider removes a hypoglossal nerve neurostimulator electrode array, pulse generator, and a distal respiratory sensor electrode or electrode array. The hypoglossal nerve innervates the tongue, and the provider may have used the system to treat sleep apnea, in which breathing stops intermittently during sleep.",CPT +64585,Neurostimulator Procedures on the Peripheral Nerves.,"The provider revises or removes a neurostimulator electrode array on a peripheral nerve, the portion of the nervous system lying outside the brain and spinal cord. This service is generally done for a neurostimulator component malfunction or because the patient develops an infection related to neurostimulator placement.",CPT +64590,Neurostimulator Procedures on the Peripheral Nerves.,"The provider inserts or replaces a peripheral, sacral, or gastric neurostimulator pulse generator or receiver. The system is one that requires surgical creation of a pocket for placement and that requires a connection between the electrode array and the pulse generator or receiver.",CPT +64595,Neurostimulator Procedures on the Peripheral Nerves.,"The provider revises or removes a peripheral, sacral, or gastric neurostimulator pulse generator or receiver. The system is one that requires surgical creation of a pocket for placement and that has a connection between the electrode array and the pulse generator or receiver.",CPT +64596,Neurostimulator Procedures on the Peripheral Nerves.,The provider percutaneously inserts or replaces an integrated neurostimulation system that stimulates a peripheral nerve. This code includes imaging guidance and applies to the first or only electrode array.,CPT +64597,Neurostimulator Procedures on the Peripheral Nerves.,"At the same session that the provider percutaneously inserts or replaces an integrated neurostimulation system that stimulates a peripheral nerve, the provider inserts or replaces an additional electrode array. This code includes imaging guidance and applies to each additional electrode array after the first.",CPT +64598,Neurostimulator Procedures on the Peripheral Nerves.,The provider revises or removes an integrated neurostimulation system that stimulates a peripheral nerve. This code includes imaging guidance and applies to the first or only electrode array.,CPT +64600,"Destruction by Neurolytic Agent (eg, Chemical, Thermal, Electrical or Radiofrequency) Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.","The provider destroys part of a nerve by injecting a neurodestructive agent at or near the trigeminal nerve, a cranial nerve responsible for sensation and some motor functions in the face. This service is generally done to obstruct motor function in the face or scalp. Providers also perform it to relieve extreme nerve pain associated with a condition known as trigeminal neuralgia, also called tic douloureux, a chronic and extremely painful condition of the face associated with a nerve injury or lesion.",CPT +64605,"Destruction by Neurolytic Agent (eg, Chemical, Thermal, Electrical or Radiofrequency) Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.","The provider destroys part of a nerve by injecting a neurodestructive agent at or near a part of the trigeminal nerve, a cranial nerve responsible for sensation and some motor functions in the face. This service is generally done to obstruct motor function in the face or scalp. Providers also perform it to relieve extreme nerve pain caused by trigeminal neuralgia, also called tic douloureux, a chronic and extremely painful condition of the face associated with a nerve injury or lesion.",CPT +64610,"Destruction by Neurolytic Agent (eg, Chemical, Thermal, Electrical or Radiofrequency) Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.","The provider destroys part of a nerve by injecting a neurodestructive agent under imaging guidance at or near a part of the trigeminal nerve, a cranial nerve responsible for sensation and some motor functions in the face. This service is generally done to obstruct motor function in the face or scalp. Providers also perform it to relieve extreme nerve pain caused by trigeminal neuralgia, also called tic douloureux, a chronic and extremely painful condition of the face associated with a nerve injury or lesion.",CPT +64611,"Destruction by Neurolytic Agent (eg, Chemical, Thermal, Electrical or Radiofrequency) Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.",The provider administers a chemical compound to the parotid and submandibular salivary glands bilaterally to decrease the amount of saliva produced and reduce the risk of aspiration.,CPT +64612,"Destruction by Neurolytic Agent (eg, Chemical, Thermal, Electrical or Radiofrequency) Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.","In this procedure, the provider injects a chemical on one side of the face to disable the facial nerve and relieve painful facial nerve disorders or abnormal involuntary movements of facial muscles.",CPT +64615,"Destruction by Neurolytic Agent (eg, Chemical, Thermal, Electrical or Radiofrequency) Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.","The provider bilaterally administers a chemical compound to the muscles innervated by the trigeminal, facial, cervical spinal, and accessory nerves. The goal of this procedure is to paralyze the muscles. Providers may treat chronic migraines using this method.",CPT +64616,"Destruction by Neurolytic Agent (eg, Chemical, Thermal, Electrical or Radiofrequency) Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.","The provider administers a chemical compound to the neck muscles on one side, avoiding the laryngeal muscles. The goal of this procedure is to paralyze the muscles. Providers may treat cervical dystonia (a sustained contraction of the neck muscles) or spasmodic torticollis (a painful, sustained contraction of neck muscles that causes the neck and head to involuntarily twist to one side and/or up or down).",CPT +64617,"Destruction by Neurolytic Agent (eg, Chemical, Thermal, Electrical or Radiofrequency) Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.","The provider performs percutaneous chemodenervation of the larynx on one side, which may be guided by needle electromyography.",CPT +64620,"Destruction by Neurolytic Agent (eg, Chemical, Thermal, Electrical or Radiofrequency) Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.","The provider uses a chemical, heat, or radiofrequency technique to destroy the intercostal nerve. Intercostal nerve blocks are commonly used for bone pain or neuralgia.",CPT +64624,"Destruction by Neurolytic Agent (eg, Chemical, Thermal, Electrical or Radiofrequency) Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.","The provider uses a chemical, heat, or radiofrequency as a neurolytic agent to destroy branches of the genicular nerves that supply the knee joint; imaging guidance is included, if performed, so it should not be reported separately.",CPT +64625,"Destruction by Neurolytic Agent (eg, Chemical, Thermal, Electrical or Radiofrequency) Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.","The provider destroys the nerves innervating (supplying) the sacroiliac joint with radiofrequency ablation, that is, the use of heat produced by focused radio waves (a type of electromagnetic wave) to destroy areas of abnormal, damaged, or diseased tissue.",CPT +64628,"Destruction by Neurolytic Agent (eg, Chemical, Thermal, Electrical or Radiofrequency) Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.",The provider uses a thermal (heat) method under imaging guidance to destroy an intraosseous basivertebral nerve. Use this code for the first two lumbar or sacral vertebral bodies treated at a session.,CPT +64629,"Destruction by Neurolytic Agent (eg, Chemical, Thermal, Electrical or Radiofrequency) Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.",The provider uses a thermal (heat) method under imaging guidance to destroy an intraosseous basivertebral nerve. Use this code for each additional lumbar or sacral vertebral body treated after the first two at a session.,CPT +64630,"Destruction by Neurolytic Agent (eg, Chemical, Thermal, Electrical or Radiofrequency) Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.","Neurolysis is the destruction of nerves responsible for carrying pain information. The destruction includes the use of chemical, heat, or radiofrequency techniques.",CPT +64632,"Destruction by Neurolytic Agent (eg, Chemical, Thermal, Electrical or Radiofrequency) Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.","Neurolysis is the destruction of the nerves that are responsible for carrying pain. This destruction includes the use of chemical, heat, or radiofrequency techniques.",CPT +64633,"Destruction by Neurolytic Agent (eg, Chemical, Thermal, Electrical or Radiofrequency) Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.","In this procedure, the provider destroys the facet joint nerve of a cervical or thoracic spinal segment using neurolytic agents like heat, electric current, or a chemical compound. He makes use of imaging guidance, either fluoroscopy or CT scan. He performs the injection on a single facet joint.",CPT +64634,"Destruction by Neurolytic Agent (eg, Chemical, Thermal, Electrical or Radiofrequency) Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.","In this add on procedure, the provider destroys the facet joint nerve of a cervical or thoracic spinal segment using neurolytic agents like heat, electric current, or a chemical compound. He makes use of imaging guidance, either fluoroscopy or CT scan. He injects the additional facet joint level, after the initial, separately reportable single facet joint neurolytic injection.",CPT +64635,"Destruction by Neurolytic Agent (eg, Chemical, Thermal, Electrical or Radiofrequency) Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.","Under fluoroscopic or CT guidance, the provider applies an agent to a lower back joint to destroy nerve tissue.",CPT +64636,"Destruction by Neurolytic Agent (eg, Chemical, Thermal, Electrical or Radiofrequency) Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.","In this add on procedure, the provider destroys the facet joint nerve of a lumbar or sacral spinal segment using neurolytic agents like heat, electric current, or a chemical compound. He makes use of imaging guidance, either fluoroscopy or CT scan. He injects the additional facet joint level, after the initial, separately reportable single facet joint neurolytic injection.",CPT +64640,"Destruction by Neurolytic Agent (eg, Chemical, Thermal, Electrical or Radiofrequency) Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.","Neurolysis is the destruction of nerves responsible for carrying pain information. The destruction includes the use of chemical, heat, or radiofrequency techniques.",CPT +64642,"Destruction by Neurolytic Agent (eg, Chemical, Thermal, Electrical or Radiofrequency) Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.","The provider injects a chemical, such as Botox®, into one to four muscles of one extremity to relieve a patient's pain and spasms.",CPT +64643,"Destruction by Neurolytic Agent (eg, Chemical, Thermal, Electrical or Radiofrequency) Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.","The provider injects a chemical, such as Botox®, into one to four muscles of an additional extremity after the first to relieve a patient's pain and spasms.",CPT +64644,"Destruction by Neurolytic Agent (eg, Chemical, Thermal, Electrical or Radiofrequency) Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.","The provider injects a chemical, such as Botox®, into 5 or more muscles of one extremity to relieve a patient's pain and spasms.",CPT +64645,"Destruction by Neurolytic Agent (eg, Chemical, Thermal, Electrical or Radiofrequency) Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.","The provider injects a chemical, such as Botox®, into 5 or more muscles of an additional extremity after the first to relieve a patient's pain and spasms.",CPT +64646,"Destruction by Neurolytic Agent (eg, Chemical, Thermal, Electrical or Radiofrequency) Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.","The provider injects a chemical, such as Botox®, into one to five muscles in the trunk to relieve a patient's pain and spasms.",CPT +64647,"Destruction by Neurolytic Agent (eg, Chemical, Thermal, Electrical or Radiofrequency) Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.","The provider injects a chemical, such as Botox®, into 6 or more muscles in the trunk to relieve a patient's pain and spasms.",CPT +64650,"Destruction by Neurolytic Agent (eg, Chemical, Thermal, Electrical or Radiofrequency) Procedures on the Sympathetic Nerves.","In this procedure, the provider administers a chemical compound to the eccrine glands in both axillae, or armpits, to treat hyperhidrosis, a condition characterized by abnormally excessive sweating.",CPT +64653,"Destruction by Neurolytic Agent (eg, Chemical, Thermal, Electrical or Radiofrequency) Procedures on the Sympathetic Nerves.","In this procedure, the provider administers a chemical compound to the eccrine glands in areas other than the axillae to treat hyperhidrosis, a condition characterized by abnormally excessive sweating.",CPT +64680,"Destruction by Neurolytic Agent (eg, Chemical, Thermal, Electrical or Radiofrequency) Procedures on the Sympathetic Nerves.","The provider destroys the celiac plexus by injecting it with a neurodestructive agent. The celiac plexus is a cluster of ganglia and radiating nerves in the abdomen. The procedure reduces the patient’s sensation of abdominal pain. This service is done for severe chronic abdominal pain that abdominal cancer, chronic pancreatic or other conditions cause. The provider may use imaging guidance for this procedure.",CPT +64681,"Destruction by Neurolytic Agent (eg, Chemical, Thermal, Electrical or Radiofrequency) Procedures on the Sympathetic Nerves.","The provider destroys the superior hypogastric plexus by injecting it with a neurodestructive agent, which may be chemical, thermal, or electrical. The superior hypogastric plexus is part of the thoracolumbar sympathetic chain of the autonomic nervous system. The procedure reduces the patient’s sensation of pelvic pain. This service is done for conditions such as malignancy or endometriosis. The provider may use imaging guidance for this procedure.",CPT +64702,"Neuroplasty (Exploration, Neurolysis or Nerve Decompression) Procedures on the Extracranial Nerves, Peripheral Nerves, and Autonomic Nervous System.","In this procedure, the provider uses an open approach to incise scar tissue or other sources of pressure to relieve tension on one or both digital nerves in a single finger or toe. Digital nerves are sensory nerves that run along each side of a finger or toe along with arteries and innervate the fingers and thumb.",CPT +64704,"Neuroplasty (Exploration, Neurolysis or Nerve Decompression) Procedures on the Extracranial Nerves, Peripheral Nerves, and Autonomic Nervous System.","In this procedure, the provider uses an open approach to incise scar tissue or other sources of pressure to relieve tension on a nerve in a hand or foot. The nerves of the hand or foot include both sensory and motor nerves that innervate the back and the palm of the hand.",CPT +64708,"Neuroplasty (Exploration, Neurolysis or Nerve Decompression) Procedures on the Extracranial Nerves, Peripheral Nerves, and Autonomic Nervous System.","In this procedure, the provider uses an open approach to incise scar tissue or other sources of pressure to relieve tension on a major peripheral nerve in an arm or leg, and at a location other than those identified by another CPT® code. The major peripheral nerves are a group of seven paired nerves that arise from the spinal nerves and innervate, or supply, nerves to the organs and other body parts.",CPT +64712,"Neuroplasty (Exploration, Neurolysis or Nerve Decompression) Procedures on the Extracranial Nerves, Peripheral Nerves, and Autonomic Nervous System.","In this procedure, the provider uses an open approach to incise scar tissue or other sources of pressure to relieve tension on the sciatic nerve, a major peripheral nerve in the leg.",CPT +64713,"Neuroplasty (Exploration, Neurolysis or Nerve Decompression) Procedures on the Extracranial Nerves, Peripheral Nerves, and Autonomic Nervous System.","In this procedure, the provider uses an open approach to incise scar tissue or other sources of pressure to relieve tension on the brachial plexus, a network of peripheral nerves that run from the neck to the hand.",CPT +64714,"Neuroplasty (Exploration, Neurolysis or Nerve Decompression) Procedures on the Extracranial Nerves, Peripheral Nerves, and Autonomic Nervous System.","In this procedure, the provider uses an open approach to incise scar tissue or other sources of pressure to relieve tension on the lumbar plexus, a network of nerves that innervate the upper leg and other areas.",CPT +64716,"Neuroplasty (Exploration, Neurolysis or Nerve Decompression) Procedures on the Extracranial Nerves, Peripheral Nerves, and Autonomic Nervous System.","In this procedure, the provider relieves the pressure on a cranial nerve by incising the scar tissue or other source of pressure. He may also transpose the nerve to a nearby area so it’s in a more suitable area, free of pressure.",CPT +64718,"Neuroplasty (Exploration, Neurolysis or Nerve Decompression) Procedures on the Extracranial Nerves, Peripheral Nerves, and Autonomic Nervous System.","In this procedure, the provider uses an open approach to incise scar tissue or other sources of pressure to relieve tension on the ulnar nerve at the elbow, which an injury or swelling within the joint can cause. The ulnar nerve is one of the seven major peripheral nerves that innervates the skin and muscles of the middle of the arm, the forearm, and hand, plus the little finger and ring finger.",CPT +64719,"Neuroplasty (Exploration, Neurolysis or Nerve Decompression) Procedures on the Extracranial Nerves, Peripheral Nerves, and Autonomic Nervous System.","In this procedure, the provider uses an open approach to incise scar tissue or other sources of pressure to relieve tension on the ulnar nerve at the wrist. The ulnar nerve is one of the seven major peripheral nerves that innervates the skin and muscles of the middle of the arm, the forearm, and hand, plus the little finger and ring finger.",CPT +64721,"Neuroplasty (Exploration, Neurolysis or Nerve Decompression) Procedures on the Extracranial Nerves, Peripheral Nerves, and Autonomic Nervous System.","Neuroplasty or transposition of the median nerve at the carpal tunnel is done to treat a condition called carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS). The carpal tunnel is a narrow tunnel in the wrist through which the median nerve and nine flexor tendons of the hand pass. The tendons include the four flexor digitorum superficialis tendons, four flexor digitorum profundus tendons, and one flexor pollicis longus tendon. The top of the tunnel over the median nerve is covered by the transverse carpal ligament. Inflammation of any of these tendons results in the compression of the median nerve or CTS in which the patient feels numbness and weakness of the muscles in the hand. CTS may be caused due to disease conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis, acromegaly, hypothyroidism, and amyloidosis; or due to work–related conditions that require repetitive movement of fingers such as working long hours on computer keyboards or playing keyboard instruments like the piano.",CPT +64722,"Neuroplasty (Exploration, Neurolysis or Nerve Decompression) Procedures on the Extracranial Nerves, Peripheral Nerves, and Autonomic Nervous System.","In this procedure, the provider performs a decompression of an unspecified nerve, freeing it from surrounding ligaments, which are exerting pressure on the nerve. The provider specifies the nerve decompressed in his documentation.",CPT +64726,"Neuroplasty (Exploration, Neurolysis or Nerve Decompression) Procedures on the Extracranial Nerves, Peripheral Nerves, and Autonomic Nervous System.","In this procedure, the provider performs a decompression of the plantar digital nerve, which passes in between two toes. He frees it from surrounding ligaments, which are exerting pressure on the nerve.",CPT +64727,"Neuroplasty (Exploration, Neurolysis or Nerve Decompression) Procedures on the Extracranial Nerves, Peripheral Nerves, and Autonomic Nervous System.",The provider excises scar tissue from within and between the nerve fibers in the protective nerve sheath using an operating microscope and microsurgical techniques. This procedure may be done during repair of a nerve compression injury to optimize nerve regeneration.,CPT +64732,"Transection or Avulsion Procedures on the Extracranial Nerves, Peripheral Nerves, and Autonomic Nervous System.","In this procedure, the provider transects or forcibly tears the infraorbital nerve to give relief from facial pain by diminishing the sensation.",CPT +64734,"Transection or Avulsion Procedures on the Extracranial Nerves, Peripheral Nerves, and Autonomic Nervous System.","In this procedure, the provider transects or forcibly tears the infraorbital nerve to give relief from facial pain by diminishing the sensation.",CPT +64736,"Transection or Avulsion Procedures on the Extracranial Nerves, Peripheral Nerves, and Autonomic Nervous System.","In this procedure, the provider transects or forcibly tears the mental nerve to give relief from a facial pain by diminishing the sensation.",CPT +64738,"Transection or Avulsion Procedures on the Extracranial Nerves, Peripheral Nerves, and Autonomic Nervous System.","In this procedure, the provider transects or forcibly tears the inferior alveolar nerve by cutting or drilling a hole in the mandible bone to give relief from facial pain by diminishing the sensation.",CPT +64740,"Transection or Avulsion Procedures on the Extracranial Nerves, Peripheral Nerves, and Autonomic Nervous System.","In this procedure, the provider transects or forcibly tears the lingual nerve to give relief from facial pain by diminishing the sensation.",CPT +64742,"Transection or Avulsion Procedures on the Extracranial Nerves, Peripheral Nerves, and Autonomic Nervous System.","In this procedure, the provider transects or forcibly tears the facial nerve or any branch of the facial nerve to give relief from facial pain by diminishing the sensation.",CPT +64744,"Transection or Avulsion Procedures on the Extracranial Nerves, Peripheral Nerves, and Autonomic Nervous System.","In this procedure, the provider severs or forcibly tears the greater occipital nerve to give relief from recurrent head and neck pain that occipital neuralgia, an inflammation or injury to the occipital nerves, can cause.",CPT +64746,"Transection or Avulsion Procedures on the Extracranial Nerves, Peripheral Nerves, and Autonomic Nervous System.","The provider severs or removes a portion of the phrenic nerve, paralyzing the diaphragm on one side. The procedure may be done to collapse a diseased lung during an extended thoracic surgery or to replace or repair a damaged or diseased nerve.",CPT +64755,"Transection or Avulsion Procedures on the Extracranial Nerves, Peripheral Nerves, and Autonomic Nervous System.",The provider severs or removes one or more branches of the vagus nerve nearest to the stomach to reduce the rate of gastric secretion when it cannot be reduced by other means to treat ulcers.,CPT +64760,"Transection or Avulsion Procedures on the Extracranial Nerves, Peripheral Nerves, and Autonomic Nervous System.",The provider severs or removes one or more branches of the vagus nerve through the abdomen to reduce the rate of gastric secretion when it cannot be reduced by other means to treat ulcers.,CPT +64763,"Transection or Avulsion Procedures on the Extracranial Nerves, Peripheral Nerves, and Autonomic Nervous System.",The provider severs or removes part of the obturator nerve through an incision in the buttocks and thigh to treat groin pain caused by damage or entrapment of the nerve. The procedure may also include a release of the tendon of the adductor muscle.,CPT +64766,"Transection or Avulsion Procedures on the Extracranial Nerves, Peripheral Nerves, and Autonomic Nervous System.",The provider severs or removes part of the obturator nerve through an incision in the pelvis to treat groin pain caused by damage or entrapment of the nerve. The procedure may include a release of the tendon of the adductor muscle.,CPT +64771,"Transection or Avulsion Procedures on the Extracranial Nerves, Peripheral Nerves, and Autonomic Nervous System.",The provider severs or removes other cranial nerves that are not listed elsewhere within CPT®.,CPT +64772,"Transection or Avulsion Procedures on the Extracranial Nerves, Peripheral Nerves, and Autonomic Nervous System.",The provider severs or removes other spinal nerves that are not identified in other codes within CPT®.,CPT +64774,Excision and Implantation Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.,"The provider removes a tumor or mass growing from a nerve that supplies a region of the skin. The growth on this mixed peripheral nerve may be caused by trauma, amputation, or surgery.",CPT +64776,Excision and Implantation Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.,The provider removes a tumor or mass growing on a nerve in a finger or a toe to relieve pain and restore nerve function lost from trauma.,CPT +64778,Excision and Implantation Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.,The provider removes another tumor or mass growing on a peripheral nerve in a different finger or toe following removal of an initial neuroma at the same session. The procedure relieves pain and restores nerve function lost from a neuroma that occurs when the digits experience injury or trauma.,CPT +64782,Excision and Implantation Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.,"The provider removes a tumor or mass growing on a peripheral nerve of the hand or foot. The procedure relieves pain and restores nerve function lost from a neuroma, which injury or trauma caused.",CPT +64783,Excision and Implantation Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.,"The provider removes another tumor or mass growing on a different peripheral nerve of the hand or foot following removal of an initial neuroma at the same session. The procedure relieves pain and restores nerve function lost from a neuroma caused by injury or trauma. The code does not include neuromas found in the fingers or toes, known as digital neuromas.",CPT +64784,Excision and Implantation Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.,The provider removes a tumor or mass growing on one of the seven major peripheral nerves of the body other than the sciatic nerve. The procedure relieves pain and restores nerve function lost from a neuroma caused by injury or trauma.,CPT +64786,Excision and Implantation Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.,The provider removes a tumor or mass growing on the sciatic nerve. The procedure relieves pain and restores nerve function lost from a neuroma that is caused by injury or trauma.,CPT +64787,Excision and Implantation Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.,"Following  separately reportable neuroma excision at the same session, the provider implants a transected nerve end into the bone or muscle in an area away from the threat of repeated injury or trauma. The procedure prevents the recurrence of a neuroma, minimizes the formation of scar tissue, and/or prevents regeneration of the nerve.",CPT +64788,Excision and Implantation Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.,The provider excises a tumor just under the skin and growing along a cutaneous nerve.,CPT +64790,Excision and Implantation Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.,The provider excises a tumor growing along or in the nerve sheath of a major peripheral nerve.,CPT +64792,Excision and Implantation Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.,The provider excises an extensive benign or malignant tumor growing along or in the nerve sheath of a nerve.,CPT +64795,Excision and Implantation Procedures on the Somatic Nerves.,"The provider excises or removes a small sample of a nerve for laboratory examination. This test helps diagnose conditions such as nerve damage, degeneration, or inflammatory nerve conditions.",CPT +64802,Excision Procedures on the Sympathetic Nerves.,"The provider removes or destroys a portion of the cervical sympathetic nerve, which  is part of the sympathetic nerve chain. The procedure relieves pain or increases blood flow in a patient with narrowed blood vessels.",CPT +64804,Excision Procedures on the Sympathetic Nerves.,"The provider removes or destroys a portion of the cervicothoracic nerve, which is part of the cervical and thoracic sympathetic nerve chains. The procedure relieves pain or increases blood flow in a patient with narrowed blood vessels.",CPT +64809,Excision Procedures on the Sympathetic Nerves.,"The provider removes or destroys a portion of the thoracolumbar sympathetic nerve, which is part of the sympathetic nerve chain. The procedure relieves pain or increases blood flow in a patient with narrowed blood vessels.",CPT +64818,Excision Procedures on the Sympathetic Nerves.,"The provider removes or destroys a portion of the lumbar sympathetic nerve, which is part of the sympathetic nerve chain. The procedure relieves pain or increases blood flow in a patient with narrowed blood vessels.",CPT +64820,Excision Procedures on the Sympathetic Nerves.,The provider removes or destroys connections between the digital nerves and digital arteries of the fingers. This procedure relieves pain or increases blood flow as a result of narrowed blood vessels.,CPT +64821,Excision Procedures on the Sympathetic Nerves.,The provider removes or destroys sympathetic nerves of the radial artery. The procedure relieves pain or increases blood flow in a patient with narrowed blood vessels.,CPT +64822,Excision Procedures on the Sympathetic Nerves.,The provider removes or destroys sympathetic nerves of the ulnar artery. The procedure relieves pain or increases blood flow in a patient with narrowed blood vessels.,CPT +64823,Excision Procedures on the Sympathetic Nerves.,The provider removes or destroys sympathetic nerves of the superficial palmar arch of the hand. The procedure relieves pain or increases blood flow in a patient with narrowed blood vessels.,CPT +64831,Neurorrhaphy Procedures.,The provider repairs a nerve in a finger or toe. The procedure restores sensory and/or motor functions when the nerves become damaged or severed as a result of injury or trauma.,CPT +64832,Neurorrhaphy Procedures.,The provider repairs another nerve in a finger or toe after repair of an initial nerve repair at the same session. The procedure restores sensory and/or motor functions when the nerves become damaged or severed as a result of injury or trauma.,CPT +64834,Neurorrhaphy Procedures.,The provider repairs a sensory nerve in the hand or foot to restore sensory functions. The procedure restores sensory functions when the nerves become damaged or severed as a result of injury or trauma.,CPT +64835,Neurorrhaphy Procedures.,The provider repairs a nerve in the branch of the median nerve that innervates the muscles associated with movement of the thumb. The procedure restores sensory and/or motor functions when the nerves become damaged or severed  as a result of injury or trauma.,CPT +64836,Neurorrhaphy Procedures.,"The provider uses suturing to repair the ulnar motor nerve, which innervates many muscles of the hand as well as certain forearm muscles.",CPT +64837,Neurorrhaphy Procedures.,"As an add–on to an initial hand nerve repair or foot nerve repair, the provider repairs an additional nerve at the same session using sutures.",CPT +64840,Neurorrhaphy Procedures.,"The provider uses suturing to repair the posterior tibial nerve, which originates from the sciatic nerve and innervates the rear portion of the lower extremities.",CPT +64856,Neurorrhaphy Procedures.,"The provider uses suturing to repair a major peripheral nerve of the arm or leg, other than the sciatic nerve. The physician also transposes the nerve, moving it to a more suitable area nearby.",CPT +64857,Neurorrhaphy Procedures.,"The provider uses suturing to repair a major peripheral nerve of the arm or leg, other than the sciatic nerve.",CPT +64858,Neurorrhaphy Procedures.,"The provider repairs damage to the sciatic nerve, which trauma, lesions, infection, or other conditions can cause.",CPT +64859,Neurorrhaphy Procedures.,"The provider repairs damage to additional peripheral nerves, which trauma, lesions, infection, or other conditions can cause. This code is an add–on code.",CPT +64861,Neurorrhaphy Procedures.,"The provider repairs damage to the brachial plexus, which trauma, lesions, infection, or other conditions can cause.",CPT +64862,Neurorrhaphy Procedures.,"The provider repairs damage to the lumbar plexus, which trauma, lesions, infection, or other conditions can cause.",CPT +64864,Neurorrhaphy Procedures.,"The provider repairs damage to a facial nerve or a nerve in the external cranium, which trauma, lesions, infection, or other conditions can cause.",CPT +64865,Neurorrhaphy Procedures.,The provider repairs and may graft the facial nerve located in the temple. The procedure restores sensory and/or motor functions when the nerve becomes damaged or severed as a result of trauma or a facial nerve tumor.,CPT +64866,Neurorrhaphy Procedures.,"The provider makes a surgical connection between the facial nerve and the spinal accessory nerve, which do not naturally connect. This procedure restores facial motor function after facial nerve loss from a tumor or injury that causes paralysis.",CPT +64868,Neurorrhaphy Procedures.,"The provider makes a surgical connection between the facial nerve and the hypoglossal nerve, which do not naturally connect. This procedure restores facial motor function after facial nerve loss from a tumor or injury that causes paralysis.",CPT +64872,Neurorrhaphy Procedures.,"The provider repairs a nerve after circumstances or medical necessity delay initial repair of the nerve. A secondary or delayed repair may be intentional because of the patient’s condition, because of a contaminated or infected wound, or in the case of a severe traction or crushing injury. Such a repair may also occur as a result of a delayed presentation of the injury or a prolonged interval between the injury and the patient seeking care. The procedure restores sensory and/or motor functions when the nerves become damaged or severed usually as a result of injury or trauma.",CPT +64874,Neurorrhaphy Procedures.,The provider repairs a portion of a nerve that is too short and can’t reconnect without tension by freeing the nerve from the nerve bed or repositioning the nerve in the bed. This restores sensory and/or motor functions when the nerves become damaged or severed as a result of injury or trauma.,CPT +64876,Neurorrhaphy Procedures.,The provider repairs a portion of a nerve that is too short and can’t reconnect without tension by excising part of a nearby bone to create length in the injured nerve to connect the nerve ends.,CPT +64885,"Neurorrhaphy With Nerve Graft, Vein Graft or Conduit Procedures.",The provider uses a healthy nerve segment up to 4cm long to replace a damaged portion of a nerve in the head or neck. The procedure restores sensory and/or motor functions when the nerves become damaged or severed as a result of injury or trauma.,CPT +64886,"Neurorrhaphy With Nerve Graft, Vein Graft or Conduit Procedures.",The provider uses a healthy nerve segment that is longer than 4cm to replace a damaged portion of a nerve in the head or neck. The procedure restores sensory and/or motor functions when the nerves become damaged or severed as a result of injury or trauma.,CPT +64890,"Neurorrhaphy With Nerve Graft, Vein Graft or Conduit Procedures.",The provider uses a healthy nerve segment that is no longer than 4 cm in length to replace a damaged portion of a nerve in a hand or foot. The procedure restores sensory and or motor functions when the nerves become damaged or severed as a result of injury or trauma.,CPT +64891,"Neurorrhaphy With Nerve Graft, Vein Graft or Conduit Procedures.",The provider uses a healthy nerve segment that is longer than 4cm in length to replace a damaged portion of a nerve in a hand or foot. The procedure restores sensory and/or motor functions when the nerves become damaged or severed as a result of injury or trauma.,CPT +64892,"Neurorrhaphy With Nerve Graft, Vein Graft or Conduit Procedures.","In this procedure, the provider uses a single strand nerve graft, a portion of unrelated nerve, to bridge or repair the injured portion of a nerve of an arm or leg. The size of the nerve graft is up to 4 cm in length.",CPT +64893,"Neurorrhaphy With Nerve Graft, Vein Graft or Conduit Procedures.","In this procedure, the provider uses a single strand nerve graft, a portion of unrelated nerve to bridge or repair the injured portion of a nerve of an arm or leg. The size of the nerve graft is greater than 4 cm in length.",CPT +64895,"Neurorrhaphy With Nerve Graft, Vein Graft or Conduit Procedures.","In this procedure, the provider uses a multiple strand nerve graft, a nerve graft made up of several sections of nerve in the manner of a cable, to repair the damaged portion of a nerve of the hand or foot. The size of the nerve graft is up to 4 cm in length.",CPT +64896,"Neurorrhaphy With Nerve Graft, Vein Graft or Conduit Procedures.","In this procedure, the provider uses a multiple strand nerve graft, a nerve graft made up of several sections of nerve in the manner of a cable, to repair the damaged portion of a nerve of the hand or foot. The size of the nerve graft is greater than 4 cm in length.",CPT +64897,"Neurorrhaphy With Nerve Graft, Vein Graft or Conduit Procedures.","In this procedure, the provider uses a multiple strand nerve graft technique to repair the damaged portion of a nerve of an arm or leg. The size of the nerve graft is up to 4 cm in length.",CPT +64898,"Neurorrhaphy With Nerve Graft, Vein Graft or Conduit Procedures.","In this procedure, the provider uses a multiple strand nerve graft technique to repair the damaged portion of a nerve in an arm or leg. The size of the nerve graft is more than 4 cm in length.",CPT +64901,"Neurorrhaphy With Nerve Graft, Vein Graft or Conduit Procedures.","The provider makes another single strand nerve graft repair, using a portion of unrelated nerve, to bridge or repair the injured portion of a subsequent nerve. This occurs at the same session as an initial bridge, or repair, of an initial nerve.",CPT +64902,"Neurorrhaphy With Nerve Graft, Vein Graft or Conduit Procedures.","The provider makes another multiple strand nerve graft repair, using a portion of unrelated nerve, to bridge, or repair, the injured portion of a subsequent nerve. This occurs at the same session as an initial bridge, or repair, of an initial nerve.",CPT +64905,"Neurorrhaphy With Nerve Graft, Vein Graft or Conduit Procedures.","The provider transfers a portion of a less important, healthy, donor nerve to a damaged recipient nerve to help the nerve tissue reconnect faster and recover its function faster. This procedure is often done for complex injuries such as a brachial plexus injury that causes an irreparable nerve laceration, or compression, or when the nerve root has been torn from the spinal cord.",CPT +64907,"Neurorrhaphy With Nerve Graft, Vein Graft or Conduit Procedures.","The provider reverses the transfer of a donor nerve to a damaged recipient nerve after restoration of the damaged nerve. This procedure is often done for complex injuries such as a brachial plexus injury that causes an irreparable nerve laceration, or compression, or when the nerve root has been torn from the spinal cord.",CPT +64910,"Neurorrhaphy With Nerve Graft, Vein Graft or Conduit Procedures.","In this procedure, the provider uses an artificial tube or passageway or vein from a living or cadaveric source , to fill a nerve gap and repair a nerve.",CPT +64911,"Neurorrhaphy With Nerve Graft, Vein Graft or Conduit Procedures.","In this procedure, the provider uses an autogenous vein graft, which is a vein graft obtained from within the patient’s body, to repair a nerve.",CPT +64912,"Neurorrhaphy With Nerve Graft, Vein Graft or Conduit Procedures.","In this procedure, the provider uses a nerve tissue graft, harvested from a cadaveric or a living donor, to repair a nerve. This code is for the first strand of each nerve graft repair.",CPT +64913,"Neurorrhaphy With Nerve Graft, Vein Graft or Conduit Procedures.","In this procedure, the provider uses a nerve tissue graft, harvested from a cadaveric or a living donor, to repair a nerve. This code is for each additional nerve strand after the first.",CPT +64999,Other Procedures of the Nervous System.,Use to report procedures in the nervous system that do not have a specific code.,CPT +65091,Removal Procedures of Eye Contents.,"The provider removes the inside of a diseased or damaged eye but leaves the sclera, its fibrous outer covering, and its attached muscles. He does not insert an implant to replace the eye.",CPT +65093,Removal Procedures of Eye Contents.,"The provider removes the inside of a diseased or damaged eye but leaves the sclera, its fibrous outer covering, and its attached muscles. He inserts an ocular implant to fill the empty eye socket.",CPT +65101,Removal Procedures of Eye Contents.,The provider removes a diseased or damaged eyeball with its contents intact. He does not insert an ocular implant to fill the empty eye socket.,CPT +65103,Removal Procedures of Eye Contents.,The provider removes a diseased or damaged eyeball with its contents intact. He inserts an ocular implant to fill the empty eye socket but does not attach it to the muscles.,CPT +65105,Removal Procedures of Eye Contents.,The provider removes a diseased or damaged eyeball with its contents intact. He inserts an ocular implant to fill the empty eye socket and attaches it to the muscles.,CPT +65110,Removal Procedures of Eye Contents.,"In this procedure, the provider removes the contents on one side of the orbit, the bony socket that holds the eyes, due to trauma or disease of the eye, such as a tumor. He does not apply a skin graft.",CPT +65112,Removal Procedures of Eye Contents.,"In this procedure, the provider removes the contents on one side of the orbit, the bony socket that holds the eyes, due to trauma or disease of the eye, such as a tumor. He does not apply a skin graft but does remove excess bone.",CPT +65114,Removal Procedures of Eye Contents.,"In this procedure, the provider removes the contents on one side of the orbit, the bony socket that holds the eyes, due to trauma or disease of the eye, such as a tumor. He does not apply a skin graft but does rearrange the muscle or muscle with attached skin to fill in the defect.",CPT +65125,Secondary Implant(s) Procedures on the Eyeball.,The provider modifies a previously placed ocular implant that fills the empty eye socket. He inserts or replaces previously inserted pegs which attach a prosthetic eye.,CPT +65130,Secondary Implant(s) Procedures on the Eyeball.,"The provider inserts an ocular implant to fill an empty eye socket, typically several months after the eye removal procedure. He wraps the implant in sclera, the fibrous membrane that covers the eye.",CPT +65135,Secondary Implant(s) Procedures on the Eyeball.,"The provider inserts an ocular implant to fill an empty eye socket, typically several months after the eye removal procedure. He does not attach the implant to the muscles that move the eye.",CPT +65140,Secondary Implant(s) Procedures on the Eyeball.,"The provider inserts an ocular implant to fill an empty eye socket, typically several months after the eye removal procedure. He attaches the implant to the muscles that move the eye.",CPT +65150,Secondary Implant(s) Procedures on the Eyeball.,"The provider reinserts an ocular implant that fills an empty eye socket. He applies a graft of the conjunctiva, the membrane that covers the eye, if needed to close the defect.",CPT +65155,Secondary Implant(s) Procedures on the Eyeball.,"The provider reinserts an ocular implant that fills an empty eye socket. He uses foreign material, such as suture or graft, to reinforce the implant or attach the muscles.",CPT +65175,Secondary Implant(s) Procedures on the Eyeball.,"In this procedure, the provider removes an ocular implant, or artificial eye, from inside the muscular cone of extraocular muscles of the eye.",CPT +65205,Removal of Foreign Body Procedures on the Eyeball.,"The provider removes a foreign object from the surface of the conjunctiva, the membrane covering the eye.",CPT +65210,Removal of Foreign Body Procedures on the Eyeball.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a foreign object embedded in or below the conjunctiva, the membrane covering the eye, or in the sclera, the outer covering of the eyeball, but not perforating it.",CPT +65220,Removal of Foreign Body Procedures on the Eyeball.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a foreign object from the cornea without the aid of a slit lamp, a special lighting device designed for viewing the eye.",CPT +65222,Removal of Foreign Body Procedures on the Eyeball.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a foreign object from the cornea with the aid of a slit lamp, a special lighting device designed for viewing the eye.",CPT +65235,Removal of Foreign Body Procedures on the Eyeball.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a foreign object from within the eye, inside the front chamber or from the lens itself.",CPT +65260,Removal of Foreign Body Procedures on the Eyeball.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a metal object from within the posterior segment of the eye using a magnet. He enters the posterior segment from the front or rear of the eye.",CPT +65265,Removal of Foreign Body Procedures on the Eyeball.,"In this procedure, the provider extracts a nonmetallic foreign object from within the posterior segment, or back two thirds, of the eye.",CPT +65270,Repair of Laceration Procedures on the Eyeball.,"In this procedure, the provider repairs a laceration, or tear, in the conjunctiva, the transparent membrane that covers the eye. He brings the wound edges together and sews them in a direct closure. He closes a nonperforating laceration of the sclera, or white of the eye, if present.",CPT +65272,Repair of Laceration Procedures on the Eyeball.,"In this procedure, the provider repairs a laceration, or tear, in the conjunctiva, the transparent membrane that covers the eye. The edges of the jagged wound do not come together directly and require rearranging and moving around of the tissues in order to close them. The procedure does not require hospitalization.",CPT +65273,Repair of Laceration Procedures on the Eyeball.,"In this procedure, the provider repairs a laceration, or tear, in the conjunctiva, the transparent membrane that covers the eye. The edges of the jagged wound do not come together directly and require rearranging and moving around of the tissues in order to close them. The procedure requires hospitalization.",CPT +65275,Repair of Laceration Procedures on the Eyeball.,"In this procedure, the provider repairs a laceration, or tear, in the cornea, the front portion of the eye that focuses light on the lens. He removes a foreign object from the wound if present.",CPT +65280,Repair of Laceration Procedures on the Eyeball.,"The provider removes any foreign body present in the eye, and repairs any injury in the cornea or sclera in the eye.",CPT +65285,Repair of Laceration Procedures on the Eyeball.,"The provider repairs a tear wound in the cornea and or sclera, then repositions or removes some of the vascular middle layer of the eye due to a trauma to the globe.",CPT +65286,Repair of Laceration Procedures on the Eyeball.,"In this procedure, the provider uses a special glue to repair lacerations, or tears in the cornea, the front portion of the eye that focuses light on the lens, and or the sclera, the white of the eye.",CPT +65290,Repair of Laceration Procedures on the Eyeball.,"The provider sutures a wound of the muscle, tendon, and/or Tenon’s capsule of the eye.",CPT +65400,Excision Procedures on the Cornea.,"In this procedure, the provider excises a thin layer from the surface of the cornea, the front portion of the eye that focuses light on the lens, to remove a mass, scar tissue, or other lesion, excluding a pterygium.",CPT +65410,Excision Procedures on the Cornea.,The provider takes samples of suspicious tissues on the cornea to determine the presence of corneal disease. He submits the specimen to a laboratory for analysis.,CPT +65420,Excision Procedures on the Cornea.,"During this procedure, the provider excises or transposes the pterygium to improve patient comfort and vision but does not perform a graft.",CPT +65426,Excision Procedures on the Cornea.,"During this procedure, the provider excises or transposes the pterygium to improve patient comfort and vision and also performs a graft.",CPT +65430,Removal or Destruction Procedures on the Cornea.,"During this procedure, the provider scrapes the cornea to collect a smear or culture for diagnostic purposes.",CPT +65435,Removal or Destruction Procedures on the Cornea.,"During this procedure, the provider removes the corneal epithelium using abrasion or curettage and may or may not perform chemocauterization. This procedure is mainly performed to remove an injured or otherwise damaged epithelial layer from the cornea.",CPT +65436,Removal or Destruction Procedures on the Cornea.,"During this procedure, the provider removes the corneal epithelium by applying a chelating agent, such as EDTA or ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid, to remove an injured or damaged epithelial layer from the cornea.",CPT +65450,Removal or Destruction Procedures on the Cornea.,"The provider removes a corneal lesion using cryotherapy, photocoagulation or thermocauterization. Cryotherapy is the most common therapy used for destruction of a lesion.",CPT +65600,Removal or Destruction Procedures on the Cornea.,"The provider performs multiple punctures to stimulate new growth of corneal cells, especially in cases of recurrent erosion syndrome. In many cases, the provider also performs corneal tattooing for cosmetic reasons, mainly to improve the appearance of the eye.",CPT +65710,Keratoplasty Procedures on the Cornea.,"During this procedure, the provider performs a corneal transplant of the anterior lamellar region. Providers perform this procedure mainly to remove and replace the diseased anterior portion of the cornea.",CPT +65730,Keratoplasty Procedures on the Cornea.,"During this procedure, the provider performs keratoplasty, or corneal transplant, in patients without aphakia or pseudophakia. This procedure is the most common method of corneal tissue transplant and is mainly performed when patients have visual acuity issues secondary to corneal opacity.",CPT +65750,Keratoplasty Procedures on the Cornea.,"During this procedure, the provider performs keratoplasty, or corneal transplant, in patients who are missing a lens in the eye whether it is congenital or resulting from cataract removal. This procedure is the most common method of corneal tissue transplant.",CPT +65755,Keratoplasty Procedures on the Cornea.,"During this procedure, the provider performs an entire corneal transplant and inserts an intraocular lens to replace the crystalline lens. This procedure is the most common method of corneal tissue transplant and is mainly performed in patients with visual acuity issues secondary to corneal opacity.",CPT +65756,Keratoplasty Procedures on the Cornea.,"During this procedure, the provider performs a complete corneal transplant to replace a damaged corneal endothelium.",CPT +65757,Keratoplasty Procedures on the Cornea.,"During this add–on procedure, the provider uses surgical instruments to prepare the corneal endothelial graft before the corneal transplantation at the same encounter.",CPT +65760,Other Procedures on the Cornea.,"During this procedure, the provider uses a laser or other device to change the shape of the cornea to improve a patient’s vision.",CPT +65765,Other Procedures on the Cornea.,"During this procedure, the provider performs surgical implantation of a donor cornea into the patient’s anterior cornea to improve its refraction and enhance the patient’s vision.",CPT +65767,Other Procedures on the Cornea.,"In this procedure, the provider performs cornea surgery to improve the patient’s vision for patients that have ametropia, or the inability to focus images on the retina due to an irregular corneal shape.",CPT +65770,Other Procedures on the Cornea.,The provider replaces a patient’s damaged or severely diseased cornea with an artificial cornea to restore sight.,CPT +65771,Other Procedures on the Cornea.,"The provider makes small cuts in the cornea, which flattens the cornea and reduces myopia.",CPT +65772,Other Procedures on the Cornea.,"The provider incises the cornea to change the corneal shape and correct astigmatism that prior surgery caused, such as cataract surgery when the provider inserted an intraocular lens.",CPT +65775,Other Procedures on the Cornea.,"The provider incises wedges from the cornea to change the corneal shape and to correct astigmatism that prior surgery caused, such as cataract surgery when the provider inserted an intraocular lens.",CPT +65778,Other Procedures on the Cornea.,"The provider places amniotic membrane on the ocular surface, similar to the placement of a contact lens.",CPT +65779,Other Procedures on the Cornea.,"The provider places a single layer of amniotic membrane on the ocular surface, similar to the placement of a contact lens, and secures it with sutures.",CPT +65780,Other Procedures on the Cornea.,"In this procedure, the provider uses the membrane from the inner surface of the placenta to reconstruct the surface of a patient’s eye that injury or disease damaged. This procedure involves transplanting multiple layers of the amniograft.",CPT +65781,Other Procedures on the Cornea.,"In this procedure, the provider uses a limbal stem cell allograft from either a living or a cadaveric donor to reconstruct the surface of a patient’s eye that injury or disease damaged.",CPT +65782,Other Procedures on the Cornea.,"In this procedure, the provider uses a limbal conjunctival autograft from one of the patient’s eyes and transplants it to the other eye to reconstruct the surface of a patient’s eye that injury or disease damaged.",CPT +65785,Other Procedures on the Cornea.,"The provider implants thin semicircular or crescent–shaped soft plastic rings into channels created in the supportive tissue (stroma) at the outer edges of the cornea to flatten the anterior curvature and correct its shape. The provider performs this procedure to treat keratoconus, a degenerative disease that causes the transparent covering on the front of the eye (the cornea) to become conical in shape and distorts vision, or to correct mild to moderate nearsightedness (myopia).",CPT +65800,Incision Procedures on the Anterior Chamber of the Eye.,"In this procedure, the provider drains fluid from the anterior chamber of the eye and also removes thin, watery fluid that fills the space between the cornea and the iris, known as the aqueous. Providers typically perform this procedure if the central retinal artery is blocked, which can permanently damage vision or cause blindness.",CPT +65810,Incision Procedures on the Anterior Chamber of the Eye.,"In this procedure, the provider drains fluid from the anterior chamber of the eye and also removes vitreous. The provider may also perform dissection of the anterior hyaloid membrane, with or without air injection. Providers typically perform this procedure if the central retinal artery is blocked, which can permanently damage vision or cause blindness.",CPT +65815,Incision Procedures on the Anterior Chamber of the Eye.,"In this procedure, the provider drains fluid and blood from the anterior chamber of the eye. He may irrigate the eye or inject air into it. Providers typically perform this procedure if the central retinal artery is blocked, which can permanently damage vision or cause blindness.",CPT +65820,Incision Procedures on the Anterior Chamber of the Eye.,"The provider incises the limbus to improve drainage of aqueous humor in the eye. This procedure is typically performed on children, usually to treat congenital glaucoma.",CPT +65850,Incision Procedures on the Anterior Chamber of the Eye.,The provider opens the trabecular meshwork to improve drainage of aqueous humor.,CPT +65855,Incision Procedures on the Anterior Chamber of the Eye.,"In this procedure, the provider uses a laser to burn the trabecular meshwork, the tissue of mesh where the iris meets the sclera, to drain aqueous humor from the anterior chamber and treat glaucoma.",CPT +65860,Incision Procedures on the Anterior Chamber of the Eye.,The provider uses a laser to severe adhesions in the anterior chamber.,CPT +65865,Incision Procedures on the Anterior Chamber of the Eye.,The provider performs an incisional technique for severing adhesions or goniosynechiae in the anterior segment of the eye to treat glaucoma.,CPT +65870,Incision Procedures on the Anterior Chamber of the Eye.,The provider uses an incision to sever adhesions of the anterior synechiae of the eye with or without injection of air or liquid.,CPT +65875,Incision Procedures on the Anterior Chamber of the Eye.,The provider uses an incisional technique to sever adhesions of the posterior synechiae of the anterior segment of the eye with or without an injection of air or liquid to treat glaucoma.,CPT +65880,Incision Procedures on the Anterior Chamber of the Eye.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an incisional technique to sever adhesions of corneovitreal adhesions on the anterior segment of the eye with or without the injection of air or liquid.",CPT +65900,Removal Procedures on the Anterior Chamber of the Eye.,"In this procedure, the provider removes an epithelial downgrowth, which is a complication of ophthalmic surgery from the anterior chamber of the eye.",CPT +65920,Removal Procedures on the Anterior Chamber of the Eye.,"In this procedure, the physician removes previously implanted material, such as an artificial lens, from the anterior segment of the eye.",CPT +65930,Removal Procedures on the Anterior Chamber of the Eye.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a blood clot from the anterior segment of the eye to prevent vision loss.",CPT +66020,Introduction Procedures on the Anterior Chamber of the Eye.,The provider injects air or liquid in the anterior chamber of the eye to treat conditions such as graft dislocation.,CPT +66030,Introduction Procedures on the Anterior Chamber of the Eye.,"The provider injects medication in the anterior chamber of the eye, typically for therapeutic purposes.",CPT +66130,Excision Procedures on the Anterior Sclera of the Eye.,"In this procedure, the provider excises abnormal tissue from the white of the eye.",CPT +66150,Excision Procedures on the Anterior Sclera of the Eye.,"In this procedure, the provider creates a fistula by trephination and removes the iris to relieve intraocular pressure in glaucoma patients.",CPT +66155,Excision Procedures on the Anterior Sclera of the Eye.,"In this procedure, the provider creates a fistula by thermocauterization to treat glaucoma and relieve intraocular pressure.",CPT +66160,Excision Procedures on the Anterior Sclera of the Eye.,"In this procedure, the provider creates a fistula and removes part of the sclera and the iris to treat glaucoma and relieve intraocular pressure.",CPT +66170,Excision Procedures on the Anterior Sclera of the Eye.,"In this procedure, the provider creates a fistula and removes part of the trabecular meshwork to treat glaucoma and relieve intraocular pressure.",CPT +66172,Excision Procedures on the Anterior Sclera of the Eye.,"In this procedure, the provider creates a fistula and removes part of the trabecular meshwork from a previous surgery to treat glaucoma and relieve intraocular pressure. He injects antifibrotic agents to prevent fibrosis, which is the production of excessive fibrous connective tissue.",CPT +66174,Excision Procedures on the Anterior Sclera of the Eye.,The provider expands the aqueous outflow (drainage) canal of the eye to help relieve pressure in the eye. The procedure does not include leaving a device or stent in place.,CPT +66175,Excision Procedures on the Anterior Sclera of the Eye.,The provider expands the aqueous outflow (drainage) canal of the eye to help relieve pressure in the eye. The procedure includes leaving a device or stent in place.,CPT +66179,Shunt Procedures on the Anterior Sclera of the Eye.,"In this procedure, the provider places, by external approach, an aqueous shunt, an implantable device in the aqueous humor of the eye. The shunt facilitates drainage and thereby reduces the overall pressure in the anterior chamber of the eye.",CPT +66180,Shunt Procedures on the Anterior Sclera of the Eye.,"The provider implants a shunt in the anterior chamber of the eye to facilitate drainage of aqueous humor, or fluid, in order to reduce intraocular pressure. He uses a graft to reinforce the tissue that holds the plate in place. The procedure treats refractory glaucoma, or glaucoma unresponsive to standard treatments.",CPT +66183,Shunt Procedures on the Anterior Sclera of the Eye.,The provider inserts a small device into the anterior chamber of the eye that helps to reduce the intraocular pressure of the eye in patients with glaucoma.,CPT +66184,Shunt Procedures on the Anterior Sclera of the Eye.,The provider revises the previously placed aqueous shunt. The provider performs the revision if the patient fails to respond or stops responding to the initial surgery and adjusting the shunt will help.,CPT +66185,Shunt Procedures on the Anterior Sclera of the Eye.,The provider removes the previously implanted aqueous shunt due to the failure of the original shunt to drain adequately or other complications with the device. He places another shunt in a different location. He uses a graft to reinforce the tissue that holds the plate in place.,CPT +66225,Repair or Revision Procedures on the Anterior Sclera of the Eye.,The provider repairs an area of the eye where uveal tissue has abnormally protruded through a stretched and thinned area of the sclera. He implants an appropriately sized sclera graft to correct the protrusion caused by trauma or disease.,CPT +66250,Repair or Revision Procedures on the Anterior Sclera of the Eye.,"The provider repairs or revises a wound to the anterior segment of the eye, which occurred during another procedure.",CPT +66500,"Incision Procedures on the Iris, Ciliary Body of the Eye.","In this procedure, the provider makes a puncture like opening in the iris to decrease pressure in the eye due to a blockage that is preventing the aqueous fluid from draining out of a patient’s eye. This condition results in a form of glaucoma known as angle closure glaucoma.",CPT +66505,"Incision Procedures on the Iris, Ciliary Body of the Eye.","In this procedure, the provider makes two puncture like openings in the iris to rapidly decrease pressure in the eye due to a blockage caused by the iris bowing forward because of an accumulation of fluid between the iris and the lens, known as an iris bombe. This condition results in a form of glaucoma known as angle closure glaucoma.",CPT +66600,"Excision Procedures on the Iris, Ciliary Body of the Eye.","The provider excises a lesion on the iris of the eye by removing part of the iris, cornea, and or sclera.",CPT +66605,"Excision Procedures on the Iris, Ciliary Body of the Eye.","The provider excises a lesion on the ciliary body of the eye by removing part of the iris, cornea, and or sclera.",CPT +66625,"Excision Procedures on the Iris, Ciliary Body of the Eye.",The provider removes full thickness piece from the iris by creating a hole in the outer part of the iris. This is done to treat glaucoma.,CPT +66630,"Excision Procedures on the Iris, Ciliary Body of the Eye.",The provider removes complete radial section from the iris by creating a hole from the papillary margin to the root of the iris. This is done to treat glaucoma.,CPT +66635,"Excision Procedures on the Iris, Ciliary Body of the Eye.",The provider removes part of the iris to enlarge the existing pupil to improve the patient’s vision.,CPT +66680,"Repair Procedures on the Iris, Ciliary Body of the Eye.",The provider repairs the area of the iris where it has torn away from the ciliary body. This procedure brings the iris back to its original position.,CPT +66682,"Repair Procedures on the Iris, Ciliary Body of the Eye.",The provider sutures part of the iris that has torn away from the ciliary body.,CPT +66700,"Destruction Procedures on the Iris, Ciliary Body of the Eye.","The provider destroys a portion of the ciliary body by applying heat. This procedure decreases the fluid production in the eye, thereby decreasing intraocular pressure.",CPT +66710,"Destruction Procedures on the Iris, Ciliary Body of the Eye.","The provider destroys a portion of ciliary body using a laser beam. This procedure decreases the fluid production in the eye, thereby decreasing intraocular pressure.",CPT +66711,"Destruction Procedures on the Iris, Ciliary Body of the Eye.","The provider destroys a portion of the ciliary body using a laser beam. This procedure decreases the production of fluid in the eye, thereby decreasing intraocular pressure. The procedure is performed without crystalline lens removal.",CPT +66720,"Destruction Procedures on the Iris, Ciliary Body of the Eye.","The provider destroys a portion of ciliary body by lowering the temperature using a special probe to apply extreme cold. This procedure decreases the production of fluid in the eye, thereby decreasing intraocular pressure.",CPT +66740,"Destruction Procedures on the Iris, Ciliary Body of the Eye.","The provider separates part of the ciliary body to decrease fluid production in the eye and, in turn, decrease intraocular pressure.",CPT +66761,"Destruction Procedures on the Iris, Ciliary Body of the Eye.",The provider uses a laser beam to create a small hole in the iris that equalizes the intraocular pressure between anterior and posterior chamber of the eyes. Report this code for single session of laser beam application. Providers perform this procedure to lower the intraocular pressure.,CPT +66762,"Destruction Procedures on the Iris, Ciliary Body of the Eye.",The provider passes laser beam through the iris which alters its configuration and results in an increase in angle width and vision improvement.,CPT +66770,"Destruction Procedures on the Iris, Ciliary Body of the Eye.","The provider uses non excisional techniques, such as fine needle aspiration or laser beam, to destroy the cyst or lesion in the iris or ciliary body of the eye.",CPT +66820,Incision Procedures on the Lens of the Eye.,The provider removes the haziness from the capsule of the eye using a small needle or Ziegler or Wheeler knife for a patient with a secondary membranous cataract.,CPT +66821,Incision Procedures on the Lens of the Eye.,The provider removes the haziness from the capsule of the eye using a laser for a patient with a secondary membranous cataract.,CPT +66825,Incision Procedures on the Lens of the Eye.,The provider adjusts the already positioned intraocular lens prosthesis keeping the intraocular pressure intact.,CPT +66830,Removal of Lens Material Procedures of the Eye.,"The provider excises the posterior lens capsule to remove haziness, or opacification, from the lens in a patient with a secondary membranous cataract.",CPT +66840,Removal of Lens Material Procedures of the Eye.,The provider removes floating lens material left in the vitreous cavity during artificial lens implantation through continuous aspiration. This procedure may be done in one or more stages.,CPT +66850,Removal of Lens Material Procedures of the Eye.,"The provider uses mechanical or ultrasonic methods to break down the lens material and remove it from the eye to treat a cataract, which obscures the patient’s vision. He aspirates the material throughout the process.",CPT +66852,Removal of Lens Material Procedures of the Eye.,"The provider removes the lens material by making an incision through pars plana to treat a cataract, which obscures the patient’s vision. He may also remove vitreous humor during the procedure.",CPT +66920,Removal of Lens Material Procedures of the Eye.,The provider removes the lens along with the surrounding capsule using an extremely low temperature to treat a cataract that obscures a patient’s vision.,CPT +66930,Removal of Lens Material Procedures of the Eye.,"The provider removes a dislocated lens along with the entire capsule that surrounds it, which occurs as a result of trauma or a medical condition such as Marfan’s syndrome.",CPT +66940,Removal of Lens Material Procedures of the Eye.,"In this procedure, the provider removes the natural lens of the eye while leaving in place the elastic capsule that allows implantation of an intraocular lens.",CPT +66982,Intraocular Lens Procedures.,"The provider inserts an intraocular lens prosthesis after extracapsular cataract extraction using complex techniques and devices. He may perform this by means of an iris expansion device, providing support to the intraocular lens, or capsulorrhexis. This procedure is done without the use of an endoscopic laser probe to shrink the ciliary processes, a procedure to treat glaucoma.",CPT +66983,Intraocular Lens Procedures.,"The provider removes the cataract lens and capsule as one and then inserts a lens prosthesis. The goal of the procedure is to correct a cataract, an opacity of the lens that affects the vision of the eye.",CPT +66984,Intraocular Lens Procedures.,"The provider inserts an artificial lens after removing an extracapsular cataract by aspiration or use of ultrasonic waves. This procedure is done without the use of an endoscopic laser probe to shrink the ciliary processes, a procedure to treat glaucoma.",CPT +66985,Intraocular Lens Procedures.,The provider inserts an intraocular lens into the eye of a patient who had previously had cataract removal.,CPT +66986,Intraocular Lens Procedures.,The provider removes a previously placed intraocular lens and places a new one.,CPT +66987,Intraocular Lens Procedures.,The provider inserts an intraocular lens prosthesis after extracapsular cataract extraction using complex techniques and devices such as an iris expansion device or by providing suture support to intraocular lens or capsulorrhexis (a continuous circular tear in the capsule surrounding the lens) or performed on patients during early visual development. The procedure includes endoscopic cyclophotocoagulation to shrink the ciliary processes to treat or prevent glaucoma.,CPT +66988,Intraocular Lens Procedures.,The provider inserts an artificial lens after endoscopic cyclophotocoagulation and removing an extracapsular cataract by aspiration or use of ultrasonic waves.,CPT +66989,Intraocular Lens Procedures.,"The provider inserts an intraocular lens prosthesis during the same session as extracapsular cataract extraction using complex techniques and devices. The provider also inserts one or more anterior segment aqueous drainage devices in the eye, typically to lower pressure in the eye.",CPT +66990,Other Procedures of the Anterior Segment of Eye.,"In this add on procedure, the provider examines the internal structures of the eye using an ophthalmic endoscope.",CPT +66991,Intraocular Lens Procedures.,"The provider inserts an intraocular lens prosthesis during the same session as extracapsular cataract extraction. The provider also inserts one or more anterior segment aqueous drainage devices in the eye, typically to lower pressure in the eye.",CPT +66999,Other Procedures of the Anterior Segment of Eye.,Use to report procedures in the anterior segment of the eye that do not have a specific code.,CPT +67005,Vitreous Procedures on the Posterior Segment of the Eye.,"The provider removes a portion of vitreous humor, the gelatinous material that gives shape to the eye, to provide access to the retina or to remove material within the vitreous that obstructs vision. He accesses the vitreous anteriorly, or from the front of the eye, through the limbus or cornea.",CPT +67010,Vitreous Procedures on the Posterior Segment of the Eye.,"The provider removes most of the vitreous humor, the gelatinous material that gives shape to the eye, to provide access to the retina or to remove material within the vitreous that obstructs vision. He accesses the vitreous anteriorly, or from the front of the eye, through the limbus or cornea, and uses mechanical tools to remove the vitreous.",CPT +67015,Vitreous Procedures on the Posterior Segment of the Eye.,"The provider removes the vitreous, subretinal, or choroidal fluid from the eye by inserting a needle into the posterior chamber through the pars plana.",CPT +67025,Vitreous Procedures on the Posterior Segment of the Eye.,"The provider injects a vitreous substitute, such as gas, silicone, or a spreading agent into the eye to replace vitreous that a provider removes during a procedure, or to maintain or regain intraocular pressure.",CPT +67027,Vitreous Procedures on the Posterior Segment of the Eye.,"The provider removes a portion of vitreous humor and inserts an implant containing a slow–release medication into the vitreous cavity of the eye so as to have a consistent supply of a drug to the affected area of the eye, for treatment of a condition like retinitis due to cytomegalovirus.",CPT +67028,Vitreous Procedures on the Posterior Segment of the Eye.,The provider injects a medication into the vitreous chamber of the eye as an isolated procedure or a separate procedure unrelated to any other procedure being performed on the eye.,CPT +67030,Vitreous Procedures on the Posterior Segment of the Eye.,"In this procedure, the provider cuts the vitreous strands of the eye through a pars plana incision.",CPT +67031,Vitreous Procedures on the Posterior Segment of the Eye.,The provider uses a laser to remove vitreous material that is obstructing a patient’s vision.,CPT +67036,Vitreous Procedures on the Posterior Segment of the Eye.,The provider removes vitreous fluid from the eye to access the posterior segment of the eye and introduce surgical instruments through incisions in the pars plana.,CPT +67039,Vitreous Procedures on the Posterior Segment of the Eye.,The provider removes vitreous humor from the eye to access the posterior segment of the eye and introduce surgical instruments through incisions in the pars plana. This procedure also includes the treatment of small localized areas for retinal conditions.,CPT +67040,Vitreous Procedures on the Posterior Segment of the Eye.,The provider removes vitreous humor from the eye to access the posterior segment of the eye and introduce surgical instruments through incisions in the pars plana. This procedure also includes the treatment of retinal diseases affecting a larger area of the retina.,CPT +67041,Vitreous Procedures on the Posterior Segment of the Eye.,"In this procedure, the provider removes scar tissue from the retinal membrane that obscures vision. He removes vitreous humor, the gelatinous material that gives shape to the eye, using a mechanical cutting tool, to gain access to the scar tissue.",CPT +67042,Vitreous Procedures on the Posterior Segment of the Eye.,"In this procedure, the provider removes vitreous humor, the gelatinous material that gives shape to the eye, using a mechanical cutting tool. He removes the internal limiting membrane of the retina to treat swelling of the macula or repair a hole in the macula. He may also inject air, gas, or silicone oil to stabilize the retina.",CPT +67043,Vitreous Procedures on the Posterior Segment of the Eye.,"In this procedure, the provider removes vitreous humor, the gelatinous material that gives shape to the eye, using a mechanical cutting tool. He then removes the subretinal membrane to treat excessive growth of new vessels that obstruct the vision, common in age related macular degeneration. He may also use air, gas or silicone oil to stabilize the retina and employ a laser beam to heal the damaged retinal tissues, if present.",CPT +67101,Repair Procedures on the Retina or Choroid.,"The provider repairs a detached retina using extreme cold. He may also drain subretinal fluid, if required.",CPT +67105,Repair Procedures on the Retina or Choroid.,"The provider repairs a detached retina using a laser beam that heats up the tissue. He also drains subretinal fluid, if required.",CPT +67107,Repair Procedures on the Retina or Choroid.,"The provider repairs a detached retina by creating a scleral buckle, a flexible band stitched onto the sclera in an area where the retina has detached. He chooses from various techniques, such as lamellar scleral dissection (separation of the sclera in layers), imbrication (overlap opposing tissues), or encircle the retina with sutures. He may also place a synthetic band (implant) around the tear, apply extreme cold to the tissues (cryotherapy), or apply laser light to heat the tissue (photocoagulation) to seal the tear. In addition, he may drain subretinal fluid.",CPT +67108,Repair Procedures on the Retina or Choroid.,"The provider repairs a detached retina using heat produced by a laser beam or by freezing the tissues. He may attach a scleral buckle to simplify the passage of fluid through and behind the retina or inject a gas bubble to seal the retinal break. He removes some of the vitreous, if necessary. He also drains the subretinal fluid and may use air to level up the detached retina.",CPT +67110,Repair Procedures on the Retina or Choroid.,The provider injects gas bubble into the vitreous cavity thereby creating pressure on the torn area and forcing it back to place.,CPT +67113,Repair Procedures on the Retina or Choroid.,"The provider repairs a complicated detached retina. He removes vitreous humor, the gelatinous material that gives shape to the eye, and peels the retinal membrane. He reattaches the retina with extreme heat or cold and may attach a sclera buckle to simplify the passage of fluid through and behind the retina and or drain subretinal fluid. If necessary, he removes the lens and or injects a substance to level up the detached retina.",CPT +67115,Repair Procedures on the Retina or Choroid.,"The provider adjusts a scleral buckle, which is a piece of silicone sponge, rubber, or semihard plastic that was applied around the sclera at the site of a retinal tear. The purpose of the buckle is to push in, or buckle, the sclera toward the retinal tear, holding the retina against the sclera until scarring seals the tear.",CPT +67120,Repair Procedures on the Retina or Choroid.,"In this procedure, the provider removes previously implanted extraocular material from the posterior segment, which is the back two–thirds of the eye.",CPT +67121,Repair Procedures on the Retina or Choroid.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a previously implanted intraocular lens that has subluxed or slipped into the posterior segment of the eye.",CPT +67141,Prophylaxis Procedures on the Retina or Choroid.,The provider prevents the detachment of the retina in the presence of small tears or thinning of the edges (lattice degeneration) by using extreme cold or heat to create scar tissue to strengthen the area.,CPT +67145,Prophylaxis Procedures on the Retina or Choroid.,The provider prevents the detachment of the retina in the presence of small tears or thinning of the edges (lattice degeneration) by applying an intense light (such as a laser) to create scar tissue to strengthen the area.,CPT +67208,Destruction Procedures on the Retina or Choroid.,The provider destroys a lesion of the retina using extreme cold or hot temperatures.,CPT +67210,Destruction Procedures on the Retina or Choroid.,The provider destroys a lesion of the retina using a laser beam that heats up the tissue.,CPT +67218,Destruction Procedures on the Retina or Choroid.,"In this procedure, the provider temporarily implants a radio therapeutic source within the eye to treat a cancerous lesion within the retina. After four to five days, he removes the source.",CPT +67220,Destruction Procedures on the Retina or Choroid.,"In this procedure, the provider treats a localized lesion of the choroid, the vascular middle layer of the eye, by using a laser beam that destroys the abnormal blood vessel growth of the choroid.",CPT +67221,Destruction Procedures on the Retina or Choroid.,"In this procedure, the provider treats a localized cancerous focus within the middle layer of one eye by infusing a special drug, which he can activate by application of a laser beam.",CPT +67225,Destruction Procedures on the Retina or Choroid.,"In this add on procedure, the provider treats a localized cancerous focus within the middle layer of a second eye at the same operative session as the first eye. To perform this service, the provider infuses a special drug, which he can activate by application of a laser beam. This code refers to the treatment of the second eye.",CPT +67227,Destruction Procedures on the Retina or Choroid.,"In retinopathy, tiny new vessels grow profusely and fibrous tissue proliferates in between the layers of the retina, which may extend into the optic nerve and vitreous, clear gel that fills the space between the lens and the retina. Untreated, this condition can lead to blindness. in this procedure, the provider destroys these blood vessels using freezing (cryotherapy) or heating (diathermy) probes. The provider may perform this procedure for treatment of diabetic retinopathy.",CPT +67228,Destruction Procedures on the Retina or Choroid.,"In retinopathy, tiny new vessels grow profusely and fibrous tissue proliferates in between the layers of the retina, which may extend into the optic nerve and vitreous, clear gel that fills the space between the lens and the retina. Untreated, this condition can lead to blindness. In this procedure, the provider uses a laser to destroy the tiny vessels in the retina. The provider may perform this procedure for treatment of diabetic retinopathy.",CPT +67229,Destruction Procedures on the Retina or Choroid.,In this procedure the provider uses a laser to destroy the pathological portion of the retina or the photosensitive inner surface within the eye of a preterm baby who was born before the completion of 37 weeks of pregnancy. He may perform this procedure on a child from birth up to the age of one year.,CPT +67250,Repair Procedures on the Posterior Sclera of the Eye.,"In this procedure, the provider strengthens and secures a weakened sclera without using a graft. The provider may perform this procedure to avoid further damage to the macula from extreme myopia or nearsightedness.",CPT +67255,Repair Procedures on the Posterior Sclera of the Eye.,"In this procedure, the provider strengthens and secures a weakened sclera by using a graft as a support. The provider may perform this procedure to avoid further damage to the macula from extreme myopia, or nearsightedness.",CPT +67299,Other Procedures of the Posterior Segment of Eye.,Use to report procedures in the posterior segment of the eye that do not have a specific code.,CPT +67311,Strabismus surgery with Other Extra Ocular Muscle Procedures.,"The provider realigns an imbalance in the eye muscles by either recession, which weakens the eye muscle or resection, which strengthens the muscles so as to restore normal vision. This procedure is done to correct an imbalance in the eye muscles that control the movement of the eyeball.",CPT +67312,Strabismus surgery with Other Extra Ocular Muscle Procedures.,A strabismus repair is performed to realign the eye muscle.  The physician has to either perform a recession (weakening) or resection (strengthening) of the muscles in order to correct the patient's vision.,CPT +67314,Strabismus surgery with Other Extra Ocular Muscle Procedures.,A strabismus repair is performed to realign the eye muscle.  The physician has to either perform a recession (weakening) or resection (strengthening) of the muscles in order to correct the patient's vision.,CPT +67316,Strabismus surgery with Other Extra Ocular Muscle Procedures.,A strabismus repair is performed to realign the eye muscle.  The physician has to either perform a recession (weakening) or resection (strengthening) of the muscles in order to correct the patient's vision.,CPT +67318,Strabismus surgery with Other Extra Ocular Muscle Procedures.,The provider performs strabismus surgery on the superior oblique muscle to readjust the muscles so as to strengthen the muscles and correct the movement of the eyeballs.,CPT +67320,Strabismus surgery with Other Extra Ocular Muscle Procedures.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider performs transposition of the extraocular muscles of the eye. The provider performs a transposition of the extraocular muscle to correct the patient's vision.",CPT +67331,Strabismus surgery with Other Extra Ocular Muscle Procedures.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider performs strabismus surgery on a patient who has had an eye injury or previously undergone an eye procedure but not involving the extraocular muscles. This service reflects the additional work to plan and perform a strabismus procedure or an increased level of difficulty in a procedure such as for excision of excessive scar tissue. Strabismus surgery is done to correct an imbalance in the eye muscles that control the movement of the eyeball.",CPT +67332,Strabismus surgery with Other Extra Ocular Muscle Procedures.,"In this add on procedure, the provider performs strabismus repair to realign the eye muscles. The provider performs this procedure in patients who have scarring from previous strabismus surgeries involving the extraocular muscles, retinal detachment, or from thyroid affected myopathy of the eye. A provider reports this procedure to indicate an increase in the difficulty of the work due to the scarring.",CPT +67334,Strabismus surgery with Other Extra Ocular Muscle Procedures.,"In this add on procedure, the provider performs strabismus repair to realign the eye muscle using a posterior fixation suture technique. A provider reports this procedure to indicate the use of the posterior fixation suture.",CPT +67335,Strabismus surgery with Other Extra Ocular Muscle Procedures.,"In this add on procedure, the provider places adjustable sutures on the extraocular muscle that the provider is performing a separately reportable strabismus repair on. The provider performs this procedure so that he can regulate the tension of the suture strings on the muscle to allow adjustment of the muscle as necessary. A provider reports this procedure to indicate the work to place the adjustable suture.",CPT +67340,Strabismus surgery with Other Extra Ocular Muscle Procedures.,"In this add on procedure, the provider explores, identifies, and sutures back an extraocular muscle detachment from the eyeball as he is performing a separately reportable strabismus repair procedure.",CPT +67343,Strabismus surgery with Other Extra Ocular Muscle Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider severs fibrous adhesions on the extraocular muscle, which may form after multiple orbital, retinal, or strabismus operations and limit the mobility of the eye. The provider may not actually perform recession or resection surgery on those muscles.",CPT +67345,Strabismus surgery with Other Extra Ocular Muscle Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider injects a toxin into an extraocular muscle to weaken its activity and restore the normal alignment of the eye.",CPT +67346,Strabismus surgery with Other Extra Ocular Muscle Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider takes a very small portion of tissue from the extraocular muscle, which the provider sends to the laboratory to investigate for existing pathology.",CPT +67399,Other Procedures on Extraocular Muscles.,Use to report procedures in the eye muscle that do not have a specific code.,CPT +67400,"Exploration, Excision, Decompression on the Orbit of the Ocular Adnexa.","The provider incises and explores the orbit, the bony cavity that holds the eyes, through an incision in the eye area, without creating a bone flap. She examines the orbital cavity for the presence of a tumor or other abnormality. She takes a sample of any suspicious tissues for analysis and diagnosis.",CPT +67405,"Exploration, Excision, Decompression on the Orbit of the Ocular Adnexa.","The provider incises the orbit through an incision in the eye area, without creating a bone flap, to drain an abscess or other fluid accumulation, due to the presence of infection or cysts.",CPT +67412,"Exploration, Excision, Decompression on the Orbit of the Ocular Adnexa.","In this procedure, the provider incises the orbit, the bony cavity that holds the eyes, through an incision in the eyelid or through the conjunctival membrane covering the eye, to remove diseased or damaged tissue. He does not create a bone flap, the temporary removal of a segment of bone.",CPT +67413,"Exploration, Excision, Decompression on the Orbit of the Ocular Adnexa.","In this procedure, the provider incises the orbit, the bony cavity that holds the eyes, through an incision in the eyelid or through the conjunctival membrane covering the eye, to remove a foreign body. He does not create a bone flap, the temporary removal of a segment of bone.",CPT +67414,"Exploration, Excision, Decompression on the Orbit of the Ocular Adnexa.","In this procedure, the provider incises the orbit, the bony cavity that holds the eyes, through an incision in the eyelid or through the conjunctival membrane covering the eye, and removes some bony tissue to relieve pressure on other structures. He does not create a bone flap, the temporary removal of a segment of bone.",CPT +67415,"Exploration, Excision, Decompression on the Orbit of the Ocular Adnexa.","In this procedure, the provider extracts material from an area of suspicious tissue within the orbit, the bony cavity that holds the eyes. She uses a narrow needle to extract the sample and sends it to a laboratory for analysis to determine the nature of the suspicious tissue.",CPT +67420,"Exploration, Excision, Decompression on the Orbit of the Ocular Adnexa.","In this procedure, the provider makes an incision through the side of the orbit, the bony cavity that holds the eyes. He removes a segment of bone, either temporarily during the procedure as a bone flap or as a bone window left open after the procedure, to access and remove an expanding tumor.",CPT +67430,"Exploration, Excision, Decompression on the Orbit of the Ocular Adnexa.","In this procedure, the provider makes an incision through the side of the orbit, the bony cavity that holds the eyes. He removes a segment of bone, either temporarily during the procedure as a bone flap or as a bone window left open after the procedure, to access and remove a foreign body.",CPT +67440,"Exploration, Excision, Decompression on the Orbit of the Ocular Adnexa.","In this procedure, the provider makes an incision through the side of the orbit, the bony cavity that holds the eyes. He removes a segment of bone, either temporarily during the procedure as a bone flap or as a bone window left open after the procedure, to access and drain a fluid accumulation, such as a cyst or abscess.",CPT +67445,"Exploration, Excision, Decompression on the Orbit of the Ocular Adnexa.","In this procedure, the provider makes an incision through the side of the orbit, the bony cavity that holds the eyes. He removes a segment of bone, either temporarily during the procedure as a bone flap or as a bone window left open after the procedure. He removes some bony tissue permanently to relieve pressure on other structures.",CPT +67450,"Exploration, Excision, Decompression on the Orbit of the Ocular Adnexa.","In this procedure, the provider makes an incision through the side of the orbit, the bony cavity that holds the eyes. She removes a segment of bone, either temporarily during the procedure as a bone flap or as a bone window left open after the procedure, to access and explore the orbital cavity to identify the cause of a patient’s symptoms. She takes samples of any suspicious tissue and submits it to a laboratory for analysis.",CPT +67500,Other Procedures on the Orbit.,"In this procedure, the provider injects medicine into the space behind the eyeball, to treat an eye condition.",CPT +67505,Other Procedures on the Orbit.,"In this procedure, the provider injects alcohol into the space behind the eyeball to relieve eye pain.",CPT +67515,Other Procedures on the Orbit.,The provider inserts a needle into the Tenon’s capsule of the eye and injects medication into the Tenon’s capsule.,CPT +67516,Other Procedures on the Orbit.,"The provider injects a medication into the suprachoroidal space (SCS) of the eye, the space between the sclera (white outer part of the eye) and the choroid (membrane between the sclera and the retina).",CPT +67550,Other Procedures on the Orbit.,"In this procedure, the provider implants a prosthetic, or manmade, eyeball to replace one lost to disease or injury. She attaches the implant outside of the muscle cone, the gathering point of the extraocular muscles that move the eye.",CPT +67560,Other Procedures on the Orbit.,"The provider removes or revises a previously placed prosthetic, or manmade, eyeball from its location outside of the muscle cone, the gathering point of the extraocular muscles that move the eye. He removes or revises the implant due to poor fit or function.",CPT +67570,Other Procedures on the Orbit.,"In this procedure, the provider reduces pressure on the optic nerve by incising or creating a window, in the sheath covering of the nerve. Excessive pressure on the optic nerve occurs in conditions like glaucoma and can lead to blindness.",CPT +67599,Other Procedures on the Orbit.,Use to report procedures in the orbit of the eye that do not have a specific code.,CPT +67700,Incision Procedures on the Eyelids.,"In this procedure, the provider surgically incises the eyelid to drain a pocket of infection.",CPT +67710,Incision Procedures on the Eyelids.,"In this procedure, the provider removes stitches and scar tissue from eyelids previously sewn together to protect the cornea from irritation in the presence of corneal disease or damage.",CPT +67715,Incision Procedures on the Eyelids.,"In this procedure, the provider incises the canthus to prevent vision loss and maintain intraocular pressure.",CPT +67800,Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Eyelids.,"In this procedure, the provider removes a chalazion, a small nodule that results from a blockage of an oil gland and ongoing inflammation.",CPT +67801,Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Eyelids.,"During this procedure, the provider removes numerous chalazia, which are small masses in the eyelid, from the same eyelid.",CPT +67805,Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Eyelids.,"During this procedure, the provider removes numerous chalazia, which are small masses in the eyelid, from different eyelids.",CPT +67808,Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Eyelids.,"During this procedure, the provider removes one or multiple chalazia, which are small masses in the eyelid, under general anesthesia. The provider typically performs this procedure when treating young or uncooperative patients.",CPT +67810,Incision Procedures on the Eyelids.,The provider takes a sample of a suspicious area on the skin of the eyelid or its edges. He submits the specimen to a laboratory for analysis to determine its nature.,CPT +67820,Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Eyelids.,"The provider removes deviated or abnormal eyelashes, a condition known as trichiasis. He uses forceps to extract the unwanted lashes that cause eye irritation.",CPT +67825,Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Eyelids.,"The provider removes deviated or abnormal eyelashes, a condition known as trichiasis. He destroys the unwanted lashes that cause eye irritation with a device that applies laser light, electrical current, or extreme cold temperature.",CPT +67830,Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Eyelids.,"The provider removes deviated or abnormal eyelashes, a condition known as trichiasis. He incises the eyelid at its edges to extract the unwanted lashes that cause eye irritation.",CPT +67835,Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Eyelids.,"The provider removes deviated or abnormal eyelashes, a condition known as trichiasis. He excises the tissue at the edges of the eyelid to remove the unwanted lashes that cause eye irritation. He covers the defect with a skin graft of similar tissue, such as from the lips.",CPT +67840,Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Eyelids.,"In this procedure, the provider excises a diseased or damaged area from the eyelid, excluding a chalazion, an inflamed oil gland. If necessary, he closes the wound with sutures.",CPT +67850,Excision and Destruction Procedures on the Eyelids.,"The provider destroys a small lesion of the lid margin, no larger than 1cm, on the area between the front lid edge and back edge of any of the four lids of the eye.",CPT +67875,Tarsorrhaphy Procedures on the Eyelids.,The provider temporarily sutures the eyelids closed. This procedure is done to immobilize the eyelids after surgery to allow the eye to heal or to protect and relieve a painful or eroded cornea.,CPT +67880,Tarsorrhaphy Procedures on the Eyelids.,"The provider excises the inner edges of the eyelids and then sews them together, partially or fully, in the middle or at either corner. The lids heal in a closed position, which allows the cornea to heal in the presence of corneal disease or damage.",CPT +67882,Tarsorrhaphy Procedures on the Eyelids.,"The provider excises the inner edges of the eyelids and then sews them together, partially or fully, in the middle or at either corner. The lids heal in a closed position, which allows the cornea to heal in the presence of corneal disease or damage.",CPT +67900,"Repair (Brow Ptosis, Blepharoptosis, Lid Retraction, Ectropion, Entropion) Procedures on the Eyelids.","The provider repairs a drooping eyebrow due to muscle weakness or paralysis, to improve cosmetic appearance or remove the obstruction to a patient’s vision. He makes an incision immediately above the eyebrow, just below the scalp, or in the middle of the forehead.",CPT +67901,"Repair (Brow Ptosis, Blepharoptosis, Lid Retraction, Ectropion, Entropion) Procedures on the Eyelids.",The provider repairs a drooping eyelid by attaching it to the frontalis muscle in the forehead with the aid of a suture or donor tissue to improve cosmetic appearance or remove the obstruction to a patient’s vision.,CPT +67902,"Repair (Brow Ptosis, Blepharoptosis, Lid Retraction, Ectropion, Entropion) Procedures on the Eyelids.",The provider repairs a drooping eyelid by attaching it to the frontalis muscle in the forehead with the aid of a tissue graft from elsewhere on the patient's body to improve cosmetic appearance or remove the obstruction to a patient’s vision.,CPT +67903,"Repair (Brow Ptosis, Blepharoptosis, Lid Retraction, Ectropion, Entropion) Procedures on the Eyelids.",The provider repairs a drooping eyelid by tightening the levator muscle that controls eyelid movement to improve cosmetic appearance or remove an obstruction to a patient’s vision. He accesses the muscle from inside the eyelid.,CPT +67904,"Repair (Brow Ptosis, Blepharoptosis, Lid Retraction, Ectropion, Entropion) Procedures on the Eyelids.",The provider repairs a drooping eyelid by tightening the levator muscle that controls eyelid movement to improve cosmetic appearance or remove the obstruction to a patient’s vision. He accesses the muscle from the outer side of the eyelid.,CPT +67906,"Repair (Brow Ptosis, Blepharoptosis, Lid Retraction, Ectropion, Entropion) Procedures on the Eyelids.","The provider repairs a drooping eyelid by attaching it to the superior rectus muscle of the orbit, the bony cavity that holds the eyes, with the aid of a tissue graft from elsewhere on the patient's body to improve cosmetic appearance or remove the obstruction to a patient’s vision.",CPT +67908,"Repair (Brow Ptosis, Blepharoptosis, Lid Retraction, Ectropion, Entropion) Procedures on the Eyelids.","The provider performs a procedure such as the Fasanella–Servat procedure, which involves resection and plication of the levator/Muller muscles along with the tarsus and the conjunctiva to treat blepharoptosis.",CPT +67909,"Repair (Brow Ptosis, Blepharoptosis, Lid Retraction, Ectropion, Entropion) Procedures on the Eyelids.",The provider revises prior surgery done to correct a drooping eyelid (blepharoptosis).  He reduces the tension on the muscles to allow the eye to close normally.,CPT +67911,"Repair (Brow Ptosis, Blepharoptosis, Lid Retraction, Ectropion, Entropion) Procedures on the Eyelids.","During this procedure, the provider corrects the retraction of the eyelid, in which the eyelid is moving away from the surface of the eye.",CPT +67912,"Repair (Brow Ptosis, Blepharoptosis, Lid Retraction, Ectropion, Entropion) Procedures on the Eyelids.","In this procedure, the provider corrects lagophthalmos, a condition in which the eyelids cannot completely close, by inserting a lid load on the upper eyelid for closure of the eyelid by gravity.",CPT +67914,"Repair (Brow Ptosis, Blepharoptosis, Lid Retraction, Ectropion, Entropion) Procedures on the Eyelids.","During this procedure, the provider uses sutures to repair an ectropion, which is an outward turning of the lower eyelid and eyelashes that can lead to excessive tearing and irritation of the eye.",CPT +67915,"Repair (Brow Ptosis, Blepharoptosis, Lid Retraction, Ectropion, Entropion) Procedures on the Eyelids.","During this procedure, the provider uses thermocauterization to repair an ectropion, which is an outward turning of the lower eyelid and eyelashes, which can lead to excessive tearing and irritation of the eye.",CPT +67916,"Repair (Brow Ptosis, Blepharoptosis, Lid Retraction, Ectropion, Entropion) Procedures on the Eyelids.","During this procedure, the provider uses tarsal wedge excision to repair an ectropion, an outward turning of the lower eyelid and eyelashes, which can lead to excessive tearing and irritation of the eye.",CPT +67917,"Repair (Brow Ptosis, Blepharoptosis, Lid Retraction, Ectropion, Entropion) Procedures on the Eyelids.","During this procedure, the provider performs an extensive repair of an ectropion, which is an outward turning of the lower eyelid and eyelashes, which can lead to excessive tearing and irritation of the eye.",CPT +67921,"Repair (Brow Ptosis, Blepharoptosis, Lid Retraction, Ectropion, Entropion) Procedures on the Eyelids.","During this procedure, the provider uses sutures to repair an entropion, which is an inward turning of the lower eyelid and eyelashes toward the eye, which can lead to excessive tearing and irritation of the eye.",CPT +67922,"Repair (Brow Ptosis, Blepharoptosis, Lid Retraction, Ectropion, Entropion) Procedures on the Eyelids.","During this procedure, the provider uses thermocauterization to repair an entropion, which is an inward turning of the lower eyelid and eyelashes toward the eye, which can lead to excessive tearing and irritation of the eye.",CPT +67923,"Repair (Brow Ptosis, Blepharoptosis, Lid Retraction, Ectropion, Entropion) Procedures on the Eyelids.","During this procedure, the provider uses tarsal wedge excision to repair an entropion, which is an inward turning of the lower eyelid and eyelashes toward the eye which can lead to excessive tearing and irritation of the eye.",CPT +67924,"Repair (Brow Ptosis, Blepharoptosis, Lid Retraction, Ectropion, Entropion) Procedures on the Eyelids.","During this procedure, the provider performs an extensive repair of an entropion, which is an inward turning of the lower eyelid and eyelashes toward the eye, which can lead to excessive tearing and irritation of the eye.",CPT +67930,Reconstruction Procedures on the Eyelids.,"The provider closes a wound in the eyelid of recent origin that does not completely penetrate the eyelid but may involve its edges, membrane lining, or inner plate. He sutures the wound edges together as a direct closure.",CPT +67935,Reconstruction Procedures on the Eyelids.,"The provider closes a wound in the eyelid of recent origin that completely penetrates the eyelid and may involve its edges, membrane lining, or inner plate. He sutures the wound edges together as a direct closure.",CPT +67938,Reconstruction Procedures on the Eyelids.,The provider removes an embedded foreign body from the eyelid to prevent damage to the eyeball.,CPT +67950,Reconstruction Procedures on the Eyelids.,Canthoplasty (median or lateral) is often referred to as a corner eye lift or eye tendon surgery. The ophthalmologist uses this technique to strengthen the lateral canthal tendon or orbicularis muscle at the outer corner of the eyelids.  This procedure provides support to the outer corner of the eyelid along with the reshaping of the eye.  The procedure is sometimes used to prevent ectropion problems as well.,CPT +67961,Reconstruction Procedures on the Eyelids.,"The provider excises damaged or diseased tissue of the eyelid that may include the edges of the lid, the lid’s inner plate, the membrane lining of the lid, or the corner where the lids come together. He may apply a skin graft, moving tissue from an adjacent area, to fill in the defect of up to one fourth of the edge of the eyelid.",CPT +67966,Reconstruction Procedures on the Eyelids.,"The provider excises damaged or diseased tissue of the eyelid that may include the edges of the lid, the lid’s inner plate, the membrane lining of the lid, or the corner where the lids come together. He may apply a skin graft, moving tissue from an adjacent area, to fill in the defect of more than one fourth of the edge of the eyelid.",CPT +67971,Reconstruction Procedures on the Eyelids.,"The provider performs reconstruction of up to two thirds of the surface area of an eyelid, extending all the way through the eyelid tissue, to correct damage to the eyelid, improving cosmetic appearance and function of the eye. He transfers a tissue flap from the opposing eyelid. He may perform the procedure in stages, in more than one session.",CPT +67973,Reconstruction Procedures on the Eyelids.,"The provider performs reconstruction of the entire surface area of a lower eyelid, extending all the way through the tissue, to correct damage to the eyelid, improving cosmetic appearance and function of the eye. He transfers a tissue flap from the opposing eyelid. He may perform the procedure in stages, in more than one session.",CPT +67974,Reconstruction Procedures on the Eyelids.,"The provider performs reconstruction of the entire surface area of an upper eyelid, extending all the way through the tissue, to correct damage to the eyelid, improving cosmetic appearance and function of the eye. He transfers a tissue flap from the opposing eyelid. He may perform the procedure in stages, in more than one session.",CPT +67975,Reconstruction Procedures on the Eyelids.,"The provider performs the second part of a staged reconstruction of an eyelid, extending all the way through the tissue, to correct damage to the eyelid, improving cosmetic appearance and function of the eye. He transfers a tissue flap from the opposing eyelid. He may perform the procedure in stages, in more than one session.",CPT +67999,Other Procedures on the Eyelids.,Use to report procedures on the eyelids that do not have a specific code.,CPT +68020,Incision and Drainage Procedures on the Conjunctiva.,"During this procedure, the provider performs an incision of the conjunctiva and drains a cyst to relieve pressure.",CPT +68040,Incision and Drainage Procedures on the Conjunctiva.,"During this procedure, the provider removes conjunctival follicles to relieve pain and irritation.",CPT +68100,Excision and/or Destruction Procedures on the Conjunctiva.,"During this procedure, the provider performs a biopsy of the conjunctiva for diagnostic purposes.",CPT +68110,Excision and/or Destruction Procedures on the Conjunctiva.,"During this procedure, the provider excises a lesion on the conjunctiva up to 1 cm in size to alleviate pain and pressure and often to improve vision.",CPT +68115,Excision and/or Destruction Procedures on the Conjunctiva.,"During this procedure, the provider excises a lesion on the conjunctiva larger than 1 cm in size to alleviate pain and pressure and often to improve vision.",CPT +68130,Excision and/or Destruction Procedures on the Conjunctiva.,"During this procedure, the provider excises a lesion on the conjunctiva and the accompanying scleral tissue to alleviate pain and pressure and often to improve vision.",CPT +68135,Excision and/or Destruction Procedures on the Conjunctiva.,"During this procedure, the provider eradicates a conjunctival lesion to alleviate pain and pressure and often to improve vision.",CPT +68200,Injection Procedures on the Conjunctiva.,"The provider injects medication into the subconjunctival space for a variety of reasons, such as to deliver antibiotics or to treat swelling.",CPT +68320,Conjunctivoplasty Procedures.,"The provider performs a surgical repair of the conjunctiva using the patient’s own conjunctival tissue as a graft or by rearranging the existing tissue. This procedure is done to treat a condition such as conjunctivochalasis, a common painful condition caused by excess folds of conjunctiva in the eye.",CPT +68325,Conjunctivoplasty Procedures.,"The provider performs a surgical repair of the conjunctiva using a tissue graft from the inside lining of the patient’s cheek. This procedure is done to treat a condition such as conjunctivochalasis, a common painful condition caused by excess folds of conjunctiva in the eye.",CPT +68326,Conjunctivoplasty Procedures.,"The provider performs a surgical repair of the conjunctiva at the location where the tissue covering the eyeball and the eyelid meet, using the patient’s own conjunctival tissue as a graft or by rearranging the existing tissue.",CPT +68328,Conjunctivoplasty Procedures.,The provider removes diseased tissue from the conjunctiva and uses tissue adhesive to graft a new membrane to the eye to treat conditions such as conjunctival chalasis.,CPT +68330,Conjunctivoplasty Procedures.,The provider repairs a symblepharon and performs conjunctivoplasty without using a graft.,CPT +68335,Conjunctivoplasty Procedures.,"During this procedure, the provider repairs a symblepharon using a free graft of the conjunctiva or buccal mucous membrane.",CPT +68340,Conjunctivoplasty Procedures.,"During this procedure, the provider repairs a symblepharon using a conformer or contact lens to improve the patient's vision.",CPT +68360,Other Procedures on the Conjunctiva.,The provider creates a flap of free conjunctival tissue which is used to cover a site adjacent to the defect.,CPT +68362,Other Procedures on the Conjunctiva.,The provider creates a flap of free conjunctival tissue (tissue that covers the inside of the eyelids and the eyeball) which is used to cover another site.,CPT +68371,Other Procedures on the Conjunctiva.,"During this procedure, the provider harvests a conjunctival allograft to use on another patient.",CPT +68399,Other Procedures on the Conjunctiva.,This code refers to procedures in the eye that do not have a specific code.,CPT +68400,Incision Procedures on the Lacrimal System.,"During this procedure, the provider performs an incision and drainage of the lacrimal gland.",CPT +68420,Incision Procedures on the Lacrimal System.,"The provider incises, or cuts into, the lacrimal sac, or tear duct, to treat a narrowing or obstruction that causes a dry eye.",CPT +68440,Incision Procedures on the Lacrimal System.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a snip incision of the lacrimal punctum, an opening that drains tears from the conjunctival sac into the lacrimal duct in the eye.",CPT +68500,Excision Procedures on the Lacrimal System.,The provider removes the lacrimal gland to treat excessive tearing which results in dry eye.,CPT +68505,Excision Procedures on the Lacrimal System.,The provider removes a portion of the lacrimal gland to treat excessive tearing which results in dry eye.,CPT +68510,Excision Procedures on the Lacrimal System.,The provider biopsies the lacrimal gland and sends the specimen to the laboratory for pathologic examination.,CPT +68520,Excision Procedures on the Lacrimal System.,"The provider removes the lacrimal sac, or tear duct, to treat dacryocystitis, i.e., inflammation of the tear duct.",CPT +68525,Excision Procedures on the Lacrimal System.,"In this procedure, the provider takes a biopsy of a lacrimal sac, the upper dilated end of the tear duct, also known as the nasolacrimal duct.",CPT +68530,Excision Procedures on the Lacrimal System.,"The provider removes a foreign body or dacryolith, i.e., a stone, from the lacrimal gland or sac to treat obstruction, or blockage, of the tear duct.",CPT +68540,Excision Procedures on the Lacrimal System.,"The provider excises a tumor from the lacrimal gland. He performs the procedure to treat obstruction, or blockage, and prevent further complications. He sends the tumor of the laboratory for diagnostic analysis.",CPT +68550,Excision Procedures on the Lacrimal System.,The provider removes the lacrimal gland using a technique that requires cutting into the bony structures around the gland. He performs the procedure to remove a potentially malignant tumor. He sends the tumor of the laboratory for diagnostic analysis.,CPT +68700,Repair Procedures on the Lacrimal System.,The provider repairs a laceration of the canaliculus of the eye. He performs this procedure to prevent infection or other complications and to relieve pain or discomfort.,CPT +68705,Repair Procedures on the Lacrimal System.,"The provider uses cautery to correct an everted, or outwardly turned, punctum. He performed the procedure to treat excessive tearing that results in dry eye and to prevent further complications.",CPT +68720,Repair Procedures on the Lacrimal System.,"The provider performs a dacryocystorhinostomy, or DCR, to correct dysfunction of the nasolacrimal duct and restore the flow of tears from the tear duct into the nose.",CPT +68745,Repair Procedures on the Lacrimal System.,"The provider creates a fistula, or tract, between the conjunctiva and the nose. He performs this procedure to treat excessive tearing that results from complete blockage of the punctum and the canaliculi, or tear ducts, by a fleshy growth in the corner of the eye.",CPT +68750,Repair Procedures on the Lacrimal System.,"The provider creates a fistula, or tract, between the conjunctiva and the nose and places a tube in the tract to keep it open. He performs this procedure to treat excessive tearing that results from complete blockage of the punctum and the canaliculi, or tear ducts, by a fleshy growth in the corner of the eye.",CPT +68760,Repair Procedures on the Lacrimal System.,"The provider closes the lacrimal punctum with heat cauterization, ligation, or laser. The procedure shrinks the punctum and causes scarring, which results in closure. The procedure is performed to treat dry eye syndrome.",CPT +68761,Repair Procedures on the Lacrimal System.,The provider places a plug to close off the lacrimal punctum and block excessive drainage of tears. He performs this procedure to treat dry eye syndrome.,CPT +68770,Repair Procedures on the Lacrimal System.,"The provider closes a fistula, i.e., an abnormal opening, in the tear duct. He performs this procedure to treat drainage of tears from the fistula or inflammation of the tear duct.",CPT +68801,Probing and/or Related Procedures on the Lacrimal System.,"In this procedure, the provider dilates the lacrimal punctum, an opening that drains tears from the conjunctival sac into the lacrimal duct in the eye. He may or may not perform an irrigation of the punctum. This procedure treats an injury, blockage, or punctal stenosis in which the punctal opening narrows from inflammation causing epiphoria, or the overflow of tears onto the face.",CPT +68810,Probing and/or Related Procedures on the Lacrimal System.,The provider probes the nasolacrimal duct to identify a possible obstruction or stricture; he may or may not irrigate the duct.,CPT +68811,Probing and/or Related Procedures on the Lacrimal System.,"With the patient under general anesthesia, the provider probes the nasolacrimal duct to identify a possible obstruction or stricture; he may or may not irrigate the duct.",CPT +68815,Probing and/or Related Procedures on the Lacrimal System.,The provider probes the nasolacrimal duct to identify a possible obstruction or stricture; he may or may not irrigate the duct. He inserts a tube or stent to keep the nasolacrimal duct open.,CPT +68816,Probing and/or Related Procedures on the Lacrimal System.,"The provider probes the nasolacrimal duct, the passage between the tear ducts and the nose, and dilates the duct with a balloon passed through a catheter. He performs this procedure to correct stricture, or narrowing, of the duct.",CPT +68840,Probing and/or Related Procedures on the Lacrimal System.,This procedure is the probing of the lacrimal canaliculi with or without irrigation.,CPT +68841,Probing and/or Related Procedures on the Lacrimal System.,"The provider inserts an implant that delivers a drug at a controlled rate into the lacrimal ducts of the eye to treat inflammation, glaucoma, or other conditions. The provider may also dilate the lacrimal duct.",CPT +68850,Probing and/or Related Procedures on the Lacrimal System.,The provider injects contrast material into the tear duct to enhance radiographic imaging.,CPT +68899,Other Procedures of the Lacrimal System.,Use to report new or unusual procedures on the lacrimal system that do not have an assigned code.,CPT +69000,Incision Procedures on the External Ear.,"The provider performs a simple incision and drainage an abscess, i.e., a collection of pus, or a hematoma, i.e., a mass of blood, in the external ear. He performs this procedure to relieve pain and prevent further infection.",CPT +69005,Incision Procedures on the External Ear.,"The provider a complicated incision and drainage of an abscess, i.e., a collection of pus, or a hematoma, i.e., a mass of blood, to treat an infection of the external ear. He performs this procedure to relieve pain and prevent further infection.",CPT +69020,Incision Procedures on the External Ear.,"The provider performs incision and drainage of an abscess, i.e., a collection of pus, from inside the external auditory canal. The provider performs this procedure to relieve pain and prevent further infection.",CPT +69090,Incision Procedures on the External Ear.,"For clinical responsibility, terminology, tips and additional info start codify free trial.",CPT +69100,Excision Procedures on the External Ear.,"The provider performs surgical removal of a part of the abnormal tissue from the external ear, i.e., the earlobe or helix, for lab analysis to determine whether the lesion is malignant or benign.",CPT +69105,Excision Procedures on the External Ear.,"The provider performs surgical removal of a part of the abnormal tissue from the external auditory canal, i.e., the part of the ear between the outer opening and the ear drum. He sends the specimen to the lab for analysis to determine whether the lesion is malignant or benign.",CPT +69110,Excision Procedures on the External Ear.,"The provider excises a portion of the external part of the ear, such as the earlobe or helix, that contains a lesion. He sends the specimen to the lab for diagnosis to determine whether the lesion is malignant or benign.",CPT +69120,Excision Procedures on the External Ear.,The provider removes the diseased external ear in its entirety. He performs this procedure when an extensive carcinoma involves the whole external ear.,CPT +69140,Excision Procedures on the External Ear.,The provider removes one or more bony osteophytes from the external ears canal. He performs the procedure to treat hearing impairment or headache.,CPT +69145,Excision Procedures on the External Ear.,"The provider resects an area of damaged or diseased tissue, such as a sebaceous cyst, lipoma, or cholesteatoma, from the external ear canal. He performs the procedure to establish a diagnosis and to relieve pain and difficulty hearing.",CPT +69150,Excision Procedures on the External Ear.,"The provider excises an extensive lesion of the external ear canal along with surrounding structures. He performs this procedure when a lesion becomes metastatic and starts invading other anatomical structures, which are near to, or adjacent to, the external ear.",CPT +69155,Excision Procedures on the External Ear.,"The provider excises a massive metastatic tumor of the external ear canal along with surrounding structures. He excises the lymph nodes in the neck along with other neck structures if involved in the tumor. He performs this procedure when a lesion becomes metastatic and starts invading other anatomical structures, which are near to, or adjacent to, the external ear.",CPT +69200,Removal Procedures on the External Ear.,The provider removes a foreign body from the external auditory canal without the use of general anesthesia.,CPT +69205,Removal Procedures on the External Ear.,The provider removes a foreign body from the external auditory canal with the use of general anesthesia.,CPT +69209,Removal Procedures on the External Ear.,The provider flushes or washes (irrigation/lavage) out the entrapped wax (cerumen) from a patient’s external ear canal with a stream of water to correct hearing loss or discomfort.,CPT +69210,Removal Procedures on the External Ear.,"The provider uses an instrument such as a curette, vacuum evacuation, or forceps to remove entrapped wax from a patient's external auditory canal.",CPT +69220,Removal Procedures on the External Ear.,"The provider cleans out the cavity left by a mastoidectomy. Patients sometimes require one or more debridement procedures after mastoidectomy before the cavity settles down, i.e., dries out.",CPT +69222,Removal Procedures on the External Ear.,"The provider cleans out the cavity left by a mastoidectomy; the procedure requires anesthesia or more extensive debridement than normal. Patients sometimes require one or more debridement procedures after mastoidectomy before the cavity settles down, i.e., dries out.",CPT +69300,Repair Procedures on the External Ear.,"The provider rectifies acquired or congenital deformities of ear, e.g., protruding ear; to do so, he reshapes structural ear elements to achieve a more desirable cosmetic appearance.",CPT +69310,Repair Procedures on the External Ear.,"The provider surgically reconstructs the external ear canal to treat acquired stenosis, or narrowing, of the canal.",CPT +69320,Repair Procedures on the External Ear.,"The provider surgically creates an external auditory canal to correct congenital absence of the ear canal, which causes hearing impairment.",CPT +69399,Other Procedures of the External Ear.,"For clinical responsibility, terminology, tips and additional info start codify free trial.",CPT +69420,Incision Procedures on the Middle Ear.,The provider makes a small incision in the eardrum (myringotomy); he may suck fluid from the middle ear (aspiration) and/or inject air through a tube or catheter placed through the tympanotomy to inflate the eustachian tube (ET) to treat ET dysfunction or otitis media.,CPT +69421,Incision Procedures on the Middle Ear.,The provider incises the eardrum (myringotomy) after which he may suck fluid from the middle ear (aspiration) and/or inject air through a tube or catheter placed through the tympanotomy to inflate the eustachian tube (ET) to treat ET dysfunction or otitis media.,CPT +69424,Incision Procedures on the Middle Ear.,The provider removes a ventilating tube from the ear with the patient under general anesthesia.,CPT +69433,Incision Procedures on the Middle Ear.,The provider makes a small opening in the eardrum and inserts a ventilating tube under local or topical anesthesia.,CPT +69436,Incision Procedures on the Middle Ear.,This procedure is a tympanostomy requiring the insertion of a ventilation tube under general anesthesia.,CPT +69440,Incision Procedures on the Middle Ear.,This procedure is the exploration of the middle ear via a postauricular or ear canal incision.,CPT +69450,Incision Procedures on the Middle Ear.,"The provider destroys adhesions, or scar tissue, on the tympanic membrane, or ear drum, that interfere with hearing.",CPT +69501,Excision Procedures on the Middle Ear.,This procedure is a transmastoid antrotomy (also referred to as a simple mastoidectomy).,CPT +69502,Excision Procedures on the Middle Ear.,This procedure is a complete mastoidectomy.,CPT +69505,Excision Procedures on the Middle Ear.,This procedure is a modified radical mastoidectomy.,CPT +69511,Excision Procedures on the Middle Ear.,This procedure is a radical mastoidectomy.,CPT +69530,Excision Procedures on the Middle Ear.,"The provider removes the top of the petrous portion of the temporal bone to treat disorders like acute petrositis, impaired mobility of malleus, and cholesteatoma or cholesteatosis of the middle ear and mastoid.",CPT +69535,Excision Procedures on the Middle Ear.,"The provider uses an external ear approach to resect the temporal bone, which forms the lower side and base of the cranium, to treat cancer that spread to the skull and facial bones.",CPT +69540,Excision Procedures on the Middle Ear.,The provider excises a polyp from inside the ear.,CPT +69550,Excision Procedures on the Middle Ear.,The provider removes an aural glomus tumor through an incision in the external auditory canal. He performs the procedure to relieve pain caused by the tumor.,CPT +69552,Excision Procedures on the Middle Ear.,The provider removes an aural glomus tumor using an approach through the mastoid cavity. He performs the procedure to relieve pain caused by the tumor.,CPT +69554,Excision Procedures on the Middle Ear.,"The provider removes an aural glomus tumor, which entails a mastoidectomy and, in some cases, a craniotomy and removal of the parotid gland, ear canal, and or ossicles to fully extract the entire tumor. He approaches the tumor from in front of the ear. He performs the procedure to relieve pain.",CPT +69601,Repair Procedures on the Middle Ear.,"The provider revises a previous simple mastoidectomy and converts it to a total mastoidectomy. He also removes diseased mastoid mucosa or cholesteatoma, if present. He performs the procedure because the prior procedure failed to produce a dry ear, which results in recurrent otitis media accompanied by accumulation of pus, eardrum perforation, and recurrent or residual hearing loss. The patient may also suffer from acute or recurrent cholesteatoma.",CPT +69602,Repair Procedures on the Middle Ear.,"The provider revises a previous simple or complete mastoidectomy with a modified radical mastoidectomy. This includes removing all of the mastoid air cells, any granulation and infected tissue, and the bony partitions of the mastoid cavity. The provider also reconstructs the ear canal if needed. He performs the procedure because the prior procedure failed to produce a dry ear, which results in recurrent otitis media accompanied by accumulation of pus, eardrum perforation, and recurrent or residual hearing loss.",CPT +69603,Repair Procedures on the Middle Ear.,"The provider revises a previous complete or modified radical mastoidectomy by performing a radical mastoidectomy. This involves excision of the ossicles, eustachian tube and middle ear mucosa, granulation tissue, and cholesteatoma. The provider also reconstructs the ear canal if needed. He performs the procedure because the prior procedure failed to produce a dry ear, which results in recurrent otitis media accompanied by accumulation of pus, eardrum perforation, and recurrent or residual hearing loss.",CPT +69604,Repair Procedures on the Middle Ear.,"The provider revises a previously performed mastoidectomy in conjunction with a tympanoplasty, or reconstruction of the eardrum. He performs the revision because the prior procedure failed to produce a dry ear, which results in recurrent otitis media accompanied by accumulation of pus, eardrum perforation, and recurrent or residual hearing loss.",CPT +69610,Repair Procedures on the Middle Ear.,"The provider repairs a perforated eardrum, which may include site preparation, or roughening of the site before closure. The procedure may also include applying a paper patch to the closure.",CPT +69620,Repair Procedures on the Middle Ear.,"The provider performs a myringoplasty, or surgical repair of the eardrum, using graft material such as a piece of fascia or a plug of fat. The surgery involves only the drumhead of the tympanic membrane and the graft donor area. The surgery is performed to close a perforation of the eardrum and prevent infection.",CPT +69631,Repair Procedures on the Middle Ear.,"The provider reconstructs the tympanic membrane, or eardrum, to repair a perforation. This might involve reconstruction of the ear canal, an incision into the tympanic attic and or other surgeries on the middle ear. The procedure does not include removal of the mastoid and reconstruction of the ossicular chain.",CPT +69632,Repair Procedures on the Middle Ear.,"During this initial or revision procedure, the provider reconstructs the tympanic membrane, or eardrum, to fix a perforation and reconstructs the ossicular chain to improve conductive hearing. This might involve reconstruction of the ear canal, an incision into the tympanic attic, and or other surgeries of the middle ear. This procedure does not include removal of the mastoid cavity.",CPT +69633,Repair Procedures on the Middle Ear.,"During this initial or revision procedure, the provider reconstructs the tympanic membrane, or eardrum, to fix a perforation and reconstructs the ossicular chain to improve conductive hearing. With the ossicular chain reconstruction, the provider places a synthetic prosthesis. This might involve reconstruction of the ear canal, an incision into the tympanic attic and or other surgeries of the middle ear. This procedure does not include removal of the mastoid cavity.",CPT +69635,Repair Procedures on the Middle Ear.,"During this initial or revision procedure, the provider reconstructs the tympanic membrane, or eardrum to fix a perforation and removes all or a portion of the mastoid to treat chronic infection. This might involve reconstruction of the ear canal, an incision into the tympanic attic, tympanic membrane repair, and or other surgeries of the middle ear. This procedure does not include reconstruction of the ossicular chain.",CPT +69636,Repair Procedures on the Middle Ear.,"During this initial or revision procedure, the provider reconstructs the tympanic membrane, or eardrum, to fix a perforation and reconstructs the ossicular chain to improve conductive hearing. He also removes all or a portion of the mastoid. This might involve reconstruction of the ear canal, an incision into the tympanic attic, tympanic membrane repair and or other surgeries of the middle ear.",CPT +69637,Repair Procedures on the Middle Ear.,"During this procedure, the provider reconstructs the tympanic membrane, or eardrum, to fix a perforation and reconstructs the ossicular chain using synthetic prostheses to improve conductive hearing. He also removes all or a portion of the mastoid. The procedure might involve reconstruction of the ear canal, an incision into the tympanic attic, tympanic membrane repair, and or other surgeries of the middle ear.",CPT +69641,Repair Procedures on the Middle Ear.,"During this procedure, the provider reconstructs the tympanic membrane, or eardrum, to fix a perforation and removes all or a portion of the mastoid. This might involve reconstruction of the ear canal, tympanic membrane repair, and or other surgeries of the middle ear. Reconstruction of the ossicular chain is not included in this procedure.",CPT +69642,Repair Procedures on the Middle Ear.,"The provider reconstructs the tympanic membrane, or eardrum, to fix a perforation and removes all or a portion of the mastoid. This might involve reconstruction of the ear canal, tympanic membrane repair and or other surgeries of the middle ear. He also reconstructs the ossicular chain to improve conductive hearing.",CPT +69643,Repair Procedures on the Middle Ear.,"During this procedure, the provider reconstructs the tympanic membrane, or eardrum, to fix a perforation and removes all or a portion of the mastoid. He may also reconstruct the posterior ear canal wall with cartilage, bone, or synthetic materials. This might involve reconstruction of the ear canal, tympanic membrane repair, and or other surgeries of the middle ear. Reconstruction of the ossicular chain is not included in this procedure.",CPT +69644,Repair Procedures on the Middle Ear.,"During this procedure, the provider reconstructs the tympanic membrane, or eardrum, to fix a perforation and removes all or a portion of the mastoid. He may also reconstruct the posterior ear canal wall with cartilage, bone or synthetic materials and perform an ossicular chain reconstruction. This might involve reconstruction of the ear canal, tympanic membrane repair and or other surgeries of the middle ear.",CPT +69645,Repair Procedures on the Middle Ear.,"During this procedure, the provider performs a radical or complete reconstruction of the tympanic membrane, or eardrum, to fix a perforation and removes all or a portion of the mastoid. This might involve reconstruction of the ear canal, tympanic membrane repair, and or other surgeries of the middle ear. Reconstruction of the ossicular chain is not included in this procedure.",CPT +69646,Repair Procedures on the Middle Ear.,"During this procedure, the provider performs a radical or complete reconstruction of the tympanic membrane, or eardrum, to fix a perforation and removes all or a portion of the mastoid. He also reconstructs the ossicular chain to improve conductive hearing. This might involve reconstruction of the ear canal, tympanic membrane repair, and or other surgeries of the middle ear.",CPT +69650,Repair Procedures on the Middle Ear.,The provider applies pressure to the stapes bone of the middle ear to increase mobility and improve hearing.,CPT +69660,Repair Procedures on the Middle Ear.,"The provider removes the stapes bone of the middle ear, or stapedectomy, or creates an opening in the bone, or stapedotomy. This procedure reestablishes ossicular continuity, increases mobility of the stapes and improves hearing.",CPT +69661,Repair Procedures on the Middle Ear.,"The provider removes the stapes bone of the middle ear, a stapedectomy, or creates an opening in the bone, a stapedotomy; the procedure includes creation of an opening in the thickened footplate and inserting a prosthesis. This procedure reestablishes ossicular continuity, increases mobility of the stapes, and improves hearing.",CPT +69662,Repair Procedures on the Middle Ear.,"The provider revises a previously performed stapedectomy or stapedotomy to correct a fixated stapes bone. This procedure can involve separation of the stapes and incus, drilling of the footplate, or manipulation and or replacement of the stapes prosthesis. Once completed, the procedure reestablishes ossicular continuity, increases mobility of the stapes, and improves hearing.",CPT +69666,Repair Procedures on the Middle Ear.,"The provider repairs an oval window fistula, or abnormal connection between two organs or vessels, in the inner ear, which often results in a fluid leak.",CPT +69667,Repair Procedures on the Middle Ear.,"The provider performs exploratory tympanotomy to treat a round window fistula, usually a result stapes surgery for otosclerosis.",CPT +69670,Repair Procedures on the Middle Ear.,The provider completes a mastoid obliteration by placing a lining in the mastoid cavity after he removes any remaining diseased tissue. This is a separately performed procedure and should not be considered part of the initial mastoidectomy. He performs the procedure to prevent or stop a cerebrospinal fluid leak.,CPT +69676,Repair Procedures on the Middle Ear.,"The provider severs the tympanic nerve, a sensory nerve in the tympanic cavity, also referred to as Jacobson's nerve. The procedure may treat glandular fistula or certain parotid duct fistulas, abnormal passages between two structures.",CPT +69700,Other Procedures on the Middle Ear.,The provider closes a postauricular fistula of the mastoid. This involves removing the skin plug that contains the fistula and suturing the incision site. This is a separate procedure.,CPT +69705,Other Procedures on the Middle Ear.,"Surgical nasal endoscopy consists of the use of a medical device that has a thin rigid or a flexible tube to view the sinuses and nasal passages. In this procedure, the endoscopy provides an approach for the provider to insert a catheter with a balloon tip into the eustachian tube and expand it. Report this code when used for a single side.",CPT +69706,Other Procedures on the Middle Ear.,"Surgical nasal endoscopy consists of the use of a medical device that has a thin rigid or a flexible tube to view the sinuses and nasal passages. In this procedure, the endoscopy provides an approach for the provider to insert a catheter with a balloon tip into the eustachian tube and expand it. Report this code when performed on both sides.",CPT +69710,Other Procedures on the Middle Ear.,"The provider implants or replaces an electromagnetic bone conduction hearing device in the temporal bone. These devices operate by passing an electric current into a coil that drives an adjacent magnet attached to one of the vibratory structures of the middle ear, e.g., tympanic membrane, ossicles, or round window. The implant treats conductive hearing loss.",CPT +69711,Other Procedures on the Middle Ear.,"The provider removes or repairs a previously placed electromagnetic bone conduction hearing device in the temporal bone. These devices operate by passing an electric current into a coil that drives an adjacent magnet attached to one of the vibratory structures of the middle ear, e.g., tympanic membrane, ossicles, round window. The device requires removal if it cannot be repaired or if there is associated infection.",CPT +69714,Other Procedures on the Middle Ear.,The provider implants a device into the skull (bone–anchored) that facilitates converting sound energy to be received by the inner ear. The implant is coupled directly to a speech processor percutaneously (through a small opening in the skin).,CPT +69716,Other Procedures on the Middle Ear.,The provider implants a device into the skull (bone–anchored) that facilitates converting sound energy to be received by the inner ear. The implantation occurs in the mastoid (bone behind the ear) and/or the procedure results in removal of less than 100 sq mm surface area of bone. The implant is the type coupled magnetically to a speech processor transcutaneously (through closed skin).,CPT +69717,Other Procedures on the Middle Ear.,The provider replaces a device in the skull (bone–anchored) that facilitates converting sound energy to be received by the inner ear. The implant is the type coupled to a speech processor percutaneously (through a small opening in the skin).,CPT +69719,Other Procedures on the Middle Ear.,The provider replaces a device in the skull (bone–anchored) that facilitates converting sound energy to be received by the inner ear. The implant is in the mastoid (bone behind the ear) and/or involves a bony defect of less than 100 sq mm surface area of bone. The implant is the type coupled magnetically to a speech processor transcutaneously (through closed skin).,CPT +69720,Other Procedures on the Middle Ear.,Code is in the Surgery/Operating Microscope section. It is the code for decompression a facial nerve. The surgery is performed in the middle ear.,CPT +69725,Other Procedures on the Middle Ear.,The provider performs decompression of an intratemporal facial nerve. The surgery is performed in the middle ear.,CPT +69726,Other Procedures on the Middle Ear.,The provider removes a device from the skull (bone–anchored) that facilitates converting sound energy to be received by the inner ear. The implant is the type coupled directly to a speech processor percutaneously (through a small opening in the skin).,CPT +69727,Other Procedures on the Middle Ear.,The provider removes a device from the skull (bone–anchored) that facilitates converting sound energy to be received by the inner ear. The implant is in the mastoid (bone behind the ear) and/or involves a bony defect of less than 100 sq mm surface area of bone. The implant is the type coupled magnetically to a speech processor transcutaneously (through closed skin).,CPT +69728,Other Procedures on the Middle Ear.,The provider removes a device from the skull (bone–anchored) that facilitates converting sound energy to be received by the inner ear. The implant is not in the mastoid (bone behind the ear) and involves a bony defect of 100 sq mm or more surface area of bone. The implant is the type coupled magnetically to a speech processor transcutaneously (through closed skin).,CPT +69729,Other Procedures on the Middle Ear.,The provider implants a device into the skull (bone–anchored) that facilitates converting sound energy to be received by the inner ear. The implantation occurs in a bone other than the mastoid (bone behind the ear) and results in removal of 100 sq mm or more surface area of bone. The implant is the type coupled magnetically to a speech processor transcutaneously (through closed skin).,CPT +69730,Other Procedures on the Middle Ear.,The provider replaces a device in the skull (bone–anchored) that facilitates converting sound energy to be received by the inner ear. The implant is in a bone other than the mastoid (bone behind the ear) and results in removal of 100 sq mm or more surface area of bone. The implant is the type coupled magnetically to a speech processor transcutaneously (through closed skin).,CPT +69740,Other Procedures on the Middle Ear.,"Code is in the Surgery/Operating Microscope section. It is the code for suture of a facial nerve, with or without a nerve graft or nerve decompression. It is performed to the side of the geniculate ganglion, in the middle ear.",CPT +69745,Other Procedures on the Middle Ear.,"Code is in the Surgery/Operating Microscope section. It is the code for suture of a facial nerve, with or without a nerve graft or nerve decompression. It is performed in the middle of the geniculate ganglion, in the middle ear.",CPT +69799,Other Procedures on the Middle Ear.,Use this code to report a procedure on the middle ear for which there is no specific code available.,CPT +69801,Incision and/or Destruction Procedures on the Inner Ear.,"The provider makes a surgical incision into the labyrinth (the inner ear) and instills or perfuses one or more drugs, such as a steroid or an antibiotic, through the tympanic membrane.",CPT +69805,Incision and/or Destruction Procedures on the Inner Ear.,The provider performs an operation to open and drain the endolymphatic sac; this procedure does not include placement of a shunt for continued relief of pressure.,CPT +69806,Incision and/or Destruction Procedures on the Inner Ear.,The provider performs an operation to open and drain the endolymphatic sac; this procedure includes shunt placement for continued pressure relief.,CPT +69905,Excision Procedures on the Inner Ear.,"This procedure is the excision of the labyrinth, and involves destruction of the semicircular canals, the utricle and the saccule to remove the diseased labyrinth from the remaining vestibular system.",CPT +69910,Excision Procedures on the Inner Ear.,"This procedure is for the excision of the labyrinth, or the part of the inner ear that contains the organs for both hearing and balance. The procedure involves destruction of the semicircular canals, the utricle, and the saccule to remove the diseased labyrinth from the remaining vestibular system. A provider performs this procedure to treat a patient with no hearing in an ear, which is causing vertigo, or dizziness.",CPT +69915,Excision Procedures on the Inner Ear.,Vestibular nerve section disconnect a balance organ from the brain. The translabyrinthine approach provides the best view of the lateral brain stem.,CPT +69930,Introduction Procedures on the Inner Ear.,"The external parts include microphone, speech processor, and a transmitter. The implant is surgically placed under the skin behind the ear. The internal parts are a receiver and stimulator which are secured in the bone underneath the skin, and an array of electrodes wound through the cochlea which send impulses to the nerves in the scala tympani and then directly to the brain through the auditory nervous system. This procedure destroys any residual hearing the patient may have in the implanted ear; which is why single ear implantation is more commonly done.",CPT +69949,Other Procedures of the Inner Ear.,Use this code to report a procedure on the inner ear for which there is no specific code available.,CPT +69950,"Temporal Bone, Middle Fossa Approach.","In this procedure, the provider sections the vestibular nerve to disconnect a balance organ from the brain. The provider uses a transcranial approach to perform this procedure.",CPT +69955,"Temporal Bone, Middle Fossa Approach.","In this procedure, the provider repairs or decompresses the facial nerve and may perform a nerve graft when necessary.",CPT +69960,"Temporal Bone, Middle Fossa Approach.","In this procedure the provider decompresses, or relieves pressure on the internal auditory canal.",CPT +69970,"Temporal Bone, Middle Fossa Approach.","In this procedure, the provider removes a tumor of the temporal bone.",CPT +69979,Other Procedures of the Temporal Bone Middle Fossa Approach.,Use to report temporal bone procedures in the auditory system that do not have a specific code.,CPT +69990,Operating Microscope Procedures.,Use this code in addition to the code for a primary procedure when the provider uses an operating microscope to facilitate microsurgical techniques involving cutting or suturing.,CPT +70010,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation of a procedure to image the posterior cranial fossa using a contrast medium. He performs the procedure to diagnose a possible brain tumor. A patient with a brain tumor of the posterior cranial fossa may have balance problems and difficulty walking straight.",CPT +70015,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation of an imaging procedure on the basal cistern of the brain. The procedure helps diagnose problems with the flow of cerebrospinal fluid, or CSF.",CPT +70030,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,The provider performs a plain X–ray exam of the eye to determine whether the patient has a foreign body in the eye.,CPT +70100,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,The provider takes plain X–rays of the mandible (the lower jaw bone); he obtains one to three views as needed to diagnose a fracture or other abnormality.,CPT +70110,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,"The provider takes plain X–rays of the mandible, or the lower jaw bone; he obtains 4 or more views as needed to diagnose a fracture or other abnormality, or to confirm reduction of a fracture.",CPT +70120,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,"The provider takes plain X–rays of the mastoid cavity; he takes fewer than 3 views per side. He performs the procedure to help diagnose mastoiditis; vertiginous syndromes or other disorders of the vestibular system; or a swelling, mass, or lump in the head or neck.",CPT +70130,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,"The provider takes plain X–rays of the mastoid cavity; he takes a minimum of 3 views per side. He performs the procedure to help diagnose mastoiditis; vertiginous syndromes or other disorders of the vestibular system; or a swelling, mass, or lump in the head or neck.",CPT +70134,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,The provider takes plain X–rays of the internal auditory canals to diagnose abnormalities in the hearing apparatus.,CPT +70140,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,"The provider performs a plain X–ray exam of the facial bones, fewer than three views, to determine if the patient has sustained facial fractures or some other abnormality. A Waters, or occipitomental, view helps diagnose sinusitis.",CPT +70150,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,"The provider performs a plain X–ray exam of the facial bones, fewer than three views, to determine if the patient has sustained facial fractures or some other abnormality. A Waters, or occipitomental, view helps diagnose sinusitis.",CPT +70160,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,"The provider performs a plain X–ray exam of the nasal bones, three or more views, to diagnose a nasal fracture or septal deformity.",CPT +70170,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation of radiographic imaging of the lacrimal sacs and ducts, to help diagnose the cause for epiphora, or excessive tearing.",CPT +70190,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,The provider performs X–ray examination of the optic foramina to diagnose any pathology in optic nerve and ophthalmic artery.,CPT +70200,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,"The provider performs orbital radiography, minimum of 4 views, for the detection of orbital fractures or foreign body in the eye.",CPT +70210,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,The provider performs X–ray examination of paranasal sinuses for the assessment of sinusitis.,CPT +70220,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,The provider performs X–ray examination of the paranasal sinuses by obtaining a minimum of three views. He performs the procedure for assessment of sinusitis.,CPT +70240,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,The provider takes X–rays of the sella turcica to assess the pituitary gland for tumor.,CPT +70250,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,"The provider performs an X–ray exam of patient's skull, with one to three views, mainly for the assessment of skull fracture or any intracranial injury.",CPT +70260,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,"The provider takes a four or more views of the patient's skull, mainly for the assessment of skull fracture or any intracranial injury.",CPT +70300,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,"The provider performs a single dental radiograph, or X–ray, to identify abnormalities in teeth and surrounding tissue.",CPT +70310,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,The provider takes X–rays of some of the teeth in the mouth but not all.,CPT +70320,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,"Dental X–rays show a normal number, structure, and position of the teeth and jaw bones .Dental X–rays can reveal dental cavities (tooth decay) before they are visible even to the dentist. There are two main types of dental X–rays:",CPT +70328,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,"The provider takes X–rays from one side of the temporomandibular joint, or TMJ, with the mouth open and closed. He performs the procedure in patients who have arthralgia of the TMJ or whose TMJ makes abnormal clicking noises when opening and closing the jaw, which could indicate an articular disc disorder.",CPT +70330,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,"The provider takes X–rays of both temporomandibular joints (TMJs), with the mouth open and closed. He performs the procedure in patients who have arthralgia of the TMJ or whose TMJ makes abnormal clicking noises when opening and closing the jaw, which could indicate an articular disc disorder.",CPT +70332,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,Arthrography is a radiographic contrast joint study for diagnostic purposes.  This procedure is an arthrography of the temporomandibular joint (also known as TMJ).,CPT +70336,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,"Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is a noninvasive medical test that helps physicians diagnose and treat medical conditions .MR imaging uses a magnetic field, radio frequency pulses and uses the natural magnetic properties of the hydrogen atoms in our body that emit radiofrequency signals when exposed to radio waves in an electro–magnetic field. A computer produces detailed 3D tomographic pictures of soft tissues and all other internal body structures. MRI does not use ionizing radiation (X–rays).Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is the primary modality for the evaluation of the temporomandibular joint (TMJ). MRI provides sharp tissue contrast for visualizing the soft tissue and periarticular structures of the TMJ and study intra–articular abnormalities with the use of dedicated coils and high spatial resolution. Dynamic maneuvers (opening and closing the mouth) are necessary part of the examination.",CPT +70350,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,The provider takes X–ray images of the skull and jaw in order to make cranial measurements for orthodontic placement.,CPT +70355,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,The provider takes panoramic X–rays of the patient’s upper and lower jaws to diagnose a fracture or injury to the jaw.,CPT +70360,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,This procedure is performed to view obstructions within the throat or neck or to visualize suspected foreign bodies.,CPT +70370,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,The provider uses fluoroscopy and or magnification technique to examine the pharynx or larynx to diagnose swallowing or breathing difficulties or abnormalities of the voice box.,CPT +70371,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,This procedure is a radiologic study using cineradiography or video recording for pharyngeal and speech evaluation.,CPT +70380,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,"The provider performs X–ray exam of the parotid, or salivary, gland to check for any existing sialolithiasis, or calculi of the salivary gland.",CPT +70390,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation of imaging of the parotid gland, a saliva–secreting gland in either cheek. He performs the procedure to diagnose calculi within the salivary gland or duct.",CPT +70450,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,"The provider performed computed tomography, or CT scanning, of the head or brain, without contrast. He performs the procedure to diagnose any brain or intracranial abnormalities.",CPT +70460,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,"The provider performs computed tomography, or CT scanning, of the head or brain, with contrast. He performs the procedure to diagnose any brain or intracranial abnormalities, such as a cerebral aneurysm.",CPT +70470,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,"The provider performs computed tomography, or CT scanning, of the head or brain, first without and then with contrast and additional images. He performs the procedure to diagnose any brain or intracranial abnormalities, such as a cerebral aneurysm.",CPT +70480,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,"The provider uses computed tomography, or CT, to examine the eye’s orbit, the sella or posterior fossa of the skull, or the outer, middle, or inner ear. The provider does not administer contrast for this exam.",CPT +70481,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,"The provider uses computed tomography, or CT, to examine the eye’s orbit, the sella or posterior fossa of the skull, or the outer, middle, or inner ear. The provider administers contrast for this exam.",CPT +70482,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,"The provider uses computed tomography, or CT, to examine the eye’s orbit, the sella or posterior fossa of the skull, or the outer, middle, or inner ear. The provider first takes images without administering contrast and then administers contrast before taking the remaining images.",CPT +70486,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,"The provider uses computed tomography, or CT, to examine the maxillofacial area, such as the upper jaw or face structures. The provider does not administer contrast for this exam.",CPT +70487,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,"The provider uses computed tomography, or CT, to examine the maxillofacial area, such as the upper jaw or face structures. The provider administers contrast for this exam.",CPT +70488,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,"The provider uses computed tomography, or CT, to examine the maxillofacial area, such as the upper jaw or face structures. The provider first takes images without administering contrast and then administers contrast before taking the remaining images.",CPT +70490,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,The provider uses computed tomography to examine the neck’s soft tissue structures. The provider does not administer contrast for this exam.,CPT +70491,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,The provider uses computed tomography to examine the neck’s soft tissue structures. The provider administers contrast for this exam.,CPT +70492,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,The provider uses computed tomography to examine the neck’s soft tissue structures. The provider first takes images without administering contrast and then administers contrast before taking the remaining images.,CPT +70496,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,"The provider injects contrast material into a peripheral vein and images the blood vessels in the patient's head using computed tomographic scanning. Noncontrast images, if performed, are included in this procedure as is image post–processing.",CPT +70498,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,"The provider injects contrast material into a peripheral vein and images the blood vessels in the patient's neck using computed tomographic scanning. Noncontrast images, if performed, are included in this procedure as is image post–processing.",CPT +70540,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,"The provider uses magnetic resonance imaging, or MRI, to examine the eye’s orbit, the face, or the neck. The provider does not administer contrast for this exam.",CPT +70542,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,"The provider obtains multi–sequence and multi–planar images of the orbits, face, and/or neck with contrast to diagnose various disorders, including tumors.",CPT +70543,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,"The provider obtains multi–sequence and multi–planar images of the orbits, face, and/or neck initially without the use of contrast and then injects contrast to see additional images and diagnose various disorders, including tumors.",CPT +70544,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,The provider performs magnetic resonance angiography of the vessels of the head and surrounding areas. The provider does not use contrast.,CPT +70545,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,The provider performs magnetic resonance angiography of the vessels of the head and surrounding areas using contrast.,CPT +70546,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,The provider performs magnetic resonance angiography of the vessels of the head and surrounding areas. The provider takes images without contrast and then injects contrast and takes more images.,CPT +70547,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,The provider performs magnetic resonance angiography of the vessels of the neck and surrounding areas. The provider does not use contrast.,CPT +70548,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,The provider performs magnetic resonance angiography of the vessels of the neck and surrounding areas using contrast.,CPT +70549,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,The provider performs magnetic resonance angiography of the vessels of the neck and surrounding areas without contrast and then takes images again using contrast.,CPT +70551,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,"The provider uses magnetic resonance imaging, or MRI, to examine the brain and brain stem. The provider does not administer contrast for this exam.",CPT +70552,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,"The provider uses magnetic resonance imaging, or MRI, to examine the brain and brain stem using contrast.",CPT +70553,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a magnetic resonance imaging, or MRI, study of the brain including the brain stem. He performs this procedure without using contrast material. He then follows with contrast material and takes more images.",CPT +70554,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,"The provider performs a functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) of the brain, which tracks brain activity by assessing the metabolic changes that occur in response to neural activity.",CPT +70555,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,"In this procedure, the provider performs functional magnetic resonance imaging, or MRI, of the brain, which tracks the brain activity by assessing the metabolic changes that occurs in response to neural activity. This procedure requires the presence of a physician or psychologist to administer the study.",CPT +70557,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,"In this procedure, the provider performs magnetic resonance imaging, or MRI, of the brain including the brain stem and skull base during an open surgery on the brain. He performs this procedure to check for residual tumor or a residual vascular malformation. He performs this service without the use of contrast material.",CPT +70558,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,"In this procedure, the provider performs magnetic resonance imaging, or MRI, of the brain including the brain stem and skull base during an open surgery on the brain. He performs this procedure to check for residual tumor or a residual vascular malformation. He performs this service with contrast material.",CPT +70559,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Head and Neck.,"In this procedure, the provider performs magnetic resonance imaging, or MRI, of the brain including the brain stem and skull base during an open surgery on the brain. He performs this procedure to check for residual tumor or a residual vascular malformation. He performs this service without contrast material, then repeats the procedure using contrast, and takes more images.",CPT +71045,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Chest.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs a single radiological view of the chest. He performs this study for the assessment of conditions affecting the chest, its contents, and nearby structures.",CPT +71046,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Chest.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs a minimum of two radiological views of the chest. He performs this study for the assessment of conditions affecting the chest, its contents, and nearby structures.",CPT +71047,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Chest.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs a minimum of three radiological views of the chest. He performs this study for the assessment of conditions affecting the chest, its contents, and nearby structures.",CPT +71048,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Chest.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs a minimum of four radiological views of the chest. He performs this study for the assessment of conditions affecting the chest, its contents, and nearby structures.",CPT +71100,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Chest.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs a two view unilateral radiological study of the ribs. He performs this procedure to identify problems pertaining to the ribs.",CPT +71101,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Chest.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs a three view unilateral radiological study of the ribs including a posteroanterior, or back to front, view of the chest. He performs this procedure to identify problems pertaining to the ribs.",CPT +71110,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Chest.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs a three view bilateral radiological study of the ribs. He performs this procedure to identify problems pertaining to the ribs.",CPT +71111,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Chest.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs a minimum of four views radiological study of the ribs, including a posteroanterior, or back to front, view of the chest. He performs this procedure to identify problems pertaining to the ribs.",CPT +71120,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Chest.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs a two view radiological study of the sternum, or the breast bone. He performs this procedure to identify problems pertaining to the sternum.",CPT +71130,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Chest.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs a minimum of three views (X–rays) of the sternoclavicular joint or joints.",CPT +71250,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Chest.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs a computed tomography, or CT, examination of the thorax without using contrast material.",CPT +71260,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Chest.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs a computed tomography, or CT, examination of the thorax using contrast material.",CPT +71270,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Chest.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs a computed tomography, or CT, examination of the thorax without using contrast material. He then follows with contrast material and takes more images.",CPT +71271,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Chest.,"The provider performs a low–dose computed tomography (LDCT), with low–dose ionizing radiation, for examination of the thorax without using contrast material to screen for lung cancer.",CPT +71275,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Chest.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a computed tomographic angiography, or CTA imaging of the chest to get detailed images of the blood vessels but not the heart. He performs this study using a contrast material injection and may also take non contrast images of the blood vessels as well.",CPT +71550,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Chest.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs a magnetic resonance imaging, or MRI, study of the chest without contrast material. An MRI of the chest helps to detect diseases of internal organs like hilar or mediastinal lymphadenopathy, an enlargement of the lymph nodes in the hilar or lung roots, or in the mediastinum between the lungs.",CPT +71551,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Chest.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs a magnetic resonance imaging, or MRI, study of the chest using contrast material. An MRI of the chest helps to detect diseases of internal organs like hilar or mediastinal lymphadenopathy, an enlargement of the lymph nodes in the hilar or lung roots, or in the mediastinum between the lungs.",CPT +71552,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Chest.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs a magnetic resonance imaging, or MRI, study of the chest without using contrast material. He then follows with contrast material and takes more images. An MRI of the chest helps to detect diseases of internal organs like hilar or mediastinal lymphadenopathy, an enlargement of the lymph nodes in the hilar or lung roots, or in the mediastinum between the lungs.",CPT +71555,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Chest.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs a magnetic resonance angiography, or MRA, study of the blood vessels of the chest to evaluate for occlusion, stenosis, or aneurysm. The provider does not image the myocardium, but he may use contrast during the procedure.",CPT +72020,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs a single view radiological examination of a specific level of the spine. He may examine either the cervical, thoracic, or lumbar part of the spine at the specific level. He performs this examination to detect fractures, tumors, deformities, and infection of the spine.",CPT +72040,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,The patient has a 2– or 3–view X–ray of the neck vertebrae.,CPT +72050,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs four to five X–ray views of the cervical spine. The provider performs this cervical radiological study to examine the spine for conditions affecting the spine such as abnormal curves, fractures, or cancer.",CPT +72052,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs six or more X–ray views of the cervical spine. The goal of this study is to examine the patient's spine for such conditions as abnormal curves, fractures, or cancer.",CPT +72070,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"A radiologic examination of the thoracic spine is an X–ray of the twelve chest thoracic vertebrae. An AP and lateral are basic projections. The X–rays are used in a controlled way to minimize the radiation exposure. The X–ray helps evaluate bone injuries and diseases, fractures, dislocations, osteoporosis and deformities in the curvature of the spine.",CPT +72072,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs three X–ray views of the thoracic spine. The goal of this thoracic radiological study is to examine the spine for conditions such as abnormal curves, fractures, or cancer.",CPT +72074,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs a minimum of 4 X–rays views of the thoracic spine. The goal of this thoracic radiological study is to examine the spine for conditions such as abnormal curves, fractures, or cancer.",CPT +72080,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs a minimum of two X–ray views of the area where the thoracic spine meets the lumbar spine to examine the patient's thoracolumbar junction for abnormal curves, fractures, or cancer.",CPT +72081,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider captures the entire thoracic (upper and middle) and lumbar (lower) spine in an X–ray image from a single projection (direction or angle) to evaluate the patient for S–shaped curvature of the spine (scoliosis) or other spine abnormalities. The skull, neck (cervical) and tailbone (sacral) area of the spine may also be included.",CPT +72082,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider takes X–ray images from two or three projections (directions or angles) of the entire thoracic (upper and middle) and lumbar (lower) spine to evaluate the patient for S–shaped curvature of the spine (scoliosis) or other spine abnormalities. The skull, neck (cervical) and tailbone (sacral) area of the spine may also be included.",CPT +72083,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider takes X–ray images of the entire thoracic (upper and middle) and lumbar (lower) spine from four or five projections (directions or angles) to evaluate the patient for S–shaped curvature of the spine (scoliosis) or other spine abnormalities. The skull, neck (cervical) and tailbone (sacral) area of the spine may also be included.",CPT +72084,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider takes a minimum six X–ray images of the entire thoracic (upper and middle) and lumbar (lower) spine from different projections (directions or angles) to evaluate the patient for S–shaped curvature of the spine (scoliosis) or other spine abnormalities. The skull, neck (cervical) and tailbone (sacral) area of the spine may also be included.",CPT +72100,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"The technician takes 2 or 3 views of the vertebrae in the lumbar region which is the lower part of the spine and the sacrum, the area that connects the spine to the pelvis. Lumbosacral spine X–rays help evaluate back injuries, persistent numbness, and low back pain.",CPT +72110,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs at least four X–ray views of the lumbosacral spine to evaluate the patient's spine for the presence of abnormal curves, fractures, or cancer.",CPT +72114,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"In this diagnostic service, the provider performs a complete radiological study of the lumbar spine. He performs a minimum of six views that include the bending views of the spine.",CPT +72120,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs a two or three view radiological study of the lumbosacral spine with the patient in a bending position. He performs this lumbosacral examination to evaluate the patient's spine for the presence of abnormal curves, fractures, or cancer.",CPT +72125,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs a computed tomography, or CT, examination of the cervical spine without contrast material.",CPT +72126,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs a computed tomography, or CT, examination of the cervical spine with contrast material.",CPT +72127,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs a computed tomography, or CT, examination of the cervical spine without contrast material, and then again after injection of a contrast material.",CPT +72128,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs a computed tomography, or CT, examination of the thoracic spine without using contrast material.",CPT +72129,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs a computed tomography, or CT, examination of the thoracic spine using contrast material.",CPT +72130,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs a computed tomography, or CT, examination of the thoracic spine without using contrast material. He then follows with contrast material and takes more images.",CPT +72131,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs a computed tomography, or CT, examination of the lumbar spine without using contrast material.",CPT +72132,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs a computed tomography, or CT, examination of the lumbar spine using contrast material.",CPT +72133,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs a computed tomography, or CT, examination of the lumbar spine without using contrast material. He then follows with contrast material and takes more images.",CPT +72141,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) study of the cervical spinal canal and contents without using contrast material.",CPT +72142,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) study of the cervical spinal canal and contents using contrast material.",CPT +72146,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the thoracic spinal canal and contents without using contrast.",CPT +72147,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"In this diagnostic procedure, he provider performs a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the thoracic spinal canal and contents using contrast.",CPT +72148,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the lumbar spinal canal and contents without using contrast.",CPT +72149,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the lumbar spinal canal and contents using contrast.",CPT +72156,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the cervical spinal canal and contents first without using contrast and again after injecting contrast material.",CPT +72157,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the thoracic spinal canal and contents first without using contrast and again after injecting contrast material.",CPT +72158,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the lumbar spinal canal and contents first without using contrast and again after injecting contrast material.",CPT +72159,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of blood vessels of the spinal canal and contents to check for stenosis or an aneurysm of the vessels. The provider may use contrast during the procedure.",CPT +72170,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"In this procedure, the provider takes one or two X–ray images of the pelvic bone to check for any fracture, swelling, or reason of pain in the pelvis.",CPT +72190,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"In this procedure, the provider takes a minimum three X–ray images of the pelvic bone to check for any fracture, swelling, or reason of pain in the pelvic area.",CPT +72191,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"In this procedure, the provider performs computer tomographic angiography (CTA) imaging of the blood vessels of the pelvis. He uses contrast and may take noncontrast images as well. After taking the images, he uses a computerized process to select the most relevant view of the images taken.",CPT +72192,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"In this procedure, the provider performs computer tomographic (CT) imaging of the pelvis without using contrast.",CPT +72193,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"In this procedure, the provider performs computer tomographic (CT) imaging of the pelvis using contrast.",CPT +72194,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"In this procedure, the provider performs computer tomographic (CT) imaging of the pelvis first without using contrast and again after injecting contrast material.",CPT +72195,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"In this procedure, the provider performs magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the pelvis area without contrast material.",CPT +72196,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the pelvis using contrast.",CPT +72197,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the pelvis first without using contrast and again after injecting contrast material.",CPT +72198,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs magnetic resonance angiography (MRA) of the blood vessels of the pelvis to check for stenosis or an aneurysm of the vessels. The provider may use contrast during the procedure.",CPT +72200,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"In this procedure, the provider takes one or two X–ray views of the sacroiliac joints to check for any fracture, swelling, or reason of pain in the lower back area.",CPT +72202,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"In this procedure, the provider takes three or more X–ray views of the sacroiliac joints to check for any fracture, swelling, or reason of pain in the lower back area.",CPT +72220,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"In this procedure, the provider takes at least two X–ray views of the sacrum and coccyx bone to check any fracture, swelling, or reason of pain in the lower back area.",CPT +72240,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation for a myelogram of the cervical spine, or the vertebrae in the neck area. The provider performs an injection of contrast material and takes a series of X–ray images to detect any injury or abnormal growth in the spinal canal and its contents. Report this code to represent only imaging supervision and interpretation for this procedure.",CPT +72255,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation for a myelogram of the thoracic spine, or the vertebrae in the chest area. The provider performs an injection of contrast material and takes a series of X–ray images to detect any injury or abnormal growth in the spinal canal and its contents. Report this code to represent only imaging supervision and interpretation for this procedure.",CPT +72265,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation for a myelogram of the lumbar and sacral spine, or the vertebrae in the lower back area. The provider performs an injection of contrast material and takes a series of X–ray images to detect any injury or abnormal growth in the spinal canal and its contents. Report this code to represent only imaging supervision and interpretation for this procedure.",CPT +72270,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation for a myelogram of two or more regions of the spinal canal. The provider performs an injection of contrast material and takes a series of X–ray images to detect any injury or abnormal growth in the spinal canal and its contents. Report this code to represent only imaging supervision and interpretation for this procedure.",CPT +72285,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation for a discogram, a study of the cartilaginous disc between two vertebrae. The provider performs an injection of contrast material into the disc space of the cervical or thoracic spinal canal and takes a series of X–ray images to detect any injury or protrusion of disc in the spine. Report this code to represent only imaging supervision and interpretation for this procedure.",CPT +72295,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Spine and Pelvis.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation for a discogram, a study of the cartilaginous disc between two vertebrae. The provider performs an injection of contrast material into the disc space of the lumbar spinal canal and takes a series of X–ray images to detect any injury or protrusion of disc in the spine. Report this code to represent only imaging supervision and interpretation for this procedure.",CPT +73000,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Upper Extremities.,"The provider performs a complete X–ray study of the clavicle (collarbone) to assess a fracture or other injury and conditions like arthritis, bone spurs, tumors, or congenital abnormalities.",CPT +73010,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Upper Extremities.,"The provider performs a complete X–ray study of the scapula (shoulder blade) to assess a fracture or other injury and conditions like arthritis, bone spurs, tumors, or congenital abnormalities.",CPT +73020,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Upper Extremities.,Report this code for a single view X–ray of the shoulder.,CPT +73030,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Upper Extremities.,This particular procedure is for a minimum of 2 X–ray views of the complete shoulder.,CPT +73040,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Upper Extremities.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation of a shoulder joint study. The provider injects contrast material and/or air into the patient’s shoulder joint and takes a series of X–rays as it flows through the joint to evaluate the different joint structures for conditions such as arthritis, adhesive capsulitis, or a frozen joint, tears, or abnormalities of the cartilage. Report this code to represent only imaging supervision and interpretation for this procedure.",CPT +73050,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Upper Extremities.,"The provider performs an X–ray study of the acromioclavicular joints on both the left and right sides to assess an injury or joint disease, such as arthritis. He may ask the patient to hold weights to apply stress on the joints during imaging.",CPT +73060,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Upper Extremities.,"X–rays of the extremities are performed to assess injury, fracture, arthritis, bone spurs, tumors, or congenital abnormalities. Extremity X–rays include the hand, wrist, arm, foot, ankle, hip, leg, shoulder, or knee. X–rays of the affected site focus on the specific area that is injured or damaged.",CPT +73070,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Upper Extremities.,"X–rays of the extremities are performed to assess injury, fracture, arthritis, bone spurs, tumors, or congenital abnormalities. Extremity X–rays include the hand, wrist, arm, foot, ankle, hip, leg, shoulder, or knee. X–rays of the affected site focus on the specific area that is injured or damaged.",CPT +73080,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Upper Extremities.,"X–rays of the extremities are performed to assess injury, fracture, arthritis, bone spurs, tumors, or congenital abnormalities. Extremity X–rays include the hand, wrist, arm, foot, ankle, hip, leg, shoulder, or knee. X–rays of the affected site focus on the specific area that is injured or damaged.",CPT +73085,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Upper Extremities.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation of an elbow joint study. The provider injects contrast material and/or air into the patient’s elbow joint and takes a series of X–rays as it flows through the joint to evaluate the joint structures for conditions such as arthritis, adhesive capsulitis, or a frozen joint, tears, or abnormalities of the cartilage. Report this code to represent only imaging supervision and interpretation for this procedure.",CPT +73090,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Upper Extremities.,"In this procedure, the provider takes two X–ray views of a patient’s forearm to check for any fracture, swelling, or reason of pain in the forearm area.",CPT +73092,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Upper Extremities.,"In this procedure, the provider takes at least two X–ray images of an upper extremity of an infant to check any congenital anomaly, or other disease condition of the upper extremity of an infant.",CPT +73100,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Upper Extremities.,"In this procedure, the provider takes two X–ray images of a patient’s wrist to check for any fracture, swelling, or reason of pain in the wrist area.",CPT +73110,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Upper Extremities.,"The provider takes at least three X–ray images of a patient’s complete wrist to check for any fracture, swelling, or reason of pain in the wrist area.",CPT +73115,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Upper Extremities.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation for a wrist joint study. The provider injects contrast material or air into the patient’s wrist joint and takes a series of X–rays as it flows through the joint to evaluate the different joint structures for conditions such as arthritis, adhesive capsulitis, or a frozen joint, tears, or abnormalities of the cartilage. Report this code to represent only imaging supervision and interpretation for this procedure.",CPT +73120,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Upper Extremities.,"X–rays of the extremities have been performed to assess injury, fracture, arthritis, bone spurs, tumors, or congenital abnormalities. Extremity X–rays include the hand, wrist, arm, foot, ankle, hip, leg, shoulder, or knee. X–rays of the affected site focus on the specific area that is injured or damaged.",CPT +73130,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Upper Extremities.,"In this procedure, the provider takes a minimum of three X–ray images of a patient’s hand to check for any fracture, swelling, or reason of pain in the hand.",CPT +73140,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Upper Extremities.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs a radiological study of one or more fingers. He performs two or more views.",CPT +73200,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Upper Extremities.,"In this procedure, the provider performs computer tomographic imaging of the upper extremity without using contrast.",CPT +73201,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Upper Extremities.,"In this procedure, the provider performs computer tomographic imaging of the upper extremity using contrast.",CPT +73202,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Upper Extremities.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a computer tomographic imaging of the upper extremity first without using contrast and again after injecting contrast material.",CPT +73206,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Upper Extremities.,"In this procedure the provider performs a computer tomographic imaging of the blood vessels of an upper extremity. He uses contrast and may take noncontrast images as well. After taking the images, he also uses a computerized process to select the most relevant view of the images taken.",CPT +73218,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Upper Extremities.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs a magnetic resonance imaging imaging of a patient’s upper extremity for a location other than the joint of the extremity. He performs the procedure without using contrast.",CPT +73219,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Upper Extremities.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs a magnetic resonance imaging of the upper extremity for a location other than the joint of the extremity. He performs the procedure using contrast material.",CPT +73220,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Upper Extremities.,In this diagnostic procedure the provider performs a magnetic resonance imaging of the patient’s upper extremity for a location other than the joint of the extremity. He performs the procedure first without using contrast and again after injecting contrast material.,CPT +73221,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Upper Extremities.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs a magnetic resonance imaging, or MRI imaging, of any of the joints of a patient’s upper extremity, which can be the shoulder, elbow, wrist, or joints of the hand. The provider performs this procedure without using contrast material.",CPT +73222,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Upper Extremities.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs a magnetic resonance imaging of any of the joints of the upper extremity, which can be the shoulder, elbow, wrist, or joints of the hand. The provider performs this procedure using contrast.",CPT +73223,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Upper Extremities.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs a magnetic resonance imaging, or MRI imaging, of any of the joints of the upper extremity, which can be the shoulder, elbow, wrist, or joints of the hand. The provider performs the procedure first without using contrast and then again after injecting a contrast material.",CPT +73225,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Upper Extremities.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs a magnetic resonance imaging of the blood vessels of the upper extremity to check for stenosis or aneurysm of the vessels. The provider may use contrast during the procedure.",CPT +73501,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Lower Extremities.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider takes an X–ray image of one hip, either left or right, from a single projection (direction or angle) to check for  fracture, swelling, or other reason for pain in the hip area, including pelvis when performed.",CPT +73502,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Lower Extremities.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider takes X–ray images of one hip, either left or right, from two or three projections (directions or angles) to check for any fracture, swelling, or other reason for pain in the hip area, including the pelvis when performed.",CPT +73503,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Lower Extremities.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider takes a minimum of four X–ray images from different projections (directions or angles) of one hip, either left or right, to check for fracture, swelling, or other reason for pain in the hip area, including the pelvis when performed.",CPT +73521,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Lower Extremities.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider takes two X–ray images from different projections (directions or angles) of both hips, left and right, to check for fracture, swelling, or other reasons for pain in the hip area, including pelvis when performed.",CPT +73522,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Lower Extremities.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider takes three to four X–ray images of both hips, left and right, from different projections (directions or angles) to check for fracture, swelling, or other reason for pain in the hip area, including pelvis when performed.",CPT +73523,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Lower Extremities.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider takes a minimum of five X–ray images of both hips, left and right, from different projections (directions or angles) to check for fracture, swelling, or other reasons for pain in the hip area, including pelvis when performed.",CPT +73525,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Lower Extremities.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation of a hip joint study. The provider injects contrast material into the hip joint and takes a series of X–rays as it flows through the joint to evaluate the different joint structures. Report this code to represent only imaging supervision and interpretation for this procedure.",CPT +73551,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Lower Extremities.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider takes an X–ray image from a single projection (direction or angle) of the femur (thigh bone) to check for fracture, swelling, or other reason for pain in the thigh area.",CPT +73552,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Lower Extremities.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider takes an X–ray image of the femur (thigh bone) from a minimum of two projections (directions or angles) to check for fracture, swelling, or other reason for pain in the thigh area.",CPT +73560,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Lower Extremities.,"In this procedure, the provider takes one or two X–ray images of a patient’s knee joint to check for any fracture, swelling, or reason for pain in the knee area.",CPT +73562,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Lower Extremities.,"In this procedure, the provider takes three X–ray images of a patient’s knee joint to check for any fracture, swelling, or reason for pain in the knee area.",CPT +73564,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Lower Extremities.,"In this procedure, the provider takes four or more X–ray views of the knee joint to check for any fracture, swelling, or reason for pain in the knee area.",CPT +73565,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Lower Extremities.,"In this procedure, the provider takes X–ray images of a patient’s knees while the patient is in a standing position facing the X–ray machine to check for any fracture, swelling, or reason for pain in the knee area.",CPT +73580,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Lower Extremities.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation of a knee joint study. The provider injects contrast material into the knee joint and takes a series of X–rays as it flows through the joint to evaluate the different joint structures.  Report this code to represent only imaging supervision and interpretation for this procedure.",CPT +73590,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Lower Extremities.,"In this procedure, the provider takes two X–ray views of the tibia and fibula bones to check for any fracture, swelling, or reason for pain in the lower leg area.",CPT +73592,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Lower Extremities.,"Report this code for two or more X–ray views of an infant's lower extremity to assess injury, tumor, or congenital abnormalities.",CPT +73600,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Lower Extremities.,"In this procedure, the provider takes two X–ray views of the ankle joint to check for any fracture, swelling, or reason for pain in the ankle.",CPT +73610,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Lower Extremities.,"In this procedure, the provider takes three or more X–ray images of the ankle joint to check for any fracture, swelling, or reason for pain in the ankle area.",CPT +73615,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Lower Extremities.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation for an ankle arthrography. Report this code to represent only imaging supervision and interpretation for this procedure.",CPT +73620,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Lower Extremities.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider takes two X–ray views of a patient’s foot to assess an injury, fracture, arthritis, tumor, or congenital abnormality.",CPT +73630,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Lower Extremities.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider takes a minimum of three views of the foot to assess injury, fracture, arthritis, tumor, or congenital abnormality.",CPT +73650,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Lower Extremities.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider takes a minimum of two X–ray views of the calcaneus (heel bone) to assess injury, fracture, arthritis, tumor, or congenital abnormality.",CPT +73660,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Lower Extremities.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider takes a minimum of two X–ray views of one or multiple toes to assess injury, fracture, arthritis, tumor, or congenital abnormalities.",CPT +73700,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Lower Extremities.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a computed tomography scan of a patient’s lower extremity without using contrast material to diagnose a fracture or disease of the lower extremity.",CPT +73701,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Lower Extremities.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a computed tomography, or CT, scan of a patient’s lower extremity using contrast material. The provider performs this radiology procedure for diagnosis of a fracture, or disease of the lower extremity. This code represents both the technical and professional components of the service.",CPT +73702,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Lower Extremities.,"The provider performs a computed tomography scan of the lower extremity without contrast material initially and again after an injection of contrast material for further sections. The provider performs this radiology procedure for diagnosis of a fracture, or disease of the lower extremity.",CPT +73706,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Lower Extremities.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a computed tomography angiography of the lower extremity. He uses contrast and may take noncontrast images as well. After taking the images, he uses a computerized process to select the most relevant view of the images taken. The provider performs this radiology procedure for screening of arterial disease and help providers detect aneurysms, thrombosis, and ischemia in the arteries.",CPT +73718,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Lower Extremities.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs a magnetic resonance imaging study of a patient’s lower extremity other than a joint, without the use of contrast material.",CPT +73719,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Lower Extremities.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs magnetic resonance imaging of a patient’s lower extremity other than a joint with contrast material.",CPT +73720,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Lower Extremities.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs magnetic resonance imaging imaging of a patient’s lower extremity for other than a joint without contrast material initially, and then after injecting contrast material for further sequences.",CPT +73721,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Lower Extremities.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs magnetic resonance imaging of a lower extremity joint without using contrast material.",CPT +73722,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Lower Extremities.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs magnetic resonance imaging of a joint in a patient’s lower extremity using contrast material.",CPT +73723,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Lower Extremities.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs magnetic resonance imaging of a patient’s lower extremity joint, without contrast material initially and then after injecting contrast material for further sequences.",CPT +73725,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Lower Extremities.,"The provider performs magnetic resonance angiography of the lower extremity, with or without contrast material, to generate images of the arteries in order to evaluate them for stenosis or aneurysm.",CPT +74018,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Abdomen.,Report this code for one X–ray view of the structures and organs in the abdomen to diagnose certain abdominal problems.,CPT +74019,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Abdomen.,Report this code for two X–ray views of the structures and organs in the abdomen to diagnose certain abdominal problems.,CPT +74021,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Abdomen.,Report this code for three or more X–ray views of the structures and organs in the abdomen to diagnose certain abdominal problems.,CPT +74022,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Abdomen.,"The provider takes two or more views of the entire abdomen including stomach, liver, spleen, large and small intestines, and diaphragm and a single view of the chest for assessment of suspected acute abdomen, a condition that demands immediate diagnosis and treatment.",CPT +74150,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Abdomen.,"The provider performs computed tomography, also known as a CT scan, to create cross–sectional images of the abdomen to aid in the diagnosis and treatment of abdominal conditions. He does not inject contrast material.",CPT +74160,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Abdomen.,The provider performs computed tomography to create cross–sectional images of the abdomen to aid in the diagnosis and treatment of abdominal conditions. He injects contrast material to enhance the images.,CPT +74170,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Abdomen.,"The provider performs computed tomography to create cross–sectional images of the abdomen to aid in the diagnosis and treatment of abdominal conditions. He obtains images without contrast and then injects contrast and obtains additional images, or sections.",CPT +74174,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Abdomen.,"In this procedure, the provider performs computed tomographic angiography of the abdomen and pelvis with contrast and may take noncontrast images as well. After taking the images, he uses a computerized process to select the most relevant view of the images taken.",CPT +74175,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Abdomen.,"Computed angiography (CTA) of the abdomen is performed with contrast material. CTA includes reconstruction post–processing of angiographic images and interpretation. Non–contrast images, if done, are also included in this procedure.",CPT +74176,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Abdomen.,The provider performs computed tomography of the abdomen and pelvis without contrast material to diagnose the cause of abdominal or pelvic pain or other abnormalities of the internal organs.,CPT +74177,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Abdomen.,The provider performs computed tomography of the abdomen and pelvis with contrast material to diagnose the cause of abdominal or pelvic pain or other abnormalities of the internal organs.,CPT +74178,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Abdomen.,The provider performs computed tomography of the abdomen and pelvis without contrast material in one or both body regions followed by contrast material in one or both body regions and additional sections. A provider performs this service to diagnose the cause of abdominal or pelvic pain or other abnormalities of the internal organs.,CPT +74181,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Abdomen.,The provider performed magnetic resonance imaging of the structures and organs in the abdomen without contrast material.,CPT +74182,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Abdomen.,The provider performs magnetic resonance imaging of the structures and organs of the abdomen using contrast.,CPT +74183,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Abdomen.,"The provider performs magnetic resonance imaging of the structures and organs of the abdomen, initially without control and then with additional sequences after injection of contrast.",CPT +74185,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Abdomen.,The provider performs magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the blood vessels in the abdomen; he may or may not employ the use of contrast materials.,CPT +74190,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Abdomen.,"After injection of air or contrast into the peritoneal cavity, an X–ray is taken to study the pattern of air in the cavity.",CPT +74210,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Gastrointestinal Tract.,"The provider performs a radiological examination of the pharynx, the cervical esophagus, or both and uses contrast to enhance the images for further evaluation. Scout neck image(s), and delayed images are included with this procedure, if performed.",CPT +74220,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Gastrointestinal Tract.,"The provider uses imaging such as fluoroscopy to visualize the patient’s esophagus, typically while the patient swallows a barium sulfate compound; he views the live images and also records the images digitally. The provider uses scout chest radiographs, delayed images, if performed, for further evaluation.",CPT +74221,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Gastrointestinal Tract.,"The provider performs a double–contrast X–ray of the esophagus using high–density barium and an effervescent agent; the procedure includes scout films prior to ingestion of the barium and delayed films following barium ingestion, when performed.",CPT +74230,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Gastrointestinal Tract.,"The provider visualizes and records the patient’s swallowing pattern using barium sulfate contrast and cineradiography/videoradiography; scout neck films and delayed images may be obtained and, if so, are included with this procedure.",CPT +74235,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Gastrointestinal Tract.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation for a separately reportable procedure that involves removing a foreign body from the esophagus using a balloon catheter. Report this code to represent only imaging supervision and interpretation for this procedure.",CPT +74240,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Gastrointestinal Tract.,"The provider takes an imaging series of the upper gastrointestinal tract, including the esophagus, stomach, and the beginning of the small intestine, or duodenum using barium sulfate contrast. The service includes scout films of the abdomen and delayed films if performed.",CPT +74246,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Gastrointestinal Tract.,"The provider uses fluoroscopy and both air and high–density barium contrast to better evaluate the upper gastrointestinal (GI) tract, including the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum. Glucagon may be administered to reduce spasms of the GI tract.",CPT +74248,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Gastrointestinal Tract.,"Following an upper gastrointestinal radiologic study, the provider performs a small intestine follow–through, taking multiple series images. Report this code in addition to the code for the primary procedure.",CPT +74250,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Gastrointestinal Tract.,"The provider takes X–rays of the small intestine after infusing single–contrast barium through a tube passed through the nose or mouth, down the throat, and into the duodenum or small intestine. The service also includes a scout film taken before the contrast is instilled, if performed, and sequential X–ray exposures after the instillation of the contrast.",CPT +74251,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Gastrointestinal Tract.,"The provider takes X–rays of the small intestine after infusing high–density barium and air (double–contrast) through a tube passed through the nose or mouth, down the throat, and into the duodenum or small intestine. The service also includes a scout film taken before the contrast is instilled, if performed, and sequential X–ray exposures after the instillation of the contrast. Glucagon, if administered, is usually given by IV infusion prior to the procedure.",CPT +74261,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Gastrointestinal Tract.,"The provider uses computed tomography, or CT, to take images of the colon without using contrast.",CPT +74262,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Gastrointestinal Tract.,The provider uses computed tomography (CT) to take images of the colon using contrast.,CPT +74263,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Gastrointestinal Tract.,"In this exam, the provider performs a noninvasive imaging method called computed tomography (CT) to examine the colon and produce high–resolution two– and three–dimensional images for colorectal polyps and cancer screening. CT colonography (CTC) is also known as virtual colonoscopy or virtual colonography.",CPT +74270,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Gastrointestinal Tract.,The provider takes X–rays of the colon after instilling a contrast agent such as barium through the rectum into the colon. The service also includes a scout film of the abdomen taken before the contrast is instilled and delayed images if performed.,CPT +74280,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Gastrointestinal Tract.,"The provider takes X–rays of the colon after infusing double–contrast high–density barium and air through the rectum into the colon. The service also includes a scout film and delay image taken before the contrast is instilled, if performed, and abdominal X–ray exposures after instillation of the contrast. Glucagon, if administered, is usually given by IV infusion prior to the procedure.",CPT +74283,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Gastrointestinal Tract.,"The provider injects air or an X–ray dye, referred to as contrast, into the large intestine through an enema. She then watches the progression and effect on a blockage with an X–ray camera called a fluoroscope. The procedure flushes out an obstruction of the intestines or unfolds a portion of the intestine that has folded in on itself.",CPT +74290,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Gastrointestinal Tract.,"The provider X–rays the gallbladder and views its contents with an X–ray camera called a fluoroscope after the patient consumes a special diet and ingests iodine–based tablets or contrast by mouth prior to the test. The procedure diagnoses conditions of the liver and gallbladder, including gallstones and tumors.",CPT +74300,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Gastrointestinal Tract.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation, S&I, while injecting a radio contrast material into the patient’s common bile duct during surgery to help detect stones or other obstructions such as tumors or strictures. Report this code to represent only imaging supervision and interpretation for this procedure.",CPT +74301,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Gastrointestinal Tract.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation, or S&I, for additional films taken when contrast imaging of the common bile duct is done during surgery to help detect stones or other obstruction such as tumors or strictures. Report this code to represent only imaging supervision and interpretation for this procedure.",CPT +74328,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Gastrointestinal Tract.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation, S&I, for a separately reportable endoscopic biliary duct catheterization. The provider X–rays the biliary ducts during insertion of a camera, called an endoscope, into the bile ducts. She administers contrast then views the duct’s contents with an X–ray camera, called a fluoroscope. The X–ray checks for tumors, a narrowing or stricture of the duct, stones, or other abnormal formations. Report this code to represent only imaging supervision and interpretation for this procedure.",CPT +74329,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Gastrointestinal Tract.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation for a separately reportable endoscopic pancreatic duct catheterization. The provider X–rays the pancreatic ducts during insertion of a camera, called an endoscope, into the pancreatic ducts. She administers contrast then views the duct contents with an X–ray camera called a fluoroscope. The X–ray checks for tumors, a narrowing or stricture of the duct, stones, or other abnormal formations. Report this code to represent only imaging supervision and interpretation for this procedure.",CPT +74330,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Gastrointestinal Tract.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation for a separately reportable endoscopic duct catheterization. The provider X–rays the bile and pancreatic ducts during insertion of a camera, called an endoscope, into the ducts. She administers contrast, then views the duct contents with an X–ray camera called a fluoroscope. The X–ray checks for tumors, a narrowing or stricture of the ducts, stones, or other abnormal formations. Report this code to represent only imaging supervision and interpretation for this procedure.",CPT +74340,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Gastrointestinal Tract.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation, or S&I, for a separately reportable procedure where a provider inserts a balloon tipped tube into the first portion of the small intestine (duodenum) to examine the small intestine for abnormalities and to diagnose or treat gastric disorders or blockages. Report this code to represent only imaging supervision and interpretation for this procedure.",CPT +74355,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Gastrointestinal Tract.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation for separately reportable placement of a tube through the abdomen to allow imaging of the small intestine, such as by fluoroscopy. Report this code to represent only imaging supervision and interpretation for this procedure.",CPT +74360,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Gastrointestinal Tract.,"The provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation, or S&I, for a separately reportable procedure where a provider inserts a balloon dilator into a patient's esophagus to ease an esophageal stricture.  Report this code to represent only imaging supervision and interpretation for this procedure.",CPT +74363,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Gastrointestinal Tract.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation for a separately reportable biliary duct dilation. The provider X–rays the bile ducts during insertion of a catheter or camera, called an endoscope, into the ducts. He administers contrast and then views the duct contents with an X–ray camera called a fluoroscope. The X–ray identifies a narrowing or other abnormality of the biliary tract and then helps the provider to dilate the stricture with a balloon and possibly place a biliary stent to prevent the stricture from reoccurring. Report this code to represent only imaging supervision and interpretation for this procedure.",CPT +74400,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Urinary Tract.,"The provider performs an examination to evaluate the kidneys, ureters, and bladder in a procedure known as a urography or pyelography. He uses an injection of contrast material into the vein and may perform this procedure with or without a KUB and tomography.",CPT +74410,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Urinary Tract.,"The provider performs an X–ray examination of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder after administration of a contrast agent through an intravenous drip or rapid bolus injection into the veins.",CPT +74415,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Urinary Tract.,"The provider performs an X–ray examination of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder after a rapid bolus injection into a patient’s veins. He performs this procedure with nephrotomography.",CPT +74420,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Urinary Tract.,"The provider images the urinary tract by performing a retrograde urography, also known as a retrograde pyelography in which he inserts the radiopaque contrast material through a catheter so that it enters against the normal flow of liquid into the kidney and ureters. The provider usually performs this procedure to investigate any upper urinary tract obstruction.",CPT +74425,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Urinary Tract.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation for an antegrade urography examination in which he injects contrast in the direction of the normal flow of fluids inside the urinary tract and then takes radiographs.Â",CPT +74430,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Urinary Tract.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation, to visualize the urinary bladder using X–ray images. He takes and reviews a minimum of 3 views for this service.",CPT +74440,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Urinary Tract.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation, to visualize the vas deferens, seminal vesicles or epididymis using radiographic images to check for a blockage.",CPT +74445,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Urinary Tract.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation of the corpora cavernosa. The provider performs this service to evaluate venogenic impotence (a disorder involving the veins that drain the penis) due to trauma, and establish a diagnosis of organic erectile dysfunction that occurs due to structural abnormalities of the corpora cavernosa. Report this code to represent only imaging supervision and interpretation for this procedure.",CPT +74450,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Urinary Tract.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation of urethrocystography, in which fluid is instilled in a retrograde fashion. Providers order this procedure to identify and diagnose abnormalities in the bladder and or lower urinary tract. This code represents both the technical and professional components of the service. Report this code to represent only imaging supervision and interpretation for this procedure.",CPT +74455,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Urinary Tract.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation of a voiding urethrocystography. Providers order the procedure to identify and diagnose abnormalities in the voiding function. This code represents both the technical and professional components of the service. Report this code to represent only imaging supervision and interpretation for this procedure.",CPT +74470,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Urinary Tract.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation of a radiologic procedure that uses contrast to locate a renal cyst. This code represents both the technical and professional components of the service. Report this code to represent only imaging supervision and interpretation for this procedure.",CPT +74485,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Urinary Tract.,The provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation for the dilation (widening) of the ureters or the urethra. This code represents both the technical and professional components of the service. Report this code to represent only imaging supervision and interpretation for this procedure.,CPT +74712,Gynecological and Obstetrical Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures.,"Fetal magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) uses magnetic fields and radio waves, which are converted by a computer to three–dimensional images, to examine the unborn baby from different angles and identify any abnormality in developing fetus. The procedure may include imaging of the placenta and the maternal pelvis. Fetal MRI helps to examine the structure of organs or other tissues of the unborn baby and identify any abnormality related to the child’s development during gestation. This code applies to the first gestation or a single fetus.",CPT +74713,Gynecological and Obstetrical Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures.,"Fetal magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) uses magnetic fields and radio waves, which are converted by a computer to three–dimensional images, to examine the unborn baby from different angles and identify any abnormality in the developing fetus. The procedure may include imaging of the placenta and the maternal pelvis. Fetal MRI helps to examine the structure of organs or other tissues of the unborn baby and identify any abnormality related to the child’s development during gestation. This code applies to each additional gestation after the first.",CPT +74740,Gynecological and Obstetrical Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation for the visualization of the uterine cavity and fallopian tubes. This code represents both the technical and professional components of the service. Report this code to represent only imaging supervision and interpretation for this procedure.",CPT +74742,Gynecological and Obstetrical Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures.,The physician catheterizes a fallopian tube to diagnose any blockages or to reestablish patency.,CPT +74775,Gynecological and Obstetrical Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures.,"The provider images the perineum in females to determine their sex, or the extent of any deformity, if present, in their reproductive tract.",CPT +75557,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Heart.,The provider examines the structure (morphology) and function of the heart with cardiac magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). He does not administer contrast during the procedure.,CPT +75559,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Heart.,The provider uses cardiac magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) along with stress imaging to examine the structure (morphology) and function of the heart. He does not administer contrast during the procedure.,CPT +75561,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Heart.,The provider uses cardiac magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) to examine the structure and function of heart. She initiates the procedure without administration of contrast and follows it with administration of contrast.,CPT +75563,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Heart.,"In this procedure, the provider uses MRI to check the structure (morphology) and function of the heart under stress, first without contrast, then using a contrast agent to better visualize the area.",CPT +75565,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Heart.,"In this add–on code, the provider performs a velocity flow mapping along with the cardiac magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) to examine any defect or abnormality in the structure and function of heart.",CPT +75571,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Heart.,The provider uses computed tomography (CT) for quantitative measurement of calcium deposit in the coronary vessels of heart. She does not administer contrast during the procedure.,CPT +75572,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Heart.,"The provider uses computed tomography (CT) to examine the structure and function of heart. The procedure includes three–dimensional post processing, assessments of the functions of heart, and analyzing the venous structures, if performed.",CPT +75573,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Heart.,"The provider uses computed tomography (CT) to examine any congenital anomaly present in the heart. The provider administers contrast to analyze the structure and function of the heart. The provider may use three–dimensional post processing and assess left ventricular cardiac function, the structure and function of the right ventricle, and vascular structures.",CPT +75574,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Heart.,"The provider uses computed tomography (CT) with instillation of contrast to examine any defect or abnormality in the heart or coronary artery or any abnormality due to an already present bypass graft. The provider may also generate images of heart structure, assess cardiac function, and evaluate venous structures, all of which is included with this code if performed.",CPT +75580,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Heart.,Augmentative software analyzes data from a separate coronary computed tomography angiography to estimate coronary fractional flow reserve. A physician or other qualified healthcare professional provides an interpretation and report.,CPT +75600,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Aorta and Arteries.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation for thoracic aortography without serialography. Report this code to represent only imaging supervision and interpretation for this procedure.",CPT +75605,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Aorta and Arteries.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation for thoracic aortography with serialography. Report this code to represent only imaging supervision and interpretation for this procedure.",CPT +75625,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Aorta and Arteries.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation for abdominal aortography with serialography. Report this code to represent only imaging supervision and interpretation for this procedure.",CPT +75630,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Aorta and Arteries.,The provider performs radiologic imaging of the abdominal aorta and both iliofemoral arteries of the lower extremities. This code represents both the technical and professional components of the service.,CPT +75635,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Aorta and Arteries.,The provider administers a contrast material and performs computed tomographic angiography (CTA) of the abdominal aorta and both iliofemoral arteries in the lower extremities. This procedure may include noncontrast images and processing of the images after completion of the study; these services should not be billed separately.,CPT +75705,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Aorta and Arteries.,Angiography is an X–ray study of the blood vessels that helps physicians diagnose and treat medical conditions. Angiography uses a radiopaque substance (dye) to make the blood vessels visible under X–ray.,CPT +75710,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Aorta and Arteries.,Angiography is an X–ray study of the blood vessels that helps physicians diagnose and treat medical conditions. Angiography uses a radiopaque substance (dye) to make the blood vessels visible under X–ray.,CPT +75716,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Aorta and Arteries.,Angiography is an X–ray study of the blood vessels that helps physicians diagnose and treat medical conditions. Angiography uses a radiopaque substance (dye) to make the blood vessels visible under X–ray.,CPT +75726,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Aorta and Arteries.,The provider performs radiological supervision and interpretation of angiographic imaging of specific vessels with injection of contrast (dye) into a visceral (organ) vessel or a secondary branch of the vessel.,CPT +75731,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Aorta and Arteries.,Angiography is an X–ray study of the blood vessels that helps physicians diagnose and treat medical conditions. Angiography uses a radiopaque substance (dye) to make the blood vessels visible under X–ray.,CPT +75733,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Aorta and Arteries.,Angiography is an X–ray study of the blood vessels that helps physicians diagnose and treat medical conditions. Angiography uses a radiopaque substance (dye) to make the blood vessels visible under X–ray.,CPT +75736,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Aorta and Arteries.,Angiography is an X–ray study of the blood vessels that helps physicians diagnose and treat medical conditions. Angiography uses a radiopaque substance (dye) to make the blood vessels visible under X–ray.,CPT +75741,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Aorta and Arteries.,Angiography is an X–ray study of the blood vessels that helps physicians diagnose and treat medical conditions. Angiography uses a radiopaque substance (dye) to make the blood vessels visible under X–ray.,CPT +75743,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Aorta and Arteries.,Angiography is an X–ray study of the blood vessels that helps physicians diagnose and treat medical conditions. Angiography uses a radiopaque substance (dye) to make the blood vessels visible under X–ray.,CPT +75746,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Aorta and Arteries.,Angiography is an X–ray study of the blood vessels that helps physicians diagnose and treat medical conditions. Angiography uses a radiopaque substance (dye) to make the blood vessels visible under X–ray.,CPT +75756,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Aorta and Arteries.,Angiography is an X–ray study of the blood vessels that helps physicians diagnose and treat medical conditions. Angiography uses a radiopaque substance (dye) to make the blood vessels visible under X–ray.,CPT +75774,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Aorta and Arteries.,Angiography is an X–ray study of the blood vessels that helps physicians diagnose and treat medical conditions. Angiography uses a radiopaque substance (dye) to make the blood vessels visible under X–ray.,CPT +75801,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Veins and Lymphatics.,"The provider performs supervision and interpretation of radiologic imaging of the lymphatic system of only one extremity, left or right, upper or lower.",CPT +75803,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Veins and Lymphatics.,"The provider performs supervision and interpretation of radiologic imaging of the lymphatic system of the extremity on both sides, either the arms or the legs.",CPT +75805,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Veins and Lymphatics.,The provider performs supervision and interpretation of radiologic imaging of the lymphatic system on only one side of the abdominal or pelvic area.,CPT +75807,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Veins and Lymphatics.,The provider performs supervision and interpretation of radiologic imaging of the lymphatic system on both sides of the abdominal or pelvic area.,CPT +75809,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Veins and Lymphatics.,"The provider performs supervision and interpretation of radiologic imaging to examine a previously placed indwelling infusion pump or a nonvascular shunt, such as a shunt between a ventricle in the brain and the peritoneum or a shunt between the abdomen and superior vena cava.",CPT +75810,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Veins and Lymphatics.,The provider performs supervision and interpretation of radiologic imaging of the splenic and the portal veins.,CPT +75820,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Veins and Lymphatics.,"The provider performs supervision and interpretation of radiologic imaging of the blood flow in the veins of one extremity, left or right, upper or lower.",CPT +75822,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Veins and Lymphatics.,"The provider performs supervision and interpretation of bilateral upper or lower extremity venography, an invasive diagnostic procedure in which X–rays of the veins are taken after dye is injected into the veins. It identifies the location and degree of a blood clot.",CPT +75825,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Veins and Lymphatics.,"The provider performs supervision and interpretation of venography, an invasive diagnostic procedure in which X–rays of the veins are taken after dye is injected. It identifies the location and degree of a blood clot. In this procedure, venography is performed of the inferior vena cava along with a serialography, i.e., rapid sequence images.",CPT +75827,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Veins and Lymphatics.,"The provider performs supervision and interpretation of superior vena cava venography, an invasive diagnostic procedure in which X–rays of the venae cavae are taken after dye is injected, along with serialography, i.e., rapid sequence images. It identifies the location and degree of a blood clot.",CPT +75831,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Veins and Lymphatics.,"The provider performs supervision and interpretation of selective venography, an invasive diagnostic procedure in which X–rays of the veins are taken after dye is injected, of one kidney. It identifies the location and degree of a blood clot.",CPT +75833,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Veins and Lymphatics.,"The provider performs supervision and interpretation of selective Venography, an invasive diagnostic procedure in which X–rays of the veins are taken after dye is injected, of both kidneys. It identifies the location and degree of a blood clot.",CPT +75840,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Veins and Lymphatics.,The provider performs supervision and interpretation of a selective venography (imaging after injection of contrast material) of the adrenal vein on one side of the body.,CPT +75842,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Veins and Lymphatics.,The provider performs supervision and interpretation of a selective venography (imaging after injection of contrast material) of the adrenal veins on both sides of the body.,CPT +75860,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Veins and Lymphatics.,The provider performs supervision and interpretation of a petrosal and inferior sagittal catheter placement and imaging of the venous sinus or jugular vein after administration of contrast material.,CPT +75870,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Veins and Lymphatics.,"The provider performs supervision and interpretation of a venography of the superior sagittal sinus, i.e., imaging of the small veins in the cerebral hemispheres of the brain after administration of contrast mterial.",CPT +75872,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Veins and Lymphatics.,"The provider performs supervision and interpretation of an epidural venography, imaging of epidural veins (veins in the outer part of the spinal canal) following administration of a radiopaque substance.",CPT +75880,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Veins and Lymphatics.,"The provider performs supervision and interpretation of an orbital venography, imaging of the veins of the eye socket following administration of a contrast material.",CPT +75885,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Veins and Lymphatics.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation for percutaneous transhepatic portography. The provider injects contrast medium in the bile duct through a needle or catheter in the liver’s portal vein. He visualizes and checks the patency, or openness, of the portal system. The service includes hemodynamic evaluation, which provides a clear picture of blood pressure, blood flow, and how well the body transports oxygen in the blood to body tissues.",CPT +75887,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Veins and Lymphatics.,"In this procedure, the provider performs supervision and interpretation for percutaneous transhepatic portography, imaging of the bile ducts after contrast injection through a needle or catheter in the liver’s portal vein, to check the patency of the portal system for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes.",CPT +75889,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Veins and Lymphatics.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation of hepatic venography after injection of contrast material through a wedged or free catheter in the hepatic vein to visualize the structure. He also performs a hemodynamic evaluation, which provides a clear picture of blood pressure, blood flow, and how well the body transports oxygen in the blood to body tissues.",CPT +75891,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Veins and Lymphatics.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation of hepatic venography after injection of contrast material through a wedged or free catheter in the hepatic vein to visualize the structure. He does not perform a hemodyhnamic evaluation.",CPT +75893,Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures of the Veins and Lymphatics.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation of the withdrawal of venous blood through a catheter for laboratory evaluation. The service may also include vessel imaging called angiography.",CPT +75894,Transcatheter Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation of injection of an agent to block or close abnormal vascular channels or blood vessels.",CPT +75898,Transcatheter Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures.,"As a follow–up study, the provider performs vessel imaging called angiography through the catheter that is already present in the vessel because of previous therapy, embolization, or infusion, other than thrombolysis (breaking up of a blood clot).",CPT +75901,Transcatheter Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation for mechanical removal of any kind of obstacle or block around a central venous access device or catheter, like a blood clot, dead tissues, or skin. These devices may remain in the vein for weeks or even longer for injecting drugs, so they may develop a block around them.",CPT +75902,Transcatheter Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation for mechanical removal of any kind of obstacles or blocks inside a central venous device, like a blood clot, dead tissues, or skin. Sometimes these devices remain in veins for weeks or even longer for injecting drugs, so they may develop a block inside the hollow tube of the venous device.",CPT +75956,Transcatheter Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation for the repair of the descending thoracic aorta. He uses arteriography to visualize the inside of the blood vessels and to identify and repair an aneurysm, pseudoaneurysm, arteriovenous malformation, or trauma to the descending thoracic aorta by using an endoprosthesis. The provider places the endoprosthesis at the target site in the descending thoracic aorta covering the origin of the left subclavian artery. He may also extend the prosthesis to the level of the celiac artery origin. An aneurysm is a bulge in the blood vessel due to a weak area in the wall of the vessel.",CPT +75957,Transcatheter Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation for the repair of the descending thoracic aorta. He uses arteriography to visualize the inside of blood vessels and to identify and repair an aneurysm, pseudoaneurysm, arteriovenous malformation, or trauma to the descending thoracic aorta by using an endoprosthesis. The provider places the endoprosthesis at the target site in the descending thoracic aorta not covering the origin of left the subclavian artery. He may extend the prosthesis to the level of the celiac artery origin. An aneurysm is a bulge in the blood vessel due to a weak area in the wall of the vessel.",CPT +75958,Transcatheter Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation during placement of extension prosthesis at the site where he previously repairs abnormalities such as those listed in the descriptor including an aneurysm or pseudoaneurysm of the descending thoracic aorta. He performs this procedure when a leak occurs at a previous artery graft site.",CPT +75959,Transcatheter Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation for the insertion of a distal extension prosthesis following an endovascular repair of the descending thoracic aorta at the celiac level.",CPT +75970,Transcatheter Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation for a transcatheter biopsy, that is, obtaining of tissue for diagnostic pathologic analysis through a catheter.",CPT +75984,Transcatheter Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation for the replacement of a previously placed percutaneous tube or catheter that is damaged.",CPT +75989,Transcatheter Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation for the drainage of an abscess using a catheter under imaging guidance.",CPT +76000,Other Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Related Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider uses fluoroscopy for up to one hour as an imaging technique to obtain real time images of internal structures.",CPT +76010,Other Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Related Procedures.,"The provider takes a single image of a child’s gastrointestinal tract from the patient’s nose to the rectum, to detect a foreign body.",CPT +76080,Other Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Related Procedures.,"The provider performs supervision and interpretation of an abscess, fistula, or sinus tract imaging study.",CPT +76098,Other Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Related Procedures.,"The radiologist images a tissue specimen, such as a breast biopsy, immediately after the  surgeon removes it from the patient to confirm excision of the entire lesion. The radiologist then reports his findings to the surgeon before the surgeon completes the procedure in case he needs to remove more tissue.",CPT +76100,Other Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Related Procedures.,"The provider uses special X–ray equipment that allows viewing of only one plane of the body based upon complex movements of the equipment and scanning across the body in one direction.  Images show one plane in focus, and the other sections above and below the plane are blurred.",CPT +76120,Other Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Related Procedures.,The provider takes motion X–ray recordings to acquire a series of individual images that look like a motion picture when played back at a rapid rate. This service images a cycle of movement such as the cardiac cycle or motion of the spine.,CPT +76125,Other Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Related Procedures.,The provider takes motion X–ray recordings to acquire a series of individual images that when they play them back at a rapid rate look like a motion picture. This service images a cycle of movement such as the cardiac cycle or motion of the spine.,CPT +76140,Other Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Related Procedures.,The provider reviews an X–ray image that was performed at another site and provides a written consultation report.,CPT +76145,Other Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Related Procedures.,Report this service when a medical physicist evaluates and provides a report on radiation exposure to determine if it exceeds the institutional review threshold.,CPT +76376,Other Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Related Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs 3D rendering for computed tomography magnetic resonance imaging, ultrasound, or another tomographic modality, typically for diagnostic purposes, with interpretation and reporting and image processing under concurrent supervision.",CPT +76377,Other Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Related Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs interpretation and reporting for computed tomograph, magnetic resonance imaging, ultrasound, or other tomographic modality under concurrent supervision with the added complexity of image postprocessing by 3D image rendering on an independent workstation to diagnoses various disorders.",CPT +76380,Other Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Related Procedures.,"In this exam, the provider performs a subsequent computed tomography restricted to a specific area to be imaged or treated. This type of noninvasive technique is used to reexamine the patient if an ordering provider suspects complications or a tumor.",CPT +76390,Other Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Related Procedures.,"The provider uses a diagnostic imaging technique called magnetic resonance spectroscopy or MRS to detect and identify the chemical composition of diseased tissue and structures or to study the metabolism of organs. MRS is similar to a conventional magnetic resonance imaging or MRI, and a provider may perform it as part of a routine MRI, but an MRI examines body structure where an MRS monitors and measures body chemistry, such as metabolism. MRS is a diagnostic tool for determination of many brain disorders, the degree of malignancy of tumors, and for evaluating metabolic disorders of the muscles and nervous system.",CPT +76391,Other Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Related Procedures.,"The provider places a vibration source over suspicious tissue or an organ such as the liver to cause the tissue to vibrate and uses magnetic resonance imaging to assess the elasticity or stiffness of the tissue. Normal tissue will be elastic and return to its normal shape faster than abnormal tissue, which will be stiff.",CPT +76496,Other Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Related Procedures.,Use to report fluoroscopic procedures that do not have a specific code.,CPT +76497,Other Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Related Procedures.,Use to report computed tomography procedures that do not have a specific code.,CPT +76498,Other Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Related Procedures.,Use to report magnetic resonance procedures that do not have a specific code. This service includes magnetic resonance that the provider uses to perform a diagnostic procedure to diagnose a condition or an interventional procedure to treat a condition.,CPT +76499,Other Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging) Related Procedures.,Use to report diagnostic radiographic procedures that do not have a specific code.,CPT +76506,Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures of the Head and Neck.,"The provider performs a noninvasive diagnostic imaging technique, called echoencephalography, that uses ultrasound waves to examine, measure, and record the structures within the skull in real–time, meaning as the processes occur. The exam can diagnose intracranial abnormalities and conditions that cause a shift in the midline structure of the brain such as hemorrhage, fluid collection, masses, or other structural abnormalities. The provider may also take a one–dimensional recording of the electrical activity of the brain.",CPT +76510,Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures of the Head and Neck.,The provider uses B–scan and quantitative A–scan ultrasound imaging to examine the intraocular and orbital structures.,CPT +76511,Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures of the Head and Neck.,The provider uses quantitative A–scan ultrasound imaging to examine the intraocular and orbital structures.,CPT +76512,Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures of the Head and Neck.,"The provider uses B–scan ultrasound imaging, with or without a non–qualitative A–scan superimposed, to examine the intraocular and orbital structures.",CPT +76513,Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures of the Head and Neck.,The provider uses immersion B–scan ultrasound or high resolution biomicroscopy imaging to examine the anterior segment of one or both eyes.,CPT +76514,Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures of the Head and Neck.,The provider uses conventional contact B scan imaging to measure the thickness of the cornea in one or both eyes.,CPT +76516,Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures of the Head and Neck.,The provider uses A scan ultrasound echography to measure the size of the eyeball or axial length of the eye.,CPT +76519,Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures of the Head and Neck.,"The provider uses A scan ultrasound echography to measure the axial length of the eye and determine the intraocular lens, or IOL calculation prior to cataract surgery.",CPT +76529,Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures of the Head and Neck.,"The provider uses ophthalmic ultrasound to locate a foreign body within the globe, or eyeball, which may be as a result of trauma or surgery.",CPT +76536,Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures of the Head and Neck.,The provider performs real–time ultrasound examination of the soft tissues of the head and neck and records and saves the images for later review.,CPT +76604,Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures of the Chest.,"The provider uses ultrasound to evaluate the pleural spaces for the presence of fluid or masses of the chest, upper back, chest wall, or mediastinum.",CPT +76641,Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures of the Chest.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a complete ultrasound of one breast. The procedure includes documentation of the images.",CPT +76642,Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures of the Chest.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a focused ultrasound of one breast on a limited area. The procedure includes documentation of the images.",CPT +76700,Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures of the Abdomen and Retroperitoneum.,"An abdominal ultrasound is a noninvasive procedure used to assess the body parts within the abdomen (i.e. liver, gallbladder, pancreas, bile ducts, spleen, and abdominal aorta). This particular code is used when the ultrasound is complete and requires real–time image documentation.",CPT +76705,Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures of the Abdomen and Retroperitoneum.,"An abdominal ultrasound is a noninvasive procedure used to assess the body parts within the abdomen (i.e. liver, gallbladder, pancreas, bile ducts, spleen, and abdominal aorta). This particular code is used when the ultrasound is limited (of a single organ, quadrant, or used for follow–up) and requires real time image documentation.",CPT +76706,Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures of the Abdomen and Retroperitoneum.,"The provider performs an ultrasound (a noninvasive imaging procedure that uses high–frequency sound waves) of the abdominal aorta, the largest artery supplying blood and oxygen to organs and structures in the abdominal cavity in order to screen for an aneurysm, a weakness in the vessel wall that causes it to balloon out.",CPT +76770,Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures of the Abdomen and Retroperitoneum.,"A retroperitoneal ultrasound is a noninvasive procedure used to assess the body parts within the abdomen (i.e.Kidneys, urinary bladder, and aorta). This particular code is used when the ultrasound is complete and requires real–time image documentation.",CPT +76775,Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures of the Abdomen and Retroperitoneum.,"A retroperitoneal ultrasound is a noninvasive procedure used to assess the body parts within the abdomen (i.e. Kidneys, urinary bladder, and aorta). This particular CPT code is used when the ultrasound is limited (e.g., renal, aorta, or nodes) and requires real time image documentation.",CPT +76776,Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures of the Abdomen and Retroperitoneum.,Ultrasound of transplanted kidney(s) is performed using sound waves to obtain pictures of the kidney. Color Doppler imaging (duplex Doppler) is used to check the overall blood flow of the kidney. The blood vessels inside the kidney(s) as well as the vessels leading to and from the kidney are observed in this study.,CPT +76800,Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures of the Spinal Canal.,"The provider uses sound waves to capture images of the entire spinal canal including the spinal cord, vertebrae, and intervertebral discs. The provider performs this service intraoperatively to identify and locate spinal tumors, small bony fragments, herniated disc material, or bullet fragments within the canal, or to guide surgical instruments to their target during the procedure. This exam also evaluates newborns and infants for various disorders.",CPT +76801,Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures of the Pelvis Obstetrical.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a real time or live image, ultrasound of a pregnant uterus for examination of the first or a single fetus and mother during the first trimester, or less than 14 weeks of pregnancy, using a transabdominal approach.",CPT +76802,Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures of the Pelvis Obstetrical.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider performs a transabdominal ultrasound to examine each additional gestational sac during the first trimester.",CPT +76805,Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures of the Pelvis Obstetrical.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an ultrasound of a pregnant uterus for examination of the first or a single fetus and to examine the mother after the first trimester, or more than 14 weeks of pregnancy, using a transabdominal approach.",CPT +76810,Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures of the Pelvis Obstetrical.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider performs a transabdominal ultrasound to examine each additional gestation sac, or fetus, after the first trimester.",CPT +76811,Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures of the Pelvis Obstetrical.,"The provider performs an ultrasound study using a transabdominal approach to examine the fetus and mother, along with additional examination of the fetal anatomy, such as the heart rate, amniotic fluid levels, the location of the placenta, and size of the ventricles.",CPT +76812,Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures of the Pelvis Obstetrical.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider performs a transabdominal ultrasound to examine another fetus in detail apart from performing the routine fetal and maternal examination.",CPT +76813,Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures of the Pelvis Obstetrical.,"The provider uses either a transabdominal or transvaginal ultrasound to measure the fetal nuchal translucency, or the clear, fluid–filled space at the back of the neck, of the first or a single developing fetus during the first trimester to diagnose any abnormality or defect in the chromosomes of the fetus during development.",CPT +76814,Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures of the Pelvis Obstetrical.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider uses either a transabdominal or transvaginal ultrasound to measure the fetal nuchal translucency, or the clear, fluid–filled space of the tissue at the back of a developing fetus's neck, for each additional fetus, during the first trimester. The aim of performing this ultrasound is to diagnose any abnormality or defect in the chromosomes of the fetus during development.",CPT +76815,Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures of the Pelvis Obstetrical.,The provider performs a limited examination of the fetus using ultrasound. The provider performs the examination of certain parameters for one or more fetuses.,CPT +76816,Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures of the Pelvis Obstetrical.,The provider reexamines the fetus to follow up on a prior abnormal transabdominal ultrasound.,CPT +76817,Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures of the Pelvis Obstetrical.,The provider performs an ultrasound of the pregnant uterus to examine the fetus and the mother's organs using a transvaginal approach.,CPT +76818,Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures of the Pelvis Obstetrical.,The provider performs a biophysical profile test to measure the health of the baby during pregnancy. The test consists of a nonstress test and an ultrasound.,CPT +76819,Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures of the Pelvis Obstetrical.,The provider performs a biophysical profile test to measure the health of the baby during pregnancy using only ultrasound and not a nonstress test.,CPT +76820,Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures of the Pelvis Obstetrical.,The provider performs Doppler ultrasonography for fetal surveillance to determine the velocity of blood flow through the umbilical artery. This test determines the timing of labor induction and when fetal anemia is severe enough to require a transfusion.,CPT +76821,Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures of the Pelvis Obstetrical.,The provider performs Doppler ultrasonography for fetal surveillance to determine the velocity of blood flow through the middle cerebral artery. This test determines the timing of labor induction and when fetal anemia is severe enough to require a transfusion.,CPT +76825,Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures of the Pelvis Obstetrical.,"The provider performs real–time fetal echocardiography, with or without M–mode recording, for complete evaluation of a fetal cardiovascular system.",CPT +76826,Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures of the Pelvis Obstetrical.,"The provider performs a follow–up or repeat real–time fetal echocardiography, with or without M–mode recording for evaluation of a fetal cardiovascular system.",CPT +76827,Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures of the Pelvis Obstetrical.,The provider performs a complete fetal Doppler echocardiography by pulsed or continuous sound waves with spectral display to assess blood flow in the fetus.,CPT +76828,Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures of the Pelvis Obstetrical.,The provider performs a repeat or follow–up fetal Doppler echocardiography by pulsed or continuous sound waves with spectral display to assess blood flow in the fetus.,CPT +76830,Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures of the Pelvis Non-Obstetrical.,"The provider performs a transvaginal ultrasound to assess the reproductive organs, that is, the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, cervix, and vagina in a female patient.",CPT +76831,Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures of the Pelvis Non-Obstetrical.,The provider performs an ultrasound examination during which he infuses saline into the uterus and may also use color flow Dopper to enhance imaging.,CPT +76856,Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures of the Pelvis Non-Obstetrical.,"A pelvic ultrasound is a noninvasive procedure used to assess body parts such as the bladder, ovaries, uterus, cervix, and fallopian tubes in females and the bladder, prostate gland, and seminal vesicles in males. Images are displayed on a monitor and also recorded for a permanent record.",CPT +76857,Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures of the Pelvis Non-Obstetrical.,"A pelvic ultrasound is a noninvasive procedure used to assess one or more pelvic structures, such as bladder, ovaries, uterus, cervix, and fallopian tubes in females and the bladder, prostate gland, and seminal vesicles in males. Images are displayed on a monitor and also recorded for a permanent record.",CPT +76870,Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures of the Genitalia.,"The provider performs an ultrasound of the scrotal pouch that contains the male testicles to assess disorders of testes, the organs that produce sperm in males.",CPT +76872,Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures of the Genitalia.,"The provider inserts an ultrasound probe into the rectum and performs a transrectal ultrasound to assess disorders of the prostate, rectum, and surrounding tissues.",CPT +76873,Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures of the Genitalia.,The provider performs a transrectal ultrasound to assess the size and shape of the prostate in order to plan brachytherapy treatment. The brachytherapy planning is not reported with this code.,CPT +76881,Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures of the Extremities.,"In this procedure, the provider uses ultrasound to examine the complete joint for any defect or abnormality. The image appears in real time on a monitor, and a permanent image with interpretation is placed in the patient's chart.",CPT +76882,Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures of the Extremities.,"The provider uses ultrasound for a limited study of one or more nonvascular structures in an extremity. The image appears in real time on a monitor, and a permanent copy is made and documented in the medical record.",CPT +76883,Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures of the Extremities.,"The provider uses ultrasound for a comprehensive study of one or more nerves and the accompanying structures through their entire anatomic course in an extremity. The provider uses real–time cine (movie) imaging on a monitor, and a permanent copy is made and documented in the medical record.",CPT +76885,Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures of the Extremities.