meithnav/squad huggingface dataset:
"Chopped" units are referred to as forces. The top-level structure of these forces is the Air and Space Expeditionary Task Force (AETF). The AETF is the Air Force presentation of forces to a CCDR for the employment of Air Power. Each CCDR is supported by a standing Component Numbered Air Force (C-NAF) to provide planning and execution of aerospace forces in support of CCDR requirements. Each C-NAF consists of a Commander, Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR) and AFFOR/A-staff, and an Air Operations Center (AOC). As needed to support multiple Joint Force Commanders (JFC) in the COCOM's Area of Responsibility (AOR), the C-NAF may deploy Air Component Coordinate Elements (ACCE) to liaise with the JFC. If the Air Force possesses the preponderance of air forces in a JFC's area of operations, the COMAFFOR will also serve as the Joint Forces Air Component Commander (JFACC).

Question: What are "Chopped" units called in the USAF?
Answer: forces

Question: What is the top level structure of these Chopped forces in the USAF? 
Answer: Air and Space Expeditionary Task Force

Question: What does the C-NAF provide support to?
Answer: planning and execution of aerospace forces

Question: Who does the C-NAFF coordinate with on ACEE missions?
Answer: JFC
AFSCs range from officer specialties such as pilot, combat systems officer, missile launch officer, intelligence officer, aircraft maintenance officer, judge advocate general (JAG), medical doctor, nurse or other fields, to various enlisted specialties. The latter range from flight combat operations such as a gunner, to working in a dining facility to ensure that members are properly fed. There are additional occupational fields such as computer specialties, mechanic specialties, enlisted aircrew, communication systems, cyberspace operations, avionics technicians, medical specialties, civil engineering, public affairs, hospitality, law, drug counseling, mail operations, security forces, and search and rescue specialties.

Question: What kind of AFSC is a JAG?
Answer: judge advocate general

Question: What is one of the many types of AFSC employed by the USAF? 
Answer: missile launch officer

Question: What is an example of an occupational field position in the USAF?
Answer: computer specialties
Beyond combat flight crew personnel, perhaps the most dangerous USAF jobs are Explosive Ordnance Disposal (EOD), Combat rescue officer, Pararescue, Security Forces, Combat Control, Combat Weather, Tactical Air Control Party, and AFOSI agents, who deploy with infantry and special operations units who disarm bombs, rescue downed or isolated personnel, call in air strikes and set up landing zones in forward locations. Most of these are enlisted positions augmented by a smaller number of commissioned officers. Other career fields that have seen increasing exposure to combat include civil engineers, vehicle operators, and Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI) personnel.

Question: What does the abbreviation EOD stand for in the USAF?
Answer: Explosive Ordnance Disposal

Question: What is one of the most dangerous jobs for USAF personnel?
Answer: Tactical Air Control Party

Question: What do some of these special missions in the USAF who deploy with the infantry do?
Answer: rescue downed or isolated personnel

Question: What are these enlisted positions in the USAF complimented by?
Answer: commissioned officers

Question: What other career fields have seen an increase in active combat missions? 
Answer: Air Force Office of Special Investigations
Training programs vary in length; for example, 3M0X1 (Services) has 31 days of tech school training, while 3E8X1 (Explosive Ordnance Disposal) is one year of training with a preliminary school and a main school consisting of over 10 separate divisions, sometimes taking students close to two years to complete. Officer technical training conducted by Second Air Force can also vary by AFSC, while flight training for aeronautically-rated officers conducted by AETC's Nineteenth Air Force can last well in excess of one year.

Question: How long is the training for Explosive Ordnance Disposal in the USAF?
Answer: one year of training with a preliminary school

Question: What USAF tech school has 31 days of training?
Answer: 3M0X1 (Services)

Question: Who conducts the training for Technical Officers in the USAF?
Answer: Second Air Force

Question: How long does the flight training for the AETC's Nineteenth Air Force last? 
Answer: excess of one year
USAF rank is divided between enlisted airmen, non-commissioned officers, and commissioned officers, and ranges from the enlisted Airman Basic (E-1) to the commissioned officer rank of General (O-10). Enlisted promotions are granted based on a combination of test scores, years of experience, and selection board approval while officer promotions are based on time-in-grade and a promotion selection board. Promotions among enlisted personnel and non-commissioned officers are generally designated by increasing numbers of insignia chevrons. Commissioned officer rank is designated by bars, oak leaves, a silver eagle, and anywhere from one to four stars (one to five stars in war-time).[citation needed]

Question: What groups is the USAF rank divided amoung? 
Answer: enlisted airmen, non-commissioned officers, and commissioned officers

Question: How are Enlisted promotions in the USAF decided? 
Answer: based on a combination of test scores, years of experience, and selection board approval

Question: How are Officer promotions within the USAF decided?
Answer: based on time-in-grade and a promotion selection board

Question: How is a Commissioned Officer's rank shown?
Answer: designated by bars, oak leaves, a silver eagle, and anywhere from one to four stars
Air Force officer promotions are governed by the Defense Officer Personnel Management Act of 1980 and its companion Reserve Officer Personnel Management Act (ROPMA) for officers in the Air Force Reserve and the Air National Guard. DOPMA also establishes limits on the number of officers that can serve at any given time in the Air Force. Currently, promotion from second lieutenant to first lieutenant is virtually guaranteed after two years of satisfactory service. The promotion from first lieutenant to captain is competitive after successfully completing another two years of service, with a selection rate varying between 99% and 100%. Promotion to major through major general is through a formal selection board process, while promotions to lieutenant general and general are contingent upon nomination to specific general officer positions and subject to U.S. Senate approval.

