meithnav/squad huggingface dataset:
Four years into the 20th century saw the Russo-Japanese War with the Battle of Port Arthur establishing the Empire of Japan as a world power. The Russians were in constant pursuit of a warm water port on the Pacific Ocean, for their navy as well as for maritime trade. The Manchurian Campaign of the Russian Empire was fought against the Japanese over Manchuria and Korea. The major theatres of operations were Southern Manchuria, specifically the area around the Liaodong Peninsula and Mukden, and the seas around Korea, Japan, and the Yellow Sea. The resulting campaigns, in which the fledgling Japanese military consistently attained victory over the Russian forces arrayed against them, were unexpected by world observers. These victories, as time transpired, would dramatically transform the distribution of power in East Asia, resulting in a reassessment of Japan's recent entry onto the world stage. The embarrassing string of defeats increased Russian popular dissatisfaction with the inefficient and corrupt Tsarist government.

Question: When dd the Russo-Japanese war take place?
Answer: Four years into the 20th century

Question: What did the battle of Port Arthur establish?
Answer: the Empire of Japan as a world power.

Question: What were the Russians hoping to find in the pacific ocean?
Answer: warm water port

Question: Why did the Manchurian Campaign fight the Russians. 
Answer: over Manchuria and Korea.

Question: How were the Japanese victories over the Russians views around the world?
Answer: unexpected
The causes of World War I included many factors, including the conflicts and antagonisms of the four decades leading up to the war. The Triple Entente was the name given to the loose alignment between the United Kingdom, France, and Russia after the signing of the Anglo-Russian Entente in 1907. The alignment of the three powers, supplemented by various agreements with Japan, the United States, and Spain, constituted a powerful counterweight to the Triple Alliance of Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Italy, the third having concluded an additional secret agreement with France effectively nullifying her Alliance commitments. Militarism, alliances, imperialism, and nationalism played major roles in the conflict. The immediate origins of the war lay in the decisions taken by statesmen and generals during the July Crisis of 1914, the spark (or casus belli) for which was the assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand of Austria.

Question: What is The Triple Entente?
Answer: the name given to the loose alignment between the United Kingdom, France, and Russia after the signing of the Anglo-Russian Entente in 1907.

Question: When was the Anglo -Russia Entente signed?
Answer: 1907.

Question: What was the origin of the war?
Answer: the decisions taken by statesmen and generals during the July Crisis of 1914

Question: Who was murdered in Austria?
Answer: Archduke Franz Ferdinand

Question: The Triple Entente served as a counter to what agreement? 
Answer: Triple Alliance of Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Italy,
The First World War began in 1914 and lasted to the final Armistice in 1918. The Allied Powers, led by the British Empire, France, Russia until March 1918, Japan and the United States after 1917, defeated the Central Powers, led by the German Empire, Austro-Hungarian Empire and the Ottoman Empire. The war caused the disintegration of four empires—the Austro-Hungarian, German, Ottoman, and Russian ones—as well as radical change in the European and West Asian maps. The Allied powers before 1917 are referred to as the Triple Entente, and the Central Powers are referred to as the Triple Alliance.

Question: When did the first World War begin? 
Answer: 1914

Question: Who led the Allied powers?
Answer: British Empire, France, Russia

Question: Who defeated the Central Powers led by the German Empire Austro-Hungarian Empire and the Ottoman Empire??
Answer: Japan and the United States

Question: What were the Allied powers referred to before 1917?
Answer: Triple Entente

Question: How many Empires did the war cause destruction to?
Answer: four empires
Ultimately, World War I created a decisive break with the old world order that had emerged after the Napoleonic Wars, which was modified by the mid-19th century's nationalistic revolutions. The results of World War I would be important factors in the development of World War II approximately 20 years later. More immediate to the time, the partitioning of the Ottoman Empire was a political event that redrew the political boundaries of West Asia. The huge conglomeration of territories and peoples formerly ruled by the Sultan of the Ottoman Empire was divided into several new nations. The partitioning brought the creation of the modern Arab world and the Republic of Turkey. The League of Nations granted France mandates over Syria and Lebanon and granted the United Kingdom mandates over Mesopotamia and Palestine (which was later divided into two regions: Palestine and Transjordan). Parts of the Ottoman Empire on the Arabian Peninsula became parts of what are today Saudi Arabia and Yemen.

Question: In what century did the Nationalistic revolutions occur?
Answer: mid-19th century's

Question: How many years after world war I did world war II start?
Answer: 20 years later.