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an ultrasound examination of the hips of an infant while manipulating the patient’s leg and hips during the procedure. This test helps detect any abnormality present in the hip such as developmental dysplasia of the hip, or DDH.",CPT +76886,Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures of the Extremities.,"Ultrasound of the hip is a noninvasive procedure that uses high–frequency sound waves to evaluate infant hips, providing real–time, two–dimensional images. The procedure is performed with a standard B–mode ultrasonic imager. Longitudinal, transverse and oblique images of the area are obtained.",CPT +76932,Ultrasonic Guidance Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation for a separately reportable ultrasound guided biopsy of endomyocardium, the heart muscle.",CPT +76936,Ultrasonic Guidance Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider uses ultrasound to assist with diagnosis and compression repair of an arterial pseudoaneurysm or arteriovenous fistulae.",CPT +76937,Ultrasonic Guidance Procedures.,"The provider uses ultrasound to help guide procedures requiring vascular access including central venous, peripheral venous, or arterial access procedures.",CPT +76940,Ultrasonic Guidance Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider uses ultrasound guidance to locate the parenchymal tissues, meaning the distinctive tissues of an organ or growth, and to monitor their ablation. Use this code to report only US guidance and monitoring for this procedure.",CPT +76941,Ultrasonic Guidance Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation for separately reportable intrauterine fetal transfusion or cordocentesis under ultrasound guidance. Cordocentesis is a diagnostic test to examine fetal blood.",CPT +76942,Ultrasonic Guidance Procedures.,"Ultrasonography uses sound waves of higher frequencies (above the normal hearing capacity of a healthy human, i.e., 20 kHz) to visualize inner organs. When the sound waves pass through the human body, they are reflected back at different speeds by the different types of tissues, e.g., bones, muscles, etc. These rebounding waves are captured and converted to images. While doing procedures such as a needle biopsy, the physician needs imaging guidance to know the exact location of the region to be biopsied and the accurate placement of the needle in that region. With the help of ultrasonography, the physician can move the needle inside the body to reach the tissue to be biopsied without causing damage to the surrounding tissues.",CPT +76945,Ultrasonic Guidance Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation for separately reportable sampling of chorionic villus, the placental tissue, using ultrasound guidance.",CPT +76946,Ultrasonic Guidance Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation for separately reportable amniocentesis, using ultrasound guidance. This invasive diagnostic procedure withdraws a sampling of amniotic fluid from the amniotic sac surrounding the fetus to test the fluid and fetal cells to detect birth defects.",CPT +76948,Ultrasonic Guidance Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation for a separately reportable ultrasound guided aspiration or evacuation of ova, a female egg cell.",CPT +76965,Ultrasonic Guidance Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider places an interstitial radioelement using ultrasonic guidance. The goal of this procedure is the placement of radioactive element in the interstitial space to destroy a tumor.",CPT +76975,Other Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs supervision and interpretation for examination of the gastrointestinal tract using an endoscopic ultrasound scope.",CPT +76977,Other Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs bone density measurement of one or more peripheral sites like the wrist or knee using ultrasound. This code includes both measurement and interpretation.",CPT +76978,Other Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures.,The provider injects the patient with contrast material consisting of lipid– or protein–coated microspheres filled with a gas core and performs targeted microbubble contrast–enhanced ultrasound examination to assess lesions suspicious for malignancy or to assess the blood flow in organs such as the liver and kidneys.,CPT +76979,Other Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures.,The provider again injects the patient intravenously with contrast material consisting of lipid– or protein–coated microspheres filled with a gas core and performs an additional targeted microbubble contrast–enhanced ultrasound examination to assess lesions suspicious for malignancy or to assess the blood flow in organs such as the liver and kidneys.,CPT +76981,Other Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures.,"The provider carries out ultrasound elastography of an organ such as the liver to establish a baseline of the organ’s functional (nonconnective, nonstructural) tissue by measuring its return to normal shape after distortion by high–intensity ultrasound waves.",CPT +76982,Other Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures.,The provider carries out ultrasound elastography of an initial suspicious lesion to help determine whether it is benign or malignant by measuring its return to normal shape after distortion by high–intensity ultrasound waves.,CPT +76983,Other Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures.,The provider carries out ultrasound elastography of an additional suspicious lesion to help determine whether it is benign or malignant by measuring its return to normal shape after distortion by high–intensity ultrasound waves.,CPT +76984,Other Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures.,"During an operation, the provider uses an ultrasound probe for diagnostic imaging of the thoracic aorta.",CPT +76987,Other Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures.,"During an operation, the provider uses an ultrasound probe for diagnostic imaging of the heart for congenital heart disease. This code represents the complete procedure of transducer placement and manipulation, image acquisition, interpretation, and report.",CPT +76988,Other Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures.,"During an operation, the provider uses an ultrasound probe for diagnostic imaging of the heart for congenital heart disease. This code represents transducer placement and manipulation as well as image acquisition.",CPT +76989,Other Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures.,"During an operation, the provider uses an ultrasound probe for diagnostic imaging of the heart for congenital heart disease. This code represents only the interpretation and report.",CPT +76998,Other Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures.,The provider uses ultrasound guidance during a surgical procedure to examine organs and other tissues for abnormalities.,CPT +76999,Other Diagnostic Ultrasound Procedures.,Use this code to report a diagnostic or interventional ultrasound procedure for which there is no specific code available.,CPT +77001,Fluoroscopic Guidance.,"Report this code as an add–on code to the primary procedure code, such as central venous access devices (CVAD) placement, replacement, or removal, including accessing the vessel, manipulating the catheter, contrast injection via the access site or catheter, and venography–related radiologic supervision and interpretation and image documentation of final catheter position. The code cannot be reported as a standalone code.",CPT +77002,Fluoroscopic Guidance.,"The provider uses fluoroscopic guidance to place a needle for biopsy, aspiration, injection, or localization of a device to detect any lesions in any area of the body, except for the spine, or to identify the level and approach for initial needle placement.",CPT +77003,Fluoroscopic Guidance.,The provider uses fluoroscopic guidance to place a needle or catheter in the spine or area adjacent to the spinal column to perform procedures to detect the extent or cause of a disease or to treat an injury or disease. The goal of the procedure is to identify the level and approach for initial needle placement.,CPT +77011,Computed Tomography Guidance.,"In this procedure, the provider uses computed tomography guidance to locate small targets inside the body using a three–dimensional coordinate system.",CPT +77012,Computed Tomography Guidance.,"In this procedure, the provider performs supervision and interpretation for a separately reportable procedure that uses computed tomography guided needle placement, as in biopsy or aspiration. Report this code to represent only imaging supervision and interpretation for this procedure.",CPT +77013,Computed Tomography Guidance.,"In this procedure, the provider uses computed tomography guidance to locate the parenchymal tissues, meaning the distinctive tissues of an organ or growth, and to monitor their ablation. Use this code to report only CT guidance and monitoring for this procedure.",CPT +77014,Computed Tomography Guidance.,"With the patient lying still on the examination table, the table moves through middle of the round CT scanner. The X–ray machine in the circular scanner produces narrow beams of X–rays (1–10 mm of thickness) that pass through specific parts of the patient's body. Different tissues of the human body absorb different amounts of X–rays. The electronic ray detectors detect the amount of radiation absorbed into the body. A special computer program processes the acquired data to create two–dimensional cross–sectional images of the targeted anatomical site which are displayed on computer monitor. This image is interpreted by a radiation oncologist or other specialist physician who can determine the tissue's condition (normal or diseased). In case of malignancy, the physician can determine the volume of the treatment field where the radiation needs to be applied, and also the healthy tissue area which should be protected from radiation.",CPT +77021,Magnetic Resonance Imaging Guidance.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation for a separately reportable needle placement procedure, like biopsy or aspiration, performed under magnetic resonance guidance. Report this code to represent only imaging supervision and interpretation for this procedure.",CPT +77022,Magnetic Resonance Imaging Guidance.,"In this procedure, the provider uses magnetic resonance imaging guidance to locate the parenchymal tissues, meaning the distinctive tissues of an organ or growth, and to monitor their ablation. Use this code to report only MR imaging guidance and monitoring for this procedure.",CPT +77046,"Breast, Mammography.","The provider obtains images of a single breast by applying an external magnetic field and radiofrequency waves to create three–dimensional images, without contrast medium.",CPT +77047,"Breast, Mammography.","The provider obtains images of both breasts by applying an external magnetic field and radiofrequency waves to create three–dimensional images, without contrast medium.",CPT +77048,"Breast, Mammography.","The provider obtains images of one breast by applying an external magnetic field and radiofrequency waves to create three–dimensional images, with and without contrast; he may also perform real–time computer–aided detection (CAD).",CPT +77049,"Breast, Mammography.","The provider obtains images of both breasts by applying an external magnetic field and radiofrequency waves to create three–dimensional images, with and without contrast; he may also perform real–time computer–aided detection (CAD).",CPT +77053,"Breast, Mammography.","A ductogram (also known as a galactogram) is used to view breast ducts. It is very helpful in to diagnose nipple discharge, ductal ectasia, fibrocystic changes, intraductal papillomas, and breast cancer.",CPT +77054,"Breast, Mammography.","A ductogram (also known as a galactogram) is used to view breast ducts. It is very helpful in to diagnose nipple discharge, ductal ectasia, fibrocystic changes, intraductal papillomas, and breast cancer.",CPT +77061,"Breast, Mammography.","In this procedure, the provider performs digital tomosynthesis on one breast for diagnostic purposes. This digital mammography isolates very thin layers of breast tissues to achieve a clear view of individual breast structure.",CPT +77062,"Breast, Mammography.","In this procedure, the provider performs digital tomosynthesis of both breasts for diagnostic purposes. This digital mammography isolates very thin layers of breast tissues to achieve a clear view of individual breast structure.",CPT +77063,"Breast, Mammography.",The provider captures three dimensional images of the breast using X–rays at various angles for routine checkup. He checks for the presence of any abnormality within the breasts. Tomosynthesis provides more accurate imaging than the conventional mammography.,CPT +77065,"Breast, Mammography.",The provider performs X–ray imaging on one breast in a patient with a known lump or suspected cancer and may use specially designed computer software to help identify or diagnose potential abnormalities within the images; the software converts signals into digital data and analyzes the images.,CPT +77066,"Breast, Mammography.",The provider performs X–ray imaging on both breasts in a patient with a lump or suspected cancer and may use specially designed computer software to help identify or diagnose potential abnormalities within the images; the software converts signals into digital data and analyzes the images.,CPT +77067,"Breast, Mammography.",The provider takes two X–ray views of each breast for routine screening and may use specially designed computer software to help identify any potential abnormalities within the images; the software converts signals into digital data and analyzes the images.,CPT +77071,Bone/Joint Studies.,"A radiology technician takes X–ray images of a joint while a physician or other qualified healthcare provider applies stress to hold the joint in a position that the provider could not achieve through routine positioning.  These special stress views help the provider gauge the extent of an injury prior to surgery, assess whether an injury is healing without surgery. This service may include imaging of the contralateral joint or joint on the opposite side as necessary.",CPT +77072,Bone/Joint Studies.,"In this procedure, the provider measures the degree of skeletal maturity of a child by taking an X–ray image, typically of the left hand and wrist.",CPT +77073,Bone/Joint Studies.,The provider images the lower extremity from hips to ankle to measure the difference in the length of the legs.,CPT +77074,Bone/Joint Studies.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a series of X–rays on specific bones of the body to evaluate conditions such as the spread of cancer.",CPT +77075,Bone/Joint Studies.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a series of X–rays imaging all the bones of the body to evaluate the spread of cancer or to detect any other abnormality.",CPT +77076,Bone/Joint Studies.,"In this procedure, the provider performs X–rays of an infant’s skeleton system.",CPT +77077,Bone/Joint Studies.,The provider performs a joint survey study of two or more joints in which he performs only a single view of each joint.,CPT +77078,Bone/Joint Studies.,"Computed tomography (CT) is also known as CAT (computerized axial tomography), CTAT (computerized transaxial tomography), and digital axial tomography (DAT). It is a powerful noninvasive evaluation technique for producing 2D and 3D cross–sectional images of the body structures, including the bones. This CT scan study on the  bones is used to evaluate diseases of bone and/or the responses of bone diseases to treatment. The studies assess bone mass or density associated with such diseases as osteoporosis, osteomalacia, and renal osteodystrophy. Various single or combined methods of measurement may be required to diagnose bone disease, monitor the course of bone changes with disease progression, or monitor the course of bone changes with therapy.",CPT +77080,Bone/Joint Studies.,"The provider performs an imaging procedure, called dual–energy X–ray absorptiometry (DXA), of one or more bony areas on the trunk to determine the bone mineral density (BMD) and whether the patient has osteopenia or osteoporosis.",CPT +77081,Bone/Joint Studies.,"Dual energy X–ray absorptiometry (DXA) is a method that providers use to measure the amount of minerals per unit area of bone, referred to as bone mineral density (BMD). Bone is made up of various minerals such as calcium, phosphorus, etc.",CPT +77084,Bone/Joint Studies.,"In this procedure, the provider uses magnetic resonance imaging to study and evaluate the bone marrow blood supply.",CPT +77085,Bone/Joint Studies.,The provider measures the mineral density of the bones of the axial skeleton and assesses a vertebral fracture. He performs the procedure to assess the patient for the presence of osteoporosis or other diseases of the bone.,CPT +77086,Bone/Joint Studies.,The provider uses dual energy X–ray absorptiometry to evaluate the patient for the presence of a vertebral fracture .,CPT +77089,Bone/Joint Studies.,The provider uses imaging data and software to calculate a patient’s trabecular bone score. The service includes an interpretation and report on the patient’s fracture risk.,CPT +77090,Bone/Joint Studies.,The provider prepares imaging data and transmits it to another site for analysis of a patient’s fracture risk based on trabecular bone score.,CPT +77091,Bone/Joint Studies.,The provider performs technical calculation of a patient’s fracture risk based on trabecular bone score.,CPT +77092,Bone/Joint Studies.,The provider interprets test results and creates a report on a patient’s fracture risk based on trabecular bone score.,CPT +77261,Clinical Treatment Planning (External and Internal Sources) for Radiation Treatment.,"The provider decides the location and the number of ports, or the points for the radiation beams to enter the body, the design and location of the shielding blocks, and the modes of therapy, e.g., arc therapy or brachytherapy. The treatment may involve using either a single mode or a combination of different modes of therapy.",CPT +77262,Clinical Treatment Planning (External and Internal Sources) for Radiation Treatment.,"The provider decides the location and the number of ports the points for the radiation beams to enter the body, the design and location of the shielding blocks, and the modes of therapy, e.g., arc therapy or brachytherapy. The treatment may involve using either a single mode or a combination of different modes of therapy.",CPT +77263,Clinical Treatment Planning (External and Internal Sources) for Radiation Treatment.,"The provider decides the location and the number of ports (the points for the radiation beams to enter the body), the design and location of the shielding blocks, and the modes of therapy (e.g., arc therapy or brachytherapy). The treatment may involve using either a single mode or a combination of different modes of therapy.",CPT +77280,Clinical Treatment Planning (External and Internal Sources) for Radiation Treatment.,The provider uses a simulator or other imaging modality to determine the size and location of ports to be used for radiation therapy. This code describes a simple level service.,CPT +77285,Clinical Treatment Planning (External and Internal Sources) for Radiation Treatment.,"In this procedure, the provider uses a simulator or other imaging modality to determine the size and location of ports to be used for radiation therapy.",CPT +77290,Clinical Treatment Planning (External and Internal Sources) for Radiation Treatment.,"Before starting radiation therapy, a physician needs to know the location and size of the cancerous tumor, the radiation doses required to treat the tumor, and the positioning of the radiation beams to target the tumor. With the help of imaging and computerized reconstruction techniques, the physician creates a simulated field that closely resembles the location and size of the tumor in the body. The CT or MRI data of the patient is fed into a simulator that recreates the image of the tumor and its surrounding area. With the help of the simulator, the physician decides the ports where the radiation beams should enter the body so as to hit the tumor with maximum accuracy.",CPT +77293,Clinical Treatment Planning (External and Internal Sources) for Radiation Treatment.,"In addition to a 3D radiotherapy plan or intensity–modulated radiation therapy (IMRT) plan, the patient has a respiration–correlated or 4D CT simulation study performed.",CPT +77295,"Medical Radiation Physics, Dosimetry, Treatment Devices, and Special Services for Radiation Treatment.","Computer–generated radiographic reconstruction and volumetric dose calculation are used to improve accuracy of external beam radiation administration. Documentation may include 3D volume reconstruction, dose distribution, and dose volume histograms, a summary of 3D dose calculations in graph form.",CPT +77299,Clinical Treatment Planning (External and Internal Sources) for Radiation Treatment.,Use to report therapeutic radiology clinical treatment planning services that do not have a specific code.,CPT +77300,"Medical Radiation Physics, Dosimetry, Treatment Devices, and Special Services for Radiation Treatment.","Radiation therapy is one of the most effective treatment methods for cancerous tumors. Due to its negative side effects like damage to the healthy cells, radiation therapy involves thorough planning of the dosage, the method, and the duration of the treatment. Dosimetry refers to the calculation of radiation dose (the amount and duration of radiation energy) that a patient needs for the successful treatment of the malignancy. The dose is measured in units of ""grays"" (Gy) and the number of Gy units a patient needs depends upon the type and stage of cancer being treated. Some of the factors that need calculation and planning for radiotherapy include the central axis depth dose, nominal standard dose (NSD), time dose factor (TDF), gap calculation, off axis factor, tissue inhomogeneity factor, and non–ionizing radiation surface and depth dose. Based on the outcome of the treatment, the physician can modify the dosage through subsequent dosimetries.",CPT +77301,"Medical Radiation Physics, Dosimetry, Treatment Devices, and Special Services for Radiation Treatment.","Intensity modulated radiotherapy (IMRT) uses advanced computer technology to deliver very precise radiation beams that target and destroy the cancerous cells while avoiding the surrounding healthy tissue. With the help of three–dimensional computed tomography (CT) and a computer–controlled delivery system, multiple radiation beams of varying intensity are directed at the tumor from different angles. This reduces the risk of exposure for the healthy tissues that might come in the way of the beam as the intensity and angle of each beam can be adjusted with the help of the computerized delivery system. IMRT is widely used for treatment of cancerous tumors of the head, neck, prostate, lung, GI tract, thyroid, and breast.",CPT +77306,"Medical Radiation Physics, Dosimetry, Treatment Devices, and Special Services for Radiation Treatment.",The provider arranges one or two parallel opposed treatment ports to achieve the isodose beam arrangement for external beam radiation therapy. Isodose means a radiation dose of equal intensity applied to a treatment field in the body. The provider also calculates the right dose on the basis of the type and stage of the cancer.,CPT +77307,"Medical Radiation Physics, Dosimetry, Treatment Devices, and Special Services for Radiation Treatment.",The provider arranges tangential ports to achieve the isodose beam arrangement for external beam radiation therapy to treat multiple areas at the same time. Isodose means a radiation dose of equal intensity applied to a treatment field in the body. The provider also calculates the right dose on the basis of the type and stage of the cancer.,CPT +77316,"Medical Radiation Physics, Dosimetry, Treatment Devices, and Special Services for Radiation Treatment.","In this procedure, the provider does simple level isodose planning for brachytherapy in which he uses up to four radiation sources or one channel for afterloading. Isodose means a radiation dose of equal intensity applied to a treatment field of the body.",CPT +77317,"Medical Radiation Physics, Dosimetry, Treatment Devices, and Special Services for Radiation Treatment.","In this procedure, the provider does intermediate level isodose planning for brachytherapy in which he uses five to 10 radiation sources or two to 12 channels for afterloading. Isodose means a radiation dose of equal intensity applied to a treatment field of the body.",CPT +77318,"Medical Radiation Physics, Dosimetry, Treatment Devices, and Special Services for Radiation Treatment.","In this procedure, the provider does intermediate level isodose planning for brachytherapy where he uses over 10 radiation sources or over 12 channels for afterloading. Isodose means a radiation dose of equal intensity applied to a treatment field of the body.",CPT +77321,"Medical Radiation Physics, Dosimetry, Treatment Devices, and Special Services for Radiation Treatment.","In this service, the radiation oncology provider plans for a special beam consideration such as electrons, which are heavy particles to treat a complex tumor.",CPT +77331,"Medical Radiation Physics, Dosimetry, Treatment Devices, and Special Services for Radiation Treatment.","In this service, the provider calculates the amount of radiation to be received by the human body using special radiation monitoring and measuring devices. This code requires the physician’s orders for special dosimetry.",CPT +77332,"Medical Radiation Physics, Dosimetry, Treatment Devices, and Special Services for Radiation Treatment.","The provider participates in the design, construction, and selection of simple treatment devices such as a simple block or simple bolus. Providers use these devices for proper dose delivery to the tumor and protection of nearby healthy tissues.",CPT +77333,"Medical Radiation Physics, Dosimetry, Treatment Devices, and Special Services for Radiation Treatment.","The provider participates in the design and construction of intermediate treatment devices such as multiple blocks, stents, bite blocks, or a special bolus. Providers use these devices for proper dose delivery to the tumor and protection of nearby healthy tissues.",CPT +77334,"Medical Radiation Physics, Dosimetry, Treatment Devices, and Special Services for Radiation Treatment.","The provider designs, develops, and constructs special and customized devices for proper radiation dose delivery and protection of nearby healthy tissues.",CPT +77336,"Medical Radiation Physics, Dosimetry, Treatment Devices, and Special Services for Radiation Treatment.","This code is for reporting ongoing medical physics consultation. When a patient is undergoing radiation treatment for a particular span of time with a number of therapy sessions every week, the medical physicist needs to look into the ongoing treatment documentation. This service is usually reported weekly once, after a full week's therapy (generally five treatment sessions) is delivered.",CPT +77338,"Medical Radiation Physics, Dosimetry, Treatment Devices, and Special Services for Radiation Treatment.","In this procedure, the provider participates in the design and construction of one or more multi–leaf collimator, MLC, devices for intensity modulated radiation therapy, IMRT. IMRT is a radiotherapy technique that varies the strength of the radiotherapy beams to match the size, shape, and position of the tumor, minimizing the damage to healthy tissue.",CPT +77370,"Medical Radiation Physics, Dosimetry, Treatment Devices, and Special Services for Radiation Treatment.","In this service, the provider performs a special medical radiation physics consultation required under special circumstances like radiation to a pregnant patient. This code represents the technical component only.",CPT +77371,Stereotactic Radiation Treatment Delivery.,"This code represents the technical component of stereotactic radiosurgery, in which a provider uses a three–dimensional coordinate system to locate small targets or lesions inside the brain and destroys them using externally generated ionized radiation. He uses a multi–source Cobalt 60 system as a source of radiation that generates high energy gamma rays.",CPT +77372,Stereotactic Radiation Treatment Delivery.,"This code represents the technical component of stereotactic radiosurgery, in which a provider uses a three–dimensional coordinate system to locate small targets or lesions inside the brain and destroys them using externally generated ionized radiation. He uses the linear accelerator as a source of radiation that generates the high energy X–rays or electrons.",CPT +77373,Stereotactic Radiation Treatment Delivery.,"This code represents the technical component of a procedure in which the provider performs stereotactic body radiation therapy. The therapy uses a three–dimensional coordinate system to locate small targets or lesions inside the body, other than the brain and spinal cord, and destroys them with precision using externally generated ionized radiation. This code covers a single fraction of a course of up to five fractions.",CPT +77385,Radiation Treatment Delivery.,"The provider uses computer designed mapping and physical compensator to deliver precise, high intensity radiation doses to a malignant tumor or specific areas within the tumor while minimizing the dose to surrounding normal tissues. He determines the treatment delivery based upon tumor shape and CT images along with computerized dose calculations. Providers use this type of radiation therapy to treat cancers like breast or prostate cancer.",CPT +77386,Radiation Treatment Delivery.,"The provider uses a medical linear accelerator and multileaf collimator, or MLC, to deliver precise, high intensity radiation doses to a malignant tumor or specific areas within the tumor while minimizing the dose to surrounding normal tissues. He determines the treatment delivery based upon tumor shape and CT images along with computerized dose calculations. Providers use this type of radiation therapy to treat different types of cancers.",CPT +77387,Radiation Treatment Delivery.,The provider uses imaging guidance to locate the target site for delivery of radiation treatment over the tumor. This helps to protect the surrounding healthy tissues.,CPT +77399,Other Procedures.,"Use to report procedures related to medical radiation physics, dosimetry, and treatment devices that do not have a specific code.",CPT +77401,Radiation Treatment Delivery.,"This code represents the technical component of a procedure in which the provider delivers radiation treatment using superficial and or ortho voltage, a low energy level radiation that does not penetrate very deeply into the body. Use this code for each day of treatment.",CPT +77402,Radiation Treatment Delivery.,"This code represents the technical component of a procedure in which the provider delivers radiation to a treatment area using greater than or equal to a 1 MeV energy level. The treatment involves a single treatment area; one or two ports; and zero, one, or two simple blocks. A block shields healthy tissue from radiation.",CPT +77407,Radiation Treatment Delivery.,"This code represents the technical component of a procedure in which the provider delivers radiation to a treatment area using greater than or equal to 1 MeV energy level. The treatment involves two different treatment areas, each with three or more ports aimed at the area, and three or more blocks. A block shields healthy tissue from radiation.",CPT +77412,Radiation Treatment Delivery.,"This code represents the technical component of a procedure in which the provider delivers radiation to a treatment area using greater than or equal to 1 MeV energy level. The treatment involves three or more treatment areas, specialized blocking tailored to the individual treatment, variations in types of ports and angles or delivery, and changes in the energy beam itself.",CPT +77417,Radiation Treatment Delivery.,"Therapeutic radiology port films are the X–ray films, typically taken by a radiation therapist, of the treatment area.",CPT +77423,Neutron Beam Treatment Delivery.,"This code represents the technical component of a procedure in which the provider delivers high energy neutron radiation treatment to one or more isocenters. An isocenter is a common focus point of all radiation beams. He may use either coplanar or non–coplanar geometry radiation with blocking, wedge, and/or compensators.",CPT +77424,Radiation Treatment Delivery.,This code represents the technical component of a procedure in which the provider administers radiation therapy in the form of irradiating X–rays directly to the exposed tumor during surgery.,CPT +77425,Radiation Treatment Delivery.,This code represents the technical component of a procedure in which the provider administers radiation therapy in the form of an irradiating electron beam directly to the exposed tumor during surgery.,CPT +77427,Radiation Treatment Management.,"Radiation therapy utilizes ionizing radiation beams that are directed at cancerous cells in order to destroy them. The radiation, damages the DNA (the genetic material) in the cell, thus preventing further growth of the cancerous cells. Though there is the risk of damage to the normal cells, the risk is minimized through the use of highly advanced equipment that pinpoint the radiation beam to the cancerous cells and only the immediate surrounding healthy cells to eliminate any risk of regrowth. Radiation therapy can be successfully used in the treatment of most types of cancers including malignant tumors of different organs, lymphomas, leukemia and certain non–malignant conditions. Radiation therapy can be done externally (external radiation therapy) or internally (brachytherapy). In external radiation therapy, the source of the radiation remains outside the body. However, in brachytherapy, the radiation source or implant is inserted and placed internally near the cancerous cells.",CPT +77431,Radiation Treatment Management.,"In this procedure, the provider manages the complete course of radiotherapy treatment that is divided into one or two small doses called fractions. The two doses may be given over a number of weeks.",CPT +77432,Radiation Treatment Management.,"In this procedure, the provider manages the complete course of stereotactic radiotherapy treatment in which he uses a three–dimensional coordinate system to locate small targets or lesions inside the brain. He then destroys them with precision using externally generated ionized radiation. The entire course of treatment consists of one session. This code represents the professional component only.",CPT +77435,Radiation Treatment Management.,"In this procedure, the provider manages the complete course of stereotactic body radiotherapy treatment in which he uses a three–dimensional coordinate system to locate small targets or lesions inside the body except the brain and spinal cord. He then destroys them with precision using externally generated ionized radiation. The entire course of treatment does not exceed five fractions and targets one or more lesions.",CPT +77469,Radiation Treatment Management.,"In this procedure, the provider manages the complete course of intraoperative radiation treatment in which he administers radiation therapy in the form of irradiating X–rays or electron beams directly to the exposed tumor during surgery.",CPT +77470,Radiation Treatment Management.,"In this procedure, the provider performs special radiotherapy procedures requiring special consideration from the provider in the overall management of radiotherapy treatment.",CPT +77499,Radiation Treatment Management.,Use to report therapeutic radiology treatment management services that do not have a specific code.,CPT +77520,Proton Beam Radiation Treatment Delivery.,"This code represents the technical component of a procedure in which the provider administers radiation therapy using a beam of protons to irradiate the cancer. The treatment performed is simple, using a single non–tangential port and without compensators.",CPT +77522,Proton Beam Radiation Treatment Delivery.,"This code represents the technical component of a procedure in which the provider administers radiation therapy using a beam of protons to irradiate the cancer. The treatment performed is simple, using a single non–tangential port and with compensation.",CPT +77523,Proton Beam Radiation Treatment Delivery.,"This code represents the technical component of a procedure in which the provider administers radiation therapy using a beam of protons to irradiate the cancer. The treatment performed is intermediate, involving irradiating one or more treatment areas using two or more ports or one or more tangential ports, as well as custom blocks and compensators.",CPT +77525,Proton Beam Radiation Treatment Delivery.,"This code represents the technical component of a procedure in which the provider administers radiation therapy using a beam of protons to irradiate the cancer. The treatment performed is complex, involving irradiating one or more treatment areas using two or more ports per treatment area, with multiple isocenters or patch fields that abut one another, and with multiple custom blocks and compensators.",CPT +77600,Radiation Hyperthermia Treatment.,"The provider exposes tissue near the surface of a body site, and no deeper than 4cm, to high temperatures of up to 113 degrees Fahrenheit in a technique known as hyperthermia.",CPT +77605,Radiation Hyperthermia Treatment.,"The provider exposes tissue deeper than 4cm in a body site to high temperatures, of up to 113 degrees Fahrenheit, in a technique known as hyperthermia.",CPT +77610,Radiation Hyperthermia Treatment.,"The provider inserts a single probe or needle, or an array of no more than 5 probes or needles, into a tumor to heat it to higher temperatures than external applications of this same technique, known as hyperthermia.",CPT +77615,Radiation Hyperthermia Treatment.,"The provider inserts an array of more than five probes or needles into a tumor to heat it to higher temperatures than external applications of this same technique, known as hyperthermia.",CPT +77620,Clinical Intracavitary Radiation Hyperthermia Treatment.,"The provider inserts a probe into a body cavity or tumor to treat tumors in close proximity to or within the cavity by delivering high temperatures, of up to 113 degrees Fahrenheit, in a technique known as hyperthermia.",CPT +77750,Clinical Brachytherapy Radiation Treatment.,"In this procedure, the provider infuses or instills a radioelement solution to destroy tumor cells. This code includes hospital admission and three months of follow up care.",CPT +77761,Clinical Brachytherapy Radiation Treatment.,"In this procedure, the provider places one to four radioactive sources inside a body cavity, such as the vagina, prostate, lungs, etc. The goal of the procedure is to treat cancer via the application of these implants in or near the tumor; prostate cancer being the most common cancer which providers treat using this procedure.",CPT +77762,Clinical Brachytherapy Radiation Treatment.,"In this procedure, the provider places five to 10 radioactive sources inside a body cavity, such as the vagina, prostate, lungs, etc. The goal of the procedure is to treat cancer via the application of these implants in or near the tumor; prostate cancer being the common cancer which the provider treat using this procedure.",CPT +77763,Clinical Brachytherapy Radiation Treatment.,"In this procedure, the provider places more than 10 radioactive sources inside a body cavity, such as the vagina, prostate, lungs, etc. The goal of the procedure is to treat cancer via the application of these implants in or near the tumor; prostate cancer being the common cancer which the provider treat using this procedure.",CPT +77767,Clinical Brachytherapy Radiation Treatment.,"In this procedure, the provider applies a high energy radioactive substance to treat a skin tumor up to 2.0 cm in diameter or uses a single channel directly on or near the skin surface. The procedure includes calculation of the dose of the radioactive substance before loading into the catheter, when performed.",CPT +77768,Clinical Brachytherapy Radiation Treatment.,"In this procedure, the provider treats a skin tumor over 2.0 cm in diameter or multiple lesions or uses two or more channels by applying a high energy radioactive substance directly on or near the skin surface. The procedure includes calculation of the dose of the radioactive substance before loading into the catheter, when performed.",CPT +77770,Clinical Brachytherapy Radiation Treatment.,"In this procedure, the provider places a catheter within the cancerous tissue (interstitial) or within the body cavity (intracavitary), loaded with a high energy radioactive substance to treat the tumors using a single channel. The procedure includes calculation of the dose of the radioactive substance before loading into the catheter, when performed.",CPT +77771,Clinical Brachytherapy Radiation Treatment.,"In this procedure, the provider places a catheter, within the cancerous tissue (interstitial) or within the body cavity (intracavitary), loaded with a high energy radioactive substance to treat the tumors using two to 12 channels. The procedure includes calculation of the dose of the radioactive substance before loading into the catheter, when performed.",CPT +77772,Clinical Brachytherapy Radiation Treatment.,"In this procedure, the provider places a catheter, within the cancerous tissue (interstitial) or within the body cavity (intracavitary), loaded with a high energy radioactive substance to treat the tumors using more than 12 channels. The procedure includes calculation of the dose of the radioactive substance before loading into the catheter, when performed.",CPT +77778,Clinical Brachytherapy Radiation Treatment.,"In this procedure, the provider places more than 10 radioactive sources directly at the site of a tumor through catheters or needles. The goal of the procedure is to treat the tumor by applying implants directly into the tumor. The procedure includes supervision, handling, loading of radiation source, when performed.",CPT +77789,Clinical Brachytherapy Radiation Treatment.,"In this procedure, the provider applies a low–dose–rate radioactive source directly on the surface of the target body area using surface applicators, needles, seeds, or suspensions.",CPT +77790,Clinical Brachytherapy Radiation Treatment.,"In this procedure, the provider supervises, handles, and loads the radiation source to ensure that there is low risk of any accident of radiological significance.",CPT +77799,Clinical Brachytherapy Radiation Treatment.,Use to report a clinical brachytherapy procedure that does not have a specific code.,CPT +78012,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Endocrine System.,"The provider examines the thyroid gland at selected times following oral administration of radioiodine to determine the amount that reaches the thyroid within a 4 to 24 hour period after ingestion. These measurements identify whether the gland is overactive, underactive, or functioning normally. Providers generally run this study to determine the reasons for thyrotoxicosis, which is an excess of thyroid hormone in the body, which may be caused by Graves' disease, an autoimmune hyperthyroidism, or overactive thyroid.",CPT +78013,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Endocrine System.,"The provider images the thyroid gland after administration of radioiodine to determine the amount that reaches the thyroid. The test allows evaluation of any lumps or inflammation, investigation of the cause of an overactive thyroid or abnormalities of thyroid anatomy, and assessment of the size, structure, and function of the thyroid.",CPT +78014,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Endocrine System.,The provider images the thyroid gland after administration of radioiodine and evaluates the amount of the radioiodine that reaches the thyroid and how the thyroid handles it.,CPT +78015,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Endocrine System.,A thyroid scan is a nuclear medicine examination in which a radionuclide is used to see how the thyroid gland is working or to check for thyroid nodules. Sometimes the physician performs a whole body thyroid scan on people who have had thyroid cancer to see if the cancer has spread to other parts of the body.,CPT +78016,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Endocrine System.,A thyroid scan is a nuclear medicine examination in which a radionuclide is used to see how the thyroid gland is working or to check for thyroid nodules. Sometimes the physician performs a whole body thyroid scan on people who have had thyroid cancer to see if the cancer has spread to other parts of the body.,CPT +78018,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Endocrine System.,A thyroid scan is a nuclear medicine examination in which a radionuclide is used to see how the thyroid gland is working or to check for thyroid nodules. Sometimes the physician performs a whole body thyroid scan on people who have had thyroid cancer to see if the cancer has spread to other parts of the body.,CPT +78020,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Endocrine System.,A thyroid scan is a nuclear medicine examination in which a radionuclide is used to see how the thyroid gland is working or to check for thyroid nodules. Sometimes the physician performs a whole body thyroid scan on people who have had thyroid cancer to see if the cancer has spread to other parts of the body.,CPT +78070,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Endocrine System.,"The provider performs a study to image the parathyroid glands, taking two sets of images after administering very small amounts of two different radiopharmaceuticals or radioactive tracers. The provider takes the results and normalizes or compares them to each other and in some cases performs a subtraction study, to help identify abnormal tissue.",CPT +78071,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Endocrine System.,"The provider performs a SPECT study to image the parathyroid glands, also taking sets of planar images after administering very small amounts of two different radiopharmaceuticals or radioactive tracers. The provider takes the results and compares them to each other. In some cases, she performs a subtraction study along with the tomographic imaging to help identify abnormal tissue.",CPT +78072,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Endocrine System.,"The provider performs a study to image the parathyroid glands, taking sets of planar images after administering very small amounts of two different radiopharmaceuticals or radioactive tracers. The provider takes the results and compares  them to each other, along with SPECT images to help identify abnormal tissue and CT images for precise preoperative localization of the abnormal findings. In some cases she also performs a subtraction study.",CPT +78075,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Endocrine System.,"The provider performs a functional imaging technique for evaluation and identification of abnormal adrenal function. After administering an intravenous injection of a radiolabeled cholesterol or radioactive tracer, the provider schedules the patient to return for imaging within three to seven days depending upon the clinical reason for the study. The provider also orders other medications for the patient to take in a prescribed dose and time before returning for imaging.",CPT +78099,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Endocrine System.,Use to report an endocrine diagnostic nuclear medicine procedure that does not have a specific code.,CPT +78102,"Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Hematopoietic, Reticuloendothelial and Lymphatic System.","In this procedure, the provider images the bone tissue after intravenous administration of a radiopharmaceutical, or radiotracer, distributes and collects in the body. Use this code when the provider obtains bone marrow images of a limited area.",CPT +78103,"Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Hematopoietic, Reticuloendothelial and Lymphatic System.","The provider images the bone tissue after intravenous administration of a radiopharmaceutical, or radiotracer, distributes and collects in the body. This noninvasive study images multiple body sites and may be done in multiple phases.",CPT +78104,"Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Hematopoietic, Reticuloendothelial and Lymphatic System.","The provider scans the entire body after intravenous administration of a radiopharmaceutical, or radiotracer, into the body. This noninvasive study images the entire skeleton in intervals to capture the tracer’s movement through the body.",CPT +78110,"Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Hematopoietic, Reticuloendothelial and Lymphatic System.","In this procedure, the provider determines the plasma volume, a blood component, by introducing a known quantity of radioactive material into the blood and measuring the concentration after adequate mixing. This code represents a single sample method.",CPT +78111,"Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Hematopoietic, Reticuloendothelial and Lymphatic System.","In this procedure, the provider determines the plasma volume, a blood component, by introducing a known quantity of radioactive material into the blood and measuring the concentration after adequate mixing. This code represents a multiple sample method.",CPT +78120,"Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Hematopoietic, Reticuloendothelial and Lymphatic System.","In this procedure, the provider determines the red cell volume, a blood component, by introducing a known quantity of red blood cells tagged with a radioactive tracer and measuring the concentration after adequate mixing. This code represents a single sample method.",CPT +78121,"Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Hematopoietic, Reticuloendothelial and Lymphatic System.","In this procedure, the provider determines the red cell volume, a blood component, by introducing a known quantity of red blood cells tagged with a radioactive tracer and measuring the concentration after adequate mixing. This code represents a multiple sample method.",CPT +78122,"Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Hematopoietic, Reticuloendothelial and Lymphatic System.","The provider performs a study to measure the patient’s whole blood volume, including red blood cell and plasma volumes. The test involves injecting the patient with a radiopharmaceutical or radiotracer and his own red blood cells that have been tagged with a tracer. The provider then calculates the volumes using an isotope dilution principle. It determines the volume of these items by introducing a known quantity of radiopharmaceuticals into an unknown volume of blood and measuring the concentration after adequate mixing.",CPT +78130,"Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Hematopoietic, Reticuloendothelial and Lymphatic System.",The provider studies the lifespan of a red blood cell after injecting the patient with the patient's own red blood cells that have been tagged with a radiopharmaceutical.,CPT +78140,"Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Hematopoietic, Reticuloendothelial and Lymphatic System.",The provider studies the liver and spleen after injecting the patient with the patient's own red blood cells that have been tagged with a radiopharmaceutical.,CPT +78185,"Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Hematopoietic, Reticuloendothelial and Lymphatic System.","The provider studies the spleen after intravenous administration of a radiopharmaceutical, or radiotracer, to determine the size and position of the spleen or to detect tumors, abscesses, or cysts.",CPT +78191,"Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Hematopoietic, Reticuloendothelial and Lymphatic System.","The provider studies platelet lifespan after drawing a sample of the patient’s blood, tagging the platelets with a radiopharmaceutical, and then re–transfusing them into the patient.",CPT +78195,"Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Hematopoietic, Reticuloendothelial and Lymphatic System.","In this procedure, the provider uses a gamma–emitting radioactive tracer to diagnose and localize diseases of the lymphatics and lymph nodes.",CPT +78199,"Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Hematopoietic, Reticuloendothelial and Lymphatic System.","Use to report a hematopoietic, reticuloendothelial, or lymphatic diagnostic nuclear medicine procedure that does not have a specific code.",CPT +78201,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Gastrointestinal System.,A liver and spleen scan is a specialized radiologic procedure that is used to examine the liver and spleen to identify certain conditions or to assess their function.,CPT +78202,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Gastrointestinal System.,A liver and spleen scan is a specialized radiologic procedure that is used to examine the liver and spleen to identify certain conditions or to assess their function.,CPT +78215,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Gastrointestinal System.,A liver and spleen scan is a specialized radiologic procedure that is used to examine the liver and spleen to identify certain conditions or to assess their function.,CPT +78216,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Gastrointestinal System.,A liver and spleen scan is a specialized radiologic procedure that is used to examine the liver and spleen to identify certain conditions or to assess their function.,CPT +78226,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Gastrointestinal System.,"The provider images the liver, bile, bile ducts, and gallbladder to follow the production and flow of bile from the liver to the small intestine to diagnose a bile duct obstruction or leakage; abnormalities in the bile ducts; gallbladder inflammation known as cholecystitis; gallstones; or other disorders that affect the hepatobiliary system. This exam is also known as hepatobiliary scintigraphy.",CPT +78227,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Gastrointestinal System.,"The provider images the liver, bile, bile ducts, and gallbladder to follow the production and flow of bile from the liver to the small intestine to diagnose a bile duct obstruction or leakage; abnormalities in the bile ducts; gallbladder inflammation known as cholecystitis; gallstones; or other disorders that affect the hepatobiliary system. In this study the provider administers medication to help obtain a diagnosis. This exam is also known as hepatobiliary scintigraphy.",CPT +78230,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Gastrointestinal System.,The provider images the salivary glands after intravenous injection of the patient with a radiopharmaceutical or tracer.,CPT +78231,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Gastrointestinal System.,The provider images the salivary glands through a series of serial images after intravenous injection of the patient with a radiopharmaceutical or tracer.,CPT +78232,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Gastrointestinal System.,The provider evaluates the function of the salivary glands after intravenous injection of the patient with a radiopharmaceutical or tracer. She then assesses the pattern of uptake and the gland’s secretion of the tracer. This scan is also called parotid gland scintigraphy.,CPT +78258,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Gastrointestinal System.,"The provider images the esophagus to test muscle movement or contractions and esophagus peristalsis. The patient swallows a radiopharmaceutical or tracer in water, and the provider takes a rapid sequence of images. The study is also known as esophageal transit scintigraphy.",CPT +78261,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Gastrointestinal System.,"The provider images the lining of the stomach, called the gastric mucosa, after intravenous administration of a radiopharmaceutical or tracer. Providers often perform this study on children to determine the reasons for acute gastrointestinal bleeding caused by conditions such as Meckel’s diverticulum, cysts, or other gastrointestinal disorders.",CPT +78262,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Gastrointestinal System.,"The provider images the stomach after the patient drinks a liquid combined with a radiopharmaceutical or tracer. The test shows how fast the solution leaves the stomach, whether there are problems with stomach movement or in the lower part of the digestive tract, and whether the patient inhales the solution into the lungs.",CPT +78264,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Gastrointestinal System.,"The provider images the stomach after the patient consumes a liquid, solid, or semisolid meal that has a radiopharmaceutical or tracer added to it. The provider then takes immediate and ongoing images to assess the speed with which the stomach empties.",CPT +78265,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Gastrointestinal System.,"In this procedure, the provider administers a liquid, solid, or semisolid meal with a radiopharmaceutical or tracer in it to the patient and evaluates the speed with which the stomach and the small intestine empty. He captures various images and monitors the passage of the food to study the functioning of gastric muscles.",CPT +78266,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Gastrointestinal System.,"In this procedure, the provider administers a liquid, solid, or semisolid meal with a radiopharmaceutical or tracer in it to the patient and evaluates the speed with which the stomach and the intestines empty. He captures various images and monitors the passage of the food to study the functioning of gastric and intestinal muscles.",CPT +78267,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Gastrointestinal System.,The provider administers a radioactive isotope C–14 labeled solution of urea to the patient to diagnose infection of the stomach with Helicobacter pylori.,CPT +78268,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Gastrointestinal System.,The provider analyzes breath samples using a scintillation counter. The samples are from a patient who underwent a test involving administration of a radioactive isotope C–14 labeled solution of urea to diagnose infection of the stomach with Helicobacter pylori.,CPT +78278,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Gastrointestinal System.,The provider images a wide area including the lower portion of the liver and spleen and the entire abdomen and pelvic region after administering a radiopharmaceutical or tracer. The goal is to identify where the patient is bleeding from when there is no direct evidence of active bleeding in the lower gastrointestinal tract or when active bleeding prevents adequate visualization of the bowel.,CPT +78282,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Gastrointestinal System.,"The provider analyzes the stool after intravenous injection of a patient with a radiopharmaceutical or tracer. The analysis detects and quantifies an abnormal loss of protein from the digestive tract or the inability of the digestive tract to absorb proteins. This occurs from conditions such as bacteria or parasite infection of the intestines, Crohn’s disease, lymphoma, or other diseases.",CPT +78290,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Gastrointestinal System.,"Intestinal imaging for diagnosis of ectopic gastric mucosa leads to localization of Meckel's diverticulum, an appendage in the ileocecal region. It is the residue of the omphalomesenteric duct (yolk stalk) that normally should disappear during the fetal development. The radionuclear imaging procedure, also known as Meckel's scan or scintigraphy, uses a larger field–of–view (LFOV) gamma camera to detect the concentration of radioactive substances (radioisotopes such as technetium–99m pertechnetate, injected intravenously) in ectopic gastric mucosa in the diverticulum. The patient is asked to stop food intake at least four hours prior to the procedure. The imaging takes about 30 minutes to complete, excluding the pre–imaging procedures and formalities.",CPT +78291,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Gastrointestinal System.,"In this procedure, the provider evaluates the peritoneal–venous shunt to ensure that it is not blocked and is functioning well.",CPT +78299,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Gastrointestinal System.,Use to report a gastrointestinal diagnostic nuclear medicine procedure that does not have a specific code.,CPT +78300,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider performs bone scan (also known as scintigraphy), a specialized nuclear medicine procedure in which the provider injects a radionuclide prior to imaging to examine the various bones of the skeleton and/or to diagnose bone disease. He images of a limited area of the body, such as a single bone or joint.",CPT +78305,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider performs a bone scan (also known as scintigraphy), a specialized nuclear medicine procedure in which the provider injects a radionuclide prior to imaging to examine multiple areas of the skeleton and/or to diagnose bone disease.",CPT +78306,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider performs a bone scan (also known as scintigraphy), a specialized nuclear medicine procedure in which the provider injects a radionuclide prior to imaging to examine the various bones of the skeleton and/or to diagnose bone disease. Report this code for a full–body bone scan.",CPT +78315,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider performs a three–phase bone scan (also known as scintigraphy), a specialized nuclear medicine procedure in which the provider injects a radionuclide prior to imaging to examine the various bones of the skeleton and/or to diagnose bone disease.",CPT +78350,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider uses a single energy photon beam to measure the bone mineral density, or BMD, which is the amount of minerals per unit area in the bone or bones. The goal of the procedure is to measure the mineral content of the bones to rule out diseases, such as osteoporosis. This code represents both the technical and professional components of the service.",CPT +78351,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,"The provider uses two different energy photon beams to measure the bone mineral density, or BMD, which is the amount of minerals per unit area in the bone or bones. The goal of the procedure is to measure the mineral content of the bones to rule out diseases, such as osteoporosis.",CPT +78399,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Musculoskeletal System.,Use to report a musculoskeletal diagnostic nuclear medicine procedure that does not have a specific code.,CPT +78414,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Cardiovascular System.,"In this procedure, the provider uses an appropriate device or probe to determine the blood flow in the central cardiovascular system. The provider might use a pharmacological agent to trigger blood flow to measure any change in the ejection fraction.",CPT +78428,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Cardiovascular System.,"In this procedure, the provider finds a left to right shunt, which is abnormal flow of blood from the left to right side through the shunt. The goal of the procedure is to detect any abnormality or defect in the flow of blood in the heart.",CPT +78429,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Cardiovascular System.,"The provider performs a PET myocardial imaging scan, a type of nuclear imaging test with CT transmission scan that tells how the myocardium, the heart muscle, is functioning. The test provides information on metabolism, such as oxygen, glucose, or drug metabolism; ejection fraction and ventricular wall motion studies are included if performed. This code is for a single study.",CPT +78430,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Cardiovascular System.,"The provider performs a PET myocardial imaging scan, a type of nuclear imaging test, with CT transmission scan that reveals blood flow to and from the heart (perfusion). Ejection fraction and ventricular wall motion studies are included if performed. This code is for a single study at rest or with pharmacologic or exercise stress testing.",CPT +78431,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Cardiovascular System.,"The provider performs a PET myocardial imaging scan, a type of nuclear imaging test, with CT transmission scan that reveals blood flow to and from the heart (perfusion). Ejection fraction and ventricular wall motion studies are included if performed. This code is for multiple studies at rest and with pharmacologic or exercise stress testing.",CPT +78432,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Cardiovascular System.,"The provider performs a PET myocardial imaging scan, a type of nuclear imaging test, using two radionuclide tracers. The study reveals blood flow to and from the heart (perfusion) as well as information on metabolism, such as oxygen, glucose, or drug metabolism and myocardial (heart muscle) viability. Ejection fraction and ventricular wall motion studies are included if performed.",CPT +78433,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Cardiovascular System.,"The provider performs a PET myocardial imaging scan, a type of nuclear imaging test, and concurrent CT transmission scan using two radionuclide tracers. The study reveals blood flow to and from the heart (perfusion) as well as information on metabolism, such as oxygen, glucose, or drug metabolism and myocardial (heart muscle) viability. Ejection fraction and ventricular wall motion studies are included if performed.",CPT +78434,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Cardiovascular System.,The provider performs a positron emission tomography (PET) study at both rest and stress to measure myocardial blood flow. Stress is induced by injection of a drug. Report this code in conjunction with a code for the primary procedure.,CPT +78445,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Cardiovascular System.,"In this procedure, the provider obtains images of the blood flow through the vessels via angiography or venography. The goal of the procedure is to determine narrowing of the vessels or any disease in the vessels.",CPT +78451,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Cardiovascular System.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a single SPECT study of the heart to determine the areas of deficient blood flow. The goal of the procedure is to determine areas that have deficient blood supply.",CPT +78452,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Cardiovascular System.,"In this procedure, the provider performs multiple SPECT studies of the heart to determine the areas of deficient blood flow. The goal of the procedure is to determine areas that have deficient blood supply.",CPT +78453,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Cardiovascular System.,"In this procedure, the provider performs single planar study of the heart to determine the areas of deficient blood flow. The planar study gives two dimensional, 2D, images of the deficient blood flow. The goal of the procedure is to determine areas that have deficient blood supply.",CPT +78454,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Cardiovascular System.,"In this procedure, the provider performs multiple planar studies of the heart to determine the areas of deficient blood flow. The goal of the procedure is to determine areas that have deficient blood supply.",CPT +78456,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Cardiovascular System.,"In this procedure, the provider mixes a peptide and radionuclide that emits gamma rays and injects it into the affected area to determine the site of clots and track the platelets.",CPT +78457,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Cardiovascular System.,"In this diagnostic nuclear medicine procedure, the provider performs imaging of the vascular system, after injecting a radiopharmaceutical agent, to identify the presence and location of any thrombi, or clots, in a vein. He performs a unilateral study.",CPT +78458,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Cardiovascular System.,"In this diagnostic nuclear medicine procedure, the provider performs imaging of the vascular system, after injecting a radiopharmaceutical agent, to identify the presence and location of any thrombi, or clots, in the vein. He performs a bilateral study.",CPT +78459,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Cardiovascular System.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs positron emission tomography, a type of nuclear imaging test, of the heart to evaluate heart metabolism, such as oxygen, glucose, or drug metabolism. The service also includes ventricular wall motion orejection fraction or both, if performed. This code is for a single study.",CPT +78466,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Cardiovascular System.,"In this procedure, the provider performs planar nuclear imaging of heart muscle after the injection of a radioactive substance that accumulates in the area of damaged myocardium. The test helps to identify and locate the damage a recent myocardial infarction might have caused. Myocardial infarction, or MI, is the irreversible damage of the myocardium or heart muscle due to ischemia caused by a blood clot.",CPT +78468,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Cardiovascular System.,"In this procedure, the provider performs planar nuclear imaging of heart muscle after the injection of a radioactive substance that accumulates in the area of damaged myocardium. The test helps to identify and locate the damage that a recent myocardial infarction might have caused. He also determines the ejection fraction of the ventricles by measuring the change in radioactivity as the radioactive substance travels through the heart.",CPT +78469,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Cardiovascular System.,"In this procedure, the provider uses SPECT, single photon emission computed tomography, a type of nuclear imaging test, to evaluate damage that might have been caused by a recent myocardial infarction. MI or myocardial infarction is the irreversible damage of the myocardium or heart muscle due to ischemia caused by a blood clot.",CPT +78472,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Cardiovascular System.,The provider performs gated equilibrium cardiac blood pool imaging with wall motion study and ejection fraction to show how the heart is pumping blood to the rest of the body. The study is performed with the patient either at rest or with exercise or pharmacologic stress.,CPT +78473,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Cardiovascular System.,The provider performs gated equilibrium cardiac blood pool imaging at rest and stress with wall motion study and ejection fraction to show how the heart is pumping blood to the rest of the body.,CPT +78481,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Cardiovascular System.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a single study to determine how well the heart is pumping blood to other parts of the body at rest or with stress. He uses a technique called first pass technique.",CPT +78483,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Cardiovascular System.,"In this procedure, the provider performs multiple studies to determine how well the heart is pumping blood to other parts of the body at rest and with stress. He uses a technique called first pass technique.",CPT +78491,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Cardiovascular System.,"The provider performs positron emission tomography, a type of nuclear imaging test, of the heart that reveals how the blood flows through the heart. The service also includes ventricular wall motion and ejection fraction or both, if performed. This code is for a single study performed at rest or stress which is exercise– or drug–induced.",CPT +78492,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Cardiovascular System.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs a myocardial perfusion PET imaging study which means it reveals the flow of oxygenated blood to the heart muscles. The service also includes ventricular wall motion and ejection fraction or both, if performed. This code is for multiple studies and is performed at rest and exercise– or drug–induced stress.",CPT +78494,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Cardiovascular System.,"The provider uses single–photon emission computed tomography (SPECT), a type of nuclear imaging test, to evaluate how well the heart is pumping blood to other parts of the body while the patient is at rest. The provider uses a technique called gated equilibrium technique.",CPT +78496,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Cardiovascular System.,The provider performs gated equilibrium cardiac blood pool imaging at rest to hows how the heart is pumping blood to the rest of the body and uses first–pass technique to assess right ventricular ejection fraction. This is a separate procedure reported in conjunction with a primary procedure.,CPT +78499,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Cardiovascular System.,Use to report diagnostic nuclear medicine procedures on the cardiovascular system for which there is no specific code available.,CPT +78579,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Respiratory System.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs pulmonary ventilation imaging, a nuclear scan test that evaluates the circulation of air within the patient’s lungs.",CPT +78580,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Respiratory System.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs a nuclear perfusion imaging test to evaluate the circulation of blood within the patient’s lungs. He does this to identify the presence of any blood clot that may prevent the normal blood flow to that part of the lung. This code represents both the technical and professional components of the service.",CPT +78582,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Respiratory System.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs both pulmonary ventilation and perfusion imaging in a nuclear scan test that evaluates the circulation of air and blood within the patient’s lungs.",CPT +78597,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Respiratory System.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs pulmonary perfusion, a nuclear scan test that evaluates the flow of blood within the patient’s lungs. The aim is to perform quantitative analysis of differential pulmonary artery blood flow. The provider may or may not perform imaging with the test.",CPT +78598,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Respiratory System.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs both pulmonary ventilation and perfusion nuclear scan tests that evaluate the circulation of air and blood within the patient’s lungs. The aim is to perform quantitative analysis of differential pulmonary ventilation and perfusion in the lungs.",CPT +78599,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Respiratory System.,Use to report a respiratory diagnostic nuclear medicine procedure that does not have a specific code.,CPT +78600,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Nervous System.,"In this procedure, the provider performs nuclear diagnostic imaging of the brain using a radiopharmaceutical substance to examine the function of the brain. He performs less than four static views, which are two–dimensional views that show one image at a time.",CPT +78601,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Nervous System.,"In this procedure, the provider performs nuclear diagnostic imaging of the brain using a radiopharmaceutical substance to examine the structure and function of the brain. He performs less than four static views, which are two–dimensional views that show one image at a time. He also evaluates the blood flow to the brain.",CPT +78605,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Nervous System.,"The provider performs nuclear diagnostic imaging of the brain using a radiopharmaceutical substance to examine the function of the brain. He performs four or more static views, which are two–dimensional views that show one image at a time.",CPT +78606,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Nervous System.,"In this procedure, the provider performs nuclear diagnostic imaging of the brain using a radiopharmaceutical substance to examine the function of the brain. He performs four or more static views, which are two–dimensional views that show one image at a time. He also evaluates the blood flow to the brain.",CPT +78608,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Nervous System.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs PET, positron emission tomography, a type of nuclear imaging test. It tells how the brain is functioning with information on metabolism, such as oxygen, glucose, or drug metabolism.",CPT +78609,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Nervous System.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs PET, positron emission tomography, in a type of nuclear imaging test that tells how the brain is functioning and how well the blood flows to the brain.",CPT +78610,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Nervous System.,"In this procedure, the provider uses a gamma–emitting radioactive tracer to test how well the blood flows to the brain.",CPT +78630,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Nervous System.,"In this procedure, the provider checks the flow pattern of cerebrospinal fluid, CSF, in the head. This is a diagnostic procedure most commonly used to rule out CSF leaks and to diagnose hydrocephalus, a disease characterized by abnormal accumulation of CSF in the brain.",CPT +78635,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Nervous System.,"In this procedure, the provider checks the size of brain ventricles by imaging the cerebrospinal fluid, CSF, flow. This is a diagnostic procedure most commonly used in children with hydrocephalus, a disease characterized by abnormal accumulation of CSF in the brain.",CPT +78645,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Nervous System.,"In this procedure, the provider checks the patency and function of a CSF shunt system by imaging the cerebrospinal fluid flow. A shunt provides an alternative fluid pathway through which CSF bypasses an obstruction in the fluid compartments of the brain, thereby preventing excess fluid buildup.",CPT +78650,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Nervous System.,"In this procedure, the provider detects and localizes the site of cerebrospinal fluid leakage using a diagnostic nuclear imaging technique that uses a radioactive substance or tracer.",CPT +78660,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Nervous System.,"In this procedure, the provider performs diagnostic nuclear imaging of the lacrimal, or tears, system. He introduces a radioactive tracer into the eye followed by imaging using a gamma camera to identify the site of the obstruction.",CPT +78699,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Nervous System.,Use to report a nervous system diagnostic nuclear medicine procedure that does not have a specific code.,CPT +78700,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Genitourinary System.,A kidney scan is a nuclear medicine test that is used to evaluate the structure and function of the kidneys as well as blood flow to the kidneys.,CPT +78701,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Genitourinary System.,A kidney scan is a nuclear medicine test that is used to evaluate the structure and function of the kidneys as well as blood flow to the kidneys.,CPT +78707,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Genitourinary System.,A kidney scan is a nuclear medicine test that is used to evaluate the structure and function of the kidneys as well as blood flow to the kidneys.,CPT +78708,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Genitourinary System.,A kidney scan is a nuclear medicine test that is used to evaluate the structure and function of the kidneys as well as blood flow to the kidneys.,CPT +78709,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Genitourinary System.,A kidney scan is a nuclear medicine test that is used to evaluate the structure and function of the kidneys as well as blood flow to the kidneys.,CPT +78725,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Genitourinary System.,A kidney scan is a nuclear medicine test that is used to evaluate the structure and function of the kidneys as well as blood flow to the kidneys.,CPT +78730,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Genitourinary System.,"In this procedure, at the same time he performs a ureteral reflux study, the provider uses a radioisotope to evaluate any functional defect in the urinary bladder.",CPT +78740,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Genitourinary System.,"In this procedure, the provider checks for ureteral reflux by capturing images of the bladder and ureters using contrast injection.",CPT +78761,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Genitourinary System.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a nuclear medicine test along with injection of a radiopharmaceutical tracer to check for the cause of an abrupt pain, such as a tumor, cyst, or abscess, in the testicles.",CPT +78799,Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures on the Genitourinary System.,Use to report diagnostic nuclear medicine procedures in the genitourinary system that does not have another more specific code.,CPT +78800,Other Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures.,"The provider uses a gamma–emitting radioactive tracer to diagnose and localize a tumor, inflammatory process, or radiopharmaceutical agent distribution in a single body area. Vascular flow and blood pool imaging to determine how well the heart is pumping blood are included if performed. This code represents planar (two–dimensional), single–day imaging of a single area such as the head, neck, chest, or pelvis.",CPT +78801,Other Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures.,"The provider uses a gamma–emitting radioactive tracer to diagnose and localize a tumor, inflammatory process, or radiopharmaceutical agent distribution. This code represents 1 or more days of imaging of two or more areas (for example, pelvis and knees or abdomen and pelvis); or 2 or more days of imaging of a single area (such as head, neck, chest, or pelvis). Vascular flow and blood pool imaging to determine how well the heart is pumping blood are included if performed.",CPT +78802,Other Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures.,"The provider uses a gamma–emitting radioactive tracer to diagnose and localize a tumor, inflammatory process, or radiopharmaceutical agent distribution. Vascular flow and blood pool imaging to determine how well the heart is pumping blood are included if performed. This code represents single–day imaging of the whole body.",CPT +78803,Other Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures.,"The provider uses a nuclear imaging test called SPECT to localize a tumor, inflammatory process, or radioactive tracer distribution. Vascular flow and blood pool imaging are included if performed. This code represents single–day imaging of a single area, such as the head, neck, chest, or pelvis, or a single acquisition on one day.",CPT +78804,Other Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures.,"The provider uses a gamma–emitting radioactive tracer to diagnose and localize a tumor, inflammatory process, or radiopharmaceutical agent distribution. Vascular flow and blood pool imaging to determine how well the heart is pumping blood are included if performed. This code represents 2 or more days of imaging of the whole body.",CPT +78808,Other Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an intravenous injection of a gamma–emitting radioactive tracer for localization of a structure with the help of a gamma probe, a handheld device that localizes the structure by the tracer radioactivity.",CPT +78811,Other Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs PET, positron emission tomography, on a small, defined area of the body. PET is a type of nuclear imaging test that produces three dimensional images of functional processes in the body and is an effective method of detecting tumor cells in the body.",CPT +78812,Other Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures.,"PET scans are highly effective in the detection of cancerous cells in the body. A PET scan provides a three–dimensional image of the body that makes it easy to detect the presence of a malignant tumor. Cancer cells have a higher metabolic rate than normal body cells and a PET scan takes advantage of this while imaging. The patient is injected with a radiopharmaceutical tracer called FDG (fluoro–deoxyglucose, a radioactive substance containing glucose) one hour prior to the scheduled imaging. The radiotracer spreads throughout the body through the blood stream and gets absorbed by cells and starts emitting small amounts of energy (positrons). The positrons collide with electrons resulting in the production of photons that travel in opposite directions. The photon emission is captured by the PET scanner and processed with a computer to produce a three–dimensional image of the body tissues. Cancerous cells show a high radiotracer uptake and are highly visible in the scan in comparison to healthy cells.",CPT +78813,Other Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs PET, positron emission tomography of the whole body. PET is a type of nuclear imaging test that produces three dimensional images of functional processes in the body and is an effective method of detecting tumor cells in the body.",CPT +78814,Other Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider performs both positron emission tomography and computed tomography together to evaluate the location and metabolic actions of tumors or cancer inside the body before beginning an active treatment regimen. The results of these two scans fuse and the combined image provides a more complete picture and information on tumor location and metabolism.",CPT +78815,Other Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures.,"PET and CT scans are both standard imaging tools that allow doctors to evaluate the location and metabolic actions of tumors or cancer inside the body before beginning an active treatment regimen. When alone, each imaging study has their own benefits and limitations but as the results of these two scans are ""fused"" together, the combined image provides a more complete picture and information on tumor location and metabolism.",CPT +78816,Other Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures.,"The patient is injected with a radiopharmaceutical tracer called FDG (fluoro–deoxyglucose, a radioactive substance containing glucose) about one hour before the imaging is scheduled to begin. The radiotracer spreads in the body via the blood stream and gets absorbed by cells and starts emitting small amounts of energy (positrons). The positrons collide with electrons resulting in the production of photons that travel in opposite directions. The photon emission is captured by the PET scanner and is processed in a computer to give a three–dimensional image of the body tissues being studied. Cancerous cells display a high radiotracer uptake and are highly visible in the scan in comparison to healthy cells. But the PET scan has a limitation in terms of pinpointing the location of a tumor. This shortcoming is overcome by the combination of a PET and CT. The CT scan produces thin cross–sectional slices of internal organs. The images produced by the PET and the CT are combined together to obtain accurate details about the size and location of a tumor. Images can be obtained for the whole body or for any limited area of the body.",CPT +78830,Other Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures.,"The provider uses a nuclear imaging test called SPECT with concurrent CT imaging to localize a tumor, inflammatory process, or radioactive tracer distribution. Vascular flow and blood pool imaging are included if performed. This code represents single–day imaging of a single area, such as the head, neck, chest, or pelvis, or a single acquisition on one day.",CPT +78831,Other Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures.,"The provider uses a nuclear imaging test called SPECT to localize a tumor, inflammatory process, or radioactive tracer distribution. Vascular flow and blood pool imaging are included if performed. This code represents single–day imaging of at least two areas (such as the pelvis and knees) or separate acquisitions (such as lung ventilation and perfusion) on one day.",CPT +78832,Other Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures.,"The provider uses a nuclear imaging test called SPECT with concurrent CT imaging to localize a tumor, inflammatory process, or radioactive tracer distribution. Vascular flow and blood pool imaging are included if performed. This code represents single–day imaging of at least two areas (such as the pelvis and knees) or separate acquisitions (such as lung ventilation and perfusion) on one day.",CPT +78835,Other Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures.,Report this code in addition to an appropriate primary code when the provider quantifies the amount (as opposed to merely assessing the distribution) of a radiopharmaceutical agent in a single area.,CPT +78999,Other Diagnostic Nuclear Medicine Procedures.,Use to report a miscellaneous diagnostic nuclear medicine procedure that does not have a specific code.,CPT +79005,Therapeutic Nuclear Medicine Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider administers a radiopharmaceutical substance orally to treat cancer or other conditions.",CPT +79101,Therapeutic Nuclear Medicine Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider injects a radiopharmaceutical substance into the venous blood stream to treat the patient’s condition.",CPT +79200,Therapeutic Nuclear Medicine Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider places a radiopharmaceutical substance directly into a body cavity, or space in the body, such as the uterus.",CPT +79300,Therapeutic Nuclear Medicine Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider implants a colloidal radioactive substance contained in wires, small tubes, or seeds directly over the tumor area.",CPT +79403,Therapeutic Nuclear Medicine Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider infuses radiolabeled monoclonal antibodies directly into the venous bloodstream to treat the patient’s condition.",CPT +79440,Therapeutic Nuclear Medicine Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider injects a radioactive substance into a joint to alleviate the synovial inflammation.",CPT +79445,Therapeutic Nuclear Medicine Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider injects a liquid containing radioactive particles into the artery supplying blood to a tumor. The aim is to block the blood supply to the cancer cells.",CPT +79999,Therapeutic Nuclear Medicine Procedures.,Use to report a radiopharmaceutical therapy procedure that does not have a specific code.,CPT +80047,Organ or Disease Oriented Panels.,"The lab analyst performs a basic metabolic panel (BMP) test in which he measures the blood level of eight chemicals identified in the descriptor including ionized calcium, sodium, potassium, chloride, carbon dioxide, glucose, blood urea nitrogen (BUN), and creatinine.",CPT +80048,Organ or Disease Oriented Panels.,"The lab analyst performs a basic metabolic pane (BMP) test in which he measures the blood level of eight chemicals including total calcium, sodium, potassium, chloride, carbon dioxide, glucose, blood urea nitrogen (BUN), and creatinine.",CPT +80050,Organ or Disease Oriented Panels.,"The lab analyst performs testing for the specific group of clinical laboratory procedures in the general health panel. Payers typically consider to apply only when the clinician orders the general health panel specifically as a screening, so the panel code would not apply when the clinician orders the component tests for diagnostic purposes.",CPT +80051,Organ or Disease Oriented Panels.,"The lab analyst performs an electrolyte panel; this panel must include measurement of carbon dioxide, chloride, potassium, and sodium.",CPT +80053,Organ or Disease Oriented Panels.,"The lab analyst performs a comprehensive metabolic panel, or CMP test in which he measures the blood level of 14 chemicals the code descriptor lists for the panel.",CPT +80055,Organ or Disease Oriented Panels.,"The lab analyst performs an obstetric panel; this panel must include tests for a complete blood count with differential, a hepatitis B surface antigen, a rubella antibody, a qualitative non treponemal syphilis test, a red blood cell antibody screen, ABO blood typing, and Rh typing.",CPT +80061,Organ or Disease Oriented Panels.,The lab analyst performs a lipid panel test in which he measures the blood level of cholesterol and fats called triglycerides in the blood.,CPT +80069,Organ or Disease Oriented Panels.,The lab analyst performs a renal function panel test in which he measures the blood level of certain chemicals the descriptor lists to evaluate how well the kidney is functioning.,CPT +80074,Organ or Disease Oriented Panels.,"The lab analyst performs an acute hepatitis panel; the panel must include tests for hepatitis A IgM antibody, hepatitis B core IgM antibody, hepatitis B surface antigen, and hepatitis C antibody.",CPT +80076,Organ or Disease Oriented Panels.,"The lab analyst performs a hepatic function panel test in which he measures the blood levels of total protein, albumin, alkaline phosphatase, bilirubin, both total and direct, and liver enzymes.",CPT +80081,Organ or Disease Oriented Panels.,"The lab analyst performs an obstetric panel; this panel must include tests for a complete blood count with differential, a hepatitis B surface antigen test, a single–result test for HIV–1 antigens and antibodies for HIV–1 and HIV–2, a rubella antibody test, a qualitative nontreponemal syphilis test, a red blood cell antibody screen, ABO blood typing, and Rh typing.",CPT +80143,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to quantify the level of acetaminophen in the patient specimen, such as serum. Acetaminophen is a medication that is an analgesic (pain reliever) and fever reducer available without a prescription either alone or combined with other medications, and in prescription formulations with other therapeutic drugs.",CPT +80145,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to quantify in the patient specimen, the level of adalimumab, a medication that is a therapeutic antibody against tumor necrosis factor–alpha (TNF–a), which is associated with multiple immune–mediated conditions.",CPT +80150,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a specimen to quantitate the amount of amikacin present, which is an antibiotic.",CPT +80151,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to quantify the level of amiodarone in the patient specimen, such as serum. Amiodarone is an antiarrhythmic medication used to treat life–threatening arrhythmias (irregular heartbeat).",CPT +80155,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,A lab tests a patient's specimen to determine the level of caffeine.,CPT +80156,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a specimen for the total amount of carbamazepine, a medication clinicians use for the treatment of epilepsy and some other neurologic and psychiatric disorders. This code is for the total level that includes both the bound and unbound, or free, carbamazepine.",CPT +80157,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a specimen for the amount of free carbamazepine in a specimen. Carbamazepine is a medication clinicians use for the treatment of epilepsy and some other neurologic and psychiatric disorders; the free portion is the amount of medication that is not bound or attached to anything, such as protein.",CPT +80158,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a specimen to quantitate the amount of cyclosporine present, which is an immunosuppressant drug.",CPT +80159,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,A lab tests a patient's specimen to determine the level of clozapine.,CPT +80161,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to quantify the level of the –10,11–epoxide metabolite of carbamazepine in the patient specimen, such as serum. Carbamazepine is an anticonvulsant medication clinicians use for the treatment of epilepsy and some other neurologic and psychiatric disorders. The level of carbamazepine –10,11–epoxide in the patient specimen can be used to monitor possible toxicity of the medication.",CPT +80162,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,The lab analyst measures the amount of total digoxin in the blood. Digoxin is one of the cardiac or digitalis glycosides that a provider uses to treat congestive heart failure and slow heart rate in patients.,CPT +80163,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,The lab analyst measures the amount of free digoxin in the blood. Digoxin is one of the cardiac or digitalis glycosides that a provider uses to treat congestive heart failure and slow heart rate in patients.,CPT +80164,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of total valproic acid, also called dipropylacetic acid, in the blood. Valproic acid is a drug that a provider uses to treat certain types of seizures.",CPT +80165,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,The lab analyst measures the amount of free valproic acid in the blood. Valproic acid is a drug that provider uses to treat certain types of seizures.,CPT +80167,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to quantify the level of felbamate in the patient specimen, such as serum. Felbamate is an anticonvulsant drug used to treat certain seizure disorders.",CPT +80168,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a specimen to quantitate the amount of ethosuximide present, which is an anticonvulsant or seizure medication.",CPT +80169,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,A lab tests a patient's specimen to determine the level of everolimus.,CPT +80170,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a specimen to quantitate the amount of gentamicin present, which is an antibiotic.",CPT +80171,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of gabapentin in the blood, serum, or plasma. Gabapentin is a drug that the provider uses to treat certain types of seizures.",CPT +80173,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a specimen to quantitate the amount of haloperidol present, which is an antipsychotic medication.",CPT +80175,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,A lab tests a patient's specimen to determine the level of lamotrigine.,CPT +80176,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a specimen to quantitate the amount of lidocaine present, an anesthetic clinicians may also use for some heart arrhythmias.",CPT +80177,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,A lab tests a patient's specimen to determine the level of levetiracetam.,CPT +80178,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a specimen to quantitate the amount of lithium present, which is a drug clinicians use to treat many manic depressive disorders.",CPT +80179,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to quantify the level of salicylate in the patient specimen, such as serum. Salicylate, also known as aspirin, is a nonsteroidal anti–inflammatory drug (NSAID) available without a prescription.",CPT +80180,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,A lab tests a patient's specimen to determine the level of mycophenolic acid.,CPT +80181,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to quantify the level of flecainide in the patient specimen, such as serum. Flecainide is a Class I antiarrhythmic medication used to treat life–threatening ventricular dysrhythmias.",CPT +80183,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,A lab tests a patient's specimen to determine the level of oxcarbazepine.,CPT +80184,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a specimen to quantitate the amount of phenobarbital present, which is an anticonvulsant medication.",CPT +80185,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a specimen to quantitate the total amount of phenytoin present, which is an anticonvulsant medication.",CPT +80186,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a specimen to quantitate the amount of free phenytoin present, which is an anticonvulsant medication.",CPT +80187,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to quantify in the patient specimen, the level of posaconazole, an antifungal medication, often prescribed for immunocompromised patients to inhibit invasive Aspergillus and Candida infections, or to treat oropharyngeal candidiasis.",CPT +80188,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a specimen to quantitate the amount of primidone present, which is an anticonvulsant medication.",CPT +80189,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to quantify the level of itraconazole in the patient specimen, such as serum. Itraconazole is an antifungal drug used to treat or prevent fungal infection, especially in immunocompromised patients.",CPT +80190,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a specimen to quantitate the amount of procainamide present, which is a medication for heart arrhythmias. Arrhythmias are irregular heart rhythms.",CPT +80192,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a specimen to quantitate the amount of procainamide with metabolites present. Procainamide is a medication for heart arrhythmias, which are irregular heart rhythms. The metabolites are a byproduct of the breakdown of procainamide by the liver.",CPT +80193,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to quantify the level of the active metabolite of leflunomide (teriflunamide) in the patient specimen. Leflunomide is a medication in the class of disease–modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs) used to treat adult patients with rheumatoid arthritis.,CPT +80194,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a specimen to quantitate the amount of quinidine present, which clinicians use to treat some heart arrhythmias. An arrhythmia is an irregular heartbeat.",CPT +80195,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a specimen to quantitate the total amount of sirolimus present, which is an immunosuppressant drug patients often use to prevent rejection after a transplant.",CPT +80197,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a specimen to quantitate the total amount of tacrolimus present, which is an immunosuppressant drug patients often use to prevent rejection after a transplant.",CPT +80198,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a specimen to quantitate the amount of theophylline present, which is a medication clinicians use to treat various chronic lung conditions.",CPT +80199,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,A lab tests a patient's specimen to determine the level of tiagabine.,CPT +80200,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a specimen to quantitate the amount of tobramycin present, which is an antibiotic.",CPT +80201,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a specimen to quantitate the amount of topiramate present, which is an anticonvulsant medication.",CPT +80202,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a specimen to quantitate the amount of vancomycin present, which is an antibiotic.",CPT +80203,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,A lab tests a patient's specimen to determine the level of zonisamide.,CPT +80204,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to quantify the level of methotrexate in the patient specimen, such as serum. Methotrexate is a medication in the class of antimetabolites used to treat conditions that may involve rapid cell proliferation such as certain neoplasms.",CPT +80210,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to quantify the level of rufinamide in the patient specimen, such as serum. Rufinamide is an anticonvulsant medication used to treat certain seizure conditions.",CPT +80220,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,"Code describes a therapeutic drug assay to quantify the level of the prescribed medication, hydroxychloroquine, in the patient specimen, such as serum. A common lab method for this test is liquid chromatography–tandem mass spectrometry (LC–MS/MS). Hydroxychloroquine is an antimalarial drug used to treat or prevent malaria infection, and clinicians may also prescribe it to treat rheumatoid arthritis or other autoimmune conditions such as systemic lupus erythematosus. The test results help clinicians evaluate clinical dosage and response.",CPT +80230,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to quantify in the patient specimen, the level of infliximab, a medication that is a therapeutic antibody against tumor necrosis factor–alpha (TNF–a), which is associated with multiple immune–mediated conditions.",CPT +80235,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to quantify in the patient specimen, the level of lacosamide, an antiepileptic medication typically prescribed with other medications to treat partial–onset seizures.",CPT +80280,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to quantify in the patient specimen, the level of vedolizumab, a medication that is a therapeutic antibody against integrin alpha 4 beta 7 (also known as lymphocyte Peyer’s patch adhesion molecule, or LPAM1), to affect a gastrointestinal–selective anti–inflammatory response.",CPT +80285,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to quantify in the patient specimen, the level of voriconazole, an antifungal medication, often prescribed for treatment of candidemia/candidiasis, invasive aspergillosis, and some other serious fungal infections.",CPT +80299,Therapeutic Drug Assays.,Use to report therapeutic drug quantitation procedures that do not have a specific code.,CPT +80305,Presumptive Drug Class Screening Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs presumptive drug test(s) by any method that the analyst can read by direct optical observation only, without instrument assistance, to screen for any number of drug classes on a single date.",CPT +80306,Presumptive Drug Class Screening Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs presumptive drug test(s) by any method that the analyst can read by instrument–assisted direct optical observation, often utilizing immunoassay, to screen for any number of drug classes on a single date.",CPT +80307,Presumptive Drug Class Screening Procedures.,The lab analyst performs presumptive drug test(s) via instrumented chemistry analyzers to screen for any number of drug classes on a single date.,CPT +80320,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of or detects the presence of alcohol present in a patient specimen, which commonly may be blood, other body fluid, or tissue.",CPT +80321,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,"The lab analyst detects and measures the alcohol biomarker in a patient specimen. Alcohol biomarkers are physiological indicators of the alcohol exposure or ingestion. In this test, the analyst tests for one or two alcohol biomarker compounds.",CPT +80322,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,"The lab analyst detects and measures the alcohol biomarker in a patient specimen. Alcohol biomarkers are physiological indicators of the alcohol exposure or ingestion. In this test, the analyst tests for three or more alcohol biomarker compounds.",CPT +80323,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,The lab analyst identifies and evaluates the level of alkaloid drugs in a patient specimen that are not specified elsewhere in CPT® by a different code from the class of alkaloids.,CPT +80324,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of or detects the presence of one or two amphetamines, a central nervous system stimulant in a patient specimen.",CPT +80325,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of or detects the presence of three or four amphetamines, a central nervous system stimulant in the patient specimen.",CPT +80326,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of or detects the presence of five or more amphetamines, a central nervous system stimulant, in a patient specimen.",CPT +80327,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of or detects the presence of one or two anabolic steroids, a synthetic drug that is related to male sex hormone testosterone, in a patient specimen.",CPT +80328,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of or detects the presence of three or more anabolic steroids, a synthetic drug that is related to the male sex hormone testosterone, in a patient specimen.",CPT +80329,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of or detects the presence of one or two nonopioid analgesics, which are pain medications, in the patient specimen.",CPT +80330,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of or detects the presence of three to five nonopioid analgesics, which are pain medications, in the patient specimen.",CPT +80331,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of or detects the presence of six or more nonopioid analgesics, which are pain medications, in the patient specimen.",CPT +80332,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of or detects the presence of one or two serotonergic antidepressants, which are psychiatric medications, in a patient specimen.",CPT +80333,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of or detects the presence of three to five serotonergic antidepressants, which are psychiatric medications, in a patient specimen.",CPT +80334,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of or detects the presence of six or more serotonergic antidepressants, which are psychiatric medications, in a patient specimen.",CPT +80335,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of or detects the presence of one or two tricyclic and other cyclical antidepressants, which are psychiatric medications, in a patient specimen.",CPT +80336,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of or detects the presence of three to five tricyclic and other cyclicals antidepressants, which are psychiatric medications, in a patient specimen.",CPT +80337,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of or detects the presence of six or more tricyclic and other cyclicals antidepressants, which are psychiatric medications, in a patient specimen.",CPT +80338,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of or detects the presence of antidepressants, which are psychiatric medications, in a patient specimen. The antidepressants the provider is testing for are not specified in other CPT® codes.",CPT +80339,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,The lab analyst measures the amount of or detects the presence of one to three antiepileptics in a patient specimen. The antiepileptics the provider is testing for are not specified in other CPT® codes. Antiepileptics are anticonvulsant or antiseizure medications taken to treat epilepsy.,CPT +80340,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,The lab analyst measures the amount of or detects the presence of four to six antiepileptics in a patient specimen. The antiepileptics the provider is testing for are not specified in other CPT® codes. Antiepileptics are anticonvulsant or antiseizure medications taken to treat epilepsy.,CPT +80341,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,The lab analyst measures the amount of or detects the presence of seven or more antiepileptics in a patient specimen. The antiepileptics the provider is testing for are not specified in other CPT® codes. Antiepileptics are anticonvulsant or antiseizure medications taken to treat epilepsy.,CPT +80342,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of or detects the presence of one to three antipsychotics, in a patient specimen.The antipsychotics the provider is testing for are not specified in other CPT® codes. Antipsychotics are drugs used to treat psychosis and other mental and emotional conditions.",CPT +80343,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,The lab analyst measures the amount of or detects the presence of four to six antipsychotics in a patient specimen. The antipsychotics the provider is testing for are not specified in other CPT® codes. Antipsychotics are drugs used to treat psychosis and other mental and emotional conditions.,CPT +80344,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of or detects the presence of seven or more antipsychotics, in a patient specimen. The antipsychotics that the analyst measures are not specified by other CPT® codes. Antipsychotics, are drugs used to treat psychosis and other mental and emotional conditions.",CPT +80345,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the level of or detects the presence of barbiturates in a patient sample, primarily a serum or urine specimen. Clinicians commonly prescribe barbiturates, especially short and intermediate acting forms, to prevent seizures or convulsions, but they frequently need to test for barbiturates as they are drugs of abuse.",CPT +80346,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of or detects the presence of one to twelve benzodiazepines, which are tranquilizers, in a patient specimen.",CPT +80347,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of or detects the presence of 13 or more benzodiazepines, which are tranquilizers, in a patient specimen.",CPT +80348,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of or detects the presence of buprenorphine in a patient specimen. Buprenorphine is a drug used to treat opioid addiction, to control acute pain in individuals who cannot tolerate opioids even in lower dosages, and to control moderate chronic pain.",CPT +80349,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,The lab analyst measures the amount of or detects the presence of natural cannabinoids in a patient specimen.,CPT +80350,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,The lab analyst measures the amount of or detects the presence of one to three synthetic cannabinoids present in the patient specimen.,CPT +80351,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,The lab analyst measures the amount of or detects the presence of four to six synthetic cannabinoids present in the patient specimen.,CPT +80352,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,The lab analyst measures the amount of or detects the presence of seven or more synthetic cannabinoids present in the patient specimen.,CPT +80353,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,The lab analyst measures the amount of or detects the presence of cocaine in the patient specimen.,CPT +80354,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,The lab analyst measures the amount of or detects the presence of fentanyl in the patient specimen.,CPT +80355,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of or detects the presence of gabapentin in the patient specimen, which is something other than blood.",CPT +80356,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,The lab analyst measures the amount of or detects the presence of heroin metabolite in the patient specimen.,CPT +80357,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,The lab analyst measures the amount of or detects the presence of ketamine and norketamine in the patient specimen.,CPT +80358,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,The lab analyst measures the amount of or detects the presence of methadone in the patient specimen.,CPT +80359,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,The lab analyst measures the amount of or detects the presence of methylenedioxyamphetamines in the patient specimen.,CPT +80360,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of or detects the presence of methylphenidate, which is a central nervous system stimulant that treats attention deficit disorders, in the patient specimen.",CPT +80361,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of or detects the presence of one or more opiates, narcotic analgesics that depress the central nervous system, in the specimen.",CPT +80362,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of or detects the presence of one or two opioids and opiate analogs, narcotic analgesics that depress the central nervous system, in the specimen.",CPT +80363,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of or detects the presence of three or four opioids and opiate analogs, narcotic analgesics that depress the central nervous system, in the specimen.",CPT +80364,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of or detects the presence of five or more opioids and opiate analogs, narcotic analgesics that depress the central nervous system, in the specimen.",CPT +80365,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of or detects the presence of oxycodone, a synthetic opioid pain medication, in a patient specimen.",CPT +80366,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of or detects the presence of pregabalin, a drug that treats nerve pain and seizures, in a patient specimen.",CPT +80367,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of or detects the presence of propoxyphene, a narcotic analgesic that relieves pain, in a patient specimen.",CPT +80368,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,The lab analyst measures the amount of or detects the presence of non–benzodiazepine sedative hypnotics in a patient specimen.,CPT +80369,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,The lab analyst measures the amount of or detects the presence of one or two skeletal muscle relaxants in the patient specimen. These drugs reduce the tone of skeletal muscles and thus alleviate muscle spasm and pain.,CPT +80370,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,The lab analyst measures the amount of or detects the presence of three or more skeletal muscle relaxants in the patient specimen. These drugs reduce the tone of skeletal muscles and thus alleviate muscle spasm and pain.,CPT +80371,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of or detects the presence of synthetic stimulants or bath salts, which are recreational drugs, in the patient specimen. These drugs cross the blood brain barrier, interact with the brain, and stimulate a feeling of intense excitement and happiness.",CPT +80372,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of or detects the presence of tapentadol, a centrally acting opioid pain medication, in the patient specimen.",CPT +80373,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of or detects the presence of tramadol, which is a centrally acting opioid pain medication, in the patient specimen.",CPT +80374,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of or detects the presence of stereoisomers of a single drug class in the patient specimen. Stereoisomers are chemicals that are made of the same chemical components in the same order, but differ in spatial configuration. Enantiomers are two stereoisomers that are mirror images of each other. Both forms have the same physical and chemical properties but differ in their biological properties.",CPT +80375,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the presence or amount of one to three definitive drugs, such as gold, in the patient specimen.",CPT +80376,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,The lab analyst measures the presence or amount of four to six definitive drugs in the patient specimen.,CPT +80377,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,The lab analyst measures the presence or amount of seven or more definitive drugs in the patient specimen.,CPT +80400,Evocative/Suppression Testing Procedures.,An ACTH stimulation test is a medical test that is ordered and interpreted by endocrinologists to assess the functioning of the adrenal glands in a stress response.  This is assessed by measuring levels of cortisol in response to the introduction of synthetic adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH).,CPT +80402,Evocative/Suppression Testing Procedures.,An ACTH stimulation test is a medical test that is ordered and interpreted by endocrinologists to assess the functioning of the adrenal glands in a stress response.  This is assessed by measuring levels of cortisol in response to the introduction of synthetic adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH).,CPT +80406,Evocative/Suppression Testing Procedures.,An ACTH stimulation test is a medical test that is ordered and interpreted by endocrinologists to assess the functioning of the adrenal glands in a stress response.  This is assessed by measuring levels of cortisol in response to the introduction of synthetic adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH).,CPT +80408,Evocative/Suppression Testing Procedures.,The lab analyst performs an aldosterone suppression evaluation panel such as a saline infusion test. The panel must include two aldosterone assays and two renin assays.,CPT +80410,Evocative/Suppression Testing Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a calcitonin stimulation panel, for instance with calcium or pentagastrin, which includes three calcitonin tests.",CPT +80412,Evocative/Suppression Testing Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a corticotropic–releasing hormone (CRH) stimulation panel. This panel must include six cortisol assays and six adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) assays.,CPT +80414,Evocative/Suppression Testing Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a chorionic gonadotropin stimulation panel to measure testosterone response; this panel must include two testosterone assays on three pooled blood samples.,CPT +80415,Evocative/Suppression Testing Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a chorionic gonadotropin stimulation panel to measure estradiol response; this panel must include two estradiol assays (82670) on three pooled blood samples.,CPT +80416,Evocative/Suppression Testing Procedures.,The lab analyst measures the renin in each of six blood samples taken from the renal vein before and after the injection of a stimulant such as captopril.,CPT +80417,Evocative/Suppression Testing Procedures.,The lab analyst measures the renin in each of two blood samples taken from a peripheral vein before and after the injection of a stimulant such as captopril.,CPT +80418,Evocative/Suppression Testing Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the level of each of the seven component tests, with four units for each analyte, of this complex combined rapid anterior pituitary evaluation panel, typically on a serum or plasma sample.",CPT +80420,Evocative/Suppression Testing Procedures.,"The lab analyst first measures both the baseline serum cortisol and 24 hour urine free cortisol, and then after the administration of dexamethasone measures a second sampling for the serum cortisol and 24 hour urine free cortisol for this dexamethasone suppression panel.",CPT +80422,Evocative/Suppression Testing Procedures.,The lab analyst measures the level of glucose and insulin on a total of three plasma samples taken at three different times during the procedure. The test measures the response of the pancreas on these two analytes after using a stimulant such as arginine.,CPT +80424,Evocative/Suppression Testing Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the level of fractionated catecholamines on a total of two blood plasma samples taken at two different times during the procedure. This test measures the fractionated catecholamines, which are hormones, before and after a challenge using a stimulant such as captopril.",CPT +80426,Evocative/Suppression Testing Procedures.,The lab analyst measures the level of the follicle stimulating hormone and the luteinizing hormone on a total of four serum samples taken at four different times during the procedure.,CPT +80428,Evocative/Suppression Testing Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the growth hormone level in each of four blood samples, one taken before and three taken after the administration of a stimulant such as arginine.",CPT +80430,Evocative/Suppression Testing Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the glucose in each of three blood samples, one taken before and two taken after the administration of glucose. The lab analyst also measures the human growth hormone level in each of four blood samples, one taken before and three taken after the glucose administration..",CPT +80432,Evocative/Suppression Testing Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the glucose and the C peptide levels in each of five blood samples, one taken before and four taken after the administration of insulin. The analyst tests for insulin only once, for a baseline level.",CPT +80434,Evocative/Suppression Testing Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the glucose and cortisol levels in each of five blood samples, one taken before and four taken after the administration of insulin.",CPT +80435,Evocative/Suppression Testing Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the glucose and human growth hormone levels in each of five blood samples, one taken before and four taken after the administration of insulin.",CPT +80436,Evocative/Suppression Testing Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the cortisol and 11 deoxycortisol levels in each of two blood samples, one taken before and one after the administration of the drug metyrapone.",CPT +80438,Evocative/Suppression Testing Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the thyroid stimulating hormone levels in each of three blood samples, one taken before and two taken after the administration of the drug thyrotropin releasing hormone. Use this code for a one hour test.",CPT +80439,Evocative/Suppression Testing Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the thyroid stimulating hormone levels in each of four blood samples, one taken before and three taken after the administration of the drug thyrotropin releasing hormone. use this code for the two hour test.",CPT +80503,Clinical Pathology Consultations.,"At the request of a physician or other qualified healthcare provider, the pathologist performs a consultation for a clinical problem requiring straightforward medical judgment to help clarify diagnostic test findings. The consultation includes a limited review of patient history and medical records, or you may select the code based on 5–20 minutes documented on the consultation date.",CPT +80504,Clinical Pathology Consultations.,"At the request of a physician or other qualified healthcare provider, the pathologist performs a consultation for a moderately complex clinical problem requiring a moderate level of medical judgment to help clarify diagnostic test findings. The consultation includes a review of patient history and medical records, or you may select the code based on 21–40 minutes documented on the consultation date.",CPT +80505,Clinical Pathology Consultations.,"At the request of a physician or other qualified healthcare provider, the pathologist performs a consultation for a highly complex clinical problem requiring a high level of medical judgment to help clarify diagnostic test findings. The consultation includes a comprehensive review of patient history and medical records, or you may select the code based on 41–60 minutes documented on the consultation date.",CPT +80506,Clinical Pathology Consultations.,"At the request of a physician or other qualified healthcare provider, the pathologist performs a consultation. If the pathologist documents spending at least 75 minutes on the consultation date, you may report 80505 for the first 60 minutes, plus one unit of + for each additional 30 minutes, or at least 15 additional minutes.",CPT +81000,Urinalysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst inserts a dip stick into a freshly collected urine specimen, removes the dip stick, and shakes off the excess urine. Alternatively, the analyst may place drops of the urine specimen on a reagent tablet. Then after the proper time interval, the lab analyst manually reads the results for one or more ordered analytes using a color chart usually located on the outside of the container. The lab analyst will also perform a microscopic analysis, typically on a centrifuged specimen. The lab analyst views the sedimented specimen under the microscope using both low and high power and reports the results.",CPT +81001,Urinalysis Procedures.,"Urinalysis is used to detect substances or cellular material in the urine associated with different metabolic and kidney disorders. It is used to detect urinary tract infections (UTI) and other disorders of the urinary tract. A regular urinalysis often includes color, clarity, odor, specific gravity, pH, protein, glucose, nitrites, WBC, and ketones. The most common method is dipstick or tablet reagent urinalysis but it can be performed by some other methods as well.",CPT +81002,Urinalysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst inserts a dip stick into a freshly collected urine specimen, removes the dip stick, and shakes off the excess urine. Alternatively, the analyst may place drops of the urine specimen on a reagent tablet. Then after the proper time interval, the lab analyst manually reads the results for one or more ordered analytes using a color chart usually located on the outside of the container. The lab analyst does not perform a microscopic analysis.",CPT +81003,Urinalysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst inserts a dip stick into a freshly collected urine specimen, removes the dipstick, and shakes off the excess urine. She places the stick onto a mechanical dip stick reader that will automatically read and record the chemical analytes and other constituents such as leukocytes, pH, and specific gravity.",CPT +81005,Urinalysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the requested analyte in a urine specimen, usually an analyte that does not have a more specific analyte code, and reports the results as qualitative or semiquantitative. This code does not apply to immunoassay.",CPT +81007,Urinalysis Procedures.,"The analyst uses a nonculture, nondipstick method to determine whether bacteriuria is present or absent. The specimen typically would be from a random urine collection.",CPT +81015,Urinalysis Procedures.,The lab analyst performs this testing based on the specific order for a microscopic urinalysis only. The lab analyst will examine a urine specimen directly under the microscope or by using the sediment from a centrifuged urine specimen.,CPT +81020,Urinalysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst receives urine specimen containers labeled glass 1, glass 2, and, at times, glass 3. The lab analyst will examine these two or three glass collections microscopically, and the analyst will report the cellular and bacterial entities present.",CPT +81025,Urinalysis Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the pregnancy test on a urine specimen using a methodology or kit that the analyst can read visually for a direct readout.,CPT +81050,Urinalysis Procedures.,The lab analyst measures and records the volume of the urine collected during a timed collection.,CPT +81099,Urinalysis Procedures.,Use to report procedures the anlayst performs on urine that do not have a specific code.,CPT +81105,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the genes of the two common alleles of Human Platelet Antigen 1 (HPA–1), also called CD61 or ITGB3, using a specimen such as blood or amniotic fluid.",CPT +81106,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the genes of the two common alleles of Human Platelet Antigen 2 (HPA–2), also called T145M, using a specimen such as blood or amniotic fluid.",CPT +81107,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the genes of the two common alleles of Human Platelet Antigen 3 (HPA–3), also called I843S, using a specimen such as blood or amniotic fluid.",CPT +81108,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the genes of the two common alleles of Human Platelet Antigen 4 (HPA–4), also called R143Q, using a specimen such as blood or amniotic fluid.",CPT +81109,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the genes of the two common alleles of Human Platelet Antigen 5 (HPA–5), also called K505E, using a specimen such as blood or amniotic fluid.",CPT +81110,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the genes of the two common alleles of Human Platelet Antigen 6 (HPA–6), also called R489Q, using a specimen such as blood or amniotic fluid.",CPT +81111,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the genes of the two common alleles of Human Platelet Antigen 9 (HPA–9), also called V837M, using a specimen such as blood or amniotic fluid.",CPT +81112,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the genes of the two common alleles of Human Platelet Antigen 15 (HPA–15), also called S682Y, using a specimen such as blood or amniotic fluid.",CPT +81120,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of common changes in the gene for soluble isocitrate dehydrogenase 1 (IDH1), also known as NADP+.",CPT +81121,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of common changes in the gene for mitochondrial isocitrate dehydrogenase 2 (IDH2), also known as NADP+.",CPT +81161,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze specific changes involving deleted, or possibly repeated, nucleotide sequences in the dystrophin gene, also known as the DMD gene.",CPT +81162,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the entire gene sequence for the BRCA1, DNA repair–associated gene, also called BRCA1; and BRCA2, DNA repair–associated gene, also called BRCA2. The lab analyst also performs the technical steps to evaluate BRCA1 and BRCA2 for gene deletions and duplications.",CPT +81163,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the entire gene sequence for the BRCA1 DNA repair–associated gene, also known as BRCA1, and the BRCA2 DNA repair–associated gene, also known as BRCA2.",CPT +81164,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the BRCA1 DNA repair–associated gene, also known as BRCA1, and the BRCA2 DNA repair–associated gene, also known as BRCA2, for gene deletions and duplications to detect large gene rearrangements, if present.",CPT +81165,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the entire gene sequence for the BRCA1 DNA repair–associated gene, also known as BRCA1.",CPT +81166,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the BRCA1 DNA repair–associated gene, also known as BRCA1, for gene deletions and duplications to detect large gene rearrangements, if present.",CPT +81167,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the BRCA2, DNA repair–associated gene, also known as BRCA2, for gene deletions and duplications to detect large gene rearrangements, if present.",CPT +81168,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test on a specimen such as blood, formalin–fixed paraffin embedded tissue (FFPE), or bone marrow to perform a major breakpoint translocation analysis for CCND1/IGH (t(11;14)), which is associated with mantle cell lymphoma (MCL).",CPT +81170,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze variants in the kinase domain of the ABL1 gene, also called BCR/ABL or ABL proto–oncogene 1 nonreceptor tyrosine kinase.",CPT +81171,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of changes in the gene for ALF transcription elongation factor 2 (FMR2), also known as AFF2, typically to spot common abnormal forms involving expanded sequences.",CPT +81172,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to characterize changes in the gene ALF transcription elongation factor 2, also known as AFF2, typically to further define nucleotide repeats or methylation status following detection of an abnormality.",CPT +81173,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the entire gene sequence for the androgen receptor (AR) gene.,CPT +81174,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of specific changes in the androgen receptor (AR) gene, which relate to Kennedy disease or X chromosome inactivation. The test specifically targets genetic variants known to occur in the patient’s family.",CPT +81175,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the entire gene sequence for the additional sex combs like 1 (ASXL1), transcriptional regulator gene.",CPT +81176,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze targeted genes, such as exon 12, for the additional sex combs like 1 (ASXL1), transcriptional regulator gene.",CPT +81177,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of changes in the gene that codes for the protein atrophin 1 (ATN1), to detect abnormal alleles involving expanded sequences.",CPT +81178,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of changes in the gene ataxin 1 (ATXN1) to detect abnormal alleles involving expanded sequences.,CPT +81179,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of changes in the gene ataxin 2 (ATXN2) to detect abnormal alleles involving expanded sequences.,CPT +81180,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of changes in the gene ataxin 3 (ATXN3) to detect abnormal alleles involving expanded sequences.,CPT +81181,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of changes in the gene ataxin 7 (ATXN7) to detect abnormal alleles involving expanded sequences.,CPT +81182,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of changes in the gene ATXN8 opposite strand (nonprotein coding) gene, also known as ATXN8OS, to detect abnormal alleles involving expanded sequences.",CPT +81183,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of changes in the gene ataxin 10 gene (ATXN10) to detect abnormal alleles involving expanded sequences.,CPT +81184,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to characterize changes in the calcium voltage–gated channel subunit alpha1 A gene (CACNA1A), typically to detect abnormal alleles involving expanded sequences.",CPT +81185,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the entire gene sequence for the calcium voltage–gated channel subunit alpha1 A gene, also called CACNA1A.",CPT +81186,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of specific changes in the androgen receptor gene, also called CACNA1A, which relate to Kennedy disease or X chromosome inactivation. The test specifically targets genetic variants known to occur in the patient’s family.",CPT +81187,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of changes in the gene CCHC–type zinc finger nucleic acid–binding protein (CNBP) to detect abnormal alleles involving expanded sequences.,CPT +81188,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to characterize changes in the cystatin B gene (CSTB) typically to detect abnormal alleles involving expanded sequences.,CPT +81189,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the entire gene sequence for the cystatin B gene (CSTB).,CPT +81190,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of specific changes in the cystatin B gene (CSTB). The test specifically targets genetic variants known to occur in the patient’s family.,CPT +81191,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test using a specimen such as formalin–fixed paraffin embedded tissue (FFPE) to analyze NTRK1 (neurotrophic receptor tyrosine kinase 1) translocations that may be associated with tropomyosin receptor kinase (TRK)–mediated cell proliferation involved in certain solid tumors.,CPT +81192,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test using a specimen such as formalin–fixed paraffin embedded tissue (FFPE) to analyze NTRK2 (neurotrophic receptor tyrosine kinase 2) translocations that may be associated with tropomyosin receptor kinase (TRK)–mediated cell proliferation involved in certain solid tumors.,CPT +81193,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test using a specimen such as formalin–fixed paraffin embedded tissue (FFPE) to analyze NTRK3 (neurotrophic receptor tyrosine kinase 3) translocations that may be associated with tropomyosin receptor kinase (TRK)–mediated cell proliferation involved in certain solid tumors, such as congenital/infantile fibrosarcoma.",CPT +81194,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test using a specimen such as formalin–fixed paraffin embedded tissue (FFPE) to analyze NTRK (neurotrophic receptor tyrosine kinase) translocations for the NTRK1, NTRK2, and NTRK3 genes that may be associated with tropomyosin receptor kinase (TRK)–mediated cell proliferation involved in certain solid tumors.",CPT +81200,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of common changes in the gene for aspartoacylase, also known as ASPA.",CPT +81201,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the entire gene sequence for adenomatous polyposis coli, also known as APC.",CPT +81202,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of mutations, common to the patient’s family members, in the gene for adenomatous polyposis coli, also known as APC.",CPT +81203,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze specific changes involving repeated or deleted nucleotides in the adenomatous polyposis coli gene, also known as the APC gene.",CPT +81204,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to characterize changes in the androgen receptor (AR) gene typically to detect and characterize abnormal nucleotide repeats or methylation status.,CPT +81205,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of common changes in the gene for branched–chain keto acid dehydrogenase E1, beta polypeptide, also known as BCKDHB.",CPT +81206,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to evaluate the major breakpoint gene sequence BCR/ALB1 that occurs on chromosome 22 due to translocation, which involves breakage and reforming of an altered gene sequence. The test may be qualitative, which identifies the presence of the BCR/ALB1 fusion gene associated with the major breakpoint, or quantitative, which measures the amount of each fusion gene present.",CPT +81207,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to evaluate the minor breakpoint gene sequence BCR/ALB1 that occurs on chromosome 22 due to translocation, which involves breakage and reforming of an altered gene sequence. The test may be qualitative, which identifies the presence of the BCR/ALB1 fusion gene associated with the minor breakpoint, or quantitative, which measures the amount of each fusion gene present.",CPT +81208,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to evaluate BCR/ALB1 gene sequences that occur on chromosome 22 at breakpoints other than the major and minor breakpoints due to translocation, which involves breakage and reforming of an altered gene sequence. The test may be qualitative, which identifies the presence of the BCR/ALB1 fusion genes associated with the other breakpoints, or quantitative, which measures the amount of each fusion gene present.",CPT +81209,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of common changes in the gene for Bloom syndrome, RecQ helicase–like, also known as BLM.",CPT +81210,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of common changes in the gene for B–Raf proto–oncogene, serine/threonine kinase, also known as BRAF.",CPT +81212,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of specific changes in the BRCA1, DNA repair–associated gene, also called BRCA1; and BRCA2, DNA repair–associated gene, also called BRCA2. The lab analyst evaluates the specimen for the following specific changes to the genes, called variants: 185delAG, 5385insC, 6174delT.",CPT +81215,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of specific altered gene sequences in the BRCA1, DNA repair–associated gene, also called BRCA1. The test evaluates a specific genetic variation identified in family members of the patient.",CPT +81216,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the entire gene sequence for the BRCA2, DNA repair–associated gene, also called BRCA2.",CPT +81217,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of specific altered gene sequences in the BRCA2, DNA repair–associated gene, also called BRCA2. The test evaluates a specific genetic variation identified in family members of the patient.",CPT +81218,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the entire gene sequence for the CCAAT/enhancer binding protein (C/EBP), alpha gene, also called CEBPA, CEBP, or C/EPB–alpha.",CPT +81219,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze common exon 9 variants for the CALR (calreticulin) gene.,CPT +81220,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of changes in the gene for cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator, also known as CFTR. The test evaluates the CFTR mutations such as those identified by the American College of Medical Genetics/American College of Obstetricians guidelines most commonly associated with CF, currently a panel of 23 mutations.",CPT +81221,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of changes in the gene for cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator, also known as CFTR. The test analyzes mutations known to be present in the patient’s family members.",CPT +81222,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze specific changes involving repeated or deleted nucleotides in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator gene, also known as CFTR.",CPT +81223,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the entire gene sequence for cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator gene, also known as CFTR.",CPT +81224,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of intron 8 poly–T mutation in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator gene, also known as CFTR.",CPT +81225,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of common changes in the gene for cytochrome P450, family 2, subfamily C, polypeptide 19, also known as CYP2C19.",CPT +81226,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of common changes in the gene for cytochrome P450, family 2, subfamily D, polypeptide 6, also known as CYP2D6.",CPT +81227,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of common changes in the gene for cytochrome P450, family 2, subfamily C, polypeptide 9, also known as CYP2C9.",CPT +81228,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test using comparative genomic hybridization (CGH) microarray, also called chromosomal microarray (CMA), or molecular karyotype. The test is a high–resolution evaluation across the entire genome to detect variation in the number of copies of gene sequences, called copy–number variants (CNVs), that may be associated with developmental delays or disabilities.",CPT +81229,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test using comparative genomic hybridization (CGH) microarray, also called chromosomal microarray (CMA), or molecular karyotype. The test is a high–resolution evaluation across the entire genome to detect variation in the number of copies of gene sequences, called copy–number variants (CNVs). This test also evaluates single–nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) that may indicate abnormalities such as long sequences of homozygous DNA. The test can identify genetic changes that may be associated with developmental delays or disabilities.",CPT +81230,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the common variants of the cytochrome P450 family 3 subfamily A member 4 gene (CYP3A4), such as *2, *22.",CPT +81231,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the common variants of the cytochrome P450 family 3 subfamily A member 5 gene (CYP3A5), such as *2, *3, *4, *5, *6, *7.",CPT +81232,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the common variants of the dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase (DPYD) gene, such as *2A, *4, *5, *6.",CPT +81233,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of common changes in the gene for Bruton’s tyrosine kinase (BTK).,CPT +81234,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of changes in the DM1 protein kinase gene (DMPK) typically to detect abnormal alleles involving expanded sequences.,CPT +81235,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of common changes in the gene for epidermal growth factor receptor, also known as EGFR.",CPT +81236,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the entire gene sequence for the enhancer of zeste 2 polycomb repressive complex 2 subunit gene (EZH2).,CPT +81237,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of specific changes in the enhancer of zeste 2 polycomb repressive complex 2 subunit gene (EZH2). The test specifically targets common genetic variants, such as those in codon 646.",CPT +81238,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the full gene sequence of the coagulation factor IX (F9) gene.,CPT +81239,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to characterize changes in the DM1 protein kinase gene (DMPK), typically to further define nucleotide repeats or methylation status following detection of an abnormality.",CPT +81240,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of common changes in the gene for prothrombin, coagulation factor II, also known as F2.",CPT +81241,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of a common change, called the Leiden variant, in the gene for coagulation factor V, also known as Factor V Leiden or F5.",CPT +81242,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of a common changes in the gene for Fanconi anemia, complementation group C, also known as FANCC.",CPT +81243,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of changes in the gene for fragile X messenger ribonucleoprotein 1, also known as FMR1, typically to detect common abnormal forms involving expanded sequences.",CPT +81244,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to characterize changes in the gene for fragile X messenger ribonucleoprotein 1 (FMR1), typically to further define expanded alleles or methylation status following detection of an abnormality.",CPT +81245,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of specific changes in the gene for fms related tyrosine kinase 3, or FLT3, over the internal tandem duplication or ITD variants.",CPT +81246,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of specific changes in the gene for fms related tyrosine kinase 3, or FLT3, over the tyrosine kinase domain, or TKD, variant.",CPT +81247,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the common variants of the glucose–6–phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) gene, such as A, A–.",CPT +81248,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze known familial variants of the glucose–6–phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) gene.,CPT +81249,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze known the full gene sequence of the glucose–6–phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) gene.,CPT +81250,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of specific changes in the gene for glucose–6–phosphatase, catalytic subunit, also known as G6PC.",CPT +81251,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of specific changes in the gene for glucosidase, beta, acid, also known as GBA.",CPT +81252,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the entire gene sequence for gap junction protein, beta 2, 26kDa, connexin 26, also known as GJB2.",CPT +81253,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of mutations known to be present in the patient’s family members, in the gene for gap junction protein, beta 2, 26kDa, connexin 26, also known as GJB2.",CPT +81254,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of common changes in the gene for gap junction protein, beta 6, 30kDa, connexin 30, also known as GJB6.",CPT +81255,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of common changes in the gene for hexosaminidase A [alpha polypeptide], also known as HEXA.",CPT +81256,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of common changes in the hemochromatosis gene, also known as HFE.",CPT +81257,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of specific changes and possible deleted nucleotides in the alpha globin 1 and alpha globin 2 genes, also known as HBA1/HBA2, which relate to alpha thalassemia and other structural hemoglobinopathies.",CPT +81258,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of specific changes in the alpha globin 1 and alpha globin 2 (HBA1/HBA) genes, which relate to alpha thalassemia and some structural hemoglobinopathies. The test specifically targets genetic variants known to occur in the patient’s family.",CPT +81259,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the entire gene sequence for alpha globin 1 and alpha globin 2 (HBA1/HBA) genes, which relate to alpha thalassemia and some structural hemoglobinopathies.",CPT +81260,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of common changes in the gene for inhibitor of kappa light polypeptide gene enhancer in B–cells, kinase complex–associated protein, also known as IKBKAP.",CPT +81261,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of specific cell populations from gene rearrangements, called clonal populations, within the Immunoglobulin heavy chain locus, also known as IGH@, that are indicative of lymphoid neoplasms.",CPT +81262,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test using direct probe methods to detect the presence of specific cell populations from gene rearrangements, called clonal populations, within the Immunoglobulin heavy chain locus, also known as IGH@, that are indicative of lymphoid neoplasms.",CPT +81263,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze for mutations in the VH or variable region of the Immunoglobulin heavy chain locus, also known as IGH@.",CPT +81264,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of specific cell populations from gene rearrangements, called clonal populations, within the Immunoglobulin kappa light chain locus, also known as IGK@, that are indicative of lymphoid neoplasms.",CPT +81265,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to evaluate Short Tandem Repeat, or STR, markers to compare genetic similarity in the patient and a specimen from another person.",CPT +81266,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"In addition to the 81265 service, the lab analyst performs the technical lab test to evaluate Short Tandem Repeat, or STR, markers to compare genetic similarity in the patient and an additional specimen beyond the first comparative specimen, such as a second cord blood donor or a third infant for multiple–birth zygosity testing.",CPT +81267,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to compare STR markers from a post–transplant specimen, such as bone marrow, with the initial donor specimen tested in 81265 to discern if the transplant has been successful, called chimerism or engraftment, or to determine if disease has reoccurred, without testing for lineage–specific cell subsets.",CPT +81268,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to compare STR markers from a post–transplant specimen, such as bone marrow, with the initial donor specimen tested in 81265 to discern if the transplant has been successful, called chimerism or engraftment, or to determine if disease has reoccurred, with testing for lineage–specific cell subsets such as CD–3 positive T–cells.",CPT +81269,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to evaluate the patient specimen for genetic duplications and deletions in the alpha globin 1 and alpha globin 2 (HBA1/HBA) genes, which relate to alpha thalassemia and some structural hemoglobinopathies.",CPT +81270,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of a common change in the gene for Janus kinase 2, also known as JAK2.",CPT +81271,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of changes in the huntingtin gene (HTT), typically to detect abnormal alleles involving expanded sequences, based on allele size.",CPT +81272,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test for a partial gene sequence analysis for the v–kit Hardy–Zuckerman 4 feline sarcoma viral oncogene homolog, or KIT, gene. The analysis does not analyze the entire gene, but involves only specific sequences, which may include exons 8, 11, 13, 17, 18.",CPT +81273,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to evaluate D816 variant or variants of the v–kit Hardy–Zuckerman 4 feline sarcoma viral oncogene homolog, or KIT, gene.",CPT +81274,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to characterize changes in the huntingtin gene (HTT), typically to identify nucleotide repeats following detection of an expanded allele size.",CPT +81275,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of common changes in the gene Kirsten rat sarcoma viral oncogene homolog, also known as KRAS, which occur in exon 2.",CPT +81276,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of additional variants, other than in exon 2, for the gene Ki–ras2 Kirsten rat sarcoma viral oncogene, also known as KRAS.",CPT +81277,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test using a tumor tissue or blood specimen from a cancer patient to evaluate the patient’s entire genetic makeup, called the genome, for variation in the number of copies of gene sequences, called copy number variants (CNV), and other chromosomal markers of abnormalities, such as long sequences of homozygous DNA, called loss of heterozygosity (LOH).",CPT +81278,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test on a specimen such as blood, formalin–fixed paraffin embedded tissue (FFPE), or bone marrow to perform a translocation major breakpoint region (MBR) and minor cluster region (mcr) analysis for IGH@/BCL2 (t(14;18)), which is associated with follicular lymphoma (FL).",CPT +81279,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test on a specimen such as blood to analyze specific gene sequences of the JAK2 (Janus kinase 2) gene, such as exons 12 and 13, which may be associated with myeloproliferative neoplasms (MPN) in JAK 2 V617F–negative patients.",CPT +81283,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of changes in the interferon, lambda 3 (IFNL3) gene, specifically for the rs12979860 variant.",CPT +81284,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of changes in the frataxin gene (FXN), typically to detect abnormal alleles involving expanded sequences.",CPT +81285,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to characterize changes in the frataxin gene (FXN), typically to identify nucleotide repeats following detection of an expanded allele size.",CPT +81286,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the entire gene sequence for the frataxin gene (FXN).,CPT +81287,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"A lab performs O–6–methylguanine–DNA methyltransferase (MGMT) promoter methylation analysis, typically as a prognostic marker for responsiveness of glioblastoma (brain tumor) to alkylating chemotherapy using temozolomide.",CPT +81288,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test involving promoter methylation analysis to detect changes for the mutL homolog 1, or MLH1 gene, also known as the colon cancer or nonpolyposis type 2 gene.",CPT +81289,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of specific changes in the frataxin gene (FXN). The test specifically targets genetic variants known to occur in the patient’s family.,CPT +81290,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of common changes in the gene for mucolipin 1, also known as MCOLN1.",CPT +81291,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of common changes in the gene for 5,10–methylenetetrahydrofolate reductase, also known as MTHFR.",CPT +81292,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the entire gene sequence for the mutL homolog 1, or MLH1 gene, also known as the colon cancer or nonpolyposis type 2 gene.",CPT +81293,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of mutations, known to be present in the patient’s family members, in the gene for mutL homolog 1, or MLH1, also known as the colon cancer or nonpolyposis type 2 gene.",CPT +81294,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect genetic changes involving long sequences of deleted or duplicated DNA in the gene for mutL homolog 1, or MLH1 gene, also known as the colon cancer or nonpolyposis type 2 gene.",CPT +81295,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the entire gene sequence for the mutS homolog 2, or MSH2 gene, also known as the colon cancer or nonpolyposis type 1 gene.",CPT +81296,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of mutations, known to be present in the patient’s family members, in the gene for mutS homolog 2, or MSH2 gene, also known as the colon cancer or nonpolyposis type 1 gene.",CPT +81297,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect genetic changes involving long sequences of deleted or duplicated DNA in the gene for mutS homolog 2, or MSH2 gene, also known as the colon cancer or nonpolyposis type 1 gene.",CPT +81298,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the entire gene sequence for the mutS homolog 6 [E. coli], or MSH6 gene.",CPT +81299,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of mutations, known to be present in the patient’s family members, in the gene for mutS homolog 6 [E. coli], or MSH6 gene.",CPT +81300,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect genetic changes involving long sequences of deleted or duplicated DNA in the gene for mutS homolog 6 [E. coli], or MSH6 gene.",CPT +81301,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of microsatellite instability, also known as MSI, in tumor cells from tissue specimens such as colon cancer.",CPT +81302,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the entire gene sequence for the methyl CpG binding protein 2, or MECP2 gene.",CPT +81303,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of mutations known to be present in the patient’s family members, in the gene for the methyl CpG binding protein 2, or MECP2 gene.",CPT +81304,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect genetic changes involving long sequences of deleted or duplicated DNA in the gene for the methyl CpG binding protein 2, or MECP2 gene.",CPT +81305,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of specific changes in the myeloid differentiation primary response 88 gene (MYD88). The test specifically targets a common genetic variant, p.Leu265Pro (L265P).",CPT +81306,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of specific changes in the nudix hydrolase 15 gene (NUDT15). The test specifically targets common genetic variants such as *2, *3, *4, *5, and *6.",CPT +81307,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test on a specimen such as blood, to analyze the entire gene sequence for the partner and localizer of BRCA2 (PALB2) gene.",CPT +81308,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test on a specimen such as blood, to analyze the partner and localizer of BRCA2 (PALB2) gene for a known familial variant.",CPT +81309,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze specific gene sequences of the phosphatidylinositol–4, 5–biphosphate 3–kinase, catalytic subunit alpha (PIK3CA) gene.",CPT +81310,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of specific changes in the gene for nucleophosmin, also known as NPM1.",CPT +81311,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze variants in exon 2, such as codons 12 and 13, and exon 3, such as codon 61, for the neuroblastoma RAS viral, v–ras, oncogene homolog, also called NRAS gene.",CPT +81312,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of changes in the poly[A] binding protein nuclear 1 gene (PABPN1), typically to detect abnormal alleles involving expanded sequences.",CPT +81313,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to evaluate the ratio between two genes: nonprotein coding prostate cancer antigen 3, or PCA3, and prostate specific antigen kallikrein related peptidase 3, or KLK3.",CPT +81314,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test for a partial gene sequence analysis for the platelet–derived growth factor receptor, alpha polypeptide, or PDGFRA gene. The test does not analyze the entire gene, but involves only specific sequences, which may include exons 12 and 18.",CPT +81315,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to evaluate the presence and/or amount of the mutation gene promyelocytic leukemia/retinoic acid receptor alpha, also known as PML/RARalpha, (t(15;17)), formed from common breakpoints in the gene sequence including those on introns 3 and 6.",CPT +81316,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to evaluate the presence and/or amount of the mutation gene promyelocytic leukemia/retinoic acid receptor alpha, also known as PML/RARalpha, (t(15;17)), formed from either breakpoints in intron 3 or intron 6, but not both.",CPT +81317,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the entire gene sequence for the postmeiotic segregation increased 2 [S. cerevisiae], or PMS2 gene.",CPT +81318,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of mutations, known to be present in the patient’s family members, in the postmeiotic segregation increased 2 [S. cerevisiae], or PMS2 gene.",CPT +81319,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect genetic changes involving long sequences of deleted or duplicated DNA in the gene for postmeiotic segregation increased 2 [S. cerevisiae], or PMS2 gene.",CPT +81320,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of common changes in the phospholipase C gamma 2 gene (PLCG2).,CPT +81321,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the entire gene sequence for the phosphatase and tensin homolog, or PTEN, gene.",CPT +81322,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of mutations known to be present in the patient’s family members, in the phosphatase and tensin homolog, or PTEN, gene.",CPT +81323,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect genetic changes involving long sequences of deleted or duplicated DNA in the gene for the phosphatase and tensin homolog, or PTEN, gene.",CPT +81324,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect genetic changes involving deleted or duplicated DNA in the peripheral myelin protein 22, or PMP22, gene.",CPT +81325,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the entire gene sequence for the peripheral myelin protein 22, or PMP22, gene.",CPT +81326,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of mutations, known to be present in the patient’s family members, in the gene for peripheral myelin protein 22, or PMP22.",CPT +81327,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect, in free circulating DNA in the blood, methylation of gene promoter regions that affect expression of suppressor gene Septin9 (SEPT9), which serves as a marker for conditions such as colorectal cancer.",CPT +81328,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of specific changes in the solute carrier organic anion transporter family, member 1B1 (SLCO1B) gene for common variants, such as *5.",CPT +81329,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect deletions in the survival of motor neuron 1 (SMN1), telomeric, gene and may also analyze the survival of motor neuron 2 (SMN2), centromeric, gene.",CPT +81330,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of common changes in the gene for sphingomyelin phosphodiesterase 1, acid lysosomal, also known as SMPD1.",CPT +81331,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test involving methylation analysis to detect changes in two genes: small nuclear ribonucleoprotein polypeptide N, also called SNRPN, and ubiquitin–protein ligase E3A, also called UBE3A.",CPT +81332,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of common changes in the gene for serpin peptidase inhibitor, clade A, alpha–1 antiproteinase, antitrypsin, member 1, also known as SERPINA1.",CPT +81333,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of common changes in the transforming growth factor beta–induced gene (TGFBI).,CPT +81334,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of specific changes in the runt related transcription factor 1 (RUNX) gene for targeted sequence analysis, such as exons 3–8.",CPT +81335,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of specific changes in the thiopurine S–methyltransferase (TPMT) gene for common variants, such as *2, *3.",CPT +81336,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the entire gene sequence for the survival of motor neuron 1 (SMN1), telomeric.",CPT +81337,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of specific changes in the survival of motor neuron 1 (SMN1), telomeric, gene. The test specifically targets genetic variants known to occur in the patient’s family.",CPT +81338,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test on a specimen such as blood to analyze common variants of specific gene sequences of the MPL (MPL proto–oncogene, thrombopoietin receptor) gene, such as W515A, W515K, W515L, W515R, which may be associated with myeloproliferative neoplasms (MPN) such as essential thrombocythemia (ET) in JAK 2 V617F–negative patients.",CPT +81339,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test on a specimen such as blood to analyze specific gene sequences of the MPL (MPL proto–oncogene, thrombopoietin receptor) gene, such as exon 10, which may be associated with myeloproliferative neoplasms (MPN) such as essential thrombocythemia (ET) in JAK 2 V617F–negative patients.",CPT +81340,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test using amplification to detect abnormal clonal T–cell populations from T–cell antigen receptor, beta, also called TCRB or TRB@, that may be indicative of certain types of leukemia and lymphoma.",CPT +81341,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test using direct probe methods such as Southern blot to detect abnormal clonal T–cell populations from T–cell antigen receptor, beta, also called TCRB or TRB@, that may be indicative of certain types of leukemia and lymphoma.",CPT +81342,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect abnormal clonal T–cell populations from T–cell antigen receptor, gamma, also called TRG@, that may be indicative of certain types of leukemia and lymphoma.",CPT +81343,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of changes in the protein phosphatase 2 regulatory subunit Bbeta (PPP2R2B) gene, to detect abnormal alleles involving expanded sequences.",CPT +81344,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of changes in the gene TATA box binding protein (TBP) to detect abnormal alleles involving expanded sequences.,CPT +81345,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze targeted genes, such as the promotor region for the telomerase reverse transcriptase gene (TERT).",CPT +81346,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of specific changes in the thymidylate synthetase (TYMS) gene specifically for common variants, such as the tandem repeat variant.",CPT +81347,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test on a specimen such as blood to detect the presence of common changes in the SF3B1 (splicing factor [3b] subunit B1) gene, such as A672T, E622D, L833F, R625C, R625L, which may be associated with conditions such as myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) or other myeloid neoplasms.",CPT +81348,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test on a specimen such as blood to detect the presence of common changes in the SRSF2 (serine and arginine–rich splicing factor 2) gene, such as P95H, P95L, which may be associated with conditions such as myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) or acute myeloid leukemia (AML).",CPT +81349,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test using low–pass whole genome sequencing, which uses high–throughput next generation sequencing (NGS) technology rather than older technologies such as comparative genomic hybridization (CGH) microarray. The test evaluates the entire genome for changes such as copy–number variants (CNVs), which is an increase or decrease in the number of copies of a gene sequence, and long sequences of homozygous DNA, which may indicate genetic changes associated with developmental delays or disabilities.",CPT +81350,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of common changes in the gene for UDP glucuronosyltransferase 1 family, polypeptide A1, also known as UGT1A1.",CPT +81351,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test on a specimen such as blood to analyze the entire gene sequence for the tumor protein 53 (TP53) gene, which may indicate a diagnosis of Li–Fraumeni syndrome and suggest the need for testing family members for similar mutations.",CPT +81352,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test on a specimen such as blood to analyze targeted gene sequences for the tumor protein 53 (TP53) gene, which may indicate a diagnosis of Li–Fraumeni syndrome and suggest the need for testing family members for similar mutations.",CPT +81353,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test on a specimen such as blood to analyze known familial variants for the tumor protein 53 (TP53) gene to evaluate family members for germline mutations related to a hereditary form of Li–Fraumeni syndrome.,CPT +81355,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of common changes in the gene for vitamin K epoxide reductase complex, subunit 1, also known as VKORC1.",CPT +81357,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test on a specimen such as blood to detect the presence of common changes in the U2AF1 (U2 small nuclear RNA auxiliary factor 1) gene, such as S34F, S34Y, Q157R, Q157P. Results of the test may inform diagnosis and prognosis of certain hematologic disorders such as various leukemias.",CPT +81360,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test on a specimen such as blood to detect the presence of common changes in the ZRSR2 (zinc finger CCCH–type, RNA binding motif and serine/arginine–rich 2) gene, such as E65fs, E122fs, R448fs. Results of the test may inform diagnosis and prognosis of certain hematologic disorders such as various leukemias.",CPT +81361,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of specific changes in the hemoglobin, subunit beta (HBB) gene specifically for common variants, such as HbS, HbC, HbE.",CPT +81362,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect the presence of specific changes in the hemoglobin, subunit beta (HBB) gene specifically for genetic variants known to occur in the patient’s family.",CPT +81363,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to evaluate the patient specimen for genetic duplications and deletions in the hemoglobin, subunit beta (HBB) gene.",CPT +81364,Genetic Analysis Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the entire gene sequence for the hemoglobin, subunit beta (HBB) gene.",CPT +81370,HLA Typing.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test for low or intermediate resolution assessment of human leukocyte antigen genes, called HLA, for Classes I and II using molecular techniques. HLA Class I includes HLA–A, –B, and –C, and HLA Class II for this test includes HLA–DRB1, –DRB3/4/5, and –DQB1.",CPT +81371,HLA Typing.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test for low or intermediate resolution assessment of human leukocyte antigen genes, called HLA, for certain loci in Classes I and II using molecular techniques. The test includes Class I loci HLA–A, and –B, as well as Class II locus HLA–DRB1.",CPT +81372,HLA Typing.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test for low or intermediate resolution assessment of human leukocyte antigen genes, called HLA, for all Class I loci using molecular techniques. The test includes Class I loci HLA–A, –B, and –C.",CPT +81373,HLA Typing.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test for low or intermediate resolution assessment of human leukocyte antigen genes, called HLA, for one Class I locus using molecular techniques.",CPT +81374,HLA Typing.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test for low or intermediate resolution assessment of human leukocyte antigen genes, called HLA, for one Class I antigen equivalent, which is an allele group of interest, typically one that is associated with a specific condition.",CPT +81375,HLA Typing.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test for low or intermediate resolution assessment of human leukocyte antigen genes, called HLA, for all listed Class II loci using molecular techniques. The test includes Class II loci HLA–DRB1/3/4/5 and –DQB1.",CPT +81376,HLA Typing.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test for low or intermediate resolution assessment of human leukocyte antigen genes, called HLA, for one Class II locus using molecular techniques.",CPT +81377,HLA Typing.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test for low or intermediate resolution assessment of human leukocyte antigen genes, called HLA, for one Class II antigen equivalent, which is an allele group of interest, typically one that is associated with a specific condition.",CPT +81378,HLA Typing.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test for high resolution assessment of human leukocyte antigen genes, called HLA, for Classes I and II using molecular techniques. HLA Class I includes HLA–A, –B, and –C, and HLA Class II for this test includes HLA–DRB1.",CPT +81379,HLA Typing.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test for high resolution assessment of human leukocyte antigen genes, called HLA, for all Class I loci using molecular techniques. The test includes Class I loci HLA–A, –B, and –C.",CPT +81380,HLA Typing.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test for high resolution assessment of human leukocyte antigen genes, called HLA, for one Class I locus using molecular techniques.",CPT +81381,HLA Typing.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test for high resolution assessment of human leukocyte antigen genes, called HLA, for one Class I allele or allele group of interest, typically one that is associated with a specific condition.",CPT +81382,HLA Typing.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test for high resolution assessment of human leukocyte antigen genes, called HLA, for one Class II locus using molecular techniques.",CPT +81383,HLA Typing.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test for high resolution assessment of human leukocyte antigen genes, called HLA, for one Class II allele or allele group, typically one that is associated with a specific condition.",CPT +81400,Tier 2 Molecular Pathology Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to complete one of the specific genetic analyses listed in this Tier 2, Level 1 molecular pathology code.",CPT +81401,Tier 2 Molecular Pathology Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to complete one of the specific genetic analyses listed in this Tier 2, Level 2 molecular pathology code.",CPT +81402,Tier 2 Molecular Pathology Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to complete one of the specific genetic analyses listed in this Tier 2, Level 3 molecular pathology code.",CPT +81403,Tier 2 Molecular Pathology Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to complete one of the specific genetic analyses listed in this Tier 2, Level 4 molecular pathology code.",CPT +81404,Tier 2 Molecular Pathology Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab tests to complete one of the specific genetic analyses listed in this Tier 2, Level 5 molecular pathology code.",CPT +81405,Tier 2 Molecular Pathology Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab tests to complete one of the specific genetic analyses listed in this Tier 2, Level 6 molecular pathology code.",CPT +81406,Tier 2 Molecular Pathology Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to complete one of the specific genetic analyses listed in this Tier 2, Level 7 molecular pathology code.",CPT +81407,Tier 2 Molecular Pathology Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to complete one of the specific genetic analyses listed in this Tier 2, Level 8 molecular pathology code.",CPT +81408,Tier 2 Molecular Pathology Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to complete one of the specific genetic analyses listed in this Tier 2, Level 9 molecular pathology code.",CPT +81410,Genomic Sequencing Procedures and Other Molecular Multianalyte Assays.,The lab analyst performs a genomic sequence analysis panel to evaluate the patient specimen for genetic sequences of at least nine genes that the code descriptor lists that may relate to aortic dysfunction or dilation.,CPT +81411,Genomic Sequencing Procedures and Other Molecular Multianalyte Assays.,The lab analyst performs a panel to evaluate the patient specimen for genetic duplications and deletions of at least four genes that the code descriptor lists that may relate to aortic dysfunction or dilation.,CPT +81412,Genomic Sequencing Procedures and Other Molecular Multianalyte Assays.,"The lab analyst performs a genomic sequence analysis panel to evaluate the patient specimen for genetic sequences of at least nine genes that the code descriptor lists, relating to disorders clustered in people of Ashkenazi Jewish descent.",CPT +81413,Genomic Sequencing Procedures and Other Molecular Multianalyte Assays.,"The lab analyst performs all the technical steps of a genomic sequence analysis panel to evaluate the patient specimen for genetic sequences of at least 10 genes that the code descriptor lists, relating to cardiac ion channelopathies, which are disorders of the membrane proteins that help control the flow of charged particles that impact the electrical system of the heart.",CPT +81414,Genomic Sequencing Procedures and Other Molecular Multianalyte Assays.,"The lab analyst performs a panel test to evaluate the patient specimen for genetic duplications and deletions of at least the two genes listed in the code descriptor that relate to cardiac ion channelopathies, which are disorders of the membrane proteins that help control the flow of charged particles that impact the electrical system of the heart.",CPT +81415,Genomic Sequencing Procedures and Other Molecular Multianalyte Assays.,The lab analyst performs an exome gene sequence analysis to look for genetic changes that could account for an unexplained disorder or syndrome in the patient.,CPT +81416,Genomic Sequencing Procedures and Other Molecular Multianalyte Assays.,"The lab analyst performs an exome gene sequence analysis in a relative of the patient to create a reference exome gene sequence, which the lab analyst can compare to the patient’s exome to evaluate an unexplained disorder or syndrome in the patient.",CPT +81417,Genomic Sequencing Procedures and Other Molecular Multianalyte Assays.,"The lab analyst reevaluates an existing patient exome gene sequence in light of new information that was not available at the time of the initial evaluation, such as new clinical information or evidence of an unrelated condition.",CPT +81418,Genomic Sequencing Procedures and Other Molecular Multianalyte Assays.,Code describes a test to evaluate a blood or saliva specimen for changes in at least six genes that may impact metabolism of many therapeutic drugs. The test must include CYP2C19 and CYP2D6 variant analysis and CYP2D6 duplication/deletion analysis. Clinicians may use the test to help determine appropriate dosage for medications.,CPT +81419,Genomic Sequencing Procedures and Other Molecular Multianalyte Assays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test on a specimen such as blood to conduct a genomic sequence analysis panel. The test evaluates the genetic sequences of at least the 24 genes listed in the code descriptor, which may help diagnose or indicate a genetic predisposition to epilepsy, which is a neurological seizure disorder.",CPT +81420,Genomic Sequencing Procedures and Other Molecular Multianalyte Assays.,"The lab analyst performs a genomic sequence analysis panel to evaluate circulating cell free fetal DNA in maternal blood for genetic sequences of at least the genes on chromosomes 13, 18, and 21, which may relate to fetal chromosomal aneuploidy.",CPT +81422,Genomic Sequencing Procedures and Other Molecular Multianalyte Assays.,The lab analyst performs a genomic sequence analysis panel to evaluate circulating cell–free fetal DNA in maternal blood for chromosomal microdeletion(s) associated with conditions such as DiGeorge or Cri–du–chat syndromes.,CPT +81425,Genomic Sequencing Procedures and Other Molecular Multianalyte Assays.,The lab analyst performs a gene sequence analysis of the entire patient genome to look for genetic changes that could account for an unexplained disorder or syndrome.,CPT +81426,Genomic Sequencing Procedures and Other Molecular Multianalyte Assays.,"The lab analyst performs a gene sequence analysis of the entire genome in a relative of the patient to create a reference genome gene sequence, which the lab analyst can compare to the patient’s genome to evaluate an unexplained disorder or syndrome in the patient.",CPT +81427,Genomic Sequencing Procedures and Other Molecular Multianalyte Assays.,"The lab analyst reevaluates an existing patient full genomic sequence analysis in light of new information that was not available at the time of the initial evaluation, such as new clinical information or evidence of an unrelated condition.",CPT +81430,Genomic Sequencing Procedures and Other Molecular Multianalyte Assays.,"The lab analyst performs a genomic sequence analysis panel to evaluate the patient specimen for genetic sequences of at least 60 genes, including 16 genes that the code descriptor lists, which may relate to hearing loss.",CPT +81431,Genomic Sequencing Procedures and Other Molecular Multianalyte Assays.,"The lab analyst performs a panel to evaluate the patient specimen for copy number changes in the STRC and DFNB1 genes, and deletions in GJB2 and GJB6 genes, which may entail heritable forms of hearing loss.",CPT +81432,Genomic Sequencing Procedures and Other Molecular Multianalyte Assays.,"The lab analyst performs a genomic sequence analysis panel to evaluate the patient specimen for genetic sequences of at least 10 genes that the code descriptor lists, relating to disorders associated with hereditary breast cancer mutations, an alteration in DNA that may lead to pathologic changes.",CPT +81433,Genomic Sequencing Procedures and Other Molecular Multianalyte Assays.,"The lab analyst performs a panel to evaluate the patient specimen for genetic duplications and deletions of at least five genes that the code descriptor lists that may relate to disorders associated with hereditary breast cancer mutations, an alteration in DNA that may lead to pathologic changes.",CPT +81434,Genomic Sequencing Procedures and Other Molecular Multianalyte Assays.,"The lab analyst performs a genomic sequence analysis panel to evaluate the patient specimen for genetic sequences of at least 15 genes that the code descriptor lists, relating to retinal disorders.",CPT +81435,Genomic Sequencing Procedures and Other Molecular Multianalyte Assays.,"The lab analyst performs a genomic sequence analysis panel to evaluate the patient specimen for genetic sequences of at least the ten genes that the code descriptor lists, which relate to hereditary colon cancer syndromes.",CPT +81436,Genomic Sequencing Procedures and Other Molecular Multianalyte Assays.,"The lab analyst performs a panel to evaluate the patient specimen for duplication and deletion mutations of at least the five genes that the code descriptor lists, which relate to hereditary colon cancer syndromes.",CPT +81437,Genomic Sequencing Procedures and Other Molecular Multianalyte Assays.,"The lab analyst performs a genomic sequence analysis panel to evaluate the patient specimen for genetic sequences of at least six genes that the code descriptor lists, relating to disorders associated with hereditary neuroendocrine tumors, abnormal masses that originate from cells of the endocrine or nervous system.",CPT +81438,Genomic Sequencing Procedures and Other Molecular Multianalyte Assays.,"The lab analyst performs a panel to evaluate the patient specimen for genetic duplications and deletions in at least four genes that the code descriptor lists that may involve mutations (an alteration in DNA that may lead to pathologic changes) associated with hereditary neuroendocrine tumor disorders, abnormal masses that originate from cells of the endocrine or nervous system.",CPT +81439,Genomic Sequencing Procedures and Other Molecular Multianalyte Assays.,"The lab analyst performs a genomic sequence analysis panel to evaluate the patient specimen for genetic sequences of at least five cardiomyopathy–related genes, possibly from the examples that the code descriptor lists. The tested genes may relate to hereditary cardiomyopathy conditions such as hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, dilated cardiomyopathy, or arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy.",CPT +81440,Genomic Sequencing Procedures and Other Molecular Multianalyte Assays.,"The lab analyst performs a genomic sequence analysis panel to evaluate the patient specimen for genetic sequences of at least 100 mitochondrial genes encoded in the nucleus, including 19 specific genes that the code descriptor lists, which relate to nerve or muscle pathologies.",CPT +81441,Genomic Sequencing Procedures and Other Molecular Multianalyte Assays.,"Code describes analyzing a blood specimen for at least 30 genes, including those listed in the code, to evaluate mutations associated with inherited bone marrow failure syndromes (IBMFS). These are blood disorders involving failure of the bone marrow to produce blood cells. Most patients with IBMFS have a family history of a certain condition listed in the code, such as Fanconi anemia.",CPT +81442,Genomic Sequencing Procedures and Other Molecular Multianalyte Assays.,"The lab analyst performs a genomic sequence analysis panel to evaluate the patient specimen for genetic sequences of at least 12 genes that the code descriptor lists, relating to Noonan–spectrum disorders, called NSD, which are pediatric developmental disorders that include certain heart defects, distinctive craniofacial features, and certain skin and hair abnormalities.",CPT +81443,Genomic Sequencing Procedures and Other Molecular Multianalyte Assays.,"The lab analyst performs a genomic sequence analysis panel to evaluate the patient specimen for genetic sequences of at least 15 genes, such as the 20 gene examples listed in the code descriptor. The test involves genes related to severe inherited conditions, many of which are clustered in people of Ashkenazi Jewish descent.",CPT +81445,Genomic Sequencing Procedures and Other Molecular Multianalyte Assays.,The lab analyst performs a genomic sequence analysis panel to evaluate the patient tumor specimen for DNA and possibly RNA alterations in five to 50 genes known to impact solid organ cancers.,CPT +81448,Genomic Sequencing Procedures and Other Molecular Multianalyte Assays.,"The lab analyst performs a genomic sequence analysis panel to evaluate the patient specimen for genetic sequences of at least five peripheral–neuropathy–related genes, such as the eight gene examples listed in the code descriptor.",CPT +81449,Genomic Sequencing Procedures and Other Molecular Multianalyte Assays.,The lab analyst performs a genomic sequence analysis panel to evaluate the patient tumor specimen for RNA alterations in five to 50 genes known to relate to solid organ cancers.,CPT +81450,Genomic Sequencing Procedures and Other Molecular Multianalyte Assays.,"The lab analyst performs a genomic sequence analysis panel to evaluate the patient specimen, such as blood or bone marrow, for DNA and possibly RNA alterations in five to 50 genes known to impact blood or lymph disorders or cancers, known as hematolymphoid neoplasms.",CPT +81451,Genomic Sequencing Procedures and Other Molecular Multianalyte Assays.,The lab analyst performs a genomic sequence analysis panel to evaluate the patient specimen for RNA alterations in five to 50 genes known to relate to blood or lymph (hematolymphoid) cancers or disorders.,CPT +81455,Genomic Sequencing Procedures and Other Molecular Multianalyte Assays.,"The lab analyst performs a genomic sequence analysis panel to evaluate the patient specimen, such as tumor tissue or bone marrow, for DNA and possibly RNA alterations in 51 or more genes known to relate to solid organ cancers or to blood or lymph (hematolymphoid) disorders or cancers.",CPT +81456,Genomic Sequencing Procedures and Other Molecular Multianalyte Assays.,"The lab analyst performs a genomic sequence analysis panel to evaluate the patient specimen, such as tumor tissue or bone marrow, for RNA alterations in 51 or more genes known to relate to solid organ cancers or to blood or lymph (hematolymphoid) disorders or cancers.",CPT +81457,Genomic Sequencing Procedures and Other Molecular Multianalyte Assays.,"The lab analyst performs a genomic sequence analysis panel to evaluate the patient tumor specimen for DNA sequence variants known to impact diagnosis and treatment of solid organ cancers. The test also evaluates microsatellite instability (MSI), which is an indicator of how likely the cells are to mutate and may guide treatment options.",CPT +81458,Genomic Sequencing Procedures and Other Molecular Multianalyte Assays.,"The lab analyst performs a genomic sequence analysis panel to evaluate the patient tumor specimen for DNA sequence variants and copy number variants known to impact diagnosis and treatment of solid organ cancers. The test also evaluates microsatellite instability (MSI), which is an indicator of how likely the cells are to mutate and may guide treatment options.",CPT +81459,Genomic Sequencing Procedures and Other Molecular Multianalyte Assays.,"The lab analyst performs a genomic sequence analysis panel to evaluate the patient tumor specimen for DNA and RNA sequence variants, copy number variants, and rearrangements known to impact diagnosis and treatment of solid organ cancers. The test also evaluates other factors that may guide treatment options, such as microsatellite instability (MSI), which is an indicator of how likely the cells are to mutate, and tumor mutation burden (TMB), which is an indicator of the level of genetic mutations present in cancer cells.",CPT +81460,Genomic Sequencing Procedures and Other Molecular Multianalyte Assays.,"The lab analyst performs a genomic sequence panel to evaluate the patient specimen for genetic sequences of the entire mitochondrial genome, which relate to nerve or muscle pathologies such as those that the code descriptor lists. The test includes heteroplasmy detection, which means identifying if some mitochondrial DNA exhibits mutation, while some remains normal.",CPT +81462,Genomic Sequencing Procedures and Other Molecular Multianalyte Assays.,"The lab analyst performs a liquid biopsy using a plasma specimen to identify cell–free DNA (cfDNA) or DNA/RNA for a genomic sequence analysis panel. The test evaluates nucleic acid sequence variants, copy number variants, and rearrangements known to impact diagnosis and treatment of solid organ cancers.",CPT +81463,Genomic Sequencing Procedures and Other Molecular Multianalyte Assays.,"The lab analyst performs a liquid biopsy using a serum specimen to identify cell–free DNA (cfDNA) for a genomic sequence analysis panel to identify changes known to impact diagnosis and treatment of solid organ tumors. The test evaluates nucleic acid sequence variants, copy number variants, and microsatellite instability (MSI), which is an indicator of how likely the cells are to mutate.",CPT +81464,Genomic Sequencing Procedures and Other Molecular Multianalyte Assays.,"The lab analyst performs a liquid biopsy using a plasma specimen to identify cell–free DNA (cfDNA) or DNA/RNA for a genomic sequence analysis panel. The test evaluates nucleic acid sequence variants, copy number variants, and rearrangements relevant to solid organ neoplasms. The test also evaluates other factors that may guide treatment options, such as microsatellite instability (MSI), which is an indicator of how likely the cells are to mutate, and tumor mutation burden (TMB), which is an indicator of the level of genetic mutations present in cancer cells.",CPT +81465,Genomic Sequencing Procedures and Other Molecular Multianalyte Assays.,"The lab analyst performs a genomic sequence analysis panel to evaluate the entire mitochondrial genome from the patient specimen for large deletions, which are missing sections of DNA, that relate to nerve or muscle pathologies such as those that the code descriptor lists. The test includes heteroplasmy detection, if the analyst performs it, which means identifying if some mitochondrial DNA exhibits mutation, while some remains normal.",CPT +81470,Genomic Sequencing Procedures and Other Molecular Multianalyte Assays.,"The lab analyst performs a genomic sequence panel to evaluate the patient specimen for genetic sequences of at least 60 genes, including the 15 genes that the code descriptor lists, which relate to X–linked intellectual disability disorders (XLID).",CPT +81471,Genomic Sequencing Procedures and Other Molecular Multianalyte Assays.,"The lab analyst performs a panel to evaluate the patient specimen for duplication and deletion mutations of at least 60 genes, including the 15 genes that the code descriptor lists, which relate to X–linked intellectual disability disorders, called XLID.",CPT +81479,Tier 2 Molecular Pathology Procedures.,Use to report a molecular pathology procedure that does not have a specific code.,CPT +81490,Multianalyte Assays with Algorithmic Analyses.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab tests for 12 serum biomarker immunoassays, and carries out an algorithmic analysis using patient data and the lab test results to report a patient disease activity score for patients with rheumatoid arthritis (RA).",CPT +81493,Multianalyte Assays with Algorithmic Analyses.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab tests using real time polymerase chain reaction for 23 genes using peripheral blood, and carries out an algorithmic analysis using patient data and the lab test results to report a patient risk score for coronary artery disease (CAD).",CPT +81500,Multianalyte Assays with Algorithmic Analyses.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab tests for CA–125 and HE4, and carries out an algorithmic analysis using patient data and the lab test results to report a patient risk score.",CPT +81503,Multianalyte Assays with Algorithmic Analyses.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab tests for CA–125, apolipoprotein A1, beta–2 microglobulin, transferrin, and prealbumin and carries out an algorithmic analysis using patient data and the lab test results to report a patient risk score.",CPT +81504,Multianalyte Assays with Algorithmic Analyses.,This test shows the similarity between the RNA expression patterns in a tumor of unknown origin and those in a tumor database.,CPT +81506,Multianalyte Assays with Algorithmic Analyses.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab tests for seven biochemical assays associated with diabetes and carries out an algorithmic analysis using patient data and the lab test results to report a patient risk score.,CPT +81507,Multianalyte Assays with Algorithmic Analyses.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab tests to detect fetal trisomies 13, 18 and 21 in the maternal plasma during pregnancy. The analyst uses a micro assay technique and carries out an algorithmic analysis using patient data and the lab test results to report a patient risk score for each trisomy.",CPT +81508,Multianalyte Assays with Algorithmic Analyses.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab tests for two proteins, PAPP–A and hCG, and carries out an algorithmic analysis using patient data and the lab test results to report a patient risk score.",CPT +81509,Multianalyte Assays with Algorithmic Analyses.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab tests for three proteins, PAPP–A, hCG, and DIA, and carries out an algorithmic analysis using patient data and the lab test results to report a patient risk score.",CPT +81510,Multianalyte Assays with Algorithmic Analyses.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab tests for three analytes, AFP, uE3, hCG, and carries out an algorithmic analysis using patient data and the lab test results to report a patient risk score.",CPT +81511,Multianalyte Assays with Algorithmic Analyses.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab tests for four analytes, AFP, uE3, hCG, and DIA, and carries out an algorithmic analysis using patient data and the lab test results to report a patient risk score.",CPT +81512,Multianalyte Assays with Algorithmic Analyses.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab tests for five analytes, AFP, uE3, total and hyperglycosylated hCG, and DIA, and carries out an algorithmic analysis using patient data and the lab test results to report a patient risk score.",CPT +81513,Multianalyte Assays with Algorithmic Analyses.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test on a vaginal fluid specimen for quantitative real–time amplification of RNA markers for three bacterial species listed in the code descriptor, and carries out an algorithmic analysis using patient data and the lab test results to report a positive or negative result for bacterial vaginosis (BV).",CPT +81514,Multianalyte Assays with Algorithmic Analyses.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab tests on a vaginal fluid specimen for quantitative real–time amplification of DNA markers for six bacterial species listed in the code descriptor, and carries out an algorithmic analysis using patient data and the lab test results to report positive or negative for a high likelihood of bacterial vaginosis (BV), and may additionally report detection of other organisms such as Trichomonas vaginalis and Candida species.",CPT +81517,Multianalyte Assays with Algorithmic Analyses.,"Using a serum specimen, the test uses immunoassay methods to evaluate the levels of three liver–disease biomarkers: hyaluronic acid (HA), procollagen III amino–terminal peptide (PIIINP), and tissue inhibitor of metalloproteinase 1 (TIMP–1). Because this is a multianalyte assay with algorithmic analysis (MAAA) test, the service includes an algorithmic analysis using patient data and the lab test results to report a risk score for liver fibrosis and liver–related clinical events that could occur within five years.",CPT +81518,Multianalyte Assays with Algorithmic Analyses.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab tests for mRNA gene expression profiling for 11 genes and carries out an algorithmic analysis using patient data and the lab–test results to report a percentage risk for metastatic recurrence, and to evaluate the potential benefit of extended endocrine therapy.",CPT +81519,Multianalyte Assays with Algorithmic Analyses.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab tests for 21 genes and carries out an algorithmic analysis using patient data and the lab test results to report a patient recurrence score for breast cancer.,CPT +81520,Multianalyte Assays with Algorithmic Analyses.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab tests for mRNA gene expression profiling for 58 genes using hybrid capture and carries out an algorithmic analysis using patient data and the lab test results to report a breast cancer recurrence score.,CPT +81521,Multianalyte Assays with Algorithmic Analyses.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab tests to analyze 70 genes using mRNA microarray analysis, and carries out an algorithmic analysis using patient data and the lab test results to report a breast cancer recurrence score.",CPT +81522,Multianalyte Assays with Algorithmic Analyses.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab tests for mRNA gene expression profiling for 12 genes and carries out an algorithmic analysis using patient data and the lab–test results to report a risk score for breast cancer recurrence.,CPT +81523,Multianalyte Assays with Algorithmic Analyses.,"Code describes a next–generation sequence (NGS) analysis using a formalin–fixed paraffin–embedded (FFPE) breast tumor tissue specimen. The test is a Multianalyte Assay with Algorithmic Analysis (MAAA) that evaluates mRNA gene expression profile of 70 content genes with 31 housekeeping genes, and uses an algorithmic analysis of the results plus patient data to report an index related to the risk of breast cancer distant metastasis (spread).",CPT +81525,Multianalyte Assays with Algorithmic Analyses.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab tests for real time reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction (RT–PCR) of 12 genes using colon tumor tissue. The lab analyst also carries out an algorithmic analysis using patient data and the lab test results to report a patient recurrence score.,CPT +81528,Multianalyte Assays with Algorithmic Analyses.,The lab analyst uses a stool sample and performs the technical lab tests for a fecal hemoglobin test and for real time amplification of 10 DNA markers. The lab analyst then carries out an algorithmic analysis using patient data and the lab test results to report a positive or negative colon cancer screening test result.,CPT +81529,Multianalyte Assays with Algorithmic Analyses.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test on a formalin–fixed paraffin–embedded (FFPE) tumor tissue specimen for mRNA gene expression profiling of 31 genes (28 content and 3 housekeeping) and carries out an algorithmic analysis using patient data and the lab–test results to report a risk score for cutaneous melanoma recurrence, including the likelihood of sentinel lymph node metastasis.",CPT +81535,Multianalyte Assays with Algorithmic Analyses.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab steps to culture tumor cells taken from female reproductive organs or tissues and to evaluate the culture for cell morphology and cell staining with 4’–6–diamidino–2–phenylindole (DAPI). The lab analyst then performs a predictive algorithm analysis to determine a drug response score for a single drug or drug combination.,CPT +81536,Multianalyte Assays with Algorithmic Analyses.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab steps to culture live tumor cells from specimens taken from female reproductive organs or tissues and to examine the culture for cell morphology and cell staining with 4’–6–diamidino–2–phenylindole (DAPI). The lab analyst then performs a predictive algorithm analysis to determine a drug response score for a single drug or drug combination following a separate procedure for an initial drug response score.,CPT +81538,Multianalyte Assays with Algorithmic Analyses.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab steps to evaluate serum using mass spectrometry for eight proteins, including amyloid A. The lab analyst then performs a predictive algorithm using lab test results and possibly other patient data to report whether the patient has good versus poor overall survival likelihood from lung cancer.",CPT +81539,Multianalyte Assays with Algorithmic Analyses.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab steps to evaluate blood for total prostate specific antigen (PSA), free PSA, intact PSA, and human kallikrein–2 (hK2), and performs a predictive algorithm to report a probability score for high–grade prostate cancer.",CPT +81540,Multianalyte Assays with Algorithmic Analyses.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab tests using real–time reverse transcription–polymerase chain reaction (RT–PCR) for 92 genes using tumor tissue. The lab analyst also carries out an algorithmic analysis using patient data and the lab test results to report a probability of a predicted main cancer type and subtype.,CPT +81541,Multianalyte Assays with Algorithmic Analyses.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab tests for mRNA gene expression profiling for 46 genes, and carries out an algorithmic analysis using patient data and the lab test results for patients with a positive prostate cancer biopsy, to report a mortality risk score, or help predict post–prostatectomy risk of recurrence.",CPT +81542,Multianalyte Assays with Algorithmic Analyses.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab tests for mRNA gene expression profiling for 22 genes and carries out an algorithmic analysis using patient data and the lab–test results to report a risk score for prostate cancer metastasis.,CPT +81546,Multianalyte Assays with Algorithmic Analyses.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab tests on a thyroid fine needle aspiration (FNA) specimen for mRNA gene expression profiling of 10,196 genes and carries out an algorithmic analysis using patient data and the lab–test results to report a categorical result of “benign” or “suspicious” for thyroid cancer.",CPT +81551,Multianalyte Assays with Algorithmic Analyses.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test involving promoter methylation analysis of three genes listed in the code, carries out an algorithmic analysis using patient data and the lab test results for patients who have had a negative prostate biopsy, and reports the score for the likelihood of finding prostate cancer on repeat biopsy.",CPT +81552,Multianalyte Assays with Algorithmic Analyses.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab tests for mRNA gene expression profiling for 15 genes and carries out an algorithmic analysis using patient data and the lab–test results to report a risk score for uveal melanoma metastasis.,CPT +81554,Multianalyte Assays with Algorithmic Analyses.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test on a transbronchial biopsy specimen for mRNA gene expression profiling for 190 genes and carries out an algorithmic analysis using patient data and the lab–test results to report a categorical result of positive or negative for a high probability of usual interstitial pneumonia (UIP).,CPT +81560,Multianalyte Assays with Algorithmic Analyses.,"The lab analyst performs a blood test to evaluate allograft rejection for a pediatric liver or small–bowel transplant patient. The test measures the level of CD154+T–cytotoxic memory cells in response to incubating the patient blood specimen with organ–donor and third–party leukocytes. As with all MAAAs, the code describes both the lab test as well as an algorithm that uses the test results and possibly other patient data to calculate a probability or risk score. In this case, the MAAA establishes a score that indicates the risk of liver or small bowel rejection for a pediatric transplant patient.",CPT +81595,Multianalyte Assays with Algorithmic Analyses.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab tests on a subfraction of peripheral blood using real–time quantitative polymerase chain reaction (PCR) of 20 genes. The lab analyst also carries out an algorithmic analysis using patient data and the lab test results to report a rejection risk score for a potential heart transplant patient.,CPT +81596,Multianalyte Assays with Algorithmic Analyses.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab tests for six biochemical assays and carries out an algorithmic analysis using patient data and the lab test results to report a prognostic score for liver fibrosis and necroinflammation for patients with chronic hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection.,CPT +81599,Multianalyte Assays with Algorithmic Analyses.,"Use to report a multianalyte assay with algorithmic analysis, or MAAA test, that does not have a specific Category I code or an administrative code in Appendix O.",CPT +82009,Chemistry Procedures.,"This testing is for the qualitative determination of ketone bodies. Clinicians frequently order ketone body tests for diabetic patients, but also for patients who are dehydrated or are on diets where the body is using fat as its source of energy.",CPT +82010,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze quantitative ketone bodies, typically in serum or plasma. The quantitative test is to determine a number value, not just a positive or negative result.",CPT +82013,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a quantitative measurement of acetylcholinesterase, also known as acetylhydrolase, an enzyme that hydrolyzes the neurotransmitter acetylcholine.",CPT +82016,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analysis for qualitative acylcarnitines can be on plasma, serum, or urine. Clinicians frequently order this test as a newborn screen test for inborn errors of metabolism.",CPT +82017,Chemistry Procedures.,"This test is for the analysis of quantitative acylcarnitines, which clinicians use to diagnose various fatty acid metabolic disorders. The clinician may also use this testing to help determine the diagnosis of many organic acidurias.",CPT +82024,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures this analyte, also known as corticotropin, quantitatively to aid in the diagnosis of many hormone dependent conditions or diseases. This test can help determine the difference between primary and secondary adrenal insufficiency.",CPT +82030,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a quantitative cyclic adenosine, 5–monophosphate test on plasma or urine. The test is valuable in the differential diagnosis of hyperparathyroidism and vitamin D deficiency.",CPT +82040,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a quantitative measurement on a serum, plasma, or whole blood specimen for albumin.",CPT +82042,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst quantitates the albumin in a measured, timed, or random specimen, and reports that quantity. Random means the specimen collection may occur without respect to the time of day. For this test, the specimen is a fluid source specimen other than blood, serum, plasma, or urine.",CPT +82043,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst quantitates a timed or random urine specimen for the measurement of albumin. Random means the specimen collection may occur without respect to the time of day. This is a valuable urine test used to diagnose and/or treat patients who have kidney disease.,CPT +82044,Chemistry Procedures.,Office or lab personnel will usually perform a semiquantitative urine albumin or microalbumin by using a reagent strip that is able to detect the analyte without the use of a chemistry analyzer or other instrument.,CPT +82045,Chemistry Procedures.,"This analyte, which accurately measures ischemic modified albumin, is a highly sensitive test for patients who present with symptoms of acute chest pain and need a test that can rapidly detect evidence of myocardial infarction or unstable angina.",CPT +82075,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the quantitative amount of alcohol in a patient’s breath and correlates the measurement to blood alcohol content.,CPT +82077,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to quantify the level of alcohol (ethanol) in the patient specimen, which could be any specimen except breath or urine, using a method such as immunoassay or enzyme detection.",CPT +82085,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a quantitation of the analyte aldolase to measure the amount present. The source of the specimen is usually serum.,CPT +82088,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a quantitative measurement, typically on serum, plasma, or urine, to determine the level of aldosterone. Providers order this test primarily for the determination of primary or secondary hyperaldosteronism. Aldosterone is the primary mineralocorticoid that is produced in the adrenal cortex, located on the upper pole of the kidney; it helps with water and sodium retention and potassium excretion",CPT +82103,Chemistry Procedures.,The analyst measures the quantitative level of total alpha–1–antitrypsin. Providers order the test primarily to detect the hereditary decrease of this analyte. Providers use alpha–1–antrypsin measurement levels as an indicator of chronic obstructive lung disease. Serum or plasma is the specimen of choice.,CPT +82104,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs testing that will help determine if the alpha–1–antitrypsin phenotype is present. The phenotype causes a moderate or severe decrease in the production of this analyte, which is associated with chronic obstructive lung disease, hepatoma, or liver disease.",CPT +82105,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the quantitative level of the alpha–fetoprotein. This glycoprotein is produced early in fetal life, and a variety of tumors can also produce it later in life.",CPT +82106,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the quantitative level of amniotic fluid alpha–fetoprotein, generally taken during the eleventh to fifteenth week of gestation. This AFP is formed from both the fetal liver and the fetal yolk sac.",CPT +82107,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to measure the total alpha fetoprotein, called AFP, typically in the serum. He also measures the amount of AFP L3 fraction present and determines the ratio of the total AFP to the L3 fraction.",CPT +82108,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a quantitative measurement of the element aluminum. Most commonly the source is serum or urine. This quantitation is important in patients on kidney dialysis or medications that contain aluminum to monitor the level for toxicity.,CPT +82120,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze amines in the vaginal fluid. This test will give a positive or negative result, not a number value. Amines are a group of biochemical markers that may include methylamine, isobutylamine, putrescine, cadaverine, histamine, tyramine, and phenethylamine. These amines may cause some of the symptoms of nonspecific vaginitis.",CPT +82127,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst determines the presence of a single amino acid in the specimen, such as blood, plasma, urine, amniotic fluid, or cerebrospinal fluid. The usual screen is for the presence of an amino acid that is associated with an inborn error of metabolism.",CPT +82128,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst tests for multiple amino acids in a specimen, such as blood, plasma, urine, amniotic fluid, or cerebrospinal fluid. The usual search is for the presence of amino acids associated with an inborn error of metabolism.",CPT +82131,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs quantitative testing for a single amino acid from a sample such as blood, plasma, urine, or other fluids to measure the quantity of that particular amino acid. She performs the testing to quantitate the level of a particular amino acid, which an earlier screen may have revealed, or due to a condition for which this amino acid test result would be diagnostic.",CPT +82135,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a delta aminolevulinic acid test to diagnose porphyrias, a genetic disorder in which there is a problem in production of heme, or blood in the body.",CPT +82136,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs testing for 2 to 5 amino acids on a specimen such as blood, plasma, urine, or other fluids. He uses quantitative analysis to determine if any amino acids are outside the normal limits.",CPT +82139,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs testing for 6 or more amino acids, usually on a specimen such as blood, plasma, urine, or other body fluids, by quantitative analysis to determine if any are outside the normal limits.",CPT +82140,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a measurement of the ammonia in the blood, plasma, or other body fluids. Elevated levels of ammonia in the blood are frequently indicative of an infectious process.",CPT +82143,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs an analysis on the amniotic fluid to determine the presence and amount of bilirubin in the fluid. He uses an instrument that measures the bilirubin at a specific wavelength on a spectrophotometer.,CPT +82150,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a quantitative measurement of amylase, typically in serum or urine. Amylase is primarily produced in the pancreas, but is also produced in the salivary gland.",CPT +82154,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the quantitative level of the hormone androstanediol glucuronide, which is helpful in the clinical workup for excessive hair growth in females or androgen problems in males.",CPT +82157,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the quantitative level of the androgenic hormone androstenedione. The test is of use in addition to other hormone tests in the clinical workup of hyperandrogenism, meaning excess androgen, or adrenal hyperplasia, a disorder in which the adrenal glands produce excess androgen. This hormone is primarily produced by the adrenal glands and gonads.",CPT +82160,Chemistry Procedures.,"Androsterone is a steroid hormone metabolite that providers used in the past to evaluate various androgenic hormone excesses, but this test has now been largely replaced by newer more specific procedures.",CPT +82163,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst measures the level of angiotensin II in serum or plasma. The analyte is a natural hormone in the body that affects blood pressure. Angiotensin II acts on blood vessels by constricting them which causes an increase in blood pressure.,CPT +82164,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a measurement of this enzyme in serum or plasma. The analyte acts to convert angiotensin I to angiotensin II.,CPT +82166,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a chemistry test for anti–mullerian hormone (AMH) levels in a blood specimen. AMH is a hormone that plays a role in sexual development and reproduction. Clinicians may test AMH levels to evaluate testicular function or evaluate female menopausal status or fertility, among other clinical needs.",CPT +82172,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs apolipoprotein testing on components of lipoprotein complexes that contain a variety of high, low, and very–low density lipoproteins. The three most important of these apolipoproteins for the clinical laboratory are A–1, Apo–B, and Apo–E.",CPT +82175,Chemistry Procedures.,"The analyst measures the level of arsenic, which is a toxic metallic chemical element with symbol As and atomic number 33.",CPT +82180,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the vitamin C level, typically on plasma. Ascorbic acid is an important antioxidant and is known for its nutritional value. Low levels are found in scurvy, malabsorption syndromes, and conditions of nutritional deficiency.",CPT +82190,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs measurement of samples based on atomic absorption spectroscopic analysis. Analysts use this technique to measure elements by utilizing the absorption of spectral radiation by free atoms in a gaseous state.,CPT +82232,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the level of beta–2 microglobulin, typically in serum, cerebral spinal fluid, or urine. This test is useful in the evaluation of renal disease, the activity of certain leukemias, and checking for increases seen in Crohn’s disease, sarcoidosis, viral infections, and certain malignancies.",CPT +82239,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs an analysis, primarily on serum, for total bile acids, which are essentially formed from cholesterol in the liver. These bile acids are stored and concentrated in the gall bladder and are secreted into the intestine to help emulsify ingested fats to aid digestion.",CPT +82240,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the level of cholylglycine, typically in serum. Cholylglycine is a glycine conjugate of cholic acid, meaning the two substances join together. Cholylglycine is a fractional part of the total bile acids, which acts as a detergent to solubilize fats for absorption and is itself absorbed in the process.",CPT +82247,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of total bilirubin in a patient’s blood. Bilirubin is the yellow color pigment found in the bile, a fluid made by the liver.",CPT +82248,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of direct bilirubin in a patient’s blood. Bilirubin is the yellow color pigment found in the bile, a fluid made by the liver. Direct bilirubin is a water soluble form of bilirubin, or one which can dissolve in water. Production of direct bilirubin is a final step in a complex sequence of actions that occurs as the body rids itself of the waste product of the old red blood cells.",CPT +82252,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst determines the qualitative presence of bilirubin in the feces specimen. Bilirubin is not generally present in normal conditions. Analysts frequently test for bilirubin, a breakdown product of hemoglobin, by using a tablet or dipstick method commonly used for urine testing.",CPT +82261,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a measurement of the enzyme biotinidase, typically on a blood sample. This enzyme test is useful for the identification of a deficiency of biotinidase and also for the follow–up testing for a previously positive screen for this enzyme. Symptoms commonly seen with this disease are irritability, seizures, vomiting, and loss of appetite.",CPT +82270,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst uses a peroxidase activity method to perform a colorectal cancer screening test for the presence of hidden blood in a fecal specimen that the patient collects from three consecutive bowel movements. Clinicians commonly call the test a fecal occult blood test (FOBT).,CPT +82271,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect occult blood in nonfecal specimens by peroxidase activity. Occult blood is blood in small amounts that the naked eye cannot see.,CPT +82272,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst uses a peroxidase activity method to perform a test for the presence of hidden blood in a fecal specimen that the patient collects from three consecutive bowel movements, or that the clinician acquires through a method such as a digital rectal exam. Clinicians commonly call the test a fecal occult blood test (FOBT). The test is for a reason other than colorectal neoplasm screening.",CPT +82274,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst uses an immunoassay method to perform a test for hidden blood in a fecal specimen that the patient collects from three consecutive bowel movements or that the clinician acquires through a method such as a digital rectal exam. Clinicians commonly call the test a fecal immunochemical test (FIT).,CPT +82286,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the bradykinin level in blood, plasma, or other biologic fluids. The test for this biologically active peptide is primarily a research–use–only procedure. Bradykinin is involved in many allergy–like diseases or swelling disorders and researchers are studying its effect on smooth muscle.",CPT +82300,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures this element, typically in a blood sample when acute intoxication is expected or in a 24 hour urine specimen if the provider suspects chronic exposure to cadmium. Cadmium is a toxic heavy metal primarily used in industry and manufacturing.",CPT +82306,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the vitamin D level, typically on a serum specimen. This analyte, commonly known as vitamin D, is not really a vitamin, but is an important steroid hormone that is produced by the liver. It is commonly known as the sunshine vitamin, with sunlight on the skin being a common source of this important vitamin.",CPT +82308,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures calcitonin, typically on serum or plasma. This hormone calcitonin is a polypeptide secreted by specialized cells in the thyroid gland. Calcitonin is elevated primarily in the presence of tumors located in the thyroid calcitonin cells, also known as parafollicular cells.",CPT +82310,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the calcium level, primarily on a serum sample.",CPT +82330,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures this ionized form of calcium primarily on serum, blood, or a capillary sample. Providers use ionized calcium testing extensively during major surgeries where the importance of measuring the active form of calcium is crucial during a critical time frame. Providers often use point–of–care technology for ionized calcium testing.",CPT +82331,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a total calcium test following the infusion of medication during a provocative test. The specimen type is usually serum, and the provider collects it at intervals as specified for that particular test protocol.",CPT +82340,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the quantitative value of calcium in the timed urine specimen.,CPT +82355,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a qualitative analysis on the calculus for the presence of a variety of substances, usually calcium, carbonate, cystine, magnesium, oxalate, phosphates, and urates. A calculus, also known as a stone, is usually of kidney origin but may also be from the gall bladder or other locations.",CPT +82360,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst determines the composition of the calculus or stone performing a chemical analysis, which determines the quantitative chemical composition. The calculus is usually composed of calcium, carbonate, cystine, magnesium, oxalate, phosphates, and urates, with calcium oxalate being the most common matter found.",CPT +82365,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst determines the composition of the calculus or stone by performing an infrared spectroscopic analysis. The calculus may be of kidney, bladder, ureter, or gall bladder origin. Kidney stones are commonly composed of calcium, carbonate, cystine, magnesium, oxalate, phosphates, or urates, with calcium oxalate being the most common matter.",CPT +82370,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs an analysis using X–ray diffraction to determine the composition of the calculus, which may be of renal, ureteral, bladder, or gall bladder origin. The composition of most calculi includes the following: calcium, carbonate, cystine, magnesium, oxalate, phosphates, urates, or xanthine.",CPT +82373,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the level of this biomarker, commonly used as an indicator for chronic alcohol abuse. There are also other conditions besides alcoholism that can elevate levels of carbohydrate deficient transferrin such as chronic liver disease and congenital disorders of glycosylation.",CPT +82374,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the carbon dioxide, primarily in serum. Most of the carbon dioxide in blood exists as bicarbonate with much of the balance as carbonic acid.",CPT +82375,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the carboxyhemoglobin, more commonly known as a complex of hemoglobin and carbon monoxide, which is a colorless, odorless, poisonous gas, primarily derived from the combustion or burning of a variety of fuels.",CPT +82376,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs testing to determine if carboxyhemoglobin or carbon monoxide is present. This poisonous, colorless, odorless gas causes thousands of deaths each year and is a leading cause of death by poisoning.",CPT +82378,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the quantity of carcinoembryonic antigen, or CEA, in the blood or other bodily fluid. Most commonly clinicians order a CEA test to monitor patients with colon cancer. It also helps to monitor patients with other kinds of cancer.",CPT +82379,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures both the total and free carnitine on serum, plasma, urine, or tissue specimens. Total carnitine includes both the free carnitine and all the acylcarnitines. Carnitines are important carriers that shuttle long–chain fatty acids into the mitochondria where the fatty acids are used as cellular fuel. Practitioners may order carnitine testing when a newborn screen tested positive on the blood spot test.",CPT +82380,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures this photosynthetic orange pigment, also known as beta–carotene, typically in a serum specimen. Carotene is a fat–soluble provitamin converted to vitamin A in the liver.",CPT +82382,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the urine level of total catecholamines, which include epinephrine, norepinephrine, and dopamine.",CPT +82383,Chemistry Procedures.,"The analyst measures the blood catecholamines level, which includes epinephrine, norepinephrine, and dopamine.",CPT +82384,Chemistry Procedures.,"The analyst measures the catecholamines, which includes fractionation for epinephrine, norepinephrine, and dopamine, typically from a 24–hour urine or a plasma sample.",CPT +82387,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the level of cathepsin–D on cell lysates from tissue derived from tumors. Cathepsin–D is located within the cell, and providers order the test to determine prognostic information on breast and other types of cancers.",CPT +82390,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the level of ceruloplasmin, a blue–colored glycoprotein. Ceruloplasmin levels are elevated with a variety of cancerous tumors, and a low level is a strong indicator of Wilson disease.",CPT +82397,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a specimen by mixing chemicals with the specimen, causing the analyte to become luminescent, or glow. The analyst uses the test to measure and quantify the analyte.",CPT +82415,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst determines the drug level of chloramphenicol, a broad spectrum antibiotic, on a serum or plasma sample. Providers rarely order this test because they rarely prescribe the drug due to the very serious side effects associated with the administration of chloramphenicol.",CPT +82435,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the amount of chloride, sometimes abbreviated Cl, in the blood.",CPT +82436,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst measures the amount of chloride in the urine specimen. Chloride is an important ion needed for electrolyte balance.,CPT +82438,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of chloride in the cerebrospinal fluid, called CSF, in sweat, or from another source other than blood or urine. Chloride is one of the important ions needed to maintain the electrolyte balance in the body.",CPT +82441,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the level of chlorinated hydrocarbons in a patient specimen. Chlorinated hydrocarbon is a general term for compounds containing chlorine, carbon, and hydrogen. Excess exposure to these compounds may cause suppression of the immune system and cancer.",CPT +82465,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst measures the level of total cholesterol in a patient specimen of serum or whole blood.,CPT +82480,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst measures the level of cholinesterase in a patient's blood serum specimen. Cholinesterase is an important enzyme for the proper functioning of the nervous system.,CPT +82482,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst measures the level of cholinesterase in the red blood cells of a patient specimen. Cholinesterase is an important enzyme for the proper functioning of the nervous system.,CPT +82485,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the level of chondroitin B sulfate in a patient specimen. Chondroitin sulfate is a chemical found in the cartilage, the flexible connective tissue around the joints.",CPT +82495,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the level of chromium in a patient blood specimen to evaluate for chromium poisoning or deficiency. Chromium is an essential nutrient that affects carbohydrate, fat, insulin, and protein levels in the body. Low chromium levels increase blood sugar, triglycerides, cholesterol, and increase the patient’s risk for heart disease and diabetes.",CPT +82507,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst measures the amount of citrate in a patient specimen. Citrate is the conjugate base of citric acid.,CPT +82523,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs collagen cross–linking, a technique that he uses for various medical conditions. Collagen cross–links are reliable markers of bone resorption because they are stable in serum and urine. This test is helpful to monitor, assess, and determine the rate of bone loss and treatment effectiveness during osteoporosis and osteopenia.",CPT +82525,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst measures the amount of copper in a patient specimen. He mainly performs the copper test to investigate hepatocellular degeneration and obstructive liver disease.,CPT +82528,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst measures the amount of corticosterone in a patient specimen. Corticosterone is a hormone produced at the adrenal cortex area of the kidney.,CPT +82530,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst measures the amount of free cortisol in a patient specimen. Cortisol is a steroid hormone generated from the adrenal glands.,CPT +82533,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst measures the amount of total cortisol in a patient specimen. Cortisol is a steroid hormone generated from the adrenal glands.,CPT +82540,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst measures the amount of creatine in a patient specimen. Creatine is a nitrogenous organic acid produced in the human body from amino acids.,CPT +82542,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to evaluate the specimen for the presence or amount of a nondrug analyte by using column chromatography and possibly mass spectrometry.,CPT +82550,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of total creatine kinase in a patient specimen. Creatine kinase, or CK, is an enzyme found in various tissue and cell types such as the heart, brain, or muscles and is also known as creatine phosphokinase, or CPK.",CPT +82552,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of creatine kinase isoenzymes in a patient specimen. This test measures the different isoenzyme forms of creatine kinase, or CK, an enzyme found in various tissue and cell types such as the heart, brain, or muscles; also known as creatine phosphokinase, or CPK.",CPT +82553,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of one of the three isoenzymes of creatine kinase (CK) in a patient specimen. This code represents the lab test for the MB fraction only of CK, an enzyme found in various tissue and cell types such as the heart, brain, or muscles; also known as creatine phosphokinase (CPK).",CPT +82554,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst measures the amount of creatine kinase isoforms in the patient specimen. Isoforms are related variants or subdivisions of the CPK isoenzymes.,CPT +82565,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of creatinine in a patient specimen, typically of blood. Creatinine is the waste material generated by the muscle tissue produced from the breakdown of creatine used by the muscles for energy production.",CPT +82570,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of creatinine, in a patient specimen, other than blood. Creatinine is the waste material generated by the muscle tissue produced from the breakdown of creatine used by the muscles for energy production.",CPT +82575,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of creatinine clearance, the waste material generated by the muscle tissue, in a patient specimen. Creatinine clearance refers to the amount of serum or plasma that would be clear of creatinine with one minute's excretion of urine.",CPT +82585,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of cryofibrinogen, an abnormal type of fibrinogen rarely found in human plasma, in a  patient specimen.",CPT +82595,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of cryoglobulin, an abnormal blood protein such as cryocrit, in a patient specimen, using qualitative or semi–quantitative analysis. Cryocrit is cryoglobulin sediment after cold centrifugation of the serum.",CPT +82600,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of cyanide, a chemical compound, in a patient specimen.",CPT +82607,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to measure the amount of vitamin B12 in a patient specimen, typically in patient blood.",CPT +82608,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to measure the amount of vitamin B12 unsaturated binding capacity, typically in patient blood.",CPT +82610,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to measure the amount of a protein, typically in the blood, called cystatin C.",CPT +82615,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst tests for the presence of the amino acids cystine and homocystine in a urine specimen; neither substance is normally present in the urine. Cystinuria is an inherited defect and can cause recurrent kidney stones and repeated urinary tract infections.,CPT +82626,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs an analysis of dehydroepiandrosterone, known as an unconjugated form of DHEA. It is a major precursor of 17–ketosteroids, which the body forms when it breaks down certain hormones. Lab analysts commonly perform the test on a serum specimen. Clinicians primarily use the testing to determine adrenal gland function.",CPT +82627,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs an analysis of dehydroepiandrosterone–sulfate, which is a major precursor of 17–ketosteroids that the body forms when it breaks down certain hormones. Clinicians order this test to determine adrenal hormone problems, such as the evaluation of delayed puberty and hirsutism. Elevated levels are associated with adrenal neoplasm, ovarian disorders, Cushing’s disease, and other causes of adrenal hyperplasia.",CPT +82633,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the level of 11–desoxycorticosterone present in serum, plasma, or urine. This hormone, produced in the adrenal cortex, normally increases during the last half of a pregnancy.",CPT +82634,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the 11–deoxycortisol level, commonly known as compound S, in serum. 