Question: Was does ROPMA stand for in the USAF? 
Answer: Reserve Officer Personnel Management Act

Question: What are Air Force Officer promotions overseen by?
Answer: Defense Officer Personnel Management Act of 1980

Question: How long does it usually take to be promoted from second to first lieutenant in the USAF? 
Answer: virtually guaranteed after two years

Question: Who establishes limits on the amount of Air Force officers? 
Answer: DOPMA

Question: What promotion in the USAF is governed by a formal selection process?
Answer: Promotion to major through major general
During the board process an officer's record is reviewed by a selection board at the Air Force Personnel Center at Randolph Air Force Base in San Antonio, Texas. At the 10 to 11 year mark, captains will take part in a selection board to major. If not selected, they will meet a follow-on board to determine if they will be allowed to remain in the Air Force. Promotion from major to lieutenant colonel is similar and occurs approximately between the thirteen year (for officers who were promoted to major early "below the zone") and the fifteen year mark, where a certain percentage of majors will be selected below zone (i.e., "early"), in zone (i.e., "on time") or above zone (i.e., "late") for promotion to lieutenant colonel. This process will repeat at the 16 year mark (for officers previously promoted early to major and lieutenant colonel) to the 21 year mark for promotion to full colonel.

Question: Where is an officer's record in the USAF reviewed for a promotion?
Answer: Air Force Personnel Center at Randolph Air Force Base

Question: What state is the Randolph Air Force Base located in? 
Answer: Texas

Question: When does promotion from major to lieutenant colonel in the USAF typically occur?
Answer: thirteen year

Question: The promotion process repeats when for officers promoted early in the USAF?
Answer: 16 year mark
The first USAF dress uniform, in 1947, was dubbed and patented "Uxbridge Blue" after "Uxbridge 1683 Blue", developed at the former Bachman-Uxbridge Worsted Company. The current Service Dress Uniform, which was adopted in 1993 and standardized in 1995, consists of a three-button, pocketless coat, similar to that of a men's "sport jacket" (with silver "U.S." pins on the lapels, with a silver ring surrounding on those of enlisted members), matching trousers, and either a service cap or flight cap, all in Shade 1620, "Air Force Blue" (a darker purplish-blue). This is worn with a light blue shirt (Shade 1550) and Shade 1620 herringbone patterned necktie. Enlisted members wear sleeve insignia on both the jacket and shirt, while officers wear metal rank insignia pinned onto the coat, and Air Force Blue slide-on epaulet loops on the shirt. USAF personnel assigned to Base Honor Guard duties wear, for certain occasions, a modified version of the standard service dress uniform, but with silver trim on the sleeves and trousers, with the addition of a ceremonial belt (if necessary), wheel cap with silver trim and Hap Arnold Device, and a silver aiguillette placed on the left shoulder seam and all devices and accoutrement.

Question: Where was the Uxbridge Blue dress uniform developed?
Answer: former Bachman-Uxbridge Worsted Company

Question: When was the first USAF dress uniform introduced?
Answer: 1947

Question: When was the current USAF dress uniform standardized? 
Answer: 1995

Question: Where does an officer in the USAF wear their rank insignia? 
Answer: pinned onto the coat
In addition to basic uniform clothing, various badges are used by the USAF to indicate a billet assignment or qualification-level for a given assignment. Badges can also be used as merit-based or service-based awards. Over time, various badges have been discontinued and are no longer distributed. Authorized badges include the Shields of USAF Fire Protection, and Security Forces, and the Missile Badge (or "pocket rocket"), which is earned after working in a missile system maintenance or missile operations capacity for at least one year.

Question: What is worn by USAF members to indicate a billet assignment? 
Answer: various badges

Question: What else can Badges be used to designate in the USAF? 
Answer: merit-based or service-based awards

Question: What is one of the types of Authorized Badges in the USAF? 
Answer: Shields of USAF Fire Protection

Question: When is the special "pocket rocket" badge given to USAF personnel working in a missile system operation? 
Answer: at least one year
Officers may be commissioned upon graduation from the United States Air Force Academy, upon graduation from another college or university through the Air Force Reserve Officer Training Corps (AFROTC) program, or through the Air Force Officer Training School (OTS). OTS, previously located at Lackland AFB, Texas until 1993 and located at Maxwell Air Force Base in Montgomery, Alabama since 1993, in turn encompasses two separate commissioning programs: Basic Officer Training (BOT), which is for line-officer candidates of the active-duty Air Force and the U.S. Air Force Reserve; and the Academy of Military Science (AMS), which is for line-officer candidates of the Air National Guard. (The term "line officer" derives from the concept of the line of battle and refers to an officer whose role falls somewhere within the "Line of the Air", meaning combat or combat-support operations within the scope of legitimate combatants as defined by the Geneva Conventions.)