Question: What withdrew the political boundaries of West Asia?
Answer: partitioning of the Ottoman Empire

Question: Who did The League of Nations grant  France mandates over?
Answer: Syria and Lebanon

Question: What did the partitioning of the Otto Empire bring about? 
Answer: the modern Arab world and the Republic of Turkey.
Another action in 1917 that is of note was the armistice signed between Russia and the Central Powers at Brest-Litovsk. As a condition for peace, the treaty by the Central Powers conceded huge portions of the former Russian Empire to Imperial Germany and the Ottoman Empire, greatly upsetting nationalists and conservatives. The Bolsheviks made peace with the German Empire and the Central Powers, as they had promised the Russian people prior to the Revolution. Vladimir Lenin's decision has been attributed to his sponsorship by the foreign office of Wilhelm II, German Emperor, offered by the latter in hopes that with a revolution, Russia would withdraw from World War I. This suspicion was bolstered by the German Foreign Ministry's sponsorship of Lenin's return to Petrograd. The Western Allies expressed their dismay at the Bolsheviks, upset at:

Question: When was the armistice signed between Russia and Central powers?
Answer: 1917

Question: What did Central powers concede in exchange for peace?
Answer: huge portions of the former Russian Empire to Imperial Germany and the Ottoman Empire

Question: Who did the Bolsheviks make peace with?
Answer: the German Empire

Question: What were Vladimir Lenin's decisions caused by? 
Answer: his sponsorship by the foreign office of Wilhelm II

Question: Who did the German sponsorship of Lenin's Petrograd upset?
Answer: Western Allies
The Russian Civil War was a multi-party war that occurred within the former Russian Empire after the Russian provisional government collapsed and the Soviets under the domination of the Bolshevik party assumed power, first in Petrograd (St. Petersburg) and then in other places. In the wake of the October Revolution, the old Russian Imperial Army had been demobilized; the volunteer-based Red Guard was the Bolsheviks' main military force, augmented by an armed military component of the Cheka, the Bolshevik state security apparatus. There was an instituted mandatory conscription of the rural peasantry into the Red Army. Opposition of rural Russians to Red Army conscription units was overcome by taking hostages and shooting them when necessary in order to force compliance. Former Tsarist officers were utilized as "military specialists" (voenspetsy), taking their families hostage in order to ensure loyalty. At the start of the war, three-fourths of the Red Army officer corps was composed of former Tsarist officers. By its end, 83% of all Red Army divisional and corps commanders were ex-Tsarist soldiers.

Question: Where did Soviets under the rule of the  Bolshevik first assume power during the Russian Civil War?
Answer: Petrograd (St. Petersburg)

Question: In the wake of the October resolution, what happened to the Russian Imperial Army?
Answer: demobilized

Question: What was Bolshevik's main military force?
Answer: volunteer-based Red Guard

Question: How did the Red red Army overcome their foes?
Answer: by taking hostages and shooting them when necessary in order to force compliance.

Question: How were former Tsarist Officers utilized? 
Answer: as "military specialists"
In North America, especially the first half of this period, people experienced considerable prosperity in the Roaring Twenties. The social and societal upheaval known as the Roaring Twenties began in North America and spread to Europe in the aftermath of World War I. The Roaring Twenties, often called "The Jazz Age", saw an exposition of social, artistic, and cultural dynamism. 'Normalcy' returned to politics, jazz music blossomed, the flapper redefined modern womanhood, Art Deco peaked. The spirit of the Roaring Twenties was marked by a general feeling of discontinuity associated with modernity, a break with traditions. Everything seemed to be feasible through modern technology. New technologies, especially automobiles, movies and radio proliferated 'modernity' to a large part of the population. The 1920s saw the general favor of practicality, in architecture as well as in daily life. The 1920s was further distinguished by several inventions and discoveries, extensive industrial growth and the rise in consumer demand and aspirations, and significant changes in lifestyle.

Question: What is the "Roaring Twenties" ?
Answer: social and societal upheaval

Question: What is the "Roaring Twenties" also known as?
Answer: The Jazz Age

Question: Where did the "Roaring Twenties" begin?
Answer: North America

Question: Where did the "Roaring Twenties"  spread to after the war?
Answer: Europe

Question: what did the "Jazz Age" usher in? 
Answer: an exposition of social, artistic, and cultural dynamism.
The Great Depression ended at different times in different countries with the effect lasting into the next era. America's Great Depression ended in 1941 with America's entry into World War II. The majority of countries set up relief programs, and most underwent some sort of political upheaval, pushing them to the left or right. In some world states, the desperate citizens turned toward nationalist demagogues—the most infamous being Adolf Hitler—setting the stage for the next era of war. The convulsion brought on by the worldwide depression resulted in the rise of Nazism. In Asia, Japan became an ever more assertive power, especially with regards to China.

Question: When did Americas Great Depression end?
Answer: 1941

Question: Who was the most notable Nationalist Demagogue the people turned to? 
Answer: Adolf Hitler

Question: In some world states who did the people turn to? 
Answer: nationalist demagogues

Question: What did the Convulsion caused by the global depression resul in?
Answer: the rise of Nazism
Few Chinese had any illusions about Japanese designs on China. Hungry for raw materials and pressed by a growing population, Japan initiated the seizure of Manchuria in September 1931 and established ex-Qing emperor Puyi as head of the puppet state of Manchukuo in 1932. During the Sino-Japanese War (1937–1945), the loss of Manchuria, and its vast potential for industrial development and war industries, was a blow to the Kuomintang economy. The League of Nations, established at the end of World War I, was unable to act in the face of the Japanese defiance. After 1940, conflicts between the Kuomintang and Communists became more frequent in the areas not under Japanese control. The Communists expanded their influence wherever opportunities presented themselves through mass organizations, administrative reforms, and the land- and tax-reform measures favoring the peasants—while the Kuomintang attempted to neutralize the spread of Communist influence.