11–deoxycortisol is an adrenocortical hormone that is produced in the outer portion of the adrenal gland known as the cortex.",CPT +82638,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst determines the dibucaine number by performing a measurement of cholinesterase or pseudocholinesterase in serum. Clinicians use the dibucaine number to evaluate pesticide toxicity and for risk assessment for anesthetic agent usage.,CPT +82642,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs an analysis to detect serum levels of dihydrotestosterone (DHT), a primary male hormone produced by reduction of testosterone with 5 alpha–reductase.",CPT +82652,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the level of vitamin D, 1, 25 dihydroxy, a fat soluble steroid that stimulates calcium absorption in the intestine. Vitamin D, 1, 25 dihydroxy is the hormonally active form of vitamin D.",CPT +82653,Chemistry Procedures.,Code describes a chemistry test to measure the level of pancreatic elastase (EL–1) in a fecal specimen. A common lab method for this test is enzyme–linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA). Levels of EL–1 in a fecal specimen can represent pancreatic enzyme production and help clinicians evaluate conditions such as exocrine pancreatic insufficiency (EPI).,CPT +82656,Chemistry Procedures.,Code describes a test for pancreatic elastase (EL–1) in a fecal specimen. A common lab method for this test is a qualitative or semi–quantitative enzyme–linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA). Clinicians may use this test to evaluate conditions such as cystic fibrosis and pancreatic inflammation or tumors.,CPT +82657,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the enzyme activity found from within the cells, which can be from a variety of locations including tissue. He uses a nonradioactive substrate for the test. Use this code only for an enzymatic activity test that is not already a listed procedure.",CPT +82658,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the enzyme activity found from within the cells, which can be from a variety of locations including tissue. He uses a radioactive substrate for the test. Use this code only for an enzymatic activity test that is not already a listed procedure.",CPT +82664,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures a substance using an electrophoretic technique, other than one that has its own listed code. This procedure is available for those tests, not elsewhere specified, performed by electrophoresis.",CPT +82668,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the level of erythropoietin, a glycoprotein hormone secreted by the kidney. Testing aids in the differentiation of primary and secondary polycythemia and other conditions where red blood cell production is compromised.",CPT +82670,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the level of total estradiol, an estrogenic hormone, on a specimen such as blood using a method such as liquid chromatography–tandem mass spectrometry (LC–MS/MS) to evaluate female and male hormonal status related to fertility or other conditions.",CPT +82671,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the fractions of estrogen, primarily estradiol and estrone. A third lesser fraction is estriol, produced in significant amount only during pregnancy. The first two represent the major fractions found in serum. Estrogens are the major sex hormone in females, being produced primarily in the ovaries.",CPT +82672,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the level of the total estrogens, which gives an overall picture of the estrogen status in men and women. A major sex hormone in women, estrogens are also an important, yet minor, sex hormone in males.",CPT +82677,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the level of estriol, a weak estrogen hormone, which is usually in high concentrations only during pregnancy.",CPT +82679,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the estrone level in a sample from a male or female. This moderately potent sex hormone is the primary hormone in women after menopause, but lab analysts also measure it in men and women for reasons such as suspected cancer of the ovaries, testicles, or adrenals.",CPT +82681,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the level of free estradiol, which is not bound to proteins, using a method such as equilibrium dialysis on a specimen such as serum. Free estradiol may better reflect the impact of estradiol, an estrogenic hormone, on hormonally–mediated medical conditions related to ovarian status.",CPT +82693,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the sample’s level of ethylene glycol, a very toxic, sweet tasting compound. This solution is very dangerous, and the lab test report, if positive, should be a panic value, meaning one that the lab urgently reports to the clinician. Ethylene glycol is the primary component in antifreeze, used in the coolant systems of most automobiles.",CPT +82696,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the level of etiocholanolone, an androgenic steroid hormone derived from testosterone in the body. Labs now use this test infrequently, due to availability of other more current and sensitive assays.",CPT +82705,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs an analysis on the stool specimen to determine the relative amount of fat in the fecal sample. Malabsorption, maldigestion, and celiac disease are the primary causes of an abnormal increase of fat in the stool.",CPT +82710,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst determines the amount of fat or lipids in a 24–, 48–, or 72–hour fecal collection. Clinicians order the test primarily to determine the presence of steatorrhea, malabsorption, or celiac disease in the patient.",CPT +82715,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst measures and differentiates the fecal fat to assist the clinician in determining the origin of the steatorrhea. Defining the quantity and composition of the fecal fats as being neutral fat or nonessential fat aids in the diagnosis.,CPT +82725,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the nonesterified fatty acids, which usually represent less than 5 percent of the total fatty acids in the serum; this fat is protein bound.",CPT +82726,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the amount of very long chain fatty acids, typically in the blood.",CPT +82728,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the level of ferritin, an important protein composed of about 20 percent iron. Ferritin also acts as an iron reserve in the body, and is present in serum in only minute quantities, but it reflects the iron stores in the body.",CPT +82731,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the amount of fetal fibronectin in the mother’s cervicovaginal secretions; the result is semiquantitative.,CPT +82735,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the fluoride in a sample such as plasma, serum, or urine. Fluoride is a substance frequently added to water supplies, in locations where the natural fluoride content is low, with the aim of enhancing dental health.",CPT +82746,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the folic acid level in serum to determine if there is a deficiency. Folic acid deficiency is attributed to many conditions such as malabsorption, Crohn’s disease, celiac sprue, and previous bypass surgical procedures that reduce absorption.",CPT +82747,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the folic acid level in red blood cells to determine if there is a deficiency. Folic acid deficiency is attributed to many conditions such as malabsorption, Crohn’s disease, celiac sprue, and surgical bypass procedures.",CPT +82757,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the fructose in semen. Fructose is a form of sugar also known as fruit sugar, a monosaccharide. This simple sugar is present in normal seminal fluid.",CPT +82759,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the galactokinase in red blood cells. Galactokinase is an enzyme that allows the body to metabolize or process a simple sugar called galactose. The absence of galactokinase in the body results in the abnormal buildup of galactitol, which goes on to initiate cataract formation and other metabolic problems.",CPT +82760,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the level of galactose, a simple sugar, on serum, plasma, or urine. This sugar is normally broken down to glucose in the body and metabolized or excreted. Without the proper level of the enzyme galactase, the galactose does not reduce to glucose, but builds up to cause galactosemia.",CPT +82775,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of galactose–1–phosphate uridyl transferase in a blood sample, usually following a positive newborn screen that shows an abnormal result, or to monitor compliance while the patient is on a dietary regimen of therapy.",CPT +82776,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the enzyme galactose–1–phosphate uridyl transferase, usually taken from a blood spot sample collected before the newborn infant leaves the hospital. This enzyme deficiency prevents the proper utilization of galactose, the cause of galactosemia.",CPT +82777,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst measures the level of galectin–3 in a serum or plasma sample. This galectin–3 test is useful in the treatment and management of patients with heart failure.,CPT +82784,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the concentration of a particular gamma globulin in the specimen. The analyst may test for immunoglobulin A, immunoglobulin D, immunoglobulin G, or immunoglobulin M. Specimens include serum, plasma, cerebrospinal fluid, or other bodily fluids.",CPT +82785,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the quantity of immunoglobulin E in the specimen.,CPT +82787,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the level of each immunoglobulin subclass ordered on a serum or spinal fluid specimen. The testing is primarily for the immunoglobulin fraction IgG, which can have four subclasses, listed as IgG1, IgG2, IgG3, and IgG4, each of which has diagnostic significance.",CPT +82800,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the pH of a blood sample. He typically performs an arterial blood gas, called an ABG, using arterial blood inserted into a blood gas analyzer that can measure several parameters, including blood pH. Blood pH is a measure of acid and base balance and can vary with several clinical conditions.",CPT +82803,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs blood gas analysis to measure at least two of the listed parameters. He typically performs an arterial blood gas analysis, called an ABG, using arterial blood inserted into a blood gas analyzer that measures several parameters to assess respiratory status including pH, pCO2, pO2, CO2, HCO3, and calculated O2 saturation. These tests indicate the amount of oxygen and carbon dioxide as well as acid and base balance in the blood.",CPT +82805,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst measures any number of blood gas parameters using a blood gas analyzer. The test must also include the O2 saturation by direct measurement.,CPT +82810,Chemistry Procedures.,"The analyst performs direct measurement of O2 saturation in blood by a method other than pulse oximetry. He typically performs an ABG, arterial blood gas, using arterial blood inserted into a blood gas analyzer that can measure several parameters, including the amount of oxygen, O2. O2 saturation, also called sO2, is the percentage of blood carrying oxygen and clinicians can use the sO2 to determine whether the patient requires supplemental oxygen.",CPT +82820,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the hemoglobin–oxygen affinity on an arterial blood sample. The test determines the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen, which closely approximates the oxygen delivery to the tissue.",CPT +82930,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the gastric specimen for total acid by chemical testing, by use of a pH meter, or both. This testing is performed on each specimen, and each specimen represents one unit. The patient may also have gastric analysis testing after a stimulation test; in that case the provider obtains fractional specimens over a 1 to 1.5 hour period for testing as described above.",CPT +82938,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the gastrin level drawn at an interval after the provider gives the patient the stimulant secretin, which in certain diseases will markedly increase the gastrin level.",CPT +82941,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst measures the gastrin level in a serum sample. Providers use this test to define a variety of conditions related to gastric acidity and for conditions related to the duodenum portion of the small bowel.,CPT +82943,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst measures the glucagon level in plasma. Glucagon is a polypeptide hormone secreted by the islet cells in the pancreas.,CPT +82945,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the glucose in any of a variety of specimen types, such as in spinal fluid, urine, joint fluid, and from other locations such as fluid from the abdomen or the lung cavity.",CPT +82946,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the glucagon level in plasma. Glucagon is a polypeptide hormone secreted by the islet cells in the pancreas, which stimulates the formation of glucose in the liver.",CPT +82947,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to measure the amount of glucose in a patient's blood using a method other than a reagent strip.,CPT +82948,Chemistry Procedures.,The clinician performs a test to measure the amount of glucose in a patient's blood using a reagent strip test method.,CPT +82950,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst tests a sample, typically blood, for glucose, also known as blood sugar. The collecting provider takes the sample at a set time after the patient has ingested an amount of liquid or a meal with a high glucose content. Clinicians commonly use this to test for diabetes.",CPT +82951,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to measure the amount of glucose in a patient's blood at three different times: initially while fasting, and two more times, each at a specific time after the patient takes an oral dose of glucose.",CPT +82952,Chemistry Procedures.,"Following a glucose tolerance test with three specimens, the lab analyst performs an additional test to measure the amount of glucose in patient blood, typically following an additional oral glucose dose.",CPT +82955,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the level of glucose–6–phosphate dehydrogenase in the red blood cells from a whole blood collection. This genetic red blood cell enzyme deficiency, more common in Southeast Asians, is the cause of hemolysis of blood cells, which certain foods, drugs, or infections may trigger.",CPT +82960,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst tests for a deficiency of the G6PD enzyme in a blood sample by testing the red blood cells. The presence of a normal amount of this enzyme protects the red cells from oxidative stress that could otherwise cause the cell to rupture and cause hemolysis.,CPT +82962,Chemistry Procedures.,"Blood glucose monitoring at home with small electronic devices is an easy method to check blood sugar level on a daily basis. The patient himself can perform the procedure and the result is obtained instantly. This method is also known as the ""fingerstick method."" Remember that blood glucose monitoring at home is done using FDA–approved devices.",CPT +82963,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the beta glucosidase level, which can be in a variety of specimen types, but analysts primarily use specimens of tissue cells called fibroblasts or white blood cells. Beta glucosidase is a necessary enzyme located within the cells that acts upon the bonds linking glucose or glucose–substituted molecules.",CPT +82965,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the glutamate dehydrogenase level, primarily in serum or plasma. This enzyme is located primarily in the mitochondria, inside the cell, and is expressed in the liver, kidney, brain and pancreas, but not in muscle.",CPT +82977,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the gamma–glutamyltransferase enzyme, typically in a serum specimen. This enzyme is elevated in conditions that affect the liver and the bile ducts, as well as primary and secondary cancers in those regions.",CPT +82978,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the glutathione level, typically on a whole blood sample. Glutathione, a tripeptide, is decreased in certain liver and kidney diseases.",CPT +82979,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the glutathione reductase enzyme in the red blood cells. This enzyme is a critical component in the reduction of oxidized glutathione to reduced glutathione, which protects the cells from oxidative stress.",CPT +82985,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs an analysis, typically on serum or plasma, for glycated protein, a blood component that indicates recent patient glucose control, such as over a two to three week period. You may also see this test called fructosamine.",CPT +83001,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the follicle stimulating hormone level, typically in a serum sample. This hormone, which the pituitary gland produces and excretes into the bloodstream, has a powerful effect on the ovaries.",CPT +83002,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of luteinizing hormone, typically in a serum specimen. The pituitary gland produces this gonadotropic hormone and secretes it into the blood stream where it affects the ovulation, or release of eggs, in the ovaries of females and testosterone production in males.",CPT +83003,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the HGH level, typically in a serum specimen. Clinicians order measurement of human growth hormone primarily to evaluate growth, especially in a child or youth, and also to study both small stature, or dwarfism, and acromegaly, or gigantism.",CPT +83006,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a specimen for growth stimulation expressed gene 2, also called ST2.",CPT +83009,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the Helicobacter pylori urease activity, typically in a blood sample. Analysts use this test to determine the presence of Helicobacter pylori in the stomach. The organism is a cause of stomach and duodenal ulcers.",CPT +83010,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the haptoglobin level, typically in a serum sample. This hemoglobin–binding glycoprotein binds with free hemoglobin present in the blood, which then travels to the liver for reuse. Clinicians use testing to evaluate anemia or other indicators of hemolysis, as well as other conditions.",CPT +83012,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst determines which of the three common haptoglobin phenotypes is present in the sample. The three haptoglobin phenotypes are Hp 1–1, Hp 2–1, and Hp 2–2. Each is unique from the others, having different molecular weights.",CPT +83013,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst tests multiple breath samples for the presence of an isotope that indicates the presence of the H. pylori bacteria. This organism can cause irritation and ulcers of the stomach lining.,CPT +83014,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst administers drugs for helicobacter pylori bacteria testing. H. pylori is most commonly present in the stomach and mainly affects the mucosal lining of the stomach.,CPT +83015,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst tests for the presence and identity of any number of heavy metals in blood, urine, or other body substances, but does not determine the level, or quantity, of metal(s) present.",CPT +83018,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the level of a specific heavy metal that does not have a separate, distinct code, that the clinician orders for quantitative analysis, usually on blood, urine, or another liquid source.",CPT +83020,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst records and calculates the hemoglobin fractions in a whole blood sample demonstrated by this hemoglobin fractionation test by electrophoresis.,CPT +83021,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst measures and calculates the hemoglobin fractions in a whole blood sample demonstrated by this hemoglobin fractionation test by chromatography.,CPT +83026,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a non–automated determination of the hemoglobin content, typically in the blood, using a copper sulfate solution. Up until recently, lab analysts used this technique primarily to screen blood donors. Now, lab analysts use more precise, automated methods for determining hemoglobin.",CPT +83030,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst uses a chemical test for the detection and quantitation of fetal hemoglobin, typically in a whole blood sample.",CPT +83033,Chemistry Procedures.,"The analyst tests for the presence of hemoglobin F, typically in a whole blood sample. The amount is usually very low, except in the newborn infant, in whom almost all the hemoglobin is type F.",CPT +83036,Chemistry Procedures.,"Sugar in the bloodstream can get attached to the hemoglobin in red blood cells. Once the sugar is attached, it stays there for the lifetime of the red blood cell (around 120 days or over 3 months). The higher the amount of blood sugar, the more the quantity of sugar attached to the blood cells. This A1C test measures the amount of sugar sticking to the red blood cells, displaying the result as a percentage. This gives the physician an understanding about the blood sugar level of the patient for the preceding three months. A normal, healthy person should have A1C level below 7%.",CPT +83037,Chemistry Procedures.,"The analyst performs a test using a drop of blood obtained by fingerstick or venipuncture from the patient to rapidly measure the level of glycosylated hemoglobin, HgbA1c. The analyst uses a device the FDA has approved for home use. This test is an indication of glucose control over a three to four month period and results show as a percent of total hemoglobin",CPT +83045,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst determines the presence of methemoglobin, typically in a whole blood sample. This different form of hemoglobin, which gives the blood a brownish color, can be due to a genetic defect or can also be caused by certain drugs or chemicals.",CPT +83050,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the quantitative level of methemoglobin, typically in a blood sample. This different form of hemoglobin, which gives blood a brownish color instead of red, most generally is due to a genetic defect, drugs, or food. The patient having this condition may have a bluish skin color.",CPT +83051,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of hemoglobin present in the plasma, the liquid portion of the blood from an anticoagulated blood sample. Hemoglobin is not usually present in the free state in the blood, but is ordinarily bound within the intact red blood cells.",CPT +83060,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of sulfhemoglobin, typically in a whole blood sample. Blood does not ordinarily include sulfhemoglobin and when present it is a cause of cyanosis.",CPT +83065,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the thermolabile hemoglobin, typically in a whole blood sample. This type of hemoglobin, frequently associated with hemolytic anemia, is known for its unstable nature.",CPT +83068,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a screen for the detection and approximation of unstable, or thermolabile, hemoglobin, typically in a whole blood sample. This hemoglobin variant is frequently associated with hemolysis or jaundice problems.",CPT +83069,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of hemoglobin present in a urine specimen. The presence of free hemoglobin or intact red blood cells in the urine is found with many conditions such as hemolytic anemia, toxic drugs or poisons, and many infections.",CPT +83070,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst tests for the presence of hemosiderin, typically in a urine specimen. Hemosiderin is not a normal constituent in the urine and is usually only present when there is an intravascular hemolysis process going on in the body.",CPT +83080,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of the beta–hexosaminidase A or B that is present, typically in a serum specimen. These two enzymes are deficient in conditions such as Tay–Sachs disease or Sandhoff disease. When this enzyme is deficient, waste products accumulate and cause severe central nervous system degeneration and eventual death. (The b in b–hexosaminidase stands for the Greek character for beta.)",CPT +83088,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the histamine level, typically in whole blood, serum, plasma, or urine. Histamine is a substance stored in mast cells and basophils, and it becomes available upon tissue injury.",CPT +83090,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of homocysteine, typically in a plasma, serum, or urine sample. Testing is related to many inherited disorders of metabolism as homocysteine is an important amino acid, as well as being used as a marker for cardiovascular disease.",CPT +83150,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the level of homovanillic acid, or HVA, typically in a urine specimen. HVA is the end product of the neurotransmitter dopamine’s metabolism and a metabolite of the hormone catecholamine. The adrenal gland, which is located on each kidney, produces catecholamine.",CPT +83491,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the 17 hydroxycorticosteroids level, typically in a 24 hour urine specimen. Clinicians use this test primarily to assess adrenocortical function.",CPT +83497,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of 5 hydroxyindolacetic acid, typically in a 24 hour urine specimen. Clinicians use this testing primarily for the determination of carcinoid tumors or syndrome.",CPT +83498,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the 17 hydroxyprogesterone in a sample such as blood, serum, urine, or even amniotic fluid. This hormone is a building block for the adrenal cortex hormone cortisol.",CPT +83500,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of free hydroxyproline in a sample such as plasma, serum, urine, or spinal fluid. This amino acid is increased in a rare inherited or genetic disease.",CPT +83505,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the level of the total hydroxyproline, generally in a 24 hour urine specimen. The total hydroxyproline level is an important test to measure the rate of collagen turnover, which is a measure of bone activity.",CPT +83516,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical immunoassay test involving several steps to detect and measure an analyte of a noninfectious nature. The results show as positive or negative, or in semiquantitative numerical format to indicate normal and abnormal results.",CPT +83518,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst tests for the presence or semiquantitative estimate of the analyte in question by immunoassay. Use for a procedure that presently has no specific analyte code assigned and is a single step method, such as by use of a reagent strip, which allows little room for error in reading and reporting the results.",CPT +83519,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the analyte in question by radioimmunoassay. Use for procedures that have no specific analyte assigned code available, but meet the requirements based on the methodology of the procedure and the analyte.",CPT +83520,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the analyte, which is not an infectious agent antibody or infectious agent antigen, by immunoassay. Use for procedures that have no specific code assigned for the analyte, but for which the test meets the requirements based on the methodology and the analyte being tested.",CPT +83521,Chemistry Procedures.,"For clinical responsibility, terminology, tips and additional info start codify free trial.",CPT +83525,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the total insulin level, typically in a serum sample. Total insulin measurement includes both the protein bound insulin and free insulin in the blood.",CPT +83527,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the free insulin level, typically in a serum sample. Free insulin is the portion of insulin that is active and is not bound. It is the portion of total insulin that is effective in glucose regulation.",CPT +83528,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the intrinsic factor, typically in a serum specimen. The body needs intrinsic factor for the absorption of vitamin B12.",CPT +83529,Chemistry Procedures.,"Code describes a chemistry test to measure the level of interleukin–6 (IL–6) in a specimen such as serum or plasma. A common lab method for this test is immunoassay, which uses an antibody/antigen reaction to measure the IL–6 level in the specimen. IL–6 is a cytokine involved in the body’s immune response and may be elevated in patients with inflammation related to infection, cardiovascular disease, autoimmune disorders, or some cancers.",CPT +83540,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the iron level, primarily in serum. Iron is one of the essential elements in the body, and the greatest portion is present combined with hemoglobin within the red blood cells.",CPT +83550,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the iron binding capacity, typically in a serum sample. This analyte is an important measurement of the capacity of iron to bind to transferrin. That capacity is also known as transferrin saturation.",CPT +83570,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the level of the enzyme isocitric dehydrogenase, or IDH, primarily in a research lab, as a test for liver function.",CPT +83582,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the ketogenic steroid fractions, typically in a 24–hour urine specimen primarily to measure adrenal function.",CPT +83586,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the total amount of the hormone called 17 ketosteroids, typically in a 24 hour urine collection. The adrenal cortex is the primary production site for the 17 ketosteroid hormones in both sexes, with the testes being an additional production site in the male.",CPT +83593,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the fractions of the hormone called17 ketosteroids, typically in a 24 hour urine collection. The adrenal cortex is the primary production site for the 17 ketosteroids fractions in both sexes, with the testes being an additional production site in the male.",CPT +83605,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the lactate, most often in a blood or plasma sample. Lactate, also known as lactic acid, is the end product of anaerobic carbohydrate metabolism produced primarily by muscle activity.",CPT +83615,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the lactate dehydrogenase, typically in a serum sample. Lactate dehydrogenase is found in many body tissues, especially in the liver, kidney, and heart, and also in red blood cells.",CPT +83625,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the lactate dehydrogenase fractions, typically in a serum sample. Lactate dehydrogenase is found in many body tissues, especially in the liver, kidney, and heart, and also in red blood cells. These fractions are called isoenzymes.",CPT +83630,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the qualitative technical test to analyze a stool specimen for the presence of lactoferrin, an indicator of inflammation of the intestinal tract.",CPT +83631,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a stool specimen for the quantity of lactoferrin, an indicator of inflammation of the intestinal tract.",CPT +83632,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the human placental lactogen, typically in a serum specimen. Clinicians use the test primarily to assess placental function during the pregnancy.",CPT +83633,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst tests for the presence of lactose in a urine specimen. This test is common for individuals with symptoms of lactose intolerance, known as hypolactasia.",CPT +83655,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to measure the amount of lead in the patient specimen. A typical aim of the test is to check for lead exposure.,CPT +83661,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to assess the maturity of fetal lungs using the lecithin sphingomyelin ratio for an indication of whether the organ system will be able to support life outside the uterus.,CPT +83662,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a foam stability test to assess the maturity of fetal lungs as an indication of whether the organ system will be able to support life outside the uterus. The immaturity of lungs may cause respiratory distress syndrome, RDS, which occurs due to insufficient pulmonary lipoproteins.",CPT +83663,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a fluorescence polarization test to assess the maturity of fetal lungs as an indication of whether the organ system will be able to support life outside the uterus.,CPT +83664,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a lamellar body density test to assess the maturity of fetal lungs as an indication of whether the organ system will be able to support life outside the uterus.,CPT +83670,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to measure the amount of leucine aminopeptidase enzyme in the patient specimen. Leucine aminopeptidase is an enzyme found in small intestine and liver cells. An increased level of this enzyme is an indication of liver damage or tumor.,CPT +83690,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst measures the amount of lipase enzyme in the patient specimen. Lipase is an enzyme that the pancreas secretes to help in the absorption of fat.,CPT +83695,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to measure the amount of lipoprotein a, typically in patient blood.",CPT +83698,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of lipoprotein associated phospholipase A2, called Lp PLA2, in the patient specimen.",CPT +83700,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst measures the amount of blood lipoprotein using electrophoresis to separate the particles.,CPT +83701,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs high resolution fractionation and measures the amount of blood lipoprotein in a patient specimen. The test may include lipoprotein subclasses, as well.",CPT +83704,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to measure the lipoprotein particle numbers and possibly lipoprotein particle subclasses in blood.,CPT +83718,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to directly measure the high density lipoprotein, HDL, cholesterol in a patient specimen.",CPT +83719,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to directly measure the very low density lipoprotein, VLDL, cholesterol in a patient specimen.",CPT +83721,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to directly measure the low density lipoprotein, LDL, cholesterol in a patient specimen.",CPT +83722,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to directly measure the small dense low–density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol in a patient specimen.,CPT +83727,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to measure the amount of luteinizing releasing factor, LRH, in a patient specimen. The hypothalamus produces the LRH that controls the secretion of gonadotrophin hormones. LRH is most active at the time of puberty.",CPT +83735,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to measure the amount of magnesium in a patient specimen.,CPT +83775,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of malate dehydrogenase, which is the enzyme that converts malate to oxaloacetate in the citric acid cycle of carbohydrate metabolism. The typical specimen is blood.",CPT +83785,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of manganese, which is an essential nutrient, in the patient specimen.",CPT +83789,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to evaluate the specimen for the presence or amount of a nondrug analyte by using mass spectrometry and tandem mass spectrometry.,CPT +83825,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of mercury, which is a metal, in the patient specimen, to determine whether a toxic level exists in the patient’s body.",CPT +83835,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of metanephrines, which is a metabolic product of epinephrine, in the patient specimen. Excessive levels of metanephrines suggest pheochromocytoma and adrenal tumors, which may be associated with hypertension.",CPT +83857,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of methemalbumin, which is a protein complex of albumin and heme in blood, in the patient specimen.",CPT +83861,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs microfluidic analysis to test the tear osmolarity of the patient. This is usually done in patients with symptoms of dry eye.,CPT +83864,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst measures the amount of acid mucopolysaccharides present in the urine collected over a 24 hour period.,CPT +83872,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of mucin, a protein present in synovial fluid that affects its viscosity, in the patient specimen.",CPT +83873,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst measures the amount of myelin basic protein (MBP) in the cerebrospinal fluid of the patient. Providers order this test for patients who experience symptoms of multiple sclerosis.,CPT +83874,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of myoglobin, a protein present in the muscles, in the patient specimen.",CPT +83876,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of myeloperoxidase, an enzyme present in neutrophils, in the patient specimen.",CPT +83880,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of natriuretic peptide, a hormone made by heart muscle cells, in the patient specimen. Blood levels of the hormone increase in patients with congestive heart failure.",CPT +83883,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to  measure the amount of an analyte, not elsewhere specified, through nephelometry, in the patient specimen.",CPT +83885,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of nickel, a metal in the body, in the patient specimen, to determine the presence of nickel toxicity.",CPT +83915,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the 5 nucleotidase enzyme level, typically in serum or in synovial fluid. This test is a measurement of the 5 nucleotidase predominately derived from the liver. Clinicians now order this test less frequently due to newer liver enzyme tests being more readily available.",CPT +83916,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the oligoclonal immune bands, generally on spinal fluid and a serum specimen. These bands are not usually present in normal spinal fluid, but are usually present in patients with multiple sclerosis.",CPT +83918,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the total organic acids, with a 24 hour urine being the preferred specimen. Organic acids are a byproduct of metabolism and derive from many sources, such as, fatty acids, amino acids, carbohydrates, steroids, and hormones.",CPT +83919,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst determines the presence of organic acids, typically in a random urine specimen. This qualitative test identifies the presence of abnormal organic acids primarily due to inherited or genetic defects.",CPT +83921,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the single organic acid analyte ordered, which may be any one of the more than 60 identified organic acid analytes. The specimen type may be serum, plasma, urine, amniotic fluid, blood spot, or another type, depending on the analyte requested.",CPT +83930,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the blood osmolality, commonly on a serum sample. The osmolality is a measurement of the number of dissolved particles in a solution. These dissolved particles increase the boiling point and decrease the freezing point of a solution.",CPT +83935,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the urine osmolality, most often on a random urine specimen. Osmolality is a measurement of the number of dissolved particles in a solution. These dissolved particles increase the boiling point and decrease the freezing point of a solution.",CPT +83937,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs technical steps, typically on serum or plasma, using laboratory methods to detect the amount of osteocalcin. Osteocalcin is a protein that is essential for bone formation and analysis may indicate bone density and response to bone building drug therapy. Another name for this test is bone g1a protein, or BGP, measurement.",CPT +83945,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the oxalate level, commonly in a 24 hour urine specimen. Oxalate is a substance commonly present in certain vegetables and nuts. Oxalate is also present in normal urine specimens as calcium oxalate crystals.",CPT +83950,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the HER2, neu oncoprotein, typically in a serum specimen. Clinicians may order this test for breast cancer patients for follow up or monitoring of their previous breast cancer diagnosis.",CPT +83951,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the des gamma carboxy prothrombin oncoprotein, typically in a serum specimen. Clinicians use the des gamma carboxy prothrombin test primarily for the risk assessment of hepatocellular carcinoma.",CPT +83970,Chemistry Procedures.,Parathyroid hormone test measures the level of PTH in the blood. This test is done to ascertain the level of calcium and evaluate the parathyroid function.,CPT +83986,Chemistry Procedures.,"The analyst performs the technical lab test to measure the pH, meaning the acidity or alkalinity, of a body fluid not represented by another code. The analyst may use methods such as a pH meter, blood gas analyzer, or litmus paper.",CPT +83987,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the pH of the condensed, exhaled breath. The measurement determines the level of acidity or alkalinity of the exhaled breath.",CPT +83992,Definitive Drug Testing Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the level of this drug, phencyclidine, typically in a urine or blood sample. This very potent street drug is a common drug of abuse.",CPT +83993,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test on a small amount of stool sample to measure the amount of calprotectin, typically using an enzyme linked immunosorbent assay, or ELISA, test procedure. Clinicians may use this test to assist with differentiating inflammatory bowel disease, IBD, from irritable bowel syndrome, IBS.",CPT +84030,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst determines the presence and amount of the amino acid phenylalanine, most commonly on a filter paper blood spot card or in a blood plasma sample. Phenylketonuria is a rare genetic defect that allows the amino acid phenylalanine to build up abnormally in the body.",CPT +84035,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst determines the qualitative presence of phenylketones, an indicator of an inherited disorder of phenylalanine metabolism. The typical specimen is urine.",CPT +84060,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the total acid phosphatase, most commonly in a serum specimen. The liver, bone, spleen, kidneys, and also the prostate in males are the primary production sites for the enzyme total acid phosphatase.",CPT +84066,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the prostatic acid portion of total acid phosphatase, most commonly in a serum specimen. The body primarily produces prostatic acid phosphatase in the prostate gland in the male.",CPT +84075,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the alkaline phosphatase, typically in a serum sample. The origin of the enzyme alkaline phosphatase is primarily from the liver, bone, intestine, and lungs.",CPT +84078,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate the level of alkaline phosphatase, called ALP, in the patient specimen following a specific heat treatment.",CPT +84080,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate the level of different forms of the enzyme alkaline phosphatase, or ALP, called isoenzymes, in the patient specimen.",CPT +84081,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate the level of phosphatidylglycerol in the patient specimen, such as amniotic fluid.",CPT +84085,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate the level of RBC 6–phosphogluconate dehydrogenase in a patient specimen.,CPT +84087,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate the level of phosphohexose isomerase, called PHI, also known as glucose phosphate isomerase, or GPI, in a patient specimen such as blood.",CPT +84100,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate the level of phosphate, which is phosphorus not contained in biological compounds, in a patient specimen such as serum.",CPT +84105,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate the level of phosphate, which is phosphorus not contained in biological compounds, in a patient urine specimen.",CPT +84106,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate the presence of porphobilinogen, called PBG, typically in a random patient urine specimen.",CPT +84110,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate the level of porphobilinogen, also called PBG, in a patient urine specimen.",CPT +84112,Chemistry Procedures.,"Cervicovaginal fluid is tested for the presence of amniotic fluid proteins, which may indicate premature rupture of membranes (PROM) in a pregnant patient.",CPT +84119,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate the presence of porphyrins, typically in a random patient urine specimen.",CPT +84120,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate the level of various porphyrin compounds in a patient urine specimen.,CPT +84126,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate the level of various porphyrin compounds in a patient fecal, or stool, specimen.",CPT +84132,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the amount of potassium in a patient specimen, typically blood, which the analyst collects using routine vein puncture.",CPT +84133,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate the level of potassium in a patient urine specimen.,CPT +84134,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate the level of prealbumin in a patient specimen such as serum.,CPT +84135,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate the level of pregnanediol in a patient specimen, such as urine.",CPT +84138,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate the level of pregnanetriol in a patient specimen, such as urine.",CPT +84140,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate the level of pregnenolone in a patient specimen, such as serum.",CPT +84143,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate the level of 17 hydroxypregnenolone in a patient specimen, such as serum.",CPT +84144,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate the level of progesterone in a patient specimen, such as serum, saliva, or urine.",CPT +84145,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate the level of procalcitonin, also called PCT or ProCT, in a patient specimen such as serum.",CPT +84146,Chemistry Procedures.,"The analyst performs the technical test using clinical laboratory instruments to analyze specimens, typically serum or plasma, for prolactin, one of the hormones responsible for milk production after childbirth and present in some other clinical conditions.",CPT +84150,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate the level of a prostaglandin in a patient specimen such as a random or 24 hour urine specimen.,CPT +84152,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs testing for complexed prostate specific antigen, cPSA, by direct measurement, typically on serum or plasma samples using laboratory analyzers. Complexed PSA is a protein the prostate gland produces, and clinicians most frequently order testing related to prostate cancer.",CPT +84153,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs testing for total prostate specific antigen, PSA, typically on serum or plasma samples using laboratory analyzers. PSA is a protein the prostate gland produces, and clinicians may use PSA levels to screen for prostate cancer and follow disease progression.",CPT +84154,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate the level of free prostate specific antigen, called free PSA, in a patient specimen such as serum.",CPT +84155,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to quantitate total protein in a serum, plasma, or whole blood specimen using one of several assay methods, excluding refractometry. Total protein is a major component of the fluid in blood and can fluctuate with many clinical conditions.",CPT +84156,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate the level of total protein in a urine specimen by a lab method other than refractometry or dipstick.,CPT +84157,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate the level of total protein in any specimen except serum, plasma, or urine, by a lab method other than refractometry.",CPT +84160,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate the level of total protein in any specimen by refractometry.,CPT +84163,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to quantitate pregnancy associated plasma protein A, PAPPA, which is a test labs typically perform in the first trimester of pregnancy. Clinicians commonly use the test to assess the risk of Down syndrome, also called trisomy 21, and complications of pregnancy.",CPT +84165,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to separate and quantitate components of serum protein in a process called serum protein electrophoresis, SPE, or SPEP. The electrophoretic fractionation pattern helps the clinician diagnose conditions such as cancer, liver or kidney disease, and immune system problems.",CPT +84166,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to separate and evaluate the level of various protein fractions in any specimen other than serum by electrophoresis.,CPT +84181,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to separate and evaluate the level of various protein fractions in a patient specimen of blood or other body fluid using Western blot technique.,CPT +84182,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to separate and evaluate the level of various protein fractions in a patient specimen of blood or other body fluid using Western blot technique.,CPT +84202,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to measure the amount of protoporphyrin, a substance that binds with iron protein to form hemoglobin. The typical specimen is the patient's blood, which the lab analyst collects using simple vein puncture.",CPT +84203,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test for the presence of protoporphyrin, a substance which binds with iron protein to form hemoglobin. The typical specimen is the patient's blood, which may be collected via heel stick or vein puncture.",CPT +84206,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate the level of proinsulin in a patient specimen such as plasma.,CPT +84207,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate the level of pyridoxal phosphate, also called PLP, or vitamin B6, in a patient specimen such as plasma.",CPT +84210,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate the level of pyruvate, also called pyruvic acid, in a patient specimen such as blood or cerebrospinal fluid, called CSF.",CPT +84220,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate the level of pyruvate kinase in a patient specimen such as blood.,CPT +84228,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate the level of quinine in a patient specimen such as serum or plasma.,CPT +84233,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs an estrogen receptor assay, ERA, on tissue from a tumor, typically from the breast, to analyze for the presence of estrogen receptors, molecules that bind to the female hormone estrogen. Treatment decisions commonly depend on the presence or absence of these receptors.",CPT +84234,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a progesterone receptor assay, PRA, on tissue from a tumor, typically from the breast, to analyze for the presence of progesterone receptors, molecules that bind to the female hormone progesterone. Treatment decisions commonly depend on the presence or absence of these receptors.",CPT +84235,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate the level of a hormone receptor other than estrogen or progesterone receptors in a patient specimen such as serum.,CPT +84238,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab assay to test a sample, such as serum, plasma, or tissue, for the presence of a nonendocrine receptor.",CPT +84244,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate the level of renin in a patient specimen such as plasma.,CPT +84252,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to measure riboflavin, or vitamin B2, typically in patient blood.",CPT +84255,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to measure selenium, typically in patient blood or urine.",CPT +84260,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to measure serotonin, typically in patient blood.",CPT +84270,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to measure sex hormone binding globulin, or SHBG, typically in patient blood.",CPT +84275,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to measure sialic acid, typically in patient blood.",CPT +84285,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to measure silica, or silicon dioxide, typically in patient blood.",CPT +84295,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to measure the concentration of sodium in serum, plasma, or whole blood.",CPT +84300,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to measure the concentration of sodium in urine, in either a random specimen or a specimen collected over 24 hours.",CPT +84302,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to measure the concentration of sodium in sources other than blood, plasma, serum, or urine, such as body fluids or stool specimens.",CPT +84305,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to measure the hormone somatomedin, typically in patient blood.",CPT +84307,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to measure the hormone somatostatin, typically in patient blood.",CPT +84311,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test by spectrophotometry to measure an analyte not elsewhere specified in another code.,CPT +84315,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst measures the specific gravity of specimens other than urine, such as other body fluids.",CPT +84375,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to detect the presence of sugars by chromatographic methods, such as thin layer chromatography, called TLC, or paper chromatography, typically in patient urine.",CPT +84376,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to determine the presence of a single sugar or saccharide, typically in patient urine or stool. Report this code for each specimen the analyst tests.",CPT +84377,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to determine the presence of multiple sugars or saccharides, typically in patient urine or stool. Report this code for each specimen the analyst tests.",CPT +84378,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to measure the amount of a single sugar or saccharide, typically in patient urine or stool. Report this code for each specimen the analyst tests.",CPT +84379,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to measure the amount of multiple sugars or saccharides, typically in patient urine or stool. Report this code for each specimen the analyst tests.",CPT +84392,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to measure sulfate in patient urine, typically in a specimen collected for a 24 hour period.",CPT +84402,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to measure free testosterone, typically in patient serum.",CPT +84403,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to measure total testosterone, typically in patient serum.",CPT +84410,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to measure bioavailable testosterone, typically in patient serum.",CPT +84425,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to measure thiamine, or vitamin B1, typically in patient blood.",CPT +84430,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to measure thiocyanate, typically in patient blood or urine.",CPT +84431,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to measure thromboxane metabolites, which may include thromboxane, in patient urine.",CPT +84432,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test, typically on serum or plasma, for thyroglobulin, sometimes called thyroglobulin tumor marker (Tg). Thyroglobulin is a protein produced only in the thyroid gland and converted into thyroid hormones after release into the body.",CPT +84433,Chemistry Procedures.,"Code describes a test for thiopurine S–methyltransferase (TPMT) levels in a blood specimen. TPMT is an enzyme that can be inhibited by thiopurine drugs, possibly resulting in myelosuppression (decreased blood cell formation by bone marrow). Clinicians may test TPMT levels before prescribing thiopurine drugs to avoid this risk.",CPT +84436,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to measure the amount of thyroxine, or T4, a hormone that the thyroid gland produces, responsible for growth and developmenttypically. The typical specimen is the patient's blood collected via routine vein puncture.",CPT +84437,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to measure thyroxine in specimens that require elution, which is washing whole blood from an absorbent material using a solvent, typically in whole blood neonatal specimens.",CPT +84439,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to measure free thyroxine, or free T4, typically in patient serum.",CPT +84442,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to measure thyroxine binding globulin, or TBG, typically in patient serum.",CPT +84443,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to measure the amount of thyroid–stimulating hormone (TSH), a hormone produced in the pituitary gland that helps regulate thyroid function. The typical specimen is the patient's blood collected via routine vein puncture.",CPT +84445,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to measure thyroid stimulating immune globulins, or TSI, typically in patient serum.",CPT +84446,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to measure alpha tocopherol, or vitamin E, typically in patient serum or plasma.",CPT +84449,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to measure transcortin, or cortisol binding globulin, typically in patient serum.",CPT +84450,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test, typically using serum or plasma, to quantitate the enzyme aspartate amino transferase, or AST, also called SGOT, serum glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase. He uses laboratory chemistry analyzers. AST levels increase in several clinical conditions, such as hepatitis, renal disease, and muscle disease.",CPT +84460,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test, typically using serum or plasma, to quantitate the enzyme alanine amino transferase, or ALT, also called SGPT, serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase. She uses laboratory chemistry analyzers. ALT levels increase primarily in disorders affecting the liver.",CPT +84466,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to measure the amount of transferrin in patient blood.,CPT +84478,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst measures the amount of triglycerides in the patient specimen. The provider typically orders the triglycerides test for a patient with atherosclerosis or other arterial diseases or for a patient at risk for developing heart disease.,CPT +84479,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to measure thyroid hormone uptake in patient blood or to determine the thyroid hormone binding ratio.,CPT +84480,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to measure total T3 in patient blood.,CPT +84481,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to measure free T3 in patient blood.,CPT +84482,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to measure reverse T3 in patient blood.,CPT +84484,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test typically using serum, plasma, or whole blood to quantitate troponin. Troponin is a protein labs commonly measure to verify a myocardial infarction and monitor its aftermath.",CPT +84485,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to measure the amount of trypsin in duodenal fluid from the small intestine.,CPT +84488,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to detect the presence of trypsin in a patient stool specimen.,CPT +84490,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to measure the amount of trypsin in a patient stool specimen collected over 24 hours.,CPT +84510,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to measure the amount of tyrosine in the specimen.,CPT +84512,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to detect the presence of troponin in patient blood.,CPT +84520,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to measure the amount of urea nitrogen in patient blood.,CPT +84525,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to get a semiquantitative measurement of urea nitrogen in patient blood.,CPT +84540,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to measure the amount of urea nitrogen in patient urine.,CPT +84545,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to calculate the volume of blood filtered of urea nitrogen by the kidneys per minute.,CPT +84550,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to measure the amount of uric acid in patient blood.,CPT +84560,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to measure the amount of uric acid in specimens other than blood, such as urine collected over 24 hours.",CPT +84577,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to measure the amount of urobilinogen in patient feces or stool specimens.,CPT +84578,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to determine the presence of urobilinogen in patient urine.,CPT +84580,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to measure the amount of urobilinogen in patient urine collected during a specified time period, such as 2 hours or 24 hours.",CPT +84583,Chemistry Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to estimate the amount of urobilinogen in patient urine.,CPT +84585,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to measure the amount of vanillylmandelic acid, also known as VMA, in patient urine.",CPT +84586,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to measure vasoactive intestinal peptide, or VIP, typically in patient blood.",CPT +84588,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to measure the amount of vasopressin or antidiuretic hormone, typically in patient blood.",CPT +84590,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to measure the amount of vitamin A, typically in patient blood.",CPT +84591,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical test to measure vitamin levels, usually for deficiency.",CPT +84597,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to measure vitamin K for decreased levels, which clinicians suspect in patients with excessive bruising or bleeding.",CPT +84600,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to measure volatiles such as acetic anhydride or diethylether in the blood and or urine, typically using gas chromatography.",CPT +84620,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to measure xylose, also known as D–xylose, in blood and/or urine to evaluate carbohydrate absorption in a patient with symptoms of malabsorption.",CPT +84630,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to measure zinc in blood, urine, or other specimens to identify excess or deficient amounts of this trace mineral that is necessary for insulin production and growth hormones.",CPT +84681,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to measure C–peptide, which is a byproduct of insulin that the pancreas produces.",CPT +84702,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to measure the amount of hCG, also known as beta hCG, in blood to confirm or monitor pregnancy, or to diagnose certain tumors of the testes or ovaries.",CPT +84703,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to detect the presence of human chorionic gonadotropin, or hCG, hormone, typically in patient blood.",CPT +84704,Chemistry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to quantitate free beta chain human chorionic gonadotropin, called free beta hCG, typically using serum or whole blood. Free beta hCG can indicate fetal genetic abnormalities, such as Down syndrome, primarily during the first trimester.",CPT +84830,Chemistry Procedures.,The testing personnel measure human luteinizing hormone by a method using visual color comparison to a standardized chart.,CPT +84999,Chemistry Procedures.,Use to report chemistry procedures that do not have a specific code.,CPT +85002,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to determine the time it takes for a patient to stop bleeding following a prescribed incision under controlled conditions.,CPT +85004,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst analyzes a sample of the patient’s blood on a slide and uses an automated system to determine the number of each different type of white blood cells present.,CPT +85007,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a technical lab test on stained blood smears to microscopically examine and manually count and differentiate white blood cells, or WBCs, also called leukocytes. The microscopic examination and manual differential can help distinguish bacterial from viral infections or reveal blood disorders, such as leukemia.",CPT +85008,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst examines a sample of the patient’s blood on a microscope slide without performing a differential WBC count.,CPT +85009,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a manual white blood cell, or WBC, count using the buffy coat layer from the centrifuged blood specimen.",CPT +85013,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the microhematocrit test typically using a heparinized glass or plastic tube, which the analyst seals on one end, centrifuges, and reads on a microhematocrit reader.",CPT +85014,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,"The lab analyst determines the volume percent of red blood cells, called hematocrit, contained in a whole blood specimen.",CPT +85018,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst measures the hemoglobin in a whole blood sample. Hemoglobin is the red pigmented iron compound contained in the red blood cell that combines with oxygen needed by the body tissue.,CPT +85025,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,"A complete blood count (better known as a CBC) is a blood test request by a doctor that provides detailed information about various types of cells in a patient's blood. Usually a pathologist or a technician conducts the test and provides the results of CBC to the requesting doctor. The blood is drawn from the patient's vein using a syringe and is stored in a test tube containing an anticoagulant (usually EDTA or citrate) to prevent clotting and transported to laboratory.  Nowadays, most often, the cell counting process is done in an automated way using an instrument known as an ""automated analyzer"". The automatic cell counter counts the number of different cells in the blood and the results are printed out for review by the physician.",CPT +85027,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a blood count on the red and white blood cells and platelets also known as thrombocytes. He also determines the hemoglobin, typically by spectrophotometry, and the hematocrit, or packed red cell volume, by calculation in a whole blood sample.",CPT +85032,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst manually counts a specific type of blood cell under the microscope on a blood smear slide.,CPT +85041,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst analyzes a sample of the patient’s blood on a slide and uses an automated system to determine the number of red blood cells present.,CPT +85044,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst evaluates a stained blood smear slide under a microscope to determine the reticulocyte count.,CPT +85045,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst uses an automated hematology analyzer to determine the reticulocyte count.,CPT +85046,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst uses an automated hematology analyzer to determine the reticulocyte count and evaluate one or more cellular parameters.,CPT +85048,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst evaluates a sample of the patient’s blood on a slide and uses an automated system to determine the number of white blood cells present.,CPT +85049,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,"The analyst performs a technical lab test by analyzing whole blood samples for platelets using automated cell counters. Platelets, also called thrombocytes, are the cellular components of blood important in clot formation.",CPT +85055,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst evaluates a blood specimen to determine the percentage of reticulated platelets present.,CPT +85060,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,"The physician, typically a clinical pathologist, performs a peripheral blood smear review and provides an interpretation and written report of the examination.",CPT +85097,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,"The clinician, typically a pathologist, interprets a smear prepared from a sample of bone marrow.",CPT +85130,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst evaluates a blood specimen to determine the concentration of therapeutic blood thinner.,CPT +85170,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst evaluates a blood specimen to determine the amount of serum and red blood cells retained in a forming clot.,CPT +85175,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,"The lab analyst evaluates a blood specimen to determine the time to lysis, or break down, of the clot.",CPT +85210,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a clotting test to determine the presence of factor II, also called prothrombin, in the patient’s serum.",CPT +85220,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a clotting test to determine the presence of factor V, also called proaccelerin or labile factor, in the patient’s serum.",CPT +85230,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a clotting test to determine the presence of factor VII, also called proconvertin or stable factor, in the patient’s serum.",CPT +85240,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a clotting test to determine the presence of factor VIII antihemophilic globulin in the patient’s serum.,CPT +85244,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to determine the presence of factor VIII related antigen in the patient’s serum.,CPT +85245,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a platelet aggregation test using ristocetin to evaluate coagulation factor VIII/von Willebrand factor using patient plasma.,CPT +85246,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a von Willebrand factor, or VWF, antigen measurement using patient plasma.",CPT +85247,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a differential analysis of subtypes of coagulation factor VIII, also called von Willebrand factor or VWF.",CPT +85250,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a clotting test to determine the presence of factor IX, also called PTC or Christmas, in the patient’s serum.",CPT +85260,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a clotting test to determine the presence of factor X, also called Stuart–Prower factor, in the patient’s serum.",CPT +85270,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a clotting test to determine the presence of factor XI, also called plasma thromboplastin antecendent, or PTA in the patient’s serum.",CPT +85280,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a clotting test to determine the presence of factor XII, also called Hageman factor, in the patient’s serum.",CPT +85290,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a clotting test to determine the presence of factor XIII, also called fibrin stabilizing factor, in the patient’s serum.",CPT +85291,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a solubility screening test to evaluate the possible action of coagulation factor XIII, also called fibrin stabilizing factor, in the process of clot lysis.",CPT +85292,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a clotting test to determine the presence of prekallikrein, also known as Fletcher factor, in the patient’s serum.",CPT +85293,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a clotting test to determine the presence of high molecular weight kininogen, also known as Fitzgerald factor, in the patient’s plasma.",CPT +85300,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate activity of antithrombin III in the patient’s plasma.,CPT +85301,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate the presence of antithrombin III in the patient’s plasma using an antigen/antibody reaction.,CPT +85302,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate the presence of protein C antigen in the patient’s plasma.,CPT +85303,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate activity of protein C in the patient’s plasma.,CPT +85305,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate the total protein S level in the patient’s plasma.,CPT +85306,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate the free protein S level in the patient’s plasma.,CPT +85307,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to determine the resistance of the patient’s plasma to the anticoagulant effect of activated protein C.,CPT +85335,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test using patient plasma to assess the results of a positive coagulation factor inhibitor screen.,CPT +85337,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to determine the level of thrombomodulin in patient plasma.,CPT +85345,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test using Lee and White method to determine the time it takes for a clot to form in the patient’s blood sample.,CPT +85347,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to determine the time it takes for a clot to form in the patient’s blood sample by using a physical activation method.,CPT +85348,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to determine the time it takes for a clot to form in the patient’s blood sample by a method that is not represented by a more specific code.,CPT +85360,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to determine the time it takes for a euglobulin clot formed from the patient’s plasma sample to break down.,CPT +85362,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a slide agglutination test using patient plasma to evaluate breakdown products of fibrinogen.,CPT +85366,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a paracoagulation test using patient plasma to detect the presence or absence of fibrin degradation products, or FDP.",CPT +85370,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test using patient plasma to determine the amount of fibrin degradation products, or FDP, present in the blood.",CPT +85378,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test using patient blood or plasma to determine the presence of D–dimer at clinically significant levels in the blood.,CPT +85379,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test using patient plasma to measure the level of D–dimer in the specimen.,CPT +85380,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst performs an ultrasensitive test using patient plasma to determine the level of D–dimer in the specimen.,CPT +85384,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical steps of a test for clotting activity of fibrinogen.,CPT +85385,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical steps to evaluate the presence of fibrinogen antigen.,CPT +85390,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,A physician or nonphysician lab professional provides interpretation and report of lab tests to evaluate fibrinolysis and coagulation.,CPT +85396,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The practitioner evaluates ongoing monitoring of coagulation/fibrinolysis in whole blood for all or part of one day.,CPT +85397,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test for functional activity of a specific biochemical compound related to coagulation or fibrinolysis that does not have a separate, specific procedure code.",CPT +85400,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test for plasmin, a fibrinolytic factor.",CPT +85410,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test for alpha–2 antiplasmin, a fibrinolytic inhibitor.",CPT +85415,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test for a fibrinolytic factor or inhibitor related to plasminogen activation.,CPT +85420,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test for fibrinolytic plasminogen activity.,CPT +85421,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test for fibrinolytic plasminogen levels using an immunoassay.,CPT +85441,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst performs direct stain on a blood smear to evaluate the specimen for Heinz bodies.,CPT +85445,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,"The lab analyst evaluates a blood specimen, following administration of acetyl phenylhydrazine, for the presence of Heinz bodies.",CPT +85460,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst evaluates whole blood from a patient who may have experienced fetomaternal hemorrhage to determine the amount of fetal cells mixing with maternal blood using a differential lysis technique.,CPT +85461,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst evaluates whole blood from a post–delivery Rh negative patient to determine the presence of fetal cells mixing with maternal blood using the rosette technique.,CPT +85475,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,"The lab analyst evaluates a blood specimen mixed with acid to evaluate hemolysis, or break down of red blood cells.",CPT +85520,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst evaluates a plasma specimen to measure heparin concentration.,CPT +85525,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst neutralizes any heparin that may be present in the patient specimen.,CPT +85530,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test for heparin–protamine tolerance in patient blood.,CPT +85536,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,"The analyst performs a technical lab test on peripheral blood smears treated with iron stain that identifies iron deposits, also called siderotic granules, in red blood cells.",CPT +85540,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test on patient blood to evaluate levels of leukocyte alkaline phosphatase and count white blood cells.,CPT +85547,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test on patient blood to evaluate the degree of hemolysis when red blood cells are subjected to a mechanical stress.,CPT +85549,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test on patient plasma to evaluate the level of muramidase, also called lysozyme.",CPT +85555,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test on patient blood to evaluate the degree of hemolysis when red blood cells, called RBCs, are subjected to an immediate osmotic stress.",CPT +85557,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test on patient blood to evaluate the degree of hemolysis when red blood cells, called RBCs, incubate for a specific period of time with a chemical that causes an osmotic stress.",CPT +85576,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate clumping, or aggregation, of platelets following the addition of an agent to the blood specimen.",CPT +85597,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate clotting time after adding phospholipids from platelet membranes to the patient blood specimen.,CPT +85598,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate clotting time after adding a reagent called hexagonal phase phosphatidylethanolamine to the patient blood specimen.,CPT +85610,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,"Prothrombin time is most commonly measured using the blood plasma. Chemicals like calcium and tissue factor are added to the plasma sample and then the time is noted when the plasma clots. To analyze if a blood thinner agent or an anticoagulant drug like Coumadin is working, the drug is mixed in blood plasma or the patient is instructed to take the medicine before the test. The anticoagulant drug, when properly acting, causes a delay in clotting of blood.",CPT +85611,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a prothrombin time, or PT, test to evaluate the time it takes the patient’s plasma sample to clot after mixing the specimen with a specific test plasma fraction.",CPT +85612,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to measure the time it takes blood to clot after adding undliluted venom of a Russell’s viper.,CPT +85613,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test on patient blood to evaluate the impact on clotting time of specific concentrations of venom from a Russell’s viper.,CPT +85635,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test on patient blood to evaluate the impact of Reptilase on clotting time.,CPT +85651,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the typical manual erythrocyte sedimentation rate test using whole blood she places in a slender tube. She records the distance in millimeters that the erythrocytes or red cells fall in 60 minutes.,CPT +85652,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test on patient blood to evaluate the rate of sedimentation of red blood cells using an automated test platform.,CPT +85660,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test on patient blood to evaluate the sickling of red blood cells, called RBCs, with the addition of a reducing solution.",CPT +85670,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test on patient blood to evaluate the time to clot formation with the addition of thrombin.,CPT +85675,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test on patient blood to evaluate the time to clot formation after adding different concentrations of thrombin.,CPT +85705,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a tissue thromboplastin inhibition test (TTI) using plasma to detect the presence of lupus anticoagulant inhibitors, autoantibodies causing excess blood clot formation.",CPT +85730,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,"The analyst performs the technical lab test using plasma or whole blood to measure partial thromboplastin time, PTT, also called APTT, activated partial thromboplastin time. The PTT assay can help diagnose bleeding disorders and monitor anticoagulant therapy.",CPT +85732,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a partial thromboplastin time, or PTT, test to evaluate the time it takes the patient’s plasma sample to clot after mixing the specimen with a specific test plasma fraction.",CPT +85810,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate the viscosity of patient serum.,CPT +85999,Hematology and Coagulation Procedures.,Use to report hematology and coagulation procedures that do not have a specific code.,CPT +86000,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a blood specimen for febrile agglutinins, which include Brucella, Francisella, Murine typhus, Q fever, Rocky Mountain spotted fever, scrub typhus, and others. Report this code for each antigen tested.",CPT +86001,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze for the presence of an allergen specific IgG, or immunoglobulin G; the result is either quantitative or semiquantitative, and you use a single unit of this code for each allergen.",CPT +86003,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a specimen such as serum for allergen–specific immunoglobulin E (IgE), using a crude allergen extract. The test result is quantitative or semiquantitative, and you use a single unit of this code for each crude allergen extract.",CPT +86005,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze for the presence of allergen specific immunoglobulin E (IgE) using a multi–allergen screening tool. The method may involve a disk, sponge, card, or other kit device to provide a qualitative result.",CPT +86008,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a specimen for an allergen specific immunoglobulin E (IgE), using a recombinant or purified allergen component; the result is quantitative or semiquantitative, and you use a single unit of this code for each allergen component.",CPT +86015,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"Code describes a test to identify an antibody to actin (smooth muscle) (ASMA) in a specimen such as serum. A typical lab method for this test is an immunoassay, such as enzyme–linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA). Clinicians may order ASMA to help with diagnosis of autoimmune hepatitis (AIH), which is a disease characterized by chronic liver inflammation because the body’s immune system attacks its own liver cells.",CPT +86021,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze for the presence of and identify leukocyte antibodies.,CPT +86022,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze for the presence of and identify platelet antibodies.,CPT +86023,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze for the presence of and identify platelet associated immunoglobulins in the blood.,CPT +86036,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"This code describes a test to identify an antibody to neutrophils, which are a type of white blood cells (leukocytes). Using a method such as fluorescence immunoassay on a specimen such as serum, the test may identify antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (ANCA) in a pattern called pANCA or cANCA, which helps clinicians distinguish between different types of autoimmune disorders.",CPT +86037,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"This test measures the serum level of an antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (ANCA), which is an antibody to a type of white blood cells (leukocytes) called neutrophils. Clinicians typically order the ANCA screen (86036) with reflex to titer, which means that for any positive ANCA screen, the lab will perform the titer to quantify the level of antibody in the specimen. The titer may help clinicians monitor treatment response for autoimmune disorders such as inflammation of blood vessels (vasculitis).",CPT +86038,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze for the presence of antinuclear antibodies in the serum; these are antibodies to the nucleus of a human cell.,CPT +86039,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the titer of antinuclear antibodies (ANAs) in a serum specimen; these are antibodies to the nucleus of a human cell.,CPT +86041,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The test evaluates the specimen, such as serum, for acetylcholine receptor (AChR) binding antibody using a method such as radioimmunoassay. The level of this noninfectious agent antibody may indicate that the patient has myasthenia gravis (MG), an autoimmune disorder that disrupts the interface of nerve and muscle, resulting in muscle weakness.",CPT +86042,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The test evaluates the specimen, such as serum, for acetylcholine receptor (AChR) blocking antibody using a method such as radioimmunoassay. The level of this noninfectious agent antibody may indicate that the patient has myasthenia gravis (MG), an autoimmune disorder that disrupts the interface of nerve and muscle, resulting in muscle weakness.",CPT +86043,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The test evaluates the specimen, such as serum, for acetylcholine receptor (AChR) modulating antibody using a method such as immunofluorescence assay. The level of this noninfectious agent antibody may indicate that the patient has myasthenia gravis (MG), an autoimmune disorder that disrupts the interface of nerve and muscle, resulting in muscle weakness.",CPT +86051,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"Code describes a test to identify an antibody to aquaporin–4, typically in a serum specimen.��The lab method for this test is enzyme–linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA). The presence of the aquaporin–4 antibody is a key marker for neuromyelitis optica (NMO), which is an autoimmune disease characterized by optic nerve and possibly brain stem and spinal cord involvement that is sometimes misdiagnosed as multiple sclerosis (MS).",CPT +86052,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"Code describes a test to identify an antibody to aquaporin–4, typically in a serum specimen. The lab method for this test is cell–based immunofluorescence assay (CBA). The presence of the aquaporin–4 antibody is a key marker for neuromyelitis optica (NMO), which is an autoimmune disease characterized by optic nerve and possibly brain stem and spinal cord involvement that is sometimes misdiagnosed as multiple sclerosis MS.",CPT +86053,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"Code describes a test to identify an antibody to aquaporin–4, typically in a serum specimen. The lab method for this test is fluorescence–activated cell sorting (FACS) using flow cytometry. The presence of the aquaporin–4 antibody is a key marker for neuromyelitis optica (NMO), which is an autoimmune inflammatory disease characterized by optic nerve and possibly brain stem and spinal cord involvement that is sometimes misdiagnosed as multiple sclerosis (MS).",CPT +86060,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze for the presence of antistreptolysin O, typically in a blood sample, reporting a titer.",CPT +86063,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze for the presence of antistreptolysin O, typically in a sample of serum.",CPT +86077,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs a cross match of a specimen that requires interpretation and a written report from the blood bank physician due to a difficult cross match, evaluation of irregular antibodies, or both.",CPT +86078,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The blood bank physician investigates a transfusion reaction, including the possible transmission of disease. She then interprets the results and provides a written report.",CPT +86079,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The blood bank physician provides authorization for deviation from standard blood banking procedures in a specific case. This can include any deviation from the standard procedure; examples include the use of outdated blood or transfusion of Rh incompatible units. The physician provides a written report as part of this service.,CPT +86140,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a specimen, typically serum, for the presence of C reactive protein.",CPT +86141,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the specimen, such as serum, for high sensitivity C reactive protein, hsCRP.",CPT +86146,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the sample, such as serum, for the presence of beta 2 glycoprotein I antibody. Report one unit for each antibody.",CPT +86147,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze for the presence of antibodies to cardiolipin, also called antiphospholipids. Report this code once for each immunoglobulin class the analyst tests.",CPT +86148,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab steps for an antiphosphatidylserine antibody test, also called APA, to detect antibodies against proteins typically found on cell membranes and platelets. These antibodies, a type of phospholipid antibody, occur in some patients with clotting disorders, autoimmune disease, or complications of pregnancy.",CPT +86152,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate the quantity of specific cells in a body fluid, such as tumor cells circulating in the blood stream, using immunologic markers.",CPT +86153,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The physician, specifically a pathologist, interprets the technical lab test for circulating tumor cells, called CTCs, and writes a report.",CPT +86155,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs a technical test, typically on whole blood, to evaluate the chemotaxis function of certain white blood cells called neutrophils. Neutrophils undergo chemotaxis, moving toward a site of inflammation or infection, to destroy bacteria.",CPT +86156,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to screen a specimen such as serum for cold agglutinins, which are antibodies that cause blood to clump, or agglutinate, when the blood falls below normal body temperature.",CPT +86157,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test using a specimen such as serum for cold agglutinins, antibodies that cause blood to clump, or agglutinate, when the blood falls below normal body temperature. This code is specific to titration.",CPT +86160,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical test to measure levels of complement antigens, such as C1 through C9, that are important in detecting and fighting infection and in evaluating autoimmune conditions, diseases producing antibodies to the body’s own cells and tissues.",CPT +86161,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs a technical test to measure functional activity of complement components, such as C1 through C9, that are important in detecting and fighting infection. Functional complement tests evaluate autoimmune conditions, which are diseases that produce antibodies to the body’s own cells and tissues.",CPT +86162,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to measure total hemolytic complement, sometimes called CH50. Measurement of CH50 reveals deficiencies of complement components but does not indicate the specific one.",CPT +86171,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs a technical lab test using complement fixation methods to detect the presence of specific antigens, such as influenza virus.",CPT +86200,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs a technical lab test to detect cyclic citrullinated peptide, or CCP, antibody, typically in serum. CCP antibodies typically indicate and differentiate rheumatoid arthritis, RA, from other forms of arthritis.",CPT +86215,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum for antibodies to deoxyribonuclease, also called anti–DNase.",CPT +86225,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an assay to evaluate the patient’s serum for antibodies to native or double–stranded deoxyribonucleic acid, DNA, also called native anti–DNA or dsDNA antibody.",CPT +86226,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an assay to evaluate the patient’s serum for antibodies to single stranded deoxyribonucleic acid, DNA, also called ssDNA.",CPT +86231,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"Code describes a test to identify an antibody to each immunoglobulin (Ig) class of endomysial antibody (EMA), such as EMA IgG or EMA IgA, in a specimen such as serum. A common lab method for this test is an immunoassay, such as indirect immunofluorescence assay (IFA). The presence of EMA IgG and/or EMA IgA aids in diagnosing the autoimmune disorders celiac disease, which inflames the small intestine in response to dietary gluten, or dermatitis herpetiformis, which is a recurring skin rash. The test results may also help clinicians monitor patient adherence to treatment.",CPT +86235,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an assay to evaluate the patient’s serum for each antibody to an extractable nuclear antigen, also called ENA. Types of ENA antibodies include anti ribonuclear protein, called RNP or nRNP; anti Sjogren’s Syndrome A and B, called SS A and SS B; anti Smith, called Sm; and anti scleroderma, called Scl 70.",CPT +86255,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay test to screen a patient’s blood, typically serum, for an antibody to a noninfectious agent using a fluorescent method. As a screening test, results show only in a qualitative form, such as positive or negative.",CPT +86256,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs a fluorescent immunoassay to titer the amount of antibody to a noninfectious agent in a patient’s blood, typically serum.",CPT +86258,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"Code  describes a test to identify an antibody to gliadin (deamidated) (DGP), such as DGP IgG or DGP IgA, in a specimen such as serum. A common lab method for this test is an immunoassay, such as enzyme–linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA). The presence of DGP IgG and/or DGP IgA aids in diagnosing celiac disease, which is an autoimmune disorder that inflames the small intestine in response to dietary gluten. The test results also may help clinicians monitor patient adherence to treatment.",CPT +86277,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum or plasma for antibodies to human growth hormone, also called HGH.",CPT +86280,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate a patient’s blood sample for antibodies to an antigen using a hemagglutination inhibition test, HAI.",CPT +86294,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs a qualitative or semiquantitative immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s specimen for a tumor antigen.,CPT +86300,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs a quantitative test to evaluate the patient’s serum for the cancer tumor antigen CA 15 3, a tumor marker for breast cancer, and a similar marker called CA 27.29.",CPT +86301,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs a quantitative test to evaluate the patient’s serum or body fluid for the cancer tumor antigen CA 19 9, a tumor marker for pancreatic cancer.",CPT +86304,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs a quantitative test to evaluate the patient’s serum or body fluid for the cancer tumor antigen CA 125, a tumor marker for pancreatic cancer.",CPT +86305,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs a quantitative test to evaluate the patient’s serum for human epididymis protein 4, HE4, a tumor marker for ovarian cancer.",CPT +86308,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to screen the patient’s serum or plasma for heterophile antibodies that are typically present in infectious mononucleosis, IM, also called mono.",CPT +86309,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to titer the patient’s serum or plasma for heterophile antibodies that are typically present in infectious mononucleosis, IM, also called mono.",CPT +86310,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to titer the patient’s serum or plasma for heterophile antibodies after absorption with beef cells and guinea pig kidney. Heterophile antibodies typically occur in infectious mononucleosis, IM, also called mono.",CPT +86316,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs a quantitative immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s specimen for a tumor antigen such as CA 50, CA 72 4, or CA 549.",CPT +86317,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to quantitate the patient’s specimen for antibodies to an infectious agent, not specified in another code.",CPT +86318,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs a single–step immunoassay to qualitatively or semiquantitatively evaluate the patient’s specimen, such as blood, for antibodies to an unspecified infectious agent.",CPT +86320,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs immunoelectrophoresis, IEP, to evaluate a patient’s serum for the amounts and types of certain proteins, called immunoglobulins. The body produces immunoglobulins, also called antibodies, that activate as part of the immune response to neutralize specific invaders such as bacteria or viruses.",CPT +86325,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs immunoelectrophoresis, IEP, to evaluate a patient’s body fluid other than serum, such as urine or cerebrospinal fluid, with concentration, for the amounts and types of certain proteins, called immunoglobulins. The body produces immunoglobulins, also called antibodies, that activate as part of the immune response to neutralize specific invaders such as bacteria or viruses.",CPT +86327,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs crossed, or two dimensional, immunoelectrophoresis, IEP, to evaluate a patient specimen for the amounts and types of certain proteins, called immunoglobulins. The body produces immunoglobulins, also called antibodies, that activate as part of the immune response to neutralize specific invaders such as bacteria or viruses.",CPT +86328,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs a single–step immunoassay to qualitatively or semiquantitatively evaluate the patient’s specimen for antibodies to the severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS–CoV–2) virus, which causes the coronavirus disease first identified in 2019 (COVID–19).",CPT +86329,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs immunodiffusion, not elsewhere specified in another code, to evaluate a patient’s sample for the amounts and types of certain proteins, called immunoglobulins. The body produces immunoglobulins, also called antibodies, that activate as part of the immune response to neutralize specific invaders such as bacteria or viruses.",CPT +86331,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs qualitative immunodiffusion, by Ouchterlony method, to evaluate a patient’s sample for specific types of antigens, foreign substances that cause an immune response, or for certain proteins, called immunoglobulins, also called antibodies, that activate as part of the immune response to neutralize specific invaders such as bacteria or viruses. Report this code once for each antigen or antibody.",CPT +86332,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum for antibodies to an immune complex, which is a formation of an antibody bound to an antigen.",CPT +86334,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs immunofixation electrophoresis, typically on the patient’s serum, to diagnose and or monitor monoclonal gammopathies or myeloma, a bone marrow tumor.",CPT +86335,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs immunofixation electrophoresis to evaluate fluids other than serum, such as the patient’s urine or cerebrospinal fluid, to diagnose and or monitor monoclonal gammopathies or myeloma, a bone marrow tumor.",CPT +86336,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs a test to identify the levels of inhibin A, typically in a pregnant patient’s serum, to determine the risk for Down syndrome in the fetus. The specimen is blood which the lab analyst collects through routine vein puncture.",CPT +86337,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs a test to measure the insulin antibodies, typically in patient blood, which the analyst collects with vein puncture. Providers order this test for patients suspected of having type 1 diabetes, patients who appear to have an allergic response to insulin, or patients for whom insulin is not effective in controlling their blood sugar. Because type 1 diabetes is autoimmune, the test will help distinguish type 1 from type 2.",CPT +86340,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs a test to measure the amount of intrinsic factor antibodies, typically in patient blood.",CPT +86341,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs a test to measure islet cell antibodies, typically in patient blood, which the analyst collects with routine vein puncture. This test detects and measures the amount of islet cell antibodies in patients with type 1 diabetes. Providers order this test to manage endocrine disorders and to distinguish type 1 from type 2 diabetes.",CPT +86343,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs a leukocyte histamine release test, LHR, typically on the patient’s blood, to evaluate the amount of histamine release during allergic reactions.",CPT +86344,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs a leukocyte phagocytosis test to evaluate the functioning of leukocytes, typically focusing on neutrophils. The analyst typically performs the test on the patient’s blood, which is collected through routine vein puncture.",CPT +86352,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an assay for immune system suppression by stimulation of cell function with an agent such as an antigen or mitogen and biomarker detection, such as adenosine triphosphate, or ATP.",CPT +86353,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs a mitogen or antigen induced blastogenesis to evaluate the T cells of patients with immunodeficiency.,CPT +86355,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs this test to measure the quantity of B cells in the immune system, typically using the patient’s blood.",CPT +86356,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to quantitate a mononuclear cell antigen not specified in another code. Analysts typically analyze cell antigens using flow cytometry.,CPT +86357,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs a test to measure the total count of natural killer, or NK, cells in the immune system, typically on the patient’s blood.",CPT +86359,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs a test to measure the number of T cells, typically in a blood specimen. The provider may order a T–cell total count if the patient has signs of a disease that weakens the immune system or to distinguish between a cancerous and noncancerous disease especially bone marrow and blood cancer.",CPT +86360,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs a test to measure the number of CD4 and CD8 cells, typically in a blood specimen, including a calculation of the ratio between the two. The provider may order a CD4, CD8 and CD4 versus CD8 ratio test to measure the strength of the immune system after the patient is diagnosed with an HIV infection.",CPT +86361,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an absolute CD4 cell count test to measure the number of CD4 cells in each micro liter of a patient specimen, typically in a blood specimen. The provider may order this test to measure the strength of the immune system after the patient is diagnosed with HIV infection.",CPT +86362,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"Code describes a test to identify an antibody to myelin oligodendrocyte glycoprotein (MOG–IgG1), typically in a serum specimen. The lab method for this test is cell–based immunofluorescence assay (CBA). Clinicians may order this test following a negative aquaporin–4 antibody test to help distinguish neuromyelitis optica (NMO) from a similar condition characterized by the presence of MOG–IgG1, which is often called MOG–encephalomyelitis (MOG–EM).",CPT +86363,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"Code describes a test to identify an antibody to myelin oligodendrocyte glycoprotein (MOG–IgG1), typically in a serum specimen. The lab method for this test is fluorescence–activated cell sorting (FACS) using flow cytometry. Clinicians may order this test following a negative aquaporin–4 antibody test to help distinguish neuromyelitis optica (NMO) from a similar condition characterized by the presence of MOG–IgG1, which is often called MOG–encephalomyelitis (MOG–EM).",CPT +86364,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"Code  describes a test to identify an antibody tissue transglutaminase (TTG), such as TTG IgG or TTG IgA, in a specimen such as serum. A common lab method for this test is an immunoassay such as enzyme–linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA). The presence of TTG IgG and/or TTG IgA aids in diagnosing celiac disease, which is an autoimmune disorder that inflames the small intestine in response to dietary gluten. The test results may also help clinicians monitor patient adherence to treatment.",CPT +86366,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The test evaluates the specimen, such as serum, for muscle–specific kinase (MuSK) antibody using a method such as radioimmunoassay. The level of this noninfectious agent antibody may indicate that the patient has myasthenia gravis (MG), an autoimmune disorder that disrupts the interface of nerve and muscle, resulting in muscle weakness.",CPT +86367,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs a test to count the total number of CD34, or stem cells in a patient specimen, typically a blood specimen.",CPT +86376,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs a technical test to analyze a sample, typically serum, for microsomal antibodies, such as liver, kidney microsomal, called LKM1, or thyroid peroxidase, called TPO, which are autoantibodies that cause certain types of hepatitis or thyroid disease.",CPT +86381,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"Code describes a test to detect a mitochondrial antibody, such as M2, in a specimen such as serum. The typical lab method for this test is enzyme immunoassay (EIA). The presence of the certain mitochondrial antibodies, especially M2, aids in diagnosis of primary biliary cholangitis (PBC), also called primary biliary cirrhosis, which is an autoimmune disease characterized by bile–duct damage leading to liver damage.",CPT +86382,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs a neutralization test to determine the level of viral antibodies in a patient’s blood.,CPT +86384,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs a blood test to assess the reduction of nitroblue tetrazolium dye.,CPT +86386,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs a test for elevated levels of nuclear matrix protein 22, called NMP22, in patient urine.",CPT +86403,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs a particle agglutination, or PA test on a patient specimen, typically a blood specimen. The provider may order this screening test to evaluate the patient’s immune status or check for a variety of illnesses.",CPT +86406,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs a titer test to determine concentration of a specific antibody present in the specimen following a positive particle agglutination screening test.,CPT +86408,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to screen a specimen such as plasma for neutralizing antibodies that develop against severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS–CoV–2), the virus that causes coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID–19).",CPT +86409,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the titer (concentration) of neutralizing antibodies in a specimen such as plasma. The level of these antibodies indicates a past infection with severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS–CoV–2), the virus that causes coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID–19) and may indicate a level of immunity to re–infection.",CPT +86413,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to quantify the level of antibodies to the SARS–CoV–2 virus in the patient specimen, such as blood.",CPT +86430,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs a test for the presence of rheumatoid factor, or RF, in patient blood.",CPT +86431,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate the level of rheumatoid factor, or RF, in patient blood.",CPT +86480,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate a cell mediated immunity gamma interferon antigen response to certain tuberculosis, or TB, antibodies.",CPT +86481,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate an antigen response to certain tuberculosis (TB) antibodies by enumerating T cells that produce gamma interferon.,CPT +86485,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate the patient’s immunological response to a candida skin injection.,CPT +86486,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The analyst performs a skin test using an antigen not listed in another code to test for delayed type hypersensitivity, DTH, an inflammatory response that is an indicator of a normal defense mechanism against pathogens.",CPT +86490,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate the patient’s response to a skin injection of antigens from the fungus, Coccidioides.",CPT +86510,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate the patient’s response to a skin injection of antigens from the fungus Histoplasma capsulatum.,CPT +86580,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs an intradermal skin test on a patient to test for tuberculosis.,CPT +86590,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate the presence of streptokinase antibody in patient blood.,CPT +86592,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs a test to detect the presence of syphilis–related antibodies in patient specimens using antigen tests such as rapid plasma reagin, called RPR; automated reagin test, called ART; or Venereal Disease Research Laboratory test, called VDRL.",CPT +86593,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate the level of syphilis–related antibodies in patient specimens.,CPT +86596,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"Code describes a test to identify an antibody to voltage–gated calcium channel (VGCC), in a specimen such as serum. The typical lab method for this test is radioimmunoassay (RIA). The presence of the certain VGCC antibodies, especially P/G type and possibly N–type, aids in diagnosis of Lambert–Eaton myasthenic syndrome (LEMS), which is an autoimmune disorder characterized by muscle weakness and often associated with small cell lung cancer (SCLC).",CPT +86602,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s blood for antibodies to actinomyces.,CPT +86603,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient specimen for antibodies to adenovirus.,CPT +86606,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s blood for antibodies to the fungus Aspergillus.,CPT +86609,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s blood for antibodies to a specific bacterium that is not represented in a more specific CPT® code.,CPT +86611,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s blood for antibodies to the bacteria Bartonella.,CPT +86612,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s blood for antibodies to the fungus Blastomyces.,CPT +86615,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s blood for antibodies to the bacteria Bordetella.,CPT +86617,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s blood for antibodies to the bacteria Borrelia burgdorferi following an initial, positive test.",CPT +86618,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s blood or cerebrospinal fluid for antibodies to the bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi.,CPT +86619,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s blood for antibodies to the bacteria Borrelia species involved in relapsing fever.,CPT +86622,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s blood for antibodies to the bacteria Brucella.,CPT +86625,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s blood for antibodies to the bacteria Campylobacter.,CPT +86628,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s blood for antibodies to the fungus Candida.,CPT +86631,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs a technical lab test, typically on serum, to test for chlamydia antibodies, excluding IgM. Chlamydial bacterial infections can cause a common sexually transmitted disease as well as pneumonia and conjunctivitis.",CPT +86632,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test, typically on serum, to test for chlamydia antibody IgM, an antibody indicating recent infection. Chlamydial bacterial infections are responsible for a common sexually transmitted disease as well as pneumonia and conjunctivitis.",CPT +86635,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s blood or cerebrospinal fluid for antibodies to the fungus Coccidioides.,CPT +86638,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s blood for antibodies to the bacterium Coxiella burnetii.,CPT +86641,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s blood or cerebrospinal fluid, called CSF, for antibodies to the fungus Cryptococcus.",CPT +86644,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s blood for antibodies to the virus cytomegalovirus (CMV), except for immunoglobulin M (IgM), antibodies.",CPT +86645,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s blood for antibodies to the virus Cytomegalovirus, known as CMV, immunoglobulin M (IgM).",CPT +86648,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s blood for the diphtheria antitoxoid antibody.,CPT +86651,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum or cerebrospinal fluid for antibodies to the California virus, also called the La Crosse virus, that causes encephalitis.",CPT +86652,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum or cerebrospinal fluid for antibodies to the Eastern equine encephalitis virus, called EEEV.",CPT +86653,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum or cerebrospinal fluid for antibodies to the Saint Louis encephalitis virus, called SLEV.",CPT +86654,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum or cerebrospinal fluid for antibodies to the Western equine encephalitis virus, called WEE.",CPT +86658,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum or cerebrospinal fluid for antibodies to an enterovirus, for example, one of many types in the group coxsackievirus, echovirus, and poliovirus.",CPT +86663,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum for antibodies to early antigen, called EA, of the Epstein–Barr virus, called EBV.",CPT +86664,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum for antibodies to nuclear antigen, called EBNA, of the Epstein–Barr virus, called EBV.",CPT +86665,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum for antibodies to viral capsid antigen, called VCA, of the Epstein–Barr virus, called EBV.",CPT +86666,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum for antibodies to the bacteria, Ehrlichia.",CPT +86668,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum for antibodies to the bacterium Francisella tularensis.,CPT +86671,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s blood for antibodies to a specific fungus that is not represented in a more specific CPT® code.,CPT +86674,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate a patient’s serum specimen for antibodies to a parasite protozoa, Giardia lamblia that causes an infection known as giardiasis.",CPT +86677,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum for antibodies to the bacteria Helicobacter pylori, also called H. pylori.",CPT +86682,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum or cerebrospinal fluid, CSF, for antibodies to a helminth, a parasitic worm, not elsewhere specified in another code.",CPT +86684,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum for antibodies to Haemophilus influenza, a type of bacteria that may cause meningitis and pneumonia, commonly in children.",CPT +86687,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum for antibodies to HTLV I, human T cell lymphotropic virus Type I.",CPT +86688,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum for antibodies to HTLV II, human T cell lymphotropic virus Type II.",CPT +86689,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs a confirmatory antibody test, such as Western blot, for HTLV or HIV using a patient’s serum.",CPT +86692,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum for antibodies to hepatitis, delta agent, also called hepatitis D.",CPT +86694,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum for antibodies to nonspecific type of herpes simplex virus, HSV.",CPT +86695,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum or cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) for antibodies to type 1herpes simplex (HSV–1).,CPT +86696,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum or cerebrospinal fluid, CSF, for antibodies to type 2 herpes simplex (HSV–2).",CPT +86698,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum or cerebrospinal fluid, CSF, for antibodies to histoplasma, a type of fungus.",CPT +86701,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum for antibodies to HIV 1, human immunodeficiency virus 1.",CPT +86702,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum for antibodies to HIV 2, human immunodeficiency virus 2.",CPT +86703,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s specimen, typically serum, for antibodies to HIV 1 or HIV 2. This code applies to a single result for either antibody.",CPT +86704,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s specimen, typically serum, for total hepatitis B core antibodies. This test gives a total result of all immunoglobulin types.",CPT +86705,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s specimen, typically serum, for the presence of the immunoglobulin M (IgM) antibody to hepatitis B core antigen.",CPT +86706,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s specimen, typically serum, for hepatitis B surface antibody.",CPT +86707,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s specimen, typically serum, for hepatitis Be antibody.",CPT +86708,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum for antibodies to hepatitis A. This test is for total antibodies, not separated into immunoglobulin classes.",CPT +86709,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum for antibodies to hepatitis A, specifically immunoglobulin M, or IgM.",CPT +86710,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum for antibodies to influenza virus.,CPT +86711,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum for antibodies to the John Cunningham virus, also called JCV.",CPT +86713,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum for the presence of Legionella antibodies.,CPT +86717,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum for antibodies to Leishmania, a parasite.",CPT +86720,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum for antibodies to Leptospira.,CPT +86723,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum for antibodies to Listeria monocytogenes, a bacteria.",CPT +86727,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s specimen for antibodies to the lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus.,CPT +86732,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum for antibodies to Mucorales.,CPT +86735,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum for antibodies to the mumps virus.,CPT +86738,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum for antibodies to mycoplasma.,CPT +86741,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze for the presence of Neisseria meningitidis antibodies in the patient’s serum.,CPT +86744,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum for antibodies to Nocardia, a bacteria.",CPT +86747,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum for antibodies to parvovirus.,CPT +86750,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum for antibodies to plasmodium.,CPT +86753,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum for an antibody to a protozoan that does not have another more specific code.,CPT +86756,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum for respiratory syncytial virus, RSV.",CPT +86757,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum for antibodies to Rickettsia.,CPT +86759,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum for antibodies to rotavirus.,CPT +86762,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum for antibodies to rubella.,CPT +86765,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum for antibodies to rubeola.,CPT +86768,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum for the antibody to Salmonella.,CPT +86769,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs a multiple–step immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum for antibodies to severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS–CoV–2), which causes coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID–19).",CPT +86771,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum antibodies to Shigella.,CPT +86774,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum for the presence of antibodies to tetanus.,CPT +86777,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum or cerebrospinal fluid for antibodies other than IgM to toxoplasma, an intestinal parasite that spreads from contaminated cat feces and causes toxoplasmosis.",CPT +86778,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum or cerebrospinal fluid for IgM antibodies to toxoplasma, an intestinal parasite that spreads from contaminated cat feces and causes toxoplasmosis. Toxoplasma IgM antibodies indicate current infection with the disease.",CPT +86780,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum for antibodies to Treponema pallidum, a spiral shaped bacteria called a spirochete, that causes syphilis.",CPT +86784,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum for antibodies to Trichinella, a parasite that causes trichinosis.",CPT +86787,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum or cerebrospinal fluid for antibodies to varicella zoster, a virus that typically causes chickenpox and shingles.",CPT +86788,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum or cerebrospinal fluid for antibodies, specifically IgM, to West Nile virus, WNV, a viral infection typically causing meningoencephalitis, inflammation of the brain and brain membranes.",CPT +86789,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum or cerebrospinal fluid for antibodies other than IgM to West Nile virus, WNV, a viral infection typically causing meningoencephalitis, inflammation of the brain and brain membranes.",CPT +86790,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,Use to report procedures to detect virus antibodies that do not have a specific code.,CPT +86793,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"A lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum for antibodies to Yersinia, bacteria that can cause gastroenteritis and reactive arthritis.",CPT +86794,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum for immunoglobulin M (IgM) antibodies to Zika virus.,CPT +86800,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"A lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum for antibodies to thyroglobulin, a protein produced by the thyroid gland that synthesizes, stores, and releases thyroid hormones.",CPT +86803,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"A lab analyst performs an immunoassay to evaluate the patient’s serum for antibodies to Hepatitis C, HCV, a virus that causes liver infection and chronic liver disease.",CPT +86804,Qualitative or Semiquantitative Immunoassays.,"A lab analyst performs an assay to confirm the presence of antibodies in a patient’s blood to hepatitis C, HCV, a virus that causes liver infection and chronic liver disease. He may use confirmatory test method such as immunoblot, also called Western blot.",CPT +86805,Tissue Typing Immunological Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test by mixing donor lymphocytes with recipient serum of various increasing dilutions, and microscopically observing for cell lysis that would indicate transplant incompatibility.",CPT +86806,Tissue Typing Immunological Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test by mixing donor lymphocytes with recipient serum and microscopically observing for cell lysis, which would indicate transplant incompatibility.",CPT +86807,Tissue Typing Immunological Procedures.,"The lab analyst screens sequential samples of recipient serum for percent reactive antibody to possible donor human leukocyte antigens, called HLA, which would indicate the likelihood of transplant incompatibility.",CPT +86808,Tissue Typing Immunological Procedures.,"The lab analyst screens recipient serum for percent reactive antibody to possible donor human leukocyte antigens, called HLA, which would indicate the likelihood of transplant incompatibility.",CPT +86812,Tissue Typing Immunological Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a serologic test to identify a single human leukocyte antigen, called HLA, from one or more of the three major types of HLA Class I cell surface antigens, which are called A, B, and C.",CPT +86813,Tissue Typing Immunological Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a serologic test to identify multiple human leukocyte antigens, called HLA, from one or more of the three major types of HLA Class I cell surface antigens, which are called A, B, and C.",CPT +86816,Tissue Typing Immunological Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a serologic test to identify a single human leukocyte antigen, called HLA, from one or more of the two major types of HLA Class II cell surface antigens, which are called DR and DQ.",CPT +86817,Tissue Typing Immunological Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a serologic test to identify multiple human leukocyte antigens, called HLA, from one or more of the two major types of HLA Class II cell surface antigens, which are called DR and DQ.",CPT +86821,Tissue Typing Immunological Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test by culturing together lymphocytes from a transplant recipient and potential donor and observing for a response that indicates a human leukocyte antigen (HLA) incompatibility.,CPT +86825,Tissue Typing Immunological Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a crossmatch test between donor lymphocytes and an initial recipient serum sample or dilution. The test evaluates human leukocyte antigen (HLA) compatibility using methods other than cytotoxic response, such as flow cytometry.",CPT +86826,Tissue Typing Immunological Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a crossmatch test between donor lymphocytes and a recipient serum sample or dilution subsequent to the initial specimen. The test evaluates human leukocyte antigen (HLA) compatibility using methods other than cytotoxic response, such as flow cytometry.",CPT +86828,Tissue Typing Immunological Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a solid phase immunoassay using patient serum to determine the presence or absence of antibodies to human leukocyte antigen, called HLA, Class I and Class II antigens.",CPT +86829,Tissue Typing Immunological Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a solid phase immunoassay using patient serum to determine the presence or absence of antibodies to human leukocyte antigen, called HLA, Class I or Class II antigens.",CPT +86830,Tissue Typing Immunological Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a solid phase immunoassay using patient serum to identify the presence of specific antibodies to specific Class I human leukocyte antigens, or HLA, from a panel of complete HLA Class I phenotypes.",CPT +86831,Tissue Typing Immunological Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a solid phase immunoassay using patient serum to identify the presence of specific antibodies to specific Class II human leukocyte antigens, or HLA, from a panel of complete HLA Class II phenotypes.",CPT +86832,Tissue Typing Immunological Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a solid phase immunoassay using patient serum to identify the presence of specific antibodies to specific Class I human leukocyte antigens, or HLA, using a high–definition method such as testing for one antigen per bead.",CPT +86833,Tissue Typing Immunological Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a solid phase immunoassay using patient serum to identify the presence of specific antibodies to specific Class II human leukocyte antigens, or HLA, using a high–definition method such as testing for one antigen per bead.",CPT +86834,Tissue Typing Immunological Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a solid phase immunoassay using patient serum to quantify the level of specific antibodies to specific Class I human leukocyte antigens, or HLA.",CPT +86835,Tissue Typing Immunological Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a solid phase immunoassay using patient serum to quantify the level of specific antibodies to specific Class II human leukocyte antigens, or HLA.",CPT +86849,Tissue Typing Immunological Procedures.,Use to report immunology procedures that do not have a specific code.,CPT +86850,Transfusion Medicine Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a screening test using patient blood to determine the presence of any antibodies to red blood cells, called RBCs, other than the A and B antigens.",CPT +86860,Transfusion Medicine Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a procedure using patient red blood cells, called RBCs, to remove bound antibodies in a process called RBC elution.",CPT +86870,Transfusion Medicine Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to identify specific antibodies to red blood cells, called RBCs, in patient serum.",CPT +86880,Transfusion Medicine Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a direct antihuman globulin test, also called a Coombs test or DAT, to determine whether antibodies are bound to the surface of patient red blood cells, called RBCs.",CPT +86885,Transfusion Medicine Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs an indirect antihuman globulin test, also called a Coombs test, to determine whether antibodies are present in patient serum.",CPT +86886,Transfusion Medicine Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs an indirect antihuman globulin test, also called a Coombs test, using serial dilutions of patient serum against test red blood cells, or RBCs, with known antibody and immunoglobulin class.",CPT +86890,Transfusion Medicine Procedures.,"The provider collects, processes, and stores an autologous unit of blood, which is donated blood later used by the donor, or a component of blood from a donor who anticipates a future need for transfusion, typically for surgery. Predepositing blood requires special processing, handling, and storage procedures.",CPT +86891,Transfusion Medicine Procedures.,"The clinician performs a procedure to collect, process, and store blood or blood components, such as red blood cells, from a patient during a surgical procedure. Also called intraoperative blood salvage, IBS, collecting blood lost during surgery may reduce the need for additional homologous blood products.",CPT +86900,Transfusion Medicine Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to determine the patient’s blood type within the ABO blood group system using serum plasma as the specimen.,CPT +86901,Transfusion Medicine Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to determine the patient’s blood type within the Rh blood group system using serum plasma as the specimen.,CPT +86902,Transfusion Medicine Procedures.,The lab analyst performs an antigen test to screen a potential donor blood unit using reagent serum for possible reactive antigens by mixing part of the unit with serum from the recipient patient.,CPT +86904,Transfusion Medicine Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to screen a potential donor blood unit using serum as the specimen for possible reactive antigens by mixing part of the unit with serum from the recipient patient.,CPT +86905,Transfusion Medicine Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to type, or identifies the patient’s blood group according to an antigen, other than ABO or RhD antigens, present on the surface of red blood cells, or RBCs. He uses serum as the specimen for the test.",CPT +86906,Transfusion Medicine Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to determine the patient’s blood type for the complete Rh phenotype using serum plasma as the specimen.,CPT +86910,Transfusion Medicine Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to type blood under multiple antigen systems ABO, Rh, and MN for the purpose of establishing the likelihood of paternity.",CPT +86911,Transfusion Medicine Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to type blood under an antigen system other than ABO, Rh, or MN for the purpose of establishing the likelihood of paternity.",CPT +86920,Transfusion Medicine Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test, often called a crossmatch, to check the compatibility of a potential donor blood unit with patient serum using an immediate spin technique.",CPT +86921,Transfusion Medicine Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test, often called a crossmatch, to check the compatibility of a potential donor blood unit with patient serum using an incubation technique.",CPT +86922,Transfusion Medicine Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test, often called a crossmatch, to check the compatibility of a potential donor blood unit with patient serum using an antiglobulin technique.",CPT +86923,Transfusion Medicine Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs an evaluation, often called a crossmatch, to check the compatibility of a potential donor blood unit with patient serum by comparing electronic records of patient and donor type and screen using the Lab Information System, or LIS.",CPT +86927,Transfusion Medicine Procedures.,The lab analyst thaws a unit of frozen plasma.,CPT +86930,Transfusion Medicine Procedures.,The lab analyst prepares and freezes a unit of blood.,CPT +86931,Transfusion Medicine Procedures.,The lab analyst thaws a unit of frozen blood.,CPT +86932,Transfusion Medicine Procedures.,"The lab analyst prepares, freezes, and thaws a unit of frozen blood.",CPT +86940,Transfusion Medicine Procedures.,"The lab analyst screens patient blood for auto–agglutinins, which are factors in patient blood that make blood cells clump together, and auto–hemolysins, which are factors in patient blood that cause red blood cells to rupture.",CPT +86941,Transfusion Medicine Procedures.,"The lab analyst tests patient blood for auto–agglutinins, which are factors in patient blood that make blood cells clump together, and auto–hemolysins, which are factors in patient blood that cause red blood cells to rupture, by incubating blood with certain additives.",CPT +86945,Transfusion Medicine Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the steps to treat blood with a radiation source.,CPT +86950,Transfusion Medicine Procedures.,The lab personnel separate leukocytes from donor blood and transfuse them to a recipient patient.,CPT +86960,Transfusion Medicine Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a technical procedure to remove fluid, typically plasma, from blood or blood products.",CPT +86965,Transfusion Medicine Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the steps to pool and concentrate platelets or other blood products.,CPT +86970,Transfusion Medicine Procedures.,"The lab analyst incubates red blood cells, called RBCs, with a chemical agent or drug to prepare the RBCs for further tests such as RBC antibody screen or compatibility testing.",CPT +86971,Transfusion Medicine Procedures.,"The lab analyst incubates red blood cells, called RBCs, with an enzyme, which is a protein that hastens biochemical reactions, to prepare the RBCs for further tests such as RBC antibody screen or compatibility testing.",CPT +86972,Transfusion Medicine Procedures.,"The lab analyst separates red blood cells, called RBCs, using a density gradient to prepare the RBCs for further tests such as RBC antibody screening, identification, or compatibility testing.",CPT +86975,Transfusion Medicine Procedures.,"The lab analyst incubates serum with a single drug to prepare the sample for identification of antibodies to red blood cells, called RBCs.",CPT +86976,Transfusion Medicine Procedures.,"The lab analyst dilutes serum to prepare the sample for identification of antibodies to red blood cells, called RBCs.",CPT +86977,Transfusion Medicine Procedures.,The lab analyst incubates serum with an inhibitor to prepare the sample for identification of antibodies to red blood cells.,CPT +86978,Transfusion Medicine Procedures.,"The lab analyst treats serum to cause a specific antibody to red blood cells, called RBCs, to be absorbed, or taken up from, the serum onto the surface of the RBCs, in preparation to identify different serum antibodies.",CPT +86985,Transfusion Medicine Procedures.,The lab analyst splits a unit of blood or blood products.,CPT +86999,Transfusion Medicine Procedures.,Use to report transfusion medicine procedures that do not have a specific code.,CPT +87003,Inoculation and Concentration Procedures.,"The lab analyst inoculates a small animal and observes for a specific reaction, then dissects the test animal upon death.",CPT +87015,Inoculation and Concentration Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a concentration procedure to examine or test a specimen for an infectious agent.,CPT +87040,Microbiology Culture and Typing Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a bacterial culture on blood, and isolates and presumptively identifies any bacteria that grow on selected aerobic media. This code also includes work for anaerobic culture, when performed.",CPT +87045,Microbiology Culture and Typing Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs an aerobic bacterial stool culture, isolates possible pathogens, and makes a preliminary examination to determine the presence of Salmonella or Shigella species.",CPT +87046,Microbiology Culture and Typing Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs an aerobic bacterial stool culture, isolates possible pathogens, and presumptively identifies any pathogens other than Salmonella or Shigella.",CPT +87070,Microbiology Culture and Typing Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab steps to culture a specimen from any source except urine, blood, or stool. This service involves aerobic culture, which refers to the presence of oxygen. The analyst also isolates the organism present and performs analysis of the isolate for a presumptive identification.",CPT +87071,Microbiology Culture and Typing Procedures.,"The lab analyst or microbiologist uses an aerobic culture technique that allows a quantitative determination of the number of bacteria in the specimen submitted. The specimen is not urine, blood, or stool.",CPT +87073,Microbiology Culture and Typing Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs an anaerobic culture using material from any source except urine, blood, or stool, and presumptively identifies and quantitates any clinically significant isolated bacteria.",CPT +87075,Microbiology Culture and Typing Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs an anaerobic culture using material from any source except blood, and identifies any isolated bacteria to the least specific level, such as genus.",CPT +87076,Microbiology Culture and Typing Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs additional tests on a presumptively identified anaerobic isolate to definitively, which means more specifically, identify the organism, such as to the level of species.",CPT +87077,Microbiology Culture and Typing Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs additional tests on a presumptively identified aerobic isolate to definitively, which means more specifically, identify the organism, such as to the level of species.",CPT +87081,Microbiology Culture and Typing Procedures.,The lab analyst cultures a patient specimen on a test medium designed to grow only a specific pathogenic organism.,CPT +87084,Microbiology Culture and Typing Procedures.,"The lab analyst cultures a patient specimen on a test medium designed to grow only a specific pathogenic organism, and estimates the level of colony growth using a density chart.",CPT +87086,Microbiology Culture and Typing Procedures.,"The lab analyst or microbiologist cultures the submitted urine specimen, typically a clean catch or catheterized collection, and if growth is present, reports the quantitative colony count result.",CPT +87088,Microbiology Culture and Typing Procedures.,The lab analyst or microbiologist observes a urine culture with an unknown organism or organisms and makes a presumptive identification of each organism that needs identification.,CPT +87101,Microbiology Culture and Typing Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a culture using material from skin, hair, or nail, and identifies any isolated fungus to the least specific level, such as genus.",CPT +87102,Microbiology Culture and Typing Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a culture using material from any source except blood, skin, hair, or nail, and identifies any isolated fungus to the least specific level, such as genus.",CPT +87103,Microbiology Culture and Typing Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a culture from a blood specimen and identifies any isolated fungus to the least specific level, such as genus.",CPT +87106,Microbiology Culture and Typing Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs additional tests on a presumptively identified yeast isolate to definitively, which means more specifically, identify the organism, such as to the level of species.",CPT +87107,Microbiology Culture and Typing Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs additional tests on a presumptively identified mold isolate to definitively, which means more specifically, identify the organism, such as to the level of species.",CPT +87109,Microbiology Culture and Typing Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a culture from any patient source and identifies any mycoplasma.,CPT +87110,Microbiology Culture and Typing Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a culture from any patient source and identifies any Chlamydia species.,CPT +87116,Microbiology Culture and Typing Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a culture using material from any source and identifies any isolated tubercle, which is a tuberculosis–causing bacterium, or other acid–fast bacilli, called AFB, to the least specific level, such as genus.",CPT +87118,Microbiology Culture and Typing Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs additional tests on a presumptively identified acid–fast bacilli, or AFB, isolate to definitively, which means more specifically, identify the organism, such as to the level of species.",CPT +87140,Microbiology Culture and Typing Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs an immunofluorescence test on a previously isolated and identified organism to categorize the organism more specifically, such as to the taxonomic level of type.",CPT +87143,Microbiology Culture and Typing Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs an analysis using either gas–liquid or high–pressure–liquid chromatography on a previously isolated and identified organism to categorize the organism more specifically, such as to the taxonomic level of type.",CPT +87147,Microbiology Culture and Typing Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay, other than an immunofluorescence test, on a previously isolated and identified organism to categorize the organism more specifically, such as to the taxonomic level of type.",CPT +87149,Microbiology Culture and Typing Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs an analysis using direct DNA or RNA probe technique on a previously isolated and identified organism to categorize the organism more specifically, such as to the taxonomic level of type.",CPT +87150,Microbiology Culture and Typing Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs an analysis using amplified DNA or RNA probe technique on a previously isolated and identified organism to categorize the organism more specifically, such as to the taxonomic level of type.",CPT +87152,Microbiology Culture and Typing Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs an analysis using a pulse field gel technique on a previously isolated and identified organism to categorize the organism more specifically, such as to the taxonomic level of type.",CPT +87153,Microbiology Culture and Typing Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs an analysis using nucleic acid sequencing methods on a previously isolated and identified organism to categorize the organism more specifically, such as to the taxonomic level of type.",CPT +87154,Microbiology Culture and Typing Procedures.,"Using a previously cultured blood specimen with the culture or an isolate definitively identified to the level of genus and species, the analyst performs further testing to identify the pathogenic organism to the taxonomic level of type. The test amplifies (increases) the amount of DNA or RNA targets in the specimen, and uses probes for multiple targets (multiplex) to identify at least six targets that help specifically identify the organism and its resistance to medications.",CPT +87158,Microbiology Culture and Typing Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs an analysis using any method, other than the methods listed in codes 87140 to 87153, on a previously isolated and identified organism to categorize the organism more specifically, such as to the taxonomic level of type.",CPT +87164,"Examination, Homogenization and concentration Procedures.","The lab analyst collects the specimen and performs a microscopic exam on a dark background, rather than traditional light microscopy, of a direct specimen from any patient source, such as a smear from a penile lesion.",CPT +87166,"Examination, Homogenization and concentration Procedures.","The lab analyst performs a microscopic exam on a dark background, rather than traditional light microscopy, of a direct specimen from any patient source, such as a smear from a penile lesion.",CPT +87168,"Examination, Homogenization and concentration Procedures.","Without use of a microscope, the lab analyst examines an arthropod that is associated with human disease, such as certain insects or spiders.",CPT +87169,"Examination, Homogenization and concentration Procedures.","Without use of a microscope, the lab analyst examines a parasite that is associated with human disease, such as a tapeworm.",CPT +87172,"Examination, Homogenization and concentration Procedures.",The lab analyst examines a specimen collected using a pinworm paddle or using transparent adhesive tape to look for pinworm eggs or adults.,CPT +87176,"Examination, Homogenization and concentration Procedures.","The lab analyst performs the technical steps to homogenize tissue, which means to make a uniform mixture, to prepare the specimen for culture.",CPT +87177,"Examination, Homogenization and concentration Procedures.","The lab analyst performs the technical steps to concentrate and evaluate specimens such as stool, to identify parasites and parasite eggs, also called ova, if present.",CPT +87181,Antimicrobial Susceptibility Studies.,"The lab analyst performs the technical steps to evaluate a culture isolate’s susceptibility, or sensitivity, to a specific antimicrobial agent, commonly called an antibiotic. He uses a test device with a gradient dilution of the antibiotic placed on an agar plate inoculated with the isolate.",CPT +87184,Antimicrobial Susceptibility Studies.,"The lab analyst performs the technical steps to evaluate a culture isolate’s susceptibility, or sensitivity, to up to 12 specific antimicrobial agents, commonly called antibiotics, by placing disks containing each agent on an agar plate inoculated with the culture isolate.",CPT +87185,Antimicrobial Susceptibility Studies.,"The lab analyst performs the technical steps to evaluate a culture isolate’s susceptibility, or sensitivity, to certain antimicrobial agents, commonly called antibiotics, by detecting the organism’s production of a specific enzyme, such as beta lactamase, that interferes with the effectiveness of certain antibiotics.",CPT +87186,Antimicrobial Susceptibility Studies.,"The lab analyst performs the technical steps to evaluate a culture isolate’s susceptibility, or sensitivity, to multiple antimicrobial agents, commonly called antibiotics, by observing growth of the isolate on various concentrations of each antibiotic using agar dilution or microdilution methods to determine the minimum inhibitory concentration.",CPT +87187,Antimicrobial Susceptibility Studies.,"The lab analyst performs the technical steps to determine the minimum lethal concentration, called MLC, for an antimicrobial agent, commonly called an antibiotic, for a specific culture isolate.",CPT +87188,Antimicrobial Susceptibility Studies.,"The lab analyst performs the technical steps to evaluate a culture isolate’s susceptibility, or sensitivity, to multiple antimicrobial agents, commonly called antibiotics, by observing growth of the isolate in various concentrations of each antibiotic using macrobroth dilution methods.",CPT +87190,Antimicrobial Susceptibility Studies.,"The lab analyst performs the technical steps to evaluate a mycobacteria culture isolate’s susceptibility, or sensitivity, to an antimicrobial agent, commonly called an antibiotic, using the proportion method.",CPT +87197,Antimicrobial Susceptibility Studies.,The lab analyst performs a bacterial titer using patient serum to determine susceptibility to a specific antibiotic dosage.,CPT +87205,Primary Source Smear Procedures.,"The analyst performs a technical lab test for bacteria, fungi, or cell types using Gram or Giemsa stain on a primary source with interpretation.",CPT +87206,Primary Source Smear Procedures.,"The analyst performs a technical lab test for bacteria, fungi, parasites, viruses, or cell types using fluorescent stain, acid fast stain, or both.",CPT +87207,Primary Source Smear Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a specimen on a slide for inclusion bodies. The specimen is from a primary source.,CPT +87209,Primary Source Smear Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs and evaluates a complex special stain from a primary source specimen, such as stool, to look for parasite eggs, or ova, and parasites, which are organisms that live in or on a host organism and derive nutrients from the host.",CPT +87210,Primary Source Smear Procedures.,"The lab analyst or microbiologist performs a wet mount preparation of a specimen, usually from material collected on a swab or placed directly on a microscope slide.",CPT +87220,Tissue Examination and Culture Procedures.,"The lab analyst or microbiologist takes the sample specimen and adds KOH as a clearing agent. She examines the specimen for fungal forms in nail clippings, the skin, or the hair shaft.",CPT +87230,Tissue Examination and Culture Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs an assay to test for a toxin, or poison produced by a specific organism, such as Clostridium difficile, using cell tissue culture.",CPT +87250,Virus Isolation Procedures.,"The lab analyst isolates a particular virus by inoculating an egg that has an embryo, or a small animal, allowing the virus to grow, and observing for signs of viral growth, including dissection to make observations.",CPT +87252,Virus Isolation Procedures.,"The lab analyst isolates a particular virus by inoculating a tissue culture of a known cell line, allowing the virus to grow, and identifying the virus by observing how it impacts and damages the tissue culture cells.",CPT +87253,Virus Isolation Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs additional tests, such as neutralization, to specifically identify a virus from a patient specimen that an analyst previously isolated and identified using tissue culture methodology.",CPT +87254,Virus Isolation Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the blood or other sample for a virus using centrifuge–enhanced (shell vial) technique and identification with immunofluorescence stain. Report this code for each virus tested.,CPT +87255,Virus Isolation Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to identify a virus by methods other than immunologic assays or evaluation of cytopathic effect that involves observing how a virus impacts and damages cells.,CPT +87260,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,The lab analyst performs a test to detect adenovirus antigens using immunofluorescent technique.,CPT +87265,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,The lab analyst performs a test to detect Bordetella pertussis and Bordetella parapertussis antigens using immunofluorescent technique.,CPT +87267,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test to detect enterovirus antigens using direct fluorescent antibody technique, also called DFA.",CPT +87269,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,The lab analyst performs a test to detect Giardia antigens using immunofluorescent technique.,CPT +87270,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,The lab analyst performs a test to detect Chlamydia trachomatis antigens using immunofluorescent technique.,CPT +87271,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test to detect Cytomegalovirus, or CMV, antigens using direct fluorescent antibody technique, also called DFA.",CPT +87272,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,The lab analyst performs a test to detect Cryptosporidium antigens using immunofluorescent technique.,CPT +87273,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test to detect antigens to Herpes simplex virus type 2, also called HSV 2 or genital herpes, using immunofluorescent technique.",CPT +87274,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test to detect antigens of Herpes simplex virus type 1, also called HSV 1, using methods such as an immunofluorescent antibody stain and fluorescence microscopy.",CPT +87275,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,The lab analyst performs a test to detect influenza B virus antigens using methods such as an immunofluorescent antibody stain and fluorescence microscopy.,CPT +87276,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,The lab analyst performs a test to detect influenza A virus antigens using methods such as an immunofluorescent antibody stain and fluorescence microscopy.,CPT +87278,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,The lab analyst performs a test to detect antigens of Legionella pneumophila bacterium using methods such as an immunofluorescent antibody stain and fluorescence microscopy.,CPT +87279,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,The lab analyst performs a test to detect antigens of a single type of Parainfluenza virus using methods such as an immunofluorescent antibody stain and fluorescence microscopy.,CPT +87280,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test to detect antigens of respiratory syncytial virus, called RSV, using methods such as an immunofluorescent antibody stain and fluorescence microscopy.",CPT +87281,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test to detect antigens of the fungus Pneumocystis carinii, which has been renamed Pneumocystis jirovecii, using methods such as an immunofluorescent antibody stain and fluorescence microscopy.",CPT +87283,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test to detect antigens of Rubeola, also called Measles virus or MeV, using methods such as an immunofluorescent antibody stain and fluorescence microscopy.",CPT +87285,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,The lab analyst performs a test to detect antigens of Treponema pallidum bacteria using methods such as an immunofluorescent antibody stain and fluorescence microscopy.,CPT +87290,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test to detect antigens of Varicella zoster virus, sometimes called herpesvirus type 3, using methods such as an immunofluorescent antibody stain and fluorescence microscopy.",CPT +87299,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test to detect antigens of a specific organism that is not uniquely named in a different code, using methods such as an immunofluorescent antibody stain and fluorescence microscopy.",CPT +87300,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,The lab analyst performs a test to detect antigens of multiple specific organisms using methods such as an immunofluorescent antibody stain and fluorescence microscopy.,CPT +87301,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test to detect antigens of adenovirus enteric types 40 and 41 using an immunoassay technique, such as EIA.",CPT +87305,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test to detect antigens of the fungus Aspergillus using an immunoassay technique, such as EIA.",CPT +87320,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test to detect antigens of the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis using an immunoassay technique, such as EIA.",CPT +87324,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test to detect one or more toxins produced by Clostridium difficile using an immunoassay technique, such as EIA.",CPT +87327,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test to detect antigens of the fungus Cryptococcus neoformans using an immunoassay technique, such as EIA.",CPT +87328,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test to detect antigens of the protozoan cryptosporidium using an immunoassay technique, such as EIA.",CPT +87329,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test to detect antigens of the protozoan giardia using an immunoassay technique, such as EIA.",CPT +87332,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test to detect antigens of the virus cytomegalovirus using an immunoassay technique, such as EIA.",CPT +87335,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test to detect antigens of the bacterium Escherichia coli 0157 using an immunoassay technique, such as EIA.",CPT +87336,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test to detect antigens of two amoeba species, Entamoeba histolytica and Entamoeba dispar, using an immunoassay technique, such as EIA.",CPT +87337,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test to detect antigens of an amoeba, Entamoeba histolytica, using an immunoassay technique, such as EIA.",CPT +87338,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test on a stool specimen to detect antigens of Helicobacter pylori bacteria using an immunoassay technique, such as EIA.",CPT +87339,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test on a primary source specimen other than stool to detect antigens of Helicobacter pylori bacteria using an immunoassay technique, such as EIA.",CPT +87340,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test to detect hepatitis B surface antigen, also called HBsAg, using an immunoassay technique, such as EIA.",CPT +87341,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test to confirm the presence of hepatitis B surface antigen, also called HBsAg, using a neutralization enzyme immunoassay technique, such as EIA.",CPT +87350,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test to detect hepatitis B envelope antigen, also called HBeAg, using an immunoassay technique, such as EIA.",CPT +87380,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test to detect antigens of hepatitis, delta agent, also called hepatitis D, using an immunoassay technique, such as EIA.",CPT +87385,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test to detect antigens of the fungus Histoplasma capsulatum using an immunoassay technique, such as EIA.",CPT +87389,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test to screen for human immunodeficiency virus, called HIV. The test screens for antigens of the HIV 1 virus and antibodies to the HIV 1 and HIV 2 viruses using an immunoassay technique, such as EIA. The test reports a single result that does not distinguish between the antigens and antibodies.",CPT +87390,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test to detect antigens of the human immunodeficiency virus 1, called HIV 1, using an immunoassay technique, such as EIA.",CPT +87391,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test to detect antigens of the human immunodeficiency virus 2, called HIV 2, using an immunoassay technique, such as EIA.",CPT +87400,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to detect antigens of influenza A or B using an immunoassay technique, such as EIA. This analysis will distinguish if a patient has influenza A or B.",CPT +87420,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test to detect antigens of respiratory syncytial virus, also called RSV, using an immunoassay technique, such as EIA.",CPT +87425,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test to detect antigens of rotavirus using an immunoassay technique, such as EIA.",CPT +87426,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to qualitatively or semiquantitatively evaluate the patient blood specimen for antigens of severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus such as SARS–CoV–2, which causes coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID–19).",CPT +87427,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"Using an enzyme immunoassay test, such as EIA, the lab analyst performs a test to detect shigalike toxins, which are toxins produced by organisms such as Shigella dysenteriae type 1, or E. coli O157, also called verotoxin–producing E. coli (VTEC).",CPT +87428,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs an immunoassay to qualitatively or semiquantitatively evaluate the patient specimen for antigens of severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) coronavirus, such as SARS–CoV–2 (which causes COVID–19) and SARS–CoV, as well as influenza A and B to help distinguish common viral causes of respiratory illness.",CPT +87430,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs an assay to evaluate the patient’s sample for antigens to Streptococcus, group A, using an immunoassay method, such as EIA.",CPT +87449,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test using immunoassay technique, such as EIA, to detect antigens of an organism not listed in any other immunoassay infectious agent detection code.",CPT +87451,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test to detect antigens of multiple organisms in a single test using an immunoassay technique, such as EIA.",CPT +87467,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,Code describes a test to quantify the level of hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) in the patient serum specimen. A common lab method for this test is chemiluminescence immunoassay. Clinicians may order this test to help monitor the progression of chronic hepatitis B infection and possibly the response to antiviral therapy.,CPT +87468,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"Using an amplified probe technique, the test identifies nucleic acids from the Anaplasma phagocytophilum bacterium, which causes anaplasmosis, a disease transmitted to humans through the bite of an infected tick.",CPT +87469,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"Using an amplified probe technique, the test identifies nucleic acids from a microscopic protozoan parasite, Babesia microti, which may cause babesiosis, a disease transmitted to humans through the bite of an infected tick.",CPT +87471,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,The lab analyst performs a test for Bartonella henselae and Bartonella quintana using amplified nucleic acid probe technique.,CPT +87472,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,The lab analyst performs a test to quantify infection with Bartonella henselae and Bartonella quintana using nucleic acid probe technique.,CPT +87475,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,The lab analyst performs a test for Borrelia burgdorferi using direct nucleic acid probe technique.,CPT +87476,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,The lab analyst performs a test for Borrelia burgdorferi using amplified nucleic acid probe technique.,CPT +87478,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"Using an amplified probe technique, the test identifies nucleic acids from a bacterium, Borrelia miyamotoi, which may cause tickborne relapsing fever (TBRF), a disease transmitted to humans through the bite of an infected tick.",CPT +87480,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,The lab analyst performs a test for Candida species using direct nucleic acid probe technique.,CPT +87481,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,The lab analyst performs a test for Candida species using amplified nucleic acid probe technique.,CPT +87482,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,The lab analyst performs a test to quantify infection with Candida species using nucleic acid probe technique.,CPT +87483,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs the technical steps to detect multiple types or subtypes of possible central nervous system pathogens listed in the code. The analyst uses multiplex amplified probe technique to identify target nucleic acids from these pathogens, and may include multiplex reverse transcription as part of the test procedure.",CPT +87484,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"Using an amplified probe technique, the test identifies nucleic acids from the Ehrlichia chaffeensis bacterium, which causes human monocytic ehrlichiosis (HME), a disease transmitted to humans through the bite of an infected tick.",CPT +87485,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test for Chlamydia pneumoniae using direct nucleic acid probe technique. Chlamydia pneumoniae, also known as TWAR, Taiwan Acute Respiratory agent, commonly causes mild respiratory illness in children and more severe respiratory illness in adults.",CPT +87486,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test for Chlamydia pneumoniae using amplified nucleic acid probe technique. Chlamydia pneumoniae also known as TWAR, Taiwan Acute Respiratory agent, commonly causes mild respiratory illness in children and more severe respiratory illness in adults.",CPT +87487,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test to quantify infection with Chlamydia pneumoniae using nucleic acid probe technique. Chlamydia pneumoniae also known as TWAR, Taiwan Acute Respiratory agent, commonly causes mild respiratory illness in children and more severe respiratory illness in adults.",CPT +87490,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,The lab analyst performs a test for Chlamydia trachomatis using direct nucleic acid probe technique. Chlamydia trachomatis causes a common sexually transmitted disease and certain eye infections.,CPT +87491,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,The lab analyst performs a test for Chlamydia trachomatis using amplified nucleic acid probe technique.,CPT +87492,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,The lab analyst performs a test to quantify infection with Chlamydia trachomatis using nucleic acid probe technique. Chlamydia trachomatis causes a common sexually transmitted disease and certain eye infections.,CPT +87493,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test for Clostridium difficile toxin gene using an amplified nucleic acid probe technique. Clostridium difficile, also called C. diff, commonly causes hospital–acquired diarrhea and colon inflammation.",CPT +87495,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test for cytomegalovirus, or CMV, using direct nucleic acid probe technique. CMV may cause severe illness in newborns and immunocompromised patients.",CPT +87496,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test for cytomegalovirus, or CMV, using amplified nucleic acid probe technique. CMV may cause severe illness in newborns and immunocompromised patients.",CPT +87497,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test to quantify infection with cytomegalovirus, or CMV, using nucleic acid probe technique. CMV may cause severe illness in newborns and immunocompromised patients.",CPT +87498,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,A lab tests a patient’s specimen to provide a definitive diagnosis of meningitis by amplified probe technique.,CPT +87500,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test for vancomycin resistance in an infectious organism’s nucleic acid using amplified probe technique. VRE, vancomycin resistant enterococcus, is the most common organism showing this property. Van A and van B are groups of genes in the organism that allow it to be vancomycin resistant.",CPT +87501,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,The lab analyst performs a test to determine the presence of influenza virus through nucleic acid detection including reverse transcription and amplified probe technique for each type or subtype.,CPT +87502,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,The lab analyst performs a test to determine the presence of multiple types or subtypes of influenza virus through nucleic acid detection using multiplex amplified probe technique and possibly multiplex reverse transcription. Use this code to report the first two types or subtypes.,CPT +87503,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,The lab analyst performs a test to determine the presence of influenza virus through nucleic acid detection including multiplex amplified probe technique and possibly multiplex reverse transcription for each additional influenza virus type or subtype after the detection of the first two types or subtypes.,CPT +87505,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test to detect three to five types or subtypes of a pathogen, such as Clostridium difficile, E. coli, Salmonella, Shigella, norovirus, Giardia, that cause gastrointestinal infections or disorders. He uses nucleic acid detection, which may include multiplex reverse transcription, and multiplex amplified probe technique.",CPT +87506,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test to detect six to eleven types or subtypes of a pathogen, such as Clostridium difficile, E. coli, Salmonella, Shigella, norovirus, Giardia, that cause gastrointestinal infections. He uses nucleic acid detection, which may include multiplex reverse transcription, and multiplex amplified probe technique.",CPT +87507,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test to detect 12 to 25 types or subtypes of a pathogen, such as Clostridium difficile, E. coli, Salmonella, Shigella, norovirus, Giardia, that affects the gastrointestinal tract. He uses nucleic acid detection, which may include multiplex reverse transcription, and multiplex amplified probe technique.",CPT +87510,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test for Gardnerella vaginalis using direct nucleic acid probe technique. Gardnerella vaginalis typically causes bacterial vaginosis, an infection of the vagina that commonly produces an odorous discharge.",CPT +87511,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test for Gardnerella vaginalis using amplified nucleic acid probe technique. Gardnerella vaginalis, typically causes bacterial vaginosis, an infection of the vagina that commonly produces an odorous discharge.",CPT +87512,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test to quantify infection with Gardnerella vaginalis using nucleic acid probe technique. Gardnerella vaginalis, typically causes bacterial vaginosis, an infection of the vagina that commonly produces an odorous discharge.",CPT +87516,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,The lab analyst performs a test for hepatitis B virus using amplified nucleic acid probe technique. Hepatitis B virus (HBV) may cause acute or chronic liver disease.,CPT +87517,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test to quantify infection with hepatitis B virus using nucleic acid probe technique. Hepatitis B virus, HBV, may cause acute or chronic liver disease.",CPT +87520,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,The lab analyst performs a test for hepatitis C using a direct nucleic acid probe technique.,CPT +87521,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,A lab tests a patient’s specimen to provide a definitive diagnosis of hepatitis C by amplified probe technique.,CPT +87522,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,A lab tests a patient’s specimen to measure the amount of hepatitis C virus present. This may be referred to as viral load.,CPT +87523,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"Using a nucleic acid (DNA or RNA) probe technique, the test quantifies the level of hepatitis D (delta) viral particles in the patient specimen, called viral load. Hepatitis D infection occurs only in patients with a current hepatitis B infection and may worsen the symptoms.",CPT +87525,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test for hepatitis G using direct nucleic acid probe technique. Hepatitis G virus, also called HGV or GBV, typically produces asymptomatic infection or a mild form of hepatitis.",CPT +87526,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test for hepatitis G virus using amplified nucleic acid probe technique. Hepatitis G virus, HGV or GBV, typically produces asymptomatic infection or a mild form of hepatitis.",CPT +87527,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test to quantify infection with hepatitis G virus using nucleic acid probe technique. Hepatitis G virus, HGV or GBV, typically produces asymptomatic infection or a mild form of hepatitis.",CPT +87528,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test for Herpes simplex virus, HSV, using direct nucleic acid probe technique on specimens collected from a patient. HSV causes clusters of blisters, called vesicles, on different parts of the body and spreads through person to person contact.",CPT +87529,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test for Herpes simplex virus, HSV, using amplified nucleic acid probe technique. HSV causes clusters of blisters, or vesicles, on different parts of the body and spreads through person to person contact.",CPT +87530,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test to quantify infection with Herpes simplex virus using nucleic acid probe technique. HSV causes clusters of blisters, or vesicles, on different parts of the body and spreads through person to person contact.",CPT +87531,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test for Herpes virus 6 using direct nucleic acid probe technique. Herpes virus 6, also called human herpes virus 6 or HHV6, causes a common childhood rash, roseola, and more serious disease in certain adults.",CPT +87532,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test for Herpes virus 6 using amplified nucleic acid probe technique. Herpes virus 6, also called human herpes virus 6 or HHV6, causes a common childhood rash, roseola, and more serious disease in certain adults.",CPT +87533,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test to quantify infection with Herpes virus 6 using nucleic acid probe technique. Herpes virus 6, also called human herpes virus 6 or HHV6, causes a common childhood rash, roseola, and more serious disease in certain adults.",CPT +87534,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test for HIV1 using direct probe technique. HIV1, human immunodeficiency virus type 1, is the type of HIV that causes most of the AIDS cases.",CPT +87535,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,A lab tests a patient’s specimen to provide a definitive diagnosis of HIV–1 by amplified probe technique.,CPT +87536,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,A lab tests a patient’s specimen to measure the amount of HIV–1 present. This may be referred to as viral load.,CPT +87537,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test for HIV2, human immunodeficiency virus type 2, using direct nucleic acid probe technique. Although related to HIV1, HIV2 develops more slowly and causes milder disease symptoms, such as pneumonia, cryptococcal infections, and tuberculosis.",CPT +87538,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,A lab tests a patient’s specimen to provide a definitive diagnosis of HIV–2 by amplified probe technique.,CPT +87539,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,A lab tests a patient’s specimen to measure the amount of HIV–2 present. This may be referred to as viral load.,CPT +87540,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test for the bacteria Legionella pneumophila using direct nucleic acid probe technique. L. pneumophila can inhabit facility water and air conditioning systems and may cause outbreaks of pneumonia, called Legionnaires’ disease, by the inhalation of aerosolized bacteria in water vapor.",CPT +87541,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test for the bacteria Legionella pneumophila using amplified nucleic acid probe technique. L. pneumophila can inhabit facility water and air conditioning systems and may cause outbreaks of pneumonia, called Legionnaires’ disease, by the inhalation of aerosolized bacteria in water vapor.",CPT +87542,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test to quantify the bacteria Legionella pneumophila using nucleic acid probe technique. L. pneumophila can inhabit facility water and air conditioning systems and may cause outbreaks of pneumonia, called Legionnaires’ disease, by the inhalation of aerosolized bacteria in water vapor.",CPT +87550,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test for Mycobacterium using direct nucleic acid probe technique. Mycobacteria are bacteria, sometimes called acid fast bacteria, because of the special stain necessary to see them on a slide",CPT +87551,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test for the presence of Mycobacterium species using amplified nucleic acid probe technique. Mycobacteria are bacteria, sometimes called acid fast bacteria, because of the special stain necessary to see them on a slide.",CPT +87552,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test to quantify infection with Mycobacterium species using nucleic acid probe technique. Mycobacteria are bacteria, sometimes called acid fast bacteria, because of the special stain necessary to see them on a slide.",CPT +87555,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test for Mycobacterium tuberculosis using direct nucleic acid probe technique. Mycobacteria tuberculosis are bacteria, sometimes called acid fast bacteria, because of the special stain necessary to see them on a slide.",CPT +87556,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,The lab analyst performs a test for Mycobacterium tuberculosis using amplified nucleic acid probe technique. Mycobacteria tuberculosis are sometimes called acid fast bacteria because of the special stain necessary to see them on a slide.,CPT +87557,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test to quantify infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis using nucleic acid probe technique. Mycobacteria tuberculosis are bacteria, sometimes called acid fast bacteria because of the special stain necessary to see it on a slide.",CPT +87560,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test for Mycobacterium avium intracellulare using direct nucleic acid probe technique. Mycobacteria are a bacteria, sometimes called acid fast bacteria because of the special stain necessary to see them on a slide.",CPT +87561,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test for Mycobacterium avium intracellulare, MAI, using amplified nucleic acid probe technique. Mycobacteria are bacteria, sometimes called acid fast bacteria because of the special stain necessary to see them on a slide.",CPT +87562,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test to quantify infection with Mycobacterium avium intracellulare using nucleic acid probe technique. Mycobacteria are bacteria, sometimes called acid fast bacteria because of the special stain necessary to see them on a slide.",CPT +87563,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"he lab analyst performs a test on a patient specimen such as blood, for Mycoplasma genitalium antigen detection using amplified nucleic acid probe technique.",CPT +87580,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test for Mycoplasma pneumonia, a bacteria, using direct nucleic acid probe technique.",CPT +87581,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test for Mycoplasma pneumonia, a bacteria, using amplified nucleic acid probe technique.",CPT +87582,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test to quantify infection with Mycoplasma pneumonia, a bacteria, using nucleic acid probe technique.",CPT +87590,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test for Neisseria gonorrhoeae, a bacteria, using direct nucleic acid probe technique.",CPT +87591,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a lab test for Neisseria gonorrhoeae, also called GC, using amplified nucleic acid probe technique.",CPT +87592,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,The lab analyst performs a test to quantify infection with Neisseria gonorrhoeae using nucleic acid probe technique.,CPT +87593,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"Using a specimen such as a skin–lesion swab, the lab analyst performs an amplified nucleic acid probe test to identify the presence of nucleic acids (DNA or RNA) of an orthopoxvirus organism(s), such as monkeypox virus.",CPT +87623,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test to determine the presence of human papillomavirus, or HPV, using nucleic acid detection for low risk types of the virus, for example, types 6, 11, 42, 43, and 44.",CPT +87624,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test to determine the presence of human papillomavirus, or HPV. He uses nucleic acid detection for high risk types, for example, types 16, 18, 31, 33, 35, 39, 45, 51, 52, 56, 58, 59, and 68.",CPT +87625,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test to determine the presence of human papillomavirus. He uses nucleic acid detection for types 16 and 18, and 45 when performed.",CPT +87631,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs the technical steps to detect three to five types or subtypes of pathogens, such as adenovirus, influenza virus, coronavirus, metapneumovirus, parainfluenza virus, respiratory syncytial virus, and rhinovirus, that cause respiratory infections. He uses nucleic acid detection, which includes multiplex reverse transcription when performed, and multiplex amplified probe technique.",CPT +87632,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,The lab analyst performs a test to identify a respiratory virus using an amplified nucleic acid probe technique. He may also use the multiplex reverse transcription technique. The provider does this for six to eleven target viruses.,CPT +87633,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,The lab analyst performs a test to identify a respiratory virus using amplified nucleic acid probe technique. He may also use a multiplex reverse transcription technique. The provider does this for 12 to 25 target viruses.,CPT +87634,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,The lab analyst performs a test for respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) antigen detection using amplified nucleic acid probe technique.,CPT +87635,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"Using an amplified nucleic acid probe technique, the lab analyst performs the necessary steps to identify the nucleic acids from the severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS–COV–2) virus ), which causes coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID–19).",CPT +87636,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs the technical steps to detect and differentiate severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS–CoV–2), influenza A, and influenza B using a multiplex amplified nucleic acid probe technique.",CPT +87637,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs the technical steps to detect and differentiate severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS–CoV–2), influenza A, influenza B, and respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) using a multiplex amplified nucleic acid probe technique.",CPT +87640,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to look for Staphylococcus aureus nucleic acid using an amplified probe technique.,CPT +87641,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,The lab analyst performs a test for methicillin–resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) using an amplified nucleic acid probe technique.,CPT +87650,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,The lab analyst performs a test for Streptococcus group A using direct nucleic acid probe technique.,CPT +87651,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test for the bacteria Streptococcus, group A, using amplified nucleic acid probe technique. Strep A commonly causes acute pharyngitis, or strep throat.",CPT +87652,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test to quantify infection with Streptococcus, group A, using nucleic acid probe technique.",CPT +87653,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test for Streptococcus, group B, using amplified nucleic acid probe technique. The amplified probe provides a rapid means to assess colonization by Streptococcus, group B, as in the vaginal tracts of pregnant women.",CPT +87660,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,The lab analyst performs a test for Trichomonas vaginalis using direct nucleic acid probe technique.,CPT +87661,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,The lab analyst performs a test for Trichomonas vaginalis using nucleic acid amplified probe technique.,CPT +87662,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,The lab analyst performs a test for Zika virus antigen detection using amplified nucleic acid probe technique.,CPT +87797,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test for an infectious agent, not otherwise specified in another code, in the specimen using direct nucleic acid probe technique. Use this code if you know the laboratory technique is direct probe technique but do not find a code for the specific infectious agent.",CPT +87798,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test for an infectious agent not specified in another code using an amplified nucleic acid probe technique. Use this code if you know the laboratory technique is amplified probe technique, but do not find a code for the specific infectious agent.",CPT +87799,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs a test to quantify infection with an infectious agent, not otherwise specified in another code, using a nucleic acid probe technique. Use this code if you know the laboratory technique being used is for quantification but do not find a code for the specific infectious agent.",CPT +87800,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,The lab analyst performs a test for multiple infectious organisms in one sample using direct nucleic acid probe technique.,CPT +87801,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,The lab analyst performs a test for multiple infectious agents using amplified nucleic acid probe technique.,CPT +87802,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze for the presence of Streptococcus group B by immunoassay with direct optical, meaning visual, observation.",CPT +87803,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze for Clostridium difficile toxin A by immunoassay with direct optical, meaning visual, observation.",CPT +87804,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The analyst performs an immunoassay with direct optical, meaning visual, observation to detect influenza, also called flu, in a patient sample, typically a throat or nasal swab or nasal washings.",CPT +87806,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,The lab analyst may conduct tests to identify the presence of HIV type 1 or type 2 strain in the patient’s blood.,CPT +87807,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze for the presence of respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) in a specimen by immunoassay using direct optical, meaning visual, observation.",CPT +87808,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze for the presence of Trichomonas vaginalis by immunoassay with direct optical, meaning visual, observation.",CPT +87809,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze for the presence of adenovirus antigen using immunoassay with direct optical, meaning visual, observation.",CPT +87810,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze for the presence of Chlamydia trachomatis by immunoassay and direct optical, meaning visual, observation in a specimen.",CPT +87811,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze for the presence of severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS–CoV–2) (Coronavirus disease [COVID–19]) in a specimen by immunoassay using direct optical, meaning visual, observation.",CPT +87850,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze for the presence of Neisseria gonorrhoeae in a specimen using immunoassay and direct optical, meaning visual, observation.",CPT +87880,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The analyst performs an immunoassay with direct optical, meaning visual, observation to detect Streptococcus, group A, in a patient sample, typically a throat swab.",CPT +87899,Infectious Agent Antigen Detection.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze for an infectious agent by immunoassay with direct optical, meaning visual, observation; use this code for those infectious organisms not specifically identified by another analysis code.",CPT +87900,Phenotype and Genotype-Infectious Agents.,The lab analyst measures a patient’s susceptibility or resistance to drugs aimed at a virus. The test predicts the behavior of the phenotype based on comparing patient data to regularly updated genotypic bioinformatics. The clinician can use the information to help in deciding which drugs to prescribe.,CPT +87901,Phenotype and Genotype-Infectious Agents.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the patient specimen, typically serum, for the reverse transcriptase and protease regions of the specific genotype of the virus causing the patient's HIV 1 infection.",CPT +87902,Phenotype and Genotype-Infectious Agents.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the specific genotype by nucleic acid of a specimen containing hepatitis C virus.,CPT +87903,Phenotype and Genotype-Infectious Agents.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the nucleic acids from a sample of tissue from an HIV 1 positive patient to determine drug resistance through culture analysis for up to the first 10 drugs tested.,CPT +87904,Phenotype and Genotype-Infectious Agents.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the nucleic acids from a sample of tissue from an HIV 1–positive patient to determine drug resistance through culture analysis. Use this code for each additional drug the lab tests after the first 10.,CPT +87905,Phenotype and Genotype-Infectious Agents.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze enzymatic activity of an infectious agent, other than a virus.",CPT +87906,Phenotype and Genotype-Infectious Agents.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the genotype of an HIV 1 virus by nucleic acid for regions other than the reverse transcriptase and protease regions, for example, the integrase gene or fusion gene.",CPT +87910,Phenotype and Genotype-Infectious Agents.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze the genotype of cytomegalovirus, CMV, by nucleic acid.",CPT +87912,Phenotype and Genotype-Infectious Agents.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a specimen containing hepatitis B virus by genotype analysis using nucleic acid, DNA or RNA.",CPT +87913,Phenotype and Genotype-Infectious Agents.,Code describes genotype analysis using a specimen from a patient with confirmed severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS–CoV–2) infection. The test uses next–generation sequencing to identify virus mutations that could impact disease transmissibility or severity.,CPT +87999,Phenotype and Genotype-Infectious Agents.,Use to report microbiology procedures that do not have a specific code.,CPT +88000,Postmortem Examination Procedures.,The provider examines the body after death using the naked eye rather than a microscope. This code does not include an examination of the central nervous system.,CPT +88005,Postmortem Examination Procedures.,"The provider performs a gross analysis of a body after death, including examining the brain.",CPT +88007,Postmortem Examination Procedures.,"The provider performs a gross analysis of a body after death, including examining the brain and spinal cord.",CPT +88012,Postmortem Examination Procedures.,"The provider performs a gross analysis of an infant after death, including the brain.",CPT +88014,Postmortem Examination Procedures.,"The provider performs a gross analysis of a stillborn or newborn after death, including the brain.",CPT +88016,Postmortem Examination Procedures.,The provider performs a gross analysis of a macerated stillborn.,CPT +88020,Postmortem Examination Procedures.,"The provider performs the technical steps to analyze a body after death, with both gross and microscopic examination, excluding the central nervous system (CNS).",CPT +88025,Postmortem Examination Procedures.,"The provider performs the technical steps to analyze a body after death, gross and microscopic examination, including the brain.",CPT +88027,Postmortem Examination Procedures.,"The provider performs the technical steps to analyze a body after death, using gross and microscopic examination, including the brain and spinal cord.",CPT +88028,Postmortem Examination Procedures.,"The provider performs the technical steps to analyze the body of an infant, including the brain, after death using gross and microscopic examination.",CPT +88029,Postmortem Examination Procedures.,"The provider performs a gross and microscopic analysis of a stillborn or newborn after death, including the brain.",CPT +88036,Postmortem Examination Procedures.,"The provider performs a gross examination, microscopic examination, or both of one region of the body after death.",CPT +88037,Postmortem Examination Procedures.,"The provider performs a gross examination, microscopic examination, or both of one organ of the body after death.",CPT +88040,Postmortem Examination Procedures.,"The analyst, typically a pathologist, performs a forensic necropsy, also called an autopsy or post mortem exam, that consists of an external and internal examination of a body to determine a cause, manner, and time of death or injury and establish the identity of the body, if unknown.",CPT +88045,Postmortem Examination Procedures.,The coroner responds to a call to certify a death.,CPT +88099,Postmortem Examination Procedures.,Use code to report postmortem examination procedures not represented by any of the standard and active codes available.,CPT +88104,"Fluid washings, Hybridization and Sex Chromatin Identification Procedures.","The analyst prepares smears of cytopathology fluids, washings, or brushings, except for cervical or vaginal fluid, and interprets his findings. Cytopathology is the study of cellular changes in disease states, such as cancer, infection, or inflammation.",CPT +88106,"Fluid washings, Hybridization and Sex Chromatin Identification Procedures.","The analyst prepares smears of cytopathology fluids, washings, or brushings, except for cervical or vaginal fluid, using a simple filter method and interprets his findings. Cytopathology is the study of cellular changes in disease states, such as cancer, infection, or inflammation.",CPT +88108,"Fluid washings, Hybridization and Sex Chromatin Identification Procedures.","The analyst prepares smears of cytopathology fluids, washings, or brushings, except for cervical or vaginal fluid, using a concentration technique and interprets his findings. Cytopathology is the study of cellular changes in disease states, such as cancer, infection, or inflammation.",CPT +88112,"Fluid washings, Hybridization and Sex Chromatin Identification Procedures.","Selective cellular enhancement for cytopathology, such as the method of using a liquid–based slide preparation, uses a liquid–based medium to collect samples and preserve cells which can aid in sampling and prevent errors in collection.",CPT +88120,"Fluid washings, Hybridization and Sex Chromatin Identification Procedures.","The lab analyst performs a technical lab test on a urinary tract specimen using in situ hybridization and three to five molecular probes for manual morphometric analysis, looking at the number and form of the structures in the cells.",CPT +88121,"Fluid washings, Hybridization and Sex Chromatin Identification Procedures.","The lab analyst performs a technical lab test on a urinary tract specimen using in situ hybridization and three to five molecular probes for computer assisted morphometric analysis, looking at the number and form of the structures in the cells.",CPT +88125,"Fluid washings, Hybridization and Sex Chromatin Identification Procedures.",The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a cytopathology specimen for forensic analysis.,CPT +88130,"Fluid washings, Hybridization and Sex Chromatin Identification Procedures.","The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze sex chromatin in a cell for the presence of Barr bodies, which may help in determining the sex of a patient.",CPT +88140,"Fluid washings, Hybridization and Sex Chromatin Identification Procedures.",The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a peripheral blood smear to look for polymorphonuclear drumsticks indicating sex chromatin identification. A polymorphonuclear drumstick is a protrusion made up of a coiled female X chromosome in the nucleus of a type of white blood cell.,CPT +88141,Cytopathology Screening Procedures.,"The physician analyzes and interprets a cervical or vaginal cytopathology specimen, using any reporting system, such as Bethesda or non–Bethesda. This code is for the professional interpretation by the physician, not for the test method.",CPT +88142,Cytopathology Screening Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a cervical or vaginal cytopathology specimen that a clinician collected in preservative fluid. The test uses automated thin layer preparation for the specimen followed by manual screening under a physician’s supervision. The test may apply to any reporting system, such as Bethesda or non–Bethesda.",CPT +88143,Cytopathology Screening Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a cervical or vaginal cytopathology specimen that a clinician collected in preservative fluid. The test uses automated thin layer preparation for the specimen followed by manual screening and rescreening under a physician’s supervision. The test may apply to any reporting system, such as Bethesda or non–Bethesda.",CPT +88147,Cytopathology Screening Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to screen a cervical or vaginal cytopathology smear under a physician’s supervision. This code is for one screening using an automated system.,CPT +88148,Cytopathology Screening Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to screen a cervical or vaginal cytopathology smear with an automated system followed by a manual rescreening. The analyst performs this service under a physician’s supervision.,CPT +88150,Cytopathology Screening Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a cervical or vaginal cytopathology slide manually under a physician’s supervision.,CPT +88152,Cytopathology Screening Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a cervical or vaginal cytopathology slide manually, and then she rescreens the same slide using computer assistance. She performs the test under a physician’s supervision.",CPT +88153,Cytopathology Screening Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a cervical or vaginal cytopathology slide manually, and she then rescreens the same slide again manually. She performs the test under a physician’s supervision.",CPT +88155,Cytopathology Screening Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze cervical or vaginal cytopathology slides to definitively evaluate the patient’s hormones. The analyst may perform this evaluation by a number of methods that can include maturation index, karyopyknotic index, and estrogenic index. The analyst performs this exam in addition to codes for other technical and interpretation services.",CPT +88160,Cytopathology Screening Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a cytopathology smear for screening and interpretation purposes. Specific codes are available for cervical, vaginal, fine needle aspirates, body fluids, washings, etc., and you should use only if there is no other more specific code available.",CPT +88161,Cytopathology Screening Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to prepare and analyze a cytopathology smear for screening and interpretation purposes. Specific codes are available for cervical, vaginal, fine needle aspirates, body fluids, washings, etc., and you should use only if there is no other more specific code available.",CPT +88162,Cytopathology Screening Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze smears. This test involves more than five slides, multiple stains, or both. Specific codes are available for cervical, vaginal, fine needle aspirates, body fluids, washings, etc., and you should use only if there is no other more specific code available.",CPT +88164,Cytopathology Screening Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a cervical or vaginal cytopathology slide by screening it manually. He performs the test under a physician’s supervision and reports the results using the Bethesda System.,CPT +88165,Cytopathology Screening Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a cervical or vaginal cytopathology slide manually, and she then rescreens the same slide again manually. She performs the test under a physician’s supervision and uses the Bethesda System to report the results.",CPT +88166,Cytopathology Screening Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a cervical or vaginal cytopathology slide manually, and then she rescreens the same slide using computer assistance. She performs the test under a physician’s supervision and uses the Bethesda System to report the results.",CPT +88167,Cytopathology Screening Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a cervical or vaginal cytopathology slide manually; she then rescreens the same slide using computer assistance with additional cell selection and review. She performs the test under a physician’s supervision and uses the Bethesda System to report the results. The cell selection computer assistance allows the analyst to search for a specific type of cell based on cell characteristics.,CPT +88172,FNA Cytopathology Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a cytopathology specimen from a fine needle aspirate immediately after aspiration to determine whether a sample satisfactory for diagnosis was obtained.,CPT +88173,FNA Cytopathology Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a cytopathology specimen from a fine needle aspirate and then interprets and reports the results.,CPT +88174,FNA Cytopathology Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a cervical or vaginal cytopathology specimen that a clinician collected in preservative fluid. The test uses automated thin layer preparation for the specimen followed by screening using an automated system under a physician’s supervision. The test may apply to any reporting system, such as Bethesda or non–Bethesda.",CPT +88175,FNA Cytopathology Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a cervical or vaginal cytopathology specimen that a clinician collected in preservative fluid. The test uses automated thin layer preparation for the specimen followed by screening with an automated system and manually rescreening or review, all under a physician’s supervision. The test may apply to any reporting system, such as Bethesda or non–Bethesda.",CPT +88177,FNA Cytopathology Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a cytopathology specimen from a fine needle aspirate to determine immediately whether a satisfactory sample is present to allow for diagnosis; this code is for each separate additional evaluation episode after the first on the same site.,CPT +88182,Flow Cytometry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a flow cytometry procedure to analyze the cell cycle or DNA of a patient’s specimen, such as tumor tissue, body fluid, blood, bone marrow, or urine. The analysis may provide diagnostic and treatment information about a malignancy.",CPT +88184,Flow Cytometry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical component of a flow cytometry procedure using a cell surface, cytoplasmic, or nuclear marker to characterize cells and aid clinicians in diagnosing patients with conditions such as cancer or immune dysfunctions. This procedure code includes the first marker only.",CPT +88185,Flow Cytometry Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical component of a flow cytometry procedure using cell surface, cytoplasmic, or nuclear markers to characterize cells and aid clinicians in diagnosing patients with conditions such as certain cancers or immune dysfunctions. This procedure code is an add on code you use for additional markers after the first one.",CPT +88187,Flow Cytometry Procedures.,"The clinician, typically a pathologist, interprets flow cytometry results of two to eight markers.",CPT +88188,Flow Cytometry Procedures.,"The clinician, typically a pathologist, interprets flow cytometry results of nine to 15 markers.",CPT +88189,Flow Cytometry Procedures.,"The clinician, typically a pathologist, interprets flow cytometry results of 16 or more markers.",CPT +88199,Unlisted Cytopathology Procedure.,Use to report procedures in cytopathology that do not have a specific code.,CPT +88230,Cytogenetic Studies.,"The lab analyst performs a procedure to grow a tissue culture for lymphocytes in a nonneoplastic disorder, typically using blood. Lymphocytes, a type of white blood cell, function as part of the immune system and produce antibodies.",CPT +88233,Cytogenetic Studies.,The lab analyst performs a procedure to grow a tissue culture of cells from skin or other solid tissue biopsy in a nonneoplastic disorder.,CPT +88235,Cytogenetic Studies.,"The lab analyst prepares a tissue culture for nonneoplastic disorders using amniotic fluid or chorionic villus cells. In this process, fetal cells in amniotic fluid, which is fluid surrounding the developing fetus, and in the chorionic villi, which are the tiny projections on the outer layer of the fetal sac, multiply in a tissue culture for subsequent use in chromosome analysis.",CPT +88237,Cytogenetic Studies.,The lab analyst performs a procedure to grow a culture of cells from bone marrow or blood in a neoplastic disorder.,CPT +88239,Cytogenetic Studies.,The lab analyst performs a procedure to grow a culture of cells from a solid tumor in a neoplastic disorder.,CPT +88240,Cytogenetic Studies.,"The analyst freezes and stores a cell line using cryopreservation, a method of stabilizing a cell line by freezing and storing it at very low temperatures. Freezing preserves samples of cells for future use or testing.",CPT +88241,Cytogenetic Studies.,"The analyst thaws and expands previously frozen cells in a single aliquot, which is a small portion of the original cell sample.",CPT +88245,Cytogenetic Studies.,"The lab analyst performs a chromosome analysis using cultured lymphocyte cells from blood or bone marrow for Sister Chromatid Exchange, SCE, a chromosomal breakage characteristic, and evaluates 20 to 25 cells for this feature. Chromosomes are DNA containing structures in cells.",CPT +88248,Cytogenetic Studies.,"The lab analyst performs a chromosome analysis for a breakage syndrome and scores 50 to 100 cells, counts 20 cells, and prepares two karyotypes. Chromosomes are DNA containing structures in cells. Breakage syndromes cause instability of DNA in disorders such as ataxia telangiectasia, a multisystem condition affecting walking and the immune system; Fanconi anemia, a condition with decreased amounts of all blood cells and growth impairment; and fragile X, a genetic defect causing mental retardation.",CPT +88249,Cytogenetic Studies.,"The lab analyst performs a chromosome analysis for a breakage syndrome and scores 100 cells for clastogen stress using diepoxybutane, mitomycin C, ionizing radiation, UV radiation, or another method. A clastogen causes breaks or disorder in chromosomes to help reveal underlying genetic disorders. Chromosomes are DNA containing structures in cells.",CPT +88261,Cytogenetic Studies.,"The analyst performs a chromosome analysis, a test that examines a person’s genetic material for abnormalities, counts five cells, and makes one karyotype with banding, a picture of the actual chromosomes.",CPT +88262,Cytogenetic Studies.,"The analyst performs a chromosome analysis, a test that examines a person’s genetic material for abnormalities, counts 15 to 20 cells, and makes two karyotypes with banding, which are pictures of the actual chromosomes.",CPT +88263,Cytogenetic Studies.,"The analyst performs a chromosome analysis, a test that examines a person’s genetic material for abnormalities, and counts 45 cells for mosaicism. He makes two karyotypes with banding, which are pictures of the actual chromosomes.",CPT +88264,Cytogenetic Studies.,The analyst performs a chromosome analysis and analyzes 20 to 25 cells. The analysis includes counting the number of chromosomes in each cell and preparing a karyotype for each cell examined.,CPT +88267,Cytogenetic Studies.,"The analyst performs chromosome analysis of cells from amniotic fluid cells or chorionic villus, counts 15 cells, and prepares one karyotype, with banding. Amniotic fluid surrounds a developing fetus and chorionic villi have small projections that form part of the placenta.",CPT +88269,Cytogenetic Studies.,"The analyst performs chromosome analysis of cultured amniotic fluid cells in situ, counts cells from six to 12 colonies, and prepares one karyotype, with banding. In situ analysis means examining the cells directly on the surface they grow on.",CPT +88271,Cytogenetic Studies.,"The analyst performs a molecular cytogenetic test using a DNA probe method, such as FISH, fluorescence in situ hybridization, to test cells for genetic abnormalities.",CPT +88272,Cytogenetic Studies.,"The analyst performs a molecular cytogenetic test using chromosomal in situ hybridization to analyze three to five cells, typically from amniotic fluid or blood. A method such as fluorescence in situ hybridization, FISH, tests cells for genetic abnormalities such as derivatives and markers, which are specific rearrangements and additions of genetic material.",CPT +88273,Cytogenetic Studies.,"The analyst performs a molecular cytogenetic test using chromosomal in situ hybridization to analyze 10 to 30 cells, typically from amniotic fluid, blood, or tissue. A method such as fluorescence in situ hybridization, FISH, tests cells for genetic abnormalities such as a microdeletion, a loss of a small piece of a chromosome.",CPT +88274,Cytogenetic Studies.,The analyst performs a molecular cytogenetic test using interphase in situ hybridization and analyzes 25 to 99 cells. Interphase refers to a period of time when a cell is not dividing and chromosomes are closely bundled together and indistinguishable from each other.,CPT +88275,Cytogenetic Studies.,The analyst performs a molecular cytogenetic test using interphase in situ hybridization and analyzes 100 to 300 cells. Interphase refers to a period of time when a cell is not dividing and chromosomes are closely bundled together and indistinguishable from each other.,CPT +88280,Cytogenetic Studies.,"After the analyst performs an initial chromosome analysis with karyotype, he performs additional karyotypes.",CPT +88283,Cytogenetic Studies.,"The analyst performs additional specialized banding techniques, such as nucleolar organizer region staining, called NOR, or C banding, with a chromosome analysis procedure. Special banding techniques highlight specific chromosome features for analysis.",CPT +88285,Cytogenetic Studies.,"The analyst performs a chromosome analysis and counts cells for abnormalities as described by a separately reportable code. For , he then counts additional cells as needed.",CPT +88289,Cytogenetic Studies.,The analyst performs an additional high resolution study with a chromosome analysis procedure. High resolution studies detect chromosome features too small to visualize during routine chromosome analysis.,CPT +88291,Cytogenetic Studies.,"A qualified provider, typically a pathologist, submits an interpretation and report of cytogenetic and molecular cytogenetic testing commonly performed by lab analysts.",CPT +88299,Cytogenetic Studies.,Use to report cytogenetic procedures that do not have a specific code.,CPT +88300,Surgical Pathology Procedures.,"The physician, typically a pathologist, performs a level I examination of a surgical pathology specimen. The examination includes accessioning the specimen into the lab, which involves formally receiving the specimen, and then examining gross features of the specimen and reporting findings.",CPT +88302,Surgical Pathology Procedures.,"The physician, typically a pathologist, performs a level II examination of a surgical pathology specimen. The examination includes accessioning the specimen into the lab, which involves formally receiving the specimen, and then examining the gross and microscopic features of the specimen and reporting findings.",CPT +88304,Surgical Pathology Procedures.,"The physician, typically a pathologist, performs a level III examination of a surgical pathology specimen. The examination includes accessioning the specimen into the lab, which involves formally receiving the specimen, and then examining gross and microscopic features of the specimen and reporting findings.",CPT +88305,Surgical Pathology Procedures.,"The physician, typically a pathologist, performs a level IV examination of a surgical pathology specimen. The examination includes accessioning the specimen into the lab, which involves formally receiving the specimen, and then examining gross and microscopic features of the specimen and reporting findings.",CPT +88307,Surgical Pathology Procedures.,"The physician, typically a pathologist, performs a level V examination of a surgical pathology specimen. The examination includes accessioning the specimen into the lab, which involves formally receiving the specimen, and then examining gross and microscopic features of the specimen and reporting findings.",CPT +88309,Surgical Pathology Procedures.,"The physician, typically a pathologist, performs a level VI examination of a surgical pathology specimen. The examination includes accessioning the specimen into the lab, which involves formally receiving the specimen, and then examining gross and microscopic features of the specimen and reporting findings.",CPT +88311,Surgical Pathology Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a decalcification procedure on a specimen. Dissolving the calcium makes it easier to perform certain examinations.,CPT +88312,Surgical Pathology Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab steps to stain a specimen with a special stain. This code applies to Group I for microorganisms. A qualified provider, typically a pathologist, interprets the slide and issues a report.",CPT +88313,Surgical Pathology Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab steps to stain a specimen for Group II identification, for example an iron stain or trichrome stain. A qualified provider, typically a pathologist, interprets the slide and issues a report. This code does not include staining for microorganisms, enzyme constituents, or for the antigen–antibody tests of immunochemistry or immunohistochemistry.",CPT +88314,Surgical Pathology Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab steps to perform a histochemical stain on a frozen tissue block; this code also includes interpretation and a report. You should report this code separately for each special stain performed and for each separate frozen surgical pathology block.,CPT +88319,Surgical Pathology Procedures.,"A qualified provider, typically a pathologist, performs a special stain, including interpretation and report, for enzyme constituents of a patient specimen, such as a biopsy, blood, or bone marrow.",CPT +88321,Surgical Pathology Procedures.,"A qualified provider, typically a pathologist, provides consultation and a report on slides prepared elsewhere. A unit of service is the surgical case regardless of the number of slides received.",CPT +88323,Surgical Pathology Procedures.,"A qualified provider, typically a pathologist, provides consultation and a report on referred material, such as a tissue block, and prepares and stains slides. A unit of service is the surgical case regardless of the material received.",CPT +88325,Surgical Pathology Procedures.,"A qualified provider, typically a pathologist, provides a comprehensive consultation, with review of records and specimens, and prepares a report on referred material, such as a tissue block or slides. A unit of service is the surgical case regardless of the material received.",CPT +88329,Surgical Pathology Procedures.,A pathologist provides a consultation during surgery to assist the surgeon in evaluating a specimen or advising on a course of action.,CPT +88331,Surgical Pathology Procedures.,"Pathological, or intraoperative, consultation provides necessary and precise information pertaining to diagnosis and prognosis which aid a surgeon in deciding whether to proceed further or not during surgery.",CPT +88332,Surgical Pathology Procedures.,Pathology consultation during surgery provides necessary and precise information pertaining to diagnosis and prognosis that aids a surgeon in deciding whether to proceed further during surgery. Frozen sections enable a pathologist and surgeon to make timely decisions during an operation. Use this code for each additional tissue block with frozen sections.,CPT +88333,Surgical Pathology Procedures.,"Pathology consultation during surgery provides necessary and precise information pertaining to diagnosis and prognosis that aids a surgeon in deciding whether to proceed further during surgery. Cytologic examinations, microscopic examinations of cells, such as touch or squash preps of the initial site, provide rapid evaluation of tissue that enables a pathologist and surgeon to make timely decisions during a procedure.",CPT +88334,Surgical Pathology Procedures.,"Pathology consultation during surgery provides necessary and precise information pertaining to diagnosis and prognosis that aids a surgeon in deciding whether to proceed further during surgery. Cytologic examinations, such as touch or squash preps of each additional site, provide rapid evaluation of tissue that enables a pathologist and surgeon to make timely decisions during a procedure. Use this code for each additional site after the first.",CPT +88341,Surgical Pathology Procedures.,"The lab analyst applies an additional single antibody stain on a slide or slides prepared from the same patient specimen as the initial antibody stain, such as tumor tissue. Then a qualified provider, typically a pathologist, interprets the stained slides to provide a pathologic diagnosis.",CPT +88342,Surgical Pathology Procedures.,"The lab analyst applies an initial single antibody stain on a slide or slides prepared from a single patient specimen, such as tumor tissue. Then a qualified provider, typically a pathologist, interprets the stained slides to provide a pathologic diagnosis.",CPT +88344,Surgical Pathology Procedures.,"The lab analyst applies a single multiplex antibody stain on a slide or slides prepared from a single patient specimen, such as tumor tissue. Then a qualified provider, typically a pathologist, interprets the stained slides to provide a pathologic diagnosis.",CPT +88346,Surgical Pathology Procedures.,The analyst performs an immunofluorescent study using a single antibody stain procedure to detect autoimmune disease or an infectious organism in a tissue or cellular sample.,CPT +88348,Surgical Pathology Procedures.,"The analyst performs a procedure using a diagnostic electron microscope, which is a conventional transmission electron microscope, CTEM, to evaluate a patient’s specimen such as kidney biopsies, muscles, or tumors.",CPT +88350,Surgical Pathology Procedures.,The analyst performs an immunofluorescent study using a single antibody stain procedure to detect autoimmune disease or an infectious organism in a tissue or cellular sample. Code + describes the procedure for a single antibody stain following an initial stain with a different antibody.,CPT +88355,Surgical Pathology Procedures.,"After a lab analyst prepares slides, the qualified provider, typically a pathologist, performs a morphometric analysis of skeletal muscle to evaluate the size, shape, and other physical features of skeletal muscle.",CPT +88356,Surgical Pathology Procedures.,"After a lab analyst prepares slides, the qualified provider, typically a pathologist, performs a morphometric analysis to evaluate size, shape, and other physical features of a nerve.",CPT +88358,Surgical Pathology Procedures.,"The clinician, typically a pathologist, performs a morphometric analysis of a tumor to evaluate the DNA ploidy, which is the chromosome content, of the tumor cells, as well as size, shape, and other features.",CPT +88360,Surgical Pathology Procedures.,"The lab analyst applies a single antibody stain on a slide or slides prepared from a single patient specimen, such as tumor tissue. Then a qualified provider, typically a pathologist, evaluates the stained slides, including manually counting or estimating the number of stained cells, and interprets the results to provide a pathologic diagnosis.",CPT +88361,Surgical Pathology Procedures.,"The lab analyst applies a single antibody stain on a slide or slides prepared from a single patient specimen, such as tumor tissue. The lab analyst processes the slides using computer assisted technology that counts or estimates the number of stained cells. Then a qualified provider, typically a pathologist, evaluates the stained slides and the results of the computer enumeration, and interprets the results to provide a pathologic diagnosis.",CPT +88362,Surgical Pathology Procedures.,"The analyst performs a procedure to examine a nerve biopsy specimen using nerve teasing preparations, a histological method of preparing and isolating a nerve for microscopic examination.",CPT +88363,Surgical Pathology Procedures.,"A pathologist performs a procedure to examine and select archived, or previously diagnosed, tissue for molecular analysis.",CPT +88364,Surgical Pathology Procedures.,"The lab analyst applies an additional in situ hybridization single probe stain on a slide or slides prepared from the same patient specimen as the initial probe stain, such as tumor tissue. Then a qualified provider, typically a pathologist, qualitatively interprets the stained slides to provide a pathologic diagnosis.",CPT +88365,Surgical Pathology Procedures.,"The lab analyst applies an initial in situ hybridization single probe stain on a slide or slides prepared from a single patient specimen, such as tumor tissue. Then a qualified provider, typically a pathologist, qualitatively interprets the stained slides to provide a pathologic diagnosis.",CPT +88366,Surgical Pathology Procedures.,"The lab analyst applies a single in situ hybridization multiplex probe stain on a slide or slides prepared from a single patient specimen, such as tumor tissue. Then a qualified provider, typically a pathologist, qualitatively interprets the stained slides to provide a pathologic diagnosis.",CPT +88367,Surgical Pathology Procedures.,"The lab analyst applies an initial in situ hybridization single probe stain on a slide or slides prepared from a single patient specimen, such as tumor tissue. The lab analyst processes the slides using computer assisted technology that counts or estimates the number of probes. Then a qualified provider, typically a pathologist, evaluates the stained slides and the results of the computer enumeration, and interprets the results to provide a pathologic diagnosis.",CPT +88368,Surgical Pathology Procedures.,"The lab analyst applies an initial in situ hybridization single probe stain on a slide or slides prepared from a single patient specimen, such as tumor tissue. Then a qualified provider, typically a pathologist, evaluates the stained slides, including manually counting or estimating the number and location of probes.",CPT +88369,Surgical Pathology Procedures.,"The lab analyst applies an additional in situ hybridization single probe stain on a slide or slides prepared from the same patient specimen as the initial probe stain, such as tumor tissue. Then a qualified provider, typically a pathologist, evaluates the stained slides, including manually counting or estimating the number and location of probes.",CPT +88371,Surgical Pathology Procedures.,"The analyst performs a protein analysis of tissue, typically muscle tissue, using Western blot method. This code includes an interpretation and report.",CPT +88372,Surgical Pathology Procedures.,"The analyst performs a protein analysis of tissue, such as skin tissue, using Western blot method with immunological probes for band identification. The analysis also includes an interpretation and report.",CPT +88373,Surgical Pathology Procedures.,"The lab analyst applies an additional in situ hybridization single probe stain on a slide or slides prepared from the same patient specimen as the initial probe stain, such as tumor tissue. The lab analyst processes the slides using computer assisted technology that counts or estimates the number of probes. Then a qualified provider, typically a pathologist, evaluates the stained slides and the results of the computer enumeration, and interprets the results to provide a pathologic diagnosis.",CPT +88374,Surgical Pathology Procedures.,"The lab analyst applies a single multiplex in situ hybridization probe stain on a slide or slides prepared from a single patient specimen, such as tumor tissue. The lab analyst processes the slides using computer assisted technology that counts or estimates the number of probes. Then a qualified provider, typically a pathologist, evaluates the stained slides and the results of the computer enumeration, and interprets the results to provide a pathologic diagnosis.",CPT +88375,Surgical Pathology Procedures.,"A qualified provider, typically a pathologist, provides an interpretation and report of real time or referred endomicroscopic imaging, a procedure performed by an endoscopist  also called an optical biopsy.",CPT +88377,Surgical Pathology Procedures.,"The lab analyst applies a single multiplex in situ hybridization probe stain on a slide or slides prepared from a single patient specimen, such as tumor tissue. Then a qualified provider, typically a pathologist, evaluates the stained slides, including manually counting or estimating the number and location of probes.",CPT +88380,Surgical Pathology Procedures.,The analyst uses a laser to obtain desired cells from microscopic tissue sections for further study.,CPT +88381,Surgical Pathology Procedures.,"A clinician, typically a pathologist, performs a manual microdissection of a patient’s specimen, such as a biopsy or tissue preserved from a previous case.",CPT +88387,Surgical Pathology Procedures.,"The analyst performs all the technical steps to examine a tissue specimen using normal sight, dissect out the part of the specimen needed for testing, and then prepare the tissue for nonmicroscopic analysis.",CPT +88388,Surgical Pathology Procedures.,"The analyst performs all the technical steps to examine a tissue specimen using normal sight, dissect out the part of the specimen needed for testing, and then prepare the tissue for nonmicroscopic analysis. This code also includes a touch imprint, intraoperative consultation, or frozen section. Use this code for each separate tissue preparation. This is an add on code, so you must list it separately in addition to the code for the primary procedure.",CPT +88399,Surgical Pathology Procedures.,Use to report surgical pathology procedures that do not have a specific code.,CPT +88720,"In Vivo (eg, Transcutaneous) Laboratory Procedures.",The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to determine the amount of bilirubin without puncturing the skin. The result is a number or a number range.,CPT +88738,"In Vivo (eg, Transcutaneous) Laboratory Procedures.","The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to measure the hemoglobin level in a patient transcutaneously, a method that does not puncture the skin. The result is a number.",CPT +88740,"In Vivo (eg, Transcutaneous) Laboratory Procedures.","An analyst performs a quantitative procedure to evaluate carboxyhemoglobin using a transcutaneous, or through the skin, procedure. Report this code only once per day.",CPT +88741,"In Vivo (eg, Transcutaneous) Laboratory Procedures.","An analyst performs a quantitative procedure to evaluate methemoglobin using a transcutaneous, or through the skin, procedure. Report this code only once per day.",CPT +88749,"In Vivo (eg, Transcutaneous) Laboratory Procedures.",Use to report unlisted in vivo laboratory services that do not have a specific code.,CPT +89049,Other Pathology and Laboratory Procedures.,"An analyst performs a caffeine halothane contracture test, CHCT, to evaluate a patient’s muscle biopsy for susceptibility to malignant hyperthermia, MH, a life threatening reaction to certain drugs used for anesthesia.",CPT +89050,Other Pathology and Laboratory Procedures.,"A lab analyst performs a cell count of miscellaneous body fluids, such as cerebrospinal fluid, called CSF, or joint fluid. This code is not appropriate for a test on blood.",CPT +89051,Other Pathology and Laboratory Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab steps to analyze a body fluid, excluding blood, with a cell count and a differential count to measure the amounts of white blood cells present.",CPT +89055,Other Pathology and Laboratory Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze for the presence of leukocytes in a stool specimen; this test will indicate a positive or negative result or possibly a semiquantitative result such as one plus or moderate amount.,CPT +89060,Other Pathology and Laboratory Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a specimen of tissue or body fluid, excluding urine, for the presence of crystals by light microscopy. The service may or may not include polarizing lens analysis.",CPT +89125,Other Pathology and Laboratory Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a specimen of feces, urine, or respiratory secretions by performing a fat stain.",CPT +89160,Other Pathology and Laboratory Procedures.,An analyst performs a microscopic examination of feces to check for the presence of muscle fibers after meat consumption.,CPT +89190,Other Pathology and Laboratory Procedures.,"The analyst performs an examination of a nasal smear to check for the presence of eosinophils, which are a type of white blood cell that increases in number in response to allergies and parasitic infections.",CPT +89220,Other Pathology and Laboratory Procedures.,An analyst obtains a sputum sample by using an aerosol mist that assists the patient in producing the sample. Use this code only when the analyst performs this service as a separate procedure.,CPT +89230,Other Pathology and Laboratory Procedures.,"An analyst performs sweat collection by iontophoresis, a process using an electric current to introduce salts into the body.",CPT +89240,Other Pathology and Laboratory Procedures.,Use to report pathology procedures that do not have a specific code.,CPT +89250,Reproductive Medicine Procedures.,"The analyst cultures oocytes or embryos for fewer than four days as part of an assisted reproductive technology, ART, procedure.",CPT +89251,Reproductive Medicine Procedures.,"The analyst cultures oocytes or embryos for fewer than four days with a coculture of oocytes or embryos as part of an assisted reproductive technology, ART, procedure.",CPT +89253,Reproductive Medicine Procedures.,"The analyst uses a microtechnique, such as partial zona dissection, to perform an assisted embryo hatching procedure.",CPT +89254,Reproductive Medicine Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze fluid from follicles for the presence of oocytes, which are eggs.",CPT +89255,Reproductive Medicine Procedures.,"The analyst uses any method to prepare an embryo for transfer in an assisted reproductive technology procedure, ART.",CPT +89257,Reproductive Medicine Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the identification of sperm from aspiration of sources other than seminal fluid or semen.,CPT +89258,Reproductive Medicine Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs cryopreservation of one or more embryos from a female patient during an in vitro fertilization, or IVF, cycle.",CPT +89259,Reproductive Medicine Procedures.,The lab analyst performs cryopreservation of sperm from a male patient.,CPT +89260,Reproductive Medicine Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the isolation of sperm using a simple preparation such as sperm wash and swim–up during a semen analysis to prepare sperm for insemination or diagnosis.,CPT +89261,Reproductive Medicine Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab steps to isolate sperm to prepare it for insemination or diagnosis. This code is specific to complex prep and includes semen analysis.,CPT +89264,Reproductive Medicine Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the identification of sperm from testis tissue that is fresh or cryopreserved.,CPT +89268,Reproductive Medicine Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the insemination of oocytes during an in vitro fertilization, or IVF, cycle.",CPT +89272,Reproductive Medicine Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs cultures on one or more oocytes or embryos for four to seven days, which is longer than the usual incubation time.",CPT +89280,Reproductive Medicine Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical steps to assist in fertilizing eggs, called oocytes, using microtechniques. This code represents services for 10 or fewer oocytes.",CPT +89281,Reproductive Medicine Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical steps to assist in fertilizing eggs, called oocytes, using microtechniques. This code represents services for more than 10 oocytes.",CPT +89290,Reproductive Medicine Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the biopsy of cells known as oocyte polar bodies or embryo blastomeres using a microtechnique for preimplantation genetic diagnosis, or PGD. The service involves five or fewer embryos.",CPT +89291,Reproductive Medicine Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the biopsy of cells known as oocyte polar bodies or embryo blastomeres using a microtechnique for preimplantation genetic diagnosis, or PGD. The service involves greater than five embryos.",CPT +89300,Reproductive Medicine Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a semen analysis after sex, testing for sperm's presence, motility, or both. The procedure includes a Huhner test to evaluate infertility.",CPT +89310,Reproductive Medicine Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a semen analysis, including motility and count, but not including the post coital Huhner test, on the ejaculate from a male patient.",CPT +89320,Reproductive Medicine Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a semen analysis, including volume, count, motility, and differential, on the ejaculate from a male patient.",CPT +89321,Reproductive Medicine Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a semen specimen for the presence of sperm. The code also includes checking for sperm motility if the analyst performs that service, too.",CPT +89322,Reproductive Medicine Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a semen specimen for volume, count, motility, and differential of white blood cells, all using strict morphologic criteria, which refers to form and appearance.",CPT +89325,Reproductive Medicine Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs a test to measure sperm antibodies in a sample, such as male semen or female serum, to diagnose infertility problems.",CPT +89329,Reproductive Medicine Procedures.,The lab analyst performs a test to evaluate whether sperm can penetrate a hamster egg to diagnose infertility.,CPT +89330,Reproductive Medicine Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze sperm using a cervical mucus penetration test. This test may or may not include a spinnbarkeit test to test the elasticity of the cervical mucus.,CPT +89331,Reproductive Medicine Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to analyze a urine specimen for sperm to determine if retrograde ejaculation is occurring.,CPT +89335,Reproductive Medicine Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the cryopreservation of testicular reproductive tissue from a male patient.,CPT +89337,Reproductive Medicine Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the technical lab test to preserve and store one or more mature living oocytes at low temperatures for future use. This service preserves the egg cells for patients at high risk of infertility due to treatments such as chemotherapy or radiation therapy.,CPT +89342,Reproductive Medicine Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the storage of one or more embryos for a specified time. Report this code per year of storage.,CPT +89343,Reproductive Medicine Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the storage of sperm or semen for a specified time. Report this code per year of storage.,CPT +89344,Reproductive Medicine Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the storage of testicular or ovarian reproductive tissue for a specified time. Report this code per year of storage.,CPT +89346,Reproductive Medicine Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the storage of one or more oocytes, which are egg cells, for a specified time. Report this code per year of storage.",CPT +89352,Reproductive Medicine Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the thawing of one or more of a female patient’s cryopreserved embryos that the lab has stored for use at a later date.,CPT +89353,Reproductive Medicine Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the thawing of each aliquot, or sample, of a male patient’s cryopreserved sperm or semen that the lab has stored for use at a later date.",CPT +89354,Reproductive Medicine Procedures.,The lab analyst performs the thawing of cryopreserved testicular or ovarian reproductive tissue that the lab has stored for use at a later date.,CPT +89356,Reproductive Medicine Procedures.,"The lab analyst performs the thawing of each aliquot, or sample, of a female patient’s cryopreserved oocytes, or egg cells, that the lab has stored for use at a later date.",CPT +89398,Reproductive Medicine Procedures.,Use to report reproductive medicine laboratory procedures that do not have a specific code.,CPT +90281,"Immune Globulins, Serum or Recombinant Products.","Immunoglobulin is a very complex protein, that is produced by certain cells in the body to protect itself from various types of infections and produces a passive immunity.",CPT +90283,"Immune Globulins, Serum or Recombinant Products.",Immunoglobulin are very complex proteins that are produced by certain cells in the body to protect itself from various types of infections and produce a passive immunity.,CPT +90284,"Immune Globulins, Serum or Recombinant Products.","Immunoglobulin is a very complex protein, that is produced by certain cells in the body to protect itself from various types of infections and produces a passive immunity. SCIg or IgSC(Subcutaneous immunoglobulin injection) is an alternate administration to (SCIg).",CPT +90287,"Immune Globulins, Serum or Recombinant Products.",Botulism Antitoxin is a refined and concentrated liquid preparation of horse (equine) globulins modified by enzymatic digestion.,CPT +90288,"Immune Globulins, Serum or Recombinant Products.","Immunoglobulin is a very complex protein, that is produced by certain cells in the body to protect itself from various types of infections and produces a passive immunity. BIG–IV (Botulism Immune Globulin Intravenous) are derivation of pooled plasma from adults, immunized with pentavalent botulinum toxoid.",CPT +90291,"Immune Globulins, Serum or Recombinant Products.","Immunoglobulin is a very complex protein, that is produced by certain cells in the body to protect itself from various types of infections and produces a passive immunity. CMV–IgIV (Cytomegalovirus immune globulin) is a derivation of pooled plasma of adults, generally used to prevent infection from cytomegalovirus.",CPT +90296,"Immune Globulins, Serum or Recombinant Products.","Diphtheria antitoxin is a sterile aqueous solution of refined and concentrated proteins, chiefly globulins, containing antitoxic antibodies obtained from the blood serum of horses (equine) that have been immunized against diphtheria toxin. This is used to prevent or treat diphtheria.",CPT +90371,"Immune Globulins, Serum or Recombinant Products.","Immunoglobulin is a very complex protein, that is produced by certain cells in the body to protect itself from various types of infections and produces a passive immunity.  HBIg (hepatitis B immunoglobulin) is a derivative of pooled plasma from an adult human containing a high titer of anti–HBs.",CPT +90375,"Immune Globulins, Serum or Recombinant Products.","Immunoglobulin is a very complex protein that is produced by certain cells in the body to protect it from various types of infections and provide passive immunity. RIg (rabies immunoglobulin) contains gamma globulin derived from pooled human plasma, sourced from non–remunerated healthy donors, with a high titer of antibodies to the rabies virus. These are used to prevent or treat category III rabies.",CPT +90376,"Immune Globulins, Serum or Recombinant Products.","Immunoglobulin is a very complex protein, that is produced by certain cells in the body to protect it from various types of infections and produce passive immunity. RIg (rabies immunoglobulin) contains gamma globulin derived from pooled human plasma, sourced from non–remunerated healthy donors, with a high titer of antibodies to the rabies virus. These are used to prevent or treat category III rabies.",CPT +90377,"Immune Globulins, Serum or Recombinant Products.","Immunoglobulin is a very complex protein that is produced by certain cells in the body to protect it from various types of infections and produce passive immunity. RIg (rabies immunoglobulin) contains gamma globulin derived from pooled human plasma, sourced from healthy donors with a high titer of antibodies to the rabies virus. These are used to prevent or treat category III rabies.",CPT +90378,"Immune Globulins, Serum or Recombinant Products.","Immunoglobulin is a very complex protein that is produced by certain cells in the body to protect it from various types of infections and produce passive immunity. RSV–IgIM (respiratory syncytial virus immune globulin, intramuscular) is derived from human hyperimmune globulin.",CPT +90380,"Immune Globulins, Serum or Recombinant Products.","This code represents a monoclonal antibody product administered into the muscle to protect against respiratory syncytial virus. This is a seasonal dose, and the amount is 0.5 mL.",CPT +90381,"Immune Globulins, Serum or Recombinant Products.","This code represents a monoclonal antibody product administered into the muscle to protect against respiratory syncytial virus. This is a seasonal dose, and the amount is 1 mL.",CPT +90384,"Immune Globulins, Serum or Recombinant Products.","Immunoglobulin is a very complex protein, that is produced by certain cells in the body to protect itself from various types of infections and produces a passive immunity. Rho(D) (Rhesus D immunoglobulin ) is obtained from the plasma of healthy Human volunteers which have been specifically immunized against the rhesus antigen.  This antibody is used to prevent Rhesus disease or hemolytic disease of a newborn. Report CPT for a full dose of human Rho(D) immune globulin.",CPT +90385,"Immune Globulins, Serum or Recombinant Products.","Immunoglobulin is a very complex protein, that is produced by certain cells in the body to protect itself from various types of infections and produces a passive immunity. Rho(D) (Rhesus D immunoglobulin ) is obtained from the plasma of healthy Human volunteers which have been specifically immunized against the rhesus antigen.  This antibody is used to prevent Rhesus disease or hemolytic disease of a newborn.",CPT +90386,"Immune Globulins, Serum or Recombinant Products.","Immunoglobulin is a very complex protein, that is produced by certain cells in the body to protect itself from various types of infections and produces a passive immunity.  Rho(D) (Rhesus D immunoglobulin ) is obtained from the plasma of healthy Human volunteers which have been specifically immunized against the rhesus antigen.  This antibody is used to prevent Rhesus disease or hemolytic disease of a newborn.",CPT +90389,"Immune Globulins, Serum or Recombinant Products.","Immunoglobulin is a very complex protein, that is produced by certain cells in the body to protect itself from various types of infections and produces a passive immunity. TIg (tetanus immunoglobulin) is prepared from the plasma of a human donor sensitized to tetanus toxin, used as a preventive agent against tetanus.",CPT +90393,"Immune Globulins, Serum or Recombinant Products.",Vaccine Immune Globulin (VIg) are antibodies containing plasma that is derived from the blood of a human that has been administered the smallpox vaccine more than once. VIg is used to prevent and boost the immunity against smallpox.,CPT +90396,"Immune Globulins, Serum or Recombinant Products.",Report this code for the supply of intramuscular human varicella–zoster immune globulin to prevent and boost immunity against chickenpox.,CPT +90399,"Immune Globulins, Serum or Recombinant Products.",Use to report the administration of an immune globulin that is not represented by another more specific code.,CPT +90460,Immunization Administration for Vaccines/Toxoids.,"In this procedure, the provider administers a single live attenuated vaccine through a parenteral, oral, intranasal, intramuscular, or intravenous to a patient up to 18 years of age.",CPT +90461,Immunization Administration for Vaccines/Toxoids.,"In this procedure, the provider administers an additional live attenuated vaccine either via a parenteral, oral, intranasal, intramuscular, or intravenous to a patient up to 18 years of age after the administration of the first vaccine.",CPT +90471,Immunization Administration for Vaccines/Toxoids.,"In this procedure, the provider administers a live attenuated vaccine using a percutaneous, intradermal, subcutaneous, or intramuscular route.",CPT +90472,Immunization Administration for Vaccines/Toxoids.,This code represents each injection of a vaccine after the first; list this code in addition to the code for the first injection.,CPT +90473,Immunization Administration for Vaccines/Toxoids.,"In this procedure, the provider administers a live attenuated vaccine through intranasal or oral route.",CPT +90474,Immunization Administration for Vaccines/Toxoids.,"In this procedure, the provider administers an additional live attenuated vaccine either via oral or intranasal route after the administration of the first vaccine.",CPT +90476,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","In this procedure, the provider harvests the adenovirus vaccine, live type 4, for oral use from human diploid tissue and administers it to the patient to promote immunity against the adenovirus.",CPT +90477,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","In this procedure, the provider harvests the adenovirus vaccine, live type 7, for oral use from human diploid tissue and administers it to the patient to promote immunity against the adenovirus.",CPT +90480,Immunization Administration for Vaccines/Toxoids.,The provider administers a single dose of a SARS–CoV–2 vaccine by intramuscular injection to reduce the patient’s risk of contracting COVID–19.,CPT +90581,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","The anthrax vaccine is produced from filtered microaerophilic cultures from a strain of bacillus anthracia. The provider administers anthrax vaccine subcutaneously or intramuscularly, to protect the patient against anthrax.",CPT +90584,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","This code represents a quadrivalent live vaccine product administered subcutaneously to protect against dengue virus, which causes dengue fever. The product has a two–dose schedule.",CPT +90585,"Vaccines, Toxoids.",The Bacillus Calmette–Guerin vaccine (BCG) consists of live bacteria derived from an attenuated strain of tubercle bacilli.  This immunization provides active immunity against tuberculosis.,CPT +90586,"Vaccines, Toxoids.",The Bacillus Calmette–Guerin vaccine (BCG) consists of live bacteria derived from an attenuated strain of tubercle bacilli. A BCG treatment is used to treat bladder cancer by hampering tumor growth.,CPT +90587,"Vaccines, Toxoids.",The provider administers quadrivalent live dengue vaccine subcutaneously (below the skin) as part of a three–dose schedule to provide immunity to four types of dengue virus.,CPT +90589,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","This code represents a vaccine product administered into the muscle to protect against chikungunya virus. This vaccine uses a live, attenuated (weakened) virus to trigger an immune response.",CPT +90611,"Vaccines, Toxoids.",This code represents a combined smallpox and monkeypox vaccine product administered by subcutaneous injection. The dosage is 0.5 mL.,CPT +90619,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","Report this code for meningococcal conjugate vaccine in a tetanus toxoid carrier for intramuscular administration that protects against four common forms of the virus and to prevent the patient from getting a meningococcal disease like meningitis, a life–threatening infection of the lining of the brain and spinal cord, or infections of the blood such septicemia, also referred to as sepsis.",CPT +90620,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","The provider administers a meningococcal recombinant protein and outer membrane vesicle vaccine to prevent the patient from getting a meningococcal disease such as Neisseria meningitides, as part of a two–dose schedule intramuscularly. The vaccine is recommended for individuals 10 years old and older at risk for the disease.",CPT +90621,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","The provider administers a meningococcal recombinant lipoprotein vaccine intramuscularly to prevent the patient from getting a meningococcal disease such as Neisseria meningitides, as part of a two– or three–dose schedule. The vaccine is recommended for individuals 10 years old and older who are at risk for the disease.",CPT +90622,"Vaccines, Toxoids.",This code represents a smallpox vaccine product administered percutaneously (through the skin). The dosage is 0.3 mL.,CPT +90623,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","This code represents a vaccine product administered into the muscle to protect against meningococcal disease. This is a pentavalent vaccine, meaning it protects against five serogroups (groups of related microorganisms) of meningococcal disease.",CPT +90625,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","The provider administers cholera vaccine, as a single dose by mouth, to treat a patient believed to be suffering from cholera, an acute, diarrheal illness that the bacterium Vibrio cholera causes.",CPT +90626,"Vaccines, Toxoids.",This code represents an inactivated vaccine product administered intramuscularly to protect against viral encephalitis (brain inflammation caused by a virus) spread by ticks. The dosage is 0.25 mL.,CPT +90627,"Vaccines, Toxoids.",This code represents an inactivated vaccine product administered intramuscularly to protect against viral encephalitis (brain inflammation caused by a virus) spread by ticks. The dosage is 0.5 mL.,CPT +90630,"Vaccines, Toxoids.",The provider administers quadrivalent influenza vaccine intradermally. He administers the vaccine to protect the patient from infection by one or more strains of influenza virus.,CPT +90632,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","The provider injects an altered form of the hepatitis A virus into a muscle of an adult to provide immunity to hepatitis A, an infectious disease of the liver.",CPT +90633,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","The provider injects an altered form of the hepatitis A virus into a muscle in a child or teenager to provide immunity to hepatitis A, an infectious disease of the liver, as part of a two dose schedule.",CPT +90634,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","The provider injects an altered form of the hepatitis A virus into a muscle in a child or teenager to provide immunity to hepatitis A, an infectious disease of the liver, as part of a three–dose schedule.",CPT +90636,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","The provider injects altered forms of the hepatitis A and B viruses into a muscle in an adult patient to provide immunity to both hepatitis A and B, infectious diseases of the liver.",CPT +90644,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","In this procedure, the provider administers a combination vaccine that protects against specific strains of meningococcus and Haemophilus influenzae B, bacteria that cause meningitis, a serious disease that attacks the meninges, the covering of the brain and spinal cord. He injects the vaccine into a muscle in an infant between 6 weeks and 18 months of age as part of a multiple dose schedule.",CPT +90647,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","In this procedure, the provider administers a form of the vaccine that protects against Haemophilus influenza B, bacteria that causes meningitis, a serious disease that attacks the meninges, the covering of the brain and spinal cord. He injects the vaccine into a muscle as part of a three–dose schedule.",CPT +90648,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","In this procedure, the provider administers a form of the vaccine that protects against Haemophilus influenza B, bacteria that causes meningitis, a serious disease that attacks the meninges, the covering of the brain and spinal cord. He injects the vaccine into a muscle as part of a four–dose schedule.",CPT +90649,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","The provider injects an altered form of the human papilloma virus, or HPV, into a muscle to provide immunity to four types of HPV, a cause of genital warts and cervical cancer. He administers the vaccine as part of a three–dose schedule.",CPT +90650,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","The provider injects an altered form of the human papillomavirus, or HPV, into a muscle to provide immunity to two types of HPV, a cause of genital warts and cervical cancer. He administers the vaccine as part of a three–dose schedule.",CPT +90651,"Vaccines, Toxoids.",The provider administers nonavalent human papillomavirus vaccine (HPV) intramuscularly. He administers the vaccine in two or three doses. He administers the vaccine to protect the patient from infection by nine strains of the human papillomavirus.,CPT +90653,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","The provider injects an altered form of an influenza virus into a muscle to provide immunity to influenza, a severe and infectious respiratory disease.",CPT +90654,"Vaccines, Toxoids.",The provider administers trivalent influenza vaccine intradermally. The vaccine protects the patient from three strains of the influenza virus.,CPT +90655,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","The provider injects into a patient’s muscle an altered form of a preservative–free, influenza split virus, in a 0.25 mL dose to provide immunity to three forms of influenza, a severe and infectious respiratory disease.",CPT +90656,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","The provider injects into a patient’s muscle an altered form of a preservative–free, influenza split virus, in a 0.5 mL dosage to provide immunity to three forms of influenza, a severe and infectious respiratory disease.",CPT +90657,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","The provider injects into a patient’s muscle an altered form of an influenza split virus, in a 0.25 mL dose to provide immunity to three forms of influenza, a severe and infectious respiratory disease.",CPT +90658,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","The provider injects into a patient’s muscle an altered form of an influenza split virus, in a 0.5 mL dose to provide immunity to three forms of influenza, a severe and infectious respiratory disease.",CPT +90660,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","The provider administers an altered form of a live influenza virus via the nose to provide immunity to three forms of influenza, a severe and infectious respiratory disease.",CPT +90661,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","The provider injects a 0.5 mL dose of preservative– and antibiotic–free vaccine derived from an altered form of an influenza virus into a muscle to provide immunity to three forms of influenza, a severe and infectious respiratory disease.Â",CPT +90662,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","The provider injects a preservative–free vaccine derived from altered form of an influenza split virus with extra antigens to increase immunity into a muscle to provide immunity to influenza, a severe and infectious respiratory disease.",CPT +90664,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","The provider injects an altered form of an influenza virus, via the nose, to provide immunity to a specific pandemic, or geographically spreading, form of influenza, a severe and infectious respiratory disease.",CPT +90666,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","The provider injects an altered form of an influenza virus into a muscle to provide immunity to a specific pandemic, or geographically spreading, form of influenza, a severe and infectious respiratory disease.",CPT +90667,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","The provider injects an altered form of an influenza virus into a muscle to provide immunity to a specific pandemic, or geographically spreading, form of influenza, a severe and infectious respiratory disease.",CPT +90668,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","The provider injects an altered form of an influenza split virus into a muscle to provide immunity to a specific pandemic, or geographically spreading, form of influenza, a severe and infectious respiratory disease.",CPT +90670,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","In this procedure, the provider administers a vaccine that protects infants and young children against 13 specific strains of pneumococcus, a bacterial organism that causes ear infections, pneumonia, and other infectious diseases, including meningitis, a disease that attacks the meninges, the covering of the brain and spinal cord.",CPT +90671,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","This code represents a vaccine product administered intramuscularly to protect against pneumococcal disease, a bacterial infection. This is a 15–valent vaccine, protecting against 15 strains of the bacteria.",CPT +90672,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","The provider administers an altered form of an influenza virus via the nose to provide immunity to four forms of influenza, a severe and infectious respiratory disease.",CPT +90673,"Vaccines, Toxoids.",The provider injects a preservative– and antibiotic–free trivalent influenza virus vaccine derived from hemagglutinin protein recombinant DNA into the muscle of a patient.,CPT +90674,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","Use this code for the supply of 0.5 mL of preservative– and antibiotic–free, 4–strain influenza virus vaccine, developed from cell cultures, for administration by injection into a muscle.",CPT +90675,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","The provider injects an altered form of a rabies virus into a muscle after exposure to rabies, a deadly disease transmitted through an animal bite. Rabies attacks the nervous system and brain, resulting in paralysis and death if not treated promptly.",CPT +90676,"Vaccines, Toxoids.",The provider administers a rabies vaccine intradermally to treat a patient believed to have been bitten by an animal with rabies.,CPT +90677,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","This code represents a vaccine product administered intramuscularly to protect against pneumococcal disease, a bacterial infection. This is a 20–valent vaccine, protecting against 20 strains of the bacteria.",CPT +90678,"Vaccines, Toxoids.",This code represents a bivalent prefusion F vaccine product administered into the muscle to protect against respiratory syncytial virus.,CPT +90679,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","This code represents a prefusion F (preF) vaccine product administered into the muscle to protect against respiratory syncytial virus. It includes an adjuvant, an ingredient that helps create a stronger immune response.",CPT +90680,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","The provider administers three scheduled doses of a live pentavalent rotavirus vaccine by mouth to prevent rotavirus related gastroenteritis that causes vomiting and diarrhea. Prolonged vomiting and diarrhea can lead to dehydration, especially in an infant.",CPT +90681,"Vaccines, Toxoids.",The provider administers two doses of live attenuated rotavirus vaccine by mouth to prevent rotavirus related gastroenteritis with vomiting and diarrhea.,CPT +90682,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","The provider injects a vaccine into a patient’s muscle to provide immunity to four forms of influenza, a severe and infectious respiratory disease. The vaccine is derived from a specific protein (glycoprotein) found on the surface of the influenza virus that is responsible for binding the virus to cells of the respiratory tract.",CPT +90683,"Vaccines, Toxoids.",This code represents a vaccine product administered into the muscle to protect against respiratory syncytial virus. It is an mRNA vaccine that uses lipid nanoparticles for delivery.,CPT +90685,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","The provider administers into a muscle of a patient, a preservative–free, four–strain influenza virus vaccine, in a 0.25 mL dose to provide immunity to four forms of influenza, a severe and infectious respiratory disease.",CPT +90686,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","The provider administers into a muscle of a patient, a preservative–free, four–strain influenza virus vaccine, in a 0.5 mL dose to provide immunity to four forms of influenza, a severe and infectious respiratory disease.",CPT +90687,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","The provider administers into a muscle of a patient, a four–strain influenza virus vaccine, in a 0.25 mL dose to provide immunity to four forms of influenza, a severe and infectious respiratory disease.",CPT +90688,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","The provider administers into a muscle of a patient, a four–strain influenza virus vaccine, in a 0.5 mL dose to provide immunity to four forms of influenza, a severe and infectious respiratory disease.",CPT +90689,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","The provider injects 0.25 mL of a four–strain influenza virus vaccine into a patient’s muscle to provide immunity to four forms of influenza, a severe and infectious respiratory disease; the vaccine is free of preservatives and derived from cell cultures of a killed virus and contains a substance that increases the patient’s immune response.",CPT +90690,"Vaccines, Toxoids.",The provider administers live typhoid vaccine by mouth to prevent typhoid fever.,CPT +90691,"Vaccines, Toxoids.",The provider administers Vi capsular polysaccharide vaccine intramuscularly to prevent typhoid fever.,CPT +90694,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","The provider injects 0.5 mL of a four–strain influenza virus vaccine into a patient’s muscle to provide immunity to four forms of influenza, a severe and infectious respiratory disease; the vaccine is free of preservatives and derived from cell cultures of a killed virus and contains a substance that increases the patient’s immune response.",CPT +90696,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","The provider administers a combination vaccine for diphtheria, tetanus toxoids, acellular pertussis and polio virus intramuscularly to children between four to six years of age.",CPT +90697,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","The provider administers a combination vaccine for diphtheria, tetanus toxoids, acellular pertussis, influenza, polio virus and hepatitis B through an intramuscular route to the patients.",CPT +90698,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","The provider administers a combination vaccine intramuscularly to protect a patient against five serious diseases: diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, or whooping cough, Haemophilus influenzae type B infections and poliomyelitis, or polio.",CPT +90700,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","The provider administers a combination vaccine intramuscularly for diphtheria, tetanus toxoids, and acellular pertussis to individual younger than seven years.",CPT +90702,"Vaccines, Toxoids.",The provider administers a combination vaccine for diphtheria and tetanus toxoids intramuscularly to individual younger than seven years.,CPT +90707,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","The provider administers a live combination vaccine for measles, mumps and rubella virus subcutaneously to prevent these diseases.",CPT +90710,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","The provider administers a live combination vaccine for measles, mumps, varicella and rubella virus subcutaneously to prevent these diseases.",CPT +90713,"Vaccines, Toxoids.",The provider administers an inactivated poliovirus vaccine either subcutaneously or intramuscularly to prevent the patient from getting polio.,CPT +90714,"Vaccines, Toxoids.",The provider administers a preservative free combination vaccine for diphtheria and tetanus toxoids intramuscularly to an individual older than seven years to prevent these diseases.,CPT +90715,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","The provider uses this combination vaccine as a booster to help protect patients who are 7 years old or older from lockjaw, diphtheria, and whooping cough.",CPT +90716,"Vaccines, Toxoids.",The provider administers a live vaccine subcutaneously to protect against varicella infection.,CPT +90717,"Vaccines, Toxoids.",The provider administers a live vaccine subcutaneously to protect the patient against yellow fever.,CPT +90723,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","The provider administers a combination inactivated vaccine intramuscularly to prevent multiple diseases, including diphtheria, tetanus, acellular pertussis, hepatitis B, and polio.",CPT +90732,"Vaccines, Toxoids.",The provider intramuscularly or subcutaneously injects pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine in an individual two years or older. This vaccine provides protection against meningitis and pneumonia that Streptococcus pneumonia causes.,CPT +90733,"Vaccines, Toxoids.",The provider administers a quadrivalent meningococcal polysaccharide vaccine subcutaneously to protect against 4 strains of the bacteria that cause meningitis.,CPT +90734,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","The provider administers a meningococcal conjugate vaccine in a diphtheria toxoid carrier (MenACWY–D) or CRM197 carrier (MenACWY–CRM) to protect the patient from four strains of meningococcal viruses that cause diseases like meningitis, a life–threatening infection of the lining of the brain and spinal cord, or infections of the blood such as septicemia, also referred to as sepsis.",CPT +90736,"Vaccines, Toxoids.",The provider administers a live vaccine subcutaneously to protect against varicella zoster infection.,CPT +90738,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","The provider administers an inactivated Japanese encephalitis virus vaccine intramuscularly to protect against encephalitis, an infection of the membranes around the brain and spinal cord spread by mosquitoes.",CPT +90739,"Vaccines, Toxoids.",This code represents an adult–dosage vaccine product administered intramuscularly to protect against the liver disease hepatitis B. The product has a synthetic DNA called CpG added to improve the immune response. The vaccine has a two–dose or four–dose schedule.,CPT +90740,"Vaccines, Toxoids.",This code represents a vaccine product administered intramuscularly to protect against the liver disease hepatitis B. The vaccine has a three–dose schedule. The dosage is for patients who are immunosuppressed or undergoing dialysis.,CPT +90743,"Vaccines, Toxoids.",This code represents an adolescent–dosage vaccine product administered intramuscularly to protect against the liver disease hepatitis B. The vaccine has a two–dose schedule.,CPT +90744,"Vaccines, Toxoids.",This code represents a pediatric/adolescent–dosage vaccine product administered intramuscularly to protect against the liver disease hepatitis B. The vaccine has a three–dose schedule.,CPT +90746,"Vaccines, Toxoids.",This code represents an adult–dosage vaccine product administered intramuscularly to protect against the liver disease hepatitis B. The vaccine has a three–dose schedule.,CPT +90747,"Vaccines, Toxoids.",This code represents a vaccine product administered intramuscularly to protect against the liver disease hepatitis B. The vaccine has a four–dose schedule. The dosage is for patients who are immunosuppressed or undergoing dialysis.,CPT +90748,"Vaccines, Toxoids.",This code represents a combination vaccine for hepatitis B and Haemophilus influenza B administered intramuscularly. This vaccine provides protection against the liver disease hepatitis B and the bacteria Haemophilus influenzae type b.,CPT +90749,"Vaccines, Toxoids.",Use to report unlisted vaccine or toxoid procedures that do not have a specific code.,CPT +90750,"Vaccines, Toxoids.",The provider injects an adjuvanted vaccine into a muscle to protect the patient against varicella zoster infection.,CPT +90756,"Vaccines, Toxoids.","The provider injects 0.5 mL of an antibiotic–free influenza virus into a muscle to provide immunity to four forms of influenza, a severe and infectious respiratory disease.",CPT +90758,"Vaccines, Toxoids.",This code represents a live vaccine product administered intramuscularly to protect against Zaire ebolavirus.,CPT +90759,"Vaccines, Toxoids.",This code represents a vaccine product administered intramuscularly to protect against the hepatitis B virus. It is a three–antigen vaccine with a three–dose schedule and 10 mcg dosage.,CPT +90785,Interactive Complexity Psychiatry Services and Procedures.,This add–on code represents increased work intensity of psychotherapy services that adds difficulty to delivery of service.,CPT +90791,Psychiatric Diagnostic Evaluation Services.,"In this service, the provider performs a psychiatric evaluation of the patient with the aim of making a diagnosis.",CPT +90792,Psychiatric Diagnostic Evaluation Services.