Question: USAF Officers can be commissioned after graduation from what school? 
Answer: United States Air Force Academy

Question: What is another program that allows officers to become commissioned in the USAF?
Answer: Air Force Officer Training School

Question: Where is the OTS in the US currently located?
Answer: Maxwell Air Force Base in Montgomery, Alabama

Question: What is a line officer in the USAF? 
Answer: concept of the line of battle and refers to an officer whose role falls somewhere within the "Line of the Air"

Question: How many commissioning programs does the OTS offer the USAF?
Answer: two
The Air Force also provides Commissioned Officer Training (COT) for officers of all three components who are direct-commissioned to non-line positions due to their credentials in medicine, law, religion, biological sciences, or healthcare administration. Originally viewed as a "knife and fork school" that covered little beyond basic wear of the uniform, COT in recent years has been fully integrated into the OTS program and today encompasses extensive coursework as well as field exercises in leadership, confidence, fitness, and deployed-environment operations.

Question: What does the Air Force provide for officers of direct to non-line positions?
Answer: Commissioned Officer Training

Question: What fields of study in the COT are included in this area of the USAF? 
Answer: medicine, law, religion, biological sciences, or healthcare administration

Question: What is an example of the coursework now offered in the COT in the USAF? 
Answer: deployed-environment operations
The US Air Force Fitness Test (AFFT) is designed to test the abdominal circumference, muscular strength/endurance and cardiovascular respiratory fitness of airmen in the USAF. As part of the Fit to Fight program, the USAF adopted a more stringent physical fitness assessment; the new fitness program was put into effect on 1 June 2010. The annual ergo-cycle test which the USAF had used for several years had been replaced in 2004. In the AFFT, Airmen are given a score based on performance consisting of four components: waist circumference, the sit-up, the push-up, and a 1.5-mile (2.4 km) run. Airmen can potentially earn a score of 100, with the run counting as 60%, waist circumference as 20%, and both strength test counting as 10% each. A passing score is 75 points. Effective 1 July 2010, the AFFT is administered by the base Fitness Assessment Cell (FAC), and is required twice a year. Personnel may test once a year if he or she earns a score above a 90%. Additionally, only meeting the minimum standards on each one of these tests will not get you a passing score of 75%, and failing any one component will result in a failure for the entire test.

Question: What is the more strict program that the USAF adopted in 2010 called?
Answer: Fit to Fight program

Question: What test is designed to test the fitness of airmen in the USAF? 
Answer: US Air Force Fitness Test

Question: How long is the run that the USAF airmen are tested on for the fitness program? 
Answer: 1.5-mile

Question: What is a passing score on the US Air Force Fitness Test? 
Answer: 75 points

Question: What score must an airman get on the US Air Force Fitness test to be able to opt out of one of the mandatory twice a year retests? 
Answer: 90%
The ground-attack aircraft of the USAF are designed to attack targets on the ground and are often deployed as close air support for, and in proximity to, U.S. ground forces. The proximity to friendly forces require precision strikes from these aircraft that are not possible with bomber aircraft listed below. They are typically deployed as close air support to ground forces, their role is tactical rather than strategic, operating at the front of the battle rather than against targets deeper in the enemy's rear.

Question: What are the ground-attack aircraft in the USAF usually deployed in support for? 
Answer: U.S. ground forces

Question: What does the closeness to friendly troops require of these US Air Force aircraft?
Answer: precision strikes

Question: What part of a battle line are the precision strike aircraft of the USAF deployed?
Answer: front of the battle

Question: What type of aircraft is not appropriate to be used in close proximity of US ground troops? 
Answer: bomber aircraft
In the US Air Force, the distinction between bombers, fighters that are actually fighter-bombers, and attack aircraft has become blurred. Many attack aircraft, even ones that look like fighters, are optimized to drop bombs, with very little ability to engage in aerial combat. Many fighter aircraft, such as the F-16, are often used as 'bomb trucks', despite being designed for aerial combat. Perhaps the one meaningful distinction at present is the question of range: a bomber is generally a long-range aircraft capable of striking targets deep within enemy territory, whereas fighter bombers and attack aircraft are limited to 'theater' missions in and around the immediate area of battlefield combat. Even that distinction is muddied by the availability of aerial refueling, which greatly increases the potential radius of combat operations. The US, Russia, and the People's Republic of China operate strategic bombers.

Question: What are most attack aircraft in the US Air Force designed to do? 
Answer: drop bombs

Question: What type of USAF aircraft is designed for long range airstrike attacks? 
Answer: bomber

Question: What types of aircraft are typically limited to close proximity of battlefield conflict by the USAF? 
Answer: fighter bombers and attack aircraft

Question: What increases the radius of combat missions by the US Air Force?
Answer: aerial refueling

Question: What countries utilize strategic bomber aircraft in their missions? 
Answer: US, Russia, and the People's Republic of China
The service's B-2A aircraft entered service in the 1990s, its B-1B aircraft in the 1980s and its current B-52H aircraft in the early 1960s. The B-52 Stratofortress airframe design is over 60 years old and the B-52H aircraft currently in the active inventory were all built between 1960 and 1962. The B-52H is scheduled to remain in service for another 30 years, which would keep the airframe in service for nearly 90 years, an unprecedented length of service for any aircraft. The B-21 is projected to replace the B-52 and parts of the B-1B force by the mid-2020s.