Question: When did the seizure of Manchuria occur?
Answer: September 1931

Question: Who was named the head of the puppet state after the seizure of Manchuria?
Answer: ex-Qing emperor Puyi

Question: What dealt a blow to the Kuomintang economy?
Answer: loss of Manchuria, and its vast potential for industrial development and war industries,

Question: In what year did conflict between the Kuomintang and Communist intensify? 
Answer: 1940

Question: What was Kuomintang's main goal pertaining to Communist? 
Answer: neutralize the spread of Communist influence.
The Second Sino-Japanese War had seen tensions rise between Imperial Japan and the United States; events such as the Panay incident and the Nanking Massacre turned American public opinion against Japan. With the occupation of French Indochina in the years of 1940–41, and with the continuing war in China, the United States placed embargoes on Japan of strategic materials such as scrap metal and oil, which were vitally needed for the war effort. The Japanese were faced with the option of either withdrawing from China and losing face or seizing and securing new sources of raw materials in the resource-rich, European-controlled colonies of South East Asia—specifically British Malaya and the Dutch East Indies (modern-day Indonesia). In 1940, Imperial Japan signed the Tripartite Pact with Nazi Germany and Fascist Italy.

Question: What did the United States place on Japans war efforts?
Answer: embargoes

Question: What war saw tensions arise between between Imperial Japan and the United States?
Answer: The Second Sino-Japanese War

Question: Who did Imperial Japan sign a Tripartite pact with? 
Answer: Nazi Germany and Fascist Italy.

Question: What did the American Embargoes prevent Japan from aquiring?
Answer: strategic materials such as scrap metal and oil
On December 7, 1941, Japan attacked the United States at Pearl Harbor, bringing it too into the war on the Allied side. China also joined the Allies, as eventually did most of the rest of the world. China was in turmoil at the time, and attacked Japanese armies through guerilla-type warfare. By the beginning of 1942, the major combatants were aligned as follows: the British Commonwealth, the United States, and the Soviet Union were fighting Germany and Italy; and the British Commonwealth, China, and the United States were fighting Japan. The United Kingdom, the United States, the Soviet Union and China were referred as a "trusteeship of the powerful" during the World War II  and were recognized as the Allied "Big Four" in Declaration by United Nations These four countries were considered as the "Four Policemen" or "Four Sheriffs" of the Allies power and primary victors of World War II. From then through August 1945, battles raged across all of Europe, in the North Atlantic Ocean, across North Africa, throughout Southeast Asia, throughout China, across the Pacific Ocean and in the air over Japan.

Question: Where did Japan attack the United States?
Answer: Pearl Harbor

Question: What countries were referred to as "The Trusteeship Of The Powerful"?
Answer: The United Kingdom, the United States, the Soviet Union and China

Question: When did the attack on Pearl Harbor occur?
Answer: December 7, 1941

Question: What did The United Nations name "The Trusteeship Of The Powerful"
Answer: "Four Policemen"

Question: Who were the victors of World War II? 
Answer: The United Kingdom, the United States, the Soviet Union and China
The Holocaust (which roughly means "burnt whole") was the deliberate and systematic murder of millions of Jews and other "unwanted" during World War II by the Nazi regime in Germany. Several differing views exist regarding whether it was intended to occur from the war's beginning, or if the plans for it came about later. Regardless, persecution of Jews extended well before the war even started, such as in the Kristallnacht (Night of Broken Glass). The Nazis used propaganda to great effect to stir up anti-Semitic feelings within ordinary Germans.

Question: What is the Holocaust?
Answer: was the deliberate and systematic murder of millions of Jews and other "unwanted"

Question: During what word event did the Holocaust happen? 
Answer: during World War II

Question: Who is responsible for the Holocaust? 
Answer: Nazi regime in Germany.

Question: How did the Nazis conjure up anti-Semitic feelings in civilians?
Answer: propaganda

Question: When did the suffering of the Jews begin?
Answer: before the war even started
In Latin America in the 1970s, leftists acquired a significant political influence which prompted the right-wing, ecclesiastical authorities and a large portion of the individual country's upper class to support coup d'états to avoid what they perceived as a communist threat. This was further fueled by Cuban and United States intervention which led to a political polarization. Most South American countries were in some periods ruled by military dictatorships that were supported by the United States of America. In the 1970s, the regimes of the Southern Cone collaborated in Operation Condor killing many leftist dissidents, including some urban guerrillas. However, by the early 1990s all countries had restored their democracies.

Question: What caused Latin America's right-wing authorities to support coup o'etats?
Answer: in the 1970s, leftists acquired a significant political influence

Question: Why did the Latin Americas Upper class support coup o'etats?
Answer: to avoid what they perceived as a communist threat.

Question: The regimes in the southern cone collaborated in killing of who?
Answer: leftist dissidents

Question: What did all countries restore in the 1990's 
Answer: their democracies.