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a psychiatric evaluation of the patient with the aim of making a diagnosis. In addition to the diagnostic evaluation, he also renders some additional medical services.",CPT +90832,Psychotherapy Services and Procedures.,"In this service, the provider performs psychotherapy, a series of techniques for treating the psychiatric disorders of the patient. The treatment session with the patient typically lasts for anywhere between16 to 37 minutes.",CPT +90833,Psychotherapy Services and Procedures.,"In this add–on service, the provider performs psychotherapy, a series of techniques for treating the psychiatric disorders of the patient, in addition to an evaluation and management service in the same session. The treatment session with the patient typically lasts anywhere between 16 to 37 minutes.",CPT +90834,Psychotherapy Services and Procedures.,"In this service, the provider performs psychotherapy, a series of techniques for treating the psychiatric disorders of the patient. The treatment session with the patient typically lasts for anywhere between 38 to 52 minutes.",CPT +90836,Psychotherapy Services and Procedures.,"In this add–on service, the provider performs psychotherapy, a series of techniques for treating the psychiatric disorders of the patient in addition to an evaluation and management service in the same session. The treatment session typically lasts for anywhere between 38 to 52 minutes.",CPT +90837,Psychotherapy Services and Procedures.,"In this service, the provider performs psychotherapy, a series of technique for treating the psychiatric disorders of the patient. The treatment session typically lasts for a minimum of 53 minutes or more.",CPT +90838,Psychotherapy Services and Procedures.,"In this add–on service, the provider performs psychotherapy, a series of techniques for treating the psychiatric disorders of the patient in addition to an evaluation and management service in the same session. The treatment session typically lasts for a minimum of 53 minutes.",CPT +90839,Psychotherapy for Crisis Services and Procedures.,"In this service, the provider performs psychotherapy for a crisis situation when the patient is in a life–threatening state and needs immediate attention. The treatment session typically lasts anywhere between 30 to 74 minutes.",CPT +90840,Psychotherapy for Crisis Services and Procedures.,"In this add on service, after initial psychotherapy intervention for crisis, the provider performs an additional 30 minutes of psychotherapy for crisis. The crisis state is a life–threatening condition requiring immediate attention to the patient.",CPT +90845,Other Psychotherapy Procedures.,The provider uses an analytical technique to increase insight into a person's unconscious motivations and conflicts to effect a change in maladaptive actions.,CPT +90846,Other Psychotherapy Procedures.,A provider meets with the patient’s family without the patient present to counsel the family on the psychological issues affecting the patient and the family.,CPT +90847,Other Psychotherapy Procedures.,"A provider meets with the patient’s family with the patient present to counsel the family on the psychological issues affecting the patient and the family. The provider supplies psychotherapy to the patient and his family, when individual psychotherapy sessions are not sufficient. This is done to evaluate the treatment plan and role of family members in treatment.",CPT +90849,Other Psychotherapy Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a psychotherapy session with a group of patients’ families.",CPT +90853,Other Psychotherapy Procedures.,"Group psychotherapy is provided to a group of people who are normally not acquainted with each other but might be sharing similar kinds of psychological issues. The psychotherapist selects a group of patients who are not members of the same family, involving no more than 12 participants, and leads the group therapy session for 45 to 60 minutes.",CPT +90863,Other Psychiatric Services or Procedures.,The provider prescribes and reviews medications for pharmacological management after psychotherapy services at the same encounter.,CPT +90865,Other Psychiatric Services or Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider administers a narcotic drug to induce a hypnotic state that helps in psychiatric diagnosis and treatment.",CPT +90867,Other Psychiatric Services or Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs transcranial magnetic stimulation, or TMS, a procedure that uses magnetic fields to stimulate nerve cells in the brain to improve symptoms of depression. Use this code for initial treatment that includes cortical mapping, motor threshold determination, delivery, and management.",CPT +90868,Other Psychiatric Services or Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs transcranial magnetic stimulation, or TMS, a procedure that uses magnetic fields to stimulate nerve cells in the brain to improve symptoms of depression. Use this code for subsequent delivery and management, per session.",CPT +90869,Other Psychiatric Services or Procedures.,"The provider performs a subsequent redetermination of the minimum intensity of electrical pulses necessary to elicit the desired response in brain activity for a patient undergoing therapeutic transcranial magnetic stimulation, or TMS, a therapy that uses a magnet to generate electric pulses that stimulate nerve cells in the brain. He delivers and manages the therapy based on his findings. He performs the procedure to treat depression in a patient who does not respond to medications.",CPT +90870,Other Psychiatric Services or Procedures.,The provider applies an electric current to the patient's brain for the purpose of producing a seizure or series of seizures to alleviate symptoms of various mental disorders.,CPT +90875,Other Psychiatric Services or Procedures.,"In this service, the provider performs 30 minutes of psychophysiological therapy using biofeedback training along with psychotherapy to alter the behavior of the patient.",CPT +90876,Other Psychiatric Services or Procedures.,"In this service, the provider performs 45 minutes of psychophysiological therapy using biofeedback training along with psychotherapy to alter the behavior of the patient.",CPT +90880,Other Psychiatric Services or Procedures.,Hypnotherapy is a type of psychotherapy performed by the provider who creates a state of altered awareness in a patient that gives access to the subconscious mind.,CPT +90882,Other Psychiatric Services or Procedures.,"In this service, the provider works with outside agencies, employers, or other healthcare providers regarding the patient’s physical environment to help manage a psychiatric patient’s medical care.",CPT +90885,Other Psychiatric Services or Procedures.,The provider reviews the medical records of the patient pertaining to psychiatric evaluation to help in establishing the diagnosis and treatment plan.,CPT +90887,Other Psychiatric Services or Procedures.,"In this service, the provider interprets or explains the results of psychiatric exams, medical exams, other procedures, or information about the patient’s care to the patient’s family members or caregivers to give them advice on how to help care for the patient.",CPT +90889,Other Psychiatric Services or Procedures.,"The provider prepares a report on a patient’s mental state for other providers of care, including other physicians, agencies, and insurance carriers. This code does not include report preparation in relation to the provider’s legal or consultative services.",CPT +90899,Other Psychiatric Services or Procedures.,Use to report psychiatric services or procedures that do not have a specific code.,CPT +90901,Biofeedback Services and Procedures.,"The provider trains patients to control involuntary bodily functions by altering brain activity, blood pressure, heart rate, and other bodily functions that are normally not controlled voluntarily.",CPT +90912,Biofeedback Services and Procedures.,"The provider, a physician or other qualified healthcare professional, trains a patient to control involuntary bodily functions by altering brain activity, blood pressure, heart rate, and other bodily functions that the patient cannot normally control voluntarily. This service is done for conditions such as fecal or urinary incontinence. EMG and manometry, if performed, are included with this service. Report this code for the first 15 minutes of face–to–face service with the patient.",CPT +90913,Biofeedback Services and Procedures.,"The provider, a physician or other qualified healthcare professional, trains a patient to control involuntary bodily functions by altering brain activity, blood pressure, heart rate, and other bodily functions that the patient cannot normally control voluntarily. This service is done for conditions such as fecal or urinary incontinence. EMG and manometry, if performed, are included with this service. Report this code in conjunction with the code for the primary procedure for each additional 15 minutes of face–to–face biofeedback training with the patient.",CPT +90935,Hemodialysis Procedures.,"Hemodialysis is a procedure that involves drawing blood via an intra–arterial or intravenous catheter, then sieving it through a semi permeable membrane to remove the impurities and finally transfusing the blood back into body. Along with performing hemodialysis, the same provider may also carry out an E/M service related to the dialysis on the same day, which is also included in this code.",CPT +90937,Hemodialysis Procedures.,"Hemodialysis is a procedure that involves drawing blood via an intraarterial or intravenous catheter, then sieving it through a semipermeable membrane to remove the impurities and finally transfusing the blood back into body. Along with performing hemodialysis, the same physician may also carry out an E/M service related to the dialysis on the same day, which is also included in this code.",CPT +90940,Hemodialysis Procedures.,"The provider monitors the blood flow in a patient’s vascular access site, or where the provider joined blood vessels together, to ensure it remains patent, or open, and to prevent blood clots and complications.",CPT +90945,Miscellaneous Dialysis Services and Procedures.,"The provider evaluates the patient and chooses one of several methods to perform dialysis, except hemodialysis.",CPT +90947,Miscellaneous Dialysis Services and Procedures.,"Dialysis removes fluid, electrolytes, and other low–molecula–weight toxic substances from the blood by filtration through hollow artificial membranes and may be routinely performed in 3 weekly sessions. Peritoneal dialysis is carried out at home by the patient. Although support is helpful, it is not essential. The concept behind continuous renal replacement techniques is to dialyze patients in a more physiologic way, slowly, over 24 hours, just like the kidney does.",CPT +90951,End-Stage Renal Disease Services.,"The provider manages all the services associated with the monthly care of a patient who is younger than 2 years old and has a condition known as end stage renal disease, or ESRD. For this service, the provider sees the patient face–to–face at least four times during the month to accomplish this care.",CPT +90952,End-Stage Renal Disease Services.,"The provider manages all the services associated with the monthly care of a patient who is younger than 2 years old and has a condition known as end stage renal disease, or ESRD. For this service, the provider sees the patient face–to–face two to three times during the month to accomplish this care.",CPT +90953,End-Stage Renal Disease Services.,"The provider manages all the services associated with the monthly care of a patient who is younger than 2 years old and has a condition known as end stage renal disease, or ESRD. For this service, the provider sees the patient face–to–face one time during the month to accomplish this care.",CPT +90954,End-Stage Renal Disease Services.,"The provider manages all the services associated with the monthly care of a patient who is between the ages of 2 and 11 years old and has a condition known as end stage renal disease, or ESRD. For this service, the provider sees the patient face–to–face at least four times during the month to accomplish this care.",CPT +90955,End-Stage Renal Disease Services.,"The provider manages all the services associated with the monthly care of a patient who is between the ages of 2 and 11 years old and has a condition known as end stage renal disease, or ESRD. For this service, the provider sees the patient face–to–face two to three times during the month to accomplish this care.",CPT +90956,End-Stage Renal Disease Services.,"The provider manages all the services associated with the monthly care of a patient who is between the ages of 2 and 11 years old and has a condition known as end stage renal disease, or ESRD. For this service, the provider sees the patient face–to–face one time during the month to accomplish this care.",CPT +90957,End-Stage Renal Disease Services.,"The provider manages all the services associated with the monthly care of a patient who is between the ages of 12 and 19 years old and has a condition known as end stage renal disease, or ESRD. For this service, the provider sees the patient face–to–face four or more times during the month to accomplish this care.",CPT +90958,End-Stage Renal Disease Services.,"The provider manages all the services associated with the monthly care of a patient who is between the ages of 12 and 19 years old and has a condition known as end stage renal disease, or ESRD. For this service, the provider sees the patient face–to–face two to three times during the month to accomplish this care.",CPT +90959,End-Stage Renal Disease Services.,"The provider manages all the services associated with the monthly care of a patient who is between the ages of 12 and 19 years old and has a condition known as end stage renal disease, or ESRD. For this service, the provider sees the patient face–to–face one time during the month to accomplish this care.",CPT +90960,End-Stage Renal Disease Services.,"The provider manages all the services associated with the monthly care of a patient who is 20 years old or older and has a condition known as end stage renal disease or ESRD. For this service, the provider sees the patient face–to–face four or more times during the month to accomplish this care.",CPT +90961,End-Stage Renal Disease Services.,"The provider manages all the services associated with the monthly care of a patient who is 20 years old or older and has a condition known as end stage renal disease, or ESRD. For this service, the provider sees the patient face–to–face two to three times during the month to accomplish this care.",CPT +90962,End-Stage Renal Disease Services.,"The provider manages all the services associated with the monthly care of a patient who is 20 years old or older and has a condition known as end stage renal disease or ESRD. For this service, the provider sees the patient face–to–face one time during the month to accomplish this care.",CPT +90963,End-Stage Renal Disease Services.,"The provider manages all the provider related services for one full month for the home dialysis care of a patient who is younger than two years old and has a condition known as end stage renal disease, or ESRD.",CPT +90964,End-Stage Renal Disease Services.,"The provider manages all the provider related services for one full month for the home dialysis care of a patient who is 2 to 11 years old and has a condition known as end stage renal disease, or ESRD.",CPT +90965,End-Stage Renal Disease Services.,"The provider manages all the physician related services for one full month for the home dialysis care of a patient who is 12 to 19 years old and has a condition known as end stage renal disease, or ESRD.",CPT +90966,End-Stage Renal Disease Services.,"The provider manages all the physician related services for one full month for the home dialysis care of a patient who is 20 years old or older and has a condition known as end stage renal disease, or ESRD.",CPT +90967,End-Stage Renal Disease Services.,"The provider manages for less than one full month all the daily services associated with the dialysis care of a patient who is younger than 2 years old and has a condition known as end stage renal disease, or ESRD.",CPT +90968,End-Stage Renal Disease Services.,"The provider manages for less than one full month all the daily services associated with the dialysis care of a patient who is 2 to 11 years old and has a condition known as end stage renal disease, or ESRD.",CPT +90969,End-Stage Renal Disease Services.,"The provider manages for less than one full month all the daily services associated with the dialysis care of a patient who is 12 to 19 years old and has a condition known as end stage renal disease, or ESRD.",CPT +90970,End-Stage Renal Disease Services.,The provider manages for less than one full month all the daily services associated with the dialysis care of a patient who is 20 years old or older and has a condition known as end stage renal disease or ESRD.,CPT +90989,Other Dialysis Procedures.,The provider trains the patient and/or a helper to perform the procedures related to dialysis. This service is for a complete course of self care and treatment training.,CPT +90993,Other Dialysis Procedures.,"The provider trains the patient and/or a helper to perform the procedures related to dialysis. This service is for the reporting of each self care and treatment training session, as the entire course was not completed.",CPT +90997,Other Dialysis Procedures.,"This is a process which removes substances from the blood using a charcoal or resin working like an artificial kidney. This process can also be used in the treatment of life–threatening drug overdoses, for patients with or without renal failure.",CPT +90999,Other Dialysis Procedures.,Use to report dialysis services or procedures that do not have a specific code.,CPT +91010,Upper Gastrointestinal Motility Studies.,The provider uses a manometer to analyze esophageal muscle pressure and movement in a patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease or GERD. He interprets the findings and prepares a report.,CPT +91013,Upper Gastrointestinal Motility Studies.,The provider performs stimulation or perfusion at the same session as a separately reportable esophageal manometric study procedure. The provider uses a manometer to analyze esophageal muscle pressure and movement in patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease or GERD. He interprets the findings and prepares a report.,CPT +91020,Upper Gastrointestinal Motility Studies.,The provider uses a manometer to analyze stomach muscle pressure and movement to assess the motility and peristaltic movement.,CPT +91022,Upper Gastrointestinal Motility Studies.,The provider uses a manometer to analyze stomach and duodenal muscle pressure and movement. A duodenal motility study diagnoses abnormal function of the muscles of the stomach or small intestine.,CPT +91030,Gastroesophageal Reflux Test Studies.,The provider performs a Bernstein test to imitate the pain of acid indigestion. He performs the procedure to diagnose symptoms of heartburn.,CPT +91034,Gastroesophageal Reflux Test Studies.,"The provider performs a gastroesophageal reflux test to determine the backflow of acid from the stomach into the esophagus with placement of a pH electrode, i.e., a sensor that detects acid. He records and interprets the report.",CPT +91035,Gastroesophageal Reflux Test Studies.,The provider performs gastroesphageal reflux test to determine the backflow of acid from the stomach into the esophagus with telemetry pH electrode placement. He records and interprets the report.,CPT +91037,Gastroesophageal Reflux Test Studies.,The provider performs gastroesphageal reflux test to determine the backflow of acid from the stomach into the esophagus with nasal catheter intraluminal impedance electrode placement. He records and interprets the report.,CPT +91038,Gastroesophageal Reflux Test Studies.,"The provider performs gastroesophageal reflux test to determine the backflow of acid from the stomach into the esophagus with a nasal catheter intraluminal impedance electrode placement for more than 1 hour and up to 24 hours. A computer records the data, which the provider interprets and prepares a written report.",CPT +91040,Esophageal Balloon Distension Study and Breath Test.,"The provider performs esophageal balloon dilation to determine whether the patient’s chest pain results from esophageal or cardiac causes. The procedure includes provocation, if performed. Provocation refers to application or instillation of some type of chemical agent to elicit a response, such as chest pain in this case, in the structure being studied.",CPT +91065,Esophageal Balloon Distension Study and Breath Test.,"A hydrogen or methane breath test is a diagnostic procedure to find problems related to gastric functionality such as lactose deficiency, fructose intolerance, bacterial overgrowth, and oro–cecal gastrointestinal transit time. The concept behind hydrogen or methane breath testing is to measure the hydrogen or methane levels in the expelled breath. The test is noninvasive and is, therefore, readily tolerated by patients. A prior requirement for a hydrogen or methane breath test is fasting, e.g., 8–12 hours, before the procedure.",CPT +91110,"Gastrointestinal Imaging, Pressure Measurement and Manometric Studies.",The provider performs a capsule endoscopy for gastrointestinal tract imaging from esophagus to ileum. He interprets the results and prepares a report for this service.,CPT +91111,"Gastrointestinal Imaging, Pressure Measurement and Manometric Studies.",The provider performs capsule endoscopy for gastrointestinal tract imaging for esophagus evaluation. He interprets the images and prepares a report.,CPT +91112,"Gastrointestinal Imaging, Pressure Measurement and Manometric Studies.",The provider measures the amount of time and the pressure or strength of muscles contractions as food moves through the stomach and colon with a wireless capsule imaging device. He interprets the findings and prepares a report.,CPT +91113,"Gastrointestinal Imaging, Pressure Measurement and Manometric Studies.","The provider gets imaging from inside the colon, such as by having the patient swallow a capsule fitted with a camera. As the capsule passes through the gastrointestinal tract, it captures images of the colon. The provider then interprets the images and reports the findings. The provider performs the procedure to detect and or diagnose abnormalities in the gastrointestinal tract.",CPT +91117,"Gastrointestinal Imaging, Pressure Measurement and Manometric Studies.","The provider accesses the colon or large intestine and measures the strength of muscle contractions. The study assesses the motor activity of the colon at rest, while sleeping, after waking, after meals, and after provocative stimulation such as drugs or balloon distensions.",CPT +91120,"Gastrointestinal Imaging, Pressure Measurement and Manometric Studies.","The provider uses graded balloon distention of the rectum to test its sensation, tone, and compliance. He performs the procedure because the patient has fecal incontinence, constipation or irritable bowel syndrome.",CPT +91122,"Gastrointestinal Imaging, Pressure Measurement and Manometric Studies.",The provider uses a manometer to analyze and measure the contraction of the rectum and anal sphincter.,CPT +91132,Gastric Physiology Procedures.,The provider performs diagnostic transcutaneous electrogastrography to measure the electrical activity of the stomach muscles to evaluate for possible motility disorder.,CPT +91133,Gastric Physiology Procedures.,The provider performs diagnostic transcutaneous electrogastrography to measure the electrical activity of the stomach muscles with and without drug induced provocation of gastric myoelectrical activity. He performs this procedure to evaluate for possible motility disorder.,CPT +91200,Other Diagnostic Gastroenterology Procedures.,"The provider uses elastography to determine whether tumors in the liver are nonmalignant or benign and to distinguish a lesion from normal tissue. Tumors show less elasticity or resumption of their normal shape than normal tissues, and nonmalignant tumors display more elasticity than cancerous tumors.",CPT +91299,Other Diagnostic Gastroenterology Procedures.,Use to report diagnostic procedures in the gastrointestinal system that do not have a specific code.Â,CPT +91304,"Vaccines, Toxoids.",This code represents a SARS–CoV–2 vaccine product administered by intramuscular injection to prevent the patient from contracting COVID–19. The dosage is 5 mcg/0.5 mL.,CPT +91318,"Vaccines, Toxoids.",This code represents a SARS–CoV–2 vaccine product (tris–sucrose formulation) administered by intramuscular injection to reduce the patient’s risk of contracting COVID–19. The dosage is 3 mcg/0.3 mL.,CPT +91319,"Vaccines, Toxoids.",This code represents a SARS–CoV–2 vaccine product (tris–sucrose formulation) administered by intramuscular injection to reduce the patient’s risk of contracting COVID–19. The dosage is 10 mcg/0.3 mL.,CPT +91320,"Vaccines, Toxoids.",This code represents a SARS–CoV–2 vaccine product (tris–sucrose formulation) administered by intramuscular injection to reduce the patient’s risk of contracting COVID–19. The dosage is 30 mcg/0.3 mL.,CPT +91321,"Vaccines, Toxoids.",This code represents a SARS–CoV–2 vaccine product administered by intramuscular injection to reduce the patient’s risk of contracting COVID–19. The dosage is 25 mcg/0.25 mL.,CPT +91322,"Vaccines, Toxoids.",This code represents a SARS–CoV–2 vaccine product administered by intramuscular injection to reduce the patient’s risk of contracting COVID–19. The dosage is 50 mcg/0.5 mL.,CPT +92002,New Patient General Ophthalmological Services and Procedures.,The provider performs an intermediate level ophthalmological evaluation of a new patient and initiates a diagnostic and treatment program.,CPT +92004,New Patient General Ophthalmological Services and Procedures.,The provider performs a comprehensive level ophthalmological evaluation of a new patient and initiates a diagnostic and treatment program for one or more visits.,CPT +92012,Established Patient General Ophthalmological Services and Procedures.,"For this CPT code, an Ophthalmologist sees an established patient for an intermediate level eye examination. Generally, a patient is considered to be ""established"" if the same physician, or any physician in the group practice (or any physician of the same specialty who is billing under the same group number), has seen the patient for a face–to–face service within the past 36 months.",CPT +92014,Established Patient General Ophthalmological Services and Procedures.,"An ophthalmologist sees an established patient for a comprehensive level eye examination. Generally, a patient is considered to be ""established"" if the same physician, or any physician in the group practice (or any physician of the same specialty who is billing under the same group number), has seen the patient for a face–to–face service within the past 36 months.",CPT +92015,Ophthalmological Examination and Evaluation Procedures.,The provider determines the process of determining if a patient's vision is less than 20/20 and by what amount so that corrective lenses or contact lenses can be prescribed and produced.,CPT +92018,Ophthalmological Examination and Evaluation Procedures.,"Code describes examination and evaluation of the eye while the patient is asleep under general anesthesia. The exam may include not only evaluation of the internal structure of the eye, but tests the eyeball's ability to move either passively or with manipulation of the eyeball directly by the physician (for example, by pulling on the individual muscles controlling movement of the eye).",CPT +92019,Ophthalmological Examination and Evaluation Procedures.,"The provider performs a limited eye examination with the patient under general anesthesia. He may or may not manipulate the globe for passive range of motion or to aid in diagnostic exam. He performs the procedure on a child or a patient unable to cooperate with the exam to check for conditions such as glaucoma, retinal abnormalities, or tumors.",CPT +92020,Ophthalmological Examination and Evaluation Procedures.,The provider examines the angle of the anterior chamber of the eye (the angle where the iris and cornea meet) using a special lens (goniolens) and slit–lamp or operating microscope to diagnose and monitor glaucoma–related conditions. He does this as a separate procedure unrelated to any other procedure or service performed on the eye at the same time.,CPT +92025,Ophthalmological Examination and Evaluation Procedures.,"The provider measures the curvature of one or both corneas, interprets the findings, and prepares a report.",CPT +92060,Ophthalmological Examination and Evaluation Procedures.,"The basic eye sensorimotor exam checks the alignment of the eyes and their ability to move together in eight fields of gaze ( up, down, right, left, up–left, up–right, down–left, down–right) and reports them as normal (orthophoria) or as abnormal (with terms tropia, or phorias).",CPT +92065,Ophthalmological Examination and Evaluation Procedures.,The physician or other qualified healthcare professional trains the patient to perform exercises for vision therapy.,CPT +92066,Ophthalmological Examination and Evaluation Procedures.,A provider under the supervision of a physician or other qualified healthcare professional trains the patient to perform exercises for vision therapy.,CPT +92071,Ophthalmological Examination and Evaluation Procedures.,The provider applies soft contact lens on the cornea to treat ocular surface disease.,CPT +92072,Ophthalmological Examination and Evaluation Procedures.,The provider performs initial fitting of soft contact lens on the cornea to treat keratoconus.,CPT +92081,Ophthalmological Examination and Evaluation Procedures.,The provider may use one or more methods to determine the extent of a patient's visual field of one or both eyes; he interprets the results and prepares a report. Report this code for a limited examination of the patient's visual field.,CPT +92082,Ophthalmological Examination and Evaluation Procedures.,"The provider performs visual field testing at an intermediate level, for example, at least 2 isopters on a Goldmann perimeter. This code includes test interpretation and report generation.",CPT +92083,Ophthalmological Examination and Evaluation Procedures.,The provider may use one or more methods to determine the extent of a patient's visual field of one or both eyes; he interprets the results and prepares a report. Report this code for an extended examination of the patient's visual field.,CPT +92100,Ophthalmological Examination and Evaluation Procedures.,Code describes multiple measurements of intraocular pressure taken over a given time period on a single day in order to monitor response to treatment or document pressure changes throughout the day.,CPT +92132,Ophthalmological Examination and Evaluation Procedures.,The provider performs diagnostic imaging of the anterior segment of the eye. He then interprets the data after which he prepares a report. He performs this procedure on one or both eyes for diagnosis and treatment of a patient with symptoms indicating possible disease of the visual system.,CPT +92133,Ophthalmological Examination and Evaluation Procedures.,The provider uses computerized imaging to examine the optic nerve in the posterior segment of the eye. He interprets the images and prepares a report for diagnosis and treatment of a patient with symptoms indicating possible disease of the visual system. He may perform this procedure in one or both eyes.,CPT +92134,Ophthalmological Examination and Evaluation Procedures.,The provider uses computerized imaging of the retina in the posterior segment of the eye to evaluate it for disease. He interprets the images and prepares a report. He may perform this procedure on one or both eyes.,CPT +92136,Ophthalmological Examination and Evaluation Procedures.,The provider uses a noninvasive method to measure the patient’s eye or eyes to get information that the provider then uses to calculate the appropriate power for an intraocular lens (IOL). Selecting the correct power for an IOL implanted after cataract removal helps achieve desired vision goals.,CPT +92145,Ophthalmological Examination and Evaluation Procedures.,The provider measures the difference in inward and outward movement of the cornea when he applies metered air impulses on the cornea of one or both eyes. He then interprets the data and completes a report on the findings.,CPT +92201,Ophthalmoscopy Procedures.,"The provider performs an extended ophthalmoscopy, typically with an indirect ophthalmoscope which utilizes a bright light and a hand–held indirect lens rather than the common hand–held one–piece direct ophthalmoscope. He also performs scleral depression to better visualize the posterior segment and periphery of the fundus. He creates a retinal drawing with interpretation and writes a report. Report this code for an extended ophthalmoscopy with retinal drawing on one or both eyes.",CPT +92202,Ophthalmoscopy Procedures.,"The provider performs an extended ophthalmoscopy, typically with an indirect ophthalmoscope which utilizes a bright light and a hand–held indirect lens rather than the common hand–held one–piece direct ophthalmoscope. He also creates a drawing of the optic nerve or macula with interpretation and writes a report. Report this code for an extended ophthalmoscopy with optic nerve or macula drawing on one or both eyes.",CPT +92227,Ophthalmoscopy Procedures.,The patient undergoes retinal imaging on one or both eyes in a location other than the reviewing clinical staff’s location. The clinical staff analyzes the images remotely and prepares a report. The imaging helps with diagnosing and monitoring retinal disease.,CPT +92228,Ophthalmoscopy Procedures.,The patient undergoes retinal imaging on one or both eyes in a location other than the reviewing provider’s location. The provider interprets the images remotely and prepares a report. The imaging helps with diagnosing and monitoring retinal disease.,CPT +92229,Ophthalmoscopy Procedures.,The patient undergoes retinal imaging of one or both eyes at a point–of–care location. The imaging helps with diagnosing and monitoring retinal disease using autonomous (machine) analysis. This service includes reporting.,CPT +92230,Ophthalmoscopy Procedures.,"The provider uses a special dye that causes the blood vessels in the eye to stand out in photographic images. He interprets the findings and prepares a report. Indications for the study include some macular diseases, retinal vascular diseases, inflammatory retinal or choroidal diseases, optic nerve disorders, tumors, and preparation for some forms of laser treatment.",CPT +92235,Ophthalmoscopy Procedures.,"The provider uses a special dye, fluorescein that causes the blood vessels in the one or both eyes to stand out in photographic images taken with the use of multiframe timing, or serial images, taken through the pupil. He interprets the findings and prepares a report. Indications for the study include various types of eye diseases and tumors and preparation for some forms of laser treatment.",CPT +92240,Ophthalmoscopy Procedures.,"The provider uses a special dye, indocyanine–green (ICG), to take photographs of the vessels of the inner eye similar to that done for codes 92230/92235, which use fluorescein dye. He interprets the findings and prepares a report. Indications for the study include various types of eye diseases and tumors and preparation for some forms of laser treatment.",CPT +92242,Ophthalmoscopy Procedures.,"The provider injects two different special dyes into one or both eyes that cause the blood vessels to stand out in photographic images timed so that multiple frames are taken in rapid succession. He interprets the findings and prepares a report. Indications for the study include disorders of the eye vessels and optic nerve, tumors, and preparation for some forms of laser treatment.",CPT +92250,Ophthalmoscopy Procedures.,"Code describes the taking of fundus photographs, that is, photographs of the posterior segment of the inner aspect of the eye, to document alterations in the optic nerve head, retinal vessels, and retinal epithelium. It can be used to document baseline retinal findings and track disease progression.",CPT +92260,Ophthalmoscopy Procedures.,Code describes measurement of arterial blood pressure in the retina.,CPT +92265,Other Specialized Ophthalmological Services and Procedures.,"The provider performs a test similar to electromyography of extremity muscles, except that it is performed on the extraocular muscles of the eye; interpretation and report are included so do not report those components separately.",CPT +92270,Other Specialized Ophthalmological Services and Procedures.,"The provider performs electro–oculography, which measures the electrical potential between electrodes placed at points close to the eye to assess eye movements after which he interprets the results and prepares a report.",CPT +92273,Other Specialized Ophthalmological Services and Procedures.,"The provider performs an electrophysiologic test of retinal function, which may be referred to as conventional, full–field or Ganzfeld (ffERG) or flash/focal (fERG) electroretinography to assess outer or generalized retinal function.",CPT +92274,Other Specialized Ophthalmological Services and Procedures.,"The provider performs an electrophysiologic test of retinal function, which consists of multifocal electroretinography (mfERG) to detect localized retinal abnormalities or cone–rod dysfunction. The retina of the eye is responsible for visual image formation, and the rods and cones are involved in dark adaptation and color vision.",CPT +92283,Other Specialized Ophthalmological Services and Procedures.,"The provider uses an optical instrument, such as a Nagel anomaloscope, that uses long wavelengths of yellow–green light, which a patient adjusts, to match a predetermined ratio of red to green light; this test is used to determine whether the patient has color blindness, typically red–green color blindness.",CPT +92284,Other Specialized Ophthalmological Services and Procedures.,"The provider assesses the ability of a patient’s eyes to adapt to changes in lighting. The results may indicate retinal disease, nutritional deficiencies, and other conditions. The provider interprets the findings and generates a report.",CPT +92285,Other Specialized Ophthalmological Services and Procedures.,Code describes photography of abnormalities using any of the methods described for documentation purposes and later comparison.,CPT +92286,Other Specialized Ophthalmological Services and Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider examines the structures in the anterior, or front, segment of the eye. He identifies abnormalities in the vasculature, such as those associated with neoplasia. He then interprets the data and generates a report of his findings.",CPT +92287,Other Specialized Ophthalmological Services and Procedures.,It is used to detect abnormalities of the vasculature of the iris. The test is used most often to evaluate neovascularization of neoplasms of the anterior segment of the eye.,CPT +92310,Contact Lens Services.,The provider performs all components of contact lens prescription and fitting for both eyes except when there is absence of the lens of the eye (aphakia) as a result of prior cataract surgery.,CPT +92311,Contact Lens Services.,"The provider prescribes and fits a contact lens for one eye which is aphakic, that is, the patient has had cataract surgery.",CPT +92312,Contact Lens Services.,The provider performs all components of contact lens prescription and fitting for both eyes when there is absence of the lens of the eye (aphakia) as a result of prior cataract surgery.,CPT +92313,Contact Lens Services.,"The provider prescribes contact lenses to include their optical properties, those that improve the patient’s vision, and their size and shape that contribute to their proper fit in the eyes. He provides instruction to the patient on adapting to the new lenses.",CPT +92314,Contact Lens Services.,"The provider, an independent technician as opposed to an opthalmologist or optometrist, performs all components of contact lens prescription and fitting for both eyes except when there is absence of the lens of the eye (aphakia) as a result of prior cataract surgery.",CPT +92315,Contact Lens Services.,The provider prescribes a corneal contact lens for one eye in a patient with aphakia. He supervises the fitting of the lens by an independent technician.,CPT +92316,Contact Lens Services.,The provider prescribes a corneal contact lens for both eyes in a patient with aphakia. He supervises the fitting of the lenses by an independent technician.,CPT +92317,Contact Lens Services.,"The provider prescribes and supervises the fitting by an independent technician of a corneoscleral contact lens. Corneoscleral lenses are generally hard, not soft and are seldom used except in cases of conjunctival burns or to prevent symblepharon (adhesions between the conjunctiva and eyelid).",CPT +92325,Contact Lens Services.,The provider makes changes to a contact lens. He provides instruction to the patient on adapting to the changes.,CPT +92326,Contact Lens Services.,"The provider prescribes the replacement of contact lenses due to wear and tear of existing lenses, patient discomfort, loss of lens, or some other reason.",CPT +92340,Spectacle Services (Including Prosthesis for Aphakia).,"Code describes the fitting of eyeglasses, except for aphakia (absence of the crystalline lens as after cataract surgery); monofocal",CPT +92341,Spectacle Services (Including Prosthesis for Aphakia).,"Code describes the fitting of eyeglasses of bifocal type, i.e., the lens has two separate areas of focus such as an area which gives best near vision and another area giving best far vision.",CPT +92342,Spectacle Services (Including Prosthesis for Aphakia).,"The provider fits eyeglasses that are multifocal other than bifocal, for example trifocal glasses. These are lenses that have more than two separate areas providing best vision are varying focal lengths, for example far vision, near or reading vision and an intermediate distance.",CPT +92352,Spectacle Services (Including Prosthesis for Aphakia).,"Code describes the fitting of eyeglasses with one specified focal length for patients who have undergone removal of the native crystalline lens, i.e., those who have had cataract surgery.",CPT +92353,Spectacle Services (Including Prosthesis for Aphakia).,"Code describes the fitting of eyeglasses following cataract surgery with intraocular implant, multifocal, i.e., bifocal or trifocal.",CPT +92354,Spectacle Services (Including Prosthesis for Aphakia).,The provider fits a magnifying lens on the eyeglasses to improve a patient’s near vision for tasks like reading.,CPT +92355,Spectacle Services (Including Prosthesis for Aphakia).,The provider fits a telescopic lens on the eyeglasses for tasks that require better near vision.,CPT +92358,Spectacle Services (Including Prosthesis for Aphakia).,"The provider implants a temporary lens into the eye to restore vision in a patient with aphakia, the absence of a lens.",CPT +92370,Spectacle Services (Including Prosthesis for Aphakia).,"The provider makes adjustments and or repairs to eyeglasses in a patient who does not have aphakia, the absence of a lens in the eye.",CPT +92371,Spectacle Services (Including Prosthesis for Aphakia).,"The provider makes adjustments and or repairs to eyeglasses in a patient who has aphakia, the absence of a lens in the eye.",CPT +92499,Other Ophthalmological Services or Procedures.,Use to report ophthalmological procedures that do not have a specific code.,CPT +92502,Otolaryngologic and Binocular Microscopy Procedures.,"The provider examines the ears, nose, and throat of a patient that he places under general anesthesia. He performs this in the case of an uncooperative child or an adult, and for a trauma victim who has already had administration of anesthesia.",CPT +92504,Otolaryngologic and Binocular Microscopy Procedures.,"In this diagnostic procedure, the provider uses a microscope to examine the ears of a patient. He may also sometimes examine the patient’s nose for direct visualization to help with diagnosis determination.",CPT +92507,Treatment of Auditory Processing Disorder.,"The provider treats a patient with communication and hearing difficulties by directly interacting with the patient. He assesses the patient with impairment in his ability to make sounds, along with significant receptive and expressive deficit, to identify if the sound signals reach the brain through the ears.",CPT +92508,Treatment of Auditory Processing Disorder.,"The provider treats a group of two or more individuals with communication and hearing difficulties by directly interacting with them. He assesses the patients with impairment in their ability to make sounds, along with significant receptive and expressive deficits, to identify if the sound signals reach the brain through the ears.",CPT +92511,"Nasopharyngoscopy, Nasal Study and Facial Nerve Study.","The provider examines the nasal passages and throat with an endoscope, a tubular instrument with a light source and camera.",CPT +92512,"Nasopharyngoscopy, Nasal Study and Facial Nerve Study.",The provider uses this diagnostic test to evaluate the respiratory function of the nose by measuring the airflow during inhalation and exhalation as well as the air pressure in the nose.,CPT +92516,"Nasopharyngoscopy, Nasal Study and Facial Nerve Study.","The provider uses electroneuronography, a noninvasive test that uses electrical stimulation, to evaluate facial nerve function and integrity when the patient has facial nerve impairment.",CPT +92517,"Vestibular Function Tests, With Recording (eg, ENG).","In this procedure, the provider measures the patient’s response to high–level acoustic stimuli (sound) using electrodes placed on the neck (cervical region). The service includes interpretation and report. VEMP testing checks how muscles respond when sound reaches the inner ear as part of evaluating diseases of the ear and vestibular system.",CPT +92518,"Vestibular Function Tests, With Recording (eg, ENG).","In this procedure, the provider measures the patient’s response to high–level acoustic stimuli (sound) using electrodes placed near the eye (for ocular muscles). The service includes interpretation and report. VEMP testing checks how muscles respond when sound reaches the inner ear as part of evaluating diseases of the ear and vestibular system.",CPT +92519,"Vestibular Function Tests, With Recording (eg, ENG).","In this procedure, the provider measures the patient’s response to high–level acoustic stimuli (sound) using electrodes placed on the neck (cervical region) and near the eye (for ocular muscles). The service includes interpretation and report. VEMP testing checks how muscles respond when sound reaches the inner ear as part of evaluating diseases of the ear and vestibular system.",CPT +92520,Otorhinolaryngologic Evaluation and Procedures.,In this procedure the provider uses aerodynamic testing and acoustic testing to assess proper functioning of the larynx and evaluate the presence of a voice disorder.,CPT +92521,Otorhinolaryngologic Evaluation and Procedures.,A speech–language pathologist (SLP) evaluates the patient's speech fluency for issues such as stuttering or cluttering.,CPT +92522,Otorhinolaryngologic Evaluation and Procedures.,"A speech–language pathologist (SLP) evaluates the patient's speech sound production for issues such as incorrect pronunciation and patterns. The  jaw, lips, and tongue are examined for proper structure and function.",CPT +92523,Otorhinolaryngologic Evaluation and Procedures.,A speech–language pathologist (SLP) evaluates the patient's speech sound production for issues such as incorrect pronunciation and patterns.,CPT +92524,Otorhinolaryngologic Evaluation and Procedures.,"The provider, typically a speech language pathologist, evaluates a patient for the quality of voice, nasality, and vocal behavior of the patient.",CPT +92526,Otorhinolaryngologic Evaluation and Procedures.,"The provider treats a swallowing disorder through medications, rehabilitation, or a feeding tube, to identify the cause of improper functioning.",CPT +92531,"Vestibular Function Tests, Without Electrical Recording.",The provider allows the patient to look in different directions and then observes the rapid movements of the eyeball. He performs this to identify any disturbance in the vestibular system of the patient.,CPT +92532,"Vestibular Function Tests, Without Electrical Recording.",The provider allows the patient to move his head in different positions and observe the rapid movements of the eyeball when the patient changes the position of his head. He does this to examine if a disease of the inner ear is causing the patient’s dizziness.,CPT +92533,"Vestibular Function Tests, Without Electrical Recording.","The caloric vestibular test involves irrigating cold and or warm water, or air into the ear to create nystagmus. This is done to identify a disturbance in the patient’s vestibular system.",CPT +92534,"Vestibular Function Tests, Without Electrical Recording.",The provider assesses the involuntary movement of the eyeball by allowing the patient to focus on a moving object while keeping the head still. He examines the hyperactive reflex of the patient to the movement of the object.,CPT +92537,"Vestibular Function Tests, With Recording (eg, ENG).",A caloric vestibular test refers to a qualitative test that involves sequentially irrigating both ears with warm and cold water while evaluating the patient’s eye movements. This helps measure the disturbance in the patient’s vestibular system and assesses the function of the nerves involved in hearing.,CPT +92538,"Vestibular Function Tests, With Recording (eg, ENG).","A caloric vestibular test refers to a qualitative test that involves sequentially irrigating both ears with water, either warm or cool but not both (monothermal), while evaluating the patient’s eye movements. This helps measure the disturbance in the patient’s vestibular system and assesses the function of the nerves involved in hearing and balance.",CPT +92540,"Vestibular Function Tests, With Recording (eg, ENG).","The provider performs four specific tests, with recording, to check balance disorders. This code represents both the technical and professional components of the service.",CPT +92541,"Vestibular Function Tests, With Recording (eg, ENG).",The provider uses electronystagmography electrodes or infrared videonystagmography to measure and record the rapid movements of the eyeball while keeping the position of the head static.,CPT +92542,"Vestibular Function Tests, With Recording (eg, ENG).",The provider uses electronystagmography or infrared videonystagmography electrodes to measure and record the rapid movements of the eyeball when the patient changes the position of the head.,CPT +92544,"Vestibular Function Tests, With Recording (eg, ENG).",The provider administers a test to assess the bidirectional movement of the eyes with foveal or peripheral stimulation and records the results.,CPT +92545,"Vestibular Function Tests, With Recording (eg, ENG).","In this test, the provider assesses the patient for balance disorders and checks the patient’s ability to register and maintain a moving visual target on the fovea, a tiny pit, or indentation, located in the macula of the retina of the eye.",CPT +92546,"Vestibular Function Tests, With Recording (eg, ENG).",The provider measures various parameters of normal and pathological vestibular systems and also estimates the patient's visual acuity by checking the visual–vestibular interaction using sinusoidal vertical–axis rotation testing.,CPT +92547,"Vestibular Function Tests, With Recording (eg, ENG).","During a vestibular function test with recording, the provider uses additional vertical electrodes placed around the eye to assess nystagmus.",CPT +92548,"Vestibular Function Tests, With Recording (eg, ENG).","The provider performs computerized dynamic posturography sensory organization testing to evaluate the patient's motor, sensory, and integrative processes used to maintain balance and stability. The test is carried out using 6 specific conditions specified in the descriptor. This code represents both the technical and professional components of the service.",CPT +92549,"Vestibular Function Tests, With Recording (eg, ENG).","The provider performs computerized dynamic posturography sensory organization testing to evaluate the patient's motor, sensory, and integrative processes used to maintain balance and stability. The test is carried out using 6 conditions specified in the descriptor. The procedure includes a motor control test of the patient's automatic motor responses to restore balance after forward and backward movements of the platform and adaptation test to assess the patient's ability to adapt to unexpected platform rotation when standing in a toes–up and toes–down position. This code represents both the technical and professional components of the service.",CPT +92550,Audiologic Function Tests.,"The provider uses this global service code, which bundles tympanometry and reflex threshold measurement when the provider performs both tests to evaluate the middle ear and inner ear, respectively, for various ear diseases.",CPT +92551,Audiologic Function Tests.,The provider delivers a limited series of tones or sounds to a patient to determine if the patient’s hearing is in an acceptable range to detect hearing problems.,CPT +92552,Audiologic Function Tests.,The provider assesses a patient’s hearing with a series of tones at varying intensities to identify the lowest threshold at which the patient can hear.,CPT +92553,Audiologic Function Tests.,The provider presents the patient with a series of tones at varying intensities to identify the softest level at which the patient can hear to access hearing and determine the type and amount of hearing loss. He also places a vibrating device over the mastoid bone behind the patient's ear and tests the patient's bone conduction.,CPT +92555,Audiologic Function Tests.,The provider measures a patient’s speech reception/awareness threshold (the lowest volume at which the patient can recognize speech).,CPT +92556,Audiologic Function Tests.,The provider measures a patient’s ability to recognize familiar words and repeat them to diagnose hearing disorders.,CPT +92557,Audiologic Function Tests.,The provider assesses a patient’s hearing with a series of tones at varying intensities to identify the softest level at which the patient can hear. He also measures the patient’s ability to recognize familiar words and repeat them.,CPT +92558,Audiologic Function Tests.,"In this procedure, the provider passes low intensity sounds through the ear and measures the reflected sound to analyze hearing deficiencies in newborn babies and small children who are not able to cooperate with other tests.",CPT +92562,Audiologic Function Tests.,"The provider administers a hearing test delivering tones alternately between both ears of a patient, which can help determine the patient’s type of hearing loss.",CPT +92563,Audiologic Function Tests.,The provider assesses problems in the transmission of nerve impulses from the ear by computing the difference in time between when a tone is emitted and when it is heard. The test results indicate both the presence of a hearing disorder and its likely origin.,CPT +92565,Audiologic Function Tests.,The provider delivers two tones of the same frequency simultaneously to both ears to detect if a patient has unilateral hearing loss or has a pseudohypacusis condition.,CPT +92567,Audiologic Function Tests.,"In this procedure, the provider measures the functioning of the middle ear by varying the pressure of air presented to the ear to identify the reason for hearing loss.",CPT +92568,Audiologic Function Tests.,"In this procedure, the provider measures the contraction of the stapedius muscle in response to loud sound to determine the cause of hearing loss.",CPT +92570,Audiologic Function Tests.,"The provider uses this global service code which bundles a tympanometry, reflex threshold measurement, and reflex decay testing when the provider performs all three tests. This group of services measures the functional integrity of the eardrum and middle ear anatomy and helps identify what part of the ear may be the cause of hearing loss.",CPT +92571,Audiologic Function Tests.,"The provider tests a patient’s hearing using distorted words to assess the patient’s ability to understand and repeat words. This test helps diagnose a variety of auditory processing disorders, or APDs.",CPT +92572,Audiologic Function Tests.,"The provider performs this dichotic test, where the patient receives different information in each ear in an overlapping manner, to access central auditory processing.",CPT +92575,Audiologic Function Tests.,The provider performs this service as an alternative to conventional bone conduction testing for patients with hearing impairments.,CPT +92576,Audiologic Function Tests.,"The provider performs this service to test a patient’s ability to hear sentences when there is competing background noise to diagnose central auditory processing disorders, or CAPDs.",CPT +92577,Audiologic Function Tests.,The provider delivers words of the same frequency simultaneously to both ears to detect if a patient has unilateral hearing loss or has a pseudohypacusis condition.,CPT +92579,Audiologic Function Tests.,"The provider performs a battery of tests to evaluate hearing loss in infants and toddlers. He uses sound sources to evaluate the auditory response, with reinforcement by animated toys.",CPT +92582,Audiologic Function Tests.,"The provider measures the type and severity of hearing loss in a young child, generally two to four years of age without any developmental or physical impairment. He analyzes the patient’s response to particular sound stimuli.",CPT +92583,Audiologic Function Tests.,The provider screens the hearing in a child as young as three years of age by having him select pictures that correspond with sounds.,CPT +92584,Audiologic Function Tests.,"In this procedure, the provider stimulates sound waves in the inner ear and measures electrical signals, or evoked potentials, generated by the nervous system. He uses the results to identify inner ear disorders.",CPT +92587,Audiologic Function Tests.,"Code is in the Medicine/Special Otorhinolaryngologic Services Section. It involves special procedures of the ears/nose/throat. This code is for screening purposes with interpretation and report. An OAE is a simple, noninvasive, test for hearing defects in newborn babies and young children. The healthy cochlea does not just receive sound; it also produces low–intensity sounds called OAEs. These sounds are produced specifically by the cochlea hair cells as they expand and contract.",CPT +92588,Audiologic Function Tests.,"The provider performs this noninvasive, diagnostic test to help detect inner ear abnormalities to identify such conditions as functional hearing loss or differentiate between sensory and neural hearing impairment.",CPT +92590,Audiologic Function Tests.,"The provider performs a hearing aid assessment for hearing aid use in one ear, including the determination of the appropriate type and amplification of the hearing aid for the patient’s condition.",CPT +92591,Audiologic Function Tests.,The provider performs a hearing aid assessment for hearing aid use in one ear.,CPT +92592,Audiologic Function Tests.,This code is for checking one hearing aid; monaural means one ear. The provider checks the hearing aid whenever the wearer has a problem with the hearing aid or as part of a routine check.,CPT +92593,Audiologic Function Tests.,Code is in the Medicine/Special Otorhinolaryngologic Services Section. It involves special procedures of the ears/nose/throat. This code is for checking two hearing aids.,CPT +92594,Audiologic Function Tests.,"This code is for evaluating one hearing aid; monaural means one ear. The provider checks the hearing aid whenever the wearer has a problem with the hearing aid or else it can also be a routine check. The provider does electroacoustic evaluation of the hearing aid, which is more accurate than a normal hearing aid check.",CPT +92595,Audiologic Function Tests.,"This code is for evaluating two/both hearing aids; binaural means two ears. The provider checks the hearing aids whenever the wearer has a problem with the hearing aids or else it can also be a routine check. The provider does electroacoustic evaluation of the hearing aids, which is more accurate than a normal hearing aid check.",CPT +92596,Audiologic Function Tests.,"With the patient wearing ear protectors, such as plugs or protective ear muffs, the provider checks a patient’s ability to hear tones at various levels using a number of possible methods. This code represents the technical component of the service only.",CPT +92597,Evaluative and Therapeutic Otorhinolaryngologic Services.,"The provider performs this test to evaluate a patient for the use of or to fit a voice prosthetic device, such as an electrolarynx or tracheostomy speaking valve.",CPT +92601,Evaluative and Therapeutic Otorhinolaryngologic Services.,The provider analyzes a cochlear implant previously placed in a patient younger than 7 years of age. The provider does all programming required to make the implant work properly and also counsels the patient and family on how to take proper care of the device.,CPT +92602,Evaluative and Therapeutic Otorhinolaryngologic Services.,The provider performs reprogramming of a cochlear implant previously placed in a patient younger than 7 years of age. The provider ensures that the implant is working properly and also counsels the patient and family on how to take proper care of the device.,CPT +92603,Evaluative and Therapeutic Otorhinolaryngologic Services.,The provider analyzes a cochlear implant previously placed in a patient 7 years of age or older. The provider does all programming required to make the implant work properly and also counsels the patient and family on how to take proper care of the device.,CPT +92604,Evaluative and Therapeutic Otorhinolaryngologic Services.,The provider performs reprogramming of a cochlear implant previously placed in a patient 7 years of age or older. The provider ensures that the implant is working properly and also counsels the patient and/or family on how to take proper care of the device.,CPT +92605,Evaluative and Therapeutic Otorhinolaryngologic Services.,The provider conducts an evaluation to better understand the patient’s abilities to assess which non–speech–generating communication device will work best for the patient. The provider also interacts with the patient’s caregiver to receive appropriate feedback about the patient. This code represents one hour of a face–to–face service.,CPT +92606,Evaluative and Therapeutic Otorhinolaryngologic Services.,The provider gives therapeutic services to enable the patient to make use of his non–speech–generating device and also trains the patient’s caregiver.,CPT +92607,Evaluative and Therapeutic Otorhinolaryngologic Services.,"The provider evaluates the patient for prescription of a speech–generating device. This code represents the first or only hour. The provider interacts with the patient, conducts various tests, and writes a detailed report about the patient’s ability to communicate and techniques for improvement.",CPT +92608,Evaluative and Therapeutic Otorhinolaryngologic Services.,"The provider evaluates the patient for prescription of a speech–generating device for an additional 30 minutes after an initial hour at the same session. The provider interacts with the patient, conducts various tests, and writes a detailed report about the patient’s ability to communicate and techniques for improvement.",CPT +92609,Evaluative and Therapeutic Otorhinolaryngologic Services.,The provider performs therapeutic services to enable the patient to make the best use of his speech generating device and also trains the patient’s caregiver.,CPT +92610,Evaluative and Therapeutic Otorhinolaryngologic Services.,Code is in the Medicine/Special Otorhinolaryngologic Services Section. It involves special procedures of the ears/nose/throat. Diagnostic/treatment services not generally included in a comprehensive otorhinolaryngologic evaluation or office visit.,CPT +92611,Evaluative and Therapeutic Otorhinolaryngologic Services.,"The provider conducts a study on the inside of the mouth, the voice box, and the food pipe using cine or video recording. He checks whether the patient can swallow properly.",CPT +92612,Evaluative and Therapeutic Otorhinolaryngologic Services.,The provider carries out an evaluation of a patient’s pharynx to determine the health of the muscles that help in swallowing. He uses a flexible endoscope and cine or video recording.,CPT +92613,Evaluative and Therapeutic Otorhinolaryngologic Services.,The provider interprets a video recording of an endoscopic swallowing study to determine the cause of a patient’s swallowing difficulties. He generates a report of his findings.,CPT +92614,Evaluative and Therapeutic Otorhinolaryngologic Services.,The provider carries out testing of the inner lining of the larynx to evaluate the sensory and motor deficits in the laryngeal muscles. He uses a flexible endoscope for this evaluation and cine or video recording.,CPT +92615,Evaluative and Therapeutic Otorhinolaryngologic Services.,The provider interprets a video recording of an endoscopic evaluation and testing of a patient’s larynx for sensory and motor deficits in the laryngeal muscles to determine the cause of a patient’s swallowing difficulties. He generates a report of his findings.,CPT +92616,Evaluative and Therapeutic Otorhinolaryngologic Services.,The provider carries out an evaluation of a patient’s pharynx to determine the health of the muscles that help in swallowing. The provider also carries out testing of the inner lining of the larynx to evaluate the sensory and motor deficits in the laryngeal muscles. He uses a flexible endoscope and cine or video recording for this evaluation.,CPT +92617,Evaluative and Therapeutic Otorhinolaryngologic Services.,"The provider interprets a video recording of an endoscopic evaluation of a patient’s pharynx to determine the health of the muscles that help in swallowing, including images of the testing of the inner lining of the larynx to evaluate the sensory and motor deficits in the laryngeal muscles. He generates a report of his findings.",CPT +92618,Evaluative and Therapeutic Otorhinolaryngologic Services.,"In this procedure, the provider continues an initial session with the patient and her parents or caregivers for the prescription of a communication device, such as a touch screen monitor or communication board, for a child with severe speech or language problems.",CPT +92620,Evaluative and Therapeutic Otorhinolaryngologic Services.,The provider assesses central auditory function. He performs this test to detect the extent of the patient’s issues with processing what he hears and occasionally to identify a site of abnormality in the brain. This code represents the first or only hour of testing.,CPT +92621,Evaluative and Therapeutic Otorhinolaryngologic Services.,"At the same session that the provider assesses central auditory function for an initial hour, he assesses the patient for an additional 15 minutes. He performs this test to detect the extent of the patient’s issues with processing what he hears and occasionally to identify a site of abnormality in the brain or spinal cord.",CPT +92622,Evaluative and Therapeutic Otorhinolaryngologic Services.,"The provider performs diagnostic analysis, programming, and verification of any type of auditory osseointegrated sound processor, which is a bone–anchored device that facilitates converting sound energy to be received by the inner ear. This code represents the first 60 minutes.",CPT +92623,Evaluative and Therapeutic Otorhinolaryngologic Services.,"The provider performs diagnostic analysis, programming, and verification of any type of auditory osseointegrated sound processor, which is a bone–anchored device that facilitates converting sound energy to be received by the inner ear. This add–on code represents each additional 15 minutes of service time after the first 60 minutes.",CPT +92625,Evaluative and Therapeutic Otorhinolaryngologic Services.,"The provider assesses tinnitus, which is a phantom hearing perception generated within the patient's head: ringing, roaring, static. Tinnitus is a symptom, not a disease.",CPT +92626,Evaluative and Therapeutic Otorhinolaryngologic Services.,"The provider tests the auditory functional status of the patient to include sound perception, listening ability, orienting movements, and balancing. The provider performs this evaluation to determine if the patient is a good candidate for a surgically implanted hearing device or to check the efficacy of a previously implanted hearing device. This code represents the first or only hour of evaluation.",CPT +92627,Evaluative and Therapeutic Otorhinolaryngologic Services.,"The provider tests the auditory functional status of the patient to include sound perception, listening ability, orienting movements, and balancing. The provider performs this evaluation to determine if the patient is a good candidate for a surgically implanted hearing device or to check the efficacy of a previously implanted hearing device. This code represents each additional 15 minutes of service after the first hour of evaluation.",CPT +92630,Evaluative and Therapeutic Otorhinolaryngologic Services.,"The provider conducts auditory training or therapy primarily for pediatric patients whose hearing impairment occurred during or shortly after birth before acquiring language and the ability to speak. Trauma, disease, or genetic reasons may be the cause of the hearing loss.",CPT +92633,Evaluative and Therapeutic Otorhinolaryngologic Services.,"The provider conducts auditory training or therapy for children or adults whose hearing impairment occurs after they already learned how to speak. Trauma, disease, or side effects from medicines may be the cause of the hearing loss.",CPT +92640,Special Diagnostic Otorhinolaryngologic Procedures.,The provider uses this diagnostic service to analyze and program a device that is implanted into a patient’s brainstem to restore his hearing.,CPT +92650,Audiologic Function Tests.,"In this procedure, the provider measures the patient’s response to sound stimuli to screen auditory potential (electrical response). The screening uses frequency nonspecific stimuli and automated analysis.",CPT +92651,Audiologic Function Tests.,"In this procedure, the provider measures the patient’s response to nonspecific frequency sound stimuli to determine hearing status. The service includes an interpretation and report.",CPT +92652,Audiologic Function Tests.,"In this procedure, the provider measures the patient’s response to sound stimuli for threshold estimation at multiple frequencies. The service includes an interpretation and report.",CPT +92653,Audiologic Function Tests.,"In this procedure, the provider measures the patient’s response to sound stimuli to diagnose a neurological disorder. The service includes an interpretation and report.",CPT +92700,Other Otorhinolaryngological Service or Procedures.,Use to report otorhinolaryngological procedures that do not have a specific code.,CPT +92920,Therapeutic Services and Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider inflates a balloon tipped catheter, or tube, inside a blocked area of a single artery or branch of an artery in the heart to widen a stenosis, or constricted area, that obstructs blood flow.",CPT +92921,Therapeutic Services and Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider inflates a balloon tipped catheter, or tube, inside a blocked area of an additional artery or branch of an artery in the heart to widen a stenosis, or constricted area, that obstructs blood flow.",CPT +92924,Therapeutic Services and Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts a catheter with a rotating blade and inflates a balloon tipped catheter in the blocked area of the coronary artery to treat stenosis for a single coronary artery or branch.",CPT +92925,Therapeutic Services and Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts a catheter with a rotating blade and inflates a balloon tipped catheter in the blocked area of the coronary artery to treat stenosis for each additional branch of a major coronary artery.",CPT +92928,Therapeutic Services and Procedures.,In this procedure the provider inflates a balloon tipped catheter into the blocked area of the coronary artery and places a stent to expand the narrowed walls of the vessel and treat stenosis for a single major coronary artery or branch.,CPT +92929,Therapeutic Services and Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider inflates a balloon tipped catheter into the blocked area of the coronary artery and places a stent to expand the narrowed walls of the vessel and treat stenosis for each additional branch of a major coronary artery.",CPT +92933,Therapeutic Services and Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts a catheter with a rotating blade, inflates a balloon tipped catheter into the blocked area of the coronary artery, and places a stent to expand the narrowed walls of the vessel to treat stenosis. This code describes work on a single major coronary artery or branch.",CPT +92934,Therapeutic Services and Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts a catheter with a rotating blade, inflates a balloon tipped catheter into the blocked area of the coronary artery, and places a stent to expand the narrowed walls of the vessel to treat stenosis. This code describes work on each additional branch of a major coronary artery.",CPT +92937,Therapeutic Services and Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts a catheter with a rotating blade, inflates a balloon tipped catheter into the blocked area of the coronary artery, and places a stent to expand the narrowed walls of the vessel to treat stenosis. This code describes work on a single vessel, specifically performed in or through a coronary artery bypass graft. The provider performs this procedure to restore the blocked coronary artery bypass graft.",CPT +92938,Therapeutic Services and Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts a catheter with a rotating blade, inflates a balloon tipped catheter into the blocked area of the coronary artery, and places a stent to expand the narrowed walls of the vessel to treat stenosis. This code describes work on each additional branch linked through a coronary artery bypass graft.",CPT +92941,Therapeutic Services and Procedures.,"In this procedure the provider makes an incision in the patient’s arm or leg to access the artery. He then inserts a catheter with a rotating blade and inflates a balloon tipped catheter in the blocked area of the coronary artery or coronary artery bypass graft. The provider may insert a stent to expand the narrowed walls of the vessel to treat an occlusion during a heart attack. He may also remove plaque from the lining of an artery, repair an artery, or aspirate a thrombus, or blood clot. The provider performs this procedure to restore a recently blocked coronary artery bypass graft or coronary artery during an acute myocardial infarction.",CPT +92943,Therapeutic Services and Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts a catheter with a rotating blade, inflates a balloon tipped catheter into the blocked area of the coronary artery, and places a stent to expand the narrowed walls of the vessel to treat an occlusion. The provider performs this procedure to restore a single chronically blocked coronary artery bypass graft or a coronary artery or coronary artery branch.",CPT +92944,Therapeutic Services and Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider inserts a catheter with a rotating blade, inflates a balloon tipped catheter into the blocked area of the coronary artery, and places a stent to expand the narrowed walls of the vessel to treat an occlusion The provider performs this procedure to restore each additional coronary artery, branch, or bypass graft.",CPT +92950,Other Therapeutic Cardiovascular Services and Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider attempts to restart the heart and lungs of the patient with cardiopulmonary arrest to ensure oxygen supply to the lungs.",CPT +92953,Other Therapeutic Cardiovascular Services and Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider stimulates the contraction of the heart by passing electrical impulses through the heart of the patient with arrhythmia.",CPT +92960,Other Therapeutic Cardiovascular Services and Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider restores the normal heart rate and rhythm of a patient with arrhythmia by applying electric shock using an external defibrillator.",CPT +92961,Other Therapeutic Cardiovascular Services and Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider restores the normal heart rate and rhythm of a patient with arrhythmia by delivering an electrical shock and administering intravenous drugs.",CPT +92970,Other Therapeutic Cardiovascular Services and Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider assists the patient’s circulation by inserting a balloon tipped catheter into the patient’s aorta.",CPT +92971,Other Therapeutic Cardiovascular Services and Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider assists the patient’s circulation by placing air cuffs around the lower extremities, which inflate and deflate in synchronization with the patient’s cardiac cycle.",CPT +92972,Therapeutic Services and Procedures.,"As an add–on procedure to another service, the provider performs lithotripsy, which breaks up calcifications, in a coronary (heart) vessel. The approach is percutaneous (through the skin).",CPT +92973,Therapeutic Services and Procedures.,"At the same session as treatment of stenosis using any of the appropriate techniques, the provider breaks up the clots and plaque within the vessels using thrombectomy. In this procedure, the provider removes the plaque or clot obstructing the flow of blood within the blood vessels. He then performs the required treatment for stenosis.",CPT +92974,Therapeutic Services and Procedures.,"At the same session as treatment of stenosis using any of the appropriate techniques, the provider performs brachytherapy to keep the blocked heart arteries open. In this procedure, the provider places radioactive seeds near the site of the arterial blockage to open up these blocked arteries.",CPT +92975,Therapeutic Services and Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider breaks the thrombus deposited in the coronary artery by infusing intracoronary thrombolytic agents like urokinase in patients experiencing a myocardial infarction.",CPT +92977,Therapeutic Services and Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider breaks the thrombus deposited in the coronary artery by infusing intravenous thrombolytic agents such as urokinase in patients experiencing a myocardial infarction.",CPT +92978,Therapeutic Services and Procedures.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider advances a catheter into a coronary vessel or previously placed graft using ultrasound or optical coherence tomography to view the extent of the blockage, placement of a stent, or other procedure on the heart before or after therapeutic intervention. He then interprets the images and reports the findings. Use this code to report the imaging of the initial vessel.",CPT +92979,Therapeutic Services and Procedures.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider advances a catheter into an additional coronary vessel or previously placed graft after the first using ultrasound or optical coherence tomography to view the extent of the blockage, placement of a stent, or other procedure on the heart before or after therapeutic intervention. He then interprets the images and reports the findings. Use this code to report the imaging of the initial vessel.",CPT +92986,Other Therapeutic Cardiovascular Services and Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider opens up a stenotic aortic valve using a balloon catheter to allow the blood to flow more freely.",CPT +92987,Other Therapeutic Cardiovascular Services and Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider opens a stenotic mitral valve using a balloon catheter to allow the blood to flow more freely.",CPT +92990,Other Therapeutic Cardiovascular Services and Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider opens a stenotic pulmonary valve using a balloon catheter.",CPT +92997,Other Therapeutic Cardiovascular Services and Procedures.,The provider inflates a balloon–tipped catheter in the blocked area of a pulmonary artery to treat stenosis. This code describes work on a single vessel of the pulmonary artery.,CPT +92998,Other Therapeutic Cardiovascular Services and Procedures.,The provider inflates a balloon–tipped catheter in the blocked area of a pulmonary artery to treat stenosis. This code describes work on each additional vessel of the pulmonary artery.,CPT +93000,Cardiography Procedures.,"The provider records the electrical conduction of the heart to examine any abnormality in its functioning, based on signals from at least 12 leads, wires that connect the recording device to electrodes placed in different locations on the body. He interprets the electrocardiogram and completes a report on the findings.",CPT +93005,Cardiography Procedures.,"The provider records the electrical conduction of the heart to examine any abnormality in its functioning, based on signals from at least 12 leads, wires that connect the recording device to electrodes placed in different locations on the body. He does not provide any interpretation or report.",CPT +93010,Cardiography Procedures.,The provider interprets and reports on the results of a routine 12–lead (or more) electrocardiogram.,CPT +93015,Cardiography Procedures.,The provider supervises the recording of the electrical activity of the heart to examine any abnormality in its functioning by obtaining blood pressure and electrocardiograph readings at regular intervals with the heart under stress induced by exercise or medication. He then interprets the data collected and completes a report on the findings.,CPT +93016,Cardiography Procedures.,The provider supervises the recording of the electrical activity of the heart to examine any abnormality in its functioning by obtaining blood pressure and electrocardiograph readings at regular intervals with the heart under stress induced by exercise or medication. He does not interpret the data or report his findings.,CPT +93017,Cardiography Procedures.,The provider records the electrical activity of the heart to examine for any abnormality in its functioning by obtaining blood pressure and electrocardiograph readings at regular intervals with the heart under stress induced by exercise or medication. He does not interpret the data or report his findings.,CPT +93018,Cardiography Procedures.,"The provider analyzes and interprets the recording of the electrical activity of the heart to examine for any abnormality in its functioning, including blood pressure and electrocardiograph readings at regular intervals, obtained with the heart under stress induced by exercise or medication. He completes a report on his findings.",CPT +93024,Cardiography Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider evaluates the patient for the presence of coronary artery spasm by injecting ergonovine and monitoring the patient for chest discomfort and electrocardiographic changes.",CPT +93025,Cardiography Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider analyzes small alterations in T waves on an electrocardiographic recording of the heart to assess the risk of ventricular arrhythmia, a life threatening arrhythmia.",CPT +93040,Cardiography Procedures.,"The provider records the electrical conduction of the heart to examine any abnormality in its functioning using a maximum of three leads, wires that connect the recording device to electrodes placed in different locations on the body. He then interprets the electrocardiogram and completes a report on the findings.",CPT +93041,Cardiography Procedures.,The provider records the electrical conduction of the heart to examine any abnormality in its functioning using a maximum of three leads. This code represents the technical component of the service only.,CPT +93042,Cardiography Procedures.,"The provider interprets a recording of the electrical conduction of the heart to examine any abnormality in its functioning using a maximum of three leads, wires that connect the recording device to electrodes placed in different locations on the body. He completes a report on the findings.",CPT +93050,Cardiography Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider measures the central arterial pressure with the help of a tonometer placed over the radial artery at the wrist. He then interprets the waveform, applies mathematical calculations to derive the pressure, evaluates the augmentation index (ratio of the arterial pressure to the central pressure), and interprets and reports the findings.",CPT +93150,Phrenic Nerve Stimulation System.,"The provider performs therapy activation of an implanted phrenic nerve stimulation system, evaluating and programming the device.",CPT +93151,Phrenic Nerve Stimulation System.,The provider performs phrenic nerve stimulation system interrogation and programming for at least one parameter.,CPT +93152,Phrenic Nerve Stimulation System.,The provider performs phrenic nerve stimulation system interrogation and programming during a sleep study.,CPT +93153,Phrenic Nerve Stimulation System.,The provider performs phrenic nerve stimulation system interrogation without programming.,CPT +93224,Cardiovascular Monitoring Services.,"In this procedure, the provider applies an electrocardiographic, or ECG recorder, to a patient for up to 48 hours to detect abnormal heart rates and rhythms. He analyzes, compiles, and interprets the electrocardiographic findings.",CPT +93225,Cardiovascular Monitoring Services.,"The physician or other healthcare professional applies an electrocardiographic, or ECG recorder, to a patient for up to 48 hours to help detect abnormal heart rates and rhythms. This service reports the recording only portion of the test.",CPT +93226,Cardiovascular Monitoring Services.,"The physician or other healthcare professional applies an electrocardiographic, or ECG recorder, to a patient for up to 48 hours to help detect abnormal heart rates and rhythms. This service reports the scanning analysis and report only portion of the test.",CPT +93227,Cardiovascular Monitoring Services.,"In this procedure, the provider reviews and interprets the data from an external electrocardiographic, or ECG recorder, worn by a patient for 48 hours to detect abnormal heart rates and rhythms. He reviews and interprets the electrocardiographic findings.",CPT +93228,Cardiovascular Monitoring Services.,"In this procedure, the provider reviews and interprets data collected from the continuous recording and transmission of electrocardiographic data to detect abnormal heart rates and rhythms. He reports the findings.",CPT +93229,Cardiovascular Monitoring Services.,"In this procedure, the provider, typically a technician, places a wearable electrocardiographic monitoring device on the patient, instructs him in its use, and monitors the transmissions, to detect abnormal heart rates and rhythms.",CPT +93241,Cardiovascular Monitoring Services.,"In this procedure, the provider applies an electrocardiographic, or ECG recorder, to a patient who wears it for more than 48 hours, up to seven days, to help detect abnormal heart rates and rhythms. This service includes recording, analyzing, compiling, and interpreting the electrocardiographic findings.",CPT +93242,Cardiovascular Monitoring Services.,"In this procedure, the provider applies an electrocardiographic, or ECG recorder, to a patient who wears it for more than 48 hours, up to seven days, to help detect abnormal heart rates and rhythms. This service includes recording and storing the electrocardiographic findings.",CPT +93243,Cardiovascular Monitoring Services.,"After a patient has worn an electrocardiographic, or ECG recorder, for more than 48 hours, up to 7 days, to detect abnormal heart rates and rhythm, a processing center technician performs a scanning analysis with a report of the electrocardiographic findings.",CPT +93244,Cardiovascular Monitoring Services.,"After a patient has worn an electrocardiographic, or ECG recorder, for more than 48 hours, up to seven days, to detect abnormal heart rates and rhythm, the provider completes a review and interpretation of the electrocardiographic findings.",CPT +93245,Cardiovascular Monitoring Services.,"In this procedure, the provider applies an electrocardiographic, or ECG recorder, to a patient who wears it for more than seven days, up to 15 days, to help detect abnormal heart rates and rhythms. This service includes recording, analyzing, compiling, and interpreting the electrocardiographic findings.",CPT +93246,Cardiovascular Monitoring Services.,"In this procedure, the provider applies an electrocardiographic, or ECG recorder, to a patient who wears it for more than seven days, up to 15 days, to help detects abnormal heart rates and rhythms. This service includes recording and storing the electrocardiographic findings.",CPT +93247,Cardiovascular Monitoring Services.,"After a patient has worn an electrocardiographic, or ECG recorder, for more than seven days, up to 15 days, to detect abnormal heart rates and rhythm, a processing center technician performs a scanning analysis with a report of the electrocardiographic findings.",CPT +93248,Cardiovascular Monitoring Services.,"After a patient has worn an electrocardiographic, or ECG recorder, for more than seven days, up to 15 days, to detect abnormal heart rates and rhythm, the provider completes a review and interpretation of the electrocardiographic findings.",CPT +93260,"Implantable, Insertable, and Wearable Cardiac Device Evaluations.","The provider tests the function of the subcutaneous lead defibrillator system and programs it for optimal functioning. He reviews the test results, makes note of the programmed settings, and prepares a report.",CPT +93261,"Implantable, Insertable, and Wearable Cardiac Device Evaluations.",The provider interrogates and evaluates the subcutaneous lead defibrillator system so as to examine its functioning. He prepares a report of his findings.,CPT +93264,"Implantable, Insertable, and Wearable Cardiac Device Evaluations.","The provider, a physician or other qualified healthcare professional, reviews at least weekly downloads of remote monitoring reports for a wireless pulmonary artery pressure sensor, interprets the results, analyzes trends, and prepared a report.",CPT +93268,Cardiovascular Monitoring Services.,"In this service, the provider uses electrocardiographic leads and a monitor to assess the occurrence of cardiac events in a patient, even when the patient is at home. He records the data throughout the day, interprets the data, and reports the findings.",CPT +93270,Cardiovascular Monitoring Services.,"In this service, the provider monitors the patient’s heart rhythm while the patient is experiencing cardiac symptoms. He places electrocardiogram leads of an event recorder on the patient's chest, which can record and transmit the patient’s heart rhythm information for up to 30 days. The patient uses the device to transmit the ECG tracing before and during symptoms such as chest pain. Subsequently, the provider will analyze and advise the patient on the most appropriate action to take. This code represents the technical component of the recording only, or the connection, recording, and disconnection of the device.",CPT +93271,Cardiovascular Monitoring Services.,"In this service, the provider monitors the patient’s heart rhythm while the patient is experiencing cardiac symptoms. He places electrocardiogram leads of an event recorder on the patient's chest, which can record and transmit the patient’s heart rhythm information for up to 30 days. The patient uses the device to transmit the ECG tracing before and during symptoms such as chest pain. Subsequently, the provider will analyze and advise the patient on the most appropriate action to take. This code represents both the technical and professional component of the transmission of the ECG information and its analysis.",CPT +93272,Cardiovascular Monitoring Services.,"In this service, the provider monitors the patient’s heart rhythm while experiencing cardiac symptoms. He places electrocardiogram (ECG) leads of an event recorder on the patient's chest, which can record and transmit the patient’s heart rhythm information for up to 30 days. The patient uses the device to transmit the ECG tracing before and during symptoms such as chest pain. Subsequently, the provider analyzes and advises the patient on the most appropriate action to take. This code represents the professional component of the review and interpretation of the information by the provider.",CPT +93278,Cardiovascular Monitoring Services.,"In this service, the provider aims to monitor the patient’s heart rhythm by placing surface electrodes on the chest using signal–averaged electrocardiography (SAECG). He may report an electrocardiogram (ECG) as well. This code represents the technical and professional components of the service.",CPT +93279,"Implantable, Insertable, and Wearable Cardiac Device Evaluations.","The provider performs a face–to–face evaluation and then repeatedly adjusts and tests the existing parameters of an already implanted single lead or leadless pacemaker system that senses and regulates the heartbeat in a single chamber of the heart. Following his analysis, he reviews the results and prepares a report. This code represents both the professional and technical components of the service.",CPT +93280,"Implantable, Insertable, and Wearable Cardiac Device Evaluations.","In this service, the provider performs a face to face evaluation and then optimally adjusts the existing parameters of an already implanted dual lead pacemaker system.  He changes various operating functions of the system that senses and regulates the heart's rhythm within two heart chambers. This code represents both the professional and technical components of the service.",CPT +93281,"Implantable, Insertable, and Wearable Cardiac Device Evaluations.","In this service, the provider performs a face to face evaluation and then optimally adjusts the existing parameters of an already implanted multiple lead pacemaker system. He changes various operating functions of the system that senses and regulates the heart’s rhythm in at least three chambers of the heart. This code represents both the professional and technical components of the service.",CPT +93282,"Implantable, Insertable, and Wearable Cardiac Device Evaluations.","The provider evaluates and adjusts the parameters, or settings, of various operating functions of a previously implanted single lead transvenous implantable defibrillator system, a device that controls the heart rate, in a direct encounter with a patient with an abnormal heartbeat. This achieves optimum efficiency in regulating the heart rhythm in one chamber of the heart only, as measured through a single lead, or single connection to the device.",CPT +93283,"Implantable, Insertable, and Wearable Cardiac Device Evaluations.","The provider evaluates and adjusts the parameters, or settings, of various operating functions of a previously implanted dual lead transvenous implantable cardioverter defibrillator system, a device that controls the heart rate, in a direct encounter with a patient with an abnormal heartbeat. This achieves optimum efficiency in regulating the heart rhythm in two chambers of the heart only, as measured through a dual lead, or double connection to the device.",CPT +93284,"Implantable, Insertable, and Wearable Cardiac Device Evaluations.","In this service, the provider performs a face to face evaluation and then optimally adjusts the existing parameters of various operating functions of an already implanted multiple lead defibrillator system. He changes the various operating functions of the system that is responsible for regulating the heart’s rhythm in more than two chambers of the heart. This code represents both the professional and technical components of the service.",CPT +93285,"Implantable, Insertable, and Wearable Cardiac Device Evaluations.","In this service, the provider, a physician or other qualified healthcare professional, performs a face–to–face evaluation and repeatedly adjusts and tests and readjusts the parameters of an already implanted subcutaneous cardiac rhythm monitor system. Following his analysis, he reviews the results and prepares a report. This code represents both the professional and technical components of the service.",CPT +93286,"Implantable, Insertable, and Wearable Cardiac Device Evaluations.","In this service, the provider performs a face–to–face evaluation and then optimally adjusts the existing parameters of a single, dual, multiple–lead, or leadless pacemaker system before, during, and/or just after a procedure, then reviews the results and prepares a report. This code represents both the professional and technical components of the service by a physician or other qualified healthcare professional.",CPT +93287,"Implantable, Insertable, and Wearable Cardiac Device Evaluations.","In this service, the provider performs a face–to–face evaluation before or after a surgical procedure and then optimally adjusts the existing parameters of an already implanted single, dual, or multiple lead defibrillator system. He changes the various operating functions for the defibrillator responsible for sensing and regulating the activity from one, two, or more chambers of the heart .This code represents both the professional and technical components of the service .",CPT +93288,"Implantable, Insertable, and Wearable Cardiac Device Evaluations.","In this service, the provider performs a face–to–face evaluation and then optimally adjusts the parameters of an already implanted single, dual, multiple lead, or leadless pacemaker system after which he reviews the results and prepares a report. This code represents both the professional and technical components of the service by a physician or other qualified health care professional.",CPT +93289,"Implantable, Insertable, and Wearable Cardiac Device Evaluations.","In this service, the provider performs a face–to–face evaluation and then optimally adjusts the existing parameters of an already implanted single, dual, or multiple lead defibrillator system. He changes various operating functions for the defibrillator responsible for sensing and regulating the activity from one, two, or more chambers of the heart. This code represents both the professional and technical components of the service.",CPT +93290,"Implantable, Insertable, and Wearable Cardiac Device Evaluations.","The provider performs a face–to–face evaluation and optimally adjusts the existing parameters of an already implanted cardiovascular physiologic monitoring system, reviews the results, and prepares a report. This code represents both the professional and technical components of the service by a physician or other qualified health care professional.",CPT +93291,"Implantable, Insertable, and Wearable Cardiac Device Evaluations.","In this service, the provider performs a face–to–face evaluation and then optimally adjusts the existing parameters of various operating functions of an already implanted subcutaneous cardiac rhythm monitor system responsible for sensing the activity of the heart; he then reviews the results and prepares a report. This code represents both the professional and technical components of the service by a physician or other qualified health care professional.",CPT +93292,"Implantable, Insertable, and Wearable Cardiac Device Evaluations.","In this service, the provider performs a face to face evaluation and then optimally adjusts the existing parameters of various operating functions of a patient’s wearable defibrillator system, responsible for sensing the activity from the heart. This code represents both the professional and technical components of the service.",CPT +93293,"Implantable, Insertable, and Wearable Cardiac Device Evaluations.","In this procedure, the provider evaluates a pacemaker by rhythm strip over the telephone. She reviews the pacemaker data and confirms the function of each of the leads, battery, capture, and sensing by transtelephonic monitoring strip once without the magnet and then again with the magnet over the pacemaker. Therefore, she assesses the pacemaker’s function and the time interval to the next analysis, including the review and report of a single, dual, or multiple lead pacemaker system.",CPT +93294,"Implantable, Insertable, and Wearable Cardiac Device Evaluations.","The provider, a physician or other qualified health care professional, remotely analyzes, for a period up to 90 days, the function of a single, dual, multiple lead, or leadless pacemaker system, reviews the results and prepares a report.",CPT +93295,"Implantable, Insertable, and Wearable Cardiac Device Evaluations.","In this service the provider evaluates from a remote location an implantable single, dual, or multiple lead defibrillator system. The service includes his interim analyses during a period of up to 90 days, and his technical review and report on the data.",CPT +93296,"Implantable, Insertable, and Wearable Cardiac Device Evaluations.","The technician gathers data, for a period of up to 90 days, from a patient’s single, dual, multiple lead, or leadless pacemaker system or implantable defibrillator system by remotely accessing the device, retrieving information, and conducting a technical review. He then distributes the results to the patient's physicians, providing technical support as necessary. This code represents the technical component of the service only.",CPT +93297,"Implantable, Insertable, and Wearable Cardiac Device Evaluations.","The provider, a physician or other qualified healthcare professional, evaluates the physiologic data from the implantable physiologic cardiovascular monitoring system during a period of up 30 days via telemetric communication from both internal and external sensors, to assess whether the device functions normally. Report this code for the professional component only.",CPT +93298,"Implantable, Insertable, and Wearable Cardiac Device Evaluations.","The provider, a physician or other qualified health care professional, evaluates the data from a previously implanted subcutaneous cardiac rhythm monitor system via telemetric communication for a period of up to 30 days from both internal and external sensors to confirm whether the recorded heart rhythm data is normal. Report this code for the professional component only.",CPT +93303,Echocardiography Procedures.,"The provider performs a complete transthoracic echocardiography to obtain images of the heart structures through the chest wall in patients born with heart defects. This study includes visualization of heart chambers, valves, blood flow, and cardiac activity. This service has both a professional and a technical component.",CPT +93304,Echocardiography Procedures.,The provider performs a limited or follow–up transthoracic echocardiography to obtain images of the heart through the chest wall in patients born with heart defects. It is a limited examination of a focused clinical concern that does not attempt to evaluate or document all the heart structures included in a complete echo. This service has both a professional and a technical component.,CPT +93306,Echocardiography Procedures.,"The provider uses transducers to obtain two–dimensional (2D) images of the heart structures through the chest wall. He evaluates the anatomy and function of all four heart chambers, valves, adjacent aorta, and wall of the heart. This service has both a professional and a technical component.",CPT +93307,Echocardiography Procedures.,"The provider uses transducers to obtain a two–dimensional (2D) echocardiogram of the heart structures through the chest wall. This study includes visualization of heart chambers, valves, blood flow, and cardiac activity. This service has both a professional and a technical component.",CPT +93308,Echocardiography Procedures.,The provider performs a limited or follow–up transthoracic echocardiography to obtain a two dimensional (2D) image of the heart through the chest wall. It is a limited examination of a focused clinical concern that does not attempt to evaluate or document all the heart structures included in a complete echo. This service has both a professional and a technical component.,CPT +93312,Echocardiography Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs transesophageal echocardiography, or TEE, with multiple transducers, or probes, or a rotating transducer to obtain a two–dimensional (2D) image of the heart. The TEE test provides a close look at the heart's valves and chambers to assess the overall function of the heart’s valves and chambers and determine the presence of many types of heart disease.",CPT +93313,Echocardiography Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider places a transesophageal probe in preparation for performing transesophageal echocardiography (TEE) to obtain a two–dimensional (2D) image for visualization of the heart valves and chambers. This code covers only insertion of the probe for viewing the detailed anatomy of heart.",CPT +93314,Echocardiography Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs transesophageal echocardiography, TEE, with interpretation of the overall function of the heart’s valves and chambers and determines the presence of many types of heart disease. This involves only interpretation and report of the procedure performed. The TEE test provides a close look at the heart's valves and chambers to assess the overall function of the heart’s valves and chambers and determine the presence of many types of heart disease.",CPT +93315,Echocardiography Procedures.,The provider performs transesophageal echocardiography (TEE) with multiple transducers or a rotating transducer to obtain a two–dimensiona (2D) image for visualization of the heart. This involves probe placement and interpretation and report of the procedure performed.,CPT +93316,Echocardiography Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs transesophageal echocardiography, or TEE, with multiple transducers or a rotating transducer to obtain a two dimensional, 2D, image for visualization of the heart for any congenital problems and includes only transesophageal probe placement.",CPT +93317,Echocardiography Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs transesophageal echocardiography, TEE, with multiple transducers or a rotating transducer to obtain a two dimensional, 2D, image for visualization of the heart for any congenital problems. The TEE test provides a close look at the heart's valves and chambers to assess the overall function of the heart’s valves and chambers and determine the presence of many types of heart disease.",CPT +93318,Echocardiography Procedures.,The provider performs monitoring and continuous assessment of cardiac functions using transesophageal echocardiography with multiple transducers or a rotating transducer to obtain a two dimensional (2D) image.,CPT +93319,Echocardiography Procedures.,"At the same session as a primary echocardiography service, the provider uses a 3D–capable machine to perform 3D imaging. The provider can see the images in real–time and also can use postprocessing software for further studies, such as reconstruction and measurement.",CPT +93320,Echocardiography Procedures.,"The provider performs a complete Doppler echocardiography, which uses high–frequency sound waves to create a two–dimensional image of the heart, while the use of Doppler technology allows determination of the speed and direction of blood flow via spectral display. Pulsed wave alternates between transmission and reception of ultrasound while continuous wave refers to uninterrupted or simultaneous generation and reception of sound waves.",CPT +93321,Echocardiography Procedures.,The provider performs Doppler echocardiography using pulsed wave and/or continuous wave with a spectral display for a follow–up or limited study. The ultrasound involves the continuous generation of ultrasound waves coupled with continuous ultrasound reception. The continuous wave Doppler uses continuous transmission and reception of ultrasound waves to accurately measure the highest blood velocity. The spectral display shows a graphic representation of the velocity and direction of blood flow. This is an add–on code for limited or follow–up study.,CPT +93325,Echocardiography Procedures.,"The provider performs Doppler echocardiography, a diagnostic procedure based on the Doppler effect of sound, color flow velocity mapping, a two–dimensional image representation of blood flow in the heart that shows the velocity and direction of blood flow in different colors.",CPT +93350,Echocardiography Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs transthoracic echocardiography both at rest and after exercise to review images. He evaluates and assesses global and ventricular performance and cardiac causes of chest pain.",CPT +93351,Echocardiography Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs continuous transthoracic echocardiography both at rest and after exercise and reviews images evaluating and assessing global and ventricular performance and other cardiac causes of chest pain. This code has both a professional and a technical component. It is not just for supervision and interpretation.",CPT +93352,Echocardiography Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs echocardiography by administering contrast intravenously to obtain both pre– and poststress images of the heart during stress echocardiography.",CPT +93355,Echocardiography Procedures.,The provider uses an ultrasound transducer inserted through an endoscope into the esophagus to examine the heart’s valves and chambers and guide transcatheter procedures on the heart and great vessels.,CPT +93356,Echocardiography Procedures.,The provider performs speckle tracking of myocardial mechanics to assess myocardial strain in addition to standard echocardiography.,CPT +93451,Cardiac Catheterization and Associated Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider gains percutaneous venous access through the internal jugular, subclavian, or femoral vein under fluoroscopic guidance. He obtains oxygen saturation measurements that indicate the amount of oxygen the blood is carrying as a percentage of the maximum it could carry, to evaluate cardiac output.",CPT +93452,Cardiac Catheterization and Associated Procedures.,"This procedure involves catheter placement in a left sided, systemic cardiac chambers left ventricle or left atrium. It also includes left ventricular injection and measuring left ventricular pressures that mounts within the ventricle.",CPT +93453,Cardiac Catheterization and Associated Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs both right and left heart catheterization to evaluate the heart’s function.",CPT +93454,Cardiac Catheterization and Associated Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation for a coronary angiography in which injections are performed to assess any coronary artery disease or any stenosis within the artery. Report this code to represent only imaging supervision and interpretation for this procedure.",CPT +93455,Cardiac Catheterization and Associated Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation for a catheter placement in the bypass graft. He also performs injections to assess any coronary artery disease or any stenosis within the artery. Report this code to represent only imaging supervision and interpretation for this procedure.",CPT +93456,Cardiac Catheterization and Associated Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation for a coronary angiography with right heart catheterization. He also performs injections to assess any coronary artery disease or any stenosis within the artery. Report this code to represent only imaging supervision and interpretation for this procedure.",CPT +93457,Cardiac Catheterization and Associated Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation, including catheter placement, for coronary angiography as well as for bypass graft angiography with right heart catheterization. He also performs injections to assess any coronary artery disease or any stenosis within the artery. Report this code to represent only imaging supervision and interpretation for this procedure.",CPT +93458,Cardiac Catheterization and Associated Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs imaging supervision and interpretation for a coronary angiography with left heart catheterization and intraprocedural injections for left ventriculography. He performs these injections to assess any coronary artery disease or any stenosis within the artery. Report this code to represent only imaging supervision and interpretation for this procedure.",CPT +93459,Cardiac Catheterization and Associated Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs coronary angiography, an imaging study of the vessels in the heart. He inserts tubing into an artery, typically in the groin or arm, and threads it into the left side of the heart, where he injects dye. He also injects dye into the left ventricle, the lower chamber on that side, if necessary, and into any prior bypass grafts. He supervises the collection of images and interprets the images to identify narrowing or blockages in the vessels and assess the health of the heart.",CPT +93460,Cardiac Catheterization and Associated Procedures.,"The provider performs coronary angiography, an imaging study of the vessels in the heart. He inserts tubing into an artery, typically in the groin or arm, and threads it into both the left and right sides of the heart, where he injects dye. He also injects dye into the left ventricle, the lower chamber on the left side, if necessary. He supervises the collection of images and interprets the images to identify narrowing or blockages in the vessels and assess the health of the heart.",CPT +93461,Cardiac Catheterization and Associated Procedures.,The provider performs right and left heart catheterization with coronary and bypass graft imaging to evaluate heart function.,CPT +93462,Cardiac Catheterization and Associated Procedures.,"The provider passes a catheter into the left ventricle of the heart by puncturing the septum, a partition between the ventricles, or by incising the skin between the ribs and accessing the apex (top) of the left ventricle directly. The provider uses this method when the left side of the heart is difficult to access, such as in patients with valve replacement.",CPT +93463,Cardiac Catheterization and Associated Procedures.,"The provider administers a pharmacologic agent such as inhaled nitric oxide or an intravenous infusion of nitroprusside, dobutamine, milrinone, or other inotropic agents and monitors hemodynamic measurements before, during, and after administration and may administer additional hemodynamic agents. Report this code in addition to a primary procedure code.",CPT +93464,Cardiac Catheterization and Associated Procedures.,"The provider subjects the patient to exercise and measures its effect on the heart through the assessment of various hemodynamic parameters, such as cardiac output, blood flow, pressures, and oxygen level before and after the exercise. This study, performed in association with cardiac catheterization, assesses the heart’s ability to withstand physical stress.",CPT +93503,Cardiac Catheterization and Associated Procedures.,"The provider performs Swan–Ganz® catheterization for the direct assessment of pressure in the pulmonary artery, right atrium, right ventricle, as well as the wedge pressure of the left atrium simultaneously in patients with heart failure, valvular regurgitation, acute renal failure, pulmonary edema, pulmonary hypertension, shock, and burns.",CPT +93505,Cardiac Catheterization and Associated Procedures.,"The provider takes a sample of tissue from within the innermost layer of the heart muscle, primarily to check for signs of any damage due to rejection of a heart transplant.",CPT +93563,Injection Procedures During Cardiac Catheterizations.,"In this procedure, the provider passes a catheter into the coronary arteries and injects dye to evaluate heart function in a patient with congenital heart disease. He supervises the collection of images, interprets the images, and makes a report of his findings.",CPT +93564,Injection Procedures During Cardiac Catheterizations.,"In this procedure, the provider passes a catheter into the coronary arteries and injects dye to evaluate heart function in a patient with congenital heart disease. He catheterizes the native arteries and any bypass grafts.  He supervises the collection of images, interprets the images, and makes a report of his findings.",CPT +93565,Injection Procedures During Cardiac Catheterizations.,"In this procedure, the provider passes a catheter into the left ventricle or left atrium and injects dye to evaluate heart function in a patient with congenital heart disease. He supervises the collection of images, interprets the images, and makes a report of his findings.",CPT +93566,Injection Procedures During Cardiac Catheterizations.,"In this procedure, the provider passes a catheter into the right ventricle or right atrium and injects dye to evaluate heart function in a patient with congenital heart disease. He supervises the collection of images, interprets the images, and makes a report of his findings.",CPT +93567,Injection Procedures During Cardiac Catheterizations.,"In this procedure, the provider passes a catheter into the aorta and injects dye to evaluate heart function in a patient with or without congenital heart disease. He supervises the collection of images, interprets the images, and makes a report of his findings.",CPT +93568,Injection Procedures During Cardiac Catheterizations.,"During a cardiac catheterization procedure, the provider passes a catheter into the pulmonary artery and injects dye to visualize the artery and see how blood is flowing. The provider supervises the imaging, interprets the images, and makes a report of the findings.",CPT +93569,Injection Procedures During Cardiac Catheterizations.,"During a cardiac catheterization procedure, the provider passes a catheter into the right or left pulmonary artery and injects dye to visualize the artery and see how blood is flowing. The provider supervises the imaging, interprets the images, and makes a report of the findings.",CPT +93571,Injection Procedures During Cardiac Catheterizations.,"In this procedure, the provider passes a catheter into a coronary artery and injects a medication that increases blood flow. He then measures the blood’s velocity and pressure using the Doppler method to determine the extent of a blockage in the vessel. The service is for measuring an initial vessel.",CPT +93572,Injection Procedures During Cardiac Catheterizations.,"In this procedure, the provider passes a catheter into a coronary vessel or bypasses graft and injects a medication that increases blood flow. He then measures the blood’s velocity and pressure using the Doppler method to determine the extent of a blockage in each additional vessel.",CPT +93573,Injection Procedures During Cardiac Catheterizations.,"During a cardiac catheterization procedure, the provider passes a catheter into the right and left pulmonary arteries and injects dye to visualize the arteries and see how blood is flowing. The provider supervises the imaging, interprets the images, and makes a report of the findings.",CPT +93574,Injection Procedures During Cardiac Catheterizations.,"During a cardiac catheterization procedure, the provider passes a catheter into a pulmonary vein and injects dye to visualize the vein and see how blood is flowing. The provider supervises the imaging, interprets the images, and makes a report of the findings.",CPT +93575,Injection Procedures During Cardiac Catheterizations.,"During a cardiac catheterization procedure for a congenital heart defect, the provider passes a catheter into a major aortopulmonary collateral artery (MAPCA) off the aorta or its systemic branches and injects dye to visualize the artery and see how blood is flowing. The provider supervises the imaging, interprets the images, and makes a report of the findings.",CPT +93580,Percutaneous Transcatheter Closure Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider closes an opening between the atria, or upper chambers of the heart, the result of a birth defect or surgically created. He inserts a catheter through a large vein in the groin and threads it into the right side of the heart. He injects dye and obtains images of the upper and lower chambers. He then inserts an implant to cover the opening in the septum, or wall between the chambers.",CPT +93581,Percutaneous Transcatheter Closure Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider closes an opening between the ventricles, or lower chambers of the heart, the result of a birth defect. He inserts a catheter through a large vein in the groin and threads it into the right side of the heart. He injects dye and obtains images of the upper and lower chambers. He then inserts an implant to cover the opening in the septum, or wall between the chambers.",CPT +93582,Percutaneous Transcatheter Closure Procedures.,"The provider closes a patent ductus arteriosus, a congenital heart defect from the pulmonary artery to the aorta, using a catheter placed through the skin and maneuvered through the vascular system.",CPT +93583,Percutaneous Transcatheter Septal Reduction Therapy.,The physician performs a catheter–based intervention to create a controlled infarction. The treatment will reduce an area of abnormally thick heart muscle between the ventricles that's causing an obstruction.,CPT +93584,Cardiac Catheterization for Congenital Heart Defects.,"At the same session as heart catheterization for one or more congenital defects, the provider performs vein imaging using a catheter to assess an anomalous or persistent superior vena cava (SVC) that exists on the side opposite from a first SVC.",CPT +93585,Cardiac Catheterization for Congenital Heart Defects.,"At the same session as heart catheterization for one or more congenital defects, the provider performs vein imaging using a catheter to assess the azygos/hemiazygos venous system, which moves blood from the chest to the superior vena cava in normal anatomy.",CPT +93586,Cardiac Catheterization for Congenital Heart Defects.,"At the same session as heart catheterization for one or more congenital defects, the provider performs vein imaging using a catheter to assess the coronary sinus, a large venous structure in the heart.",CPT +93587,Cardiac Catheterization for Congenital Heart Defects.,"At the same session as heart catheterization for one or more congenital defects, the provider performs vein imaging using a catheter to assess venovenous collaterals originating at or above the heart.",CPT +93588,Cardiac Catheterization for Congenital Heart Defects.,"At the same session as heart catheterization for one or more congenital defects, the provider performs vein imaging using a catheter to assess venovenous collaterals originating below the heart.",CPT +93590,Transcatheter Closure of Cardiac Paravalvular Leak.,"The provider inserts a special device to close, or occlude, a leak around the mitral valve, e.g., a prosthetic (artificial) valve, through a catheter inserted percutaneously, i.e., through a small incision in the skin over the heart. This code is for insertion of the first occlusion device to close a leak in the mitral valve, the valve between the left atrium, or upper chamber, and left ventricle, lower pumping chamber, of the heart.",CPT +93591,Transcatheter Closure of Cardiac Paravalvular Leak.,"The provider inserts a special device to close, or occlude, a leak around the aortic valve, e.g., a prosthetic (artificial) valve, through a catheter inserted percutaneously, i.e., through a small incision in the skin over the heart. This code is for insertion of the first occlusion device to close a leak in the aortic valve, the cardiac valve connecting the heart to the aorta, the largest artery originating from heart that supplies oxygenated blood to the body.",CPT +93592,Transcatheter Closure of Cardiac Paravalvular Leak.,"The provider inserts a special device to close, or occlude, a leak around the mitral or aortic valve, e.g., a prosthetic (artificial) valve, through a catheter inserted percutaneously, i.e., through a small incision in the skin over the heart or the femoral artery. This code is for insertion of each additional occlusion device to close a leak in the mitral or aortic valve.",CPT +93593,Cardiac Catheterization for Congenital Heart Defects.,"For a patient born with one or more heart defects and normal native connections, the provider navigates a catheter through the blood vessels to the heart and inserts the catheter into the right side. The provider takes samples to measure blood gases and may perform other measurements.",CPT +93594,Cardiac Catheterization for Congenital Heart Defects.,"For a patient born with one or more heart defects and abnormal native vessel connections, the provider navigates a catheter through the blood vessels to the heart and inserts the catheter into the right side. The provider takes samples to measure blood gases and may perform other measurements.",CPT +93595,Cardiac Catheterization for Congenital Heart Defects.,"For a patient born with one or more heart defects, the provider navigates a catheter through the blood vessels to the heart and inserts the catheter into the left side for evaluation.",CPT +93596,Cardiac Catheterization for Congenital Heart Defects.,"For a patient born with one or more heart defects and normal native connections, the provider navigates one or more catheters through the blood vessels to the heart and inserts the catheter(s) into the right and left sides. The provider takes samples to measure blood gases and may perform other measurements.",CPT +93597,Cardiac Catheterization for Congenital Heart Defects.,"For a patient born with one or more heart defects and abnormal native connections, the provider navigates one or more catheters through the blood vessels to the heart and inserts the catheter(s) into the right and left sides. The provider takes samples to measure blood gases and may perform other measurements.",CPT +93598,Cardiac Catheterization for Congenital Heart Defects.,"At the same session as cardiac catheterization for congenital defects, the provider calculates the volume of blood pumped by the heart over time by injecting a substance and then measuring its concentration or temperature.",CPT +93600,Intracardiac Electrophysiological Procedures/Studies.,"The provider makes a recording of the electrical activity in the heart that controls the heartbeat, in the area called the bundle of His.",CPT +93602,Intracardiac Electrophysiological Procedures/Studies.,"The provider records the electrical activity in the heart that controls the heartbeat, from within one of the upper chambers of the heart.",CPT +93603,Intracardiac Electrophysiological Procedures/Studies.,The provider makes a recording of the electrical activity in the heart that controls the heartbeat from within one of the lower chambers of the heart.,CPT +93609,Intracardiac Electrophysiological Procedures/Studies.,The provider induces a rapid heartbeat and then uses electrodes to map the electrical activity in the heart to identify its origin.,CPT +93610,Intracardiac Electrophysiological Procedures/Studies.,"When the physician administers electrical impulses to specific areas in the heart, he or she is ""pacing"" that location. Pacing allows the physician to assess how various portions of the heart react to electrical impulses. Specifically, the physician may perform pacing to evaluate whether certain pathways of the heart carry electrical impulses to appropriate locations and the speed of the conducted impulses. Report when the physician paces from the atrium.",CPT +93612,Intracardiac Electrophysiological Procedures/Studies.,"When a physician administers electrical impulses to specific areas in the heart, he is ""pacing"" that location. Pacing allows the physician to assess how various portions of the heart react to electrical impulses. Specifically, the physician may perform pacing to evaluate whether certain pathways of the heart carry electrical impulses to appropriate locations and the speed of the conducted impulses. Report when the physician paces from the ventricle.",CPT +93613,Intracardiac Electrophysiological Procedures/Studies.,The provider induces a rapid heartbeat and then uses multiple electrodes to produce a three–dimensional map of the electrical activity in the heart to identify its origin.,CPT +93615,Intracardiac Electrophysiological Procedures/Studies.,"The provider inserts a catheter to a specific esophageal site. The electrodes on the tip of the catheter detect the optimal location to receive the signal to obtain esophageal electrograms of the atria. Since the esophagus passes close to the left atrium, physicians can use a swallowed exploring electrode attached to a fine piece of wire to detect atrial activity during arrhythmias. The procedure may or may not include ventricular recording.  This code represents both the technical and professional components of the service.",CPT +93616,Intracardiac Electrophysiological Procedures/Studies.,"The provider inserts a catheter, with a recording electrode tip, into the esophagus to transmit pacing impulses and to obtain esophageal electrograms of the atria. The provider may also record the ventricles. This code represents both the technical and professional components of the service.",CPT +93618,Intracardiac Electrophysiological Procedures/Studies.,The provider inserts a catheter for the purpose of inducing an arrhythmia.,CPT +93619,Intracardiac Electrophysiological Procedures/Studies.,"The provider inserts and repositions multiple electrode catheters in the right atrium, His bundle region, and right ventricle to evaluate abnormal heart rhythm disturbances. This code represents both the technical and professional components of the service.",CPT +93620,Intracardiac Electrophysiological Procedures/Studies.,"The provider performs a comprehensive electrophysiologic study (EPS) by inserting multiple electrode–tipped catheters into the high right atrium, His bundle region, and right ventricle. The provider performs right atrial pacing and recording, His bundle recording, and right ventricular pacing and recording and induces or attempts to induce an arrhythmia.",CPT +93621,Intracardiac Electrophysiological Procedures/Studies.,"In this add–on procedure, after initial induction of arrhythmia with pacing and recording of the right side of the heart and bundle of His, the provider inserts an additional catheter threaded through a venous sheath and moves it under fluoroscopic guidance through the coronary sinus for left atrial pacing and recording.",CPT +93622,Intracardiac Electrophysiological Procedures/Studies.,"In this add–on procedure, after initial induction of arrhythmia with pacing and recording of the right side of the heart and bundle of His, the provider inserts an additional catheter threaded through a venous sheath and moves it under fluoroscopic guidance for left ventricular pacing and recording.",CPT +93623,Intracardiac Electrophysiological Procedures/Studies.,The provider stimulates and paces the heart by infusing a drug that pharmacologically stresses the heart to detect underlying arrhythmia that can't be induced by normal means of stimulation.,CPT +93624,Intracardiac Electrophysiological Procedures/Studies.,"The provider performs a follow–up study of the electrical activity of the heart. He regulates the heart rhythm by electrical stimulation and uses an electrode placed inside the heart to record the heart’s electrical activity. He induces a rapid heart rate to determine the effect of therapy, such as an ablation procedure.",CPT +93631,Intracardiac Electrophysiological Procedures/Studies.,"In this procedure, the provider does epicardial and endocardial pacing and mapping to pinpoint the site of tachycardia generating or arrhythmia generating foci during an open heart surgery. Epicardium is the outermost layer of tissue of the heart wall, and endocardium is the innermost layer of tissue of the heart wall.",CPT +93640,Intracardiac Electrophysiological Procedures/Studies.,"In this procedure, the provider tests the electrical activity of a cardioverter defibrillator device’s leads, which are implanted in the heart, and their ability to respond to and regulate an abnormal heart beat. He performs the tests when the device is first implanted or at the time of a replacement.",CPT +93641,Intracardiac Electrophysiological Procedures/Studies.,"In this procedure, the provider tests the electrical activity of a single or dual chamber cardioverter defibrillator device’s leads, which are implanted in the heart, and their ability to respond to and regulate an abnormal heart beat. He performs the tests when the device is first implanted or at the time of a replacement. He also tests the device’s power source and controller, the pulse generator.",CPT +93642,Intracardiac Electrophysiological Procedures/Studies.,In this procedure the provider evaluates and reprograms the various electrophysiologic and therapeutic parameters of a single or dual chamber pacing defibrillator system.,CPT +93644,Intracardiac Electrophysiological Procedures/Studies.,"The provider performs an electrophysiology procedure to evaluate a subcutaneous defibrillator system. In doing so, he induces, or attempts to induce, an arrhythmia, determines the threshold needed for termination of the arrhythmia, evaluates sensing parameters, and programs or reprograms the device for therapeutic settings.",CPT +93650,Intracardiac Electrophysiological Procedures/Studies.,"In this procedure, the provider destroys the muscle fibers that conduct electrical impulses in the heart to treat an abnormal heart rhythm. He accesses the heart through a catheter inserted through the groin. He may place a temporary pacemaker, a device that regulates the heartbeat.",CPT +93653,Intracardiac Electrophysiological Procedures/Studies.,"A comprehensive electrophysiologic (EP) study involves the provider placing wire electrodes in the heart to measure electrical activity. The provider induces, or attempts to induce, arrhythmia. The provider also treats rapid heartbeat that originates above the ventricles by destroying the pathway or other source of the problem.",CPT +93654,Intracardiac Electrophysiological Procedures/Studies.,"A comprehensive electrophysiologic (EP) study involves the provider placing wire electrodes in the heart to measure electrical activity. The provider induces, or attempts to induce, arrhythmia. The provider also treats abnormal heart rhythm issues that originate in the ventricles by destroying the pathway or other source of the problem.",CPT +93655,Intracardiac Electrophysiological Procedures/Studies.,"In this procedure, the provider tests the electrical activity in the heart after an ablation procedure, to test its effectiveness and identify any other areas responsible for an abnormal rhythm. He abates, or destroys, the muscles fibers in these areas. He accesses the heart through a catheter inserted through the groin.",CPT +93656,Intracardiac Electrophysiological Procedures/Studies.,"A comprehensive electrophysiologic (EP) study involves the provider placing wire electrodes in the heart to measure electrical activity. The provider punctures the thin wall between the heart chambers to access necessary sites. The provider induces, or attempts to induce, arrhythmia. The provider also uses energy to treat the source of atrial fibrillation (irregular heartbeat) around the connection of the pulmonary veins to the left atrium. This ablation treatment is known as pulmonary vein isolation (PVI).",CPT +93657,Intracardiac Electrophysiological Procedures/Studies.,"In this procedure, the provider uses radiofrequency energy to treat an additional source of atrial fibrillation, an abnormal heart rhythm, following a radiofrequency ablation procedure.",CPT +93660,Intracardiac Electrophysiological Procedures/Studies.,"In this procedure, the provider tests the function of the heart with the patient on a tilt table to determine the cause of reflex mediated syncope. He rotates the position of the patient while connected to heart and blood pressure monitoring devices. He may administer medication to increase the heartbeat and repeat the testing.",CPT +93662,Intracardiac Electrophysiological Procedures/Studies.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider performs intracardiac echocardiography, an imaging technique that allows viewing the inner working of the heart by ultrasound. The provider uses this cardiac imaging while he performs a therapeutic or diagnostic intervention.",CPT +93668,Peripheral Arterial Disease Rehabilitation.,"In this procedure, the provider supervises exercise sessions to increase walking tolerance and reduce pain and swelling from hardening of the arteries in the legs, or peripheral arterial disease.",CPT +93701,Non-invasive Physiologic Studies and Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a bioimpedance study to measure certain physiological cardiac parameters. The test helps to evaluate the cardiovascular health of the patient.",CPT +93702,Non-invasive Physiologic Studies and Procedures.,"The provider measures the resistance of tissues in the limbs to mild electric current and determines the volume of extracellular fluid, i.e., fluid in tissue spaces outside of cells. The procedure helps the provider detect early lymphedema and take preventive action.",CPT +93724,Non-invasive Physiologic Studies and Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider analyzes an electronic pacemaker system designed to control tachycardia, an abnormal rapid heart rhythm, by recording the paced heart rate and simulating an episode of tachycardia. He interprets his findings.",CPT +93740,Non-invasive Physiologic Studies and Procedures.,The provider measures variations in temperature in different locations in the walls of the heart via a temperature sensor mounted on a catheter inserted through a vessel in the groin. He maps the temperature variations to identify areas where the heart muscle is malfunctioning.,CPT +93745,Non-invasive Physiologic Studies and Procedures.,In this procedure the provider performs the initial setup and programming of a wearable cardioverter defibrillator. He enters the system’s parameters and records baseline data which is transmitted to a central location. He provides patient education for using the device.,CPT +93750,Non-invasive Physiologic Studies and Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider tests the settings of a ventricular assist device, a mechanical pump connected to the heart and aorta that ensures adequate blood flow in the presence of heart failure. The device connects to an external power source and controller. The provider reprograms the device as necessary and reports his findings.",CPT +93770,Non-invasive Physiologic Studies and Procedures.,"The provider measures pressure in the venous system, the vessels that carry oxygen poor blood from the body to the heart, to assess the state of the cardiovascular system in a patient with a critical illness.",CPT +93784,Non-invasive Physiologic Studies and Procedures.,"The provider prescribes ambulatory blood pressure monitoring in which a patient wears a device continuously that automatically measures blood pressure at intervals over a period of 24 hours and stores the results. The provider scans the data, interprets it, and reports his findings.",CPT +93786,Non-invasive Physiologic Studies and Procedures.,The provider prescribes ambulatory blood pressure monitoring in which a patient wears a device continuously that automatically measures blood pressure at intervals over 24 hours and just records the results.,CPT +93788,Non-invasive Physiologic Studies and Procedures.,The provider prescribes ambulatory blood pressure monitoring in which a patient wears a device continuously that automatically measures blood pressure at intervals over 24 hours and records the results. The provider scans the data and reports his findings.,CPT +93790,Non-invasive Physiologic Studies and Procedures.,The provider prescribes ambulatory blood pressure monitoring in which a patient wears a device continuously that automatically measures blood pressure at intervals over 24 hours and records the results. The provider interprets the data and reports his findings.,CPT +93792,Home and Outpatient International Normalized Ratio (INR) Monitoring Services.,"A physician or other qualified healthcare professional provides face–to–face instruction and training of a patient or caregiver on how to care for and use an INR monitor, how to obtain a blood sample, and how to report the results, and documents the results of the training.",CPT +93793,Home and Outpatient International Normalized Ratio (INR) Monitoring Services.,"The provider reviews and interprets a new INR test result of a patient taking regular doses of warfarin after which he adjusts the dosage if needed, instructs the patient on continued treatment, and schedules additional tests if needed.",CPT +93797,Other Cardiovascular Procedures.,The provider supervises the patient while the patient exercises and reviews the patient’s diet with him or her. The patient exercises without continuous ECG monitoring.,CPT +93798,Other Cardiovascular Procedures.,The provider supervises the patient while the patient exercises and reviews the patient’s diet with him or her. The patient exercises with continuous ECG monitoring.,CPT +93799,Other Cardiovascular Procedures.,Use to report new or unusual cardiovascular service or procedures that do not have an assigned code.,CPT +93880,Non-Invasive Cerebrovascular Arterial Studies.,"Duplex scanning of arteries for the evaluation of blood flow is a type of non–invasive vascular diagnostic process. A physician can visualize and selectively assess the flow patterns of peripheral vessels using real–time ultrasound imaging and pulsed Doppler. The presence of arterial stenosis, occlusion, and identification of incompetent veins can also be achieved through this process.",CPT +93882,Non-Invasive Cerebrovascular Arterial Studies.,"The provider performs a duplex ultrasound scan of the carotid and/or vertebral arteries on one side. He performs the procedure to evaluate the arteries for stenosis, or narrowing, in a patient who has symptoms of stroke, transient ischemic attack, or other vascular abnormalities.",CPT +93886,Non-Invasive Cerebrovascular Arterial Studies.,"The provider performs an ultrasound of the arteries inside the head using Doppler technique to study the flow and speed of blood through the arteries. He performs the procedure to assess blood flow to the brain. Providers may order the test to determine whether there is an artery occlusion or stenosis that could result in cerebrovascular diseases such as stroke and brain hemorrhages. Providers also may order the test as a screening study for children with particular conditions, such as sickle cell anemia.",CPT +93888,Non-Invasive Cerebrovascular Arterial Studies.,"The provider performs an ultrasound of the arteries inside the head using Doppler technique to study the flow and speed of blood through the arteries. He performs the procedure to assess blood flow to the brain, most often after a procedure on the arteries of the head or neck or to assess the effect of various medical treatments for spasm.",CPT +93890,Non-Invasive Cerebrovascular Arterial Studies.,"The provider performs an ultrasound of the arteries inside the head using Doppler technique to study the flow and speed of blood through the arteries. The vasoreactivity test measures changes in blood flow velocity in response to a vasoreactive agent. Some protocols, referred to as a CO2 challenge, involve flow measurement before and after the patient inhales CO2 enriched air.",CPT +93892,Non-Invasive Cerebrovascular Arterial Studies.,"The provider performs an ultrasound of the arteries inside the head using Doppler technique to study the flow and speed of blood through the arteries. He does not injection a microbubble of saline or air to enhance the imaging. The provider performs this study to search for emboli, i.e., intravascular masses capable of clogging arterial capillary beds.",CPT +93893,Non-Invasive Cerebrovascular Arterial Studies.,"The provider performs an ultrasound of the arteries inside the head using Doppler technique to study the flow and speed of blood through the arteries. He injects a microbubble of saline or air to enhance the imaging. The provider performs this study to search for emboli, i.e., intravascular masses capable of clogging arterial capillary beds.",CPT +93895,Non-Invasive Cerebrovascular Arterial Studies.,"The provider measures the thickness of two inner layers of the carotid arteries, i.e., the intima and the media. He does this to monitor the deposition of fatty material on the walls of the arteries. This deposition of fatty material contributes to cardiovascular and cerebrovascular disease.",CPT +93922,Non-Invasive Extremity Arterial Studies (Including Digits).,"Noninvasive arterial diagnostic procedures are performed to examine the rate of blood flow and to assess the presence of blockage in the upper and lower extremity arteries. Plethysmography, oxygen tension measurements, and Doppler waveform analysis are a few of the tests that can be performed under this category.",CPT +93923,Non-Invasive Extremity Arterial Studies (Including Digits).,"Noninvasive arterial diagnostic procedures are performed to examine the rate of blood flow in an area and to assess the presence of a blockage in the upper and lower extremity arteries. Plethysmography, segmental blood pressure measurements, and Doppler waveform analysis are few of the tests that can be performed under this category.",CPT +93924,Non-Invasive Extremity Arterial Studies (Including Digits).,"The provider assesses blood flow in the arteries of the legs before and after exercise using various techniques, such as bidirectional Doppler waveform analysis, or volume plethysmography, and measurement of ankle brachial indices. He monitors symptoms and exercise tolerance. Providers use plethysmography to diagnose deep vein thrombosis, or DVT, and arterial occlusive disease.",CPT +93925,Non-Invasive Extremity Arterial Studies (Including Digits).,The provider performs a duplex ultrasound scan of the lower extremity arteries or bypass grafts on both sides. Providers perform noninvasive arterial diagnostic procedures to examine the rate of blood flow and to assess the presence of blockage in the lower extremity arteries.,CPT +93926,Non-Invasive Extremity Arterial Studies (Including Digits).,The provider performs a duplex ultrasound scan of the lower extremity arteries or bypass grafts. Providers perform noninvasive arterial diagnostic procedures to examine the rate of blood flow and to assess the presence of blockage in the lower extremity arteries on just one side.,CPT +93930,Non-Invasive Extremity Arterial Studies (Including Digits).,The provider performs a duplex ultrasound scan of the upper extremity arteries or bypass grafts on both sides. Providers perform noninvasive arterial diagnostic procedures to examine the rate of blood flow and to assess the presence of blockage in the upper extremity arteries.,CPT +93931,Non-Invasive Extremity Arterial Studies (Including Digits).,The provider performs a duplex ultrasound scan of the upper extremity arteries or bypass grafts on just one side. Providers perform noninvasive arterial diagnostic procedures to examine the rate of blood flow and to assess the presence of blockage in the upper extremity arteries.,CPT +93970,Non-Invasive Extremity Venous Studies (Including Digits).,"The provider performs an ultrasound scanning procedure called a duplex scan to characterize the pattern and direction of blood flow in extremity veins (arms or legs). This is a complete, bilateral imaging study that includes assessing the patient’s response to maneuvers such as compression.",CPT +93971,Non-Invasive Extremity Venous Studies (Including Digits).,The provider performs an ultrasound scanning procedure called a duplex scan to characterize the pattern and direction of blood flow in extremity veins (arm or leg). This is a unilateral or limited imaging study that includes assessing the patient’s response to maneuvers such as compression.,CPT +93975,Non-Invasive Visceral and Penile Vascular Studies.,"The provider performs a complete study of the abdominal, pelvic, scrotal, and or retroperitoneal organs using duplex ultrasound. He performs the procedure to examine the vascular supply to the organs involved as well as the venous return.",CPT +93976,Non-Invasive Visceral and Penile Vascular Studies.,"The provider performs a duplex scan of a single organ or a limited area of the abdominal, pelvic, scrotal, or retroperitoneal organs. He performs the procedure to examine the vascular supply to the organs involved as well as the venous return.",CPT +93978,Non-Invasive Visceral and Penile Vascular Studies.,"The provider performs a complete study of the aorta, the inferior vena cava or IVC, the iliac vasculature, or bypass grafts using duplex Doppler ultrasound scanning. He performs the study to assess any vascular abnormalities or these structures or to follow up on previously placed bypass grafts.",CPT +93979,Non-Invasive Visceral and Penile Vascular Studies.,"The provider performs a limited study of the aorta, the inferior vena cava or IVC, the iliac vasculature, or bypass grafts, or performs the study on only one side. He uses duplex Doppler ultrasound scanning to perform the study. He performs the study to assess any vascular abnormalities or these structures or to follow up on previously placed bypass grafts.",CPT +93980,Non-Invasive Visceral and Penile Vascular Studies.,The provider performs a complete study of the penile blood vessels for abnormalities in blood flow using duplex Doppler ultrasound imaging.,CPT +93981,Non-Invasive Visceral and Penile Vascular Studies.,"The provider performs a limited study of the penile vessels during the follow up visit, using duplex ultrasound technique.",CPT +93985,Non-Invasive Extremity Arterial-Venous Studies.,The provider performs a duplex ultrasound scan of the arteries and veins in both upper extremities to assess vascular supply and venous return in the arm prior to establishing hemodialysis access.,CPT +93986,Non-Invasive Extremity Arterial-Venous Studies.,The provider performs a duplex ultrasound scan of the arteries and veins in one upper extremity to assess vascular supply and venous return in the arm prior to establishing hemodialysis access.,CPT +93990,Non-Invasive Extremity Arterial-Venous Studies.,The provider assesses the flow of blood through a hemodialysis graft using duplex ultrasound scanning. He performs this procedure to evaluate the condition of the graft.,CPT +93998,Other Noninvasive Vascular Diagnostic Studies.,Use to report noninvasive vascular diagnostic procedures or services that do not have a specific code.,CPT +94002,Ventilator Management.,"Use this code for the initial setting of ventilator parameters for a patient who cannot breathe on his own. The service is performed for a hospital inpatient or observation patient, first day of treatment.",CPT +94003,Ventilator Management.,Use this code for each subsequent day managing ventilator settings for a patient who cannot breathe on his own.,CPT +94004,Ventilator Management.,The provider delivers daily ventilator management services for a patient in a long–term care facility.,CPT +94005,Ventilator Management.,"The provider oversees and revises the patient's plan of care for home ventilator management based on clinical status, laboratory values, or results of other studies with the goal of improving the patient’s health and respiratory status. This service is performed in the patient's home or assisted living facility without the patient in a calendar month for 30 minutes or more.",CPT +94010,Pulmonary Diagnostic Testing and Therapies.,The provider or technician administers a spirometry test to assess the patient's respiratory function. The spirometer is attached to a computer that records the total and timed vital capacity (maximum expired air) and expiratory flow rate (speed of expiration) and displays the results as a graph. The patient may or may not be required to exhale rapidly over 12 to 15 seconds after deep breathing.,CPT +94011,Pulmonary Diagnostic Testing and Therapies.,"The provider performs a pulmonary function test to make an infant or child up to 2 years old forcibly exhale all the air in the lungs, measuring the forced expiratory flow of the air. This test can assess airway function, determine lung dysfunction and disease, and evaluate the effects of therapeutic interventions.",CPT +94012,Pulmonary Diagnostic Testing and Therapies.,"The provider performs a pulmonary function test including a bronchodilation to make an infant or child up to 2 years old forcibly exhale all the air in the lungs. The test measures the forced expiratory flow of the air to assess airway function, determine lung dysfunction and disease, and to evaluate the effects of therapeutic interventions.",CPT +94013,Pulmonary Diagnostic Testing and Therapies.,"The provider performs a pulmonary function test for an infant or child up to two years old to measure the amount of air in the lungs at different points during breathing, using a technique to determine a range of lung conditions.",CPT +94014,Pulmonary Diagnostic Testing and Therapies.,"This procedure requires the patient to perform spirometry at a predetermined time each day. The patient records the spirometry findings over a period of 30 days and includes spirometric tracing, data capture, analysis of transmitted data, and physician/provider review and interpretation of the spirometric recordings. This code represents both the technical and professional components of the service.",CPT +94015,Pulmonary Diagnostic Testing and Therapies.,"This procedure requires the patient to perform spirometry at a predetermined time each day. The patient records the spirometry findings over a period of 30 days and includes hook–up of spirometer, education on spirometer’s use, spirometric tracing, data capture, trend analysis, and periodic recalibration. This code represents the technical component of the service only.",CPT +94016,Pulmonary Diagnostic Testing and Therapies.,"This procedure requires the patient to perform spirometry at a predetermined time each day. The recording is performed over a period of 30 days. This code represents the professional component of the service only, involving review and interpretation.",CPT +94060,Pulmonary Diagnostic Testing and Therapies.,"The spirometry test is performed with a spirometer. The instrument displays a graphical representation, known as a spirogram, of the test results. The basic forced volume vital capacity (FVC) test is done by asking the patient to inhale and exhale air through the sensors of the device. The speed and volume of the air is measured and the result is displayed on a graph. A bronchodilator drug is also given to the patient and the spirometry test is performed before and after the drug administration to find out the difference between results obtained in two different phases. The difference in results helps to deduce the responsiveness of the respiratory system to the bronchodilator.",CPT +94070,Pulmonary Diagnostic Testing and Therapies.,"In this procedure, the provider deliberately induces bronchospasm by controlled and measurable exposure to a specific stimulant. He then performs spirometry multiple times to evaluate the lung function under induced bronchospasm.",CPT +94150,Pulmonary Diagnostic Testing and Therapies.,In this test the provider measures the total vital capacity of the patient. Vital capacity is the volume of gas that the patient can expel from the lungs from a position of full inspiration.,CPT +94200,Pulmonary Diagnostic Testing and Therapies.,The provider measures the largest volume of air that a patient can voluntarily breathe while the patient breathes as deeply and quickly as possible for a specified period of time. This test helps determine obstructive and restrictive lung diseases or assesses the condition and strength of the patient's lungs prior to surgery.,CPT +94375,Pulmonary Diagnostic Testing and Therapies.,The provider performs a respiratory flow volume loop study to differentiate a patient's obstructive pulmonary disorder from restrictive pulmonary disorders. He may also use the procedure to characterize severity of the patient’s condition and to measure responses to therapy.,CPT +94450,Pulmonary Diagnostic Testing and Therapies.,The provider performs a pulmonary function test to determine the lungs’ responses to an inadequate supply of oxygen.,CPT +94452,Pulmonary Diagnostic Testing and Therapies.,The patient breathes a low oxygen mixture while the provider monitors the patient’s oxyhemoglobin saturations. The provider interprets the results and creates a report.,CPT +94453,Pulmonary Diagnostic Testing and Therapies.,"The patient breathes a low oxygen mixture while the provider monitors the patient’s oxyhemoglobin saturations, supplying additional oxygen to keep the patient’s saturation at appropriate levels. The provider interprets the results and creates a report.",CPT +94610,Pulmonary Diagnostic Testing and Therapies.,The provider or other qualified health care professional administers a surfactant into the lungs through an endotracheal tube. He performs the procedure to treat cystic fibrosis.,CPT +94617,Pulmonary Diagnostic Testing and Therapies.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a test to assess exercise–induced bronchospasm to evaluate lung function and to diagnose certain lung disorders.  The provider also evaluates some degree of cardiac function during the exercise testing.",CPT +94618,Pulmonary Diagnostic Testing and Therapies.,The provider performs pulmonary stress testing to evaluate lung function and to diagnose certain lung disorders. The stress component may include a six–minute walk test or other form of exercise.,CPT +94619,Pulmonary Diagnostic Testing and Therapies.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a test to assess exercise–induced bronchospasm to evaluate lung function and to diagnose certain lung disorders.",CPT +94621,Pulmonary Diagnostic Testing and Therapies.,"The provider performs complex cardiopulmonary exercise testing (CPET) to evaluate the heart and lung function. The procedure includes measuring minute ventilation (the volume of gas exhaled). Minute ventilation helps estimate ventilation to perfusion ratio, thereby assessing pulmonary function.",CPT +94625,Pulmonary Diagnostic Testing and Therapies.,"The provider performs services related to a session of outpatient pulmonary rehabilitation, a treatment program that helps a patient who has a chronic respiratory illness. Typical sessions include education and exercise. The session does not involve continuous oximetry monitoring.",CPT +94626,Pulmonary Diagnostic Testing and Therapies.,"The provider performs services related to a session of outpatient pulmonary rehabilitation, a treatment program that helps a patient who has a chronic respiratory illness. Typical sessions include education and exercise. The session includes continuous oximetry monitoring.",CPT +94640,Pulmonary Diagnostic Testing and Therapies.,The provider administers oxygen under pressure or not under pressure to open obstructed air passages. He uses any of the listed devices to treat a patient with an acute obstruction of the airway that prevents the patient from taking in sufficient air. The provider may also perform the procedure to induce sputum for laboratory analysis.,CPT +94642,Pulmonary Diagnostic Testing and Therapies.,"Using a nebulizing device, a patient breathes in the medication pentamidine to treat or prevent pneumocystis carinii pneumonia.",CPT +94644,Pulmonary Diagnostic Testing and Therapies.,The provider administers inhalation aerosol treatment with medication for up to an hour. He performs the procedure to treat acute airway obstruction.,CPT +94645,Pulmonary Diagnostic Testing and Therapies.,The provider continues administration of an inhalation aerosol treatment with medication for greater than an hour. He performs the procedure to treat acute airway obstruction. Use this code for each additional hour of treatment.,CPT +94660,Pulmonary Diagnostic Testing and Therapies.,"The provider initiates continuous positive airway pressure ventilation, or CPAP, typically for a patient with sleep apnea, or periodic cessation of breathing while asleep. He trains the patient on the use and management of the device.",CPT +94662,Pulmonary Diagnostic Testing and Therapies.,The provider initiates continuous negative pressure ventilation in a patient whose cannot breathe on his own due to paralysis or some other pathology.,CPT +94664,Pulmonary Diagnostic Testing and Therapies.,"The provider educates a patient on the use of an aerosol device, nebulizer, metered dose inhaler, or IPPB device and then has the patient demonstrate her understanding. He does this as part of the evaluation and management of a patient who needs this type of respiratory therapy.",CPT +94667,Pulmonary Diagnostic Testing and Therapies.,The provider performs chest physical therapy using manual methods to mobilize the patient’s lung secretions.,CPT +94668,Pulmonary Diagnostic Testing and Therapies.,The provider performs chest physical therapy using manual methods to mobilize the patient’s lung secretions. Use this code when the provider performs subsequent chest wall manipulation.,CPT +94669,Pulmonary Diagnostic Testing and Therapies.,The provider places a band around the patient's chest and attaches the band to a device. The band compresses the chest in cycles to mobilize lung secretions.,CPT +94680,Pulmonary Diagnostic Testing and Therapies.,"The provider collects the patient’s expelled air during rest and exercise, and uses it to determine the patient’s oxygen uptake.",CPT +94681,Pulmonary Diagnostic Testing and Therapies.,"In this procedure, the provider collects the patient’s expelled air and measures the rate of oxygen uptake and the rate of carbon dioxide production during rest and exercise.",CPT +94690,Pulmonary Diagnostic Testing and Therapies.,"The provider collects the patient’s expired air in a laboratory setting and analyzes the data to assess the patient’s respiratory status. He may run the test to evaluate a patient with bronchial allergy or hypersensitivity, bacterial lung infections, or pulmonary tumor.",CPT +94726,Pulmonary Diagnostic Testing and Therapies.,"The provider performs a pulmonary function test, or PFT, to determine the patient’s lung volumes, such as total lung capacity, residual volume, and functional residual capacity. The testing also may include checking airway resistance.",CPT +94727,Pulmonary Diagnostic Testing and Therapies.,"The provider performs a pulmonary function test, or PFT, to assess the patient’s lung volumes using gas dilution or washout techniques that compare a known concentration of an inhaled gas with the patient’s exhaled breath. The provider also may test the patient’s ventilation distribution and closing volumes.",CPT +94728,Pulmonary Diagnostic Testing and Therapies.,The provider performs pulmonary function testing (PFT) using sound waves to check airway resistance.,CPT +94729,Pulmonary Diagnostic Testing and Therapies.,"In this add on procedure, the provider tests the lungs’ diffusing capacity, the ability to exchange gases, moving oxygen into the bloodstream and letting in carbon dioxide from the bloodstream.",CPT +94760,Pulmonary Diagnostic Testing and Therapies.,The provider takes a single measurement of the patient’s oxygen saturation using a sensor on the ear or finger.,CPT +94761,Pulmonary Diagnostic Testing and Therapies.,The provider takes multiple measurements of the patient’s oxygen saturation using a sensor on the ear or finger.,CPT +94762,Pulmonary Diagnostic Testing and Therapies.,The provider monitors the patient’s oxygen saturation overnight using a sensor on the ear or finger.,CPT +94772,Pulmonary Diagnostic Testing and Therapies.,"The provider uses a special machine to measure the infant patient’s breathing, heart rate, and oxygen levels during sleep over 12 to 24 hours.",CPT +94774,Pulmonary Diagnostic Testing and Therapies.,"The provider attaches a home apnea monitor to a pediatric patient, downloads the data for up to a 30–day time period, and reviews and interprets the data for a report in the medical record. This code represents both the technical and professional components of the service.",CPT +94775,Pulmonary Diagnostic Testing and Therapies.,"The provider attaches a home apnea monitor to a pediatric patient and sets the device to record data. At the end of the recording period, the provider also disconnects the patient from the monitor. Report this code once for each 30–day time period. This code represents the technical component of the service only.",CPT +94776,Pulmonary Diagnostic Testing and Therapies.,"This service includes reviewing the results of a pediatric home apnea monitoring parameters, including respiratory rate, pattern, and heart rate. The service covers a 30–day period. It includes monitoring, downloading information, receiving transmission(s) and computer analyses.",CPT +94777,Pulmonary Diagnostic Testing and Therapies.,"This service is used is to report home apnea monitoring for a period of 30 days. Apnea monitors identify and warn of life–threatening events in neonates at risk for recurrent apnea, bradycardia, and hypoxemia after hospital discharge. This procedure includes the review and interpretation of data and preparation of the report.",CPT +94780,Pulmonary Diagnostic Testing and Therapies.,"A clinical staff person continually observes and evaluates an infant, up to and including 12 months of age, in a car seat or bed for airway integrity; heart and respiratory rate and oxygen saturation using pulse oximetry are recorded continuously for an hour. This service includes interpretation of the results and a report.",CPT +94781,Pulmonary Diagnostic Testing and Therapies.,"A clinical staff person continually observes and evaluates an infant, up to and including 12 months of age, in a car seat or bed for airway integrity; heart and respiratory rate and oxygen saturation using pulse oximetry are recorded continuously for an additional full 30 minutes after the first hour of observation. This service includes interpretation of the results and a report.",CPT +94799,Pulmonary Diagnostic Testing and Therapies.,Use to report a pulmonary service or procedure that does not have a specific code.Â,CPT +95004,Allergy Testing Procedures.,The provider performs a percutaneous test with allergenic extracts to determine which substances (allergens) trigger an allergic reaction in the patient.,CPT +95012,Allergy Testing Procedures.,The provider performs a test involving nitric oxide exhaled by a patient into a nitric oxide monitoring system. The test helps with checking the level of inflammation in the airways of a patient who is suspected to have or is confirmed to have an airway inflammation disease such as bronchial asthma.,CPT +95017,Allergy Testing Procedures.,"This service covers allergy testing in any combination of the type of allergy test, including scratch, puncture, prick, and intradermal. The tests are performed sequentially and incrementally, including venoms.",CPT +95018,Allergy Testing Procedures.,"This is a type of skin which helps the provider to find out which substance triggers immediate allergic response in an individual. This particular test is sequential and incremental with drugs and biological products , i.e., the product(s) can be applied in minute quantities at first and then the amount can be increased or decreased by certain quantities and sequentially added in the case of multiple test substances. The provider interprets the test and prepares a report.",CPT +95024,Allergy Testing Procedures.,"The provider introduces allergenic extracts into the skin to determine if the patient has an immediate allergic response, interprets the results and writes a report specifying the number of tests.",CPT +95027,Allergy Testing Procedures.,"The provider introduces sequential and incremental airborne allergenic extracts into the skin to determine if the patient has an immediate allergic response, interprets the results and writes a report specifying the number of tests.",CPT +95028,Allergy Testing Procedures.,"The provider introduces allergenic extracts into the skin to determine if the patient has a delayed allergic response, interprets the results and writes a report specifying the number of tests.",CPT +95044,Allergy Testing Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs patch testing of an area to determine a possible allergic reaction.",CPT +95052,Allergy Testing Procedures.,Code is in the Medicine section; subsection Allergy and Clinical Immunology. An allergenic extract is a protein containing an extract purified from a substance to which a patient may be allergic. Photo patch tests are done in combination with a patch test.,CPT +95056,Allergy Testing Procedures.,Code is in the Medicine section; subsection Allergy and Clinical Immunology. An allergenic extract is a protein containing an extract purified from a substance to which a patient may be allergic.A photo test may be performed without a patch test; and are useful in determining allergies occurring when exposed to sunlight.,CPT +95060,Allergy Testing Procedures.,The provider tests the patient’s eye for any allergic reactions. Providers commonly use allergy testing to determine the allergens that cause a particular reaction and the degree of the reaction. This code represents the technical component of the service only.,CPT +95065,Allergy Testing Procedures.,"The provider tests the patient’s nasal mucus membrane, which is the moist inner lining of the nose, for any allergic reactions. Providers commonly perform allergy testing to determine the allergens that cause a particular reaction and the degree of the reaction. This code represents the technical component of the service only.",CPT +95070,Allergy Testing Procedures.,"Providers use the bronchial challenge test, also known as a histamine challenge test or a methacholine challenge test, to assist in the diagnosis of asthma. The test involves the patient inhaling the test substance. This code represents the technical component of the service only.",CPT +95076,Ingestion Challenge Allergy and Clinical Immunology Testing Procedures.,"The provider performs this test to identify which foods, drugs, or other substances trigger an allergic response in an individual.",CPT +95079,Ingestion Challenge Allergy and Clinical Immunology Testing Procedures.,"In this add on procedure, after the initial 120 minutes of an ingestion challenge test, the provider performs the ingestion challenge testing on a patient for an additional 60 minutes. In an ingestion challenge test, the provider identifies which foods, drugs, or other substances trigger an allergic response in an individual.",CPT +95115,Allergen Immunotherapy Services and Procedures.,The provider injects the patient with allergenic extracts to desensitize the patient to the allergen; the patient receives a single injection during the visit.,CPT +95117,Allergen Immunotherapy Services and Procedures.,The provider injects the patient with allergenic extracts to desensitize the patient to the allergen; the patient receives 2 or more injections at a single visit.,CPT +95120,Allergen Immunotherapy Services and Procedures.,"This procedure is part of a series of injections the provider administers over time, gradually increasing quantities of a specific allergenic extract to achieve clinical tolerance of those allergens. Use this code when the provider administers a single injection at the session.",CPT +95125,Allergen Immunotherapy Services and Procedures.,"This procedure is part of a series of injections the provider administers over time, gradually increasing quantities of a specific allergenic extract to achieve clinical tolerance of those allergens. Use this code when the provider administers two or more injections at the session.",CPT +95130,Allergen Immunotherapy Services and Procedures.,The provider administers a stinging insect venom for a single type of insect in the office to treat or prevent a reaction in a patient allergic to the sting.,CPT +95131,Allergen Immunotherapy Services and Procedures.,The provider administers a stinging insect venom for two types of insects to a patient in the office to treat or prevent a reaction in a patient allergic to the sting.,CPT +95132,Allergen Immunotherapy Services and Procedures.,The provider administers a stinging insect venom for three types of insects in the office to treat or prevent a reaction in a patient allergic to the sting.,CPT +95133,Allergen Immunotherapy Services and Procedures.,The provider administers stinging insect venom for four types of insects in the office to treat or prevent a reaction in a patient allergic to the sting.,CPT +95134,Allergen Immunotherapy Services and Procedures.,The provider administers stinging insect venom for five types of insects in the office to treat or prevent a reaction in a patient allergic to the sting.,CPT +95144,Allergen Immunotherapy Services and Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider mixes and prepares the antigens for allergen immunotherapy. Use this code when the provider prepares one or more single dose vials.",CPT +95145,Allergen Immunotherapy Services and Procedures.,The provider mixes and prepares a specified number of doses of extract of a single stinging insect venom.,CPT +95146,Allergen Immunotherapy Services and Procedures.,The provider mixes and prepares a specified number of doses of extract of two single stinging insect venoms.,CPT +95147,Allergen Immunotherapy Services and Procedures.,The provider mixes and prepares a specified number of doses of extract of three single stinging insect venoms.,CPT +95148,Allergen Immunotherapy Services and Procedures.,The provider mixes and prepares a specified number of doses of extract of four single stinging insect venoms.,CPT +95149,Allergen Immunotherapy Services and Procedures.,The provider mixes and prepares a specified number of doses of extract of five single stinging insect venoms.,CPT +95165,Allergen Immunotherapy Services and Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider mixes and prepares the antigens for allergen immunotherapy. Use this code when the provider prepares one or more antigens.",CPT +95170,Allergen Immunotherapy Services and Procedures.,The provider mixes and prepares a specified number of doses of whole body extract of a biting insect or other arthropod.,CPT +95180,Allergen Immunotherapy Services and Procedures.,Code is in the Medicine section; subsection Allergy and Clinical Immunology/Allergen Immunotherapy. An allergenic extract is a protein containing an extract purified from a substance to which a patient may be allergic.,CPT +95199,Allergen Immunotherapy Services and Procedures.,Use to report procedures related to allergy or immunology that do not have a specific code.,CPT +95249,Endocrinology Services.,"In this procedure, the provider measures the interstitial glucose levels at regular intervals via subcutaneously implanted sensors for a minimum of 72 hours. Use this code to report sensor placement, hook–up, monitor calibration, patient training, sensor removal, and recording printout. This code is used to report the service when the patient provides the equipment.",CPT +95250,Endocrinology Services.,"In this procedure, interstitial glucose levels are measured at regular intervals via subcutaneously implanted sensors provided by physician or other qualified health care professional's office for a minimum of 72 hours. Use this code to report sensor placement, hook–up, monitor calibration, patient training, sensor removal, and recording printout. This code represents the technical component of the service only.",CPT +95251,Endocrinology Services.,A provider analyzes and interprets data from a patient’s continuous glucose monitor (CGM) and writes a report based on interpretation. This code represents the professional component of the service only.,CPT +95700,Long-term EEG Setup.,"The patient undergoes a minimum 8–channel EEG, a study of the electrical activity of the brain, administered by an EEG technologist. Video recording as well as setup and takedown and patient education are included, when performed.",CPT +95705,Long-term EEG Monitoring.,"The patient undergoes unmonitored electroencephalography, a study of the electrical activity of the brain, lasting 2 to 12 hours. No video recording is made, and an EEG technologist reviews the data and writes a technical description.",CPT +95706,Long-term EEG Monitoring.,"The patient undergoes electroencephalography, a study of the electrical activity of the brain, lasting 2 to 12 hours, with intermittent monitoring and maintenance. No video recording is made, and an EEG technologist reviews the data and writes a technical description.",CPT +95707,Long-term EEG Monitoring.,"The patient undergoes electroencephalography, a study of the electrical activity of the brain, lasting 2 to 12 hours, with continuous, real–time monitoring and maintenance. No video recording is made, and an EEG technologist reviews the data and writes a technical description.",CPT +95708,Long-term EEG Monitoring.,"The patient undergoes an unmonitored electroencephalography, a study of the electrical activity of the brain, lasting 12 to 26 hours. No video recording is made, and an EEG technologist reviews the data and writes a technical description.",CPT +95709,Long-term EEG Monitoring.,"The patient undergoes an electroencephalography, a study of the electrical activity of the brain, lasting 12 to 26 hours with intermittent monitoring and maintenance. No video recording is made, and an EEG technologist reviews the data and writes a technical description.",CPT +95710,Long-term EEG Monitoring.,"The patient undergoes an electroencephalography, a study of the electrical activity of the brain with continuous, real–time monitoring and maintenance. No video recording is made, and an EEG technologist reviews the data and writes a technical description. Report this code for each increment of 12 to 26 hours of EEG recording.",CPT +95711,Long-term EEG Monitoring.,"The patient undergoes unmonitored electroencephalography, a study of the electrical activity of the brain, lasting 2 to 12 hours. A video recording is made, and an EEG technologist reviews the data and writes a technical description.",CPT +95712,Long-term EEG Monitoring.,"The patient undergoes electroencephalography, a study of the electrical activity of the brain, lasting 2 to 12 hours with intermittent monitoring and maintenance. A video recording is made, and an EEG technologist reviews the data and writes a technical description.",CPT +95713,Long-term EEG Monitoring.,"The patient undergoes electroencephalography, a study of the electrical activity of the brain, lasting 2 to 12 hours with continuous, real–time monitoring and maintenance. A video recording is made, and an EEG technologist reviews the data and writes a technical description.",CPT +95714,Long-term EEG Monitoring.,"The patient undergoes unmonitored electroencephalography, a study of the electrical activity of the brain, lasting 12 to 26 hours. A video recording is made, and an EEG technologist reviews the data and writes a technical description.",CPT +95715,Long-term EEG Monitoring.,"The patient undergoes electroencephalography, a study of the electrical activity of the brain, lasting 12 to 26 hours with intermittent monitoring and maintenance. A video recording is made, and an EEG technologist reviews the data and writes a technical description.",CPT +95716,Long-term EEG Monitoring.,"The patient undergoes electroencephalography, a study of the electrical activity of the brain, with continuous, real–time monitoring and maintenance. A video recording is made, and an EEG technologist reviews the data and writes a technical description. Report this code for each increment of 12 to 26 hours of EEG recording.",CPT +95717,Long-term EEG Monitoring.,"A physician or other QHCP reviews recorded events and analyzes spike and seizure detection of a continuous electroencephalography, a study of the electrical activity of the brain. The EEG recording lasts 2 to 12 hours. No video is obtained. The provider interprets the findings and prepares a report.",CPT +95718,Long-term EEG Monitoring.,"A physician or other QHCP reviews recorded events and analyzes spike and seizure detection of a continuous electroencephalography, a study of the electrical activity of the brain. The EEG recording lasts 2 to 12 hours, and a video is obtained. The provider interprets the findings and prepares a report.",CPT +95719,Long-term EEG Monitoring.,"A physician or other QHCP reviews recorded events and analyzes spike and seizure detection of a continuous electroencephalography, a study of the electrical activity of the brain. No video is obtained. The provider interprets the findings and prepares a report. Report this code for each increment of greater than 12 hours up to 26 hours of EEG recording.",CPT +95720,Long-term EEG Monitoring.,"A physician or other QHCP reviews recorded events and analyzes spike and seizure detection of a continuous electroencephalography, a study of the electrical activity of the brain. A video is obtained. The provider interprets the findings and prepares a report after each 24–hour period. Report this code for each increment of greater than 12 hours up to 26 hours of EEG recording.",CPT +95721,Long-term EEG Monitoring.,"A physician or other QHCP reviews recorded events and analyzes spike and seizure detection of a continuous electroencephalography, a study of the electrical activity of the brain. The complete study continues greater than 36 hours and up to 60 hours of EEG recording. No video is obtained. The provider interprets the findings and prepares a report.",CPT +95722,Long-term EEG Monitoring.,"A physician or other QHCP reviews recorded events and analyzes spike and seizure detection of a continuous electroencephalography, a study of the electrical activity of the brain. The complete study continues greater than 36 hours and up to 60 hours of EEG recording. A video is obtained. The provider interprets the findings and prepares a report.",CPT +95723,Long-term EEG Monitoring.,"A physician or other QHCP reviews recorded events and analyzes spike and seizure detection of a continuous electroencephalography, a study of the electrical activity of the brain. The complete study continues greater than 60 hours and up to 84 hours of EEG recording. No video is obtained. The provider interprets the findings and prepares a report.",CPT +95724,Long-term EEG Monitoring.,"A physician or other QHCP reviews recorded events and analyzes spike and seizure detection of a continuous electroencephalography, a study of the electrical activity of the brain. The complete study continues greater than 60 hours and up to 84 hours of EEG recording. A video is obtained. The provider interprets the findings and prepares a report.",CPT +95725,Long-term EEG Monitoring.,"A physician or other QHCP reviews recorded events and analyzes spike and seizure detection of a continuous electroencephalography, a study of the electrical activity of the brain. The complete study continues greater than 84 hours of EEG recording. No video is obtained. The provider interprets the findings and prepares a report.",CPT +95726,Long-term EEG Monitoring.,"A physician or other QHCP reviews recorded events and analyzes spike and seizure detection of a continuous electroencephalography, a study of the electrical activity of the brain. The complete study continues greater than 84 hours of EEG recording. A video is obtained. The provider interprets the findings and prepares a report.",CPT +95782,Sleep Medicine Testing and Long-term EEG Procedures.,A patient under the age of 6 undergoes an attended sleep study with identification of sleep levels and at least four additional sleep parameters.,CPT +95783,Sleep Medicine Testing and Long-term EEG Procedures.,A patient under the age of 6 undergoes an attended sleep study with identification of sleep levels and at least four additional sleep parameters.This service also includes initiation of continuous positive airway pressure therapy or bi–level ventilation.,CPT +95800,Sleep Medicine Testing and Long-term EEG Procedures.,"A patient undergoes a sleep study with no provider physically present. Parameters recorded include heart rate, blood oxygen concentration, respiratory analysis, and the amount of time sleeping.",CPT +95801,Sleep Medicine Testing and Long-term EEG Procedures.,"Providers perform sleep studies to diagnose sleep disorders, such as sleep apnea, when a patient stops breathing in his sleep for 10 or more seconds, sleep walking, or insomnia. Sleep studies are diagnostic services that utilize laboratory or portable technology the patient uses at home to evaluate physiological functioning while the patient is asleep.",CPT +95803,Sleep Medicine Testing and Long-term EEG Procedures.,Actigraphy is a non invasive recording of gross motor movements that helps the provider to assess the patient’s rest and activity cycles across many days.,CPT +95805,Sleep Medicine Testing and Long-term EEG Procedures.,"The provider measures the patient’s sleepiness and wakefulness levels, evaluating physiological parameters while the patient sleeps in a lab.",CPT +95806,Sleep Medicine Testing and Long-term EEG Procedures.,"A technologist is not in attendance during this sleep study, which involves measuring several parameters while the patient sleeps in a clinic or sleep lab to help diagnose sleep disorders.",CPT +95807,Sleep Medicine Testing and Long-term EEG Procedures.,"A technologist is in attendance during this sleep study, which involves measuring several parameters while the patient sleeps to help diagnose sleep disorders.",CPT +95808,Sleep Medicine Testing and Long-term EEG Procedures.,"A technologist attends this sleep study, or polysomnography, which is a test that measures biophysiological changes that happen while a patient sleeps. The test helps physicians to diagnose sleep disorders.",CPT +95810,Sleep Medicine Testing and Long-term EEG Procedures.,"Polysomnography refers to the continuous and simultaneous monitoring and recording of various physiological and pathophysiological parameters of sleep for six or more hours with physician review, interpretation, and report.",CPT +95811,Sleep Medicine Testing and Long-term EEG Procedures.,"During the study, the physician monitors the sleep pattern of the patient, along with different bodily functions during the sleep cycle extending over a period of six hours or more.",CPT +95812,Routine Electroencephalography (EEG) Procedures.,Electroencephalogram or EEG is a diagnostic test that uses small electrodes attached to the scalp to measure the electrical activity of the brain. Extended monitoring is a routine electroencephalogram that runs longer than the standard 40–minute recording time. Use this code for extended electroencephalogram monitoring done for a duration of 41–60 minutes.,CPT +95813,Routine Electroencephalography (EEG) Procedures.,An electroencephalogram is a diagnostic test that uses small electrodes attached to the scalp to measure the electrical activity of the brain. Extended monitoring refers to a study that runs longer than the standard recording time. Use this code for extended electroencephalogram monitoring done for a duration of 61 to 119 minutes.,CPT +95816,Routine Electroencephalography (EEG) Procedures.,Electroencephalogram or EEG is a diagnostic test that uses small electrodes attached to the scalp to measure the electrical activity of the brain. In this procedure the provider performs the EEG during awake and drowsy states of the patient.,CPT +95819,Routine Electroencephalography (EEG) Procedures.,Electroencephalogram or EEG is a diagnostic test that uses small electrodes attached to the scalp to measure the electrical activity of the brain. In this procedure the provider performs the EEG during awake and asleep states of the patient.,CPT +95822,Routine Electroencephalography (EEG) Procedures.,Electroencephalogram or EEG is a diagnostic test that uses small electrodes attached to the scalp to measure the electrical activity of the brain. In this procedure the provider performs the EEG when the patient is in a state of coma or sleep.,CPT +95824,Routine Electroencephalography (EEG) Procedures.,Electroencephalogram or EEG is a diagnostic test that uses small electrodes attached to the scalp to measure the electrical activity of the brain. In this procedure the provider performs the EEG for brain or cerebral death evaluation.,CPT +95829,Electrocorticography.,"An electrocorticogram (ECoG), also called an intracranial electrocorticogram (iEEG), refers to a recording of the brain’s electrical activity from the cerebral cortex, which is obtained when the provider places electrodes on the surface of the patient’s brain.",CPT +95830,Routine Electroencephalography (EEG) Procedures.,The provider inserts electrodes into the patient’s cheeks to record the brain’s electrical activity through an electroencephalogram.,CPT +95836,Electrocorticography.,The provider analyzes an electrocorticogram (ECoG) recording from a previously placed brain neurostimulator pulse generator or transmitter system. He interprets the results and prepares a written report.,CPT +95851,Range of Motion Testing.,"In this procedure, the provider measures the range of motion of a single section of spine or a single extremity, excluding the hand. Range of motion measurement tests how much movement exists at a joint.",CPT +95852,Range of Motion Testing.,"In this procedure, the provider measures the range of motion of a hand. He may or may not compare the findings to the side with normal function. Range of motion measurement tests how much movement exists at a joint.",CPT +95857,Range of Motion Testing.,"In this procedure, the provider injects the drug Tensilon, generic name edrophonium, or another cholinesterase inhibitor into the vein of the patient suspected of having myasthenia gravis, a neuromuscular disease characterized by muscle weakness and fatigue.",CPT +95860,Electromyography Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider uses an electromyograph to record electrical activity that skeletal muscle cells produce while the provider inserts needles into the muscle during rest and while contracted. The provider can hear the recordings on a loudspeaker.",CPT +95861,Electromyography Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider uses an electromyograph to record electrical activity that skeletal muscle cells produce while the provider inserts needles into the muscle during rest and while contracted. The provider can hear the recordings on a loudspeaker.",CPT +95863,Electromyography Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider uses an electromyograph to record electrical activity that skeletal muscle cells produce while the provider inserts needles into the muscle during rest and while contracted. The provider can hear the recordings on a loudspeaker.",CPT +95864,Electromyography Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider uses an electromyograph to record electrical activity that skeletal muscle cells produce while the provider inserts needles into the muscle during rest and while contracted. The provider can hear the recordings on a loudspeaker.",CPT +95865,Electromyography Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider uses an electromyograph to record electrical activity that muscle cells produce while the provider inserts needles into the muscles of the larynx. The provider can hear the recordings on a loudspeaker.",CPT +95866,Electromyography Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider uses an electromyograph to record electrical activity that muscle cells produce while the provider inserts needles into the muscle during spontaneous respiration. The provider can hear the recordings on a loudspeaker.",CPT +95867,Electromyography Procedures.,The provider inserts a needle electrode into muscle innervated by cranial nerves on side of the body and records the electrical activity of the muscle or muscles during rest and contraction. He uses a computer and loudspeaker to convert this electrical activity into waveforms and these recordings into audible sounds respectively.,CPT +95868,Electromyography Procedures.,The provider inserts a needle electrode into muscle innervated by cranial nerves on both sides of the body and records the electrical activity of the muscle or muscles during rest and contraction. He uses a computer and loudspeaker to convert this electrical activity into waveforms and these recordings into audible sounds respectively.,CPT +95869,Electromyography Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider uses an electromyograph to record electrical activity that skeletal muscle cells produce while the provider inserts needles into the muscles. The provider can hear the recordings on a loudspeaker.",CPT +95870,Electromyography Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs needle electromyography, which refers to the recording and study of electrical activity of muscles using a needle electrode. Use this code when the provider performs a limited study of muscles in one extremity or of non–limb muscles unilaterally or bilaterally. This code does not apply to muscles classified as thoracic paraspinal, cranial nerve supplied muscles, or sphincters.",CPT +95872,Electromyography Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider does the recording and study of electrical activity of a muscle using a single fiber electrode, a special needle electrode that has a very small recording surface. The goal is to identify electrical activity from an individual muscle fiber. He measures the parameters like jitter, blocking, and fiber density from any/all sites of each muscle tested.",CPT +95873,Ischemic Muscle Testing Procedures and Guidance Procedures for Chemodenervation.,"In this procedure, the provider uses electrical stimulation to identify specific nerves to inject with medication to control various disorders.",CPT +95874,Ischemic Muscle Testing Procedures and Guidance Procedures for Chemodenervation.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider uses needle electromyography guidance for a chemodenervation injection. Chemodenervation is a process of injecting a neurotoxin like ethyl alcohol or Botox® into nerves supplying muscles to reduce spasticity and to treat other neurological disorders.",CPT +95875,Ischemic Muscle Testing Procedures and Guidance Procedures for Chemodenervation.,"In this procedure, the provider has the patient perform exercise under an induced ischemic condition. The most common test performed is the ischemic forearm test to diagnose McArdle disease, a metabolic muscle disease.",CPT +95885,Electromyography Procedures.,The provider assesses the electrical activity of a muscle in the extremity and related paraspinal areas. At the same session as a separately reportable nerve conduction studies. The provider performs the study to assess the function of the peripheral nervous system.,CPT +95886,Electromyography Procedures.,The provider assesses the electrical activity of a muscle in the extremity and related paraspinal areas. At the same session as a separately reportable nerve conduction study. He studies five or more muscles innervated by three or more nerves or four or more spinal levels. The provider performs the study to assess the function of the peripheral nervous system.,CPT +95887,Electromyography Procedures.,"The provider performs needle electromyography in muscles supplied, or stimulated, by cranial nerves at the same session as a separately reportable nerve conduction studies.",CPT +95905,Nerve Conduction Tests.,"In this procedure, the provider performs motor and/or sensory nerve conduction studies. These are diagnostic tests to evaluate the function, especially the ability of electrical conduction, of the motor and sensory nerves of the human body. He uses a preconfigured electrode array to perform the nerve conduction study. This code includes an F–wave study when performed and requires interpretation and report by the provider.",CPT +95907,Nerve Conduction Tests.,"In this procedure, the provider performs one or two nerve conduction studies, a diagnostic test that measures the speed of conduction of an electrical impulse through a peripheral nerve to determine the site of nerve damage and destruction that impairs function.",CPT +95908,Nerve Conduction Tests.,"In this procedure, the provider performs three or four nerve conduction studies, a diagnostic test to evaluate the function, especially the ability of electrical conduction of the motor and sensory nerves of the human body.",CPT +95909,Nerve Conduction Tests.,"In this procedure, the provider performs five or six nerve conduction studies, a diagnostic test to evaluate the function, especially the ability of electrical conduction of the motor and sensory nerves of the human body.",CPT +95910,Nerve Conduction Tests.,"In this procedure, the provider performs seven or eight nerve conduction studies, a diagnostic test to evaluate the function, especially the electrical conduction ability of the motor and sensory nerves of the human body.",CPT +95911,Nerve Conduction Tests.,"In this procedure, the provider performs nine or ten nerve conduction studies, a diagnostic test to evaluate function, especially the electrical conduction ability of the motor and sensory nerves of the human body.",CPT +95912,Nerve Conduction Tests.,"In this procedure, the provider performs eleven or twelve nerve conduction studies, a diagnostic test to evaluate function, especially the electrical conduction ability of the motor and sensory nerves of the human body.",CPT +95913,Nerve Conduction Tests.,"In this procedure, the provider performs 13 or more nerve conduction studies, a diagnostic test to evaluate function, especially the electrical conduction ability of the motor and sensory nerves of the human body.",CPT +95919,Autonomic Function Testing Procedures.,The provider uses a device to get a quantitative measurement of how the patient’s pupil or pupils react to light. A physician or other qualified healthcare professional provides an interpretation and report.,CPT +95921,Autonomic Function Testing Procedures.,"The provider evaluates the function of the autonomic nervous system, which controls those body functions, such as heart rate, temperature regulation, and other functions that are involuntary. He uses an electrocardiogram, or ECG, rhythm strip, i.e., a graphic representation of the patient’s rhythm and heart rate, to record the patient’s response to deep breathing, to the Valsalva maneuver, and to standing, for example, the 30:15 ratio test.",CPT +95922,Autonomic Function Testing Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider tests the sympathetic function of the autonomic nervous system to check the nature and severity of autonomic disorders. The autonomic nervous system is that part of the nervous system that controls the blood pressure, pulse rate, sweating, and many other bodily functions.",CPT +95923,Autonomic Function Testing Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider tests the sudomotor function of the autonomic nervous system to check functioning of nerves that supply sweat glands. The autonomic nervous system is that part of the nervous system that controls the blood pressure, pulse rate, sweating, and many other bodily functions.",CPT +95924,Autonomic Function Testing Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider jointly tests the parasympathetic and sympathetic functions of the autonomic nervous system to check the nature and severity of autonomic disorders. The autonomic nervous system is that part of the nervous system that controls the blood pressure, pulse rate, sweating, and many other bodily functions.",CPT +95925,Evoked Potentials and Reflex Testing Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a short–latency somatosensory evoked potential study by stimulating the peripheral nerves or skin sites in the upper limbs. The provider records the resulting evoked potential study from the central nervous system.",CPT +95926,Evoked Potentials and Reflex Testing Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a short–latency somatosensory evoked potential study by stimulating the peripheral nerves or skin sites in the lower limbs. The provider records the resulting evoked potential study from the central nervous system.",CPT +95927,Evoked Potentials and Reflex Testing Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a short–latency somatosensory evoked potential study by stimulating the peripheral nerves or skin sites in the trunk or head. The provider records the resulting evoked potential study from the central nervous system.",CPT +95928,Evoked Potentials and Reflex Testing Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a central motor evoked potential study by transcranially stimulating the motor cortex by applying very mild electric current on the scalp. The goal is to evaluate the motor pathways supplying the upper limb muscles.",CPT +95929,Evoked Potentials and Reflex Testing Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a central motor evoked potential study by transcranially stimulating the motor cortex by applying very mild electric current on the scalp. The goal is to evaluate the motor pathways supplying the lower limb muscles.",CPT +95930,Evoked Potentials and Reflex Testing Procedures.,"The provider performs visual evoked potential testing that measures the electrical activity of the brain in response to a visual stimulus; however, this test is not used for VEP for glaucoma. Interpretation and report are included with this code so do not report them separately.",CPT +95933,Evoked Potentials and Reflex Testing Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs electrodiagnostic testing of the orbicularis oculi reflex, or blink reflex. This is an involuntary blinking of the eyelids due to contraction of the orbicularis oculi muscles on tapping the margin of the orbit, or the bridge or tip of the nose.",CPT +95937,Evoked Potentials and Reflex Testing Procedures.,The provider performs neuromuscular junction testing by repetitive stimulation of a nerve supplying a muscle to diagnose a patient with a known or suspected disorder of the neuromuscular junction.,CPT +95938,Evoked Potentials and Reflex Testing Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a short–latency somatosensory evoked potential study by stimulating the peripheral nerves or skin sites in both the upper limbs and lower limbs. The provider records the resulting evoked potential study from the central nervous system.",CPT +95939,Evoked Potentials and Reflex Testing Procedures.,The provider performs a central motor evoked potential study in the upper and lower limbs for diagnosis of multiple sclerosis and as a prognostic indicator for stroke motor recovery.,CPT +95940,Intraoperative Neurophysiology Procedures.,"A provider other than the surgeon or anesthesia staff conducts neurophysiology tests, such as electroncephalography or EEG, electromyography or EMG, evoked potentials or nerve conduction study, to continuously monitor the patient during the same session as a separately reportable brain surgery. The provider performs this monitoring to make sure that patient's nervous system functions properly during the surgical period. This add on code represents each 15 minutes of the service.",CPT +95941,Intraoperative Neurophysiology Procedures.,"A provider other than the surgeon or anesthesia staff conducts neurophysiology tests, such as electroncephalography or EEG, electromyography or EMG, evoked potentials or nerve conduction study, to continuously monitor the patient during the same session as a separately reportable brain surgery. The provider performs this monitoring to make sure that patient's nervous system functions properly during the surgical period. This add on code represents each hour of the service. The provider may be remote or nearby and may be monitoring more than one procedure at the same time.",CPT +95954,Other EEG Testing Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider uses a drug or physical activity to stimulate a patient during electroencephalogram recording. This code requires provider attendance during activation.",CPT +95955,Other EEG Testing Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider uses electroencephalographic monitoring of a patient during nonintracranial surgery like cardiac surgery or carotid stenting.",CPT +95957,Other EEG Testing Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs computer based analysis of an electroencephalogram, abbreviated as EEG.",CPT +95958,Other EEG Testing Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs the Wada activation test prior to ablative surgery for epilepsy and sometimes prior to tumor resection surgery. It includes electroencephalographic, EEG, monitoring.",CPT +95961,Other EEG Testing Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider maps the brain surface or the area below the brain’s cortex by placing electrodes on the brain’s surface or directly into the brain. He electrically stimulates the brain to provoke a seizure to localize the seizure originating area of the brain during or before surgery.",CPT +95962,Other EEG Testing Procedures.,"In this add–on procedure for an additional hour of attendance, the provider maps the brain surface or the area below the brain’s cortex by placing electrodes on the brain’s surface or directly into the brain. He electrically stimulates the brain to provoke a seizure to localize the seizure originating area of the brain during or before surgery.",CPT +95965,MEG Testing Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider records and analyzes the patient’s spontaneous brain magnetic activity by using magnetoencephalography, a neuroimaging technique that uses sensors to form images of the magnetic field produced within the brain.",CPT +95966,MEG Testing Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider records and analyzes the patient’s evoked brain magnetic activity by using magnetoencephalography, a neuroimaging technique that uses sensors to form images of the magnetic field produced within the brain.",CPT +95967,MEG Testing Procedures.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider records and analyzes evoked brain magnetic activity by using magnetoencephalography, a neuroimaging technique that uses sensors to form images of the magnetic field produced within the brain. He examines an additional brain modality in this test like language, sensory, or motor function.",CPT +95970,Neurostimulators Analysis-Programming Procedures.,A physician or other qualified healthcare professional performs electronic analysis of a variety of parameters of a previously implanted neurostimulator pulse generator/transmitter to ensure that it is functioning properly. He does not perform reprogramming.,CPT +95971,Neurostimulators Analysis-Programming Procedures.,"A physician or other qualified healthcare professional performs electronic analysis of a variety of parameters of a previously implanted spinal or peripheral (e.g., sacral) nerve neurostimulator pulse generator/transmitter to ensure that it is functioning properly and makes simple programming changes.",CPT +95972,Neurostimulators Analysis-Programming Procedures.,"A physician or other qualified healthcare professional performs electronic analysis of a variety of parameters of a previously implanted spinal or peripheral (e.g., sacral) nerve neurostimulator pulse generator/transmitter to ensure that it is functioning properly and makes complex programming changes.",CPT +95976,Neurostimulators Analysis-Programming Procedures.,"The provider, a physician or other qualified healthcare professional, analyzes the function of a cranial nerve neurostimulator system and makes simple or minor programming adjustments.",CPT +95977,Neurostimulators Analysis-Programming Procedures.,"The provider, a physician or other qualified healthcare professional, analyzes the function of a cranial nerve neurostimulator system and makes complex or more significant programming adjustments.",CPT +95980,Neurostimulators Analysis-Programming Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs electronic analysis of a gastric neurostimulator pulse generator system during surgery to ensure that it’s functioning properly. He also performs programming.",CPT +95981,Neurostimulators Analysis-Programming Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs subsequent electronic analysis of a previously placed gastric neurostimulator pulse generator system to ensure that it’s functioning properly. He does not reprogram the system.",CPT +95982,Neurostimulators Analysis-Programming Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider performs subsequent electronic analysis of a previously placed gastric neurostimulator pulse generator system to ensure that it’s functioning properly. He also performs reprogramming.",CPT +95983,Neurostimulators Analysis-Programming Procedures.,"The provider, a physician or other qualified healthcare professional, analyzes the function of a brain neurostimulator system and makes programming adjustments requiring up to 15 minutes of face–to–face time with the patient.",CPT +95984,Neurostimulators Analysis-Programming Procedures.,"The provider, a physician or other qualified healthcare professional, continues to analyze the function of a brain neurostimulator system and make programming adjustments face–to–face with the patient. Report this code for each additional 15 minutes after the first 15 minutes.",CPT +95990,Other Neurology and Neuromuscular Procedures.,"A clinical staff member refills a patient’s pump, which provides drugs directly to the spine or brain to treat conditions such as infection or pain. She performs maintenance to ensure proper functioning. She may also perform electronic analysis of the pump.",CPT +95991,Other Neurology and Neuromuscular Procedures.,"A physician or other qualified health care professional refills a patient’s pump, which provides drugs directly to the spine or brain to treat conditions such as infection or pain. She performs maintenance to ensure proper functioning. She may also perform electronic analysis of the pump.",CPT +95992,Other Neurology and Neuromuscular Procedures.,The provider moves the patient through a series of positions to treat benign paroxysmal positional vertigo. The position changes move canalith particles from parts of the inner ear where they cause dizziness to other areas of the ear.,CPT +95999,Other Neurology and Neuromuscular Procedures.,Use to report neurological or neuromuscular diagnostic procedures that do not have a specific code.,CPT +96000,Motion Analysis Procedures.,The provider uses specially designed technology and video recordings to evaluate the patient’s movement.,CPT +96001,Motion Analysis Procedures.,"The provider uses specially designed technology, including pressure–sensitive pads, and video recordings to evaluate the patient’s movement.",CPT +96002,Motion Analysis Procedures.,The provider uses surface electrodes to define skeletal muscle timing as the patient moves.,CPT +96003,Motion Analysis Procedures.,The provider inserts a fine wire electrode in a single muscle to detect activity as the patient moves.,CPT +96004,Motion Analysis Procedures.,A physician or other qualified health care professional reviews the results of one or more motion analysis tests and writes a formal interpretation. This code represents the professional component of the service only.,CPT +96020,Functional Brain Mapping.,"In this procedure, the provider performs a series of tests involving critical brain functions like language and memory along with separately reportable functional magnetic resonance imaging.",CPT +96040,Medical Genetics and Genetic Counseling Services.,"A trained nonphysician genetic counselor analyzes a patient’s family risk factors for genetic conditions, analyzes available medical information, and counsels the patient and family.",CPT +96105,Assessment of Aphasia and Cognitive Performance Testing.,"The provider, which may include a physician or licensed speech pathologist, evaluates the patient for aphasia, a disorder that affects how a patient can understand or use words. A stroke or brain injury most typically cause aphasia. The test measures the patient’s ability to communicate.",CPT +96110,Developmental and Behavioral Screening and Testing.,The provider screens the patient for a developmental disorder using a standardized instrument (such as a recognized form) focused on areas such as developmental milestones and age–appropriate maturity of speech and language. The provider then scores and documents the data.,CPT +96112,Developmental and Behavioral Screening and Testing.,The provider administers various standardized tests to diagnose developmental problems in children. He interprets the results and prepares a report. Report this code for the first hour of test administration.,CPT +96113,Developmental and Behavioral Screening and Testing.,The provider administers various standardized tests to diagnose developmental problems in children. He interprets the results and prepares a report. Report this code for each additional 30 minutes of test administration in addition to the code for the primary procedure (96112).,CPT +96116,Neurobehavioral Status Examination.,"A physician or other qualified healthcare professional performs a face–to–face assessment of a patient’s thinking, reasoning, and judgment. Report this code for the first hour of face–to–face clinical assessment as well as the time spent interpreting the results and preparing a report.",CPT +96121,Neurobehavioral Status Examination.,"A physician or other qualified healthcare professional performs a face–to–face assessment of a patient’s thinking, reasoning, and judgment. Report this code for each additional hour of face–to–face clinical assessment including the time spent interpreting the results and preparing a report.",CPT +96125,Assessment of Aphasia and Cognitive Performance Testing.,"In this procedure, the provider performs standardized cognitive performance testing, which is a functional assessment test for a person with memory loss.",CPT +96127,Developmental and Behavioral Screening and Testing.,The provider performs a brief emotional/behavioral assessment of the patient using a standardized instrument (such as a recognized form). The provider scores and documents the assessment.,CPT +96130,Psychological and Neuropsychological Testing Evaluation Services.,"The provider, physician or other qualified healthcare professional, administers standardized psychological tests to a patient, interprets the results, establishes a treatment plan, and prepares a report. This code covers the first hour of this service and includes discussion of results and treatment plan with the patient and family member(s) or caregiver(s), when performed.",CPT +96131,Psychological and Neuropsychological Testing Evaluation Services.,"The provider, physician or other qualified healthcare professional, administers standardized psychological tests to a patient, interprets the results, establishes a treatment plan, and prepares a report. Report this code for each additional hour of psychological testing with the primary code (96130) for the first hour of service.",CPT +96132,Psychological and Neuropsychological Testing Evaluation Services.,"The provider, a physician or other qualified healthcare professional, spends up to one hour administering neuropsychological tests, which includes time spent face–to–face with the patient in performing the tests, interpretation of the outcome, and preparation of the report. The code includes time spent in discussion of the outcome with the patient and family members or caregivers.",CPT +96133,Psychological and Neuropsychological Testing Evaluation Services.,"The provider, a physician or other qualified healthcare professional, administers neuropsychological tests, face–to–face with the patient. Report this code in addition to the primary code (96132) for each additional hour the provider spends administering the tests, interpreting the results, and preparing the report, including time spent in discussion with the patient and family members or caregivers.",CPT +96136,Psychological and Neuropsychological Test Administration and Scoring.,"The provider, a physician or other qualified healthcare professional, administers two or more psychological or neuropsychological tests and scores them. Report this code for the first 30 minutes of administration and scoring by any method.",CPT +96137,Psychological and Neuropsychological Test Administration and Scoring.,"The provider, a physician or other qualified healthcare professional, administers two or more psychological or neuropsychological tests and scores them requiring an additional 30 minutes beyond the initial 30 minutes.",CPT +96138,Psychological and Neuropsychological Test Administration and Scoring.,A technician administers two or more psychological or neuropsychological tests and scores them. Report this code for the first 30 minutes of administration and scoring by any method.,CPT +96139,Psychological and Neuropsychological Test Administration and Scoring.,A technician administers two or more psychological or neuropsychological tests and scores them requiring an additional 30 minutes beyond the initial 30 minutes.,CPT +96146,Psychological and Neuropsychological Testing with Automated Administration and Scoring.,"The patient is administered a single, standardized psychological or neuropsychological test using an electronic platform such as a computer, which scores the test on completion.",CPT +96156,Health Behavior Assessment and Intervention Procedures.,"The provider assesses psychological, behavioral, emotional, cognitive, and social factors that affect a patient’s physical health, rather than assessing a specific mental health disorder. There are no time limits applied to this code. Report this code for an initial or repeat health behavior assessment.",CPT +96158,Health Behavior Assessment and Intervention Procedures.,"The provider, typically a psychologist, provides counseling and strategies for management of cognitive, emotional, social, cultural factors that impact management of a patient’s physical health problems in a one–to–one setting with the patient. This code represents the first 30 minutes of a face–to–face session with the patient.",CPT +96159,Health Behavior Assessment and Intervention Procedures.,"The provider, typically a psychologist, provides counseling and strategies for management of cognitive, emotional, social, cultural factors that impact management of a patient’s physical health problems in a one–to–one setting with the patient. This code represents each additional 15 minutes of a face–to–face session with the patient.",CPT +96160,Health Behavior Assessment and Intervention Procedures.,"The provider administers a questionnaire aimed at helping to identify a specific health risk to a patient, analyzes the results, assigns a score, and documents the findings. Use this code for each standardized survey questionnaire (criteria established and agreed upon by a group of experts).",CPT +96161,Health Behavior Assessment and Intervention Procedures.,"The provider administers a questionnaire aimed at helping to identify a specific health risk to a patient's caregiver, analyzes the results, assigns a score, and documents the findings. Use this code for each standardized questionnaire (criteria established and agreed upon by a group of experts).",CPT +96164,Health Behavior Assessment and Intervention Procedures.,"The provider, typically a psychologist, provides counseling and strategies for management of cognitive, emotional, social, cultural factors that impact management of the patients’ physical health problems in a face–to–face setting with 2 or more patients. This code represents the first 30 minutes of this service.",CPT +96165,Health Behavior Assessment and Intervention Procedures.,"The provider, typically a psychologist, provides counseling and strategies for management of cognitive, emotional, social, cultural factors that impact management of the patients’ physical health problems in a face–to–face setting with 2 or more patients. This code represents each additional 15 minutes of this service.",CPT +96167,Health Behavior Assessment and Intervention Procedures.,"The provider, typically a psychologist, interviews the patient’s family in the presence of the patient and counsels them on strategies to change family dynamics and behaviors that adversely affect the patient's physical health and coping behaviors. This code represents the initial 30 minutes of face–to–face service with the patient’s family.",CPT +96168,Health Behavior Assessment and Intervention Procedures.,"The provider, typically a psychologist, interviews the patient’s family in the presence of the patient and counsels them on strategies to change family dynamics and behaviors that adversely affect the patient's physical health and coping behaviors. This code represents each additional 15 minutes of face–to–face service with the patient’s family.",CPT +96170,Health Behavior Assessment and Intervention Procedures.,"The provider, typically a psychologist, interviews the patient’s family and counsels them on strategies to change family dynamics and behaviors that adversely affect the patient's physical health and coping behaviors. This code represents the initial 30 minutes of face–to–face service with the patient’s family without the patient present.",CPT +96171,Health Behavior Assessment and Intervention Procedures.,"The provider, typically a psychologist, interviews the patient’s family and counsels them on strategies to change family dynamics and behaviors that adversely affect the patient's physical health and coping behaviors. This code represents each additional 15 minutes of face–to–face service with the patient’s family without the patient present.",CPT +96202,Behavior Management Services.,"The provider trains multiple sets of parents, guardians, and caregivers without patients present. The provider covers areas such as how to create an environment that supports desired behaviors and adherence to the patient’s plan of care while reducing the negative impacts of the patient’s diagnosis on their daily life. A physician or other qualified healthcare provider administers the training, which is face–to–face. This code represents the first 60 minutes.",CPT +96203,Behavior Management Services.,"The provider trains multiple sets of parents, guardians, and caregivers without patients present. The provider covers areas such as how to create an environment that supports desired behaviors and adherence to the patient’s plan of care while reducing the negative impacts of the patient’s diagnosis on their daily life. A physician or other qualified healthcare provider administers the training, which is face–to–face. This code represents each additional 15 minutes after the first 60 minutes.",CPT +96360,Hydration Infusion.,The provider introduces a catheter intravenously for supplementation of fluid and electrolytes for 31 minutes to one hour to treat severe cases of dehydration.,CPT +96361,Hydration Infusion.,"The provider administers intravenous, or IV, fluids with electrolytes through an already established intravenous route for each additional hour to treat more severe dehydration.",CPT +96365,"Therapeutic, Prophylactic, and Diagnostic Injections and Infusions (Excludes Chemotherapy and Other Highly Complex Drug or Highly Complex Biologic Agent Administration).","The provider administers the initial intravenous infusion of a medication or other substance for a period up to one hour to prevent, treat, or diagnose a condition or disease.",CPT +96366,"Therapeutic, Prophylactic, and Diagnostic Injections and Infusions (Excludes Chemotherapy and Other Highly Complex Drug or Highly Complex Biologic Agent Administration).","The provider administers an intravenous infusion or infusions of a medication for an additional hour or subsequent hours after the first hour to prevent, treat, or diagnose a condition or disease.",CPT +96367,"Therapeutic, Prophylactic, and Diagnostic Injections and Infusions (Excludes Chemotherapy and Other Highly Complex Drug or Highly Complex Biologic Agent Administration).","The provider administers an additional intravenous infusion or infusions, after an initial infusion, of a different medication or substance for a period up to one hour to prevent, treat, or diagnose a condition or disease.",CPT +96368,"Therapeutic, Prophylactic, and Diagnostic Injections and Infusions (Excludes Chemotherapy and Other Highly Complex Drug or Highly Complex Biologic Agent Administration).","The provider administers an intravenous infusion or infusions of multiple medications or substances concurrently with another infusion to prevent, treat, or diagnose a condition or disease.",CPT +96369,"Therapeutic, Prophylactic, and Diagnostic Injections and Infusions (Excludes Chemotherapy and Other Highly Complex Drug or Highly Complex Biologic Agent Administration).","The provider sets up an infusion pump, establishes a subcutaneous port site, and infuses a medication via the pump for a period up to one hour. He administers the drug or substance for prevention or for therapeutic purposes.",CPT +96370,"Therapeutic, Prophylactic, and Diagnostic Injections and Infusions (Excludes Chemotherapy and Other Highly Complex Drug or Highly Complex Biologic Agent Administration).",The provider infuses a medication through a previously established subcutaneous infusion site and pump set up for each additional hour. He administers the drug or substance for prevention or for therapeutic purposes.,CPT +96371,"Therapeutic, Prophylactic, and Diagnostic Injections and Infusions (Excludes Chemotherapy and Other Highly Complex Drug or Highly Complex Biologic Agent Administration).","The provider establishes a subcutaneous port site in a new location, sets up an infusion pump, and infuses a medication via the pump. He administers the drug or substance for prevention or for therapeutic purposes.",CPT +96372,"Therapeutic, Prophylactic, and Diagnostic Injections and Infusions (Excludes Chemotherapy and Other Highly Complex Drug or Highly Complex Biologic Agent Administration).","A therapeutic, prophylactic, or diagnostic substance (a fluid, a drug, etc.) is injected via intramuscular or subcutaneous route into the patient's body. The procedure is performed by the physician himself or by his assistant or nurse under direct supervision of the physician. Injection of a vaccine or toxoid is not included in this code.",CPT +96373,"Therapeutic, Prophylactic, and Diagnostic Injections and Infusions (Excludes Chemotherapy and Other Highly Complex Drug or Highly Complex Biologic Agent Administration).","The provider administers a medication or other substance via an artery to treat, prevent, or diagnose a condition.",CPT +96374,"Therapeutic, Prophylactic, and Diagnostic Injections and Infusions (Excludes Chemotherapy and Other Highly Complex Drug or Highly Complex Biologic Agent Administration).","The provider administers a single medication or other substance rapidly into a vein to treat, prevent, or diagnose a condition.",CPT +96375,"Therapeutic, Prophylactic, and Diagnostic Injections and Infusions (Excludes Chemotherapy and Other Highly Complex Drug or Highly Complex Biologic Agent Administration).","Following the administration of a drug or other substance via intravenous, or IV, push, the provider sequentially infuses a different medication or medications, also via IV push. He administers the substance or drug for prevention, diagnostic, or therapeutic purposes.",CPT +96376,"Therapeutic, Prophylactic, and Diagnostic Injections and Infusions (Excludes Chemotherapy and Other Highly Complex Drug or Highly Complex Biologic Agent Administration).","After an initial injection of a drug or other substance via intravenous, or IV, push, the provider sequentially injects the same medication or substance for prevention, diagnosis or for therapeutic purposes.",CPT +96377,"Therapeutic, Prophylactic, and Diagnostic Injections and Infusions (Excludes Chemotherapy and Other Highly Complex Drug or Highly Complex Biologic Agent Administration).","The provider fills a specially developed injector device with medication and applies the attached patch to the skin of a patient; on activation, the injector automatically inserts a cannula under the skin (subcutaneously) for delivery of medication at a timed interval following activation. An on–body injector permits supply or larger quantities of medications to be delivered in increments at timed intervals.",CPT +96379,"Therapeutic, Prophylactic, and Diagnostic Injections and Infusions (Excludes Chemotherapy and Other Highly Complex Drug or Highly Complex Biologic Agent Administration).","Use to report therapeutic, prophylactic, or diagnostic intravenous or intraarterial injection or infusion procedures that do not have a specific code.",CPT +96380,"Therapeutic, Prophylactic, and Diagnostic Injections and Infusions (Excludes Chemotherapy and Other Highly Complex Drug or Highly Complex Biologic Agent Administration).",This provider administers a monoclonal antibody product to protect the patient against respiratory syncytial virus. This is a seasonal dose injected into muscle. A physician or other qualified healthcare professional also provides counseling related to the administration.,CPT +96381,"Therapeutic, Prophylactic, and Diagnostic Injections and Infusions (Excludes Chemotherapy and Other Highly Complex Drug or Highly Complex Biologic Agent Administration).",This provider administers a monoclonal antibody product to protect the patient against respiratory syncytial virus. This is a seasonal dose injected into muscle.,CPT +96401,Injection and Intravenous Infusion Chemotherapy and Other Highly Complex Drug or Highly Complex Biologic Agent Administration.,"The provider administers nonhormonal, antineoplastic chemotherapy drugs subcutaneously or intramuscularly to the patient.",CPT +96402,Injection and Intravenous Infusion Chemotherapy and Other Highly Complex Drug or Highly Complex Biologic Agent Administration.,"In this procedure, the provider administers chemotherapy either subcutaneously, meaning under the skin, or intramuscularly, meaning in muscle. He administers a hormonal anti–neoplastic drug.",CPT +96405,Injection and Intravenous Infusion Chemotherapy and Other Highly Complex Drug or Highly Complex Biologic Agent Administration.,"In this procedure, the provider administers chemotherapy directly into a lesion or tumor. He treats from one to seven lesions.",CPT +96406,Injection and Intravenous Infusion Chemotherapy and Other Highly Complex Drug or Highly Complex Biologic Agent Administration.,"In this procedure, the provider administers chemotherapy directly into a lesion or tumor. Use this code when the provider treats more than 7 lesions.",CPT +96409,Injection and Intravenous Infusion Chemotherapy and Other Highly Complex Drug or Highly Complex Biologic Agent Administration.,"In this procedure, the provider administers the chemotherapy drug using an intravenous push technique. Use this code when the provider administers a single or initial drug.",CPT +96411,Injection and Intravenous Infusion Chemotherapy and Other Highly Complex Drug or Highly Complex Biologic Agent Administration.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider administers an additional chemotherapy drug using an intravenous push technique. Use this code for each additional drug administered.",CPT +96413,Injection and Intravenous Infusion Chemotherapy and Other Highly Complex Drug or Highly Complex Biologic Agent Administration.,"Chemotherapy is a therapeutic procedure used for the treatment of cancer via the use of chemical agents. These chemical agents (drugs) work on the cancerous cells of the body to destroy them. These drugs are administered into a number of body areas in methods such as oral, intramuscular, subcutaneous, intravenous, intra–arterial, intraventricular, intraperitoneal and topical. The intravenous method of chemotherapy is the most common as this way of drug delivery ensures faster absorption of the drugs into the blood stream.",CPT +96415,Injection and Intravenous Infusion Chemotherapy and Other Highly Complex Drug or Highly Complex Biologic Agent Administration.,"In this add on procedure, the provider continues administration of a chemotherapy drug into a vein using an infusion technique. He uses this code to report each additional hour of infusion beyond the initial hour, which the patient receives at the same session.",CPT +96416,Injection and Intravenous Infusion Chemotherapy and Other Highly Complex Drug or Highly Complex Biologic Agent Administration.,The provider starts treatment for administering a chemotherapy drug to a patient intravenously using a portable or implantable pump.,CPT +96417,Injection and Intravenous Infusion Chemotherapy and Other Highly Complex Drug or Highly Complex Biologic Agent Administration.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider continues administration of a chemotherapy drug into a vein using an infusion technique. He uses this code to report administration of a different chemotherapy drug through the intravenous infusion following the administration of a primary dose of chemotherapy.",CPT +96420,Intra-Arterial Chemotherapy and Other Highly Complex Drug or Highly Complex Biologic Agent Administration.,"In this procedure, the provider administers the chemotherapy drug using an intra–arterial push technique.",CPT +96422,Intra-Arterial Chemotherapy and Other Highly Complex Drug or Highly Complex Biologic Agent Administration.,"In this procedure, the provider administers the chemotherapy drug into an artery using an infusion technique. Use this code for the first hour of infusion time.",CPT +96423,Intra-Arterial Chemotherapy and Other Highly Complex Drug or Highly Complex Biologic Agent Administration.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider administers the chemotherapy drug into an artery using an infusion technique. Use this code for each additional hour of infusion.",CPT +96425,Intra-Arterial Chemotherapy and Other Highly Complex Drug or Highly Complex Biologic Agent Administration.,"In this procedure, the provider administers the chemotherapy drug into an artery using an infusion technique. Infusion takes place through an implantable or portable pump and lasts more than 8 hours. Use this code for infusion initiation.",CPT +96440,Other Injection and Infusion Services.,"In this procedure, the provider administers the chemotherapy drug into the pleural cavity, a closed space between the two layers of the lung. This procedure involves thoracentesis, inserting a chest tube into the pleural space to drain the fluid from that space.",CPT +96446,Other Injection and Infusion Services.,The provider administers a chemotherapy drug into the patient’s peritoneal cavity (in the abdomen) using an implanted port or catheter.,CPT +96450,Other Injection and Infusion Services.,"The provider administers a chemotherapy drug into the patient’s central nervous system, or CNS, including the spinal cord. The procedure includes a spinal puncture, which is when the provider inserts a needle into the spinal canal in the lumbar, or low back, region.",CPT +96521,Other Injection and Infusion Services.,The provider refills a portable pump with a chemotherapy drug.,CPT +96522,Other Injection and Infusion Services.,"In this procedure, the provider refills the implantable drug reservoir used for systemic drug administration. He ensures that the pump or reservoir is functioning appropriately.",CPT +96523,Other Injection and Infusion Services.,"The provider irrigates, or flushes, a venous access device used to administer drugs to the patient.",CPT +96542,Other Injection and Infusion Services.,The provider administers chemotherapy to the patient through an intraventricular or subcutaneous reservoir to treat cancer.,CPT +96547,Other Injection and Infusion Services.,"The provider performs the first 60 minutes of intraoperative hyperthermic intraperitoneal chemotherapy (HIPEC), which is perfusion of a heated chemotherapy agent into the abdominal cavity through catheters during an operation.",CPT +96548,Other Injection and Infusion Services.,"After an initial 60 minutes, the provider performs an additional 30 minutes of intraoperative hyperthermic intraperitoneal chemotherapy (HIPEC), which is perfusion of a heated chemotherapy agent into the abdominal cavity through catheters during an operation.",CPT +96549,Other Injection and Infusion Services.,Use to report chemotherapy procedures that do not have a specific code.,CPT +96567,Photodynamic Therapy Procedures.,"The provider applies a photosensitizing drug to the lesion and exposes it to a specific wavelength of light, depending on how far into the body the light needs to penetrate. The procedure is performed to destroy precancerous cells. Report this code once per day regardless of the number of applications.",CPT +96570,Photodynamic Therapy Procedures.,"The provider administers a photosensitizing drug to abnormal tissue and exposes it to a specific wavelength of light for approximately 30 minutes, depending on how far into tissue the light needs to penetrate. The provider performs this photodynamic therapy at the same session that he performs a primary endoscopy or bronchoscopy. The procedure is performed to destroy cancerous or precancerous cells.",CPT +96571,Photodynamic Therapy Procedures.,"The provider administers a photosensitizing drug to abnormal tissue and, for each additional 15 minutes, over a period of 38 to 52 minutes, exposes it to a specific wavelength of light, depending on how far into tissue the light needs to penetrate. The provider performs this photodynamic therapy at the same session that he performs a primary endoscopy or bronchoscopy. The procedure is performed to destroy cancerous or precancerous cells.",CPT +96573,Photodynamic Therapy Procedures.,"The provider applies a photosensitizing drug to a lesion and exposes it to a specific wavelength of light, depending on how far into the body the light needs to penetrate. The procedure is performed by a physician or other qualified health care professional to destroy precancerous cells of skin and adjacent mucosa; this code can be reported only once per day.",CPT +96574,Photodynamic Therapy Procedures.,"This code is used to report removal of hyperkeratotic (hardened, dry, scaly) skin lesions that appear precancerous followed by photodynamic therapy that exposes a lesion treated with a photosensitizing drug to a specific wavelength of light. The procedure is performed by a physician or other qualified health care professional to destroy precancerous cells of the skin and adjacent mucosa; this code can be reported only once per day.",CPT +96900,Special Dermatological Procedures.,The provider uses ultraviolet rays to treat skin diseases.,CPT +96902,Special Dermatological Procedures.,The provider plucks hairs from the patient’s head and examines them with a microscope to calculate telogen and anagen counts or structural hair shaft abnormality.,CPT +96904,Special Dermatological Procedures.,"The provider uses a dermatoscope to examine a patient’s skin and record images of pigmented skin lesions. This procedure helps to distinguish between malignant and benign skin lesions and aids in the diagnosis of melanoma and other skin cancers, dysplastic nevus syndrome, and nonmalignant skin lesions. The images may be stored digitally and used for monitoring of the progression of disease.",CPT +96910,Special Dermatological Procedures.,"The provider applies tar or petrolatum to the skin and exposes the area to ultraviolet B, or UVB, rays to treat certain skin diseases such as psoriasis.",CPT +96912,Special Dermatological Procedures.,"In this service, the provider uses a combination of psoralens and ultraviolet A rays to treat certain skin conditions such as psoriasis or vitiligo.",CPT +96913,Special Dermatological Procedures.,"The provider performs photochemotherapy for a period of four to eight hours, to treat certain difficult to treat or resistant skin diseases, such as psoriasis, eczema, and vitiligo.",CPT +96920,Special Dermatological Procedures.,The provider uses an excimer (ultraviolet) laser to treat the skin disease psoriasis. Use this code for a total treatment area of less than 250 sq cm.,CPT +96921,Special Dermatological Procedures.,The provider uses an excimer (ultraviolet) laser to treat the skin disease psoriasis. Use this code for a total treatment area of 250 sq cm to 500 sq cm.,CPT +96922,Special Dermatological Procedures.,The provider uses an excimer (ultraviolet) laser to treat the skin disease psoriasis. Use this code for a total treatment area of over 500 sq cm.,CPT +96931,Special Dermatological Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider focuses near–infrared light on the skin to detect any abnormal lesions or scar formation. The light source connects to a computer that displays the image of the tissue under examination. Use this code when the provider saves the image, interprets the result, and reports the findings for single skin lesion, area of damaged or diseased tissue.",CPT +96932,Special Dermatological Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider focuses near–infrared light on the skin to detect any abnormal lesions or scar formation. The light source connects to a computer that displays the image of the tissue under examination. Use this code for the imaging procedure only, for a single skin lesion, area of diseased or damaged tissue.",CPT +96933,Special Dermatological Procedures.,"Reflectance confocal microscopy involves focusing near–infrared light on the skin to detect any abnormal lesions or scar formation. The light source connects to a computer that displays the image of the tissue under examination. Use this code when the provider interprets the result and reports the findings for single skin lesion, area of damaged or diseased tissue.",CPT +96934,Special Dermatological Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider focuses near–infrared light on the skin to detect any abnormal lesions or scar formation. The light source connects to a computer that displays the image of the tissue under examination. Use this code when the provider saves the images, interprets the result, and reports the findings for each additional skin lesion, area of diseased or damaged tissue.",CPT +96935,Special Dermatological Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider focuses near–infrared light on the skin to detect any abnormal lesions or scar formation. The light source connects to a computer that displays the image of the tissue under examination. Use this code for the imaging procedure for each additional skin lesion, area of diseased or damaged tissue.",CPT +96936,Special Dermatological Procedures.,"Reflectance confocal microscopy involves focusing near–infrared light on the skin to detect any abnormal lesions or scar formation. The light source connects to a computer that displays the image of the tissue under examination. Use this code when the provider interprets the result and reports the findings for each additional skin lesion, area of diseased or damaged tissue.",CPT +96999,Special Dermatological Procedures.,Use to report procedures in the integumentary systems that do not have a specific code.,CPT +97010,Supervised Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation Modalities.,"The provider, such as physical therapist, applies a hot or cold pack to a specific body site to treat an injury or disease.",CPT +97012,Supervised Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation Modalities.,"Mechanical traction is a highly successful alternative to surgery. Techniques applied in mechanical traction are dependent on the patient's condition, disorder, tolerance level, and the spinal level to be treated. Traction may be applied intermittently or as a continuous force. The gentle traction force or weight helps in pulling away the vertebrae, thereby relieving pain, widening intervertebral foramen to relieve nerve root impingement, and increasing circulation and fluid movement within spinal discs. This treatment is very effective for patients suffering from DJD, herniated disc, general neck, arm, leg and back pain, carpal tunnel syndrome, etc.",CPT +97014,Supervised Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation Modalities.,"The provider, who is typically a physical therapist, applies an electrical current to nerves or to a muscle or group of muscles, causing them to contract. It is used to restore function to a body part that is affected by disease or trauma, such as a head or spinal cord injury.",CPT +97016,Supervised Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation Modalities.,"In this procedure, the provider applies the vasopneumatic device to an extremity for the purpose of reducing edema, or swelling.",CPT +97018,Supervised Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation Modalities.,"In this procedure, the provider applies the paraffin wax on the joints or dips the limb in the paraffin wax solution.",CPT +97022,Supervised Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation Modalities.,"The whirlpool method of treatment is a form of hydrotherapy that uses circulating water and air with varied temperature and pressure settings for the treatment of certain disorders. The whirlpool is a special bathtub with pumps placed at different points to produce and circulate air bubbles and water. The air bubbles and the circulating water massage the body and aids in improving blood circulation and range of motion. It is also a very effective method in the treatment of wounds such as ulcers, burns, and other such superficial abrasions. The whirlpool action cleans the wound of dead tissues, enhances blood circulation and relieves pain. A whirlpool may use cold or hot water, and it can be provided to the whole body or a single body area depending upon the necessity of the patient. Each session in the whirlpool may last from 10 to 30 minutes and may be provided once or twice daily.",CPT +97024,Supervised Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation Modalities.,"The provider, who is typically a physical therapist, applies deep heat to specific body areas to reduce pain and increase blood flow to damaged tissues, muscles, and joints.",CPT +97026,Supervised Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation Modalities.,"The provider, who can be a physician, physical therapist, or massage therapist, among others, applies infrared light therapy to specific body areas to reduce pain, increase joint mobility, promote circulation, and aid in healing. The procedure is used for patients with arthritis, diabetes, and traumatic injuries.",CPT +97028,Supervised Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation Modalities.,"In this procedure, the provider applies ultraviolet rays on one or more body parts to treat certain skin ailments.",CPT +97032,Constant Attendance Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation Modalities.,"Electrical stimulation therapy uses electricity to stimulate the muscles for the treatment of pain and other disorders associated with muscles. Electrodes are placed on the affected muscle areas and an electric current of various intensity is passed through the electrode pads to expand and contract the muscles. This helps in the restoration of normal muscle strength, improved ability in the performance of activities, relief from pain, and improved blood circulation.",CPT +97033,Constant Attendance Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation Modalities.,"In this procedure, the provider administers iontophoresis, which uses electric current to deliver medicine through skin. Use one unit of this code for each 15 minute session.",CPT +97034,Constant Attendance Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation Modalities.,"In this procedure, the provider uses a contrast bath for treating muscle soreness, swelling, and inflammation. Use one unit of this code for each 15 minute session.",CPT +97035,Constant Attendance Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation Modalities.,"Physical therapists use different treatment modalities that can help strengthen, relax, and heal muscles from their strained conditions.",CPT +97036,Constant Attendance Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation Modalities.,"In this procedure, the provider uses a Hubbard tank to deliver hydrotherapy, a type of therapy that uses water for treatment.",CPT +97037,Constant Attendance Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation Modalities.,The provider directs a laser to one or more locations to reduce pain after the patient has surgery.,CPT +97039,Constant Attendance Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation Modalities.,Use to report procedures in which the provider uses a physical therapy modality that does not have a specific code.,CPT +97110,Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation Therapeutic Procedures.,"Therapeutic exercise is a form of physical therapy that utilizes specially designed exercises and activities to help patients gain better mobility and fitness levels. Normally used on patients with injury–related disabilities, it can also be utilized on normally active and healthy persons to improve their overall health. Therapeutic exercises can be helpful to people recovering from surgery, to improve overall health during pregnancy and to provide relief to people with osteoporosis. The exercise program is designed specifically to suit each person and involves physical as well breathing exercises.",CPT +97112,Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation Therapeutic Procedures.,"Neuromuscular reeducation is a therapeutic treatment (exercise) performed by a physician in an attempt to reduce impairments and restore function through the application of clinical skills and/or services. The use of these procedures is expected to result in improvement of the limitations/deficits in a reasonable and generally predictable period of time. The exercises increase the communication between the brain and the contracting muscles of issue. The proprioceptive system provides feedback on the status of the body internally. It is the sense that indicates whether the body is moving with required effort, as well as location of various parts of the body in relation to each other and external objects.",CPT +97113,Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation Therapeutic Procedures.,The provider instructs and supervises the patient on aquatic therapeutic exercises for one or more areas of the body for a period of 15 minutes.,CPT +97116,Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation Therapeutic Procedures.,"The provider instructs the patient in the proper ways of practicing various exercises, including climbing stairs, focusing on one or more areas, that assist them in walking comfortably and without strain for a period of 15 minutes.",CPT +97124,Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation Therapeutic Procedures.,"Generally, massage is a technique of applying light or firm pressure, with different movement styles, using palms, fingers, and thumbs, over body muscles and tissues in order to restore better blood circulation, relax muscles, and stimulate soft tissues. A massage expert or a therapist performs various types of stroking and other massages on a patient's body for therapeutic purposes. The specific techniques involved would be effleurage, petrissage, or tapotement. This code is reported in units of 15 minutes.",CPT +97129,Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation Therapeutic Procedures.,"The provider works directly one–on–one with the patient to help him improve cognitive functions such as thinking, remembering, reasoning, and problem solving and the ability to plan, organize, and carry out tasks in a practical, sensible, and timely manner. This code represents the first 15 minutes of one–on–one contact with the patient providing therapeutic interventions.",CPT +97130,Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation Therapeutic Procedures.,"The provider works directly one–on–one with the patient to help him improve cognitive functions such as thinking, remembering, reasoning, and problem solving and the ability to plan, organize, and carry out tasks in a practical, sensible, and timely manner. This code represents each additional 15 minutes of one–on–one contact with the patient providing therapeutic interventions.",CPT +97139,Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation Therapeutic Procedures.,Use to report therapeutic procedures that do not have a specific code.,CPT +97140,Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation Therapeutic Procedures.,"Manual therapy is a form of physical therapy which uses the controlled movement and pressure of hands to treat various disorders of soft tissues and joints, eg, chronic back pain. Manual therapy helps in improving joint mobility, alignment, tissue repair, lymphatic drainage, and traction.",CPT +97150,Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation Therapeutic Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider supervises and directs therapeutic procedures like exercise therapy for a group of patients.",CPT +97151,Adaptive Behavior Assessment Procedures.,"The provider, a physician or other qualified healthcare professional, identifies the adaptive or maladaptive behavior of the patient by administering several different types of tests in person; he scores the test, interprets the results, develops a plan of care, prepares a report, and discusses his findings and recommendations with the parent, guardian, and/or caregiver. Report this code for each 15 minutes that the provider spends in face–to–face time with the patient and non–face–to–face time analyzing past data.",CPT +97152,Adaptive Behavior Assessment Procedures.,"A technician, supervised by a physician or other qualified healthcare professional, provides supporting assessment of a patient’s destructive behavior and behavioral problems by interacting directly with the patient. Report this code for each 15 minutes that the technician spends face–to–face with the patient.",CPT +97153,Adaptive Behavior Treatment Procedures.,"A technician, supervised by a physician or other qualified healthcare professional, administers adaptive behavior treatments that target conditions such as developmental disabilities associated with adaptive or maladaptive behaviors, such as impaired social skills and communication, according to an established protocol. Report this code for each 15 minutes that a technician performs this service face–to–face with one patient.",CPT +97154,Adaptive Behavior Treatment Procedures.,"A technician, supervised by a physician or other qualified healthcare professional, administers adaptive behavior treatments that target conditions such as developmental disabilities associated with adaptive or maladaptive behaviors, such as impaired social skills and communication, according to an established protocol. Report this code for each 15 minutes that a technician performs this service face–to–face with two or more patients.",CPT +97155,Adaptive Behavior Treatment Procedures.,"The provider, a physician or other qualified healthcare professional, administers adaptive behavior treatment face–to–face with one patient and makes modifications in the protocol targets and treatment technique that he will teach simultaneously to a technician. Report this code for each 15 minutes of this service.",CPT +97156,Adaptive Behavior Treatment Procedures.,"The provider discusses a patient’s adaptive behavior treatment face–to–face with the guardian(s) or caregiver(s), with or without the patient present. Report this code for each 15 minutes that the provider spends face–to–face with the patient’s guardian(s) or caregiver(s).",CPT +97157,Adaptive Behavior Treatment Procedures.,"The provider discusses multiple patients’ adaptive behavior treatment face–to–face with a group of guardians or caregivers, without the respective patients being present. Report this code for each 15 minutes that the provider spends face–to–face with multiple sets of guardians or caregivers.",CPT +97158,Adaptive Behavior Treatment Procedures.,The provider administers adaptive behavior treatment to multiple patients in a social skills group. Report this code for each 15 minutes that the provider spends face–to–face with multiple patients in a group setting.,CPT +97161,Physical Therapy Evaluations.,"The provider, typically a physical therapist, conducts a physical therapy evaluation that includes history to rule out any adverse factors that will affect care; observes whether the patient's current status is stable and uncomplicated; and assess one to two elements relating to body structure and function, and limitations, such as joint flexibility, muscle strength, gait, mobility, and neuromuscular function. She uses standardized tests and measures and employs clinical decision–making of low complexity, typically involving 20 minutes of face–to–face time with the patient or family or both.",CPT +97162,Physical Therapy Evaluations.,"The provider, typically a physical therapist, conducts a physical therapy evaluation that includes history to rule out any adverse factors that will affect care; observes whether the patient's current status is evolving or changing in characteristics; and assess three or more elements relating to body structure and function, and limitations, such as joint flexibility, muscle strength, gait, mobility, and neuromuscular function. She uses standardized tests and measures and employs clinical decision–making of moderate complexity, typically involving 30 minutes of face–to–face time with the patient or family or both.",CPT +97163,Physical Therapy Evaluations.,"The provider, typically a physical therapist, conducts a physical therapy evaluation that includes history of a patient with three or more personal factors that may affect care, assess a clinical status with unstable and unpredictable characteristics, and examines four or more elements relating to body structure and function, and limitations, such as joint flexibility, muscle strength, gait, mobility, and neuromuscular function. She uses standardized tests and measures and employs clinical decision–making of high complexity, typically involving 45 minutes of face–to–face time with the patient or family or both.",CPT +97164,Physical Therapy Evaluations.,"The provider, typically a physical therapist, conducts a physical therapy re–evaluation that includes history review and standardized tests and measures to assess body structure and function; she revises the plan of care using standardized instrument and measurable functional outcome assessment tool, typically involving 20 minutes of face–to–face time with the patient or family or both.",CPT +97165,Occupational Therapy Evaluations.,"The occupational therapist (OT) performs an evaluation requiring clinical decision–making of low complexity, which includes analysis of occupational profile, problem–focused assessment data, and consideration of a limited number of treatment options, on a patient who presents with no health issues that affect occupational performance. The evaluation includes occupational profile, medical and therapy history including therapy relating to the current problem, and evaluation of one to three physical, cognitive, or psychosocial performance factors that limit activity or restrict participation. Evaluation components can be completed without modification of tasks or assistance, such as physical or verbal, typically in 30 minutes of face–to–face time with the patient and/or family.",CPT +97166,Occupational Therapy Evaluations.,"The occupational therapist (OT) performs an evaluation requiring clinical decision–making of moderate analytic complexity, which includes analysis of occupational profile, problem–focused assessment data, and consideration of several treatment options, on a patient who presents with health issues that affect occupational performance. The evaluation includes an occupational profile, expanded medical and therapy history including therapy relating to a current problem, and evaluation of three to five physical, cognitive, or psychosocial performance factors that limit activity or restrict participation. Evaluation components can be completed with minimal to moderate modification of tasks or assistance, such as physical or verbal, resulting in several treatment options, and typically in 45 minutes of face–to–face time with the patient or family or both.",CPT +97167,Occupational Therapy Evaluations.,"The occupational therapist (OT) performs an evaluation requiring clinical decision–making of high analytic complexity, which includes analysis of occupational profile, problem–focused assessment data, and consideration of multiple treatment options, on a patient who presents with health issues that affect occupational performance. The evaluation includes an occupational profile, extensive review of medical and therapy history including therapy relating to a current problem, and evaluation of five or more physical, cognitive, or psychosocial performance factors that limit activity or restrict participation. Evaluation components can be completed with significant modification of tasks or assistance, such as physical or verbal, resulting in several treatment options, and typically in 60 minutes of face–to–face time with the patient or family or both.",CPT +97168,Occupational Therapy Evaluations.,"The occupational therapist (OT) performs a re–evaluation focusing on changes in the patient's functional, environment, or medical status that results in a revised plan of care; re–evaluation includes updating the occupational profile to reflect changes in the patient's condition or environment that affect therapy or goals. This service is performed when there is a change in the patient's functional status that requires a change in the plan of care and typically takes 30 minutes of face–to–face time with the patient or family or both.",CPT +97169,Athletic Training Evaluations.,"The provider carries out an assessment requiring medical decision–making of low complexity.  