Question: When did the B-2A aircraft enter into service of the US Air Force? 
Answer: 1990s

Question: When did the USAF introduce the B-1B aircraft? 
Answer: 1980s

Question: What aircraft in the USAF was introduced in the 1960s?
Answer: B-52H

Question: How long is the B-52H scheduled to remain in service of the USAF? 
Answer: 30 years

Question: What aircraft is scheduled to replace the B-52 in the USAF?
Answer: B-21
Cargo and transport aircraft are typically used to deliver troops, weapons and other military equipment by a variety of methods to any area of military operations around the world, usually outside of the commercial flight routes in uncontrolled airspace. The workhorses of the USAF Air Mobility Command are the C-130 Hercules, C-17 Globemaster III, and C-5 Galaxy. These aircraft are largely defined in terms of their range capability as strategic airlift (C-5), strategic/tactical (C-17), and tactical (C-130) airlift to reflect the needs of the land forces they most often support. The CV-22 is used by the Air Force for the U.S. Special Operations Command (USSOCOM). It conducts long-range, special operations missions, and is equipped with extra fuel tanks and terrain-following radar. Some aircraft serve specialized transportation roles such as executive/embassy support (C-12), Antarctic Support (LC-130H), and USSOCOM support (C-27J, C-145A, and C-146A). The WC-130H aircraft are former weather reconnaissance aircraft, now reverted to the transport mission.

Question: What type of aircraft is used to deliver troops and weapons to military operations? 
Answer: Cargo and transport

Question: What aircraft are considered the workhorses of the US Air Force?
Answer: C-130 Hercules, C-17 Globemaster III, and C-5 Galaxy

Question: The CV-22 aircraft is used by what section of the USAF?
Answer: U.S. Special Operations Command

Question: What aircraft offers Antarctic Support to the US Air Force?
Answer: LC-130H

Question: What did the USAF use the WC-130H aircraft for before they converted them for transport missions? 
Answer: weather reconnaissance aircraft
The purpose of electronic warfare is to deny the opponent an advantage in the EMS and ensure friendly, unimpeded access to the EM spectrum portion of the information environment. Electronic warfare aircraft are used to keep airspaces friendly, and send critical information to anyone who needs it. They are often called "The Eye in the Sky." The roles of the aircraft vary greatly among the different variants to include Electronic Warfare/Jamming (EC-130H), Psychological Operations/Communications (EC-130J), Airborne Early Warning and Control (E-3), Airborne Command Post (E-4B), ground targeting radar (E-8C), range control (E-9A), and communications relay (E-11A)

Question: What is the purpose of electronic warfare?
Answer: deny the opponent an advantage in the EMS

Question: What nickname is given to Electronic warfare aircraft?
Answer: The Eye in the Sky

Question: What does the USAF use Electronic warfare aircraft for?
Answer: to keep airspaces friendly, and send critical information to anyone who needs it

Question: What is the EC-130H used for by the US Air Force? 
Answer: Electronic Warfare/Jamming

Question: What does the USAF use the E-4B aircraft for?
Answer: Airborne Command Post
The fighter aircraft of the USAF are small, fast, and maneuverable military aircraft primarily used for air-to-air combat. Many of these fighters have secondary ground-attack capabilities, and some are dual-roled as fighter-bombers (e.g., the F-16 Fighting Falcon); the term "fighter" is also sometimes used colloquially for dedicated ground-attack aircraft. Other missions include interception of bombers and other fighters, reconnaissance, and patrol. The F-16 is currently used by the USAF Air Demonstration squadron, the Thunderbirds, while a small number of both man-rated and non-man-rated F-4 Phantom II are retained as QF-4 aircraft for use as Full Scale Aerial Targets (FSAT) or as part of the USAF Heritage Flight program. These extant QF-4 aircraft are being replaced in the FSAT role by early model F-16 aircraft converted to QF-16 configuration. The USAF has 2,025 fighters in service as of September 2012.

Question: What is the primary function of the USAF fighter aircraft?
Answer: air-to-air combat

Question: What is the name of a type of dual purpose fighter-bomber aircraft used by the US Air Force?
Answer: F-16 Fighting Falcon

Question: What aircraft is used by the US Air Demonstration group The Thunderbirds?
Answer: F-16

Question: What kind of aircraft is utilized by the USAF in Full Scale Aerial Targets?
Answer: F-4 Phantom II

Question: What are the QF-4 aircraft being replaced by the US Air Force? 
Answer: early model F-16 aircraft converted to QF-16 configuration
Many of the U.S. Air Force's formal and informal traditions are an amalgamation of those taken from the Royal Air Force (e.g., dining-ins/mess nights) or the experiences of its predecessor organizations such as the U.S. Army Air Service, U.S. Army Air Corps and the U.S. Army Air Forces. Some of these traditions range from "Friday Name Tags" in flying units to an annual "Mustache Month." The use of "challenge coins" is a recent innovation that was adopted from the U.S. Army while another cultural tradition unique to the Air Force is the "roof stomp", practiced by Air Force members to welcome a new commander or to commemorate another event, such as a retirement.

Question: Where did some of the US Air Force traditions come from? 
Answer: Royal Air Force

Question: What traditions does the US Air Force have? 
Answer: "Friday Name Tags" in flying units

Question: What organization did the US Air Force adopt "Challenge Coins" from?
Answer: U.S. Army

Question: What does the roof stomp tradition signify in the US Air Force?
Answer: welcome a new commander or to commemorate another event, such as a retirement
The United States Air Force has had numerous recruiting slogans including "No One Comes Close" and Uno Ab Alto ("One From On High"). For many years, the U.S. Air Force used "Aim High" as its recruiting slogan; more recently, they have used "Cross into the Blue", "We've been waiting for you" and "Do Something Amazing", "Above All", and the newest one, as of 7 October 2010, considered a call and response, "Aim high" followed with the response, "Fly-Fight-Win" Each wing, group, or squadron usually has its own slogan(s). Information and logos can usually be found on the wing, group, or squadron websites.