Question: Where did the United States support dictatorships in the 1970"s?
Answer: South American countries
One example of omnidirectional antennas is the very common vertical antenna or whip antenna consisting of a metal rod (often, but not always, a quarter of a wavelength long). A dipole antenna is similar but consists of two such conductors extending in opposite directions, with a total length that is often, but not always, a half of a wavelength long. Dipoles are typically oriented horizontally in which case they are weakly directional: signals are reasonably well radiated toward or received from all directions with the exception of the direction along the conductor itself; this region is called the antenna blind cone or null.

Question: What is the main element of an omnidirectional antenna?
Answer: metal rod

Question: What type of antenna would most likely be a half a wavelength long?
Answer: dipole

Question: In which direction would you expect to find a dipole?
Answer: horizontally

Question: What is meant by the area where signals cannot be accepted well along the conductor?
Monopole antennas consist of a single radiating element such as a metal rod, often mounted over a conducting surface, a ground plane. One side of the feedline from the receiver or transmitter is connected to the rod, and the other side to the ground plane, which may be the Earth. The most common form is the quarter-wave monopole which is one-quarter of a wavelength long and has a gain of 5.12 dBi when mounted over a ground plane. Monopoles have an omnidirectional radiation pattern, so they are used for broad coverage of an area, and have vertical polarization. The ground waves used for broadcasting at low frequencies must be vertically polarized, so large vertical monopole antennas are used for broadcasting in the MF, LF, and VLF bands. Small monopoles are used as nondirectional antennas on portable radios in the HF, VHF, and UHF bands.

Question: Monopole antennas consist of what element?
Answer: metal rod

Question: What are small monopoles used as?
Answer: nondirectional antennas

Question: What the most common form? 
Answer: quarter-wave monopole

Question: What has vertical polarization?
Answer: Monopoles
The most widely used class of antenna, a dipole antenna consists of two symmetrical radiators such as metal rods or wires, with one side of the balanced feedline from the transmitter or receiver attached to each. A horizontal dipole radiates in two lobes perpendicular to the antenna's axis. A half-wave dipole the most common type, has two collinear elements each a quarter wavelength long and a gain of 2.15 dBi. Used individually as low gain antennas, dipoles are also used as driven elements in many more complicated higher gain types of antennas.

Question: Besides low gain antennas, what is also used as driven elements in complicated higher gain types of antennas?
Answer: dipoles

Question: How much gain does a half-wave dipole have?
Answer: 2.15 dBi
The end result is that the resonant antenna will efficiently feed a signal into the transmission line only when the source signal's frequency is close to that of the design frequency of the antenna, or one of the resonant multiples. This makes resonant antenna designs inherently narrowband, and they are most commonly used with a single target signal. They are particularly common on radar systems, where the same antenna is used for both broadcast and reception, or for radio and television broadcasts, where the antenna is working with a single frequency. They are less commonly used for reception where multiple channels are present, in which case additional modifications are used to increase the bandwidth, or entirely different antenna designs are used.

Question:  If your were unable to match the source frequency with the design frequency of the antenna what could you use?
Answer: resonant multiples

Question: What is the most common application of resonant antennas?
Answer: single target signal

Question: What antenna setup type is generally used for TV viewing?
Answer: resonant

Question: For use with more than one channel changes are made to increase what property?
Answer: bandwidth
The amount of signal received from a distant transmission source is essentially geometric in nature due to the inverse square law, and this leads to the concept of effective area. This measures the performance of an antenna by comparing the amount of power it generates to the amount of power in the original signal, measured in terms of the signal's power density in Watts per square metre. A half-wave dipole has an effective area of 0.13 2. If more performance is needed, one cannot simply make the antenna larger. Although this would intercept more energy from the signal, due to the considerations above, it would decrease the output significantly due to it moving away from the resonant length. In roles where higher performance is needed, designers often use multiple elements combined together.

Question: What accounts for the geometry involved in the use of an antenna?
Answer: inverse square law

Question:  How is the compactness of the signal measured?
Answer: Watts per square metre

Question: What type of project would call for more than one element used together?
Answer: higher performance
Another extreme case of impedance matching occurs when using a small loop antenna (usually, but not always, for receiving) at a relatively low frequency where it appears almost as a pure inductor. Resonating such an inductor with a capacitor at the frequency of operation not only cancels the reactance but greatly magnifies the very small radiation resistance of such a loop.[citation needed] This is implemented in most AM broadcast receivers, with a small ferrite loop antenna resonated by a capacitor which is varied along with the receiver tuning in order to maintain resonance over the AM broadcast band

Question: What magnifies the small radiation resistance of a loop?
Answer: a capacitor at the frequency of operation

Question: What is resonated by a capacitor along with the receiver tuning that maintains resonance over the AM broadcast band?
Answer: small ferrite loop antenna

Question: What is used in most AM broadcaster receivers?
Answer: loop

Question: When using a small loop antenna at a low frequency, what may occur?
Answer: impedance matching
The radiation pattern of an antenna is a plot of the relative field strength of the radio waves emitted by the antenna at different angles. It is typically represented by a three-dimensional graph, or polar plots of the horizontal and vertical cross sections. The pattern of an ideal isotropic antenna, which radiates equally in all directions, would look like a sphere. Many nondirectional antennas, such as monopoles and dipoles, emit equal power in all horizontal directions, with the power dropping off at higher and lower angles; this is called an omnidirectional pattern and when plotted looks like a torus or donut.