He takes a medical history and uses a standardized patient assessment instrument (criteria agreed upon by a group of experts) and/or a functional outcome measurement tool to evaluate a patient with an athletic injury; evaluation includes examination of affected body area and one to two elements relating to symptoms or body structures, physical activities, and/or limitations on participation. This service typically takes 15 minutes of face–to–face time with the patient or family or both.",CPT +97170,Athletic Training Evaluations.,"The provider carries out an assessment requiring medical decision–making of moderate complexity on a patient with one to two health–related issues that affect physical activity. He takes a medical history and uses a standardized patient assessment instrument (criteria agreed upon by a group of experts) and/or a functional outcome measurement tool to evaluate a patient with an athletic injury; evaluation includes examination of affected body area and three or more elements relating to symptoms or body structures, physical activities, and/or limitations on participation. This service typically takes 30 minutes of face–to–face time with patient and/or family.",CPT +97171,Athletic Training Evaluations.,"The provider carries out an assessment requiring medical decision–making of high complexity on a patient with three or more health–related issues and an unstable or unpredictable clinical presentation that affect physical activity. He takes a medical history and uses a standardized patient assessment instrument (criteria agreed upon by a group of experts) and/or a functional outcome measurement tool to evaluate a patient with an athletic injury; evaluation includes examination of affected body area and four or more elements relating to symptoms or body structures, physical activities, and/or limitations on participation. This service typically takes 45 minutes of face–to–face time with patient and/or family.",CPT +97172,Athletic Training Evaluations.,"The provider carries out a re–evaluation of an established plans of care for athletic training on a patient recovering from a sports injury who has had a documented change in functional status. He again uses a standardized patient assessment instrument (criteria agreed upon by a group of experts) and/or a functional outcome measurement tool to evaluate a patient and revises the management options, goals, and therapeutic interventions. This service typically takes 20 minutes of face–to–face time with patient and/or family.",CPT +97530,Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation Therapeutic Procedures.,The provider uses various activities during direct contact with the patient to improve the patient’s functional performance. Use this code for each 15 minutes of activity.,CPT +97533,Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation Therapeutic Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider uses sensory integrative techniques in patients with established dysfunction of sensory processing, for example, children with autism, and brain injuries. This service helps to stimulate his or her sensory system and assist the brain to process information more effectively. Use one unit of this code for each 15 minutes the provider spends with the patient.",CPT +97535,Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation Therapeutic Procedures.,A healthcare provider is required to give  proper instruction to a person especially in cases of recovery from acute disease.,CPT +97537,Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation Therapeutic Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider works one on one with a patient to provide community work reintegration training. The training helps the injured or ill patient to return to employment and the community. Use one unit of this code for each 15 minutes the provider spends with the patient.",CPT +97542,Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation Therapeutic Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider assesses the patient’s need for a wheelchair and teaches him wheelchair maneuvering skills.",CPT +97545,Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation Therapeutic Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider has the patient go through the first two hours of a work hardening/conditioning program. It is a structured, individualized treatment program designed to maximize the patient’s ability to return to work.",CPT +97546,Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation Therapeutic Procedures.,"In this add–on procedure, the provider has the patient go through a work hardening/conditioning program for an additional hour. It is a structured, individualized treatment program designed to maximize the patient’s ability to return to work.",CPT +97550,Caregiver Training Without the Patient Present.,The provider trains one or more caregivers face to face. The training focuses on strategies and techniques so caregivers can help a patient who has functional deficits. This code covers the first 30 minutes of training.,CPT +97551,Caregiver Training Without the Patient Present.,The provider trains one or more caregivers face to face. The training focuses on strategies and techniques so caregivers can help a patient who has functional deficits. This add–on code covers each additional 15 minutes of training after the first 30 minutes.,CPT +97552,Caregiver Training Without the Patient Present.,The provider trains a group of caregivers for multiple patients face to face. The training focuses on strategies and techniques so caregivers can help patients with functional deficits.,CPT +97597,Active Wound Care Management.,"The provider excises devitalized (dead) tissue from an open wound, choosing from a variety of techniques; treatment may include topical application of medicine or materials, wound assessment, whirlpool, and instructions for ongoing care. The dimension of the treated wound surface area measures 20 cm2 or less.",CPT +97598,Active Wound Care Management.,"After debriding the initial 20 cm2 at the same encounter, the provider excises devitalized (dead) tissue from an open wound. He may use a variety of techniques that include sharp debridement with scissors, forceps, or a scalpel (a surgical knife), or he may use a high pressure waterjet, with or without suction. The excision can include the deep layer of skin or the outer layer; blood clots or other debris that has escaped from the blood vessels and been deposited in the wound; or biofilm, microorganisms that adhere to the exposed tissues of the wound.",CPT +97602,Active Wound Care Management.,"The provider removes dead tissue from a wound without differentiating between viable and nonviable tissues. This service helps in assessing the depth of the wound, reduces the risk of infection and speeds the healing process. The service also aides in providing proper wound care instructions to the patient. The code is reported per debridement session.",CPT +97605,Active Wound Care Management.,The provider applies controlled subatmospheric pressure around the wound using durable medical equipment through a sealed dressing to remove fluids and infectious materials and to aid in healing of wounds that have a total surface area of less than or equal to 50 square centimeters.,CPT +97606,Active Wound Care Management.,The provider applies controlled subatmospheric pressure using durable medical equipment around the wound through a sealed dressing to remove fluids and infectious materials and to aid in healing of wounds that have a total surface area of more than 50 square centimeters.,CPT +97607,Active Wound Care Management.,"The provider applies controlled subatmospheric pressure around a wound through a sealed dressing to remove fluids and infectious materials and to aid in healing of wounds that have a total surface area of less than or equal to 50 cm2. Providers may use this procedure to hasten the healing of decubitus ulcers, or pressure sores, as well as other slow healing or nonhealing wounds.",CPT +97608,Active Wound Care Management.,"The provider applies controlled subatmospheric pressure around a wound through a sealed dressing to remove fluids and infectious materials and to aid in healing of wounds that have a total surface area of more than 50 cm2. Providers may use this procedure to hasten the healing of decubitus ulcers, or pressure sores, as well as other slow healing or nonhealing wounds.",CPT +97610,Active Wound Care Management.,The provider uses a low–frequency ultrasound device to try to improve wound healing.,CPT +97750,Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation Tests and Measurements.,"The provider evaluates the patient’s physical performance, such as the musculoskeletal and functional capacity of the patient, through tests and activities of daily living. The provider assesses the physical performance of the patient and completes a written report.",CPT +97755,Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation Tests and Measurements.,"In this procedure, the provider performs an assessment of a patient with a disability to decide the best assistive technology. Assistive technology devices are devices that assist a patient who has a disability to compensate for the lost function. The provider is present in direct one–on–one contact with the patient and prepares a written report of the assessment.",CPT +97760,Orthotic Management and Training and Prosthetic Training.,"In this service, the provider trains a patient on the use of an orthotic device on the upper extremity, lower extremity, and/or trunk. He may also assess and adjust the fit for the device. In addition, he develops a treatment plan based on his assessment of the patient’s needs and functional ability. Use this code for each 15 minutes of the initial encounter for management and training of patients with upper or lower extremity and/or trunk orthotics.",CPT +97761,Orthotic Management and Training and Prosthetic Training.,"Prosthetic management and training includes direct one–on–one patient contact. This procedure includes the assessment, fitting, and/or training in the use of prosthesis. Report this code for each 15 minutes of the initial encounter.",CPT +97763,Orthotic Management and Training and Prosthetic Training.,"At a subsequent encounter after the initial encounter, the provider meets face–to–face with the patient to manage or train the patient on the use of an upper or lower extremity or trunk orthotic or prosthetic device. Report this code for each 15 minutes the provider spends with the patient during the subsequent encounter.",CPT +97799,Other Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation Service or Procedures.,Use to report procedures related to physical medicine or rehabilitation services that do not have a specific code.,CPT +97802,Medical Nutrition Therapy Procedures.,The provider treats medical conditions and related symptoms using specific diet therapy by interacting individually with the patient. This code represents each 15 minutes of the first visit with the patient.,CPT +97803,Medical Nutrition Therapy Procedures.,The provider reassesses the dietary needs of a patient and uses specific diet therapy to treat medical conditions and related symptoms by interacting individually with the patient. This code represents each 15 minutes of the reassessment on a subsequent visit with the patient.,CPT +97804,Medical Nutrition Therapy Procedures.,The provider uses specific diet therapy to treat medical conditions and related symptoms by interacting with a group of two or more patients. This code represents each 30 minutes of the visit with the group of two or more patients.,CPT +97810,Acupuncture Procedures.,"The provider uses solid, metallic, fine, single–use needles to pierce the skin and stimulate anatomical points on or in the skin by manipulating the needles by hand during an initial 15 minute treatment. This therapeutic intervention provides relief or prevention of pain, treatment of post–operative and chemotherapy nausea and vomiting, stroke rehabilitation, and treatment of asthma, addiction, and various other health conditions.",CPT +97811,Acupuncture Procedures.,"The provider uses thin, solid, metallic, fine, single–use needles to pierce the skin and stimulate anatomical points on or in the skin by manipulating the needles by hand. This code is for each additional 15 minutes of manual treatment, after an initial treatment, and includes re–insertion of needles. This therapeutic intervention provides relief or prevention of pain, treatment of post–operative and chemotherapy nausea and vomiting, stroke rehabilitation, and treatment of asthma, addiction, and various other health conditions.",CPT +97813,Acupuncture Procedures.,"The provider uses solid, metallic, fine, single–use needles to pierce the skin and stimulate anatomical points on or in the skin by manipulating the needles by electrical stimulation for an initial 15–minute treatment. This therapeutic intervention provides relief or prevention of pain, treatment of post–operative and chemotherapy nausea and vomiting, stroke rehabilitation, and treatment of asthma, addiction, and various other health conditions. It is also known as electroacupuncture.",CPT +97814,Acupuncture Procedures.,"The provider uses thin, solid, metallic, fine, single–use needles to pierce the skin and stimulate anatomical points on or in the skin by manipulating the needles by electrical stimulation. This code is for each additional 15 minutes of electrical stimulation treatment after an initial treatment and includes re–insertion of needles. This therapeutic intervention provides relief or prevention of pain, treatment of post–operative and chemotherapy nausea and vomiting, stroke rehabilitation, and treatment of asthma, addiction, and various other health conditions. It is also known as electroacupuncture.",CPT +98925,Osteopathic Manipulative Treatment Procedures.,The provider performs controlled manual pressure in one or two body regions to treat somatic and nonsomatic disorders.,CPT +98926,Osteopathic Manipulative Treatment Procedures.,The provider performs controlled manual pressure in three to four body regions to treat somatic and nonsomatic disorders.,CPT +98927,Osteopathic Manipulative Treatment Procedures.,The provider performs controlled manual pressure in five to six body regions to treat somatic and nonsomatic disorders.,CPT +98928,Osteopathic Manipulative Treatment Procedures.,The provider performs controlled manual pressure in seven to eight body regions to treat somatic and nonsomatic disorders.,CPT +98929,Osteopathic Manipulative Treatment Procedures.,The provider performs controlled manual pressure in nine to ten body regions to treat somatic and nonsomatic disorders.,CPT +98940,Chiropractic Manipulative Treatment Procedures.,The provider applies manipulation to influence joint and neurophysiological function by a variety of techniques and modalities in one to two spinal regions.,CPT +98941,Chiropractic Manipulative Treatment Procedures.,The provider applies manipulation to influence joint and neurophysiological function by a variety of techniques and modalities in three to four spinal regions.,CPT +98942,Chiropractic Manipulative Treatment Procedures.,The provider applies manipulation to influence joint and neurophysiological function by a variety of techniques and modalities in five spinal regions.,CPT +98943,Chiropractic Manipulative Treatment Procedures.,The provider applies manipulation to influence joint and neurophysiological function by a variety of techniques and modalities in one or more extraspinal regions.,CPT +98960,Education and Training for Patient Self-Management.,"A nonphysician healthcare professional uses a standard curriculum to educate a patient about his or her disease or disorder, for example, asthma or diabetes. She also provides training on how to manage it more effectively. This education and training service enables the patient and or the caregiver or family to effectively manage the disease. The healthcare professional spends 30 minutes with an individual patient.",CPT +98961,Education and Training for Patient Self-Management.,"A nonphysician healthcare professional uses a standard curriculum to educate patients about their disease or disorder, for example, asthma or diabetes. She also provides training on how to manage it more effectively. This education and training service enables the patients and or their caregivers or families to effectively manage the disease. The healthcare professional spends 30 minutes with a group of two to four patients.",CPT +98962,Education and Training for Patient Self-Management.,"A nonphysician healthcare professional uses a standard curriculum to educate patients about their disease or disorder, for example, asthma or diabetes. She also provides training on how to manage it more effectively. This education and training service enables the patients and or their caregivers or families to effectively manage the disease. The healthcare professional spends 30 minutes each on a group of five to eight patients.",CPT +98966,Non-Face-to-Face Nonphysician Telephone Services.,"A nonphysician healthcare professional discusses, via telephone, a new health issue and possible treatment or management with an established patient, parent, or guardian. The illness is unrelated to a service provided within the last seven days and also unrelated to a service or procedure that takes place within the next 24 hours or soonest available appointment. This service includes five to ten minutes of telephonic conversation.",CPT +98967,Non-Face-to-Face Nonphysician Telephone Services.,"A nonphysician healthcare professional discusses, via telephone, a new health issue and possible treatment or management with an established patient, parent, or guardian. The illness is unrelated to a service provided within the last seven days and also unrelated to a service or procedure that takes place within the next 24 hours or soonest available appointment. This service includes 11 to 20 minutes of telephonic conversation.",CPT +98968,Non-Face-to-Face Nonphysician Telephone Services.,"A nonphysician healthcare professional discusses, via telephone, a new health issue and possible treatment or management with an established patient, parent, or guardian. The illness is unrelated to a service provided within the last seven days and also unrelated to a service or procedure that takes place within the next 24 hours or soonest available appointment. This service includes 21 to 30 minutes of telephonic conversation.",CPT +98970,Online Digital Assessment and Management Service by Qualified Nonphysician Health Care Professional.,"Using online communication technologies, a nonphysician healthcare professional discusses a health issue and possible treatment or management with an established patient. This code covers 5 to 10 minutes of cumulative time spent with the patient for a period of up to 7 days.",CPT +98971,Online Digital Assessment and Management Service by Qualified Nonphysician Health Care Professional.,"A nonphysician healthcare professional discusses, using online communication technologies, a health issue and possible treatment or management with an established patient. This code covers 11 to 20 minutes of cumulative time spent with the patient for a period of up to 7 days.",CPT +98972,Online Digital Assessment and Management Service by Qualified Nonphysician Health Care Professional.,"A nonphysician healthcare professional discusses, using online communication technologies, a health issue and possible treatment or management with an established patient. This code covers 21 or more minutes of cumulative time spent with the patient for a period of up to 7 days.",CPT +98975,Remote Therapeutic Monitoring Services.,The provider performs initial setup of equipment for remote therapeutic monitoring. The provider also educates the patient on use of the equipment.,CPT +98976,Remote Therapeutic Monitoring Services.,This code represents supplying one or more devices for remote therapeutic monitoring for respiratory��system status. This code is reported once per 30 days and includes scheduled recording and/or programmed alert transmission.,CPT +98977,Remote Therapeutic Monitoring Services.,This code represents supplying one or more devices for remote therapeutic monitoring for musculoskeletal system status. This code is reported once per 30 days and includes scheduled recording and/or programmed alert transmission.,CPT +98978,Remote Therapeutic Monitoring Services.,This code represents supplying one or more devices for remote therapeutic monitoring for cognitive behavioral therapy. This code is reported once per 30 days and includes scheduled recording and/or programmed alert transmission.,CPT +98980,Remote Therapeutic Monitoring Treatment Management Services.,"The physician or other qualified healthcare professional performs treatment management services for remote therapeutic monitoring, such as for respiratory or musculoskeletal system status. The service includes 20 minutes of provider time in a calendar month, including at least one interactive communication with the patient or caregiver.",CPT +98981,Remote Therapeutic Monitoring Treatment Management Services.,"The physician or other qualified healthcare professional performs treatment management services for remote therapeutic monitoring, such as for respiratory or musculoskeletal system status. This code reports an additional 20 minutes of provider time in a calendar month after the initial 20 minutes, including at least one interactive communication with the patient or caregiver.",CPT +99000,Miscellaneous Medicine Services.,Use this code for the in office preparation of a specimen for lab analysis and or its transport from the office to the outside testing laboratory.,CPT +99001,Miscellaneous Medicine Services.,The provider prepares a specimen collected from a patient at a location other than the provider’s office and sends it to an outside laboratory for analysis.,CPT +99002,Miscellaneous Medicine Services.,"In this procedure, the provider prescribes an orthotic, prosthetic, or any other medical device. He performs all the tasks associated with providing the device to the patient, including measurement, selection, ordering, procuring, fitting, and final application of the device to the patient.",CPT +99024,Miscellaneous Medicine Services.,The provider performs an E/M service related to and during the global period for a surgery the patient underwent.,CPT +99026,Miscellaneous Medicine Services.,"The provider makes himself available to perform services in the hospital on an on call, or as needed basis, for a period of one hour, in fulfillment of an agreement with that facility.",CPT +99027,Miscellaneous Medicine Services.,"The provider makes himself available to perform services from outside the hospital on an on call, or as needed basis, for a period of one hour, in fulfillment of an agreement with that facility.",CPT +99050,Miscellaneous Medicine Services.,"In this procedure, the provider renders services to a patient in his office at a time when that office would otherwise be closed.",CPT +99051,Miscellaneous Medicine Services.,"The provider sees a patient during regular office hours that occur outside of traditional office hours, i.e., in the evening, on a weekend, or on a holiday.",CPT +99053,Miscellaneous Medicine Services.,The provider renders overnight services at a 24 hour facility.,CPT +99056,Miscellaneous Medicine Services.,The provider sees the patient at a location outside of the provider’s office to accommodate the needs of the patient.,CPT +99058,Miscellaneous Medicine Services.,The provider renders emergency services to a patient in the provider’s office during regular office hours without an appointment and ahead of other scheduled patients.,CPT +99060,Miscellaneous Medicine Services.,The provider renders emergency services to a patient outside of the provider’s office during regular office hours without an appointment and ahead of other scheduled patients waiting in the office.,CPT +99070,Miscellaneous Medicine Services.,"Then provider utilizes items or supplies materials to the patient in excess of what is normally utilized or provided during an encounter. These items might include medical supplies, medications, special trays, or medical devices but excluding spectacles, or eyeglasses.",CPT +99071,Miscellaneous Medicine Services.,The provider provides educational materials at his own expense to educate the patient on his medical condition.,CPT +99072,Miscellaneous Medicine Services.,"The provider uses items, supplies materials, or requires clinical staff time in excess of what is normally used or provided for an office visit or other nonfacility encounter. These additional items and time must support a safe in–person visit by reducing the chance of transmitting a respiratory–transmitted infectious disease that has caused a Public Health Emergency.",CPT +99075,Miscellaneous Medicine Services.,The provider reviews medical records and renders his medical opinion under oath on the basis of the facts made available to him.,CPT +99078,Miscellaneous Medicine Services.,"The provider conducts group instruction as patient education, such as a diabetic teaching or a prenatal class for expectant mothers.",CPT +99080,Miscellaneous Medicine Services.,The provider completes forms or reports related to the patient's status or situation in addition to standard documentation.,CPT +99082,Miscellaneous Medicine Services.,"The provider travels to facilitate patient care in a way not normally required, such as accompanying a patient in an ambulance or medical flight.",CPT +99091,Digitally Stored Data Services/Remote Physiologic Monitoring.,"The provider interprets medical information, such as ECG recordings, blood pressure records, and home glucose monitoring results, received in digital form from a patient or his caregiver requiring at least 30 minutes of the provider’s time. A physician or other qualified healthcare professional may report this code once each 30–day period.",CPT +99100,Qualifying Circumstances for Anesthesia.,"This code, depicting the ""age criteria"", is a qualifying circumstance CPT. This is an add–on code, used along with a primary anesthesia procedure code, and is applied only in cases when the patient's age is less than 1 year or more than 70 years. At the time of billing for any anesthesia service provided to a patient, checking the patient's age becomes an important criterion. Documentation of the patient's age in the medical record by the physician is absolutely necessary for using this code.",CPT +99116,Qualifying Circumstances for Anesthesia.,"This code describes the use of total body hypothermia. Use this add–on code along with a primary anesthesia procedure code only in cases when the provider induces hypothermia in the patient during a procedure, complicating the administration of anesthesia.",CPT +99135,Qualifying Circumstances for Anesthesia.,"This code describes the use of controlled hypotension. Use this add–on code along with a primary anesthesia procedure code only in cases when the provider induces controlled hypotension in the patient during certain surgical procedures, complicating the administration of anesthesia.",CPT +99140,Qualifying Circumstances for Anesthesia.,"This code, describing emergency conditions, is a qualifying circumstance CPT code. This add–on code, used along with a primary anesthesia procedure code, is applied only in cases when application of anesthesia becomes complex due to some emergency condition of the patient. Documentation of the emergency condition and the reason for emergency at the time of providing anesthesia service in the medical record by the physician is necessary for using this code.",CPT +99151,Moderate (Conscious) Sedation.,"The provider performing a diagnostic or therapeutic procedure administers medication to reduce consciousness, but not render the patient unconscious or asleep, in a child younger than five years of age, in the presence of a trained observer who assists in monitoring the patient. This code is for the initial 15 minutes of intraservice time.",CPT +99152,Moderate (Conscious) Sedation.,"The provider performing a diagnostic or therapeutic procedure administers medication to reduce consciousness, but not render the patient unconscious or asleep, in a patient five years of age or older, in the presence of a trained observer who assists in monitoring the patient. This code is for the initial 15 minutes of intraservice time.",CPT +99153,Moderate (Conscious) Sedation.,"The provider performing a diagnostic or therapeutic procedure administers medication to reduce consciousness, but not render the patient unconscious or asleep, beyond the 15 minutes of intraservice time covered by a primary code; this code requires the presence of a trained observer who assists in monitoring the patient .",CPT +99155,Moderate (Conscious) Sedation.,"A provider or other qualified healthcare professional, other than the provider performing a diagnostic or therapeutic procedure, administers medication to reduce consciousness, but not render the patient unconscious or asleep, in a child younger than five years of age. This code is for the initial 15 minutes of intraservice time.",CPT +99156,Moderate (Conscious) Sedation.,"A provider or other qualified healthcare professional, other than the provider performing a diagnostic or therapeutic procedure, administers medication to reduce consciousness, but not render the patient unconscious or asleep, in a patient five years of age or older. This code is for the initial 15 minutes of intraservice time.",CPT +99157,Moderate (Conscious) Sedation.,"A provider or other qualified healthcare professional, other than the provider performing a diagnostic or therapeutic procedure, administers medication to reduce consciousness, but not render the patient unconscious or asleep, and monitors the patient beyond the 15 minutes of intraservice time covered by a primary code.",CPT +99170,Other Medicine Services and Procedures.,The provider examines a child's genitals and anal area with microscopy and possibly image recording for a child suspected of having been sexually abused or assaulted.,CPT +99172,Other Medicine Services and Procedures.,"The provider, other than an ophthalmologist or optometrist, checks various aspects of visual function using automated or semi–automated devices to determine that a patient's visual function is sufficient for job duties.",CPT +99173,Other Medicine Services and Procedures.,"The provider checks the eyesight in both eyes of a pediatric patient by asking him to read letters of varying sizes on a standard chart, such as a Snellen’s chart, which he keeps 20 feet away from the patient.",CPT +99174,Other Medicine Services and Procedures.,The provider uses instruments to conduct a vision screening exam on both eyes. The procedure includes analysis and report.,CPT +99175,Other Medicine Services and Procedures.,"The provider administers a substance, such as syrup of ipecac, to induce vomiting in a patient who has ingested a poison, and then watches the patient until his stomach is sufficiently emptied of the toxin.",CPT +99177,Other Medicine Services and Procedures.,The provider uses instruments to conduct a vision screening exam to analyze both eyes to diagnose ocular or eye–related diseases. Both the screening and analysis take place on–site.,CPT +99183,Other Medicine Services and Procedures.,"In this procedure, the provider attends and supervises the administration of hyperbaric oxygen therapy to a patient to treat specific conditions, such as decompression sickness in deep sea divers, burns, ulcers, and nonhealing wounds.",CPT +99184,Other Medicine Services and Procedures.,"The provider reduces the head or body temperature of a critically ill neonate after careful consideration of various selection criteria. He monitors the infant’s temperature using an esophageal probe. The provider performs the service when a neonate suffers hypoxic events, such as perinatal hypoxic–ischemic encephalopathy (HIE).",CPT +99188,Other Medicine Services and Procedures.,"The provider applies a fluoride adhesive over the tooth surface to prevent tooth decay, provide remineralization, or treat hypersensitivity.",CPT +99190,Other Medicine Services and Procedures.,"The provider assembles and operates a mechanical pump–oxygenator or heat exchanger for the circulation and oxygenation of blood outside the body. This service is for each hour and may or may not include monitoring of the patient’s blood pressure and performing an ECG, or electrocardiogram. Preparation and operation of a pump oxygenator or heat exchanger helps in cardiac surgeries.",CPT +99191,Other Medicine Services and Procedures.,"The provider assembles and operates a mechanical pump–oxygenator or heat exchanger for the circulation and oxygenation of blood outside the body. This service is for 45 minutes and may or may not include monitoring of the patient’s blood pressure and performing an ECG, or electrocardiogram. Preparation and operation of a pump oxygenator or heat exchanger helps in cardiac surgeries.",CPT +99192,Other Medicine Services and Procedures.,"The provider assembles and operates a mechanical pump–oxygenator or heat exchanger for the circulation and oxygenation of blood outside the body. This service is for 30 minutes and may or may not include monitoring of the patient’s blood pressure and performing an ECG, or electrocardiogram. A pump oxygenator or heat exchanger helps in cardiac surgeries.",CPT +99195,Other Medicine Services and Procedures.,"The provider removes venous blood from a patient, similar to a blood donation, to reduce the number of red blood cells or treat a high level of iron or potassium in the blood.",CPT +99199,Other Medicine Services and Procedures.,Use this code to report other medicine services or procedures for which there is no specific code available.,CPT +99202,New Patient.,"The provider sees a new patient for an office visit or other outpatient visit involving evaluation and management. The visit involves straightforward medical decision making, and/or the provider spends 15 or more minutes of total time on the encounter on a single date.",CPT +99203,New Patient.,"The provider sees a new patient for an office visit or other outpatient visit involving evaluation and management. The visit involves a low level of medical decision making, and/or the provider spends 30 or more minutes of total time on the encounter on a single date.",CPT +99204,New Patient.,"The provider sees a new patient for an office visit or other outpatient visit involving evaluation and management. The visit involves a moderate level of medical decision making, and/or the provider spends 45 or more minutes of total time on the encounter on a single date.",CPT +99205,New Patient.,"The provider sees a new patient for an office visit or other outpatient visit involving evaluation and management. The visit involves a high level of medical decision making, and/or the provider spends 60 or more minutes of total time on the encounter on a single date.",CPT +99211,Established Patient.,An established patient presents for an office or other outpatient visit that may not require the presence of a physician or other qualified healthcare professional.,CPT +99212,Established Patient.,"The provider sees an established patient for an office visit or other outpatient visit involving evaluation and management. The visit involves a straightforward level of medical decision making, and/or the provider spends 10 or more minutes of total time on the encounter on a single date.",CPT +99213,Established Patient.,"The provider sees an established patient for an office visit or other outpatient visit involving evaluation and management. The visit involves a low level of medical decision making, and/or the provider spends 20 or more minutes of total time on the encounter on a single date.",CPT +99214,Established Patient.,"The provider sees an established patient for an office visit or other outpatient visit involving evaluation and management. The visit involves a moderate level of medical decision making, and/or the provider spends 30 minutes or more of total time on the encounter on a single date.",CPT +99215,Established Patient.,"The provider sees an established patient for an office visit or other outpatient visit involving evaluation and management. The visit involves a high level of medical decision making, and/or the provider spends 40 or more minutes of total time on the encounter on a single date.",CPT +99221,New or Established Patient.,The provider sees a patient for an initial hospital inpatient or observation care visit involving evaluation and management (E/M). The visit involves a straightforward or low level of medical decision making or the provider spends at least 40 minutes of total time on the encounter on a single date.,CPT +99222,New or Established Patient.,The provider sees a patient for an initial hospital inpatient or observation care visit involving evaluation and management (E/M). The visit involves a moderate level of medical decision making or the provider spends at least 55 minutes of total time on the encounter on a single date.,CPT +99223,New or Established Patient.,The provider sees a patient for an initial hospital inpatient or observation care visit involving evaluation and management (E/M). The visit involves a high level of medical decision making or the provider spends at least 75 minutes of total time on the encounter on a single date.,CPT +99231,Subsequent Hospital Inpatient or Observation Care.,The provider sees a patient for a subsequent hospital inpatient or observation care visit involving evaluation and management (E/M). The visit involves a straightforward or low level of medical decision making or the provider spends at least 25 minutes of total time on the encounter on a single date.,CPT +99232,Subsequent Hospital Inpatient or Observation Care.,The provider sees a patient for a subsequent hospital inpatient or observation care visit involving evaluation and management (E/M). The visit involves a moderate level of medical decision making or the provider spends at least 35 minutes of total time on the encounter on a single date.,CPT +99233,Subsequent Hospital Inpatient or Observation Care.,The provider sees a patient for a subsequent hospital inpatient or observation care visit involving evaluation and management (E/M). The visit involves a high level of medical decision making or the provider spends at least 50 minutes of total time on the encounter on a single date.,CPT +99234,Hospital Inpatient or Observation Care Services (Including Admission and Discharge Services).,"The provider sees a patient for hospital inpatient or observation care involving evaluation and management (E/M), with an admission encounter and discharge encounter on the same date. The E/M involves a straightforward or low level of medical decision making or the provider spends at least 45 minutes of total time on the service on a single date.",CPT +99235,Hospital Inpatient or Observation Care Services (Including Admission and Discharge Services).,"The provider sees a patient for hospital inpatient or observation care involving evaluation and management (E/M), with an admission encounter and discharge encounter on the same date. The E/M involves a moderate level of medical decision making or the provider spends at least 70 minutes of total time on the service on a single date.",CPT +99236,Hospital Inpatient or Observation Care Services (Including Admission and Discharge Services).,"The provider sees a patient for hospital inpatient or observation care involving evaluation and management (E/M), with an admission encounter and discharge encounter on the same date. The E/M involves a high level of medical decision making or the provider spends at least 85 minutes of total time on the service on a single date.",CPT +99238,Hospital Inpatient or Observation Discharge Services.,"The provider sees a patient for hospital inpatient or observation discharge day management, involving evaluation and management (E/M). The provider spends 30 minutes or less on the service on the encounter date.",CPT +99239,Hospital Inpatient or Observation Discharge Services.,"The provider sees a patient for hospital inpatient or observation discharge day management, involving evaluation and management (E/M). The provider spends more than 30 minutes on the service on the encounter date.",CPT +99242,New or Established Patient.,The provider sees a patient for an office or other outpatient consultation involving evaluation and management (E/M). The E/M involves a straightforward level of medical decision making or the provider spends at least 20 minutes of total time on the encounter on a single date.,CPT +99243,New or Established Patient.,The provider sees a patient for an office or other outpatient consultation involving evaluation and management (E/M). The E/M involves a low level of medical decision making or the provider spends at least 30 minutes of total time on the encounter on a single date.,CPT +99244,New or Established Patient.,The provider sees a patient for an office or other outpatient consultation involving evaluation and management (E/M). The E/M involves a moderate level of medical decision making or the provider spends at least 40 minutes of total time on the encounter on a single date.,CPT +99245,New or Established Patient.,The provider sees a patient for an office or other outpatient consultation involving evaluation and management (E/M). The E/M involves a high level of medical decision making or the provider spends at least 55 minutes of total time on the encounter on a single date.,CPT +99252,New or Established Patient.,The provider sees a patient for an inpatient or observation consultation involving evaluation and management (E/M). The E/M involves a straightforward level of medical decision making or the provider spends at least 35 minutes of total time on the encounter on a single date.,CPT +99253,New or Established Patient.,The provider sees a patient for an inpatient or observation consultation involving evaluation and management (E/M). The E/M involves a low level of medical decision making or the provider spends at least 45 minutes of total time on the encounter on a single date.,CPT +99254,New or Established Patient.,The provider sees a patient for an inpatient or observation consultation involving evaluation and management (E/M). The E/M involves a moderate level of medical decision making or the provider spends at least 60 minutes of total time on the encounter on a single date.,CPT +99255,New or Established Patient.,The provider sees a patient for an inpatient or observation consultation involving evaluation and management (E/M). The E/M involves a high level of medical decision making or the provider spends at least 80 minutes of total time on the encounter on a single date.,CPT +99281,New or Established Patient.,The provider sees a patient for the lowest level emergency department visit.,CPT +99282,New or Established Patient.,The provider sees a patient for an emergency department visit involving evaluation and management (E/M). The visit involves a straightforward level of medical decision making.,CPT +99283,New or Established Patient.,The provider sees a patient for an emergency department visit involving evaluation and management (E/M). The visit involves a low level of medical decision making.,CPT +99284,New or Established Patient.,The provider sees a patient for an emergency department visit involving evaluation and management (E/M). The visit involves a moderate level of medical decision making.,CPT +99285,New or Established Patient.,The provider sees a patient for an emergency department visit involving evaluation and management (E/M). The visit involves a high level of medical decision making.,CPT +99288,Other Emergency Services.,"The provider gives medical direction for a patient’s care via a two way radio with emergency medical services, or EMS, personnel in the field, or during transport to or from the emergency department. Medical direction includes trauma patients or patients who require advanced life support.",CPT +99291,Critical Care Services.,Critical care services include the treatment of vital organ failure  or prevention of further life–threatening conditions. Delivering medical care in a moment of crisis and in time of emergency is not the only requirement for providing CC services. Presence of a patient in an ICU or use of ventilation is not sufficient to bill a CC service. The following three criteria must be met for reporting CC service:,CPT +99292,Critical Care Services.,Critical care services include the treatment of vital organ failure  or prevention of further life–threatening conditions. Delivering medical care in a moment of crisis and in time of emergency is not the only requirement for providing critical care service. The presence of a patient in an ICU or use of ventilation is not sufficient to bill a critical care service. The following three criteria must be met for reporting critical care services:,CPT +99304,New or Established Patient.,The provider sees a patient for an initial nursing facility care visit involving evaluation and management (E/M). The visit involves straightforward or low medical decision making or the provider spends at least 25 minutes of total time on the encounter on a single date.,CPT +99305,New or Established Patient.,The provider sees a patient for an initial nursing facility care visit involving evaluation and management (E/M). The visit involves moderate medical decision making or the provider spends at least 35 minutes of total time on the encounter on a single date.,CPT +99306,New or Established Patient.,"The provider sees a patient for an initial nursing facility care visit involving evaluation and management (E/M). The visit involves high medical decision making, and/or the provider spends at least 50 minutes of total time on the encounter on a single date.",CPT +99307,Subsequent Nursing Facility Care.,The provider sees a patient for a subsequent nursing facility care visit involving evaluation and management (E/M). The visit involves a straightforward level of medical decision making or the provider spends at least 10 minutes of total time on the encounter on a single date.,CPT +99308,Subsequent Nursing Facility Care.,The provider sees a patient for a subsequent nursing facility care visit involving evaluation and management (E/M). The visit involves a low level of medical decision making and/or the provider spends at least 20 minutes of total time on the encounter on a single date.,CPT +99309,Subsequent Nursing Facility Care.,The provider sees a patient for a subsequent nursing facility care visit involving evaluation and management (E/M). The visit involves a moderate level of medical decision making or the provider spends at least 30 minutes of total time on the encounter on a single date.,CPT +99310,Subsequent Nursing Facility Care.,The provider sees a patient for a subsequent nursing facility care visit involving evaluation and management (E/M). The visit involves a high level of medical decision making or the provider spends at least 45 minutes of total time on the encounter on a single date.,CPT +99315,Nursing Facility Discharge Services.,The provider sees a patient for nursing facility discharge management requiring 30 minutes or less.,CPT +99316,Nursing Facility Discharge Services.,The provider sees a patient for nursing facility discharge management requiring more than 30 minutes.,CPT +99341,New Patient.,The provider sees a new patient for a home or residence visit involving evaluation and management (E/M). The visit involves straightforward medical decision making or the provider spends at least 15 minutes of total time on the encounter on a single date.,CPT +99342,New Patient.,The provider sees a new patient for a home or residence visit involving evaluation and management (E/M). The visit involves a low level of medical decision making or the provider spends at least 30 minutes of total time on the encounter on a single date.,CPT +99344,New Patient.,The provider sees a new patient for a home or residence visit involving evaluation and management (E/M). The visit involves a moderate level of medical decision making or the provider spends at least 60 minutes of total time on the encounter on a single date.,CPT +99345,New Patient.,The provider sees a new patient for a home or residence visit involving evaluation and management (E/M). The visit involves a high level of medical decision making or the provider spends at least 75 minutes of total time on the encounter on a single date.,CPT +99347,Established Patient.,The provider sees an established patient for a home or residence visit involving evaluation and management (E/M). The visit involves straightforward medical decision making or the provider spends at least 20 minutes of total time on the encounter on a single date.,CPT +99348,Established Patient.,The provider sees an established patient for a home or residence visit involving evaluation and management (E/M). The visit involves low medical decision making or the provider spends at least 30 minutes of total time on the encounter on a single date.,CPT +99349,Established Patient.,The provider sees an established patient for a home or residence visit involving evaluation and management (E/M). The visit involves moderate medical decision making or the provider spends at least 40 minutes of total time on the encounter on a single date.,CPT +99350,Established Patient.,The provider sees an established patient for a home or residence visit involving evaluation and management (E/M). The visit involves high medical decision making or the provider spends at least 60 minutes of total time on the encounter on a single date.,CPT +99358,Prolonged Service on Date Other Than the Face-to-Face Evaluation and Management Service Without Direct Patient Contact.,Report this service if the provider spends time in either preparation or evaluation of the outcome of treatment before or after a direct encounter with a patient.,CPT +99359,Prolonged Service on Date Other Than the Face-to-Face Evaluation and Management Service Without Direct Patient Contact.,Report this service if the provider spends time in either preparation or evaluation of the outcome of treatment before or after a direct encounter with a patient. This code represents each additional 30 minutes after the first hour of time.,CPT +99360,Standby Services.,The provider spends 30 minutes in standby in case her services are needed.,CPT +99366,"Medical Team Conference, Direct (Face-to-Face) Contact With Patient and/or Family.",A medical team discusses a treatment plan in a meeting with a patient who requires attention from more than one medical specialty.,CPT +99367,"Medical Team Conference, Without Direct (Face-to-Face) Contact With Patient and/or Family.",A physician joins a medical team in a meeting to discuss a treatment plan for a patient who requires attention from more than one medical specialty.,CPT +99368,"Medical Team Conference, Without Direct (Face-to-Face) Contact With Patient and/or Family.",A nonphysician qualified health care professional joins a medical team in a meeting to discuss a treatment plan for a patient who requires attention from more than one medical specialty.,CPT +99374,Care Plan Oversight Services.,Report this service when the provider oversees the plan of care provided by a home health agency while the patient is at home or in a facility meant for long–term care. For the provider should spend a minimum 15–29 minutes on a patient’s indirect care.,CPT +99375,Care Plan Oversight Services.,"Report this service when the provider supervises the care provided by a home health agency, overseeing the plan of care, while the patient is at home or in a facility meant for long–term care. For the provider should spend 30 minutes or more on a patient’s indirect care.",CPT +99377,Care Plan Oversight Services.,Report this service when the provider supervises and coordinates the care provided to a hospice patient. For the provider should spend a minimum of 15–29 minutes on the patient’s indirect care.,CPT +99378,Care Plan Oversight Services.,Report this service when the provider supervises and coordinates the care provided to a hospice patient. For the provider should spend 30 minutes or more on patient’s indirect care.,CPT +99379,Care Plan Oversight Services.,"Report this service when the provider supervises the care provided at a nursing facility, overseeing the plan of care. For the provider should spend 15–29 minutes on the patient’s indirect care.",CPT +99380,Care Plan Oversight Services.,"Report this service when the provider supervises the care provided at a nursing facility, overseeing the plan of care. For 99379 the provider should spend 30 minutes or more on the patient’s indirect care.",CPT +99381,New Patient.,The provider performs a well–baby visit for a child under the age of one.,CPT +99382,New Patient.,The provider performs a well–patient visit for a child who is between the ages of 1 and 4 who meets the definition of new patient.,CPT +99383,New Patient.,The provider performs a well–patient visit for a child who is between the ages of 5 and 11 who meets the definition of new patient.,CPT +99384,New Patient.,The provider performs a well–patient visit for an adolescent who is between the ages of 12 and 17 who meets the definition of new patient.,CPT +99385,New Patient.,The provider performs a well–patient visit for a patient who is between the ages of 18 and 39.,CPT +99386,New Patient.,The provider performs a well–patient visit for a patient who is between the ages of 40 and 64.,CPT +99387,New Patient.,The provider performs a well–patient visit for a patient who is 65 years or older.,CPT +99391,Established Patient.,"Preventive medicine services are provided to individuals who are not in need of any immediate medical attention, but need to undergo a periodic health checkup as a preventive measure. Well–baby visits, well–woman visits, and routine annual physical check–ups come under the purview of preventive medicine reevaluation and management services. These visits are different from other visits where the patient has a problem for which medical attention is sought. The age, gender, and associated risk factors of the person are important considerations while providing a preventive medicine service. The physician performs a comprehensive review of systems, comprehensive past family and social history (PFSH), and makes a thorough assessment of age and gender–related risk factors. The physician may order and obtain diagnostic/laboratory procedures and administer immunizations during the preventive service.",CPT +99392,Established Patient.,"Preventive medicine services are provided to individuals who are not in need of any immediate medical attention, but need to undergo a periodic health checkup as a preventive measure. Well–baby visits, well–woman visits, and routine annual physical check–ups come under the purview of preventive medicine reevaluation and management services. These visits are different from other visits where the patient has a problem for which medical attention is sought. The age, gender, and associated risk factors of the person are important considerations while providing a preventive medicine service. The physician performs a comprehensive review of systems, comprehensive past family and social history (PFSH), and makes a thorough assessment of age and gender–related risk factors. The physician may order and obtain diagnostic/laboratory procedures and administer immunizations during the preventive service.",CPT +99393,Established Patient.,The provider performs an established well–patient visit for a child who is between the ages of 5 and 11.,CPT +99394,Established Patient.,The provider performs an established well–patient visit for an adolescent who is between the ages of 12 and 17.,CPT +99395,Established Patient.,The provider performs an established well–patient visit for a patient who is between the ages of 18 and 39.,CPT +99396,Established Patient.,The provider performs an established well–patient visit for a patient who is between the ages of 40 and 64.,CPT +99397,Established Patient.,The provider performs an established well–patient visit for a patient who is 65 years or older.,CPT +99401,"Preventive Medicine, Individual Counseling.","At an encounter separate from a preventive medicine visit, the provider offers counseling related to subjects appropriate for the patient’s age, family history, and areas of concern. The subjects covered relate to prevention and risk factor reduction. Use this code for a session lasting roughly 15 minutes.",CPT +99402,"Preventive Medicine, Individual Counseling.","At an encounter separate from a preventive medicine visit, the provider offers counseling related to subjects appropriate for the patient’s age, family history, and areas of concern. The subjects covered relate to prevention and risk factor reduction. Use this code for a session lasting roughly 30 minutes.",CPT +99403,"Preventive Medicine, Individual Counseling.","At an encounter separate from a preventive medicine visit, the provider offers counseling related to subjects appropriate for the patient’s age, family history, and areas of concern. The subjects covered relate to prevention and risk factor reduction. Use this code for a session lasting roughly 45 minutes.",CPT +99404,"Preventive Medicine, Individual Counseling.","At an encounter separate from a preventive medicine visit, the provider offers counseling related to subjects appropriate for the patient’s age, family history, and areas of concern. The subjects covered relate to prevention and risk factor reduction. Use this code for a session lasting roughly 60 minutes.",CPT +99406,"Behavior Change Interventions, Individual.",The provider counsels the patient on how to stop tobacco use. The counseling lasts 3 to 10 minutes.,CPT +99407,"Behavior Change Interventions, Individual.",The provider counsels the patient on how to stop tobacco use. The counseling lasts more than 10 minutes.,CPT +99408,"Behavior Change Interventions, Individual.",The provider spends 15 to 30 minutes screening a patient for abuse of alcohol or another non–tobacco substance. The provider then performs a brief intervention at the same session.,CPT +99409,"Behavior Change Interventions, Individual.",The provider spends more than 30 minutes screening a patient for abuse of alcohol or another non–tobacco substance. The provider then performs a brief intervention at the same session.,CPT +99411,"Preventive Medicine, Group Counseling.",The provider offers advice on maintaining and improving health to a group of patients for roughly half an hour.,CPT +99412,"Preventive Medicine, Group Counseling.",The provider offers advice on maintaining and improving health to a group of patients for roughly an hour.,CPT +99415,Prolonged Clinical Staff Services With Physician or Other Qualified Health Care Professional Supervision.,The clinical staff spends additional time directly with the patient on an office or outpatient evaluation and management service. Use this code for the first hour of additional time that the staff spends under the provider’s supervision.,CPT +99416,Prolonged Clinical Staff Services With Physician or Other Qualified Health Care Professional Supervision.,The clinical staff spends additional time directly with the patient on an office or outpatient evaluation and management service. Use this code for each additional 30 minutes of additional time that the staff spends under the provider’s supervision.,CPT +99417,Prolonged Service With or Without Direct Patient Contact on the Date of an Evaluation and Management Service.,The provider spends additional time on an outpatient evaluation and management service. Use this code for each additional 15 minutes beyond the minimum required time.,CPT +99418,Prolonged Service With or Without Direct Patient Contact on the Date of an Evaluation and Management Service.,The provider spends additional time on an inpatient or observation evaluation and management service. Use this code for each additional 15 minutes beyond the minimum required time.,CPT +99421,Online Digital Evaluation and Management Service.,"A physician or other qualified healthcare professional discusses, using online communication technologies, a health issue and possible treatment or management with an established patient. This code covers 5 to 10 minutes of cumulative time spent with the patient for a period of up to 7 days.",CPT +99422,Online Digital Evaluation and Management Service.,"A physician or other qualified healthcare professional discusses, using online communication technologies, a health issue and possible treatment or management with an established patient. This code covers 11 to 20 minutes of cumulative time spent with the patient for a period of up to 7 days.",CPT +99423,Online Digital Evaluation and Management Service.,"A physician or other qualified healthcare professional discusses, using online communication technologies, a health issue and possible treatment or management with an established patient. This code covers 21 or more minutes of cumulative time spent with the patient for a period of up to 7 days.",CPT +99424,Principal Care Management Services.,"A physician or other qualified healthcare professional personally performs management and care plan services for a patient with a complex chronic condition, expected to last three months, which places the patient at significant risk of hospitalization, acute exacerbation, decompensation, functional decline, or death. Use this code for the first 30 minutes of physician or other qualified healthcare professional time per calendar month.",CPT +99425,Principal Care Management Services.,"A physician or other qualified healthcare professional personally performs management and care plan services for a patient with a complex chronic condition, expected to last three months, which places the patient at significant risk of hospitalization, acute exacerbation, decompensation, functional decline, or death. Use this code for each additional 30 minutes of physician or other qualified healthcare professional time beyond the first 30 minutes in a calendar month.",CPT +99426,Principal Care Management Services.,"Clinical staff members, directed by a physician or other qualified healthcare professional, perform management and care plan services for a patient with a complex chronic condition, expected to last three months, which places the patient at significant risk of hospitalization, acute exacerbation, decompensation, functional decline, or death. Use this code for the first 30 minutes of clinical staff time per calendar month.",CPT +99427,Principal Care Management Services.,"Clinical staff members, directed by a physician or other qualified healthcare professional, perform management and care plan services for a patient with a complex chronic condition, expected to last three months, which places the patient at significant risk of hospitalization, acute exacerbation, decompensation, functional decline, or death. Use this code for each additional 30 minutes of clinical staff time beyond the first 30 minutes in a calendar month.",CPT +99429,Other Preventive Medicine Services.,Use to report a preventive medicine service that does not have a specific code.,CPT +99437,Chronic Care Management Services.,"A physician or other qualified healthcare professional personally performs management and care plan services for a patient with two or more chronic conditions, expected to last at least one year or until the patient’s death. The conditions place the patient at significant risk of death, acute exacerbation, decompensation, or functional decline. Use this code for each additional 30 minutes of physician or other qualified healthcare professional time per calendar month, beyond the first 30 minutes.",CPT +99439,Chronic Care Management Services.,"The clinical staff provides services directed by the provider to support and coordinate a patient’s care across multiple disciplines. The patient has two or more chronic conditions that place the patient at significant risk of death, acute exacerbation, decompensation, or functional decline. Use this code for each additional 20 minutes of provider–directed clinical staff time per calendar month.",CPT +99441,Telephone Services.,The provider performs an E/M service for an established patient through a telephone conversation lasting five to 10 minutes.,CPT +99442,Telephone Services.,The provider performs an E/M service for an established patient through a telephone conversation lasting 11 to 20 minutes.,CPT +99443,Telephone Services.,The provider performs an E/M service for an established patient through a telephone conversation lasting 21 to 30 minutes.,CPT +99446,Interprofessional Telephone/Internet/Electronic Health Record Consultations.,"A consulting physician or other qualified healthcare professional performs a five– to 10–minute consult via telephone, internet, or electronic health record (EHR) and provides a verbal and written report to the requesting physician/qualified healthcare professional.",CPT +99447,Interprofessional Telephone/Internet/Electronic Health Record Consultations.,"A consulting physician or other qualified healthcare professional performs an 11– to 20–minute consult via telephone, internet, or electronic health record (EHR) and provides a verbal and written report to the requesting physician/qualified healthcare professional.",CPT +99448,Interprofessional Telephone/Internet/Electronic Health Record Consultations.,"A consulting physician or other qualified healthcare professional performs a 21– to 30–minute consult via telephone, internet, or electronic health record (EHR) and provides a verbal and written report to the requesting physician/qualified healthcare professional.",CPT +99449,Interprofessional Telephone/Internet/Electronic Health Record Consultations.,"A consulting physician or other qualified healthcare professional performs a 31–minute or more consult via telephone, internet, or electronic health record (EHR) and provides a verbal and written report to the requesting physician/qualified healthcare professional.",CPT +99450,Basic Life and/or Disability Evaluation Services.,"The provider performs a basic exam, such as that required to qualify for an insurance policy.",CPT +99451,Interprofessional Telephone/Internet/Electronic Health Record Consultations.,"A consulting physician or other qualified healthcare professional performs a 5–minute or more consult via telephone, internet, or electronic health record (EHR) and provides a written report to the requesting physician/qualified healthcare professional.",CPT +99452,Interprofessional Telephone/Internet/Electronic Health Record Consultations.,"The provider, a treating or requesting physician or other qualified healthcare professional, spends 30 minutes providing healthcare information about a patient to a consultant via various electronic media.",CPT +99453,Digitally Stored Data Services/Remote Physiologic Monitoring.,The provider sets up and trains the patient on the use of remote physiologic monitoring equipment.,CPT +99454,Digitally Stored Data Services/Remote Physiologic Monitoring.,The provider supplies the patient with remote physiologic monitoring equipment and receives daily recordings and/or programmed alerts. Report this code for each 30 days of equipment supply and monitoring.,CPT +99455,Work Related or Medical Disability Evaluation Services.,"The provider evaluates the patient for any work related or medical reasons. He provides this service to both new and established patients, irrespective of the place of service.",CPT +99456,Work Related or Medical Disability Evaluation Services.,A provider other than the patient’s treating physician provides a work–related or medical disability exam such as that required for a workers’ compensation claim.,CPT +99457,Remote Physiologic Monitoring Treatment Management Services.,"The provider monitors a patient’s remote physiologic recordings and/or programmed alerts and interacts with the patient or caregiver to adjust treatment based on the recordings. Report this code for the first 20 minutes of clinical staff, physician, or other qualified healthcare provider time spent providing this service.",CPT +99458,Remote Physiologic Monitoring Treatment Management Services.,"The provider monitors a patient’s remote physiologic recordings and/or programmed alerts and interacts with the patient or caregiver to adjust treatment based on the recordings. Report this code for each additional 20 minutes of clinical staff, physician, or other qualified healthcare provider time spent providing this service.",CPT +99459,Other Evaluation and Management Services.,The provider performs a pelvic exam on a patient in conjunction with an evaluation and management service.,CPT +99460,Newborn Care Services.,"The provider evaluates and manages the care of a normal newborn infant, typically immediately after birth, in a hospital or birthing center.",CPT +99461,Newborn Care Services.,"The provider evaluates and manages the care of a normal newborn infant, typically immediately after birth, at a location other than a hospital or birthing center.",CPT +99462,Newborn Care Services.,The provider performs the evaluation and management of a normal newborn on a day subsequent to the initial hospital evaluation.,CPT +99463,Newborn Care Services.,"The provider evaluates and manages the care of a normal newborn infant, typically immediately after birth, in a hospital or birthing center, through the time of discharge, or release, from the facility later the same day.",CPT +99464,Delivery/Birthing Room Attendance and Resuscitation Services.,"The provider is present during the delivery, at the request of the delivering provider, and during the basic stabilization of the newborn immediately after birth, typically when fetal distress or other complications are anticipated.",CPT +99465,Delivery/Birthing Room Attendance and Resuscitation Services.,"The provider resuscitates a newborn in cardiopulmonary distress in the delivery room, providing ventilation, or breathing, and chest compressions.",CPT +99466,Pediatric Critical Care Patient Transport.,"The provider accompanies and cares for a critically ill or injured child, in person, who is two years of age or younger, during transportation between facilities.",CPT +99467,Pediatric Critical Care Patient Transport.,"The provider accompanies and cares for a critically ill or injured child, in person, who is two years of age or younger, during transportation between facilities.",CPT +99468,Inpatient Neonatal and Pediatric Critical Care.,The provider evaluates and manages the initial care of a newborn or infant less than 28 days of age in a neonatal critical care setting.,CPT +99469,Inpatient Neonatal and Pediatric Critical Care.,"The provider evaluates and manages the subsequent care of a newborn or infant less than 28 days of age in a neonatal critical care setting, after the first day.",CPT +99471,Inpatient Neonatal and Pediatric Critical Care.,"The provider performs initial evaluation and management of a critically ill infant or young child, 29 days through 24 months of age, in an inpatient setting.",CPT +99472,Inpatient Neonatal and Pediatric Critical Care.,"The provider performs follow up care of a critically ill infant or young child, 29 days through 24 months of age, in an inpatient setting.",CPT +99473,Digitally Stored Data Services/Remote Physiologic Monitoring.,Report this code for calibrating a blood pressure monitoring device that has been validated for clinical accuracy and training the patient in its use.,CPT +99474,Digitally Stored Data Services/Remote Physiologic Monitoring.,"The patient measures her blood pressure using a validated blood pressure device, taking two readings one minute apart twice a day over a 30–day period. She takes a minimum of 12 readings and reports them to the provider. The provider collects the data, averages the systolic and diastolic blood pressures, prepares a report, and discusses a treatment plan with the patient.",CPT +99475,Inpatient Neonatal and Pediatric Critical Care.,"The provider performs initial evaluation and management of a critically ill child, ages two to five years, in an inpatient setting.",CPT +99476,Inpatient Neonatal and Pediatric Critical Care.,"The provider performs follow up care for a critically ill child, ages two to five years, in an inpatient setting.",CPT +99477,Initial and Continuing Intensive Care Services.,"The provider performs the initial day of inpatient hospital evaluation and management for a neonate, age 28 days or younger, who requires intensive care and observation as well as frequent interventions.",CPT +99478,Initial and Continuing Intensive Care Services.,"The provider directs the care of a recovering low birthweight infant, whose current weight is less than 1500 grams.",CPT +99479,Initial and Continuing Intensive Care Services.,"The provider directs the care of a recovering low birth weight infant, whose current weight is between 1500 and 2500 grams.",CPT +99480,Initial and Continuing Intensive Care Services.,"The provider directs the care of a recovering low birth weight infant, whose current weight is between 2501 and 5000 grams.",CPT +99483,Cognitive Assessment and Care Plan Services.,"The provider performs a thorough assessment of a cognitively impaired patient’s understanding, comprehension, memory, and reasoning; obtains a history; reviews the patient’s medication lists and makes any necessary adjustments; and prepares and documents a plan of care that involves moderately or highly complex medical decision making, consistent with required elements listed in the descriptor. The provider typically spends 60 minutes total time on the encounter on a single date.",CPT +99484,General Behavioral Health Integration Care Management.,Clinical staff members spend at least 20 minutes each month coordinating and managing a patient’s behavioral health services under the direction of a physician or other qualified health care professional.,CPT +99485,Pediatric Critical Care Patient Transport.,"The provider supervises the transport of a critically ill or injured child 24 months of age or younger between facilities for up to 30 minutes. He communicates with the transport team before transport, during transport, and upon arrival at the receiving facility. He interprets patient data relayed by the transport team.",CPT +99486,Pediatric Critical Care Patient Transport.,"The provider supervises the transport of a critically ill or injured child 24 months of age or younger between facilities for an additional 30 minutes. He communicates with the transport team before transport, during transport, and upon arrival at the receiving facility. He interprets patient data relayed by the transport team.",CPT +99487,Complex Chronic Care Management Services.,"The clinical staff provides services directed by the provider to support and coordinate a patient’s care across multiple disciplines. The patient has two or more chronic conditions that place the patient at significant risk of death, acute exacerbation, decompensation, or functional decline. Use this code for the first 60 minutes of provider–directed clinical staff time per calendar month.",CPT +99489,Complex Chronic Care Management Services.,"The clinical staff provides services directed by the provider to support and coordinate a patient’s care across multiple disciplines. The patient has two or more chronic conditions that place the patient at significant risk of death, acute exacerbation, decompensation, or functional decline. Use this code for each additional 30 minutes beyond the first hour of provider–directed clinical staff time per calendar month.",CPT +99490,Chronic Care Management Services.,"The clinical staff provides services directed by the provider to support and coordinate a patient’s care across multiple disciplines. The patient has two or more chronic conditions that place the patient at significant risk of death, acute exacerbation, decompensation, or functional decline. Use this code for the first 20 minutes of provider–directed clinical staff time per calendar month.",CPT +99491,Chronic Care Management Services.,"The provider, a physician or other healthcare professional, personally directs the evaluation and management of a patient with two or more chronic A physician or other qualified healthcare professional personally performs management and care plan services for a patient with two or more chronic conditions, expected to last at least one year or until the patient’s death. The conditions place the patient at significant risk of death, acute exacerbation, decompensation, or functional decline. Use this code for the first 30 minutes of physician or other qualified healthcare professional time per calendar month.",CPT +99492,Psychiatric Collaborative Care Management Services.,A provider performs psychiatric collaborative care management (CoCM) for a patient receiving behavioral health treatment and regular psychiatric interspecialty consultation in collaboration and in conjunction with a patient’s treating (or billing) primary care provider. Report??for the initial 70 minutes of CoCM in the first calendar month.,CPT +99493,Psychiatric Collaborative Care Management Services.,A provider performs psychiatric collaborative care management (CoCM) for a patient receiving behavioral health treatment and regular psychiatric interspecialty consultation in collaboration and in conjunction with a patient’s treating (or billing) primary care provider.?Report??for the first 60 minutes of CoCM in a subsequent month after the first month of care.?,CPT +99494,Psychiatric Collaborative Care Management Services.,"A provider performs psychiatric collaborative care management (CoCM) for a patient receiving behavioral health treatment and regular psychiatric interspecialty consultation whose conditions are not improving in collaboration and in conjunction with a patient’s treating (or billing) primary care provider. Report this code in addition to 99492 or 99493 for each additional 30 minutes of initial or subsequent psychiatric care management in a calendar month, in addition to the primary codes.",CPT +99495,Transitional Care Management Services.,"The provider manages the care of a patient during the transition to home care after discharge from a healthcare facility. The patient’s care requires at least moderate medical decision making, contact within two business days, and a face–to–face visit within 14 days of discharge.",CPT +99496,Transitional Care Management Services.,"The provider manages the care of a patient during the transition to home care after discharge from a healthcare facility. The patient’s care requires high–level medical decision making, contact within two business days, and a face–to–face visit within seven days of discharge.",CPT +99497,Advance Care Planning.,"The provider discusses and shares planning with a patient, his family, or an individual representing the patient, regarding the future health care needs of the patient. Use this code for the first 30 minutes of face to face time that the provider spends.",CPT +99498,Advance Care Planning.,The provider or other healthcare professional performs advanced care planning beyond an initial 30 minutes. The provider discusses and shares planning for the future health care needs of the patient including advance directives. Use this code for each additional 30 minutes of face to face time that the provider spends.,CPT +99499,Other Evaluation and Management Services.,Use to report evaluation and management services for which there is no specific code available.,CPT +99500,Home Visit Services.,"A home health provider, such as a registered nurse, typically visits a prenatal, or pregnant, patient with pregnancy complications to monitor the pregnancy and perform assessments to determine the health of the mother and fetus. The visit takes place in the patient’s home.",CPT +A0021,Ambulance and Other Transport Services and Supplies.,"Ambulance service, outside state per mile, transport (Medicaid only)",HCPS +A0080,Ambulance and Other Transport Services and Supplies.,"Non-emergency transportation, per mile - vehicle provided by volunteer (individual or organization), with no vested interest",HCPS +A0090,Ambulance and Other Transport Services and Supplies.,"Non-emergency transportation, per mile - vehicle provided by individual (family member, self, neighbor) with vested interest",HCPS +A0100,Ambulance and Other Transport Services and Supplies.,Non-emergency transportation; taxi,HCPS +A0110,Ambulance and Other Transport Services and Supplies.,"Non-emergency transportation and bus, intra or inter state carrier",HCPS +A0120,Ambulance and Other Transport Services and Supplies.,"Non-emergency transportation: mini-bus, mountain area transports, or other transportation systems",HCPS +A0130,Ambulance and Other Transport Services and Supplies.,Non-emergency transportation: wheel-chair van,HCPS +A0140,Ambulance and Other Transport Services and Supplies.,Non-emergency transportation and air travel (private or commercial) intra or inter state,HCPS +A0160,Ambulance and Other Transport Services and Supplies.,Non-emergency transportation: per mile - case worker or social worker,HCPS +A0170,Ambulance and Other Transport Services and Supplies.,"Transportation ancillary: parking fees, tolls, other",HCPS +A0180,Ambulance and Other Transport Services and Supplies.,Non-emergency transportation: ancillary: lodging-recipient,HCPS +A0190,Ambulance and Other Transport Services and Supplies.,Non-emergency transportation: ancillary: meals-recipient,HCPS +A0200,Ambulance and Other Transport Services and Supplies.,Non-emergency transportation: ancillary: lodging escort,HCPS +A0210,Ambulance and Other Transport Services and Supplies.,Non-emergency transportation: ancillary: meals-escort,HCPS +A0225,Ambulance and Other Transport Services and Supplies.,"Ambulance service, neonatal transport, base rate, emergency transport, one way",HCPS +A0380,Ambulance and Other Transport Services and Supplies.,BLS mileage (per mile),HCPS +A0382,Ambulance and Other Transport Services and Supplies.,BLS routine disposable supplies,HCPS +A0384,Ambulance and Other Transport Services and Supplies.,BLS specialized service disposable supplies; defibrillation (used by ALS ambulances and BLS ambulances in jurisdictions where defibrillation is permitted in BLS ambulances),HCPS +A0390,Ambulance and Other Transport Services and Supplies.,ALS mileage (per mile),HCPS +A0392,Ambulance and Other Transport Services and Supplies.,ALS specialized service disposable supplies; defibrillation (to be used only in jurisdictions where defibrillation cannot be performed in BLS ambulances),HCPS +A0394,Ambulance and Other Transport Services and Supplies.,ALS specialized service disposable supplies; IV drug therapy,HCPS +A0396,Ambulance and Other Transport Services and Supplies.,ALS specialized service disposable supplies; esophageal intubation,HCPS +A0398,Ambulance and Other Transport Services and Supplies.,ALS routine disposable supplies,HCPS +A0420,Ambulance and Other Transport Services and Supplies.,"Ambulance waiting time (ALS or BLS), one half (1/2) hour increments",HCPS +A0422,Ambulance and Other Transport Services and Supplies.,"Ambulance (ALS or BLS) oxygen and oxygen supplies, life sustaining situation",HCPS +A0424,Ambulance and Other Transport Services and Supplies.,"Extra ambulance attendant, ground (ALS or BLS) or air (fixed or rotary winged); (requires medical review)",HCPS +A0425,Ambulance and Other Transport Services and Supplies.,"Ground mileage, per statute mile",HCPS +A0426,Ambulance and Other Transport Services and Supplies.,"Ambulance service, advanced life support, non-emergency transport, level 1 (ALS 1)",HCPS +A0427,Ambulance and Other Transport Services and Supplies.,"Ambulance service, advanced life support, emergency transport, level 1 (ALS 1-emergency)",HCPS +A0428,Ambulance and Other Transport Services and Supplies.,"Ambulance service, basic life support, non-emergency transport, (BLS)",HCPS +A0429,Ambulance and Other Transport Services and Supplies.,"Ambulance service, basic life support, emergency transport (BLS-emergency)",HCPS +A0430,Ambulance and Other Transport Services and Supplies.,"Ambulance service, conventional air services, transport, one way (fixed wing)",HCPS +A0431,Ambulance and Other Transport Services and Supplies.,"Ambulance service, conventional air services, transport, one way (rotary wing)",HCPS +A0432,Ambulance and Other Transport Services and Supplies.,"Paramedic intercept (PI), rural area, transport furnished by a volunteer ambulance company which is prohibited by state law from billing third party payers",HCPS +A0433,Ambulance and Other Transport Services and Supplies.,"Advanced life support, level 2 (ALS 2)",HCPS +A0434,Ambulance and Other Transport Services and Supplies.,Specialty care transport (SCT),HCPS +A0435,Ambulance and Other Transport Services and Supplies.,"Fixed wing air mileage, per statute mile",HCPS +A0436,Ambulance and Other Transport Services and Supplies.,"Rotary wing air mileage, per statute mile",HCPS +A0888,Ambulance and Other Transport Services and Supplies.,"Noncovered ambulance mileage, per mile (e.g., for miles traveled beyond closest appropriate facility)",HCPS +A0998,Ambulance and Other Transport Services and Supplies.,"Ambulance response and treatment, no transport",HCPS +A2001,"Matrix for Wound Management (Placental, Equine, Synthetic).","Innovamatrix ac, per square centimeter",HCPS +A2002,"Matrix for Wound Management (Placental, Equine, Synthetic).","Mirragen advanced wound matrix, per square centimeter",HCPS +A2004,"Matrix for Wound Management (Placental, Equine, Synthetic).","Xcellistem, 1 mg",HCPS +A2005,"Matrix for Wound Management (Placental, Equine, Synthetic).","Microlyte matrix, per square centimeter",HCPS +A2006,"Matrix for Wound Management (Placental, Equine, Synthetic).","Novosorb synpath dermal matrix, per square centimeter",HCPS +A2007,"Matrix for Wound Management (Placental, Equine, Synthetic).","Restrata, per square centimeter",HCPS +A2008,"Matrix for Wound Management (Placental, Equine, Synthetic).","Theragenesis, per square centimeter",HCPS +A2009,"Matrix for Wound Management (Placental, Equine, Synthetic).","Symphony, per square centimeter",HCPS +A2010,"Matrix for Wound Management (Placental, Equine, Synthetic).","Apis, per square centimeter",HCPS +A2011,"Matrix for Wound Management (Placental, Equine, Synthetic).","Supra sdrm, per square centimeter",HCPS +A2012,"Matrix for Wound Management (Placental, Equine, Synthetic).","Suprathel, per square centimeter",HCPS +A2013,"Matrix for Wound Management (Placental, Equine, Synthetic).","Innovamatrix fs, per square centimeter",HCPS +A2014,"Matrix for Wound Management (Placental, Equine, Synthetic).","Omeza collagen matrix, per 100 mg",HCPS +A2015,"Matrix for Wound Management (Placental, Equine, Synthetic).","Phoenix wound matrix, per square centimeter",HCPS +A2016,"Matrix for Wound Management (Placental, Equine, Synthetic).","Permeaderm b, per square centimeter",HCPS +A2017,"Matrix for Wound Management (Placental, Equine, Synthetic).","Permeaderm glove, each",HCPS +A2018,"Matrix for Wound Management (Placental, Equine, Synthetic).","Permeaderm c, per square centimeter",HCPS +A2019,"Matrix for Wound Management (Placental, Equine, Synthetic).","Kerecis omega3 marigen shield, per square centimeter",HCPS +A2020,"Matrix for Wound Management (Placental, Equine, Synthetic).",Ac5 advanced wound system (ac5),HCPS +A2021,"Matrix for Wound Management (Placental, Equine, Synthetic).","Neomatrix, per square centimeter",HCPS +A2022,"Matrix for Wound Management (Placental, Equine, Synthetic).","Innovaburn or innovamatrix xl, per square centimeter",HCPS +A2023,"Matrix for Wound Management (Placental, Equine, Synthetic).","Innovamatrix pd, 1 mg",HCPS +A2024,"Matrix for Wound Management (Placental, Equine, Synthetic).","Resolve matrix, per square centimeter",HCPS +A4206,Injection and Infusion Supplies .,"Syringe with needle, sterile, 1 cc or less, each",HCPS +A4207,Injection and Infusion Supplies .,"Syringe with needle, sterile 2 cc, each",HCPS +A4208,Injection and Infusion Supplies .,"Syringe with needle, sterile 3 cc, each",HCPS +A4209,Injection and Infusion Supplies .,"Syringe with needle, sterile 5 cc or greater, each",HCPS +A4210,Injection and Infusion Supplies .,"Needle-free injection device, each",HCPS +A4211,Injection and Infusion Supplies .,Supplies for self-administered injections,HCPS +A4212,Injection and Infusion Supplies .,Non-coring needle or stylet with or without catheter,HCPS +A4213,Injection and Infusion Supplies .,"Syringe, sterile, 20 cc or greater, each",HCPS +A4215,Injection and Infusion Supplies .,"Needle, sterile, any size, each",HCPS +A4216,Injection and Infusion Supplies .,"Sterile water, saline and/or dextrose, diluent/flush, 10 ml",HCPS +A4217,Injection and Infusion Supplies .,"Sterile water/saline, 500 ml",HCPS +A4218,Injection and Infusion Supplies .,"Sterile saline or water, metered dose dispenser, 10 ml",HCPS +A4220,Injection and Infusion Supplies .,Refill kit for implantable infusion pump,HCPS +A4221,Injection and Infusion Supplies .,"Supplies for maintenance of non-insulin drug infusion catheter, per week (list drugs separately)",HCPS +A4222,Injection and Infusion Supplies .,"Infusion supplies for external drug infusion pump, per cassette or bag (list drugs separately)",HCPS +A4223,Injection and Infusion Supplies .,"Infusion supplies not used with external infusion pump, per cassette or bag (list drugs separately)",HCPS +A4224,Injection and Infusion Supplies .,"Supplies for maintenance of insulin infusion catheter, per week",HCPS +A4225,Injection and Infusion Supplies .,"Supplies for external insulin infusion pump, syringe type cartridge, sterile, each",HCPS +A4226,Injection and Infusion Supplies .,"Supplies for maintenance of insulin infusion pump with dosage rate adjustment using therapeutic continuous glucose sensing, per week",HCPS +A4230,Injection and Infusion Supplies .,"Infusion set for external insulin pump, non needle cannula type",HCPS +A4231,Injection and Infusion Supplies .,"Infusion set for external insulin pump, needle type",HCPS +A4232,Injection and Infusion Supplies .,"Syringe with needle for external insulin pump, sterile, 3 cc",HCPS +A4233,Replacement Batteries .,"Replacement battery, alkaline (other than J cell), for use with medically necessary home blood glucose monitor owned by patient, each",HCPS +A4234,Replacement Batteries .,"Replacement battery, alkaline, J cell, for use with medically necessary home blood glucose monitor owned by patient, each",HCPS +A4235,Replacement Batteries .,"Replacement battery, lithium, for use with medically necessary home blood glucose monitor owned by patient, each",HCPS +A4236,Replacement Batteries .,"Replacement battery, silver oxide, for use with medically necessary home blood glucose monitor owned by patient, each",HCPS +A4238,Replacement Batteries .,"Supply allowance for adjunctive, non-implanted continuous glucose monitor (cgm), includes all supplies and accessories, 1 month supply = 1 unit of service",HCPS +A4239,Replacement Batteries .,"Supply allowance for non-adjunctive, non-implanted continuous glucose monitor (cgm), includes all supplies and accessories, 1 month supply = 1 unit of service",HCPS +A4244,Other Supplies Including Diabetes Supplies and Contraceptives .,"Alcohol or peroxide, per pint",HCPS +A4245,Other Supplies Including Diabetes Supplies and Contraceptives .,"Alcohol wipes, per box",HCPS +A4246,Other Supplies Including Diabetes Supplies and Contraceptives .,"Betadine or pHisoHex solution, per pint",HCPS +A4247,Other Supplies Including Diabetes Supplies and Contraceptives .,"Betadine or iodine swabs/wipes, per box",HCPS +A4248,Other Supplies Including Diabetes Supplies and Contraceptives .,"Chlorhexidine containing antiseptic, 1 ml",HCPS +A4250,Other Supplies Including Diabetes Supplies and Contraceptives .,Urine test or reagent strips or tablets (100 tablets or strips),HCPS +A4252,Other Supplies Including Diabetes Supplies and Contraceptives .,"Blood ketone test or reagent strip, each",HCPS +A4253,Other Supplies Including Diabetes Supplies and Contraceptives .,"Blood glucose test or reagent strips for home blood glucose monitor, per 50 strips",HCPS +A4255,Other Supplies Including Diabetes Supplies and Contraceptives .,"Platforms for home blood glucose monitor, 50 per box",HCPS +A4256,Other Supplies Including Diabetes Supplies and Contraceptives .,"Normal, low and high calibrator solution / chips",HCPS +A4257,Other Supplies Including Diabetes Supplies and Contraceptives .,"Replacement lens shield cartridge for use with laser skin piercing device, each",HCPS +A4258,Other Supplies Including Diabetes Supplies and Contraceptives .,"Spring-powered device for lancet, each",HCPS +A4259,Other Supplies Including Diabetes Supplies and Contraceptives .,"Lancets, per box of 100",HCPS +A4261,Other Supplies Including Diabetes Supplies and Contraceptives .,Cervical cap for contraceptive use,HCPS +A4262,Other Supplies Including Diabetes Supplies and Contraceptives .,"Temporary, absorbable lacrimal duct implant, each",HCPS +A4263,Other Supplies Including Diabetes Supplies and Contraceptives .,"Permanent, long term, non-dissolvable lacrimal duct implant, each",HCPS +A4264,Other Supplies Including Diabetes Supplies and Contraceptives .,Permanent implantable contraceptive intratubal occlusion device(s) and delivery system,HCPS +A4265,Other Supplies Including Diabetes Supplies and Contraceptives .,"Paraffin, per pound",HCPS +A4266,Other Supplies Including Diabetes Supplies and Contraceptives .,Diaphragm for contraceptive use,HCPS +A4267,Other Supplies Including Diabetes Supplies and Contraceptives .,"Contraceptive supply, condom, male, each",HCPS +A4268,Other Supplies Including Diabetes Supplies and Contraceptives .,"Contraceptive supply, condom, female, each",HCPS +A4269,Other Supplies Including Diabetes Supplies and Contraceptives .,"Contraceptive supply, spermicide (e.g., foam, gel), each",HCPS +A4270,Other Supplies Including Diabetes Supplies and Contraceptives .,"Disposable endoscope sheath, each",HCPS +A4280,Other Supplies Including Diabetes Supplies and Contraceptives .,"Adhesive skin support attachment for use with external breast prosthesis, each",HCPS +A4281,Other Supplies Including Diabetes Supplies and Contraceptives .,"Tubing for breast pump, replacement",HCPS +A4282,Other Supplies Including Diabetes Supplies and Contraceptives .,"Adapter for breast pump, replacement",HCPS +A4283,Other Supplies Including Diabetes Supplies and Contraceptives .,"Cap for breast pump bottle, replacement",HCPS +A4284,Other Supplies Including Diabetes Supplies and Contraceptives .,"Breast shield and splash protector for use with breast pump, replacement",HCPS +A4285,Other Supplies Including Diabetes Supplies and Contraceptives .,"Polycarbonate bottle for use with breast pump, replacement",HCPS +A4286,Other Supplies Including Diabetes Supplies and Contraceptives .,"Locking ring for breast pump, replacement",HCPS +A4287,Other Supplies Including Diabetes Supplies and Contraceptives .,"Disposable collection and storage bag for breast milk, any size, any type, each",HCPS +A4290,Other Supplies Including Diabetes Supplies and Contraceptives .,"Sacral nerve stimulation test lead, each",HCPS +A4300,Access Catheters and Drug Delivery Systems .,"Implantable access catheter, (e, g., venous, arterial, epidural subarachnoid, or peritoneal, etc.) external access",HCPS +A4301,Access Catheters and Drug Delivery Systems .,"Implantable access total catheter, port/reservoir (e.g., venous, arterial, epidural, subarachnoid, peritoneal, etc.)",HCPS +A4305,Access Catheters and Drug Delivery Systems .,"Disposable drug delivery system, flow rate of 50 ml or greater per hour",HCPS +A4306,Access Catheters and Drug Delivery Systems .,"Disposable drug delivery system, flow rate of less than 50 ml per hour",HCPS +A4310,Incontinence Devices and Supplies .,Insertion tray without drainage bag and without catheter (accessories only),HCPS +A4311,Incontinence Devices and Supplies .,"Insertion tray without drainage bag with indwelling catheter, Foley type, 2-way latex with coating (Teflon, silicone, silicone elastomer or hydrophilic, etc.)",HCPS +A4312,Incontinence Devices and Supplies .,"Insertion tray without drainage bag with indwelling catheter, Foley type, 2-way, all silicone",HCPS +A4313,Incontinence Devices and Supplies .,"Insertion tray without drainage bag with indwelling catheter, Foley type, 3-way, for continuous irrigation",HCPS +A4314,Incontinence Devices and Supplies .,"Insertion tray with drainage bag with indwelling catheter, Foley type, 2-way latex with coating (Teflon, silicone, silicone elastomer or hydrophilic, etc.)",HCPS +A4315,Incontinence Devices and Supplies .,"Insertion tray with drainage bag with indwelling catheter, Foley type, 2-way, all silicone",HCPS +A4316,Incontinence Devices and Supplies .,"Insertion tray with drainage bag with indwelling catheter, Foley type, 3-way, for continuous irrigation",HCPS +A4320,Incontinence Devices and Supplies .,"Irrigation tray with bulb or piston syringe, any purpose",HCPS +A4321,Incontinence Devices and Supplies .,Therapeutic agent for urinary catheter irrigation,HCPS +A4322,Incontinence Devices and Supplies .,"Irrigation syringe, bulb or piston, each",HCPS +A4326,Incontinence Devices and Supplies .,"Male external catheter with integral collection chamber, any type, each",HCPS +A4327,Incontinence Devices and Supplies .,"Female external urinary collection device; meatal cup, each",HCPS +A4328,Incontinence Devices and Supplies .,"Female external urinary collection device; pouch, each",HCPS +A4330,Incontinence Devices and Supplies .,"Perianal fecal collection pouch with adhesive, each",HCPS +A4331,Incontinence Devices and Supplies .,"Extension drainage tubing, any type, any length, with connector/adaptor, for use with urinary leg bag or urostomy pouch, each",HCPS +A4332,Incontinence Devices and Supplies .,"Lubricant, individual sterile packet, each",HCPS +A4333,Incontinence Devices and Supplies .,"Urinary catheter anchoring device, adhesive skin attachment, each",HCPS +A4334,Incontinence Devices and Supplies .,"Urinary catheter anchoring device, leg strap, each",HCPS +A4335,Incontinence Devices and Supplies .,Incontinence supply; miscellaneous,HCPS +A4336,Incontinence Devices and Supplies .,"Incontinence supply, urethral insert, any type, each",HCPS +A4337,Incontinence Devices and Supplies .,"Incontinence supply, rectal insert, any type, each",HCPS +A4338,Incontinence Devices and Supplies .,"Indwelling catheter; Foley type, 2-way latex with coating (Teflon, silicone, silicone elastomer, or hydrophilic, etc.), each",HCPS +A4340,Incontinence Devices and Supplies .,"Indwelling catheter; specialty type, e.g., Coude, mushroom, wing, etc.), each",HCPS +A4341,Incontinence Devices and Supplies .,"Indwelling intraurethral drainage device with valve, patient inserted, replacement only, each",HCPS +A4342,Incontinence Devices and Supplies .,"Accessories for patient inserted indwelling intraurethral drainage device with valve, replacement only, each",HCPS +A4344,Incontinence Devices and Supplies .,"Indwelling catheter, foley type, two-way, all silicone or polyurethane, each",HCPS +A4346,Incontinence Devices and Supplies .,"Indwelling catheter; Foley type, three way for continuous irrigation, each",HCPS +A4349,Incontinence Devices and Supplies .,"Male external catheter, with or without adhesive, disposable, each",HCPS +A4351,Incontinence Devices and Supplies .,"Intermittent urinary catheter; straight tip, with or without coating (Teflon, silicone, silicone elastomer, or hydrophilic, etc.), each",HCPS +A4352,Incontinence Devices and Supplies .,"Intermittent urinary catheter; Coude (curved) tip, with or without coating (Teflon, silicone, silicone elastomeric, or hydrophilic, etc.), each",HCPS +A4353,Incontinence Devices and Supplies .,"Intermittent urinary catheter, with insertion supplies",HCPS +A4354,Incontinence Devices and Supplies .,Insertion tray with drainage bag but without catheter,HCPS +A4355,Incontinence Devices and Supplies .,"Irrigation tubing set for continuous bladder irrigation through a 3-way indwelling Foley catheter, each",HCPS +A4356,Incontinence Devices and Supplies .,"External urethral clamp or compression device (not to be used for catheter clamp), each",HCPS +A4357,Incontinence Devices and Supplies .,"Bedside drainage bag, day or night, with or without anti-reflux device, with or without tube, each",HCPS +A4358,Incontinence Devices and Supplies .,"Urinary drainage bag, leg or abdomen, vinyl, with or without tube, with straps, each",HCPS +A4360,Incontinence Devices and Supplies .,"Disposable external urethral clamp or compression device, with pad and/or pouch, each",HCPS +A4361,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy faceplate, each",HCPS +A4362,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Skin barrier; solid, 4 x 4 or equivalent; each",HCPS +A4363,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy clamp, any type, replacement only, each",HCPS +A4364,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Adhesive, liquid or equal, any type, per oz",HCPS +A4366,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy vent, any type, each",HCPS +A4367,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy belt, each",HCPS +A4368,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy filter, any type, each",HCPS +A4369,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy skin barrier, liquid (spray, brush, etc), per oz",HCPS +A4371,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy skin barrier, powder, per oz",HCPS +A4372,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy skin barrier, solid 4x4 or equivalent, standard wear, with built-in convexity, each",HCPS +A4373,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy skin barrier, with flange (solid, flexible or accordian), with built-in convexity, any size, each",HCPS +A4375,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy pouch, drainable, with faceplate attached, plastic, each",HCPS +A4376,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy pouch, drainable, with faceplate attached, rubber, each",HCPS +A4377,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy pouch, drainable, for use on faceplate, plastic, each",HCPS +A4378,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy pouch, drainable, for use on faceplate, rubber, each",HCPS +A4379,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy pouch, urinary, with faceplate attached, plastic, each",HCPS +A4380,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy pouch, urinary, with faceplate attached, rubber, each",HCPS +A4381,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy pouch, urinary, for use on faceplate, plastic, each",HCPS +A4382,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy pouch, urinary, for use on faceplate, heavy plastic, each",HCPS +A4383,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy pouch, urinary, for use on faceplate, rubber, each",HCPS +A4384,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy faceplate equivalent, silicone ring, each",HCPS +A4385,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy skin barrier, solid 4x4 or equivalent, extended wear, without built-in convexity, each",HCPS +A4387,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy pouch, closed, with barrier attached, with built-in convexity (1-piece), each",HCPS +A4388,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy pouch, drainable, with extended wear barrier attached, (1-piece), each",HCPS +A4389,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy pouch, drainable, with barrier attached, with built-in convexity (1-piece), each",HCPS +A4390,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy pouch, drainable, with extended wear barrier attached, with built-in convexity (1-piece), each",HCPS +A4391,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy pouch, urinary, with extended wear barrier attached (1-piece), each",HCPS +A4392,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy pouch, urinary, with standard wear barrier attached, with built-in convexity (1-piece), each",HCPS +A4393,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy pouch, urinary, with extended wear barrier attached, with built-in convexity (1-piece), each",HCPS +A4394,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy deodorant, with or without lubricant, for use in ostomy pouch, per fluid ounce",HCPS +A4395,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy deodorant for use in ostomy pouch, solid, per tablet",HCPS +A4396,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,Ostomy belt with peristomal hernia support,HCPS +A4398,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy irrigation supply; bag, each",HCPS +A4399,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy irrigation supply; cone/catheter, with or without brush",HCPS +A4400,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,Ostomy irrigation set,HCPS +A4402,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Lubricant, per ounce",HCPS +A4404,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy ring, each",HCPS +A4405,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy skin barrier, non-pectin based, paste, per ounce",HCPS +A4406,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy skin barrier, pectin-based, paste, per ounce",HCPS +A4407,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy skin barrier, with flange (solid, flexible, or accordion), extended wear, with built-in convexity, 4 x 4 inches or smaller, each",HCPS +A4408,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy skin barrier, with flange (solid, flexible or accordion), extended wear, with built-in convexity, larger than 4 x 4 inches, each",HCPS +A4409,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy skin barrier, with flange (solid, flexible or accordion), extended wear, without built-in convexity, 4 x 4 inches or smaller, each",HCPS +A4410,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy skin barrier, with flange (solid, flexible or accordion), extended wear, without built-in convexity, larger than 4 x 4 inches, each",HCPS +A4411,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy skin barrier, solid 4x4 or equivalent, extended wear, with built-in convexity, each",HCPS +A4412,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy pouch, drainable, high output, for use on a barrier with flange (2-piece system), without filter, each",HCPS +A4413,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy pouch, drainable, high output, for use on a barrier with flange (2-piece system), with filter, each",HCPS +A4414,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy skin barrier, with flange (solid, flexible or accordion), without built-in convexity, 4 x 4 inches or smaller, each",HCPS +A4415,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy skin barrier, with flange (solid, flexible or accordion), without built-in convexity, larger than 4x4 inches, each",HCPS +A4416,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy pouch, closed, with barrier attached, with filter (1-piece), each",HCPS +A4417,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy pouch, closed, with barrier attached, with built-in convexity, with filter (1-piece), each",HCPS +A4418,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy pouch, closed; without barrier attached, with filter (1-piece), each",HCPS +A4419,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy pouch, closed; for use on barrier with non-locking flange, with filter (2-piece), each",HCPS +A4420,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy pouch, closed; for use on barrier with locking flange (2-piece), each",HCPS +A4421,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,Ostomy supply; miscellaneous,HCPS +A4422,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy absorbent material (sheet/pad/crystal packet) for use in ostomy pouch to thicken liquid stomal output, each",HCPS +A4423,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy pouch, closed; for use on barrier with locking flange, with filter (2-piece), each",HCPS +A4424,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy pouch, drainable, with barrier attached, with filter (1-piece), each",HCPS +A4425,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy pouch, drainable; for use on barrier with non-locking flange, with filter (2-piece system), each",HCPS +A4426,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy pouch, drainable; for use on barrier with locking flange (2-piece system), each",HCPS +A4427,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy pouch, drainable; for use on barrier with locking flange, with filter (2-piece system), each",HCPS +A4428,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy pouch, urinary, with extended wear barrier attached, with faucet-type tap with valve (1-piece), each",HCPS +A4429,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy pouch, urinary, with barrier attached, with built-in convexity, with faucet-type tap with valve (1-piece), each",HCPS +A4430,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy pouch, urinary, with extended wear barrier attached, with built-in convexity, with faucet-type tap with valve (1-piece), each",HCPS +A4431,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy pouch, urinary; with barrier attached, with faucet-type tap with valve (1-piece), each",HCPS +A4432,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy pouch, urinary; for use on barrier with non-locking flange, with faucet-type tap with valve (2-piece), each",HCPS +A4433,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy pouch, urinary; for use on barrier with locking flange (2-piece), each",HCPS +A4434,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy pouch, urinary; for use on barrier with locking flange, with faucet-type tap with valve (2-piece), each",HCPS +A4435,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy pouch, drainable, high output, with extended wear barrier (1-piece system), with or without filter, each",HCPS +A4436,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Irrigation supply; sleeve, reusable, per month",HCPS +A4437,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Irrigation supply; sleeve, disposable, per month",HCPS +A4450,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,"Tape, non-waterproof, per 18 square inches",HCPS +A4452,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,"Tape, waterproof, per 18 square inches",HCPS +A4453,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,"Rectal catheter for use with the manual pump-operated enema system, replacement only",HCPS +A4455,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,"Adhesive remover or solvent (for tape, cement or other adhesive), per ounce",HCPS +A4456,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,"Adhesive remover, wipes, any type, each",HCPS +A4457,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,"Enema tube, with or without adapter, any type, replacement only, each",HCPS +A4458,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,"Enema bag with tubing, reusable",HCPS +A4459,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,"Manual pump-operated enema system, includes balloon, catheter and all accessories, reusable, any type",HCPS +A4461,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,"Surgical dressing holder, non-reusable, each",HCPS +A4463,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,"Surgical dressing holder, reusable, each",HCPS +A4465,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,Non-elastic binder for extremity,HCPS +A4467,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,"Belt, strap, sleeve, garment, or covering, any type",HCPS +A4468,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,"Exsufflation belt, includes all supplies and accessories",HCPS +A4470,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,Gravlee jet washer,HCPS +A4480,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,Vabra aspirator,HCPS +A4481,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,"Tracheostoma filter, any type, any size, each",HCPS +A4483,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,"Moisture exchanger, disposable, for use with invasive mechanical ventilation",HCPS +A4490,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,"Surgical stockings above knee length, each",HCPS +A4495,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,"Surgical stockings thigh length, each",HCPS +A4500,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,"Surgical stockings below knee length, each",HCPS +A4510,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,"Surgical stockings full length, each",HCPS +A4520,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,"Incontinence garment, any type, (e.g., brief, diaper), each",HCPS +A4540,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,"Distal transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulator, stimulates peripheral nerves of the upper arm",HCPS +A4541,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,Monthly supplies for use of device coded at e0733,HCPS +A4542,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,Supplies and accessories for external upper limb tremor stimulator of the peripheral nerves of the wrist,HCPS +A4550,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,Surgical trays,HCPS +A4553,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,"Non-disposable underpads, all sizes",HCPS +A4554,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,"Disposable underpads, all sizes",HCPS +A4555,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,"Electrode/transducer for use with electrical stimulation device used for cancer treatment, replacement only",HCPS +A4556,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,"Electrodes, (e.g., apnea monitor), per pair",HCPS +A4557,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,"Lead wires, (e.g., apnea monitor), per pair",HCPS +A4558,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,"Conductive gel or paste, for use with electrical device (e.g., TENS, NMES), per oz",HCPS +A4559,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,"Coupling gel or paste, for use with ultrasound device, per oz",HCPS +A4560,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,"Neuromuscular electrical stimulator (nmes), disposable, replacement only",HCPS +A4561,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,"Pessary, rubber, any type",HCPS +A4562,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,"Pessary, non rubber, any type",HCPS +A4563,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,"Rectal control system for vaginal insertion, for long term use, includes pump and all supplies and accessories, any type each",HCPS +A4565,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,Slings,HCPS +A4566,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,"Shoulder sling or vest design, abduction restrainer, with or without swathe control, prefabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +A4570,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,Splint,HCPS +A4575,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,"Topical hyperbaric oxygen chamber, disposable",HCPS +A4580,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,"Cast supplies (e.g., plaster)",HCPS +A4590,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,"Special casting material (e.g., fiberglass)",HCPS +A4595,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,"Electrical stimulator supplies, 2 lead, per month, (e.g., TENS, NMES)",HCPS +A4596,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,"Cranial electrotherapy stimulation (ces) system supplies and accessories, per month",HCPS +A4600,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,"Sleeve for intermittent limb compression device, replacement only, each",HCPS +A4601,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,"Lithium ion battery, rechargeable, for non-prosthetic use, replacement",HCPS +A4602,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,"Replacement battery for external infusion pump owned by patient, lithium, 1.5 volt, each",HCPS +A4604,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,Tubing with integrated heating element for use with positive airway pressure device,HCPS +A4605,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,"Tracheal suction catheter, closed system, each",HCPS +A4606,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,"Oxygen probe for use with oximeter device, replacement",HCPS +A4608,Various Medical Supplies Including Tapes and Surgical Dressings .,"Transtracheal oxygen catheter, each",HCPS +A4611,Respiratory Supplies and Equipment .,"Battery, heavy duty; replacement for patient owned ventilator",HCPS +A4612,Respiratory Supplies and Equipment .,Battery cables; replacement for patient-owned ventilator,HCPS +A4613,Respiratory Supplies and Equipment .,Battery charger; replacement for patient-owned ventilator,HCPS +A4614,Respiratory Supplies and Equipment .,"Peak expiratory flow rate meter, hand held",HCPS +A4615,Respiratory Supplies and Equipment .,"Cannula, nasal",HCPS +A4616,Respiratory Supplies and Equipment .,"Tubing (oxygen), per foot",HCPS +A4617,Respiratory Supplies and Equipment .,Mouth piece,HCPS +A4618,Respiratory Supplies and Equipment .,Breathing circuits,HCPS +A4619,Respiratory Supplies and Equipment .,Face tent,HCPS +A4620,Respiratory Supplies and Equipment .,Variable concentration mask,HCPS +A4623,Respiratory Supplies and Equipment .,"Tracheostomy, inner cannula",HCPS +A4624,Respiratory Supplies and Equipment .,"Tracheal suction catheter, any type other than closed system, each",HCPS +A4625,Respiratory Supplies and Equipment .,Tracheostomy care kit for new tracheostomy,HCPS +A4626,Respiratory Supplies and Equipment .,"Tracheostomy cleaning brush, each",HCPS +A4627,Respiratory Supplies and Equipment .,"Spacer, bag or reservoir, with or without mask, for use with metered dose inhaler",HCPS +A4628,Respiratory Supplies and Equipment .,"Oral and/or oropharyngeal suction catheter, each",HCPS +A4629,Respiratory Supplies and Equipment .,Tracheostomy care kit for established tracheostomy,HCPS +A4630,Replacement Parts .,"Replacement batteries, medically necessary, transcutaneous electrical stimulator, owned by patient",HCPS +A4633,Replacement Parts .,"Replacement bulb/lamp for ultraviolet light therapy system, each",HCPS +A4634,Replacement Parts .,"Replacement bulb for therapeutic light box, tabletop model",HCPS +A4635,Replacement Parts .,"Underarm pad, crutch, replacement, each",HCPS +A4636,Replacement Parts .,"Replacement, handgrip, cane, crutch, or walker, each",HCPS +A4637,Replacement Parts .,"Replacement, tip, cane, crutch, walker, each.",HCPS +A4638,Replacement Parts .,"Replacement battery for patient-owned ear pulse generator, each",HCPS +A4639,Replacement Parts .,"Replacement pad for infrared heating pad system, each",HCPS +A4640,Replacement Parts .,Replacement pad for use with medically necessary alternating pressure pad owned by patient,HCPS +A4641,Diagnostic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Radiopharmaceutical, diagnostic, not otherwise classified",HCPS +A4642,Diagnostic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Indium In-111 satumomab pendetide, diagnostic, per study dose, up to 6 millicuries",HCPS +A4648,Other Supplies .,"Tissue marker, implantable, any type, each",HCPS +A4649,Other Supplies .,Surgical supply; miscellaneous,HCPS +A4650,Other Supplies .,"Implantable radiation dosimeter, each",HCPS +A4651,Other Supplies .,"Calibrated microcapillary tube, each",HCPS +A4652,Other Supplies .,Microcapillary tube sealant,HCPS +A4653,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,"Peritoneal dialysis catheter anchoring device, belt, each",HCPS +A4657,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,"Syringe, with or without needle, each",HCPS +A4660,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,Sphygmomanometer/blood pressure apparatus with cuff and stethoscope,HCPS +A4663,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,Blood pressure cuff only,HCPS +A4670,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,Automatic blood pressure monitor,HCPS +A4671,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,"Disposable cycler set used with cycler dialysis machine, each",HCPS +A4672,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,"Drainage extension line, sterile, for dialysis, each",HCPS +A4673,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,"Extension line with easy lock connectors, used with dialysis",HCPS +A4674,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,"Chemicals/antiseptics solution used to clean/sterilize dialysis equipment, per 8 oz",HCPS +A4680,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,"Activated carbon filter for hemodialysis, each",HCPS +A4690,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,"Dialyzer (artificial kidneys), all types, all sizes, for hemodialysis, each",HCPS +A4706,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,"Bicarbonate concentrate, solution, for hemodialysis, per gallon",HCPS +A4707,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,"Bicarbonate concentrate, powder, for hemodialysis, per packet",HCPS +A4708,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,"Acetate concentrate solution, for hemodialysis, per gallon",HCPS +A4709,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,"Acid concentrate, solution, for hemodialysis, per gallon",HCPS +A4714,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,"Treated water (deionized, distilled, or reverse osmosis) for peritoneal dialysis, per gallon",HCPS +A4719,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,"""Y set"" tubing for peritoneal dialysis",HCPS +A4720,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,"Dialysate solution, any concentration of dextrose, fluid volume greater than 249 cc, but less than or equal to 999 cc, for peritoneal dialysis",HCPS +A4721,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,"Dialysate solution, any concentration of dextrose, fluid volume greater than 999 cc but less than or equal to 1999 cc, for peritoneal dialysis",HCPS +A4722,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,"Dialysate solution, any concentration of dextrose, fluid volume greater than 1999 cc but less than or equal to 2999 cc, for peritoneal dialysis",HCPS +A4723,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,"Dialysate solution, any concentration of dextrose, fluid volume greater than 2999 cc but less than or equal to 3999 cc, for peritoneal dialysis",HCPS +A4724,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,"Dialysate solution, any concentration of dextrose, fluid volume greater than 3999 cc but less than or equal to 4999 cc, for peritoneal dialysis",HCPS +A4725,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,"Dialysate solution, any concentration of dextrose, fluid volume greater than 4999 cc but less than or equal to 5999 cc, for peritoneal dialysis",HCPS +A4726,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,"Dialysate solution, any concentration of dextrose, fluid volume greater than 5999 cc, for peritoneal dialysis",HCPS +A4728,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,"Dialysate solution, non-dextrose containing, 500 ml",HCPS +A4730,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,"Fistula cannulation set for hemodialysis, each",HCPS +A4736,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,"Topical anesthetic, for dialysis, per gram",HCPS +A4737,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,"Injectable anesthetic, for dialysis, per 10 ml",HCPS +A4740,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,"Shunt accessory, for hemodialysis, any type, each",HCPS +A4750,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,"Blood tubing, arterial or venous, for hemodialysis, each",HCPS +A4755,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,"Blood tubing, arterial and venous combined, for hemodialysis, each",HCPS +A4760,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,"Dialysate solution test kit, for peritoneal dialysis, any type, each",HCPS +A4765,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,"Dialysate concentrate, powder, additive for peritoneal dialysis, per packet",HCPS +A4766,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,"Dialysate concentrate, solution, additive for peritoneal dialysis, per 10 ml",HCPS +A4770,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,"Blood collection tube, vacuum, for dialysis, per 50",HCPS +A4771,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,"Serum clotting time tube, for dialysis, per 50",HCPS +A4772,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,"Blood glucose test strips, for dialysis, per 50",HCPS +A4773,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,"Occult blood test strips, for dialysis, per 50",HCPS +A4774,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,"Ammonia test strips, for dialysis, per 50",HCPS +A4802,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,"Protamine sulfate, for hemodialysis, per 50 mg",HCPS +A4860,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,"Disposable catheter tips for peritoneal dialysis, per 10",HCPS +A4870,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,Plumbing and/or electrical work for home hemodialysis equipment,HCPS +A4890,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,"Contracts, repair and maintenance, for hemodialysis equipment",HCPS +A4911,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,"Drain bag/bottle, for dialysis, each",HCPS +A4913,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,"Miscellaneous dialysis supplies, not otherwise specified",HCPS +A4918,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,"Venous pressure clamp, for hemodialysis, each",HCPS +A4927,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,"Gloves, non-sterile, per 100",HCPS +A4928,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,"Surgical mask, per 20",HCPS +A4929,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,"Tourniquet for dialysis, each",HCPS +A4930,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,"Gloves, sterile, per pair",HCPS +A4931,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,"Oral thermometer, reusable, any type, each",HCPS +A4932,Dialysis Equipment and Supplies .,"Rectal thermometer, reusable, any type, each",HCPS +A5051,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy pouch, closed; with barrier attached (1-piece), each",HCPS +A5052,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy pouch, closed; without barrier attached (1-piece), each",HCPS +A5053,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy pouch, closed; for use on faceplate, each",HCPS +A5054,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy pouch, closed; for use on barrier with flange (2-piece), each",HCPS +A5055,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,Stoma cap,HCPS +A5056,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy pouch, drainable, with extended wear barrier attached, with filter, (1-piece), each",HCPS +A5057,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy pouch, drainable, with extended wear barrier attached, with built in convexity, with filter, (1-piece), each",HCPS +A5061,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy pouch, drainable; with barrier attached, (1-piece), each",HCPS +A5062,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy pouch, drainable; without barrier attached (1-piece), each",HCPS +A5063,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy pouch, drainable; for use on barrier with flange (2-piece system), each",HCPS +A5071,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy pouch, urinary; with barrier attached (1-piece), each",HCPS +A5072,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy pouch, urinary; without barrier attached (1-piece), each",HCPS +A5073,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Ostomy pouch, urinary; for use on barrier with flange (2-piece), each",HCPS +A5081,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Stoma plug or seal, any type",HCPS +A5082,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,Continent device; catheter for continent stoma,HCPS +A5083,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,"Continent device, stoma absorptive cover for continent stoma",HCPS +A5093,Ostomy Pouches and Supplies .,Ostomy accessory; convex insert,HCPS +A5102,Incontinence Devices and Supplies .,"Bedside drainage bottle with or without tubing, rigid or expandable, each",HCPS +A5105,Incontinence Devices and Supplies .,"Urinary suspensory with leg bag, with or without tube, each",HCPS +A5112,Incontinence Devices and Supplies .,"Urinary drainage bag, leg or abdomen, latex, with or without tube, with straps, each",HCPS +A5113,Incontinence Devices and Supplies .,"Leg strap; latex, replacement only, per set",HCPS +A5114,Incontinence Devices and Supplies .,"Leg strap; foam or fabric, replacement only, per set",HCPS +A5120,Incontinence Devices and Supplies .,"Skin barrier, wipes or swabs, each",HCPS +A5121,Incontinence Devices and Supplies .,"Skin barrier; solid, 6 x 6 or equivalent, each",HCPS +A5122,Incontinence Devices and Supplies .,"Skin barrier; solid, 8 x 8 or equivalent, each",HCPS +A5126,Incontinence Devices and Supplies .,Adhesive or non-adhesive; disk or foam pad,HCPS +A5131,Incontinence Devices and Supplies .,"Appliance cleaner, incontinence and ostomy appliances, per 16 oz.",HCPS +A5200,Incontinence Devices and Supplies .,"Percutaneous catheter/tube anchoring device, adhesive skin attachment",HCPS +A5500,Diabetic Footwear .,"For diabetics only, fitting (including follow-up), custom preparation and supply of off-the-shelf depth-inlay shoe manufactured to accommodate multi- density insert(s), per shoe",HCPS +A5501,Diabetic Footwear .,"For diabetics only, fitting (including follow-up), custom preparation and supply of shoe molded from cast(s) of patient's foot (custom molded shoe), per shoe",HCPS +A5503,Diabetic Footwear .,"For diabetics only, modification (including fitting) of off-the-shelf depth-inlay shoe or custom-molded shoe with roller or rigid rocker bottom, per shoe",HCPS +A5504,Diabetic Footwear .,"For diabetics only, modification (including fitting) of off-the-shelf depth-inlay shoe or custom-molded shoe with wedge(s), per shoe",HCPS +A5505,Diabetic Footwear .,"For diabetics only, modification (including fitting) of off-the-shelf depth-inlay shoe or custom-molded shoe with metatarsal bar, per shoe",HCPS +A5506,Diabetic Footwear .,"For diabetics only, modification (including fitting) of off-the-shelf depth-inlay shoe or custom-molded shoe with off-set heel(s), per shoe",HCPS +A5507,Diabetic Footwear .,"For diabetics only, not otherwise specified modification (including fitting) of off-the-shelf depth-inlay shoe or custom-molded shoe, per shoe",HCPS +A5508,Diabetic Footwear .,"For diabetics only, deluxe feature of off-the-shelf depth-inlay shoe or custom-molded shoe, per shoe",HCPS +A5510,Diabetic Footwear .,"For diabetics only, direct formed, compression molded to patient's foot without external heat source, multiple-density insert(s) prefabricated, per shoe",HCPS +A5512,Diabetic Footwear .,"For diabetics only, multiple density insert, direct formed, molded to foot after external heat source of 230 degrees Fahrenheit or higher, total contact with patient's foot, including arch, base layer minimum of 1/4 inch material of shore a 35 durometer or 3/16 inch material of shore a 40 durometer (or higher), prefabricated, each",HCPS +A5513,Diabetic Footwear .,"For diabetics only, multiple density insert, custom molded from model of patient's foot, total contact with patient's foot, including arch, base layer minimum of 3/16 inch material of shore a 35 durometer (or higher), includes arch filler and other shaping material, custom fabricated, each",HCPS +A5514,Diabetic Footwear .,"For diabetics only, multiple density insert, made by direct carving with cam technology from a rectified cad model created from a digitized scan of the patient, total contact with patient's foot, including arch, base layer minimum of 3/16 inch material of shore a 35 durometer (or higher), includes arch filler and other shaping material, custom fabricated, each",HCPS +A6000,Miscellaneous Dressing and Wound Supplies .,Non-contact wound warming wound cover for use with the non-contact wound warming device and warming card,HCPS +A6010,Miscellaneous Dressing and Wound Supplies .,"Collagen based wound filler, dry form, sterile, per gram of collagen",HCPS +A6011,Miscellaneous Dressing and Wound Supplies .,"Collagen based wound filler, gel/paste, per gram of collagen",HCPS +A6021,Miscellaneous Dressing and Wound Supplies .,"Collagen dressing, sterile, size 16 sq. in. or less, each",HCPS +A6022,Miscellaneous Dressing and Wound Supplies .,"Collagen dressing, sterile, size more than 16 sq. in. but less than or equal to 48 sq. in., each",HCPS +A6023,Miscellaneous Dressing and Wound Supplies .,"Collagen dressing, sterile, size more than 48 sq. in., each",HCPS +A6024,Miscellaneous Dressing and Wound Supplies .,"Collagen dressing wound filler, sterile, per 6 inches",HCPS +A6025,Miscellaneous Dressing and Wound Supplies .,"Gel sheet for dermal or epidermal application, (e.g., silicone, hydrogel, other), each",HCPS +A6154,Miscellaneous Dressing and Wound Supplies .,"Wound pouch, each",HCPS +A6196,Miscellaneous Dressing and Wound Supplies .,"Alginate or other fiber gelling dressing, wound cover, sterile, pad size 16 sq. in. or less, each dressing",HCPS +A6197,Miscellaneous Dressing and Wound Supplies .,"Alginate or other fiber gelling dressing, wound cover, sterile, pad size more than 16 sq. in. but less than or equal to 48 sq. in., each dressing",HCPS +A6198,Miscellaneous Dressing and Wound Supplies .,"Alginate or other fiber gelling dressing, wound cover, sterile, pad size more than 48 sq. in., each dressing",HCPS +A6199,Miscellaneous Dressing and Wound Supplies .,"Alginate or other fiber gelling dressing, wound filler, sterile, per 6 inches",HCPS +A6203,Miscellaneous Dressing and Wound Supplies .,"Composite dressing, sterile, pad size 16 sq. in. or less, with any size adhesive border, each dressing",HCPS +A6204,Miscellaneous Dressing and Wound Supplies .,"Composite dressing, sterile, pad size more than 16 sq. in. but less than or equal to 48 sq. in., with any size adhesive border, each dressing",HCPS +A6205,Miscellaneous Dressing and Wound Supplies .,"Composite dressing, sterile, pad size more than 48 sq. in., with any size adhesive border, each dressing",HCPS +A6206,Miscellaneous Dressing and Wound Supplies .,"Contact layer, sterile, 16 sq. in. or less, each dressing",HCPS +A6207,Miscellaneous Dressing and Wound Supplies .,"Contact layer, sterile, more than 16 sq. in. but less than or equal to 48 sq. in., each dressing",HCPS +A6208,Miscellaneous Dressing and Wound Supplies .,"Contact layer, sterile, more than 48 sq. in., each dressing",HCPS +A6209,Foam Dressings .,"Foam dressing, wound cover, sterile, pad size 16 sq. in. or less, without adhesive border, each dressing",HCPS +A6210,Foam Dressings .,"Foam dressing, wound cover, sterile, pad size more than 16 sq. in. but less than or equal to 48 sq. in., without adhesive border, each dressing",HCPS +A6211,Foam Dressings .,"Foam dressing, wound cover, sterile, pad size more than 48 sq. in., without adhesive border, each dressing",HCPS +A6212,Foam Dressings .,"Foam dressing, wound cover, sterile, pad size 16 sq. in. or less, with any size adhesive border, each dressing",HCPS +A6213,Foam Dressings .,"Foam dressing, wound cover, sterile, pad size more than 16 sq. in. but less than or equal to 48 sq. in., with any size adhesive border, each dressing",HCPS +A6214,Foam Dressings .,"Foam dressing, wound cover, sterile, pad size more than 48 sq. in., with any size adhesive border, each dressing",HCPS +A6215,Foam Dressings .,"Foam dressing, wound filler, sterile, per gram",HCPS +A6216,Gauze Dressings .,"Gauze, non-impregnated, non-sterile, pad size 16 sq. in. or less, without adhesive border, each dressing",HCPS +A6217,Gauze Dressings .,"Gauze, non-impregnated, non-sterile, pad size more than 16 sq. in. but less than or equal to 48 sq. in., without adhesive border, each dressing",HCPS +A6218,Gauze Dressings .,"Gauze, non-impregnated, non-sterile, pad size more than 48 sq. in., without adhesive border, each dressing",HCPS +A6219,Gauze Dressings .,"Gauze, non-impregnated, sterile, pad size 16 sq. in. or less, with any size adhesive border, each dressing",HCPS +A6220,Gauze Dressings .,"Gauze, non-impregnated, sterile, pad size more than 16 sq. in. but less than or equal to 48 sq. in., with any size adhesive border, each dressing",HCPS +A6221,Gauze Dressings .,"Gauze, non-impregnated, sterile, pad size more than 48 sq. in., with any size adhesive border, each dressing",HCPS +A6222,Gauze Dressings .,"Gauze, impregnated with other than water, normal saline, or hydrogel, sterile, pad size 16 sq. in. or less, without adhesive border, each dressing",HCPS +A6223,Gauze Dressings .,"Gauze, impregnated with other than water, normal saline, or hydrogel, sterile, pad size more than 16 sq. in., but less than or equal to 48 sq. in., without adhesive border, each dressing",HCPS +A6224,Gauze Dressings .,"Gauze, impregnated with other than water, normal saline, or hydrogel, sterile, pad size more than 48 sq. in., without adhesive border, each dressing",HCPS +A6228,Gauze Dressings .,"Gauze, impregnated, water or normal saline, sterile, pad size 16 sq. in. or less, without adhesive border, each dressing",HCPS +A6229,Gauze Dressings .,"Gauze, impregnated, water or normal saline, sterile, pad size more than 16 sq. in. but less than or equal to 48 sq. in., without adhesive border, each dressing",HCPS +A6230,Gauze Dressings .,"Gauze, impregnated, water or normal saline, sterile, pad size more than 48 sq. in., without adhesive border, each dressing",HCPS +A6231,Gauze Dressings .,"Gauze, impregnated, hydrogel, for direct wound contact, sterile, pad size 16 sq. in. or less, each dressing",HCPS +A6232,Gauze Dressings .,"Gauze, impregnated, hydrogel, for direct wound contact, sterile, pad size greater than 16 sq. in., but less than or equal to 48 sq. in., each dressing",HCPS +A6233,Gauze Dressings .,"Gauze, impregnated, hydrogel, for direct wound contact, sterile, pad size more than 48 sq. in., each dressing",HCPS +A6234,Hydrocolloid Dressings .,"Hydrocolloid dressing, wound cover, sterile, pad size 16 sq. in. or less, without adhesive border, each dressing",HCPS +A6235,Hydrocolloid Dressings .,"Hydrocolloid dressing, wound cover, sterile, pad size more than 16 sq. in. but less than or equal to 48 sq. in., without adhesive border, each dressing",HCPS +A6236,Hydrocolloid Dressings .,"Hydrocolloid dressing, wound cover, sterile, pad size more than 48 sq. in., without adhesive border, each dressing",HCPS +A6237,Hydrocolloid Dressings .,"Hydrocolloid dressing, wound cover, sterile, pad size 16 sq. in. or less, with any size adhesive border, each dressing",HCPS +A6238,Hydrocolloid Dressings .,"Hydrocolloid dressing, wound cover, sterile, pad size more than 16 sq. in. but less than or equal to 48 sq. in., with any size adhesive border, each dressing",HCPS +A6239,Hydrocolloid Dressings .,"Hydrocolloid dressing, wound cover, sterile, pad size more than 48 sq. in., with any size adhesive border, each dressing",HCPS +A6240,Hydrocolloid Dressings .,"Hydrocolloid dressing, wound filler, paste, sterile, per ounce",HCPS +A6241,Hydrocolloid Dressings .,"Hydrocolloid dressing, wound filler, dry form, sterile, per gram",HCPS +A6242,Hydrogel Dressings .,"Hydrogel dressing, wound cover, sterile, pad size 16 sq. in. or less, without adhesive border, each dressing",HCPS +A6243,Hydrogel Dressings .,"Hydrogel dressing, wound cover, sterile, pad size more than 16 sq. in. but less than or equal to 48 sq. in., without adhesive border, each dressing",HCPS +A6244,Hydrogel Dressings .,"Hydrogel dressing, wound cover, sterile, pad size more than 48 sq. in., without adhesive border, each dressing",HCPS +A6245,Hydrogel Dressings .,"Hydrogel dressing, wound cover, sterile, pad size 16 sq. in. or less, with any size adhesive border, each dressing",HCPS +A6246,Hydrogel Dressings .,"Hydrogel dressing, wound cover, sterile, pad size more than 16 sq. in. but less than or equal to 48 sq. in., with any size adhesive border, each dressing",HCPS +A6247,Hydrogel Dressings .,"Hydrogel dressing, wound cover, sterile, pad size more than 48 sq. in., with any size adhesive border, each dressing",HCPS +A6248,Hydrogel Dressings .,"Hydrogel dressing, wound filler, gel, per fluid ounce",HCPS +A6250,"Other Dressings, Coverings, and Wound Treatment Supplies .","Skin sealants, protectants, moisturizers, ointments, any type, any size",HCPS +A6251,"Other Dressings, Coverings, and Wound Treatment Supplies .","Specialty absorptive dressing, wound cover, sterile, pad size 16 sq. in. or less, without adhesive border, each dressing",HCPS +A6252,"Other Dressings, Coverings, and Wound Treatment Supplies .","Specialty absorptive dressing, wound cover, sterile, pad size more than 16 sq. in. but less than or equal to 48 sq. in., without adhesive border, each dressing",HCPS +A6253,"Other Dressings, Coverings, and Wound Treatment Supplies .","Specialty absorptive dressing, wound cover, sterile, pad size more than 48 sq. in., without adhesive border, each dressing",HCPS +A6254,"Other Dressings, Coverings, and Wound Treatment Supplies .","Specialty absorptive dressing, wound cover, sterile, pad size 16 sq. in. or less, with any size adhesive border, each dressing",HCPS +A6255,"Other Dressings, Coverings, and Wound Treatment Supplies .","Specialty absorptive dressing, wound cover, sterile, pad size more than 16 sq. in. but less than or equal to 48 sq. in., with any size adhesive border, each dressing",HCPS +A6256,"Other Dressings, Coverings, and Wound Treatment Supplies .","Specialty absorptive dressing, wound cover, sterile, pad size more than 48 sq. in., with any size adhesive border, each dressing",HCPS +A6257,"Other Dressings, Coverings, and Wound Treatment Supplies .","Transparent film, sterile, 16 sq. in. or less, each dressing",HCPS +A6258,"Other Dressings, Coverings, and Wound Treatment Supplies .","Transparent film, sterile, more than 16 sq. in. but less than or equal to 48 sq. in., each dressing",HCPS +A6259,"Other Dressings, Coverings, and Wound Treatment Supplies .","Transparent film, sterile, more than 48 sq. in., each dressing",HCPS +A6260,"Other Dressings, Coverings, and Wound Treatment Supplies .","Wound cleansers, any type, any size",HCPS +A6261,"Other Dressings, Coverings, and Wound Treatment Supplies .","Wound filler, gel/paste, per fluid ounce, not otherwise specified",HCPS +A6262,"Other Dressings, Coverings, and Wound Treatment Supplies .","Wound filler, dry form, per gram, not otherwise specified",HCPS +A6266,"Other Dressings, Coverings, and Wound Treatment Supplies .","Gauze, impregnated, other than water, normal saline, or zinc paste, sterile, any width, per linear yard",HCPS +A6402,"Other Dressings, Coverings, and Wound Treatment Supplies .","Gauze, non-impregnated, sterile, pad size 16 sq. in. or less, without adhesive border, each dressing",HCPS +A6403,"Other Dressings, Coverings, and Wound Treatment Supplies .","Gauze, non-impregnated, sterile, pad size more than 16 sq. in. less than or equal to 48 sq. in., without adhesive border, each dressing",HCPS +A6404,"Other Dressings, Coverings, and Wound Treatment Supplies .","Gauze, non-impregnated, sterile, pad size more than 48 sq. in., without adhesive border, each dressing",HCPS +A6407,"Other Dressings, Coverings, and Wound Treatment Supplies .","Packing strips, non-impregnated, sterile, up to 2 inches in width, per linear yard",HCPS +A6410,"Other Dressings, Coverings, and Wound Treatment Supplies .","Eye pad, sterile, each",HCPS +A6411,"Other Dressings, Coverings, and Wound Treatment Supplies .","Eye pad, non-sterile, each",HCPS +A6412,"Other Dressings, Coverings, and Wound Treatment Supplies .","Eye patch, occlusive, each",HCPS +A6413,Bandages .,"Adhesive bandage, first-aid type, any size, each",HCPS +A6441,Bandages .,"Padding bandage, non-elastic, non-woven/non-knitted, width greater than or equal to 3 inches and less than 5 inches, per yard",HCPS +A6442,Bandages .,"Conforming bandage, non-elastic, knitted/woven, non-sterile, width less than 3 inches, per yard",HCPS +A6443,Bandages .,"Conforming bandage, non-elastic, knitted/woven, non-sterile, width greater than or equal to 3 inches and less than 5 inches, per yard",HCPS +A6444,Bandages .,"Conforming bandage, non-elastic, knitted/woven, non-sterile, width greater than or equal to 5 inches, per yard",HCPS +A6445,Bandages .,"Conforming bandage, non-elastic, knitted/woven, sterile, width less than 3 inches, per yard",HCPS +A6446,Bandages .,"Conforming bandage, non-elastic, knitted/woven, sterile, width greater than or equal to 3 inches and less than 5 inches, per yard",HCPS +A6447,Bandages .,"Conforming bandage, non-elastic, knitted/woven, sterile, width greater than or equal to 5 inches, per yard",HCPS +A6448,Bandages .,"Light compression bandage, elastic, knitted/woven, width less than 3 inches, per yard",HCPS +A6449,Bandages .,"Light compression bandage, elastic, knitted/woven, width greater than or equal to 3 inches and less than 5 inches, per yard",HCPS +A6450,Bandages .,"Light compression bandage, elastic, knitted/woven, width greater than or equal to 5 inches, per yard",HCPS +A6451,Bandages .,"Moderate compression bandage, elastic, knitted/woven, load resistance of 1.25 to 1.34 foot pounds at 50% maximum stretch, width greater than or equal to 3 inches and less than 5 inches, per yard",HCPS +A6452,Bandages .,"High compression bandage, elastic, knitted/woven, load resistance greater than or equal to 1.35 foot pounds at 50% maximum stretch, width greater than or equal to 3 inches and less than 5 inches, per yard",HCPS +A6453,Bandages .,"Self-adherent bandage, elastic, non-knitted/non-woven, width less than 3 inches, per yard",HCPS +A6454,Bandages .,"Self-adherent bandage, elastic, non-knitted/non-woven, width greater than or equal to 3 inches and less than 5 inches, per yard",HCPS +A6455,Bandages .,"Self-adherent bandage, elastic, non-knitted/non-woven, width greater than or equal to 5 inches, per yard",HCPS +A6456,Bandages .,"Zinc paste impregnated bandage, non-elastic, knitted/woven, width greater than or equal to 3 inches and less than 5 inches, per yard",HCPS +A6457,Bandages .,"Tubular dressing with or without elastic, any width, per linear yard",HCPS +A6460,Bandages .,"Synthetic resorbable wound dressing, sterile, pad size 16 sq. in. or less, without adhesive border, each dressing",HCPS +A6461,Bandages .,"Synthetic resorbable wound dressing, sterile, pad size more than 16 sq. in. but less than or equal to 48 sq. in., without adhesive border, each dressing",HCPS +A6501,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Compression burn garment, bodysuit (head to foot), custom fabricated",HCPS +A6502,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Compression burn garment, chin strap, custom fabricated",HCPS +A6503,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Compression burn garment, facial hood, custom fabricated",HCPS +A6504,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Compression burn garment, glove to wrist, custom fabricated",HCPS +A6505,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Compression burn garment, glove to elbow, custom fabricated",HCPS +A6506,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Compression burn garment, glove to axilla, custom fabricated",HCPS +A6507,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Compression burn garment, foot to knee length, custom fabricated",HCPS +A6508,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Compression burn garment, foot to thigh length, custom fabricated",HCPS +A6509,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Compression burn garment, upper trunk to waist including arm openings (vest), custom fabricated",HCPS +A6510,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Compression burn garment, trunk, including arms down to leg openings (leotard), custom fabricated",HCPS +A6511,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Compression burn garment, lower trunk including leg openings (panty), custom fabricated",HCPS +A6512,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Compression burn garment, not otherwise classified",HCPS +A6513,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Compression burn mask, face and/or neck, plastic or equal, custom fabricated",HCPS +A6520,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression garment, glove, padded, for nighttime use, each",HCPS +A6521,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression garment, glove, padded, for nighttime use, custom, each",HCPS +A6522,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression garment, arm, padded, for nighttime use, each",HCPS +A6523,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression garment, arm, padded, for nighttime use, custom, each",HCPS +A6524,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression garment, lower leg and foot, padded, for nighttime use, each",HCPS +A6525,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression garment, lower leg and foot, padded, for nighttime use, custom, each",HCPS +A6526,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression garment, full leg and foot, padded, for nighttime use, each",HCPS +A6527,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression garment, full leg and foot, padded, for nighttime use, custom, each",HCPS +A6528,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression garment, bra, for nighttime use, each",HCPS +A6529,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression garment, bra, for nighttime use, custom, each",HCPS +A6530,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression stocking, below knee, 18-30 mmHg, each",HCPS +A6531,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression stocking, below knee, 30-40 mmhg, used as a surgical dressing, each",HCPS +A6532,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression stocking, below knee, 40-50 mmhg, used as a surgical dressing, each",HCPS +A6533,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression stocking, thigh length, 18-30 mmHg, each",HCPS +A6534,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression stocking, thigh length, 30-40 mmHg, each",HCPS +A6535,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression stocking, thigh length, 40 mmhg or greater, each",HCPS +A6536,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression stocking, full length/chap style, 18-30 mmHg, each",HCPS +A6537,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression stocking, full length/chap style, 30-40 mmHg, each",HCPS +A6538,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression stocking, full length/chap style, 40 mmhg or greater, each",HCPS +A6539,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression stocking, waist length, 18-30 mmHg, each",HCPS +A6540,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression stocking, waist length, 30-40 mmHg, each",HCPS +A6541,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression stocking, waist length, 40 mmhg or greater, each",HCPS +A6544,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression stocking, garter belt",HCPS +A6545,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression wrap, non-elastic, below knee, 30-50 mmhg, used as a surgical dressing, each",HCPS +A6549,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression garment, not otherwise specified",HCPS +A6550,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Wound care set, for negative pressure wound therapy electrical pump, includes all supplies and accessories",HCPS +A6552,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression stocking, below knee, 30-40 mmhg, each",HCPS +A6553,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression stocking, below knee, 30-40 mmhg, custom, each",HCPS +A6554,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression stocking, below knee, 40 mmhg or greater, each",HCPS +A6555,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression stocking, below knee, 40 mmhg or greater, custom, each",HCPS +A6556,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression stocking, thigh length, 18-30 mmhg, custom, each",HCPS +A6557,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression stocking, thigh length, 30-40 mmhg, custom, each",HCPS +A6558,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression stocking, thigh length, 40 mmhg or greater, custom, each",HCPS +A6559,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression stocking, full length/chap style, 18-30 mmhg, custom, each",HCPS +A6560,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression stocking, full length/chap style, 30-40 mmhg, custom, each",HCPS +A6561,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression stocking, full length/chap style, 40 mmhg or greater, custom, each",HCPS +A6562,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression stocking, waist length, 18-30 mmhg, custom, each",HCPS +A6563,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression stocking, waist length, 30-40 mmhg, custom, each",HCPS +A6564,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression stocking, waist length, 40 mmhg or greater, custom, each",HCPS +A6565,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression gauntlet, custom, each",HCPS +A6566,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression garment, neck/head, each",HCPS +A6567,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression garment, neck/head, custom, each",HCPS +A6568,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression garment, torso and shoulder, each",HCPS +A6569,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression garment, torso/shoulder, custom, each",HCPS +A6570,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression garment, genital region, each",HCPS +A6571,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression garment, genital region, custom, each",HCPS +A6572,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression garment, toe caps, each",HCPS +A6573,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression garment, toe caps, custom, each",HCPS +A6574,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression arm sleeve and glove combination, custom, each",HCPS +A6575,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression arm sleeve and glove combination, each",HCPS +A6576,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression arm sleeve, custom, medium weight, each",HCPS +A6577,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression arm sleeve, custom, heavy weight, each",HCPS +A6578,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression arm sleeve, each",HCPS +A6579,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression glove, custom, medium weight, each",HCPS +A6580,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression glove, custom, heavy weight, each",HCPS +A6581,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression glove, each",HCPS +A6582,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression gauntlet, each",HCPS +A6583,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression wrap with adjustable straps, below knee, 30-50 mmhg, each",HCPS +A6584,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression wrap with adjustable straps, not otherwise specified",HCPS +A6585,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient pressure wrap with adjustable straps, above knee, each",HCPS +A6586,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient pressure wrap with adjustable straps, full leg, each",HCPS +A6587,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient pressure wrap with adjustable straps, foot, each",HCPS +A6588,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient pressure wrap with adjustable straps, arm, each",HCPS +A6589,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient pressure wrap with adjustable straps, bra, each",HCPS +A6590,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"External urinary catheters; disposable, with wicking material, for use with suction pump, per month",HCPS +A6591,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"External urinary catheter; non-disposable, for use with suction pump, per month",HCPS +A6593,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Accessory for gradient compression garment or wrap with adjustable straps, non-otherwise specified",HCPS +A6594,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression bandaging supply, bandage liner, lower extremity, any size or length, each",HCPS +A6595,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression bandaging supply, bandage liner, upper extremity, any size or length, each",HCPS +A6596,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression bandaging supply, conforming gauze, per linear yard, any width, each",HCPS +A6597,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression bandage roll, elastic long stretch, linear yard, any width, each",HCPS +A6598,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression bandage roll, elastic medium stretch, per linear yard, any width, each",HCPS +A6599,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression bandage roll, inelastic short stretch, per linear yard, any width, each",HCPS +A6600,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression bandaging supply, high density foam sheet, per 250 square centimeters, each",HCPS +A6601,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression bandaging supply, high density foam pad, any size or shape, each",HCPS +A6602,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression bandaging supply, high density foam roll for bandage, per linear yard, any width, each",HCPS +A6603,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression bandaging supply, low density channel foam sheet, per 250 square centimeters, each",HCPS +A6604,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression bandaging supply, low density flat foam sheet, per 250 square centimeters, each",HCPS +A6605,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression bandaging supply, padded foam, per linear yard, any width, each",HCPS +A6606,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression bandaging supply, padded textile, per linear yard, any width, each",HCPS +A6607,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression bandaging supply, tubular protective absorption layer, per linear yard, any width, each",HCPS +A6608,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression bandaging supply, tubular protective absorption padded layer, per linear yard, any width, each",HCPS +A6609,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression bandaging supply, not otherwise specified",HCPS +A6610,Compression Garments and Stockings.,"Gradient compression stocking, below knee, 18-30 mmhg, custom, each",HCPS +A7000,Breathing Aids .,"Canister, disposable, used with suction pump, each",HCPS +A7001,Breathing Aids .,"Canister, non-disposable, used with suction pump, each",HCPS +A7002,Breathing Aids .,"Tubing, used with suction pump, each",HCPS +A7003,Breathing Aids .,"Administration set, with small volume nonfiltered pneumatic nebulizer, disposable",HCPS +A7004,Breathing Aids .,"Small volume nonfiltered pneumatic nebulizer, disposable",HCPS +A7005,Breathing Aids .,"Administration set, with small volume nonfiltered pneumatic nebulizer, non-disposable",HCPS +A7006,Breathing Aids .,"Administration set, with small volume filtered pneumatic nebulizer",HCPS +A7007,Breathing Aids .,"Large volume nebulizer, disposable, unfilled, used with aerosol compressor",HCPS +A7008,Breathing Aids .,"Large volume nebulizer, disposable, prefilled, used with aerosol compressor",HCPS +A7009,Breathing Aids .,"Reservoir bottle, non-disposable, used with large volume ultrasonic nebulizer",HCPS +A7010,Breathing Aids .,"Corrugated tubing, disposable, used with large volume nebulizer, 100 feet",HCPS +A7012,Breathing Aids .,"Water collection device, used with large volume nebulizer",HCPS +A7013,Breathing Aids .,"Filter, disposable, used with aerosol compressor or ultrasonic generator",HCPS +A7014,Breathing Aids .,"Filter, nondisposable, used with aerosol compressor or ultrasonic generator",HCPS +A7015,Breathing Aids .,"Aerosol mask, used with DME nebulizer",HCPS +A7016,Breathing Aids .,"Dome and mouthpiece, used with small volume ultrasonic nebulizer",HCPS +A7017,Breathing Aids .,"Nebulizer, durable, glass or autoclavable plastic, bottle type, not used with oxygen",HCPS +A7018,Breathing Aids .,"Water, distilled, used with large volume nebulizer, 1000 ml",HCPS +A7020,Breathing Aids .,"Interface for cough stimulating device, includes all components, replacement only",HCPS +A7023,Breathing Aids .,"Mechanical allergen particle barrier/inhalation filter, cream, nasal, topical",HCPS +A7025,Breathing Aids .,"High frequency chest wall oscillation system vest, replacement for use with patient owned equipment, each",HCPS +A7026,Breathing Aids .,"High frequency chest wall oscillation system hose, replacement for use with patient owned equipment, each",HCPS +A7027,Breathing Aids .,"Combination oral/nasal mask, used with continuous positive airway pressure device, each",HCPS +A7028,Breathing Aids .,"Oral cushion for combination oral/nasal mask, replacement only, each",HCPS +A7029,Breathing Aids .,"Nasal pillows for combination oral/nasal mask, replacement only, pair",HCPS +A7030,Breathing Aids .,"Full face mask used with positive airway pressure device, each",HCPS +A7031,Breathing Aids .,"Face mask interface, replacement for full face mask, each",HCPS +A7032,Breathing Aids .,"Cushion for use on nasal mask interface, replacement only, each",HCPS +A7033,Breathing Aids .,"Pillow for use on nasal cannula type interface, replacement only, pair",HCPS +A7034,Breathing Aids .,"Nasal interface (mask or cannula type) used with positive airway pressure device, with or without head strap",HCPS +A7035,Breathing Aids .,Headgear used with positive airway pressure device,HCPS +A7036,Breathing Aids .,Chinstrap used with positive airway pressure device,HCPS +A7037,Breathing Aids .,Tubing used with positive airway pressure device,HCPS +A7038,Breathing Aids .,"Filter, disposable, used with positive airway pressure device",HCPS +A7039,Breathing Aids .,"Filter, non disposable, used with positive airway pressure device",HCPS +A7040,Breathing Aids .,One way chest drain valve,HCPS +A7041,Breathing Aids .,Water seal drainage container and tubing for use with implanted chest tube,HCPS +A7044,Breathing Aids .,"Oral interface used with positive airway pressure device, each",HCPS +A7045,Breathing Aids .,"Exhalation port with or without swivel used with accessories for positive airway devices, replacement only",HCPS +A7046,Breathing Aids .,"Water chamber for humidifier, used with positive airway pressure device, replacement, each",HCPS +A7047,Breathing Aids .,"Oral interface used with respiratory suction pump, each",HCPS +A7048,Breathing Aids .,"Vacuum drainage collection unit and tubing kit, including all supplies needed for collection unit change, for use with implanted catheter, each",HCPS +A7049,Breathing Aids .,Expiratory positive airway pressure intranasal resistance valve,HCPS +A7501,Tracheostoma Supplies .,"Tracheostoma valve, including diaphragm, each",HCPS +A7502,Tracheostoma Supplies .,"Replacement diaphragm/faceplate for tracheostoma valve, each",HCPS +A7503,Tracheostoma Supplies .,"Filter holder or filter cap, reusable, for use in a tracheostoma heat and moisture exchange system, each",HCPS +A7504,Tracheostoma Supplies .,"Filter for use in a tracheostoma heat and moisture exchange system, each",HCPS +A7505,Tracheostoma Supplies .,"Housing, reusable without adhesive, for use in a heat and moisture exchange system and/or with a tracheostoma valve, each",HCPS +A7506,Tracheostoma Supplies .,"Adhesive disc for use in a heat and moisture exchange system and/or with tracheostoma valve, any type each",HCPS +A7507,Tracheostoma Supplies .,"Filter holder and integrated filter without adhesive, for use in a tracheostoma heat and moisture exchange system, each",HCPS +A7508,Tracheostoma Supplies .,"Housing and integrated adhesive, for use in a tracheostoma heat and moisture exchange system and/or with a tracheostoma valve, each",HCPS +A7509,Tracheostoma Supplies .,"Filter holder and integrated filter housing, and adhesive, for use as a tracheostoma heat and moisture exchange system, each",HCPS +A7520,Tracheostoma Supplies .,"Tracheostomy/laryngectomy tube, non-cuffed, polyvinylchloride (PVC), silicone or equal, each",HCPS +A7521,Tracheostoma Supplies .,"Tracheostomy/laryngectomy tube, cuffed, polyvinylchloride (PVC), silicone or equal,each",HCPS +A7522,Tracheostoma Supplies .,"Tracheostomy/laryngectomy tube, stainless steel or equal (sterilizable and reusable), each",HCPS +A7523,Tracheostoma Supplies .,"Tracheostomy shower protector, each",HCPS +A7524,Tracheostoma Supplies .,"Tracheostoma stent/stud/button, each",HCPS +A7525,Tracheostoma Supplies .,"Tracheostomy mask, each",HCPS +A7526,Tracheostoma Supplies .,"Tracheostomy tube collar/holder, each",HCPS +A7527,Tracheostoma Supplies .,"Tracheostomy/laryngectomy tube plug/stop, each",HCPS +A8000,Helmets .,"Helmet, protective, soft, prefabricated, includes all components and accessories",HCPS +A8001,Helmets .,"Helmet, protective, hard, prefabricated, includes all components and accessories",HCPS +A8002,Helmets .,"Helmet, protective, soft, custom fabricated, includes all components and accessories",HCPS +A8003,Helmets .,"Helmet, protective, hard, custom fabricated, includes all components and accessories",HCPS +A9150,Miscellaneous Supplies and Equipment.,Non-prescription drugs,HCPS +A9152,Miscellaneous Supplies and Equipment.,"Single vitamin/mineral/trace element, oral, per dose, not otherwise specified",HCPS +A9153,Miscellaneous Supplies and Equipment.,"Multiple vitamins, with or without minerals and trace elements, oral, per dose, not otherwise specified",HCPS +A9155,Miscellaneous Supplies and Equipment.,"Artificial saliva, 30 ml",HCPS +A9156,Miscellaneous Supplies and Equipment.,"Oral mucoadhesive, any type (liquid, gel, paste, etc.), per 1 ml",HCPS +A9180,Miscellaneous Supplies and Equipment.,"Pediculosis (lice infestation) treatment, topical, for administration by patient/caretaker",HCPS +A9268,Miscellaneous Supplies and Equipment.,"Programmer for transient, orally ingested capsule",HCPS +A9269,Miscellaneous Supplies and Equipment.,"Programable, transient, orally ingested capsule, for use with external programmer, per month",HCPS +A9270,Miscellaneous Supplies and Equipment.,Non-covered item or service,HCPS +A9272,Miscellaneous Supplies and Equipment.,"Wound suction, disposable, includes dressing, all accessories and components, any type, each",HCPS +A9273,Miscellaneous Supplies and Equipment.,"Cold or hot fluid bottle, ice cap or collar, heat and/or cold wrap, any type",HCPS +A9274,Miscellaneous Supplies and Equipment.,"External ambulatory insulin delivery system, disposable, each, includes all supplies and accessories",HCPS +A9275,Miscellaneous Supplies and Equipment.,"Home glucose disposable monitor, includes test strips",HCPS +A9276,Miscellaneous Supplies and Equipment.,"Sensor; invasive (e.g., subcutaneous), disposable, for use with non-durable medical equipment interstitial continuous glucose monitoring system, one unit = 1 day supply",HCPS +A9277,Miscellaneous Supplies and Equipment.,"Transmitter; external, for use with non-durable medical equipment interstitial continuous glucose monitoring system",HCPS +A9278,Miscellaneous Supplies and Equipment.,"Receiver (monitor); external, for use with non-durable medical equipment interstitial continuous glucose monitoring system",HCPS +A9279,Miscellaneous Supplies and Equipment.,"Monitoring feature/device, stand-alone or integrated, any type, includes all accessories, components and electronics, not otherwise classified",HCPS +A9280,Miscellaneous Supplies and Equipment.,"Alert or alarm device, not otherwise classified",HCPS +A9281,Miscellaneous Supplies and Equipment.,"Reaching/grabbing device, any type, any length, each",HCPS +A9282,Miscellaneous Supplies and Equipment.,"Wig, any type, each",HCPS +A9283,Miscellaneous Supplies and Equipment.,"Foot pressure off loading/supportive device, any type, each",HCPS +A9284,Miscellaneous Supplies and Equipment.,"Spirometer, non-electronic, includes all accessories",HCPS +A9285,Miscellaneous Supplies and Equipment.,Inversion/eversion correction device,HCPS +A9286,Miscellaneous Supplies and Equipment.,"Hygienic item or device, disposable or non-disposable, any type, each",HCPS +A9291,Miscellaneous Supplies and Equipment.,"Prescription digital cognitive and/or behavioral therapy, fda cleared, per course of treatment",HCPS +A9292,Miscellaneous Supplies and Equipment.,"Prescription digital visual therapy, software-only, fda cleared, per course of treatment",HCPS +A9300,Miscellaneous Supplies and Equipment.,Exercise equipment,HCPS +A9500,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Technetium Tc-99m sestamibi, diagnostic, per study dose",HCPS +A9501,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Technetium Tc-99m teboroxime, diagnostic, per study dose",HCPS +A9502,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Technetium Tc-99m tetrofosmin, diagnostic, per study dose",HCPS +A9503,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Technetium Tc-99m medronate, diagnostic, per study dose, up to 30 millicuries",HCPS +A9504,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Technetium Tc-99m apcitide, diagnostic, per study dose, up to 20 millicuries",HCPS +A9505,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Thallium Tl-201 thallous chloride, diagnostic, per millicurie",HCPS +A9507,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Indium In-111 capromab pendetide, diagnostic, per study dose, up to 10 millicuries",HCPS +A9508,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Iodine I-131 iobenguane sulfate, diagnostic, per 0.5 millicurie",HCPS +A9509,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Iodine I-123 sodium iodide, diagnostic, per millicurie",HCPS +A9510,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Technetium Tc-99m disofenin, diagnostic, per study dose, up to 15 millicuries",HCPS +A9512,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Technetium Tc-99m pertechnetate, diagnostic, per millicurie",HCPS +A9513,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Lutetium lu 177, dotatate, therapeutic, 1 millicurie",HCPS +A9515,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Choline c-11, diagnostic, per study dose up to 20 millicuries",HCPS +A9516,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Iodine I-123 sodium iodide, diagnostic, per 100 microcuries, up to 999 microcuries",HCPS +A9517,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Iodine I-131 sodium iodide capsule(s), therapeutic, per millicurie",HCPS +A9520,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Technetium Tc-99m, tilmanocept, diagnostic, up to 0.5 millicuries",HCPS +A9521,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Technetium Tc-99m exametazime, diagnostic, per study dose, up to 25 millicuries",HCPS +A9524,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Iodine I-131 iodinated serum albumin, diagnostic, per 5 microcuries",HCPS +A9526,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Nitrogen N-13 ammonia, diagnostic, per study dose, up to 40 millicuries",HCPS +A9527,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Iodine I-125, sodium iodide solution, therapeutic, per millicurie",HCPS +A9528,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Iodine I-131 sodium iodide capsule(s), diagnostic, per millicurie",HCPS +A9529,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Iodine I-131 sodium iodide solution, diagnostic, per millicurie",HCPS +A9530,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Iodine I-131 sodium iodide solution, therapeutic, per millicurie",HCPS +A9531,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Iodine I-131 sodium iodide, diagnostic, per microcurie (up to 100 microcuries)",HCPS +A9532,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Iodine I-125 serum albumin, diagnostic, per 5 microcuries",HCPS +A9536,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Technetium Tc-99m depreotide, diagnostic, per study dose, up to 35 millicuries",HCPS +A9537,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Technetium Tc-99m mebrofenin, diagnostic, per study dose, up to 15 millicuries",HCPS +A9538,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Technetium Tc-99m pyrophosphate, diagnostic, per study dose, up to 25 millicuries",HCPS +A9539,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Technetium Tc-99m pentetate, diagnostic, per study dose, up to 25 millicuries",HCPS +A9540,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Technetium Tc-99m macroaggregated albumin, diagnostic, per study dose, up to 10 millicuries",HCPS +A9541,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Technetium Tc-99m sulfur colloid, diagnostic, per study dose, up to 20 millicuries",HCPS +A9542,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Indium In-111 ibritumomab tiuxetan, diagnostic, per study dose, up to 5 millicuries",HCPS +A9543,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Yttrium Y-90 ibritumomab tiuxetan, therapeutic, per treatment dose, up to 40 millicuries",HCPS +A9546,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Cobalt Co-57/58, cyanocobalamin, diagnostic, per study dose, up to 1 microcurie",HCPS +A9547,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Indium In-111 oxyquinoline, diagnostic, per 0.5 millicurie",HCPS +A9548,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Indium In-111 pentetate, diagnostic, per 0.5 millicurie",HCPS +A9550,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Technetium Tc-99m sodium gluceptate, diagnostic, per study dose, up to 25 millicurie",HCPS +A9551,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Technetium Tc-99m succimer, diagnostic, per study dose, up to 10 millicuries",HCPS +A9552,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Fluorodeoxyglucose F-18 FDG, diagnostic, per study dose, up to 45 millicuries",HCPS +A9553,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Chromium Cr-51 sodium chromate, diagnostic, per study dose, up to 250 microcuries",HCPS +A9554,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Iodine I-125 sodium iothalamate, diagnostic, per study dose, up to 10 microcuries",HCPS +A9555,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Rubidium Rb-82, diagnostic, per study dose, up to 60 millicuries",HCPS +A9556,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Gallium Ga-67 citrate, diagnostic, per millicurie",HCPS +A9557,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Technetium Tc-99m bicisate, diagnostic, per study dose, up to 25 millicuries",HCPS +A9558,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Xenon Xe-133 gas, diagnostic, per 10 millicuries",HCPS +A9559,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Cobalt Co-57 cyanocobalamin, oral, diagnostic, per study dose, up to 1 microcurie",HCPS +A9560,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Technetium Tc-99m labeled red blood cells, diagnostic, per study dose, up to 30 millicuries",HCPS +A9561,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Technetium Tc-99m oxidronate, diagnostic, per study dose, up to 30 millicuries",HCPS +A9562,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Technetium Tc-99m mertiatide, diagnostic, per study dose, up to 15 millicuries",HCPS +A9563,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Sodium phosphate P-32, therapeutic, per millicurie",HCPS +A9564,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Chromic phosphate P-32 suspension, therapeutic, per millicurie",HCPS +A9566,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Technetium Tc-99m fanolesomab, diagnostic, per study dose, up to 25 millicuries",HCPS +A9567,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Technetium Tc-99m pentetate, diagnostic, aerosol, per study dose, up to 75 millicuries",HCPS +A9568,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Technetium Tc-99m arcitumomab, diagnostic, per study dose, up to 45 millicuries",HCPS +A9569,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Technetium Tc-99m exametazime labeled autologous white blood cells, diagnostic, per study dose",HCPS +A9570,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Indium In-111 labeled autologous white blood cells, diagnostic, per study dose",HCPS +A9571,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Indium In-111 labeled autologous platelets, diagnostic, per study dose",HCPS +A9572,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Indium In-111 pentetreotide, diagnostic, per study dose, up to 6 millicuries",HCPS +A9573,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Injection, gadopiclenol, 1 ml",HCPS +A9575,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Injection, gadoterate meglumine, 0.1 ml",HCPS +A9576,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Injection, gadoteridol, (ProHance multipack), per ml",HCPS +A9577,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Injection, gadobenate dimeglumine (MultiHance), per ml",HCPS +A9578,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Injection, gadobenate dimeglumine (MultiHance multipack), per ml",HCPS +A9579,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Injection, gadolinium-based magnetic resonance contrast agent, not otherwise specified (NOS), per ml",HCPS +A9580,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Sodium fluoride F-18, diagnostic, per study dose, up to 30 millicuries",HCPS +A9581,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Injection, gadoxetate disodium, 1 ml",HCPS +A9582,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Iodine I-123 iobenguane, diagnostic, per study dose, up to 15 millicuries",HCPS +A9583,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Injection, gadofosveset trisodium, 1 ml",HCPS +A9584,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Iodine 1-123 ioflupane, diagnostic, per study dose, up to 5 millicuries",HCPS +A9585,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Injection, gadobutrol, 0.1 ml",HCPS +A9586,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Florbetapir F18, diagnostic, per study dose, up to 10 millicuries",HCPS +A9587,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Gallium ga-68, dotatate, diagnostic, 0.1 millicurie",HCPS +A9588,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Fluciclovine f-18, diagnostic, 1 millicurie",HCPS +A9589,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Instillation, hexaminolevulinate hydrochloride, 100 mg",HCPS +A9590,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Iodine i-131, iobenguane, 1 millicurie",HCPS +A9591,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Fluoroestradiol f 18, diagnostic, 1 millicurie",HCPS +A9592,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Copper cu-64, dotatate, diagnostic, 1 millicurie",HCPS +A9593,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Gallium ga-68 psma-11, diagnostic, (ucsf), 1 millicurie",HCPS +A9594,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Gallium ga-68 psma-11, diagnostic, (ucla), 1 millicurie",HCPS +A9595,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Piflufolastat f-18, diagnostic, 1 millicurie",HCPS +A9596,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Gallium ga-68 gozetotide, diagnostic, (illuccix), 1 millicurie",HCPS +A9597,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Positron emission tomography radiopharmaceutical, diagnostic, for tumor identification, not otherwise classified",HCPS +A9598,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Positron emission tomography radiopharmaceutical, diagnostic, for non-tumor identification, not otherwise classified",HCPS +A9600,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Strontium Sr-89 chloride, therapeutic, per millicurie",HCPS +A9601,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Flortaucipir f 18 injection, diagnostic, 1 millicurie",HCPS +A9602,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Fluorodopa f-18, diagnostic, per millicurie",HCPS +A9603,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Injection, pafolacianine, 0.1 mg",HCPS +A9604,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Samarium Sm-153 lexidronam, therapeutic, per treatment dose, up to 150 millicuries",HCPS +A9606,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Radium Ra-223 dichloride, therapeutic, per microcurie",HCPS +A9607,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Lutetium lu 177 vipivotide tetraxetan, therapeutic, 1 millicurie",HCPS +A9608,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Flotufolastat f 18, diagnostic, 1 millicurie",HCPS +A9609,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,Fludeoxyglucose f18 up to 15 millicuries,HCPS +A9697,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Injection, carboxydextran-coated superparamagnetic iron oxide, per study dose",HCPS +A9698,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Non-radioactive contrast imaging material, not otherwise classified, per study",HCPS +A9699,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Radiopharmaceutical, therapeutic, not otherwise classified",HCPS +A9700,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Supply of injectable contrast material for use in echocardiography, per study",HCPS +A9800,Diagnostic and Therapeutic Radiopharmaceuticals .,"Gallium ga-68 gozetotide, diagnostic, (locametz), 1 millicurie",HCPS +A9900,Miscellaneous DME Supplies and Services .,"Miscellaneous DME supply, accessory, and/or service component of another HCPCS code",HCPS +A9901,Miscellaneous DME Supplies and Services .,"DME delivery, set up, and/or dispensing service component of another HCPCS code",HCPS +A9999,Miscellaneous DME Supplies and Services .,"Miscellaneous DME supply or accessory, not otherwise specified",HCPS +B4034,Enteral Feeding Supplies and Equipment .,"Enteral feeding supply kit; syringe fed, per day, includes but not limited to feeding/flushing syringe, administration set tubing, dressings, tape",HCPS +B4035,Enteral Feeding Supplies and Equipment .,"Enteral feeding supply kit; pump fed, per day, includes but not limited to feeding/flushing syringe, administration set tubing, dressings, tape",HCPS +B4036,Enteral Feeding Supplies and Equipment .,"Enteral feeding supply kit; gravity fed, per day, includes but not limited to feeding/flushing syringe, administration set tubing, dressings, tape",HCPS +B4081,Enteral Feeding Supplies and Equipment .,Nasogastric tubing with stylet,HCPS +B4082,Enteral Feeding Supplies and Equipment .,Nasogastric tubing without stylet,HCPS +B4083,Enteral Feeding Supplies and Equipment .,Stomach tube - Levine type,HCPS +B4087,Enteral Feeding Supplies and Equipment .,"Gastrostomy/jejunostomy tube, standard, any material, any type, each",HCPS +B4088,Enteral Feeding Supplies and Equipment .,"Gastrostomy/jejunostomy tube, low-profile, any material, any type, each",HCPS +B4100,Enteral Formulas and Additives .,"Food thickener, administered orally, per ounce",HCPS +B4102,Enteral Formulas and Additives .,"Enteral formula, for adults, used to replace fluids and electrolytes (e.g., clear liquids), 500 ml = 1 unit",HCPS +B4103,Enteral Formulas and Additives .,"Enteral formula, for pediatrics, used to replace fluids and electrolytes (e.g., clear liquids), 500 ml = 1 unit",HCPS +B4104,Enteral Formulas and Additives .,"Additive for enteral formula (e.g., fiber)",HCPS +B4105,Enteral Formulas and Additives .,"In-line cartridge containing digestive enzyme(s) for enteral feeding, each",HCPS +B4148,Enteral Formulas and Additives .,"Enteral feeding supply kit; elastomeric control fed, per day, includes but not limited to feeding/flushing syringe, administration set tubing, dressings, tape",HCPS +B4149,Enteral Formulas and Additives .,"Enteral formula, manufactured blenderized natural foods with intact nutrients, includes proteins, fats, carbohydrates, vitamins and minerals, may include fiber, administered through an enteral feeding tube, 100 calories = 1 unit",HCPS +B4150,Enteral Formulas and Additives .,"Enteral formula, nutritionally complete with intact nutrients, includes proteins, fats, carbohydrates, vitamins and minerals, may include fiber, administered through an enteral feeding tube, 100 calories = 1 unit",HCPS +B4152,Enteral Formulas and Additives .,"Enteral formula, nutritionally complete, calorically dense (equal to or greater than 1.5 kcal/ml) with intact nutrients, includes proteins, fats, carbohydrates, vitamins and minerals, may include fiber, administered through an enteral feeding tube, 100 calories = 1 unit",HCPS +B4153,Enteral Formulas and Additives .,"Enteral formula, nutritionally complete, hydrolyzed proteins (amino acids and peptide chain), includes fats, carbohydrates, vitamins and minerals, may include fiber, administered through an enteral feeding tube, 100 calories = 1 unit",HCPS +B4154,Enteral Formulas and Additives .,"Enteral formula, nutritionally complete, for special metabolic needs, excludes inherited disease of metabolism, includes altered composition of proteins, fats, carbohydrates, vitamins and/or minerals, may include fiber, administered through an enteral feeding tube, 100 calories = 1 unit",HCPS +B4155,Enteral Formulas and Additives .,"Enteral formula, nutritionally incomplete/modular nutrients, includes specific nutrients, carbohydrates (e.g., glucose polymers), proteins/amino acids (e.g., glutamine, arginine), fat (e.g., medium chain triglycerides) or combination, administered through an enteral feeding tube, 100 calories = 1 unit",HCPS +B4157,Enteral Formulas and Additives .,"Enteral formula, nutritionally complete, for special metabolic needs for inherited disease of metabolism, includes proteins, fats, carbohydrates, vitamins and minerals, may include fiber, administered through an enteral feeding tube, 100 calories = 1 unit",HCPS +B4158,Enteral Formulas and Additives .,"Enteral formula, for pediatrics, nutritionally complete with intact nutrients, includes proteins, fats, carbohydrates, vitamins and minerals, may include fiber and/or iron, administered through an enteral feeding tube, 100 calories = 1 unit",HCPS +B4159,Enteral Formulas and Additives .,"Enteral formula, for pediatrics, nutritionally complete soy based with intact nutrients, includes proteins, fats, carbohydrates, vitamins and minerals, may include fiber and/or iron, administered through an enteral feeding tube, 100 calories = 1 unit",HCPS +B4160,Enteral Formulas and Additives .,"Enteral formula, for pediatrics, nutritionally complete calorically dense (equal to or greater than 0.7 kcal/ml) with intact nutrients, includes proteins, fats, carbohydrates, vitamins and minerals, may include fiber, administered through an enteral feeding tube, 100 calories = 1 unit",HCPS +B4161,Enteral Formulas and Additives .,"Enteral formula, for pediatrics, hydrolyzed/amino acids and peptide chain proteins, includes fats, carbohydrates, vitamins and minerals, may include fiber, administered through an enteral feeding tube, 100 calories = 1 unit",HCPS +B4162,Enteral Formulas and Additives .,"Enteral formula, for pediatrics, special metabolic needs for inherited disease of metabolism, includes proteins, fats, carbohydrates, vitamins and minerals, may include fiber, administered through an enteral feeding tube, 100 calories = 1 unit",HCPS +B4164,Parenteral Solutions and Supplies .,"Parenteral nutrition solution: carbohydrates (dextrose), 50% or less (500 ml = 1 unit) - homemix",HCPS +B4168,Parenteral Solutions and Supplies .,"Parenteral nutrition solution; amino acid, 3.5%, (500 ml = 1 unit) - homemix",HCPS +B4172,Parenteral Solutions and Supplies .,"Parenteral nutrition solution; amino acid, 5.5% through 7%, (500 ml = 1 unit) - homemix",HCPS +B4176,Parenteral Solutions and Supplies .,"Parenteral nutrition solution; amino acid, 7% through 8.5%, (500 ml = 1 unit) - homemix",HCPS +B4178,Parenteral Solutions and Supplies .,"Parenteral nutrition solution: amino acid, greater than 8.5% (500 ml = 1 unit) - homemix",HCPS +B4180,Parenteral Solutions and Supplies .,"Parenteral nutrition solution; carbohydrates (dextrose), greater than 50% (500 ml=1 unit) - homemix",HCPS +B4185,Parenteral Solutions and Supplies .,"Parenteral nutrition solution, not otherwise specified, 10 grams lipids",HCPS +B4187,Parenteral Solutions and Supplies .,"Omegaven, 10 grams lipids",HCPS +B4189,Parenteral Solutions and Supplies .,"Parenteral nutrition solution; compounded amino acid and carbohydrates with electrolytes, trace elements, and vitamins, including preparation, any strength, 10 to 51 grams of protein - premix",HCPS +B4193,Parenteral Solutions and Supplies .,"Parenteral nutrition solution; compounded amino acid and carbohydrates with electrolytes, trace elements, and vitamins, including preparation, any strength, 52 to 73 grams of protein - premix",HCPS +B4197,Parenteral Solutions and Supplies .,"Parenteral nutrition solution; compounded amino acid and carbohydrates with electrolytes, trace elements and vitamins, including preparation, any strength, 74 to 100 grams of protein - premix",HCPS +B4199,Parenteral Solutions and Supplies .,"Parenteral nutrition solution; compounded amino acid and carbohydrates with electrolytes, trace elements and vitamins, including preparation, any strength, over 100 grams of protein - premix",HCPS +B4216,Parenteral Solutions and Supplies .,"Parenteral nutrition; additives (vitamins, trace elements, heparin, electrolytes) homemix per day",HCPS +B4220,Parenteral Solutions and Supplies .,"Parenteral nutrition supply kit; premix, per day",HCPS +B4222,Parenteral Solutions and Supplies .,"Parenteral nutrition supply kit; home mix, per day",HCPS +B4224,Parenteral Solutions and Supplies .,"Parenteral nutrition administration kit, per day",HCPS +B5000,Parenteral Solutions and Supplies .,"Parenteral nutrition solution compounded amino acid and carbohydrates with electrolytes, trace elements, and vitamins, including preparation, any strength, renal-Amirosyn RF, NephrAmine, RenAmine-premix",HCPS +B5100,Parenteral Solutions and Supplies .,"Parenteral nutrition solution compounded amino acid and carbohydrates with electrolytes, trace elements, and vitamins, including preparation, any strength, hepatic, HepAtamine-premix",HCPS +B5200,Parenteral Solutions and Supplies .,"Parenteral nutrition solution compounded amino acid and carbohydrates with electrolytes, trace elements, and vitamins, including preparation, any strength, stress-branch chain amino acids-freamine-hbc-premix",HCPS +B9002,"Nutrition Infusion Pumps and Supplies Not Otherwise Classified, NOC.","Enteral nutrition infusion pump, any type",HCPS +B9004,"Nutrition Infusion Pumps and Supplies Not Otherwise Classified, NOC.","Parenteral nutrition infusion pump, portable",HCPS +B9006,"Nutrition Infusion Pumps and Supplies Not Otherwise Classified, NOC.","Parenteral nutrition infusion pump, stationary",HCPS +B9998,"Nutrition Infusion Pumps and Supplies Not Otherwise Classified, NOC.",NOC for enteral supplies,HCPS +B9999,"Nutrition Infusion Pumps and Supplies Not Otherwise Classified, NOC.",NOC for parenteral supplies,HCPS +C1052,Other Therapeutic Procedures.,"Hemostatic agent, gastrointestinal, topical",HCPS +C1600,"Surgical, Imaging Devices and Grafts.","Catheter, transluminal intravascular lesion preparation device, bladed, sheathed (insertable)",HCPS +C1601,"Surgical, Imaging Devices and Grafts.","Endoscope, single-use (i.e. disposable), pulmonary, imaging/illumination device (insertable)",HCPS +C1602,"Surgical, Imaging Devices and Grafts.","Orthopedic/device/drug matrix/absorbable bone void filler, antimicrobial-eluting (implantable)",HCPS +C1603,"Surgical, Imaging Devices and Grafts.","Retrieval device, insertable, laser (used to retrieve intravascular inferior vena cava filter)",HCPS +C1713,Assorted Devices and Supplies .,Anchor/screw for opposing bone-to-bone or soft tissue-to-bone (implantable),HCPS +C1714,Assorted Devices and Supplies .,"Catheter, transluminal atherectomy, directional",HCPS +C1715,Assorted Devices and Supplies .,Brachytherapy needle,HCPS +C1716,Brachytherapy Sources .,"Brachytherapy source, non-stranded, gold-198, per source",HCPS +C1717,Brachytherapy Sources .,"Brachytherapy source, non-stranded, high dose rate iridium-192, per source",HCPS +C1719,Brachytherapy Sources .,"Brachytherapy source, non-stranded, non-high dose rate iridium-192, per source",HCPS +C1721,Cardioverter-defibrillators.,"Cardioverter-defibrillator, dual chamber (implantable)",HCPS +C1722,Cardioverter-defibrillators.,"Cardioverter-defibrillator, single chamber (implantable)",HCPS +C1724,Catheters for Multiple Applications .,"Catheter, transluminal atherectomy, rotational",HCPS +C1725,Catheters for Multiple Applications .,"Catheter, transluminal angioplasty, non-laser (may include guidance, infusion/perfusion capability)",HCPS +C1726,Catheters for Multiple Applications .,"Catheter, balloon dilatation, non-vascular",HCPS +C1727,Catheters for Multiple Applications .,"Catheter, balloon tissue dissector, non-vascular (insertable)",HCPS +C1728,Catheters for Multiple Applications .,"Catheter, brachytherapy seed administration",HCPS +C1729,Catheters for Multiple Applications .,"Catheter, drainage",HCPS +C1730,Catheters for Multiple Applications .,"Catheter, electrophysiology, diagnostic, other than 3D mapping (19 or fewer electrodes)",HCPS +C1731,Catheters for Multiple Applications .,"Catheter, electrophysiology, diagnostic, other than 3D mapping (20 or more electrodes)",HCPS +C1732,Catheters for Multiple Applications .,"Catheter, electrophysiology, diagnostic/ablation, 3D or vector mapping",HCPS +C1733,Catheters for Multiple Applications .,"Catheter, electrophysiology, diagnostic/ablation, other than 3D or vector mapping, other than cool-tip",HCPS +C1734,Catheters for Multiple Applications .,Orthopedic/device/drug matrix for opposing bone-to-bone or soft tissue-to bone (implantable),HCPS +C1747,Catheters for Multiple Applications .,"Endoscope, single-use (i.e. disposable), urinary tract, imaging/illumination device (insertable)",HCPS +C1748,Catheters for Multiple Applications .,"Endoscope, single-use (i.e. disposable), upper gi, imaging/illumination device (insertable)",HCPS +C1749,Catheters for Multiple Applications .,"Endoscope, retrograde imaging/illumination colonoscope device (implantable)",HCPS +C1750,Catheters for Multiple Applications .,"Catheter, hemodialysis/peritoneal, long-term",HCPS +C1751,Catheters for Multiple Applications .,"Catheter, infusion, inserted peripherally, centrally or midline (other than hemodialysis)",HCPS +C1752,Catheters for Multiple Applications .,"Catheter, hemodialysis/peritoneal, short-term",HCPS +C1753,Catheters for Multiple Applications .,"Catheter, intravascular ultrasound",HCPS +C1754,Catheters for Multiple Applications .,"Catheter, intradiscal",HCPS +C1755,Catheters for Multiple Applications .,"Catheter, intraspinal",HCPS +C1756,Catheters for Multiple Applications .,"Catheter, pacing, transesophageal",HCPS +C1757,Catheters for Multiple Applications .,"Catheter, thrombectomy/embolectomy",HCPS +C1758,Catheters for Multiple Applications .,"Catheter, ureteral",HCPS +C1759,Catheters for Multiple Applications .,"Catheter, intracardiac echocardiography",HCPS +C1760,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Closure device, vascular (implantable/insertable)",HCPS +C1761,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Catheter, transluminal intravascular lithotripsy, coronary",HCPS +C1762,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Connective tissue, human (includes fascia lata)",HCPS +C1763,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Connective tissue, non-human (includes synthetic)",HCPS +C1764,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Event recorder, cardiac (implantable)",HCPS +C1765,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .",Adhesion barrier,HCPS +C1766,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Introducer/sheath, guiding, intracardiac electrophysiological, steerable, other than peel-away",HCPS +C1767,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Generator, neurostimulator (implantable), non-rechargeable",HCPS +C1768,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Graft, vascular",HCPS +C1769,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .",Guide wire,HCPS +C1770,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Imaging coil, magnetic resonance (insertable)",HCPS +C1771,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Repair device, urinary, incontinence, with sling graft",HCPS +C1772,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Infusion pump, programmable (implantable)",HCPS +C1773,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Retrieval device, insertable (used to retrieve fractured medical devices)",HCPS +C1776,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .",Joint device (implantable),HCPS +C1777,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Lead, cardioverter-defibrillator, endocardial single coil (implantable)",HCPS +C1778,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Lead, neurostimulator (implantable)",HCPS +C1779,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Lead, pacemaker, transvenous VDD single pass",HCPS +C1780,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Lens, intraocular (new technology)",HCPS +C1781,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .",Mesh (implantable),HCPS +C1782,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .",Morcellator,HCPS +C1783,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Ocular implant, aqueous drainage assist device",HCPS +C1784,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Ocular device, intraoperative, detached retina",HCPS +C1785,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Pacemaker, dual chamber, rate-responsive (implantable)",HCPS +C1786,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Pacemaker, single chamber, rate-responsive (implantable)",HCPS +C1787,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Patient programmer, neurostimulator",HCPS +C1788,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Port, indwelling (implantable)",HCPS +C1789,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Prosthesis, breast (implantable)",HCPS +C1813,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Prosthesis, penile, inflatable",HCPS +C1814,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Retinal tamponade device, silicone oil",HCPS +C1815,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Prosthesis, urinary sphincter (implantable)",HCPS +C1816,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Receiver and/or transmitter, neurostimulator (implantable)",HCPS +C1817,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Septal defect implant system, intracardiac",HCPS +C1818,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .",Integrated keratoprosthesis,HCPS +C1819,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .",Surgical tissue localization and excision device (implantable),HCPS +C1820,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Generator, neurostimulator (implantable), with rechargeable battery and charging system.",HCPS +C1821,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .",Interspinous process distraction device (implantable),HCPS +C1822,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Generator, neurostimulator (implantable), high frequency, with rechargeable battery and charging system",HCPS +C1823,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Generator, neurostimulator (implantable), non-rechargeable, with transvenous sensing and stimulation leads",HCPS +C1824,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Generator, cardiac contractility modulation (implantable)",HCPS +C1825,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Generator, neurostimulator (implantable), non-rechargeable with carotid sinus baroreceptor stimulation lead(s)",HCPS +C1826,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Generator, neurostimulator (implantable), includes closed feedback loop leads and all implantable components, with rechargeable battery and charging system",HCPS +C1827,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Generator, neurostimulator (implantable), non-rechargeable, with implantable stimulation lead and external paired stimulation controller",HCPS +C1830,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .",Powered bone marrow biopsy needle,HCPS +C1831,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Interbody cage, anterior, lateral or posterior, personalized (implantable)",HCPS +C1832,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Autograft suspension, including cell processing and application, and all system components",HCPS +C1833,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Monitor, cardiac, including intracardiac lead and all system components (implantable)",HCPS +C1839,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .",Iris prosthesis,HCPS +C1840,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Lens, intraocular (telescopic)",HCPS +C1874,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Stent, coated/covered, with delivery system",HCPS +C1875,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Stent, coated/covered, without delivery system",HCPS +C1876,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Stent, non-coated/non-covered, with delivery system",HCPS +C1877,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Stent, non-coated/non-covered, without delivery system",HCPS +C1878,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Material for vocal cord medialization, synthetic (implantable)",HCPS +C1880,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .",Vena cava filter,HCPS +C1881,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .",Dialysis access system (implantable),HCPS +C1882,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Cardioverter-defibrillator, other than single or dual chamber (implantable)",HCPS +C1883,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Adaptor/extension, pacing lead or neurostimulator lead (implantable)",HCPS +C1884,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .",Embolization protective system,HCPS +C1885,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Catheter, transluminal angioplasty, laser",HCPS +C1886,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Catheter, extravascular tissue ablation, any modality (insertable)",HCPS +C1887,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Catheter, guiding (may include infusion/perfusion capability)",HCPS +C1888,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Catheter, ablation, non-cardiac, endovascular (implantable)",HCPS +C1889,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Implantable/insertable device, not otherwise classified",HCPS +C1890,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .",No implantable/insertable device used with device-intensive procedures,HCPS +C1891,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Infusion pump, non-programmable, permanent (implantable)",HCPS +C1892,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Introducer/sheath, guiding, intracardiac electrophysiological, fixed-curve, peel-away",HCPS +C1893,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Introducer/sheath, guiding, intracardiac electrophysiological, fixed-curve, other than peel-away",HCPS +C1894,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Introducer/sheath, other than guiding, other than intracardiac electrophysiological, non-laser",HCPS +C1895,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Lead, cardioverter-defibrillator, endocardial dual coil (implantable)",HCPS +C1896,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Lead, cardioverter-defibrillator, other than endocardial single or dual coil (implantable)",HCPS +C1897,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Lead, neurostimulator test kit (implantable)",HCPS +C1898,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Lead, pacemaker, other than transvenous VDD single pass",HCPS +C1899,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Lead, pacemaker/cardioverter-defibrillator combination (implantable)",HCPS +C1900,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Lead, left ventricular coronary venous system",HCPS +C1982,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Catheter, pressure-generating, one-way valve, intermittently occlusive",HCPS +C2596,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Probe, image-guided, robotic, waterjet ablation",HCPS +C2613,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .",Lung biopsy plug with delivery system,HCPS +C2614,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Probe, percutaneous lumbar discectomy",HCPS +C2615,"Assorted Devices, Implants, and Systems .","Sealant, pulmonary, liquid",HCPS +C2616,Brachytherapy Sources .,"Brachytherapy source, non-stranded, yttrium-90, per source",HCPS +C2617,Assorted Cardiovascular and Genitourinary Devices .,"Stent, non-coronary, temporary, without delivery system",HCPS +C2618,Assorted Cardiovascular and Genitourinary Devices .,"Probe/needle, cryoablation",HCPS +C2619,Assorted Cardiovascular and Genitourinary Devices .,"Pacemaker, dual chamber, non rate-responsive (implantable)",HCPS +C2620,Assorted Cardiovascular and Genitourinary Devices .,"Pacemaker, single chamber, non rate-responsive (implantable)",HCPS +C2621,Assorted Cardiovascular and Genitourinary Devices .,"Pacemaker, other than single or dual chamber (implantable)",HCPS +C2622,Assorted Cardiovascular and Genitourinary Devices .,"Prosthesis, penile, non-inflatable",HCPS +C2623,Assorted Cardiovascular and Genitourinary Devices .,"Catheter, transluminal angioplasty, drug-coated, non-laser",HCPS +C2624,Assorted Cardiovascular and Genitourinary Devices .,"Implantable wireless pulmonary artery pressure sensor with delivery catheter, including all system components",HCPS +C2625,Assorted Cardiovascular and Genitourinary Devices .,"Stent, non-coronary, temporary, with delivery system",HCPS +C2626,Assorted Cardiovascular and Genitourinary Devices .,"Infusion pump, non-programmable, temporary (implantable)",HCPS +C2627,Assorted Cardiovascular and Genitourinary Devices .,"Catheter, suprapubic/cystoscopic",HCPS +C2628,Assorted Cardiovascular and Genitourinary Devices .,"Catheter, occlusion",HCPS +C2629,Assorted Cardiovascular and Genitourinary Devices .,"Introducer/sheath, other than guiding, other than intracardiac electrophysiological, laser",HCPS +C2630,Assorted Cardiovascular and Genitourinary Devices .,"Catheter, electrophysiology, diagnostic/ablation, other than 3D or vector mapping, cool-tip",HCPS +C2631,Assorted Cardiovascular and Genitourinary Devices .,"Repair device, urinary, incontinence, without sling graft",HCPS +C2634,Brachytherapy Sources.,"Brachytherapy source, non-stranded, high activity, iodine-125, greater than 1.01 mCi (NIST), per source",HCPS +C2635,Brachytherapy Sources.,"Brachytherapy source, non-stranded, high activity, paladium-103, greater than 2.2 mCi (NIST), per source",HCPS +C2636,Brachytherapy Sources.,"Brachytherapy linear source, non-stranded, paladium-103, per 1 mm",HCPS +C2637,Brachytherapy Sources.,"Brachytherapy source, non-stranded, ytterbium-169, per source",HCPS +C2638,Brachytherapy Sources.,"Brachytherapy source, stranded, iodine-125, per source",HCPS +C2639,Brachytherapy Sources.,"Brachytherapy source, non-stranded, iodine-125, per source",HCPS +C2640,Brachytherapy Sources.,"Brachytherapy source, stranded, palladium-103, per source",HCPS +C2641,Brachytherapy Sources.,"Brachytherapy source, non-stranded, palladium-103, per source",HCPS +C2642,Brachytherapy Sources.,"Brachytherapy source, stranded, cesium-131, per source",HCPS +C2643,Brachytherapy Sources.,"Brachytherapy source, non-stranded, cesium-131, per source",HCPS +C2644,Brachytherapy Sources.,"Brachytherapy source, cesium-131 chloride solution, per millicurie",HCPS +C2645,Brachytherapy Sources.,"Brachytherapy planar source, Palladium-103, per square millimeter",HCPS +C2698,Brachytherapy Sources.,"Brachytherapy source, stranded, not otherwise specified, per source",HCPS +C2699,Brachytherapy Sources.,"Brachytherapy source, non-stranded, not otherwise specified, per source",HCPS +C5271,Skin Substitute Graft Application .,"Application of low cost skin substitute graft to trunk, arms, legs, total wound surface area up to 100 sq cm; first 25 sq cm or less wound surface area",HCPS +C5272,Skin Substitute Graft Application .,"Application of low cost skin substitute graft to trunk, arms, legs, total wound surface area up to 100 sq cm; each additional 25 sq cm wound surface area, or part thereof (list separately in addition to code for primary procedure)",HCPS +C5273,Skin Substitute Graft Application .,"Application of low cost skin substitute graft to trunk, arms, legs, total wound surface area greater than or equal to 100 sq cm; first 100 sq cm wound surface area, or 1% of body area of infants and children",HCPS +C5274,Skin Substitute Graft Application .,"Application of low cost skin substitute graft to trunk, arms, legs, total wound surface area greater than or equal to 100 sq cm; each additional 100 sq cm wound surface area, or part thereof, or each additional 1% of body area of infants and children, or part thereof (list separately in addition to code for primary procedure)",HCPS +C5275,Skin Substitute Graft Application .,"Application of low cost skin substitute graft to face, scalp, eyelids, mouth, neck, ears, orbits, genitalia, hands, feet, and/or multiple digits, total wound surface area up to 100 sq cm; first 25 sq cm or less wound surface area",HCPS +C5276,Skin Substitute Graft Application .,"Application of low cost skin substitute graft to face, scalp, eyelids, mouth, neck, ears, orbits, genitalia, hands, feet, and/or multiple digits, total wound surface area up to 100 sq cm; each additional 25 sq cm wound surface area, or part thereof (list separately in addition to code for primary procedure)",HCPS +C5277,Skin Substitute Graft Application .,"Application of low cost skin substitute graft to face, scalp, eyelids, mouth, neck, ears, orbits, genitalia, hands, feet, and/or multiple digits, total wound surface area greater than or equal to 100 sq cm; first 100 sq cm wound surface area, or 1% of body area of infants and children",HCPS +C5278,Skin Substitute Graft Application .,"Application of low cost skin substitute graft to face, scalp, eyelids, mouth, neck, ears, orbits, genitalia, hands, feet, and/or multiple digits, total wound surface area greater than or equal to 100 sq cm; each additional 100 sq cm wound surface area, or part thereof, or each additional 1% of body area of infants and children, or part thereof (list separately in addition to code for primary procedure)",HCPS +C7500,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Debridement, bone including epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous tissue, muscle and/or fascia, if performed, first 20 sq cm or less with manual preparation and insertion of deep (eg, subfacial) drug-delivery device(s)",HCPS +C7501,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Percutaneous breast biopsies using stereotactic guidance, with placement of breast localization device(s) (eg, clip, metallic pellet), when performed, and imaging of the biopsy specimen, when performed, all lesions unilateral and bilateral (for single lesion biopsy, use appropriate code)",HCPS +C7502,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Percutaneous breast biopsies using magnetic resonance guidance, with placement of breast localization device(s) (eg, clip, metallic pellet), when performed, and imaging of the biopsy specimen, when performed, all lesions unilateral or bilateral (for single lesion biopsy, use appropriate code)",HCPS +C7503,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Open biopsy or excision of deep cervical node(s) with intraoperative identification (eg, mapping) of sentinel lymph node(s) including injection of non-radioactive dye when performed",HCPS +C7504,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Percutaneous vertebroplasties (bone biopsies included when performed), first cervicothoracic and any additional cervicothoracic or lumbosacral vertebral bodies, unilateral or bilateral injection, inclusive of all imaging guidance",HCPS +C7505,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Percutaneous vertebroplasties (bone biopsies included when performed), first lumbosacral and any additional cervicothoracic or lumbosacral vertebral bodies, unilateral or bilateral injection, inclusive of all imaging guidance",HCPS +C7506,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Arthrodesis, interphalangeal joints, with or without internal fixation",HCPS +C7507,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Percutaneous vertebral augmentations, first thoracic and any additional thoracic or lumbar vertebral bodies, including cavity creations (fracture reductions and bone biopsies included when performed) using mechanical device (eg, kyphoplasty), unilateral or bilateral cannulations, inclusive of all imaging guidance",HCPS +C7508,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Percutaneous vertebral augmentations, first lumbar and any additional thoracic or lumbar vertebral bodies, including cavity creations (fracture reductions and bone biopsies included when performed) using mechanical device (eg, kyphoplasty), unilateral or bilateral cannulations, inclusive of all imaging guidance",HCPS +C7509,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Bronchoscopy, rigid or flexible, diagnostic with cell washing(s) when performed, with computer-assisted image-guided navigation, including fluoroscopic guidance when performed",HCPS +C7510,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Bronchoscopy, rigid or flexible, with bronchial alveolar lavage(s), with computer-assisted image-guided navigation, including fluoroscopic guidance when performed",HCPS +C7511,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Bronchoscopy, rigid or flexible, with single or multiple bronchial or endobronchial biopsy(ies), single or multiple sites, with computer-assisted image-guided navigation, including fluoroscopic guidance when performed",HCPS +C7512,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Bronchoscopy, rigid or flexible, with single or multiple bronchial or endobronchial biopsy(ies), single or multiple sites, with transendoscopic endobronchial ultrasound (ebus) during bronchoscopic diagnostic or therapeutic intervention(s) for peripheral lesion(s), including fluoroscopic guidance when performed",HCPS +C7513,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Dialysis circuit, introduction of needle(s) and/or catheter(s), with diagnostic angiography of the dialysis circuit, including all direct puncture(s) and catheter placement(s), injection(s) of contrast, all necessary imaging from the arterial anastomosis and adjacent artery through entire venous outflow including the inferior or superior vena cava, fluoroscopic guidance, with transluminal balloon angioplasty of central dialysis segment, performed through dialysis circuit, including all required imaging, radiological supervision and interpretation, image documentation and report",HCPS +C7514,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Dialysis circuit, introduction of needle(s) and/or catheter(s), with diagnostic angiography of the dialysis circuit, including all direct puncture(s) and catheter placement(s), injection(s) of contrast, all necessary imaging from the arterial anastomosis and adjacent artery through entire venous outflow including the inferior or superior vena cava, fluoroscopic guidance, with all angioplasty in the central dialysis segment, and transcatheter placement of intravascular stent(s), central dialysis segment, performed through dialysis circuit, including all required imaging, radiological supervision and interpretation, image documentation and report",HCPS +C7515,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Dialysis circuit, introduction of needle(s) and/or catheter(s), with diagnostic angiography of the dialysis circuit, including all direct puncture(s) and catheter placement(s), injection(s) of contrast, all necessary imaging from the arterial anastomosis and adjacent artery through entire venous outflow including the inferior or superior vena cava, fluoroscopic guidance, with dialysis circuit permanent endovascular embolization or occlusion of main circuit or any accessory veins, including all required imaging, radiological supervision and interpretation, image documentation and report",HCPS +C7516,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Catheter placement in coronary artery(s) for coronary angiography, including intraprocedural injection(s) for coronary angiography, with endoluminal imaging of initial coronary vessel or graft using intravascular ultrasound (ivus) or optical coherence tomography (oct) during diagnostic evaluation and/or therapeutic intervention including imaging supervision, interpretation and report",HCPS +C7517,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Catheter placement in coronary artery(s) for coronary angiography, including intraprocedural injection(s) for coronary angiography, with iliac and/or femoral artery angiography, non-selective, bilateral or ipsilateral to catheter insertion, performed at the same time as cardiac catheterization and/or coronary angiography, includes positioning or placement of the catheter in the distal aorta or ipsilateral femoral or iliac artery, injection of dye, production of permanent images, and radiologic supervision and interpretation",HCPS +C7518,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Catheter placement in coronary artery(ies) for coronary angiography, including intraprocedural injection(s) for coronary angiography, imaging supervision and interpretation, with catheter placement(s) in bypass graft(s) (internal mammary, free arterial, venous grafts) including intraprocedural injection(s) for bypass graft angiography with endoluminal imaging of initial coronary vessel or graft using intravascular ultrasound (ivus) or optical coherence tomography (oct) during diagnostic evaluation and/or therapeutic intervention including imaging, supervision, interpretation and report",HCPS +C7519,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Catheter placement in coronary artery(ies) for coronary angiography, including intraprocedural injection(s) for coronary angiography, imaging supervision and interpretation, with catheter placement(s) in bypass graft(s) (internal mammary, free arterial, venous grafts) including intraprocedural injection(s) for bypass graft angiography with intravascular doppler velocity and/or pressure derived coronary flow reserve measurement (initial coronary vessel or graft) during coronary angiography including pharmacologically induced stress",HCPS +C7520,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Catheter placement in coronary artery(ies) for coronary angiography, including intraprocedural injection(s) for coronary angiography, imaging supervision and interpretation, with catheter placement(s) in bypass graft(s) (internal mammary, free arterial, venous grafts) includes intraprocedural injection(s) for bypass graft angiography with iliac and/or femoral artery angiography, non-selective, bilateral or ipsilateral to catheter insertion, performed at the same time as cardiac catheterization and/or coronary angiography, includes positioning or placement of the catheter in the distal aorta or ipsilateral femoral or iliac artery, injection of dye, production of permanent images, and radiologic supervision and interpretation",HCPS +C7521,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Catheter placement in coronary artery(ies) for coronary angiography, including intraprocedural injection(s) for coronary angiography with right heart catheterization with endoluminal imaging of initial coronary vessel or graft using intravascular ultrasound (ivus) or optical coherence tomography (oct) during diagnostic evaluation and/or therapeutic intervention including imaging supervision, interpretation and report",HCPS +C7522,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Catheter placement in coronary artery(ies) for coronary angiography, including intraprocedural injection(s) for coronary angiography, imaging supervision and interpretation with right heart catheterization, with intravascular doppler velocity and/or pressure derived coronary flow reserve measurement (initial coronary vessel or graft) during coronary angiography including pharmacologically induced stress",HCPS +C7523,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Catheter placement in coronary artery(ies) for coronary angiography, including intraprocedural injection(s) for coronary angiography, imaging supervision and interpretation, with left heart catheterization including intraprocedural injection(s) for left ventriculography, when performed, with endoluminal imaging of initial coronary vessel or graft using intravascular ultrasound (ivus) or optical coherence tomography (oct) during diagnostic evaluation and/or therapeutic intervention including imaging supervision, interpretation and report",HCPS +C7524,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Catheter placement in coronary artery(ies) for coronary angiography, including intraprocedural injection(s) for coronary angiography, imaging supervision and interpretation, with left heart catheterization including intraprocedural injection(s) for left ventriculography, when performed, with intravascular doppler velocity and/or pressure derived coronary flow reserve measurement (initial coronary vessel or graft) during coronary angiography including pharmacologically induced stress",HCPS +C7525,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Catheter placement in coronary artery(ies) for coronary angiography, including intraprocedural injection(s) for coronary angiography, imaging supervision and interpretation, with left heart catheterization including intraprocedural injection(s) for left ventriculography, when performed, catheter placement(s) in bypass graft(s) (internal mammary, free arterial, venous grafts) with bypass graft angiography with endoluminal imaging of initial coronary vessel or graft using intravascular ultrasound (ivus) or optical coherence tomography (oct) during diagnostic evaluation and/or therapeutic intervention including imaging supervision, interpretation and report",HCPS +C7526,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Catheter placement in coronary artery(ies) for coronary angiography, including intraprocedural injection(s) for coronary angiography, imaging supervision and interpretation, with left heart catheterization including intraprocedural injection(s) for left ventriculography, when performed, catheter placement(s) in bypass graft(s) (internal mammary, free arterial, venous grafts) with bypass graft angiography with intravascular doppler velocity and/or pressure derived coronary flow reserve measurement (initial coronary vessel or graft) during coronary angiography including pharmacologically induced stress",HCPS +C7527,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Catheter placement in coronary artery(ies) for coronary angiography, including intraprocedural injection(s) for coronary angiography, imaging supervision and interpretation, with right and left heart catheterization including intraprocedural injection(s) for left ventriculography, when performed, with endoluminal imaging of initial coronary vessel or graft using intravascular ultrasound (ivus) or optical coherence tomography (oct) during diagnostic evaluation and/or therapeutic intervention including imaging supervision, interpretation and report",HCPS +C7528,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Catheter placement in coronary artery(ies) for coronary angiography, including intraprocedural injection(s) for coronary angiography, imaging supervision and interpretation, with right and left heart catheterization including intraprocedural injection(s) for left ventriculography, when performed, with intravascular doppler velocity and/or pressure derived coronary flow reserve measurement (initial coronary vessel or graft) during coronary angiography including pharmacologically induced stress",HCPS +C7529,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Catheter placement in coronary artery(ies) for coronary angiography, including intraprocedural injection(s) for coronary angiography, imaging supervision and interpretation, with right and left heart catheterization including intraprocedural injection(s) for left ventriculography, when performed, catheter placement(s) in bypass graft(s) (internal mammary, free arterial, venous grafts) with bypass graft angiography with intravascular doppler velocity and/or pressure derived coronary flow reserve measurement (initial coronary vessel or graft) during coronary angiography including pharmacologically induced stress",HCPS +C7530,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Dialysis circuit, introduction of needle(s) and/or catheter(s), with diagnostic angiography of the dialysis circuit, including all direct puncture(s) and catheter placement(s), injection(s) of contrast, all necessary imaging from the arterial anastomosis and adjacent artery through entire venous outflow including the inferior or superior vena cava, fluoroscopic guidance, with transluminal balloon angioplasty, peripheral dialysis segment, including all imaging and radiological supervision and interpretation necessary to perform the angioplasty and all angioplasty in the central dialysis segment, with transcatheter placement of intravascular stent(s), central dialysis segment, performed through dialysis circuit, including all imaging, radiological supervision and interpretation, documentation and report",HCPS +C7531,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Revascularization, endovascular, open or percutaneous, femoral, popliteal artery(ies), unilateral, with transluminal angioplasty with intravascular ultrasound (initial noncoronary vessel) during diagnostic evaluation and/or therapeutic intervention, including radiological supervision and interpretation",HCPS +C7532,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Transluminal balloon angioplasty (except lower extremity artery(ies) for occlusive disease, intracranial, coronary, pulmonary, or dialysis circuit), initial artery, open or percutaneous, including all imaging and radiological supervision and interpretation necessary to perform the angioplasty within the same artery, with intravascular ultrasound (initial noncoronary vessel) during diagnostic evaluation and/or therapeutic intervention, including radiological supervision and interpretation",HCPS +C7533,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty, single major coronary artery or branch with transcatheter placement of radiation delivery device for subsequent coronary intravascular brachytherapy",HCPS +C7534,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Revascularization, endovascular, open or percutaneous, femoral, popliteal artery(ies), unilateral, with atherectomy, includes angioplasty within the same vessel, when performed with intravascular ultrasound (initial noncoronary vessel) during diagnostic evaluation and/or therapeutic intervention, including radiological supervision and interpretation",HCPS +C7535,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Revascularization, endovascular, open or percutaneous, femoral, popliteal artery(ies), unilateral, with transluminal stent placement(s), includes angioplasty within the same vessel, when performed, with intravascular ultrasound (initial noncoronary vessel) during diagnostic evaluation and/or therapeutic intervention, including radiological supervision and interpretation",HCPS +C7537,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Insertion of new or replacement of permanent pacemaker with atrial transvenous electrode(s), with insertion of pacing electrode, cardiac venous system, for left ventricular pacing, at time of insertion of implantable debribrillator or pacemake pulse generator (eg, for upgrade to dual chamber system)",HCPS +C7538,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Insertion of new or replacement of permanent pacemaker with ventricular transvenous electrode(s), with insertion of pacing electrode, cardiac venous system, for left ventricular pacing, at time of insertion of implantable defribrillator or pacemaker pulse generator (eg, for upgrade to dual chamber system)",HCPS +C7539,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Insertion of new or replacement of permanent pacemaker with atrial and ventricular transvenous electrode(s), with insertion of pacing electrode, cardiac venous system, for left ventricular pacing, at time of insertion of implantable defibrillator or pacemaker pulse generator (eg, for upgrade to dual chamber system)",HCPS +C7540,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Removal of permanent pacemaker pulse generator with replacement of pacemaker pulse generator, dual lead system, with insertion of pacing electrode, cardiac venous system, for left ventricular pacing, at time of insertion of implantable defibrillator or pacemaker pulse generator (eg, for upgrade to dual chamber system)",HCPS +C7541,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Diagnostic endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ercp), including collection of specimen(s) by brushing or washing, when performed, with endoscopic cannulation of papilla with direct visualization of pancreatic/common bile ducts(s)",HCPS +C7542,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ercp) with biopsy, single or multiple, with endoscopic cannulation of papilla with direct visualization of pancreatic/common bile ducts(s)",HCPS +C7543,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ercp) with sphincterotomy/papillotomy, with endoscopic cannulation of papilla with direct visualization of pancreatic/common bile ducts(s)",HCPS +C7544,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ercp) with removal of calculi/debris from biliary/pancreatic duct(s), with endoscopic cannulation of papilla with direct visualization of pancreatic/common bile ducts(s)",HCPS +C7545,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Percutaneous exchange of biliary drainage catheter (eg, external, internal-external, or conversion of internal-external to external only), with removal of calculi/debris from biliary duct(s) and/or gallbladder, including destruction of calculi by any method (eg, mechanical, electrohydraulic, lithotripsy) when performed, including diagnostic cholangiography(ies) when performed, imaging guidance (eg, fluoroscopy), and all associated radiological supervision and interpretation",HCPS +C7546,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Removal and replacement of externally accessible nephroureteral catheter (eg, external/internal stent) requiring fluoroscopic guidance, with ureteral stricture balloon dilation, including imaging guidance and all associated radiological supervision and interpretation",HCPS +C7547,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Convert nephrostomy catheter to nephroureteral catheter, percutaneous via pre-existing nephrostomy tract, with ureteral stricture balloon dialation, including diagnostic nephrostogram and/or ureterogram when performed, imaging guidance (eg, ultrasound and/or fluoroscopy) and all associated radiological supervision and interpretation",HCPS +C7548,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Exchange nephrostomy catheter, percutaneous, with ureteral stricture balloon dilation, including diagnostic nephrostogram and/or ureterogram when performed, imaging guidance (eg, ultrasound and/or fluoroscopy) and all associated radiological supervision and interpretation",HCPS +C7549,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Change of ureterostomy tube or externally accessible ureteral stent via ileal conduit with ureteral stricture balloon dilation, including imaging guidance (eg, ultrasound and/or fluoroscopy) and all associated radiological supervision and interpretation",HCPS +C7550,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Cystourethroscopy, with biopsy(ies) with adjuctive blue light cystoscopy with fluorescent imaging agent",HCPS +C7551,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Excision of major peripheral nerve neuroma, except sciatic, with implantation of nerve end into bone or muscle",HCPS +C7552,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Catheter placement in coronary artery(s) for coronary angiography, including intraprocedural injection(s) for coronary angiography, imaging supervision and interpretation; with catheter placement(s) in bypass graft(s) (internal mammary, free arterial, venous grafts) including intraprocedural injection(s) for bypass graft angiography and right heart catheterization with intravascular doppler velocity and/or pressure derived coronary flow reserve measurement (coronary vessel or graft) during coronary angiography including pharmacologically induced stress, initial vessel",HCPS +C7553,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Catheter placement in coronary artery(s) for coronary angiography, including intraprocedural injection(s) for coronary angiography, imaging supervision and interpretation; with right and left heart catheterization including intraprocedural injection(s) for left ventriculography, when performed, catheter placement(s) in bypass graft(s) (internal mammary, free arterial, venous grafts) with bypass graft angiography with pharmacologic agent administration (eg, inhaled nitric oxide, intravenous infusion of nitroprusside, dobutamine, milrinone, or other agent) including assessing hemodynamic measurements before, during, after and repeat pharmacologic agent administration, when performed",HCPS +C7554,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,Cystourethroscopy with adjunctive blue light cystoscopy with fluorescent imaging agent,HCPS +C7555,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Thyroidectomy, total or complete with parathyroid autotransplantation",HCPS +C7556,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Bronchoscopy, rigid or flexible, with bronchial alveolar lavage and transendoscopic endobronchial ultrasound (ebus) during bronchoscopic diagnostic or therapeutic intervention(s) for peripheral lesion(s), including fluoroscopic guidance, when performed",HCPS +C7557,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Catheter placement in coronary artery(s) for coronary angiography, including intraprocedural injection(s) for coronary angiography, imaging supervision and interpretation with left heart catheterization including intraprocedural injection(s) for left ventriculography, when performed and intraprocedural coronary fractional flow reserve (ffr) with 3d functional mapping of color-coded ffr values for the coronary tree, derived from coronary angiogram data, for real-time review and interpretation of possible atherosclerotic stenosis(es) intervention",HCPS +C7558,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Catheter placement in coronary artery(s) for coronary angiography, including intraprocedural injection(s) for coronary angiography, imaging supervision and interpretation with right and left heart catheterization including intraprocedural injection(s) for left ventriculography, when performed, catheter placement(s) in bypass graft(s) (internal mammary, free arterial, venous grafts) with bypass graft angiography with pharmacologic agent administration (eg, inhaled nitric oxide, intravenous infusion of nitroprusside, dobutamine, milrinone, or other agent) including assessing hemodynamic measurements before, during, after and repeat pharmacologic agent administration, when performed",HCPS +C7560,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ercp) with removal of foreign body(s) or stent(s) from biliary/pancreatic duct(s) and endoscopic cannulation of papilla with direct visualization of pancreatic/common bile duct(s),HCPS +C7561,Miscellaneous Surgical Procedures.,"Debridement, bone (includes epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous tissue, muscle and/or fascia, if performed); first 20 sq cm or less with manual preparation and insertion of drug-delivery device(s), deep (e.g., subfascial)",HCPS +C7900,Mental Health Evaluation and Management Services.,"Service for diagnosis, evaluation, or treatment of a mental health or substance use disorder, 15-29 minutes, provided remotely by hospital staff who are licensed to provide mental health services under applicable state law(s), when the patient is in their home, and there is no associated professional service",HCPS +C7901,Mental Health Evaluation and Management Services.,"Service for diagnosis, evaluation, or treatment of a mental health or substance use disorder, 30-60 minutes, provided remotely by hospital staff who are licensed to provided mental health services under applicable state law(s), when the patient is in their home, and there is no associated professional service",HCPS +C7902,Mental Health Evaluation and Management Services.,"Service for diagnosis, evaluation, or treatment of a mental health or substance use disorder, each additional 15 minutes, provided remotely by hospital staff who are licensed to provide mental health services under applicable state law(s), when the patient is in their home, and there is no associated professional service (list separately in addition to code for primary service)",HCPS +C7903,Mental Health Evaluation and Management Services.,"Group psychotherapy service for diagnosis, evaluation, or treatment of a mental health or substance use disorder provided remotely by hospital staff who are licensed to provide mental health services under applicable state law(s), when the patient is in their home, and there is no associated professional service",HCPS +C8900,"Magnetic Resonance Angiography, Trunk and Lower Extremities.","Magnetic resonance angiography with contrast, abdomen",HCPS +C8901,"Magnetic Resonance Angiography, Trunk and Lower Extremities.","Magnetic resonance angiography without contrast, abdomen",HCPS +C8902,"Magnetic Resonance Angiography, Trunk and Lower Extremities.","Magnetic resonance angiography without contrast followed by with contrast, abdomen",HCPS +C8903,"Magnetic Resonance Angiography, Trunk and Lower Extremities.","Magnetic resonance imaging with contrast, breast; unilateral",HCPS +C8905,"Magnetic Resonance Angiography, Trunk and Lower Extremities.","Magnetic resonance imaging without contrast followed by with contrast, breast; unilateral",HCPS +C8906,"Magnetic Resonance Angiography, Trunk and Lower Extremities.","Magnetic resonance imaging with contrast, breast; bilateral",HCPS +C8908,"Magnetic Resonance Angiography, Trunk and Lower Extremities.","Magnetic resonance imaging without contrast followed by with contrast, breast; bilateral",HCPS +C8909,"Magnetic Resonance Angiography, Trunk and Lower Extremities.","Magnetic resonance angiography with contrast, chest (excluding myocardium)",HCPS +C8910,"Magnetic Resonance Angiography, Trunk and Lower Extremities.","Magnetic resonance angiography without contrast, chest (excluding myocardium)",HCPS +C8911,"Magnetic Resonance Angiography, Trunk and Lower Extremities.","Magnetic resonance angiography without contrast followed by with contrast, chest (excluding myocardium)",HCPS +C8912,"Magnetic Resonance Angiography, Trunk and Lower Extremities.","Magnetic resonance angiography with contrast, lower extremity",HCPS +C8913,"Magnetic Resonance Angiography, Trunk and Lower Extremities.","Magnetic resonance angiography without contrast, lower extremity",HCPS +C8914,"Magnetic Resonance Angiography, Trunk and Lower Extremities.","Magnetic resonance angiography without contrast followed by with contrast, lower extremity",HCPS +C8918,"Magnetic Resonance Angiography, Trunk and Lower Extremities.","Magnetic resonance angiography with contrast, pelvis",HCPS +C8919,"Magnetic Resonance Angiography, Trunk and Lower Extremities.","Magnetic resonance angiography without contrast, pelvis",HCPS +C8920,"Magnetic Resonance Angiography, Trunk and Lower Extremities.","Magnetic resonance angiography without contrast followed by with contrast, pelvis",HCPS +C8921,"Transesophageal/Transthoracic Echocardiography +.","Transthoracic echocardiography with contrast, or without contrast followed by with contrast, for congenital cardiac anomalies; complete",HCPS +C8922,"Transesophageal/Transthoracic Echocardiography +.","Transthoracic echocardiography with contrast, or without contrast followed by with contrast, for congenital cardiac anomalies; follow-up or limited study",HCPS +C8923,"Transesophageal/Transthoracic Echocardiography +.","Transthoracic echocardiography with contrast, or without contrast followed by with contrast, real-time with image documentation (2D), includes M-mode recording, when performed, complete, without spectral or color doppler echocardiography",HCPS +C8924,"Transesophageal/Transthoracic Echocardiography +.","Transthoracic echocardiography with contrast, or without contrast followed by with contrast, real-time with image documentation (2D), includes M-mode recording, when performed, follow-up or limited study",HCPS +C8925,"Transesophageal/Transthoracic Echocardiography +.","Transesophageal echocardiography (TEE) with contrast, or without contrast followed by with contrast, real time with image documentation (2D) (with or without M-mode recording); including probe placement, image acquisition, interpretation and report",HCPS +C8926,"Transesophageal/Transthoracic Echocardiography +.","Transesophageal echocardiography (TEE) with contrast, or without contrast followed by with contrast, for congenital cardiac anomalies; including probe placement, image acquisition, interpretation and report",HCPS +C8927,"Transesophageal/Transthoracic Echocardiography +.","Transesophageal echocardiography (TEE) with contrast, or without contrast followed by with contrast, for monitoring purposes, including probe placement, real time 2-dimensional image acquisition and interpretation leading to ongoing (continuous) assessment of (dynamically changing) cardiac pumping function and to therapeutic measures on an immediate time basis",HCPS +C8928,"Transesophageal/Transthoracic Echocardiography +.","Transthoracic echocardiography with contrast, or without contrast followed by with contrast, real-time with image documentation (2D), includes M-mode recording, when performed, during rest and cardiovascular stress test using treadmill, bicycle exercise and/or pharmacologically induced stress, with interpretation and report",HCPS +C8929,"Transesophageal/Transthoracic Echocardiography +.","Transthoracic echocardiography with contrast, or without contrast followed by with contrast, real-time with image documentation (2D), includes M-mode recording, when performed, complete, with spectral doppler echocardiography, and with color flow doppler echocardiography",HCPS +C8930,"Transesophageal/Transthoracic Echocardiography +.","Transthoracic echocardiography, with contrast, or without contrast followed by with contrast, real-time with image documentation (2D), includes M-mode recording, when performed, during rest and cardiovascular stress test using treadmill, bicycle exercise and/or pharmacologically induced stress, with interpretation and report; including performance of continuous electrocardiographic monitoring, with physician supervision",HCPS +C8931,"Magnetic Resonance Angiography, Spine and Upper Extremities +.","Magnetic resonance angiography with contrast, spinal canal and contents",HCPS +C8932,"Magnetic Resonance Angiography, Spine and Upper Extremities +.","Magnetic resonance angiography without contrast, spinal canal and contents",HCPS +C8933,"Magnetic Resonance Angiography, Spine and Upper Extremities +.","Magnetic resonance angiography without contrast followed by with contrast, spinal canal and contents",HCPS +C8934,"Magnetic Resonance Angiography, Spine and Upper Extremities +.","Magnetic resonance angiography with contrast, upper extremity",HCPS +C8935,"Magnetic Resonance Angiography, Spine and Upper Extremities +.","Magnetic resonance angiography without contrast, upper extremity",HCPS +C8936,"Magnetic Resonance Angiography, Spine and Upper Extremities +.","Magnetic resonance angiography without contrast followed by with contrast, upper extremity",HCPS +C8937,Breast MRI - Computer Aided Detection.,"Computer-aided detection, including computer algorithm analysis of breast mri image data for lesion detection/characterization, pharmacokinetic analysis, with further physician review for interpretation (list separately in addition to code for primary procedure)",HCPS +C8957,"Miscellaneous Drugs, Biologicals, and Supplies .","Intravenous infusion for therapy/diagnosis; initiation of prolonged infusion (more than 8 hours), requiring use of portable or implantable pump",HCPS +C9046,"Miscellaneous Drugs, Biologicals, and Supplies .","Cocaine hydrochloride nasal solution for topical administration, 1 mg",HCPS +C9047,"Miscellaneous Drugs, Biologicals, and Supplies .","Injection, caplacizumab-yhdp, 1 mg",HCPS +C9067,"Miscellaneous Drugs, Biologicals, and Supplies .","Gallium ga-68, dotatoc, diagnostic, 0.01 mci",HCPS +C9088,"Miscellaneous Drugs, Biologicals, and Supplies .","Instillation, bupivacaine and meloxicam, 1 mg/0.03 mg",HCPS +C9089,"Miscellaneous Drugs, Biologicals, and Supplies .","Bupivacaine, collagen-matrix implant, 1 mg",HCPS +C9101,"Miscellaneous Drugs, Biologicals, and Supplies .","Injection, oliceridine, 0.1 mg",HCPS +C9113,"Miscellaneous Drugs, Biologicals, and Supplies .","Injection, pantoprazole sodium, per vial",HCPS +C9143,"Miscellaneous Drugs, Biologicals, and Supplies .","Cocaine hydrochloride nasal solution (numbrino), 1 mg",HCPS +C9144,"Miscellaneous Drugs, Biologicals, and Supplies .","Injection, bupivacaine (posimir), 1 mg",HCPS +C9145,"Miscellaneous Drugs, Biologicals, and Supplies .","Injection, aprepitant, (aponvie), 1 mg",HCPS +C9150,"Miscellaneous Drugs, Biologicals, and Supplies .","Xenon xe-129 hyperpolarized gas, diagnostic, per study dose",HCPS +C9159,"Miscellaneous Drugs, Biologicals, and Supplies .","Injection, prothrombin complex concentrate (human), balfaxar, per i.u. of factor ix activity",HCPS +C9160,"Miscellaneous Drugs, Biologicals, and Supplies .","Injection, daxibotulinumtoxina-lanm, 1 unit",HCPS +C9161,"Miscellaneous Drugs, Biologicals, and Supplies .","Injection, aflibercept hd, 1 mg",HCPS +C9162,"Miscellaneous Drugs, Biologicals, and Supplies .","Injection, avacincaptad pegol, 0.1 mg",HCPS +C9163,"Miscellaneous Drugs, Biologicals, and Supplies .","Injection, talquetamab-tgvs, 0.25 mg",HCPS +C9164,"Miscellaneous Drugs, Biologicals, and Supplies .","Cantharidin for topical administration, 0.7%, single unit dose applicator (3.2 mg)",HCPS +C9165,"Miscellaneous Drugs, Biologicals, and Supplies .","Injection, elranatamab-bcmm, 1 mg",HCPS +C9248,"Miscellaneous Drugs, Biologicals, and Supplies .","Injection, clevidipine butyrate, 1 mg",HCPS +C9250,"Miscellaneous Drugs, Biologicals, and Supplies .","Human plasma fibrin sealant, vapor-heated, solvent-detergent (Artiss), 2ml",HCPS +C9254,"Miscellaneous Drugs, Biologicals, and Supplies .","Injection, lacosamide, 1 mg",HCPS +C9257,"Miscellaneous Drugs, Biologicals, and Supplies .","Injection, bevacizumab, 0.25 mg",HCPS +C9285,"Miscellaneous Drugs, Biologicals, and Supplies .","Lidocaine 70 mg/tetracaine 70 mg, per patch",HCPS +C9290,"Miscellaneous Drugs, Biologicals, and Supplies .","Injection, bupivacaine liposome, 1 mg",HCPS +C9293,"Miscellaneous Drugs, Biologicals, and Supplies .","Injection, glucarpidase, 10 units",HCPS +C9352,"Miscellaneous Drugs, Biologicals, and Supplies .","Microporous collagen implantable tube (NeuraGen Nerve Guide), per centimeter length",HCPS +C9353,"Miscellaneous Drugs, Biologicals, and Supplies .","Microporous collagen implantable slit tube (NeuraWrap Nerve Protector), per centimeter length",HCPS +C9354,"Miscellaneous Drugs, Biologicals, and Supplies .","Acellular pericardial tissue matrix of non-human origin (Veritas), per square centimeter",HCPS +C9355,"Miscellaneous Drugs, Biologicals, and Supplies .","Collagen nerve cuff (NeuroMatrix), per 0.5 centimeter length",HCPS +C9356,"Miscellaneous Drugs, Biologicals, and Supplies .","Tendon, porous matrix of cross-linked collagen and glycosaminoglycan matrix (TenoGlide Tendon Protector Sheet), per square centimeter",HCPS +C9358,"Miscellaneous Drugs, Biologicals, and Supplies .","Dermal substitute, native, non-denatured collagen, fetal bovine origin (SurgiMend Collagen Matrix), per 0.5 square centimeters",HCPS +C9359,"Miscellaneous Drugs, Biologicals, and Supplies .","Porous purified collagen matrix bone void filler (Integra Mozaik Osteoconductive Scaffold Putty, Integra Os Osteoconductive Scaffold Putty), per 0.5 cc",HCPS +C9360,"Miscellaneous Drugs, Biologicals, and Supplies .","Dermal substitute, native, non-denatured collagen, neonatal bovine origin (SurgiMend Collagen Matrix), per 0.5 square centimeters",HCPS +C9361,"Miscellaneous Drugs, Biologicals, and Supplies .","Collagen matrix nerve wrap (NeuroMend Collagen Nerve Wrap), per 0.5 centimeter length",HCPS +C9362,"Miscellaneous Drugs, Biologicals, and Supplies .","Porous purified collagen matrix bone void filler (Integra Mozaik Osteoconductive Scaffold Strip), per 0.5 cc",HCPS +C9363,"Miscellaneous Drugs, Biologicals, and Supplies .","Skin substitute, Integra Meshed Bilayer Wound Matrix, per square centimeter",HCPS +C9364,"Miscellaneous Drugs, Biologicals, and Supplies .","Porcine implant, Permacol, per square centimeter",HCPS +C9399,"Miscellaneous Drugs, Biologicals, and Supplies .",Unclassified drugs or biologicals,HCPS +C9460,"Miscellaneous Drugs, Biologicals, and Supplies .","Injection, cangrelor, 1 mg",HCPS +C9462,"Miscellaneous Drugs, Biologicals, and Supplies .","Injection, delafloxacin, 1 mg",HCPS +C9482,"Miscellaneous Drugs, Biologicals, and Supplies .","Injection, sotalol hydrochloride, 1 mg",HCPS +C9488,"Miscellaneous Drugs, Biologicals, and Supplies .","Injection, conivaptan hydrochloride, 1 mg",HCPS +C9507,Fresh Frozen Plasma-Covid-19.,"Fresh frozen plasma, high titer COVID-19 convalescent, frozen within 8 hours of collection, each unit",HCPS +C9600,"Percutaneous Transcatheter/Transluminal Coronary Procedures +.","Percutaneous transcatheter placement of drug eluting intracoronary stent(s), with coronary angioplasty when performed; single major coronary artery or branch",HCPS +C9601,"Percutaneous Transcatheter/Transluminal Coronary Procedures +.","Percutaneous transcatheter placement of drug-eluting intracoronary stent(s), with coronary angioplasty when performed; each additional branch of a major coronary artery (list separately in addition to code for primary procedure)",HCPS +C9602,"Percutaneous Transcatheter/Transluminal Coronary Procedures +.","Percutaneous transluminal coronary atherectomy, with drug eluting intracoronary stent, with coronary angioplasty when performed; single major coronary artery or branch",HCPS +C9603,"Percutaneous Transcatheter/Transluminal Coronary Procedures +.","Percutaneous transluminal coronary atherectomy, with drug-eluting intracoronary stent, with coronary angioplasty when performed; each additional branch of a major coronary artery (list separately in addition to code for primary procedure)",HCPS +C9604,"Percutaneous Transcatheter/Transluminal Coronary Procedures +.","Percutaneous transluminal revascularization of or through coronary artery bypass graft (internal mammary, free arterial, venous), any combination of drug-eluting intracoronary stent, atherectomy and angioplasty, including distal protection when performed; single vessel",HCPS +C9605,"Percutaneous Transcatheter/Transluminal Coronary Procedures +.","Percutaneous transluminal revascularization of or through coronary artery bypass graft (internal mammary, free arterial, venous), any combination of drug-eluting intracoronary stent, atherectomy and angioplasty, including distal protection when performed; each additional branch subtended by the bypass graft (list separately in addition to code for primary procedure)",HCPS +C9606,"Percutaneous Transcatheter/Transluminal Coronary Procedures +.","Percutaneous transluminal revascularization of acute total/subtotal occlusion during acute myocardial infarction, coronary artery or coronary artery bypass graft, any combination of drug-eluting intracoronary stent, atherectomy and angioplasty, including aspiration thrombectomy when performed, single vessel",HCPS +C9607,"Percutaneous Transcatheter/Transluminal Coronary Procedures +.","Percutaneous transluminal revascularization of chronic total occlusion, coronary artery, coronary artery branch, or coronary artery bypass graft, any combination of drug-eluting intracoronary stent, atherectomy and angioplasty; single vessel",HCPS +C9608,"Percutaneous Transcatheter/Transluminal Coronary Procedures +.","Percutaneous transluminal revascularization of chronic total occlusion, coronary artery, coronary artery branch, or coronary artery bypass graft, any combination of drug-eluting intracoronary stent, atherectomy and angioplasty; each additional coronary artery, coronary artery branch, or bypass graft (list separately in addition to code for primary procedure)",HCPS +C9725,Other Therapeutic Services and Supplies .,Placement of endorectal intracavitary applicator for high intensity brachytherapy,HCPS +C9726,Other Therapeutic Services and Supplies .,"Placement and removal (if performed) of applicator into breast for intraoperative radiation therapy, add-on to primary breast procedure",HCPS +C9727,Other Therapeutic Services and Supplies .,Insertion of implants into the soft palate; minimum of three implants,HCPS +C9728,Other Therapeutic Services and Supplies .,"Placement of interstitial device(s) for radiation therapy/surgery guidance (e.g., fiducial markers, dosimeter), for other than the following sites (any approach): abdomen, pelvis, prostate, retroperitoneum, thorax, single or multiple",HCPS +C9733,Other Therapeutic Services and Supplies .,Non-ophthalmic fluorescent vascular angiography,HCPS +C9734,Other Therapeutic Services and Supplies .,"Focused ultrasound ablation/therapeutic intervention, other than uterine leiomyomata, with magnetic resonance (MR) guidance",HCPS +C9738,Other Therapeutic Services and Supplies .,Adjunctive blue light cystoscopy with fluorescent imaging agent (list separately in addition to code for primary procedure),HCPS +C9739,Other Therapeutic Services and Supplies .,"Cystourethroscopy, with insertion of transprostatic implant; 1 to 3 implants",HCPS +C9740,Other Therapeutic Services and Supplies .,"Cystourethroscopy, with insertion of transprostatic implant; 4 or more implants",HCPS +C9751,Other Therapeutic Services and Supplies .,"Bronchoscopy, rigid or flexible, transbronchial ablation of lesion(s) by microwave energy, including fluoroscopic guidance, when performed, with computed tomography acquisition(s) and 3-d rendering, computer-assisted, image-guided navigation, and endobronchial ultrasound (ebus) guided transtracheal and/or transbronchial sampling (eg, aspiration[s]/biopsy[ies]) and all mediastinal and/or hilar lymph node stations or structures and therapeutic intervention(s)",HCPS +C9756,Other Therapeutic Services and Supplies .,Intraoperative near-infrared fluorescence lymphatic mapping of lymph node(s) (sentinel or tumor draining) with administration of indocyanine green (ICG) (List separately in addition to code for primary procedure),HCPS +C9757,Other Therapeutic Services and Supplies .,"Laminotomy (hemilaminectomy), with decompression of nerve root(s), including partial facetectomy, foraminotomy and excision of herniated intervertebral disc, and repair of annular defect with implantation of bone anchored annular closure device, including annular defect measurement, alignment and sizing assessment, and image guidance; 1 interspace, lumbar",HCPS +C9758,Other Therapeutic Services and Supplies .,"Blinded procedure for nyha class iii/iv heart failure; transcatheter implantation of interatrial shunt or placebo control, including right heart catheterization, trans-esophageal echocardiography (tee)/intracardiac echocardiography (ice), and all imaging with or without guidance (e.g., ultrasound, fluoroscopy), performed in an approved investigational device exemption (ide) study",HCPS +C9759,Other Therapeutic Services and Supplies .,"Transcatheter intraoperative blood vessel microinfusion(s) (e.g., intraluminal, vascular wall and/or perivascular) therapy, any vessel, including radiological supervision and interpretation, when performed",HCPS +C9760,Other Therapeutic Services and Supplies .,"Non-randomized, non-blinded procedure for nyha class ii, iii, iv heart failure; transcatheter implantation of interatrial shunt, including right and left heart catheterization, transeptal puncture, trans-esophageal echocardiography (tee)/intracardiac echocardiography (ice), and all imaging with or without guidance (e.g., ultrasound, fluoroscopy), performed in an approved investigational device exemption (ide) study",HCPS +C9761,Other Therapeutic Services and Supplies .,"Cystourethroscopy, with ureteroscopy and/or pyeloscopy, with lithotripsy, and ureteral catheterization for steerable vacuum aspiration of the kidney, collecting system, ureter, bladder, and urethra if applicable (must use a steerable ureteral catheter)",HCPS +C9762,Other Therapeutic Services and Supplies .,"Cardiac magnetic resonance imaging for morphology and function, quantification of segmental dysfunction; with strain imaging",HCPS +C9763,Other Therapeutic Services and Supplies .,"Cardiac magnetic resonance imaging for morphology and function, quantification of segmental dysfunction; with stress imaging",HCPS +C9764,Other Therapeutic Services and Supplies .,"Revascularization, endovascular, open or percutaneous, lower extremity artery(ies), except tibial/peroneal; with intravascular lithotripsy, includes angioplasty within the same vessel(s), when performed",HCPS +C9765,Other Therapeutic Services and Supplies .,"Revascularization, endovascular, open or percutaneous, lower extremity artery(ies), except tibial/peroneal; with intravascular lithotripsy, and transluminal stent placement(s), includes angioplasty within the same vessel(s), when performed",HCPS +C9766,Other Therapeutic Services and Supplies .,"Revascularization, endovascular, open or percutaneous, lower extremity artery(ies), except tibial/peroneal; with intravascular lithotripsy and atherectomy, includes angioplasty within the same vessel(s), when performed",HCPS +C9767,Other Therapeutic Services and Supplies .,"Revascularization, endovascular, open or percutaneous, lower extremity artery(ies), except tibial/peroneal; with intravascular lithotripsy and transluminal stent placement(s), and atherectomy, includes angioplasty within the same vessel(s), when performed",HCPS +C9768,Other Therapeutic Services and Supplies .,Endoscopic ultrasound-guided direct measurement of hepatic portosystemic pressure gradient by any method (list separately in addition to code for primary procedure),HCPS +C9769,Other Therapeutic Services and Supplies .,"Cystourethroscopy, with insertion of temporary prostatic implant/stent with fixation/anchor and incisional struts",HCPS +C9772,Other Therapeutic Services and Supplies .,"Revascularization, endovascular, open or percutaneous, tibial/peroneal artery(ies), with intravascular lithotripsy, includes angioplasty within the same vessel (s), when performed",HCPS +C9773,Other Therapeutic Services and Supplies .,"Revascularization, endovascular, open or percutaneous, tibial/peroneal artery(ies); with intravascular lithotripsy, and transluminal stent placement(s), includes angioplasty within the same vessel(s), when performed",HCPS +C9774,Other Therapeutic Services and Supplies .,"Revascularization, endovascular, open or percutaneous, tibial/peroneal artery(ies); with intravascular lithotripsy and atherectomy, includes angioplasty within the same vessel (s), when performed",HCPS +C9775,Other Therapeutic Services and Supplies .,"Revascularization, endovascular, open or percutaneous, tibial/peroneal artery(ies); with intravascular lithotripsy and transluminal stent placement(s), and atherectomy, includes angioplasty within the same vessel (s), when performed",HCPS +C9776,Other Therapeutic Services and Supplies .,"Intraoperative near-infrared fluorescence imaging of major extra-hepatic bile duct(s) (e.g., cystic duct, common bile duct and common hepatic duct) with intravenous administration of indocyanine green (icg) (list separately in addition to code for primary procedure)",HCPS +C9777,Other Therapeutic Services and Supplies .,"Esophageal mucosal integrity testing by electrical impedance, transoral, includes esophagoscopy or esophagogastroduodenoscopy",HCPS +C9778,Other Therapeutic Services and Supplies .,"Colpopexy, vaginal; minimally invasive extra-peritoneal approach (sacrospinous)",HCPS +C9779,Other Therapeutic Services and Supplies .,"Endoscopic submucosal dissection (esd), including endoscopy or colonoscopy, mucosal closure, when performed",HCPS +C9780,Other Therapeutic Services and Supplies .,"Insertion of central venous catheter through central venous occlusion via inferior and superior approaches (e.g., inside-out technique), including imaging guidance",HCPS +C9781,Other Therapeutic Services and Supplies .,"Arthroscopy, shoulder, surgical; with implantation of subacromial spacer (e.g., balloon), includes debridement (e.g., limited or extensive), subacromial decompression, acromioplasty, and biceps tenodesis when performed",HCPS +C9782,Other Therapeutic Services and Supplies .,"Blinded procedure for new york heart association (nyha) class ii or iii heart failure, or canadian cardiovascular society (ccs) class iii or iv chronic refractory angina; transcatheter intramyocardial transplantation of autologous bone marrow cells (e.g., mononuclear) or placebo control, autologous bone marrow harvesting and preparation for transplantation, left heart catheterization including ventriculography, all laboratory services, and all imaging with or without guidance (e.g., transthoracic echocardiography, ultrasound, fluoroscopy), performed in an approved investigational device exemption (ide) study",HCPS +C9783,Other Therapeutic Services and Supplies .,"Blinded procedure for transcatheter implantation of coronary sinus reduction device or placebo control, including vascular access and closure, right heart catherization, venous and coronary sinus angiography, imaging guidance and supervision and interpretation when performed in an approved investigational device exemption (ide) study",HCPS +C9784,Other Therapeutic Services and Supplies .,"Gastric restrictive procedure, endoscopic sleeve gastroplasty, with esophagogastroduodenoscopy and intraluminal tube insertion, if performed, including all system and tissue anchoring components",HCPS +C9785,Other Therapeutic Services and Supplies .,"Endoscopic outlet reduction, gastric pouch application, with endoscopy and intraluminal tube insertion, if performed, including all system and tissue anchoring components",HCPS +C9786,Other Therapeutic Services and Supplies .,"Echocardiography image post processing for computer aided detection of heart failure with preserved ejection fraction, including interpretation and report",HCPS +C9787,Other Therapeutic Services and Supplies .,Gastric electrophysiology mapping with simultaneous patient symptom profiling,HCPS +C9789,Other Therapeutic Services and Supplies .,"Instillation of anti-neoplastic pharmacologic/biologic agent into renal pelvis, any method, including all imaging guidance, including volumetric measurement if performed",HCPS +C9790,Other Therapeutic Services and Supplies .,"Histotripsy (ie, non-thermal ablation via acoustic energy delivery) of malignant renal tissue, including image guidance",HCPS +C9791,Other Therapeutic Services and Supplies .,"Magnetic resonance imaging with inhaled hyperpolarized xenon-129 contrast agent, chest, including preparation and administration of agent",HCPS +C9792,Other Therapeutic Services and Supplies .,"Blinded or nonblinded procedure for symptomatic new york heart association (nyha) class ii, iii, iva heart failure; transcatheter implantation of left atrial to coronary sinus shunt using jugular vein access, including all imaging necessary to intra procedurally map the coronary sinus for optimal shunt placement (e.g., tee or ice ultrasound, fluoroscopy), performed under general anesthesia in an approved investigational device exemption (ide) study)",HCPS +C9793,Other Therapeutic Services and Supplies .,"3d predictive model generation for pre-planning of a cardiac procedure, using data from cardiac computed tomographic angiography with report",HCPS +C9794,Other Therapeutic Services and Supplies .,"Therapeutic radiology simulation-aided field setting; complex, including acquisition of pet and ct imaging data required for radiopharmaceutical-directed radiation therapy treatment planning (i.e., modeling)",HCPS +C9795,Other Therapeutic Services and Supplies .,"Stereotactic body radiation therapy, treatment delivery, per fraction to 1 or more lesions, including image guidance and real-time positron emissions-based delivery adjustments to 1 or more lesions, entire course not to exceed 5 fractions",HCPS +C9898,Other Therapeutic Services and Supplies .,Radiolabeled product provided during a hospital inpatient stay,HCPS +C9899,Other Therapeutic Services and Supplies .,"Implanted prosthetic device, payable only for inpatients who do not have inpatient coverage",HCPS +E0100,Walking Aids and Attachments .,"Cane, includes canes of all materials, adjustable or fixed, with tip",HCPS +E0105,Walking Aids and Attachments .,"Cane, quad or three prong, includes canes of all materials, adjustable or fixed, with tips",HCPS +E0110,Walking Aids and Attachments .,"Crutches, forearm, includes crutches of various materials, adjustable or fixed, pair, complete with tips and handgrips",HCPS +E0111,Walking Aids and Attachments .,"Crutch forearm, includes crutches of various materials, adjustable or fixed, each, with tip and handgrips",HCPS +E0112,Walking Aids and Attachments .,"Crutches underarm, wood, adjustable or fixed, pair, with pads, tips and handgrips",HCPS +E0113,Walking Aids and Attachments .,"Crutch underarm, wood, adjustable or fixed, each, with pad, tip and handgrip",HCPS +E0114,Walking Aids and Attachments .,"Crutches underarm, other than wood, adjustable or fixed, pair, with pads, tips and handgrips",HCPS +E0116,Walking Aids and Attachments .,"Crutch, underarm, other than wood, adjustable or fixed, with pad, tip, handgrip, with or without shock absorber, each",HCPS +E0117,Walking Aids and Attachments .,"Crutch, underarm, articulating, spring assisted, each",HCPS +E0118,Walking Aids and Attachments .,"Crutch substitute, lower leg platform, with or without wheels, each",HCPS +E0130,Walking Aids and Attachments .,"Walker, rigid (pickup), adjustable or fixed height",HCPS +E0135,Walking Aids and Attachments .,"Walker, folding (pickup), adjustable or fixed height",HCPS +E0140,Walking Aids and Attachments .,"Walker, with trunk support, adjustable or fixed height, any type",HCPS +E0141,Walking Aids and Attachments .,"Walker, rigid, wheeled, adjustable or fixed height",HCPS +E0143,Walking Aids and Attachments .,"Walker, folding, wheeled, adjustable or fixed height",HCPS +E0144,Walking Aids and Attachments .,"Walker, enclosed, four sided framed, rigid or folding, wheeled with posterior seat",HCPS +E0147,Walking Aids and Attachments .,"Walker, heavy duty, multiple braking system, variable wheel resistance",HCPS +E0148,Walking Aids and Attachments .,"Walker, heavy duty, without wheels, rigid or folding, any type, each",HCPS +E0149,Walking Aids and Attachments .,"Walker, heavy duty, wheeled, rigid or folding, any type",HCPS +E0153,Walking Aids and Attachments .,"Platform attachment, forearm crutch, each",HCPS +E0154,Walking Aids and Attachments .,"Platform attachment, walker, each",HCPS +E0155,Walking Aids and Attachments .,"Wheel attachment, rigid pick-up walker, per pair",HCPS +E0156,Walking Aids and Attachments .,"Seat attachment, walker",HCPS +E0157,Walking Aids and Attachments .,"Crutch attachment, walker, each",HCPS +E0158,Walking Aids and Attachments .,"Leg extensions for walker, per set of four (4)",HCPS +E0159,Walking Aids and Attachments .,"Brake attachment for wheeled walker, replacement, each",HCPS +E0160,Sitz Bath/Equipment .,"Sitz type bath or equipment, portable, used with or without commode",HCPS +E0161,Sitz Bath/Equipment .,"Sitz type bath or equipment, portable, used with or without commode, with faucet attachment/s",HCPS +E0162,Sitz Bath/Equipment .,Sitz bath chair,HCPS +E0163,Commode Chair and Supplies .,"Commode chair, mobile or stationary, with fixed arms",HCPS +E0165,Commode Chair and Supplies .,"Commode chair, mobile or stationary, with detachable arms",HCPS +E0167,Commode Chair and Supplies .,"Pail or pan for use with commode chair, replacement only",HCPS +E0168,Commode Chair and Supplies .,"Commode chair, extra wide and/or heavy duty, stationary or mobile, with or without arms, any type, each",HCPS +E0170,Commode Chair and Supplies .,"Commode chair with integrated seat lift mechanism, electric, any type",HCPS +E0171,Commode Chair and Supplies .,"Commode chair with integrated seat lift mechanism, non-electric, any type",HCPS +E0172,Commode Chair and Supplies .,"Seat lift mechanism placed over or on top of toilet, any type",HCPS +E0175,Commode Chair and Supplies .,"Foot rest, for use with commode chair, each",HCPS +E0181,"Pressure Mattresses, Pads, and Other Supplies .","Powered pressure reducing mattress overlay/pad, alternating, with pump, includes heavy duty",HCPS +E0182,"Pressure Mattresses, Pads, and Other Supplies .","Pump for alternating pressure pad, for replacement only",HCPS +E0183,"Pressure Mattresses, Pads, and Other Supplies .","Powered pressure reducing underlay/pad, alternating, with pump, includes heavy duty",HCPS +E0184,"Pressure Mattresses, Pads, and Other Supplies .",Dry pressure mattress,HCPS +E0185,"Pressure Mattresses, Pads, and Other Supplies .","Gel or gel-like pressure pad for mattress, standard mattress length and width",HCPS +E0186,"Pressure Mattresses, Pads, and Other Supplies .",Air pressure mattress,HCPS +E0187,"Pressure Mattresses, Pads, and Other Supplies .",Water pressure mattress,HCPS +E0188,"Pressure Mattresses, Pads, and Other Supplies .",Synthetic sheepskin pad,HCPS +E0189,"Pressure Mattresses, Pads, and Other Supplies .","Lambswool sheepskin pad, any size",HCPS +E0190,"Pressure Mattresses, Pads, and Other Supplies .","Positioning cushion/pillow/wedge, any shape or size, includes all components and accessories",HCPS +E0191,"Pressure Mattresses, Pads, and Other Supplies .","Heel or elbow protector, each",HCPS +E0193,"Pressure Mattresses, Pads, and Other Supplies .",Powered air flotation bed (low air loss therapy),HCPS +E0194,"Pressure Mattresses, Pads, and Other Supplies .",Air fluidized bed,HCPS +E0196,"Pressure Mattresses, Pads, and Other Supplies .",Gel pressure mattress,HCPS +E0197,"Pressure Mattresses, Pads, and Other Supplies .","Air pressure pad for mattress, standard mattress length and width",HCPS +E0198,"Pressure Mattresses, Pads, and Other Supplies .","Water pressure pad for mattress, standard mattress length and width",HCPS +E0199,"Pressure Mattresses, Pads, and Other Supplies .","Dry pressure pad for mattress, standard mattress length and width",HCPS +E0200,"Heat, Cold, and Light Therapies .","Heat lamp, without stand (table model), includes bulb, or infrared element",HCPS +E0202,"Heat, Cold, and Light Therapies .",Phototherapy (bilirubin) light with photometer,HCPS +E0203,"Heat, Cold, and Light Therapies .","Therapeutic lightbox, minimum 10, 000 lux, table top model",HCPS +E0205,"Heat, Cold, and Light Therapies .","Heat lamp, with stand, includes bulb, or infrared element",HCPS +E0210,"Heat, Cold, and Light Therapies .","Electric heat pad, standard",HCPS +E0215,"Heat, Cold, and Light Therapies .","Electric heat pad, moist",HCPS +E0217,"Heat, Cold, and Light Therapies .",Water circulating heat pad with pump,HCPS +E0218,"Heat, Cold, and Light Therapies .","Fluid circulating cold pad with pump, any type",HCPS +E0221,"Heat, Cold, and Light Therapies .",Infrared heating pad system,HCPS +E0225,"Heat, Cold, and Light Therapies .","Hydrocollator unit, includes pads",HCPS +E0231,"Heat, Cold, and Light Therapies .","Non-contact wound warming device (temperature control unit, AC adapter and power cord) for use with warming card and wound cover",HCPS +E0232,"Heat, Cold, and Light Therapies .",Warming card for use with the non contact wound warming device and non contact wound warming wound cover,HCPS +E0235,"Heat, Cold, and Light Therapies .","Paraffin bath unit, portable (see medical supply code A4265 for paraffin)",HCPS +E0236,"Heat, Cold, and Light Therapies .",Pump for water circulating pad,HCPS +E0239,"Heat, Cold, and Light Therapies .","Hydrocollator unit, portable",HCPS +E0240,Bathing Supplies .,"Bath/shower chair, with or without wheels, any size",HCPS +E0241,Bathing Supplies .,"Bath tub wall rail, each",HCPS +E0242,Bathing Supplies .,"Bath tub rail, floor base",HCPS +E0243,Bathing Supplies .,"Toilet rail, each",HCPS +E0244,Bathing Supplies .,Raised toilet seat,HCPS +E0245,Bathing Supplies .,Tub stool or bench,HCPS +E0246,Bathing Supplies .,Transfer tub rail attachment,HCPS +E0247,Bathing Supplies .,Transfer bench for tub or toilet with or without commode opening,HCPS +E0248,Bathing Supplies .,"Transfer bench, heavy duty, for tub or toilet with or without commode opening",HCPS +E0249,Bathing Supplies .,"Pad for water circulating heat unit, for replacement only",HCPS +E0250,Hospital Beds and Associated Supplies .,"Hospital bed, fixed height, with any type side rails, with mattress",HCPS +E0251,Hospital Beds and Associated Supplies .,"Hospital bed, fixed height, with any type side rails, without mattress",HCPS +E0255,Hospital Beds and Associated Supplies .,"Hospital bed, variable height, hi-lo, with any type side rails, with mattress",HCPS +E0256,Hospital Beds and Associated Supplies .,"Hospital bed, variable height, hi-lo, with any type side rails, without mattress",HCPS +E0260,Hospital Beds and Associated Supplies .,"Hospital bed, semi-electric (head and foot adjustment), with any type side rails, with mattress",HCPS +E0261,Hospital Beds and Associated Supplies .,"Hospital bed, semi-electric (head and foot adjustment), with any type side rails, without mattress",HCPS +E0265,Hospital Beds and Associated Supplies .,"Hospital bed, total electric (head, foot and height adjustments), with any type side rails, with mattress",HCPS +E0266,Hospital Beds and Associated Supplies .,"Hospital bed, total electric (head, foot and height adjustments), with any type side rails, without mattress",HCPS +E0270,Hospital Beds and Associated Supplies .,"Hospital bed, institutional type includes: oscillating, circulating and stryker frame, with mattress",HCPS +E0271,Hospital Beds and Associated Supplies .,"Mattress, innerspring",HCPS +E0272,Hospital Beds and Associated Supplies .,"Mattress, foam rubber",HCPS +E0273,Hospital Beds and Associated Supplies .,Bed board,HCPS +E0274,Hospital Beds and Associated Supplies .,Over-bed table,HCPS +E0275,Hospital Beds and Associated Supplies .,"Bed pan, standard, metal or plastic",HCPS +E0276,Hospital Beds and Associated Supplies .,"Bed pan, fracture, metal or plastic",HCPS +E0277,Hospital Beds and Associated Supplies .,Powered pressure-reducing air mattress,HCPS +E0280,Hospital Beds and Associated Supplies .,"Bed cradle, any type",HCPS +E0290,Hospital Beds and Associated Supplies .,"Hospital bed, fixed height, without side rails, with mattress",HCPS +E0291,Hospital Beds and Associated Supplies .,"Hospital bed, fixed height, without side rails, without mattress",HCPS +E0292,Hospital Beds and Associated Supplies .,"Hospital bed, variable height, hi-lo, without side rails, with mattress",HCPS +E0293,Hospital Beds and Associated Supplies .,"Hospital bed, variable height, hi-lo, without side rails, without mattress",HCPS +E0294,Hospital Beds and Associated Supplies .,"Hospital bed, semi-electric (head and foot adjustment), without side rails, with mattress",HCPS +E0295,Hospital Beds and Associated Supplies .,"Hospital bed, semi-electric (head and foot adjustment), without side rails, without mattress",HCPS +E0296,Hospital Beds and Associated Supplies .,"Hospital bed, total electric (head, foot and height adjustments). without side rails, with mattress",HCPS +E0297,Hospital Beds and Associated Supplies .,"Hospital bed, total electric (head, foot and height adjustments), without side rails, without mattress",HCPS +E0300,Hospital Beds and Associated Supplies .,"Pediatric crib, hospital grade, fully enclosed, with or without top enclosure",HCPS +E0301,Hospital Beds and Associated Supplies .,"Hospital bed, heavy duty, extra wide, with weight capacity greater than 350 pounds, but less than or equal to 600 pounds, with any type side rails, without mattress",HCPS +E0302,Hospital Beds and Associated Supplies .,"Hospital bed, extra heavy duty, extra wide, with weight capacity greater than 600 pounds, with any type side rails, without mattress",HCPS +E0303,Hospital Beds and Associated Supplies .,"Hospital bed, heavy duty, extra wide, with weight capacity greater than 350 pounds, but less than or equal to 600 pounds, with any type side rails, with mattress",HCPS +E0304,Hospital Beds and Associated Supplies .,"Hospital bed, extra heavy duty, extra wide, with weight capacity greater than 600 pounds, with any type side rails, with mattress",HCPS +E0305,Hospital Beds and Associated Supplies .,"Bed side rails, half length",HCPS +E0310,Hospital Beds and Associated Supplies .,"Bed side rails, full length",HCPS +E0315,Hospital Beds and Associated Supplies .,"Bed accessory: board, table, or support device, any type",HCPS +E0316,Hospital Beds and Associated Supplies .,"Safety enclosure frame/canopy for use with hospital bed, any type",HCPS +E0325,Hospital Beds and Associated Supplies .,"Urinal; male, jug-type, any material",HCPS +E0326,Hospital Beds and Associated Supplies .,"Urinal; female, jug-type, any material",HCPS +E0328,Hospital Beds and Associated Supplies .,"Hospital bed, pediatric, manual, 360 degree side enclosures, top of headboard, footboard and side rails up to 24 inches above the spring, includes mattress",HCPS +E0329,Hospital Beds and Associated Supplies .,"Hospital bed, pediatric, electric or semi-electric, 360 degree side enclosures, top of headboard, footboard and side rails up to 24 inches above the spring, includes mattress",HCPS +E0350,Hospital Beds and Associated Supplies .,Control unit for electronic bowel irrigation/evacuation system,HCPS +E0352,Hospital Beds and Associated Supplies .,"Disposable pack (water reservoir bag, speculum, valving mechanism and collection bag/box) for use with the electronic bowel irrigation/evacuation system",HCPS +E0370,Hospital Beds and Associated Supplies .,Air pressure elevator for heel,HCPS +E0371,Hospital Beds and Associated Supplies .,"Nonpowered advanced pressure reducing overlay for mattress, standard mattress length and width",HCPS +E0372,Hospital Beds and Associated Supplies .,"Powered air overlay for mattress, standard mattress