Question: What was a recent US Air Force recruiting slogan? 
Answer: "No One Comes Close"

Question: What does the USAF slogan Uno Ab Alto mean? 
Answer: "One From On High"

Question: What is the most recent US Air Force recruitment slogan in October 2010?
Answer: "Aim high" followed with the response, "Fly-Fight-Win"

Question: Where can individual each USAF wing, group or squadrons individual motto be found?
Answer: wing, group, or squadron websites
In September 1961, while working at Texas Instruments in Dallas, Texas, James R. Biard and Gary Pittman discovered near-infrared (900 nm) light emission from a tunnel diode they had constructed on a GaAs substrate. By October 1961, they had demonstrated efficient light emission and signal coupling between a GaAs p-n junction light emitter and an electrically-isolated semiconductor photodetector. On August 8, 1962, Biard and Pittman filed a patent titled "Semiconductor Radiant Diode" based on their findings, which described a zinc diffused p–n junction LED with a spaced cathode contact to allow for efficient emission of infrared light under forward bias. After establishing the priority of their work based on engineering notebooks predating submissions from G.E. Labs, RCA Research Labs, IBM Research Labs, Bell Labs, and Lincoln Lab at MIT, the U.S. patent office issued the two inventors the patent for the GaAs infrared (IR) light-emitting diode (U.S. Patent US3293513), the first practical LED. Immediately after filing the patent, Texas Instruments (TI) began a project to manufacture infrared diodes. In October 1962, TI announced the first LED commercial product (the SNX-100), which employed a pure GaAs crystal to emit a 890 nm light output. In October 1963, TI announced the first commercial hemispherical LED, the SNX-110.

Question: In what state what near-infrared light emission discovered? 
Answer: Texas

Question: What type of diode was used to help discover near-infrared light emission?
Answer: tunnel

Question: In what year was the patent filed for the Semiconductor Radiant Diode?
Answer: 1962

Question: What was the first practical LED?
Answer: GaAs infrared (IR) light-emitting diode

Question: The two inventors of the first practical diode were employed by what famous company?
Answer: Texas Instruments (TI)
In September 2003, a new type of blue LED was demonstrated by Cree that consumes 24 mW at 20 milliamperes (mA). This produced a commercially packaged white light giving 65 lm/W at 20 mA, becoming the brightest white LED commercially available at the time, and more than four times as efficient as standard incandescents. In 2006, they demonstrated a prototype with a record white LED luminous efficacy of 131 lm/W at 20 mA. Nichia Corporation has developed a white LED with luminous efficacy of 150 lm/W at a forward current of 20 mA. Cree's XLamp XM-L LEDs, commercially available in 2011, produce 100 lm/W at their full power of 10 W, and up to 160 lm/W at around 2 W input power. In 2012, Cree announced a white LED giving 254 lm/W, and 303 lm/W in March 2014. Practical general lighting needs high-power LEDs, of one watt or more. Typical operating currents for such devices begin at 350 mA.

Question: In what year was a new type of blue LED produced?
Answer: 2003

Question: Who demonstrated in 2003 the new type of blue LED?
Answer: Cree

Question: How much more efficient as standard incandescents was the white LED commercially available in 2003?
Answer: four times

Question: What is the typical operating current for high-power LEDs?
Answer: 350 mA
LEDs have been developed by Seoul Semiconductor that can operate on AC power without the need for a DC converter. For each half-cycle, part of the LED emits light and part is dark, and this is reversed during the next half-cycle. The efficacy of this type of HP-LED is typically 40 lm/W. A large number of LED elements in series may be able to operate directly from line voltage. In 2009, Seoul Semiconductor released a high DC voltage LED, named as 'Acrich MJT', capable of being driven from AC power with a simple controlling circuit. The low-power dissipation of these LEDs affords them more flexibility than the original AC LED design.

Question: What company has developed LEDs that can operate on AC power?
Answer: Seoul Semiconductor

Question: What is the efficacy of an AC powered HP-LED?
Answer: 40 lm/W

Question: When did Seoul Semiconductor release the first high DC voltage LED?
Answer: 2009

Question: What is so good about ac powered HP-LEDs?
Answer: more flexibility

Question: What did Seoul Semiconductor name their ac powered HP-LED?
Answer: Acrich MJT
The vast majority of devices containing LEDs are "safe under all conditions of normal use", and so are classified as "Class 1 LED product"/"LED Klasse 1". At present, only a few LEDs—extremely bright LEDs that also have a tightly focused viewing angle of 8° or less—could, in theory, cause temporary blindness, and so are classified as "Class 2". The opinion of the French Agency for Food, Environmental and Occupational Health & Safety (ANSES) of 2010, on the health issues concerning LEDs, suggested banning public use of lamps which were in the moderate Risk Group 2, especially those with a high blue component in places frequented by children. In general, laser safety regulations—and the "Class 1", "Class 2", etc. system—also apply to LEDs.