Question: A plot of the radiation behaviors of an antenna would show what?
Answer: relative field strength

Question: What type of pictoral aid is often used to show this?
Answer: three-dimensional graph

Question:  A sphere shows what type of antennas radiation?
Answer: isotropic

Question: Dipoles are considered to be what antenna type?
Answer: nondirectional

Question: What would an omnidirectional antenna look like if plotted?
Answer: donut
The radiation of many antennas shows a pattern of maxima or "lobes" at various angles, separated by "nulls", angles where the radiation falls to zero. This is because the radio waves emitted by different parts of the antenna typically interfere, causing maxima at angles where the radio waves arrive at distant points in phase, and zero radiation at other angles where the radio waves arrive out of phase. In a directional antenna designed to project radio waves in a particular direction, the lobe in that direction is designed larger than the others and is called the "main lobe". The other lobes usually represent unwanted radiation and are called "sidelobes". The axis through the main lobe is called the "principal axis" or "boresight axis".

Question: What is the term that refers to areas where an antennas radiation is zero? 
Answer: nulls

Question: What do radio waves do that account for maxima or nulls in an antenna pattern?
Answer: interfere

Question: If you desired to project radio waves to the south, what part of the antenna would you build larger in that direction?
Answer: lobe

Question: What is the main distinction of side lobes?
Answer: represent unwanted radiation
For instance, if a transmitter delivers 100 W into an antenna having an efficiency of 80%, then the antenna will radiate 80 W as radio waves and produce 20 W of heat. In order to radiate 100 W of power, one would need to use a transmitter capable of supplying 125 W to the antenna. Note that antenna efficiency is a separate issue from impedance matching, which may also reduce the amount of power radiated using a given transmitter. If an SWR meter reads 150 W of incident power and 50 W of reflected power, that means that 100 W have actually been absorbed by the antenna (ignoring transmission line losses). How much of that power has actually been radiated cannot be directly determined through electrical measurements at (or before) the antenna terminals, but would require (for instance) careful measurement of field strength. Fortunately the loss resistance of antenna conductors such as aluminum rods can be calculated and the efficiency of an antenna using such materials predicted.

Question: What would need to be placed into the transmitter to create ten W oh warmth? 
Answer: 100 W

Question: What would need to be investigated to determine how much power was radiated?
Answer: electrical measurements

Question: What factor may play a hand in lessened power from a transmitter?
Answer: impedance matching
Consider a half-wave dipole designed to work with signals 1 m wavelength, meaning the antenna would be approximately 50 cm across. If the element has a length-to-diameter ratio of 1000, it will have an inherent resistance of about 63 ohms. Using the appropriate transmission wire or balun, we match that resistance to ensure minimum signal loss. Feeding that antenna with a current of 1 ampere will require 63 volts of RF, and the antenna will radiate 63 watts (ignoring losses) of radio frequency power. Now consider the case when the antenna is fed a signal with a wavelength of 1.25 m; in this case the reflected current would arrive at the feed out-of-phase with the signal, causing the net current to drop while the voltage remains the same. Electrically this appears to be a very high impedance. The antenna and transmission line no longer have the same impedance, and the signal will be reflected back into the antenna, reducing output. This could be addressed by changing the matching system between the antenna and transmission line, but that solution only works well at the new design frequency.

Question: How big would an antenna be used to with with one m wavelengths?
Answer: 50 cm

Question: How could the rection of output be adressed by?
Answer: changing the matching system

Question:  What unit is used to measure current?
Answer: ampere

Question: What effect occurs when the signal is reflected back into the antenna?
Answer: reducing output
Recall that a current will reflect when there are changes in the electrical properties of the material. In order to efficiently send the signal into the transmission line, it is important that the transmission line has the same impedance as the elements, otherwise some of the signal will be reflected back into the antenna. This leads to the concept of impedance matching, the design of the overall system of antenna and transmission line so the impedance is as close as possible, thereby reducing these losses. Impedance matching between antennas and transmission lines is commonly handled through the use of a balun, although other solutions are also used in certain roles. An important measure of this basic concept is the standing wave ratio, which measures the magnitude of the reflected signal.

Question: What sort of changes in material would a current reflect?
Answer: electrical

Question:  What must match between the transmission line and elements?
Answer: impedance

Question: What technique is used to prevent unintentional decrease in signal?
Answer: Impedance matching

Question: How is this process usually used for transmission lines and antennas?
Answer: balun
The flowering plants (angiosperms), also known as Angiospermae or Magnoliophyta, are the most diverse group of land plants, with about 350,000 species. Like gymnosperms, angiosperms are seed-producing plants; they are distinguished from gymnosperms by characteristics including flowers, endosperm within the seeds, and the production of fruits that contain the seeds. Etymologically, angiosperm means a plant that produces seeds within an enclosure, in other words, a fruiting plant. The term "angiosperm" comes from the Greek composite word (angeion-, "case" or "casing", and sperma, "seed") meaning "enclosed seeds", after the enclosed condition of the seeds.