length and width",HCPS +E0373,Hospital Beds and Associated Supplies .,Nonpowered advanced pressure reducing mattress,HCPS +E0424,Oxygen Delivery Systems and Related Supplies .,"Stationary compressed gaseous oxygen system, rental; includes container, contents, regulator, flowmeter, humidifier, nebulizer, cannula or mask, and tubing",HCPS +E0425,Oxygen Delivery Systems and Related Supplies .,"Stationary compressed gas system, purchase; includes regulator, flowmeter, humidifier, nebulizer, cannula or mask, and tubing",HCPS +E0430,Oxygen Delivery Systems and Related Supplies .,"Portable gaseous oxygen system, purchase; includes regulator, flowmeter, humidifier, cannula or mask, and tubing",HCPS +E0431,Oxygen Delivery Systems and Related Supplies .,"Portable gaseous oxygen system, rental; includes portable container, regulator, flowmeter, humidifier, cannula or mask, and tubing",HCPS +E0433,Oxygen Delivery Systems and Related Supplies .,"Portable liquid oxygen system, rental; home liquefier used to fill portable liquid oxygen containers, includes portable containers, regulator, flowmeter, humidifier, cannula or mask and tubing, with or without supply reservoir and contents gauge",HCPS +E0434,Oxygen Delivery Systems and Related Supplies .,"Portable liquid oxygen system, rental; includes portable container, supply reservoir, humidifier, flowmeter, refill adaptor, contents gauge, cannula or mask, and tubing",HCPS +E0435,Oxygen Delivery Systems and Related Supplies .,"Portable liquid oxygen system, purchase; includes portable container, supply reservoir, flowmeter, humidifier, contents gauge, cannula or mask, tubing and refill adaptor",HCPS +E0439,Oxygen Delivery Systems and Related Supplies .,"Stationary liquid oxygen system, rental; includes container, contents, regulator, flowmeter, humidifier, nebulizer, cannula or mask, & tubing",HCPS +E0440,Oxygen Delivery Systems and Related Supplies .,"Stationary liquid oxygen system, purchase; includes use of reservoir, contents indicator, regulator, flowmeter, humidifier, nebulizer, cannula or mask, and tubing",HCPS +E0441,Oxygen Delivery Systems and Related Supplies .,"Stationary oxygen contents, gaseous, 1 month's supply = 1 unit",HCPS +E0442,Oxygen Delivery Systems and Related Supplies .,"Stationary oxygen contents, liquid, 1 month's supply = 1 unit",HCPS +E0443,Oxygen Delivery Systems and Related Supplies .,"Portable oxygen contents, gaseous, 1 month's supply = 1 unit",HCPS +E0444,Oxygen Delivery Systems and Related Supplies .,"Portable oxygen contents, liquid, 1 month's supply = 1 unit",HCPS +E0445,Oxygen Delivery Systems and Related Supplies .,Oximeter device for measuring blood oxygen levels noninvasively,HCPS +E0446,Oxygen Delivery Systems and Related Supplies .,"Topical oxygen delivery system, not otherwise specified, includes all supplies and accessories",HCPS +E0447,Oxygen Delivery Systems and Related Supplies .,"Portable oxygen contents, liquid, 1 month's supply = 1 unit, prescribed amount at rest or nighttime exceeds 4 liters per minute (lpm)",HCPS +E0455,Oxygen Delivery Systems and Related Supplies .,"Oxygen tent, excluding croup or pediatric tents",HCPS +E0457,Oxygen Delivery Systems and Related Supplies .,Chest shell (cuirass),HCPS +E0459,Oxygen Delivery Systems and Related Supplies .,Chest wrap,HCPS +E0462,Oxygen Delivery Systems and Related Supplies .,Rocking bed with or without side rails,HCPS +E0465,Oxygen Delivery Systems and Related Supplies .,"Home ventilator, any type, used with invasive interface, (e.g., tracheostomy tube)",HCPS +E0466,Oxygen Delivery Systems and Related Supplies .,"Home ventilator, any type, used with non-invasive interface, (e.g., mask, chest shell)",HCPS +E0467,Oxygen Delivery Systems and Related Supplies .,"Home ventilator, multi-function respiratory device, also performs any or all of the additional functions of oxygen concentration, drug nebulization, aspiration, and cough stimulation, includes all accessories, components and supplies for all functions",HCPS +E0470,Oxygen Delivery Systems and Related Supplies .,"Respiratory assist device, bi-level pressure capability, without backup rate feature, used with noninvasive interface, e.g., nasal or facial mask (intermittent assist device with continuous positive airway pressure device)",HCPS +E0471,Oxygen Delivery Systems and Related Supplies .,"Respiratory assist device, bi-level pressure capability, with back-up rate feature, used with noninvasive interface, e.g., nasal or facial mask (intermittent assist device with continuous positive airway pressure device)",HCPS +E0472,Oxygen Delivery Systems and Related Supplies .,"Respiratory assist device, bi-level pressure capability, with backup rate feature, used with invasive interface, e.g., tracheostomy tube (intermittent assist device with continuous positive airway pressure device)",HCPS +E0480,Oxygen Delivery Systems and Related Supplies .,"Percussor, electric or pneumatic, home model",HCPS +E0481,Oxygen Delivery Systems and Related Supplies .,Intrapulmonary percussive ventilation system and related accessories,HCPS +E0482,Oxygen Delivery Systems and Related Supplies .,"Cough stimulating device, alternating positive and negative airway pressure",HCPS +E0483,Oxygen Delivery Systems and Related Supplies .,"High frequency chest wall oscillation system, with full anterior and/or posterior thoracic region receiving simultaneous external oscillation, includes all accessories and supplies, each",HCPS +E0484,Oxygen Delivery Systems and Related Supplies .,"Oscillatory positive expiratory pressure device, non-electric, any type, each",HCPS +E0485,Oxygen Delivery Systems and Related Supplies .,"Oral device/appliance used to reduce upper airway collapsibility, adjustable or non-adjustable, prefabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +E0486,Oxygen Delivery Systems and Related Supplies .,"Oral device/appliance used to reduce upper airway collapsibility, adjustable or non-adjustable, custom fabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +E0487,Oxygen Delivery Systems and Related Supplies .,"Spirometer, electronic, includes all accessories",HCPS +E0490,Oxygen Delivery Systems and Related Supplies .,"Power source and control electronics unit for oral device/appliance for neuromuscular electrical stimulation of the tongue muscle, controlled by hardware remote",HCPS +E0491,Oxygen Delivery Systems and Related Supplies .,"Oral device/appliance for neuromuscular electrical stimulation of the tongue muscle, used in conjunction with the power source and control electronics unit, controlled by hardware remote, 90-day supply",HCPS +E0492,Oxygen Delivery Systems and Related Supplies .,"Power source and control electronics unit for oral device/appliance for neuromuscular electrical stimulation of the tongue muscle, controlled by phone application",HCPS +E0493,Oxygen Delivery Systems and Related Supplies .,"Oral device/appliance for neuromuscular electrical stimulation of the tongue muscle, used in conjunction with the power source and control electronics unit, controlled by phone application, 90-day supply",HCPS +E0500,Intermittent Positive Pressure Breathing Devices .,"IPPB machine, all types, with built-in nebulization; manual or automatic valves; internal or external power source",HCPS +E0530,Electronic Positional Obstructive Sleep Apnea Treatment.,"Electronic positional obstructive sleep apnea treatment, with sensor, includes all components and accessories, any type",HCPS +E0550,Humidifiers and Nebulizers with Related Equipment .,"Humidifier, durable for extensive supplemental humidification during IPPB treatments or oxygen delivery",HCPS +E0555,Humidifiers and Nebulizers with Related Equipment .,"Humidifier, durable, glass or autoclavable plastic bottle type, for use with regulator or flowmeter",HCPS +E0560,Humidifiers and Nebulizers with Related Equipment .,"Humidifier, durable for supplemental humidification during IPPB treatment or oxygen delivery",HCPS +E0561,Humidifiers and Nebulizers with Related Equipment .,"Humidifier, non-heated, used with positive airway pressure device",HCPS +E0562,Humidifiers and Nebulizers with Related Equipment .,"Humidifier, heated, used with positive airway pressure device",HCPS +E0565,Humidifiers and Nebulizers with Related Equipment .,"Compressor, air power source for equipment which is not self- contained or cylinder driven",HCPS +E0570,Humidifiers and Nebulizers with Related Equipment .,"Nebulizer, with compressor",HCPS +E0572,Humidifiers and Nebulizers with Related Equipment .,"Aerosol compressor, adjustable pressure, light duty for intermittent use",HCPS +E0574,Humidifiers and Nebulizers with Related Equipment .,Ultrasonic/electronic aerosol generator with small volume nebulizer,HCPS +E0575,Humidifiers and Nebulizers with Related Equipment .,"Nebulizer, ultrasonic, large volume",HCPS +E0580,Humidifiers and Nebulizers with Related Equipment .,"Nebulizer, durable, glass or autoclavable plastic, bottle type, for use with regulator or flowmeter",HCPS +E0585,Humidifiers and Nebulizers with Related Equipment .,"Nebulizer, with compressor and heater",HCPS +E0600,Humidifiers and Nebulizers with Related Equipment .,"Respiratory suction pump, home model, portable or stationary, electric",HCPS +E0601,Humidifiers and Nebulizers with Related Equipment .,Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device,HCPS +E0602,Breast Pumps .,"Breast pump, manual, any type",HCPS +E0603,Breast Pumps .,"Breast pump, electric (AC and/or DC), any type",HCPS +E0604,Breast Pumps .,"Breast pump, hospital grade, electric (AC and / or DC), any type",HCPS +E0605,Other Breathing Aids .,"Vaporizer, room type",HCPS +E0606,Other Breathing Aids .,Postural drainage board,HCPS +E0607,Monitoring Equipment .,Home blood glucose monitor,HCPS +E0610,Monitoring Equipment .,"Pacemaker monitor, self-contained, (checks battery depletion, includes audible and visible check systems)",HCPS +E0615,Monitoring Equipment .,"Pacemaker monitor, self contained, checks battery depletion and other pacemaker components, includes digital/visible check systems",HCPS +E0616,Monitoring Equipment .,"Implantable cardiac event recorder with memory, activator and programmer",HCPS +E0617,Monitoring Equipment .,External defibrillator with integrated electrocardiogram analysis,HCPS +E0618,Monitoring Equipment .,"Apnea monitor, without recording feature",HCPS +E0619,Monitoring Equipment .,"Apnea monitor, with recording feature",HCPS +E0620,Monitoring Equipment .,"Skin piercing device for collection of capillary blood, laser, each",HCPS +E0621,Patient Lifts and Support Systems .,"Sling or seat, patient lift, canvas or nylon",HCPS +E0625,Patient Lifts and Support Systems .,"Patient lift, bathroom or toilet, not otherwise classified",HCPS +E0627,Patient Lifts and Support Systems .,"Seat lift mechanism, electric, any type",HCPS +E0629,Patient Lifts and Support Systems .,"Seat lift mechanism, non-electric, any type",HCPS +E0630,Patient Lifts and Support Systems .,"Patient lift, hydraulic or mechanical, includes any seat, sling, strap(s) or pad(s)",HCPS +E0635,Patient Lifts and Support Systems .,"Patient lift, electric with seat or sling",HCPS +E0636,Patient Lifts and Support Systems .,"Multipositional patient support system, with integrated lift, patient accessible controls",HCPS +E0637,Patient Lifts and Support Systems .,"Combination sit to stand frame/table system, any size including pediatric, with seat lift feature, with or without wheels",HCPS +E0638,Patient Lifts and Support Systems .,"Standing frame/table system, one position (e.g., upright, supine or prone stander), any size including pediatric, with or without wheels",HCPS +E0639,Patient Lifts and Support Systems .,"Patient lift, moveable from room to room with disassembly and reassembly, includes all components/accessories",HCPS +E0640,Patient Lifts and Support Systems .,"Patient lift, fixed system, includes all components/accessories",HCPS +E0641,Patient Lifts and Support Systems .,"Standing frame/table system, multi-position (e.g., 3-way stander), any size including pediatric, with or without wheels",HCPS +E0642,Patient Lifts and Support Systems .,"Standing frame/table system, mobile (dynamic stander), any size including pediatric",HCPS +E0650,Pneumatic Compressors and Appliances .,"Pneumatic compressor, non-segmental home model",HCPS +E0651,Pneumatic Compressors and Appliances .,"Pneumatic compressor, segmental home model without calibrated gradient pressure",HCPS +E0652,Pneumatic Compressors and Appliances .,"Pneumatic compressor, segmental home model with calibrated gradient pressure",HCPS +E0655,Pneumatic Compressors and Appliances .,"Non-segmental pneumatic appliance for use with pneumatic compressor, half arm",HCPS +E0656,Pneumatic Compressors and Appliances .,"Segmental pneumatic appliance for use with pneumatic compressor, trunk",HCPS +E0657,Pneumatic Compressors and Appliances .,"Segmental pneumatic appliance for use with pneumatic compressor, chest",HCPS +E0660,Pneumatic Compressors and Appliances .,"Non-segmental pneumatic appliance for use with pneumatic compressor, full leg",HCPS +E0665,Pneumatic Compressors and Appliances .,"Non-segmental pneumatic appliance for use with pneumatic compressor, full arm",HCPS +E0666,Pneumatic Compressors and Appliances .,"Non-segmental pneumatic appliance for use with pneumatic compressor, half leg",HCPS +E0667,Pneumatic Compressors and Appliances .,"Segmental pneumatic appliance for use with pneumatic compressor, full leg",HCPS +E0668,Pneumatic Compressors and Appliances .,"Segmental pneumatic appliance for use with pneumatic compressor, full arm",HCPS +E0669,Pneumatic Compressors and Appliances .,"Segmental pneumatic appliance for use with pneumatic compressor, half leg",HCPS +E0670,Pneumatic Compressors and Appliances .,"Segmental pneumatic appliance for use with pneumatic compressor, integrated, 2 full legs and trunk",HCPS +E0671,Pneumatic Compressors and Appliances .,"Segmental gradient pressure pneumatic appliance, full leg",HCPS +E0672,Pneumatic Compressors and Appliances .,"Segmental gradient pressure pneumatic appliance, full arm",HCPS +E0673,Pneumatic Compressors and Appliances .,"Segmental gradient pressure pneumatic appliance, half leg",HCPS +E0675,Pneumatic Compressors and Appliances .,"Pneumatic compression device, high pressure, rapid inflation/deflation cycle, for arterial insufficiency (unilateral or bilateral system)",HCPS +E0676,Pneumatic Compressors and Appliances .,"Intermittent limb compression device (includes all accessories), not otherwise specified",HCPS +E0677,Pneumatic Compressors and Appliances .,"Non-pneumatic sequential compression garment, trunk",HCPS +E0678,Non Pneumatic Compressors and Appliances.,"Non-pneumatic sequential compression garment, full leg",HCPS +E0679,Non Pneumatic Compressors and Appliances.,"Non-pneumatic sequential compression garment, half leg",HCPS +E0680,Non Pneumatic Compressors and Appliances.,Non-pneumatic compression controller with sequential calibrated gradient pressure,HCPS +E0681,Non Pneumatic Compressors and Appliances.,Non-pneumatic compression controller without calibrated gradient pressure,HCPS +E0682,Non Pneumatic Compressors and Appliances.,"Non-pneumatic sequential compression garment, full arm",HCPS +E0691,ULTRAVIOLET LIGHT THERAPY SYSTEMS .,"Ultraviolet light therapy system, includes bulbs/lamps, timer and eye protection; treatment area 2 square feet or less",HCPS +E0692,ULTRAVIOLET LIGHT THERAPY SYSTEMS .,"Ultraviolet light therapy system panel, includes bulbs/lamps, timer and eye protection, 4 foot panel",HCPS +E0693,ULTRAVIOLET LIGHT THERAPY SYSTEMS .,"Ultraviolet light therapy system panel, includes bulbs/lamps, timer and eye protection, 6 foot panel",HCPS +E0694,ULTRAVIOLET LIGHT THERAPY SYSTEMS .,"Ultraviolet multidirectional light therapy system in 6 foot cabinet, includes bulbs/lamps, timer and eye protection",HCPS +E0700,Safety Devices .,"Safety equipment, device or accessory, any type",HCPS +E0705,Safety Devices .,"Transfer device, any type, each",HCPS +E0710,Safety Devices .,"Restraints, any type (body, chest, wrist or ankle)",HCPS +E0711,Safety Devices .,"Upper extremity medical tubing/lines enclosure or covering device, restricts elbow range of motion",HCPS +E0720,Stimulation Devices .,"Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) device, two lead, localized stimulation",HCPS +E0730,Stimulation Devices .,"Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) device, four or more leads, for multiple nerve stimulation",HCPS +E0731,Stimulation Devices .,Form fitting conductive garment for delivery of TENS or NMES (with conductive fibers separated from the patient's skin by layers of fabric),HCPS +E0732,Stimulation Devices .,"Cranial electrotherapy stimulation (ces) system, any type",HCPS +E0733,Stimulation Devices .,Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulator for electrical stimulation of the trigeminal nerve,HCPS +E0734,Stimulation Devices .,External upper limb tremor stimulator of the peripheral nerves of the wrist,HCPS +E0735,Stimulation Devices .,Non-invasive vagus nerve stimulator,HCPS +E0740,Stimulation Devices .,"Non-implanted pelvic floor electrical stimulator, complete system",HCPS +E0744,Stimulation Devices .,Neuromuscular stimulator for scoliosis,HCPS +E0745,Stimulation Devices .,"Neuromuscular stimulator, electronic shock unit",HCPS +E0746,Stimulation Devices .,"Electromyography (EMG), biofeedback device",HCPS +E0747,Stimulation Devices .,"Osteogenesis stimulator, electrical, non-invasive, other than spinal applications",HCPS +E0748,Stimulation Devices .,"Osteogenesis stimulator, electrical, non-invasive, spinal applications",HCPS +E0749,Stimulation Devices .,"Osteogenesis stimulator, electrical, surgically implanted",HCPS +E0755,Stimulation Devices .,Electronic salivary reflex stimulator (intra-oral/non-invasive),HCPS +E0760,Stimulation Devices .,"Osteogenesis stimulator, low intensity ultrasound, non-invasive",HCPS +E0761,Stimulation Devices .,"Non-thermal pulsed high frequency radiowaves, high peak power electromagnetic energy treatment device",HCPS +E0762,Stimulation Devices .,"Transcutaneous electrical joint stimulation device system, includes all accessories",HCPS +E0764,Stimulation Devices .,"Functional neuromuscular stimulation, transcutaneous stimulation of sequential muscle groups of ambulation with computer control, used for walking by spinal cord injured, entire system, after completion of training program",HCPS +E0765,Stimulation Devices .,"FDA approved nerve stimulator, with replaceable batteries, for treatment of nausea and vomiting",HCPS +E0766,Stimulation Devices .,"Electrical stimulation device used for cancer treatment, includes all accessories, any type",HCPS +E0769,Stimulation Devices .,"Electrical stimulation or electromagnetic wound treatment device, not otherwise classified",HCPS +E0770,Stimulation Devices .,"Functional electrical stimulator, transcutaneous stimulation of nerve and/or muscle groups, any type, complete system, not otherwise specified",HCPS +E0776,Infusion Pumps and Supplies .,IV pole,HCPS +E0779,Infusion Pumps and Supplies .,"Ambulatory infusion pump, mechanical, reusable, for infusion 8 hours or greater",HCPS +E0780,Infusion Pumps and Supplies .,"Ambulatory infusion pump, mechanical, reusable, for infusion less than 8 hours",HCPS +E0781,Infusion Pumps and Supplies .,"Ambulatory infusion pump, single or multiple channels, electric or battery operated, with administrative equipment, worn by patient",HCPS +E0782,Infusion Pumps and Supplies .,"Infusion pump, implantable, non-programmable (includes all components, e.g., pump, catheter, connectors, etc.)",HCPS +E0783,Infusion Pumps and Supplies .,"Infusion pump system, implantable, programmable (includes all components, e.g., pump, catheter, connectors, etc.)",HCPS +E0784,Infusion Pumps and Supplies .,"External ambulatory infusion pump, insulin",HCPS +E0785,Infusion Pumps and Supplies .,"Implantable intraspinal (epidural/intrathecal) catheter used with implantable infusion pump, replacement",HCPS +E0786,Infusion Pumps and Supplies .,"Implantable programmable infusion pump, replacement (excludes implantable intraspinal catheter)",HCPS +E0787,Infusion Pumps and Supplies .,"External ambulatory infusion pump, insulin, dosage rate adjustment using therapeutic continuous glucose sensing",HCPS +E0791,Infusion Pumps and Supplies .,"Parenteral infusion pump, stationary, single or multi-channel",HCPS +E0830,Traction and Other Orthopedic Devices .,"Ambulatory traction device, all types, each",HCPS +E0840,Traction and Other Orthopedic Devices .,"Traction frame, attached to headboard, cervical traction",HCPS +E0849,Traction and Other Orthopedic Devices .,"Traction equipment, cervical, free-standing stand/frame, pneumatic, applying traction force to other than mandible",HCPS +E0850,Traction and Other Orthopedic Devices .,"Traction stand, free standing, cervical traction",HCPS +E0855,Traction and Other Orthopedic Devices .,Cervical traction equipment not requiring additional stand or frame,HCPS +E0856,Traction and Other Orthopedic Devices .,"Cervical traction device, with inflatable air bladder(s)",HCPS +E0860,Traction and Other Orthopedic Devices .,"Traction equipment, overdoor, cervical",HCPS +E0870,Traction and Other Orthopedic Devices .,"Traction frame, attached to footboard, extremity traction, (e.g., Buck's)",HCPS +E0880,Traction and Other Orthopedic Devices .,"Traction stand, free standing, extremity traction",HCPS +E0890,Traction and Other Orthopedic Devices .,"Traction frame, attached to footboard, pelvic traction",HCPS +E0900,Traction and Other Orthopedic Devices .,"Traction stand, free standing, pelvic traction, (e.g., Buck's)",HCPS +E0910,Traction and Other Orthopedic Devices .,"Trapeze bars, also known as Patient Helper, attached to bed, with grab bar",HCPS +E0911,Traction and Other Orthopedic Devices .,"Trapeze bar, heavy duty, for patient weight capacity greater than 250 pounds, attached to bed, with grab bar",HCPS +E0912,Traction and Other Orthopedic Devices .,"Trapeze bar, heavy duty, for patient weight capacity greater than 250 pounds, free standing, complete with grab bar",HCPS +E0920,Traction and Other Orthopedic Devices .,"Fracture frame, attached to bed, includes weights",HCPS +E0930,Traction and Other Orthopedic Devices .,"Fracture frame, free standing, includes weights",HCPS +E0935,Traction and Other Orthopedic Devices .,Continuous passive motion exercise device for use on knee only,HCPS +E0936,Traction and Other Orthopedic Devices .,Continuous passive motion exercise device for use other than knee,HCPS +E0940,Traction and Other Orthopedic Devices .,"Trapeze bar, free standing, complete with grab bar",HCPS +E0941,Traction and Other Orthopedic Devices .,"Gravity assisted traction device, any type",HCPS +E0942,Traction and Other Orthopedic Devices .,Cervical head harness/halter,HCPS +E0944,Traction and Other Orthopedic Devices .,Pelvic belt/harness/boot,HCPS +E0945,Traction and Other Orthopedic Devices .,Extremity belt/harness,HCPS +E0946,Traction and Other Orthopedic Devices .,"Fracture, frame, dual with cross bars, attached to bed, (e.g., balken, 4 poster)",HCPS +E0947,Traction and Other Orthopedic Devices .,"Fracture frame, attachments for complex pelvic traction",HCPS +E0948,Traction and Other Orthopedic Devices .,"Fracture frame, attachments for complex cervical traction",HCPS +E0950,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Wheelchair accessory, tray, each",HCPS +E0951,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Heel loop/holder, any type, with or without ankle strap, each",HCPS +E0952,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Toe loop/holder, any type, each",HCPS +E0953,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Wheelchair accessory, lateral thigh or knee support, any type including fixed mounting hardware, each",HCPS +E0954,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Wheelchair accessory, foot box, any type, includes attachment and mounting hardware, each foot",HCPS +E0955,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Wheelchair accessory, headrest, cushioned, any type, including fixed mounting hardware, each",HCPS +E0956,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Wheelchair accessory, lateral trunk or hip support, any type, including fixed mounting hardware, each",HCPS +E0957,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Wheelchair accessory, medial thigh support, any type, including fixed mounting hardware, each",HCPS +E0958,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Manual wheelchair accessory, one-arm drive attachment, each",HCPS +E0959,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Manual wheelchair accessory, adapter for amputee, each",HCPS +E0960,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Wheelchair accessory, shoulder harness/straps or chest strap, including any type mounting hardware",HCPS +E0961,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Manual wheelchair accessory, wheel lock brake extension (handle), each",HCPS +E0966,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Manual wheelchair accessory, headrest extension, each",HCPS +E0967,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Manual wheelchair accessory, hand rim with projections, any type, replacement only, each",HCPS +E0968,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Commode seat, wheelchair",HCPS +E0969,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Narrowing device, wheelchair",HCPS +E0970,Wheelchair Accessories .,"No.2 footplates, except for elevating leg rest",HCPS +E0971,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Manual wheelchair accessory, anti-tipping device, each",HCPS +E0973,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Wheelchair accessory, adjustable height, detachable armrest, complete assembly, each",HCPS +E0974,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Manual wheelchair accessory, anti-rollback device, each",HCPS +E0978,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Wheelchair accessory, positioning belt/safety belt/pelvic strap, each",HCPS +E0980,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Safety vest, wheelchair",HCPS +E0981,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Wheelchair accessory, seat upholstery, replacement only, each",HCPS +E0982,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Wheelchair accessory, back upholstery, replacement only, each",HCPS +E0983,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Manual wheelchair accessory, power add-on to convert manual wheelchair to motorized wheelchair, joystick control",HCPS +E0984,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Manual wheelchair accessory, power add-on to convert manual wheelchair to motorized wheelchair, tiller control",HCPS +E0985,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Wheelchair accessory, seat lift mechanism",HCPS +E0986,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Manual wheelchair accessory, push-rim activated power assist system",HCPS +E0988,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Manual wheelchair accessory, lever-activated, wheel drive, pair",HCPS +E0990,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Wheelchair accessory, elevating leg rest, complete assembly, each",HCPS +E0992,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Manual wheelchair accessory, solid seat insert",HCPS +E0994,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Arm rest, each",HCPS +E0995,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Wheelchair accessory, calf rest/pad, replacement only, each",HCPS +E1002,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Wheelchair accessory, power seating system, tilt only",HCPS +E1003,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Wheelchair accessory, power seating system, recline only, without shear reduction",HCPS +E1004,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Wheelchair accessory, power seating system, recline only, with mechanical shear reduction",HCPS +E1005,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Wheelchair accessory, power seatng system, recline only, with power shear reduction",HCPS +E1006,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Wheelchair accessory, power seating system, combination tilt and recline, without shear reduction",HCPS +E1007,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Wheelchair accessory, power seating system, combination tilt and recline, with mechanical shear reduction",HCPS +E1008,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Wheelchair accessory, power seating system, combination tilt and recline, with power shear reduction",HCPS +E1009,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Wheelchair accessory, addition to power seating system, mechanically linked leg elevation system, including pushrod and leg rest, each",HCPS +E1010,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Wheelchair accessory, addition to power seating system, power leg elevation system, including leg rest, pair",HCPS +E1011,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Modification to pediatric size wheelchair, width adjustment package (not to be dispensed with initial chair)",HCPS +E1012,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Wheelchair accessory, addition to power seating system, center mount power elevating leg rest/platform, complete system, any type, each",HCPS +E1014,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Reclining back, addition to pediatric size wheelchair",HCPS +E1015,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Shock absorber for manual wheelchair, each",HCPS +E1016,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Shock absorber for power wheelchair, each",HCPS +E1017,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Heavy duty shock absorber for heavy duty or extra heavy duty manual wheelchair, each",HCPS +E1018,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Heavy duty shock absorber for heavy duty or extra heavy duty power wheelchair, each",HCPS +E1020,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Residual limb support system for wheelchair, any type",HCPS +E1028,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Wheelchair accessory, manual swing away, retractable or removable mounting hardware for joystick, other control interface or positioning accessory",HCPS +E1029,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Wheelchair accessory, ventilator tray, fixed",HCPS +E1030,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Wheelchair accessory, ventilator tray, gimbaled",HCPS +E1031,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Rollabout chair, any and all types with castors 5 inch or greater",HCPS +E1035,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Multi-positional patient transfer system, with integrated seat, operated by care giver, patient weight capacity up to and including 300 lbs",HCPS +E1036,Wheelchair Accessories .,"Multi-positional patient transfer system, extra-wide, with integrated seat, operated by caregiver, patient weight capacity greater than 300 lbs",HCPS +E1037,Transport Chairs .,"Transport chair, pediatric size",HCPS +E1038,Transport Chairs .,"Transport chair, adult size, patient weight capacity up to and including 300 pounds",HCPS +E1039,Transport Chairs .,"Transport chair, adult size, heavy duty, patient weight capacity greater than 300 pounds",HCPS +E1050,Fully Reclining Wheelchairs .,"Fully-reclining wheelchair, fixed full length arms, swing away detachable elevating legrests",HCPS +E1060,Fully Reclining Wheelchairs .,"Fully-reclining wheelchair, detachable arms, desk or full length, swing away detachable elevating legrests",HCPS +E1070,Fully Reclining Wheelchairs .,"Fully-reclining wheelchair, detachable arms (desk or full length) swing away detachable footrest",HCPS +E1083,Hemi-Wheelchairs .,"Hemi-wheelchair, fixed full length arms, swing away detachable elevating legrest",HCPS +E1084,Hemi-Wheelchairs .,"Hemi-wheelchair, detachable arms desk or full length arms, swing away detachable elevating legrests",HCPS +E1085,Hemi-Wheelchairs .,"Hemi-wheelchair, fixed full length arms, swing away detachable footrests",HCPS +E1086,Hemi-Wheelchairs .,"Hemi-wheelchair detachable arms desk or full length, swing away detachable footrests",HCPS +E1087,"Lightweight, High-strength Wheelchairs .","High strength lightweight wheelchair, fixed full length arms, swing away detachable elevating legrests",HCPS +E1088,"Lightweight, High-strength Wheelchairs .","High strength lightweight wheelchair, detachable arms desk or full length, swing away detachable elevating legrests",HCPS +E1089,"Lightweight, High-strength Wheelchairs .","High strength lightweight wheelchair, fixed length arms, swing away detachable footrest",HCPS +E1090,"Lightweight, High-strength Wheelchairs .","High strength lightweight wheelchair, detachable arms desk or full length, swing away detachable footrests",HCPS +E1092,"Heavy Duty, Wide Wheelchairs .","Wide heavy duty wheel chair, detachable arms (desk or full length), swing away detachable elevating legrests",HCPS +E1093,"Heavy Duty, Wide Wheelchairs .","Wide heavy duty wheelchair, detachable arms desk or full length arms, swing away detachable footrests",HCPS +E1100,Semi-reclining Wheelchairs .,"Semi-reclining wheelchair, fixed full length arms, swing away detachable elevating legrests",HCPS +E1110,Semi-reclining Wheelchairs .,"Semi-reclining wheelchair, detachable arms (desk or full length) elevating legrest",HCPS +E1130,Standard Wheelchairs .,"Standard wheelchair, fixed full length arms, fixed or swing away detachable footrests",HCPS +E1140,Standard Wheelchairs .,"Wheelchair, detachable arms, desk or full length, swing away detachable footrests",HCPS +E1150,Standard Wheelchairs .,"Wheelchair, detachable arms, desk or full length swing away detachable elevating legrests",HCPS +E1160,Standard Wheelchairs .,"Wheelchair, fixed full length arms, swing away detachable elevating legrests",HCPS +E1161,Standard Wheelchairs .,"Manual adult size wheelchair, includes tilt in space",HCPS +E1170,Amputee Wheelchairs .,"Amputee wheelchair, fixed full length arms, swing away detachable elevating legrests",HCPS +E1171,Amputee Wheelchairs .,"Amputee wheelchair, fixed full length arms, without footrests or legrest",HCPS +E1172,Amputee Wheelchairs .,"Amputee wheelchair, detachable arms (desk or full length) without footrests or legrest",HCPS +E1180,Amputee Wheelchairs .,"Amputee wheelchair, detachable arms (desk or full length) swing away detachable footrests",HCPS +E1190,Amputee Wheelchairs .,"Amputee wheelchair, detachable arms (desk or full length) swing away detachable elevating legrests",HCPS +E1195,Amputee Wheelchairs .,"Heavy duty wheelchair, fixed full length arms, swing away detachable elevating legrests",HCPS +E1200,Amputee Wheelchairs .,"Amputee wheelchair, fixed full length arms, swing away detachable footrest",HCPS +E1220,Other Wheelchairs and Accessories .,"Wheelchair; specially sized or constructed, (indicate brand name, model number, if any) and justification",HCPS +E1221,Other Wheelchairs and Accessories .,"Wheelchair with fixed arm, footrests",HCPS +E1222,Other Wheelchairs and Accessories .,"Wheelchair with fixed arm, elevating legrests",HCPS +E1223,Other Wheelchairs and Accessories .,"Wheelchair with detachable arms, footrests",HCPS +E1224,Other Wheelchairs and Accessories .,"Wheelchair with detachable arms, elevating legrests",HCPS +E1225,Other Wheelchairs and Accessories .,"Wheelchair accessory, manual semi-reclining back, (recline greater than 15 degrees, but less than 80 degrees), each",HCPS +E1226,Other Wheelchairs and Accessories .,"Wheelchair accessory, manual fully reclining back, (recline greater than 80 degrees), each",HCPS +E1227,Other Wheelchairs and Accessories .,Special height arms for wheelchair,HCPS +E1228,Other Wheelchairs and Accessories .,Special back height for wheelchair,HCPS +E1229,Pediatric Wheelchairs .,"Wheelchair, pediatric size, not otherwise specified",HCPS +E1230,Pediatric Wheelchairs .,Power operated vehicle (three or four wheel nonhighway) specify brand name and model number,HCPS +E1231,Pediatric Wheelchairs .,"Wheelchair, pediatric size, tilt-in-space, rigid, adjustable, with seating system",HCPS +E1232,Pediatric Wheelchairs .,"Wheelchair, pediatric size, tilt-in-space, folding, adjustable, with seating system",HCPS +E1233,Pediatric Wheelchairs .,"Wheelchair, pediatric size, tilt-in-space, rigid, adjustable, without seating system",HCPS +E1234,Pediatric Wheelchairs .,"Wheelchair, pediatric size, tilt-in-space, folding, adjustable, without seating system",HCPS +E1235,Pediatric Wheelchairs .,"Wheelchair, pediatric size, rigid, adjustable, with seating system",HCPS +E1236,Pediatric Wheelchairs .,"Wheelchair, pediatric size, folding, adjustable, with seating system",HCPS +E1237,Pediatric Wheelchairs .,"Wheelchair, pediatric size, rigid, adjustable, without seating system",HCPS +E1238,Pediatric Wheelchairs .,"Wheelchair, pediatric size, folding, adjustable, without seating system",HCPS +E1239,Pediatric Wheelchairs .,"Power wheelchair, pediatric size, not otherwise specified",HCPS +E1240,Lightweight Wheelchairs .,"Lightweight wheelchair, detachable arms, (desk or full length) swing away detachable, elevating legrest",HCPS +E1250,Lightweight Wheelchairs .,"Lightweight wheelchair, fixed full length arms, swing away detachable footrest",HCPS +E1260,Lightweight Wheelchairs .,"Lightweight wheelchair, detachable arms (desk or full length) swing away detachable footrest",HCPS +E1270,Lightweight Wheelchairs .,"Lightweight wheelchair, fixed full length arms, swing away detachable elevating legrests",HCPS +E1280,Heavy Duty and Special Wheelchairs .,"Heavy duty wheelchair, detachable arms (desk or full length) elevating legrests",HCPS +E1285,Heavy Duty and Special Wheelchairs .,"Heavy duty wheelchair, fixed full length arms, swing away detachable footrest",HCPS +E1290,Heavy Duty and Special Wheelchairs .,"Heavy duty wheelchair, detachable arms (desk or full length) swing away detachable footrest",HCPS +E1295,Heavy Duty and Special Wheelchairs .,"Heavy duty wheelchair, fixed full length arms, elevating legrest",HCPS +E1296,Heavy Duty and Special Wheelchairs .,Special wheelchair seat height from floor,HCPS +E1297,Heavy Duty and Special Wheelchairs .,"Special wheelchair seat depth, by upholstery",HCPS +E1298,Heavy Duty and Special Wheelchairs .,"Special wheelchair seat depth and/or width, by construction",HCPS +E1300,Whirlpool Baths .,"Whirlpool, portable (overtub type)",HCPS +E1301,Whirlpool Baths .,"Whirlpool tub, walk-in, portable",HCPS +E1310,Whirlpool Baths .,"Whirlpool, non-portable (built-in type)",HCPS +E1352,Accessories for Oxygen Delivery Devices .,"Oxygen accessory, flow regulator capable of positive inspiratory pressure",HCPS +E1353,Accessories for Oxygen Delivery Devices .,Regulator,HCPS +E1354,Accessories for Oxygen Delivery Devices .,"Oxygen accessory, wheeled cart for portable cylinder or portable concentrator, any type, replacement only, each",HCPS +E1355,Accessories for Oxygen Delivery Devices .,Stand/rack,HCPS +E1356,Accessories for Oxygen Delivery Devices .,"Oxygen accessory, battery pack/cartridge for portable concentrator, any type, replacement only, each",HCPS +E1357,Accessories for Oxygen Delivery Devices .,"Oxygen accessory, battery charger for portable concentrator, any type, replacement only, each",HCPS +E1358,Accessories for Oxygen Delivery Devices .,"Oxygen accessory, DC power adapter for portable concentrator, any type, replacement only, each",HCPS +E1372,Accessories for Oxygen Delivery Devices .,Immersion external heater for nebulizer,HCPS +E1390,Accessories for Oxygen Delivery Devices .,"Oxygen concentrator, single delivery port, capable of delivering 85 percent or greater oxygen concentration at the prescribed flow rate",HCPS +E1391,Accessories for Oxygen Delivery Devices .,"Oxygen concentrator, dual delivery port, capable of delivering 85 percent or greater oxygen concentration at the prescribed flow rate, each",HCPS +E1392,Accessories for Oxygen Delivery Devices .,"Portable oxygen concentrator, rental",HCPS +E1399,Accessories for Oxygen Delivery Devices .,"Durable medical equipment, miscellaneous",HCPS +E1405,Accessories for Oxygen Delivery Devices .,Oxygen and water vapor enriching system with heated delivery,HCPS +E1406,Accessories for Oxygen Delivery Devices .,Oxygen and water vapor enriching system without heated delivery,HCPS +E1500,Dialysis Systems and Accessories .,"Centrifuge, for dialysis",HCPS +E1510,Dialysis Systems and Accessories .,"Kidney, dialysate delivery system, kidney machine, pump recirculating, air removal system, flowrate meter, power off, heater and temperature control with alarm, IV poles, pressure gauge, concentrate container",HCPS +E1520,Dialysis Systems and Accessories .,Heparin infusion pump for hemodialysis,HCPS +E1530,Dialysis Systems and Accessories .,"Air bubble detector for hemodialysis, each, replacement",HCPS +E1540,Dialysis Systems and Accessories .,"Pressure alarm for hemodialysis, each, replacement",HCPS +E1550,Dialysis Systems and Accessories .,"Bath conductivity meter for hemodialysis, each",HCPS +E1560,Dialysis Systems and Accessories .,"Blood leak detector for hemodialysis, each, replacement",HCPS +E1570,Dialysis Systems and Accessories .,"Adjustable chair, for ESRD patients",HCPS +E1575,Dialysis Systems and Accessories .,"Transducer protectors/fluid barriers, for hemodialysis, any size, per 10",HCPS +E1580,Dialysis Systems and Accessories .,Unipuncture control system for hemodialysis,HCPS +E1590,Dialysis Systems and Accessories .,Hemodialysis machine,HCPS +E1592,Dialysis Systems and Accessories .,Automatic intermittent peritoneal dialysis system,HCPS +E1594,Dialysis Systems and Accessories .,Cycler dialysis machine for peritoneal dialysis,HCPS +E1600,Dialysis Systems and Accessories .,Delivery and/or installation charges for hemodialysis equipment,HCPS +E1610,Dialysis Systems and Accessories .,"Reverse osmosis water purification system, for hemodialysis",HCPS +E1615,Dialysis Systems and Accessories .,"Deionizer water purification system, for hemodialysis",HCPS +E1620,Dialysis Systems and Accessories .,"Blood pump for hemodialysis, replacement",HCPS +E1625,Dialysis Systems and Accessories .,"Water softening system, for hemodialysis",HCPS +E1629,Dialysis Systems and Accessories .,Tablo hemodialysis system for the billable dialysis service,HCPS +E1630,Dialysis Systems and Accessories .,Reciprocating peritoneal dialysis system,HCPS +E1632,Dialysis Systems and Accessories .,"Wearable artificial kidney, each",HCPS +E1634,Dialysis Systems and Accessories .,"Peritoneal dialysis clamps, each",HCPS +E1635,Dialysis Systems and Accessories .,Compact (portable) travel hemodialyzer system,HCPS +E1636,Dialysis Systems and Accessories .,"Sorbent cartridges, for hemodialysis, per 10",HCPS +E1637,Dialysis Systems and Accessories .,"Hemostats, each",HCPS +E1639,Dialysis Systems and Accessories .,"Scale, each",HCPS +E1699,Dialysis Systems and Accessories .,"Dialysis equipment, not otherwise specified",HCPS +E1700,Jaw Motion Rehabilitation Systems .,Jaw motion rehabilitation system,HCPS +E1701,Jaw Motion Rehabilitation Systems .,"Replacement cushions for jaw motion rehabilitation system, pkg. of 6",HCPS +E1702,Jaw Motion Rehabilitation Systems .,"Replacement measuring scales for jaw motion rehabilitation system, pkg. of 200",HCPS +E1800,Extension/Flexion Rehabilitation Devices .,"Dynamic adjustable elbow extension/flexion device, includes soft interface material",HCPS +E1801,Extension/Flexion Rehabilitation Devices .,"Static progressive stretch elbow device, extension and/or flexion, with or without range of motion adjustment, includes all components and accessories",HCPS +E1802,Extension/Flexion Rehabilitation Devices .,"Dynamic adjustable forearm pronation/supination device, includes soft interface material",HCPS +E1805,Extension/Flexion Rehabilitation Devices .,"Dynamic adjustable wrist extension / flexion device, includes soft interface material",HCPS +E1806,Extension/Flexion Rehabilitation Devices .,"Static progressive stretch wrist device, flexion and/or extension, with or without range of motion adjustment, includes all components and accessories",HCPS +E1810,Extension/Flexion Rehabilitation Devices .,"Dynamic adjustable knee extension / flexion device, includes soft interface material",HCPS +E1811,Extension/Flexion Rehabilitation Devices .,"Static progressive stretch knee device, extension and/or flexion, with or without range of motion adjustment, includes all components and accessories",HCPS +E1812,Extension/Flexion Rehabilitation Devices .,"Dynamic knee, extension/flexion device with active resistance control",HCPS +E1815,Extension/Flexion Rehabilitation Devices .,"Dynamic adjustable ankle extension/flexion device, includes soft interface material",HCPS +E1816,Extension/Flexion Rehabilitation Devices .,"Static progressive stretch ankle device, flexion and/or extension, with or without range of motion adjustment, includes all components and accessories",HCPS +E1818,Extension/Flexion Rehabilitation Devices .,"Static progressive stretch forearm pronation / supination device, with or without range of motion adjustment, includes all components and accessories",HCPS +E1820,Extension/Flexion Rehabilitation Devices .,"Replacement soft interface material, dynamic adjustable extension/flexion device",HCPS +E1821,Extension/Flexion Rehabilitation Devices .,Replacement soft interface material/cuffs for bi-directional static progressive stretch device,HCPS +E1825,Extension/Flexion Rehabilitation Devices .,"Dynamic adjustable finger extension/flexion device, includes soft interface material",HCPS +E1830,Extension/Flexion Rehabilitation Devices .,"Dynamic adjustable toe extension/flexion device, includes soft interface material",HCPS +E1831,Extension/Flexion Rehabilitation Devices .,"Static progressive stretch toe device, extension and/or flexion, with or without range of motion adjustment, includes all components and accessories",HCPS +E1840,Extension/Flexion Rehabilitation Devices .,"Dynamic adjustable shoulder flexion / abduction / rotation device, includes soft interface material",HCPS +E1841,Extension/Flexion Rehabilitation Devices .,"Static progressive stretch shoulder device, with or without range of motion adjustment, includes all components and accessories",HCPS +E1902,Communication Boards .,"Communication board, non-electronic augmentative or alternative communication device",HCPS +E1905,Virtual Reality Cognitive Behavioral Therapy Device (CBT).,"Virtual reality cognitive behavioral therapy device (cbt), including pre-programmed therapy software",HCPS +E2000,Miscellaneous Pumps and Monitors .,"Gastric suction pump, home model, portable or stationary, electric",HCPS +E2001,Miscellaneous Pumps and Monitors .,"Suction pump, home model, portable or stationary, electric, any type, for use with external urine management system",HCPS +E2100,Miscellaneous Pumps and Monitors .,Blood glucose monitor with integrated voice synthesizer,HCPS +E2101,Miscellaneous Pumps and Monitors .,Blood glucose monitor with integrated lancing/blood sample,HCPS +E2102,Miscellaneous Pumps and Monitors .,"Adjunctive, non-implanted continuous glucose monitor or receiver",HCPS +E2103,Miscellaneous Pumps and Monitors .,"Non-adjunctive, non-implanted continuous glucose monitor or receiver",HCPS +E2120,Miscellaneous Pumps and Monitors .,Pulse generator system for tympanic treatment of inner ear endolymphatic fluid,HCPS +E2201,Manual Wheelchair Accessories .,"Manual wheelchair accessory, nonstandard seat frame, width greater than or equal to 20 inches and less than 24 inches",HCPS +E2202,Manual Wheelchair Accessories .,"Manual wheelchair accessory, nonstandard seat frame width, 24-27 inches",HCPS +E2203,Manual Wheelchair Accessories .,"Manual wheelchair accessory, nonstandard seat frame depth, 20 to less than 22 inches",HCPS +E2204,Manual Wheelchair Accessories .,"Manual wheelchair accessory, nonstandard seat frame depth, 22 to 25 inches",HCPS +E2205,Manual Wheelchair Accessories .,"Manual wheelchair accessory, handrim without projections (includes ergonomic or contoured), any type, replacement only, each",HCPS +E2206,Manual Wheelchair Accessories .,"Manual wheelchair accessory, wheel lock assembly, complete, replacement only, each",HCPS +E2207,Manual Wheelchair Accessories .,"Wheelchair accessory, crutch and cane holder, each",HCPS +E2208,Manual Wheelchair Accessories .,"Wheelchair accessory, cylinder tank carrier, each",HCPS +E2209,Manual Wheelchair Accessories .,"Accessory, arm trough, with or without hand support, each",HCPS +E2210,Manual Wheelchair Accessories .,"Wheelchair accessory, bearings, any type, replacement only, each",HCPS +E2211,Manual Wheelchair Accessories .,"Manual wheelchair accessory, pneumatic propulsion tire, any size, each",HCPS +E2212,Manual Wheelchair Accessories .,"Manual wheelchair accessory, tube for pneumatic propulsion tire, any size, each",HCPS +E2213,Manual Wheelchair Accessories .,"Manual wheelchair accessory, insert for pneumatic propulsion tire (removable), any type, any size, each",HCPS +E2214,Manual Wheelchair Accessories .,"Manual wheelchair accessory, pneumatic caster tire, any size, each",HCPS +E2215,Manual Wheelchair Accessories .,"Manual wheelchair accessory, tube for pneumatic caster tire, any size, each",HCPS +E2216,Manual Wheelchair Accessories .,"Manual wheelchair accessory, foam filled propulsion tire, any size, each",HCPS +E2217,Manual Wheelchair Accessories .,"Manual wheelchair accessory, foam filled caster tire, any size, each",HCPS +E2218,Manual Wheelchair Accessories .,"Manual wheelchair accessory, foam propulsion tire, any size, each",HCPS +E2219,Manual Wheelchair Accessories .,"Manual wheelchair accessory, foam caster tire, any size, each",HCPS +E2220,Manual Wheelchair Accessories .,"Manual wheelchair accessory, solid (rubber/plastic) propulsion tire, any size, replacement only, each",HCPS +E2221,Manual Wheelchair Accessories .,"Manual wheelchair accessory, solid (rubber/plastic) caster tire (removable), any size, replacement only, each",HCPS +E2222,Manual Wheelchair Accessories .,"Manual wheelchair accessory, solid (rubber/plastic) caster tire with integrated wheel, any size, replacement only, each",HCPS +E2224,Manual Wheelchair Accessories .,"Manual wheelchair accessory, propulsion wheel excludes tire, any size, replacement only, each",HCPS +E2225,Manual Wheelchair Accessories .,"Manual wheelchair accessory, caster wheel excludes tire, any size, replacement only, each",HCPS +E2226,Manual Wheelchair Accessories .,"Manual wheelchair accessory, caster fork, any size, replacement only, each",HCPS +E2227,Manual Wheelchair Accessories .,"Manual wheelchair accessory, gear reduction drive wheel, each",HCPS +E2228,Manual Wheelchair Accessories .,"Manual wheelchair accessory, wheel braking system and lock, complete, each",HCPS +E2230,Manual Wheelchair Accessories .,"Manual wheelchair accessory, manual standing system",HCPS +E2231,Manual Wheelchair Accessories .,"Manual wheelchair accessory, solid seat support base (replaces sling seat), includes any type mounting hardware",HCPS +E2291,Manual Wheelchair Accessories .,"Back, planar, for pediatric size wheelchair including fixed attaching hardware",HCPS +E2292,Manual Wheelchair Accessories .,"Seat, planar, for pediatric size wheelchair including fixed attaching hardware",HCPS +E2293,Manual Wheelchair Accessories .,"Back, contoured, for pediatric size wheelchair including fixed attaching hardware",HCPS +E2294,Manual Wheelchair Accessories .,"Seat, contoured, for pediatric size wheelchair including fixed attaching hardware",HCPS +E2295,Manual Wheelchair Accessories .,"Manual wheelchair accessory, for pediatric size wheelchair, dynamic seating frame, allows coordinated movement of multiple positioning features",HCPS +E2300,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Wheelchair accessory, power seat elevation system, any type",HCPS +E2301,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Wheelchair accessory, power standing system, any type",HCPS +E2310,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, electronic connection between wheelchair controller and one power seating system motor, including all related electronics, indicator feature, mechanical function selection switch, and fixed mounting hardware",HCPS +E2311,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, electronic connection between wheelchair controller and two or more power seating system motors, including all related electronics, indicator feature, mechanical function selection switch, and fixed mounting hardware",HCPS +E2312,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, hand or chin control interface, mini-proportional remote joystick, proportional, including fixed mounting hardware",HCPS +E2313,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, harness for upgrade to expandable controller, including all fasteners, connectors and mounting hardware, each",HCPS +E2321,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, hand control interface, remote joystick, nonproportional, including all related electronics, mechanical stop switch, and fixed mounting hardware",HCPS +E2322,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, hand control interface, multiple mechanical switches, nonproportional, including all related electronics, mechanical stop switch, and fixed mounting hardware",HCPS +E2323,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, specialty joystick handle for hand control interface, prefabricated",HCPS +E2324,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, chin cup for chin control interface",HCPS +E2325,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, sip and puff interface, nonproportional, including all related electronics, mechanical stop switch, and manual swingaway mounting hardware",HCPS +E2326,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, breath tube kit for sip and puff interface",HCPS +E2327,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, head control interface, mechanical, proportional, including all related electronics, mechanical direction change switch, and fixed mounting hardware",HCPS +E2328,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, head control or extremity control interface, electronic, proportional, including all related electronics and fixed mounting hardware",HCPS +E2329,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, head control interface, contact switch mechanism, nonproportional, including all related electronics, mechanical stop switch, mechanical direction change switch, head array, and fixed mounting hardware",HCPS +E2330,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, head control interface, proximity switch mechanism, nonproportional, including all related electronics, mechanical stop switch, mechanical direction change switch, head array, and fixed mounting hardware",HCPS +E2331,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, attendant control, proportional, including all related electronics and fixed mounting hardware",HCPS +E2340,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, nonstandard seat frame width, 20-23 inches",HCPS +E2341,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, nonstandard seat frame width, 24-27 inches",HCPS +E2342,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, nonstandard seat frame depth, 20 or 21 inches",HCPS +E2343,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, nonstandard seat frame depth, 22-25 inches",HCPS +E2351,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, electronic interface to operate speech generating device using power wheelchair control interface",HCPS +E2358,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, group 34 non-sealed lead acid battery, each",HCPS +E2359,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, group 34 sealed lead acid battery, each (e.g., gel cell, absorbed glassmat)",HCPS +E2360,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, 22 NF non-sealed lead acid battery, each",HCPS +E2361,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, 22 NF sealed lead acid battery, each, (e.g., gel cell, absorbed glassmat)",HCPS +E2362,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, group 24 non-sealed lead acid battery, each",HCPS +E2363,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, group 24 sealed lead acid battery, each (e.g., gel cell, absorbed glassmat)",HCPS +E2364,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, U-1 non-sealed lead acid battery, each",HCPS +E2365,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, U-1 sealed lead acid battery, each (e.g., gel cell, absorbed glassmat)",HCPS +E2366,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, battery charger, single mode, for use with only one battery type, sealed or non-sealed, each",HCPS +E2367,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, battery charger, dual mode, for use with either battery type, sealed or non-sealed, each",HCPS +E2368,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair component, drive wheel motor, replacement only",HCPS +E2369,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair component, drive wheel gear box, replacement only",HCPS +E2370,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair component, integrated drive wheel motor and gear box combination, replacement only",HCPS +E2371,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, group 27 sealed lead acid battery, (e.g., gel cell, absorbed glassmat), each",HCPS +E2372,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, group 27 non-sealed lead acid battery, each",HCPS +E2373,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, hand or chin control interface, compact remote joystick, proportional, including fixed mounting hardware",HCPS +E2374,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, hand or chin control interface, standard remote joystick (not including controller), proportional, including all related electronics and fixed mounting hardware, replacement only",HCPS +E2375,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, non-expandable controller, including all related electronics and mounting hardware, replacement only",HCPS +E2376,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, expandable controller, including all related electronics and mounting hardware, replacement only",HCPS +E2377,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, expandable controller, including all related electronics and mounting hardware, upgrade provided at initial issue",HCPS +E2378,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair component, actuator, replacement only",HCPS +E2381,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, pneumatic drive wheel tire, any size, replacement only, each",HCPS +E2382,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, tube for pneumatic drive wheel tire, any size, replacement only, each",HCPS +E2383,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, insert for pneumatic drive wheel tire (removable), any type, any size, replacement only, each",HCPS +E2384,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, pneumatic caster tire, any size, replacement only, each",HCPS +E2385,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, tube for pneumatic caster tire, any size, replacement only, each",HCPS +E2386,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, foam filled drive wheel tire, any size, replacement only, each",HCPS +E2387,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, foam filled caster tire, any size, replacement only, each",HCPS +E2388,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, foam drive wheel tire, any size, replacement only, each",HCPS +E2389,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, foam caster tire, any size, replacement only, each",HCPS +E2390,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, solid (rubber/plastic) drive wheel tire, any size, replacement only, each",HCPS +E2391,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, solid (rubber/plastic) caster tire (removable), any size, replacement only, each",HCPS +E2392,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, solid (rubber/plastic) caster tire with integrated wheel, any size, replacement only, each",HCPS +E2394,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, drive wheel excludes tire, any size, replacement only, each",HCPS +E2395,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, caster wheel excludes tire, any size, replacement only, each",HCPS +E2396,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, caster fork, any size, replacement only, each",HCPS +E2397,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, lithium-based battery, each",HCPS +E2398,Power Wheelchair Accessories .,"Wheelchair accessory, dynamic positioning hardware for back",HCPS +E2402,Wound Therapy Pumps .,"Negative pressure wound therapy electrical pump, stationary or portable",HCPS +E2500,"Speech Generating Devices, Software, and Accessories .","Speech generating device, digitized speech, using pre-recorded messages, less than or equal to 8 minutes recording time",HCPS +E2502,"Speech Generating Devices, Software, and Accessories .","Speech generating device, digitized speech, using pre-recorded messages, greater than 8 minutes but less than or equal to 20 minutes recording time",HCPS +E2504,"Speech Generating Devices, Software, and Accessories .","Speech generating device, digitized speech, using pre-recorded messages, greater than 20 minutes but less than or equal to 40 minutes recording time",HCPS +E2506,"Speech Generating Devices, Software, and Accessories .","Speech generating device, digitized speech, using pre-recorded messages, greater than 40 minutes recording time",HCPS +E2508,"Speech Generating Devices, Software, and Accessories .","Speech generating device, synthesized speech, requiring message formulation by spelling and access by physical contact with the device",HCPS +E2510,"Speech Generating Devices, Software, and Accessories .","Speech generating device, synthesized speech, permitting multiple methods of message formulation and multiple methods of device access",HCPS +E2511,"Speech Generating Devices, Software, and Accessories .","Speech generating software program, for personal computer or personal digital assistant",HCPS +E2512,"Speech Generating Devices, Software, and Accessories .","Accessory for speech generating device, mounting system",HCPS +E2599,"Speech Generating Devices, Software, and Accessories .","Accessory for speech generating device, not otherwise classified",HCPS +E2601,Wheelchair Seat and Back Cushions .,"General use wheelchair seat cushion, width less than 22 inches, any depth",HCPS +E2602,Wheelchair Seat and Back Cushions .,"General use wheelchair seat cushion, width 22 inches or greater, any depth",HCPS +E2603,Wheelchair Seat and Back Cushions .,"Skin protection wheelchair seat cushion, width less than 22 inches, any depth",HCPS +E2604,Wheelchair Seat and Back Cushions .,"Skin protection wheelchair seat cushion, width 22 inches or greater, any depth",HCPS +E2605,Wheelchair Seat and Back Cushions .,"Positioning wheelchair seat cushion, width less than 22 inches, any depth",HCPS +E2606,Wheelchair Seat and Back Cushions .,"Positioning wheelchair seat cushion, width 22 inches or greater, any depth",HCPS +E2607,Wheelchair Seat and Back Cushions .,"Skin protection and positioning wheelchair seat cushion, width less than 22 inches, any depth",HCPS +E2608,Wheelchair Seat and Back Cushions .,"Skin protection and positioning wheelchair seat cushion, width 22 inches or greater, any depth",HCPS +E2609,Wheelchair Seat and Back Cushions .,"Custom fabricated wheelchair seat cushion, any size",HCPS +E2610,Wheelchair Seat and Back Cushions .,"Wheelchair seat cushion, powered",HCPS +E2611,Wheelchair Seat and Back Cushions .,"General use wheelchair back cushion, width less than 22 inches, any height, including any type mounting hardware",HCPS +E2612,Wheelchair Seat and Back Cushions .,"General use wheelchair back cushion, width 22 inches or greater, any height, including any type mounting hardware",HCPS +E2613,Wheelchair Seat and Back Cushions .,"Positioning wheelchair back cushion, posterior, width less than 22 inches, any height, including any type mounting hardware",HCPS +E2614,Wheelchair Seat and Back Cushions .,"Positioning wheelchair back cushion, posterior, width 22 inches or greater, any height, including any type mounting hardware",HCPS +E2615,Wheelchair Seat and Back Cushions .,"Positioning wheelchair back cushion, posterior-lateral, width less than 22 inches, any height, including any type mounting hardware",HCPS +E2616,Wheelchair Seat and Back Cushions .,"Positioning wheelchair back cushion, posterior-lateral, width 22 inches or greater, any height, including any type mounting hardware",HCPS +E2617,Wheelchair Seat and Back Cushions .,"Custom fabricated wheelchair back cushion, any size, including any type mounting hardware",HCPS +E2619,Wheelchair Seat and Back Cushions .,"Replacement cover for wheelchair seat cushion or back cushion, each",HCPS +E2620,Wheelchair Seat and Back Cushions .,"Positioning wheelchair back cushion, planar back with lateral supports, width less than 22 inches, any height, including any type mounting hardware",HCPS +E2621,Wheelchair Seat and Back Cushions .,"Positioning wheelchair back cushion, planar back with lateral supports, width 22 inches or greater, any height, including any type mounting hardware",HCPS +E2622,Wheelchair Seat and Back Cushions .,"Skin protection wheelchair seat cushion, adjustable, width less than 22 inches, any depth",HCPS +E2623,Wheelchair Seat and Back Cushions .,"Skin protection wheelchair seat cushion, adjustable, width 22 inches or greater, any depth",HCPS +E2624,Wheelchair Seat and Back Cushions .,"Skin protection and positioning wheelchair seat cushion, adjustable, width less than 22 inches, any depth",HCPS +E2625,Wheelchair Seat and Back Cushions .,"Skin protection and positioning wheelchair seat cushion, adjustable, width 22 inches or greater, any depth",HCPS +E2626,Wheelchair Mobile Arm Supports .,"Wheelchair accessory, shoulder elbow, mobile arm support attached to wheelchair, balanced, adjustable",HCPS +E2627,Wheelchair Mobile Arm Supports .,"Wheelchair accessory, shoulder elbow, mobile arm support attached to wheelchair, balanced, adjustable rancho type",HCPS +E2628,Wheelchair Mobile Arm Supports .,"Wheelchair accessory, shoulder elbow, mobile arm support attached to wheelchair, balanced, reclining",HCPS +E2629,Wheelchair Mobile Arm Supports .,"Wheelchair accessory, shoulder elbow, mobile arm support attached to wheelchair, balanced, friction arm support (friction dampening to proximal and distal joints)",HCPS +E2630,Wheelchair Mobile Arm Supports .,"Wheelchair accessory, shoulder elbow, mobile arm support, mono suspension arm and hand support, overhead elbow forearm hand sling support, yoke type suspension support",HCPS +E2631,Wheelchair Mobile Arm Supports .,"Wheelchair accessory, addition to mobile arm support, elevating proximal arm",HCPS +E2632,Wheelchair Mobile Arm Supports .,"Wheelchair accessory, addition to mobile arm support, offset or lateral rocker arm with elastic balance control",HCPS +E2633,Wheelchair Mobile Arm Supports .,"Wheelchair accessory, addition to mobile arm support, supinator",HCPS +E3000,Speech Volume Modulation System.,"Speech volume modulation system, any type, including all components and accessories",HCPS +E8000,Pediatric Gait Trainers .,"Gait trainer, pediatric size, posterior support, includes all accessories and components",HCPS +E8001,Pediatric Gait Trainers .,"Gait trainer, pediatric size, upright support, includes all accessories and components",HCPS +E8002,Pediatric Gait Trainers .,"Gait trainer, pediatric size, anterior support, includes all accessories and components",HCPS +G0008,Vaccine Administration .,Administration of influenza virus vaccine,HCPS +G0009,Vaccine Administration .,Administration of pneumococcal vaccine,HCPS +G0010,Vaccine Administration .,Administration of hepatitis B vaccine,HCPS +G0017,"Psychotherapy, Pre-Exposure Prophylaxis Counseling and Community Health Integration Services.","Psychotherapy for crisis furnished in an applicable site of service (any place of service at which the non-facility rate for psychotherapy for crisis services applies, other than the office setting); first 60 minutes",HCPS +G0018,"Psychotherapy, Pre-Exposure Prophylaxis Counseling and Community Health Integration Services.","Psychotherapy for crisis furnished in an applicable site of service (any place of service at which the non-facility rate for psychotherapy for crisis services applies, other than the office setting); each additional 30 minutes (list separately in addition to code for primary service)",HCPS +G0019,"Psychotherapy, Pre-Exposure Prophylaxis Counseling and Community Health Integration Services.","Community health integration services performed by certified or trained auxiliary personnel, including a community health worker, under the direction of a physician or other practitioner; 60 minutes per calendar month, in the following activities to address social determinants of health (sdoh) need(s) that are significantly limiting the ability to diagnose or treat problem(s) addressed in an initiating visit: person-centered assessment, performed to better understand the individualized context of the intersection between the sdoh need(s) and the problem(s) addressed in the initiating visit. ++ conducting a person-centered assessment to understand patient's life story, strengths, needs, goals, preferences and desired outcomes, including understanding cultural and linguistic factors and including unmet sdoh needs (that are not separately billed). ++ facilitating patient-driven goal-setting and establishing an action plan. ++ providing tailored support to the patient as needed to accomplish the practitioner's treatment plan. practitioner, home-, and community-based care coordination. ++ coordinating receipt of needed services from healthcare practitioners, providers, and facilities; and from home- and community-based service providers, social service providers, and caregiver (if applicable). ++ communication with practitioners, home- and community-based service providers, hospitals, and skilled nursing facilities (or other health care facilities) regarding the patient's psychosocial strengths and needs, functional deficits, goals, preferences, and desired outcomes, including cultural and linguistic factors. ++ coordination of care transitions between and among health care practitioners and settings, including transitions involving referral to other clinicians; follow-up after an emergency department visit; or follow-up after discharges from hospitals, skilled nursing facilities or other health care facilities. ++ facilitating access to community-based social services (e.g., housing, utilities, transportation, food assistance) to address the sdoh need(s). health education- helping the patient contextualize health education provided by the patient's treatment team with the patient's individual needs, goals, and preferences, in the context of the sdoh need(s), and educating the patient on how to best participate in medical decision-making. building patient self-advocacy skills, so that the patient can interact with members of the health care team and related community-based services addressing the sdoh need(s), in ways that are more likely to promote personalized and effective diagnosis or treatment. health care access / health system navigation. ++ helping the patient access healthcare, including identifying appropriate practitioners or providers for clinical care and helping secure appointments with them. facilitating behavioral change as necessary for meeting diagnosis and treatment goals, including promoting patient motivation to participate in care and reach person-centered diagnosis or treatment goals. facilitating and providing social and emotional support to help the patient cope with the problem(s) addressed in the initiating visit, the sdoh need(s), and adjust daily routines to better meet diagnosis and treatment goals. leveraging lived experience when applicable to provide support, mentorship, or inspiration to meet treatment goals",HCPS +G0022,"Psychotherapy, Pre-Exposure Prophylaxis Counseling and Community Health Integration Services.","Community health integration services, each additional 30 minutes per calendar month (list separately in addition to g0019)",HCPS +G0023,"Psychotherapy, Pre-Exposure Prophylaxis Counseling and Community Health Integration Services.","Principal illness navigation services by certified or trained auxiliary personnel under the direction of a physician or other practitioner, including a patient navigator; 60 minutes per calendar month, in the following activities: person-centered assessment, performed to better understand the individual context of the serious, high-risk condition. ++ conducting a person-centered assessment to understand the patient's life story, strengths, needs, goals, preferences, and desired outcomes, including understanding cultural and linguistic factors and including unmet sdoh needs (that are not separately billed). ++ facilitating patient-driven goal setting and establishing an action plan. ++ providing tailored support as needed to accomplish the practitioner's treatment plan. identifying or referring patient (and caregiver or family, if applicable) to appropriate supportive services. practitioner, home, and community-based care coordination. ++ coordinating receipt of needed services from healthcare practitioners, providers, and facilities; home- and community-based service providers; and caregiver (if applicable). ++ communication with practitioners, home-, and community-based service providers, hospitals, and skilled nursing facilities (or other health care facilities) regarding the patient's psychosocial strengths and needs, functional deficits, goals, preferences, and desired outcomes, including cultural and linguistic factors. ++ coordination of care transitions between and among health care practitioners and settings, including transitions involving referral to other clinicians; follow-up after an emergency department visit; or follow-up after discharges from hospitals, skilled nursing facilities or other health care facilities. ++ facilitating access to community-based social services (e.g., housing, utilities, transportation, likely to promote personalized and effective treatment of their condition. health care access / health system navigation. ++ helping the patient access healthcare, including identifying appropriate practitioners or providers for clinical care, and helping secure appointments with them. ++ providing the patient with information/resources to consider participation in clinical trials or clinical research as applicable. facilitating behavioral change as necessary for meeting diagnosis and treatment goals, including promoting patient motivation to participate in care and reach person-centered diagnosis or treatment goals. facilitating and providing social and emotional support to help the patient cope with the condition, sdoh need(s), and adjust daily routines to better meet diagnosis and treatment goals. leverage knowledge of the serious, high-risk condition and/or lived experience when applicable to provide support, mentorship, or inspiration to meet treatment goals",HCPS +G0024,"Psychotherapy, Pre-Exposure Prophylaxis Counseling and Community Health Integration Services.","Principal illness navigation services, additional 30 minutes per calendar month (list separately in addition to g0023)",HCPS +G0027,Analysis of Semen Specimen .,Semen analysis; presence and/or motility of sperm excluding huhner,HCPS +G0029,MIPS Measures.,Tobacco screening not performed or tobacco cessation intervention not provided during the measurement period or in the six months prior to the measurement period,HCPS +G0030,MIPS Measures.,"Patient screened for tobacco use and received tobacco cessation intervention during the measurement period or in the six months prior to the measurement period (counseling, pharmacotherapy, or both), if identified as a tobacco user",HCPS +G0031,MIPS Measures.,Palliative care services given to patient any time during the measurement period,HCPS +G0032,MIPS Measures.,"Two or more antipsychotic prescriptions ordered for patients who had a diagnosis of schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, or bipolar disorder on or between january 1 of the year prior to the measurement period and the index prescription start date (ipsd) for antipsychotics",HCPS +G0033,MIPS Measures.,"Two or more benzodiazepine prescriptions ordered for patients who had a diagnosis of seizure disorders, rapid eye movement sleep behavior disorder, benzodiazepine withdrawal, ethanol withdrawal, or severe generalized anxiety disorder on or between january 1 of the year prior to the measurement period and the ipsd for benzodiazepines",HCPS +G0034,MIPS Measures.,Patients receiving palliative care during the measurement period,HCPS +G0035,MIPS Measures.,Patient has any emergency department encounter during the performance period with place of service indicator 23,HCPS +G0036,MIPS Measures.,Patient or care partner decline assessment,HCPS +G0037,MIPS Measures.,"On date of encounter, patient is not able to participate in assessment or screening, including non-verbal patients, delirious, severely aphasic, severely developmentally delayed, severe visual or hearing impairment and for those patients, no knowledgeable informant available",HCPS +G0038,MIPS Measures.,Clinician determines patient does not require referral,HCPS +G0039,MIPS Measures.,"Patient not referred, reason not otherwise specified",HCPS +G0040,MIPS Measures.,Patient already receiving physical/occupational/speech/recreational therapy during the measurement period,HCPS +G0041,MIPS Measures.,Patient and/or care partner decline referral,HCPS +G0042,MIPS Measures.,"Referral to physical, occupational, speech, or recreational therapy",HCPS +G0043,MIPS Measures.,Patients with mechanical prosthetic heart valve,HCPS +G0044,MIPS Measures.,Patients with moderate or severe mitral stenosis,HCPS +G0045,MIPS Measures.,Clinical follow-up and mrs score assessed at 90 days following endovascular stroke intervention,HCPS +G0046,MIPS Measures.,Clinical follow-up and mrs score not assessed at 90 days following endovascular stroke intervention,HCPS +G0047,MIPS Measures.,Pediatric patient with minor blunt head trauma and pecarn prediction criteria are not assessed,HCPS +G0048,MIPS Measures.,Patients who receive palliative care services any time during the intake period through the end of the measurement year,HCPS +G0049,MIPS Measures.,With maintenance hemodialysis (in-center and home hd) for the complete reporting month,HCPS +G0050,MIPS Measures.,Patients with a catheter that have limited life expectancy,HCPS +G0051,MIPS Measures.,Patients under hospice care in the current reporting month,HCPS +G0052,MIPS Measures.,Patients on peritoneal dialysis for any portion of the reporting month,HCPS +G0053,MIPS Measures.,Advancing rheumatology patient care mips value pathways,HCPS +G0054,MIPS Measures.,Coordinating stroke care to promote prevention and cultivate positive outcomes mips value pathways,HCPS +G0055,MIPS Measures.,Advancing care for heart disease mips value pathways,HCPS +G0057,MIPS Measures.,Proposed adopting best practices and promoting patient safety within emergency medicine mips value pathways,HCPS +G0058,MIPS Measures.,Improving care for lower extremity joint repair mips value pathways,HCPS +G0059,MIPS Measures.,Patient safety and support of positive experiences with anesthesia mips value pathways,HCPS +G0060,MIPS Measures.,Allergy/immunology mips specialty set,HCPS +G0061,MIPS Measures.,Anesthesiology mips specialty set,HCPS +G0062,MIPS Measures.,Audiology mips specialty set,HCPS +G0063,MIPS Measures.,Cardiology mips specialty set,HCPS +G0064,MIPS Measures.,Certified nurse midwife mips specialty set,HCPS +G0065,MIPS Measures.,Chiropractic medicine mips specialty set,HCPS +G0066,MIPS Measures.,Clinical social work mips specialty set,HCPS +G0067,MIPS Measures.,Dentistry mips specialty set,HCPS +G0068,Professional Services for Drug Infusion.,"Professional services for the administration of anti-infective, pain management, chelation, pulmonary hypertension, inotropic, or other intravenous infusion drug or biological (excluding chemotherapy or other highly complex drug or biological) for each infusion drug administration calendar day in the individual's home, each 15 minutes",HCPS +G0069,Professional Services for Drug Infusion.,"Professional services for the administration of subcutaneous immunotherapy or other subcutaneous infusion drug or biological for each infusion drug administration calendar day in the individual's home, each 15 minutes",HCPS +G0070,Professional Services for Drug Infusion.,"Professional services for the administration of intravenous chemotherapy or other intravenous highly complex drug or biological infusion for each infusion drug administration calendar day in the individual's home, each 15 minutes",HCPS +G0071,Telemed Services.,"Payment for communication technology-based services for 5 minutes or more of a virtual (non-face-to-face) communication between an rural health clinic (rhc) or federally qualified health center (fqhc) practitioner and rhc or fqhc patient, or 5 minutes or more of remote evaluation of recorded video and/or images by an rhc or fqhc practitioner, occurring in lieu of an office visit; rhc or fqhc only",HCPS +G0076,Home Care Management Services.,"Brief (20 minutes) care management home visit for a new patient. for use only in a medicare-approved cmmi model. (services must be furnished within a beneficiary's home, domiciliary, rest home, assisted living and/or nursing facility)",HCPS +G0077,Home Care Management Services.,"Limited (30 minutes) care management home visit for a new patient. for use only in a medicare-approved cmmi model. (services must be furnished within a beneficiary's home, domiciliary, rest home, assisted living and/or nursing facility)",HCPS +G0078,Home Care Management Services.,"Moderate (45 minutes) care management home visit for a new patient. for use only in a medicare-approved cmmi model. (services must be furnished within a beneficiary's home, domiciliary, rest home, assisted living and/or nursing facility)",HCPS +G0079,Home Care Management Services.,"Comprehensive (60 minutes) care management home visit for a new patient. for use only in a medicare-approved cmmi model. (services must be furnished within a beneficiary's home, domiciliary, rest home, assisted living and/or nursing facility)",HCPS +G0080,Home Care Management Services.,"Extensive (75 minutes) care management home visit for a new patient. for use only in a medicare-approved cmmi model. (services must be furnished within a beneficiary's home, domiciliary, rest home, assisted living and/or nursing facility)",HCPS +G0081,Home Care Management Services.,"Brief (20 minutes) care management home visit for an existing patient. for use only in a medicare-approved cmmi model. (services must be furnished within a beneficiary's home, domiciliary, rest home, assisted living and/or nursing facility)",HCPS +G0082,Home Care Management Services.,"Limited (30 minutes) care management home visit for an existing patient. for use only in a medicare-approved cmmi model. (services must be furnished within a beneficiary's home, domiciliary, rest home, assisted living and/or nursing facility)",HCPS +G0083,Home Care Management Services.,"Moderate (45 minutes) care management home visit for an existing patient. for use only in a medicare-approved cmmi model. (services must be furnished within a beneficiary's home, domiciliary, rest home, assisted living and/or nursing facility)",HCPS +G0084,Home Care Management Services.,"Comprehensive (60 minutes) care management home visit for an existing patient. for use only in a medicare-approved cmmi model. (services must be furnished within a beneficiary's home, domiciliary, rest home, assisted living and/or nursing facility)",HCPS +G0085,Home Care Management Services.,"Extensive (75 minutes) care management home visit for an existing patient. for use only in a medicare-approved cmmi model. (services must be furnished within a beneficiary's home, domiciliary, rest home, assisted living and/or nursing facility)",HCPS +G0086,Home Care Management Services.,"Limited (30 minutes) care management home care plan oversight. for use only in a medicare-approved cmmi model. (services must be furnished within a beneficiary's home, domiciliary, rest home, assisted living and/or nursing facility)",HCPS +G0087,Home Care Management Services.,"Comprehensive (60 minutes) care management home care plan oversight. for use only in a medicare-approved cmmi model. (services must be furnished within a beneficiary's home, domiciliary, rest home, assisted living and/or nursing facility)",HCPS +G0088,Initial Visit for Professional Services.,"Professional services, initial visit, for the administration of anti-infective, pain management, chelation, pulmonary hypertension, inotropic, or other intravenous infusion drug or biological (excluding chemotherapy or other highly complex drug or biological) for each infusion drug administration calendar day in the individual's home, each 15 minutes",HCPS +G0089,Initial Visit for Professional Services.,"Professional services, initial visit, for the administration of subcutaneous immunotherapy or other subcutaneous infusion drug or biological for each infusion drug administration calendar day in the individual's home, each 15 minutes",HCPS +G0090,Initial Visit for Professional Services.,"Professional services, initial visit, for the administration of intravenous chemotherapy or other highly complex infusion drug or biological for each infusion drug administration calendar day in the individual's home, each 15 minutes",HCPS +G0101,Screening Examinations and Disease Management Training .,Cervical or vaginal cancer screening; pelvic and clinical breast examination,HCPS +G0102,Screening Examinations and Disease Management Training .,Prostate cancer screening; digital rectal examination,HCPS +G0103,Screening Examinations and Disease Management Training .,Prostate cancer screening; prostate specific antigen test (PSA),HCPS +G0104,Screening Examinations and Disease Management Training .,Colorectal cancer screening; flexible sigmoidoscopy,HCPS +G0105,Screening Examinations and Disease Management Training .,Colorectal cancer screening; colonoscopy on individual at high risk,HCPS +G0106,Screening Examinations and Disease Management Training .,"Colorectal cancer screening; alternative to G0104, screening sigmoidoscopy, barium enema",HCPS +G0108,Screening Examinations and Disease Management Training .,"Diabetes outpatient self-management training services, individual, per 30 minutes",HCPS +G0109,Screening Examinations and Disease Management Training .,"Diabetes outpatient self-management training services, group session (2 or more), per 30 minutes",HCPS +G0117,Screening Examinations and Disease Management Training .,Glaucoma screening for high risk patients furnished by an optometrist or ophthalmologist,HCPS +G0118,Screening Examinations and Disease Management Training .,Glaucoma screening for high risk patient furnished under the direct supervision of an optometrist or ophthalmologist,HCPS +G0120,Screening Examinations and Disease Management Training .,"Colorectal cancer screening; alternative to G0105, screening colonoscopy, barium enema.",HCPS +G0121,Screening Examinations and Disease Management Training .,Colorectal cancer screening; colonoscopy on individual not meeting criteria for high risk,HCPS +G0122,Screening Examinations and Disease Management Training .,Colorectal cancer screening; barium enema,HCPS +G0123,Screening Examinations and Disease Management Training .,"Screening cytopathology, cervical or vaginal (any reporting system), collected in preservative fluid, automated thin layer preparation, screening by cytotechnologist under physician supervision",HCPS +G0124,Screening Examinations and Disease Management Training .,"Screening cytopathology, cervical or vaginal (any reporting system), collected in preservative fluid, automated thin layer preparation, requiring interpretation by physician",HCPS +G0127,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Trimming of dystrophic nails, any number",HCPS +G0128,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Direct (face-to-face with patient) skilled nursing services of a registered nurse provided in a comprehensive outpatient rehabilitation facility, each 10 minutes beyond the first 5 minutes",HCPS +G0129,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Occupational therapy services requiring the skills of a qualified occupational therapist, furnished as a component of a partial hospitalization or intensive outpatient treatment program, per session (45 minutes or more)",HCPS +G0130,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Single energy X-ray absorptiometry (SEXA) bone density study, one or more sites; appendicular skeleton (peripheral) (e.g., radius, wrist, heel)",HCPS +G0136,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Administration of a standardized, evidence-based social determinants of health risk assessment tool, 5-15 minutes",HCPS +G0137,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Intensive outpatient services; weekly bundle, minimum of 9 services over a 7 contiguous day period, which can include individual and group therapy with physicians or psychologists (or other mental health professionals to the extent authorized under state law); occupational therapy requiring the skills of a qualified occupational therapist; services of social workers, trained psychiatric nurses, and other staff trained to work with psychiatric patients; individualized activity therapies that are not primarily recreational or diversionary; family counseling (the primary purpose of which is treatment of the individual's condition); patient training and education (to the extent that training and educational activities are closely and clearly related to individual's care and treatment); diagnostic services; and such other items and services (excluding meals and transportation) that are reasonable and necessary for the diagnosis or active treatment of the individual's condition, reasonably expected to improve or maintain the individual's condition and functional level and to prevent relapse or hospitalization, and furnished pursuant to such guidelines relating to frequency and duration of services in accordance with a physician certification and plan of treatment (provision of the services by a medicare-enrolled opioid treatment program); list separately in addition to code for primary procedure",HCPS +G0140,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Principal illness navigation - peer support by certified or trained auxiliary personnel under the direction of a physician or other practitioner, including a certified peer specialist; 60 minutes per calendar month, in the following activities: person-centered interview, performed to better understand the individual context of the serious, high-risk condition. ++ conducting a person-centered interview to understand the patient's life story, strengths, needs, goals, preferences, and desired outcomes, including understanding cultural and linguistic factors, and including unmet sdoh needs (that are not billed separately). ++ facilitating patient-driven goal setting and establishing an action plan. ++ providing tailored support as needed to accomplish the person-centered goals in the practitioner's treatment plan. identifying or referring patient (and caregiver or family, if applicable) to appropriate supportive services. practitioner, home, and community-based care communication. ++ assist the patient in communicating with their practitioners, home-, and community-based service providers, hospitals, and skilled nursing facilities (or other health care facilities) regarding the patient's psychosocial strengths and needs, goals, preferences, and desired outcomes, including cultural and linguistic factors. ++ facilitating access to community-based social services (e.g., housing, utilities, transportation, food assistance) as needed to address sdoh need(s). health education. helping the patient contextualize health education provided by the patient's treatment team with the patient's individual needs, goals, preferences, and sdoh need(s), and educating the patient (and caregiver if applicable) on how to best participate in medical decision-making. building patient self-advocacy skills, so that the patient can interact with members of the health care team and related community-based services (as needed), in ways that are more likely to promote personalized and effective treatment of their condition. developing and proposing strategies to help meet person-centered treatment goals and supporting the patient in using chosen strategies to reach person-centered treatment goals. facilitating and providing social and emotional support to help the patient cope with the condition, sdoh need(s), and adjust daily routines to better meet person-centered diagnosis and treatment goals. leverage knowledge of the serious, high-risk condition and/or lived experience when applicable to provide support, mentorship, or inspiration to meet treatment goals",HCPS +G0141,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Screening cytopathology smears, cervical or vaginal, performed by automated system, with manual rescreening, requiring interpretation by physician",HCPS +G0143,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Screening cytopathology, cervical or vaginal (any reporting system), collected in preservative fluid, automated thin layer preparation, with manual screening and rescreening by cytotechnologist under physician supervision",HCPS +G0144,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Screening cytopathology, cervical or vaginal (any reporting system), collected in preservative fluid, automated thin layer preparation, with screening by automated system, under physician supervision",HCPS +G0145,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Screening cytopathology, cervical or vaginal (any reporting system), collected in preservative fluid, automated thin layer preparation, with screening by automated system and manual rescreening under physician supervision",HCPS +G0146,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Principal illness navigation - peer support, additional 30 minutes per calendar month (list separately in addition to g0140)",HCPS +G0147,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Screening cytopathology smears, cervical or vaginal, performed by automated system under physician supervision",HCPS +G0148,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Screening cytopathology smears, cervical or vaginal, performed by automated system with manual rescreening",HCPS +G0151,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Services performed by a qualified physical therapist in the home health or hospice setting, each 15 minutes",HCPS +G0152,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Services performed by a qualified occupational therapist in the home health or hospice setting, each 15 minutes",HCPS +G0153,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Services performed by a qualified speech-language pathologist in the home health or hospice setting, each 15 minutes",HCPS +G0155,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Services of clinical social worker in home health or hospice settings, each 15 minutes",HCPS +G0156,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Services of home health/hospice aide in home health or hospice settings, each 15 minutes",HCPS +G0157,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Services performed by a qualified physical therapist assistant in the home health or hospice setting, each 15 minutes",HCPS +G0158,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Services performed by a qualified occupational therapist assistant in the home health or hospice setting, each 15 minutes",HCPS +G0159,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Services performed by a qualified physical therapist, in the home health setting, in the establishment or delivery of a safe and effective physical therapy maintenance program, each 15 minutes",HCPS +G0160,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Services performed by a qualified occupational therapist, in the home health setting, in the establishment or delivery of a safe and effective occupational therapy maintenance program, each 15 minutes",HCPS +G0161,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Services performed by a qualified speech-language pathologist, in the home health setting, in the establishment or delivery of a safe and effective speech-language pathology maintenance program, each 15 minutes",HCPS +G0162,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,Skilled services by a registered nurse (RN) for management and evaluation of the plan of care; each 15 minutes (the patient's underlying condition or complication requires an RN to ensure that essential non-skilled care achieves its purpose in the home health or hospice setting),HCPS +G0166,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"External counterpulsation, per treatment session",HCPS +G0168,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,Wound closure utilizing tissue adhesive(s) only,HCPS +G0175,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,Scheduled interdisciplinary team conference (minimum of three exclusive of patient care nursing staff) with patient present,HCPS +G0176,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Activity therapy, such as music, dance, art or play therapies not for recreation, related to the care and treatment of patient's disabling mental health problems, per session (45 minutes or more)",HCPS +G0177,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,Training and educational services related to the care and treatment of patient's disabling mental health problems per session (45 minutes or more),HCPS +G0179,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Physician or allowed practitioner re-certification for Medicare-covered home health services under a home health plan of care (patient not present), including contacts with home health agency and review of reports of patient status required by physicians and allowed practitioners to affirm the initial implementation of the plan of care",HCPS +G0180,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Physician or allowed practitioner certification for Medicare-covered home health services under a home health plan of care (patient not present), including contacts with home health agency and review of reports of patient status required by physicians and allowed practitioners to affirm the initial implementation of the plan of care",HCPS +G0181,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,Physician or allowed practitioner supervision of a patient receiving Medicare-covered services provided by a participating home health agency (patient not present) requiring complex and multidisciplinary care modalities involving regular physician or allowed practitioner development and/or revision of care plans,HCPS +G0182,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Physician supervision of a patient under a Medicare-approved hospice (patient not present) requiring complex and multidisciplinary care modalities involving regular physician development and/or revision of care plans, review of subsequent reports of patient status, review of laboratory and other studies, communication (including telephone calls) with other health care professionals involved in the patient's care, integration of new information into the medical treatment plan and/or adjustment of medical therapy, within a calendar month, 30 minutes or more",HCPS +G0186,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Destruction of localized lesion of choroid (for example, choroidal neovascularization); photocoagulation, feeder vessel technique (one or more sessions)",HCPS +G0219,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,PET imaging whole body; melanoma for non-covered indications,HCPS +G0235,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"PET imaging, any site, not otherwise specified",HCPS +G0237,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Therapeutic procedures to increase strength or endurance of respiratory muscles, face to face, one on one, each 15 minutes (includes monitoring)",HCPS +G0238,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Therapeutic procedures to improve respiratory function, other than described by G0237, one on one, face to face, per 15 minutes (includes monitoring)",HCPS +G0239,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Therapeutic procedures to improve respiratory function or increase strength or endurance of respiratory muscles, two or more individuals (includes monitoring)",HCPS +G0245,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Initial physician evaluation and management of a diabetic patient with diabetic sensory neuropathy resulting in a loss of protective sensation (LOPS) which must include: (1) the diagnosis of LOPS, (2) a patient history, (3) a physical examination that consists of at least the following elements: (a) visual inspection of the forefoot, hindfoot and toe web spaces, (b) evaluation of a protective sensation, (c) evaluation of foot structure and biomechanics, (d) evaluation of vascular status and skin integrity, and (e) evaluation and recommendation of footwear and (4) patient education",HCPS +G0246,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Follow-up physician evaluation and management of a diabetic patient with diabetic sensory neuropathy resulting in a loss of protective sensation (LOPS) to include at least the following: (1) a patient history, (2) a physical examination that includes: (a) visual inspection of the forefoot, hindfoot and toe web spaces, (b) evaluation of protective sensation, (c) evaluation of foot structure and biomechanics, (d) evaluation of vascular status and skin integrity, and (e) evaluation and recommendation of footwear, and (3) patient education",HCPS +G0247,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Routine foot care by a physician of a diabetic patient with diabetic sensory neuropathy resulting in a loss of protective sensation (LOPS) to include, the local care of superficial wounds (i.e. superficial to muscle and fascia) and at least the following if present: (1) local care of superficial wounds, (2) debridement of corns and calluses, and (3) trimming and debridement of nails",HCPS +G0248,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Demonstration, prior to initiation of home INR monitoring, for patient with either mechanical heart valve(s), chronic atrial fibrillation, or venous thromboembolism who meets Medicare coverage criteria, under the direction of a physician; includes: face-to-face demonstration of use and care of the INR monitor, obtaining at least one blood sample, provision of instructions for reporting home INR test results, and documentation of patient's ability to perform testing and report results",HCPS +G0249,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Provision of test materials and equipment for home INR monitoring of patient with either mechanical heart valve(s), chronic atrial fibrillation, or venous thromboembolism who meets Medicare coverage criteria; includes: provision of materials for use in the home and reporting of test results to physician; testing not occurring more frequently than once a week; testing materials, billing units of service include 4 tests",HCPS +G0250,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Physician review, interpretation, and patient management of home INR testing for patient with either mechanical heart valve(s), chronic atrial fibrillation, or venous thromboembolism who meets Medicare coverage criteria; testing not occurring more frequently than once a week; billing units of service include 4 tests",HCPS +G0252,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"PET imaging, full and partial-ring PET scanners only, for initial diagnosis of breast cancer and/or surgical planning for breast cancer (e.g., initial staging of axillary lymph nodes)",HCPS +G0255,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Current perception threshold/sensory nerve conduction test, (SNCT) per limb, any nerve",HCPS +G0257,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,Unscheduled or emergency dialysis treatment for an ESRD patient in a hospital outpatient department that is not certified as an ESRD facility,HCPS +G0259,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,Injection procedure for sacroiliac joint; arthrograpy,HCPS +G0260,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Injection procedure for sacroiliac joint; provision of anesthetic, steroid and/or other therapeutic agent, with or without arthrography",HCPS +G0268,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,Removal of impacted cerumen (one or both ears) by physician on same date of service as audiologic function testing,HCPS +G0269,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Placement of occlusive device into either a venous or arterial access site, post surgical or interventional procedure (e.g., angioseal plug, vascular plug)",HCPS +G0270,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Medical nutrition therapy; reassessment and subsequent intervention(s) following second referral in same year for change in diagnosis, medical condition or treatment regimen (including additional hours needed for renal disease), individual, face to face with the patient, each 15 minutes",HCPS +G0271,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Medical nutrition therapy, reassessment and subsequent intervention(s) following second referral in same year for change in diagnosis, medical condition, or treatment regimen (including additional hours needed for renal disease), group (2 or more individuals), each 30 minutes",HCPS +G0276,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Blinded procedure for lumbar stenosis, percutaneous image-guided lumbar decompression (PILD) or placebo-control, performed in an approved coverage with evidence development (CED) clinical trial",HCPS +G0277,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Hyperbaric oxygen under pressure, full body chamber, per 30 minute interval",HCPS +G0278,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Iliac and/or femoral artery angiography, non-selective, bilateral or ipsilateral to catheter insertion, performed at the same time as cardiac catheterization and/or coronary angiography, includes positioning or placement of the catheter in the distal aorta or ipsilateral femoral or iliac artery, injection of dye, production of permanent images, and radiologic supervision and interpretation (list separately in addition to primary procedure)",HCPS +G0279,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Diagnostic digital breast tomosynthesis, unilateral or bilateral (list separately in addition to 77065 or 77066)",HCPS +G0281,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Electrical stimulation, (unattended), to one or more areas, for chronic Stage III and Stage IV pressure ulcers, arterial ulcers, diabetic ulcers, and venous statsis ulcers not demonstrating measurable signs of healing after 30 days of conventional care, as part of a therapy plan of care",HCPS +G0282,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Electrical stimulation, (unattended), to one or more areas, for wound care other than described in G0281",HCPS +G0283,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Electrical stimulation (unattended), to one or more areas for indication(s) other than wound care, as part of a therapy plan of care",HCPS +G0288,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Reconstruction, computed tomographic angiography of aorta for surgical planning for vascular surgery",HCPS +G0289,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Arthroscopy, knee, surgical, for removal of loose body, foreign body, debridement/shaving of articular cartilage (chondroplasty) at the time of other surgical knee arthroscopy in a different compartment of the same knee",HCPS +G0293,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Noncovered surgical procedure(s) using conscious sedation, regional, general or spinal anesthesia in a Medicare qualifying clinical trial, per day",HCPS +G0294,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Noncovered procedure(s) using either no anesthesia or local anesthesia only, in a Medicare qualifying clinical trial, per day",HCPS +G0295,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Electromagnetic therapy, to one or more areas, for wound care other than described in G0329 or for other uses",HCPS +G0296,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,Counseling visit to discuss need for lung cancer screening (ldct) using low dose ct scan (service is for eligibility determination and shared decision making),HCPS +G0299,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Direct skilled nursing services of a registered nurse (RN) in the home health or hospice setting, each 15 minutes",HCPS +G0300,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Direct skilled nursing services of a license practical nurse (LPN) in the home health or hospice setting, each 15 minutes",HCPS +G0302,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Pre-operative pulmonary surgery services for preparation for LVRS, complete course of services, to include a minimum of 16 days of services",HCPS +G0303,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Pre-operative pulmonary surgery services for preparation for LVRS, 10 to 15 days of services",HCPS +G0304,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Pre-operative pulmonary surgery services for preparation for LVRS, 1 to 9 days of services",HCPS +G0305,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Post-discharge pulmonary surgery services after LVRS, minimum of 6 days of services",HCPS +G0306,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Complete CBC, automated (HgB, HCT, RBC, WBC, without platelet count) and automated WBC differential count",HCPS +G0307,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Complete (CBC), automated (HgB, HCT, RBC, WBC; without platelet count)",HCPS +G0310,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Immunization counseling by a physician or other qualified health care professional when the vaccine(s) is not administered on the same date of service, 5 to 15 mins time (this code is used for medicaid billing purposes)",HCPS +G0311,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Immunization counseling by a physician or other qualified health care professional when the vaccine(s) is not administered on the same date of service, 16-30 mins time (this code is used for medicaid billing purposes)",HCPS +G0312,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Immunization counseling by a physician or other qualify ed health care professional when the vaccine(s) is not administered on the same date of service for ages under 21, 5 to 15 mins time (this code is used for medicaid billing purposes)",HCPS +G0313,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Immunization counseling by a physician or other qualified health care professional when the vaccine(s) is not administered on the same date of service for ages under 21, 16-30 mins time (this code is used for medicaid billing purposes)",HCPS +G0314,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Immunization counseling by a physician or other qualified health care professional for covid-19, ages under 21, 16-30 mins time (this code is used for the medicaid early and periodic screening, diagnostic, and treatment benefit (epsdt)",HCPS +G0315,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Immunization counseling by a physician or other qualified health care professional for covid-19, ages under 21, 5-15 mins time (this code is used for the medicaid early and periodic screening, diagnostic, and treatment benefit (epsdt)",HCPS +G0316,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Prolonged hospital inpatient or observation care evaluation and management service(s) beyond the total time for the primary service (when the primary service has been selected using time on the date of the primary service); each additional 15 minutes by the physician or qualified healthcare professional, with or without direct patient contact (list separately in addition to cpt codes 99223, 99233, and 99236 for hospital inpatient or observation care evaluation and management services). (do not report g0316 on the same date of service as other prolonged services for evaluation and management 99358, 99359, 99418, 99415, 99416). (do not report g0316 for any time unit less than 15 minutes)",HCPS +G0317,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Prolonged nursing facility evaluation and management service(s) beyond the total time for the primary service (when the primary service has been selected using time on the date of the primary service); each additional 15 minutes by the physician or qualified healthcare professional, with or without direct patient contact (list separately in addition to cpt codes 99306, 99310 for nursing facility evaluation and management services). (do not report g0317 on the same date of service as other prolonged services for evaluation and management 99358, 99359, 99418). (do not report g0317 for any time unit less than 15 minutes)",HCPS +G0318,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Prolonged home or residence evaluation and management service(s) beyond the total time for the primary service (when the primary service has been selected using time on the date of the primary service); each additional 15 minutes by the physician or qualified healthcare professional, with or without direct patient contact (list separately in addition to cpt codes 99345, 99350 for home or residence evaluation and management services). (do not report g0318 on the same date of service as other prolonged services for evaluation and management 99358, 99359, 99417). (do not report g0318 for any time unit less than 15 minutes)",HCPS +G0320,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,Home health services furnished using synchronous telemedicine rendered via a real-time two-way audio and video telecommunications system,HCPS +G0321,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,Home health services furnished using synchronous telemedicine rendered via telephone or other real-time interactive audio-only telecommunications system,HCPS +G0322,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"The collection of physiologic data digitally stored and/or transmitted by the patient to the home health agency (i.e., remote patient monitoring)",HCPS +G0323,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Care management services for behavioral health conditions, at least 20 minutes of clinical psychologist, clinical social worker, mental health counselor, or marriage and family therapist time, per calendar month. (These services include the following required elements: Initial assessment or follow-up monitoring, including the use of applicable validated rating scales; behavioral health care planning in relation to behavioral/psychiatric health problems, including revision for patients who are not progressing or whose status changes; facilitating and coordinating treatment such as psychotherapy, coordination with and/or referral to physicians and practitioners who are authorized by medicare to prescribe medications and furnish e/m services, counseling and/or psychiatric consultation; and continuity of care with a designated member of the care team)",HCPS +G0327,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,Colorectal cancer screening; blood-based biomarker,HCPS +G0328,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Colorectal cancer screening; fecal occult blood test, immunoassay, 1-3 simultaneous",HCPS +G0329,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Electromagnetic therapy, to one or more areas for chronic Stage III and Stage IV pressure ulcers, arterial ulcers, diabetic ulcers and venous stasis ulcers not demonstrating measurable signs of healing after 30 days of conventional care as part of a therapy plan of care",HCPS +G0330,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Facility services for dental rehabilitation procedure(s) performed on a patient who requires monitored anesthesia (e.g., general, intravenous sedation (monitored anesthesia care) and use of an operating room",HCPS +G0333,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,Pharmacy dispensing fee for inhalation drug(s); initial 30-day supply as a beneficiary,HCPS +G0337,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Hospice evaluation and counseling services, pre-election",HCPS +G0339,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Image-guided robotic linear accelerator-based stereotactic radiosurgery, complete course of therapy in one session or first session of fractionated treatment",HCPS +G0340,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Image-guided robotic linear accelerator-based stereotactic radiosurgery, delivery including collimator changes and custom plugging, fractionated treatment, all lesions, per session, second through fifth sessions, maximum five sessions per course of treatment",HCPS +G0341,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Percutaneous islet cell transplant, includes portal vein catheterization and infusion",HCPS +G0342,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Laparoscopy for islet cell transplant, includes portal vein catheterization and infusion",HCPS +G0343,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,"Laparotomy for islet cell transplant, includes portal vein catheterization and infusion",HCPS +G0372,Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Services .,Physician service required to establish and document the need for a power mobility device,HCPS +G0378,Hospital Observation and Emergency Services .,"Hospital observation service, per hour",HCPS +G0379,Hospital Observation and Emergency Services .,Direct admission of patient for hospital observation care,HCPS +G0380,Hospital Observation and Emergency Services .,"Level 1 hospital emergency department visit provided in a type B emergency department; (the ED must meet at least one of the following requirements: (1) it is licensed by the state in which it is located under applicable state law as an emergency room or emergency department; (2) it is held out to the public (by name, posted signs, advertising, or other means) as a place that provides care for emergency medical conditions on an urgent basis without requiring a previously scheduled appointment; or (3) during the calendar year immediately preceding the calendar year in which a determination under 42 CFR 489.24 is being made, based on a representative sample of patient visits that occurred during that calendar year, it provides at least one-third of all of its outpatient visits for the treatment of emergency medical conditions on an urgent basis without requiring a previously scheduled appointment)",HCPS +G0381,Hospital Observation and Emergency Services .,"Level 2 hospital emergency department visit provided in a type B emergency department; (the ED must meet at least one of the following requirements: (1) it is licensed by the state in which it is located under applicable state law as an emergency room or emergency department; (2) it is held out to the public (by name, posted signs, advertising, or other means) as a place that provides care for emergency medical conditions on an urgent basis without requiring a previously scheduled appointment; or (3) during the calendar year immediately preceding the calendar year in which a determination under 42 CFR 489.24 is being made, based on a representative sample of patient visits that occurred during that calendar year, it provides at least one-third of all of its outpatient visits for the treatment of emergency medical conditions on an urgent basis without requiring a previously scheduled appointment)",HCPS +G0382,Hospital Observation and Emergency Services .,"Level 3 hospital emergency department visit provided in a type B emergency department; (the ED must meet at least one of the following requirements: (1) it is licensed by the state in which it is located under applicable state law as an emergency room or emergency department; (2) it is held out to the public (by name, posted signs, advertising, or other means) as a place that provides care for emergency medical conditions on an urgent basis without requiring a previously scheduled appointment; or (3) during the calendar year immediately preceding the calendar year in which a determination under 42 CFR 489.24 is being made, based on a representative sample of patient visits that occurred during that calendar year, it provides at least one-third of all of its outpatient visits for the treatment of emergency medical conditions on an urgent basis without requiring a previously scheduled appointment)",HCPS +G0383,Hospital Observation and Emergency Services .,"Level 4 hospital emergency department visit provided in a type B emergency department; (the ED must meet at least one of the following requirements: (1) it is licensed by the state in which it is located under applicable state law as an emergency room or emergency department; (2) it is held out to the public (by name, posted signs, advertising, or other means) as a place that provides care for emergency medical conditions on an urgent basis without requiring a previously scheduled appointment; or (3) during the calendar year immediately preceding the calendar year in which a determination under 42 CFR 489.24 is being made, based on a representative sample of patient visits that occurred during that calendar year, it provides at least one-third of all of its outpatient visits for the treatment of emergency medical conditions on an urgent basis without requiring a previously scheduled appointment)",HCPS +G0384,Hospital Observation and Emergency Services .,"Level 5 hospital emergency department visit provided in a type B emergency department; (the ED must meet at least one of the following requirements: (1) it is licensed by the state in which it is located under applicable state law as an emergency room or emergency department; (2) it is held out to the public (by name, posted signs, advertising, or other means) as a place that provides care for emergency medical conditions on an urgent basis without requiring a previously scheduled appointment; or (3) during the calendar year immediately preceding the calendar year in which a determination under 42 CFR 489.24 is being made, based on a representative sample of patient visits that occurred during that calendar year, it provides at least one-third of all of its outpatient visits for the treatment of emergency medical conditions on an urgent basis without requiring a previously scheduled appointment)",HCPS +G0390,Other Emergency Services.,Trauma response team associated with hospital critical care service,HCPS +G0396,Alcohol and Substance Abuse Assessments .,"Alcohol and/or substance (other than tobacco) misuse structured assessment (e.g., audit, dast), and brief intervention 15 to 30 minutes",HCPS +G0397,Alcohol and Substance Abuse Assessments .,"Alcohol and/or substance (other than tobacco) misuse structured assessment (e.g., audit, dast), and intervention, greater than 30 minutes",HCPS +G0398,"Sleep Studies, In Home .","Home sleep study test (HST) with type II portable monitor, unattended; minimum of 7 channels: eeg, eog, emg, ecg/heart rate, airflow, respiratory effort and oxygen saturation",HCPS +G0399,"Sleep Studies, In Home .","Home sleep test (HST) with type III portable monitor, unattended; minimum of 4 channels: 2 respiratory movement/airflow, 1 ecg/heart rate and 1 oxygen saturation",HCPS +G0400,"Sleep Studies, In Home .","Home sleep test (HST) with type IV portable monitor, unattended; minimum of 3 channels",HCPS +G0402,Initial Services for Medicare Enrollment .,"Initial preventive physical examination; face-to-face visit, services limited to new beneficiary during the first 12 months of Medicare enrollment",HCPS +G0403,Initial Services for Medicare Enrollment .,"Electrocardiogram, routine ECG with 12 leads; performed as a screening for the initial preventive physical examination with interpretation and report",HCPS +G0404,Initial Services for Medicare Enrollment .,"Electrocardiogram, routine ECG with 12 leads; tracing only, without interpretation and report, performed as a screening for the initial preventive physical examination",HCPS +G0405,Initial Services for Medicare Enrollment .,"Electrocardiogram, routine ECG with 12 leads; interpretation and report only, performed as a screening for the initial preventive physical examination",HCPS +G0406,Followup Telehealth Consultations .,"Follow-up inpatient consultation, limited, physicians typically spend 15 minutes communicating with the patient via telehealth",HCPS +G0407,Followup Telehealth Consultations .,"Follow-up inpatient consultation, intermediate, physicians typically spend 25 minutes communicating with the patient via telehealth",HCPS +G0408,Followup Telehealth Consultations .,"Follow-up inpatient consultation, complex, physicians typically spend 35 minutes communicating with the patient via telehealth",HCPS +G0409,Psychological Services .,"Social work and psychological services, directly relating to and/or furthering the patient's rehabilitation goals, each 15 minutes, face-to-face; individual (services provided by a CORF-qualified social worker or psychologist in a CORF)",HCPS +G0410,Psychological Services .,"Group psychotherapy other than of a multiple-family group, in a partial hospitalization or intensive outpatient setting, approximately 45 to 50 minutes",HCPS +G0411,Psychological Services .,"Interactive group psychotherapy, in a partial hospitalization or intensive outpatient setting, approximately 45 to 50 minutes",HCPS +G0412,Fracture Treatment .,"Open treatment of iliac spine(s), tuberosity avulsion, or iliac wing fracture(s), unilateral or bilateral for pelvic bone fracture patterns which do not disrupt the pelvic ring includes internal fixation, when performed",HCPS +G0413,Fracture Treatment .,"Percutaneous skeletal fixation of posterior pelvic bone fracture and/or dislocation, for fracture patterns which disrupt the pelvic ring, unilateral or bilateral, (includes ilium, sacroiliac joint and/or sacrum)",HCPS +G0414,Fracture Treatment .,"Open treatment of anterior pelvic bone fracture and/or dislocation for fracture patterns which disrupt the pelvic ring, unilateral or bilateral, includes internal fixation when performed (includes pubic symphysis and/or superior/inferior rami)",HCPS +G0415,Fracture Treatment .,"Open treatment of posterior pelvic bone fracture and/or dislocation, for fracture patterns which disrupt the pelvic ring, unilateral or bilateral, includes internal fixation, when performed (includes ilium, sacroiliac joint and/or sacrum)",HCPS +G0416,"Gross and Microscopic Examinations, Prostate Biopsy .","Surgical pathology, gross and microscopic examinations, for prostate needle biopsy, any method",HCPS +G0420,Face-to-Face Educational Services .,"Face-to-face educational services related to the care of chronic kidney disease; individual, per session, per one hour",HCPS +G0421,Face-to-Face Educational Services .,"Face-to-face educational services related to the care of chronic kidney disease; group, per session, per one hour",HCPS +G0422,Cardiac and Pulmonary Rehabilitation Services .,"Intensive cardiac rehabilitation; with or without continuous ECG monitoring with exercise, per session",HCPS +G0423,Cardiac and Pulmonary Rehabilitation Services .,"Intensive cardiac rehabilitation; with or without continuous ECG monitoring; without exercise, per session",HCPS +G0425,Initial Telehealth Consultations .,"Telehealth consultation, emergency department or initial inpatient, typically 30 minutes communicating with the patient via telehealth",HCPS +G0426,Initial Telehealth Consultations .,"Telehealth consultation, emergency department or initial inpatient, typically 50 minutes communicating with the patient via telehealth",HCPS +G0427,Initial Telehealth Consultations .,"Telehealth consultation, emergency department or initial inpatient, typically 70 minutes or more communicating with the patient via telehealth",HCPS +G0428,Filler Procedures .,"Collagen meniscus implant procedure for filling meniscal defects (e.g., CMI, collagen scaffold, Menaflex)",HCPS +G0429,Filler Procedures .,"Dermal filler injection(s) for the treatment of facial lipodystrophy syndrome (LDS) (e.g., as a result of highly active antiretroviral therapy)",HCPS +G0432,Laboratory Screening Tests .,"Infectious agent antibody detection by enzyme immunoassay (EIA) technique, HIV-1 and/or HIV-2, screening",HCPS +G0433,Laboratory Screening Tests .,"Infectious agent antibody detection by enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) technique, HIV-1 and/or HIV-2, screening",HCPS +G0435,Laboratory Screening Tests .,"Infectious agent antibody detection by rapid antibody test, HIV-1 and/or HIV-2, screening",HCPS +G0438,"Counseling, Screening, and Prevention Services.","Annual wellness visit; includes a personalized prevention plan of service (PPPS), initial visit",HCPS +G0439,"Counseling, Screening, and Prevention Services.","Annual wellness visit, includes a personalized prevention plan of service (PPPS), subsequent visit",HCPS +G0442,"Counseling, Screening, and Prevention Services.","Annual alcohol misuse screening, 5 to 15 minutes",HCPS +G0443,"Counseling, Screening, and Prevention Services.","Brief face-to-face behavioral counseling for alcohol misuse, 15 minutes",HCPS +G0444,"Counseling, Screening, and Prevention Services.","Annual depression screening, 5 to 15 minutes",HCPS +G0445,"Counseling, Screening, and Prevention Services.","High intensity behavioral counseling to prevent sexually transmitted infection; face-to-face, individual, includes: education, skills training and guidance on how to change sexual behavior; performed semi-annually, 30 minutes",HCPS +G0446,"Counseling, Screening, and Prevention Services.","Annual, face-to-face intensive behavioral therapy for cardiovascular disease, individual, 15 minutes",HCPS +G0447,"Counseling, Screening, and Prevention Services.","Face-to-face behavioral counseling for obesity, 15 minutes",HCPS +G0448,"Counseling, Screening, and Prevention Services.","Insertion or replacement of a permanent pacing cardioverter-defibrillator system with transvenous lead(s), single or dual chamber with insertion of pacing electrode, cardiac venous system, for left ventricular pacing",HCPS +G0451,"Counseling, Screening, and Prevention Services.","Development testing, with interpretation and report, per standardized instrument form",HCPS +G0452,Miscellaneous Services .,Molecular pathology procedure; physician interpretation and report,HCPS +G0453,Miscellaneous Services .,"Continuous intraoperative neurophysiology monitoring, from outside the operating room (remote or nearby), per patient, (attention directed exclusively to one patient) each 15 minutes (list in addition to primary procedure)",HCPS +G0454,Miscellaneous Services .,"Physician documentation of face-to-face visit for durable medical equipment determination performed by nurse practitioner, physician assistant or clinical nurse specialist",HCPS +G0455,Miscellaneous Services .,"Preparation with instillation of fecal microbiota by any method, including assessment of donor specimen",HCPS +G0458,Miscellaneous Services .,"Low dose rate (LDR) prostate brachytherapy services, composite rate",HCPS +G0459,Miscellaneous Services .,"Inpatient telehealth pharmacologic management, including prescription, use, and review of medication with no more than minimal medical psychotherapy",HCPS +G0460,Miscellaneous Services .,"Autologous platelet rich plasma or other blood-derived product for non-diabetic chronic wounds/ulcers, including as applicable phlebotomy, centrifugation or mixing, and all other preparatory procedures, administration and dressings, per treatment",HCPS +G0463,Miscellaneous Services .,Hospital outpatient clinic visit for assessment and management of a patient,HCPS +G0465,Miscellaneous Services .,"Autologous platelet rich plasma (PRP) or other blood-derived product for diabetic chronic wounds/ulcers, using an FDA-cleared device for this indication, (includes as applicable administration, dressings, phlebotomy, centrifugation or mixing, and all other preparatory procedures, per treatment)",HCPS +G0466,Federally Qualified Health Center (FQHC) Visits.,"Federally qualified health center (FQHC) visit, new patient; a medically-necessary, face-to-face encounter (one-on-one) between a new patient and a FQHC practitioner during which time one or more FQHC services are rendered and includes a typical bundle of medicare-covered services that would be furnished per diem to a patient receiving a FQHC visit",HCPS +G0467,Federally Qualified Health Center (FQHC) Visits.,"Federally qualified health center (FQHC) visit, established patient; a medically-necessary, face-to-face encounter (one-on-one) between an established patient and a FQHC practitioner during which time one or more FQHC services are rendered and includes a typical bundle of medicare-covered services that would be furnished per diem to a patient receiving a FQHC visit",HCPS +G0468,Federally Qualified Health Center (FQHC) Visits.,"Federally qualified health center (FQHC) visit, ippe or awv; a FQHC visit that includes an initial preventive physical examination (IPPE) or annual wellness visit (AWV) and includes a typical bundle of medicare-covered services that would be furnished per diem to a patient receiving an IPPE or AWV",HCPS +G0469,Federally Qualified Health Center (FQHC) Visits.,"Federally qualified health center (FQHC) visit, mental health, new patient; a medically-necessary, face-to-face mental health encounter (one-on-one) between a new patient and a FQHC practitioner during which time one or more FQHC services are rendered and includes a typical bundle of medicare-covered services that would be furnished per diem to a patient receiving a mental health visit",HCPS +G0470,Federally Qualified Health Center (FQHC) Visits.,"Federally qualified health center (FQHC) visit, mental health, established patient; a medically-necessary, face-to-face mental health encounter (one-on-one) between an established patient and a FQHC practitioner during which time one or more FQHC services are rendered and includes a typical bundle of medicare-covered services that would be furnished per diem to a patient receiving a mental health visit",HCPS +G0471,Other Services .,Collection of venous blood by venipuncture or urine sample by catheterization from an individual in a skilled nursing facility (SNF) or by a laboratory on behalf of a home health agency (HHA),HCPS +G0472,Other Services .,"Hepatitis C antibody screening, for individual at high risk and other covered indication(s)",HCPS +G0473,Other Services .,"Face-to-face behavioral counseling for obesity, group (2-10), 30 minutes",HCPS +G0475,Other Services .,"Hiv antigen/antibody, combination assay, screening",HCPS +G0476,Other Services .,"Infectious agent detection by nucleic acid (dna or rna); human papillomavirus (hpv), high-risk types (eg, 16, 18, 31, 33, 35, 39, 45, 51, 52, 56, 58, 59, 68) for cervical cancer screening, must be performed in addition to pap test",HCPS +G0480,Other Services .,"Drug test(s), definitive, utilizing (1) drug identification methods able to identify individual drugs and distinguish between structural isomers (but not necessarily stereoisomers), including, but not limited to GC/MS (any type, single or tandem) and LC/MS (any type, single or tandem and excluding immunoassays (e.g., IA, EIA, ELISA, EMIT, FPIA) and enzymatic methods (e.g., alcohol dehydrogenase)), (2) stable isotope or other universally recognized internal standards in all samples (e.g., to control for matrix effects, interferences and variations in signal strength), and (3) method or drug-specific calibration and matrix-matched quality control material (e.g., to control for instrument variations and mass spectral drift); qualitative or quantitative, all sources, includes specimen validity testing, per day; 1-7 drug class(es), including metabolite(s) if performed",HCPS +G0481,Other Services .,"Drug test(s), definitive, utilizing (1) drug identification methods able to identify individual drugs and distinguish between structural isomers (but not necessarily stereoisomers), including, but not limited to GC/MS (any type, single or tandem) and LC/MS (any type, single or tandem and excluding immunoassays (e.g., IA, EIA, ELISA, EMIT, FPIA) and enzymatic methods (e.g., alcohol dehydrogenase)), (2) stable isotope or other universally recognized internal standards in all samples (e.g., to control for matrix effects, interferences and variations in signal strength), and (3) method or drug-specific calibration and matrix-matched quality control material (e.g., to control for instrument variations and mass spectral drift); qualitative or quantitative, all sources, includes specimen validity testing, per day; 8-14 drug class(es), including metabolite(s) if performed",HCPS +G0482,Other Services .,"Drug test(s), definitive, utilizing (1) drug identification methods able to identify individual drugs and distinguish between structural isomers (but not necessarily stereoisomers), including, but not limited to GC/MS (any type, single or tandem) and LC/MS (any type, single or tandem and excluding immunoassays (e.g., IA, EIA, ELISA, EMIT, FPIA) and enzymatic methods (e.g., alcohol dehydrogenase)), (2) stable isotope or other universally recognized internal standards in all samples (e.g., to control for matrix effects, interferences and variations in signal strength), and (3) method or drug-specific calibration and matrix-matched quality control material (e.g., to control for instrument variations and mass spectral drift); qualitative or quantitative, all sources, includes specimen validity testing, per day; 15-21 drug class(es), including metabolite(s) if performed",HCPS +G0483,Other Services .,"Drug test(s), definitive, utilizing (1) drug identification methods able to identify individual drugs and distinguish between structural isomers (but not necessarily stereoisomers), including, but not limited to GC/MS (any type, single or tandem) and LC/MS (any type, single or tandem and excluding immunoassays (e.g., IA, EIA, ELISA, EMIT, FPIA) and enzymatic methods (e.g., alcohol dehydrogenase)), (2) stable isotope or other universally recognized internal standards in all samples (e.g., to control for matrix effects, interferences and variations in signal strength), and (3) method or drug-specific calibration and matrix-matched quality control material (e.g., to control for instrument variations and mass spectral drift); qualitative or quantitative, all sources, includes specimen validity testing, per day; 22 or more drug class(es), including metabolite(s) if performed",HCPS +G0490,Other Services .,Face-to-face home health nursing visit by a rural health clinic (RHC) or federally qualified health center (FQHC) in an area with a shortage of home health agencies; (services limited to RN or LPN only),HCPS +G0491,Other Services .,Dialysis procedure at a medicare certified ESRD facility for acute kidney injury without ESRD,HCPS +G0492,Other Services .,Dialysis procedure with single evaluation by a physician or other qualified health care professional for acute kidney injury without ESRD,HCPS +G0493,Other Services .,"Skilled services of a registered nurse (rn) for the observation and assessment of the patient's condition, each 15 minutes (the change in the patient's condition requires skilled nursing personnel to identify and evaluate the patient's need for possible modification of treatment in the home health or hospice setting)",HCPS +G0494,Other Services .,"Skilled services of a licensed practical nurse (LPN) for the observation and assessment of the patient's condition, each 15 minutes (the change in the patient's condition requires skilled nursing personnel to identify and evaluate the patient's need for possible modification of treatment in the home health or hospice setting)",HCPS +G0495,Other Services .,"Skilled services of a registered nurse (rn), in the training and/or education of a patient or family member, in the home health or hospice setting, each 15 minutes",HCPS +G0496,Other Services .,"Skilled services of a licensed practical nurse (LPN), in the training and/or education of a patient or family member, in the home health or hospice setting, each 15 minutes",HCPS +G0498,Other Services .,"Chemotherapy administration, intravenous infusion technique; initiation of infusion in the office/clinic setting using office/clinic pump/supplies, with continuation of the infusion in the community setting (e.g., home, domiciliary, rest home or assisted living) using a portable pump provided by the office/clinic, includes follow up office/clinic visit at the conclusion of the infusion",HCPS +G0499,Other Services .,"Hepatitis b screening in non-pregnant, high risk individual includes hepatitis b surface antigen (hbsag), antibodies to hbsag (anti-hbs) and antibodies to hepatitis b core antigen (anti-hbc), and is followed by a neutralizing confirmatory test, when performed, only for an initially reactive hbsag result",HCPS +G0500,Other Services .,"Moderate sedation services provided by the same physician or other qualified health care professional performing a gastrointestinal endoscopic service that sedation supports, requiring the presence of an independent trained observer to assist in the monitoring of the patient's level of consciousness and physiological status; initial 15 minutes of intra-service time; patient age 5 years or older (additional time may be reported with 99153, as appropriate)",HCPS +G0501,Other Services .,"Resource-intensive services for patients for whom the use of specialized mobility-assistive technology (such as adjustable height chairs or tables, patient lift, and adjustable padded leg supports) is medically necessary and used during the provision of an office/outpatient, evaluation and management visit (list separately in addition to primary service)",HCPS +G0506,Other Services .,Comprehensive assessment of and care planning for patients requiring chronic care management services (list separately in addition to primary monthly care management service),HCPS +G0508,Other Services .,"Telehealth consultation, critical care, initial , physicians typically spend 60 minutes communicating with the patient and providers via telehealth",HCPS +G0509,Other Services .,"Telehealth consultation, critical care, subsequent, physicians typically spend 50 minutes communicating with the patient and providers via telehealth",HCPS +G0511,Other Services .,"Rural health clinic or federally qualified health center (RHC or FQHC) only, general care management, 20 minutes or more of clinical staff time for chronic care management services or behavioral health integration services directed by an RHC or FQHC practitioner (physician, NP, PA, or CNM), per calendar month",HCPS +G0512,Other Services .,"Rural health clinic or federally qualified health center (RHC or FQHC) only, psychiatric collaborative care model (psychiatric COCM), 60 minutes or more of clinical staff time for psychiatric cocm services directed by an RHC or FQHC practitioner (physician, NP, PA, or CNM) and including services furnished by a behavioral health care manager and consultation with a psychiatric consultant, per calendar month",HCPS +G0513,Other Services .,"Prolonged preventive service(s) (beyond the typical service time of the primary procedure), in the office or other outpatient setting requiring direct patient contact beyond the usual service; first 30 minutes (list separately in addition to code for preventive service)",HCPS +G0514,Other Services .,"Prolonged preventive service(s) (beyond the typical service time of the primary procedure), in the office or other outpatient setting requiring direct patient contact beyond the usual service; each additional 30 minutes (list separately in addition to code G0513 for additional 30 minutes of preventive service)",HCPS +G0516,Other Services .,"Insertion of non-biodegradable drug delivery implants, 4 or more (services for subdermal rod implant)",HCPS +G0517,Other Services .,"Removal of non-biodegradable drug delivery implants, 4 or more (services for subdermal implants)",HCPS +G0518,Other Services .,"Removal with reinsertion, non-biodegradable drug delivery implants, 4 or more (services for subdermal implants)",HCPS +G0659,Other Services .,"Drug test(s), definitive, utilizing drug identification methods able to identify individual drugs and distinguish between structural isomers (but not necessarily stereoisomers), including but not limited to GC/MS (any type, single or tandem) and LC/MS (any type, single or tandem), excluding immunoassays (e.g., IA, EIA, ELISA, EMIT, FPIA) and enzymatic methods (e.g., alcohol dehydrogenase), performed without method or drug-specific calibration, without matrix-matched quality control material, or without use of stable isotope or other universally recognized internal standard(s) for each drug, drug metabolite or drug class per specimen; qualitative or quantitative, all sources, includes specimen validity testing, per day, any number of drug classes",HCPS +G0913,Quality Measures for Cataract Surgery .,Improvement in visual function achieved within 90 days following cataract surgery,HCPS +G0914,Quality Measures for Cataract Surgery .,Patient care survey was not completed by patient,HCPS +G0915,Quality Measures for Cataract Surgery .,Improvement in visual function not achieved within 90 days following cataract surgery,HCPS +G0916,Quality Measures for Cataract Surgery .,Satisfaction with care achieved within 90 days following cataract surgery,HCPS +G0917,Quality Measures for Cataract Surgery .,Patient care survey was not completed by patient,HCPS +G0918,Quality Measures for Cataract Surgery .,Satisfaction with care not achieved within 90 days following cataract surgery,HCPS +G1001,Clinical Decision Support Mechanism (CDSM).,"Clinical decision support mechanism evicore, as defined by the medicare appropriate use criteria program",HCPS +G1002,Clinical Decision Support Mechanism (CDSM).,"Clinical decision support mechanism medcurrent, as defined by the medicare appropriate use criteria program",HCPS +G1003,Clinical Decision Support Mechanism (CDSM).,"Clinical decision support mechanism medicalis, as defined by the medicare appropriate use criteria program",HCPS +G1004,Clinical Decision Support Mechanism (CDSM).,"Clinical decision support mechanism national decision support company, as defined by the medicare appropriate use criteria program",HCPS +G1007,Clinical Decision Support Mechanism (CDSM).,"Clinical decision support mechanism aim specialty health, as defined by the medicare appropriate use criteria program",HCPS +G1008,Clinical Decision Support Mechanism (CDSM).,"Clinical decision support mechanism cranberry peak, as defined by the medicare appropriate use criteria program",HCPS +G1010,Clinical Decision Support Mechanism (CDSM).,"Clinical decision support mechanism stanson, as defined by the medicare appropriate use criteria program",HCPS +G1011,Clinical Decision Support Mechanism (CDSM).,"Clinical decision support mechanism, qualified tool not otherwise specified, as defined by the medicare appropriate use criteria program",HCPS +G1012,Clinical Decision Support Mechanism (CDSM).,"Clinical decision support mechanism agilemd, as defined by the medicare appropriate use criteria program",HCPS +G1013,Clinical Decision Support Mechanism (CDSM).,"Clinical decision support mechanism evidencecare imagingcare, as defined by the medicare appropriate use criteria program",HCPS +G1014,Clinical Decision Support Mechanism (CDSM).,"Clinical decision support mechanism inveniqa semantic answers in medicine, as defined by the medicare appropriate use criteria program",HCPS +G1015,Clinical Decision Support Mechanism (CDSM).,"Clinical decision support mechanism reliant medical group, as defined by the medicare appropriate use criteria program",HCPS +G1016,Clinical Decision Support Mechanism (CDSM).,"Clinical decision support mechanism speed of care, as defined by the medicare appropriate use criteria program",HCPS +G1017,Clinical Decision Support Mechanism (CDSM).,"Clinical decision support mechanism healthhelp, as defined by the medicare appropriate use criteria program",HCPS +G1018,Clinical Decision Support Mechanism (CDSM).,"Clinical decision support mechanism infinx, as defined by the medicare appropriate use criteria program",HCPS +G1019,Clinical Decision Support Mechanism (CDSM).,"Clinical decision support mechanism logicnets, as defined by the medicare appropriate use criteria program",HCPS +G1020,Clinical Decision Support Mechanism (CDSM).,"Clinical decision support mechanism curbside clinical augmented workflow, as defined by the medicare appropriate use criteria program",HCPS +G1021,Clinical Decision Support Mechanism (CDSM).,"Clinical decision support mechanism ehealthline clinical decision support mechanism, as defined by the medicare appropriate use criteria program",HCPS +G1022,Clinical Decision Support Mechanism (CDSM).,"Clinical decision support mechanism intermountain clinical decision support mechanism, as defined by the medicare appropriate use criteria program",HCPS +G1023,Clinical Decision Support Mechanism (CDSM).,"Clinical decision support mechanism persivia clinical decision support, as defined by the medicare appropriate use criteria program",HCPS +G1024,Clinical Decision Support Mechanism (CDSM).,"Clinical decision support mechanism radrite, as defined by the medicare appropriate use criteria program",HCPS +G1025,Clinical Decision Support Mechanism (CDSM).,Patient-months where there are more than one medicare capitated payment (mcp) provider listed for the month,HCPS +G1026,Clinical Decision Support Mechanism (CDSM).,The number of adult patient-months in the denominator who were on maintenance hemodialysis using a catheter continuously for three months or longer under the care of the same practitioner or group partner as of the last hemodialysis session of the reporting month,HCPS +G1027,Clinical Decision Support Mechanism (CDSM).,The number of adult patient-months in the denominator who were on maintenance hemodialysis under the care of the same practitioner or group partner as of the last hemodialysis session of the reporting month using a catheter continuously for less than three months,HCPS +G1028,Clinical Decision Support Mechanism (CDSM).,Take-home supply of nasal naloxone; 2-pack of 8mg per 0.1 ml nasal spray (provision of the services by a medicare-enrolled opioid treatment program); list separately in addition to code for primary procedure,HCPS +G2000,Convulsive Therapy Procedure.,"Blinded administration of convulsive therapy procedure, either electroconvulsive therapy (ect, current covered gold standard) or magnetic seizure therapy (mst, non-covered experimental therapy), performed in an approved ide-based clinical trial, per treatment session",HCPS +G2001,Other Evaluation and Management Services.,"Brief (20 minutes) in-home visit for a new patient post-discharge. For use only in a Medicare-approved CMMI model. (Services must be furnished within a beneficiary’s home, domiciliary, rest home, assisted living and/or nursing facility within 90 days following discharge from an inpatient facility and no more than 9 times.)",HCPS +G2002,Other Evaluation and Management Services.,"Limited (30 minutes) in-home visit for a new patient post-discharge. For use only in a Medicare-approved CMMI model. (Services must be furnished within a beneficiary’s home, domiciliary, rest home, assisted living and/or nursing facility within 90 days following discharge from an inpatient facility and no more than 9 times.)",HCPS +G2003,Other Evaluation and Management Services.,"Moderate (45 minutes) in-home visit for a new patient post-discharge. For use only in a Medicare-approved CMMI model. (Services must be furnished within a beneficiary’s home, domiciliary, rest home, assisted living and/or nursing facility within 90 days following discharge from an inpatient facility and no more than 9 times.)",HCPS +G2004,Other Evaluation and Management Services.,"Comprehensive (60 minutes) in-home visit for a new patient post-discharge. For use only in a Medicare-approved CMMI model. (Services must be furnished within a beneficiary’s home, domiciliary, rest home, assisted living and/or nursing facility within 90 days following discharge from an inpatient facility and no more than 9 times.)",HCPS +G2005,Other Evaluation and Management Services.,"Extensive (75 minutes) in-home visit for a new patient post-discharge. For use only in a Medicare-approved CMMI model. (Services must be furnished within a beneficiary’s home, domiciliary, rest home, assisted living and/or nursing facility within 90 days following discharge from an inpatient facility and no more than 9 times.)",HCPS +G2006,Other Evaluation and Management Services.,"Brief (20 minutes) in-home visit for an existing patient post-discharge. For use only in a Medicare-approved CMMI model. (Services must be furnished within a beneficiary’s home, domiciliary, rest home, assisted living and/or nursing facility within 90 days following discharge from an inpatient facility and no more than 9 times.)",HCPS +G2007,Other Evaluation and Management Services.,"Limited (30 minutes) in-home visit for an existing patient post-discharge. For use only in a Medicare-approved CMMI model. (Services must be furnished within a beneficiary’s home, domiciliary, rest home, assisted living and/or nursing facility within 90 days following discharge from an inpatient facility and no more than 9 times.)",HCPS +G2008,Other Evaluation and Management Services.,"Moderate (45 minutes) in-home visit for an existing patient post-discharge. For use only in a Medicare-approved CMMI model. (Services must be furnished within a beneficiary’s home, domiciliary, rest home, assisted living and/or nursing facility within 90 days following discharge from an inpatient facility and no more than 9 times.)",HCPS +G2009,Other Evaluation and Management Services.,"Comprehensive (60 minutes) in-home visit for an existing patient post-discharge. For use only in a Medicare-approved CMMI model. (Services must be furnished within a beneficiary’s home, domiciliary, rest home, assisted living and/or nursing facility within 90 days following discharge from an inpatient facility and no more than 9 times.)",HCPS +G2010,Other Evaluation and Management Services.,"Remote evaluation of recorded video and/or images submitted by an established patient (e.g., store and forward), including interpretation with follow-up with the patient within 24 business hours, not originating from a related e/m service provided within the previous 7 days nor leading to an e/m service or procedure within the next 24 hours or soonest available appointment",HCPS +G2011,Other Evaluation and Management Services.,"Alcohol and/or substance (other than tobacco) misuse structured assessment (e.g., audit, dast), and brief intervention, 5-14 minutes",HCPS +G2012,Other Evaluation and Management Services.,"Brief communication technology-based service, e.g. virtual check-in, by a physician or other qualified health care professional who can report evaluation and management services, provided to an established patient, not originating from a related e/m service provided within the previous 7 days nor leading to an e/m service or procedure within the next 24 hours or soonest available appointment; 5-10 minutes of medical discussion",HCPS +G2013,Other Evaluation and Management Services.,"Extensive (75 minutes) in-home visit for an existing patient post-discharge. For use only in a Medicare-approved CMMI model. (Services must be furnished within a beneficiary’s home, domiciliary, rest home, assisted living and/or nursing facility within 90 days following discharge from an inpatient facility and no more than 9 times.)",HCPS +G2014,Other Evaluation and Management Services.,"Limited (30 minutes) care plan oversight. For use only in a Medicare-approved CMMI model. (Services must be furnished within a beneficiary’s home, domiciliary, rest home, assisted living and/or nursing facility within 90 days following discharge from an inpatient facility and no more than 9 times.)",HCPS +G2015,Other Evaluation and Management Services.,"Comprehensive (60 mins) home care plan oversight. For use only in a Medicare-approved CMMI model. (Services must be furnished within a beneficiary’s home, domiciliary, rest home, assisted living and/or nursing facility within 90 days following discharge from an inpatient facility.)",HCPS +G2020,Other Evaluation and Management Services.,Services for high intensity clinical services associated with the initial engagement and outreach of beneficiaries assigned to the sip component of the pcf model (do not bill with chronic care management codes),HCPS +G2021,Care Management Services.,Health care practitioners rendering treatment in place (tip),HCPS +G2022,Care Management Services.,"A model participant (ambulance supplier/provider), the beneficiary refuses services covered under the model (transport to an alternate destination/treatment in place)",HCPS +G2025,Care Management Services.,Payment for a telehealth distant site service furnished by a rural health clinic (rhc) or federally qualified health center (fqhc) only,HCPS +G2067,Medication Assisted Treatment Programme.,"Medication assisted treatment, methadone; weekly bundle including dispensing and/or administration, substance use counseling, individual and group therapy, and toxicology testing, if performed (provision of the services by a medicare-enrolled opioid treatment program)",HCPS +G2068,Medication Assisted Treatment Programme.,"Medication assisted treatment, buprenorphine (oral); weekly bundle including dispensing and/or administration, substance use counseling, individual and group therapy, and toxicology testing if performed (provision of the services by a medicare-enrolled opioid treatment program)",HCPS +G2069,Medication Assisted Treatment Programme.,"Medication assisted treatment, buprenorphine (injectable); weekly bundle including dispensing and/or administration, substance use counseling, individual and group therapy, and toxicology testing if performed (provision of the services by a medicare-enrolled opioid treatment program)",HCPS +G2070,Medication Assisted Treatment Programme.,"Medication assisted treatment, buprenorphine (implant insertion); weekly bundle including dispensing and/or administration, substance use counseling, individual and group therapy, and toxicology testing if performed (provision of the services by a medicare-enrolled opioid treatment program)",HCPS +G2071,Medication Assisted Treatment Programme.,"Medication assisted treatment, buprenorphine (implant removal); weekly bundle including dispensing and/or administration, substance use counseling, individual and group therapy, and toxicology testing if performed (provision of the services by a medicare-enrolled opioid treatment program)",HCPS +G2072,Medication Assisted Treatment Programme.,"Medication assisted treatment, buprenorphine (implant insertion and removal); weekly bundle including dispensing and/or administration, substance use counseling, individual and group therapy, and toxicology testing if performed (provision of the services by a medicare-enrolled opioid treatment program)",HCPS +G2073,Medication Assisted Treatment Programme.,"Medication assisted treatment, naltrexone; weekly bundle including dispensing and/or administration, substance use counseling, individual and group therapy, and toxicology testing if performed (provision of the services by a medicare-enrolled opioid treatment program)",HCPS +G2074,Medication Assisted Treatment Programme.,"Medication assisted treatment, weekly bundle not including the drug, including substance use counseling, individual and group therapy, and toxicology testing if performed (provision of the services by a medicare-enrolled opioid treatment program)",HCPS +G2075,Medication Assisted Treatment Programme.,"Medication assisted treatment, medication not otherwise specified; weekly bundle including dispensing and/or administration, substance use counseling, individual and group therapy, and toxicology testing, if performed (provision of the services by a medicare-enrolled opioid treatment program)",HCPS +G2076,Opioid Use Disorder - Evaluation and Treatment.,"Intake activities, including initial medical examination that is a complete, fully documented physical evaluation and initial assessment by a program physician or a primary care physician, or an authorized healthcare professional under the supervision of a program physician qualified personnel that includes preparation of a treatment plan that includes the patient's short-term goals and the tasks the patient must perform to complete the short-term goals; the patient's requirements for education, vocational rehabilitation, and employment; and the medical, psycho- social, economic, legal, or other supportive services that a patient needs, conducted by qualified personnel (provision of the services by a medicare-enrolled opioid treatment program); list separately in addition to code for primary procedure",HCPS +G2077,Opioid Use Disorder - Evaluation and Treatment.,Periodic assessment; assessing periodically by qualified personnel to determine the most appropriate combination of services and treatment (provision of the services by a medicare-enrolled opioid treatment program); list separately in addition to code for primary procedure,HCPS +G2078,Opioid Use Disorder - Evaluation and Treatment.,Take-home supply of methadone; up to 7 additional day supply (provision of the services by a medicare-enrolled opioid treatment program); list separately in addition to code for primary procedure,HCPS +G2079,Opioid Use Disorder - Evaluation and Treatment.,Take-home supply of buprenorphine (oral); up to 7 additional day supply (provision of the services by a medicare-enrolled opioid treatment program); list separately in addition to code for primary procedure,HCPS +G2080,Opioid Use Disorder - Evaluation and Treatment.,"Each additional 30 minutes of counseling in a week of medication assisted treatment, (provision of the services by a medicare-enrolled opioid treatment program); list separately in addition to code for primary procedure",HCPS +G2081,Opioid Use Disorder - Evaluation and Treatment.,"Patients age 66 and older in institutional special needs plans (snp) or residing in long-term care with a pos code 32, 33, 34, 54 or 56 for more than 90 consecutive days during the measurement period",HCPS +G2082,Evaluation and Management Services.,"Office or other outpatient visit for the evaluation and management of an established patient that requires the supervision of a physician or other qualified health care professional and provision of up to 56 mg of esketamine nasal self-administration, includes 2 hours post-administration observation",HCPS +G2083,Evaluation and Management Services.,"Office or other outpatient visit for the evaluation and management of an established patient that requires the supervision of a physician or other qualified health care professional and provision of greater than 56 mg esketamine nasal self-administration, includes 2 hours post-administration observation",HCPS +G2086,Opioid Use Disorder - Treatment (Office Based).,"Office-based treatment for opioid use disorder, including development of the treatment plan, care coordination, individual therapy and group therapy and counseling; at least 70 minutes in the first calendar month",HCPS +G2087,Opioid Use Disorder - Treatment (Office Based).,"Office-based treatment for opioid use disorder, including care coordination, individual therapy and group therapy and counseling; at least 60 minutes in a subsequent calendar month",HCPS +G2088,Opioid Use Disorder - Treatment (Office Based).,"Office-based treatment for opioid use disorder, including care coordination, individual therapy and group therapy and counseling; each additional 30 minutes beyond the first 120 minutes (list separately in addition to code for primary procedure)",HCPS +G2090,Functional Status.,Patients 66 years of age and older with at least one claim/encounter for frailty during the measurement period and a dispensed medication for dementia during the measurement period or the year prior to the measurement period,HCPS +G2091,Functional Status.,"Patients 66 years of age and older with at least one claim/encounter for frailty during the measurement period and either one acute inpatient encounter with a diagnosis of advanced illness or two outpatient, observation, ed or nonacute inpatient encounters on different dates of service with an advanced illness diagnosis during the measurement period or the year prior to the measurement period",HCPS +G2092,Functional Status.,Angiotensin converting enzyme (ace) inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker (arb) or angiotensin receptor-neprilysin inhibitor (arni) therapy prescribed or currently being taken,HCPS +G2093,Functional Status.,"Documentation of medical reason(s) for not prescribing ace inhibitor or arb or arni therapy (e.g., hypotensive patients who are at immediate risk of cardiogenic shock, hospitalized patients who have experienced marked azotemia, allergy, intolerance, other medical reasons)",HCPS +G2094,Functional Status.,"Documentation of patient reason(s) for not prescribing ace inhibitor or arb or arni therapy (e.g., patient declined, other patient reasons)",HCPS +G2096,Functional Status.,"Angiotensin converting enzyme (ace) inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker (arb) or angiotensin receptor-neprilysin inhibitor (arni) therapy was not prescribed, reason not given",HCPS +G2097,Functional Status.,"Episodes where the patient had a competing diagnosis on or within three days after the episode date (e.g., intestinal infection, pertussis, bacterial infection, lyme disease, otitis media, acute sinusitis, chronic sinusitis, infection of the adenoids, prostatitis, cellulitis, mastoiditis, or bone infections, acute lymphadenitis, impetigo, skin staph infections, pneumonia/gonococcal infections, venereal disease (syphilis, chlamydia, inflammatory diseases [female reproductive organs]), infections of the kidney, cystitis or uti)",HCPS +G2098,Functional Status.,Patients 66 years of age and older with at least one claim/encounter for frailty during the measurement period and a dispensed medication for dementia during the measurement period or the year prior to the measurement period,HCPS +G2099,Functional Status.,"Patients 66 years of age and older with at least one claim/encounter for frailty during the measurement period and either one acute inpatient encounter with a diagnosis of advanced illness or two outpatient, observation, ed or nonacute inpatient encounters on different dates of service with an advanced illness diagnosis during the measurement period or the year prior to the measurement period",HCPS +G2100,Functional Status.,Patients 66 years of age and older with at least one claim/encounter for frailty during the measurement period and a dispensed medication for dementia during the measurement period or the year prior to the measurement period,HCPS +G2101,Functional Status.,"Patients 66 years of age and older with at least one claim/encounter for frailty during the measurement period and either one acute inpatient encounter with a diagnosis of advanced illness or two outpatient, observation, ed or nonacute inpatient encounters on different dates of service with an advanced illness diagnosis during the measurement period or the year prior to the measurement period",HCPS +G2105,Functional Status.,"Patient age 66 or older in institutional special needs plans (snp) or residing in long-term care with pos code 32, 33, 34, 54 or 56 for more than 90 consecutive days during the measurement period",HCPS +G2106,Functional Status.,Patients 66 years of age and older with at least one claim/encounter for frailty during the measurement period and a dispensed medication for dementia during the measurement period or the year prior to the measurement period,HCPS +G2107,Functional Status.,"Patients 66 years of age and older with at least one claim/encounter for frailty during the measurement period and either one acute inpatient encounter with a diagnosis of advanced illness or two outpatient, observation, ed or nonacute inpatient encounters on different dates of service with an advanced illness diagnosis during the measurement period or the year prior to the measurement period",HCPS +G2112,Functional Status.,"Patient receiving <=5 mg daily prednisone (or equivalent), or ra activity is worsening, or glucocorticoid use is for less than 6 months",HCPS +G2113,Functional Status.,"Patient receiving >5 mg daily prednisone (or equivalent) for longer than 6 months, and improvement or no change in disease activity",HCPS +G2115,Functional Status.,Patients 66 - 80 years of age with at least one claim/encounter for frailty during the measurement period and a dispensed medication for dementia during the measurement period or the year prior to the measurement period,HCPS +G2116,Functional Status.,"Patients 66 - 80 years of age with at least one claim/encounter for frailty during the measurement period and either one acute inpatient encounter with a diagnosis of advanced illness or two outpatient, observation, ed or nonacute inpatient encounters on different dates of service with an advanced illness diagnosis during the measurement period or the year prior to the measurement period",HCPS +G2118,Functional Status.,Patients 81 years of age and older with at least one claim/encounter for frailty during the measurement period,HCPS +G2121,Functional Status.,"Depression, anxiety, apathy, and psychosis assessed",HCPS +G2122,Functional Status.,"Depression, anxiety, apathy, and psychosis not assessed",HCPS +G2125,Functional Status.,Patients 81 years of age and older with at least one claim/encounter for frailty during the six months prior to the measurement period through december 31 of the measurement period,HCPS +G2126,Functional Status.,"Patients 66 - 80 years of age with at least one claim/encounter for frailty during the measurement period and either one acute inpatient encounter with a diagnosis of advanced illness or two outpatient, observation, ed or nonacute inpatient encounters on different dates of service with an advanced illness diagnosis during the measurement period or the year prior to the measurement period",HCPS +G2127,Functional Status.,Patients 66 - 80 years of age with at least one claim/encounter for frailty during the measurement period and a dispensed medication for dementia during the measurement period or the year prior to the measurement period,HCPS +G2128,Functional Status.,"Documentation of medical reason(s) for not on a daily aspirin or other antiplatelet (e.g. history of gastrointestinal bleed, intra-cranial bleed, blood disorders, idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (itp), gastric bypass or documentation of active anticoagulant use during the measurement period)",HCPS +G2129,Functional Status.,"Procedure-related bp's not taken during an outpatient visit. examples include same day surgery, ambulatory service center, g.i. lab, dialysis, infusion center, chemotherapy",HCPS +G2136,Functional Status.,Back pain measured by the visual analog scale (vas) or numeric pain scale at three months (6 - 20 weeks) postoperatively was less than or equal to 3.0 or back pain measured by the visual analog scale (vas) or numeric pain scale within three months preoperatively and at three months (6 - 20 weeks) postoperatively demonstrated an improvement of 5.0 points or greater,HCPS +G2137,Functional Status.,Back pain measured by the visual analog scale (vas) or numeric pain scale at three months (6 - 20 weeks) postoperatively was greater than 3.0 and back pain measured by the visual analog scale (vas) or numeric pain scale within three months preoperatively and at three months (6 - 20 weeks) postoperatively demonstrated improvement of less than 5.0 points,HCPS +G2138,Functional Status.,Back pain as measured by the visual analog scale (vas) or numeric pain scale at one year (9 to 15 months) postoperatively was less than or equal to 3.0 or back pain measured by the visual analog scale (vas) or numeric pain scale within three months preoperatively and at one year (9 to 15 months) postoperatively demonstrated an improvement of 5.0 points or greater,HCPS +G2139,Functional Status.,Back pain measured by the visual analog scale (vas) or numeric pain scale at one year (9 to 15 months) postoperatively was greater than 3.0 and back pain measured by the visual analog scale (vas) or numeric pain scale within three months preoperatively and at one year (9 to 15 months) postoperatively demonstrated improvement of less than 5.0 points,HCPS +G2140,Functional Status.,Leg pain measured by the visual analog scale (vas) or numeric pain scale at three months (6 - 20 weeks) postoperatively was less than or equal to 3.0 or leg pain measured by the visual analog scale (vas) or numeric pain scale within three months preoperatively and at three months (6 - 20 weeks) postoperatively demonstrated an improvement of 5.0 points or greater,HCPS +G2141,Functional Status.,Leg pain measured by the visual analog scale (vas) or numeric pain scale at three months (6 - 20 weeks) postoperatively was greater than 3.0 and leg pain measured by the visual analog scale (vas) or numeric pain scale within three months preoperatively and at three months (6 - 20 weeks) postoperatively demonstrated improvement of less than 5.0 points,HCPS +G2142,Functional Status.,Functional status measured by the oswestry disability index (odi version 2.1a) at one year (9 to 15 months) postoperatively was less than or equal to 22 or functional status measured by the odi version 2.1a within three months preoperatively and at one year (9 to 15 months) postoperatively demonstrated an improvement of 30 points or greater,HCPS +G2143,Functional Status.,Functional status measured by the oswestry disability index (odi version 2.1a) at one year (9 to 15 months) postoperatively was greater than 22 and functional status measured by the odi version 2.1a within three months preoperatively and at one year (9 to 15 months) postoperatively demonstrated an improvement of less than 30 points,HCPS +G2144,Functional Status.,Functional status measured by the oswestry disability index (odi version 2.1a) at three months (6 ? 20 weeks) postoperatively was less than or equal to 22 or functional status measured by the odi version 2.1a within three months preoperatively and at three months (6 - 20 weeks) postoperatively demonstrated an improvement of 30 points or greater,HCPS +G2145,Functional Status.,Functional status measured by the oswestry disability index (odi version 2.1a) at three months (6 - 20 weeks) postoperatively was greater than 22 and functional status measured by the odi version 2.1a within three months preoperatively and at three months (6 - 20 weeks) postoperatively demonstrated an improvement of less than 30 points,HCPS +G2146,Functional Status.,Leg pain as measured by the visual analog scale (vas) or numeric pain scale at one year (9 to 15 months) postoperatively was less than or equal to 3.0 or leg pain measured by the visual analog scale (vas) or numeric pain scale within three months preoperatively and at one year (9 to 15 months) postoperatively demonstrated an improvement of 5.0 points or greater,HCPS +G2147,Functional Status.,Leg pain measured by the visual analog scale (vas) or numeric pain scale at one year (9 to 15 months) postoperatively was greater than 3.0 and leg pain measured by the visual analog scale (vas) or numeric pain scale within three months preoperatively and at one year (9 to 15 months) postoperatively demonstrated improvement of less than 5.0 points,HCPS +G2148,Functional Status.,Multimodal pain management was used,HCPS +G2149,Functional Status.,"Documentation of medical reason(s) for not using multimodal pain management (e.g., allergy to multiple classes of analgesics, intubated patient, hepatic failure, patient reports no pain during pacu stay, other medical reason(s))",HCPS +G2150,Functional Status.,Multimodal pain management was not used,HCPS +G2151,Functional Status.,"Documentation stating patient has a diagnosis of a degenerative neurological condition such as als, ms, or parkinson's diagnosed at any time before or during the episode of care",HCPS +G2152,Functional Status.,Residual score for the neck impairment successfully calculated and the score was equal to zero (0) or greater than zero (> 0),HCPS +G2167,Performance Measures.,Residual score for the neck impairment successfully calculated and the score was less than zero (< 0),HCPS +G2168,Therapy Maintenance Program in Home Health Setting.,"Services performed by a physical therapist assistant in the home health setting in the delivery of a safe and effective physical therapy maintenance program, each 15 minutes",HCPS +G2169,Therapy Maintenance Program in Home Health Setting.,"Services performed by an occupational therapist assistant in the home health setting in the delivery of a safe and effective occupational therapy maintenance program, each 15 minutes",HCPS +G2172,Opioid Use Disorder (OUD) Treatment Services.,All inclusive payment for services related to highly coordinated and integrated opioid use disorder (oud) treatment services furnished for the demonstration project,HCPS +G2173,Clinician Documentation and Management Services.,"Uri episodes where the patient had a comorbid condition during the 12 months prior to or on the episode date (e.g., tuberculosis, neutropenia, cystic fibrosis, chronic bronchitis, pulmonary edema, respiratory failure, rheumatoid lung disease)",HCPS +G2174,Clinician Documentation and Management Services.,Uri episodes where the patient is taking antibiotics (table 1) in the 30 days prior to the episode date,HCPS +G2175,Clinician Documentation and Management Services.,"Episodes where the patient had a comorbid condition during the 12 months prior to or on the episode date (e.g., tuberculosis, neutropenia, cystic fibrosis, chronic bronchitis, pulmonary edema, respiratory failure, rheumatoid lung disease)",HCPS +G2176,Clinician Documentation and Management Services.,"Outpatient, ed, or observation visits that result in an inpatient admission",HCPS +G2177,Clinician Documentation and Management Services.,Acute bronchitis/bronchiolitis episodes when the patient had a new or refill prescription of antibiotics (table 1) in the 30 days prior to the episode date,HCPS +G2178,Clinician Documentation and Management Services.,"Clinician documented that patient was not an eligible candidate for lower extremity neurological exam measure, for example patient bilateral amputee; patient has condition that would not allow them to accurately respond to a neurological exam (dementia, alzheimer's, etc.); patient has previously documented diabetic peripheral neuropathy with loss of protective sensation",HCPS +G2179,Clinician Documentation and Management Services.,Clinician documented that patient had medical reason for not performing lower extremity neurological exam,HCPS +G2180,Clinician Documentation and Management Services.,Clinician documented that patient was not an eligible candidate for evaluation of footwear as patient is bilateral lower extremity amputee,HCPS +G2181,Clinician Documentation and Management Services.,Bmi not documented due to medical reason or patient refusal of height or weight measurement,HCPS +G2182,Clinician Documentation and Management Services.,Patient receiving first-time biologic and/or immune response modifier therapy,HCPS +G2183,Clinician Documentation and Management Services.,Documentation patient unable to communicate and informant not available,HCPS +G2184,Clinician Documentation and Management Services.,Patient does not have a caregiver,HCPS +G2185,Clinician Documentation and Management Services.,Documentation caregiver is trained and certified in dementia care,HCPS +G2186,Clinician Documentation and Management Services.,Patient /caregiver dyad has been referred to appropriate resources and connection to those resources is confirmed,HCPS +G2187,Clinician Documentation and Management Services.,Patients with clinical indications for imaging of the head: head trauma,HCPS +G2188,Clinician Documentation and Management Services.,Patients with clinical indications for imaging of the head: new or change in headache above 50 years of age,HCPS +G2189,Clinician Documentation and Management Services.,Patients with clinical indications for imaging of the head: abnormal neurologic exam,HCPS +G2190,Clinician Documentation and Management Services.,Patients with clinical indications for imaging of the head: headache radiating to the neck,HCPS +G2191,Clinician Documentation and Management Services.,Patients with clinical indications for imaging of the head: positional headaches,HCPS +G2192,Clinician Documentation and Management Services.,Patients with clinical indications for imaging of the head: temporal headaches in patients over 55 years of age,HCPS +G2193,Clinician Documentation and Management Services.,Patients with clinical indications for imaging of the head: new onset headache in pre-school children or younger (<6 years of age),HCPS +G2194,Clinician Documentation and Management Services.,Patients with clinical indications for imaging of the head: new onset headache in pediatric patients with disabilities for which headache is a concern as inferred from behavior,HCPS +G2195,Clinician Documentation and Management Services.,Patients with clinical indications for imaging of the head: occipital headache in children,HCPS +G2196,Clinician Documentation and Management Services.,Patient identified as an unhealthy alcohol user when screened for unhealthy alcohol use using a systematic screening method,HCPS +G2197,Clinician Documentation and Management Services.,Patient screened for unhealthy alcohol use using a systematic screening method and not identified as an unhealthy alcohol user,HCPS +G2199,Clinician Documentation and Management Services.,Patient not screened for unhealthy alcohol use using a systematic screening method,HCPS +G2200,Clinician Documentation and Management Services.,Patient identified as an unhealthy alcohol user received brief counseling,HCPS +G2202,Clinician Documentation and Management Services.,Patient did not receive brief counseling if identified as an unhealthy alcohol user,HCPS +G2204,Clinician Documentation and Management Services.,Patients between 45 and 85 years of age who received a screening colonoscopy during the performance period,HCPS +G2205,Clinician Documentation and Management Services.,Patients with pregnancy during adjuvant treatment course,HCPS +G2206,Clinician Documentation and Management Services.,Patient received adjuvant treatment course including both chemotherapy and her2-targeted therapy,HCPS +G2207,Clinician Documentation and Management Services.,"Reason for not administering adjuvant treatment course including both chemotherapy and her2-targeted therapy (e.g. poor performance status (ecog 3-4; karnofsky <=50), cardiac contraindications, insufficient renal function, insufficient hepatic function, other active or secondary cancer diagnoses, other medical contraindications, patients who died during initial treatment course or transferred during or after initial treatment course)",HCPS +G2208,Clinician Documentation and Management Services.,Patient did not receive adjuvant treatment course including both chemotherapy and her2-targeted therapy,HCPS +G2209,Clinician Documentation and Management Services.,Patient refused to participate,HCPS +G2210,Clinician Documentation and Management Services.,"Residual score for the neck impairment not measured because the patient did not complete the neck fs prom at initial evaluation and/or near discharge, reason not given",HCPS +G2211,Evaluation and Care Management Services.,"Visit complexity inherent to evaluation and management associated with medical care services that serve as the continuing focal point for all needed health care services and/or with medical care services that are part of ongoing care related to a patient's single, serious condition or a complex condition. (add-on code, list separately in addition to office/outpatient evaluation and management visit, new or established)",HCPS +G2212,Evaluation and Care Management Services.,"Prolonged office or other outpatient evaluation and management service(s) beyond the maximum required time of the primary procedure which has been selected using total time on the date of the primary service; each additional 15 minutes by the physician or qualified healthcare professional, with or without direct patient contact (list separately in addition to cpt codes 99205, 99215, 99483 for office or other outpatient evaluation and management services) (do not report g2212 on the same date of service as 99358, 99359, 99415, 99416). (do not report g2212 for any time unit less than 15 minutes)",HCPS +G2213,Evaluation and Care Management Services.,"Initiation of medication for the treatment of opioid use disorder in the emergency department setting, including assessment, referral to ongoing care, and arranging access to supportive services (list separately in addition to code for primary procedure)",HCPS +G2214,Evaluation and Care Management Services.,"Initial or subsequent psychiatric collaborative care management, first 30 minutes in a month of behavioral health care manager activities, in consultation with a psychiatric consultant, and directed by the treating physician or other qualified health care professional",HCPS +G2215,Take Home Supplies .,Take-home supply of nasal naloxone; 2-pack of 4mg per 0.1 ml nasal spray (provision of the services by a medicare-enrolled opioid treatment program); list separately in addition to code for primary procedure,HCPS +G2216,Take Home Supplies .,Take-home supply of injectable naloxone (provision of the services by a medicare-enrolled opioid treatment program); list separately in addition to code for primary procedure,HCPS +G2250,Documentation assessment (Remote).,"Remote assessment of recorded video and/or images submitted by an established patient (e.g., store and forward), including interpretation with follow-up with the patient within 24 business hours, not originating from a related service provided within the previous 7 days nor leading to a service or procedure within the next 24 hours or soonest available appointment",HCPS +G2251,Brief Communication Technology-Based Services.,"Brief communication technology-based service, e.g. virtual check-in, by a qualified health care professional who cannot report evaluation and management services, provided to an established patient, not originating from a related service provided within the previous 7 days nor leading to a service or procedure within the next 24 hours or soonest available appointment; 5-10 minutes of clinical discussion",HCPS +G2252,Brief Communication Technology-Based Services.,"Brief communication technology-based service, e.g. virtual check-in, by a physician or other qualified health care professional who can report evaluation and management services, provided to an established patient, not originating from a related e/m service provided within the previous 7 days nor leading to an e/m service or procedure within the next 24 hours or soonest available appointment; 11-20 minutes of medical discussion",HCPS +G3002,Chronic Pain Management And Treatment Services.,"Chronic pain management and treatment, monthly bundle including, diagnosis; assessment and monitoring; administration of a validated pain rating scale or tool; the development, implementation, revision, and/or maintenance of a person-centered care plan that includes strengths, goals, clinical needs, and desired outcomes; overall treatment management; facilitation and coordination of any necessary behavioral health treatment; medication management; pain and health literacy counseling; any necessary chronic pain related crisis care; and ongoing communication and care coordination between relevant practitioners furnishing care, e.g. physical therapy and occupational therapy, complementary and integrative approaches, and community-based care, as appropriate. required initial face-to-face visit at least 30 minutes provided by a physician or other qualified health professional; first 30 minutes personally provided by physician or other qualified health care professional, per calendar month. (when using g3002, 30 minutes must be met or exceeded.)",HCPS +G3003,Chronic Pain Management And Treatment Services.,"Chronic pain management and treatment, monthly bundle including, diagnosis; assessment and monitoring; administration of a validated pain rating scale or tool; the development, implementation, revision, and/or maintenance of a person-centered care plan that includes strengths, goals, clinical needs, and desired outcomes; overall treatment management; facilitation and coordination of any necessary behavioral health treatment; medication management; pain and health literacy counseling; any necessary chronic pain related crisis care; and ongoing communication and care coordination between relevant practitioners furnishing care, e.g. physical therapy and occupational therapy, complementary and integrative approaches, and community-based care, as appropriate. required initial face-to-face visit at least 30 minutes provided by a physician or other qualified health professional; Each additional 15 minutes of chronic pain management and treatment by a physician or other qualified health care professional, per calendar month. (list separately in addition to code for g3002. when using g3003, 15 minutes must be met or exceeded.)",HCPS +G4000,"MIPS Specialty Set +.",Dermatology mips specialty set,HCPS +G4001,"MIPS Specialty Set +.",Diagnostic radiology mips specialty set,HCPS +G4002,"MIPS Specialty Set +.",Electrophysiology cardiac specialist mips specialty set,HCPS +G4003,"MIPS Specialty Set +.",Emergency medicine mips specialty set,HCPS +G4004,"MIPS Specialty Set +.",Endocrinology mips specialty set,HCPS +G4005,"MIPS Specialty Set +.",Family medicine mips specialty set,HCPS +G4006,"MIPS Specialty Set +.",Gastro-enterology mips specialty set,HCPS +G4007,"MIPS Specialty Set +.",General surgery mips specialty set,HCPS +G4008,"MIPS Specialty Set +.",Geriatrics mips specialty set,HCPS +G4009,"MIPS Specialty Set +.",Hospitalists mips specialty set,HCPS +G4010,"MIPS Specialty Set +.",Infectious disease mips specialty set,HCPS +G4011,"MIPS Specialty Set +.",Internal medicine mips specialty set,HCPS +G4012,"MIPS Specialty Set +.",Interventional radiology mips specialty set,HCPS +G4013,"MIPS Specialty Set +.",Mental/behavioral and psychiatry mips specialty set,HCPS +G4014,"MIPS Specialty Set +.",Nephrology mips specialty set,HCPS +G4015,"MIPS Specialty Set +.",Neurology mips specialty set,HCPS +G4016,"MIPS Specialty Set +.",Neurosurgical mips specialty set,HCPS +G4017,"MIPS Specialty Set +.",Nutrition/dietician mips specialty set,HCPS +G4018,"MIPS Specialty Set +.",Obstetrics/gynecology mips specialty set,HCPS +G4019,"MIPS Specialty Set +.",Oncology/hematology mips specialty set,HCPS +G4020,"MIPS Specialty Set +.",Ophthalmology/optometry mips specialty set,HCPS +G4021,"MIPS Specialty Set +.",Orthopedic surgery mips specialty set,HCPS +G4022,"MIPS Specialty Set +.",Otolaryngology mips specialty set,HCPS +G4023,"MIPS Specialty Set +.",Pathology mips specialty set,HCPS +G4024,"MIPS Specialty Set +.",Pediatrics mips specialty set,HCPS +G4025,"MIPS Specialty Set +.",Physical medicine mips specialty set,HCPS +G4026,"MIPS Specialty Set +.",Physical therapy/occupational therapy mips specialty set,HCPS +G4027,"MIPS Specialty Set +.",Plastic surgery mips specialty set,HCPS +G4028,"MIPS Specialty Set +.",Podiatry mips specialty set,HCPS +G4029,"MIPS Specialty Set +.",Preventive medicine mips specialty set,HCPS +G4030,"MIPS Specialty Set +.",Pulmonology mips specialty set,HCPS +G4031,"MIPS Specialty Set +.",Radiation oncology mips specialty set,HCPS +G4032,"MIPS Specialty Set +.",Rheumatology mips specialty set,HCPS +G4033,"MIPS Specialty Set +.",Skilled nursing facility mips specialty set,HCPS +G4034,"MIPS Specialty Set +.",Speech language pathology mips specialty set,HCPS +G4035,"MIPS Specialty Set +.",Thoracic surgery mips specialty set,HCPS +G4036,"MIPS Specialty Set +.",Urgent care mips specialty set,HCPS +G4037,"MIPS Specialty Set +.",Urology mips specialty set,HCPS +G4038,"MIPS Specialty Set +.",Vascular surgery mips specialty set,HCPS +G6001,Radiation Therapy Services .,Ultrasonic guidance for placement of radiation therapy fields,HCPS +G6002,Radiation Therapy Services .,Stereoscopic X-ray guidance for localization of target volume for the delivery of radiation therapy,HCPS +G6003,Radiation Therapy Services .,"Radiation treatment delivery, single treatment area, single port or parallel opposed ports, simple blocks or no blocks: up to 5 MeV",HCPS +G6004,Radiation Therapy Services .,"Radiation treatment delivery, single treatment area, single port or parallel opposed ports, simple blocks or no blocks: 6-10 MeV",HCPS +G6005,Radiation Therapy Services .,"Radiation treatment delivery, single treatment area, single port or parallel opposed ports, simple blocks or no blocks: 11-19 MeV",HCPS +G6006,Radiation Therapy Services .,"Radiation treatment delivery, single treatment area, single port or parallel opposed ports, simple blocks or no blocks: 20 MeV or greater",HCPS +G6007,Radiation Therapy Services .,"Radiation treatment delivery, 2 separate treatment areas, 3 or more ports on a single treatment area, use of multiple blocks: up to 5 MeV",HCPS +G6008,Radiation Therapy Services .,"Radiation treatment delivery, 2 separate treatment areas, 3 or more ports on a single treatment area, use of multiple blocks: 6-10 MeV",HCPS +G6009,Radiation Therapy Services .,"Radiation treatment delivery, 2 separate treatment areas, 3 or more ports on a single treatment area, use of multiple blocks: 11-19 MeV",HCPS +G6010,Radiation Therapy Services .,"Radiation treatment delivery, 2 separate treatment areas, 3 or more ports on a single treatment area, use of multiple blocks: 20 MeV or greater",HCPS +G6011,Radiation Therapy Services .,"Radiation treatment delivery, 3 or more separate treatment areas, custom blocking, tangential ports, wedges, rotational beam, compensators, electron beam; up to 5 MeV",HCPS +G6012,Radiation Therapy Services .,"Radiation treatment delivery, 3 or more separate treatment areas, custom blocking, tangential ports, wedges, rotational beam, compensators, electron beam; 6-10 MeV",HCPS +G6013,Radiation Therapy Services .,"Radiation treatment delivery, 3 or more separate treatment areas, custom blocking, tangential ports, wedges, rotational beam, compensators, electron beam; 11-19 MeV",HCPS +G6014,Radiation Therapy Services .,"Radiation treatment delivery, 3 or more separate treatment areas, custom blocking, tangential ports, wedges, rotational beam, compensators, electron beam; 20 MeV or greater",HCPS +G6015,Radiation Therapy Services .,"Intensity modulated treatment delivery, single or multiple fields/arcs, via narrow spatially and temporally modulated beams, binary, dynamic MLC, per treatment session",HCPS +G6016,Radiation Therapy Services .,"Compensator-based beam modulation treatment delivery of inverse planned treatment using 3 or more high resolution (milled or cast) compensator, convergent beam modulated fields, per treatment session",HCPS +G6017,Radiation Therapy Services .,"Intra-fraction localization and tracking of target or patient motion during delivery of radiation therapy (e.g., 3D positional tracking, gating, 3D surface tracking), each fraction of treatment",HCPS +G8395,Additional Quality Measures .,Left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) >= 40% or documentation as normal or mildly depressed left ventricular systolic function,HCPS +G8396,Additional Quality Measures .,Left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) not performed or documented,HCPS +G8397,Additional Quality Measures .,"Dilated macular or fundus exam performed, including documentation of the presence or absence of macular edema and level of severity of retinopathy",HCPS +G8399,Additional Quality Measures .,Patient with documented results of a central dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DXA) ever being performed,HCPS +G8400,Additional Quality Measures .,"Patient with central dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DXA) results not documented, reason not given",HCPS +G8404,Additional Quality Measures .,Lower extremity neurological exam performed and documented,HCPS +G8405,Additional Quality Measures .,Lower extremity neurological exam not performed,HCPS +G8410,Additional Quality Measures .,Footwear evaluation performed and documented,HCPS +G8415,Additional Quality Measures .,Footwear evaluation was not performed,HCPS +G8416,Additional Quality Measures .,Clinician documented that patient was not an eligible candidate for footwear evaluation measure,HCPS +G8417,Additional Quality Measures .,BMI is documented above normal parameters and a follow-up plan is documented,HCPS +G8418,Additional Quality Measures .,BMI is documented below normal parameters and a follow-up plan is documented,HCPS +G8419,Additional Quality Measures .,"BMI documented outside normal parameters, no follow-up plan documented, no reason given",HCPS +G8420,Additional Quality Measures .,BMI is documented within normal parameters and no follow-up plan is required,HCPS +G8421,Additional Quality Measures .,BMI not documented and no reason is given,HCPS +G8427,Additional Quality Measures .,"Eligible clinician attests to documenting in the medical record they obtained, updated, or reviewed the patient's current medications",HCPS +G8428,Additional Quality Measures .,"Current list of medications not documented as obtained, updated, or reviewed by the eligible clinician, reason not given",HCPS +G8430,Additional Quality Measures .,"Documentation of a medical reason(s) for not documenting, updating, or reviewing the patient's current medications list (e.g., patient is in an urgent or emergent medical situation)",HCPS +G8431,Additional Quality Measures .,Screening for depression is documented as being positive and a follow-up plan is documented,HCPS +G8432,Additional Quality Measures .,"Depression screening not documented, reason not given",HCPS +G8433,Additional Quality Measures .,"Screening for depression not completed, documented patient or medical reason",HCPS +G8450,Additional Quality Measures .,Beta-blocker therapy prescribed,HCPS +G8451,Additional Quality Measures .,"Beta-blocker therapy for lvef <=40% not prescribed for reasons documented by the clinician (e.g., low blood pressure, fluid overload, asthma, patients recently treated with an intravenous positive inotropic agent, allergy, intolerance, other medical reasons, patient declined, other patient reasons)",HCPS +G8452,Additional Quality Measures .,Beta-blocker therapy not prescribed,HCPS +G8465,Additional Quality Measures .,High or very high risk of recurrence of prostate cancer,HCPS +G8473,Additional Quality Measures .,Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB) therapy prescribed,HCPS +G8474,Additional Quality Measures .,"Angiotensin converting enzyme (ace) inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker (arb) therapy not prescribed for reasons documented by the clinician (e.g., allergy, intolerance, pregnancy, renal failure due to ace inhibitor, diseases of the aortic or mitral valve, other medical reasons) or (e.g., patient declined, other patient reasons)",HCPS +G8475,Additional Quality Measures .,"Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB) therapy not prescribed, reason not given",HCPS +G8476,Additional Quality Measures .,Most recent blood pressure has a systolic measurement of < 140 mmHg and a diastolic measurement of < 90 mmHg,HCPS +G8477,Additional Quality Measures .,Most recent blood pressure has a systolic measurement of >=140 mmHg and/or a diastolic measurement of >=90 mmHg,HCPS +G8478,Additional Quality Measures .,"Blood pressure measurement not performed or documented, reason not given",HCPS +G8482,Additional Quality Measures .,Influenza immunization administered or previously received,HCPS +G8483,Additional Quality Measures .,"Influenza immunization was not administered for reasons documented by clinician (e.g., patient allergy or other medical reasons, patient declined or other patient reasons, vaccine not available or other system reasons)",HCPS +G8484,Additional Quality Measures .,"Influenza immunization was not administered, reason not given",HCPS +G8510,Additional Quality Measures .,"Screening for depression is documented as negative, a follow-up plan is not required",HCPS +G8511,Additional Quality Measures .,"Screening for depression documented as positive, follow-up plan not documented, reason not given",HCPS +G8535,Additional Quality Measures .,"Elder maltreatment screen not documented; documentation that patient is not eligible for the elder maltreatment screen at the time of the encounter related to one of the following reasons: (1) patient refuses to participate in the screening and has reasonable decisional capacity for self-protection, or (2) patient is in an urgent or emergent situation where time is of the essence and to delay treatment to perform the screening would jeopardize the patient's health status",HCPS +G8536,Additional Quality Measures .,"No documentation of an elder maltreatment screen, reason not given",HCPS +G8539,Additional Quality Measures .,Functional outcome assessment documented as positive using a standardized tool and a care plan based on identified deficiencies is documented within two days of the functional outcome assessment,HCPS +G8540,Additional Quality Measures .,"Functional outcome assessment not documented as being performed, documentation the patient is not eligible for a functional outcome assessment using a standardized tool at the time of the encounter",HCPS +G8541,Additional Quality Measures .,"Functional outcome assessment using a standardized tool not documented, reason not given",HCPS +G8542,Additional Quality Measures .,"Functional outcome assessment using a standardized tool is documented; no functional deficiencies identified, care plan not required",HCPS +G8543,Additional Quality Measures .,"Documentation of a positive functional outcome assessment using a standardized tool; care plan not documented within two days of assessment, reason not given",HCPS +G8559,Additional Quality Measures .,Patient referred to a physician (preferably a physician with training in disorders of the ear) for an otologic evaluation,HCPS +G8560,Additional Quality Measures .,Patient has a history of active drainage from the ear within the previous 90 days,HCPS +G8561,Additional Quality Measures .,Patient is not eligible for the referral for otologic evaluation for patients with a history of active drainage measure,HCPS +G8562,Additional Quality Measures .,Patient does not have a history of active drainage from the ear within the previous 90 days,HCPS +G8563,Additional Quality Measures .,"Patient not referred to a physician (preferably a physician with training in disorders of the ear) for an otologic evaluation, reason not given",HCPS +G8564,Additional Quality Measures .,"Patient was referred to a physician (preferably a physician with training in disorders of the ear) for an otologic evaluation, reason not specified)",HCPS +G8565,Additional Quality Measures .,Verification and documentation of sudden or rapidly progressive hearing loss,HCPS +G8566,Additional Quality Measures .,"Patient is not eligible for the ""referral for otologic evaluation for sudden or rapidly progressive hearing loss"" measure",HCPS +G8567,Additional Quality Measures .,Patient does not have verification and documentation of sudden or rapidly progressive hearing loss,HCPS +G8568,Additional Quality Measures .,"Patient was not referred to a physician (preferably a physician with training in disorders of the ear) for an otologic evaluation, reason not given",HCPS +G8569,Additional Quality Measures .,Prolonged postoperative intubation (> 24 hrs) required,HCPS +G8570,Additional Quality Measures .,Prolonged postoperative intubation (> 24 hrs) not required,HCPS +G8575,Additional Quality Measures .,Developed postoperative renal failure or required dialysis,HCPS +G8576,Additional Quality Measures .,No postoperative renal failure/dialysis not required,HCPS +G8577,Additional Quality Measures .,"Re-exploration required due to mediastinal bleeding with or without tamponade, graft occlusion, valve dysfunction or other cardiac reason",HCPS +G8578,Additional Quality Measures .,"Re-exploration not required due to mediastinal bleeding with or without tamponade, graft occlusion, valve dysfunction or other cardiac reason",HCPS +G8598,Additional Quality Measures .,Aspirin or another antiplatelet therapy used,HCPS +G8599,Additional Quality Measures .,"Aspirin or another antiplatelet therapy not used, reason not given",HCPS +G8600,Additional Quality Measures .,Iv thrombolytic therapy initiated within 4.5 hours (<= 270 minutes) of time last known well,HCPS +G8601,Additional Quality Measures .,"Iv thrombolytic therapy not initiated within 4.5 hours (<= 270 minutes) of time last known well for reasons documented by clinician (e.g. patient enrolled in clinical trial for stroke, patient admitted for elective carotid intervention)",HCPS +G8602,Additional Quality Measures .,"Iv thrombolytic therapy not initiated within 4.5 hours (<= 270 minutes) of time last known well, reason not given",HCPS +G8633,Additional Quality Measures .,Pharmacologic therapy (other than minerals/vitamins) for osteoporosis prescribed,HCPS +G8635,Additional Quality Measures .,"Pharmacologic therapy for osteoporosis was not prescribed, reason not given",HCPS +G8647,Quality Measures Related for Risk-adjusted Functional Status Scoring .,Residual score for the knee impairment successfully calculated and the score was equal to zero (0) or greater than zero (> 0),HCPS +G8648,Quality Measures Related for Risk-adjusted Functional Status Scoring .,Residual score for the knee impairment successfully calculated and the score was less than zero (< 0),HCPS +G8650,Quality Measures Related for Risk-adjusted Functional Status Scoring .,"Residual score for the knee impairment not measured because the patient did not complete the lepf prom at initial evaluation and/or near discharge, reason not given",HCPS +G8651,Quality Measures Related for Risk-adjusted Functional Status Scoring .,Residual score for the hip impairment successfully calculated and the score was equal to zero (0) or greater than zero (> 0),HCPS +G8652,Quality Measures Related for Risk-adjusted Functional Status Scoring .,Residual score for the hip impairment successfully calculated and the score was less than zero (< 0),HCPS +G8654,Quality Measures Related for Risk-adjusted Functional Status Scoring .,"Residual score for the hip impairment not measured because the patient did not complete the lepf prom at initial evaluation and/or near discharge, reason not given",HCPS +G8655,Quality Measures Related for Risk-adjusted Functional Status Scoring .,"Residual score for the lower leg, foot or ankle impairment successfully calculated and the score was equal to zero (0) or greater than zero ( > 0)",HCPS +G8656,Quality Measures Related for Risk-adjusted Functional Status Scoring .,"Residual score for the lower leg, foot or ankle impairment successfully calculated and the score was less than zero (< 0)",HCPS +G8658,Quality Measures Related for Risk-adjusted Functional Status Scoring .,"Residual score for the lower leg, foot or ankle impairment not measured because the patient did not complete the lepf prom at initial evaluation and/or near discharge, reason not given",HCPS +G8659,Quality Measures Related for Risk-adjusted Functional Status Scoring .,Residual score for the low back impairment successfully calculated and the score was equal to zero (0) or greater than zero (> 0),HCPS +G8660,Quality Measures Related for Risk-adjusted Functional Status Scoring .,Residual score for the low back impairment successfully calculated and the score was less than zero (< 0),HCPS +G8661,Quality Measures Related for Risk-adjusted Functional Status Scoring .,"Risk-adjusted functional status change residual score for the low back impairment not measured because the patient did not complete the fs status survey near discharge, patient not appropriate",HCPS +G8662,Quality Measures Related for Risk-adjusted Functional Status Scoring .,"Residual score for the low back impairment not measured because the patient did not complete the low back fs prom at initial evaluation and/or near discharge, reason not given",HCPS +G8663,Quality Measures Related for Risk-adjusted Functional Status Scoring .,Residual score for the shoulder impairment successfully calculated and the score was equal to zero (0) or greater than zero (> 0),HCPS +G8664,Quality Measures Related for Risk-adjusted Functional Status Scoring .,Residual score for the shoulder impairment successfully calculated and the score was less than zero (< 0),HCPS +G8666,Quality Measures Related for Risk-adjusted Functional Status Scoring .,"Residual score for the shoulder impairment not measured because the patient did not complete the shoulder fs prom at initial evaluation and/or near discharge, reason not given",HCPS +G8667,Quality Measures Related for Risk-adjusted Functional Status Scoring .,"Residual score for the elbow, wrist or hand impairment successfully calculated and the score was equal to zero (0) or greater than zero (> 0)",HCPS +G8668,Quality Measures Related for Risk-adjusted Functional Status Scoring .,"Residual score for the elbow, wrist or hand impairment successfully calculated and the score was less than zero (< 0)",HCPS +G8670,Quality Measures Related for Risk-adjusted Functional Status Scoring .,"Residual score for the elbow, wrist or hand impairment not measured because the patient did not complete the elbow/wrist/hand fs prom at initial evaluation and/or near discharge, reason not given",HCPS +G8694,More Quality Measures .,Left ventricular ejection fraction (lvef) < = 40% or documentation of moderate or severe lvsd,HCPS +G8708,More Quality Measures .,Patient not prescribed antibiotic,HCPS +G8709,More Quality Measures .,"Uri episodes when the patient had competing diagnoses on or three days after the episode date (e.g., intestinal infection, pertussis, bacterial infection, lyme disease, otitis media, acute sinusitis, acute pharyngitis, acute tonsillitis, chronic sinusitis, infection of the pharynx/larynx/tonsils/adenoids, prostatitis, cellulitis, mastoiditis, or bone infections, acute lymphadenitis, impetigo, skin staph infections, pneumonia/gonococcal infections, venereal disease (syphilis, chlamydia, inflammatory diseases [female reproductive organs]), infections of the kidney, cystitis or uti, and acne)",HCPS +G8710,More Quality Measures .,Patient prescribed antibiotic,HCPS +G8711,More Quality Measures .,Prescribed antibiotic on or within 3 days after the episode date,HCPS +G8712,More Quality Measures .,Antibiotic not prescribed or dispensed,HCPS +G8721,More Quality Measures .,"pT category (primary tumor), pN category (regional lymph nodes), and histologic grade were documented in pathology report",HCPS +G8722,More Quality Measures .,"Documentation of medical reason(s) for not including the pT category, the pN category or the histologic grade in the pathology report (e.g., re-excision without residual tumor; non-carcinomasanal canal)",HCPS +G8723,More Quality Measures .,Specimen site is other than anatomic location of primary tumor,HCPS +G8724,More Quality Measures .,"pT category, pN category and histologic grade were not documented in the pathology report, reason not given",HCPS +G8733,More Quality Measures .,Elder maltreatment screen documented as positive and a follow-up plan is documented,HCPS +G8734,More Quality Measures .,"Elder maltreatment screen documented as negative, follow-up is not required",HCPS +G8735,More Quality Measures .,"Elder maltreatment screen documented as positive, follow-up plan not documented, reason not given",HCPS +G8749,More Quality Measures .,"Absence of signs of melanoma (tenderness, jaundice, localized neurologic signs such as weakness, or any other sign suggesting systemic spread) or absence of symptoms of melanoma (cough, dyspnea, pain, paresthesia, or any other symptom suggesting the possibility of systemic spread of melanoma)",HCPS +G8752,More Quality Measures .,Most recent systolic blood pressure < 140 mmHg,HCPS +G8753,More Quality Measures .,Most recent systolic blood pressure >= 140 mmHg,HCPS +G8754,More Quality Measures .,Most recent diastolic blood pressure < 90 mmHg,HCPS +G8755,More Quality Measures .,Most recent diastolic blood pressure >= 90 mmHg,HCPS +G8756,More Quality Measures .,"No documentation of blood pressure measurement, reason not given",HCPS +G8783,More Quality Measures .,"Normal blood pressure reading documented, follow-up not required",HCPS +G8785,More Quality Measures .,"Blood pressure reading not documented, reason not given",HCPS +G8797,More Quality Measures .,Specimen site other than anatomic location of esophagus,HCPS +G8798,More Quality Measures .,Specimen site other than anatomic location of prostate,HCPS +G8806,More Quality Measures .,Performance of trans-abdominal or trans-vaginal ultrasound and pregnancy location documented,HCPS +G8807,More Quality Measures .,"Trans-abdominal or trans-vaginal ultrasound not performed for reasons documented by clinician (e.g., patient has a documented intrauterine pregnancy [iup])",HCPS +G8808,More Quality Measures .,"Trans-abdominal or trans-vaginal ultrasound not performed, reason not given",HCPS +G8815,More Quality Measures .,"Documented reason in the medical records for why the statin therapy was not prescribed (i.e., lower extremity bypass was for a patient with non-artherosclerotic disease)",HCPS +G8816,More Quality Measures .,Statin medication prescribed at discharge,HCPS +G8817,More Quality Measures .,"Statin therapy not prescribed at discharge, reason not given",HCPS +G8826,More Quality Measures .,Patient discharged to home no later than post-operative day #2 following evar,HCPS +G8833,More Quality Measures .,Patient not discharged to home by post-operative day #2 following evar,HCPS +G8834,More Quality Measures .,Patient discharged to home no later than post-operative day #2 following CEA,HCPS +G8838,More Quality Measures .,Patient not discharged to home by post-operative day #2 following CEA,HCPS +G8839,More Quality Measures .,"Sleep apnea symptoms assessed, including presence or absence of snoring and daytime sleepiness",HCPS +G8840,More Quality Measures .,"Documentation of reason(s) for not documenting an assessment of sleep symptoms (e.g., patient didn't have initial daytime sleepiness, patient visited between initial testing and initiation of therapy)",HCPS +G8841,More Quality Measures .,"Sleep apnea symptoms not assessed, reason not given",HCPS +G8842,More Quality Measures .,"Apnea hypopnea index (ahi), respiratory disturbance index (rdi) or respiratory event index (rei) documented or measured within 2 months of initial evaluation for suspected obstructive sleep apnea",HCPS +G8843,More Quality Measures .,"Documentation of reason(s) for not measuring an apnea hypopnea index (ahi), a respiratory disturbance index (rdi), or a respiratory event index (rei) within 2 months of initial evaluation for suspected obstructive sleep apnea (e.g., medical, neurological, or psychiatric disease that prohibits successful completion of a sleep study, patients for whom a sleep study would present a bigger risk than benefit or would pose an undue burden, dementia, patients who decline ahi/rdi/rei measurement, patients who had a financial reason for not completing testing, test was ordered but not completed, patients decline because their insurance (payer) does not cover the expense))",HCPS +G8844,More Quality Measures .,"Apnea hypopnea index (ahi), respiratory disturbance index (rdi), or respiratory event index (rei) not documented or measured within 2 months of initial evaluation for suspected obstructive sleep apnea, reason not given",HCPS +G8845,More Quality Measures .,Positive airway pressure therapy prescribed,HCPS +G8846,More Quality Measures .,Moderate or severe obstructive sleep apnea (apnea hypopnea index (AHI) or respiratory disturbance index (RDI) of 15 or greater),HCPS +G8849,More Quality Measures .,"Documentation of reason(s) for not prescribing positive airway pressure therapy (e.g., patient unable to tolerate, alternative therapies use, patient declined, financial, insurance coverage)",HCPS +G8850,More Quality Measures .,"Positive airway pressure therapy not prescribed, reason not given",HCPS +G8851,More Quality Measures .,"Adherence to therapy was assessed at least annually through an objective informatics system or through self-reporting (if objective reporting is not available, documented)",HCPS +G8854,More Quality Measures .,"Documentation of reason(s) for not objectively reporting adherence to evidence-based therapy (e.g., patients who have been diagnosed with a terminal or advanced disease with an expected life span of less than 6 months, patients who decline therapy, patients who do not return for follow-up at least annually, patients unable to access/afford therapy, patient's insurance will not cover therapy)",HCPS +G8855,More Quality Measures .,"Adherence to therapy was not assessed at least annually through an objective informatics system or through self-reporting (if objective reporting is not available), reason not given",HCPS +G8856,More Quality Measures .,Referral to a physician for an otologic evaluation performed,HCPS +G8857,More Quality Measures .,"Patient is not eligible for the referral for otologic evaluation measure (e.g., patients who are already under the care of a physician for acute or chronic dizziness)",HCPS +G8858,More Quality Measures .,"Referral to a physician for an otologic evaluation not performed, reason not given",HCPS +G8863,More Quality Measures .,"Patients not assessed for risk of bone loss, reason not given",HCPS +G8864,More Quality Measures .,Pneumococcal vaccine administered or previously received,HCPS +G8865,More Quality Measures .,"Documentation of medical reason(s) for not administering or previously receiving pneumococcal vaccine (e.g., patient allergic reaction, potential adverse drug reaction)",HCPS +G8866,More Quality Measures .,"Documentation of patient reason(s) for not administering or previously receiving pneumococcal vaccine (e.g., patient refusal)",HCPS +G8867,More Quality Measures .,"Pneumococcal vaccine not administered or previously received, reason not given",HCPS +G8869,More Quality Measures .,Patient has documented immunity to hepatitis B and initiating anti-TNF therapy,HCPS +G8875,More Quality Measures .,Clinician diagnosed breast cancer preoperatively by a minimally invasive biopsy method,HCPS +G8876,More Quality Measures .,"Documentation of reason(s) for not performing minimally invasive biopsy to diagnose breast cancer preoperatively (e.g., lesion too close to skin, implant, chest wall, etc., lesion could not be adequately visualized for needle biopsy, patient condition prevents needle biopsy [weight, breast thickness, etc.], duct excision without imaging abnormality, prophylactic mastectomy, reduction mammoplasty, excisional biopsy performed by another physician)",HCPS +G8877,More Quality Measures .,"Clinician did not attempt to achieve the diagnosis of breast cancer preoperatively by a minimally invasive biopsy method, reason not given",HCPS +G8878,More Quality Measures .,Sentinel lymph node biopsy procedure performed,HCPS +G8880,More Quality Measures .,"Documentation of reason(s) sentinel lymph node biopsy not performed (e.g., reasons could include but not limited to; non-invasive cancer, incidental discovery of breast cancer on prophylactic mastectomy, incidental discovery of breast cancer on reduction mammoplasty, pre-operative biopsy proven lymph node (ln) metastases, inflammatory carcinoma, stage 3 locally advanced cancer, recurrent invasive breast cancer, clinically node positive after neoadjuvant systemic therapy, patient refusal after informed consent, patient with significant age, comorbidities, or limited life expectancy and favorable tumor; adjuvant systemic therapy unlikely to change)",HCPS +G8881,More Quality Measures .,Stage of breast cancer is greater than T1N0M0 or T3N0M0,HCPS +G8882,More Quality Measures .,"Sentinel lymph node biopsy procedure not performed, reason not given",HCPS +G8907,More Quality Measures .,Patient documented not to have experienced any of the following events: a burn prior to discharge; a fall within the facility; wrong site/side/patient/procedure/implant event; or a hospital transfer or hospital admission upon discharge from the facility,HCPS +G8908,More Quality Measures .,Patient documented to have received a burn prior to discharge,HCPS +G8909,More Quality Measures .,Patient documented not to have received a burn prior to discharge,HCPS +G8910,More Quality Measures .,Patient documented to have experienced a fall within ASC,HCPS +G8911,More Quality Measures .,Patient documented not to have experienced a fall within ambulatory surgical center,HCPS +G8912,More Quality Measures .,"Patient documented to have experienced a wrong site, wrong side, wrong patient, wrong procedure or wrong implant event",HCPS +G8913,More Quality Measures .,"Patient documented not to have experienced a wrong site, wrong side, wrong patient, wrong procedure or wrong implant event",HCPS +G8914,More Quality Measures .,Patient documented to have experienced a hospital transfer or hospital admission upon discharge from ASC,HCPS +G8915,More Quality Measures .,Patient documented not to have experienced a hospital transfer or hospital admission upon discharge from ASC,HCPS +G8916,More Quality Measures .,"Patient with preoperative order for IV antibiotic surgical site infection (SSI) prophylaxis, antibiotic initiated on time",HCPS +G8917,More Quality Measures .,"Patient with preoperative order for IV antibiotic surgical site infection (SSI) prophylaxis, antibiotic not initiated on time",HCPS +G8918,More Quality Measures .,Patient without preoperative order for IV antibiotic surgical site infection (SSI) prophylaxis,HCPS +G8923,More Quality Measures .,Left ventricular ejection fraction (lvef) <= 40% or documentation of moderately or severely depressed left ventricular systolic function,HCPS +G8924,More Quality Measures .,Spirometry results documented (fev1/fvc < 70%),HCPS +G8934,More Quality Measures .,Left ventricular ejection fraction (lvef) <=40% or documentation of moderately or severely depressed left ventricular systolic function,HCPS +G8935,More Quality Measures .,Clinician prescribed angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB) therapy,HCPS +G8936,More Quality Measures .,"Clinician documented that patient was not an eligible candidate for angiotensin converting enzyme (ace) inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker (arb) therapy (eg, allergy, intolerance, pregnancy, renal failure due to ace inhibitor, diseases of the aortic or mitral valve, other medical reasons) or (eg, patient declined, other patient reasons)",HCPS +G8937,More Quality Measures .,"Clinician did not prescribe angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB) therapy, reason not given",HCPS +G8942,More Quality Measures .,"Functional outcome assessment using a standardized tool is documented within the previous 30 days and a care plan, based on identified deficiencies is documented within two days of the functional outcome assessment",HCPS +G8944,More Quality Measures .,AJCC melanoma cancer Stage 0 through IIC melanoma,HCPS +G8946,More Quality Measures .,"Minimally invasive biopsy method attempted but not diagnostic of breast cancer (e.g., high risk lesion of breast such as atypical ductal hyperplasia, lobular neoplasia, atypical lobular hyperplasia, lobular carcinoma in situ, atypical columnar hyperplasia, flat epithelial atypia, radial scar, complex sclerosing lesion, papillary lesion, or any lesion with spindle cells)",HCPS +G8950,More Quality Measures .,"Elevated or hypertensive blood pressure reading documented, and the indicated follow-up is documented",HCPS +G8952,More Quality Measures .,"Elevated or hypertensive blood pressure reading documented, indicated follow-up not documented, reason not given",HCPS +G8955,More Quality Measures .,Most recent assessment of adequacy of volume management documented,HCPS +G8956,More Quality Measures .,Patient receiving maintenance hemodialysis in an outpatient dialysis facility,HCPS +G8958,More Quality Measures .,"Assessment of adequacy of volume management not documented, reason not given",HCPS +G8961,More Quality Measures .,Cardiac stress imaging test primarily performed on low-risk surgery patient for preoperative evaluation within 30 days preceding this surgery,HCPS +G8962,More Quality Measures .,Cardiac stress imaging test performed on patient for any reason including those who did not have low risk surgery or test that was performed more than 30 days preceding low risk surgery,HCPS +G8965,More Quality Measures .,Cardiac stress imaging test primarily performed on low CHD risk patient for initial detection and risk assessment,HCPS +G8966,More Quality Measures .,Cardiac stress imaging test performed on symptomatic or higher than low CHD risk patient or for any reason other than initial detection and risk assessment,HCPS +G8967,More Quality Measures .,Fda approved oral anticoagulant is prescribed,HCPS +G8968,More Quality Measures .,"Documentation of medical reason(s) for not prescribing an fda-approved anticoagulant (e.g., present or planned atrial appendage occlusion or ligation or patient being currently enrolled in a clinical trial related to af/atrial flutter treatment)",HCPS +G8969,More Quality Measures .,"Documentation of patient reason(s) for not prescribing an oral anticoagulant that is fda approved for the prevention of thromboembolism (e.g., patient preference for not receiving anticoagulation)",HCPS +G8970,More Quality Measures .,No risk factors or one moderate risk factor for thromboembolism,HCPS +G9001,MCCD (Medicare Coordinated Care Demonstration).,"Coordinated care fee, initial rate",HCPS +G9002,MCCD (Medicare Coordinated Care Demonstration).,"Coordinated care fee, maintenance rate",HCPS +G9003,MCCD (Medicare Coordinated Care Demonstration).,"Coordinated care fee, risk adjusted high, initial",HCPS +G9004,MCCD (Medicare Coordinated Care Demonstration).,"Coordinated care fee, risk adjusted low, initial",HCPS +G9005,MCCD (Medicare Coordinated Care Demonstration).,"Coordinated care fee, risk adjusted maintenance",HCPS +G9006,MCCD (Medicare Coordinated Care Demonstration).,"Coordinated care fee, home monitoring",HCPS +G9007,MCCD (Medicare Coordinated Care Demonstration).,"Coordinated care fee, scheduled team conference",HCPS +G9008,MCCD (Medicare Coordinated Care Demonstration).,"Coordinated care fee, physician coordinated care oversight services",HCPS +G9009,MCCD (Medicare Coordinated Care Demonstration).,"Coordinated care fee, risk adjusted maintenance, level 3",HCPS +G9010,MCCD (Medicare Coordinated Care Demonstration).,"Coordinated care fee, risk adjusted maintenance, level 4",HCPS +G9011,MCCD (Medicare Coordinated Care Demonstration).,"Coordinated care fee, risk adjusted maintenance, level 5",HCPS +G9012,MCCD (Medicare Coordinated Care Demonstration).,Other specified case management service not elsewhere classified,HCPS +G9013,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,ESRD demo basic bundle level I,HCPS +G9014,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,ESRD demo expanded bundle including venous access and related services,HCPS +G9016,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Smoking cessation counseling, individual, in the absence of or in addition to any other evaluation and management service, per session (6-10 minutes) [demo project code only]",HCPS +G9050,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; primary focus of visit; work-up, evaluation, or staging at the time of cancer diagnosis or recurrence (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9051,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; primary focus of visit; treatment decision-making after disease is staged or restaged, discussion of treatment options, supervising/coordinating active cancer directed therapy or managing consequences of cancer directed therapy (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9052,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,Oncology; primary focus of visit; surveillance for disease recurrence for patient who has completed definitive cancer-directed therapy and currently lacks evidence of recurrent disease; cancer directed therapy might be considered in the future (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project),HCPS +G9053,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,Oncology; primary focus of visit; expectant management of patient with evidence of cancer for whom no cancer directed therapy is being administered or arranged at present; cancer directed therapy might be considered in the future (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project),HCPS +G9054,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; primary focus of visit; supervising, coordinating or managing care of patient with terminal cancer or for whom other medical illness prevents further cancer treatment; includes symptom management, end-of-life care planning, management of palliative therapies (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9055,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; primary focus of visit; other, unspecified service not otherwise listed (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9056,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,Oncology; practice guidelines; management adheres to guidelines (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project),HCPS +G9057,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,Oncology; practice guidelines; management differs from guidelines as a result of patient enrollment in an institutional review board approved clinical trial (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project),HCPS +G9058,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,Oncology; practice guidelines; management differs from guidelines because the treating physician disagrees with guideline recommendations (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project),HCPS +G9059,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; practice guidelines; management differs from guidelines because the patient, after being offered treatment consistent with guidelines, has opted for alternative treatment or management, including no treatment (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9060,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,Oncology; practice guidelines; management differs from guidelines for reason(s) associated with patient comorbid illness or performance status not factored into guidelines (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project),HCPS +G9061,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,Oncology; practice guidelines; patient's condition not addressed by available guidelines (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project),HCPS +G9062,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,Oncology; practice guidelines; management differs from guidelines for other reason(s) not listed (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project),HCPS +G9063,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; limited to non-small cell lung cancer; extent of disease initially established as Stage I (prior to neo-adjuvant therapy, if any) with no evidence of disease progression, recurrence, or metastases (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9064,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; limited to non-small cell lung cancer; extent of disease initially established as Stage II (prior to neo-adjuvant therapy, if any) with no evidence of disease progression, recurrence, or metastases (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9065,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; limited to non-small cell lung cancer; extent of disease initially established as Stage III A (prior to neo-adjuvant therapy, if any) with no evidence of disease progression, recurrence, or metastases (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9066,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; limited to non-small cell lung cancer; Stage III B- IV at diagnosis, metastatic, locally recurrent, or progressive (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9067,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; limited to non-small cell lung cancer; extent of disease unknown, staging in progress, or not listed (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9068,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; limited to small cell and combined small cell/non-small cell; extent of disease initially established as limited with no evidence of disease progression, recurrence, or metastases (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9069,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; small cell lung cancer, limited to small cell and combined small cell/non-small cell; extensive Stage at diagnosis, metastatic, locally recurrent, or progressive (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9070,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; small cell lung cancer, limited to small cell and combined small cell/non-small; extent of disease unknown, staging in progress, or not listed (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9071,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; invasive female breast cancer (does not include ductal carcinoma in situ); adenocarcinoma as predominant cell type; Stage I or Stage IIA-IIB; or T3, N1, M0; and ER and/or pr positive; with no evidence of disease progression, recurrence, or metastases (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9072,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; invasive female breast cancer (does not include ductal carcinoma in situ); adenocarcinoma as predominant cell type; Stage I, or Stage IIA-IIB; or T3, N1, M0; and ER and PR negative; with no evidence of disease progression, recurrence, or metastases (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9073,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; invasive female breast cancer (does not include ductal carcinoma in situ); adenocarcinoma as predominant cell type; Stage IIIA-IIIB; and not T3, N1, M0; and ER and/or PR positive; with no evidence of disease progression, recurrence, or metastases (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9074,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; invasive female breast cancer (does not include ductal carcinoma in situ); adenocarcinoma as predominant cell type; Stage IIIA-IIIB; and not T3, N1, M0; and ER and PR negative; with no evidence of disease progression, recurrence, or metastases (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9075,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; invasive female breast cancer (does not include ductal carcinoma in situ); adenocarcinoma as predominant cell type; M1 at diagnosis, metastatic, locally recurrent, or progressive (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9077,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; prostate cancer, limited to adenocarcinoma as predominant cell type; T1-T3C and gleason 2-7 and PSA < or equal to 20 at diagnosis with no evidence of disease progression, recurrence, or metastases (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9078,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; prostate cancer, limited to adenocarcinoma as predominant cell type; T2 or T3A Gleason 8-10 or PSA > 20 at diagnosis with no evidence of disease progression, recurrence, or metastases (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9079,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; prostate cancer, limited to adenocarcinoma as predominant cell type; T3B-T4, any N; any T, N1 at diagnosis with no evidence of disease progression, recurrence, or metastases (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9080,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; prostate cancer, limited to adenocarcinoma; after initial treatment with rising PSA or failure of PSA decline (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9083,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; prostate cancer, limited to adenocarcinoma; extent of disease unknown, staging in progress, or not listed (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9084,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; colon cancer, limited to invasive cancer, adenocarcinoma as predominant cell type; extent of disease initially established as T1-3, N0, M0 with no evidence of disease progression, recurrence, or metastases (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9085,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; colon cancer, limited to invasive cancer, adenocarcinoma as predominant cell type; extent of disease initially established as T4, N0, M0 with no evidence of disease progression, recurrence, or metastases (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9086,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; colon cancer, limited to invasive cancer, adenocarcinoma as predominant cell type; extent of disease initially established as T1-4, N1-2, M0 with no evidence of disease progression, recurrence, or metastases (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9087,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; colon cancer, limited to invasive cancer, adenocarcinoma as predominant cell type; M1 at diagnosis, metastatic, locally recurrent, or progressive with current clinical, radiologic, or biochemical evidence of disease (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9088,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; colon cancer, limited to invasive cancer, adenocarcinoma as predominant cell type; M1 at diagnosis, metastatic, locally recurrent, or progressive without current clinical, radiologic, or biochemical evidence of disease (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9089,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; colon cancer, limited to invasive cancer, adenocarcinoma as predominant cell type; extent of disease unknown, staging in progress, or not listed (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9090,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; rectal cancer, limited to invasive cancer, adenocarcinoma as predominant cell type; extent of disease initially established as T1-2, N0, M0 (prior to neo-adjuvant therapy, if any) with no evidence of disease progression, recurrence, or metastases (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9091,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; rectal cancer, limited to invasive cancer, adenocarcinoma as predominant cell type; extent of disease initially established as T3, N0, M0 (prior to neo-adjuvant therapy, if any) with no evidence of disease progression, recurrence, or metastases (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9092,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; rectal cancer, limited to invasive cancer, adenocarcinoma as predominant cell type; extent of disease initially established as T1-3, N1-2, M0 (prior to neo-adjuvant therapy, if any) with no evidence of disease progression, recurrence or metastases (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9093,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; rectal cancer, limited to invasive cancer, adenocarcinoma as predominant cell type; extent of disease initially established as T4, any N, M0 (prior to neo-adjuvant therapy, if any) with no evidence of disease progression, recurrence, or metastases (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9094,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; rectal cancer, limited to invasive cancer, adenocarcinoma as predominant cell type; M1 at diagnosis, metastatic, locally recurrent, or progressive (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9095,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; rectal cancer, limited to invasive cancer, adenocarcinoma as predominant cell type; extent of disease unknown, staging in progress, or not listed (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9096,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; esophageal cancer, limited to adenocarcinoma or squamous cell carcinoma as predominant cell type; extent of disease initially established as T1-T3, N0-N1 or NX (prior to neo-adjuvant therapy, if any) with no evidence of disease progression, recurrence, or metastases (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9097,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; esophageal cancer, limited to adenocarcinoma or squamous cell carcinoma as predominant cell type; extent of disease initially established as T4, any N, M0 (prior to neo-adjuvant therapy, if any) with no evidence of disease progression, recurrence, or metastases (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9098,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; esophageal cancer, limited to adenocarcinoma or squamous cell carcinoma as predominant cell type; M1 at diagnosis, metastatic, locally recurrent, or progressive (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9099,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; esophageal cancer, limited to adenocarcinoma or squamous cell carcinoma as predominant cell type; extent of disease unknown, staging in progress, or not listed (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9100,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; gastric cancer, limited to adenocarcinoma as predominant cell type; post R0 resection (with or without neoadjuvant therapy) with no evidence of disease recurrence, progression, or metastases (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9101,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; gastric cancer, limited to adenocarcinoma as predominant cell type; post R1 or R2 resection (with or without neoadjuvant therapy) with no evidence of disease progression, or metastases (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9102,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; gastric cancer, limited to adenocarcinoma as predominant cell type; clinical or pathologic M0, unresectable with no evidence of disease progression, or metastases (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9103,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; gastric cancer, limited to adenocarcinoma as predominant cell type; clinical or pathologic M1 at diagnosis, metastatic, locally recurrent, or progressive (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9104,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; gastric cancer, limited to adenocarcinoma as predominant cell type; extent of disease unknown, staging in progress, or not listed (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9105,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; pancreatic cancer, limited to adenocarcinoma as predominant cell type; post R0 resection without evidence of disease progression, recurrence, or metastases (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9106,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; pancreatic cancer, limited to adenocarcinoma; post R1 or R2 resection with no evidence of disease progression, or metastases (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9107,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; pancreatic cancer, limited to adenocarcinoma; unresectable at diagnosis, M1 at diagnosis, metastatic, locally recurrent, or progressive (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9108,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; pancreatic cancer, limited to adenocarcinoma; extent of disease unknown, staging in progress, or not listed (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9109,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; head and neck cancer, limited to cancers of oral cavity, pharynx and larynx with squamous cell as predominant cell type; extent of disease initially established as T1-T2 and N0, M0 (prior to neo-adjuvant therapy, if any) with no evidence of disease progression, recurrence, or metastases (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9110,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; head and neck cancer, limited to cancers of oral cavity, pharynx and larynx with squamous cell as predominant cell type; extent of disease initially established as T3-4 and/or N1-3, M0 (prior to neo-adjuvant therapy, if any) with no evidence of disease progression, recurrence, or metastases (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9111,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; head and neck cancer, limited to cancers of oral cavity, pharynx and larynx with squamous cell as predominant cell type; M1 at diagnosis, metastatic, locally recurrent, or progressive (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9112,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; head and neck cancer, limited to cancers of oral cavity, pharynx and larynx with squamous cell as predominant cell type; extent of disease unknown, staging in progress, or not listed (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9113,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; ovarian cancer, limited to epithelial cancer; pathologic Stage IA-B (Grade 1) without evidence of disease progression, recurrence, or metastases (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9114,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; ovarian cancer, limited to epithelial cancer; pathologic Stage IA-B (Grade 2-3); or Stage IC (all grades); or Stage II; without evidence of disease progression, recurrence, or metastases (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9115,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; ovarian cancer, limited to epithelial cancer; pathologic Stage III-IV; without evidence of progression, recurrence, or metastases (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9116,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; ovarian cancer, limited to epithelial cancer; evidence of disease progression, or recurrence, and/or platinum resistance (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9117,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; ovarian cancer, limited to epithelial cancer; extent of disease unknown, staging in progress, or not listed (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9123,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; chronic myelogenous leukemia, limited to Philadelphia chromosome positive and/or BCR-ABL positive; chronic phase not in hematologic, cytogenetic, or molecular remission (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9124,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; chronic myelogenous leukemia, limited to Philadelphia chromosome positive and/or BCR-ABL positive; accelerated phase not in hematologic cytogenetic, or molecular remission (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9125,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; chronic myelogenous leukemia, limited to Philadelphia chromosome positive and/or BCR-ABL positive; blast phase not in hematologic, cytogenetic, or molecular remission (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9126,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; chronic myelogenous leukemia, limited to Philadelphia chromosome positive and/or BCR-ABL positive; in hematologic, cytogenetic, or molecular remission (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9128,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; limited to multiple myeloma, systemic disease; smoldering, Stage I (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9129,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; limited to multiple myeloma, systemic disease; Stage II or higher (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9130,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; limited to multiple myeloma, systemic disease; extent of disease unknown, staging in progress, or not listed (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9131,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; invasive female breast cancer (does not include ductal carcinoma in situ); adenocarcinoma as predominant cell type; extent of disease unknown, staging in progress, or not listed (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9132,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; prostate cancer, limited to adenocarcinoma; hormone-refractory/androgen-independent (e.g., rising PSA on anti-androgen therapy or post-orchiectomy); clinical metastases (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9133,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; prostate cancer, limited to adenocarcinoma; hormone-responsive; clinical metastases or M1 at diagnosis (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9134,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, any cellular classification; Stage i, II at diagnosis, not relapsed, not refractory (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9135,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, any cellular classification; Stage III, IV, not relapsed, not refractory (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9136,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, transformed from original cellular diagnosis to a second cellular classification (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9137,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, any cellular classification; relapsed/refractory (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9138,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, any cellular classification; diagnostic evaluation, stage not determined, evaluation of possible relapse or non-response to therapy, or not listed (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9139,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Oncology; disease status; chronic myelogenous leukemia, limited to Philadelphia chromosome positive and/or BCR-ABL positive; extent of disease unknown, staging in progress, not listed (for use in a Medicare-approved demonstration project)",HCPS +G9140,Medicare Demonstration Projects .,"Frontier extended stay clinic demonstration; for a patient stay in a clinic approved for the CMS demonstration project; the following measures should be present: the stay must be equal to or greater than 4 hours; weather or other conditions must prevent transfer or the case falls into a category of monitoring and observation cases that are permitted by the rules of the demonstration; there is a maximum frontier extended stay clinic (FESC) visit of 48 hours, except in the case when weather or other conditions prevent transfer; payment is made on each period up to 4 hours, after the first 4 hours",HCPS +G9143,Warfarin Responsiveness Testing .,"Warfarin responsiveness testing by genetic technique using any method, any number of specimen(s)",HCPS +G9147,Outpatient Intravenous Insulin Treatment .,"Outpatient intravenous insulin treatment (OIVIT) either pulsatile or continuous, by any means, guided by the results of measurements for: respiratory quotient; and/or, urine urea nitrogen (UUN); and/or, arterial, venous or capillary glucose; and/or potassium concentration",HCPS +G9148,Primary Care Quality Measures .,National Committee for Quality Assurance - Level 1 medical home,HCPS +G9149,Primary Care Quality Measures .,National Committee for Quality Assurance - Level 2 medical home,HCPS +G9150,Primary Care Quality Measures .,National Committee for Quality Assurance - Level 3 medical home,HCPS +G9151,Primary Care Quality Measures .,MAPCP Demonstration - state provided services,HCPS +G9152,Primary Care Quality Measures .,MAPCP Demonstration - Community Health Teams,HCPS +G9153,Primary Care Quality Measures .,MAPCP Demonstration - Physician Incentive Pool,HCPS +G9156,Provider Assessment for Wheelchair .,Evaluation for wheelchair requiring face to face visit with physician,HCPS +G9157,Diagnostic Cardiac Doppler Ultrasound .,"Transesophageal Doppler Measurement Of Cardiac Output (Including Probe Placement, Image Acquisition, And Interpretation Per Course Of Treatment) For Monitoring Purposes",HCPS +G9187,Bundled Payment Care .,"Bundled payments for care improvement initiative home visit for patient assessment performed by a qualified health care professional for individuals not considered homebound including, but not limited to, assessment of safety, falls, clinical status, fluid status, medication reconciliation/management, patient compliance with orders/plan of care, performance of activities of daily living, appropriateness of care setting; (for use only in the Medicare-approved bundled payments for care improvement initiative); may not be billed for a 30-day period covered by a transitional care management code",HCPS +G9188,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Beta-blocker therapy not prescribed, reason not given",HCPS +G9189,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Beta-blocker therapy prescribed or currently being taken,HCPS +G9190,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Documentation of medical reason(s) for not prescribing beta-blocker therapy (e.g., allergy, intolerance, other medical reasons)",HCPS +G9191,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Documentation of patient reason(s) for not prescribing beta-blocker therapy (e.g., patient declined, other patient reasons)",HCPS +G9212,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,DSM-IVTM criteria for major depressive disorder documented at the initial evaluation,HCPS +G9213,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"DSM-IV-TR criteria for major depressive disorder not documented at the initial evaluation, reason not otherwise specified",HCPS +G9223,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia prophylaxis prescribed within 3 months of low CD4+ cell count below 500 cells/mm3 or a CD4 percentage below 15%,HCPS +G9225,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Foot exam was not performed, reason not given",HCPS +G9226,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Foot examination performed (includes examination through visual inspection, sensory exam with 10-g monofilament plus testing any one of the following: vibration using 128-Hz tuning fork, pinprick sensation, ankle reflexes, or vibration perception threshold, and pulse exam; report when all of the 3 components are completed)",HCPS +G9227,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Functional outcome assessment documented, care plan not documented, documentation the patient is not eligible for a care plan at the time of the encounter",HCPS +G9228,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Chlamydia, gonorrhea and syphilis screening results documented (report when results are present for all of the 3 screenings)",HCPS +G9230,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Chlamydia, gonorrhea, and syphilis not screened, reason not given",HCPS +G9231,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Documentation of end stage renal disease (ESRD), dialysis, renal transplant before or during the measurement period or pregnancy during the measurement period",HCPS +G9242,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Documentation of viral load equal to or greater than 200 copies/ml or viral load not performed,HCPS +G9243,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Documentation of viral load less than 200 copies/ml,HCPS +G9246,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Patient did not have at least one medical visit in each 6 month period of the 24 month measurement period, with a minimum of 60 days between medical visits",HCPS +G9247,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Patient had at least one medical visit in each 6 month period of the 24 month measurement period, with a minimum of 60 days between medical visits",HCPS +G9254,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Documentation of patient discharged to home later than post-operative day 2 following CAS,HCPS +G9255,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Documentation of patient discharged to home no later than post operative day 2 following CAS,HCPS +G9273,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Blood pressure has a systolic value of < 140 and a diastolic value of < 90,HCPS +G9274,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Blood pressure has a systolic value of =140 and a diastolic value of = 90 or systolic value < 140 and diastolic value = 90 or systolic value = 140 and diastolic value < 90,HCPS +G9275,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Documentation that patient is a current non-tobacco user,HCPS +G9276,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Documentation that patient is a current tobacco user,HCPS +G9277,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Documentation that the patient is on daily aspirin or anti-platelet or has documentation of a valid contraindication or exception to aspirin/anti-platelet; contraindications/exceptions include anti-coagulant use, allergy to aspirin or anti-platelets, history of gastrointestinal bleed and bleeding disorder; additionally, the following exceptions documented by the physician as a reason for not taking daily aspirin or anti-platelet are acceptable (use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents, documented risk for drug interaction, uncontrolled hypertension defined as >180 systolic or >110 diastolic or gastroesophageal reflux)",HCPS +G9278,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Documentation that the patient is not on daily aspirin or anti-platelet regimen,HCPS +G9279,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Pneumococcal screening performed and documentation of vaccination received prior to discharge,HCPS +G9280,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Pneumococcal vaccination not administered prior to discharge, reason not specified",HCPS +G9281,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Screening performed and documentation that vaccination not indicated/patient refusal,HCPS +G9282,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Documentation of medical reason(s) for not reporting the histological type or NSCLC-NOS classification with an explanation (e.g., biopsy taken for other purposes in a patient with a history of non-small cell lung cancer or other documented medical reasons)",HCPS +G9283,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Non small cell lung cancer biopsy and cytology specimen report documents classification into specific histologic type or classified as NSCLC-NOS with an explanation,HCPS +G9284,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Non small cell lung cancer biopsy and cytology specimen report does not document classification into specific histologic type or classified as NSCLC-NOS with an explanation,HCPS +G9285,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Specimen site other than anatomic location of lung or is not classified as non small cell lung cancer,HCPS +G9286,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Antibiotic regimen prescribed within10 days after onset of symptoms,HCPS +G9287,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Antibiotic regimen not prescribed within 10 days after onset of symptoms,HCPS +G9288,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Documentation of medical reason(s) for not reporting the histological type or NSCLC-NOS classification with an explanation (e.g., a solitary fibrous tumor in a person with a history of non-small cell carcinoma or other documented medical reasons )",HCPS +G9289,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Non small cell lung cancer biopsy and cytology specimen report documents classification into specific histologic type or classified as NSCLC-NOS with an explanation,HCPS +G9290,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Non small cell lung cancer biopsy and cytology specimen report does not document classification into specific histologic type or classified as NSCLC-NOS with an explanation,HCPS +G9291,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Specimen site other than anatomic location of lung, is not classified as non small cell lung cancer or classified as NSCLC-NOS",HCPS +G9292,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Documentation of medical reason(s) for not reporting pt category and a statement on thickness and ulceration and for PT1, mitotic rate (e.g., negative skin biopsies in a patient with a history of melanoma or other documented medical reasons)",HCPS +G9293,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Pathology report does not include the pt category and a statement on thickness and ulceration and for PT1, mitotic rate",HCPS +G9294,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Pathology report includes the pt category and a statement on thickness and ulceration and for PT1, mitotic rate",HCPS +G9295,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Specimen site other than anatomic cutaneous location,HCPS +G9296,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Patients with documented shared decision-making including discussion of conservative (non-surgical) therapy (e.g., nsaids, analgesics, weight loss, exercise, injections) prior to the procedure",HCPS +G9297,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Shared decision-making including discussion of conservative (non-surgical) therapy (e.g., nsaids, analgesics, weight loss, exercise, injections) prior to the procedure, not documented, reason not given",HCPS +G9298,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Patients who are evaluated for venous thromboembolic and cardiovascular risk factors within 30 days prior to the procedure (e.g. history of DVT, PE, MI, arrhythmia and stroke)",HCPS +G9299,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Patients who are not evaluated for venous thromboembolic and cardiovascular risk factors within 30 days prior to the procedure (e.g., history of dvt, pe, mi, arrhythmia and stroke, reason not given)",HCPS +G9305,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Intervention for presence of leak of endoluminal contents through an anastomosis not required,HCPS +G9306,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Intervention for presence of leak of endoluminal contents through an anastomosis required,HCPS +G9307,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"No return to the operating room for a surgical procedure, for complications of the principal operative procedure, within 30 days of the principal operative procedure",HCPS +G9308,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Unplanned return to the operating room for a surgical procedure, for complications of the principal operative procedure, within 30 days of the principal operative procedure",HCPS +G9309,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,No unplanned hospital readmission within 30 days of principal procedure,HCPS +G9310,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Unplanned hospital readmission within 30 days of principal procedure,HCPS +G9311,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,No surgical site infection,HCPS +G9312,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Surgical site infection,HCPS +G9313,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Amoxicillin, with or without clavulanate, not prescribed as first line antibiotic at the time of diagnosis for documented reason",HCPS +G9314,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Amoxicillin, with or without clavulanate, not prescribed as first line antibiotic at the time of diagnosis, reason not given",HCPS +G9315,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Amoxicillin, with or without clavulanate, prescribed as a first line antibiotic at the time of diagnosis",HCPS +G9316,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Documentation of patient-specific risk assessment with a risk calculator based on multi-institutional clinical data, the specific risk calculator used, and communication of risk assessment from risk calculator with the patient or family",HCPS +G9317,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Documentation of patient-specific risk assessment with a risk calculator based on multi-institutional clinical data, the specific risk calculator used, and communication of risk assessment from risk calculator with the patient or family not completed",HCPS +G9318,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Imaging