Question: How are most LEDs classified?
Answer: Class 1 LED product

Question: What does being a Class 1 LED product mean?
Answer: safe under all conditions of normal use

Question: What type of LED can possibly cause blindness?
Answer: extremely bright LEDs

Question: Which government advocated the banning of Class 2 LEDs?
Answer: French

Question: What class are extremely bright LEDs listed as?
Answer: Class 2
Li Zicheng then led a coalition of rebel forces numbering 200,000[a] to confront Wu Sangui, the general commanding the Ming garrison at Shanhai Pass. Shanhai Pass is a pivotal pass of the Great Wall, located fifty miles northeast of Beijing, and for years its defenses kept the Manchus from directly raiding the Ming capital. Wu Sangui, caught between a rebel army twice his size and a foreign enemy he had fought for years, decided to cast his lot with the Manchus, with whom he was familiar. Wu Sangui may have been influenced by Li Zicheng's mistreatment of his family and other wealthy and cultured officials; it was said that Li also took Wu's concubine Chen Yuanyuan for himself. Wu and Dorgon allied in the name of avenging the death of the Chongzhen Emperor. Together, the two former enemies met and defeated Li Zicheng's rebel forces in battle on May 27, 1644.

Question: How big was Li Zicheng's army?
Answer: 200,000

Question: Who did Li Zicheng's army fight?
Answer: Wu Sangui

Question: What was the name of the general at the Ming fort?
Answer: Wu Sangui

Question: Who beat Li Zicheng's army?
Answer: Wu and Dorgon

Question: When did the battle take place?
Answer: May 27, 1644
Application of the term "Indian" originated with Christopher Columbus, who, in his search for Asia, thought that he had arrived in the East Indies. The Americas came to be known as the "West Indies", a name still used to refer to the islands of the Caribbean Sea. This led to the names "Indies" and "Indian", which implied some kind of racial or cultural unity among the aboriginal peoples of the Americas. This unifying concept, codified in law, religion, and politics, was not originally accepted by indigenous peoples but has been embraced by many over the last two centuries.[citation needed] Even though the term "Indian" does not include the Aleuts, Inuit, or Yupik peoples, these groups are considered indigenous peoples of the Americas.

Question: What incorrect term for the indigenous population originated with Christopher Columbus? 
Answer: Indian

Question: Where did Columbus believe he had arrived?
Answer: East Indies

Question: Because of Columbus' mistake, the Americas came to be known as what?
Answer: West Indies

Question: What is implied by the global term of "Indian"?
Answer: some kind of racial or cultural unity

Question: Despite fitting under the umbrella label of "Indian", Aleuts, Inuit and Yupik peoples are still considered to be what to the Americas?
Answer: indigenous
The music of the indigenous peoples of Central Mexico and Central America was often pentatonic. Before the arrival of the Spaniards and other Europeans, music was inseparable from religious festivities and included a large variety of percussion and wind instruments such as drums, flutes, sea snail shells (used as a trumpet) and "rain" tubes. No remnants of pre-Columbian stringed instruments were found until archaeologists discovered a jar in Guatemala, attributed to the Maya of the Late Classic Era (600–900 CE), which depicts a stringed musical instrument which has since been reproduced. This instrument is one of the very few stringed instruments known in the Americas prior to the introduction of European musical instruments; when played it produces a sound virtually identical to a jaguar's growl.

Question: What feature did the music of Central America have?
Answer: pentatonic

Question: What role did music play in the religious festivities? 
Answer: inseparable from

Question: What instruments were used to make music by the Central Americans?
Answer: large variety of percussion and wind

Question: Where did archaeologists find a depiction of a Mayan stringed instrument?
Answer: a jar in Guatemala

Question: What did the Mayan's stringed instrument sound like when played?
Answer: a jaguar's growl
Visual arts by indigenous peoples of the Americas comprise a major category in the world art collection. Contributions include pottery, paintings, jewellery, weavings, sculptures, basketry, carvings, and beadwork. Because too many artists were posing as Native Americans and Alaska Natives in order to profit from the caché of Indigenous art in the United States, the U.S. passed the Indian Arts and Crafts Act of 1990, requiring artists to prove that they are enrolled in a state or federally recognized tribe. To support the ongoing practice of American Indian, Alaska Native and Native Hawaiian arts and cultures in the United States, the Ford Foundation, arts advocates and American Indian tribes created an endowment seed fund and established a national Native Arts and Cultures Foundation in 2007.

Question: What comprises a major category in the world art collection?
Answer: Visual arts by indigenous peoples

Question: Pottery, weavings and carvings are just some of the contributions to art by which peoples? 
Answer: indigenous

Question: Why did the U.S. pass the Indian Arts and Crafts Act of 1990?
Answer: too many artists were posing as Native Americans

Question: What does the Indian Arts and Crafts Act of 1990 require artists to prove they're enrolled in?
Answer: a state or federally recognized tribe

Question: When was a national Native Arts and Cultures Foundation established?
Answer: 2007
In 2005, Argentina's indigenous population (known as pueblos originarios) numbered about 600,329 (1.6% of total population); this figure includes 457,363 people who self-identified as belonging to an indigenous ethnic group and 142,966 who identified themselves as first-generation descendants of an indigenous people. The ten most populous indigenous peoples are the Mapuche (113,680 people), the Kolla (70,505), the Toba (69,452), the Guaraní (68,454), the Wichi (40,036), the Diaguita-Calchaquí (31,753), the Mocoví (15,837), the Huarpe (14,633), the Comechingón (10,863) and the Tehuelche (10,590). Minor but important peoples are the Quechua (6,739), the Charrúa (4,511), the Pilagá (4,465), the Chané (4,376), and the Chorote (2,613). The Selknam (Ona) people are now virtually extinct in its pure form. The languages of the Diaguita, Tehuelche, and Selknam nations have become extinct or virtually extinct: the Cacán language (spoken by Diaguitas) in the 18th century and the Selknam language in the 20th century; one Tehuelche language (Southern Tehuelche) is still spoken by a handful of elderly people.