Question: What are the most diverse group of land plants?
Answer: angiosperms

Question: How many species of flowering plants are there about?
Answer: 350,000

Question: What does an angiosperm produce its seeds within?
Answer: an enclosure

Question: What do angiosperms have in common with gymnosperms?
Answer: seed-producing plants

Question: What is the Greek word for "case" or "casing"?
Answer: angeion
The great angiosperm radiation, when a great diversity of angiosperms appears in the fossil record, occurred in the mid-Cretaceous (approximately 100 million years ago). However, a study in 2007 estimated that the division of the five most recent (the genus Ceratophyllum, the family Chloranthaceae, the eudicots, the magnoliids, and the monocots) of the eight main groups occurred around 140 million years ago. By the late Cretaceous, angiosperms appear to have dominated environments formerly occupied by ferns and cycadophytes, but large canopy-forming trees replaced conifers as the dominant trees only close to the end of the Cretaceous 66 million years ago or even later, at the beginning of the Tertiary. The radiation of herbaceous angiosperms occurred much later. Yet, many fossil plants recognizable as belonging to modern families (including beech, oak, maple, and magnolia) had already appeared by the late Cretaceous.

Question: When does a great diversity of angiosperms appear in the fossil record?
Answer: approximately 100 million years ago

Question: What is the appearance of a large amount of angiosperms in the fossil record known as?
Answer: great angiosperm radiation,

Question: When did the division of the eight main groups of angiosperms occur?
Answer: 40 million years ago

Question: What were the angiosperms up to by the late Cretaceous?
Answer: dominated environments

Question: Beech and maple had already appeared by what period?
Answer: Cretaceous
Animals are also involved in the distribution of seeds. Fruit, which is formed by the enlargement of flower parts, is frequently a seed-dispersal tool that attracts animals to eat or otherwise disturb it, incidentally scattering the seeds it contains (see frugivory). Although many such mutualistic relationships remain too fragile to survive competition and to spread widely, flowering proved to be an unusually effective means of reproduction, spreading (whatever its origin) to become the dominant form of land plant life.

Question: What are animals also a part of?
Answer: distribution of seeds

Question: What did the enlargement of flower parts evolve to form?
Answer: Fruit

Question: What does a plant get out of forming fruit?
Answer: seed-dispersal

Question: What are many mutualistic relationships, thus failing to survive competition? 
Answer: fragile

Question: What turned out to be unusually effective for plants to reproduce?
Answer: flowering
Flower evolution continues to the present day; modern flowers have been so profoundly influenced by humans that some of them cannot be pollinated in nature. Many modern domesticated flower species were formerly simple weeds, which sprouted only when the ground was disturbed. Some of them tended to grow with human crops, perhaps already having symbiotic companion plant relationships with them, and the prettiest did not get plucked because of their beauty, developing a dependence upon and special adaptation to human affection.

Question: How long has flower evolution occurred? 
Answer: present day

Question: What heritage do many modern domesticated flower species have?
Answer: formerly simple weeds

Question: Humans have effected some flowers so much they can no longer do what in nature?
Answer: pollinated

Question: Why did weeds grow with human crops?
Answer: symbiotic companion plant relationships

Question: What feature helped flowers not get plucked?
Answer: prettiest
The Greater Hyderabad Municipal Corporation (GHMC) oversees the civic infrastructure of the city's 18 "circles", which together encompass 150 municipal wards. Each ward is represented by a corporator, elected by popular vote. The corporators elect the Mayor, who is the titular head of GHMC; executive powers rest with the Municipal Commissioner, appointed by the state government. The GHMC carries out the city's infrastructural work such as building and maintenance of roads and drains, town planning including construction regulation, maintenance of municipal markets and parks, solid waste management, the issuing of birth and death certificates, the issuing of trade licences, collection of property tax, and community welfare services such as mother and child healthcare, and pre-school and non-formal education. The GHMC was formed in April 2007 by merging the Municipal Corporation of Hyderabad (MCH) with 12 municipalities of the Hyderabad, Ranga Reddy and Medak districts covering a total area of 650 km2 (250 sq mi).:3 In the 2016 municipal election, the Telangana Rashtra Samithi formed the majority and the present Mayor is Bonthu Ram Mohan. The Secunderabad Cantonment Board is a civic administration agency overseeing an area of 40.1 km2 (15.5 sq mi),:93 where there are several military camps.:2 The Osmania University campus is administered independently by the university authority.:93

Question: What is the entity that controls the infrastructure of Hyderabad?
Answer: The Greater Hyderabad Municipal Corporation (GHMC)

Question: How many municipal wards are within Hyderabad?
Answer: 150

Question: In what year did the GHMC form?
Answer: 2007

Question: How much area, in square miles, does the GHMC oversee?
Answer: 250 sq mi

Question: Which board oversees military areas within Hyderabad?
Answer: The Secunderabad Cantonment Board
The Commissionerate of Health and Family Welfare is responsible for planning, implementation and monitoring of all facilities related to health and preventive services. As of 2010[update]–11, the city had 50 government hospitals, 300 private and charity hospitals and 194 nursing homes providing around 12,000 hospital beds, fewer than half the required 25,000. For every 10,000 people in the city, there are 17.6 hospital beds, 9 specialist doctors, 14 nurses and 6 physicians. The city also has about 4,000 individual clinics and 500 medical diagnostic centres. Private clinics are preferred by many residents because of the distance to, poor quality of care at and long waiting times in government facilities,:60–61 despite the high proportion of the city's residents being covered by government health insurance: 24% according to a National Family Health Survey in 2005.:41 As of 2012[update], many new private hospitals of various sizes were opened or being built. Hyderabad also has outpatient and inpatient facilities that use Unani, homeopathic and Ayurvedic treatments.