study named according to standardized nomenclature,HCPS +G9319,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Imaging study not named according to standardized nomenclature, reason not given",HCPS +G9321,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Count of previous ct (any type of ct) and cardiac nuclear medicine (myocardial perfusion) studies documented in the 12-month period prior to the current study,HCPS +G9322,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Count of previous CT and cardiac nuclear medicine (myocardial perfusion) studies not documented in the 12-month period prior to the current study, reason not given",HCPS +G9341,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Search conducted for prior patient CT studies completed at non-affiliated external healthcare facilities or entities within the past 12-months and are available through a secure, authorized, media-free, shared archive prior to an imaging study being performed",HCPS +G9342,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Search not conducted prior to an imaging study being performed for prior patient CT studies completed at non-affiliated external healthcare facilities or entities within the past 12-months and are available through a secure, authorized, media-free, shared archive, reason not given",HCPS +G9344,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Due to system reasons search not conducted for dicom format images for prior patient CT imaging studies completed at non-affiliated external healthcare facilities or entities within the past 12 months that are available through a secure, authorized, media-free, shared archive (e.g., non-affiliated external healthcare facilities or entities does not have archival abilities through a shared archival system)",HCPS +G9345,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Follow-up recommendations documented according to recommended guidelines for incidentally detected pulmonary nodules (e.g., follow-up CT imaging studies needed or that no follow-up is needed) based at a minimum on nodule size and patient risk factors",HCPS +G9347,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Follow-up recommendations not documented according to recommended guidelines for incidentally detected pulmonary nodules, reason not given",HCPS +G9351,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,More than one CT scan of the paranasal sinuses ordered or received within 90 days after diagnosis,HCPS +G9352,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"More than one CT scan of the paranasal sinuses ordered or received within 90 days after the date of diagnosis, reason not given",HCPS +G9353,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"More than one CT scan of the paranasal sinuses ordered or received within 90 days after the date of diagnosis for documented reasons (e.g., patients with complications, second CT obtained prior to surgery, other medical reasons)",HCPS +G9354,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,One CT scan or no CT scan of the paranasal sinuses ordered within 90 days after the date of diagnosis,HCPS +G9355,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Elective delivery (without medical indication) by cesarean birth or induction of labor not performed (<39 weeks of gestation),HCPS +G9356,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Elective delivery (without medical indication) by cesarean birth or induction of labor performed (<39 weeks of gestation),HCPS +G9357,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Post-partum screenings, evaluations and education performed",HCPS +G9358,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Post-partum screenings, evaluations and education not performed",HCPS +G9361,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Medical indication for delivery by cesarean birth or induction of labor (<39 weeks of gestation) [documentation of reason(s) for elective delivery (e.g., hemorrhage and placental complications, hypertension, preeclampsia and eclampsia, rupture of membranes (premature or prolonged), maternal conditions complicating pregnancy/delivery, fetal conditions complicating pregnancy/delivery, late pregnancy, prior uterine surgery, or participation in clinical trial)]",HCPS +G9364,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Sinusitis caused by, or presumed to be caused by, bacterial infection",HCPS +G9367,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,At least two orders for high-risk medications from the same drug class,HCPS +G9368,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,At least two orders for high-risk medications from the same drug class not ordered,HCPS +G9380,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient offered assistance with end of life issues or existing end of life plan was reviewed or updated during the measurement period,HCPS +G9382,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient not offered assistance with end of life issues or existing end of life plan was not reviewed or updated during the measurement period,HCPS +G9383,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient received screening for HCV infection within the 12 month reporting period,HCPS +G9384,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Documentation of medical reason(s) for not receiving annual screening for HCV infection (e.g., decompensated cirrhosis indicating advanced disease [i.e., ascites, esophageal variceal bleeding, hepatic encephalopathy], hepatocellular carcinoma, waitlist for organ transplant, limited life expectancy, other medical reasons)",HCPS +G9385,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Documentation of patient reason(s) for not receiving annual screening for HCV infection (e.g., patient declined, other patient reasons)",HCPS +G9386,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Screening for HCV infection not received within the 12 month reporting period, reason not given",HCPS +G9393,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient with an initial PHQ-9 score greater than nine who achieves remission at twelve months as demonstrated by a twelve month (+/- 30 days) PHQ-9 score of less than five,HCPS +G9394,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Patient who had a diagnosis of bipolar disorder or personality disorder, death, permanent nursing home resident or receiving hospice or palliative care any time during the measurement or assessment period",HCPS +G9395,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient with an initial PHQ-9 score greater than nine who did not achieve remission at twelve months as demonstrated by a twelve month (+/- 30 days) PHQ-9 score greater than or equal to five,HCPS +G9396,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient with an initial PHQ-9 score greater than nine who was not assessed for remission at twelve months (+/- 30 days),HCPS +G9402,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient received follow-up within 30 days after discharge,HCPS +G9403,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Clinician documented reason patient was not able to complete 30 day follow-up from acute inpatient setting discharge (e.g., patient death prior to follow-up visit, patient non-compliant for visit follow-up)",HCPS +G9404,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient did not receive follow-up within 30 days after discharge,HCPS +G9405,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient received follow-up within 7 days after discharge,HCPS +G9406,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Clinician documented reason patient was not able to complete 7 day follow-up from acute inpatient setting discharge (i.e patient death prior to follow-up visit, patient non-compliance for visit follow-up)",HCPS +G9407,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient did not receive follow-up within 7 days after discharge,HCPS +G9408,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patients with cardiac tamponade and/or pericardiocentesis occurring within 30 days,HCPS +G9409,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patients without cardiac tamponade and/or pericardiocentesis occurring within 30 days,HCPS +G9410,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Patient admitted within 180 days, status post cied implantation, replacement, or revision with an infection requiring device removal or surgical revision",HCPS +G9411,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Patient not admitted within 180 days, status post cied implantation, replacement, or revision with an infection requiring device removal or surgical revision",HCPS +G9412,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Patient admitted within 180 days, status post cied implantation, replacement, or revision with an infection requiring device removal or surgical revision",HCPS +G9413,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Patient not admitted within 180 days, status post cied implantation, replacement, or revision with an infection requiring device removal or surgical revision",HCPS +G9414,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Patient had one dose of meningococcal vaccine (serogroups a, c, w, y) on or between the patient's 11th and 13th birthdays",HCPS +G9415,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Patient did not have one dose of meningococcal vaccine (serogroups a, c, w, y) on or between the patient's 11th and 13th birthdays",HCPS +G9416,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Patient had one tetanus, diphtheria toxoids and acellular pertussis vaccine (TDAP) on or between the patient's 10th and 13th birthdays",HCPS +G9417,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Patient did not have one tetanus, diphtheria toxoids and acellular pertussis vaccine (TDAP) on or between the patient's 10th and 13th birthdays",HCPS +G9418,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Primary non-small cell lung cancer lung biopsy and cytology specimen report documents classification into specific histologic type following iaslc guidance or classified as nsclc-nos with an explanation,HCPS +G9419,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Documentation of medical reason(s) for not including the histological type or nsclc-nos classification with an explanation (e.g. specimen insufficient or non-diagnostic, specimen does not contain cancer, or other documented medical reasons)",HCPS +G9420,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Specimen site other than anatomic location of lung or is not classified as primary non-small cell lung cancer,HCPS +G9421,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Primary non-small cell lung cancer lung biopsy and cytology specimen report does not document classification into specific histologic type or histologic type does not follow iaslc guidance or is classified as nsclc-nos but without an explanation,HCPS +G9422,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Primary lung carcinoma resection report documents pt category, pn category and for non-small cell lung cancer, histologic type (e.g., squamous cell carcinoma, adenocarcinoma and not nsclc-nos)",HCPS +G9423,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Documentation of medical reason for not including pt category, pn category and histologic type [for patient with appropriate exclusion criteria (e.g., metastatic disease, benign tumors, malignant tumors other than carcinomas, inadequate surgical specimens)]",HCPS +G9424,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Specimen site other than anatomic location of lung, is not classified as non-small cell lung cancer or classified as NSCLC-NOS",HCPS +G9425,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Primary lung carcinoma resection report does not document pt category, pn category and for non-small cell lung cancer, histologic type (e.g., squamous cell carcinoma, adenocarcinoma)",HCPS +G9426,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Improvement in median time from ED arrival to initial ED oral or parenteral pain medication administration performed for ED admitted patients,HCPS +G9427,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Improvement in median time from ED arrival to initial ED oral or parenteral pain medication administration not performed for ED admitted patients,HCPS +G9428,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Pathology report includes the pt category, thickness, ulceration and mitotic rate, peripheral and deep margin status and presence or absence of microsatellitosis for invasive tumors",HCPS +G9429,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Documentation of medical reason(s) for not including pt category, thickness, ulceration and mitotic rate, peripheral and deep margin status and presence or absence of microsatellitosis for invasive tumors (e.g., negative skin biopsies, insufficient tissue, or other documented medical reasons)",HCPS +G9430,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Specimen site other than anatomic cutaneous location,HCPS +G9431,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Pathology report does not include the pt category, thickness, ulceration and mitotic rate, peripheral and deep margin status and presence or absence of microsatellitosis for invasive tumors",HCPS +G9432,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Asthma well-controlled based on the ACT, C-ACT, ACQ, or ATAQ score and results documented",HCPS +G9434,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Asthma not well-controlled based on the ACT, C-ACT, ACQ, or ATAQ score, or specified asthma control tool not used, reason not given",HCPS +G9452,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Documentation of medical reason(s) for not receiving hcv antibody test due to limited life expectancy,HCPS +G9455,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Patient underwent abdominal imaging with ultrasound, contrast enhanced CT or contrast MRI for HCC",HCPS +G9456,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Documentation of medical or patient reason(s) for not ordering or performing screening for HCC. medical reason: comorbid medical conditions with expected survival < 5 years, hepatic decompensation and not a candidate for liver transplantation, or other medical reasons; patient reasons: patient declined or other patient reasons (e.g., cost of tests, time related to accessing testing equipment)",HCPS +G9457,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient did not undergo abdominal imaging and did not have a documented reason for not undergoing abdominal imaging in the submission period,HCPS +G9458,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Patient documented as tobacco user and received tobacco cessation intervention (must include at least one of the following: advice given to quit smoking or tobacco use, counseling on the benefits of quitting smoking or tobacco use, assistance with or referral to external smoking or tobacco cessation support programs, or current enrollment in smoking or tobacco use cessation program) if identified as a tobacco user",HCPS +G9459,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Currently a tobacco non-user,HCPS +G9460,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Tobacco assessment or tobacco cessation intervention not performed, reason not given",HCPS +G9468,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient not receiving corticosteroids greater than or equal to 10 mg/day of prednisone equivalents for 60 or greater consecutive days or a single prescription equating to 600 mg prednisone or greater for all fills,HCPS +G9470,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patients not receiving corticosteroids greater than or equal to 10 mg/day of prednisone equivalents for 60 or greater consecutive days or a single prescription equating to 600mg prednisone or greater for all fills,HCPS +G9471,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Within the past 2 years, central dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DXA) not ordered or documented",HCPS +G9473,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Services performed by chaplain in the hospice setting, each 15 minutes",HCPS +G9474,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Services performed by dietary counselor in the hospice setting, each 15 minutes",HCPS +G9475,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Services performed by other counselor in the hospice setting, each 15 minutes",HCPS +G9476,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Services performed by volunteer in the hospice setting, each 15 minutes",HCPS +G9477,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Services performed by care coordinator in the hospice setting, each 15 minutes",HCPS +G9478,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Services performed by other qualified therapist in the hospice setting, each 15 minutes",HCPS +G9479,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Services performed by qualified pharmacist in the hospice setting, each 15 minutes",HCPS +G9480,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Admission to medicare care choice model program (MCCM),HCPS +G9481,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Remote in-home visit for the evaluation and management of a new patient for use only in a medicare-approved cms innovation center demonstration project, which requires these 3 key components: a problem focused history; a problem focused examination; and straightforward medical decision making, furnished in real time using interactive audio and video technology. counseling and coordination of care with other physicians, other qualified health care professionals or agencies are provided consistent with the nature of the problem(s) and the needs of the patient or the family or both. usually, the presenting problem(s) are self limited or minor. typically, 10 minutes are spent with the patient or family or both via real time, audio and video intercommunications technology",HCPS +G9482,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Remote in-home visit for the evaluation and management of a new patient for use only in a medicare-approved cms innovation center demonstration project, which requires these 3 key components: an expanded problem focused history; an expanded problem focused examination; straightforward medical decision making, furnished in real time using interactive audio and video technology. counseling and coordination of care with other physicians, other qualified health care professionals or agencies are provided consistent with the nature of the problem(s) and the needs of the patient or the family or both. usually, the presenting problem(s) are of low to moderate severity. typically, 20 minutes are spent with the patient or family or both via real time, audio and video intercommunications technology",HCPS +G9483,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Remote in-home visit for the evaluation and management of a new patient for use only in a medicare-approved cms innovation center demonstration project, which requires these 3 key components: a detailed history; a detailed examination; medical decision making of low complexity, furnished in real time using interactive audio and video technology. counseling and coordination of care with other physicians, other qualified health care professionals or agencies are provided consistent with the nature of the problem(s) and the needs of the patient or the family or both. usually, the presenting problem(s) are of moderate severity. typically, 30 minutes are spent with the patient or family or both via real time, audio and video intercommunications technology",HCPS +G9484,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Remote in-home visit for the evaluation and management of a new patient for use only in a medicare-approved cms innovation center demonstration project, which requires these 3 key components: a comprehensive history; a comprehensive examination; medical decision making of moderate complexity, furnished in real time using interactive audio and video technology. counseling and coordination of care with other physicians, other qualified health care professionals or agencies are provided consistent with the nature of the problem(s) and the needs of the patient or the family or both. usually, the presenting problem(s) are of moderate to high severity. typically, 45 minutes are spent with the patient or family or both via real time, audio and video intercommunications technology",HCPS +G9485,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Remote in-home visit for the evaluation and management of a new patient for use only in a medicare-approved cms innovation center demonstration project, which requires these 3 key components: a comprehensive history; a comprehensive examination; medical decision making of high complexity, furnished in real time using interactive audio and video technology. counseling and coordination of care with other physicians, other qualified health care professionals or agencies are provided consistent with the nature of the problem(s) and the needs of the patient or the family or both. usually, the presenting problem(s) are of moderate to high severity. typically, 60 minutes are spent with the patient or family or both via real time, audio and video intercommunications technology",HCPS +G9486,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Remote in-home visit for the evaluation and management of an established patient for use only in a medicare-approved cms innovation center demonstration project, which requires at least 2 of the following 3 key components: a problem focused history; a problem focused examination; straightforward medical decision making, furnished in real time using interactive audio and video technology. counseling and coordination of care with other physicians, other qualified health care professionals or agencies are provided consistent with the nature of the problem(s) and the needs of the patient or the family or both. usually, the presenting problem(s) are self limited or minor. typically, 10 minutes are spent with the patient or family or both via real time, audio and video intercommunications technology",HCPS +G9487,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Remote in-home visit for the evaluation and management of an established patient for use only in a medicare-approved cms innovation center demonstration project, which requires at least 2 of the following 3 key components: an expanded problem focused history; an expanded problem focused examination; medical decision making of low complexity, furnished in real time using interactive audio and video technology. counseling and coordination of care with other physicians, other qualified health care professionals or agencies are provided consistent with the nature of the problem(s) and the needs of the patient or the family or both. usually, the presenting problem(s) are of low to moderate severity. typically, 15 minutes are spent with the patient or family or both via real time, audio and video intercommunications technology",HCPS +G9488,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Remote in-home visit for the evaluation and management of an established patient for use only in a medicare-approved cms innovation center demonstration project, which requires at least 2 of the following 3 key components: a detailed history; a detailed examination; medical decision making of moderate complexity, furnished in real time using interactive audio and video technology. counseling and coordination of care with other physicians, other qualified health care professionals or agencies are provided consistent with the nature of the problem(s) and the needs of the patient or the family or both. usually, the presenting problem(s) are of moderate to high severity. typically, 25 minutes are spent with the patient or family or both via real time, audio and video intercommunications technology",HCPS +G9489,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Remote in-home visit for the evaluation and management of an established patient for use only in a medicare-approved cms innovation center demonstration project, which requires at least 2 of the following 3 key components: a comprehensive history; a comprehensive examination; medical decision making of high complexity, furnished in real time using interactive audio and video technology. counseling and coordination of care with other physicians, other qualified health care professionals or agencies are provided consistent with the nature of the problem(s) and the needs of the patient or the family or both. usually, the presenting problem(s) are of moderate to high severity. typically, 40 minutes are spent with the patient or family or both via real time, audio and video intercommunications technology",HCPS +G9490,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"CMS innovation center models, home visit for patient assessment performed by clinical staff for an individual not considered homebound, including, but not necessarily limited to patient assessment of clinical status, safety/fall prevention, functional status/ambulation, medication reconciliation/management, compliance with orders/plan of care, performance of activities of daily living, and ensuring beneficiary connections to community and other services. (for use only in medicare-approved cms innovation center models); may not be billed for a 30 day period covered by a transitional care management code",HCPS +G9497,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Received instruction from the anesthesiologist or proxy prior to the day of surgery to abstain from smoking on the day of surgery,HCPS +G9498,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Antibiotic regimen prescribed,HCPS +G9500,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Radiation exposure indices documented in final report for procedure using fluoroscopy,HCPS +G9501,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Radiation exposure indices not documented in final report for procedure using fluoroscopy, reason not given",HCPS +G9502,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Documentation of medical reason for not performing foot exam (i.e., patients who have had either a bilateral amputation above or below the knee, or both a left and right amputation above or below the knee before or during the measurement period)",HCPS +G9504,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Documented reason for not assessing hepatitis B virus (HBV) status (e.g., patient not initiating anti-TNF therapy, patient declined) prior to initiating anti-TNF therapy",HCPS +G9505,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Antibiotic regimen prescribed within 10 days after onset of symptoms for documented medical reason,HCPS +G9507,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Documentation that the patient is on a statin medication or has documentation of a valid contraindication or exception to statin medications; contraindications/exceptions that can be defined by diagnosis codes include pregnancy during the measurement period, active liver disease, rhabdomyolysis, end stage renal disease on dialysis and heart failure; provider documented contraindications/exceptions include breastfeeding during the measurement period, woman of child-bearing age not actively taking birth control, allergy to statin, drug interaction (HIV protease inhibitors, nefazodone, cyclosporine, gemfibrozil, and danazol) and intolerance (with supporting documentation of trying a statin at least once within the last 5 years or diagnosis codes for myostitis or toxic myopathy related to drugs)",HCPS +G9508,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Documentation that the patient is not on a statin medication,HCPS +G9509,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Adult patients 18 years of age or older with major depression or dysthymia who reached remission at twelve months as demonstrated by a twelve month (+/-60 days) phq-9 or phq-9m score of less than 5,HCPS +G9510,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Adult patients 18 years of age or older with major depression or dysthymia who did not reach remission at twelve months as demonstrated by a twelve month (+/-60 days) phq-9 or phq-9m score of less than 5. either phq- 9 or phq-9m score was not assessed or is greater than or equal to 5,HCPS +G9511,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Index event date phq-9 or phq-9m score greater than 9 documented during the twelve month denominator identification period,HCPS +G9512,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Individual had a PDC of 0.8 or greater,HCPS +G9513,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Individual did not have a PDC of 0.8 or greater,HCPS +G9514,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient required a return to the operating room within 90 days of surgery,HCPS +G9515,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient did not require a return to the operating room within 90 days of surgery,HCPS +G9516,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Patient achieved an improvement in visual acuity, from their preoperative level, within 90 days of surgery",HCPS +G9517,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Patient did not achieve an improvement in visual acuity, from their preoperative level, within 90 days of surgery, reason not given",HCPS +G9518,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Documentation of active injection drug use,HCPS +G9519,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient achieves final refraction (spherical equivalent) +/- 1.0 diopters of their planned refraction within 90 days of surgery,HCPS +G9520,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient does not achieve final refraction (spherical equivalent) +/- 1.0 diopters of their planned refraction within 90 days of surgery,HCPS +G9521,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Total number of emergency department visits and inpatient hospitalizations less than two in the past 12 months,HCPS +G9522,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Total number of emergency department visits and inpatient hospitalizations equal to or greater than two in the past 12 months or patient not screened, reason not given",HCPS +G9529,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient with minor blunt head trauma had an appropriate indication(s) for a head CT,HCPS +G9530,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient presented with a minor blunt head trauma and had a head ct ordered for trauma by an emergency care provider,HCPS +G9531,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Patient has documentation of ventricular shunt, brain tumor, multisystem trauma, or is currently taking an antiplatelet medication including: abciximab, anagrelide, cangrelor, cilostazol, clopidogrel, dipyridamole, eptifibatide, prasugrel, ticlopidine, ticagrelor, tirofiban, or vorapaxar",HCPS +G9533,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient with minor blunt head trauma did not have an appropriate indication(s) for a head CT,HCPS +G9537,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Imaging needed as part of a clinical trial; or other clinician ordered the study,HCPS +G9539,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Intent for potential removal at time of placement,HCPS +G9540,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient alive 3 months post procedure,HCPS +G9541,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Filter removed within 3 months of placement,HCPS +G9542,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Documented re-assessment for the appropriateness of filter removal within 3 months of placement,HCPS +G9543,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Documentation of at least two attempts to reach the patient to arrange a clinical re-assessment for the appropriateness of filter removal within 3 months of placement,HCPS +G9544,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Patients that do not have the filter removed, documented re-assessment for the appropriateness of filter removal, or documentation of at least two attempts to reach the patient to arrange a clinical re-assessment for the appropriateness of filter removal within 3 months of placement",HCPS +G9547,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Cystic renal lesion that is simple appearing (bosniak i or ii) , or adrenal lesion less than or equal to 1.0 cm or adrenal lesion greater than 1.0 cm but less than or equal to 4.0 cm classified as likely benign by unenhanced ct or washout protocol ct, or mri with in- and opposed-phase sequences or other equivalent institutional imaging protocols",HCPS +G9548,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Final reports for imaging studies stating no follow-up imaging is recommended,HCPS +G9549,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Documentation of medical reason(s) that follow-up imaging is indicated (e.g., patient has lymphadenopathy, signs of metastasis or an active diagnosis or history of cancer, and other medical reason(s))",HCPS +G9550,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Final reports for imaging studies with follow-up imaging recommended, or final reports that do not include a specific recommendation of no follow-up",HCPS +G9551,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Final reports for imaging studies without an incidentally found lesion noted,HCPS +G9552,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Incidental thyroid nodule < 1.0 cm noted in report,HCPS +G9553,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Prior thyroid disease diagnosis,HCPS +G9554,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Final reports for ct, cta, mri or mra of the chest or neck with follow-up imaging recommended",HCPS +G9555,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Documentation of medical reason(s) for recommending follow up imaging (e.g., patient has multiple endocrine neoplasia, patient has cervical lymphadenopathy, other medical reason(s))",HCPS +G9556,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Final reports for ct, cta, mri or mra of the chest or neck with follow-up imaging not recommended",HCPS +G9557,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Final reports for ct, cta, mri or mra studies of the chest or neck without an incidentally found thyroid nodule < 1.0 cm noted or no nodule found",HCPS +G9580,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Door to puncture time of 90 minutes or less,HCPS +G9582,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Door to puncture time of greater than 90 minutes, no reason given",HCPS +G9593,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Pediatric patient with minor blunt head trauma classified as low risk according to the pecarn prediction rules,HCPS +G9594,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient presented with a minor blunt head trauma and had a head ct ordered for trauma by an emergency care provider,HCPS +G9595,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Patient has documentation of ventricular shunt, brain tumor, or coagulopathy",HCPS +G9597,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Pediatric patient with minor blunt head trauma not classified as low risk according to the pecarn prediction rules,HCPS +G9598,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Aortic aneurysm 5.5 - 5.9 cm maximum diameter on centerline formatted CT or minor diameter on axial formatted CT,HCPS +G9599,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Aortic aneurysm 6.0 cm or greater maximum diameter on centerline formatted CT or minor diameter on axial formatted CT,HCPS +G9603,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient survey score improved from baseline following treatment,HCPS +G9604,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient survey results not available,HCPS +G9605,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient survey score did not improve from baseline following treatment,HCPS +G9606,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Intraoperative cystoscopy performed to evaluate for lower tract injury,HCPS +G9607,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Documented medical reasons for not performing intraoperative cystoscopy (e.g., urethral pathology precluding cystoscopy, any patient who has a congenital or acquired absence of the urethra) or in the case of patient death",HCPS +G9608,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Intraoperative cystoscopy not performed to evaluate for lower tract injury,HCPS +G9609,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Documentation of an order for anti-platelet agents,HCPS +G9610,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Documentation of medical reason(s) in the patient's record for not ordering anti-platelet agents,HCPS +G9611,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Order for anti-platelet agents was not documented in the patient's record, reason not given",HCPS +G9621,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient identified as an unhealthy alcohol user when screened for unhealthy alcohol use using a systematic screening method and received brief counseling,HCPS +G9622,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient not identified as an unhealthy alcohol user when screened for unhealthy alcohol use using a systematic screening method,HCPS +G9624,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient not screened for unhealthy alcohol use using a systematic screening method or patient did not receive brief counseling if identified as an unhealthy alcohol user,HCPS +G9625,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient sustained bladder injury at the time of surgery or discovered subsequently up to 30 days post-surgery,HCPS +G9626,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Documented medical reason for not reporting bladder injury (e.g., gynecologic or other pelvic malignancy documented, concurrent surgery involving bladder pathology, injury that occurs during a urinary incontinence procedure, patient death from non-medical causes not related to surgery, patient died during procedure without evidence of bladder injury)",HCPS +G9627,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient did not sustain bladder injury at the time of surgery nor discovered subsequently up to 30 days post-surgery,HCPS +G9628,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient sustained bowel injury at the time of surgery or discovered subsequently up to 30 days post-surgery,HCPS +G9629,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Documented medical reasons for not reporting bowel injury (e.g., gynecologic or other pelvic malignancy documented, planned (e.g., not due to an unexpected bowel injury) resection and/or re-anastomosis of bowel, or patient death from non-medical causes not related to surgery, patient died during procedure without evidence of bowel injury)",HCPS +G9630,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient did not sustain a bowel injury at the time of surgery nor discovered subsequently up to 30 days post-surgery,HCPS +G9637,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Final reports with documentation of one or more dose reduction techniques (e.g., automated exposure control, adjustment of the ma and/or kv according to patient size, use of iterative reconstruction technique)",HCPS +G9638,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Final reports without documentation of one or more dose reduction techniques (e.g., automated exposure control, adjustment of the ma and/or kv according to patient size, use of iterative reconstruction technique)",HCPS +G9642,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Current smoker (e.g., cigarette, cigar, pipe, e-cigarette or marijuana)",HCPS +G9643,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Elective surgery,HCPS +G9644,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patients who abstained from smoking prior to anesthesia on the day of surgery or procedure,HCPS +G9645,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patients who did not abstain from smoking prior to anesthesia on the day of surgery or procedure,HCPS +G9646,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patients with 90 day MRS score of 0 to 2,HCPS +G9648,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patients with 90 day MRS score greater than 2,HCPS +G9649,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Psoriasis assessment tool documented meeting any one of the specified benchmarks (e.g., (pga; 5-point or 6-point scale), body surface area (bsa), psoriasis area and severity index (pasi) and/or dermatology life quality index) (dlqi))",HCPS +G9651,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Psoriasis assessment tool documented not meeting any one of the specified benchmarks (e.g., (pga; 5-point or 6-point scale), body surface area (bsa), psoriasis area and severity index (pasi) and/or dermatology life quality index) (dlqi)) or psoriasis assessment tool not documented",HCPS +G9654,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Monitored anesthesia care (MAC),HCPS +G9655,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,A transfer of care protocol or handoff tool/checklist that includes the required key handoff elements is used,HCPS +G9656,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient transferred directly from anesthetizing location to PASU or other non-ICU location,HCPS +G9658,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,A transfer of care protocol or handoff tool/checklist that includes the required key handoff elements is not used,HCPS +G9659,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Patients greater than or equal to 86 years of age who underwent a screening colonoscopy and did not have a history of colorectal cancer or other valid medical reason for the colonoscopy, including: iron deficiency anemia, lower gastrointestinal bleeding, crohn's disease (i.e., regional enteritis), familial adenomatous polyposis, lynch syndrome (i.e., hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer), inflammatory bowel disease, ulcerative colitis, abnormal finding of gastrointestinal tract, or changes in bowel habits",HCPS +G9660,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Documentation of medical reason(s) for a colonoscopy performed on a patient greater than or equal to 86 years of age (e.g., iron deficiency anemia, lower gastrointestinal bleeding, crohn's disease (i.e., regional enteritis), familial history of adenomatous polyposis, lynch syndrome (i.e., hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer), inflammatory bowel disease, ulcerative colitis, abnormal finding of gastrointestinal tract, or changes in bowel habits)",HCPS +G9661,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Patients greater than or equal to 86 years of age who received a colonoscopy for an assessment of signs/symptoms of gi tract illness, and/or because the patient meets high risk criteria, and/or to follow-up on previously diagnosed advanced lesions",HCPS +G9662,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Previously diagnosed or have a diagnosis of clinical ascvd, including ascvd procedure",HCPS +G9663,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Any ldl-c laboratory result >= 190 mg/dl,HCPS +G9664,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patients who are currently statin therapy users or received an order (prescription) for statin therapy,HCPS +G9665,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patients who are not currently statin therapy users or did not receive an order (prescription) for statin therapy,HCPS +G9674,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patients with clinical ASCVD diagnosis,HCPS +G9675,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patients who have ever had a fasting or direct laboratory result of LDL-C = 190 mg/dl,HCPS +G9676,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patients aged 40 to 75 years at the beginning of the measurement period with type 1 or type 2 diabetes and with an LDL-C result of 70-189 mg/dl recorded as the highest fasting or direct laboratory test result in the measurement year or during the two years prior to the beginning of the measurement period,HCPS +G9679,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,This code is for onsite acute care treatment of a nursing facility resident with pneumonia; may only be billed once per day per beneficiary,HCPS +G9680,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,This code is for onsite acute care treatment of a nursing facility resident with CHF; may only be billed once per day per beneficiary,HCPS +G9681,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,This code is for onsite acute care treatment of a resident with COPD or asthma; may only be billed once per day per beneficiary,HCPS +G9682,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,This code is for the onsite acute care treatment a nursing facility resident with a skin infection; may only be billed once per day per beneficiary,HCPS +G9683,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Facility service(s) for the onsite acute care treatment of a nursing facility resident with fluid or electrolyte disorder. (may only be billed once per day per beneficiary). this service is for a demonstration project,HCPS +G9684,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,This code is for the onsite acute care treatment of a nursing facility resident for a UTI; may only be billed once per day per beneficiary,HCPS +G9685,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Physician service or other qualified health care professional for the evaluation and management of a beneficiary's acute change in condition in a nursing facility. this service is for a demonstration project,HCPS +G9687,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Hospice services provided to patient any time during the measurement period,HCPS +G9688,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patients using hospice services any time during the measurement period,HCPS +G9689,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient admitted for performance of elective carotid intervention,HCPS +G9690,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient receiving hospice services any time during the measurement period,HCPS +G9691,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient had hospice services any time during the measurement period,HCPS +G9692,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Hospice services received by patient any time during the measurement period,HCPS +G9693,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient use of hospice services any time during the measurement period,HCPS +G9694,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Hospice services UTIlized by patient any time during the measurement period,HCPS +G9695,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Long-acting inhaled bronchodilator prescribed,HCPS +G9696,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Documentation of medical reason(s) for not prescribing a long-acting inhaled bronchodilator (e.g., patient intolerance or history of side effects)",HCPS +G9698,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Documentation of system reason(s) for not prescribing a long-acting inhaled bronchodilator (e.g., cost of treatment or lack of insurance)",HCPS +G9699,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Long-acting inhaled bronchodilator not prescribed, reason not otherwise specified",HCPS +G9700,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patients who use hospice services any time during the measurement period,HCPS +G9702,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patients who use hospice services any time during the measurement period,HCPS +G9703,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Episodes where the patient is taking antibiotics (table 1) in the 30 days prior to the episode date,HCPS +G9704,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,AJCC breast cancer stage i: t1 mic or t1a documented,HCPS +G9705,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,AJCC breast cancer stage i: t1b (tumor > 0.5 cm but <= 1 cm in greatest dimension) documented,HCPS +G9706,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Low (or very low) risk of recurrence, prostate cancer",HCPS +G9707,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient received hospice services any time during the measurement period,HCPS +G9708,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Women who had a bilateral mastectomy or who have a history of a bilateral mastectomy or for whom there is evidence of a right and a left unilateral mastectomy,HCPS +G9709,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Hospice services used by patient any time during the measurement period,HCPS +G9710,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient was provided hospice services any time during the measurement period,HCPS +G9711,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patients with a diagnosis or past history of total colectomy or colorectal cancer,HCPS +G9712,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Documentation of medical reason(s) for prescribing or dispensing antibiotic (e.g., intestinal infection, pertussis, bacterial infection, lyme disease, otitis media, acute sinusitis, acute pharyngitis, acute tonsillitis, chronic sinusitis, infection of the pharynx/larynx/tonsils/adenoids, prostatitis, cellulitis/ mastoiditis/bone infections, acute lymphadenitis, impetigo, skin staph infections, pneumonia, gonococcal infections/venereal disease (syphilis, chlamydia, inflammatory diseases [female reproductive organs]), infections of the kidney, cystitis/UTI, acne, HIV disease/asymptomatic HIV, cystic fibrosis, disorders of the immune system, malignancy neoplasms, chronic bronchitis, emphysema, bronchiectasis, extrinsic allergic alveolitis, chronic airway obstruction, chronic obstructive asthma, pneumoconiosis and other lung disease due to external agents, other diseases of the respiratory system, and tuberculosis",HCPS +G9713,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patients who use hospice services any time during the measurement period,HCPS +G9714,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient is using hospice services any time during the measurement period,HCPS +G9716,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Bmi is documented as being outside of normal parameters, follow-up plan is not completed for documented medical reason",HCPS +G9717,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Documentation stating the patient has had a diagnosis of bipolar disorder,HCPS +G9719,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Patient is not ambulatory, bed ridden, immobile, confined to chair, wheelchair bound, dependent on helper pushing wheelchair, independent in wheelchair or minimal help in wheelchair",HCPS +G9720,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Hospice services for patient occurred any time during the measurement period,HCPS +G9721,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Patient not ambulatory, bed ridden, immobile, confined to chair, wheelchair bound, dependent on helper pushing wheelchair, independent in wheelchair or minimal help in wheelchair",HCPS +G9722,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Documented history of renal failure or baseline serum creatinine >= 4.0 mg/dl; renal transplant recipients are not considered to have preoperative renal failure, unless, since transplantation the cr has been or is 4.0 or higher",HCPS +G9723,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Hospice services for patient received any time during the measurement period,HCPS +G9724,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patients who had documentation of use of anticoagulant medications overlapping the measurement year,HCPS +G9726,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient refused to participate,HCPS +G9727,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Patient unable to complete the lepf prom at initial evaluation and/or discharge due to blindness, illiteracy, severe mental incapacity or language incompatibility and an adequate proxy is not available",HCPS +G9728,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient refused to participate,HCPS +G9729,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Patient unable to complete the lepf prom at initial evaluation and/or discharge due to blindness, illiteracy, severe mental incapacity or language incompatibility and an adequate proxy is not available",HCPS +G9730,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient refused to participate,HCPS +G9731,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Patient unable to complete the lepf prom at initial evaluation and/or discharge due to blindness, illiteracy, severe mental incapacity or language incompatibility and an adequate proxy is not available",HCPS +G9732,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient refused to participate,HCPS +G9733,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Patient unable to complete the low back fs prom at initial evaluation and/or discharge due to blindness, illiteracy, severe mental incapacity or language incompatibility and an adequate proxy is not available",HCPS +G9734,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient refused to participate,HCPS +G9735,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Patient unable to complete the shoulder fs prom at initial evaluation and/or discharge due to blindness, illiteracy, severe mental incapacity or language incompatibility and an adequate proxy is not available",HCPS +G9736,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient refused to participate,HCPS +G9737,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Patient unable to complete the elbow/wrist/hand fs prom at initial evaluation and/or discharge due to blindness, illiteracy, severe mental incapacity or language incompatibility and an adequate proxy is not available",HCPS +G9740,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Hospice services given to patient any time during the measurement period,HCPS +G9741,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patients who use hospice services any time during the measurement period,HCPS +G9744,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient not eligible due to active diagnosis of hypertension,HCPS +G9745,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Documented reason for not screening or recommending a follow-up for high blood pressure,HCPS +G9746,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Patient has mitral stenosis or prosthetic heart valves or patient has transient or reversible cause of AF (e.g., pneumonia, hyperthyroidism, pregnancy, cardiac surgery)",HCPS +G9751,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient died at any time during the 24-month measurement period,HCPS +G9752,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Emergency surgery,HCPS +G9753,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Documentation of medical reason for not conducting a search for dicom format images for prior patient CT imaging studies completed at non-affiliated external healthcare facilities or entities within the past 12 months that are available through a secure, authorized, media-free, shared arcHIVe (e.g., trauma, acute myocardial infarction, stroke, aortic aneurysm where time is of the essence)",HCPS +G9754,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,A finding of an incidental pulmonary nodule,HCPS +G9755,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Documentation of medical reason(s) for not including a recommended interval and modality for follow-up or for no follow-up, and source of recommendations (e.g., patients with unexplained fever, immunocompromised patients who are at risk for infection)",HCPS +G9756,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Surgical procedures that included the use of silicone oil,HCPS +G9757,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Surgical procedures that included the use of silicone oil,HCPS +G9758,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient in hospice at any time during the measurement period,HCPS +G9760,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patients who use hospice services any time during the measurement period,HCPS +G9761,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patients who use hospice services any time during the measurement period,HCPS +G9762,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient had at least two HPV vaccines (with at least 146 days between the two) or three HPV vaccines on or between the patient's 9th and 13th birthdays,HCPS +G9763,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient did not have at least two HPV vaccines (with at least 146 days between the two) or three HPV vaccines on or between the patient's 9th and 13th birthdays,HCPS +G9764,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient has been treated with a systemic medication for psoriasis vulgaris,HCPS +G9765,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Documentation that the patient declined change in medication or alternative therapies were unavailable, has documented contraindications, or has not been treated with a systemic medication for at least six consecutive months (e.g., experienced adverse effects or lack of efficacy with all other therapy options) in order to achieve better disease control as measured by pga, bsa, pasi, or dlqi",HCPS +G9766,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patients who are transferred from one institUTIon to another with a known diagnosis of CVA for endovascular stroke treatment,HCPS +G9767,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Hospitalized patients with newly diagnosed CVA considered for endovascular stroke treatment,HCPS +G9768,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patients who UTIlize hospice services any time during the measurement period,HCPS +G9769,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient had a bone mineral density test in the past two years or received osteoporosis medication or therapy in the past 12 months,HCPS +G9770,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Peripheral nerve block (PNB),HCPS +G9771,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,At least 1 body temperature measurement equal to or greater than 35.5 degrees celsius (or 95.9 degrees fahrenheit) achieved within the 30 minutes immediately before or 15 minutes immediately after anesthesia end time,HCPS +G9772,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Documentation of medical reason(s) for not achieving at least 1 body temperature measurement equal to or greater than 35.5 degrees celsius (or 95.9 degrees fahrenheit) within the 30 minutes immediately before or 15 minutes immediately after anesthesia end time (e.g., emergency cases, intentional hypothermia, etc.)",HCPS +G9773,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"At least 1 body temperature measurement equal to or greater than 35.5 degrees celsius (or 95.9 degrees fahrenheit) not achieved within the 30 minutes immediately before or 15 minutes immediately after anesthesia end time, reason not given",HCPS +G9775,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient received at least 2 prophylactic pharmacologic anti-emetic agents of different classes preoperatively and/or intraoperatively,HCPS +G9776,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Documentation of medical reason for not receiving at least 2 prophylactic pharmacologic anti-emetic agents of different classes preoperatively and/or intraoperatively (e.g., intolerance or other medical reason)",HCPS +G9777,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient did not receive at least 2 prophylactic pharmacologic anti-emetic agents of different classes preoperatively and/or intraoperatively,HCPS +G9779,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patients who are breastfeeding at any time during the performance period,HCPS +G9780,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patients who have a diagnosis of rhabdomyolysis at any time during the performance period,HCPS +G9781,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Documentation of medical reason(s) for not currently being a statin therapy user or receiving an order (prescription) for statin therapy (e.g., patients with statin-associated muscle symptoms or an allergy to statin medication therapy, patients who are receiving palliative or hospice care, patients with active liver disease or hepatic disease or insufficiency, patients with end stage renal disease [esrd], or other medical reasons)",HCPS +G9782,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,History of or active diagnosis of familial hypercholesterolemia,HCPS +G9784,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Pathologists/dermatopathologists providing a second opinion on a biopsy,HCPS +G9785,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Pathology report diagnosing cutaneous basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, or melanoma (to include in situ disease) sent from the pathologist/ dermatopathologist to the biopsying clinician for review within 7 days from the time when the tissue specimen was received by the pathologist",HCPS +G9786,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Pathology report diagnosing cutaneous basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, or melanoma (to include in situ disease) was not sent from the pathologist/ dermatopathologist to the biopsying clinician for review within 7 days from the time when the tissue specimen was received by the pathologist",HCPS +G9787,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient alive as of the last day of the measurement year,HCPS +G9788,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Most recent bp is less than or equal to 140/90 mm hg,HCPS +G9789,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Blood pressure recorded during inpatient stays, emergency room visits, or urgent care visits",HCPS +G9790,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Most recent bp is greater than 140/90 mm hg, or blood pressure not documented",HCPS +G9791,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Most recent tobacco status is tobacco free,HCPS +G9792,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Most recent tobacco status is not tobacco free,HCPS +G9793,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient is currently on a daily aspirin or other antiplatelet,HCPS +G9794,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Documentation of medical reason(s) for not on a daily aspirin or other antiplatelet (e.g., history of gastrointestinal bleed, intra-cranial bleed, idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), gastric bypass or documentation of active anticoagulant use during the measurement period)",HCPS +G9795,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient is not currently on a daily aspirin or other antiplatelet,HCPS +G9796,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient is currently on a statin therapy,HCPS +G9797,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient is not on a statin therapy,HCPS +G9805,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patients who use hospice services any time during the measurement period,HCPS +G9806,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patients who received cervical cytology or an HPV test,HCPS +G9807,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patients who did not receive cervical cytology or an HPV test,HCPS +G9812,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Patient died including all deaths occurring during the hospitalization in which the operation was performed, even if after 30 days, and those deaths occurring after discharge from the hospital, but within 30 days of the procedure",HCPS +G9813,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient did not die within 30 days of the procedure or during the index hospitalization,HCPS +G9818,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Documentation of sexual activity,HCPS +G9819,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patients who use hospice services any time during the measurement period,HCPS +G9820,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Documentation of a chlamydia screening test with proper follow-up,HCPS +G9821,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,No documentation of a chlamydia screening test with proper follow-up,HCPS +G9822,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patients who had an endometrial ablation procedure during the 12 months prior to the index date (exclusive of the index date),HCPS +G9823,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Endometrial sampling or hysteroscopy with biopsy and results documented during the 12 months prior to the index date (exclusive of the index date) of the endometrial ablation,HCPS +G9824,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Endometrial sampling or hysteroscopy with biopsy and results not documented during the 12 months prior to the index date (exclusive of the index date) of the endometrial ablation,HCPS +G9830,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,HER-2/neu positive,HCPS +G9831,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,AJCC Stage at breast cancer diagnosis = II Or III,HCPS +G9832,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"AJCC Stage at breast cancer diagnosis = I (Ia Or Ib) And t-Stage At breast cancer diagnosis does not equal = T1, T1A, T1B",HCPS +G9838,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient has metastatic disease at diagnosis,HCPS +G9839,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Anti-EGFR monoclonal antibody therapy,HCPS +G9840,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,RAS (KRAS and NRAS) gene mutation testing performed before initiation of anti-EGFR moab,HCPS +G9841,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,RAS (KRAS and NRAS) gene mutation testing not performed before initiation of anti-EGFR moab,HCPS +G9842,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient has metastatic disease at diagnosis,HCPS +G9843,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,RAS (KRAS and NRAS) gene mutation,HCPS +G9844,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient did not receive Anti-EGFR monoclonal antibody therapy,HCPS +G9845,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient received Anti-EGFR monoclonal antibody therapy,HCPS +G9846,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patients who died from cancer,HCPS +G9847,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient received systemic cancer-directed therapy in the last 14 days of life,HCPS +G9848,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient did not receive systemic cancer-directed therapy in the last 14 days of life,HCPS +G9858,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient enrolled in hospice,HCPS +G9859,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patients who died from cancer,HCPS +G9860,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient spent less than three days in hospice care,HCPS +G9861,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Patient spent greater than or equal to three days in hospice care,HCPS +G9862,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Documentation of medical reason(s) for not recommending at least a 10 year follow-up interval (e.g., inadequate prep, familial or personal history of colonic polyps, patient had no adenoma and age is = 66 years old, or life expectancy < 10 years old, other medical reasons)",HCPS +G9868,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Receipt and analysis of remote, asynchronous images for dermatologic and/or ophthalmologic evaluation, for use only in a medicare-approved cmmi model, less than 10 minutes",HCPS +G9869,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Receipt and analysis of remote, asynchronous images for dermatologic and/or ophthalmologic evaluation, for use only in a medicare-approved cmmi model, 10-20 minutes",HCPS +G9870,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Receipt and analysis of remote, asynchronous images for dermatologic and/or ophthalmologic evaluation, for use only in a medicare-approved cmmi model, more than 20 minutes",HCPS +G9873,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,First Medicare Diabetes Prevention Program (MDPP) core session was attended by an MDPP beneficiary under the MDPP Expanded Model (EM). A core session is an MDPP service that: (1) is furnished by an MDPP supplier during months 1 through 6 of the MDPP services period; (2) is approximately 1 hour in length; and (3) adheres to a CDC-approved DPP curriculum for core sessions,HCPS +G9874,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Four total Medicare Diabetes Prevention Program (MDPP) core sessions were attended by an MDPP beneficiary under the MDPP Expanded Model (EM). A core session is an MDPP service that: (1) is furnished by an MDPP supplier during months 1 through 6 of the MDPP services period; (2) is approximately 1 hour in length; and (3) adheres to a CDC-approved DPP curriculum for core sessions.,HCPS +G9875,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Nine total Medicare Diabetes Prevention Program (MDPP) core sessions were attended by an MDPP beneficiary under the MDPP Expanded Model (EM). A core session is an MDPP service that: (1) is furnished by an MDPP supplier during months 1 through 6 of the MDPP services period; (2) is approximately 1 hour in length; and (3) adheres to a CDC-approved DPP curriculum for core sessions,HCPS +G9876,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Two Medicare Diabetes Prevention Program (MDPP) core maintenance sessions (MS) were attended by an MDPP beneficiary in months (mo) 7-9 under the MDPP Expanded Model (EM). A core maintenance session is an MDPP service that: (1) is furnished by an MDPP supplier during months 7 through 12 of the MDPP services period; (2) is approximately 1 hour in length; and (3) adheres to a CDC-approved DPP curriculum for maintenance sessions. The beneficiary did not achieve at least 5% weight loss (WL) from his/her baseline weight, as measured by at least one in-person weight measurement at a core maintenance session in months 7-9.",HCPS +G9877,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Two Medicare Diabetes Prevention Program (MDPP) core maintenance sessions (MS) were attended by an MDPP beneficiary in months (mo) 10-12 under the MDPP Expanded Model (EM). A core maintenance session is an MDPP service that: (1) is furnished by an MDPP supplier during months 7 through 12 of the MDPP services period; (2) is approximately 1 hour in length; and (3) adheres to a CDC-approved DPP curriculum for maintenance sessions. + +The beneficiary did not achieve at least 5% weight loss (WL) from his/her baseline weight, as measured by at least one in-person weight measurement at a core maintenance session in months 10-12.",HCPS +G9878,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Two Medicare Diabetes Prevention Program (MDPP) core maintenance sessions (MS) were attended by an MDPP beneficiary in months (mo) 7-9 under the MDPP Expanded Model (EM). A core maintenance session is an MDPP service that: (1) is furnished by an MDPP supplier during months 7 through 12 of the MDPP services period; (2) is approximately 1 hour in length; and (3) adheres to a CDC-approved DPP curriculum for maintenance sessions.The beneficiary achieved at least 5% weight loss (WL) from his/her baseline weight, as measured by at least one in-person weight measurement at a core maintenance session in months 7-9.",HCPS +G9879,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Two Medicare Diabetes Prevention Program (MDPP) core maintenance sessions (MS) were attended by an MDPP beneficiary in months (mo) 10-12 under the MDPP Expanded Model (EM). A core maintenance session is an MDPP service that: (1) is furnished by an MDPP supplier during months 7 through 12 of the MDPP services period; (2) is approximately 1 hour in length; and (3) adheres to a CDC-approved DPP curriculum for maintenance sessions.The beneficiary achieved at least 5% weight loss (WL) from his/her baseline weight, as measured by at least one in-person weight measurement at a core maintenance session in months 10-12",HCPS +G9880,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,The MDPP beneficiary achieved at least 5% weight loss (WL) from his/her baseline weight in months 1-12 of the MDPP services period under the MDPP Expanded Model (EM). This is a one-time payment available when a beneficiary first achieves at least 5% weight loss from baseline as measured by an in-person weight measurement at a core session or core maintenance session.,HCPS +G9881,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"The MDPP beneficiary achieved at least 9% weight loss (WL) from his/her baseline weight in months 1-24 under the MDPP Expanded Model (EM). This is a one-time payment available when a beneficiary first achieves at least 9% weight loss from baseline as measured by an in-person weight measurement at a core session, core maintenance session, or ongoing maintenance session.",HCPS +G9882,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Two Medicare Diabetes Prevention Program (MDPP) ongoing maintenance sessions (MS) were attended by an MDPP beneficiary in months (mo) 13-15 under the MDPP Expanded Model (EM). An ongoing maintenance session is an MDPP service that: (1) is furnished by an MDPP supplier during months 13 through 24 of the MDPP services period; (2) is approximately 1 hour in length; and (3) adheres to a CDC-approved DPP curriculum for maintenance sessions.The beneficiary maintained at least 5% weight loss (WL) from his/her baseline weight, as measured by at least one in-person weight measurement at an ongoing maintenance session in months 13-15.",HCPS +G9883,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Two Medicare Diabetes Prevention Program (MDPP) ongoing maintenance sessions (MS) were attended by an MDPP beneficiary in months (mo) 16-18 under the MDPP Expanded Model (EM). An ongoing maintenance session is an MDPP service that: (1) is furnished by an MDPP supplier during months 13 through 24 of the MDPP services period; (2) is approximately 1 hour in length; and (3) adheres to a CDC-approved DPP curriculum for maintenance sessions. + +The beneficiary maintained at least 5% weight loss (WL) from his/her baseline weight, as measured by at least one in-person weight measurement at an ongoing maintenance session in months 16-18.",HCPS +G9884,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Two Medicare Diabetes Prevention Program (MDPP) ongoing maintenance sessions (MS) were attended by an MDPP beneficiary in months (mo) 19-21 under the MDPP Expanded Model (EM). An ongoing maintenance session is an MDPP service that: (1) is furnished by an MDPP supplier during months 13 through 24 of the MDPP services period; (2) is approximately 1 hour in length; and (3) adheres to a CDC-approved DPP curriculum for maintenance sessions. The beneficiary maintained at least 5% weight loss (WL) from his/her baseline weight, as measured by at least one in-person weight measurement at an ongoing maintenance session in months 19-21.",HCPS +G9885,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Two Medicare Diabetes Prevention Program (MDPP) ongoing maintenance sessions (MS) were attended by an MDPP beneficiary in months (mo) 22-24 under the MDPP Expanded Model (EM). An ongoing maintenance session is an MDPP service that: (1) is furnished by an MDPP supplier during months 13 through 24 of the MDPP services period; (2) is approximately 1 hour in length; and (3) adheres to a CDC-approved DPP curriculum for maintenance sessions. + +The beneficiary maintained at least 5% weight loss (WL) from his/her baseline weight, as measured by at least one in-person weight measurement at an ongoing maintenance session in months 22-24.",HCPS +G9886,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Behavioral counseling for diabetes prevention, in-person, group, 60 minutes",HCPS +G9887,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Behavioral counseling for diabetes prevention, distance learning, 60 minutes",HCPS +G9888,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Maintenance 5% wl from baseline weight in months 7-12,HCPS +G9890,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Bridge Payment: A one-time payment for the first Medicare Diabetes Prevention Program (MDPP) core session, core maintenance session, or ongoing maintenance session furnished by an MDPP supplier to an MDPP beneficiary during months 1-24 of the MDPP Expanded Model (EM) who has previously received MDPP services from a different MDPP supplier under the MDPP Expanded Model. A supplier may only receive one bridge payment per MDPP beneficiary.",HCPS +G9891,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,MDPP session reported as a line-item on a claim for a payable MDPP Expanded Model (EM) HCPCS code for a session furnished by the billing supplier under the MDPP Expanded Model and counting toward achievement of the attendance performance goal for the payable MDPP Expanded Model HCPCS code.(This code is for reporting purposes only).,HCPS +G9892,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,Documentation of patient reason(s) for not performing a dilated macular examination,HCPS +G9893,Additional Assorted Quality Measures .,"Dilated macular exam was not performed, reason not otherwise specified",HCPS +G9894,Radiology services Prostate.,Androgen deprivation therapy prescribed/administered in combination with external beam radiotherapy to the prostate,HCPS +G9895,Radiology services Prostate.,"Documentation of medical reason(s) for not prescribing/administering androgen deprivation therapy in combination with external beam radiotherapy to the prostate (e.g., salvage therapy)",HCPS +G9896,Radiology services Prostate.,Documentation of patient reason(s) for not prescribing/administering androgen deprivation therapy in combination with external beam radiotherapy to the prostate,HCPS +G9897,Radiology services Prostate.,"Patients who were not prescribed/administered androgen deprivation therapy in combination with external beam radiotherapy to the prostate, reason not given",HCPS +G9898,Geriatric care Management.,"Patients age 66 or older in institutional special needs plans (snp) or residing in long-term care with pos code 32, 33, 34, 54, or 56 for more than 90 consecutive days during the measurement period",HCPS +G9899,Breast screening/diagnostics/Therapeutics.,"Screening, diagnostic, film, digital or digital breast tomosynthesis (3D) mammography results documented and reviewed",HCPS +G9900,Breast screening/diagnostics/Therapeutics.,"Screening, diagnostic, film, digital or digital breast tomosynthesis (3D) mammography results were not documented and reviewed, reason not otherwise specified",HCPS +G9901,Additional Geriatric care Management.,"Patient age 66 or older in institutional special needs plans (snp) or residing in long-term care with pos code 32, 33, 34, 54, or 56 for more than 90 consecutive days during the measurement period",HCPS +G9902,Tobacco Screening.,Patient screened for tobacco use and identified as a tobacco user,HCPS +G9903,Tobacco Screening.,Patient screened for tobacco use and identified as a tobacco non-user,HCPS +G9905,Tobacco Screening.,Patient not screened for tobacco use,HCPS +G9906,Tobacco Screening.,Patient identified as a tobacco user received tobacco cessation intervention during the measurement period or in the six months prior to the measurement period (counseling and/or pharmacotherapy),HCPS +G9908,Tobacco Screening.,Patient identified as tobacco user did not receive tobacco cessation intervention during the measurement period or in the six months prior to the measurement period (counseling and/or pharmacotherapy),HCPS +G9910,Other Geriatric care Management.,"Patients age 66 or older in institutional special needs plans (snp) or residing in long-term care with pos code 32, 33, 34, 54 or 56 for more than 90 consecutive days during the measurement period",HCPS +G9911,Breast screening (Therapeutics).,Clinically node negative (t1n0m0 or t2n0m0) invasive breast cancer before or after neoadjuvant systemic therapy,HCPS +G9912,Anti TNF Diagnostics for HBV status.,Hepatitis B virus (HBV) status assessed and results interpreted prior to initiating anti-TNF (tumor necrosis factor) therapy,HCPS +G9913,Anti TNF Diagnostics for HBV status.,"Hepatitis b virus (hbv) status not assessed and results interpreted prior to initiating anti-tnf (tumor necrosis factor) therapy, reason not otherwise specified",HCPS +G9914,Anti TNF Diagnostics for HBV status.,Patient initiated an anti-tnf agent,HCPS +G9915,Anti TNF Diagnostics for HBV status.,No record of HBV results documented,HCPS +G9916,Functional Status codes.,Functional status performed once in the last 12 months,HCPS +G9917,Functional Status codes.,Documentation of advanced stage dementia and caregiver knowledge is limited,HCPS +G9918,Functional Status codes.,"Functional status not performed, reason not otherwise specified",HCPS +G9919,Screening.,Screening performed and positive and provision of recommendations,HCPS +G9920,Screening.,Screening performed and negative,HCPS +G9921,Screening.,"No screening performed, partial screening performed or positive screen without recommendations and reason is not given or otherwise specified",HCPS +G9922,Screening.,Safety concerns screen provided and if positive then documented mitigation recommendations,HCPS +G9923,Screening.,Safety concerns screen provided and negative,HCPS +G9925,Screening.,"Safety concerns screening not provided, reason not otherwise specified",HCPS +G9926,Screening.,"Safety concerns screening positive screen is without provision of mitigation recommendations, including but not limited to referral to other resources",HCPS +G9928,Screening.,"Fda-approved anticoagulant not prescribed, reason not given",HCPS +G9929,Screening.,"Patient with transient or reversible cause of AF (e.g., pneumonia, hyperthyroidism, pregnancy, cardiac surgery)",HCPS +G9930,Screening.,Patients who are receiving comfort care only,HCPS +G9931,Screening.,"Documentation of cha2ds2-vasc risk score of 0 or 1 for men; or 0, 1, or 2 for women",HCPS +G9938,Geriatric Care Management and Other Services.,"Patients aged 66 or older in institutional special needs plans (snp) or residing in long-term care with pos code 32, 33, 34, 54, or 56 for more than 90 consecutive days during the six months prior to the measurement period through december 31 of the measurement period",HCPS +G9939,Geriatric Care Management and Other Services.,Pathologists/dermatopathologists is the same clinician who performed the biopsy,HCPS +G9940,Geriatric Care Management and Other Services.,"Documentation of medical reason(s) for not on a statin (e.g., pregnancy, in vitro fertilization, clomiphene Rx, ESRD, cirrhosis, muscular pain and disease during the measurement period or prior year)",HCPS +G9943,Pain assessment.,Back pain was not measured by the visual analog scale (vas) or numeric pain scale at three months (6 - 20 weeks) postoperatively,HCPS +G9945,Pain assessment.,"Patient had cancer, acute fracture or infection related to the lumbar spine or patient had neuromuscular, idiopathic or congenital lumbar scoliosis",HCPS +G9946,Pain assessment.,Back pain was not measured by the visual analog scale (vas) or numeric pain scale at one year (9 to 15 months) postoperatively,HCPS +G9949,Pain assessment.,Leg pain was not measured by the visual analog scale (vas) or numeric pain scale at three months (6 - 20 weeks) postoperatively,HCPS +G9954,Medications (Antiemetics and Antimicrobials).,Patient exhibits 2 or more risk factors for post-operative vomiting,HCPS +G9955,Medications (Antiemetics and Antimicrobials).,Cases in which an inhalational anesthetic is used only for induction,HCPS +G9956,Medications (Antiemetics and Antimicrobials).,Patient received combination therapy consisting of at least two prophylactic pharmacologic anti-emetic agents of different classes preoperatively and/or intraoperatively,HCPS +G9957,Medications (Antiemetics and Antimicrobials).,"Documentation of medical reason for not receiving combination therapy consisting of at least two prophylactic pharmacologic anti-emetic agents of different classes preoperatively and/or intraoperatively (e.g., intolerance or other medical reason)",HCPS +G9958,Medications (Antiemetics and Antimicrobials).,Patient did not receive combination therapy consisting of at least two prophylactic pharmacologic anti-emetic agents of different classes preoperatively and/or intraoperatively,HCPS +G9959,Medications (Antiemetics and Antimicrobials).,Systemic antimicrobials not prescribed,HCPS +G9960,Medications (Antiemetics and Antimicrobials).,Documentation of medical reason(s) for prescribing systemic antimicrobials,HCPS +G9961,Medications (Antiemetics and Antimicrobials).,Systemic antimicrobials prescribed,HCPS +G9962,Embolization.,Embolization endpoints are documented separately for each embolized vessel and ovarian artery angiography or embolization performed in the presence of variant uterine artery anatomy,HCPS +G9963,Embolization.,Embolization endpoints are not documented separately for each embolized vessel or ovarian artery angiography or embolization not performed in the presence of variant uterine artery anatomy,HCPS +G9964,"Screening, Wellness and Physician visits.",Patient received at least one well-child visit with a PCP during the performance period,HCPS +G9965,"Screening, Wellness and Physician visits.",Patient did not receive at least one well-child visit with a PCP during the performance period,HCPS +G9968,"Screening, Wellness and Physician visits.",Patient was referred to another clinician or specialist during the measurement period,HCPS +G9969,"Screening, Wellness and Physician visits.",Clinician who referred the patient to another clinician received a report from the clinician to whom the patient was referred,HCPS +G9970,"Screening, Wellness and Physician visits.",Clinician who referred the patient to another clinician did not receive a report from the clinician to whom the patient was referred,HCPS +G9974,Vision Assessment.,"Dilated macular exam performed, including documentation of the presence or absence of macular thickening or geographic atrophy or hemorrhage and the level of macular degeneration severity",HCPS +G9975,Vision Assessment.,Documentation of medical reason(s) for not performing a dilated macular examination,HCPS +G9978,Remote In-House Evaluation And Management Assessment.,"Remote in-home visit for the evaluation and management of a new patient for use only in a Medicare-approved Bundled Payments for Care Improvement Advanced (BPCI Advanced) model episode of care, which requires these 3 key components: + A problem focused history; + A problem focused examination; and + Straightforward medical decision making, furnished in real time using interactive audio and video technology. +Counseling and coordination of care with other physicians, other qualified health care professionals or agencies are provided consistent with the nature of the problem(s) and the needs of the patient or the family or both. Usually, the presenting +problem(s) are self limited or minor. Typically, 10 minutes are spent with the patient or family or both via real time, audio and video intercommunications technology.",HCPS +G9979,Remote In-House Evaluation And Management Assessment.,"Remote in-home visit for the evaluation and management of a new patient for use only in a Medicare-approved Bundled Payments for Care Improvement Advanced (BPCI Advanced) model episode of care, which requires these 3 key components: + An expanded problem focused history; + An expanded problem focused examination; + Straightforward medical decision making, furnished in real time using interactive audio and video technology. +Counseling and coordination of care with other physicians, other qualified health care professionals or agencies are provided consistent with the nature of the problem(s) and the needs of the patient or the family or both. Usually, the presenting +problem(s) are of low to moderate severity. Typically, 20 minutes are spent with the patient or family or both via real time, audio and video intercommunications technology.",HCPS +G9980,Remote In-House Evaluation And Management Assessment.,"Remote in-home visit for the evaluation and management of a new patient for use only in a Medicare-approved Bundled Payments for Care Improvement Advanced (BPCI Advanced) model episode of care, which requires these 3 key components: + A detailed history; + A detailed examination; + Medical decision making of low complexity, furnished in real time using interactive audio and video technology. +Counseling and coordination of care with other physicians, other qualified health care professionals or agencies are provided consistent with the nature of the problem(s) and the needs of the patient or the family or both. Usually, the presenting +problem(s) are of moderate severity. Typically, 30 minutes are spent with the patient or family or both via real time, audio and video intercommunications technology.",HCPS +G9981,Remote In-House Evaluation And Management Assessment.,"Remote in-home visit for the evaluation and management of a new patient for use only in a Medicare-approved Bundled Payments for Care Improvement Advanced (BPCI Advanced) model episode of care, which requires these 3 key components: + A comprehensive history; + A comprehensive examination; + Medical decision making of moderate complexity, furnished in real time using interactive audio and video technology. +Counseling and coordination of care with other physicians, other qualified health care professionals or agencies are provided consistent with the nature of the problem(s) and the needs of the patient or the family or both. Usually, the presenting +problem(s) are of moderate to high severity. Typically, 45 minutes are spent with the patient or family or both via real time, audio and video intercommunications technology.",HCPS +G9982,Remote In-House Evaluation And Management Assessment.,"Remote in-home visit for the evaluation and management of a new patient for use only in a Medicare-approved Bundled Payments for Care Improvement Advanced (BPCI Advanced) model episode of care, which requires these 3 key components: + A comprehensive history; + A comprehensive examination; + Medical decision making of high complexity, furnished in real time using interactive audio and video technology. +Counseling and coordination of care with other physicians, other qualified health care professionals or agencies are provided consistent with the nature of the problem(s) and the needs of the patient or the family or both. Usually, the presenting problem(s) are of moderate to high severity. Typically, 60 minutes are spent with the patient or family or both via real time, audio and video intercommunications technology.",HCPS +G9983,Remote In-House Evaluation And Management Assessment.,"Remote in-home visit for the evaluation and management of an established patient for use only in a Medicare-approved Bundled Payments for Care Improvement Advanced (BPCI Advanced) model episode of care, which requires at least 2 of the following 3 key components: + A problem focused history; + A problem focused examination; + Straightforward medical decision making, furnished in real time using interactive audio and video technology. +Counseling and coordination of care with other physicians, other qualified health care professionals or agencies are provided consistent with the nature of the problem(s) and the needs of the patient or the family or both. Usually, the presenting problem(s) are self limited or minor. Typically, 10 minutes are spent with the patient or family or both via real time, audio and video intercommunications technology.",HCPS +G9984,Remote In-House Evaluation And Management Assessment.,"Remote in-home visit for the evaluation and management of an established patient for use only in a Medicare-approved Bundled Payments for Care Improvement Advanced (BPCI Advanced) model episode of care, which requires at least 2 of the following 3 key components: + An expanded problem focused history; + An expanded problem focused examination; + Medical decision making of low complexity, furnished in real time using interactive audio and video technology. +Counseling and coordination of care with other physicians, other qualified health care professionals or agencies are provided consistent with the nature of the problem(s) and the needs of the patient or the family or both. Usually, the presenting +problem(s) are of low to moderate severity. Typically, 15 minutes are spent with the patient or family or both via real time, audio and video intercommunications technology.",HCPS +G9985,Remote In-House Evaluation And Management Assessment.,"Remote in-home visit for the evaluation and management of an established patient for use only in a Medicare-approved Bundled Payments for Care Improvement Advanced (BPCI Advanced) model episode of care, which requires at least 2 of the following 3 key components: + A detailed history; + A detailed examination; + Medical decision making of moderate complexity, furnished in real time using interactive audio and video technology. +Counseling and coordination of care with other physicians, other qualified health care professionals or agencies are provided consistent with the nature of the problem(s) and the needs of the patient or the family or both. Usually, the presenting +problem(s) are of moderate to high severity. Typically, 25 minutes are spent with the patient or family or both via real time, audio and video intercommunications technology.",HCPS +G9986,Remote In-House Evaluation And Management Assessment.,"Remote in-home visit for the evaluation and management of an established patient for use only in a Medicare-approved Bundled Payments for Care Improvement Advanced (BPCI Advanced) model episode of care, which requires at least 2 of the following 3 key components: + A comprehensive history; + A comprehensive examination; + Medical decision making of high complexity, furnished in real time using interactive audio and video technology. +Counseling and coordination of care with other physicians, other qualified health care professionals or agencies are provided consistent with the nature of the problem(s) and the needs of the patient or the family or both. Usually, the presenting problem(s) are of moderate to high severity. Typically, 40 minutes are spent with the patient or family or both via real time, audio and video intercommunications technology.",HCPS +G9987,Remote In-House Evaluation And Management Assessment.,"Bundled Payments for Care Improvement Advanced (BPCI Advanced) model home visit for patient assessment performed by clinical staff for an individual not considered homebound, including, but not necessarily limited to patient assessment of clinical status, safety/fall prevention, functional status/ambulation, medication reconciliation/management, compliance with orders/plan of care, performance of activities of daily living, and ensuring beneficiary +connections to community and other services; for use only for a BPCI Advanced model episode of care; may not be billed for a 30-day period covered by a transitional care management code.",HCPS +H0001,"Drug, Alcohol, and Behavioral Health Services .",Alcohol and/or drug assessment,HCPS +H0002,"Drug, Alcohol, and Behavioral Health Services .",Behavioral health screening to determine eligibility for admission to treatment program,HCPS +H0003,"Drug, Alcohol, and Behavioral Health Services .",Alcohol and/or drug screening; laboratory analysis of specimens for presence of alcohol and/or drugs,HCPS +H0004,"Drug, Alcohol, and Behavioral Health Services .","Behavioral health counseling and therapy, per 15 minutes",HCPS +H0005,"Drug, Alcohol, and Behavioral Health Services .",Alcohol and/or drug services; group counseling by a clinician,HCPS +H0006,"Drug, Alcohol, and Behavioral Health Services .",Alcohol and/or drug services; case management,HCPS +H0007,"Drug, Alcohol, and Behavioral Health Services .",Alcohol and/or drug services; crisis intervention (outpatient),HCPS +H0008,"Drug, Alcohol, and Behavioral Health Services .",Alcohol and/or drug services; sub-acute detoxification (hospital inpatient),HCPS +H0009,"Drug, Alcohol, and Behavioral Health Services .",Alcohol and/or drug services; acute detoxification (hospital inpatient),HCPS +H0010,"Drug, Alcohol, and Behavioral Health Services .",Alcohol and/or drug services; sub-acute detoxification (residential addiction program inpatient),HCPS +H0011,"Drug, Alcohol, and Behavioral Health Services .",Alcohol and/or drug services; acute detoxification (residential addiction program inpatient),HCPS +H0012,"Drug, Alcohol, and Behavioral Health Services .",Alcohol and/or drug services; sub-acute detoxification (residential addiction program outpatient),HCPS +H0013,"Drug, Alcohol, and Behavioral Health Services .",Alcohol and/or drug services; acute detoxification (residential addiction program outpatient),HCPS +H0014,"Drug, Alcohol, and Behavioral Health Services .",Alcohol and/or drug services; ambulatory detoxification,HCPS +H0015,"Drug, Alcohol, and Behavioral Health Services .","Alcohol and/or drug services; intensive outpatient (treatment program that operates at least 3 hours/day and at least 3 days/week and is based on an individualized treatment plan), including assessment, counseling; crisis intervention, and activity therapies or education",HCPS +H0016,"Drug, Alcohol, and Behavioral Health Services .",Alcohol and/or drug services; medical/somatic (medical intervention in ambulatory setting),HCPS +H0017,"Drug, Alcohol, and Behavioral Health Services .","Behavioral health; residential (hospital residential treatment program), without room and board, per diem",HCPS +H0018,"Drug, Alcohol, and Behavioral Health Services .","Behavioral health; short-term residential (non-hospital residential treatment program), without room and board, per diem",HCPS +H0019,"Drug, Alcohol, and Behavioral Health Services .","Behavioral health; long-term residential (non-medical, non-acute care in a residential treatment program where stay is typically longer than 30 days), without room and board, per diem",HCPS +H0020,"Drug, Alcohol, and Behavioral Health Services .",Alcohol and/or drug services; methadone administration and/or service (provision of the drug by a licensed program),HCPS +H0021,"Drug, Alcohol, and Behavioral Health Services .",Alcohol and/or drug training service (for staff and personnel not employed by providers),HCPS +H0022,"Drug, Alcohol, and Behavioral Health Services .",Alcohol and/or drug intervention service (planned facilitation),HCPS +H0023,"Drug, Alcohol, and Behavioral Health Services .",Behavioral health outreach service (planned approach to reach a targeted population),HCPS +H0024,"Drug, Alcohol, and Behavioral Health Services .",Behavioral health prevention information dissemination service (one-way direct or non-direct contact with service audiences to affect knowledge and attitude),HCPS +H0025,"Drug, Alcohol, and Behavioral Health Services .","Behavioral health prevention education service (delivery of services with target population to affect knowledge, attitude and/or behavior)",HCPS +H0026,"Drug, Alcohol, and Behavioral Health Services .","Alcohol and/or drug prevention process service, community-based (delivery of services to develop skills of impactors)",HCPS +H0027,"Drug, Alcohol, and Behavioral Health Services .",Alcohol and/or drug prevention environmental service (broad range of external activities geared toward modifying systems in order to mainstream prevention through policy and law),HCPS +H0028,"Drug, Alcohol, and Behavioral Health Services .","Alcohol and/or drug prevention problem identification and referral service (e.g., student assistance and employee assistance programs), does not include assessment",HCPS +H0029,"Drug, Alcohol, and Behavioral Health Services .",Alcohol and/or drug prevention alternatives service (services for populations that exclude alcohol and other drug use e.g. alcohol free social events),HCPS +H0030,"Drug, Alcohol, and Behavioral Health Services .",Behavioral health hotline service,HCPS +H0031,Mental Health Programs and Medication Administration Training .,"Mental health assessment, by non-physician",HCPS +H0032,Mental Health Programs and Medication Administration Training .,Mental health service plan development by non-physician,HCPS +H0033,Mental Health Programs and Medication Administration Training .,"Oral medication administration, direct observation",HCPS +H0034,Mental Health Programs and Medication Administration Training .,"Medication training and support, per 15 minutes",HCPS +H0035,Mental Health Programs and Medication Administration Training .,"Mental health partial hospitalization, treatment, less than 24 hours",HCPS +H0036,Mental Health Programs and Medication Administration Training .,"Community psychiatric supportive treatment, face-to-face, per 15 minutes",HCPS +H0037,Mental Health Programs and Medication Administration Training .,"Community psychiatric supportive treatment program, per diem",HCPS +H0038,Mental Health Programs and Medication Administration Training .,"Self-help/peer services, per 15 minutes",HCPS +H0039,Mental Health Programs and Medication Administration Training .,"Assertive community treatment, face-to-face, per 15 minutes",HCPS +H0040,Mental Health Programs and Medication Administration Training .,"Assertive community treatment program, per diem",HCPS +H0041,Foster Care .,"Foster care, child, non-therapeutic, per diem",HCPS +H0042,Foster Care .,"Foster care, child, non-therapeutic, per month",HCPS +H0043,Supported Housing .,"Supported housing, per diem",HCPS +H0044,Supported Housing .,"Supported housing, per month",HCPS +H0045,Miscellaneous Drug and Alcohol Services .,"Respite care services, not in the home, per diem",HCPS +H0046,Miscellaneous Drug and Alcohol Services .,"Mental health services, not otherwise specified",HCPS +H0047,Miscellaneous Drug and Alcohol Services .,"Alcohol and/or other drug abuse services, not otherwise specified",HCPS +H0048,Miscellaneous Drug and Alcohol Services .,"Alcohol and/or other drug testing: collection and handling only, specimens other than blood",HCPS +H0049,Miscellaneous Drug and Alcohol Services .,Alcohol and/or drug screening,HCPS +H0050,Miscellaneous Drug and Alcohol Services .,"Alcohol and/or drug services, brief intervention, per 15 minutes",HCPS +H1000,Prenatal Care and Family Planning Assessment .,"Prenatal care, at-risk assessment",HCPS +H1001,Prenatal Care and Family Planning Assessment .,"Prenatal care, at-risk enhanced service; antepartum management",HCPS +H1002,Prenatal Care and Family Planning Assessment .,"Prenatal care, at risk enhanced service; care coordination",HCPS +H1003,Prenatal Care and Family Planning Assessment .,"Prenatal care, at-risk enhanced service; education",HCPS +H1004,Prenatal Care and Family Planning Assessment .,"Prenatal care, at-risk enhanced service; follow-up home visit",HCPS +H1005,Prenatal Care and Family Planning Assessment .,"Prenatal care, at-risk enhanced service package (includes H1001-H1004)",HCPS +H1010,Prenatal Care and Family Planning Assessment .,"Non-medical family planning education, per session",HCPS +H1011,Prenatal Care and Family Planning Assessment .,Family assessment by licensed behavioral health professional for state defined purposes,HCPS +H2000,Other Mental Health and Community Support Services .,Comprehensive multidisciplinary evaluation,HCPS +H2001,Other Mental Health and Community Support Services .,"Rehabilitation program, per 1/2 day",HCPS +H2010,Other Mental Health and Community Support Services .,"Comprehensive medication services, per 15 minutes",HCPS +H2011,Other Mental Health and Community Support Services .,"Crisis intervention service, per 15 minutes",HCPS +H2012,Other Mental Health and Community Support Services .,"Behavioral health day treatment, per hour",HCPS +H2013,Other Mental Health and Community Support Services .,"Psychiatric health facility service, per diem",HCPS +H2014,Other Mental Health and Community Support Services .,"Skills training and development, per 15 minutes",HCPS +H2015,Other Mental Health and Community Support Services .,"Comprehensive community support services, per 15 minutes",HCPS +H2016,Other Mental Health and Community Support Services .,"Comprehensive community support services, per diem",HCPS +H2017,Other Mental Health and Community Support Services .,"Psychosocial rehabilitation services, per 15 minutes",HCPS +H2018,Other Mental Health and Community Support Services .,"Psychosocial rehabilitation services, per diem",HCPS +H2019,Other Mental Health and Community Support Services .,"Therapeutic behavioral services, per 15 minutes",HCPS +H2020,Other Mental Health and Community Support Services .,"Therapeutic behavioral services, per diem",HCPS +H2021,Other Mental Health and Community Support Services .,"Community-based wrap-around services, per 15 minutes",HCPS +H2022,Other Mental Health and Community Support Services .,"Community-based wrap-around services, per diem",HCPS +H2023,Other Mental Health and Community Support Services .,"Supported employment, per 15 minutes",HCPS +H2024,Other Mental Health and Community Support Services .,"Supported employment, per diem",HCPS +H2025,Other Mental Health and Community Support Services .,"Ongoing support to maintain employment, per 15 minutes",HCPS +H2026,Other Mental Health and Community Support Services .,"Ongoing support to maintain employment, per diem",HCPS +H2027,Other Mental Health and Community Support Services .,"Psychoeducational service, per 15 minutes",HCPS +H2028,Other Mental Health and Community Support Services .,"Sexual offender treatment service, per 15 minutes",HCPS +H2029,Other Mental Health and Community Support Services .,"Sexual offender treatment service, per diem",HCPS +H2030,Other Mental Health and Community Support Services .,"Mental health clubhouse services, per 15 minutes",HCPS +H2031,Other Mental Health and Community Support Services .,"Mental health clubhouse services, per diem",HCPS +H2032,Other Mental Health and Community Support Services .,"Activity therapy, per 15 minutes",HCPS +H2033,Other Mental Health and Community Support Services .,"Multisystemic therapy for juveniles, per 15 minutes",HCPS +H2034,Other Mental Health and Community Support Services .,"Alcohol and/or drug abuse halfway house services, per diem",HCPS +H2035,Other Mental Health and Community Support Services .,"Alcohol and/or other drug treatment program, per hour",HCPS +H2036,Other Mental Health and Community Support Services .,"Alcohol and/or other drug treatment program, per diem",HCPS +H2037,Other Mental Health and Community Support Services .,"Developmental delay prevention activities, dependent child of client, per 15 minutes",HCPS +J0120,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, tetracycline, up to 250 mg",HCPS +J0121,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, omadacycline, 1 mg",HCPS +J0122,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, eravacycline, 1 mg",HCPS +J0129,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, abatacept, 10 mg (code may be used for Medicare when drug administered under the direct supervision of a physician, not for use when drug is self administered)",HCPS +J0130,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection abciximab, 10 mg",HCPS +J0131,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, acetaminophen, not otherwise specified,10 mg",HCPS +J0132,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, acetylcysteine, 100 mg",HCPS +J0133,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, acyclovir, 5 mg",HCPS +J0134,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, acetaminophen (fresenius kabi) not therapeutically equivalent to j0131, 10 mg",HCPS +J0135,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, adalimumab, 20 mg",HCPS +J0136,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, acetaminophen (b braun) not therapeutically equivalent to j0131, 10 mg",HCPS +J0137,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, acetaminophen (hikma) not therapeutically equivalent to j0131, 10 mg",HCPS +J0153,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, adenosine, 1 mg (not to be used to report any adenosine phosphate compounds)",HCPS +J0171,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, Adrenalin, epinephrine, 0.1 mg",HCPS +J0172,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, aducanumab-avwa, 2 mg",HCPS +J0173,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, epinephrine (belcher) not therapeutically equivalent to j0171, 0.1 mg",HCPS +J0174,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, lecanemab-irmb, 1 mg",HCPS +J0178,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, aflibercept, 1 mg",HCPS +J0179,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, brolucizumab-dbll, 1 mg",HCPS +J0180,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, agalsidase beta, 1 mg",HCPS +J0184,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, amisulpride, 1 mg",HCPS +J0185,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, aprepitant, 1 mg",HCPS +J0190,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, biperiden lactate, per 5 mg",HCPS +J0200,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, alatrofloxacin mesylate, 100 mg",HCPS +J0202,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, alemtuzumab, 1 mg",HCPS +J0205,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, alglucerase, per 10 units",HCPS +J0206,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, allopurinol sodium, 1 mg",HCPS +J0207,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, amifostine, 500 mg",HCPS +J0208,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, sodium thiosulfate, 100 mg",HCPS +J0210,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, methyldopate HCl, up to 250 mg",HCPS +J0215,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, alefacept, 0.5 mg",HCPS +J0216,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, alfentanil hydrochloride, 500 micrograms",HCPS +J0217,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, velmanase alfa-tycv, 1 mg",HCPS +J0218,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, olipudase alfa-rpcp, 1 mg",HCPS +J0219,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, avalglucosidase alfa-ngpt, 4 mg",HCPS +J0220,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, alglucosidase alfa, 10 mg, not otherwise specified",HCPS +J0221,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, alglucosidase alfa, (Lumizyme), 10 mg",HCPS +J0222,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, Patisiran, 0.1 mg",HCPS +J0223,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, givosiran, 0.5 mg",HCPS +J0224,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, lumasiran, 0.5 mg",HCPS +J0225,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, vutrisiran, 1 mg",HCPS +J0248,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, remdesivir, 1 mg",HCPS +J0256,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, alpha 1 proteinase inhibitor (human), not otherwise specified, 10 mg",HCPS +J0257,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, alpha 1 proteinase inhibitor (human), (GLASSIA), 10 mg",HCPS +J0270,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, alprostadil, 1.25 mcg (code may be used for Medicare when drug administered under the direct supervision of a physician, not for use when drug is self administered)",HCPS +J0275,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Alprostadil urethral suppository (code may be used for Medicare when drug administered under the direct supervision of a physician, not for use when drug is self administered)",HCPS +J0278,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, amikacin sulfate, 100 mg",HCPS +J0280,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, aminophyllin, up to 250 mg",HCPS +J0282,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, amiodarone hydrochloride, 30 mg",HCPS +J0283,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, amiodarone hydrochloride (nexterone), 30 mg",HCPS +J0285,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, amphotericin B, 50 mg",HCPS +J0287,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, amphotericin B lipid complex, 10 mg",HCPS +J0288,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, amphotericin B cholesteryl sulfate complex, 10 mg",HCPS +J0289,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, amphotericin B liposome, 10 mg",HCPS +J0290,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, ampicillin sodium, 500 mg",HCPS +J0291,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, plazomicin, 5 mg",HCPS +J0295,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, ampicillin sodium/sulbactam sodium, per 1.5 gm",HCPS +J0300,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, amobarbital, up to 125 mg",HCPS +J0330,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, succinylcholine chloride, up to 20 mg",HCPS +J0348,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, anidulafungin, 1 mg",HCPS +J0349,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, rezafungin, 1 mg",HCPS +J0350,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, anistreplase, per 30 units",HCPS +J0360,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, hydralazine HCl, up to 20 mg",HCPS +J0364,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, apomorphine hydrochloride, 1 mg",HCPS +J0365,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, aprotinin, 10, 000 kiu",HCPS +J0380,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, metaraminol bitartrate, per 10 mg",HCPS +J0390,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, chloroquine hydrochloride, up to 250 mg",HCPS +J0391,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, artesunate, 1 mg",HCPS +J0395,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, arbutamine HCl, 1 mg",HCPS +J0400,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, aripiprazole, intramuscular, 0.25 mg",HCPS +J0401,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, aripiprazole, extended release, 1 mg",HCPS +J0402,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, aripiprazole (abilify asimtufii), 1 mg",HCPS +J0456,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, azithromycin, 500 mg",HCPS +J0457,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, aztreonam, 100 mg",HCPS +J0461,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, atropine sulfate, 0.01 mg",HCPS +J0470,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, dimercaprol, per 100 mg",HCPS +J0475,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, baclofen, 10 mg",HCPS +J0476,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, baclofen, 50 mcg for intrathecal trial",HCPS +J0480,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, basiliximab, 20 mg",HCPS +J0485,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, belatacept, 1 mg",HCPS +J0490,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, belimumab, 10 mg",HCPS +J0491,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, anifrolumab-fnia, 1 mg",HCPS +J0500,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, dicyclomine HCl, up to 20 mg",HCPS +J0515,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, benztropine mesylate, per 1 mg",HCPS +J0517,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, benralizumab, 1 mg",HCPS +J0520,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, bethanechol chloride, myotonachol or urecholine, up to 5 mg",HCPS +J0558,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, penicillin G benzathine and penicillin G procaine, 100, 000 units",HCPS +J0561,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, penicillin G benzathine, 100, 000 units",HCPS +J0565,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, bezlotoxumab, 10 mg",HCPS +J0567,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, cerliponase alfa, 1 mg",HCPS +J0570,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Buprenorphine implant, 74.2 mg",HCPS +J0571,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Buprenorphine, oral, 1 mg",HCPS +J0572,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Buprenorphine/naloxone, oral, less than or equal to 3 mg buprenorphine",HCPS +J0573,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Buprenorphine/naloxone, oral, greater than 3 mg, but less than or equal to 6 mg buprenorphine",HCPS +J0574,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Buprenorphine/naloxone, oral, greater than 6 mg, but less than or equal to 10 mg buprenorphine",HCPS +J0575,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Buprenorphine/naloxone, oral, greater than 10 mg buprenorphine",HCPS +J0576,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, buprenorphine extended-release (brixadi), 1 mg",HCPS +J0583,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, bivalirudin, 1 mg",HCPS +J0584,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, burosumab-twza 1 mg",HCPS +J0585,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, onabotulinumtoxinA, 1 unit",HCPS +J0586,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, abobotulinumtoxinA, 5 Units",HCPS +J0587,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, rimabotulinumtoxinB, 100 units",HCPS +J0588,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, incobotulinumtoxinA, 1 unit",HCPS +J0591,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, deoxycholic acid, 1 mg",HCPS +J0592,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, buprenorphine hydrochloride, 0.1 mg",HCPS +J0593,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, lanadelumab-flyo, 1 mg (code may be used for Medicare when drug administered under direct supervision of a physician, not for use when drug is self-administered)",HCPS +J0594,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, Busulfan, 1 mg",HCPS +J0595,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, butorphanol tartrate, 1 mg",HCPS +J0596,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, C1 esterase inhibitor (recombinant), ruconest, 10 units",HCPS +J0597,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, C-1 esterase inhibitor (human), Berinert, 10 units",HCPS +J0598,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, C-1 esterase inhibitor (human), Cinryze, 10 units",HCPS +J0599,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, c-1 esterase inhibitor (human), (haegarda), 10 units",HCPS +J0600,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, edetate calcium disodium, up to 1000 mg",HCPS +J0604,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Cinacalcet, oral, 1 mg, (for ESRD on dialysis)",HCPS +J0606,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, etelcalcetide, 0.1 mg",HCPS +J0612,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, calcium gluconate (fresenius kabi), per 10 mg",HCPS +J0613,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, calcium gluconate (wg critical care), per 10 mg",HCPS +J0620,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, calcium glycerophosphate and calcium lactate, per 10 ml",HCPS +J0630,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, calcitonin salmon, up to 400 units",HCPS +J0636,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, calcitriol, 0.1 mcg",HCPS +J0637,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, caspofungin acetate, 5 mg",HCPS +J0638,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, canakinumab, 1 mg",HCPS +J0640,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, leucovorin calcium, per 50 mg",HCPS +J0641,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, levoleucovorin, not otherwise specified, 0.5 mg",HCPS +J0642,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, levoleucovorin (khapzory), 0.5 mg",HCPS +J0665,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, bupivicaine, not otherwise specified, 0.5 mg",HCPS +J0670,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, mepivacaine hydrochloride, per 10 ml",HCPS +J0688,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, cefazolin sodium (hikma), not therapeutically equivalent to j0690, 500 mg",HCPS +J0689,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, cefazolin sodium (baxter), not therapeutically equivalent to j0690, 500 mg",HCPS +J0690,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, cefazolin sodium, 500 mg",HCPS +J0691,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, lefamulin, 1 mg",HCPS +J0692,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, cefepime hydrochloride, 500 mg",HCPS +J0694,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, cefoxitin sodium, 1 gm",HCPS +J0695,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, ceftolozane 50 mg and tazobactam 25 mg",HCPS +J0696,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, ceftriaxone sodium, per 250 mg",HCPS +J0697,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, sterile cefuroxime sodium, per 750 mg",HCPS +J0698,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, cefotaxime sodium, per gm",HCPS +J0699,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, cefiderocol, 10 mg",HCPS +J0701,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, cefepime hydrochloride (baxter), not therapeutically equivalent to maxipime, 500 mg",HCPS +J0702,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, betamethasone acetate 3 mg and betamethasone sodium phosphate 3 mg",HCPS +J0703,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, cefepime hydrochloride (b braun), not therapeutically equivalent to maxipime, 500 mg",HCPS +J0706,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, Caffeine Citrate, 5 mg",HCPS +J0710,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, cephapirin sodium, up to 1 gm",HCPS +J0712,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, ceftaroline fosamil, 10 mg",HCPS +J0713,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, ceftazidime, per 500 mg",HCPS +J0714,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, ceftazidime and avibactam, 0.5 g/0.125 g",HCPS +J0715,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, ceftizoxime sodium, per 500 mg",HCPS +J0716,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, centruroides immune f(ab)2, up to 120 milligrams",HCPS +J0717,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, certolizumab pegol, 1 mg (code may be used for Medicare when drug administered under the direct supervision of a physician, not for use when drug is self administered)",HCPS +J0720,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, chloramphenicol sodium succinate, up to 1 gm",HCPS +J0725,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, chorionic gonadotropin, per 1, 000 USP units",HCPS +J0735,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, clonidine hydrochloride, 1 mg",HCPS +J0736,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, clindamycin phosphate, 300 mg",HCPS +J0737,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, clindamycin phosphate (baxter), not therapeutically equivalent to j0736, 300 mg",HCPS +J0739,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, cabotegravir, 1mg, fda approved prescription, only for use as hiv pre-exposure prophylaxis (not for use as treatment for hiv)",HCPS +J0740,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, cidofovir, 375 mg",HCPS +J0741,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, cabotegravir and rilpivirine, 2mg/3mg",HCPS +J0742,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, imipenem 4 mg, cilastatin 4 mg and relebactam 2 mg",HCPS +J0743,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, cilastatin sodium; imipenem, per 250 mg",HCPS +J0744,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, ciprofloxacin for intravenous infusion, 200 mg",HCPS +J0745,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, codeine phosphate, per 30 mg",HCPS +J0770,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, colistimethate sodium, up to 150 mg",HCPS +J0775,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, collagenase, clostridium histolyticum, 0.01 mg",HCPS +J0780,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, prochlorperazine, up to 10 mg",HCPS +J0791,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, crizanlizumab-tmca, 5 mg",HCPS +J0795,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, corticorelin ovine triflutate, 1 microgram",HCPS +J0801,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, corticotropin (acthar gel), up to 40 units",HCPS +J0802,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, corticotropin (ani), up to 40 units",HCPS +J0834,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, cosyntropin, 0.25 mg",HCPS +J0840,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, crotalidae polyvalent immune FAB(Ovine), up to 1 gram",HCPS +J0841,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, crotalidae immune f(ab')2 (equine), 120 mg",HCPS +J0850,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, cytomegalovirus immune globulin intravenous (human), per vial",HCPS +J0873,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, daptomycin (xellia) not therapeutically equivalent to j0878, 1 mg",HCPS +J0874,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, daptomycin (baxter), not therapeutically equivalent to j0878, 1 mg",HCPS +J0875,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, dalbavancin, 5mg",HCPS +J0877,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, daptomycin (hospira), not therapeutically equivalent to j0878, 1 mg",HCPS +J0878,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, daptomycin, 1 mg",HCPS +J0879,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, difelikefalin, 0.1 microgram, (for esrd on dialysis)",HCPS +J0881,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, darbepoetin alfa, 1 microgram (non-ESRD use)",HCPS +J0882,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, darbepoetin alfa, 1 microgram (for ESRD on dialysis)",HCPS +J0883,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, argatroban, 1 mg (for non-ESRD use)",HCPS +J0884,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, argatroban, 1 mg (for ESRD on dialysis)",HCPS +J0885,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, epoetin alfa, (for non-ESRD use), 1000 units",HCPS +J0887,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, epoetin beta, 1 microgram, (for ESRD on dialysis)",HCPS +J0888,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, epoetin beta, 1 microgram, (for Non ESRD use)",HCPS +J0889,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Daprodustat, oral, 1 mg, (for esrd on dialysis)",HCPS +J0890,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, peginesatide, 0.1 mg (for ESRD on dialysis)",HCPS +J0891,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, argatroban (accord), not therapeutically equivalent to j0883, 1 mg (for non-esrd use)",HCPS +J0892,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, argatroban (accord), not therapeutically equivalent to j0884, 1 mg (for esrd on dialysis)",HCPS +J0893,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, decitabine (sun pharma) not therapeutically equivalent to j0894, 1 mg",HCPS +J0894,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, decitabine, 1 mg",HCPS +J0895,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, deferoxamine mesylate, 500 mg",HCPS +J0896,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, luspatercept-aamt, 0.25 mg",HCPS +J0897,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, denosumab, 1 mg",HCPS +J0898,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, argatroban (auromedics), not therapeutically equivalent to j0883, 1 mg (for non-esrd use)",HCPS +J0899,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, argatroban (auromedics), not therapeutically equivalent to j0884, 1 mg (for esrd on dialysis)",HCPS +J0945,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, brompheniramine maleate, per 10 mg",HCPS +J1000,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, depo-estradiol cypionate, up to 5 mg",HCPS +J1020,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, methylprednisolone acetate, 20 mg",HCPS +J1030,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, methylprednisolone acetate, 40 mg",HCPS +J1040,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, methylprednisolone acetate, 80 mg",HCPS +J1050,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, medroxyprogesterone acetate, 1 mg",HCPS +J1071,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, testosterone cypionate, 1 mg",HCPS +J1094,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, dexamethasone acetate, 1 mg",HCPS +J1095,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, dexamethasone 9 percent, intraocular, 1 microgram",HCPS +J1096,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Dexamethasone, lacrimal ophthalmic insert, 0.1 mg",HCPS +J1097,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","phenylephrine 10.16 mg/ml and ketorolac 2.88 mg/ml ophthalmic irrigation solution, 1 ml",HCPS +J1100,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, dexamethasone sodium phosphate, 1 mg",HCPS +J1105,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Dexmedetomidine, oral, 1 mcg",HCPS +J1110,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, dihydroergotamine mesylate, per 1 mg",HCPS +J1120,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, acetazolamide sodium, up to 500 mg",HCPS +J1130,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, diclofenac sodium, 0.5 mg",HCPS +J1160,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, digoxin, up to 0.5 mg",HCPS +J1162,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, digoxin immune FAB(Ovine), per vial",HCPS +J1165,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, phenytoin sodium, per 50 mg",HCPS +J1170,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, hydromorphone, up to 4 mg",HCPS +J1180,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, dyphylline, up to 500 mg",HCPS +J1190,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, dexrazoxane hydrochloride, per 250 mg",HCPS +J1200,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, diphenhydramine HCl, up to 50 mg",HCPS +J1201,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, cetirizine hydrochloride, 0.5 mg",HCPS +J1205,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, chlorothiazide sodium, per 500 mg",HCPS +J1212,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, DMSO, dimethyl sulfoxide, 50%, 50 ml",HCPS +J1230,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, methadone HCl, up to 10 mg",HCPS +J1240,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, dimenhydrinate, up to 50 mg",HCPS +J1245,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, dipyridamole, per 10 mg",HCPS +J1250,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, Dobutamine hydrochloride, per 250 mg",HCPS +J1260,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, dolasetron mesylate, 10 mg",HCPS +J1265,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, dopamine HCl, 40 mg",HCPS +J1267,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, doripenem, 10 mg",HCPS +J1270,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, doxercalciferol, 1 mcg",HCPS +J1290,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, ecallantide, 1 mg",HCPS +J1300,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, eculizumab, 10 mg",HCPS +J1301,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, edaravone, 1 mg",HCPS +J1302,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, sutimlimab-jome, 10 mg",HCPS +J1303,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, ravulizumab-cwvz, 10 mg",HCPS +J1304,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, tofersen, 1 mg",HCPS +J1305,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, evinacumab-dgnb, 5mg",HCPS +J1306,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, inclisiran, 1 mg",HCPS +J1320,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, amitriptyline HCl, up to 20 mg",HCPS +J1322,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, elosulfase alfa, 1 mg",HCPS +J1324,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, enfuvirtide, 1 mg",HCPS +J1325,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, epoprostenol, 0.5 mg",HCPS +J1327,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, eptifibatide, 5 mg",HCPS +J1330,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, ergonovine maleate, up to 0.2 mg",HCPS +J1335,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, ertapenem sodium, 500 mg",HCPS +J1364,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, erythromycin lactobionate, per 500 mg",HCPS +J1380,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, estradiol valerate, up to 10 mg",HCPS +J1410,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, estrogen conjugated, per 25 mg",HCPS +J1411,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, etranacogene dezaparvovec-drlb, per therapeutic dose",HCPS +J1412,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, valoctocogene roxaparvovec-rvox, per ml, containing nominal 2 x 10^13 vector genomes",HCPS +J1413,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, delandistrogene moxeparvovec-rokl, per therapeutic dose",HCPS +J1426,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, casimersen, 10 mg",HCPS +J1427,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, viltolarsen, 10 mg",HCPS +J1428,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, eteplirsen, 10 mg",HCPS +J1429,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, golodirsen, 10 mg",HCPS +J1430,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, ethanolamine oleate, 100 mg",HCPS +J1435,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, estrone, per 1 mg",HCPS +J1436,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, etidronate disodium, per 300 mg",HCPS +J1437,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, ferric derisomaltose, 10 mg",HCPS +J1438,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, etanercept, 25 mg (code may be used for Medicare when drug administered under the direct supervision of a physician, not for use when drug is self administered)",HCPS +J1439,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, ferric carboxymaltose, 1 mg",HCPS +J1440,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Fecal microbiota, live - jslm, 1 ml",HCPS +J1442,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, filgrastim (G-CSF), excludes biosimilars, 1 microgram",HCPS +J1443,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, ferric pyrophosphate citrate solution (triferic), 0.1 mg of iron",HCPS +J1444,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, ferric pyrophosphate citrate powder, 0.1 mg of iron",HCPS +J1445,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, ferric pyrophosphate citrate solution (triferic avnu), 0.1 mg of iron",HCPS +J1447,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, tbo-filgrastim, 1 microgram",HCPS +J1448,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, trilaciclib, 1mg",HCPS +J1449,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, eflapegrastim-xnst, 0.1 mg",HCPS +J1450,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection fluconazole, 200 mg",HCPS +J1451,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, fomepizole, 15 mg",HCPS +J1452,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, fomivirsen sodium, intraocular, 1.65 mg",HCPS +J1453,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, fosaprepitant, 1 mg",HCPS +J1454,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, fosnetupitant 235 mg and palonosetron 0.25 mg",HCPS +J1455,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, foscarnet sodium, per 1000 mg",HCPS +J1456,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, fosaprepitant (teva), not therapeutically equivalent to j1453, 1 mg",HCPS +J1457,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, gallium nitrate, 1 mg",HCPS +J1458,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, galsulfase, 1 mg",HCPS +J1459,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, immune globulin (Privigen), intravenous, non-lyophilized (e.g., liquid), 500 mg",HCPS +J1460,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, gamma globulin, intramuscular, 1 cc",HCPS +J1551,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, immune globulin (cutaquig), 100 mg",HCPS +J1554,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, immune globulin (asceniv), 500 mg",HCPS +J1555,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, immune globulin (cuvitru), 100 mg",HCPS +J1556,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, immune globulin (bivigam), 500 mg",HCPS +J1557,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, immune globulin, (Gammaplex), intravenous, non-lyophilized (e.g., liquid), 500 mg",HCPS +J1558,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, immune globulin (xembify), 100 mg",HCPS +J1559,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, immune globulin (Hizentra), 100 mg",HCPS +J1560,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, gamma globulin, intramuscular, over 10 cc",HCPS +J1561,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, immune globulin, (Gamunex-C/Gammaked), non-lyophilized (e.g., liquid), 500 mg",HCPS +J1562,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, immune globulin (Vivaglobin), 100 mg",HCPS +J1566,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, immune globulin, intravenous, lyophilized (e.g., powder), not otherwise specified, 500 mg",HCPS +J1568,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, immune globulin, (Octagam), intravenous, non-lyophilized (e.g., liquid), 500 mg",HCPS +J1569,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, immune globulin, (Gammagard liquid), non-lyophilized, (e.g., liquid), 500 mg",HCPS +J1570,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, ganciclovir sodium, 500 mg",HCPS +J1571,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, hepatitis B immune globulin (HepaGam B), intramuscular, 0.5 ml",HCPS +J1572,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, immune globulin, (Flebogamma/Flebogamma Dif), intravenous, non-lyophilized (e.g., liquid), 500 mg",HCPS +J1573,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, hepatitis B immune globulin (HepaGam B), intravenous, 0.5 ml",HCPS +J1574,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, ganciclovir sodium (exela) not therapeutically equivalent to j1570, 500 mg",HCPS +J1575,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, immune globulin/hyaluronidase, (HYQVIA), 100 mg immuneglobulin",HCPS +J1576,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, immune globulin (panzyga), intravenous, non-lyophilized (e.g., liquid), 500 mg",HCPS +J1580,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, garamycin, gentamicin, up to 80 mg",HCPS +J1595,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, glatiramer acetate, 20 mg",HCPS +J1596,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, glycopyrrolate, 0.1 mg",HCPS +J1599,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, immune globulin, intravenous, non-lyophilized (e.g., liquid), not otherwise specified, 500 mg",HCPS +J1600,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, gold sodium thiomalate, up to 50 mg",HCPS +J1602,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, golimumab, 1 mg, for intravenous use",HCPS +J1610,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, glucagon hydrochloride, per 1 mg",HCPS +J1611,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, glucagon hydrochloride (fresenius kabi), not therapeutically equivalent to j1610, per 1 mg",HCPS +J1620,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, gonadorelin hydrochloride, per 100 mcg",HCPS +J1626,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, granisetron hydrochloride, 100 mcg",HCPS +J1627,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, granisetron, extended-release, 0.1 mg",HCPS +J1628,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, guselkumab, 1 mg",HCPS +J1630,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, haloperidol, up to 5 mg",HCPS +J1631,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, haloperidol decanoate, per 50 mg",HCPS +J1632,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, brexanolone, 1 mg",HCPS +J1640,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, hemin, 1 mg",HCPS +J1642,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, heparin sodium, (heparin lock flush), per 10 units",HCPS +J1643,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, heparin sodium (pfizer), not therapeutically equivalent to j1644, per 1000 units",HCPS +J1644,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, heparin sodium, per 1000 units",HCPS +J1645,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, dalteparin sodium, per 2500 IU",HCPS +J1650,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, enoxaparin sodium, 10 mg",HCPS +J1652,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, fondaparinux sodium, 0.5 mg",HCPS +J1655,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, tinzaparin sodium, 1000 IU",HCPS +J1670,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, tetanus immune globulin, human, up to 250 units",HCPS +J1675,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, histrelin acetate, 10 micrograms",HCPS +J1700,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, hydrocortisone acetate, up to 25 mg",HCPS +J1710,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, hydrocortisone sodium phosphate, up to 50 mg",HCPS +J1720,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, hydrocortisone sodium succinate, up to 100 mg",HCPS +J1726,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, hydroxyprogesterone caproate, (makena), 10 mg",HCPS +J1729,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, hydroxyprogesterone caproate, not otherwise specified, 10 mg",HCPS +J1730,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, diazoxide, up to 300 mg",HCPS +J1738,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, meloxicam, 1 mg",HCPS +J1740,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, ibandronate sodium, 1 mg",HCPS +J1741,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, ibuprofen, 100 mg",HCPS +J1742,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, ibutilide fumarate, 1 mg",HCPS +J1743,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, idursulfase, 1 mg",HCPS +J1744,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, icatibant, 1 mg",HCPS +J1745,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, infliximab, excludes biosimilar, 10 mg",HCPS +J1746,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, ibalizumab-uiyk, 10 mg",HCPS +J1747,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, spesolimab-sbzo, 1 mg",HCPS +J1750,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, iron dextran, 50 mg",HCPS +J1756,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, iron sucrose, 1 mg",HCPS +J1786,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, imiglucerase, 10 units",HCPS +J1790,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, droperidol, up to 5 mg",HCPS +J1800,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, propranolol HCl, up to 1 mg",HCPS +J1805,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, esmolol hydrochloride, 10 mg",HCPS +J1806,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, esmolol hydrochloride (wg critical care) not therapeutically equivalent to j1805, 10 mg",HCPS +J1810,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, droperidol and fentanyl Citrate, up to 2 ml ampule",HCPS +J1811,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Insulin (fiasp) for administration through dme (i.e., insulin pump) per 50 units",HCPS +J1812,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Insulin (fiasp), per 5 units",HCPS +J1813,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Insulin (lyumjev) for administration through dme (i.e., insulin pump) per 50 units",HCPS +J1814,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Insulin (lyumjev), per 5 units",HCPS +J1815,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, insulin, per 5 units",HCPS +J1817,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Insulin for administration through DME (i.e., insulin pump) per 50 units",HCPS +J1823,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, inebilizumab-cdon, 1 mg",HCPS +J1826,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, interferon beta-1a, 30 mcg",HCPS +J1830,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection interferon beta-1b, 0.25 mg (code may be used for Medicare when drug administered under the direct supervision of a physician, not for use when drug is self administered)",HCPS +J1833,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, isavuconazonium, 1 mg",HCPS +J1835,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, itraconazole, 50 mg",HCPS +J1836,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, metronidazole, 10 mg",HCPS +J1840,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, kanamycin sulfate, up to 500 mg",HCPS +J1850,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, kanamycin sulfate, up to 75 mg",HCPS +J1885,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, ketorolac tromethamine, per 15 mg",HCPS +J1890,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, cephalothin sodium, up to 1 gram",HCPS +J1920,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, labetalol hydrochloride, 5 mg",HCPS +J1921,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, labetalol hydrochloride (hikma) not therapeutically equivalent to j1920, 5 mg",HCPS +J1930,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, lanreotide, 1 mg",HCPS +J1931,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, laronidase, 0.1 mg",HCPS +J1932,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, lanreotide, (cipla), 1 mg",HCPS +J1939,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, bumetanide, 0.5 mg",HCPS +J1940,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, furosemide, up to 20 mg",HCPS +J1941,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, furosemide (furoscix), 20 mg",HCPS +J1943,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, aripiprazole lauroxil, (aristada initio), 1 mg",HCPS +J1944,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, aripiprazole lauroxil, (aristada), 1 mg",HCPS +J1945,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, lepirudin, 50 mg",HCPS +J1950,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, leuprolide acetate (for depot suspension), per 3.75 mg",HCPS +J1951,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, leuprolide acetate for depot suspension (fensolvi), 0.25 mg",HCPS +J1952,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Leuprolide injectable, camcevi, 1 mg",HCPS +J1953,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, levetiracetam, 10 mg",HCPS +J1954,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, leuprolide acetate for depot suspension (cipla), 7.5 mg",HCPS +J1955,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, levocarnitine, per 1 gm",HCPS +J1956,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, levofloxacin, 250 mg",HCPS +J1960,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, levorphanol tartrate, up to 2 mg",HCPS +J1961,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, lenacapavir, 1 mg",HCPS +J1980,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, hyoscyamine sulfate, up to 0.25 mg",HCPS +J1990,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, chlordiazepoxide HCl, up to 100 mg",HCPS +J2001,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, lidocaine HCl for intravenous infusion, 10 mg",HCPS +J2010,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, lincomycin HCl, up to 300 mg",HCPS +J2020,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, linezolid, 200 mg",HCPS +J2021,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, linezolid (hospira) not therapeutically equivalent to j2020, 200 mg",HCPS +J2060,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, lorazepam, 2 mg",HCPS +J2062,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Loxapine for inhalation, 1 mg",HCPS +J2150,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, mannitol, 25% in 50 ml",HCPS +J2170,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, mecasermin, 1 mg",HCPS +J2175,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, meperidine hydrochloride, per 100 mg",HCPS +J2180,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, meperidine and promethazine HCl, up to 50 mg",HCPS +J2182,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, mepolizumab, 1 mg",HCPS +J2184,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, meropenem (b. braun) not therapeutically equivalent to j2185, 100 mg",HCPS +J2185,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, meropenem, 100 mg",HCPS +J2186,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, meropenem and vaborbactam, 10mg/10mg (20mg)",HCPS +J2210,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, methylergonovine maleate, up to 0.2 mg",HCPS +J2212,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, methylnaltrexone, 0.1 mg",HCPS +J2247,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, micafungin sodium (par pharm) not thereapeutically equivalent to j2248, 1 mg",HCPS +J2248,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, micafungin sodium, 1 mg",HCPS +J2249,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, remimazolam, 1 mg",HCPS +J2250,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, midazolam hydrochloride, per 1 mg",HCPS +J2251,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, midazolam hydrochloride (wg critical care) not therapeutically equivalent to j2250, per 1 mg",HCPS +J2260,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, milrinone lactate, 5 mg",HCPS +J2265,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, minocycline hydrochloride, 1 mg",HCPS +J2270,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, morphine sulfate, up to 10 mg",HCPS +J2272,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, morphine sulfate (fresenius kabi) not therapeutically equivalent to j2270, up to 10 mg",HCPS +J2274,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, morphine sulfate, preservative-free for epidural or intrathecal use, 10 mg",HCPS +J2278,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, ziconotide, 1 microgram",HCPS +J2280,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, moxifloxacin, 100 mg",HCPS +J2281,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, moxifloxacin (fresenius kabi) not therapeutically equivalent to j2280, 100 mg",HCPS +J2300,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, nalbuphine hydrochloride, per 10 mg",HCPS +J2305,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, nitroglycerin, 5 mg",HCPS +J2310,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, naloxone hydrochloride, per 1 mg",HCPS +J2311,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, naloxone hydrochloride (zimhi), 1 mg",HCPS +J2315,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, naltrexone, depot form, 1 mg",HCPS +J2320,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, nandrolone decanoate, up to 50 mg",HCPS +J2323,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, natalizumab, 1 mg",HCPS +J2325,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, nesiritide, 0.1 mg",HCPS +J2326,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, nusinersen, 0.1 mg",HCPS +J2327,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, risankizumab-rzaa, intravenous, 1 mg",HCPS +J2329,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, ublituximab-xiiy, 1mg",HCPS +J2350,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, ocrelizumab, 1 mg",HCPS +J2353,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, octreotide, depot form for intramuscular injection, 1 mg",HCPS +J2354,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, octreotide, non-depot form for subcutaneous or intravenous injection, 25 mcg",HCPS +J2355,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, oprelvekin, 5 mg",HCPS +J2356,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, tezepelumab-ekko, 1 mg",HCPS +J2357,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, omalizumab, 5 mg",HCPS +J2358,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, olanzapine, long-acting, 1 mg",HCPS +J2359,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, olanzapine, 0.5 mg",HCPS +J2360,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, orphenadrine citrate, up to 60 mg",HCPS +J2371,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, phenylephrine hydrochloride, 20 micrograms",HCPS +J2372,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, phenylephrine hydrochloride (biorphen), 20 micrograms",HCPS +J2401,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, chloroprocaine hydrochloride, per 1 mg",HCPS +J2402,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, chloroprocaine hydrochloride (clorotekal), per 1 mg",HCPS +J2403,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Chloroprocaine hcl ophthalmic, 3% gel, 1 mg",HCPS +J2404,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, nicardipine, 0.1 mg",HCPS +J2405,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, ondansetron hydrochloride, per 1 mg",HCPS +J2406,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, oritavancin (kimyrsa), 10 mg",HCPS +J2407,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, oritavancin (orbactiv), 10 mg",HCPS +J2410,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, oxymorphone HCl, up to 1 mg",HCPS +J2425,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, palifermin, 50 micrograms",HCPS +J2426,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, paliperidone palmitate extended release (invega sustenna), 1 mg",HCPS +J2427,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, paliperidone palmitate extended release (invega hafyera, or invega trinza), 1 mg",HCPS +J2430,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, pamidronate disodium, per 30 mg",HCPS +J2440,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, papaverine HCl, up to 60 mg",HCPS +J2460,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, oxytetracycline HCl, up to 50 mg",HCPS +J2469,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, palonosetron HCl, 25 mcg",HCPS +J2501,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, paricalcitol, 1 mcg",HCPS +J2502,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, pasireotide long acting, 1 mg",HCPS +J2503,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, pegaptanib sodium, 0.3 mg",HCPS +J2504,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, pegademase bovine, 25 IU",HCPS +J2506,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, pegfilgrastim, excludes biosimilar, 0.5 mg",HCPS +J2507,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, pegloticase, 1 mg",HCPS +J2508,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, pegunigalsidase alfa-iwxj, 1 mg",HCPS +J2510,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, penicillin G procaine, aqueous, up to 600, 000 units",HCPS +J2513,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, pentastarch, 10% solution, 100 ml",HCPS +J2515,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, pentobarbital sodium, per 50 mg",HCPS +J2540,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, penicillin G potassium, up to 600, 000 units",HCPS +J2543,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, piperacillin sodium/tazobactam sodium, 1 gram/0.125 grams (1.125 grams)",HCPS +J2545,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Pentamidine isethionate, inhalation solution, FDA-approved final product, non-compounded, administered through DME, unit dose form, per 300 mg",HCPS +J2547,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, peramivir, 1 mg",HCPS +J2550,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, promethazine HCl, up to 50 mg",HCPS +J2560,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, phenobarbital sodium, up to 120 mg",HCPS +J2561,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, phenobarbital sodium (sezaby), 1 mg",HCPS +J2562,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, plerixafor, 1 mg",HCPS +J2590,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, oxytocin, up to 10 units",HCPS +J2597,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, desmopressin acetate, per 1 mcg",HCPS +J2598,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, vasopressin, 1 unit",HCPS +J2599,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, vasopressin (american regent) not therapeutically equivalent to j2598, 1 unit",HCPS +J2650,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, prednisolone acetate, up to 1 ml",HCPS +J2670,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, tolazoline HCl, up to 25 mg",HCPS +J2675,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, progesterone, per 50 mg",HCPS +J2679,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, fluphenazine hcl, 1.25 mg",HCPS +J2680,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, fluphenazine decanoate, up to 25 mg",HCPS +J2690,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, procainamide HCl, up to 1 gm",HCPS +J2700,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, oxacillin sodium, up to 250 mg",HCPS +J2704,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, propofol, 10 mg",HCPS +J2710,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, neostigmine methylsulfate, up to 0.5 mg",HCPS +J2720,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, protamine sulfate, per 10 mg",HCPS +J2724,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, protein C concentrate, intravenous, human, 10 IU",HCPS +J2725,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, protirelin, per 250 mcg",HCPS +J2730,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, pralidoxime chloride, up to 1 gm",HCPS +J2760,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, phentolamine mesylate, up to 5 mg",HCPS +J2765,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, metoclopramide HCl, up to 10 mg",HCPS +J2770,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, quinupristin/dalfopristin, 500 mg (150/350)",HCPS +J2777,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, faricimab-svoa, 0.1 mg",HCPS +J2778,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, ranibizumab, 0.1 mg",HCPS +J2779,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, ranibizumab, via intravitreal implant (susvimo), 0.1 mg",HCPS +J2780,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, ranitidine hydrochloride, 25 mg",HCPS +J2781,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, pegcetacoplan, intravitreal, 1 mg",HCPS +J2783,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, rasburicase, 0.5 mg",HCPS +J2785,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, regadenoson, 0.1 mg",HCPS +J2786,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, reslizumab, 1 mg",HCPS +J2787,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Riboflavin 5’-phosphate, ophthalmic solution, up to 3 ml",HCPS +J2788,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, Rho D immune globulin, human, minidose, 50 micrograms (250 IU)",HCPS +J2790,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, Rho D immune globulin, human, full dose, 300 micrograms (1500 IU)",HCPS +J2791,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, Rho D immune globulin (human), (Rhophylac), intramuscular or intravenous, 100 IU",HCPS +J2792,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, Rho D immune globulin, intravenous, human, solvent detergent, 100 IU",HCPS +J2793,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, rilonacept, 1 mg",HCPS +J2794,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, risperidone (risperdal consta), 0.5 mg",HCPS +J2795,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, ropivacaine hydrochloride, 1 mg",HCPS +J2796,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, romiplostim, 10 micrograms",HCPS +J2797,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, rolapitant, 0.5 mg",HCPS +J2798,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, risperidone, (perseris), 0.5 mg",HCPS +J2799,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, risperidone (uzedy), 1 mg",HCPS +J2800,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, methocarbamol, up to 10 ml",HCPS +J2805,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, sincalide, 5 micrograms",HCPS +J2806,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, sincalide (maia) not therapeutically equivalent to j2805, 5 micrograms",HCPS +J2810,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, theophylline, per 40 mg",HCPS +J2820,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, sargramostim (GM-CSF), 50 mcg",HCPS +J2840,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, sebelipase alfa, 1 mg",HCPS +J2850,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, secretin, synthetic, human, 1 microgram",HCPS +J2860,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, siltuximab, 10 mg",HCPS +J2910,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, aurothioglucose, up to 50 mg",HCPS +J2916,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, sodium ferric gluconate complex in sucrose injection, 12.5 mg",HCPS +J2920,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, methylprednisolone sodium succinate, up to 40 mg",HCPS +J2930,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, methylprednisolone sodium succinate, up to 125 mg",HCPS +J2940,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, somatrem, 1 mg",HCPS +J2941,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, somatropin, 1 mg",HCPS +J2950,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, promazine HCl, up to 25 mg",HCPS +J2993,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, reteplase, 18.1 mg",HCPS +J2995,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, streptokinase, per 250, 000 IU",HCPS +J2997,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, alteplase recombinant, 1 mg",HCPS +J2998,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, plasminogen, human-tvmh, 1 mg",HCPS +J3000,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, streptomycin, up to 1 gm",HCPS +J3010,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, fentanyl Citrate, 0.1 mg",HCPS +J3030,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, sumatriptan succinate, 6 mg (code may be used for Medicare when drug administered under the direct supervision of a physician, not for use when drug is self administered)",HCPS +J3031,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, fremanezumab-vfrm, 1 mg (code may be used for Medicare when drug administered under the direct supervision of a physician, not for use when drug is self-administered)",HCPS +J3032,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, eptinezumab-jjmr, 1 mg",HCPS +J3060,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, taliglucerase alfa, 10 units",HCPS +J3070,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, pentazocine, 30 mg",HCPS +J3090,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, tedizolid phosphate, 1 mg",HCPS +J3095,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, telavancin, 10 mg",HCPS +J3101,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, tenecteplase, 1 mg",HCPS +J3105,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, terbutaline sulfate, up to 1 mg",HCPS +J3110,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, teriparatide, 10 mcg",HCPS +J3111,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, romosozumab-aqqg, 1 mg",HCPS +J3121,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, testosterone enanthate, 1 mg",HCPS +J3145,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, testosterone undecanoate, 1 mg",HCPS +J3230,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, chlorpromazine HCl, up to 50 mg",HCPS +J3240,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, thyrotropin alpha, 0.9 mg, provided in 1.1 mg vial",HCPS +J3241,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, teprotumumab-trbw, 10 mg",HCPS +J3243,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, tigecycline, 1 mg",HCPS +J3244,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, tigecycline (accord) not therapeutically equivalent to j3243, 1 mg",HCPS +J3245,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, tildrakizumab, 1 mg",HCPS +J3246,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, tirofiban HCl, 0.25mg",HCPS +J3250,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, trimethobenzamide HCl, up to 200 mg",HCPS +J3260,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, tobramycin sulfate, up to 80 mg",HCPS +J3262,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, tocilizumab, 1 mg",HCPS +J3265,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, torsemide, 10 mg/ml",HCPS +J3280,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, thiethylperazine maleate, up to 10 mg",HCPS +J3285,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, treprostinil, 1 mg",HCPS +J3299,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, triamcinolone acetonide (xipere), 1 mg",HCPS +J3300,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, triamcinolone acetonide, preservative free, 1 mg",HCPS +J3301,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, triamcinolone acetonide, not otherwise specified, 10 mg",HCPS +J3302,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, triamcinolone diacetate, per 5 mg",HCPS +J3303,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, triamcinolone hexacetonide, per 5 mg",HCPS +J3304,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, triamcinolone acetonide, preservative-free, extended-release, microsphere formulation, 1 mg",HCPS +J3305,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, trimetrexate glucuronate, per 25 mg",HCPS +J3310,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, perphenazine, up to 5 mg",HCPS +J3315,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, triptorelin pamoate, 3.75 mg",HCPS +J3316,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, triptorelin, extended-release, 3.75 mg",HCPS +J3320,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, spectinomycin dihydrochloride, up to 2 gm",HCPS +J3350,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, urea, up to 40 gm",HCPS +J3355,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, urofollitropin, 75 IU",HCPS +J3357,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Ustekinumab, for subcutaneous injection, 1 mg",HCPS +J3358,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Ustekinumab, for intravenous injection, 1 mg",HCPS +J3360,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, diazepam, up to 5 mg",HCPS +J3364,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, urokinase, 5000 IU vial",HCPS +J3365,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, IV, urokinase, 250, 000 IU vial",HCPS +J3370,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, vancomycin HCl, 500 mg",HCPS +J3371,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, vancomycin hcl (mylan) not therapeutically equivalent to j3370, 500 mg",HCPS +J3372,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, vancomycin hcl (xellia) not therapeutically equivalent to j3370, 500 mg",HCPS +J3380,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, vedolizumab, 1 mg",HCPS +J3385,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, velaglucerase alfa, 100 units",HCPS +J3396,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, verteporfin, 0.1 mg",HCPS +J3397,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, vestronidase alfa-vjbk, 1 mg",HCPS +J3398,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, voretigene neparvovec-rzyl, 1 billion vector genomes",HCPS +J3399,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, onasemnogene abeparvovec-xioi, per treatment, up to 5x10^15 vector genomes",HCPS +J3400,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, triflupromazine HCl, up to 20 mg",HCPS +J3401,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Beremagene geperpavec-svdt for topical administration, containing nominal 5 x 10^9 pfu/ml vector genomes, per 0.1 ml",HCPS +J3410,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, hydroxyzine HCl, up to 25 mg",HCPS +J3411,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, thiamine HCl, 100 mg",HCPS +J3415,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, pyridoxine HCl, 100 mg",HCPS +J3420,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, vitamin B-12 cyanocobalamin, up to 1000 mcg",HCPS +J3425,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, hydroxocobalamin, 10 mcg",HCPS +J3430,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, phytonadione (vitamin K), per 1 mg",HCPS +J3465,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, voriconazole, 10 mg",HCPS +J3470,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, hyaluronidase, up to 150 units",HCPS +J3471,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, hyaluronidase, ovine, preservative free, per 1 USP unit (up to 999 USP units)",HCPS +J3472,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, hyaluronidase, ovine, preservative free, per 1000 USP units",HCPS +J3473,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, hyaluronidase, recombinant, 1 USP unit",HCPS +J3475,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, magnesium sulfate, per 500 mg",HCPS +J3480,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, potassium chloride, per 2 mEq",HCPS +J3485,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, zidovudine, 10 mg",HCPS +J3486,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, ziprasidone mesylate, 10 mg",HCPS +J3489,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, zoledronic acid, 1 mg",HCPS +J3490,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .",Unclassified drugs,HCPS +J3520,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Edetate disodium, per 150 mg",HCPS +J3530,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .",Nasal vaccine inhalation,HCPS +J3535,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .",Drug administered through a metered dose inhaler,HCPS +J3570,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Laetrile, amygdalin, vitamin B17",HCPS +J3590,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .",Unclassified biologics,HCPS +J3591,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .",Unclassified drug or biological used for esrd on dialysis,HCPS +J7030,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Infusion, normal saline solution , 1000 cc",HCPS +J7040,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Infusion, normal saline solution, sterile (500 ml=1 unit)",HCPS +J7042,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .",5% dextrose/normal saline (500 ml = 1 unit),HCPS +J7050,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Infusion, normal saline solution , 250 cc",HCPS +J7060,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .",5% dextrose/water (500 ml = 1 unit),HCPS +J7070,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Infusion, D5W, 1000 cc",HCPS +J7100,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Infusion, dextran 40, 500 ml",HCPS +J7110,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Infusion, dextran 75, 500 ml",HCPS +J7120,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Ringers lactate infusion, up to 1000 cc",HCPS +J7121,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","5% dextrose in lactated ringers infusion, up to 1000 cc",HCPS +J7131,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Hypertonic saline solution, 1 ml",HCPS +J7168,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Prothrombin complex concentrate (human), kcentra, per i.u. of factor ix activity",HCPS +J7169,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, coagulation factor xa (recombinant), inactivated-zhzo (andexxa), 10 mg",HCPS +J7170,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, emicizumab-kxwh, 0.5 mg",HCPS +J7175,"Drugs, Administered by Injection .","Injection, factor x, (human), 1 i.u.",HCPS +J7177,Clotting Factors .,"Injection, human fibrinogen concentrate (fibryga), 1 mg",HCPS +J7178,Clotting Factors .,"Injection, human fibrinogen concentrate, not otherwise specified, 1 mg",HCPS +J7179,Clotting Factors .,"Injection, von willebrand factor (recombinant), (vonvendi), 1 i.u. vwf:rco",HCPS +J7180,Clotting Factors .,"Injection, factor XIII (antihemophilic factor, human), 1 IU",HCPS +J7181,Clotting Factors .,"Injection, factor XIII a-subunit, (recombinant), per IU",HCPS +J7182,Clotting Factors .,"Injection, factor VIII, (antihemophilic factor, recombinant), (Novoeight), per IU",HCPS +J7183,Clotting Factors .,"Injection, von Willebrand factor complex (human), wilate, 1 IU VWF:RCo",HCPS +J7185,Clotting Factors .,"Injection, factor VIII (antihemophilic factor, recombinant) (XYNTHA), per IU",HCPS +J7186,Clotting Factors .,"Injection, antihemophilic factor VIII/von Willebrand factor complex (human), per factor VIII IU",HCPS +J7187,Clotting Factors .,"Injection, von Willebrand factor complex (Humate-P), per IU VWF:RCo",HCPS +J7188,Clotting Factors .,"Injection, factor VIII (antihemophilic factor, recombinant), (OBIZUR), per i.u.",HCPS +J7189,Clotting Factors .,"Factor viia (antihemophilic factor, recombinant), (novoseven rt), 1 microgram",HCPS +J7190,Clotting Factors .,"Factor VIII (antihemophilic factor, human) per IU",HCPS +J7191,Clotting Factors .,"Factor VIII (antihemophilic factor (porcine)), per IU",HCPS +J7192,Clotting Factors .,"Factor VIII (antihemophilic factor, recombinant) per IU, not otherwise specified",HCPS +J7193,Clotting Factors .,"Factor IX (antihemophilic factor, purified, non-recombinant) per IU",HCPS +J7194,Clotting Factors .,"Factor IX, complex, per IU",HCPS +J7195,Clotting Factors .,"Injection, factor IX (antihemophilic factor, recombinant) per IU, not otherwise specified",HCPS +J7196,Clotting Factors .,"Injection, antithrombin recombinant, 50 IU",HCPS +J7197,Clotting Factors .,"Antithrombin III (human), per IU",HCPS +J7198,Clotting Factors .,"Anti-inhibitor, per IU",HCPS +J7199,Clotting Factors .,"Hemophilia clotting factor, not otherwise classified",HCPS +J7200,Clotting Factors .,"Injection, factor IX, (antihemophilic factor, recombinant), Rixubis, per IU",HCPS +J7201,Clotting Factors .,"Injection, factor ix, fc fusion protein, (recombinant), alprolix, 1 i.u.",HCPS +J7202,Clotting Factors .,"Injection, factor ix, albumin fusion protein, (recombinant), idelvion, 1 i.u.",HCPS +J7203,Clotting Factors .,"Injection factor ix, (antihemophilic factor, recombinant), glycopegylated, (rebinyn), 1 iu",HCPS +J7204,Clotting Factors .,"Injection, factor viii, antihemophilic factor (recombinant), (esperoct), glycopegylated-exei, per iu",HCPS +J7205,Clotting Factors .,"Injection, factor VIII Fc fusion protein (recombinant), per IU",HCPS +J7207,Clotting Factors .,"Injection, factor viii, (antihemophilic factor, recombinant), pegylated, 1 i.u.",HCPS +J7208,Clotting Factors .,"Injection, factor viii, (antihemophilic factor, recombinant), pegylated-aucl, (jivi), 1 i.u.",HCPS +J7209,Clotting Factors .,"Injection, factor viii, (antihemophilic factor, recombinant), (nuwiq), 1 i.u.",HCPS +J7210,Clotting Factors .,"Injection, factor VIII, (antihemophilic factor, recombinant), (afstyla), 1 I.U.",HCPS +J7211,Clotting Factors .,"Injection, factor VIII, (antihemophilic factor, recombinant), (kovaltry), 1 I.U.",HCPS +J7212,Clotting Factors .,"Factor viia (antihemophilic factor, recombinant)-jncw (sevenfact), 1 microgram",HCPS +J7213,Clotting Factors .,"Injection, coagulation factor ix (recombinant), ixinity, 1 i.u.",HCPS +J7214,Clotting Factors .,"Injection, factor viii/von willebrand factor complex, recombinant (altuviiio), per factor viii i.u.",HCPS +J7294,Contraceptive Systems.,"Segesterone acetate and ethinyl estradiol 0.15mg, 0.013mg per 24 hours; yearly vaginal system, each",HCPS +J7295,Contraceptive Systems.,"Ethinyl estradiol and etonogestrel 0.015mg, 0.12mg per 24 hours; monthly vaginal ring, each",HCPS +J7296,Contraceptive Systems.,"Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine contraceptive system, (kyleena), 19.5 mg",HCPS +J7297,Contraceptive Systems.,"Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine contraceptive system (liletta), 52 mg",HCPS +J7298,Contraceptive Systems.,"Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine contraceptive system (mirena), 52 mg",HCPS +J7300,Contraceptive Systems.,Intrauterine copper contraceptive,HCPS +J7301,Contraceptive Systems.,"Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine contraceptive system (skyla), 13.5 mg",HCPS +J7304,Contraceptive Systems.,"Contraceptive supply, hormone containing patch, each",HCPS +J7306,Contraceptive Systems.,"Levonorgestrel (contraceptive) implant system, including implants and supplies",HCPS +J7307,Contraceptive Systems.,"Etonogestrel (contraceptive) implant system, including implant and supplies",HCPS +J7308,Miscellaneous Drugs .,"Aminolevulinic acid HCl for topical administration, 20%, single unit dosage form (354 mg)",HCPS +J7309,Miscellaneous Drugs .,"Methyl aminolevulinate (MAL) for topical administration, 16.8%, 1 gram",HCPS +J7310,Miscellaneous Drugs .,"Ganciclovir, 4.5 mg, long-acting implant",HCPS +J7311,Miscellaneous Drugs .,"Injection, fluocinolone acetonide, intravitreal implant (retisert), 0.01 mg",HCPS +J7312,Miscellaneous Drugs .,"Injection, dexamethasone, intravitreal implant, 0.1 mg",HCPS +J7313,Miscellaneous Drugs .,"Injection, fluocinolone acetonide, intravitreal implant (Iluvien), 0.01 mg",HCPS +J7314,Miscellaneous Drugs .,"Injection, fluocinolone acetonide, intravitreal implant (Yutiq), 0.01 mg",HCPS +J7315,Miscellaneous Drugs .,"Mitomycin, ophthalmic, 0.2 mg",HCPS +J7316,Miscellaneous Drugs .,"Injection, ocriplasmin, 0.125 mg",HCPS +J7318,Miscellaneous Drugs .,"Hyaluronan or derivative, durolane, for intra-articular injection, 1 mg",HCPS +J7320,Miscellaneous Drugs .,"Hyaluronan or derivitive, genvisc 850, for intra-articular injection, 1 mg",HCPS +J7321,Miscellaneous Drugs .,"Hyaluronan or derivative, hyalgan, supartz or visco-3, for intra-articular injection, per dose",HCPS +J7322,Miscellaneous Drugs .,"Hyaluronan or derivative, hymovis, for intra-articular injection, 1 mg",HCPS +J7323,Miscellaneous Drugs .,"Hyaluronan or derivative, Euflexxa, for intra-articular injection, per dose",HCPS +J7324,Miscellaneous Drugs .,"Hyaluronan or derivative, Orthovisc, for intra-articular injection, per dose",HCPS +J7325,Miscellaneous Drugs .,"Hyaluronan or derivative, Synvisc or Synvisc-One, for intra-articular injection, 1 mg",HCPS +J7326,Miscellaneous Drugs .,"Hyaluronan or derivative, Gel-One, for intra-articular injection, per dose",HCPS +J7327,Miscellaneous Drugs .,"Hyaluronan or derivative, monovisc, for intra-articular injection, per dose",HCPS +J7328,Miscellaneous Drugs .,"Hyaluronan or derivative, Gel-Syn, for intra-articular injection, 0.1 mg",HCPS +J7329,Miscellaneous Drugs .,"Hyaluronan or derivative, trivisc, for intra-articular injection, 1 mg",HCPS +J7330,Miscellaneous Drugs .,"Autologous cultured chondrocytes, implant",HCPS +J7331,Miscellaneous Drugs .,"Hyaluronan or derivative, synojoynt, for intra-articular injection, 1 mg",HCPS +J7332,Miscellaneous Drugs .,"Hyaluronan or derivative, triluron, for intra-articular injection, 1 mg",HCPS +J7336,Miscellaneous Drugs .,"Capsaicin 8% patch, per square centimeter",HCPS +J7340,Miscellaneous Drugs .,"Carbidopa 5 mg/levodopa 20 mg enteral suspension, 100 ml",HCPS +J7342,Miscellaneous Drugs .,"Instillation, ciprofloxacin otic suspension, 6 mg",HCPS +J7345,Miscellaneous Drugs .,"Aminolevulinic acid hcl for topical administration, 10% gel, 10 mg",HCPS +J7351,Miscellaneous Drugs .,"Injection, bimatoprost, intracameral implant, 1 microgram",HCPS +J7352,Miscellaneous Drugs .,"Afamelanotide implant, 1 mg",HCPS +J7353,Miscellaneous Drugs .,"Anacaulase-bcdb, 8.8% gel, 1 gram",HCPS +J7402,Miscellaneous Drugs .,"Mometasone furoate sinus implant, (sinuva), 10 micrograms",HCPS +J7500,Immunosuppressive Drugs.,"Azathioprine, oral, 50 mg",HCPS +J7501,Immunosuppressive Drugs.,"Azathioprine, parenteral, 100 mg",HCPS +J7502,Immunosuppressive Drugs.,"Cyclosporine, oral, 100 mg",HCPS +J7503,Immunosuppressive Drugs.,"Tacrolimus, extended release, (Envarsus XR), oral, 0.25 mg",HCPS +J7504,Immunosuppressive Drugs.,"Lymphocyte immune globulin, antithymocyte globulin, equine, parenteral, 250 mg",HCPS +J7505,Immunosuppressive Drugs.,"Muromonab-CD3, parenteral, 5 mg",HCPS +J7507,Immunosuppressive Drugs.,"Tacrolimus, immediate release, oral, 1 mg",HCPS +J7508,Immunosuppressive Drugs.,"Tacrolimus, extended release, (Astagraf XL), oral, 0.1 mg",HCPS +J7509,Immunosuppressive Drugs.,"Methylprednisolone oral, per 4 mg",HCPS +J7510,Immunosuppressive Drugs.,"Prednisolone oral, per 5 mg",HCPS +J7511,Immunosuppressive Drugs.,"Lymphocyte immune globulin, antithymocyte globulin, rabbit, parenteral, 25 mg",HCPS +J7512,Immunosuppressive Drugs.,"Prednisone, immediate release or delayed release, oral, 1 mg",HCPS +J7513,Immunosuppressive Drugs.,"Daclizumab, parenteral, 25 mg",HCPS +J7515,Immunosuppressive Drugs.,"Cyclosporine, oral, 25 mg",HCPS +J7516,Immunosuppressive Drugs.,"Cyclosporin, parenteral, 250 mg",HCPS +J7517,Immunosuppressive Drugs.,"Mycophenolate mofetil, oral, 250 mg",HCPS +J7518,Immunosuppressive Drugs.,"Mycophenolic acid, oral, 180 mg",HCPS +J7519,Immunosuppressive Drugs.,"Injection, mycophenolate mofetil, 10 mg",HCPS +J7520,Immunosuppressive Drugs.,"Sirolimus, oral, 1 mg",HCPS +J7525,Immunosuppressive Drugs.,"Tacrolimus, parenteral, 5 mg",HCPS +J7527,Immunosuppressive Drugs.,"Everolimus, oral, 0.25 mg",HCPS +J7599,Immunosuppressive Drugs.,"Immunosuppressive drug, not otherwise classified",HCPS +J7604,Inhalation Solutions .,"Acetylcysteine, inhalation solution, compounded product, administered through DME, unit dose form, per gram",HCPS +J7605,Inhalation Solutions .,"Arformoterol, inhalation solution, FDA approved final product, non-compounded, administered through DME, unit dose form, 15 micrograms",HCPS +J7606,Inhalation Solutions .,"Formoterol fumarate, inhalation solution, FDA approved final product, non-compounded, administered through DME, unit dose form, 20 micrograms",HCPS +J7607,Inhalation Solutions .,"Levalbuterol, inhalation solution, compounded product, administered through DME, concentrated form, 0.5 mg",HCPS +J7608,Inhalation Solutions .,"Acetylcysteine, inhalation solution, FDA-approved final product, non-compounded, administered through DME, unit dose form, per gram",HCPS +J7609,Inhalation Solutions .,"Albuterol, inhalation solution, compounded product, administered through DME, unit dose, 1 mg",HCPS +J7610,Inhalation Solutions .,"Albuterol, inhalation solution, compounded product, administered through DME, concentrated form, 1 mg",HCPS +J7611,Inhalation Solutions .,"Albuterol, inhalation solution, FDA-approved final product, non-compounded, administered through DME, concentrated form, 1 mg",HCPS +J7612,Inhalation Solutions .,"Levalbuterol, inhalation solution, FDA-approved final product, non-compounded, administered through DME, concentrated form, 0.5 mg",HCPS +J7613,Inhalation Solutions .,"Albuterol, inhalation solution, FDA-approved final product, non-compounded, administered through DME, unit dose, 1 mg",HCPS +J7614,Inhalation Solutions .,"Levalbuterol, inhalation solution, FDA-approved final product, non-compounded, administered through DME, unit dose, 0.5 mg",HCPS +J7615,Inhalation Solutions .,"Levalbuterol, inhalation solution, compounded product, administered through DME, unit dose, 0.5 mg",HCPS +J7620,Inhalation Solutions .,"Albuterol, up to 2.5 mg and ipratropium bromide, up to 0.5 mg, FDA-approved final product, non-compounded, administered through DME",HCPS +J7622,Inhalation Solutions .,"Beclomethasone, inhalation solution, compounded product, administered through DME, unit dose form, per milligram",HCPS +J7624,Inhalation Solutions .,"Betamethasone, inhalation solution, compounded product, administered through DME, unit dose form, per milligram",HCPS +J7626,Inhalation Solutions .,"Budesonide, inhalation solution, FDA-approved final product, non-compounded, administered through DME, unit dose form, up to 0.5 mg",HCPS +J7627,Inhalation Solutions .,"Budesonide, inhalation solution, compounded product, administered through DME, unit dose form, up to 0.5 mg",HCPS +J7628,Inhalation Solutions .,"Bitolterol mesylate, inhalation solution, compounded product, administered through DME, concentrated form, per milligram",HCPS +J7629,Inhalation Solutions .,"Bitolterol mesylate, inhalation solution, compounded product, administered through DME, unit dose form, per milligram",HCPS +J7631,Inhalation Solutions .,"Cromolyn sodium, inhalation solution, FDA-approved final product, non-compounded, administered through DME, unit dose form, per 10 milligrams",HCPS +J7632,Inhalation Solutions .,"Cromolyn sodium, inhalation solution, compounded product, administered through DME, unit dose form, per 10 milligrams",HCPS +J7633,Inhalation Solutions .,"Budesonide, inhalation solution, FDA-approved final product, non-compounded, administered through DME, concentrated form, per 0.25 milligram",HCPS +J7634,Inhalation Solutions .,"Budesonide, inhalation solution, compounded product, administered through DME, concentrated form, per 0.25 milligram",HCPS +J7635,Inhalation Solutions .,"Atropine, inhalation solution, compounded product, administered through DME, concentrated form, per milligram",HCPS +J7636,Inhalation Solutions .,"Atropine, inhalation solution, compounded product, administered through DME, unit dose form, per milligram",HCPS +J7637,Inhalation Solutions .,"Dexamethasone, inhalation solution, compounded product, administered through DME, concentrated form, per milligram",HCPS +J7638,Inhalation Solutions .,"Dexamethasone, inhalation solution, compounded product, administered through DME, unit dose form, per milligram",HCPS +J7639,Inhalation Solutions .,"Dornase alfa, inhalation solution, FDA-approved final product, non-compounded, administered through DME, unit dose form, per milligram",HCPS +J7640,Inhalation Solutions .,"Formoterol, inhalation solution, compounded product, administered through DME, unit dose form, 12 micrograms",HCPS +J7641,Inhalation Solutions .,"Flunisolide, inhalation solution, compounded product, administered through DME, unit dose, per milligram",HCPS +J7642,Inhalation Solutions .,"Glycopyrrolate, inhalation solution, compounded product, administered through DME, concentrated form, per milligram",HCPS +J7643,Inhalation Solutions .,"Glycopyrrolate, inhalation solution, compounded product, administered through DME, unit dose form, per milligram",HCPS +J7644,Inhalation Solutions .,"Ipratropium bromide, inhalation solution, FDA-approved final product, non-compounded, administered through DME, unit dose form, per milligram",HCPS +J7645,Inhalation Solutions .,"Ipratropium bromide, inhalation solution, compounded product, administered through DME, unit dose form, per milligram",HCPS +J7647,Inhalation Solutions .,"Isoetharine HCl, inhalation solution, compounded product, administered through DME, concentrated form, per milligram",HCPS +J7648,Inhalation Solutions .,"Isoetharine HCl, inhalation solution, FDA-approved final product, non-compounded, administered through DME, concentrated form, per milligram",HCPS +J7649,Inhalation Solutions .,"Isoetharine HCl, inhalation solution, FDA-approved final product, non-compounded, administered through DME, unit dose form, per milligram",HCPS +J7650,Inhalation Solutions .,"Isoetharine HCl, inhalation solution, compounded product, administered through DME, unit dose form, per milligram",HCPS +J7657,Inhalation Solutions .,"Isoproterenol HCl, inhalation solution, compounded product, administered through DME, concentrated form, per milligram",HCPS +J7658,Inhalation Solutions .,"Isoproterenol HCl, inhalation solution, FDA-approved final product, non-compounded, administered through DME, concentrated form, per milligram",HCPS +J7659,Inhalation Solutions .,"Isoproterenol HCl, inhalation solution, FDA-approved final product, non-compounded, administered through DME, unit dose form, per milligram",HCPS +J7660,Inhalation Solutions .,"Isoproterenol HCl, inhalation solution, compounded product, administered through DME, unit dose form, per milligram",HCPS +J7665,Inhalation Solutions .,"Mannitol, administered through an inhaler, 5 mg",HCPS +J7667,Inhalation Solutions .,"Metaproterenol sulfate, inhalation solution, compounded product, concentrated form, per 10 milligrams",HCPS +J7668,Inhalation Solutions .,"Metaproterenol sulfate, inhalation solution, FDA-approved final product, non-compounded, administered through DME, concentrated form, per 10 milligrams",HCPS +J7669,Inhalation Solutions .,"Metaproterenol sulfate, inhalation solution, FDA-approved final product, non-compounded, administered through DME, unit dose form, per 10 milligrams",HCPS +J7670,Inhalation Solutions .,"Metaproterenol sulfate, inhalation solution, compounded product, administered through DME, unit dose form, per 10 milligrams",HCPS +J7674,Inhalation Solutions .,"Methacholine chloride administered as inhalation solution through a nebulizer, per 1 mg",HCPS +J7676,Inhalation Solutions .,"Pentamidine isethionate, inhalation solution, compounded product, administered through DME, unit dose form, per 300 mg",HCPS +J7677,Inhalation Solutions .,"Revefenacin inhalation solution, fda-approved final product, non-compounded, administered through DME, 1 microgram",HCPS +J7680,Inhalation Solutions .,"Terbutaline sulfate, inhalation solution, compounded product, administered through DME, concentrated form, per milligram",HCPS +J7681,Inhalation Solutions .,"Terbutaline sulfate, inhalation solution, compounded product, administered through DME, unit dose form, per milligram",HCPS +J7682,Inhalation Solutions .,"Tobramycin, inhalation solution, FDA-approved final product, non-compounded, unit dose form, administered through DME, per 300 milligrams",HCPS +J7683,Inhalation Solutions .,"Triamcinolone, inhalation solution, compounded product, administered through DME, concentrated form, per milligram",HCPS +J7684,Inhalation Solutions .,"Triamcinolone, inhalation solution, compounded product, administered through DME, unit dose form, per milligram",HCPS +J7685,Inhalation Solutions .,"Tobramycin, inhalation solution, compounded product, administered through DME, unit dose form, per 300 milligrams",HCPS +J7686,Inhalation Solutions .,"Treprostinil, inhalation solution, FDA-approved final product, non-compounded, administered through DME, unit dose form, 1.74 mg",HCPS +J7699,"Drugs, Not Otherwise Classified .","Noc drugs, inhalation solution administered through DME",HCPS +J7799,"Drugs, Not Otherwise Classified .","Noc drugs, other than inhalation drugs, administered through DME",HCPS +J7999,"Drugs, Not Otherwise Classified .","Compounded drug, not otherwise classified",HCPS +J8498,"Drugs, Not Otherwise Classified .","Antiemetic drug, rectal/suppository, not otherwise specified",HCPS +J8499,"Drugs, Not Otherwise Classified .","Prescription drug, oral, non chemotherapeutic, NOS",HCPS +J8501,"Chemotherapy Drugs, Oral Administration .","Aprepitant, oral, 5 mg",HCPS +J8510,"Chemotherapy Drugs, Oral Administration .","Busulfan; oral, 2 mg",HCPS +J8515,"Chemotherapy Drugs, Oral Administration .","Cabergoline, oral, 0.25 mg",HCPS +J8520,"Chemotherapy Drugs, Oral Administration .","Capecitabine, oral, 150 mg",HCPS +J8521,"Chemotherapy Drugs, Oral Administration .","Capecitabine, oral, 500 mg",HCPS +J8530,"Chemotherapy Drugs, Oral Administration .","Cyclophosphamide; oral, 25 mg",HCPS +J8540,"Chemotherapy Drugs, Oral Administration .","Dexamethasone, oral, 0.25 mg",HCPS +J8560,"Chemotherapy Drugs, Oral Administration .","Etoposide; oral, 50 mg",HCPS +J8562,"Chemotherapy Drugs, Oral Administration .","Fludarabine phosphate, oral, 10 mg",HCPS +J8565,"Chemotherapy Drugs, Oral Administration .","Gefitinib, oral, 250 mg",HCPS +J8597,"Chemotherapy Drugs, Oral Administration .","Antiemetic drug, oral, not otherwise specified",HCPS +J8600,"Chemotherapy Drugs, Oral Administration .","Melphalan; oral, 2 mg",HCPS +J8610,"Chemotherapy Drugs, Oral Administration .","Methotrexate; oral, 2.5 mg",HCPS +J8650,"Chemotherapy Drugs, Oral Administration .","Nabilone, oral, 1 mg",HCPS +J8655,"Chemotherapy Drugs, Oral Administration .","Netupitant 300 mg and palonosetron 0.5 mg, oral",HCPS +J8670,"Chemotherapy Drugs, Oral Administration .","Rolapitant, oral, 1 mg",HCPS +J8700,"Chemotherapy Drugs, Oral Administration .","Temozolomide, oral, 5 mg",HCPS +J8705,"Chemotherapy Drugs, Oral Administration .","Topotecan, oral, 0.25 mg",HCPS +J8999,"Chemotherapy Drugs, Oral Administration .","Prescription drug, oral, chemotherapeutic, NOS",HCPS +J9000,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, doxorubicin hydrochloride, 10 mg",HCPS +J9015,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, aldesleukin, per single use vial",HCPS +J9017,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, arsenic trioxide, 1 mg",HCPS +J9019,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, asparaginase (Erwinaze), 1, 000 IU",HCPS +J9020,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, asparaginase, not otherwise specified, 10, 000 units",HCPS +J9021,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, asparaginase, recombinant, (rylaze), 0.1 mg",HCPS +J9022,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, atezolizumab, 10 mg",HCPS +J9023,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, avelumab, 10 mg",HCPS +J9025,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, azacitidine, 1 mg",HCPS +J9027,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, clofarabine, 1 mg",HCPS +J9029,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, nadofaragene firadenovec-vncg, per therapeutic dose",HCPS +J9030,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"BCG live intravesical instillation, 1 mg",HCPS +J9032,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, belinostat, 10 mg",HCPS +J9033,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, bendamustine HCL (treanda), 1 mg",HCPS +J9034,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, bendamustine HCL (bendeka), 1 mg",HCPS +J9035,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, bevacizumab, 10 mg",HCPS +J9036,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, bendamustine hydrochloride, (Belrapzo), 1 mg",HCPS +J9037,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, belantamab mafodontin-blmf, 0.5 mg",HCPS +J9039,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, blinatumomab, 1 microgram",HCPS +J9040,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, bleomycin sulfate, 15 units",HCPS +J9041,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, bortezomib, 0.1 mg",HCPS +J9042,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, brentuximab vedotin, 1 mg",HCPS +J9043,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, cabazitaxel, 1 mg",HCPS +J9045,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, carboplatin, 50 mg",HCPS +J9046,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, bortezomib, (dr. reddy's), not therapeutically equivalent to j9041, 0.1 mg",HCPS +J9047,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, carfilzomib, 1 mg",HCPS +J9048,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, bortezomib (fresenius kabi), not therapeutically equivalent to j9041, 0.1 mg",HCPS +J9049,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, bortezomib (hospira), not therapeutically equivalent to j9041, 0.1 mg",HCPS +J9050,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, carmustine, 100 mg",HCPS +J9051,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, bortezomib (maia), not therapeutically equivalent to j9041, 0.1 mg",HCPS +J9052,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, carmustine (accord), not therapeutically equivalent to j9050, 100 mg",HCPS +J9055,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, cetuximab, 10 mg",HCPS +J9056,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, bendamustine hydrochloride (vivimusta), 1 mg",HCPS +J9057,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, copanlisib, 1 mg",HCPS +J9058,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, bendamustine hydrochloride (apotex), 1 mg",HCPS +J9059,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, bendamustine hydrochloride (baxter), 1 mg",HCPS +J9060,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, cisplatin, powder or solution, 10 mg",HCPS +J9061,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, amivantamab-vmjw, 2 mg",HCPS +J9063,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, mirvetuximab soravtansine-gynx, 1 mg",HCPS +J9064,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, cabazitaxel (sandoz), not therapeutically equivalent to j9043, 1 mg",HCPS +J9065,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, cladribine, per 1 mg",HCPS +J9070,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Cyclophosphamide, 100 mg",HCPS +J9071,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, cyclophosphamide, (auromedics), 5 mg",HCPS +J9072,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, cyclophosphamide, (dr. reddy's), 5 mg",HCPS +J9098,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, cytarabine liposome, 10 mg",HCPS +J9100,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, cytarabine, 100 mg",HCPS +J9118,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, calaspargase pegol-mknl, 10 units",HCPS +J9119,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, cemiplimab-rwlc, 1 mg",HCPS +J9120,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, dactinomycin, 0.5 mg",HCPS +J9130,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Dacarbazine, 100 mg",HCPS +J9144,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, daratumumab, 10 mg and hyaluronidase-fihj",HCPS +J9145,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, daratumumab, 10 mg",HCPS +J9150,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, daunorubicin, 10 mg",HCPS +J9151,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, daunorubicin Citrate, liposomal formulation, 10 mg",HCPS +J9153,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, liposomal, 1 mg daunorubicin and 2.27 mg cytarabine",HCPS +J9155,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, degarelix, 1 mg",HCPS +J9165,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, diethylstilbestrol diphosphate, 250 mg",HCPS +J9171,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, docetaxel, 1 mg",HCPS +J9172,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, docetaxel (ingenus) not therapeutically equivalent to j9171, 1 mg",HCPS +J9173,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, durvalumab, 10 mg",HCPS +J9175,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, Elliotts' B solution, 1 ml",HCPS +J9176,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, elotuzumab, 1 mg",HCPS +J9177,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, enfortumab vedotin-ejfv, 0.25 mg",HCPS +J9178,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, epirubicin HCl, 2 mg",HCPS +J9179,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, eribulin mesylate, 0.1 mg",HCPS +J9181,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, etoposide, 10 mg",HCPS +J9185,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, fludarabine phosphate, 50 mg",HCPS +J9190,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, fluorouracil, 500 mg",HCPS +J9196,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, gemcitabine hydrochloride (accord), not therapeutically equivalent to j9201, 200 mg",HCPS +J9198,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, gemcitabine hydrochloride, (infugem), 100 mg",HCPS +J9200,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, floxuridine, 500 mg",HCPS +J9201,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, gemcitabine hydrochloride, not otherwise specified, 200 mg",HCPS +J9202,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Goserelin acetate implant, per 3.6 mg",HCPS +J9203,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, gemtuzumab ozogamicin, 0.1 mg",HCPS +J9204,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, mogamulizumab-kpkc, 1 mg",HCPS +J9205,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, irinotecan liposome, 1 mg",HCPS +J9206,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, irinotecan, 20 mg",HCPS +J9207,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, ixabepilone, 1 mg",HCPS +J9208,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, ifosfamide, 1 gram",HCPS +J9209,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, mesna, 200 mg",HCPS +J9210,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, emapalumab-lzsg, 1 mg",HCPS +J9211,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, idarubicin hydrochloride, 5 mg",HCPS +J9212,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, interferon alfacon-1, recombinant, 1 microgram",HCPS +J9213,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, interferon, alfa-2a, recombinant, 3 million units",HCPS +J9214,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, interferon, alfa-2b, recombinant, 1 million units",HCPS +J9215,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, interferon, alfa-N3, (human leukocyte derived), 250, 000 IU",HCPS +J9216,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, interferon, gamma 1-b, 3 million units",HCPS +J9217,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Leuprolide acetate (for depot suspension), 7.5 mg",HCPS +J9218,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Leuprolide acetate, per 1 mg",HCPS +J9219,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Leuprolide acetate implant, 65 mg",HCPS +J9223,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, lurbinectedin, 0.1 mg",HCPS +J9225,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Histrelin implant (Vantas), 50 mg",HCPS +J9226,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Histrelin implant (Supprelin LA), 50 mg",HCPS +J9227,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, isatuximab-irfc, 10 mg",HCPS +J9228,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, ipilimumab, 1 mg",HCPS +J9229,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, inotuzumab ozogamicin, 0.1 mg",HCPS +J9230,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, mechlorethamine hydrochloride, (nitrogen mustard), 10 mg",HCPS +J9245,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, melphalan hydrochloride, not otherwise specified, 50 mg",HCPS +J9246,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, melphalan (evomela), 1 mg",HCPS +J9247,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, melphalan flufenamide, 1mg",HCPS +J9250,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Methotrexate sodium, 5 mg",HCPS +J9255,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, methotrexate (accord) not therapeutically equivalent to j9250 and j9260, 50 mg",HCPS +J9258,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, paclitaxel protein-bound particles (teva) not therapeutically equivalent to j9264, 1 mg",HCPS +J9259,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, paclitaxel protein-bound particles (american regent) not therapeutically equivalent to j9264, 1 mg",HCPS +J9260,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Methotrexate sodium, 50 mg",HCPS +J9261,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, nelarabine, 50 mg",HCPS +J9262,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, omacetaxine mepesuccinate, 0.01 mg",HCPS +J9263,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, oxaliplatin, 0.5 mg",HCPS +J9264,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, paclitaxel protein-bound particles, 1 mg",HCPS +J9266,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, pegaspargase, per single dose vial",HCPS +J9267,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, paclitaxel, 1 mg",HCPS +J9268,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, pentostatin, 10 mg",HCPS +J9269,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, tagraxofusp-erzs, 10 micrograms",HCPS +J9270,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, plicamycin, 2.5 mg",HCPS +J9271,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, pembrolizumab, 1 mg",HCPS +J9272,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, dostarlimab-gxly, 10 mg",HCPS +J9273,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, tisotumab vedotin-tftv, 1 mg",HCPS +J9274,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, tebentafusp-tebn, 1 microgram",HCPS +J9280,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, mitomycin, 5 mg",HCPS +J9281,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Mitomycin pyelocalyceal instillation, 1 mg",HCPS +J9285,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, olaratumab, 10 mg",HCPS +J9286,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, glofitamab-gxbm, 2.5 mg",HCPS +J9293,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, mitoxantrone hydrochloride, per 5 mg",HCPS +J9294,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, pemetrexed (hospira) not therapeutically equivalent to j9305, 10 mg",HCPS +J9295,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, necitumumab, 1 mg",HCPS +J9296,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, pemetrexed (accord) not therapeutically equivalent to j9305, 10 mg",HCPS +J9297,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, pemetrexed (sandoz), not therapeutically equivalent to j9305, 10 mg",HCPS +J9298,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, nivolumab and relatlimab-rmbw, 3 mg/1 mg",HCPS +J9299,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, nivolumab, 1 mg",HCPS +J9301,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, obinutuzumab, 10 mg",HCPS +J9302,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, ofatumumab, 10 mg",HCPS +J9303,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, panitumumab, 10 mg",HCPS +J9304,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, pemetrexed (pemfexy), 10 mg",HCPS +J9305,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, pemetrexed, not otherwise specified, 10 mg",HCPS +J9306,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, pertuzumab, 1 mg",HCPS +J9307,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, pralatrexate, 1 mg",HCPS +J9308,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, ramucirumab, 5 mg",HCPS +J9309,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, polatuzumab vedotin-piiq, 1 mg",HCPS +J9311,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, rituximab 10 mg and hyaluronidase",HCPS +J9312,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, rituximab, 10 mg",HCPS +J9313,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, moxetumomab pasudotox-tdfk, 0.01 mg",HCPS +J9314,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, pemetrexed (teva) not therapeutically equivalent to J9305, 10 mg",HCPS +J9316,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, pertuzumab, trastuzumab, and hyaluronidase-zzxf, per 10 mg",HCPS +J9317,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, sacituzumab govitecan-hziy, 2.5 mg",HCPS +J9318,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, romidepsin, non-lyophilized, 0.1 mg",HCPS +J9319,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, romidepsin, lyophilized, 0.1 mg",HCPS +J9320,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, streptozocin, 1 gram",HCPS +J9321,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, epcoritamab-bysp, 0.16 mg",HCPS +J9322,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, pemetrexed (bluepoint) not therapeutically equivalent to j9305, 10 mg",HCPS +J9323,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, pemetrexed ditromethamine, 10 mg",HCPS +J9324,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, pemetrexed (pemrydi rtu), 10 mg",HCPS +J9325,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, talimogene laherparepvec, per 1 million plaque forming units",HCPS +J9328,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, temozolomide, 1 mg",HCPS +J9330,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, temsirolimus, 1 mg",HCPS +J9331,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, sirolimus protein-bound particles, 1 mg",HCPS +J9332,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, efgartigimod alfa-fcab, 2mg",HCPS +J9333,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, rozanolixizumab-noli, 1 mg",HCPS +J9334,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, efgartigimod alfa, 2 mg and hyaluronidase-qvfc",HCPS +J9340,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, thiotepa, 15 mg",HCPS +J9345,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, retifanlimab-dlwr, 1 mg",HCPS +J9347,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, tremelimumab-actl, 1 mg",HCPS +J9348,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, naxitamab-gqgk, 1 mg",HCPS +J9349,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, tafasitamab-cxix, 2 mg",HCPS +J9350,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, mosunetuzumab-axgb, 1 mg",HCPS +J9351,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, topotecan, 0.1 mg",HCPS +J9352,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, trabectedin, 0.1 mg",HCPS +J9353,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, margetuximab-cmkb, 5 mg",HCPS +J9354,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, ado-trastuzumab emtansine, 1 mg",HCPS +J9355,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, trastuzumab, excludes biosimilar, 10 mg",HCPS +J9356,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, trastuzumab, 10 mg and Hyaluronidase-oysk",HCPS +J9357,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, valrubicin, intravesical, 200 mg",HCPS +J9358,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, fam-trastuzumab deruxtecan-nxki, 1 mg",HCPS +J9359,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, loncastuximab tesirine-lpyl, 0.075 mg",HCPS +J9360,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, vinblastine sulfate, 1 mg",HCPS +J9370,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Vincristine sulfate, 1 mg",HCPS +J9371,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, vincristine sulfate liposome, 1 mg",HCPS +J9380,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, teclistamab-cqyv, 0.5 mg",HCPS +J9381,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, teplizumab-mzwv, 5 mcg",HCPS +J9390,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, vinorelbine tartrate, 10 mg",HCPS +J9393,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, fulvestrant (teva) not therapeutically equivalent to j9395, 25 mg",HCPS +J9394,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, fulvestrant (fresenius kabi) not therapeutically equivalent to j9395, 25 mg",HCPS +J9395,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, fulvestrant, 25 mg",HCPS +J9400,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, ziv-aflibercept, 1 mg",HCPS +J9600,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Injection, porfimer sodium, 75 mg",HCPS +J9999,Chemotherapy Drugs.,"Not otherwise classified, antineoplastic drugs",HCPS +K0001,"Wheelchairs, Components, and Accessories .",Standard wheelchair,HCPS +K0002,"Wheelchairs, Components, and Accessories .",Standard hemi (low seat) wheelchair,HCPS +K0003,"Wheelchairs, Components, and Accessories .",Lightweight wheelchair,HCPS +K0004,"Wheelchairs, Components, and Accessories .","High strength, lightweight wheelchair",HCPS +K0005,"Wheelchairs, Components, and Accessories .",Ultralightweight wheelchair,HCPS +K0006,"Wheelchairs, Components, and Accessories .",Heavy duty wheelchair,HCPS +K0007,"Wheelchairs, Components, and Accessories .",Extra heavy duty wheelchair,HCPS +K0008,"Wheelchairs, Components, and Accessories .",Custom manual wheelchair/base,HCPS +K0009,"Wheelchairs, Components, and Accessories .",Other manual wheelchair/base,HCPS +K0010,"Wheelchairs, Components, and Accessories .",Standard - weight frame motorized/power wheelchair,HCPS +K0011,"Wheelchairs, Components, and Accessories .","Standard - weight frame motorized/power wheelchair with programmable control parameters for speed adjustment, tremor dampening, acceleration control and braking",HCPS +K0012,"Wheelchairs, Components, and Accessories .",Lightweight portable motorized/power wheelchair,HCPS +K0013,"Wheelchairs, Components, and Accessories .",Custom motorized/power wheelchair base,HCPS +K0014,"Wheelchairs, Components, and Accessories .",Other motorized/power wheelchair base,HCPS +K0015,"Wheelchairs, Components, and Accessories .","Detachable, non-adjustable height armrest, each",HCPS +K0017,"Wheelchairs, Components, and Accessories .","Detachable, adjustable height armrest, base, replacement only, each",HCPS +K0018,"Wheelchairs, Components, and Accessories .","Detachable, adjustable height armrest, upper portion, replacement only, each",HCPS +K0019,"Wheelchairs, Components, and Accessories .","Arm pad, replacement only, each",HCPS +K0020,"Wheelchairs, Components, and Accessories .","Fixed, adjustable height armrest, pair",HCPS +K0037,"Wheelchairs, Components, and Accessories .","High mount flip-up footrest, each",HCPS +K0038,"Wheelchairs, Components, and Accessories .","Leg strap, each",HCPS +K0039,"Wheelchairs, Components, and Accessories .","Leg strap, H style, each",HCPS +K0040,"Wheelchairs, Components, and Accessories .","Adjustable angle footplate, each",HCPS +K0041,"Wheelchairs, Components, and Accessories .","Large size footplate, each",HCPS +K0042,"Wheelchairs, Components, and Accessories .","Standard size footplate, replacement only, each",HCPS +K0043,"Wheelchairs, Components, and Accessories .","Footrest, lower extension tube, replacement only, each",HCPS +K0044,"Wheelchairs, Components, and Accessories .","Footrest, upper hanger bracket, replacement only, each",HCPS +K0045,"Wheelchairs, Components, and Accessories .","Footrest, complete assembly, replacement only, each",HCPS +K0046,"Wheelchairs, Components, and Accessories .","Elevating legrest, lower extension tube, replacement only, each",HCPS +K0047,"Wheelchairs, Components, and Accessories .","Elevating legrest, upper hanger bracket, replacement only, each",HCPS +K0050,"Wheelchairs, Components, and Accessories .","Ratchet assembly, replacement only",HCPS +K0051,"Wheelchairs, Components, and Accessories .","Cam release assembly, footrest or legrest, replacement only, each",HCPS +K0052,"Wheelchairs, Components, and Accessories .","Swingaway, detachable footrests, replacement only, each",HCPS +K0053,"Wheelchairs, Components, and Accessories .","Elevating footrests, articulating (telescoping), each",HCPS +K0056,"Wheelchairs, Components, and Accessories .","Seat height less than 17 inch or equal to or greater than 21 inch for a high strength, lightweight, or ultralightweight wheelchair",HCPS +K0065,"Wheelchairs, Components, and Accessories .","Spoke protectors, each",HCPS +K0069,"Wheelchairs, Components, and Accessories .","Rear wheel assembly, complete, with solid tire, spokes or molded, replacement only, each",HCPS +K0070,"Wheelchairs, Components, and Accessories .","Rear wheel assembly, complete, with pneumatic tire, spokes or molded, each",HCPS +K0071,"Wheelchairs, Components, and Accessories .","Front caster assembly, complete, with pneumatic tire, replacement only, each",HCPS +K0072,"Wheelchairs, Components, and Accessories .","Front caster assembly, complete, with semi-pneumatic tire, replacement only, each",HCPS +K0073,"Wheelchairs, Components, and Accessories .","Caster pin lock, each",HCPS +K0077,"Wheelchairs, Components, and Accessories .","Front caster assembly, complete, with solid tire, replacement only, each",HCPS +K0098,"Wheelchairs, Components, and Accessories .","Drive belt for power wheelchair, replacement only",HCPS +K0105,"Wheelchairs, Components, and Accessories .","IV hanger, each",HCPS +K0108,"Wheelchairs, Components, and Accessories .","Wheelchair component or accessory, not otherwise specified",HCPS +K0195,"Wheelchairs, Components, and Accessories .","Elevating leg rests, pair (for use with capped rental wheelchair base)",HCPS +K0455,INFUSION PUMPS AND SUPPLIES.,"Infusion pump used for uninterrupted parenteral administration of medication, (e.g., epoprostenol or treprostinol)",HCPS +K0462,INFUSION PUMPS AND SUPPLIES.,"Temporary replacement for patient owned equipment being repaired, any type",HCPS +K0552,INFUSION PUMPS AND SUPPLIES.,"Supplies for external non-insulin drug infusion pump, syringe type cartridge, sterile, each",HCPS +K0601,INFUSION PUMPS AND SUPPLIES.,"Replacement battery for external infusion pump owned by patient, silver oxide, 1.5 volt, each",HCPS +K0602,INFUSION PUMPS AND SUPPLIES.,"Replacement battery for external infusion pump owned by patient, silver oxide, 3 volt, each",HCPS +K0603,INFUSION PUMPS AND SUPPLIES.,"Replacement battery for external infusion pump owned by patient, alkaline, 1.5 volt, each",HCPS +K0604,INFUSION PUMPS AND SUPPLIES.,"Replacement battery for external infusion pump owned by patient, lithium, 3.6 volt, each",HCPS +K0605,INFUSION PUMPS AND SUPPLIES.,"Replacement battery for external infusion pump owned by patient, lithium, 4.5 volt, each",HCPS +K0606,Automated External Defibrillator and Supplies.,"Automatic external defibrillator, with integrated electrocardiogram analysis, garment type",HCPS +K0607,Automated External Defibrillator and Supplies.,"Replacement battery for automated external defibrillator, garment type only, each",HCPS +K0608,Automated External Defibrillator and Supplies.,"Replacement garment for use with automated external defibrillator, each",HCPS +K0609,Automated External Defibrillator and Supplies.,"Replacement electrodes for use with automated external defibrillator, garment type only, each",HCPS +K0669,Miscellaneous DME and Accessories .,"Wheelchair accessory, wheelchair seat or back cushion, does not meet specific code criteria or no written coding verification from DME PDAC",HCPS +K0672,Miscellaneous DME and Accessories .,"Addition to lower extremity orthosis, removable soft interface, all components, replacement only, each",HCPS +K0730,Miscellaneous DME and Accessories .,Controlled dose inhalation drug delivery system,HCPS +K0733,Miscellaneous DME and Accessories .,"Power wheelchair accessory, 12 to 24 amp hour sealed lead acid battery, each (e.g., gel cell, absorbed glassmat)",HCPS +K0738,Miscellaneous DME and Accessories .,"Portable gaseous oxygen system, rental; home compressor used to fill portable oxygen cylinders; includes portable containers, regulator, flowmeter, humidifier, cannula or mask, and tubing",HCPS +K0739,Miscellaneous DME and Accessories .,"Repair or nonroutine service for durable medical equipment other than oxygen equipment requiring the skill of a technician, labor component, per 15 minutes",HCPS +K0740,Miscellaneous DME and Accessories .,"Repair or nonroutine service for oxygen equipment requiring the skill of a technician, labor component, per 15 minutes",HCPS +K0743,Miscellaneous DME and Accessories .,"Suction pump, home model, portable, for use on wounds",HCPS +K0744,Miscellaneous DME and Accessories .,"Absorptive wound dressing for use with suction pump, home model, portable, pad size 16 square inches or less",HCPS +K0745,Miscellaneous DME and Accessories .,"Absorptive wound dressing for use with suction pump, home model, portable, pad size more than 16 square inches but less than or equal to 48 square inches",HCPS +K0746,Miscellaneous DME and Accessories .,"Absorptive wound dressing for use with suction pump, home model, portable, pad size greater than 48 square inches",HCPS +K0800,Power Operated Vehicles .,"Power operated vehicle, group 1 standard, patient weight capacity up to and including 300 pounds",HCPS +K0801,Power Operated Vehicles .,"Power operated vehicle, group 1 heavy duty, patient weight capacity 301 to 450 pounds",HCPS +K0802,Power Operated Vehicles .,"Power operated vehicle, group 1 very heavy duty, patient weight capacity 451 to 600 pounds",HCPS +K0806,Power Operated Vehicles .,"Power operated vehicle, group 2 standard, patient weight capacity up to and including 300 pounds",HCPS +K0807,Power Operated Vehicles .,"Power operated vehicle, group 2 heavy duty, patient weight capacity 301 to 450 pounds",HCPS +K0808,Power Operated Vehicles .,"Power operated vehicle, group 2 very heavy duty, patient weight capacity 451 to 600 pounds",HCPS +K0812,Power Operated Vehicles .,"Power operated vehicle, not otherwise classified",HCPS +K0813,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 1 standard, portable, sling/solid seat and back, patient weight capacity up to and including 300 pounds",HCPS +K0814,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 1 standard, portable, captains chair, patient weight capacity up to and including 300 pounds",HCPS +K0815,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 1 standard, sling/solid seat and back, patient weight capacity up to and including 300 pounds",HCPS +K0816,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 1 standard, captains chair, patient weight capacity up to and including 300 pounds",HCPS +K0820,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 2 standard, portable, sling/solid seat/back, patient weight capacity up to and including 300 pounds",HCPS +K0821,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 2 standard, portable, captains chair, patient weight capacity up to and including 300 pounds",HCPS +K0822,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 2 standard, sling/solid seat/back, patient weight capacity up to and including 300 pounds",HCPS +K0823,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 2 standard, captains chair, patient weight capacity up to and including 300 pounds",HCPS +K0824,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 2 heavy duty, sling/solid seat/back, patient weight capacity 301 to 450 pounds",HCPS +K0825,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 2 heavy duty, captains chair, patient weight capacity 301 to 450 pounds",HCPS +K0826,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 2 very heavy duty, sling/solid seat/back, patient weight capacity 451 to 600 pounds",HCPS +K0827,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 2 very heavy duty, captains chair, patient weight capacity 451 to 600 pounds",HCPS +K0828,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 2 extra heavy duty, sling/solid seat/back, patient weight capacity 601 pounds or more",HCPS +K0829,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 2 extra heavy duty, captains chair, patient weight 601 pounds or more",HCPS +K0830,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 2 standard, seat elevator, sling/solid seat/back, patient weight capacity up to and including 300 pounds",HCPS +K0831,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 2 standard, seat elevator, captains chair, patient weight capacity up to and including 300 pounds",HCPS +K0835,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 2 standard, single power option, sling/solid seat/back, patient weight capacity up to and including 300 pounds",HCPS +K0836,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 2 standard, single power option, captains chair, patient weight capacity up to and including 300 pounds",HCPS +K0837,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 2 heavy duty, single power option, sling/solid seat/back, patient weight capacity 301 to 450 pounds",HCPS +K0838,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 2 heavy duty, single power option, captains chair, patient weight capacity 301 to 450 pounds",HCPS +K0839,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 2 very heavy duty, single power option sling/solid seat/back, patient weight capacity 451 to 600 pounds",HCPS +K0840,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 2 extra heavy duty, single power option, sling/solid seat/back, patient weight capacity 601 pounds or more",HCPS +K0841,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 2 standard, multiple power option, sling/solid seat/back, patient weight capacity up to and including 300 pounds",HCPS +K0842,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 2 standard, multiple power option, captains chair, patient weight capacity up to and including 300 pounds",HCPS +K0843,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 2 heavy duty, multiple power option, sling/solid seat/back, patient weight capacity 301 to 450 pounds",HCPS +K0848,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 3 standard, sling/solid seat/back, patient weight capacity up to and including 300 pounds",HCPS +K0849,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 3 standard, captains chair, patient weight capacity up to and including 300 pounds",HCPS +K0850,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 3 heavy duty, sling/solid seat/back, patient weight capacity 301 to 450 pounds",HCPS +K0851,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 3 heavy duty, captains chair, patient weight capacity 301 to 450 pounds",HCPS +K0852,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 3 very heavy duty, sling/solid seat/back, patient weight capacity 451 to 600 pounds",HCPS +K0853,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 3 very heavy duty, captains chair, patient weight capacity 451 to 600 pounds",HCPS +K0854,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 3 extra heavy duty, sling/solid seat/back, patient weight capacity 601 pounds or more",HCPS +K0855,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 3 extra heavy duty, captains chair, patient weight capacity 601 pounds or more",HCPS +K0856,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 3 standard, single power option, sling/solid seat/back, patient weight capacity up to and including 300 pounds",HCPS +K0857,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 3 standard, single power option, captains chair, patient weight capacity up to and including 300 pounds",HCPS +K0858,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 3 heavy duty, single power option, sling/solid seat/back, patient weight 301 to 450 pounds",HCPS +K0859,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 3 heavy duty, single power option, captains chair, patient weight capacity 301 to 450 pounds",HCPS +K0860,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 3 very heavy duty, single power option, sling/solid seat/back, patient weight capacity 451 to 600 pounds",HCPS +K0861,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 3 standard, multiple power option, sling/solid seat/back, patient weight capacity up to and including 300 pounds",HCPS +K0862,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 3 heavy duty, multiple power option, sling/solid seat/back, patient weight capacity 301 to 450 pounds",HCPS +K0863,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 3 very heavy duty, multiple power option, sling/solid seat/back, patient weight capacity 451 to 600 pounds",HCPS +K0864,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 3 extra heavy duty, multiple power option, sling/solid seat/back, patient weight capacity 601 pounds or more",HCPS +K0868,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 4 standard, sling/solid seat/back, patient weight capacity up to and including 300 pounds",HCPS +K0869,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 4 standard, captains chair, patient weight capacity up to and including 300 pounds",HCPS +K0870,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 4 heavy duty, sling/solid seat/back, patient weight capacity 301 to 450 pounds",HCPS +K0871,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 4 very heavy duty, sling/solid seat/back, patient weight capacity 451 to 600 pounds",HCPS +K0877,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 4 standard, single power option, sling/solid seat/back, patient weight capacity up to and including 300 pounds",HCPS +K0878,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 4 standard, single power option, captains chair, patient weight capacity up to and including 300 pounds",HCPS +K0879,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 4 heavy duty, single power option, sling/solid seat/back, patient weight capacity 301 to 450 pounds",HCPS +K0880,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 4 very heavy duty, single power option, sling/solid seat/back, patient weight 451 to 600 pounds",HCPS +K0884,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 4 standard, multiple power option, sling/solid seat/back, patient weight capacity up to and including 300 pounds",HCPS +K0885,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 4 standard, multiple power option, captains chair, patient weight capacity up to and including 300 pounds",HCPS +K0886,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 4 heavy duty, multiple power option, sling/solid seat/back, patient weight capacity 301 to 450 pounds",HCPS +K0890,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 5 pediatric, single power option, sling/solid seat/back, patient weight capacity up to and including 125 pounds",HCPS +K0891,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, group 5 pediatric, multiple power option, sling/solid seat/back, patient weight capacity up to and including 125 pounds",HCPS +K0898,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power wheelchair, not otherwise classified",HCPS +K0899,"Wheelchairs, Power Operated .","Power mobility device, not coded by DME PDAC or does not meet criteria",HCPS +K0900,"Customized DME, Other Than Wheelchair .","Customized durable medical equipment, other than wheelchair",HCPS +K1004,"Components, Accessories and Supplies.",Low frequency ultrasonic diathermy treatment device for home use,HCPS +K1007,"Components, Accessories and Supplies.","Bilateral hip, knee, ankle, foot device, powered, includes pelvic component, single or double upright(s), knee joints any type, with or without ankle joints any type, includes all components and accessories, motors, microprocessors, sensors",HCPS +K1027,"Components, Accessories and Supplies.","Oral device/appliance used to reduce upper airway collapsibility, without fixed mechanical hinge, custom fabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +K1030,"Components, Accessories and Supplies.","External recharging system for battery (internal) for use with implanted cardiac contractility modulation generator, replacement only",HCPS +K1034,"Components, Accessories and Supplies.","Provision of covid-19 test, nonprescription self-administered and self-collected use, fda approved, authorized or cleared, one test count",HCPS +K1035,"Components, Accessories and Supplies.","Molecular diagnostic test reader, nonprescription self-administered and self-collected use, fda approved, authorized or cleared",HCPS +K1036,"Components, Accessories and Supplies.","Supplies and accessories (e.g., transducer) for low frequency ultrasonic diathermy treatment device, per month",HCPS +L0112,Cervical Orthotics .,"Cranial cervical orthosis, congenital torticollis type, with or without soft interface material, adjustable range of motion joint, custom fabricated",HCPS +L0113,Cervical Orthotics .,"Cranial cervical orthosis, torticollis type, with or without joint, with or without soft interface material, prefabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L0120,Cervical Orthotics .,"Cervical, flexible, non-adjustable, prefabricated, off-the-shelf (foam collar)",HCPS +L0130,Cervical Orthotics .,"Cervical, flexible, thermoplastic collar, molded to patient",HCPS +L0140,Cervical Orthotics .,"Cervical, semi-rigid, adjustable (plastic collar)",HCPS +L0150,Cervical Orthotics .,"Cervical, semi-rigid, adjustable molded chin cup (plastic collar with mandibular/occipital piece)",HCPS +L0160,Cervical Orthotics .,"Cervical, semi-rigid, wire frame occipital/mandibular support, prefabricated, off-the-shelf",HCPS +L0170,Cervical Orthotics .,"Cervical, collar, molded to patient model",HCPS +L0172,Cervical Orthotics .,"Cervical, collar, semi-rigid thermoplastic foam, two-piece, prefabricated, off-the-shelf",HCPS +L0174,Cervical Orthotics .,"Cervical, collar, semi-rigid, thermoplastic foam, two piece with thoracic extension, prefabricated, off-the-shelf",HCPS +L0180,Cervical Orthotics Multi-post Collar .,"Cervical, multiple post collar, occipital/mandibular supports, adjustable",HCPS +L0190,Cervical Orthotics Multi-post Collar .,"Cervical, multiple post collar, occipital/mandibular supports, adjustable cervical bars (SOMI, Guilford, Taylor types)",HCPS +L0200,Cervical Orthotics Multi-post Collar .,"Cervical, multiple post collar, occipital/mandibular supports, adjustable cervical bars, and thoracic extension",HCPS +L0220,Thoracic Rib Belts .,"Thoracic, rib belt, custom fabricated",HCPS +L0450,Thoracic-lumbar-sacral (TLSO) Orthotics.,"Thoracic-lumbar-sacral orthosis (TLSO), flexible, provides trunk support, upper thoracic region, produces intracavitary pressure to reduce load on the intervertebral disks with rigid stays or panel(s), includes shoulder straps and closures, prefabricated, off-the-shelf",HCPS +L0452,Thoracic-lumbar-sacral (TLSO) Orthotics.,"Thoracic-lumbar-sacral orthosis (TLSO), flexible, provides trunk support, upper thoracic region, produces intracavitary pressure to reduce load on the intervertebral disks with rigid stays or panel(s), includes shoulder straps and closures, custom fabricated",HCPS +L0454,Thoracic-lumbar-sacral (TLSO) Orthotics.,"Thoracic-lumbar-sacral orthosis (TLSO) flexible, provides trunk support, extends from sacrococcygeal junction to above T-9 vertebra, restricts gross trunk motion in the sagittal plane, produces intracavitary pressure to reduce load on the intervertebral disks with rigid stays or panel(s), includes shoulder straps and closures, prefabricated item that has been trimmed, bent, molded, assembled, or otherwise customized to fit a specific patient by an individual with expertise",HCPS +L0455,Thoracic-lumbar-sacral (TLSO) Orthotics.,"Thoracic-lumbar-sacral orthosis (TLSO), flexible, provides trunk support, extends from sacrococcygeal junction to above T-9 vertebra, restricts gross trunk motion in the sagittal plane, produces intracavitary pressure to reduce load on the intervertebral disks with rigid stays or panel(s), includes shoulder straps and closures, prefabricated, off-the-shelf",HCPS +L0456,Thoracic-lumbar-sacral (TLSO) Orthotics.,"Thoracic-lumbar-sacral orthosis (TLSO), flexible, provides trunk support, thoracic region, rigid posterior panel and soft anterior apron, extends from the sacrococcygeal junction and terminates just inferior to the scapular spine, restricts gross trunk motion in the sagittal plane, produces intracavitary pressure to reduce load on the intervertebral disks, includes straps and closures, prefabricated item that has been trimmed, bent, molded, assembled, or otherwise customized to fit a specific patient by an individual with expertise",HCPS +L0457,Thoracic-lumbar-sacral (TLSO) Orthotics.,"Thoracic-lumbar-sacral orthosis (TLSO), flexible, provides trunk support, thoracic region, rigid posterior panel and soft anterior apron, extends from the sacrococcygeal junction and terminates just inferior to the scapular spine, restricts gross trunk motion in the sagittal plane, produces intracavitary pressure to reduce load on the intervertebral disks, includes straps and closures, prefabricated, off-the-shelf",HCPS +L0458,Thoracic-lumbar-sacral (TLSO) Orthotics.,"Thoracic-lumbar-sacral orthosis (TLSO), triplanar control, modular segmented spinal system, two rigid plastic shells, posterior extends from the sacrococcygeal junction and terminates just inferior to the scapular spine, anterior extends from the symphysis pubis to the xiphoid, soft liner, restricts gross trunk motion in the sagittal, coronal, and transverse planes, lateral strength is provided by overlapping plastic and stabilizing closures, includes straps and closures, prefabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L0460,Thoracic-lumbar-sacral (TLSO) Orthotics.,"Thoracic-lumbar-sacral orthosis (TLSO), triplanar control, modular segmented spinal system, two rigid plastic shells, posterior extends from the sacrococcygeal junction and terminates just inferior to the scapular spine, anterior extends from the symphysis pubis to the sternal notch, soft liner, restricts gross trunk motion in the sagittal, coronal, and transverse planes, lateral strength is provided by overlapping plastic and stabilizing closures, includes straps and closures, prefabricated item that has been trimmed, bent, molded, assembled, or otherwise customized to fit a specific patient by an individual with expertise",HCPS +L0462,Thoracic-lumbar-sacral (TLSO) Orthotics.,"Thoracic-lumbar-sacral orthosis (TLSO), triplanar control, modular segmented spinal system, three rigid plastic shells, posterior extends from the sacrococcygeal junction and terminates just inferior to the scapular spine, anterior extends from the symphysis pubis to the sternal notch, soft liner, restricts gross trunk motion in the sagittal, coronal, and transverse planes, lateral strength is provided by overlapping plastic and stabilizing closures, includes straps and closures, prefabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L0464,Thoracic-lumbar-sacral (TLSO) Orthotics.,"Thoracic-lumbar-sacral orthosis (TLSO), triplanar control, modular segmented spinal system, four rigid plastic shells, posterior extends from sacrococcygeal junction and terminates just inferior to scapular spine, anterior extends from symphysis pubis to the sternal notch, soft liner, restricts gross trunk motion in sagittal, coronal, and transverse planes, lateral strength is provided by overlapping plastic and stabilizing closures, includes straps and closures, prefabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L0466,Thoracic-lumbar-sacral (TLSO) Orthotics.,"Thoracic-lumbar-sacral orthosis (TLSO), sagittal control, rigid posterior frame and flexible soft anterior apron with straps, closures and padding, restricts gross trunk motion in sagittal plane, produces intracavitary pressure to reduce load on intervertebral disks, prefabricated item that has been trimmed, bent, molded, assembled, or otherwise customized to fit a specific patient by an individual with expertise",HCPS +L0467,Thoracic-lumbar-sacral (TLSO) Orthotics.,"Thoracic-lumbar-sacral orthosis (TLSO), sagittal control, rigid posterior frame and flexible soft anterior apron with straps, closures and padding, restricts gross trunk motion in sagittal plane, produces intracavitary pressure to reduce load on intervertebral disks, prefabricated, off-the-shelf",HCPS +L0468,Thoracic-lumbar-sacral (TLSO) Orthotics.,"Thoracic-lumbar-sacral orthosis (TLSO), sagittal-coronal control, rigid posterior frame and flexible soft anterior apron with straps, closures and padding, extends from sacrococcygeal junction over scapulae, lateral strength provided by pelvic, thoracic, and lateral frame pieces, restricts gross trunk motion in sagittal, and coronal planes, produces intracavitary pressure to reduce load on intervertebral disks, prefabricated item that has been trimmed, bent, molded, assembled, or otherwise customized to fit a specific patient by an individual with expertise",HCPS +L0469,Thoracic-lumbar-sacral (TLSO) Orthotics.,"Thoracic-lumbar-sacral orthosis (TLSO), sagittal-coronal control, rigid posterior frame and flexible soft anterior apron with straps, closures and padding, extends from sacrococcygeal junction over scapulae, lateral strength provided by pelvic, thoracic, and lateral frame pieces, restricts gross trunk motion in sagittal and coronal planes, produces intracavitary pressure to reduce load on intervertebral disks, prefabricated, off-the-shelf",HCPS +L0470,Thoracic-lumbar-sacral (TLSO) Orthotics.,"Thoracic-lumbar-sacral orthosis (TLSO), triplanar control, rigid posterior frame and flexible soft anterior apron with straps, closures and padding extends from sacrococcygeal junction to scapula, lateral strength provided by pelvic, thoracic, and lateral frame pieces, rotational strength provided by subclavicular extensions, restricts gross trunk motion in sagittal, coronal, and transverse planes, provides intracavitary pressure to reduce load on the intervertebral disks, includes fitting and shaping the frame, prefabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L0472,Thoracic-lumbar-sacral (TLSO) Orthotics.,"Thoracic-lumbar-sacral orthosis (TLSO), triplanar control, hyperextension, rigid anterior and lateral frame extends from symphysis pubis to sternal notch with two anterior components (one pubic and one sternal), posterior and lateral pads with straps and closures, limits spinal flexion, restricts gross trunk motion in sagittal, coronal, and transverse planes, includes fitting and shaping the frame, prefabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L0480,Thoracic-lumbar-sacral (TLSO) Orthotics.,"Thoracic-lumbar-sacral orthosis (TLSO), triplanar control, one piece rigid plastic shell without interface liner, with multiple straps and closures, posterior extends from sacrococcygeal junction and terminates just inferior to scapular spine, anterior extends from symphysis pubis to sternal notch, anterior or posterior opening, restricts gross trunk motion in sagittal, coronal, and transverse planes, includes a carved plaster or CAD-CAM model, custom fabricated",HCPS +L0482,Thoracic-lumbar-sacral (TLSO) Orthotics.,"Thoracic-lumbar-sacral orthosis (TLSO), triplanar control, one piece rigid plastic shell with interface liner, multiple straps and closures, posterior extends from sacrococcygeal junction and terminates just inferior to scapular spine, anterior extends from symphysis pubis to sternal notch, anterior or posterior opening, restricts gross trunk motion in sagittal, coronal, and transverse planes, includes a carved plaster or CAD-CAM model, custom fabricated",HCPS +L0484,Thoracic-lumbar-sacral (TLSO) Orthotics.,"Thoracic-lumbar-sacral orthosis (TLSO), triplanar control, two piece rigid plastic shell without interface liner, with multiple straps and closures, posterior extends from sacrococcygeal junction and terminates just inferior to scapular spine, anterior extends from symphysis pubis to sternal notch, lateral strength is enhanced by overlapping plastic, restricts gross trunk motion in the sagittal, coronal, and transverse planes, includes a carved plaster or CAD-CAM model, custom fabricated",HCPS +L0486,Thoracic-lumbar-sacral (TLSO) Orthotics.,"Thoracic-lumbar-sacral orthosis (TLSO), triplanar control, two piece rigid plastic shell with interface liner, multiple straps and closures, posterior extends from sacrococcygeal junction and terminates just inferior to scapular spine, anterior extends from symphysis pubis to sternal notch, lateral strength is enhanced by overlapping plastic, restricts gross trunk motion in the sagittal, coronal, and transverse planes, includes a carved plaster or CAD-CAM model, custom fabricated",HCPS +L0488,Thoracic-lumbar-sacral (TLSO) Orthotics.,"Thoracic-lumbar-sacral orthosis (TLSO), triplanar control, one piece rigid plastic shell with interface liner, multiple straps and closures, posterior extends from sacrococcygeal junction and terminates just inferior to scapular spine, anterior extends from symphysis pubis to sternal notch, anterior or posterior opening, restricts gross trunk motion in sagittal, coronal, and transverse planes, prefabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L0490,Thoracic-lumbar-sacral (TLSO) Orthotics.,"Thoracic-lumbar-sacral orthosis (TLSO), sagittal-coronal control, one piece rigid plastic shell, with overlapping reinforced anterior, with multiple straps and closures, posterior extends from sacrococcygeal junction and terminates at or before the T-9 vertebra, anterior extends from symphysis pubis to xiphoid, anterior opening, restricts gross trunk motion in sagittal and coronal planes, prefabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L0491,Thoracic-lumbar-sacral (TLSO) Orthotics.,"Thoracic-lumbar-sacral orthosis (TLSO), sagittal-coronal control, modular segmented spinal system, two rigid plastic shells, posterior extends from the sacrococcygeal junction and terminates just inferior to the scapular spine, anterior extends from the symphysis pubis to the xiphoid, soft liner, restricts gross trunk motion in the sagittal and coronal planes, lateral strength is provided by overlapping plastic and stabilizing closures, includes straps and closures, prefabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L0492,Thoracic-lumbar-sacral (TLSO) Orthotics.,"Thoracic-lumbar-sacral orthosis (TLSO), sagittal-coronal control, modular segmented spinal system, three rigid plastic shells, posterior extends from the sacrococcygeal junction and terminates just inferior to the scapular spine, anterior extends from the symphysis pubis to the xiphoid, soft liner, restricts gross trunk motion in the sagittal and coronal planes, lateral strength is provided by overlapping plastic and stabilizing closures, includes straps and closures, prefabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L0621,Sacral Orthotics .,"Sacroiliac orthosis (SO), flexible, provides pelvic-sacral support, reduces motion about the sacroiliac joint, includes straps, closures, may include pendulous abdomen design, prefabricated, off-the-shelf",HCPS +L0622,Sacral Orthotics .,"Sacroiliac orthosis (SO), flexible, provides pelvic-sacral support, reduces motion about the sacroiliac joint, includes straps, closures, may include pendulous abdomen design, custom fabricated",HCPS +L0623,Sacral Orthotics .,"Sacroiliac orthosis (SO), provides pelvic-sacral support, with rigid or semi-rigid panels over the sacrum and abdomen, reduces motion about the sacroiliac joint, includes straps, closures, may include pendulous abdomen design, prefabricated, off-the-shelf",HCPS +L0624,Sacral Orthotics .,"Sacroiliac orthosis (SO), provides pelvic-sacral support, with rigid or semi-rigid panels placed over the sacrum and abdomen, reduces motion about the sacroiliac joint, includes straps, closures, may include pendulous abdomen design, custom fabricated",HCPS +L0625,Lumbar Orthotics .,"Lumbar orthosis (LO), flexible, provides lumbar support, posterior extends from L-1 to below L-5 vertebra, produces intracavitary pressure to reduce load on the intervertebral discs, includes straps, closures, may include pendulous abdomen design, shoulder straps, stays, prefabricated, off-the-shelf",HCPS +L0626,Lumbar Orthotics .,"Lumbar orthosis (LO), sagittal control, with rigid posterior panel(s), posterior extends from L-1 to below L-5 vertebra, produces intracavitary pressure to reduce load on the intervertebral discs, includes straps, closures, may include padding, stays, shoulder straps, pendulous abdomen design, prefabricated item that has been trimmed, bent, molded, assembled, or otherwise customized to fit a specific patient by an individual with expertise",HCPS +L0627,Lumbar Orthotics .,"Lumbar orthosis (LO), sagittal control, with rigid anterior and posterior panels, posterior extends from L-1 to below L-5 vertebra, produces intracavitary pressure to reduce load on the intervertebral discs, includes straps, closures, may include padding, shoulder straps, pendulous abdomen design, prefabricated item that has been trimmed, bent, molded, assembled, or otherwise customized to fit a specific patient by an individual with expertise",HCPS +L0628,Lumbar-sacral Orthotics .,"Lumbar-sacral orthosis (LSO), flexible, provides lumbo-sacral support, posterior extends from sacrococcygeal junction to T-9 vertebra, produces intracavitary pressure to reduce load on the intervertebral discs, includes straps, closures, may include stays, shoulder straps, pendulous abdomen design, prefabricated, off-the-shelf",HCPS +L0629,Lumbar-sacral Orthotics .,"Lumbar-sacral orthosis (LSO), flexible, provides lumbo-sacral support, posterior extends from sacrococcygeal junction to T-9 vertebra, produces intracavitary pressure to reduce load on the intervertebral discs, includes straps, closures, may include stays, shoulder straps, pendulous abdomen design, custom fabricated",HCPS +L0630,Lumbar-sacral Orthotics .,"Lumbar-sacral orthosis (LSO), sagittal control, with rigid posterior panel(s), posterior extends from sacrococcygeal junction to T-9 vertebra, produces intracavitary pressure to reduce load on the intervertebral discs, includes straps, closures, may include padding, stays, shoulder straps, pendulous abdomen design, prefabricated item that has been trimmed, bent, molded, assembled, or otherwise customized to fit a specific patient by an individual with expertise",HCPS +L0631,Lumbar-sacral Orthotics .,"Lumbar-sacral orthosis (LSO), sagittal control, with rigid anterior and posterior panels, posterior extends from sacrococcygeal junction to T-9 vertebra, produces intracavitary pressure to reduce load on the intervertebral discs, includes straps, closures, may include padding, shoulder straps, pendulous abdomen design, prefabricated item that has been trimmed, bent, molded, assembled, or otherwise customized to fit a specific patient by an individual with expertise",HCPS +L0632,Lumbar-sacral Orthotics .,"Lumbar-sacral orthosis (LSO), sagittal control, with rigid anterior and posterior panels, posterior extends from sacrococcygeal junction to T-9 vertebra, produces intracavitary pressure to reduce load on the intervertebral discs, includes straps, closures, may include padding, shoulder straps, pendulous abdomen design, custom fabricated",HCPS +L0633,Lumbar-sacral Orthotics .,"Lumbar-sacral orthosis (LSO), sagittal-coronal control, with rigid posterior frame/panel(s), posterior extends from sacrococcygeal junction to T-9 vertebra, lateral strength provided by rigid lateral frame/panels, produces intracavitary pressure to reduce load on intervertebral discs, includes straps, closures, may include padding, stays, shoulder straps, pendulous abdomen design, prefabricated item that has been trimmed, bent, molded, assembled, or otherwise customized to fit a specific patient by an individual with expertise",HCPS +L0634,Lumbar-sacral Orthotics .,"Lumbar-sacral orthosis (LSO), sagittal-coronal control, with rigid posterior frame/panel(s), posterior extends from sacrococcygeal junction to T-9 vertebra, lateral strength provided by rigid lateral frame/panel(s), produces intracavitary pressure to reduce load on intervertebral discs, includes straps, closures, may include padding, stays, shoulder straps, pendulous abdomen design, custom fabricated",HCPS +L0635,Lumbar-sacral Orthotics .,"Lumbar-sacral orthosis (LSO), sagittal-coronal control, lumbar flexion, rigid posterior frame/panel(s), lateral articulating design to flex the lumbar spine, posterior extends from sacrococcygeal junction to T-9 vertebra, lateral strength provided by rigid lateral frame/panel(s), produces intracavitary pressure to reduce load on intervertebral discs, includes straps, closures, may include padding, anterior panel, pendulous abdomen design, prefabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L0636,Lumbar-sacral Orthotics .,"Lumbar-sacral orthosis (LSO), sagittal-coronal control, lumbar flexion, rigid posterior frame/panels, lateral articulating design to flex the lumbar spine, posterior extends from sacrococcygeal junction to T-9 vertebra, lateral strength provided by rigid lateral frame/panels, produces intracavitary pressure to reduce load on intervertebral discs, includes straps, closures, may include padding, anterior panel, pendulous abdomen design, custom fabricated",HCPS +L0637,Lumbar-sacral Orthotics .,"Lumbar-sacral orthosis (LSO), sagittal-coronal control, with rigid anterior and posterior frame/panels, posterior extends from sacrococcygeal junction to T-9 vertebra, lateral strength provided by rigid lateral frame/panels, produces intracavitary pressure to reduce load on intervertebral discs, includes straps, closures, may include padding, shoulder straps, pendulous abdomen design, prefabricated item that has been trimmed, bent, molded, assembled, or otherwise customized to fit a specific patient by an individual with expertise",HCPS +L0638,Lumbar-sacral Orthotics .,"Lumbar-sacral orthosis (LSO), sagittal-coronal control, with rigid anterior and posterior frame/panels, posterior extends from sacrococcygeal junction to T-9 vertebra, lateral strength provided by rigid lateral frame/panels, produces intracavitary pressure to reduce load on intervertebral discs, includes straps, closures, may include padding, shoulder straps, pendulous abdomen design, custom fabricated",HCPS +L0639,Lumbar-sacral Orthotics .,"Lumbar-sacral orthosis (LSO), sagittal-coronal control, rigid shell(s)/panel(s), posterior extends from sacrococcygeal junction to T-9 vertebra, anterior extends from symphysis pubis to xyphoid, produces intracavitary pressure to reduce load on the intervertebral discs, overall strength is provided by overlapping rigid material and stabilizing closures, includes straps, closures, may include soft interface, pendulous abdomen design, prefabricated item that has been trimmed, bent, molded, assembled, or otherwise customized to fit a specific patient by an individual with expertise",HCPS +L0640,Lumbar-sacral Orthotics .,"Lumbar-sacral orthosis (LSO), sagittal-coronal control, rigid shell(s)/panel(s), posterior extends from sacrococcygeal junction to T-9 vertebra, anterior extends from symphysis pubis to xiphoid, produces intracavitary pressure to reduce load on the intervertebral discs, overall strength is provided by overlapping rigid material and stabilizing closures, includes straps, closures, may include soft interface, pendulous abdomen design, custom fabricated",HCPS +L0641,Lumbar Orthotics Sagittal Control .,"Lumbar orthosis (LO), sagittal control, with rigid posterior panel(s), posterior extends from L-1 to below L-5 vertebra, produces intracavitary pressure to reduce load on the intervertebral discs, includes straps, closures, may include padding, stays, shoulder straps, pendulous abdomen design, prefabricated, off-the-shelf",HCPS +L0642,Lumbar Orthotics Sagittal Control .,"Lumbar orthosis (LO), sagittal control, with rigid anterior and posterior panels, posterior extends from L-1 to below L-5 vertebra, produces intracavitary pressure to reduce load on the intervertebral discs, includes straps, closures, may include padding, shoulder straps, pendulous abdomen design, prefabricated, off-the-shelf",HCPS +L0643,Lumbar-sacral Orthotics Sagittal Control .,"Lumbar-sacral orthosis (LSO), sagittal control, with rigid posterior panel(s), posterior extends from sacrococcygeal junction to T-9 vertebra, produces intracavitary pressure to reduce load on the intervertebral discs, includes straps, closures, may include padding, stays, shoulder straps, pendulous abdomen design, prefabricated, off-the-shelf",HCPS +L0648,Lumbar-sacral Orthotics Sagittal Control .,"Lumbar-sacral orthosis (LSO), sagittal control, with rigid anterior and posterior panels, posterior extends from sacrococcygeal junction to T-9 vertebra, produces intracavitary pressure to reduce load on the intervertebral discs, includes straps, closures, may include padding, shoulder straps, pendulous abdomen design, prefabricated, off-the-shelf",HCPS +L0649,Lumbar-sacral Orthotics Sagittal Control .,"Lumbar-sacral orthosis (LSO), sagittal-coronal control, with rigid posterior frame/panel(s), posterior extends from sacrococcygeal junction to T-9 vertebra, lateral strength provided by rigid lateral frame/panels, produces intracavitary pressure to reduce load on intervertebral discs, includes straps, closures, may include padding, stays, shoulder straps, pendulous abdomen design, prefabricated, off-the-shelf",HCPS +L0650,Lumbar-sacral Orthotics Sagittal Control .,"Lumbar-sacral orthosis (LSO), sagittal-coronal control, with rigid anterior and posterior frame/panel(s), posterior extends from sacrococcygeal junction to T-9 vertebra, lateral strength provided by rigid lateral frame/panel(s), produces intracavitary pressure to reduce load on intervertebral discs, includes straps, closures, may include padding, shoulder straps, pendulous abdomen design, prefabricated, off-the-shelf",HCPS +L0651,Lumbar-sacral Orthotics Sagittal Control .,"Lumbar-sacral orthosis (LSO), sagittal-coronal control, rigid shell(s)/panel(s), posterior extends from sacrococcygeal junction to T-9 vertebra, anterior extends from symphysis pubis to xyphoid, produces intracavitary pressure to reduce load on the intervertebral discs, overall strength is provided by overlapping rigid material and stabilizing closures, includes straps, closures, may include soft interface, pendulous abdomen design, prefabricated, off-the-shelf",HCPS +L0700,Cervical-thoracic-lumbar-sacral Orthotics .,"Cervical-thoracic-lumbar-sacral-orthoses (CTLSO), anterior-posterior-lateral control, molded to patient model (Minerva type)",HCPS +L0710,Cervical-thoracic-lumbar-sacral Orthotics .,"Cervical-thoracic-lumbar-sacral-orthoses (CTLSO), anterior-posterior-lateral-control, molded to patient model, with interface material (Minerva type)",HCPS +L0810,Cervical Halo Procedures .,"Halo procedure, cervical halo incorporated into jacket vest",HCPS +L0820,Cervical Halo Procedures .,"Halo procedure, cervical halo incorporated into plaster body jacket",HCPS +L0830,Cervical Halo Procedures .,"Halo procedure, cervical halo incorporated into Milwaukee type orthosis",HCPS +L0859,Cervical Halo Procedures .,"Addition to halo procedure, magnetic resonance image compatible systems, rings and pins, any material",HCPS +L0861,Cervical Halo Procedures .,"Addition to halo procedure, replacement liner/interface material",HCPS +L0970,Accessories for Spinal Orthotics .,"Thoracic-lumbar-sacral orthosis (TLSO), corset front",HCPS +L0972,Accessories for Spinal Orthotics .,"Lumbar-sacral orthosis (LSO), corset front",HCPS +L0974,Accessories for Spinal Orthotics .,"Thoracic-lumbar-sacral orthosis (TLSO), full corset",HCPS +L0976,Accessories for Spinal Orthotics .,"Lumbar-sacral orthotic (LSO), full corset",HCPS +L0978,Accessories for Spinal Orthotics .,Axillary crutch extension,HCPS +L0980,Accessories for Spinal Orthotics .,"Peroneal straps, prefabricated, off-the-shelf, pair",HCPS +L0982,Accessories for Spinal Orthotics .,"Stocking supporter grips, prefabricated, off-the-shelf, set of four (4)",HCPS +L0984,Accessories for Spinal Orthotics .,"Protective body sock, prefabricated, off-the-shelf, each",HCPS +L0999,Accessories for Spinal Orthotics .,"Addition to spinal orthosis, not otherwise specified",HCPS +L1000,Scoliosis Orthotic Devices .,"Cervical-thoracic-lumbar-sacral orthosis (CTLSO) (Milwaukee), inclusive of furnishing initial orthosis, including model",HCPS +L1001,Scoliosis Orthotic Devices .,"Cervical-thoracic-lumbar-sacral orthosis (CTLSO), immobilizer, infant size, prefabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L1005,Scoliosis Orthotic Devices .,"Tension based scoliosis orthosis and accessory pads, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L1010,Scoliosis Orthotic Devices .,"Addition to Cervical-thoracic-lumbar-sacral orthosis (CTLSO) or scoliosis orthosis, axilla sling",HCPS +L1020,Scoliosis Orthotic Devices .,"Addition to Cervical-thoracic-lumbar-sacral orthosis (CTLSO) or scoliosis orthosis, kyphosis pad",HCPS +L1025,Scoliosis Orthotic Devices .,"Addition to Cervical-thoracic-lumbar-sacral orthosis (CTLSO) or scoliosis orthosis, kyphosis pad, floating",HCPS +L1030,Scoliosis Orthotic Devices .,"Addition to Cervical-thoracic-lumbar-sacral orthosis (CTLSO) or scoliosis orthosis, lumbar bolster pad",HCPS +L1040,Scoliosis Orthotic Devices .,"Addition to Cervical-thoracic-lumbar-sacral orthosis (CTLSO) or scoliosis orthosis, lumbar or lumbar rib pad",HCPS +L1050,Scoliosis Orthotic Devices .,"Addition to Cervical-thoracic-lumbar-sacral orthosis (CTLSO) or scoliosis orthosis, sternal pad",HCPS +L1060,Scoliosis Orthotic Devices .,"Addition to Cervical-thoracic-lumbar-sacral orthosis (CTLSO) or scoliosis orthosis, thoracic pad",HCPS +L1070,Scoliosis Orthotic Devices .,"Addition to Cervical-thoracic-lumbar-sacral orthosis (CTLSO) or scoliosis orthosis, trapezius sling",HCPS +L1080,Scoliosis Orthotic Devices .,"Addition to Cervical-thoracic-lumbar-sacral orthosis (CTLSO) or scoliosis orthosis, outrigger",HCPS +L1085,Scoliosis Orthotic Devices .,"Addition to Cervical-thoracic-lumbar-sacral orthosis (CTLSO) or scoliosis orthosis, outrigger, bilateral with vertical extensions",HCPS +L1090,Scoliosis Orthotic Devices .,"Addition to Cervical-thoracic-lumbar-sacral orthosis (CTLSO) or scoliosis orthosis, lumbar sling",HCPS +L1100,Scoliosis Orthotic Devices .,"Addition to Cervical-thoracic-lumbar-sacral orthosis (CTLSO) or scoliosis orthosis, ring flange, plastic or leather",HCPS +L1110,Scoliosis Orthotic Devices .,"Addition to Cervical-thoracic-lumbar-sacral orthosis (CTLSO) or scoliosis orthosis, ring flange, plastic or leather, molded to patient model",HCPS +L1120,Scoliosis Orthotic Devices .,"Addition to Cervical-thoracic-lumbar-sacral orthosis (CTLSO), scoliosis orthosis, cover for upright, each",HCPS +L1200,"Low-profile Additions, Thoracic-lumbar-sacral Orthotics .","Thoracic-lumbar-sacral-orthosis (TLSO), inclusive of furnishing initial orthosis only",HCPS +L1210,"Low-profile Additions, Thoracic-lumbar-sacral Orthotics .","Addition to Thoracic-lumbar-sacral-orthosis (TLSO), (low profile), lateral thoracic extension",HCPS +L1220,"Low-profile Additions, Thoracic-lumbar-sacral Orthotics .","Addition to Thoracic-lumbar-sacral orthosis (TLSO), (low profile), anterior thoracic extension",HCPS +L1230,"Low-profile Additions, Thoracic-lumbar-sacral Orthotics .","Addition to Thoracic-lumbar-sacral orthosis (TLSO), (low profile), Milwaukee type superstructure",HCPS +L1240,"Low-profile Additions, Thoracic-lumbar-sacral Orthotics .","Addition to Thoracic-lumbar-sacral orthosis (TLSO), (low profile), lumbar derotation pad",HCPS +L1250,"Low-profile Additions, Thoracic-lumbar-sacral Orthotics .","Addition to Thoracic-lumbar-sacral orthosis (TLSO), (low profile), anterior asis pad",HCPS +L1260,"Low-profile Additions, Thoracic-lumbar-sacral Orthotics .","Addition to Thoracic-lumbar-sacral orthosis (TLSO), (low profile), anterior thoracic derotation pad",HCPS +L1270,"Low-profile Additions, Thoracic-lumbar-sacral Orthotics .","Addition to Thoracic-lumbar-sacral orthosis (TLSO), (low profile), abdominal pad",HCPS +L1280,"Low-profile Additions, Thoracic-lumbar-sacral Orthotics .","Addition to Thoracic-lumbar-sacral orthosis (TLSO), (low profile), rib gusset (elastic), each",HCPS +L1290,"Low-profile Additions, Thoracic-lumbar-sacral Orthotics .","Addition to Thoracic-lumbar-sacral orthosis (TLSO), (low profile), lateral trochanteric pad",HCPS +L1300,Other Scoliosis and Spinal Orthotics and Procedures .,"Other scoliosis procedure, body jacket molded to patient model",HCPS +L1310,Other Scoliosis and Spinal Orthotics and Procedures .,"Other scoliosis procedure, post-operative body jacket",HCPS +L1499,Other Scoliosis and Spinal Orthotics and Procedures .,"Spinal orthosis, not otherwise specified",HCPS +L1600,Hip Orthotics .,"Hip orthosis, abduction control of hip joints, flexible, Frejka type with cover, prefabricated item that has been trimmed, bent, molded, assembled, or otherwise customized to fit a specific patient by an individual with expertise",HCPS +L1610,Hip Orthotics .,"Hip orthosis, abduction control of hip joints, flexible, (Frejka cover only), prefabricated item that has been trimmed, bent, molded, assembled, or otherwise customized to fit a specific patient by an individual with expertise",HCPS +L1620,Hip Orthotics .,"Hip orthosis, abduction control of hip joints, flexible, (Pavlik harness), prefabricated item that has been trimmed, bent, molded, assembled, or otherwise customized to fit a specific patient by an individual with expertise",HCPS +L1630,Hip Orthotics .,"Hip orthosis (HO), abduction control of hip joints, semi-flexible (Von Rosen type), custom-fabricated",HCPS +L1640,Hip Orthotics .,"Hip orthosis (HO), abduction control of hip joints, static, pelvic band or spreader bar, thigh cuffs, custom-fabricated",HCPS +L1650,Hip Orthotics .,"Hip orthosis (HO), abduction control of hip joints, static, adjustable, (Ilfled type), prefabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L1652,Hip Orthotics .,"Hip orthosis (HO), bilateral thigh cuffs with adjustable