Question: What was the number of indigenous people in Argentina as of 2005?
Answer: about 600,329

Question: How many Mapuche were there in Argentina in 2005?
Answer: 113,680

Question: Who are the Quechua and Chorote?
Answer: Minor but important peoples

Question: What indigenous population is now virtually extinct?
Answer: The Selknam

Question: Who still speaks Southern Tehuelche? 
Answer: a handful of elderly people
According to the 2002 Census, 4.6% of the Chilean population, including the Rapanui (a Polynesian people) of Easter Island, was indigenous, although most show varying degrees of mixed heritage. Many are descendants of the Mapuche, and live in Santiago, Araucanía and the lake district. The Mapuche successfully fought off defeat in the first 300–350 years of Spanish rule during the Arauco War. Relations with the new Chilean Republic were good until the Chilean state decided to occupy their lands. During the Occupation of Araucanía the Mapuche surrendered to the country's army in the 1880s. Their land was opened to settlement by Chileans and Europeans. Conflict over Mapuche land rights continues to the present.

Question: What is the name for the Polynesian people living on Easter Island?
Answer: the Rapanui

Question: What percent of the Chilean population were indigenous according to the 2002 census?
Answer: 4.6%

Question: Who are many of the people of Chile the descendants of?
Answer: the Mapuche

Question: How long were the Mapuche able to fight off the Spaniards?
Answer: 350 years

Question: When did the Mapuche surrender to the Chilean army?
Answer: 1880s
Approximately 96.4% of Ecuador's Indigenous population are Highland Quichuas living in the valleys of the Sierra region. Primarily consisting of the descendents of Incans, they are Kichwa speakers and include the Caranqui, the Otavalos, the Cayambi, the Quitu-Caras, the Panzaleo, the Chimbuelo, the Salasacan, the Tugua, the Puruhá, the Cañari, and the Saraguro. Linguistic evidence suggests that the Salascan and the Saraguro may have been the descendants of Bolivian ethnic groups transplanted to Ecuador as mitimaes.

Question: What percentage of Ecuador's indigenous population are Highland Quichuas?
Answer: 96.4%

Question: Who are the Highland Quichuas primarily descended from?
Answer: Inca

Question: Where do the Highland Quichuas live?
Answer: valleys of the Sierra region

Question: The Saraguro and Panzaleo are two of the member groups of what population?
Answer: Highland Quichuas

Question: What language do the Highland Quichuas speak?
Answer: Kichwa
About five percent of the population are of full-blooded indigenous descent, but upwards to eighty percent more or the majority of Hondurans are mestizo or part-indigenous with European admixture, and about ten percent are of indigenous or African descent. The main concentration of indigenous in Honduras are in the rural westernmost areas facing Guatemala and to the Caribbean Sea coastline, as well on the Nicaraguan border. The majority of indigenous people are Lencas, Miskitos to the east, Mayans, Pech, Sumos, and Tolupan.

Question: How much of the population of Honduras is of full-blooded indigenous descent?
Answer: About five percent

Question: What percentage of Hondurans have African blood mixed in with the rest of their ancestry?
Answer: about ten percent

Question: Where are the main concentrations of indigenous people in Honduras? 
Answer: rural westernmost areas

Question: The Lencas, Miskitos, Mayans Pech, Sumos and Tolupan comprise the majority of what in Honduras?
Answer: indigenous people
The "General Law of Linguistic Rights of the Indigenous Peoples" grants all indigenous languages spoken in Mexico, regardless of the number of speakers, the same validity as Spanish in all territories in which they are spoken, and indigenous peoples are entitled to request some public services and documents in their native languages. Along with Spanish, the law has granted them — more than 60 languages — the status of "national languages". The law includes all indigenous languages of the Americas regardless of origin; that is, it includes the indigenous languages of ethnic groups non-native to the territory. As such the National Commission for the Development of Indigenous Peoples recognizes the language of the Kickapoo, who immigrated from the United States, and recognizes the languages of the Guatemalan indigenous refugees. The Mexican government has promoted and established bilingual primary and secondary education in some indigenous rural communities. Nonetheless, of the indigenous peoples in Mexico, only about 67% of them (or 5.4% of the country's population) speak an indigenous language and about a sixth do not speak Spanish (1.2% of the country's population).