Question: How many government hospitals did Hyderabad have in 2010?
Answer: 50

Question: How many beds are available in all of Hyderabad's hospitals and nursing homes combined?
Answer: 12,000

Question: How many nurses per 10,000 persons are there in Hyderabad?
Answer: 14 nurses

Question: Which agency is in charge of health and wellness services in Hyderabad?
Answer: Commissionerate of Health and Family Welfare

Question: People choose to use what type of facility due to long distances and poor care at Government hospitals? 
Answer: Private clinics
In the 2005 National Family Health Survey, it was reported that the city's total fertility rate is 1.8,:47 which is below the replacement rate. Only 61% of children had been provided with all basic vaccines (BCG, measles and full courses of polio and DPT), fewer than in all other surveyed cities except Meerut.:98 The infant mortality rate was 35 per 1,000 live births, and the mortality rate for children under five was 41 per 1,000 live births.:97 The survey also reported that a third of women and a quarter of men are overweight or obese, 49% of children below 5 years are anaemic, and up to 20% of children are underweight,:44, 55–56 while more than 2% of women and 3% of men suffer from diabetes.:57

Question: What percentage of the children in Hyderabad city had basic vaccinations in 2005?
Answer: 61%

Question: What is the only city that had a lower vaccination rate for children than Hyderabad in the 2005 National Family Health Survey?
Answer: Meerut

Question: What was the fertility rate of Hyderabad according to a 2005 survey?
Answer: 1.8

Question: What was the child vaccination rate according to a 2005 survey of Hyderabad?
Answer: 61%

Question: Only one city, according to a 2005 survey, had a lower child vaccination rate than Hyderabad, what was it?
Answer: Meerut

Question: According to a 2005 survey what was in Hyderabad?
Answer: 35 per 1,000 live births

Question: What percentage of children in a 2005 survey of people in Hyderabad were underweight?
Answer: 20%
Qutb Shahi architecture of the 16th and early 17th centuries followed classical Persian architecture featuring domes and colossal arches. The oldest surviving Qutb Shahi structure in Hyderabad is the ruins of Golconda fort built in the 16th century. The Charminar, Mecca Masjid, Charkaman and Qutb Shahi tombs are other existing structures of this period. Among these the Charminar has become an icon of the city; located in the centre of old Hyderabad, it is a square structure with sides 20 m (66 ft) long and four grand arches each facing a road. At each corner stands a 56 m (184 ft)-high minaret. Most of the historical bazaars that still exist were constructed on the street north of Charminar towards Golconda fort. The Charminar, Qutb Shahi tombs and Golconda fort are considered to be monuments of national importance in India; in 2010 the Indian government proposed that the sites be listed for UNESCO World Heritage status.:11–18

Question: What influence did Qutb Shahi architecture borrow from?
Answer: classical Persian architecture

Question: What is the oldest piece of Qutb Shahi architecture in Hyderabad?
Answer: the ruins of Golconda fort

Question: What iconic historic structure is in the center of old Hyderabad?
Answer: the Charminar

Question: The government of India proposed that The Charminar become a UNESCO World Heritage site, what other two monuments were suggested for the same status?
Answer: Qutb Shahi tombs and Golconda fort

Question: How high are the minarets on the Charminar?
Answer: 56 m (184 ft)
Among the oldest surviving examples of Nizam architecture in Hyderabad is the Chowmahalla Palace, which was the seat of royal power. It showcases a diverse array of architectural styles, from the Baroque Harem to its Neoclassical royal court. The other palaces include Falaknuma Palace (inspired by the style of Andrea Palladio), Purani Haveli, King Kothi and Bella Vista Palace all of which were built at the peak of Nizam rule in the 19th century. During Mir Osman Ali Khan's rule, European styles, along with Indo-Islamic, became prominent. These styles are reflected in the Falaknuma Palace and many civic monuments such as the Hyderabad High Court, Osmania Hospital, Osmania University, the State Central Library, City College, the Telangana Legislature, the State Archaeology Museum, Jubilee Hall, and Hyderabad and Kachiguda railway stations. Other landmarks of note are Paigah Palace, Asman Garh Palace, Basheer Bagh Palace, Errum Manzil and the Spanish Mosque, all constructed by the Paigah family.:16–17

Question: The Chowmahalla Palace represents what type of architecture?
Answer: Nizam architecture

Question: The royal court of Chowmahalla palace is an example what style of architecture?
Answer: Neoclassical