abductor spreader bar, adult size, prefabricated, includes fitting and adjustment, any type",HCPS +L1660,Hip Orthotics .,"Hip orthosis (HO), abduction control of hip joints, static, plastic, prefabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L1680,Hip Orthotics .,"Hip orthosis (HO), abduction control of hip joints, dynamic, pelvic control, adjustable hip motion control, thigh cuffs (Rancho hip action type), custom fabricated",HCPS +L1681,Hip Orthotics .,"Hip orthosis, bilateral hip joints and thigh cuffs, adjustable flexion, extension, abduction control of hip joint, postoperative hip abduction type, prefabricated item that has been trimmed, bent, molded, assembled, or otherwise customized to fit a specific patient by an individual with expertise",HCPS +L1685,Hip Orthotics .,"Hip orthosis (HO), abduction control of hip joint, postoperative hip abduction type, custom fabricated",HCPS +L1686,Hip Orthotics .,"Hip orthosis (HO), abduction control of hip joint, postoperative hip abduction type, prefabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L1690,Hip Orthotics .,"Combination, bilateral, lumbo-sacral, hip, femur orthosis providing adduction and internal rotation control, prefabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L1700,Legg Perthes Orthotics .,"Legg perthes orthosis, (Toronto type), custom-fabricated",HCPS +L1710,Legg Perthes Orthotics .,"Legg perthes orthosis, (Newington type), custom fabricated",HCPS +L1720,Legg Perthes Orthotics .,"Legg perthes orthosis, trilateral, (Tachdijan type), custom-fabricated",HCPS +L1730,Legg Perthes Orthotics .,"Legg perthes orthosis, (Scottish Rite type), custom-fabricated",HCPS +L1755,Legg Perthes Orthotics .,"Legg perthes orthosis, (Patten bottom type), custom-fabricated",HCPS +L1810,Knee Orthotics .,"Knee orthosis (KO), elastic with joints, prefabricated item that has been trimmed, bent, molded, assembled, or otherwise customized to fit a specific patient by an individual with expertise",HCPS +L1812,Knee Orthotics .,"Knee orthosis (KO), elastic with joints, prefabricated, off-the-shelf",HCPS +L1820,Knee Orthotics .,"Knee orthosis (KO), elastic with condylar pads and joints, with or without patellar control, prefabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L1830,Knee Orthotics .,"Knee orthosis (KO), immobilizer, canvas longitudinal, prefabricated, off-the-shelf",HCPS +L1831,Knee Orthotics .,"Knee orthosis (KO), locking knee joint(s), positional orthosis, prefabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L1832,Knee Orthotics .,"Knee orthosis (KO), adjustable knee joints (unicentric or polycentric), positional orthosis, rigid support, prefabricated item that has been trimmed, bent, molded, assembled, or otherwise customized to fit a specific patient by an individual with expertise",HCPS +L1833,Knee Orthotics .,"Knee orthosis (KO), adjustable knee joints (unicentric or polycentric), positional orthosis, rigid support, prefabricated, off-the shelf",HCPS +L1834,Knee Orthotics .,"Knee orthosis (KO), without knee joint, rigid, custom-fabricated",HCPS +L1836,Knee Orthotics .,"Knee orthosis (KO), rigid, without joint(s), includes soft interface material, prefabricated, off-the-shelf",HCPS +L1840,Knee Orthotics .,"Knee orthosis (KO), derotation, medial-lateral, anterior cruciate ligament, custom fabricated",HCPS +L1843,Knee Orthotics .,"Knee orthosis (KO), single upright, thigh and calf, with adjustable flexion and extension joint (unicentric or polycentric), medial-lateral and rotation control, with or without varus/valgus adjustment, prefabricated item that has been trimmed, bent, molded, assembled, or otherwise customized to fit a specific patient by an individual with expertise",HCPS +L1844,Knee Orthotics .,"Knee orthosis (KO), single upright, thigh and calf, with adjustable flexion and extension joint (unicentric or polycentric), medial-lateral and rotation control, with or without varus/valgus adjustment, custom fabricated",HCPS +L1845,Knee Orthotics .,"Knee orthosis (KO), double upright, thigh and calf, with adjustable flexion and extension joint (unicentric or polycentric), medial-lateral and rotation control, with or without varus/valgus adjustment, prefabricated item that has been trimmed, bent, molded, assembled, or otherwise customized to fit a specific patient by an individual with expertise",HCPS +L1846,Knee Orthotics .,"Knee orthosis (KO), double upright, thigh and calf, with adjustable flexion and extension joint (unicentric or polycentric), medial-lateral and rotation control, with or without varus/valgus adjustment, custom fabricated",HCPS +L1847,Knee Orthotics .,"Knee orthosis (KO), double upright with adjustable joint, with inflatable air support chamber(s), prefabricated item that has been trimmed, bent, molded, assembled, or otherwise customized to fit a specific patient by an individual with expertise",HCPS +L1848,Knee Orthotics .,"Knee orthosis (KO), double upright with adjustable joint, with inflatable air support chamber(s), prefabricated, off-the-shelf",HCPS +L1850,Knee Orthotics .,"Knee orthosis (KO), swedish type, prefabricated, off-the-shelf",HCPS +L1851,Knee Orthotics .,"Knee orthosis (ko), single upright, thigh and calf, with adjustable flexion and extension joint (unicentric or polycentric), medial-lateral and rotation control, with or without varus/valgus adjustment, prefabricated, off-the-shelf",HCPS +L1852,Knee Orthotics .,"Knee orthosis (ko), double upright, thigh and calf, with adjustable flexion and extension joint (unicentric or polycentric), medial-lateral and rotation control, with or without varus/valgus adjustment, prefabricated, off-the-shelf",HCPS +L1860,Knee Orthotics .,"Knee orthosis (KO), modification of supracondylar prosthetic socket, custom-fabricated (SK)",HCPS +L1900,Ankle-foot Orthotics .,"Ankle foot orthosis (AFO), spring wire, dorsiflexion assist calf band, custom-fabricated",HCPS +L1902,Ankle-foot Orthotics .,"Ankle orthosis, ankle gauntlet or similar, with or without joints, prefabricated, off-the-shelf",HCPS +L1904,Ankle-foot Orthotics .,"Ankle orthosis, ankle gauntlet or similar, with or without joints, custom fabricated",HCPS +L1906,Ankle-foot Orthotics .,"Ankle foot orthosis, multiligamentous ankle support, prefabricated, off-the-shelf",HCPS +L1907,Ankle-foot Orthotics .,"Ankle orthosis, supramalleolar with straps, with or without interface/pads, custom fabricated",HCPS +L1910,Ankle-foot Orthotics .,"Ankle foot orthosis (AFO), posterior, single bar, clasp attachment to shoe counter, prefabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L1920,Ankle-foot Orthotics .,"Ankle foot orthosis (AFO), single upright with static or adjustable stop (phelps or perlstein type), custom-fabricated",HCPS +L1930,Ankle-foot Orthotics .,"Ankle foot orthosis (AFO), plastic or other material, prefabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L1932,Ankle-foot Orthotics .,"Ankle foot orthosis (AFO), rigid anterior tibial section, total carbon fiber or equal material, prefabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L1940,Ankle-foot Orthotics .,"Ankle foot orthosis (AFO), plastic or other material, custom-fabricated",HCPS +L1945,Ankle-foot Orthotics .,"Ankle foot orthosis (AFO), plastic, rigid anterior tibial section (floor reaction), custom-fabricated",HCPS +L1950,Ankle-foot Orthotics .,"Ankle foot orthosis (AFO), spiral, (institute of rehabilitative medicine type), plastic, custom-fabricated",HCPS +L1951,Ankle-foot Orthotics .,"Ankle foot orthosis (AFO), spiral, (institute of rehabilitative medicine type), plastic or other material, prefabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L1960,Ankle-foot Orthotics .,"Ankle foot orthosis (AFO), posterior solid ankle, plastic, custom-fabricated",HCPS +L1970,Ankle-foot Orthotics .,"Ankle foot orthosis (AFO), plastic with ankle joint, custom-fabricated",HCPS +L1971,Ankle-foot Orthotics .,"Ankle foot orthosis (AFO), plastic or other material with ankle joint, prefabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L1980,Ankle-foot Orthotics .,"Ankle foot orthosis (AFO), single upright free plantar dorsiflexion, solid stirrup, calf band/cuff (single bar 'BK' orthosis), custom-fabricated",HCPS +L1990,Ankle-foot Orthotics .,"Ankle foot orthosis (AFO), double upright free plantar dorsiflexion, solid stirrup, calf band/cuff (double bar 'BK' orthosis), custom-fabricated",HCPS +L2000,Knee-ankle-foot Orthotics .,"Knee ankle foot orthosis (KAFO), single upright, free knee, free ankle, solid stirrup, thigh and calf bands/cuffs (single bar 'AK' orthosis), custom-fabricated",HCPS +L2005,Knee-ankle-foot Orthotics .,"Knee ankle foot orthosis (KAFO), any material, single or double upright, stance control, automatic lock and swing phase release, any type activation, includes ankle joint, any type, custom fabricated",HCPS +L2006,Knee-ankle-foot Orthotics .,"Knee ankle foot device, any material, single or double upright, swing and stance phase microprocessor control with adjustability, includes all components (e.g., sensors, batteries, charger), any type activation, with or without ankle joint(s), custom fabricated",HCPS +L2010,Knee-ankle-foot Orthotics .,"Knee ankle foot orthosis (KAFO), single upright, free ankle, solid stirrup, thigh and calf bands/cuffs (single bar 'AK' orthosis), without knee joint, custom-fabricated",HCPS +L2020,Knee-ankle-foot Orthotics .,"Knee ankle foot orthosis (KAFO), double upright, free ankle, solid stirrup, thigh and calf bands/cuffs (double bar 'AK' orthosis), custom-fabricated",HCPS +L2030,Knee-ankle-foot Orthotics .,"Knee ankle foot orthosis (KAFO), double upright, free ankle, solid stirrup, thigh and calf bands/cuffs, (double bar 'AK' orthosis), without knee joint, custom fabricated",HCPS +L2034,Knee-ankle-foot Orthotics .,"Knee ankle foot orthosis (KAFO), full plastic, single upright, with or without free motion knee, medial lateral rotation control, with or without free motion ankle, custom fabricated",HCPS +L2035,Knee-ankle-foot Orthotics .,"Knee ankle foot orthosis (KAFO), full plastic, static (pediatric size), without free motion ankle, prefabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L2036,Knee-ankle-foot Orthotics .,"Knee ankle foot orthosis, full plastic, double upright, with or without free motion knee, with or without free motion ankle, custom fabricated",HCPS +L2037,Knee-ankle-foot Orthotics .,"Knee ankle foot orthosis (KAFO), full plastic, single upright, with or without free motion knee, with or without free motion ankle, custom fabricated",HCPS +L2038,Knee-ankle-foot Orthotics .,"Knee ankle foot orthosis (KAFO), full plastic, with or without free motion knee, multi-axis ankle, custom fabricated",HCPS +L2040,Hip-knee-ankle-foot Orthotics .,"Hip knee ankle foot orthosis (HKAFO), torsion control, bilateral rotation straps, pelvic band/belt, custom fabricated",HCPS +L2050,Hip-knee-ankle-foot Orthotics .,"Hip knee ankle foot orthosis (HKAFO), torsion control, bilateral torsion cables, hip joint, pelvic band/belt, custom-fabricated",HCPS +L2060,Hip-knee-ankle-foot Orthotics .,"Hip knee ankle foot orthosis (HKAFO), torsion control, bilateral torsion cables, ball bearing hip joint, pelvic band/ belt, custom-fabricated",HCPS +L2070,Hip-knee-ankle-foot Orthotics .,"Hip knee ankle foot orthosis (HKAFO), torsion control, unilateral rotation straps, pelvic band/belt, custom fabricated",HCPS +L2080,Hip-knee-ankle-foot Orthotics .,"Hip knee ankle foot orthosis (HKAFO), torsion control, unilateral torsion cable, hip joint, pelvic band/belt, custom-fabricated",HCPS +L2090,Hip-knee-ankle-foot Orthotics .,"Hip knee ankle foot orthosis (HKAFO), torsion control, unilateral torsion cable, ball bearing hip joint, pelvic band/ belt, custom-fabricated",HCPS +L2106,Ankle-foot Orthotics .,"Ankle foot orthosis (AFO), fracture orthosis, tibial fracture cast orthosis, thermoplastic type casting material, custom-fabricated",HCPS +L2108,Ankle-foot Orthotics .,"Ankle foot orthosis (AFO), fracture orthosis, tibial fracture cast orthosis, custom-fabricated",HCPS +L2112,Ankle-foot Orthotics .,"Ankle foot orthosis (AFO), fracture orthosis, tibial fracture orthosis, soft, prefabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L2114,Ankle-foot Orthotics .,"Ankle foot orthosis (AFO), fracture orthosis, tibial fracture orthosis, semi-rigid, prefabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L2116,Ankle-foot Orthotics .,"Ankle foot orthosis (AFO), fracture orthosis, tibial fracture orthosis, rigid, prefabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L2126,Knee-ankle-foot Orthotics .,"Knee ankle foot orthosis (KAFO), fracture orthosis, femoral fracture cast orthosis, thermoplastic type casting material, custom-fabricated",HCPS +L2128,Knee-ankle-foot Orthotics .,"Knee ankle foot orthosis(KAFO), fracture orthosis, femoral fracture cast orthosis, custom-fabricated",HCPS +L2132,Knee-ankle-foot Orthotics .,"Knee ankle foot orthosis(KAFO), fracture orthosis, femoral fracture cast orthosis, soft, prefabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L2134,Knee-ankle-foot Orthotics .,"Knee ankle foot orthosis(KAFO), fracture orthosis, femoral fracture cast orthosis, semi-rigid, prefabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L2136,Knee-ankle-foot Orthotics .,"Knee ankle foot orthosis(KAFO), fracture orthosis, femoral fracture cast orthosis, rigid, prefabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L2180,"Additions, Lower Extremity, Fracture Orthotics .","Addition to lower extremity fracture orthosis, plastic shoe insert with ankle joints",HCPS +L2182,"Additions, Lower Extremity, Fracture Orthotics .","Addition to lower extremity fracture orthosis, drop lock knee joint",HCPS +L2184,"Additions, Lower Extremity, Fracture Orthotics .","Addition to lower extremity fracture orthosis, limited motion knee joint",HCPS +L2186,"Additions, Lower Extremity, Fracture Orthotics .","Addition to lower extremity fracture orthosis, adjustable motion knee joint, lerman type",HCPS +L2188,"Additions, Lower Extremity, Fracture Orthotics .","Addition to lower extremity fracture orthosis, quadrilateral brim",HCPS +L2190,"Additions, Lower Extremity, Fracture Orthotics .","Addition to lower extremity fracture orthosis, waist belt",HCPS +L2192,"Additions, Lower Extremity, Fracture Orthotics .","Addition to lower extremity fracture orthosis, hip joint, pelvic band, thigh flange, and pelvic belt",HCPS +L2200,"Additions, Lower Extremity Orthotics .","Addition to lower extremity, limited ankle motion, each joint",HCPS +L2210,"Additions, Lower Extremity Orthotics .","Addition to lower extremity, dorsiflexion assist (plantar flexion resist), each joint",HCPS +L2220,"Additions, Lower Extremity Orthotics .","Addition to lower extremity, dorsiflexion and plantar flexion assist/resist, each joint",HCPS +L2230,"Additions, Lower Extremity Orthotics .","Addition to lower extremity, split flat caliper stirrups and plate attachment",HCPS +L2232,"Additions, Lower Extremity Orthotics .","Addition to lower extremity orthosis, rocker bottom for total contact ankle foot orthosis (AFO), for custom fabricated orthosis only",HCPS +L2240,"Additions, Lower Extremity Orthotics .","Addition to lower extremity, round caliper and plate attachment",HCPS +L2250,"Additions, Lower Extremity Orthotics .","Addition to lower extremity, foot plate, molded to patient model, stirrup attachment",HCPS +L2260,"Additions, Lower Extremity Orthotics .","Addition to lower extremity, reinforced solid stirrup (Scott-Craig type)",HCPS +L2265,"Additions, Lower Extremity Orthotics .","Addition to lower extremity, long tongue stirrup",HCPS +L2270,"Additions, Lower Extremity Orthotics .","Addition to lower extremity, varus/valgus correction ('T') strap, padded/lined or malleolus pad",HCPS +L2275,"Additions, Lower Extremity Orthotics .","Addition to lower extremity, varus/valgus correction, plastic modification, padded/lined",HCPS +L2280,"Additions, Lower Extremity Orthotics .","Addition to lower extremity, molded inner boot",HCPS +L2300,"Additions, Lower Extremity Orthotics .","Addition to lower extremity, abduction bar (bilateral hip involvement), jointed, adjustable",HCPS +L2310,"Additions, Lower Extremity Orthotics .","Addition to lower extremity, abduction bar-straight",HCPS +L2320,"Additions, Lower Extremity Orthotics .","Addition to lower extremity, non-molded lacer, for custom fabricated orthosis only",HCPS +L2330,"Additions, Lower Extremity Orthotics .","Addition to lower extremity, lacer molded to patient model, for custom fabricated orthosis only",HCPS +L2335,"Additions, Lower Extremity Orthotics .","Addition to lower extremity, anterior swing band",HCPS +L2340,"Additions, Lower Extremity Orthotics .","Addition to lower extremity, pre-tibial shell, molded to patient model",HCPS +L2350,"Additions, Lower Extremity Orthotics .","Addition to lower extremity, prosthetic type, (BK) socket, molded to patient model, (used for 'PTB' 'AFO' orthoses)",HCPS +L2360,"Additions, Lower Extremity Orthotics .","Addition to lower extremity, extended steel shank",HCPS +L2370,"Additions, Lower Extremity Orthotics .","Addition to lower extremity, Patten bottom",HCPS +L2375,"Additions, Lower Extremity Orthotics .","Addition to lower extremity, torsion control, ankle joint and half solid stirrup",HCPS +L2380,"Additions, Lower Extremity Orthotics .","Addition to lower extremity, torsion control, straight knee joint, each joint",HCPS +L2385,"Additions, Lower Extremity Orthotics .","Addition to lower extremity, straight knee joint, heavy duty, each joint",HCPS +L2387,"Additions, Lower Extremity Orthotics .","Addition to lower extremity, polycentric knee joint, for custom fabricated knee ankle foot orthosis (KAFO), each joint",HCPS +L2390,"Additions, Lower Extremity Orthotics .","Addition to lower extremity, offset knee joint, each joint",HCPS +L2395,"Additions, Lower Extremity Orthotics .","Addition to lower extremity, offset knee joint, heavy duty, each joint",HCPS +L2397,"Additions, Lower Extremity Orthotics .","Addition to lower extremity orthosis, suspension sleeve",HCPS +L2405,Orthotic Additions to Knee Joints .,"Addition to knee joint, drop lock, each",HCPS +L2415,Orthotic Additions to Knee Joints .,"Addition to knee lock with integrated release mechanism ( bail, cable, or equal), any material, each joint",HCPS +L2425,Orthotic Additions to Knee Joints .,"Addition to knee joint, disc or dial lock for adjustable knee flexion, each joint",HCPS +L2430,Orthotic Additions to Knee Joints .,"Addition to knee joint, ratchet lock for active and progressive knee extension, each joint",HCPS +L2492,Orthotic Additions to Knee Joints .,"Addition to knee joint, lift loop for drop lock ring",HCPS +L2500,"Additions, Weight-bearing, Lower Extremities .","Addition to lower extremity, thigh/weight bearing, gluteal/ ischial weight bearing, ring",HCPS +L2510,"Additions, Weight-bearing, Lower Extremities .","Addition to lower extremity, thigh/weight bearing, quadri- lateral brim, molded to patient model",HCPS +L2520,"Additions, Weight-bearing, Lower Extremities .","Addition to lower extremity, thigh/weight bearing, quadri- lateral brim, custom fitted",HCPS +L2525,"Additions, Weight-bearing, Lower Extremities .","Addition to lower extremity, thigh/weight bearing, ischial containment/narrow M-L brim molded to patient model",HCPS +L2526,"Additions, Weight-bearing, Lower Extremities .","Addition to lower extremity, thigh/weight bearing, ischial containment/narrow M-L brim, custom fitted",HCPS +L2530,"Additions, Weight-bearing, Lower Extremities .","Addition to lower extremity, thigh-weight bearing, lacer, non-molded",HCPS +L2540,"Additions, Weight-bearing, Lower Extremities .","Addition to lower extremity, thigh/weight bearing, lacer, molded to patient model",HCPS +L2550,"Additions, Weight-bearing, Lower Extremities .","Addition to lower extremity, thigh/weight bearing, high roll cuff",HCPS +L2570,"Additions, Pelvic and/or Thoracic Control, Lower Extremities .","Addition to lower extremity, pelvic control, hip joint, Clevis type two position joint, each",HCPS +L2580,"Additions, Pelvic and/or Thoracic Control, Lower Extremities .","Addition to lower extremity, pelvic control, pelvic sling",HCPS +L2600,"Additions, Pelvic and/or Thoracic Control, Lower Extremities .","Addition to lower extremity, pelvic control, hip joint, Clevis type, or thrust bearing, free, each",HCPS +L2610,"Additions, Pelvic and/or Thoracic Control, Lower Extremities .","Addition to lower extremity, pelvic control,hip joint, Clevis type or thrust bearing, lock, each",HCPS +L2620,"Additions, Pelvic and/or Thoracic Control, Lower Extremities .","Addition to lower extremity, pelvic control, hip joint, heavy duty, each",HCPS +L2622,"Additions, Pelvic and/or Thoracic Control, Lower Extremities .","Addition to lower extremity, pelvic control, hip joint, adjustable flexion, each",HCPS +L2624,"Additions, Pelvic and/or Thoracic Control, Lower Extremities .","Addition to lower extremity, pelvic control, hip joint, adjustable flexion, extension, abduction control, each",HCPS +L2627,"Additions, Pelvic and/or Thoracic Control, Lower Extremities .","Addition to lower extremity, pelvic control, plastic, molded to patient model, reciprocating hip joint and cables",HCPS +L2628,"Additions, Pelvic and/or Thoracic Control, Lower Extremities .","Addition to lower extremity, pelvic control, metal frame, reciprocating hip joint and cables",HCPS +L2630,"Additions, Pelvic and/or Thoracic Control, Lower Extremities .","Addition to lower extremity, pelvic control, band and belt, unilateral",HCPS +L2640,"Additions, Pelvic and/or Thoracic Control, Lower Extremities .","Addition to lower extremity, pelvic control, band and belt, bilateral",HCPS +L2650,"Additions, Pelvic and/or Thoracic Control, Lower Extremities .","Addition to lower extremity, pelvic and thoracic control, gluteal pad, each",HCPS +L2660,"Additions, Pelvic and/or Thoracic Control, Lower Extremities .","Addition to lower extremity, thoracic control, thoracic band",HCPS +L2670,"Additions, Pelvic and/or Thoracic Control, Lower Extremities .","Addition to lower extremity, thoracic control, paraspinal uprights",HCPS +L2680,"Additions, Pelvic and/or Thoracic Control, Lower Extremities .","Addition to lower extremity, thoracic control, lateral support uprights",HCPS +L2750,Other Lower Extremity Additions .,"Addition to lower extremity orthosis, plating chrome or nickel, per bar",HCPS +L2755,Other Lower Extremity Additions .,"Addition to lower extremity orthosis, high strength, lightweight material, all hybrid lamination/prepreg composite, per segment, for custom fabricated orthosis only",HCPS +L2760,Other Lower Extremity Additions .,"Addition to lower extremity orthosis, extension, per extension, per bar (for lineal adjustment for growth)",HCPS +L2768,Other Lower Extremity Additions .,"Orthotic side bar disconnect device, per bar",HCPS +L2780,Other Lower Extremity Additions .,"Addition to lower extremity orthosis, non-corrosive finish, per bar",HCPS +L2785,Other Lower Extremity Additions .,"Addition to lower extremity orthosis, drop lock retainer, each",HCPS +L2795,Other Lower Extremity Additions .,"Addition to lower extremity orthosis, knee control, full kneecap",HCPS +L2800,Other Lower Extremity Additions .,"Addition to lower extremity orthosis, knee control, knee cap, medial or lateral pull, for use with custom fabricated orthosis only",HCPS +L2810,Other Lower Extremity Additions .,"Addition to lower extremity orthosis, knee control, condylar pad",HCPS +L2820,Other Lower Extremity Additions .,"Addition to lower extremity orthosis, soft interface for molded plastic, below knee section",HCPS +L2830,Other Lower Extremity Additions .,"Addition to lower extremity orthosis, soft interface for molded plastic, above knee section",HCPS +L2840,Other Lower Extremity Additions .,"Addition to lower extremity orthosis, tibial length sock, fracture or equal, each",HCPS +L2850,Other Lower Extremity Additions .,"Addition to lower extremity orthosis, femoral length sock, fracture or equal, each",HCPS +L2861,Other Lower Extremity Additions .,"Addition to lower extremity joint, knee or ankle, concentric adjustable torsion style mechanism for custom fabricated orthotics only, each",HCPS +L2999,Other Lower Extremity Additions .,"Lower extremity orthoses, not otherwise specified",HCPS +L3000,"Foot Inserts, Removable .","Foot, insert, removable, molded to patient model, 'UCB' type, Berkeley Shell, each",HCPS +L3001,"Foot Inserts, Removable .","Foot, insert, removable, molded to patient model, Spenco, each",HCPS +L3002,"Foot Inserts, Removable .","Foot, insert, removable, molded to patient model, Plastazote or equal, each",HCPS +L3003,"Foot Inserts, Removable .","Foot, insert, removable, molded to patient model, silicone gel, each",HCPS +L3010,"Foot Inserts, Removable .","Foot, insert, removable, molded to patient model, longitudinal arch support, each",HCPS +L3020,"Foot Inserts, Removable .","Foot, insert, removable, molded to patient model, longitudinal/ metatarsal support, each",HCPS +L3030,"Foot Inserts, Removable .","Foot, insert, removable, formed to patient foot, each",HCPS +L3031,"Foot Inserts, Removable .","Foot, insert/plate, removable, addition to lower extremity orthosis, high strength, lightweight material, all hybrid lamination/prepreg composite, each",HCPS +L3040,Foot Arch Supports .,"Foot, arch support, removable, premolded, longitudinal, each",HCPS +L3050,Foot Arch Supports .,"Foot, arch support, removable, premolded, metatarsal, each",HCPS +L3060,Foot Arch Supports .,"Foot, arch support, removable, premolded, longitudinal/ metatarsal, each",HCPS +L3070,Foot Arch Supports .,"Foot, arch support, non-removable attached to shoe, longitudinal, each",HCPS +L3080,Foot Arch Supports .,"Foot, arch support, non-removable attached to shoe, metatarsal, each",HCPS +L3090,Foot Arch Supports .,"Foot, arch support, non-removable attached to shoe, longitudinal/metatarsal, each",HCPS +L3100,Repositioning Foot Orthotics .,"Hallus-valgus night dynamic splint, prefabricated, off-the-shelf",HCPS +L3140,Repositioning Foot Orthotics .,"Foot, abduction rotation bar, including shoes",HCPS +L3150,Repositioning Foot Orthotics .,"Foot, abduction rotatation bar, without shoes",HCPS +L3160,Repositioning Foot Orthotics .,"Foot, adjustable shoe-styled positioning device",HCPS +L3161,Repositioning Foot Orthotics .,"Foot, adductus positioning device, adjustable",HCPS +L3170,Repositioning Foot Orthotics .,"Foot, plastic, silicone or equal, heel stabilizer, prafabricated, off-the-shelf, each",HCPS +L3201,Orthopedic Shoes .,"Orthopedic shoe, Oxford with supinator or pronator, infant",HCPS +L3202,Orthopedic Shoes .,"Orthopedic shoe, Oxford with supinator or pronator, child",HCPS +L3203,Orthopedic Shoes .,"Orthopedic shoe, Oxford with supinator or pronator, junior",HCPS +L3204,Orthopedic Shoes .,"Orthopedic shoe, hightop with supinator or pronator, infant",HCPS +L3206,Orthopedic Shoes .,"Orthopedic shoe, hightop with supinator or pronator, child",HCPS +L3207,Orthopedic Shoes .,"Orthopedic shoe, hightop with supinator or pronator, junior",HCPS +L3208,Surgical Boots .,"Surgical boot, each, infant",HCPS +L3209,Surgical Boots .,"Surgical boot, each, child",HCPS +L3211,Surgical Boots .,"Surgical boot, each, junior",HCPS +L3212,Benesch Boots .,"Benesch boot, pair, infant",HCPS +L3213,Benesch Boots .,"Benesch boot, pair, child",HCPS +L3214,Benesch Boots .,"Benesch boot, pair, junior",HCPS +L3215,Other Orthopedic Footwear .,"Orthopedic footwear, ladies shoe, Oxford, each",HCPS +L3216,Other Orthopedic Footwear .,"Orthopedic footwear, ladies shoe, depth inlay, each",HCPS +L3217,Other Orthopedic Footwear .,"Orthopedic footwear, ladies shoe, hightop, depth inlay, each",HCPS +L3219,Other Orthopedic Footwear .,"Orthopedic footwear, mens shoe, Oxford, each",HCPS +L3221,Other Orthopedic Footwear .,"Orthopedic footwear, mens shoe, depth inlay, each",HCPS +L3222,Other Orthopedic Footwear .,"Orthopedic footwear, mens shoe, hightop, depth inlay, each",HCPS +L3224,Other Orthopedic Footwear .,"Orthopedic footwear, woman's shoe, Oxford, used as an integral part of a brace (orthosis)",HCPS +L3225,Other Orthopedic Footwear .,"Orthopedic footwear, man's shoe, Oxford, used as an integral part of a brace (orthosis)",HCPS +L3230,Other Orthopedic Footwear .,"Orthopedic footwear, custom shoe, depth inlay, each",HCPS +L3250,Other Orthopedic Footwear .,"Orthopedic footwear, custom molded shoe, removable inner mold, prosthetic shoe, each",HCPS +L3251,Other Orthopedic Footwear .,"Foot, shoe molded to patient model, silicone shoe, each",HCPS +L3252,Other Orthopedic Footwear .,"Foot, shoe molded to patient model, Plastazote (or similar), custom fabricated, each",HCPS +L3253,Other Orthopedic Footwear .,"Foot, molded shoe Plastazote (or similar) custom fitted, each",HCPS +L3254,Other Orthopedic Footwear .,Non-standard size or width,HCPS +L3255,Other Orthopedic Footwear .,Non-standard size or length,HCPS +L3257,Other Orthopedic Footwear .,"Orthopedic footwear, additional charge for split size",HCPS +L3260,Other Orthopedic Footwear .,"Surgical boot/shoe, each",HCPS +L3265,Other Orthopedic Footwear .,"Plastazote sandal, each",HCPS +L3300,Shoe Lifts .,"Lift, elevation, heel, tapered to metatarsals, per inch",HCPS +L3310,Shoe Lifts .,"Lift, elevation, heel and sole, neoprene, per inch",HCPS +L3320,Shoe Lifts .,"Lift, elevation, heel and sole, cork, per inch",HCPS +L3330,Shoe Lifts .,"Lift, elevation, metal extension (skate)",HCPS +L3332,Shoe Lifts .,"Lift, elevation, inside shoe, tapered, up to one-half inch",HCPS +L3334,Shoe Lifts .,"Lift, elevation, heel, per inch",HCPS +L3340,Shoe Wedges .,"Heel wedge, SACH",HCPS +L3350,Shoe Wedges .,Heel wedge,HCPS +L3360,Shoe Wedges .,"Sole wedge, outside sole",HCPS +L3370,Shoe Wedges .,"Sole wedge, between sole",HCPS +L3380,Shoe Wedges .,Clubfoot wedge,HCPS +L3390,Shoe Wedges .,Outflare wedge,HCPS +L3400,Shoe Wedges .,"Metatarsal bar wedge, rocker",HCPS +L3410,Shoe Wedges .,"Metatarsal bar wedge, between sole",HCPS +L3420,Shoe Wedges .,"Full sole and heel wedge, between sole",HCPS +L3430,Shoe Heels .,"Heel, counter, plastic reinforced",HCPS +L3440,Shoe Heels .,"Heel, counter, leather reinforced",HCPS +L3450,Shoe Heels .,"Heel, SACH cushion type",HCPS +L3455,Shoe Heels .,"Heel, new leather, standard",HCPS +L3460,Shoe Heels .,"Heel, new rubber, standard",HCPS +L3465,Shoe Heels .,"Heel, Thomas with wedge",HCPS +L3470,Shoe Heels .,"Heel, Thomas extended to ball",HCPS +L3480,Shoe Heels .,"Heel, pad and depression for spur",HCPS +L3485,Shoe Heels .,"Heel, pad, removable for spur",HCPS +L3500,Other Orthopedic Shoe Additions .,"Orthopedic shoe addition, insole, leather",HCPS +L3510,Other Orthopedic Shoe Additions .,"Orthopedic shoe addition, insole, rubber",HCPS +L3520,Other Orthopedic Shoe Additions .,"Orthopedic shoe addition, insole, felt covered with leather",HCPS +L3530,Other Orthopedic Shoe Additions .,"Orthopedic shoe addition, sole, half",HCPS +L3540,Other Orthopedic Shoe Additions .,"Orthopedic shoe addition, sole, full",HCPS +L3550,Other Orthopedic Shoe Additions .,"Orthopedic shoe addition, toe tap standard",HCPS +L3560,Other Orthopedic Shoe Additions .,"Orthopedic shoe addition, toe tap, horseshoe",HCPS +L3570,Other Orthopedic Shoe Additions .,"Orthopedic shoe addition, special extension to instep (leather with eyelets)",HCPS +L3580,Other Orthopedic Shoe Additions .,"Orthopedic shoe addition, convert instep to velcro closure",HCPS +L3590,Other Orthopedic Shoe Additions .,"Orthopedic shoe addition, convert firm shoe counter to soft counter",HCPS +L3595,Other Orthopedic Shoe Additions .,"Orthopedic shoe addition, March bar",HCPS +L3600,Orthosis Transfers .,"Transfer of an orthosis from one shoe to another, caliper plate, existing",HCPS +L3610,Orthosis Transfers .,"Transfer of an orthosis from one shoe to another, caliper plate, new",HCPS +L3620,Orthosis Transfers .,"Transfer of an orthosis from one shoe to another, solid stirrup, existing",HCPS +L3630,Orthosis Transfers .,"Transfer of an orthosis from one shoe to another, solid stirrup, new",HCPS +L3640,Orthosis Transfers .,"Transfer of an orthosis from one shoe to another, dennis browne splint (Riveton), both shoes",HCPS +L3649,Orthosis Transfers .,"Orthopedic shoe, modification, addition or transfer, not otherwise specified",HCPS +L3650,Shoulder Orthotics .,"Shoulder orthosis (SO), figure of eight design abduction restrainer, prefabricated, off-the-shelf",HCPS +L3660,Shoulder Orthotics .,"Shoulder orthosis (SO), figure of eight design abduction restrainer, canvas and webbing, prefabricated, off-the-shelf",HCPS +L3670,Shoulder Orthotics .,"Shoulder orthosis (SO), acromio/clavicular (canvas and webbing type), prefabricated, off-the-shelf",HCPS +L3671,Shoulder Orthotics .,"Shoulder orthosis (SO), shoulder joint design, without joints, may include soft interface, straps, custom fabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L3674,Shoulder Orthotics .,"Shoulder orthosis (SO), abduction positioning (airplane design), thoracic component and support bar, with or without nontorsion joint/turnbuckle, may include soft interface, straps, custom fabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L3675,Shoulder Orthotics .,"Shoulder orthosis (SO), vest type abduction restrainer, canvas webbing type or equal, prefabricated, off-the-shelf",HCPS +L3677,Shoulder Orthotics .,"Shoulder orthosis (SO), shoulder joint design, without joints, may include soft interface, straps, prefabricated item that has been trimmed, bent, molded, assembled, or otherwise customized to fit a specific patient by an individual with expertise",HCPS +L3678,Shoulder Orthotics .,"Shoulder orthosis (SO), shoulder joint design, without joints, may include soft interface, straps, prefabricated, off-the-shelf",HCPS +L3702,Elbow Orthotics .,"Elbow orthosis (EO), without joints, may include soft interface, straps, custom fabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L3710,Elbow Orthotics .,"Elbow orthosis (EO), elastic with metal joints, prefabricated, off-the-shelf",HCPS +L3720,Elbow Orthotics .,"Elbow orthosis (EO), double upright with forearm/arm cuffs, free motion, custom-fabricated",HCPS +L3730,Elbow Orthotics .,"Elbow orthosis (EO), double upright with forearm/arm cuffs, extension/ flexion assist, custom-fabricated",HCPS +L3740,Elbow Orthotics .,"Elbow orthosis (EO), double upright with forearm/arm cuffs, adjustable position lock with active control, custom-fabricated",HCPS +L3760,Elbow Orthotics .,"Elbow orthosis (EO), with adjustable position locking joint(s), prefabricated, item that has been trimmed, bent, molded, assembled, or otherwise customized to fit a specific patient by an individual with expertise",HCPS +L3761,Elbow Orthotics .,"Elbow orthosis (EO), with adjustable position locking joint(s), prefabricated, off-the-shelf",HCPS +L3762,Elbow Orthotics .,"Elbow orthosis (EO), rigid, without joints, includes soft interface material, prefabricated, off-the-shelf",HCPS +L3763,Elbow-wrist-hand Orthotics .,"Elbow wrist hand orthosis (EWHO), rigid, without joints, may include soft interface, straps, custom fabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L3764,Elbow-wrist-hand Orthotics .,"Elbow wrist hand orthosis (EWHO), includes one or more nontorsion joints, elastic bands, turnbuckles, may include soft interface, straps, custom fabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L3765,Elbow-wrist-hand Orthotics .,"Elbow wrist hand finger orthosis (EWHFO), rigid, without joints, may include soft interface, straps, custom fabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L3766,Elbow-wrist-hand Orthotics .,"Elbow wrist hand finger orthosis (EWHFO), includes one or more nontorsion joints, elastic bands, turnbuckles, may include soft interface, straps, custom fabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L3806,Wrist-hand-finger Orthotics .,"Wrist hand finger orthosis (WHFO), includes one or more nontorsion joint(s), turnbuckles, elastic bands/springs, may include soft interface material, straps, custom fabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L3807,Wrist-hand-finger Orthotics .,"Wrist hand finger orthosis (WHFO), without joint(s), prefabricated item that has been trimmed, bent, molded, assembled, or otherwise customized to fit a specific patient by an individual with expertise",HCPS +L3808,Wrist-hand-finger Orthotics .,"Wrist hand finger orthosis (WHFO), rigid without joints, may include soft interface material; straps, custom fabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L3809,Wrist-hand-finger Orthotics .,"Wrist hand finger orthosis (WHFO), without joint(s), prefabricated, off-the-shelf, any type",HCPS +L3891,Wrist-hand-finger Orthotics .,"Addition to upper extremity joint, wrist or elbow, concentric adjustable torsion style mechanism for custom fabricated orthotics only, each",HCPS +L3900,Wrist-hand-finger Orthotics .,"Wrist hand finger orthosis (WHFO), dynamic flexor hinge, reciprocal wrist extension/ flexion, finger flexion/extension, wrist or finger driven, custom-fabricated",HCPS +L3901,Wrist-hand-finger Orthotics .,"Wrist hand finger orthosis (WHFO), dynamic flexor hinge, reciprocal wrist extension/ flexion, finger flexion/extension, cable driven, custom-fabricated",HCPS +L3904,Wrist-hand-finger Orthotics .,"Wrist hand finger orthosis (WHFO), external powered, electric, custom-fabricated",HCPS +L3905,Wrist-hand Orthotics .,"Wrist hand orthosis (WHO), includes one or more nontorsion joints, elastic bands, turnbuckles, may include soft interface, straps, custom fabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L3906,Wrist-hand Orthotics .,"Wrist hand orthosis (WHO), without joints, may include soft interface, straps, custom fabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L3908,Wrist-hand Orthotics .,"Wrist hand orthosis (WHO), wrist extension control cock-up, non molded, prefabricated, off-the-shelf",HCPS +L3912,"Additional Miscellaneous Orthotics, Upper Extremities .","Hand finger orthosis (HFO), flexion glove with elastic finger control, prefabricated, off-the-shelf",HCPS +L3913,"Additional Miscellaneous Orthotics, Upper Extremities .","Hand finger orthosis (HFO), without joints, may include soft interface, straps, custom fabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L3915,"Additional Miscellaneous Orthotics, Upper Extremities .","Wrist hand orthosis (WHO), includes one or more nontorsion joint(s), elastic bands, turnbuckles, may include soft interface, straps, prefabricated item that has been trimmed, bent, molded, assembled, or otherwise customized to fit a specific patient by an individual with expertise",HCPS +L3916,"Additional Miscellaneous Orthotics, Upper Extremities .","Wrist hand orthosis (WHO), includes one or more nontorsion joint(s), elastic bands, turnbuckles, may include soft interface, straps, prefabricated, off-the-shelf",HCPS +L3917,"Additional Miscellaneous Orthotics, Upper Extremities .","Hand orthosis (HO), metacarpal fracture orthosis, prefabricated item that has been trimmed, bent, molded, assembled, or otherwise customized to fit a specific patient by an individual with expertise",HCPS +L3918,"Additional Miscellaneous Orthotics, Upper Extremities .","Hand orthosis (HO), metacarpal fracture orthosis, prefabricated, off-the-shelf",HCPS +L3919,"Additional Miscellaneous Orthotics, Upper Extremities .","Hand orthosis (HO), without joints, may include soft interface, straps, custom fabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L3921,"Additional Miscellaneous Orthotics, Upper Extremities .","Hand finger orthosis (HFO), includes one or more nontorsion joints, elastic bands, turnbuckles, may include soft interface, straps, custom fabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L3923,"Additional Miscellaneous Orthotics, Upper Extremities .","Hand finger orthosis (HFO), without joints, may include soft interface, straps, prefabricated item that has been trimmed, bent, molded, assembled, or otherwise customized to fit a specific patient by an individual with expertise",HCPS +L3924,"Additional Miscellaneous Orthotics, Upper Extremities .","Hand finger orthosis (HFO), without joints, may include soft interface, straps, prefabricated, off-the-shelf",HCPS +L3925,"Additional Miscellaneous Orthotics, Upper Extremities .","Finger orthosis (FO), proximal interphalangeal (PIP)/distal interphalangeal (DIP), non torsion joint/spring, extension/flexion, may include soft interface material, prefabricated, off-the-shelf",HCPS +L3927,"Additional Miscellaneous Orthotics, Upper Extremities .","Finger orthosis (FO), proximal interphalangeal (PIP)/distal interphalangeal (DIP), without joint/spring, extension/flexion (e.g., static or ring type), may include soft interface material, prefabricated, off-the-shelf",HCPS +L3929,"Additional Miscellaneous Orthotics, Upper Extremities .","Hand finger orthosis (HFO), includes one or more nontorsion joint(s), turnbuckles, elastic bands/springs, may include soft interface material, straps, prefabricated item that has been trimmed, bent, molded, assembled, or otherwise customized to fit a specific patient by an individual with expertise",HCPS +L3930,"Additional Miscellaneous Orthotics, Upper Extremities .","Hand finger orthosis (HFO), includes one or more nontorsion joint(s), turnbuckles, elastic bands/springs, may include soft interface material, straps, prefabricated, off-the-shelf",HCPS +L3931,"Additional Miscellaneous Orthotics, Upper Extremities .","Wrist hand finger orthosis (WHFO), includes one or more nontorsion joint(s), turnbuckles, elastic bands/springs, may include soft interface material, straps, prefabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L3933,"Additional Miscellaneous Orthotics, Upper Extremities .","Finger orthosis (FO), without joints, may include soft interface, custom fabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L3935,"Additional Miscellaneous Orthotics, Upper Extremities .","Finger orthosis (FO), nontorsion joint, may include soft interface, custom fabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L3956,"Additional Miscellaneous Orthotics, Upper Extremities .","Addition of joint to upper extremity orthosis, any material; per joint",HCPS +L3960,Shoulder-elbow-wrist-hand Orthotics .,"Shoulder elbow wrist hand orthosis (SEWHO), abduction positioning, airplane design, prefabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L3961,Shoulder-elbow-wrist-hand Orthotics .,"Shoulder elbow wrist hand orthosis (SEWHO), shoulder cap design, without joints, may include soft interface, straps, custom fabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L3962,Shoulder-elbow-wrist-hand Orthotics .,"Shoulder elbow wrist hand orthosis (SEWHO), abduction positioning, erbs palsey design, prefabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L3967,Shoulder-elbow-wrist-hand Orthotics .,"Shoulder elbow wrist hand orthosis (SEWHO), abduction positioning (airplane design), thoracic component and support bar, without joints, may include soft interface, straps, custom fabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L3971,Shoulder-elbow-wrist-hand Orthotics .,"Shoulder elbow wrist hand orthosis (SEWHO), shoulder cap design, includes one or more nontorsion joints, elastic bands, turnbuckles, may include soft interface, straps, custom fabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L3973,Shoulder-elbow-wrist-hand Orthotics .,"Shoulder elbow wrist hand orthosis (SEWHO), abduction positioning (airplane design), thoracic component and support bar, includes one or more nontorsion joints, elastic bands, turnbuckles, may include soft interface, straps, custom fabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L3975,Shoulder-elbow-wrist-hand-finger Orthotics .,"Shoulder elbow wrist hand finger orthosis, shoulder cap design, without joints, may include soft interface, straps, custom fabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L3976,Shoulder-elbow-wrist-hand-finger Orthotics .,"Shoulder elbow wrist hand finger orthosis, abduction positioning (airplane design), thoracic component and support bar, without joints, may include soft interface, straps, custom fabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L3977,Shoulder-elbow-wrist-hand-finger Orthotics .,"Shoulder elbow wrist hand finger orthosis, shoulder cap design, includes one or more nontorsion joints, elastic bands, turnbuckles, may include soft interface, straps, custom fabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L3978,Shoulder-elbow-wrist-hand-finger Orthotics .,"Shoulder elbow wrist hand finger orthosis, abduction positioning (airplane design), thoracic component and support bar, includes one or more nontorsion joints, elastic bands, turnbuckles, may include soft interface, straps, custom fabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L3980,"Fracture, Addition, and Unspecified Orthotics, Upper Extremities .","Upper extremity fracture orthosis, humeral, prefabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L3981,"Fracture, Addition, and Unspecified Orthotics, Upper Extremities .","Upper extremity fracture orthosis, humeral, prefabricated, includes shoulder cap design, with or without joints, forearm section, may include soft interface, straps, includes fitting and adjustments",HCPS +L3982,"Fracture, Addition, and Unspecified Orthotics, Upper Extremities .","Upper extremity fracture orthosis, radius/ulnar, prefabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L3984,"Fracture, Addition, and Unspecified Orthotics, Upper Extremities .","Upper extremity fracture orthosis, wrist, prefabricated, includes fitting and adjustment",HCPS +L3995,"Fracture, Addition, and Unspecified Orthotics, Upper Extremities .","Addition to upper extremity orthosis, sock, fracture or equal, each",HCPS +L3999,"Fracture, Addition, and Unspecified Orthotics, Upper Extremities .","Upper limb orthosis, not otherwise specified",HCPS +L4000,Orthotic Replacement Parts or Repair .,Replace girdle for spinal orthosis (Cervical-thoracic-lumbar-sacral orthosis (CTLSO) or Shoulder orthosis (SO)),HCPS +L4002,Orthotic Replacement Parts or Repair .,"Replacement strap, any orthosis, includes all components, any length, any type",HCPS +L4010,Orthotic Replacement Parts or Repair .,Replace trilateral socket brim,HCPS +L4020,Orthotic Replacement Parts or Repair .,"Replace quadrilateral socket brim, molded to patient model",HCPS +L4030,Orthotic Replacement Parts or Repair .,"Replace quadrilateral socket brim, custom fitted",HCPS +L4040,Orthotic Replacement Parts or Repair .,"Replace molded thigh lacer, for custom fabricated orthosis only",HCPS +L4045,Orthotic Replacement Parts or Repair .,"Replace non-molded thigh lacer, for custom fabricated orthosis only",HCPS +L4050,Orthotic Replacement Parts or Repair .,"Replace molded calf lacer, for custom fabricated orthosis only",HCPS +L4055,Orthotic Replacement Parts or Repair .,"Replace non-molded calf lacer, for custom fabricated orthosis only",HCPS +L4060,Orthotic Replacement Parts or Repair .,Replace high roll cuff,HCPS +L4070,Orthotic Replacement Parts or Repair .,Replace proximal and distal upright for KAFO,HCPS +L4080,Orthotic Replacement Parts or Repair .,"Replace metal bands KAFO, proximal thigh",HCPS +L4090,Orthotic Replacement Parts or Repair .,"Replace metal bands KAFO-AFO, calf or distal thigh",HCPS +L4100,Orthotic Replacement Parts or Repair .,"Replace leather cuff KAFO, proximal thigh",HCPS +L4110,Orthotic Replacement Parts or Repair .,"Replace leather cuff KAFO-AFO, calf or distal thigh",HCPS +L4130,Orthotic Replacement Parts or Repair .,Replace pretibial shell,HCPS +L4205,Orthotic Replacement Parts or Repair .,"Repair of orthotic device, labor component, per 15 minutes",HCPS +L4210,Orthotic Replacement Parts or Repair .,"Repair of orthotic device, repair or replace minor parts",HCPS +L4350,Other Lower Extremity Orthotics .,"Ankle control orthosis, stirrup style, rigid, includes any type interface (e.g., pneumatic, gel), prefabricated, off-the-shelf",HCPS +L4360,Other Lower Extremity Orthotics .,"Walking boot, pneumatic and/or vacuum, with or without joints, with or without interface material, prefabricated item that has been trimmed, bent, molded, assembled, or otherwise customized to fit a specific patient by an individual with expertise",HCPS +L4361,Other Lower Extremity Orthotics .,"Walking boot, pneumatic and/or vacuum, with or without joints, with or without interface material, prefabricated, off-the-shelf",HCPS +L4370,Other Lower Extremity Orthotics .,"Pneumatic full leg splint, prefabricated, off-the-shelf",HCPS +L4386,Other Lower Extremity Orthotics .,"Walking boot, non-pneumatic, with or without joints, with or without interface material, prefabricated item that has been trimmed, bent, molded, assembled, or otherwise customized to fit a specific patient by an individual with expertise",HCPS +L4387,Other Lower Extremity Orthotics .,"Walking boot, non-pneumatic, with or without joints, with or without interface material, prefabricated, off-the-shelf",HCPS +L4392,Other Lower Extremity Orthotics .,"Replacement, soft interface material, static AFO",HCPS +L4394,Other Lower Extremity Orthotics .,"Replace soft interface material, foot drop splint",HCPS +L4396,Other Lower Extremity Orthotics .,"Static or dynamic ankle foot orthosis, including soft interface material, adjustable for fit, for positioning, may be used for minimal ambulation, prefabricated item that has been trimmed, bent, molded, assembled, or otherwise customized to fit a specific patient by an individual with expertise",HCPS +L4397,Other Lower Extremity Orthotics .,"Static or dynamic ankle foot orthosis, including soft interface material, adjustable for fit, for positioning, may be used for minimal ambulation, prefabricated, off-the-shelf",HCPS +L4398,Other Lower Extremity Orthotics .,"Foot drop splint, recumbent positioning device, prefabricated, off-the-shelf",HCPS +L4631,Other Lower Extremity Orthotics .,"Ankle foot orthosis (AFO), walking boot type, varus/valgus correction, rocker bottom, anterior tibial shell, soft interface, custom arch support, plastic or other material, includes straps and closures, custom fabricated",HCPS +M0001,MIPS Value Pathways.,Advancing cancer care mips value pathways,HCPS +M0002,MIPS Value Pathways.,Optimal care for kidney health mips value pathways,HCPS +M0003,MIPS Value Pathways.,Optimal care for patients with episodic neurological conditions mips value pathways,HCPS +M0004,MIPS Value Pathways.,Supportive care for neurodegenerative conditions mips value pathways,HCPS +M0005,MIPS Value Pathways.,Value in primary care mips value pathway,HCPS +M0010,EOM (Enhancing Oncology Model) Enhanced Services.,Enhancing oncology model (eom) monthly enhanced oncology services (meos) payment for eom enhanced services,HCPS +M0075,Miscellaneous Medical Services.,Cellular therapy,HCPS +M0076,Miscellaneous Medical Services.,Prolotherapy,HCPS +M0100,Miscellaneous Medical Services.,Intragastric hypothermia using gastric freezing,HCPS +M0201,Miscellaneous Medical Services.,"Administration of pneumococcal, influenza, hepatitis b, and/or covid-19 vaccine inside a patient's home; reported only once per individual home per date of service when such vaccine administration(s) are performed at the patient's home",HCPS +M0220,Miscellaneous Medical Services.,"Injection, tixagevimab and cilgavimab, for the pre-exposure prophylaxis only, for certain adults and pediatric individuals (12 years of age and older weighing at least 40kg) with no known sars-cov-2 exposure, who either have moderate to severely compromised immune systems or for whom vaccination with any available covid-19 vaccine is not recommended due to a history of severe adverse reaction to a covid-19 vaccine(s) and/or covid-19 vaccine component(s), includes injection and post administration monitoring",HCPS +M0221,Miscellaneous Medical Services.,"Injection, tixagevimab and cilgavimab, for the pre-exposure prophylaxis only, for certain adults and pediatric individuals (12 years of age and older weighing at least 40kg) with no known sars-cov-2 exposure, who either have moderate to severely compromised immune systems or for whom vaccination with any available covid-19 vaccine is not recommended due to a history of severe adverse reaction to a covid-19 vaccine(s) and/or covid-19 vaccine component(s), includes injection and post administration monitoring in the home or residence; this includes a beneficiary’s home that has been made provider-based to the hospital during the covid-19 public health emergency",HCPS +M0222,Miscellaneous Medical Services.,"Intravenous injection, bebtelovimab, includes injection and post administration monitoring",HCPS +M0223,Miscellaneous Medical Services.,"Intravenous injection, bebtelovimab, includes injection and post administration monitoring in the home or residence; this includes a beneficiary’s home that has been made provider-based to the hospital during the covid-19 public health emergency",HCPS +M0240,Miscellaneous Medical Services.,"Intravenous infusion or subcutaneous injection, casirivimab and imdevimab includes infusion or injection, and post administration monitoring, subsequent repeat doses",HCPS +M0241,Miscellaneous Medical Services.,"Intravenous infusion or subcutaneous injection, casirivimab and imdevimab includes infusion or injection, and post administration monitoring in the home or residence; this includes a beneficiary's home that has been made provider-based to the hospital during the covid-19 public health emergency, subsequent repeat doses",HCPS +M0243,Miscellaneous Medical Services.,"Intravenous infusion or subcutaneous injection, casirivimab and imdevimab includes infusion or injection, and post administration monitoring",HCPS +M0244,Miscellaneous Medical Services.,"Intravenous infusion or subcutaneous injection, casirivimab and imdevimab includes infusion or injection, and post administration monitoring in the home or residence; this includes a beneficiary’s home that has been made provider-based to the hospital during the COVID-19 public health emergency",HCPS +M0245,Miscellaneous Medical Services.,"Intravenous infusion, bamlanivimab and etesevimab, includes infusion and post administration monitoring",HCPS +M0246,Miscellaneous Medical Services.,"Intravenous infusion, bamlanivimab and etesevimab, includes infusion and post administration monitoring in the home or residence; this includes a beneficiary's home that has been made provider based to the hospital during the covid 19 public health emergency",HCPS +M0247,Miscellaneous Medical Services.,"Intravenous infusion, sotrovimab, includes infusion and post administration monitoring",HCPS +M0248,Miscellaneous Medical Services.,"Intravenous infusion, sotrovimab, includes infusion and post administration monitoring in the home or residence; this includes a beneficiary's home that has been made provider-based to the hospital during the covid-19 public health emergency",HCPS +M0249,Miscellaneous Medical Services.,"Intravenous infusion, tocilizumab, for hospitalized adults and pediatric patients (2 years of age and older) with covid-19 who are receiving systemic corticosteroids and require supplemental oxygen, non-invasive or invasive mechanical ventilation, or extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) only, includes infusion and post administration monitoring, first dose",HCPS +M0250,Miscellaneous Medical Services.,"Intravenous infusion, tocilizumab, for hospitalized adults and pediatric patients (2 years of age and older) with covid-19 who are receiving systemic corticosteroids and require supplemental oxygen, non-invasive or invasive mechanical ventilation, or extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) only, includes infusion and post administration monitoring, second dose",HCPS +M0300,Miscellaneous Medical Services.,IV chelation therapy (chemical endarterectomy),HCPS +M1003,TB Screening.,Tb screening performed and results interpreted within twelve months prior to initiation of first-time biologic and/or immune response modifier therapy,HCPS +M1004,TB Screening.,"Documentation of medical reason for not screening for tb or interpreting results (i.e., patient positive for tb and documentation of past treatment; patient who has recently completed a course of anti-tb therapy)",HCPS +M1005,TB Screening.,"Tb screening not performed or results not interpreted, reason not given",HCPS +M1006,Evaluation AND Assessment.,"Disease activity not assessed, reason not given",HCPS +M1007,Evaluation AND Assessment.,>=50% of total number of a patient's outpatient ra encounters assessed,HCPS +M1008,Evaluation AND Assessment.,<50% of total number of a patient's outpatient ra encounters assessed,HCPS +M1009,Evaluation AND Assessment.,Discharge/discontinuation of the episode of care documented in the medical record,HCPS +M1010,Evaluation AND Assessment.,Discharge/discontinuation of the episode of care documented in the medical record,HCPS +M1011,Evaluation AND Assessment.,Discharge/discontinuation of the episode of care documented in the medical record,HCPS +M1012,Evaluation AND Assessment.,Discharge/discontinuation of the episode of care documented in the medical record,HCPS +M1013,Evaluation AND Assessment.,Discharge/discontinuation of the episode of care documented in the medical record,HCPS +M1014,Evaluation AND Assessment.,Discharge/discontinuation of the episode of care documented in the medical record,HCPS +M1016,Patient Status.,Female patients unable to bear children,HCPS +M1018,Patient Status.,"Patients with an active diagnosis or history of cancer (except basal cell and squamous cell skin carcinoma), patients who are heavy tobacco smokers, lung cancer screening patients",HCPS +M1019,"Adolescent Depression, Remission AND Management.",Adolescent patients 12 to 17 years of age with major depression or dysthymia who reached remission at twelve months as demonstrated by a twelve month (+/-60 days) phq-9 or phq-9m score of less than 5,HCPS +M1020,"Adolescent Depression, Remission AND Management.",Adolescent patients 12 to 17 years of age with major depression or dysthymia who did not reach remission at twelve months as demonstrated by a twelve month (+/-60 days) phq-9 or phq-9m score of less than 5. either phq-9 or phq-9m score was not assessed or is greater than or equal to 5,HCPS +M1021,"Adolescent Depression, Remission AND Management.",Patient had only urgent care visits during the performance period,HCPS +M1027,Head Imaging.,Imaging of the head (ct or mri) was obtained,HCPS +M1028,Head Imaging.,Documentation of patients with primary headache diagnosis and imaging other than ct or mri obtained,HCPS +M1029,Head Imaging.,"Imaging of the head (ct or mri) was not obtained, reason not given",HCPS +M1032,Pharmacotherapy for OUD.,Adults currently taking pharmacotherapy for oud,HCPS +M1034,Pharmacotherapy for OUD.,Adults who have at least 180 days of continuous pharmacotherapy with a medication prescribed for oud without a gap of more than seven days,HCPS +M1035,Pharmacotherapy for OUD.,Adults who are deliberately phased out of medication assisted treatment (mat) prior to 180 days of continuous treatment,HCPS +M1036,Pharmacotherapy for OUD.,Adults who have not had at least 180 days of continuous pharmacotherapy with a medication prescribed for oud without a gap of more than seven days,HCPS +M1037,Lumbar Spine Associated Conditions.,Patients with a diagnosis of lumbar spine region cancer at the time of the procedure,HCPS +M1038,Lumbar Spine Associated Conditions.,Patients with a diagnosis of lumbar spine region fracture at the time of the procedure,HCPS +M1039,Lumbar Spine Associated Conditions.,Patients with a diagnosis of lumbar spine region infection at the time of the procedure,HCPS +M1040,Lumbar Spine Associated Conditions.,Patients with a diagnosis of lumbar idiopathic or congenital scoliosis,HCPS +M1041,Lumbar Spine Associated Conditions.,"Patient had cancer, acute fracture or infection related to the lumbar spine or patient had neuromuscular, idiopathic or congenital lumbar scoliosis",HCPS +M1043,Functional STATUS Measurement.,Functional status was not measured by the oswestry disability index (odi version 2.1a) at one year (9 to 15 months) postoperatively,HCPS +M1045,Functional STATUS Measurement.,"Functional status measured by the oxford knee score (oks) at one year (9 to 15 months) postoperatively was greater than or equal to 37 or knee injury and osteoarthritis outcome score joint replacement (koos, jr.) was greater than or equal to 71",HCPS +M1046,Functional STATUS Measurement.,"Functional status measured by the oxford knee score (oks) at one year (9 to 15 months) postoperatively was less than 37 or the knee injury and osteoarthritis outcome score joint replacement (koos, jr.) was less than 71 postoperatively",HCPS +M1049,Functional STATUS Measurement.,Functional status was not measured by the oswestry disability index (odi version 2.1a) at three months (6 - 20 weeks) postoperatively,HCPS +M1051,Lumbar Spine Conditions.,"Patient had cancer, acute fracture or infection related to the lumbar spine or patient had neuromuscular, idiopathic or congenital lumbar scoliosis",HCPS +M1052,Limb Pain Assessment.,Leg pain was not measured by the visual analog scale (vas) or numeric pain scale at one year (9 to 15 months) postoperatively,HCPS +M1054,Urgent Care Visit.,Patient had only urgent care visits during the performance period,HCPS +M1055,Anticoagulation Management.,Aspirin or another antiplatelet therapy used,HCPS +M1056,Anticoagulation Management.,"Prescribed anticoagulant medication during the performance period, history of gi bleeding, history of intracranial bleeding, bleeding disorder and specific provider documented reasons: allergy to aspirin or anti-platelets, use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents, drug-drug interaction, uncontrolled hypertension > 180/110 mmhg or gastroesophageal reflux disease",HCPS +M1057,Anticoagulation Management.,"Aspirin or another antiplatelet therapy not used, reason not given",HCPS +M1058,Performance Assessment.,Patient was a permanent nursing home resident at any time during the performance period,HCPS +M1059,Performance Assessment.,Patient was in hospice or receiving palliative care at any time during the performance period,HCPS +M1060,Performance Assessment.,Patient died prior to the end of the performance period,HCPS +M1067,Hospice Services.,Hospice services for patient provided any time during the measurement period,HCPS +M1068,Mobility Status.,Adults who are not ambulatory,HCPS +M1069,Fall Risk Assessment.,Patient screened for future fall risk,HCPS +M1070,Fall Risk Assessment.,"Patient not screened for future fall risk, reason not given",HCPS +M1106,Episode of Care.,The start of an episode of care documented in the medical record,HCPS +M1107,Episode of Care.,"Documentation stating patient has a diagnosis of a degenerative neurological condition such as als, ms, or parkinson's diagnosed at any time before or during the episode of care",HCPS +M1108,Episode of Care.,"Ongoing care not clinically indicated because the patient needed a home program only, referral to another provider or facility, or consultation only, as documented in the medical record",HCPS +M1109,Episode of Care.,"Ongoing care not medically possible because the patient was discharged early due to specific medical events, documented in the medical record, such as the patient became hospitalized or scheduled for surgery",HCPS +M1110,Episode of Care.,"Ongoing care not possible because the patient self-discharged early (e.g., financial or insurance reasons, transportation problems, or reason unknown)",HCPS +M1111,Episode of Care.,The start of an episode of care documented in the medical record,HCPS +M1112,Episode of Care.,"Documentation stating patient has a diagnosis of a degenerative neurological condition such as als, ms, or parkinson's diagnosed at any time before or during the episode of care",HCPS +M1113,Episode of Care.,"Ongoing care not clinically indicated because the patient needed a home program only, referral to another provider or facility, or consultation only, as documented in the medical record",HCPS +M1114,Episode of Care.,"Ongoing care not medically possible because the patient was discharged early due to specific medical events, documented in the medical record, such as the patient became hospitalized or scheduled for surgery",HCPS +M1115,Episode of Care.,"Ongoing care not possible because the patient self-discharged early (e.g., financial or insurance reasons, transportation problems, or reason unknown)",HCPS +M1116,Episode of Care.,The start of an episode of care documented in the medical record,HCPS +M1117,Episode of Care.,"Documentation stating patient has a diagnosis of a degenerative neurological condition such as als, ms, or parkinson's diagnosed at any time before or during the episode of care",HCPS +M1118,Episode of Care.,"Ongoing care not clinically indicated because the patient needed a home program only, referral to another provider or facility, or consultation only, as documented in the medical record",HCPS +M1119,Episode of Care.,"Ongoing care not medically possible because the patient was discharged early due to specific medical events, documented in the medical record, such as the patient became hospitalized or scheduled for surgery",HCPS +M1120,Episode of Care.,"Ongoing care not possible because the patient self-discharged early (e.g., financial or insurance reasons, transportation problems, or reason unknown)",HCPS +M1121,Episode of Care.,The start of an episode of care documented in the medical record,HCPS +M1122,Episode of Care.,"Documentation stating patient has a diagnosis of a degenerative neurological condition such as als, ms, or parkinson's diagnosed at any time before or during the episode of care",HCPS +M1123,Episode of Care.,"Ongoing care not clinically indicated because the patient needed a home program only, referral to another provider or facility, or consultation only, as documented in the medical record",HCPS +M1124,Episode of Care.,"Ongoing care not medically possible because the patient was discharged early due to specific medical events, documented in the medical record, such as the patient became hospitalized or scheduled for surgery",HCPS +M1125,Episode of Care.,"Ongoing care not possible because the patient self-discharged early (e.g., financial or insurance reasons, transportation problems, or reason unknown)",HCPS +M1126,Episode of Care.,The start of an episode of care documented in the medical record,HCPS +M1127,Episode of Care.,"Documentation stating patient has a diagnosis of a degenerative neurological condition such as als, ms, or parkinson's diagnosed at any time before or during the episode of care",HCPS +M1128,Episode of Care.,"Ongoing care not clinically indicated because the patient needed a home program only, referral to another provider or facility, or consultation only, as documented in the medical record",HCPS +M1129,Episode of Care.,"Ongoing care not medically possible because the patient was discharged early due to specific medical events, documented in the medical record, such as the patient became hospitalized or scheduled for surgery",HCPS +M1130,Episode of Care.,"Ongoing care not possible because the patient self-discharged early (e.g., financial or insurance reasons, transportation problems, or reason unknown)",HCPS +M1131,Episode of Care.,"Documentation stating patient has a diagnosis of a degenerative neurological condition such as als, ms, or parkinson's diagnosed at any time before or during the episode of care",HCPS +M1132,Episode of Care.,"Ongoing care not clinically indicated because the patient needed a home program only, referral to another provider or facility, or consultation only, as documented in the medical record",HCPS +M1133,Episode of Care.,"Ongoing care not medically possible because the patient was discharged early due to specific medical events, documented in the medical record, such as the patient became hospitalized or scheduled for surgery",HCPS +M1134,Episode of Care.,"Ongoing care not possible because the patient self-discharged early (e.g., financial or insurance reasons, transportation problems, or reason unknown)",HCPS +M1135,Episode of Care.,The start of an episode of care documented in the medical record,HCPS +M1141,Episode of Care.,"Functional status was not measured by the oxford knee score (oks) or the knee injury and osteoarthritis outcome score joint replacement (koos, jr.) at one year (9 to 15 months) postoperatively",HCPS +M1142,Episode of Care.,Emergent cases,HCPS +M1143,Episode of Care.,"Initiated episode of rehabilitation therapy, medical, or chiropractic care for neck impairment",HCPS +M1146,Other Services.,"Ongoing care not clinically indicated because the patient needed a home program only, referral to another provider or facility, or consultation only, as documented in the medical record",HCPS +M1147,Other Services.,"Ongoing care not medically possible because the patient was discharged early due to specific medical events, documented in the medical record, such as the patient became hospitalized or scheduled for surgery",HCPS +M1148,Other Services.,"Ongoing care not possible because the patient self-discharged early (e.g., financial or insurance reasons, transportation problems, or reason unknown)",HCPS +M1149,Other Services.,"Patient unable to complete the neck fs prom at initial evaluation and/or discharge due to blindness, illiteracy, severe mental incapacity or language incompatibility, and an adequate proxy is not available",HCPS +M1150,Other Services.,Left ventricular ejection fraction (lvef) less than or equal to 40% or documentation of moderately or severely depressed left ventricular systolic function,HCPS +M1151,Other Services.,Patients with a history of heart transplant or with a left ventricular assist device (lvad),HCPS +M1152,Other Services.,Patients with a history of heart transplant or with a left ventricular assist device (lvad),HCPS +M1153,Other Services.,Patient with diagnosis of osteoporosis on date of encounter,HCPS +M1154,Other Services.,Hospice services provided to patient any time during the measurement period,HCPS +M1155,Other Services.,Patient had anaphylaxis due to the pneumococcal vaccine any time during or before the measurement period,HCPS +M1159,Other Services.,Hospice services provided to patient any time during the measurement period,HCPS +M1160,Other Services.,Patient had anaphylaxis due to the meningococcal vaccine any time on or before the patient's 13th birthday,HCPS +M1161,Other Services.,"Patient had anaphylaxis due to the tetanus, diphtheria or pertussis vaccine any time on or before the patient's 13th birthday",HCPS +M1162,Other Services.,"Patient had encephalitis due to the tetanus, diphtheria or pertussis vaccine any time on or before the patient's 13th birthday",HCPS +M1163,Other Services.,Patient had anaphylaxis due to the hpv vaccine any time on or before the patient's 13th birthday,HCPS +M1164,Other Services.,Patients with dementia any time during the patient's history through the end of the measurement period,HCPS +M1165,Other Services.,Patients who use hospice services any time during the measurement period,HCPS +M1166,Other Services.,Pathology report for tissue specimens produced from wide local excisions or re-excisions,HCPS +M1167,Other Services.,In hospice or using hospice services during the measurement period,HCPS +M1168,Other Services.,Patient received an influenza vaccine on or between july 1 of the year prior to the measurement period and june 30 of the measurement period,HCPS +M1169,Other Services.,"Documentation of medical reason(s) for not administering influenza vaccine (e.g., prior anaphylaxis due to the influenza vaccine)",HCPS +M1170,Other Services.,Patient did not receive an influenza vaccine on or between july 1 of the year prior to the measurement period and june 30 of the measurement period,HCPS +M1171,Other Services.,Patient received at least one td vaccine or one tdap vaccine between nine years prior to the encounter and the end of the measurement period,HCPS +M1172,Other Services.,"Documentation of medical reason(s) for not administering td or tdap vaccine (e.g., prior anaphylaxis due to the td or tdap vaccine or history of encephalopathy within seven days after a previous dose of a td-containing vaccine)",HCPS +M1173,Other Services.,Patient did not receive at least one td vaccine or one tdap vaccine between nine years prior to the encounter and the end of the measurement period,HCPS +M1174,Other Services.,Patient received at least two doses of the herpes zoster recombinant vaccine (at least 28 days apart) anytime on or after the patient's 50th birthday before or during the measurement period,HCPS +M1175,Other Services.,"Documentation of medical reason(s) for not administering zoster vaccine (e.g., prior anaphylaxis due to the zoster vaccine)",HCPS +M1176,Other Services.,Patient did not receive at least two doses of the herpes zoster recombinant vaccine (at least 28 days apart) anytime on or after the patient's 50th birthday before or during the measurement period,HCPS +M1177,Other Services.,Patient received any pneumococcal conjugate or polysaccharide vaccine on or after their 60th birthday and before the end of the measurement period,HCPS +M1178,Other Services.,"Documentation of medical reason(s) for not administering pneumococcal vaccine (e.g., prior anaphylaxis due to the pneumococcal vaccine)",HCPS +M1179,Other Services.,"Patient did not receive any pneumococcal conjugate or polysaccharide vaccine, on or after their 60th birthday and before or during measurement period",HCPS +M1180,Other Services.,Patients on immune checkpoint inhibitor therapy,HCPS +M1181,Other Services.,Grade 2 or above diarrhea and/or grade 2 or above colitis,HCPS +M1182,Other Services.,"Patients not eligible due to pre-existing inflammatory bowel disease (ibd) (e.g., ulcerative colitis, crohn's disease)",HCPS +M1183,Other Services.,Documentation of immune checkpoint inhibitor therapy held and corticosteroids or immunosuppressants prescribed or administered,HCPS +M1184,Other Services.,"Documentation of medical reason(s) for not prescribing or administering corticosteroid or immunosuppressant treatment (e.g., allergy, intolerance, infectious etiology, pancreatic insufficiency, hyperthyroidism, prior bowel surgical interventions, celiac disease, receiving other medication, awaiting diagnostic workup results for alternative etiologies, other medical reasons/contraindication)",HCPS +M1185,Other Services.,"Documentation of immune checkpoint inhibitor therapy not held and/or corticosteroids or immunosuppressants prescribed or administered was not performed, reason not given",HCPS +M1186,Other Services.,Patients who have an order for or are receiving hospice or palliative care,HCPS +M1187,Other Services.,Patients with a diagnosis of end stage renal disease (esrd),HCPS +M1188,Other Services.,Patients with a diagnosis of chronic kidney disease (ckd) stage 5,HCPS +M1189,Other Services.,Documentation of a kidney health evaluation defined by an estimated glomerular filtration rate (egfr) and urine albumin-creatinine ratio (uacr) performed,HCPS +M1190,Other Services.,Documentation of a kidney health evaluation was not performed or defined by an estimated glomerular filtration rate (egfr) and urine albumin-creatinine ratio (uacr),HCPS +M1191,Other Services.,Hospice services provided to patient any time during the measurement period,HCPS +M1192,Other Services.,Patients with an existing diagnosis of squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus,HCPS +M1193,Other Services.,"Surgical pathology reports that contain impression or conclusion of or recommendation for testing of mmr by immunohistochemistry, msi by dna-based testing status, or both",HCPS +M1194,Other Services.,"Documentation of medical reason(s) surgical pathology reports did not contain impression or conclusion of or recommendation for testing of mmr by immunohistochemistry, msi by dna-based testing status, or both tests were not included (e.g., patient will not be treated with checkpoint inhibitor therapy, no residual carcinoma is present in the sample [tissue exhausted or status post neoadjuvant treatment], insufficient tumor for testing)",HCPS +M1195,Other Services.,"Surgical pathology reports that do not contain impression or conclusion of or recommendation for testing of mmr by immunohistochemistry, msi by dna-based testing status, or both, reason not given",HCPS +M1196,Other Services.,"Initial (index visit) numeric rating scale (nrs), visual rating scale (vrs), or itchyquant assessment score of greater than or equal to 4",HCPS +M1197,Other Services.,Itch severity assessment score is reduced by 3 or more points from the initial (index) assessment score to the follow-up visit score,HCPS +M1198,Other Services.,Itch severity assessment score was not reduced by at least 3 points from initial (index) score to the follow-up visit score or assessment was not completed during the follow-up encounter,HCPS +M1199,Other Services.,Patients receiving rrt,HCPS +M1200,Other Services.,Ace inhibitor (ace-i) or arb therapy prescribed during the measurement period,HCPS +M1201,Other Services.,"Documentation of medical reason(s) for not prescribing ace inhibitor (ace-i) or arb therapy during the measurement period (e.g., pregnancy, history of angioedema to ace-i, other allergy to ace-i and arb, hyperkalemia or history of hyperkalemia while on ace-i or arb therapy, acute kidney injury due to ace-i or arb therapy), other medical reasons)",HCPS +M1202,Other Services.,"Documentation of patient reason(s) for not prescribing ace inhibitor or arb therapy during the measurement period, (e.g., patient declined, other patient reasons)",HCPS +M1203,Other Services.,"Ace inhibitor or arb therapy not prescribed during the measurement period, reason not given",HCPS +M1204,Other Services.,"Initial (index visit) numeric rating scale (nrs), visual rating scale (vrs), or itchyquant assessment score of greater than or equal to 4",HCPS +M1205,Other Services.,Itch severity assessment score is reduced by 3 or more points from the initial (index) assessment score to the follow-up visit score,HCPS +M1206,Other Services.,Itch severity assessment score was not reduced by at least 3 points from initial (index) score to the follow-up visit score or assessment was not completed during the follow-up encounter,HCPS +M1207,Other Services.,"Patient is screened for food insecurity, housing instability, transportation needs, utility difficulties, and interpersonal safety",HCPS +M1208,Other Services.,"Patient is not screened for food insecurity, housing instability, transportation needs, utility difficulties, and interpersonal safety",HCPS +M1209,Other Services.,"At least two orders for high-risk medications from the same drug class, (table 4), without appropriate diagnoses",HCPS +M1210,Other Services.,"At least two orders for high-risk medications from the same drug class, (table 4), not ordered",HCPS +M1211,Other Services.,Most recent hemoglobin a1c level > 9.0%,HCPS +M1212,Other Services.,"Hemoglobin a1c level is missing, or was not performed during the measurement period (12 months)",HCPS +M1213,Other Services.,No history of spirometry results with confirmed airflow obstruction (fev1/fvc < 70%) and present spirometry is >= 70%,HCPS +M1214,Other Services.,Spirometry results with confirmed airflow obstruction (fev1/fvc < 70%) documented and reviewed,HCPS +M1215,Other Services.,"Documentation of medical reason(s) for not documenting and reviewing spirometry results (e.g., patients with dementia or tracheostomy)",HCPS +M1216,Other Services.,No spirometry results with confirmed airflow obstruction (fev1/fvc < 70%) documented and/or no spirometry performed with results documented during the encounter,HCPS +M1217,Other Services.,"Documentation of system reason(s) for not documenting and reviewing spirometry results (e.g., spirometry equipment not available at the time of the encounter)",HCPS +M1218,Other Services.,"Patient has copd symptoms (e.g., dyspnea, cough/sputum, wheezing)",HCPS +M1219,Other Services.,Anaphylaxis due to the vaccine on or before the date of the encounter,HCPS +M1220,Other Services.,Dilated retinal eye exam with interpretation by an ophthalmologist or optometrist or artificial intelligence (ai) interpretation documented and reviewed; with evidence of retinopathy,HCPS +M1221,Other Services.,Dilated retinal eye exam with interpretation by an ophthalmologist or optometrist or artificial intelligence (ai) interpretation documented and reviewed; without evidence of retinopathy,HCPS +M1222,Other Services.,"Glaucoma plan of care not documented, reason not otherwise specified",HCPS +M1223,Other Services.,Glaucoma plan of care documented,HCPS +M1224,Other Services.,Intraocular pressure (iop) reduced by a value less than 20% from the pre-intervention level,HCPS +M1225,Other Services.,Intraocular pressure (iop) reduced by a value of greater than or equal to 20% from the pre-intervention level,HCPS +M1226,Other Services.,"Iop measurement not documented, reason not otherwise specified",HCPS +M1227,Other Services.,Evidence-based therapy was prescribed,HCPS +M1228,Other Services.,"Patient, who has a reactive hcv antibody test, and has a follow up hcv viral test that detected hcv viremia, has hcv treatment initiated within 3 months of the reactive hcv antibody test",HCPS +M1229,Other Services.,"Patient, who has a reactive hcv antibody test, and has a follow up hcv viral test that detected hcv viremia, is referred within 1 month of the reactive hcv antibody test to a clinician who treats hcv infection",HCPS +M1230,Other Services.,"Patient has a reactive hcv antibody test and does not have a follow up hcv viral test, or patient has a reactive hcv antibody test and has a follow up hcv viral test that detects hcv viremia and is not referred to a clinician who treats hcv infection within 1 month and does not have hcv treatment initiated within 3 months of the reactive hcv antibody test, reason not given",HCPS +M1231,Other Services.,Patient receives hcv antibody test with nonreactive result,HCPS +M1232,Other Services.,Patient receives hcv antibody test with reactive result,HCPS +M1233,Other Services.,"Patient does not receive hcv antibody test or patient does receive hcv antibody test but results not documented, reason not given",HCPS +M1234,Other Services.,"Patient has a reactive hcv antibody test, and has a follow up hcv viral test that does not detect hcv viremia",HCPS +M1235,Other Services.,Documentation or patient report of hcv antibody test or hcv rna test which occurred prior to the performance period,HCPS +M1236,Other Services.,Baseline mrs > 2,HCPS +M1237,Other Services.,"Patient reason for not screening for food insecurity, housing instability, transportation needs, utility difficulties, and interpersonal safety (e.g., patient declined or other patient reasons)",HCPS +M1238,Other Services.,"Documentation that administration of second recombinant zoster vaccine could not occur during the performance period due to the recommended 2-6 month interval between doses (i.e, first dose received after october 31)",HCPS +M1239,Other Services.,Patient did not respond to the question of patient felt heard and understood by this provider and team,HCPS +M1240,Other Services.,Patient did not respond to the question of patient felt this provider and team put my best interests first when making recommendations about my care,HCPS +M1241,Other Services.,"Patient did not respond to the question of patient felt this provider and team saw me as a person, not just someone with a medical problem",HCPS +M1242,Other Services.,Patient did not respond to the question of patient felt this provider and team understood what is important to me in my life,HCPS +M1243,Other Services.,"Patient provided a response other than ""completely true"" for the question of patient felt heard and understood by this provider and team",HCPS +M1244,Other Services.,"Patient provided a response other than ""completely true"" for the question of patient felt this provider and team put my best interests first when making recommendations about my care",HCPS +M1245,Other Services.,"Patient provided a response other than ""completely true"" for the question of patient felt this provider and team saw me as a person, not just someone with a medical problem",HCPS +M1246,Other Services.,"Patient provided a response other than ""completely true"" for the question of patient felt this provider and team understood what is important to me in my life",HCPS +M1247,Other Services.,"Patient responded ""completely true"" for the question of patient felt this provider and team put my best interests first when making recommendations about my care",HCPS +M1248,Other Services.,"Patient responded ""completely true"" for the question of patient felt this provider and team saw me as a person, not just someone with a medical problem",HCPS +M1249,Other Services.,"Patient responded ""completely true"" for the question of patient felt this provider and team understood what is important to me in my life",HCPS +M1250,Other Services.,"Patient responded as ""completely true"" for the question of patient felt heard and understood by this provider and team",HCPS +M1251,Other Services.,Patients for whom a proxy completed the entire hu survey on their behalf for any reason (no patient involvement),HCPS +M1252,Other Services.,Patients who did not complete at least one of the four patient experience hu survey items and return the hu survey within 60 days of the ambulatory palliative care visit,HCPS +M1253,Other Services.,Patients who respond on the patient experience hu survey that they did not receive care by the listed ambulatory palliative care provider in the last 60 days (disavowal),HCPS +M1254,Other Services.,Patients who were deceased when the hu survey reached them,HCPS +M1255,Other Services.,"Patients who have another reason for visiting the clinic [not prenatal or postpartum care] and have a positive pregnancy test but have not established the clinic as an ob provider (e.g., plan to terminate the pregnancy or seek prenatal services elsewhere)",HCPS +M1256,Other Services.,Prior history of known cvd,HCPS +M1257,Other Services.,"Cvd risk assessment not performed or incomplete (e.g., cvd risk assessment was not documented), reason not otherwise specified",HCPS +M1258,Other Services.,"Cvd risk assessment performed, have a documented calculated risk score",HCPS +M1259,Other Services.,Patients listed on the kidney-pancreas transplant waitlist or who received a living donor transplant within the first year following initiation of dialysis,HCPS +M1260,Other Services.,Patients who were not listed on the kidney-pancreas transplant waitlist or patients who did not receive a living donor transplant within the first year following initiation of dialysis,HCPS +M1261,Other Services.,Patients that were on the kidney or kidney-pancreas waitlist prior to initiation of dialysis,HCPS +M1262,Other Services.,Patients who had a transplant prior to initiation of dialysis,HCPS +M1263,Other Services.,Patients in hospice on their initiation of dialysis date or during the month of evaluation,HCPS +M1264,Other Services.,Patients age 75 or older on their initiation of dialysis date,HCPS +M1265,Other Services.,Cms medical evidence form 2728 for dialysis patients: initial form completed,HCPS +M1266,Other Services.,Patients admitted to a skilled nursing facility (snf),HCPS +M1267,Other Services.,Patients not on any kidney or kidney-pancreas transplant waitlist or is not in active status on any kidney or kidney-pancreas transplant waitlist as of the last day of each month during the measurement period,HCPS +M1268,Other Services.,Patients on active status on any kidney or kidney-pancreas transplant waitlist as of the last day of each month during the measurement period,HCPS +M1269,Other Services.,Receiving esrd mcp dialysis services by the provider on the last day of the reporting month,HCPS +M1270,Other Services.,Patients not on any kidney or kidney-pancreas transplant waitlist as of the last day of each month during the measurement period,HCPS +M1271,Other Services.,Patients with dementia at any time prior to or during the month,HCPS +M1272,Other Services.,Patients on any kidney or kidney-pancreas transplant waitlist as of the last day of each month during the measurement period,HCPS +M1273,Other Services.,Patients who were admitted to a skilled nursing facility (snf) within one year of dialysis initiation according to the cms-2728 form,HCPS +M1274,Other Services.,Patients who were admitted to a skilled nursing facility (snf) during the month of evaluation were excluded from that month,HCPS +M1275,Other Services.,Patients determined to be in hospice were excluded from month of evaluation and the remainder of reporting period,HCPS +M1276,Other Services.,"Bmi documented outside normal parameters, no follow-up plan documented, no reason given",HCPS +M1277,Other Services.,Colorectal cancer screening results documented and reviewed,HCPS +M1278,Other Services.,"Elevated or hypertensive blood pressure reading documented, and the indicated follow-up is documented",HCPS +M1279,Other Services.,"Elevated or hypertensive blood pressure reading documented, indicated follow-up not documented, reason not given",HCPS +M1280,Other Services.,Women who had a bilateral mastectomy or who have a history of a bilateral mastectomy or for whom there is evidence of a right and a left unilateral mastectomy,HCPS +M1281,Other Services.,"Blood pressure reading not documented, reason not given",HCPS +M1282,Other Services.,Patient screened for tobacco use and identified as a tobacco non-user,HCPS +M1283,Other Services.,Patient screened for tobacco use and identified as a tobacco user,HCPS +M1284,Other Services.,"Patients age 66 or older in institutional special needs plans (snp) or residing in long term care with pos code 32, 33, 34, 54, or 56 for more than 90 consecutive days during the measurement period",HCPS +M1285,Other Services.,"Screening, diagnostic, film, digital or digital breast tomosynthesis (3d) mammography results were not documented and reviewed, reason not otherwise specified",HCPS +M1286,Other Services.,"Bmi is documented as being outside of normal parameters, follow-up plan is not completed for documented medical reason",HCPS +M1287,Other Services.,Bmi is documented below normal parameters and a follow-up plan is documented,HCPS +M1288,Other Services.,Documented reason for not screening or recommending a follow-up for high blood pressure,HCPS +M1289,Other Services.,Patient identified as tobacco user did not receive tobacco cessation intervention during the measurement period or in the six months prior to the measurement period (counseling and/or pharmacotherapy),HCPS +M1290,Other Services.,Patient not eligible due to active diagnosis of hypertension,HCPS +M1291,Other Services.,Patients 66 years of age and older with at least one claim/encounter for frailty during the measurement period and a dispensed medication for dementia during the measurement period or the year prior to the measurement period,HCPS +M1292,Other Services.,"Patients 66 years of age and older with at least one claim/encounter for frailty during the measurement period and either one acute inpatient encounter with a diagnosis of advanced illness or two outpatient, observation, ed or nonacute inpatient encounters on different dates of service with an advanced illness diagnosis during the measurement period or the year prior to the measurement period",HCPS +M1293,Other Services.,Bmi is documented above normal parameters and a follow-up plan is documented,HCPS +M1294,Other Services.,"Normal blood pressure reading documented, follow-up not required",HCPS +M1295,Other Services.,Patients with a diagnosis or past history of total colectomy or colorectal cancer,HCPS +M1296,Other Services.,Bmi is documented within normal parameters and no follow-up plan is required,HCPS +M1297,Other Services.,Bmi not documented due to medical reason or patient refusal of height or weight measurement,HCPS +M1298,Other Services.,Documentation of patient pregnancy anytime during the measurement period prior to and including the current encounter,HCPS +M1299,Other Services.,Influenza immunization administered or previously received,HCPS +M1300,Other Services.,"Influenza immunization was not administered for reasons documented by clinician (e.g., patient allergy or other medical reasons, patient declined or other patient reasons, vaccine not available or other system reasons)",HCPS +M1301,Other Services.,Patient identified as a tobacco user received tobacco cessation intervention during the measurement period or in the six months prior to the measurement period (counseling and/or pharmacotherapy),HCPS +M1302,Other Services.,"Screening, diagnostic, film digital or digital breast tomosynthesis (3d) mammography results documented and reviewed",HCPS +M1303,Other Services.,Hospice services provided to patient any time during the measurement period,HCPS +M1304,Other Services.,Patient did not receive any pneumococcal conjugate or polysaccharide vaccine on or after their 19th birthday and before the end of the measurement period,HCPS +M1305,Other Services.,Patient received any pneumococcal conjugate or polysaccharide vaccine on or after their 19th birthday and before the end of the measurement period,HCPS +M1306,Other Services.,Patient had anaphylaxis due to the pneumococcal vaccine any time during or before the measurement period,HCPS +M1307,Other Services.,Documentation stating the patient has received or is currently receiving palliative or hospice care,HCPS +M1308,Other Services.,"Influenza immunization was not administered, reason not given",HCPS +M1309,Other Services.,Palliative care services provided to patient any time during the measurement period,HCPS +M1310,Other Services.,"Patient screened for tobacco use and received tobacco cessation intervention during the measurement period or in the six months prior to the measurement period (counseling, pharmacotherapy, or both), if identified as a tobacco user",HCPS +M1311,Other Services.,Anaphylaxis due to the vaccine on or before the date of the encounter,HCPS +M1312,Other Services.,Patient not screened for tobacco use,HCPS +M1313,Other Services.,Tobacco screening not performed or tobacco cessation intervention not provided during the measurement period or in the six months prior to the measurement period,HCPS +M1314,Other Services.,Bmi not documented and no reason is given,HCPS +M1315,Other Services.,Colorectal cancer screening results were not documented and reviewed; reason not otherwise specified,HCPS +M1316,Other Services.,Current tobacco non-user,HCPS +M1317,Other Services.,Patients who are counseled on connection with a csp and explicitly opt out,HCPS +M1318,Other Services.,Patients who did not have documented contact with a csp for at least one of their screened positive hrsns within 60 days after screening or documentation that there was no contact with a csp,HCPS +M1319,Other Services.,Patients who had documented contact with a csp for at least one of their screened positive hrsns within 60 days after screening,HCPS +M1320,Other Services.,Patients who screened positive for at least 1 of the 5 hrsns,HCPS +M1321,Other Services.,Patients who were not seen within 7 weeks following the date of injection for follow up or who did not have a documented iop or no plan of care documented if the iop was >25 mm hg,HCPS +M1322,Other Services.,Patients seen within 7 weeks following the date of injection and are screened for elevated intraocular pressure (iop) with tonometry with documented iop =<25 mm hg for injected eye,HCPS +M1323,Other Services.,Patients seen within 7 weeks following the date of injection and are screened for elevated intraocular pressure (iop) with tonometry with documented iop >25 mm hg and a plan of care was documented,HCPS +M1324,Other Services.,"Patients who had an intravitreal or periocular corticosteroid injection (e.g., triamcinolone, preservative-free triamcinolone, dexamethasone, dexamethasone intravitreal implant, or fluocinolone intravitreal implant)",HCPS +M1325,Other Services.,"Patients who were not seen for reasons documented by clinician for patient or medical reasons (e.g., inadequate time for follow-up, patients who received a prior intravitreal or periocular steroid injection within the last six (6) months and had a subsequent iop evaluation with iop <25mm hg within seven (7) weeks of treatment)",HCPS +M1326,Other Services.,Patients with a diagnosis of hypotony,HCPS +M1327,Other Services.,Patients who were not appropriately evaluated during the initial exam and/or who were not re-evaluated within 8 weeks,HCPS +M1328,Other Services.,Patients with a diagnosis of acute vitreous hemorrhage,HCPS +M1329,Other Services.,Patients with a post-operative encounter of the eye with the acute pvd within 2 weeks before the initial encounter or 8 weeks after initial acute pvd encounter,HCPS +M1330,Other Services.,"Documentation of patient reason(s) for not having a follow up exam (e.g., inadequate time for follow up)",HCPS +M1331,Other Services.,Patients who were appropriately evaluated during the initial exam and were re-evaluated no later than 8 weeks from initial exam,HCPS +M1332,Other Services.,Patients who were not appropriately evaluated during the initial exam and/or who were not re-evaluated within 2 weeks,HCPS +M1333,Other Services.,Acute vitreous hemorrhage,HCPS +M1334,Other Services.,Patients with a post-operative encounter of the eye with the acute pvd within 2 weeks before the initial encounter or 2 weeks after initial acute pvd encounter,HCPS +M1335,Other Services.,"Documentation of patient reason(s) for not having a follow up exam (e.g., inadequate time for follow up)",HCPS +M1336,Other Services.,Patients who were appropriately evaluated during the initial exam and were re-evaluated no later than 2 weeks,HCPS +M1337,Other Services.,Acute pvd,HCPS +M1338,Other Services.,Patients who had follow-up assessment 30 to 180 days after the index assessment who did not demonstrate positive improvement or maintenance of functioning scores during the performance period,HCPS +M1339,Other Services.,Patients who had follow-up assessment 30 to 180 days after the index assessment who demonstrated positive improvement or maintenance of functioning scores during the performance period,HCPS +M1340,Other Services.,Index assessment completed using the 12-item whodas 2.0 or sds during the denominator identification period,HCPS +M1341,Other Services.,Patients who did not have a follow-up assessment or did not have an assessment within 30 to 180 days after the index assessment during the performance period,HCPS +M1342,Other Services.,Patients who died during the performance period,HCPS +M1343,Other Services.,Patients who are at pam level 4 at baseline or patients who are flagged with extreme straight line response sets on the pam,HCPS +M1344,Other Services.,Patients who did not have a baseline pam score and/or a second score within 6 to 12 month of baseline pam score,HCPS +M1345,Other Services.,Patients who had a baseline pam score and a second score within 6 to 12 month of baseline pam score,HCPS +M1346,Other Services.,Patients who did not have a net increase in pam score of at least 6 points within a 6 to 12 month period,HCPS +M1347,Other Services.,Patients who achieved a net increase in pam score of at least 3 points in a 6 to 12 month period (passing),HCPS +M1348,Other Services.,Patients who achieved a net increase in pam score of at least 6-points in a 6 to 12 month period (excellent),HCPS +M1349,Other Services.,Patients who did not have a net increase in pam score of at least 3 points within 6 to 12 month period,HCPS +M1350,Other Services.,"Patients who had a completed suicide safety plan initiated, reviewed or updated in collaboration with their clinician (concurrent or within 24 hours) of the index clinical encounter",HCPS +M1351,Other Services.,"Patients who had a suicide safety plan initiated, reviewed, or updated and reviewed and updated in collaboration with the patient and their clinician concurrent or within 24 hours of clinical encounter and within 120 days after initiation",HCPS +M1352,Other Services.,Suicidal ideation and/or behavior symptoms based on the c-ssrs or equivalent assessment,HCPS +M1353,Other Services.,"Patients who did not have a completed suicide safety plan initiated, reviewed or updated in collaboration with their clinician (concurrent or within 24 hours) of the index clinical encounter",HCPS +M1354,Other Services.,"Patients who did not have a suicide safety plan initiated, reviewed, or updated or reviewed and updated in collaboration with the patient and their clinician concurrent or within 24 hours of clinical encounter and within 120 days after initiation",HCPS +M1355,Other Services.,Suicide risk based on their clinician's evaluation or a clinician-rated tool,HCPS +M1356,Other Services.,Patients who died during the measurement period,HCPS +M1357,Other Services.,Patients who had a reduction in suicidal ideation and/or behavior upon follow-up assessment within 120 days of index assessment,HCPS +M1358,Other Services.,Patients who did not have a reduction in suicidal ideation and/or behavior upon follow-up assessment within 120 days of index assessment,HCPS +M1359,Other Services.,Index assessment during the denominator period when the suicidal ideation and/or behavior symptoms or increased suicide risk by clinician determination occurs and a non-zero c-ssrs score is obtained,HCPS +M1360,Other Services.,Suicidal ideation and/or behavior symptoms based on the c-ssrs,HCPS +M1361,Other Services.,Suicide risk based on their clinician's evaluation or a clinician-rated tool,HCPS +M1362,Other Services.,Patients who died during the measurement period,HCPS +M1363,Other Services.,Patients who did not have a follow-up assessment within 120 days of the index assessment,HCPS +M1364,Other Services.,Calculated 10-year ascvd risk score of >= 20 percent during the performance period,HCPS +M1365,Other Services.,Patient encounter during the performance period with hospice and palliative care specialty code 17,HCPS +M1366,Other Services.,Focusing on women's health mips value pathway,HCPS +M1367,Other Services.,"Quality care for the treatment of ear, nose, and throat disorders mips value pathway",HCPS +M1368,Other Services.,Prevention and treatment of infectious disorders including hepatitis c and hiv mips value pathway,HCPS +M1369,Other Services.,Quality care in mental health and substance use disorders mips value pathway,HCPS +M1370,Other Services.,Rehabilitative support for musculoskeletal care mips value pathway,HCPS +P2028,Laboratory Tests of Blood and Hair .,"Cephalin flocculation, blood",HCPS +P2029,Laboratory Tests of Blood and Hair .,"Congo red, blood",HCPS +P2031,Laboratory Tests of Blood and Hair .,Hair analysis (excluding arsenic),HCPS +P2033,Laboratory Tests of Blood and Hair .,"Thymol turbidity, blood",HCPS +P2038,Laboratory Tests of Blood and Hair .,"Mucoprotein, blood (seromucoid) (medical necessity procedure)",HCPS +P3000,Pap Smears .,"Screening Papanicolaou smear, cervical or vaginal, up to three smears, by technician under physician supervision",HCPS +P3001,Pap Smears .,"Screening Papanicolaou smear, cervical or vaginal, up to three smears, requiring interpretation by physician",HCPS +P7001,Urine Bacterial Culture and Sensitivity Studies .,"Culture, bacterial, urine; quantitative, sensitivity study",HCPS +P9010,"Blood and Blood Products, with Associated Procedures .","Blood (whole), for transfusion, per unit",HCPS +P9011,"Blood and Blood Products, with Associated Procedures .","Blood, split unit",HCPS +P9012,"Blood and Blood Products, with Associated Procedures .","Cryoprecipitate, each unit",HCPS +P9016,"Blood and Blood Products, with Associated Procedures .","Red blood cells, leukocytes reduced, each unit",HCPS +P9017,"Blood and Blood Products, with Associated Procedures .","Fresh frozen plasma (single donor), frozen within 8 hours of collection, each unit",HCPS +P9019,"Blood and Blood Products, with Associated Procedures .","Platelets, each unit",HCPS +P9020,"Blood and Blood Products, with Associated Procedures .","Platelet rich plasma, each unit",HCPS +P9021,"Blood and Blood Products, with Associated Procedures .","Red blood cells, each unit",HCPS +P9022,"Blood and Blood Products, with Associated Procedures .","Red blood cells, washed, each unit",HCPS +P9023,"Blood and Blood Products, with Associated Procedures .","Plasma, pooled multiple donor, solvent/detergent treated, frozen, each unit",HCPS +P9025,"Blood and Blood Products, with Associated Procedures .","Plasma, cryoprecipitate reduced, pathogen reduced, each unit",HCPS +P9026,"Blood and Blood Products, with Associated Procedures .","Cryoprecipitated fibrinogen complex, pathogen reduced, each unit",HCPS +P9031,"Blood and Blood Products, with Associated Procedures .","Platelets, leukocytes reduced, each unit",HCPS +P9032,"Blood and Blood Products, with Associated Procedures .","Platelets, irradiated, each unit",HCPS +P9033,"Blood and Blood Products, with Associated Procedures .","Platelets, leukocytes reduced, irradiated, each unit",HCPS +P9034,"Blood and Blood Products, with Associated Procedures .","Platelets, pheresis, each unit",HCPS +P9035,"Blood and Blood Products, with Associated Procedures .","Platelets, pheresis, leukocytes reduced, each unit",HCPS +P9036,"Blood and Blood Products, with Associated Procedures .","Platelets, pheresis, irradiated, each unit",HCPS +P9037,"Blood and Blood Products, with Associated Procedures .","Platelets, pheresis, leukocytes reduced, irradiated, each unit",HCPS +P9038,"Blood and Blood Products, with Associated Procedures .","Red blood cells, irradiated, each unit",HCPS +P9039,"Blood and Blood Products, with Associated Procedures .","Red blood cells, deglycerolized, each unit",HCPS +P9040,"Blood and Blood Products, with Associated Procedures .","Red blood cells, leukocytes reduced, irradiated, each unit",HCPS +P9041,"Blood and Blood Products, with Associated Procedures .","Infusion, albumin (human), 5%,50 ml",HCPS +P9043,"Blood and Blood Products, with Associated Procedures .","Infusion, plasma protein fraction (human), 5%, 50 ml",HCPS +P9044,"Blood and Blood Products, with Associated Procedures .","Plasma, cryoprecipitate reduced, each unit",HCPS +P9045,"Blood and Blood Products, with Associated Procedures .","Infusion, albumin (human), 5%, 250 ml",HCPS +P9046,"Blood and Blood Products, with Associated Procedures .","Infusion, albumin (human), 25%, 20 ml",HCPS +P9047,"Blood and Blood Products, with Associated Procedures .","Infusion, albumin (human), 25%, 50 ml",HCPS +P9048,"Blood and Blood Products, with Associated Procedures .","Infusion, plasma protein fraction (human), 5%, 250ml",HCPS +P9050,"Blood and Blood Products, with Associated Procedures .","Granulocytes, pheresis, each unit",HCPS +P9051,"Blood and Blood Products, with Associated Procedures .","Whole blood or red blood cells, leukocytes reduced, CMV-negative, each unit",HCPS +P9052,"Blood and Blood Products, with Associated Procedures .","Platelets, HLA-matched leukocytes reduced, apheresis/pheresis, each unit",HCPS +P9053,"Blood and Blood Products, with Associated Procedures .","Platelets, pheresis, leukocytes reduced, CMV-negative, irradiated, each unit",HCPS +P9054,"Blood and Blood Products, with Associated Procedures .","Whole blood or red blood cells, leukocytes reduced, frozen, deglycerol, washed, each unit",HCPS +P9055,"Blood and Blood Products, with Associated Procedures .","Platelets, leukocytes reduced, CMV-negative, apheresis/pheresis, each unit",HCPS +P9056,"Blood and Blood Products, with Associated Procedures .","Whole blood, leukocytes reduced, irradiated, each unit",HCPS +P9057,"Blood and Blood Products, with Associated Procedures .","Red blood cells, frozen/deglycerolized/washed, leukocytes reduced, irradiated, each unit",HCPS +P9058,"Blood and Blood Products, with Associated Procedures .","Red blood cells, leukocytes reduced, CMV-negative, irradiated, each unit",HCPS +P9059,"Blood and Blood Products, with Associated Procedures .","Fresh frozen plasma between 8-24 hours of collection, each unit",HCPS +P9060,"Blood and Blood Products, with Associated Procedures .","Fresh frozen plasma, donor retested, each unit",HCPS +P9070,"Blood and Blood Products, with Associated Procedures .","Plasma, pooled multiple donor, pathogen reduced, frozen, each unit",HCPS +P9071,"Blood and Blood Products, with Associated Procedures .","Plasma (single donor), pathogen reduced, frozen, each unit",HCPS +P9073,"Blood and Blood Products, with Associated Procedures .","Platelets, pheresis, pathogen-reduced, each unit",HCPS +P9099,"Blood and Blood Products, with Associated Procedures .",Blood component or product not otherwise classified,HCPS +P9100,"Blood and Blood Products, with Associated Procedures .",Pathogen(s) test for platelets,HCPS +P9603,"Specimen Collection, Travel Allowance .",Travel allowance one way in connection with medically necessary laboratory specimen collection drawn from home bound or nursing home bound patient; prorated miles actually travelled,HCPS +P9604,"Specimen Collection, Travel Allowance .",Travel allowance one way in connection with medically necessary laboratory specimen collection drawn from home bound or nursing home bound patient; prorated trip charge.,HCPS +P9612,"Specimen Collection, Catheterization.","Catheterization for collection of specimen, single patient, all places of service",HCPS +P9615,"Specimen Collection, Catheterization.",Catheterization for collection of specimen (s) (multiple patients),HCPS +Q0035,Miscellaneous Drugs and Tests .,Cardiokymography,HCPS +Q0081,Miscellaneous Drugs and Tests .,"Infusion therapy, using other than chemotherapeutic drugs, per visit",HCPS +Q0083,Miscellaneous Drugs and Tests .,"Chemotherapy administration by other than infusion technique only e.g., subcutaneous, intramuscular, push), per visit",HCPS +Q0084,Miscellaneous Drugs and Tests .,"Chemotherapy administration by infusion technique only, per visit",HCPS +Q0085,Miscellaneous Drugs and Tests .,"Chemotherapy administration by both infusion technique and other technique(s) e.g., subcutaneous, intramuscular, push), per visit",HCPS +Q0091,Miscellaneous Drugs and Tests .,"Screening Papanicolaou smear; obtaining, preparing and conveyance of cervical or vaginal smear to laboratory",HCPS +Q0092,Miscellaneous Drugs and Tests .,Set-up portable X-ray equipment,HCPS +Q0111,Miscellaneous Drugs and Tests .,"Wet mounts, including preparations of vaginal, cervical or skin specimens",HCPS +Q0112,Miscellaneous Drugs and Tests .,All potassium hydroxide (KOH) preparations,HCPS +Q0113,Miscellaneous Drugs and Tests .,Pinworm examinations,HCPS +Q0114,Miscellaneous Drugs and Tests .,Fern test,HCPS +Q0115,Miscellaneous Drugs and Tests .,"Post-coital direct, qualitative examinations of vaginal or cervical mucous",HCPS +Q0138,Miscellaneous Drugs and Tests .,"Injection, ferumoxytol, for treatment of iron deficiency anemia, 1 mg (non-ESRD use)",HCPS +Q0139,Miscellaneous Drugs and Tests .,"Injection, ferumoxytol, for treatment of iron deficiency anemia, 1 mg (for ESRD on dialysis)",HCPS +Q0144,Miscellaneous Drugs and Tests .,"Azithromycin dihydrate, oral, capsules/powder, 1 gram",HCPS +Q0161,Chemotherapy Anti-emetic Medications .,"Chlorpromazine hydrochloride, 5 mg, oral, FDA approved prescription anti-emetic, for use as a complete therapeutic substitute for an IV anti-emetic at the time of chemotherapy treatment, not to exceed a 48 hour dosage regimen",HCPS +Q0162,Chemotherapy Anti-emetic Medications .,"Ondansetron 1 mg, oral, FDA approved prescription anti-emetic, for use as a complete therapeutic substitute for an IV anti-emetic at the time of chemotherapy treatment, not to exceed a 48 hour dosage regimen",HCPS +Q0163,Chemotherapy Anti-emetic Medications .,"Diphenhydramine hydrochloride, 50 mg, oral, FDA approved prescription anti-emetic, for use as a complete therapeutic substitute for an IV anti-emetic at time of chemotherapy treatment not to exceed a 48 hour dosage regimen",HCPS +Q0164,Chemotherapy Anti-emetic Medications .,"Prochlorperazine maleate, 5 mg, oral, FDA approved prescription anti-emetic, for use as a complete therapeutic substitute for an IV anti-emetic at the time of chemotherapy treatment, not to exceed a 48 hour dosage regimen",HCPS +Q0166,Chemotherapy Anti-emetic Medications .,"Granisetron hydrochloride, 1 mg, oral, FDA approved prescription anti-emetic, for use as a complete therapeutic substitute for an IV anti-emetic at the time of chemotherapy treatment, not to exceed a 24 hour dosage regimen",HCPS +Q0167,Chemotherapy Anti-emetic Medications .,"Dronabinol, 2.5 mg, oral, FDA approved prescription anti-emetic, for use as a complete therapeutic substitute for an IV anti-emetic at the time of chemotherapy treatment, not to exceed a 48 hour dosage regimen",HCPS +Q0169,Chemotherapy Anti-emetic Medications .,"Promethazine hydrochloride, 12.5 mg, oral, FDA approved prescription anti-emetic, for use as a complete therapeutic substitute for an IV anti-emetic at the time of chemotherapy treatment, not to exceed a 48 hour dosage regimen",HCPS +Q0173,Chemotherapy Anti-emetic Medications .,"Trimethobenzamide hydrochloride, 250 mg, oral, FDA approved prescription anti-emetic, for use as a complete therapeutic substitute for an IV anti-emetic at the time of chemotherapy treatment, not to exceed a 48 hour dosage regimen",HCPS +Q0174,Chemotherapy Anti-emetic Medications .,"Thiethylperazine maleate, 10 mg, oral, FDA approved prescription anti-emetic, for use as a complete therapeutic substitute for an IV anti-emetic at the time of chemotherapy treatment, not to exceed a 48 hour dosage regimen",HCPS +Q0175,Chemotherapy Anti-emetic Medications .,"Perphenazine, 4 mg, oral, FDA approved prescription anti-emetic, for use as a complete therapeutic substitute for an IV anti-emetic at the time of chemotherapy treatment, not to exceed a 48 hour dosage regimen",HCPS +Q0177,Chemotherapy Anti-emetic Medications .,"Hydroxyzine pamoate, 25 mg, oral, FDA approved prescription anti-emetic, for use as a complete therapeutic substitute for an IV anti-emetic at the time of chemotherapy treatment, not to exceed a 48 hour dosage regimen",HCPS +Q0180,Chemotherapy Anti-emetic Medications .,"Dolasetron mesylate, 100 mg, oral, FDA approved prescription anti-emetic, for use as a complete therapeutic substitute for an IV anti-emetic at the time of chemotherapy treatment, not to exceed a 24 hour dosage regimen",HCPS +Q0181,Chemotherapy Anti-emetic Medications .,"Unspecified oral dosage form, FDA approved prescription anti-emetic, for use as a complete therapeutic substitute for a IV anti-emetic at the time of chemotherapy treatment, not to exceed a 48 hour dosage regimen",HCPS +Q0220,COVID-19 Infusion Therapy.,"Injection, tixagevimab and cilgavimab, for the pre-exposure prophylaxis only, for certain adults and pediatric individuals (12 years of age and older weighing at least 40kg) with no known sars-cov-2 exposure, who either have moderate to severely compromised immune systems or for whom vaccination with any available covid-19 vaccine is not recommended due to a history of severe adverse reaction to a covid-19 vaccine(s) and/or covid-19 vaccine component(s), 300 mg",HCPS +Q0221,COVID-19 Infusion Therapy.,"Injection, tixagevimab and cilgavimab, for the pre-exposure prophylaxis only, for certain adults and pediatric individuals (12 years of age and older weighing at least 40kg) with no known sars-cov-2 exposure, who either have moderate to severely compromised immune systems or for whom vaccination with any available covid-19 vaccine is not recommended due to a history of severe adverse reaction to a covid-19 vaccine(s) and/or covid-19 vaccine component(s), 600 mg",HCPS +Q0222,COVID-19 Infusion Therapy.,"Injection, bebtelovimab, 175 mg",HCPS +Q0240,COVID-19 Infusion Therapy.,"Injection, casirivimab and imdevimab, 600 mg",HCPS +Q0243,COVID-19 Infusion Therapy.,"Injection, casirivimab and imdevimab, 2400 mg",HCPS +Q0244,COVID-19 Infusion Therapy.,"Injection, casirivimab and imdevimab, 1200 mg",HCPS +Q0245,COVID-19 Infusion Therapy.,"Injection, bamlanivimab and etesevimab, 2100 mg",HCPS +Q0247,COVID-19 Infusion Therapy.,"Injection, sotrovimab, 500 mg",HCPS +Q0249,COVID-19 Infusion Therapy.,"Injection, tocilizumab, for hospitalized adults and pediatric patients (2 years of age and older) with covid-19 who are receiving systemic corticosteroids and require supplemental oxygen, non-invasive or invasive mechanical ventilation, or extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) only, 1 mg",HCPS +Q0477,Ventricular Assist Devices .,"Power module patient cable for use with electric or electric/pneumatic ventricular assist device, replacement only",HCPS +Q0478,Ventricular Assist Devices .,"Power adapter for use with electric or electric/pneumatic ventricular assist device, vehicle type",HCPS +Q0479,Ventricular Assist Devices .,"Power module for use with electric or electric/pneumatic ventricular assist device, replacement only",HCPS +Q0480,Ventricular Assist Devices .,"Driver for use with pneumatic ventricular assist device, replacement only",HCPS +Q0481,Ventricular Assist Devices .,"Microprocessor control unit for use with electric ventricular assist device, replacement only",HCPS +Q0482,Ventricular Assist Devices .,"Microprocessor control unit for use with electric/pneumatic combination ventricular assist device, replacement only",HCPS +Q0483,Ventricular Assist Devices .,"Monitor/display module for use with electric ventricular assist device, replacement only",HCPS +Q0484,Ventricular Assist Devices .,"Monitor/display module for use with electric or electric/pneumatic ventricular assist device, replacement only",HCPS +Q0485,Ventricular Assist Devices .,"Monitor control cable for use with electric ventricular assist device, replacement only",HCPS +Q0486,Ventricular Assist Devices .,"Monitor control cable for use with electric/pneumatic ventricular assist device, replacement only",HCPS +Q0487,Ventricular Assist Devices .,"Leads (pneumatic/electrical) for use with any type electric/pneumatic ventricular assist device, replacement only",HCPS +Q0488,Ventricular Assist Devices .,"Power pack base for use with electric ventricular assist device, replacement only",HCPS +Q0489,Ventricular Assist Devices .,"Power pack base for use with electric/pneumatic ventricular assist device, replacement only",HCPS +Q0490,Ventricular Assist Devices .,"Emergency power source for use with electric ventricular assist device, replacement only",HCPS +Q0491,Ventricular Assist Devices .,"Emergency power source for use with electric/pneumatic ventricular assist device, replacement only",HCPS +Q0492,Ventricular Assist Devices .,"Emergency power supply cable for use with electric ventricular assist device, replacement only",HCPS +Q0493,Ventricular Assist Devices .,"Emergency power supply cable for use with electric/pneumatic ventricular assist device, replacement only",HCPS +Q0494,Ventricular Assist Devices .,"Emergency hand pump for use with electric or electric/pneumatic ventricular assist device, replacement only",HCPS +Q0495,Ventricular Assist Devices .,"Battery/power pack charger for use with electric or electric/pneumatic ventricular assist device, replacement only",HCPS +Q0496,Ventricular Assist Devices .,"Battery, other than lithium-ion, for use with electric or electric/pneumatic ventricular assist device, replacement only",HCPS +Q0497,Ventricular Assist Devices .,"Battery clips for use with electric or electric/pneumatic ventricular assist device, replacement only",HCPS +Q0498,Ventricular Assist Devices .,"Holster for use with electric or electric/pneumatic ventricular assist device, replacement only",HCPS +Q0499,Ventricular Assist Devices .,"Belt/vest/bag for use to carry external peripheral components of any type ventricular assist device, replacement only",HCPS +Q0500,Ventricular Assist Devices .,"Filters for use with electric or electric/pneumatic ventricular assist device, replacement only",HCPS +Q0501,Ventricular Assist Devices .,"Shower cover for use with electric or electric/pneumatic ventricular assist device, replacement only",HCPS +Q0502,Ventricular Assist Devices .,"Mobility cart for pneumatic ventricular assist device, replacement only",HCPS +Q0503,Ventricular Assist Devices .,"Battery for pneumatic ventricular assist device, replacement only, each",HCPS +Q0504,Ventricular Assist Devices .,"Power adapter for pneumatic ventricular assist device, replacement only, vehicle type",HCPS +Q0506,Ventricular Assist Devices .,"Battery, lithium-ion, for use with electric or electric/pneumatic ventricular assist device, replacement only",HCPS +Q0507,Ventricular Assist Devices .,Miscellaneous supply or accessory for use with an external ventricular assist device,HCPS +Q0508,Ventricular Assist Devices .,Miscellaneous supply or accessory for use with an implanted ventricular assist device,HCPS +Q0509,Ventricular Assist Devices .,Miscellaneous supply or accessory for use with any implanted ventricular assist device for which payment was not made under Medicare Part A,HCPS +Q0510,Pharmacy Supply and Dispensing Fees .,"Pharmacy supply fee for initial immunosuppressive drug(s), first month following transplant",HCPS +Q0511,Pharmacy Supply and Dispensing Fees .,"Pharmacy supply fee for oral anti-cancer, oral anti-emetic or immunosuppressive drug(s); for the first prescription in a 30-day period",HCPS +Q0512,Pharmacy Supply and Dispensing Fees .,"Pharmacy supply fee for oral anti-cancer, oral anti-emetic or immunosuppressive drug(s); for a subsequent prescription in a 30-day period",HCPS +Q0513,Pharmacy Supply and Dispensing Fees .,Pharmacy dispensing fee for inhalation drug(s); per 30 days,HCPS +Q0514,Pharmacy Supply and Dispensing Fees .,Pharmacy dispensing fee for inhalation drug(s); per 90 days,HCPS +Q0515,Miscellaneous Drug and New Technology Codes .,"Injection, sermorelin acetate, 1 microgram",HCPS +Q0516,Miscellaneous Drug and New Technology Codes .,"Pharmacy supplying fee for hiv pre-exposure prophylaxis fda approved prescription drug, per 30-days",HCPS +Q0517,Miscellaneous Drug and New Technology Codes .,"Pharmacy supplying fee for hiv pre-exposure prophylaxis fda approved prescription drug, per 60-days",HCPS +Q0518,Miscellaneous Drug and New Technology Codes .,"Pharmacy supplying fee for hiv pre-exposure prophylaxis fda approved prescription drug, per 90-days",HCPS +Q1004,Miscellaneous Drug and New Technology Codes .,New technology intraocular lens category 4 as defined in Federal Register notice,HCPS +Q1005,Miscellaneous Drug and New Technology Codes .,New technology intraocular lens category 5 as defined in Federal Register notice,HCPS +Q2004,Miscellaneous Drug and New Technology Codes .,"Irrigation solution for treatment of bladder calculi, for example renacidin, per 500 ml",HCPS +Q2009,Miscellaneous Drug and New Technology Codes .,"Injection, fosphenytoin, 50 mg phenytoin equivalent",HCPS +Q2017,Miscellaneous Drug and New Technology Codes .,"Injection, teniposide, 50 mg",HCPS +Q2026,Miscellaneous Drug and New Technology Codes .,"Injection, Radiesse, 0.1 ml",HCPS +Q2028,Miscellaneous Drug and New Technology Codes .,"Injection, sculptra, 0.5 mg",HCPS +Q2034,Influenza Virus Vaccines .,"Influenza virus vaccine, split virus, for intramuscular use (Agriflu)",HCPS +Q2035,Influenza Virus Vaccines .,"Influenza virus vaccine, split virus, when administered to individuals 3 years of age and older, for intramuscular use (Afluria)",HCPS +Q2036,Influenza Virus Vaccines .,"Influenza virus vaccine, split virus, when administered to individuals 3 years of age and older, for intramuscular use (Flulaval)",HCPS +Q2037,Influenza Virus Vaccines .,"Influenza virus vaccine, split virus, when administered to individuals 3 years of age and older, for intramuscular use (Fluvirin)",HCPS +Q2038,Influenza Virus Vaccines .,"Influenza virus vaccine, split virus, when administered to individuals 3 years of age and older, for intramuscular use (Fluzone)",HCPS +Q2039,Influenza Virus Vaccines .,"Influenza virus vaccine, not otherwise specified",HCPS +Q2041,Other Drugs and Service Fees .,"Axicabtagene ciloleucel, up to 200 million autologous anti-cd19 car positive viable t cells, including leukapheresis and dose preparation procedures, per therapeutic dose",HCPS +Q2042,Other Drugs and Service Fees .,"Tisagenlecleucel, up to 600 million car-positive viable t cells, including leukapheresis and dose preparation procedures, per therapeutic dose",HCPS +Q2043,Other Drugs and Service Fees .,"Sipuleucel-T, minimum of 50 million autologous CD54+ cells activated with PAP-GM-CSF, including leukapheresis and all other preparatory procedures, per infusion",HCPS +Q2049,Other Drugs and Service Fees .,"Injection, doxorubicin hydrochloride, liposomal, imported Lipodox, 10 mg",HCPS +Q2050,Other Drugs and Service Fees .,"Injection, doxorubicin hydrochloride, liposomal, not otherwise specified, 10 mg",HCPS +Q2052,Other Drugs and Service Fees .,"Services, supplies, and accessories used in the home for the administration of intravenous immune globulin (ivig)",HCPS +Q2053,Other Drugs and Service Fees .,"Brexucabtagene autoleucel, up to 200 million autologous anti-cd19 car positive viable t cells, including leukapheresis and dose preparation procedures, per therapeutic dose",HCPS +Q2054,Other Drugs and Service Fees .,"Lisocabtagene maraleucel, up to 110 million autologous anti-cd19 car-positive viable t cells, including leukapheresis and dose preparation procedures, per therapeutic dose",HCPS +Q2055,Other Drugs and Service Fees .,"Idecabtagene vicleucel, up to 460 million autologous b-cell maturation antigen (bcma) directed car-positive t cells, including leukapheresis and dose preparation procedures, per therapeutic dose",HCPS +Q2056,Other Drugs and Service Fees .,"Ciltacabtagene autoleucel, up to 100 million autologous b-cell maturation antigen (bcma) directed car-positive t cells, including leukapheresis and dose preparation procedures, per therapeutic dose",HCPS +Q3001,Other Drugs and Service Fees .,"Radioelements for brachytherapy, any type, each",HCPS +Q3014,Other Drugs and Service Fees .,Telehealth originating site facility fee,HCPS +Q3027,Other Drugs and Service Fees .,"Injection, interferon beta-1a, 1 mcg for intramuscular use",HCPS +Q3028,Other Drugs and Service Fees .,"Injection, interferon beta-1a, 1 mcg for subcutaneous use",HCPS +Q3031,Other Drugs and Service Fees .,Collagen skin test,HCPS +Q4001,Cast and Splint Supplies .,"Casting supplies, body cast adult, with or without head, plaster",HCPS +Q4002,Cast and Splint Supplies .,"Cast supplies, body cast adult, with or without head, fiberglass",HCPS +Q4003,Cast and Splint Supplies .,"Cast supplies, shoulder cast, adult (11 years +), plaster",HCPS +Q4004,Cast and Splint Supplies .,"Cast supplies, shoulder cast, adult (11 years +), fiberglass",HCPS +Q4005,Cast and Splint Supplies .,"Cast supplies, long arm cast, adult (11 years +), plaster",HCPS +Q4006,Cast and Splint Supplies .,"Cast supplies, long arm cast, adult (11 years +), fiberglass",HCPS +Q4007,Cast and Splint Supplies .,"Cast supplies, long arm cast, pediatric (0-10 years), plaster",HCPS +Q4008,Cast and Splint Supplies .,"Cast supplies, long arm cast, pediatric (0-10 years), fiberglass",HCPS +Q4009,Cast and Splint Supplies .,"Cast supplies, short arm cast, adult (11 years +), plaster",HCPS +Q4010,Cast and Splint Supplies .,"Cast supplies, short arm cast, adult (11 years +), fiberglass",HCPS +Q4011,Cast and Splint Supplies .,"Cast supplies, short arm cast, pediatric (0-10 years), plaster",HCPS +Q4012,Cast and Splint Supplies .,"Cast supplies, short arm cast, pediatric (0-10 years), fiberglass",HCPS +Q4013,Cast and Splint Supplies .,"Cast supplies, gauntlet cast (includes lower forearm and hand), adult (11 years +), plaster",HCPS +Q4014,Cast and Splint Supplies .,"Cast supplies, gauntlet cast (includes lower forearm and hand), adult (11 years +), fiberglass",HCPS +Q4015,Cast and Splint Supplies .,"Cast supplies, gauntlet cast (includes lower forearm and hand), pediatric (0-10 years), plaster",HCPS +Q4016,Cast and Splint Supplies .,"Cast supplies, gauntlet cast (includes lower forearm and hand), pediatric (0-10 years), fiberglass",HCPS +Q4017,Cast and Splint Supplies .,"Cast supplies, long arm splint, adult (11 years +), plaster",HCPS +Q4018,Cast and Splint Supplies .,"Cast supplies, long arm splint, adult (11 years +), fiberglass",HCPS +Q4019,Cast and Splint Supplies .,"Cast supplies, long arm splint, pediatric (0-10 years), plaster",HCPS +Q4020,Cast and Splint Supplies .,"Cast supplies, long arm splint, pediatric (0-10 years), fiberglass",HCPS +Q4021,Cast and Splint Supplies .,"Cast supplies, short arm splint, adult (11 years +), plaster",HCPS +Q4022,Cast and Splint Supplies .,"Cast supplies, short arm splint, adult (11 years +), fiberglass",HCPS +Q4023,Cast and Splint Supplies .,"Cast supplies, short arm splint, pediatric (0-10 years), plaster",HCPS +Q4024,Cast and Splint Supplies .,"Cast supplies, short arm splint, pediatric (0-10 years), fiberglass",HCPS +Q4025,Cast and Splint Supplies .,"Cast supplies, hip spica (one or both legs), adult (11 years +), plaster",HCPS +Q4026,Cast and Splint Supplies .,"Cast supplies, hip spica (one or both legs), adult (11 years +), fiberglass",HCPS +Q4027,Cast and Splint Supplies .,"Cast supplies, hip spica (one or both legs), pediatric (0-10 years), plaster",HCPS +Q4028,Cast and Splint Supplies .,"Cast supplies, hip spica (one or both legs), pediatric (0-10 years), fiberglass",HCPS +Q4029,Cast and Splint Supplies .,"Cast supplies, long leg cast, adult (11 years +), plaster",HCPS +Q4030,Cast and Splint Supplies .,"Cast supplies, long leg cast, adult (11 years +), fiberglass",HCPS +Q4031,Cast and Splint Supplies .,"Cast supplies, long leg cast, pediatric (0-10 years), plaster",HCPS +Q4032,Cast and Splint Supplies .,"Cast supplies, long leg cast, pediatric (0-10 years), fiberglass",HCPS +Q4033,Cast and Splint Supplies .,"Cast supplies, long leg cylinder cast, adult (11 years +), plaster",HCPS +Q4034,Cast and Splint Supplies .,"Cast supplies, long leg cylinder cast, adult (11 years +), fiberglass",HCPS +Q4035,Cast and Splint Supplies .,"Cast supplies, long leg cylinder cast, pediatric (0-10 years), plaster",HCPS +Q4036,Cast and Splint Supplies .,"Cast supplies, long leg cylinder cast, pediatric (0-10 years), fiberglass",HCPS +Q4037,Cast and Splint Supplies .,"Cast supplies, short leg cast, adult (11 years +), plaster",HCPS +Q4038,Cast and Splint Supplies .,"Cast supplies, short leg cast, adult (11 years +), fiberglass",HCPS +Q4039,Cast and Splint Supplies .,"Cast supplies, short leg cast, pediatric (0-10 years), plaster",HCPS +Q4040,Cast and Splint Supplies .,"Cast supplies, short leg cast, pediatric (0-10 years), fiberglass",HCPS +Q4041,Cast and Splint Supplies .,"Cast supplies, long leg splint, adult (11 years +), plaster",HCPS +Q4042,Cast and Splint Supplies .,"Cast supplies, long leg splint, adult (11 years +), fiberglass",HCPS +Q4043,Cast and Splint Supplies .,"Cast supplies, long leg splint, pediatric (0-10 years), plaster",HCPS +Q4044,Cast and Splint Supplies .,"Cast supplies, long leg splint, pediatric (0-10 years), fiberglass",HCPS +Q4045,Cast and Splint Supplies .,"Cast supplies, short leg splint, adult (11 years +), plaster",HCPS +Q4046,Cast and Splint Supplies .,"Cast supplies, short leg splint, adult (11 years +), fiberglass",HCPS +Q4047,Cast and Splint Supplies .,"Cast supplies, short leg splint, pediatric (0-10 years), plaster",HCPS +Q4048,Cast and Splint Supplies .,"Cast supplies, short leg splint, pediatric (0-10 years), fiberglass",HCPS +Q4049,Cast and Splint Supplies .,"Finger splint, static",HCPS +Q4050,Cast and Splint Supplies .,"Cast supplies, for unlisted types and materials of casts",HCPS +Q4051,Cast and Splint Supplies .,"Splint supplies, miscellaneous (includes thermoplastics, strapping, fasteners, padding and other supplies)",HCPS +Q4074,Miscellaneous Drugs .,"Iloprost, inhalation solution, Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved final product, non-compounded, administered through DME, unit dose form, up to 20 micrograms",HCPS +Q4081,Miscellaneous Drugs .,"Injection, epoetin alfa, 100 units (for ESRD on dialysis)",HCPS +Q4082,Miscellaneous Drugs .,"Drug or biological, not otherwise classified, Part B drug competitive acquisition program (CAP)",HCPS +Q4100,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Skin substitute, not otherwise specified",HCPS +Q4101,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Apligraf, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4102,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Oasis wound matrix, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4103,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Oasis burn matrix, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4104,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Integra bilayer matrix wound dressing (BMWD), per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4105,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Integra dermal regeneration template (DRT) or integra omnigraft dermal regeneration matrix, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4106,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Dermagraft, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4107,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"GRAFTJACKET, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4108,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Integra matrix, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4110,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"PriMatrix, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4111,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"GammaGraft, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4112,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Cymetra, injectable, 1cc",HCPS +Q4113,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"GRAFTJACKET XPRESS, injectable, 1cc",HCPS +Q4114,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Integra flowable wound matrix, injectable, 1cc",HCPS +Q4115,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"AlloSkin, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4116,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"AlloDerm, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4117,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"HYALOMATRIX, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4118,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"MatriStem micromatrix, 1 mg",HCPS +Q4121,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"TheraSkin, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4122,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Dermacell, dermacell awm or dermacell awm porous, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4123,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"AlloSkin RT, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4124,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"OASIS ultra tri-layer wound matrix, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4125,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Arthroflex, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4126,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"MemoDerm, DermaSpan, TranZgraft or InteguPly, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4127,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Talymed, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4128,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Flex hd, or allopatch hd, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4130,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Strattice TM, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4132,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"""Grafix CORE and GrafixPL CORE, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4133,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Grafix prime, grafixpl prime, stravix and stravixpl, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4134,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Hmatrix, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4135,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Mediskin, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4136,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"E-Z Derm, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4137,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Amnioexcel, amnioexcel plus or biodexcel, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4138,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"BioDFence dryflex, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4139,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"AmnioMatrix or biodmatrix, injectable, 1 cc",HCPS +Q4140,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Biodfence, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4141,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"AlloSkin AC, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4142,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"XCM BIOLOGIC tissue matrix, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4143,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Repriza, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4145,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"EpiFix, injectable, 1 mg",HCPS +Q4146,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Tensix, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4147,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Architect, Architect PX, or Architect FX, extracellular matrix, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4148,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"NEOX CORD 1K, NEOX CORD RT, or CLARIX +CORD 1K, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4149,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Excellagen, 0.1 cc",HCPS +Q4150,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Allowrap DS or Dry, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4151,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"AmnioBand or Guardian, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4152,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"DermaPure, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4153,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Dermavest and plurivest, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4154,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Biovance, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4155,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"NeoxFlo or clarixFlo, 1 mg",HCPS +Q4156,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"NEOX 100 or CLARIX 100, per +square centimeter",HCPS +Q4157,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Revitalon, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4158,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Kerecis Omega3, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4159,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Affinity, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4160,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"NuShield, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4161,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Bio-ConneKt wound matrix, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4162,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"WoundEx Flow, BioSkin Flow, 0.5 cc",HCPS +Q4163,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"WoundEx, BioSkin, per +square centimeter",HCPS +Q4164,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Helicoll, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4165,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Keramatrix or kerasorb, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4166,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Cytal, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4167,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Truskin, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4168,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Amnioband, 1 mg",HCPS +Q4169,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Artacent wound, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4170,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Cygnus, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4171,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Interfyl, 1 mg",HCPS +Q4173,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Palingen or palingen xplus, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4174,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Palingen or promatrx, 0.36 mg per 0.25 cc",HCPS +Q4175,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Miroderm, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4176,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Neopatch or therion, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4177,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Floweramnioflo, 0.1 cc",HCPS +Q4178,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Floweramniopatch, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4179,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Flowerderm, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4180,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Revita, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4181,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Amnio wound, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4182,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Transcyte, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4183,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Surgigraft, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4184,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Cellesta or cellesta duo, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4185,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,Cellesta flowable amnion (25 mg per cc); per 0.5 cc,HCPS +Q4186,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Epifix, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4187,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Epicord, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4188,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Amnioarmor, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4189,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Artacent ac, 1 mg",HCPS +Q4190,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Artacent ac, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4191,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Restorigin, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4192,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Restorigin, 1 cc",HCPS +Q4193,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Coll-e-derm, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4194,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Novachor, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4195,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Puraply, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4196,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Puraply am, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4197,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Puraply xt, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4198,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Genesis amniotic membrane, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4199,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Cygnus matrix, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4200,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Skin te, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4201,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Matrion, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4202,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Keroxx (2.5g/cc), 1cc",HCPS +Q4203,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Derma-gide, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4204,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Xwrap, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4205,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Membrane graft or membrane wrap, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4206,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Fluid flow or fluid GF, 1 cc",HCPS +Q4208,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Novafix, per square cenitmeter",HCPS +Q4209,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Surgraft, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4210,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Axolotl graft or axolotl dualgraft, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4211,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Amnion bio or Axobiomembrane, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4212,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Allogen, per cc",HCPS +Q4213,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Ascent, 0.5 mg",HCPS +Q4214,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Cellesta cord, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4215,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Axolotl ambient or axolotl cryo, 0.1 mg",HCPS +Q4216,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Artacent cord, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4217,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Woundfix, BioWound, Woundfix Plus, BioWound Plus, Woundfix Xplus or BioWound Xplus, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4218,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Surgicord, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4219,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Surgigraft-dual, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4220,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"BellaCell HD or Surederm, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4221,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Amniowrap2, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4222,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Progenamatrix, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4224,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Human health factor 10 amniotic patch (hhf10-p), per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4225,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Amniobind or dermabind tl, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4226,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"MyOwn skin, includes harvesting and preparation procedures, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4227,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Amniocore, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4229,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Cogenex amniotic membrane, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4230,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Cogenex flowable amnion, per 0.5 cc",HCPS +Q4231,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Corplex p, per cc",HCPS +Q4232,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Corplex, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4233,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Surfactor or nudyn, per 0.5 cc",HCPS +Q4234,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Xcellerate, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4235,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Amniorepair or altiply, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4236,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Carepatch, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4237,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Cryo-cord, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4238,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Derm-maxx, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4239,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Amnio-maxx or amnio-maxx lite, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4240,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Corecyte, for topical use only, per 0.5 cc",HCPS +Q4241,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Polycyte, for topical use only, per 0.5 cc",HCPS +Q4242,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Amniocyte plus, per 0.5 cc",HCPS +Q4244,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Procenta, per 200 mg",HCPS +Q4245,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Amniotext, per cc",HCPS +Q4246,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Coretext or protext, per cc",HCPS +Q4247,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Amniotext patch, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4248,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Dermacyte amniotic membrane allograft, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4249,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Amniply, for topical use only, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4250,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Amnioamp-mp, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4251,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Vim, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4252,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Vendaje, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4253,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Zenith amniotic membrane, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4254,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Novafix dl, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4255,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Reguard, for topical use only, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4256,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Mlg-complete, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4257,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Relese, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4258,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Enverse, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4259,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Celera dual layer or celera dual membrane, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4260,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Signature apatch, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4261,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Tag, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4262,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Dual layer impax membrane, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4263,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Surgraft tl, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4264,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Cocoon membrane, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4265,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Neostim tl, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4266,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Neostim membrane, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4267,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Neostim dl, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4268,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Surgraft ft, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4269,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Surgraft xt, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4270,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Complete sl, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4271,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Complete ft, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4272,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Esano a, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4273,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Esano aaa, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4274,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Esano ac, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4275,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Esano aca, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4276,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Orion, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4277,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Woundplus membrane or e-graft, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4278,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Epieffect, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4279,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Vendaje ac, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4280,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Xcell amnio matrix, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4281,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Barrera sl or barrera dl, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4282,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Cygnus dual, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4283,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Biovance tri-layer or biovance 3l, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4284,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Dermabind sl, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4285,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Nudyn dl or nudyn dl mesh, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4286,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Nudyn sl or nudyn slw, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4287,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Dermabind dl, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4288,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Dermabind ch, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4289,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Revoshield + amniotic barrier, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4290,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Membrane wrap-hydro, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4291,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Lamellas xt, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4292,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Lamellas, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4293,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Acesso dl, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4294,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Amnio quad-core, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4295,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Amnio tri-core amniotic, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4296,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Rebound matrix, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4297,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Emerge matrix, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4298,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Amniocore pro, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4299,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Amniocore pro+, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4300,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Acesso tl, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4301,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Activate matrix, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4302,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Complete aca, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4303,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Complete aa, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q4304,Skin Substitutes and Biologicals.,"Grafix plus, per square centimeter",HCPS +Q5001,Hospice and Home Health Care .,Hospice or home health care provided in patient's home/residence,HCPS +Q5002,Hospice and Home Health Care .,Hospice or home health care provided in assisted living facility,HCPS +Q5003,Hospice and Home Health Care .,Hospice care provided in nursing long term care facility (LTC) or non-skilled nursing facility (NF),HCPS +Q5004,Hospice and Home Health Care .,Hospice care provided in skilled nursing facility (SNF),HCPS +Q5005,Hospice and Home Health Care .,Hospice care provided in inpatient hospital,HCPS +Q5006,Hospice and Home Health Care .,Hospice care provided in inpatient hospice facility,HCPS +Q5007,Hospice and Home Health Care .,Hospice care provided in long term care facility,HCPS +Q5008,Hospice and Home Health Care .,Hospice care provided in inpatient psychiatric facility,HCPS +Q5009,Hospice and Home Health Care .,Hospice or home health care provided in place not otherwise specified (NOS),HCPS +Q5010,Hospice and Home Health Care .,Hospice home care provided in a hospice facility,HCPS +Q5101,Additional Miscellaneous Drugs.,"Injection, filgrastim-sndz, biosimilar, (zarxio), 1 microgram",HCPS +Q5103,Anti-Inflammatory Medication and Chemotherapy Medication.,"Injection, infliximab-dyyb, biosimilar, (inflectra), 10 mg",HCPS +Q5104,Anti-Inflammatory Medication and Chemotherapy Medication.,"Injection, infliximab-abda, biosimilar, (renflexis), 10 mg",HCPS +Q5105,Anti-Inflammatory Medication and Chemotherapy Medication.,"Injection, epoetin alfa-epbx, biosimilar, (retacrit) (for esrd on dialysis), 100 units",HCPS +Q5106,Anti-Inflammatory Medication and Chemotherapy Medication.,"Injection, epoetin alfa-epbx, biosimilar, (retacrit) (for non-esrd use), 1000 units",HCPS +Q5107,Anti-Inflammatory Medication and Chemotherapy Medication.,"Injection, bevacizumab-awwb, biosimilar, (mvasi), 10 mg",HCPS +Q5108,Anti-Inflammatory Medication and Chemotherapy Medication.,"Injection, pegfilgrastim-jmdb (fulphila), biosimilar, 0.5 mg",HCPS +Q5109,Anti-Inflammatory Medication and Chemotherapy Medication.,"Injection, infliximab-qbtx, biosimilar, (ixifi), 10 mg",HCPS +Q5110,Anti-Inflammatory Medication and Chemotherapy Medication.,"Injection, filgrastim-aafi, biosimilar, (nivestym), 1 microgram",HCPS +Q5111,Anti-Inflammatory Medication and Chemotherapy Medication.,"Injection, pegfilgrastim-cbqv (udenyca), biosimilar, 0.5 mg",HCPS +Q5112,Cancer and Vision Associated Drugs.,"Injection, trastuzumab-dttb, biosimilar, (Ontruzant), 10 mg",HCPS +Q5113,Cancer and Vision Associated Drugs.,"Injection, trastuzumab-pkrb, biosimilar, (Herzuma), 10 mg",HCPS +Q5114,Cancer and Vision Associated Drugs.,"Injection, Trastuzumab-dkst, biosimilar, (Ogivri), 10 mg",HCPS +Q5115,Cancer and Vision Associated Drugs.,"Injection, rituximab-abbs, biosimilar, (Truxima), 10 mg",HCPS +Q5116,Cancer and Vision Associated Drugs.,"Injection, trastuzumab-qyyp, biosimilar, (trazimera), 10 mg",HCPS +Q5117,Cancer and Vision Associated Drugs.,"Injection, trastuzumab-anns, biosimilar, (kanjinti), 10 mg",HCPS +Q5118,Cancer and Vision Associated Drugs.,"Injection, bevacizumab-bvzr, biosimilar, (Zirabev), 10 mg",HCPS +Q5119,Cancer and Vision Associated Drugs.,"Injection, rituximab-pvvr, biosimilar, (ruxience), 10 mg",HCPS +Q5120,Cancer and Vision Associated Drugs.,"Injection, pegfilgrastim-bmez (ziextenzo), biosimilar, 0.5 mg",HCPS +Q5121,Cancer and Vision Associated Drugs.,"Injection, infliximab-axxq, biosimilar, (avsola), 10 mg",HCPS +Q5122,Cancer and Vision Associated Drugs.,"Injection, pegfilgrastim-apgf (nyvepria), biosimilar, 0.5 mg",HCPS +Q5123,Cancer and Vision Associated Drugs.,"Injection, rituximab-arrx, biosimilar, (riabni), 10 mg",HCPS +Q5124,Cancer and Vision Associated Drugs.,"Injection, ranibizumab-nuna, biosimilar, (byooviz), 0.1 mg",HCPS +Q5125,Cancer and Vision Associated Drugs.,"Injection, filgrastim-ayow, biosimilar, (releuko), 1 microgram",HCPS +Q5126,Cancer and Vision Associated Drugs.,"Injection, bevacizumab-maly, biosimilar, (alymsys), 10 mg",HCPS +Q5127,Cancer and Vision Associated Drugs.,"Injection, pegfilgrastim-fpgk (stimufend), biosimilar, 0.5 mg",HCPS +Q5128,Cancer and Vision Associated Drugs.,"Injection, ranibizumab-eqrn (cimerli), biosimilar, 0.1 mg",HCPS +Q5129,Cancer and Vision Associated Drugs.,"Injection, bevacizumab-adcd (vegzelma), biosimilar, 10 mg",HCPS +Q5130,Cancer and Vision Associated Drugs.,"Injection, pegfilgrastim-pbbk (fylnetra), biosimilar, 0.5 mg",HCPS +Q5131,Cancer and Vision Associated Drugs.,"Injection, adalimumab-aacf (idacio), biosimilar, 20 mg",HCPS +Q5132,Cancer and Vision Associated Drugs.,"Injection, adalimumab-afzb (abrilada), biosimilar, 10 mg",HCPS +Q9001,"Assessment and Couseling-Department of Veterans Affairs Chaplain Services +.",Assessment by chaplain services,HCPS +Q9002,"Assessment and Couseling-Department of Veterans Affairs Chaplain Services +.","Counseling, individual, by chaplain services",HCPS +Q9003,"Assessment and Couseling-Department of Veterans Affairs Chaplain Services +.","Counseling, group, by chaplain services",HCPS +Q9004,"Assessment and Couseling-Department of Veterans Affairs Chaplain Services +.",Department of veterans affairs whole health partner services,HCPS +Q9950,Contrast Agents/Diagnostic Imaging .,"Injection, sulfur hexafluoride lipid microspheres, per ml",HCPS +Q9951,Contrast Agents/Diagnostic Imaging .,"Low osmolar contrast material, 400 or greater mg/ml iodine concentration, per ml",HCPS +Q9953,Contrast Agents/Diagnostic Imaging .,"Injection, iron-based magnetic resonance contrast agent, per ml",HCPS +Q9954,Contrast Agents/Diagnostic Imaging .,"Oral magnetic resonance contrast agent, per 100 ml",HCPS +Q9955,Contrast Agents/Diagnostic Imaging .,"Injection, perflexane lipid microspheres, per ml",HCPS +Q9956,Contrast Agents/Diagnostic Imaging .,"Injection, octafluoropropane microspheres, per ml",HCPS +Q9957,Contrast Agents/Diagnostic Imaging .,"Injection, perflutren lipid microspheres, per ml",HCPS +Q9958,Contrast Agents/Diagnostic Imaging .,"High osmolar contrast material, up to 149 mg/ml iodine concentration, per ml",HCPS +Q9959,Contrast Agents/Diagnostic Imaging .,"High osmolar contrast material, 150-199 mg/ml iodine concentration, per ml",HCPS +Q9960,Contrast Agents/Diagnostic Imaging .,"High osmolar contrast material, 200-249 mg/ml iodine concentration, per ml",HCPS +Q9961,Contrast Agents/Diagnostic Imaging .,"High osmolar contrast material, 250-299 mg/ml iodine concentration, per ml",HCPS +Q9962,Contrast Agents/Diagnostic Imaging .,"High osmolar contrast material, 300-349 mg/ml iodine concentration, per ml",HCPS +Q9963,Contrast Agents/Diagnostic Imaging .,"High osmolar contrast material, 350-399 mg/ml iodine concentration, per ml",HCPS +Q9964,Contrast Agents/Diagnostic Imaging .,"High osmolar contrast material, 400 or greater mg/ml iodine concentration, per ml",HCPS +Q9965,Contrast Agents/Diagnostic Imaging .,"Low osmolar contrast material, 100-199 mg/ml iodine concentration, per ml",HCPS +Q9966,Contrast Agents/Diagnostic Imaging .,"Low osmolar contrast material, 200-299 mg/ml iodine concentration, per ml",HCPS +Q9967,Contrast Agents/Diagnostic Imaging .,"Low osmolar contrast material, 300-399 mg/ml iodine concentration, per ml",HCPS +Q9968,Contrast Agents/Diagnostic Imaging .,"Injection, non-radioactive, non-contrast, visualization adjunct (e.g., methylene blue, isosulfan blue), 1 mg",HCPS +Q9969,Contrast Agents/Diagnostic Imaging .,"Tc-99m from non-highly enriched uranium source, full cost recovery add-on, per study dose",HCPS +Q9982,Contrast Agents/Diagnostic Imaging .,"Flutemetamol f18, diagnostic, per study dose, up to 5 millicuries",HCPS +Q9983,Contrast Agents/Diagnostic Imaging .,"Florbetaben f18, diagnostic, per study dose, up to 8.1 millicuries",HCPS +Q9991,Other Drugs and Test.,"Injection, buprenorphine extended-release (sublocade), less than or equal to 100 mg",HCPS +Q9992,Other Drugs and Test.,"Injection, buprenorphine extended-release (sublocade), greater than 100 mg",HCPS +R0070,Diagnostic Radiology Services.,"Transportation of portable X-ray equipment and personnel to home or nursing home, per trip to facility or location, one patient seen",HCPS +R0075,Diagnostic Radiology Services.,"Transportation of portable X-ray equipment and personnel to home or nursing home, per trip to facility or location, more than one patient seen",HCPS +R0076,Diagnostic Radiology Services.,"Transportation of portable EKG to facility or location, per patient",HCPS +S0012,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Butorphanol tartrate, nasal spray, 25 mg",HCPS +S0013,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Esketamine, nasal spray, 1 mg",HCPS +S0014,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Tacrine hydrochloride, 10 mg",HCPS +S0017,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Injection, aminocaproic acid, 5 grams",HCPS +S0021,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Injection, cefoperazone sodium, 1 gram",HCPS +S0023,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Injection, cimetidine hydrochloride, 300 mg",HCPS +S0028,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Injection, famotidine, 20 mg",HCPS +S0032,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Injection, nafcillin sodium, 2 grams",HCPS +S0034,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Injection, ofloxacin, 400 mg",HCPS +S0039,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Injection, sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim, 10 ml",HCPS +S0040,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Injection, ticarcillin disodium and clavulanate potassium, 3.1 grams",HCPS +S0074,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Injection, cefotetan disodium, 500 mg",HCPS +S0078,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Injection, fosphenytoin sodium, 750 mg",HCPS +S0080,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Injection, pentamidine isethionate, 300 mg",HCPS +S0081,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Injection, piperacillin sodium, 500 mg",HCPS +S0088,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Imatinib, 100 mg",HCPS +S0090,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Sildenafil citrate, 25 mg",HCPS +S0091,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Granisetron hydrochloride, 1 mg (for circumstances falling under the Medicare statute, use Q0166)",HCPS +S0092,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Injection, hydromorphone hydrochloride, 250 mg (loading dose for infusion pump)",HCPS +S0093,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Injection, morphine sulfate, 500 mg (loading dose for infusion pump)",HCPS +S0104,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Zidovudine, oral, 100 mg",HCPS +S0106,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Bupropion HCL sustained release tablet, 150 mg, per bottle of 60 tablets",HCPS +S0108,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Mercaptopurine, oral, 50 mg",HCPS +S0109,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Methadone, oral, 5 mg",HCPS +S0117,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Tretinoin, topical, 5 grams",HCPS +S0119,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Ondansetron, oral, 4 mg (for circumstances falling under the Medicare statute, use HCPCS Q code)",HCPS +S0122,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Injection, menotropins, 75 IU",HCPS +S0126,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Injection, follitropin alfa, 75 IU",HCPS +S0128,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Injection, follitropin beta, 75 IU",HCPS +S0132,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Injection, ganirelix acetate, 250 mcg",HCPS +S0136,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Clozapine, 25 mg",HCPS +S0137,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Didanosine (ddi), 25 mg",HCPS +S0138,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Finasteride, 5 mg",HCPS +S0139,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Minoxidil, 10 mg",HCPS +S0140,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Saquinavir, 200 mg",HCPS +S0142,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Colistimethate sodium, inhalation solution administered through DME, concentrated form, per mg",HCPS +S0145,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Injection, pegylated interferon alfa-2a, 180 mcg per ml",HCPS +S0148,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Injection, pegylated interferon alfa-2b, 10 mcg",HCPS +S0155,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Sterile dilutant for epoprostenol, 50ml",HCPS +S0156,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Exemestane, 25 mg",HCPS +S0157,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Becaplermin gel 0.01%, 0.5 gm",HCPS +S0160,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Dextroamphetamine sulfate, 5 mg",HCPS +S0164,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Injection, pantoprazole sodium, 40 mg",HCPS +S0169,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Calcitrol, 0.25 microgram",HCPS +S0170,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Anastrozole, oral, 1 mg",HCPS +S0172,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Chlorambucil, oral, 2 mg",HCPS +S0174,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Dolasetron mesylate, oral 50 mg (for circumstances falling under the Medicare statute, use Q0180)",HCPS +S0175,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Flutamide, oral, 125 mg",HCPS +S0176,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Hydroxyurea, oral, 500 mg",HCPS +S0177,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Levamisole hydrochloride, oral, 50 mg",HCPS +S0178,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Lomustine, oral, 10 mg",HCPS +S0179,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Megestrol acetate, oral, 20 mg",HCPS +S0182,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Procarbazine hydrochloride, oral, 50 mg",HCPS +S0183,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Prochlorperazine maleate, oral, 5 mg (for circumstances falling under the medicare statute, use Q0164)",HCPS +S0187,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Tamoxifen citrate, oral, 10 mg",HCPS +S0189,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Testosterone pellet, 75 mg",HCPS +S0190,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Mifepristone, oral, 200 mg",HCPS +S0191,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Misoprostol, oral, 200 mcg",HCPS +S0194,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Dialysis/stress vitamin supplement, oral, 100 capsules",HCPS +S0197,Non-Medicare Drug Codes .,"Prenatal vitamins, 30-day supply",HCPS +S0199,Miscellaneous Provider Services .,"Medically induced abortion by oral ingestion of medication including all associated services and supplies (e.g., patient counseling, office visits, confirmation of pregnancy by HCG, ultrasound to confirm duration of pregnancy, ultrasound to confirm completion of abortion) except drugs",HCPS +S0201,Miscellaneous Provider Services .,"Partial hospitalization services, less than 24 hours, per diem",HCPS +S0207,Miscellaneous Provider Services .,"Paramedic intercept, non-hospital-based ALS service (non-voluntary), non-transport",HCPS +S0208,Miscellaneous Provider Services .,"Paramedic intercept, hospital-based ALS service (non-voluntary), non-transport",HCPS +S0209,Miscellaneous Provider Services .,"Wheelchair van, mileage, per mile",HCPS +S0215,Miscellaneous Provider Services .,"Non-emergency transportation; mileage, per mile",HCPS +S0220,Miscellaneous Provider Services .,Medical conference by a physician with interdisciplinary team of health professionals or representatives of community agencies to coordinate activities of patient care (patient is present); approximately 30 minutes,HCPS +S0221,Miscellaneous Provider Services .,Medical conference by a physician with interdisciplinary team of health professionals or representatives of community agencies to coordinate activities of patient care (patient is present); approximately 60 minutes,HCPS +S0250,Miscellaneous Provider Services .,Comprehensive geriatric assessment and treatment planning performed by assessment team,HCPS +S0255,Miscellaneous Provider Services .,"Hospice referral visit (advising patient and family of care options) performed by nurse, social worker, or other designated staff",HCPS +S0257,Miscellaneous Provider Services .,"Counseling and discussion regarding advance directives or end of life care planning and decisions, with patient and/or surrogate (list separately in addition to code for appropriate evaluation and management service)",HCPS +S0260,Miscellaneous Provider Services .,History and physical (outpatient or office) related to surgical procedure (list separately in addition to code for appropriate evaluation and management service),HCPS +S0265,Miscellaneous Provider Services .,"Genetic counseling, under physician supervision, each 15 minutes",HCPS +S0270,Miscellaneous Provider Services .,"Physician management of patient home care, standard monthly case rate (per 30 days)",HCPS +S0271,Miscellaneous Provider Services .,"Physician management of patient home care, hospice monthly case rate (per 30 days)",HCPS +S0272,Miscellaneous Provider Services .,"Physician management of patient home care, episodic care monthly case rate (per 30 days)",HCPS +S0273,Miscellaneous Provider Services .,"Physician visit at member's home, outside of a capitation arrangement",HCPS +S0274,Miscellaneous Provider Services .,"Nurse practitioner visit at member's home, outside of a capitation arrangement",HCPS +S0280,Miscellaneous Provider Services .,"Medical home program, comprehensive care coordination and planning, initial plan",HCPS +S0281,Miscellaneous Provider Services .,"Medical home program, comprehensive care coordination and planning, maintenance of plan",HCPS +S0285,Miscellaneous Provider Services .,Colonoscopy consultation performed prior to a screening colonoscopy procedure,HCPS +S0302,Miscellaneous Provider Services .,Completed early periodic screening diagnosis and treatment (EPSDT) service (list in addition to code for appropriate evaluation and management service),HCPS +S0310,Miscellaneous Provider Services .,Hospitalist services (list separately in addition to code for appropriate evaluation and management service),HCPS +S0311,Miscellaneous Provider Services .,"Comprehensive management and care coordination for advanced illness, per calendar month",HCPS +S0315,Miscellaneous Provider Services .,Disease management program; initial assessment and initiation of the program,HCPS +S0316,Miscellaneous Provider Services .,"Disease management program, follow-up/reassessment",HCPS +S0317,Miscellaneous Provider Services .,Disease management program; per diem,HCPS +S0320,Miscellaneous Provider Services .,Telephone calls by a registered nurse to a disease management program member for monitoring purposes; per month,HCPS +S0340,Miscellaneous Provider Services .,"Lifestyle modification program for management of coronary artery disease, including all supportive services; first quarter / stage",HCPS +S0341,Miscellaneous Provider Services .,"Lifestyle modification program for management of coronary artery disease, including all supportive services; second or third quarter / stage",HCPS +S0342,Miscellaneous Provider Services .,"Lifestyle modification program for management of coronary artery disease, including all supportive services; fourth quarter / stage",HCPS +S0353,Miscellaneous Provider Services .,"Treatment planning and care coordination management for cancer, initial treatment",HCPS +S0354,Miscellaneous Provider Services .,"Treatment planning and care coordination management for cancer, established patient with a change of regimen",HCPS +S0390,Miscellaneous Provider Services .,"Routine foot care; removal and/or trimming of corns, calluses and/or nails and preventive maintenance in specific medical conditions (e.g., diabetes), per visit",HCPS +S0395,Miscellaneous Provider Services .,Impression casting of a foot performed by a practitioner other than the manufacturer of the orthotic,HCPS +S0400,Miscellaneous Provider Services .,Global fee for extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy treatment of kidney stone(s),HCPS +S0500,Vision Supplies .,"Disposable contact lens, per lens",HCPS +S0504,Vision Supplies .,"Single vision prescription lens (safety, athletic, or sunglass), per lens",HCPS +S0506,Vision Supplies .,"Bifocal vision prescription lens (safety, athletic, or sunglass), per lens",HCPS +S0508,Vision Supplies .,"Trifocal vision prescription lens (safety, athletic, or sunglass), per lens",HCPS +S0510,Vision Supplies .,"Non-prescription lens (safety, athletic, or sunglass), per lens",HCPS +S0512,Vision Supplies .,"Daily wear specialty contact lens, per lens",HCPS +S0514,Vision Supplies .,"Color contact lens, per lens",HCPS +S0515,Vision Supplies .,"Scleral lens, liquid bandage device, per lens",HCPS +S0516,Vision Supplies .,Safety eyeglass frames,HCPS +S0518,Vision Supplies .,Sunglasses frames,HCPS +S0580,Vision Supplies .,Polycarbonate lens (list this code in addition to the basic code for the lens),HCPS +S0581,Vision Supplies .,Nonstandard lens (list this code in addition to the basic code for the lens),HCPS +S0590,Vision Supplies .,"Integral lens service, miscellaneous services reported separately",HCPS +S0592,Vision Supplies .,Comprehensive contact lens evaluation,HCPS +S0595,Vision Supplies .,Dispensing new spectacle lenses for patient supplied frame,HCPS +S0596,Vision Supplies .,Phakic intraocular lens for correction of refractive error,HCPS +S0601,Screenings and Examinations .,Screening proctoscopy,HCPS +S0610,Screenings and Examinations .,"Annual gynecological examination, new patient",HCPS +S0612,Screenings and Examinations .,"Annual gynecological examination, established patient",HCPS +S0613,Screenings and Examinations .,Annual gynecological examination; clinical breast examination without pelvic evaluation,HCPS +S0618,Screenings and Examinations .,Audiometry for hearing aid evaluation to determine the level and degree of hearing loss,HCPS +S0620,Screenings and Examinations .,Routine ophthalmological examination including refraction; new patient,HCPS +S0621,Screenings and Examinations .,Routine ophthalmological examination including refraction; established patient,HCPS +S0622,Screenings and Examinations .,"Physical exam for college, new or established patient (list separately in addition to appropriate evaluation and management code)",HCPS +S0630,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,Removal of sutures; by a physician other than the physician who originally closed the wound,HCPS +S0800,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,Laser in situ keratomileusis (LASIK),HCPS +S0810,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,Photorefractive keratectomy (PRK),HCPS +S0812,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,Phototherapeutic keratectomy (PTK),HCPS +S1001,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Deluxe item, patient aware (list in addition to code for basic item)",HCPS +S1002,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,Customized item (list in addition to code for basic item),HCPS +S1015,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,IV tubing extension set,HCPS +S1016,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Non-PVC (polyvinyl chloride) intravenous administration set, for use with drugs that are not stable in PVC e.g. paclitaxel",HCPS +S1030,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Continuous noninvasive glucose monitoring device, purchase (for physician interpretation of data, use code)",HCPS +S1031,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Continuous noninvasive glucose monitoring device, rental, including sensor, sensor replacement, and download to monitor (for physician interpretation of data, use code)",HCPS +S1034,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Artificial pancreas device system (e.g., low glucose suspend (LGS) feature) including continuous glucose monitor, blood glucose device, insulin pump and computer algorithm that communicates with all of the devices",HCPS +S1035,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Sensor; invasive (e.g., subcutaneous), disposable, for use with artificial pancreas device system",HCPS +S1036,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Transmitter; external, for use with artificial pancreas device system",HCPS +S1037,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Receiver (monitor); external, for use with artificial pancreas device system",HCPS +S1040,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Cranial remolding orthosis, pediatric, rigid, with soft interface material, custom fabricated, includes fitting and adjustment(s)",HCPS +S1091,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Stent, non-coronary, temporary, with delivery system (propel)",HCPS +S2053,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,Transplantation of small intestine and liver allografts,HCPS +S2054,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,Transplantation of multivisceral organs,HCPS +S2055,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Harvesting of donor multivisceral organs, with preparation and maintenance of allografts; from cadaver donor",HCPS +S2060,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,Lobar lung transplantation,HCPS +S2061,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Donor lobectomy (lung) for transplantation, living donor",HCPS +S2065,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,Simultaneous pancreas kidney transplantation,HCPS +S2066,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Breast reconstruction with gluteal artery perforator (GAP) flap, including harvesting of the flap, microvascular transfer, closure of donor site and shaping the flap into a breast, unilateral",HCPS +S2067,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Breast reconstruction of a single breast with ""stacked"" deep inferior epigastric perforator (DIEP) flap(s) and/or gluteal artery perforator (GAP) flap(s), including harvesting of the flap(s), microvascular transfer, closure of donor site(s) and shaping the flap into a breast, unilateral",HCPS +S2068,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Breast reconstruction with deep inferior epigastric perforator (DIEP) flap or superficial inferior epigastric artery (SIEA) flap, including harvesting of the flap, microvascular transfer, closure of donor site and shaping the flap into a breast, unilateral",HCPS +S2070,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Cystourethroscopy, with ureteroscopy and/or pyeloscopy; with endoscopic laser treatment of ureteral calculi (includes ureteral catheterization)",HCPS +S2079,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,Laparoscopic esophagomyotomy (Heller type),HCPS +S2080,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,Laser-assisted uvulopalatoplasty (LAUP),HCPS +S2083,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,Adjustment of gastric band diameter via subcutaneous port by injection or aspiration of saline,HCPS +S2095,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Transcatheter occlusion or embolization for tumor destruction, percutaneous, any method, using yttrium-90 microspheres",HCPS +S2102,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,Islet cell tissue transplant from pancreas; allogeneic,HCPS +S2103,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,Adrenal tissue transplant to brain,HCPS +S2107,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Adoptive immunotherapy i.e. development of specific anti-tumor reactivity (e.g., tumor-infiltrating lymphocyte therapy) per course of treatment",HCPS +S2112,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Arthroscopy, knee, surgical for harvesting of cartilage (chondrocyte cells)",HCPS +S2115,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Osteotomy, periacetabular, with internal fixation",HCPS +S2117,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Arthroereisis, subtalar",HCPS +S2118,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Metal-on-metal total hip resurfacing, including acetabular and femoral components",HCPS +S2120,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,Low density lipoprotein (LDL) apheresis using heparin-induced extracorporeal LDL precipitation,HCPS +S2140,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Cord blood harvesting for transplantation, allogeneic",HCPS +S2142,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Cord blood-derived stem-cell transplantation, allogeneic",HCPS +S2150,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Bone marrow or blood-derived stem cells (peripheral or umbilical), allogeneic or autologous, harvesting, transplantation, and related complications; including: pheresis and cell preparation/storage; marrow ablative therapy; drugs, supplies, hospitalization with outpatient follow-up; medical/surgical, diagnostic, emergency, and rehabilitative services; and the number of days of pre-and post-transplant care in the global definition",HCPS +S2152,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Solid organ(s), complete or segmental, single organ or combination of organs; deceased or living donor (s), procurement, transplantation, and related complications; including: drugs; supplies; hospitalization with outpatient follow-up; medical/surgical, diagnostic, emergency, and rehabilitative services, and the number of days of pre- and post-transplant care in the global definition",HCPS +S2202,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,Echosclerotherapy,HCPS +S2205,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Minimally invasive direct coronary artery bypass surgery involving mini-thoracotomy or mini-sternotomy surgery, performed under direct vision; using arterial graft(s), single coronary arterial graft",HCPS +S2206,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Minimally invasive direct coronary artery bypass surgery involving mini-thoracotomy or mini-sternotomy surgery, performed under direct vision; using arterial graft(s), two coronary arterial grafts",HCPS +S2207,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Minimally invasive direct coronary artery bypass surgery involving mini-thoracotomy or mini-sternotomy surgery, performed under direct vision; using venous graft only, single coronary venous graft",HCPS +S2208,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Minimally invasive direct coronary artery bypass surgery involving mini-thoracotomy or mini-sternotomy surgery, performed under direct vision; using single arterial and venous graft(s), single venous graft",HCPS +S2209,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Minimally invasive direct coronary artery bypass surgery involving mini-thoracotomy or mini-sternotomy surgery, performed under direct vision; using two arterial grafts and single venous graft",HCPS +S2225,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Myringotomy, laser-assisted",HCPS +S2230,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,Implantation of magnetic component of semi-implantable hearing device on ossicles in middle ear,HCPS +S2235,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,Implantation of auditory brain stem implant,HCPS +S2260,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Induced abortion, 17 to 24 weeks",HCPS +S2265,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Induced abortion, 25 to 28 weeks",HCPS +S2266,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Induced abortion, 29 to 31 weeks",HCPS +S2267,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Induced abortion, 32 weeks or greater",HCPS +S2300,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Arthroscopy, shoulder, surgical; with thermally-induced capsulorrhaphy",HCPS +S2325,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,Hip core decompression,HCPS +S2340,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,Chemodenervation of abductor muscle(s) of vocal cord,HCPS +S2341,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,Chemodenervation of adductor muscle(s) of vocal cord,HCPS +S2342,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Nasal endoscopy for post-operative debridement following functional endoscopic sinus surgery, nasal and/or sinus cavity(s), unilateral or bilateral",HCPS +S2348,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Decompression procedure, percutaneous, of nucleus pulposus of intervertebral disc, using radiofrequency energy, single or multiple levels, lumbar",HCPS +S2350,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Diskectomy, anterior, with decompression of spinal cord and/or nerve root(s), including osteophytectomy; lumbar, single interspace",HCPS +S2351,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Diskectomy, anterior, with decompression of spinal cord and/or nerve root(s), including osteophytectomy; lumbar, each additional interspace (list separately in addition to code for primary procedure)",HCPS +S2400,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Repair, congenital diaphragmatic hernia in the fetus using temporary tracheal occlusion, procedure performed in utero",HCPS +S2401,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Repair, urinary tract obstruction in the fetus, procedure performed in utero",HCPS +S2402,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Repair, congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation in the fetus, procedure performed in utero",HCPS +S2403,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Repair, extralobar pulmonary sequestration in the fetus, procedure performed in utero",HCPS +S2404,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Repair, myelomeningocele in the fetus, procedure performed in utero",HCPS +S2405,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Repair of sacrococcygeal teratoma in the fetus, procedure performed in utero",HCPS +S2409,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Repair, congenital malformation of fetus, procedure performed in utero, not otherwise classified",HCPS +S2411,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,Fetoscopic laser therapy for treatment of twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome,HCPS +S2900,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,Surgical techniques requiring use of robotic surgical system (list separately in addition to code for primary procedure),HCPS +S3000,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Diabetic indicator; retinal eye exam, dilated, bilateral",HCPS +S3005,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Performance measurement, evaluation of patient self assessment, depression",HCPS +S3600,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,STAT laboratory request (situations other than S3601),HCPS +S3601,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,Emergency STAT laboratory charge for patient who is homebound or residing in a nursing facility,HCPS +S3620,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Newborn metabolic screening panel, includes test kit, postage and the laboratory tests specified by the state for inclusion in this panel (e.g., galactose; hemoglobin, electrophoresis; hydroxyprogesterone, 17-D; phenylanine (PKU); and thyroxine, total)",HCPS +S3630,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Eosinophil count, blood, direct",HCPS +S3645,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,HIV-1 antibody testing of oral mucosal transudate,HCPS +S3650,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Saliva test, hormone level; during menopause",HCPS +S3652,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Saliva test, hormone level; to assess preterm labor risk",HCPS +S3655,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,Antisperm antibodies test (immunobead),HCPS +S3708,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,Gastrointestinal fat absorption study,HCPS +S3722,Miscellaneous Provider Services and Supplies .,"Dose optimization by area under the curve (AUC) analysis, for infusional 5-fluorouracil",HCPS +S3800,Genetic Testing .,Genetic testing for amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS),HCPS +S3840,Genetic Testing .,DNA analysis for germline mutations of the RET proto-oncogene for susceptibility to multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2,HCPS +S3841,Genetic Testing .,Genetic testing for retinoblastoma,HCPS +S3842,Genetic Testing .,Genetic testing for Von Hippel-Lindau disease,HCPS +S3844,Genetic Testing .,"DNA analysis of the connexin 26 gene (GJB2) for susceptibility to congenital, profound deafness",HCPS +S3845,Genetic Testing .,Genetic testing for alpha-thalassemia,HCPS +S3846,Genetic Testing .,Genetic testing for hemoglobin E beta-thalassemia,HCPS +S3849,Genetic Testing .,Genetic testing for niemann-pick disease,HCPS +S3850,Genetic Testing .,Genetic testing for sickle cell anemia,HCPS +S3852,Genetic Testing .,DNA analysis for APOE epsilon 4 allele for susceptibility to alzheimer's disease,HCPS +S3853,Genetic Testing .,Genetic testing for myotonic muscular dystrophy,HCPS +S3854,Genetic Testing .,Gene expression profiling panel for use in the management of breast cancer treatment,HCPS +S3861,Genetic Testing .,"Genetic testing, sodium channel, voltage-gated, type V, alpha subunit (SCN5A) and variants for suspected brugada syndrome",HCPS +S3865,Genetic Testing .,Comprehensive gene sequence analysis for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy,HCPS +S3866,Genetic Testing .,Genetic analysis for a specific gene mutation for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) in an individual with a known HCM mutation in the family,HCPS +S3870,Genetic Testing .,"Comparative genomic hybridization (CGH) microarray testing for developmental delay, autism spectrum disorder and/or intellectual disability",HCPS +S3900,Miscellaneous Tests .,Surface electromyography (EMG),HCPS +S3902,Miscellaneous Tests .,Ballistocardiogram,HCPS +S3904,Miscellaneous Tests .,Masters two step,HCPS +S4005,ASSORTED OBSTETRICAL AND FERTILITY SERVICES .,Interim labor facility global (labor occurring but not resulting in delivery),HCPS +S4011,ASSORTED OBSTETRICAL AND FERTILITY SERVICES .,"In vitro fertilization; including but not limited to identification and incubation of mature oocytes, fertilization with sperm, incubation of embryo(s), and subsequent visualization for determination of development",HCPS +S4013,ASSORTED OBSTETRICAL AND FERTILITY SERVICES .,"Complete cycle, gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT), case rate",HCPS +S4014,ASSORTED OBSTETRICAL AND FERTILITY SERVICES .,"Complete cycle, zygote intrafallopian transfer (ZIFT), case rate",HCPS +S4015,ASSORTED OBSTETRICAL AND FERTILITY SERVICES .,"Complete in vitro fertilization cycle, not otherwise specified, case rate",HCPS +S4016,ASSORTED OBSTETRICAL AND FERTILITY SERVICES .,"Frozen in vitro fertilization cycle, case rate",HCPS +S4017,ASSORTED OBSTETRICAL AND FERTILITY SERVICES .,"Incomplete cycle, treatment cancelled prior to stimulation, case rate",HCPS +S4018,ASSORTED OBSTETRICAL AND FERTILITY SERVICES .,"Frozen embryo transfer procedure cancelled before transfer, case rate",HCPS +S4020,ASSORTED OBSTETRICAL AND FERTILITY SERVICES .,"In vitro fertilization procedure cancelled before aspiration, case rate",HCPS +S4021,ASSORTED OBSTETRICAL AND FERTILITY SERVICES .,"In vitro fertilization procedure cancelled after aspiration, case rate",HCPS +S4022,ASSORTED OBSTETRICAL AND FERTILITY SERVICES .,"Assisted oocyte fertilization, case rate",HCPS +S4023,ASSORTED OBSTETRICAL AND FERTILITY SERVICES .,"Donor egg cycle, incomplete, case rate",HCPS +S4025,ASSORTED OBSTETRICAL AND FERTILITY SERVICES .,"Donor services for in vitro fertilization (sperm or embryo), case rate",HCPS +S4026,ASSORTED OBSTETRICAL AND FERTILITY SERVICES .,Procurement of donor sperm from sperm bank,HCPS +S4027,ASSORTED OBSTETRICAL AND FERTILITY SERVICES .,Storage of previously frozen embryos,HCPS +S4028,ASSORTED OBSTETRICAL AND FERTILITY SERVICES .,Microsurgical epididymal sperm aspiration (MESA),HCPS +S4030,ASSORTED OBSTETRICAL AND FERTILITY SERVICES .,Sperm procurement and cryopreservation services; initial visit,HCPS +S4031,ASSORTED OBSTETRICAL AND FERTILITY SERVICES .,Sperm procurement and cryopreservation services; subsequent visit,HCPS +S4035,ASSORTED OBSTETRICAL AND FERTILITY SERVICES .,"Stimulated intrauterine insemination (IUI), case rate",HCPS +S4037,ASSORTED OBSTETRICAL AND FERTILITY SERVICES .,"Cryopreserved embryo transfer, case rate",HCPS +S4040,ASSORTED OBSTETRICAL AND FERTILITY SERVICES .,"Monitoring and storage of cryopreserved embryos, per 30 days",HCPS +S4042,ASSORTED OBSTETRICAL AND FERTILITY SERVICES .,"Management of ovulation induction (interpretation of diagnostic tests and studies, non-face-to-face medical management of the patient), per cycle",HCPS +S4981,ASSORTED OBSTETRICAL AND FERTILITY SERVICES .,Insertion of levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system,HCPS +S4989,ASSORTED OBSTETRICAL AND FERTILITY SERVICES .,"Contraceptive intrauterine device (e.g., Progestacert IUD), including implants and supplies",HCPS +S4990,Miscellaneous Medications and Therapeutic Substances .,"Nicotine patches, legend",HCPS +S4991,Miscellaneous Medications and Therapeutic Substances .,"Nicotine patches, non-legend",HCPS +S4993,Miscellaneous Medications and Therapeutic Substances .,Contraceptive pills for birth control,HCPS +S4995,Miscellaneous Medications and Therapeutic Substances .,Smoking cessation gum,HCPS +S5000,Miscellaneous Medications and Therapeutic Substances .,"Prescription drug, generic",HCPS +S5001,Miscellaneous Medications and Therapeutic Substances .,"Prescription drug, brand name",HCPS +S5010,Miscellaneous Medications and Therapeutic Substances .,"5% dextrose and 0.45% normal saline, 1000 ml",HCPS +S5012,Miscellaneous Medications and Therapeutic Substances .,"5% dextrose with potassium chloride, 1000 ml",HCPS +S5013,Miscellaneous Medications and Therapeutic Substances .,"5% dextrose/0.45% normal saline with potassium chloride and magnesium sulfate, 1000 ml",HCPS +S5014,Miscellaneous Medications and Therapeutic Substances .,"5% dextrose/0.45% normal saline with potassium chloride and magnesium sulfate, 1500 ml",HCPS +S5035,Various Home Care Services .,"Home infusion therapy, routine service of infusion device (e.g., pump maintenance)",HCPS +S5036,Various Home Care Services .,"Home infusion therapy, repair of infusion device (e.g., pump repair)",HCPS +S5100,Various Home Care Services .,"Day care services, adult; per 15 minutes",HCPS +S5101,Various Home Care Services .,"Day care services, adult; per half day",HCPS +S5102,Various Home Care Services .,"Day care services, adult; per diem",HCPS +S5105,Various Home Care Services .,"Day care services, center-based; services not included in program fee, per diem",HCPS +S5108,Various Home Care Services .,"Home care training to home care client, per 15 minutes",HCPS +S5109,Various Home Care Services .,"Home care training to home care client, per session",HCPS +S5110,Various Home Care Services .,"Home care training, family; per 15 minutes",HCPS +S5111,Various Home Care Services .,"Home care training, family; per session",HCPS +S5115,Various Home Care Services .,"Home care training, non-family; per 15 minutes",HCPS +S5116,Various Home Care Services .,"Home care training, non-family; per session",HCPS +S5120,Various Home Care Services .,Chore services; per 15 minutes,HCPS +S5121,Various Home Care Services .,Chore services; per diem,HCPS +S5125,Various Home Care Services .,Attendant care services; per 15 minutes,HCPS +S5126,Various Home Care Services .,Attendant care services; per diem,HCPS +S5130,Various Home Care Services .,"Homemaker service, NOS; per 15 minutes",HCPS +S5131,Various Home Care Services .,"Homemaker service, NOS; per diem",HCPS +S5135,Various Home Care Services .,"Companion care, adult (e.g., IADL/ADL); per 15 minutes",HCPS +S5136,Various Home Care Services .,"Companion care, adult (e.g., IADL/ADL); per diem",HCPS +S5140,Various Home Care Services .,"Foster care, adult; per diem",HCPS +S5141,Various Home Care Services .,"Foster care, adult; per month",HCPS +S5145,Various Home Care Services .,"Foster care, therapeutic, child; per diem",HCPS +S5146,Various Home Care Services .,"Foster care, therapeutic, child; per month",HCPS +S5150,Various Home Care Services .,"Unskilled respite care, not hospice; per 15 minutes",HCPS +S5151,Various Home Care Services .,"Unskilled respite care, not hospice; per diem",HCPS +S5160,Various Home Care Services .,Emergency response system; installation and testing,HCPS +S5161,Various Home Care Services .,"Emergency response system; service fee, per month (excludes installation and testing)",HCPS +S5162,Various Home Care Services .,Emergency response system; purchase only,HCPS +S5165,Various Home Care Services .,Home modifications; per service,HCPS +S5170,Various Home Care Services .,"Home delivered meals, including preparation; per meal",HCPS +S5175,Various Home Care Services .,"Laundry service, external, professional; per order",HCPS +S5180,Various Home Care Services .,"Home health respiratory therapy, initial evaluation",HCPS +S5181,Various Home Care Services .,"Home health respiratory therapy, NOS, per diem",HCPS +S5185,Various Home Care Services .,"Medication reminder service, non-face-to-face; per month",HCPS +S5190,Various Home Care Services .,"Wellness assessment, performed by non-physician",HCPS +S5199,Various Home Care Services .,"Personal care item, NOS, each",HCPS +S5497,Home Infusion Therapy .,"Home infusion therapy, catheter care / maintenance, not otherwise classified; includes administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S5498,Home Infusion Therapy .,"Home infusion therapy, catheter care / maintenance, simple (single lumen), includes administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination and all necessary supplies and equipment, (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S5501,Home Infusion Therapy .,"Home infusion therapy, catheter care / maintenance, complex (more than one lumen), includes administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S5502,Home Infusion Therapy .,"Home infusion therapy, catheter care / maintenance, implanted access device, includes administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination and all necessary supplies and equipment, (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem (use this code for interim maintenance of vascular access not currently in use)",HCPS +S5517,Home Infusion Therapy .,"Home infusion therapy, all supplies necessary for restoration of catheter patency or declotting",HCPS +S5518,Home Infusion Therapy .,"Home infusion therapy, all supplies necessary for catheter repair",HCPS +S5520,Home Infusion Therapy .,"Home infusion therapy, all supplies (including catheter) necessary for a peripherally inserted central venous catheter (PICC) line insertion",HCPS +S5521,Home Infusion Therapy .,"Home infusion therapy, all supplies (including catheter) necessary for a midline catheter insertion",HCPS +S5522,Home Infusion Therapy .,"Home infusion therapy, insertion of peripherally inserted central venous catheter (PICC), nursing services only (no supplies or catheter included)",HCPS +S5523,Home Infusion Therapy .,"Home infusion therapy, insertion of midline venous catheter, nursing services only (no supplies or catheter included)",HCPS +S5550,Insulin and Delivery Devices .,"Insulin, rapid onset, 5 units",HCPS +S5551,Insulin and Delivery Devices .,"Insulin, most rapid onset (Lispro or Aspart); 5 units",HCPS +S5552,Insulin and Delivery Devices .,"Insulin, intermediate acting (NPH or LENTE); 5 units",HCPS +S5553,Insulin and Delivery Devices .,"Insulin, long acting; 5 units",HCPS +S5560,Insulin and Delivery Devices .,"Insulin delivery device, reusable pen; 1.5 ml size",HCPS +S5561,Insulin and Delivery Devices .,"Insulin delivery device, reusable pen; 3 ml size",HCPS +S5565,Insulin and Delivery Devices .,Insulin cartridge for use in insulin delivery device other than pump; 150 units,HCPS +S5566,Insulin and Delivery Devices .,Insulin cartridge for use in insulin delivery device other than pump; 300 units,HCPS +S5570,Insulin and Delivery Devices .,"Insulin delivery device, disposable pen (including insulin); 1.5 ml size",HCPS +S5571,Insulin and Delivery Devices .,"Insulin delivery device, disposable pen (including insulin); 3 ml size",HCPS +S8030,Imaging Studies .,Scleral application of tantalum ring(s) for localization of lesions for proton beam therapy,HCPS +S8035,Imaging Studies .,Magnetic source imaging,HCPS +S8037,Imaging Studies .,Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP),HCPS +S8040,Imaging Studies .,Topographic brain mapping,HCPS +S8042,Imaging Studies .,"Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), low-field",HCPS +S8055,Imaging Studies .,"Ultrasound guidance for multifetal pregnancy reduction(s), technical component (only to be used when the physician doing the reduction procedure does not perform the ultrasound, guidance is included in the code for multifetal pregnancy reduction)",HCPS +S8080,Imaging Studies .,"Scintimammography (radioimmunoscintigraphy of the breast), unilateral, including supply of radiopharmaceutical",HCPS +S8085,Imaging Studies .,Fluorine-18 fluorodeoxyglucose (F-18 FDG) imaging using dual-head coincidence detection system (non-dedicated PET scan),HCPS +S8092,Imaging Studies .,"Electron beam computed tomography (also known as ultrafast CT, cine CT)",HCPS +S8096,Assisted Breathing Supplies .,Portable peak flow meter,HCPS +S8097,Assisted Breathing Supplies .,"Asthma kit (including but not limited to portable peak expiratory flow meter, instructional video, brochure, and/or spacer)",HCPS +S8100,Assisted Breathing Supplies .,Holding chamber or spacer for use with an inhaler or nebulizer; without mask,HCPS +S8101,Assisted Breathing Supplies .,Holding chamber or spacer for use with an inhaler or nebulizer; with mask,HCPS +S8110,Assisted Breathing Supplies .,Peak expiratory flow rate (physician services),HCPS +S8120,Assisted Breathing Supplies .,"Oxygen contents, gaseous, 1 unit equals 1 cubic foot",HCPS +S8121,Assisted Breathing Supplies .,"Oxygen contents, liquid, 1 unit equals 1 pound",HCPS +S8130,Assisted Breathing Supplies .,"Interferential current stimulator, 2 channel",HCPS +S8131,Assisted Breathing Supplies .,"Interferential current stimulator, 4 channel",HCPS +S8185,Assisted Breathing Supplies .,Flutter device,HCPS +S8186,Assisted Breathing Supplies .,Swivel adaptor,HCPS +S8189,Assisted Breathing Supplies .,"Tracheostomy supply, not otherwise classified",HCPS +S8210,Assisted Breathing Supplies .,Mucus trap,HCPS +S8265,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,Haberman feeder for cleft lip/palate,HCPS +S8270,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Enuresis alarm, using auditory buzzer and/or vibration device",HCPS +S8301,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Infection control supplies, not otherwise specified",HCPS +S8415,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,Supplies for home delivery of infant,HCPS +S8420,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Gradient pressure aid (sleeve and glove combination), custom made",HCPS +S8421,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Gradient pressure aid (sleeve and glove combination), ready made",HCPS +S8422,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Gradient pressure aid (sleeve), custom made, medium weight",HCPS +S8423,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Gradient pressure aid (sleeve), custom made, heavy weight",HCPS +S8424,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Gradient pressure aid (sleeve), ready made",HCPS +S8425,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Gradient pressure aid (glove), custom made, medium weight",HCPS +S8426,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Gradient pressure aid (glove), custom made, heavy weight",HCPS +S8427,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Gradient pressure aid (glove), ready made",HCPS +S8428,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Gradient pressure aid (gauntlet), ready made",HCPS +S8429,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,Gradient pressure exterior wrap,HCPS +S8430,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Padding for compression bandage, roll",HCPS +S8431,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Compression bandage, roll",HCPS +S8450,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Splint, prefabricated, digit (specify digit by use of modifier)",HCPS +S8451,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Splint, prefabricated, wrist or ankle",HCPS +S8452,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Splint, prefabricated, elbow",HCPS +S8460,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Camisole, post-mastectomy",HCPS +S8490,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Insulin syringes (100 syringes, any size)",HCPS +S8930,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,Electrical stimulation of auricular acupuncture points; each 15 minutes of personal one-on-one contact with the patient,HCPS +S8940,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Equestrian/hippotherapy, per session",HCPS +S8948,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,Application of a modality (requiring constant provider attendance) to one or more areas; low-level laser; each 15 minutes,HCPS +S8950,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Complex lymphedema therapy, each 15 minutes",HCPS +S8990,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,Physical or manipulative therapy performed for maintenance rather than restoration,HCPS +S8999,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,Resuscitation bag (for use by patient on artificial respiration during power failure or other catastrophic event),HCPS +S9001,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,Home uterine monitor with or without associated nursing services,HCPS +S9007,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,Ultrafiltration monitor,HCPS +S9024,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,Paranasal sinus ultrasound,HCPS +S9025,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,Omnicardiogram/cardiointegram,HCPS +S9034,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,Extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy for gall stones,HCPS +S9055,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,Procuren or other growth factor preparation to promote wound healing,HCPS +S9056,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,Coma stimulation per diem,HCPS +S9061,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Home administration of aerosolized drug therapy (e.g., pentamidine); administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9083,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,Global fee urgent care centers,HCPS +S9088,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,Services provided in an urgent care center (list in addition to code for service),HCPS +S9090,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Vertebral axial decompression, per session",HCPS +S9097,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,Home visit for wound care,HCPS +S9098,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Home visit, phototherapy services (e.g., Bili-lite), including equipment rental, nursing services, blood draw, supplies, and other services, per diem",HCPS +S9110,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Telemonitoring of patient in their home, including all necessary equipment; computer system, connections, and software; maintenance; patient education and support; per month",HCPS +S9117,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Back school, per visit",HCPS +S9122,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Home health aide or certified nurse assistant, providing care in the home; per hour",HCPS +S9123,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Nursing care, in the home; by registered nurse, per hour",HCPS +S9124,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Nursing care, in the home; by licensed practical nurse, per hour",HCPS +S9125,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Respite care, in the home, per diem",HCPS +S9126,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Hospice care, in the home, per diem",HCPS +S9127,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Social work visit, in the home, per diem",HCPS +S9128,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Speech therapy, in the home, per diem",HCPS +S9129,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Occupational therapy, in the home, per diem",HCPS +S9131,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Physical therapy; in the home, per diem",HCPS +S9140,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Diabetic management program, follow-up visit to non-MD provider",HCPS +S9141,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Diabetic management program, follow-up visit to MD provider",HCPS +S9145,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Insulin pump initiation, instruction in initial use of pump (pump not included)",HCPS +S9150,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,Evaluation by ocularist,HCPS +S9152,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Speech therapy, re-evaluation",HCPS +S9208,Home Management of Pregnancy .,"Home management of preterm labor, including administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies or equipment (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem (do not use this code with any home infusion per diem code)",HCPS +S9209,Home Management of Pregnancy .,"Home management of preterm premature rupture of membranes (PPROM), including administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies or equipment (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem (do not use this code with any home infusion per diem code)",HCPS +S9211,Home Management of Pregnancy .,"Home management of gestational hypertension, includes administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination and all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and nursing visits coded separately); per diem (do not use this code with any home infusion per diem code)",HCPS +S9212,Home Management of Pregnancy .,"Home management of postpartum hypertension, includes administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem (do not use this code with any home infusion per diem code)",HCPS +S9213,Home Management of Pregnancy .,"Home management of preeclampsia, includes administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and nursing services coded separately); per diem (do not use this code with any home infusion per diem code)",HCPS +S9214,Home Management of Pregnancy .,"Home management of gestational diabetes, includes administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and nursing visits coded separately); per diem (do not use this code with any home infusion per diem code)",HCPS +S9325,Home Infusion Therapy .,"Home infusion therapy, pain management infusion; administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment, (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem (do not use this code with S9326, S9327 or S9328)",HCPS +S9326,Home Infusion Therapy .,"Home infusion therapy, continuous (twenty-four hours or more) pain management infusion; administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination and all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9327,Home Infusion Therapy .,"Home infusion therapy, intermittent (less than twenty-four hours) pain management infusion; administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9328,Home Infusion Therapy .,"Home infusion therapy, implanted pump pain management infusion; administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9329,Home Infusion Therapy .,"Home infusion therapy, chemotherapy infusion; administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem (do not use this code with S9330 or S9331)",HCPS +S9330,Home Infusion Therapy .,"Home infusion therapy, continuous (twenty-four hours or more) chemotherapy infusion; administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9331,Home Infusion Therapy .,"Home infusion therapy, intermittent (less than twenty-four hours) chemotherapy infusion; administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9335,Home Infusion Therapy .,"Home therapy, hemodialysis; administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and nursing services coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9336,Home Infusion Therapy .,"Home infusion therapy, continuous anticoagulant infusion therapy (e.g., Heparin), administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination and all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9338,Home Infusion Therapy .,"Home infusion therapy, immunotherapy, administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9339,Home Infusion Therapy .,"Home therapy; peritoneal dialysis, administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination and all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9340,Home Infusion Therapy .,"Home therapy; enteral nutrition; administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment (enteral formula and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9341,Home Infusion Therapy .,"Home therapy; enteral nutrition via gravity; administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment (enteral formula and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9342,Home Infusion Therapy .,"Home therapy; enteral nutrition via pump; administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment (enteral formula and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9343,Home Infusion Therapy .,"Home therapy; enteral nutrition via bolus; administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment (enteral formula and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9345,Home Infusion Therapy .,"Home infusion therapy, anti-hemophilic agent infusion therapy (e.g., factor VIII); administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9346,Home Infusion Therapy .,"Home infusion therapy, alpha-1-proteinase inhibitor (e.g., Prolastin); administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9347,Home Infusion Therapy .,"Home infusion therapy, uninterrupted, long-term, controlled rate intravenous or subcutaneous infusion therapy (e.g., epoprostenol); administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9348,Home Infusion Therapy .,"Home infusion therapy, sympathomimetic/inotropic agent infusion therapy (e.g., Dobutamine); administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9349,Home Infusion Therapy .,"Home infusion therapy, tocolytic infusion therapy; administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9351,Home Infusion Therapy .,"Home infusion therapy, continuous or intermittent anti-emetic infusion therapy; administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9353,Home Infusion Therapy .,"Home infusion therapy, continuous insulin infusion therapy; administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9355,Home Infusion Therapy .,"Home infusion therapy, chelation therapy; administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9357,Home Infusion Therapy .,"Home infusion therapy, enzyme replacement intravenous therapy; (e.g., Imiglucerase); administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9359,Home Infusion Therapy .,"Home infusion therapy, anti-tumor necrosis factor intravenous therapy; (e.g., Infliximab); administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9361,Home Infusion Therapy .,"Home infusion therapy, diuretic intravenous therapy; administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9363,Home Infusion Therapy .,"Home infusion therapy, anti-spasmotic therapy; administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9364,Home Infusion Therapy .,"Home infusion therapy, total parenteral nutrition (TPN); administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment including standard TPN formula (lipids, specialty amino acid formulas, drugs other than in standard formula and nursing visits coded separately), per diem (do not use with home infusion codes S9365-S9368 using daily volume scales)",HCPS +S9365,Home Infusion Therapy .,"Home infusion therapy, total parenteral nutrition (TPN); one liter per day, administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment including standard TPN formula (lipids, specialty amino acid formulas, drugs other than in standard formula and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9366,Home Infusion Therapy .,"Home infusion therapy, total parenteral nutrition (TPN); more than one liter but no more than two liters per day, administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment including standard TPN formula (lipids, specialty amino acid formulas, drugs other than in standard formula and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9367,Home Infusion Therapy .,"Home infusion therapy, total parenteral nutrition (TPN); more than two liters but no more than three liters per day, administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment including standard TPN formula (lipids, specialty amino acid formulas, drugs other than in standard formula and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9368,Home Infusion Therapy .,"Home infusion therapy, total parenteral nutrition (TPN); more than three liters per day, administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment including standard TPN formula (lipids, specialty amino acid formulas, drugs other than in standard formula and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9370,Home Infusion Therapy .,"Home therapy, intermittent anti-emetic injection therapy; administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9372,Home Infusion Therapy .,"Home therapy; intermittent anticoagulant injection therapy (e.g., Heparin); administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem (do not use this code for flushing of infusion devices with Heparin to maintain patency)",HCPS +S9373,Home Infusion Therapy .,"Home infusion therapy, hydration therapy; administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem (do not use with hydration therapy codes S9374-S9377 using daily volume scales)",HCPS +S9374,Home Infusion Therapy .,"Home infusion therapy, hydration therapy; one liter per day, administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9375,Home Infusion Therapy .,"Home infusion therapy, hydration therapy; more than one liter but no more than two liters per day, administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9376,Home Infusion Therapy .,"Home infusion therapy, hydration therapy; more than two liters but no more than three liters per day, administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9377,Home Infusion Therapy .,"Home infusion therapy, hydration therapy; more than three liters per day, administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9379,Home Infusion Therapy .,"Home infusion therapy, infusion therapy, not otherwise classified; administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9381,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Delivery or service to high risk areas requiring escort or extra protection, per visit",HCPS +S9401,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Anticoagulation clinic, inclusive of all services except laboratory tests, per session",HCPS +S9430,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,Pharmacy compounding and dispensing services,HCPS +S9432,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,Medical foods for non-inborn errors of metabolism,HCPS +S9433,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Medical food nutritionally complete, administered orally, providing 100% of nutritional intake",HCPS +S9434,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,Modified solid food supplements for inborn errors of metabolism,HCPS +S9435,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,Medical foods for inborn errors of metabolism,HCPS +S9436,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Childbirth preparation/lamaze classes, non-physician provider, per session",HCPS +S9437,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Childbirth refresher classes, non-physician provider, per session",HCPS +S9438,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Cesarean birth classes, non-physician provider, per session",HCPS +S9439,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"VBAC (vaginal birth after cesarean) classes, non-physician provider, per session",HCPS +S9441,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Asthma education, non-physician provider, per session",HCPS +S9442,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Birthing classes, non-physician provider, per session",HCPS +S9443,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Lactation classes, non-physician provider, per session",HCPS +S9444,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Parenting classes, non-physician provider, per session",HCPS +S9445,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Patient education, not otherwise classified, non-physician provider, individual, per session",HCPS +S9446,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Patient education, not otherwise classified, non-physician provider, group, per session",HCPS +S9447,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Infant safety (including CPR) classes, non-physician provider, per session",HCPS +S9449,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Weight management classes, non-physician provider, per session",HCPS +S9451,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Exercise classes, non-physician provider, per session",HCPS +S9452,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Nutrition classes, non-physician provider, per session",HCPS +S9453,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Smoking cessation classes, non-physician provider, per session",HCPS +S9454,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Stress management classes, non-physician provider, per session",HCPS +S9455,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Diabetic management program, group session",HCPS +S9460,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Diabetic management program, nurse visit",HCPS +S9465,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Diabetic management program, dietitian visit",HCPS +S9470,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Nutritional counseling, dietitian visit",HCPS +S9472,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Cardiac rehabilitation program, non-physician provider, per diem",HCPS +S9473,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Pulmonary rehabilitation program, non-physician provider, per diem",HCPS +S9474,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Enterostomal therapy by a registered nurse certified in enterostomal therapy, per diem",HCPS +S9475,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Ambulatory setting substance abuse treatment or detoxification services, per diem",HCPS +S9476,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Vestibular rehabilitation program, non-physician provider, per diem",HCPS +S9480,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Intensive outpatient psychiatric services, per diem",HCPS +S9482,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Family stabilization services, per 15 minutes",HCPS +S9484,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Crisis intervention mental health services, per hour",HCPS +S9485,Miscellaneous Supplies and Services .,"Crisis intervention mental health services, per diem",HCPS +S9490,Home Therapy Services .,"Home infusion therapy, corticosteroid infusion; administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9494,Home Therapy Services .,"Home infusion therapy, antibiotic, antiviral, or antifungal therapy; administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem (do not use this code with home infusion codes for hourly dosing schedules S9497-S9504)",HCPS +S9497,Home Therapy Services .,"Home infusion therapy, antibiotic, antiviral, or antifungal therapy; once every 3 hours; administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9500,Home Therapy Services .,"Home infusion therapy, antibiotic, antiviral, or antifungal therapy; once every 24 hours; administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9501,Home Therapy Services .,"Home infusion therapy, antibiotic, antiviral, or antifungal therapy; once every 12 hours; administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9502,Home Therapy Services .,"Home infusion therapy, antibiotic, antiviral, or antifungal therapy; once every 8 hours, administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9503,Home Therapy Services .,"Home infusion therapy, antibiotic, antiviral, or antifungal; once every 6 hours; administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9504,Home Therapy Services .,"Home infusion therapy, antibiotic, antiviral, or antifungal; once every 4 hours; administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9529,Home Therapy Services .,"Routine venipuncture for collection of specimen(s), single home bound, nursing home, or skilled nursing facility patient",HCPS +S9537,Home Therapy Services .,"Home therapy; hematopoietic hormone injection therapy (e.g., erythropoietin, G-CSF, GM-CSF); administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9538,Home Therapy Services .,"Home transfusion of blood product(s); administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination and all necessary supplies and equipment (blood products, drugs, and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9542,Home Therapy Services .,"Home injectable therapy, not otherwise classified, including administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9558,Home Therapy Services .,"Home injectable therapy; growth hormone, including administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9559,Home Therapy Services .,"Home injectable therapy, interferon, including administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9560,Home Therapy Services .,"Home injectable therapy; hormonal therapy (e.g.; leuprolide, goserelin), including administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9562,Home Therapy Services .,"Home injectable therapy, palivizumab or other monoclonal antibody for rsv, including administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9563,Home Therapy Services .,"Home injectable therapy, immunotherapy, including administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9590,Home Therapy Services .,"Home therapy, irrigation therapy (e.g., sterile irrigation of an organ or anatomical cavity); including administrative services, professional pharmacy services, care coordination, and all necessary supplies and equipment (drugs and nursing visits coded separately), per diem",HCPS +S9810,Home Therapy Services .,"Home therapy; professional pharmacy services for provision of infusion, specialty drug administration, and/or disease state management, not otherwise classified, per hour (do not use this code with any per diem code)",HCPS +S9900,"Various Services, Fees, and Costs .","Services by a Journal-listed Christian science practitioner for the purpose of healing, per diem",HCPS +S9901,"Various Services, Fees, and Costs .","Services by a journal-listed christian science nurse, per hour",HCPS +S9960,"Various Services, Fees, and Costs .","Ambulance service, conventional air services, nonemergency transport, one way (fixed wing)",HCPS +S9961,"Various Services, Fees, and Costs .","Ambulance service, conventional air service, nonemergency transport, one way (rotary wing)",HCPS +S9970,"Various Services, Fees, and Costs .","Health club membership, annual",HCPS +S9975,"Various Services, Fees, and Costs .","Transplant related lodging, meals and transportation, per diem",HCPS +S9976,"Various Services, Fees, and Costs .","Lodging, per diem, not otherwise classified",HCPS +S9977,"Various Services, Fees, and Costs .","Meals, per diem, not otherwise specified",HCPS +S9981,"Various Services, Fees, and Costs .","Medical records copying fee, administrative",HCPS +S9982,"Various Services, Fees, and Costs .","Medical records copying fee, per page",HCPS +S9986,"Various Services, Fees, and Costs .",Not medically necessary service (patient is aware that service not medically necessary),HCPS +S9988,"Various Services, Fees, and Costs .",Services provided as part of a Phase I clinical trial,HCPS +S9989,"Various Services, Fees, and Costs .",Services provided outside of the United States of America (list in addition to code(s) for services(s)),HCPS +S9990,"Various Services, Fees, and Costs .",Services provided as part of a Phase II clinical trial,HCPS +S9991,"Various Services, Fees, and Costs .",Services provided as part of a Phase III clinical trial,HCPS +S9992,"Various Services, Fees, and Costs .","Transportation costs to and from trial location and local transportation costs (e.g., fares for taxicab or bus) for clinical trial participant and one caregiver/companion",HCPS +S9994,"Various Services, Fees, and Costs .","Lodging costs (e.g., hotel charges) for clinical trial participant and one caregiver/companion",HCPS +S9996,"Various Services, Fees, and Costs .",Meals for clinical trial participant and one caregiver/companion,HCPS +S9999,"Various Services, Fees, and Costs .",Sales tax,HCPS +T1000,Nursing Services .,"Private duty / independent nursing service(s) - licensed, up to 15 minutes",HCPS +T1001,Nursing Services .,Nursing assessment / evaluation,HCPS +T1002,Nursing Services .,"RN services, up to 15 minutes",HCPS +T1003,Nursing Services .,"LPN/LVN services, up to 15 minutes",HCPS +T1004,Nursing Services .,"Services of a qualified nursing aide, up to 15 minutes",HCPS +T1005,Nursing Services .,"Respite care services, up to 15 minutes",HCPS +T1006,Alcohol and Substance Abuse Services .,"Alcohol and/or substance abuse services, family/couple counseling",HCPS +T1007,Alcohol and Substance Abuse Services .,"Alcohol and/or substance abuse services, treatment plan development and/or modification",HCPS +T1009,Alcohol and Substance Abuse Services .,Child sitting services for children of the individual receiving alcohol and/or substance abuse services,HCPS +T1010,Alcohol and Substance Abuse Services .,Meals for individuals receiving alcohol and/or substance abuse services (when meals not included in the program),HCPS +T1012,Alcohol and Substance Abuse Services .,"Alcohol and/or substance abuse services, skills development",HCPS +T1013,Other Services .,"Sign language or oral interpretive services, per 15 minutes",HCPS +T1014,Other Services .,"Telehealth transmission, per minute, professional services bill separately",HCPS +T1015,Other Services .,"Clinic visit/encounter, all-inclusive",HCPS +T1016,Other Services .,"Case management, each 15 minutes",HCPS +T1017,Other Services .,"Targeted case management, each 15 minutes",HCPS +T1018,Other Services .,"School-based individualized education program (IEP) services, bundled",HCPS +T1019,Home Health Services .,"Personal care services, per 15 minutes, not for an inpatient or resident of a hospital, nursing facility, ICF/MR or IMD, part of the individualized plan of treatment (code may not be used to identify services provided by home health aide or certified nurse assistant)",HCPS +T1020,Home Health Services .,"Personal care services, per diem, not for an inpatient or resident of a hospital, nursing facility, ICF/MR or IMD, part of the individualized plan of treatment (code may not be used to identify services provided by home health aide or certified nurse assistant)",HCPS +T1021,Home Health Services .,"Home health aide or certified nurse assistant, per visit",HCPS +T1022,Home Health Services .,"Contracted home health agency services, all services provided under contract, per day",HCPS +T1023,"Screenings, Assessments, and Treatments, Individual and Family .","Screening to determine the appropriateness of consideration of an individual for participation in a specified program, project or treatment protocol, per encounter",HCPS +T1024,"Screenings, Assessments, and Treatments, Individual and Family .","Evaluation and treatment by an integrated, specialty team contracted to provide coordinated care to multiple or severely handicapped children, per encounter",HCPS +T1025,"Screenings, Assessments, and Treatments, Individual and Family .","Intensive, extended multidisciplinary services provided in a clinic setting to children with complex medical, physical, mental and psychosocial impairments, per diem",HCPS +T1026,"Screenings, Assessments, and Treatments, Individual and Family .","Intensive, extended multidisciplinary services provided in a clinic setting to children with complex medical, physical, mental and psychosocial impairments, per hour",HCPS +T1027,"Screenings, Assessments, and Treatments, Individual and Family .","Family training and counseling for child development, per 15 minutes",HCPS +T1028,"Screenings, Assessments, and Treatments, Individual and Family .","Assessment of home, physical and family environment, to determine suitability to meet patient's medical needs",HCPS +T1029,"Screenings, Assessments, and Treatments, Individual and Family .","Comprehensive environmental lead investigation, not including laboratory analysis, per dwelling",HCPS +T1030,Additional Nursing Services .,"Nursing care, in the home, by registered nurse, per diem",HCPS +T1031,Additional Nursing Services .,"Nursing care, in the home, by licensed practical nurse, per diem",HCPS +T1032,Doula Birth Worker Services.,"Services performed by a doula birth worker, per 15 minutes",HCPS +T1033,Doula Birth Worker Services.,"Services performed by a doula birth worker, per diem",HCPS +T1040,Behavioral Health Services.,"Medicaid certified community behavioral health clinic services, per diem",HCPS +T1041,Behavioral Health Services.,"Medicaid certified community behavioral health clinic services, per month",HCPS +T1502,Miscellaneous Services and Supplies .,"Administration of oral, intramuscular and/or subcutaneous medication by health care agency/professional, per visit",HCPS +T1503,Miscellaneous Services and Supplies .,"Administration of medication, other than oral and/or injectable, by a health care agency/professional, per visit",HCPS +T1505,Miscellaneous Services and Supplies .,"Electronic medication compliance management device, includes all components and accessories, not otherwise classified",HCPS +T1999,Miscellaneous Services and Supplies .,"Miscellaneous therapeutic items and supplies, retail purchases, not otherwise classified; identify product in ""remarks""",HCPS +T2001,Transportation Services .,Non-emergency transportation; patient attendant/escort,HCPS +T2002,Transportation Services .,Non-emergency transportation; per diem,HCPS +T2003,Transportation Services .,Non-emergency transportation; encounter/trip,HCPS +T2004,Transportation Services .,"Non-emergency transport; commercial carrier, multi-pass",HCPS +T2005,Transportation Services .,Non-emergency transportation; stretcher van,HCPS +T2007,Transportation Services .,"Transportation waiting time, air ambulance and non-emergency vehicle, one-half (1/2) hour increments",HCPS +T2010,Preadmission Screening .,"Preadmission screening and resident review (PASRR) level I identification screening, per screen",HCPS +T2011,Preadmission Screening .,"Preadmission screening and resident review (PASRR) level II evaluation, per evaluation",HCPS +T2012,Waiver Services .,"Habilitation, educational; waiver, per diem",HCPS +T2013,Waiver Services .,"Habilitation, educational, waiver; per hour",HCPS +T2014,Waiver Services .,"Habilitation, prevocational, waiver; per diem",HCPS +T2015,Waiver Services .,"Habilitation, prevocational, waiver; per hour",HCPS +T2016,Waiver Services .,"Habilitation, residential, waiver; per diem",HCPS +T2017,Waiver Services .,"Habilitation, residential, waiver; 15 minutes",HCPS +T2018,Waiver Services .,"Habilitation, supported employment, waiver; per diem",HCPS +T2019,Waiver Services .,"Habilitation, supported employment, waiver; per 15 minutes",HCPS +T2020,Waiver Services .,"Day habilitation, waiver; per diem",HCPS +T2021,Waiver Services .,"Day habilitation, waiver; per 15 minutes",HCPS +T2022,Waiver Services .,"Case management, per month",HCPS +T2023,Waiver Services .,Targeted case management; per month,HCPS +T2024,Waiver Services .,"Service assessment/plan of care development, waiver",HCPS +T2025,Waiver Services .,Waiver services; not otherwise specified (NOS),HCPS +T2026,Waiver Services .,"Specialized childcare, waiver; per diem",HCPS +T2027,Waiver Services .,"Specialized childcare, waiver; per 15 minutes",HCPS +T2028,Waiver Services .,"Specialized supply, not otherwise specified, waiver",HCPS +T2029,Waiver Services .,"Specialized medical equipment, not otherwise specified, waiver",HCPS +T2030,Waiver Services .,"Assisted living, waiver; per month",HCPS +T2031,Waiver Services .,"Assisted living; waiver, per diem",HCPS +T2032,Waiver Services .,"Residential care, not otherwise specified (NOS), waiver; per month",HCPS +T2033,Waiver Services .,"Residential care, not otherwise specified (NOS), waiver; per diem",HCPS +T2034,Waiver Services .,"Crisis intervention, waiver; per diem",HCPS +T2035,Waiver Services .,"Utility services to support medical equipment and assistive technology/devices, waiver",HCPS +T2036,Waiver Services .,"Therapeutic camping, overnight, waiver; each session",HCPS +T2037,Waiver Services .,"Therapeutic camping, day, waiver; each session",HCPS +T2038,Waiver Services .,"Community transition, waiver; per service",HCPS +T2039,Waiver Services .,"Vehicle modifications, waiver; per service",HCPS +T2040,Waiver Services .,"Financial management, self-directed, waiver; per 15 minutes",HCPS +T2041,Waiver Services .,"Supports brokerage, self-directed, waiver; per 15 minutes",HCPS +T2042,Hospice Care .,Hospice routine home care; per diem,HCPS +T2043,Hospice Care .,Hospice continuous home care; per hour,HCPS +T2044,Hospice Care .,Hospice inpatient respite care; per diem,HCPS +T2045,Hospice Care .,Hospice general inpatient care; per diem,HCPS +T2046,Hospice Care .,"Hospice long term care, room and board only; per diem",HCPS +T2047,Prevocational Habilitation Waiver Services.,"Habilitation, prevocational, waiver; per 15 minutes",HCPS +T2048,Long-term Residential Care .,"Behavioral health; long-term care residential (non-acute care in a residential treatment program where stay is typically longer than 30 days), with room and board, per diem",HCPS +T2049,Non-emergency Transportation Fees .,"Non-emergency transportation; stretcher van, mileage; per mile",HCPS +T2050,"Financial Management and Supports Brokerage Services, Per Diem.","Financial management, self-directed, waiver; per diem",HCPS +T2051,"Financial Management and Supports Brokerage Services, Per Diem.","Supports brokerage, self-directed, waiver; per diem",HCPS +T2101,Services Related to Breast Milk .,"Human breast milk processing, storage and distribution only",HCPS +T4521,Incontinence Supplies .,"Adult sized disposable incontinence product, brief/diaper, small, each",HCPS +T4522,Incontinence Supplies .,"Adult sized disposable incontinence product, brief/diaper, medium, each",HCPS +T4523,Incontinence Supplies .,"Adult sized disposable incontinence product, brief/diaper, large, each",HCPS +T4524,Incontinence Supplies .,"Adult sized disposable incontinence product, brief/diaper, extra large, each",HCPS +T4525,Incontinence Supplies .,"Adult sized disposable incontinence product, protective underwear/pull-on, small size, each",HCPS +T4526,Incontinence Supplies .,"Adult sized disposable incontinence product, protective underwear/pull-on, medium size, each",HCPS +T4527,Incontinence Supplies .,"Adult sized disposable incontinence product, protective underwear/pull-on, large size, each",HCPS +T4528,Incontinence Supplies .,"Adult sized disposable incontinence product, protective underwear/pull-on, extra large size, each",HCPS +T4529,Incontinence Supplies .,"Pediatric sized disposable incontinence product, brief/diaper, small/medium size, each",HCPS +T4530,Incontinence Supplies .,"Pediatric sized disposable incontinence product, brief/diaper, large size, each",HCPS +T4531,Incontinence Supplies .,"Pediatric sized disposable incontinence product, protective underwear/pull-on, small/medium size, each",HCPS +T4532,Incontinence Supplies .,"Pediatric sized disposable incontinence product, protective underwear/pull-on, large size, each",HCPS +T4533,Incontinence Supplies .,"Youth sized disposable incontinence product, brief/diaper, each",HCPS +T4534,Incontinence Supplies .,"Youth sized disposable incontinence product, protective underwear/pull-on, each",HCPS +T4535,Incontinence Supplies .,"Disposable liner/shield/guard/pad/undergarment, for incontinence, each",HCPS +T4536,Incontinence Supplies .,"Incontinence product, protective underwear/pull-on, reusable, any size, each",HCPS +T4537,Incontinence Supplies .,"Incontinence product, protective underpad, reusable, bed size, each",HCPS +T4538,Incontinence Supplies .,"Diaper service, reusable diaper, each diaper",HCPS +T4539,Incontinence Supplies .,"Incontinence product, diaper/brief, reusable, any size, each",HCPS +T4540,Incontinence Supplies .,"Incontinence product, protective underpad, reusable, chair size, each",HCPS +T4541,Incontinence Supplies .,"Incontinence product, disposable underpad, large, each",HCPS +T4542,Incontinence Supplies .,"Incontinence product, disposable underpad, small size, each",HCPS +T4543,Incontinence Supplies .,"Adult sized disposable incontinence product, protective brief/diaper, above extra large, each",HCPS +T4544,Incontinence Supplies .,"Adult sized disposable incontinence product, protective underwear/pull-on, above extra large, each",HCPS +T4545,Incontinence Supplies .,"Incontinence product, disposable, penile wrap, each",HCPS +T5001,Other and Unspecified Supplies .,Positioning seat for persons with special orthopedic needs,HCPS +T5999,Other and Unspecified Supplies .,"Supply, not otherwise specified",HCPS +V2020,Spectacle Frames .,"Frames, purchases",HCPS +V2025,Spectacle Frames .,Deluxe frame,HCPS +V2100,"Lenses, Single Vision .","Sphere, single vision, plano to plus or minus 4.00, per lens",HCPS +V2101,"Lenses, Single Vision .","Sphere, single vision, plus or minus 4.12 to plus or minus 7.00d, per lens",HCPS +V2102,"Lenses, Single Vision .","Sphere, single vision, plus or minus 7.12 to plus or minus 20.00d, per lens",HCPS +V2103,"Lenses, Single Vision .","Spherocylinder, single vision, plano to plus or minus 4.00d sphere, .12 to 2.00d cylinder, per lens",HCPS +V2104,"Lenses, Single Vision .","Spherocylinder, single vision, plano to plus or minus 4.00d sphere, 2.12 to 4.00d cylinder, per lens",HCPS +V2105,"Lenses, Single Vision .","Spherocylinder, single vision, plano to plus or minus 4.00d sphere, 4.25 to 6.00d cylinder, per lens",HCPS +V2106,"Lenses, Single Vision .","Spherocylinder, single vision, plano to plus or minus 4.00d sphere, over 6.00d cylinder, per lens",HCPS +V2107,"Lenses, Single Vision .","Spherocylinder, single vision, plus or minus 4.25 to plus or minus 7.00 sphere, .12 to 2.00d cylinder, per lens",HCPS +V2108,"Lenses, Single Vision .","Spherocylinder, single vision, plus or minus 4.25d to plus or minus 7.00d sphere, 2.12 to 4.00d cylinder, per lens",HCPS +V2109,"Lenses, Single Vision .","Spherocylinder, single vision, plus or minus 4.25 to plus or minus 7.00d sphere, 4.25 to 6.00d cylinder, per lens",HCPS +V2110,"Lenses, Single Vision .","Spherocylinder, single vision, plus or minus 4.25 to 7.00d sphere, over 6.00d cylinder, per lens",HCPS +V2111,"Lenses, Single Vision .","Spherocylinder, single vision, plus or minus 7.25 to plus or minus 12.00d sphere, .25 to 2.25d cylinder, per lens",HCPS +V2112,"Lenses, Single Vision .","Spherocylinder, single vision, plus or minus 7.25 to plus or minus 12.00d sphere, 2.25d to 4.00d cylinder, per lens",HCPS +V2113,"Lenses, Single Vision .","Spherocylinder, single vision, plus or minus 7.25 to plus or minus 12.00d sphere, 4.25 to 6.00d cylinder, per lens",HCPS +V2114,"Lenses, Single Vision .","Spherocylinder, single vision, sphere over plus or minus 12.00d, per lens",HCPS +V2115,"Lenses, Single Vision .","Lenticular, (myodisc), per lens, single vision",HCPS +V2118,"Lenses, Single Vision .","Aniseikonic lens, single vision",HCPS +V2121,"Lenses, Single Vision .","Lenticular lens, per lens, single",HCPS +V2199,"Lenses, Single Vision .","Not otherwise classified, single vision lens",HCPS +V2200,"Lenses, Bifocals .","Sphere, bifocal, plano to plus or minus 4.00d, per lens",HCPS +V2201,"Lenses, Bifocals .","Sphere, bifocal, plus or minus 4.12 to plus or minus 7.00d, per lens",HCPS +V2202,"Lenses, Bifocals .","Sphere, bifocal, plus or minus 7.12 to plus or minus 20.00d, per lens",HCPS +V2203,"Lenses, Bifocals .","Spherocylinder, bifocal, plano to plus or minus 4.00d sphere, 0.12 to 2.00d cylinder, per lens",HCPS +V2204,"Lenses, Bifocals .","Spherocylinder, bifocal, plano to plus or minus 4.00d sphere, 2.12 to 4.00d cylinder, per lens",HCPS +V2205,"Lenses, Bifocals .","Spherocylinder, bifocal, plano to plus or minus 4.00d sphere, 4.25 to 6.00d cylinder, per lens",HCPS +V2206,"Lenses, Bifocals .","Spherocylinder, bifocal, plano to plus or minus 4.00d sphere, over 6.00d cylinder, per lens",HCPS +V2207,"Lenses, Bifocals .","Spherocylinder, bifocal, plus or minus 4.25 to plus or minus 7.00d sphere, .12 to 2.00d cylinder, per lens",HCPS +V2208,"Lenses, Bifocals .","Spherocylinder, bifocal, plus or minus 4.25 to plus or minus 7.00d sphere, 2.12 to 4.00d cylinder, per lens",HCPS +V2209,"Lenses, Bifocals .","Spherocylinder, bifocal, plus or minus 4.25 to plus or minus 7.00d sphere, 4.25 to 6.00d cylinder, per lens",HCPS +V2210,"Lenses, Bifocals .","Spherocylinder, bifocal, plus or minus 4.25 to plus or minus 7.00d sphere, over 6.00d cylinder, per lens",HCPS +V2211,"Lenses, Bifocals .","Spherocylinder, bifocal, plus or minus 7.25 to plus or minus 12.00d sphere, .25 to 2.25d cylinder, per lens",HCPS +V2212,"Lenses, Bifocals .","Spherocylinder, bifocal, plus or minus 7.25 to plus or minus 12.00d sphere, 2.25 to 4.00d cylinder, per lens",HCPS +V2213,"Lenses, Bifocals .","Spherocylinder, bifocal, plus or minus 7.25 to plus or minus 12.00d sphere, 4.25 to 6.00d cylinder, per lens",HCPS +V2214,"Lenses, Bifocals .","Spherocylinder, bifocal, sphere over plus or minus 12.00d, per lens",HCPS +V2215,"Lenses, Bifocals .","Lenticular (myodisc), per lens, bifocal",HCPS +V2218,"Lenses, Bifocals .","Aniseikonic, per lens, bifocal",HCPS +V2219,"Lenses, Bifocals .",Bifocal seg width over 28mm,HCPS +V2220,"Lenses, Bifocals .",Bifocal add over 3.25d,HCPS +V2221,"Lenses, Bifocals .","Lenticular lens, per lens, bifocal",HCPS +V2299,"Lenses, Bifocals .",Specialty bifocal (by report),HCPS +V2300,"Lenses, Trifocal .","Sphere, trifocal, plano to plus or minus 4.00d, per lens",HCPS +V2301,"Lenses, Trifocal .","Sphere, trifocal, plus or minus 4.12 to plus or minus 7.00d, per lens",HCPS +V2302,"Lenses, Trifocal .","Sphere, trifocal, plus or minus 7.12 to plus or minus 20.00, per lens",HCPS +V2303,"Lenses, Trifocal .","Spherocylinder, trifocal, plano to plus or minus 4.00d sphere, .12-2.00d cylinder, per lens",HCPS +V2304,"Lenses, Trifocal .","Spherocylinder, trifocal, plano to plus or minus 4.00d sphere, 2.25-4.00d cylinder, per lens",HCPS +V2305,"Lenses, Trifocal .","Spherocylinder, trifocal, plano to plus or minus 4.00d sphere, 4.25 to 6.00 cylinder, per lens",HCPS +V2306,"Lenses, Trifocal .","Spherocylinder, trifocal, plano to plus or minus 4.00d sphere, over 6.00d cylinder, per lens",HCPS +V2307,"Lenses, Trifocal .","Spherocylinder, trifocal, plus or minus 4.25 to plus or minus 7.00d sphere, .12 to 2.00d cylinder, per lens",HCPS +V2308,"Lenses, Trifocal .","Spherocylinder, trifocal, plus or minus 4.25 to plus or minus 7.00d sphere, 2.12 to 4.00d cylinder, per lens",HCPS +V2309,"Lenses, Trifocal .","Spherocylinder, trifocal, plus or minus 4.25 to plus or minus 7.00d sphere, 4.25 to 6.00d cylinder, per lens",HCPS +V2310,"Lenses, Trifocal .","Spherocylinder, trifocal, plus or minus 4.25 to plus or minus 7.00d sphere, over 6.00d cylinder, per lens",HCPS +V2311,"Lenses, Trifocal .","Spherocylinder, trifocal, plus or minus 7.25 to plus or minus 12.00d sphere, .25 to 2.25d cylinder, per lens",HCPS +V2312,"Lenses, Trifocal .","Spherocylinder, trifocal, plus or minus 7.25 to plus or minus 12.00d sphere, 2.25 to 4.00d cylinder, per lens",HCPS +V2313,"Lenses, Trifocal .","Spherocylinder, trifocal, plus or minus 7.25 to plus or minus 12.00d sphere, 4.25 to 6.00d cylinder, per lens",HCPS +V2314,"Lenses, Trifocal .","Spherocylinder, trifocal, sphere over plus or minus 12 .00d, per lens",HCPS +V2315,"Lenses, Trifocal .","Lenticular, (myodisc), per lens, trifocal",HCPS +V2318,"Lenses, Trifocal .","Aniseikonic lens, trifocal",HCPS +V2319,"Lenses, Trifocal .",Trifocal seg width over 28 mm,HCPS +V2320,"Lenses, Trifocal .",Trifocal add over 3.25d,HCPS +V2321,"Lenses, Trifocal .","Lenticular lens, per lens, trifocal",HCPS +V2399,"Lenses, Trifocal .",Specialty trifocal (by report),HCPS +V2410,"Lenses, Aspherical and Variable Sphericity .","Variable asphericity lens, single vision, full field, glass or plastic, per lens",HCPS +V2430,"Lenses, Aspherical and Variable Sphericity .","Variable asphericity lens, bifocal, full field, glass or plastic, per lens",HCPS +V2499,"Lenses, Aspherical and Variable Sphericity .","Variable sphericity lens, other type",HCPS +V2500,Assorted Contact Lenses .,"Contact lens, PMMA, spherical, per lens",HCPS +V2501,Assorted Contact Lenses .,"Contact lens, PMMA, toric or prism ballast, per lens",HCPS +V2502,Assorted Contact Lenses .,"Contact lens, PMMA, bifocal, per lens",HCPS +V2503,Assorted Contact Lenses .,"Contact lens, PMMA, color vision deficiency, per lens",HCPS +V2510,Assorted Contact Lenses .,"Contact lens, gas permeable, spherical, per lens",HCPS +V2511,Assorted Contact Lenses .,"Contact lens, gas permeable, toric, prism ballast, per lens",HCPS +V2512,Assorted Contact Lenses .,"Contact lens, gas permeable, bifocal, per lens",HCPS +V2513,Assorted Contact Lenses .,"Contact lens, gas permeable, extended wear, per lens",HCPS +V2520,Assorted Contact Lenses .,"Contact lens, hydrophilic, spherical, per lens",HCPS +V2521,Assorted Contact Lenses .,"Contact lens, hydrophilic, toric, or prism ballast, per lens",HCPS +V2522,Assorted Contact Lenses .,"Contact lens, hydrophillic, bifocal, per lens",HCPS +V2523,Assorted Contact Lenses .,"Contact lens, hydrophilic, extended wear, per lens",HCPS +V2524,Assorted Contact Lenses .,"Contact lens, hydrophilic, spherical, photochromic additive, per lens",HCPS +V2525,Assorted Contact Lenses .,"Contact lens, hydrophilic, dual focus, per lens",HCPS +V2526,Assorted Contact Lenses .,"Contact lens, hydrophilic, with blue-violet filter, per lens",HCPS +V2530,Assorted Contact Lenses .,"Contact lens, scleral, gas impermeable, per lens",HCPS +V2531,Assorted Contact Lenses .,"Contact lens, scleral, gas permeable, per lens",HCPS +V2599,Assorted Contact Lenses .,"Contact lens, other type",HCPS +V2600,Low and Near Vision Aids .,Hand held low vision aids and other nonspectacle mounted aids,HCPS +V2610,Low and Near Vision Aids .,Single lens spectacle mounted low vision aids,HCPS +V2615,Low and Near Vision Aids .,"Telescopic and other compound lens system, including distance vision telescopic, near vision telescopes and compound microscopic lens system",HCPS +V2623,Eye Prosthetics and Services .,"Prosthetic eye, plastic, custom",HCPS +V2624,Eye Prosthetics and Services .,Polishing/resurfacing of ocular prosthesis,HCPS +V2625,Eye Prosthetics and Services .,Enlargement of ocular prosthesis,HCPS +V2626,Eye Prosthetics and Services .,Reduction of ocular prosthesis,HCPS +V2627,Eye Prosthetics and Services .,Scleral cover shell,HCPS +V2628,Eye Prosthetics and Services .,Fabrication and fitting of ocular conformer,HCPS +V2629,Eye Prosthetics and Services .,"Prosthetic eye, other type",HCPS +V2630,"Lenses, Intraocular .",Anterior chamber intraocular lens,HCPS +V2631,"Lenses, Intraocular .",Iris supported intraocular lens,HCPS +V2632,"Lenses, Intraocular .",Posterior chamber intraocular lens,HCPS +V2700,Vision Services .,"Balance lens, per lens",HCPS +V2702,Vision Services .,Deluxe lens feature,HCPS +V2710,Vision Services .,"Slab off prism, glass or plastic, per lens",HCPS +V2715,Vision Services .,"Prism, per lens",HCPS +V2718,Vision Services .,"Press-on lens, Fresnell prism, per lens",HCPS +V2730,Vision Services .,"Special base curve, glass or plastic, per lens",HCPS +V2744,Vision Services .,"Tint, photochromatic, per lens",HCPS +V2745,Vision Services .,"Addition to lens; tint, any color, solid, gradient or equal, excludes photochromatic, any lens material, per lens",HCPS +V2750,Vision Services .,"Anti-reflective coating, per lens",HCPS +V2755,Vision Services .,"U-V lens, per lens",HCPS +V2756,Vision Services .,Eye glass case,HCPS +V2760,Vision Services .,"Scratch resistant coating, per lens",HCPS +V2761,Vision Services .,"Mirror coating, any type, solid, gradient or equal, any lens material, per lens",HCPS +V2762,Vision Services .,"Polarization, any lens material, per lens",HCPS +V2770,Vision Services .,"Occluder lens, per lens",HCPS +V2780,Vision Services .,"Oversize lens, per lens",HCPS +V2781,Vision Services .,"Progressive lens, per lens",HCPS +V2782,Vision Services .,"Lens, index 1.54 to 1.65 plastic or 1.60 to 1.79 glass, excludes polycarbonate, per lens",HCPS +V2783,Vision Services .,"Lens, index greater than or equal to 1.66 plastic or greater than or equal to 1.80 glass, excludes polycarbonate, per lens",HCPS +V2784,Vision Services .,"Lens, polycarbonate or equal, any index, per lens",HCPS +V2785,Vision Services .,"Processing, preserving and transporting corneal tissue",HCPS +V2786,Vision Services .,"Specialty occupational multifocal lens, per lens",HCPS +V2787,Vision Services .,Astigmatism correcting function of intraocular lens,HCPS +V2788,Vision Services .,Presbyopia correcting function of intraocular lens,HCPS +V2790,Vision Services .,"Amniotic membrane for surgical reconstruction, per procedure",HCPS +V2797,Vision Services .,"Vision supply, accessory and/or service component of another HCPCS vision code",HCPS +V2799,Vision Services .,"Vision item or service, miscellaneous",HCPS +V5010,Hearing Assessments and Evaluations .,Assessment for hearing aid,HCPS +V5011,Hearing Assessments and Evaluations .,Fitting/orientation/checking of hearing aid,HCPS +V5014,Hearing Assessments and Evaluations .,Repair/modification of a hearing aid,HCPS +V5020,Hearing Assessments and Evaluations .,Conformity evaluation,HCPS +V5030,"Hearing Aid, Monaural .","Hearing aid, monaural, body worn, air conduction",HCPS +V5040,"Hearing Aid, Monaural .","Hearing aid, monaural, body worn, bone conduction",HCPS +V5050,"Hearing Aid, Monaural .","Hearing aid, monaural, in the ear",HCPS +V5060,"Hearing Aid, Monaural .","Hearing aid, monaural, behind the ear",HCPS +V5070,Miscellaneous Hearing Services and Supplies .,"Glasses, air conduction",HCPS +V5080,Miscellaneous Hearing Services and Supplies .,"Glasses, bone conduction",HCPS +V5090,Miscellaneous Hearing Services and Supplies .,"Dispensing fee, unspecified hearing aid",HCPS +V5095,Miscellaneous Hearing Services and Supplies .,Semi-implantable middle ear hearing prosthesis,HCPS +V5100,Miscellaneous Hearing Services and Supplies .,"Hearing aid, bilateral, body worn",HCPS +V5110,Miscellaneous Hearing Services and Supplies .,"Dispensing fee, bilateral",HCPS +V5120,Hearing Aids .,"Binaural, body",HCPS +V5130,Hearing Aids .,"Binaural, in the ear",HCPS +V5140,Hearing Aids .,"Binaural, behind the ear",HCPS +V5150,Hearing Aids .,"Binaural, glasses",HCPS +V5160,Hearing Aids .,"Dispensing fee, binaural",HCPS +V5171,Hearing Aids .,"Hearing aid, contralateral routing device, monaural, in the ear (ite)",HCPS +V5172,Hearing Aids .,"Hearing aid, contralateral routing device, monaural, in the canal (itc)",HCPS +V5181,Hearing Aids .,"Hearing aid, contralateral routing device, monaural, behind the ear (bte)",HCPS +V5190,Hearing Aids .,"Hearing aid, contralateral routing, monaural, glasses",HCPS +V5200,Hearing Aids .,"Dispensing fee, contralateral, monaural",HCPS +V5211,Hearing Aids .,"Hearing aid, contralateral routing system, binaural, ite/ite",HCPS +V5212,Hearing Aids .,"Hearing aid, contralateral routing system, binaural, ite/itc",HCPS +V5213,Hearing Aids .,"Hearing aid, contralateral routing system, binaural, ite/bte",HCPS +V5214,Hearing Aids .,"Hearing aid, contralateral routing system, binaural, itc/itc",HCPS +V5215,Hearing Aids .,"Hearing aid, contralateral routing system, binaural, itc/bte",HCPS +V5221,Hearing Aids .,"Hearing aid, contralateral routing system, binaural, bte/bte",HCPS +V5230,Hearing Aids .,"Hearing aid, contralateral routing system, binaural, glasses",HCPS +V5240,Hearing Aids .,"Dispensing fee, contralateral routing system, binaural",HCPS +V5241,Hearing Aids .,"Dispensing fee, monaural hearing aid, any type",HCPS +V5242,Hearing Aids .,"Hearing aid, analog, monaural, CIC (completely in the ear canal)",HCPS +V5243,Hearing Aids .,"Hearing aid, analog, monaural, ITC (in the canal)",HCPS +V5244,Hearing Aids .,"Hearing aid, digitally programmable analog, monaural, CIC",HCPS +V5245,Hearing Aids .,"Hearing aid, digitally programmable, analog, monaural, ITC",HCPS +V5246,Hearing Aids .,"Hearing aid, digitally programmable analog, monaural, ITE (in the ear)",HCPS +V5247,Hearing Aids .,"Hearing aid, digitally programmable analog, monaural, BTE (behind the ear)",HCPS +V5248,Hearing Aids .,"Hearing aid, analog, binaural, CIC",HCPS +V5249,Hearing Aids .,"Hearing aid, analog, binaural, ITC",HCPS +V5250,Hearing Aids .,"Hearing aid, digitally programmable analog, binaural, CIC",HCPS +V5251,Hearing Aids .,"Hearing aid, digitally programmable analog, binaural, ITC",HCPS +V5252,Hearing Aids .,"Hearing aid, digitally programmable, binaural, ITE",HCPS +V5253,Hearing Aids .,"Hearing aid, digitally programmable, binaural, BTE",HCPS +V5254,Hearing Aids .,"Hearing aid, digital, monaural, CIC",HCPS +V5255,Hearing Aids .,"Hearing aid, digital, monaural, ITC",HCPS +V5256,Hearing Aids .,"Hearing aid, digital, monaural, ITE",HCPS +V5257,Hearing Aids .,"Hearing aid, digital, monaural, BTE",HCPS +V5258,Hearing Aids .,"Hearing aid, digital, binaural, CIC",HCPS +V5259,Hearing Aids .,"Hearing aid, digital, binaural, ITC",HCPS +V5260,Hearing Aids .,"Hearing aid, digital, binaural, ITE",HCPS +V5261,Hearing Aids .,"Hearing aid, digital, binaural, BTE",HCPS +V5262,Hearing Aids .,"Hearing aid, disposable, any type, monaural",HCPS +V5263,Hearing Aids .,"Hearing aid, disposable, any type, binaural",HCPS +V5264,Hearing Aids .,"Ear mold/insert, not disposable, any type",HCPS +V5265,Hearing Aids .,"Ear mold/insert, disposable, any type",HCPS +V5266,Hearing Aids .,Battery for use in hearing device,HCPS +V5267,Hearing Aids .,"Hearing aid or assistive listening device/supplies/accessories, not otherwise specified",HCPS +V5268,Assistive Hearing Devices .,"Assistive listening device, telephone amplifier, any type",HCPS +V5269,Assistive Hearing Devices .,"Assistive listening device, alerting, any type",HCPS +V5270,Assistive Hearing Devices .,"Assistive listening device, television amplifier, any type",HCPS +V5271,Assistive Hearing Devices .,"Assistive listening device, television caption decoder",HCPS +V5272,Assistive Hearing Devices .,"Assistive listening device, TDD",HCPS +V5273,Assistive Hearing Devices .,"Assistive listening device, for use with cochlear implant",HCPS +V5274,Assistive Hearing Devices .,"Assistive listening device, not otherwise specified",HCPS +V5275,Assistive Hearing Devices .,"Ear impression, each",HCPS +V5281,Assistive Hearing Devices .,"Assistive listening device, personal FM/DM system, monaural, (1 receiver, transmitter, microphone), any type",HCPS +V5282,Assistive Hearing Devices .,"Assistive listening device, personal FM/DM system, binaural, (2 receivers, transmitter, microphone), any type",HCPS +V5283,Assistive Hearing Devices .,"Assistive listening device, personal FM/DM neck, loop induction receiver",HCPS +V5284,Assistive Hearing Devices .,"Assistive listening device, personal FM/DM, ear level receiver",HCPS +V5285,Assistive Hearing Devices .,"Assistive listening device, personal FM/DM, direct audio input receiver",HCPS +V5286,Assistive Hearing Devices .,"Assistive listening device, personal blue tooth FM/DM receiver",HCPS +V5287,Assistive Hearing Devices .,"Assistive listening device, personal FM/DM receiver, not otherwise specified",HCPS +V5288,Assistive Hearing Devices .,"Assistive listening device, personal FM/DM transmitter assistive listening device",HCPS +V5289,Assistive Hearing Devices .,"Assistive listening device, personal FM/DM adapter/boot coupling device for receiver, any type",HCPS +V5290,Assistive Hearing Devices .,"Assistive listening device, transmitter microphone, any type",HCPS +V5298,Other and Miscellaneous Hearing Services and Supplies .,"Hearing aid, not otherwise classified",HCPS +V5299,Other and Miscellaneous Hearing Services and Supplies .,"Hearing service, miscellaneous",HCPS +V5336,Speech-related Screenings and Communication Device Repair .,Repair/modification of augmentative communicative system or device (excludes adaptive hearing aid),HCPS +V5362,Speech-related Screenings and Communication Device Repair .,Speech screening,HCPS +V5363,Speech-related Screenings and Communication Device Repair .,Language screening,HCPS +U0001,"Coronavirus Diagnostic Panel +.",Cdc 2019 novel coronavirus (2019-ncov) real-time rt-pcr diagnostic panel,HCPS +U0002,"Coronavirus Diagnostic Panel +.","2019-ncov coronavirus, sars-cov-2/2019-ncov (covid-19), any technique, multiple types or subtypes (includes all targets), non-cdc",HCPS