Newsgroup: it.cultura.linguistica.inglese
Titolo: "to do" vs "to be done"

Any particular difference in meaning between these two?
a) "Work to do"
b) "Work to be done"
 
Kiuhnm

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Not in my mind, other than the following:
 
I have work to do.
You have work to do.
We all have work to do.
 
There's work to be done.
 
Which might imply a more impersonal nature to the expression using "to be 
done."
 
Certainly "there's work to do" is possible.
Not so much "I have work to be done," however.
 
-- 
Joey from New York
Among those whom I like or admire, I can find no common denominator,
but among those whom I love, I can: all of them make me laugh.
   -- WH Auden
 

 Not so much "I have work to be done," however.
 
What about:
a) I have some work to be done for you
b) I have some work to do for you
Does any of them make any sense?
 
Kiuhnm

 b) I have some work to do for you
 
Sounds like the writer will be doing the work him or her self.

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Ok, thanks. (I assume the writer is the "you" in my sentences.)
 
Kiuhnm

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no, the person writing "I have..."

 Does any of them make any sense?
 
Because "any" may include more than one, it is more natural to say
"Do any of them make sense?"
or
"Does one of them make sense?"
or
"Do none of them make sense?"
 
Regarding the original sentences, the "to be done" is passive so it is 
typically eschewed for the more active phrasing "to do."
 
 
 

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I would rule out a) and for b) I would say
I have some work for you to do.
Same words; different word order; better sense.
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I thought the writer/speaker was assigning some work to the reader/listener.
 
Kiuhnm

 "Do none of them make sense?"
 
And the "any" in "make any sense"? Is it a mistake?
 
Kiuhnm

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Yes, that's much better!
 
Kiuhnm

 "Do any of them make sense?"
 
I think "Does any of them make sense" if you're expecting even one of them to 
make sense. (Does any [one] of them make sense?)
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 reader/listener.
 
I have some work to do for you = I do the work that you requested.
(Paulo has some work to do for Daniele - Paulo does the work.)
 
I have some work for you to do = I request the work and you do the work.
(Paulo has some work for Daniele to do - Daniele does the work.)

 And the "any" in "make any sense"? Is it a mistake?
 
No, you can say "make any sense," but try not to say "any" twice in such 
a short sentence, it may confuse the reader.

 I thought the writer/speaker was assigning some work to the reader/listener.
 
As Tony said, "I have some work for you to do" would seem better in
that case.
 


 
Is it possible to say, in this particular case, "Does either of them 
make (any) sense?"
 

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Yes, because there were only two options being considered in the post in 
question:
 
"What about:
a) I have some work to be done for you
b) I have some work to do for you
Does any of them make any sense?"
 
 
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 make (any) sense?"
 
It is preferable to say "do either of them make (any) sense?" You can 
say "does either of them make (any) sense?" but I would avoid "does any 
of them make (any) sense?" (It sounds substandard to my ears.)
 
The web isn't a perfect place to verify better or best English phrasing, 
but these results should give you an idea of, at least, the colloquial 
preferences.
 
"do any of them" 93,800,000
"does any of them" 24,800,000
"do either of them" 6,200,000
"does either of them" 562,000
 
In the previous examples, I expect that the presence of "them" leads 
most speakers to use "do" instead of "does." However, while I am 
inclined to use "does" when specifying "one", that difference does not 
seem to faze the majority, as you can see below.
 
"does one of them" 66,300,000
"do one of them" 130,000,000
 
When I get a chance, I'll ask a professional editor who is an expert on 
acceptable usage whether "does any" is flat out wrong or just less 
preferable. I'd also like having the "do one" aberration cleared up. At 
this point I can only say that no professional editor has ever corrected 
my preferred usage, or I would have remembered it.
 
Having left the topic open, let me add that you would never catch me 
saying "Does any of you know where's the bathroom?" even if I only need 
one person to respond to me.

 say "does either of them make (any) sense?"
 
Another instance where Tony and I differ. Either refers to one or the other 
of two things or people, therefore it's singular. Since it's one or the 
other, not multiples, the singular is called for.
 
There's certainly more leeway with "any," since it can refer to one or many 
things.
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 things.
 
Maybe "do either of them..." means "one, the other or both", while "does 
either of them..." means "one, the other but not both".
 
Kiuhnm

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Not really, at least not to my eyes, ears and brain. /In this context,/ 
"either" is followed by a singular noun, or "one" is implied.
 
You just test-drove two cars. Does either car appeal to you?
   "   Does either one appeal to you?
   "   Does either appeal to you?
 
To say "Do either appeal to you" is horrendously wrong.
Likewise "Do either of them..."
 
If you're looking to include both as a possibility, then you need "any."
Do any of them appeal to you?
 
/In this context/ "either" is used to determine one or the other, not both, 
of two things.
 
People might get confused because in a different context "either" /can/ mean 
both: "There's snow on either side of the road" means both sides of the road 
have snow on them.
 
Still, if you rework that sentence, you have to say "Does either side of the 
road have snow on it?" (Not a terribly sensible sentence.)
 
And I'm not trying to confuse things, either. [sic]
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 either of them..." means "one, the other but not both".
 
Exactly. However, most people do not think about that when they speak, 
they only say what sounds right to them. If you listen for the use of 
these words, you're likely to hear them in the proportions reported by 
Google.
 
"do either of them" 6,200,000
"does either of them" 562,000
 
I can't account for Joe's idiolectic opinion on this topic, but I will 
check with a professional editor or two when I get a chance, to 
determine if there's a supposed right or wrong, or if it is just a 
matter of what sounds right to the most people.

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Thank you for your answers.
As to the plural/singular verb issue, according to the book "Advanced 
Grammar in Use", "... with any of, each of, either of, neither of, or 
none of and a plural noun/pronoun we can use a singular or plural verb. 
However, we are more likely to use a singular verb in careful written 
English". The book deals with British English.

 matter of what sounds right to the most people.
 
Hearing them in greater proportions doesn't make them right.
 
I know you know about the caution of relying on Google hits to represent 
anything other than the number of times a phrase appears on the Internet, but 
the important point is that of those 6,200,000 hits, 6,000,000 can be written 
by illiterates and the rest can be there to decry the incorrect use of the 
phrase.
 
"Irregardless" gets over two million. I still won't use it.
Same with "I could care less" with over 44 million.
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 English". The book deals with British English.
 
Well then, if either is acceptable, I shouldn't have advised Kiuhnm not 
to say "does any of them make any sense." My ear is just tuned to how 
most educated people use the language and "do any of them" is by far the 
preferred usage in the USA (and also in the United Kingdom). Again, I 
think most speakers are influenced by the "of them" even if it should 
not technically be a factor in the choice of verb form. The more popular 
correct usage becomes a "modo di dire" and, in time, even the most 
dialectically dogmatic must accept its pervasive presence (pun intended).