Question: What century was Bella Vista Palace built?
Answer: 19th century

Question: Which family constructed the Basheer Bagh Palace?
Answer: Paigah family

Question: Which palace in Hyderabad did the work of Andrea Palladio influence?
Answer: Falaknuma Palace
Hyderabad is the largest contributor to the gross domestic product (GDP), tax and other revenues, of Telangana, and the sixth largest deposit centre and fourth largest credit centre nationwide, as ranked by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in June 2012. Its US$74 billion GDP made it the fifth-largest contributor city to India's overall GDP in 2011–12. Its per capita annual income in 2011 was ₹44300 (US$660). As of 2006[update], the largest employers in the city were the governments of Andhra Pradesh (113,098 employees) and India (85,155). According to a 2005 survey, 77% of males and 19% of females in the city were employed. The service industry remains dominant in the city, and 90% of the employed workforce is engaged in this sector.

Question: Where was Hyderabad ranked in 2012 as a producer of GDP in Talangana?
Answer: the largest

Question: Where was Hyderabad ranked in India in 2012 in terms of deposits?
Answer: sixth largest

Question: What was the GDP of Hyderabad in US dollars in 2011-2012?
Answer: $74 billion

Question: How many people were employed by the Andhra Pradesh government in 2006?
Answer: 113,098

Question: What percentage of females in Hyderabad were employed in 2005?
Answer: 19%
Classified as a Subtropical Mediterranean climate (Köppen Csb), Santa Monica enjoys an average of 310 days of sunshine a year. It is located in USDA plant hardiness zone 11a. Because of its location, nestled on the vast and open Santa Monica Bay, morning fog is a common phenomenon in May, June and early July (caused by ocean temperature variations and currents). Like other inhabitants of the greater Los Angeles area, residents have a particular terminology for this phenomenon: the "May Gray" and the "June Gloom". Overcast skies are common during June mornings, but usually the strong sun burns the fog off by noon. In the late winter/early summer, daily fog is a phenomenon too. It happens suddenly and it may last some hours or past sunset time. Nonetheless, it will sometimes stay cloudy and cool all day during June, even as other parts of the Los Angeles area enjoy sunny skies and warmer temperatures. At times, the sun can be shining east of 20th Street, while the beach area is overcast. As a general rule, the beach temperature is from 5 to 10 degrees Fahrenheit (3 to 6 degrees Celsius) cooler than it is inland during summer days, and 5–10 degrees warmer during winter nights.

Question: Roughly how many days of sunshine does Santa Monica get annually? 
Answer: 310

Question: What USDA hardiness zone is Santa Monica located in?
Answer: 11a

Question: What commonly occurs on the mornings in May?
Answer: fog

Question: What have locals coined the morning time in May?
Answer: "May Gray"

Question: What is the beach temperature in Fahrenheit during the summer ? 
Answer: 5 to 10 degrees
Santa Monica College is a junior college originally founded in 1929. Many SMC graduates transfer to the University of California system. It occupies 35 acres (14 hectares) and enrolls 30,000 students annually. The Frederick S. Pardee RAND Graduate School, associated with the RAND Corporation, is the U.S.'s largest producer of public policy PhDs. The Art Institute of California – Los Angeles is also located in Santa Monica near the Santa Monica Airport. Universities and colleges within a 22-mile (35 km) radius from Santa Monica include Santa Monica College, Antioch University Los Angeles, Loyola Marymount University, Mount St. Mary's College, Pepperdine University, California State University, Northridge, California State University, Los Angeles, UCLA, USC, West Los Angeles College, California Institute of Technology (Caltech), Occidental College (Oxy), Los Angeles City College, Los Angeles Southwest College, Los Angeles Valley College, and Emperor's College of Traditional Oriental Medicine.

Question: What year was the Santa Monica junior college founded?
Answer: 1929

Question: How many acres of land is the Santa Monica Junior College?
Answer: 35

Question: By what area is the Art institute in Santa Monica?
Answer: Airport

Question: There are a plethora of colleges and universities within what radius of Santa Monica?
Answer: 22-mile

Question: How many students enroll to the SMC annually?  
Answer: 30,000
Santa Monica has a bike action plan and recently launched a Bicycle sharing system in November 2015. The city is traversed by the Marvin Braude Bike Trail. Santa Monica has received the Bicycle Friendly Community Award (Bronze in 2009, Silver in 2013) by the League of American Bicyclists. Local bicycle advocacy organizations include Santa Monica Spoke, a local chapter of the Los Angeles County Bicycle Coalition. Santa Monica is thought to be one of the leaders for bicycle infrastructure and programming in Los Angeles County.[citation needed]

Question: What plan launched a Bicycle sharing system?
Answer: bike action

Question: When was Santa Monica's Bicycle sharing system launched?
Answer: November 2015

Question: What is the name of the bike trail that goes through Santa Monica?
Answer: Marvin Braude

Question: When was the most recent Bicycle Friendly Community Award given to Santa Monica? 
Answer: 2013

Question: What other year did Santa Monica receive the Bicycle Friendly Community award?
Answer: 2009