Question: What grants all indigenous languages spoken in Mexico validity? 
Answer: General Law of Linguistic Rights of the Indigenous Peoples

Question: What are indigenous peoples entitled to request?
Answer: some public services and documents in their native languages

Question: What has the Mexican government promoted in some indigenous rural communities?
Answer: bilingual primary and secondary education

Question: How many languages have been giving the status of "national languages"?
Answer: more than 60

Question: How many of the indigenous peoples in Mexico speak an indigenous language?
Answer: about 67% of them
In mid May 1967, the Soviet Union issued warnings to Nasser of an impending Israeli attack on Syria. Although the chief of staff Mohamed Fawzi verified them as "baseless", Nasser took three successive steps that made the war virtually inevitable: On 14 May he deployed his troops in Sinai near the border with Israel, on 19 May he expelled the UN peacekeepers stationed in the Sinai Peninsula border with Israel, and on 23 May he closed the Straits of Tiran to Israeli shipping. On 26 May Nasser declared, "The battle will be a general one and our basic objective will be to destroy Israel".

Question: Who found the claims of Israeli attack baseless?
Answer: Mohamed Fawzi

Question: How many steps did Nasser take in preparation for war?
Answer: three successive steps

Question: Who warned of impending Israeli attack on Syria in May 1967?
Answer: Soviet Union i

Question: On what day did Nasser state "The battle will be a general one and our basic objective will be to destroy Israel?"
Answer: 23 May
The House of Representatives, whose members are elected to serve five-year terms, specialises in legislation. Elections were last held between November 2011 and January 2012 which was later dissolved. The next parliamentary election will be held within 6 months of the constitution's ratification on 18 January 2014. Originally, the parliament was to be formed before the president was elected, but interim president Adly Mansour pushed the date. The Egyptian presidential election, 2014, took place on 26–28 May 2014. Official figures showed a turnout of 25,578,233 or 47.5%, with Abdel Fattah el-Sisi winning with 23.78 million votes, or 96.91% compared to 757,511 (3.09%) for Hamdeen Sabahi.

Question: What branch of government are the House of Representatives focused on?
Answer: legislation

Question: What percent of votes did el-Sisi get? 
Answer: 96.91%

Question: What tems do House of Representatives serve?
Answer: five-year terms

Question: Who came in second place in election for Egypt president to es-Sisi?
Answer: Hamdeen Sabahi
Egypt's most prominent multinational companies are the Orascom Group and Raya Contact Center. The information technology (IT) sector has expanded rapidly in the past few years, with many start-ups selling outsourcing services to North America and Europe, operating with companies such as Microsoft, Oracle and other major corporations, as well as many small and medium size enterprises. Some of these companies are the Xceed Contact Center, Raya, E Group Connections and C3. The IT sector has been stimulated by new Egyptian entrepreneurs with government encouragement.[citation needed]

Question: What are Egypt's 2 most prominent multinational compnaies?
Answer: Orascom Group and Raya Contact Center

Question: What sector has expanded radiply by selling outsourcing services to North America and Europe?
Answer: information technology (IT)

Question: What has stimulated IT sector?
Answer: new Egyptian entrepreneurs with government encouragement
The mosaics of the Villa Romana del Casale near Piazza Armerina in Sicily are the largest collection of late Roman mosaics in situ in the world, and are protected as a UNESCO World Heritage Site. The large villa rustica, which was probably owned by Emperor Maximian, was built largely in the early 4th century. The mosaics were covered and protected for 700 years by a landslide that occurred in the 12th Century. The most important pieces are the Circus Scene, the 64m long Great Hunting Scene, the Little Hunt, the Labours of Hercules and the famous Bikini Girls, showing women undertaking a range of sporting activities in garments that resemble 20th Century bikinis. The peristyle, the imperial apartments and the thermae were also decorated with ornamental and mythological mosaics. Other important examples of Roman mosaic art in Sicily were unearthed on the Piazza Vittoria in Palermo where two houses were discovered. The most important scenes there depicted Orpheus, Alexander the Great's Hunt and the Four Seasons.

Question: In what area of Italy is the largest collection of mosaics in the world?
Answer: Sicily

Question: Who most likely lived in the large villa rustica?
Answer: Emperor Maximian

Question: What caused the mosaics at the villa rustica to be protected for centuries? 
Answer: a landslide

Question: How long is the hunting scene at the villa rustica?
Answer: 64m

Question: Where in Sicily were the "Orpheus," and the "Four Seasons" discovered?
Answer: Piazza Vittoria in Palermo
In the 5th-century Ravenna, the capital of the Western Roman Empire, became the center of late Roman mosaic art. The Mausoleum of Galla Placidia was decorated with mosaics of high artistic quality in 425–430. The vaults of the small, cross-shaped structure are clad with mosaics on blue background. The central motif above the crossing is a golden cross in the middle of the starry sky. Another great building established by Galla Placidia was the church of San Giovanni Evangelista. She erected it in fulfillment of a vow that she made having escaped from a deadly storm in 425 on the sea voyage from Constantinople to Ravenna. The mosaics depicted the storm, portraits of members of the western and eastern imperial family and the bishop of Ravenna, Peter Chrysologus. They are known only from Renaissance sources because almost all were destroyed in 1747.

Question: In the 5th century what was the capital of the Western Roman Empire?
Answer: Ravenna

Question: What years was the Mausoleum of Galla Placidia decorated with mosaics?
Answer: 425–430

Question: What other famous landmark in Ravenna was established by Galla Placidia? 
Answer: the church of San Giovanni Evangelista

Question: Why did Galla Placidia erect the church of San Giovanni Evangelista?
Answer: fulfillment of a vow

Question: When were most of the mosaics at the church of San Giovanni Evangelista destroyed?
Answer: 1747