meithnav/squad huggingface dataset:
In 2007, it was discovered that the upper troposphere of Neptune's south pole was about 10 K warmer than the rest of its atmosphere, which averages approximately 73 K (−200 °C). The temperature differential is enough to let methane, which elsewhere is frozen in the troposphere, escape into the stratosphere near the pole. The relative "hot spot" is due to Neptune's axial tilt, which has exposed the south pole to the Sun for the last quarter of Neptune's year, or roughly 40 Earth years. As Neptune slowly moves towards the opposite side of the Sun, the south pole will be darkened and the north pole illuminated, causing the methane release to shift to the north pole.

Question: How much warmer is Neptune's south pole to the rest of it's atmosphere? 
Answer: 10 K

Question: Where does methane in the south pole escape to on Neptune? 
Answer: the stratosphere near the pole.

Question: What is the average temperature of Neptune's south pole? 
Answer: 73 K (−200 °C).

Question: How many earth years is Neptune's south pole exposed to the sun?
Answer: 40

Question: To which pole will Neptune's methane shift to as it moves to the opposite side of the sun?
Answer: north pole
The Scooter is another storm, a white cloud group farther south than the Great Dark Spot. This nickname first arose during the months leading up to the Voyager 2 encounter in 1989, when they were observed moving at speeds faster than the Great Dark Spot (and images acquired later would subsequently reveal the presence of clouds moving even faster than those that had initially been detected by Voyager 2). The Small Dark Spot is a southern cyclonic storm, the second-most-intense storm observed during the 1989 encounter. It was initially completely dark, but as Voyager 2 approached the planet, a bright core developed and can be seen in most of the highest-resolution images.

Question: What white cloud group on Neptune is farther south than the dark great spot?
Answer: The Scooter

Question: When was The Scooter on Neptune observed?
Answer: 1989

Question: What type of storm is The Scooter on Neptune? 
Answer: southern cyclonic storm

Question: What detected the storms on Neptune? 
Answer: Voyager 2)

Question: What is the second most intense storm on Neptune? 
Answer: The Small Dark Spot
Neptune's dark spots are thought to occur in the troposphere at lower altitudes than the brighter cloud features, so they appear as holes in the upper cloud decks. As they are stable features that can persist for several months, they are thought to be vortex structures. Often associated with dark spots are brighter, persistent methane clouds that form around the tropopause layer. The persistence of companion clouds shows that some former dark spots may continue to exist as cyclones even though they are no longer visible as a dark feature. Dark spots may dissipate when they migrate too close to the equator or possibly through some other unknown mechanism.

Question: Where are Neptune's dark spots thought to occur? 
Answer: in the troposphere

Question: What do Neptune's dark spots appear as in the cloud decks? 
Answer: holes

Question: Since Neptune's dark spots persist for several months, what are they thought to be?
Answer: vortex structures

Question: What on Neptune are associated with dark spots that are brighter?
Answer: methane clouds

Question: When Neptune's dark spots migrate too close to the equator, what do they do?
Answer: dissipate
Neptune's more varied weather when compared to Uranus is due in part to its higher internal heating. Although Neptune lies over 50% further from the Sun than Uranus, and receives only 40% its amount of sunlight, the two planets' surface temperatures are roughly equal. The upper regions of Neptune's troposphere reach a low temperature of 51.8 K (−221.3 °C). At a depth where the atmospheric pressure equals 1 bar (100 kPa), the temperature is 72.00 K (−201.15 °C). Deeper inside the layers of gas, the temperature rises steadily. As with Uranus, the source of this heating is unknown, but the discrepancy is larger: Uranus only radiates 1.1 times as much energy as it receives from the Sun; whereas Neptune radiates about 2.61 times as much energy as it receives from the Sun. Neptune is the farthest planet from the Sun, yet its internal energy is sufficient to drive the fastest planetary winds seen in the Solar System. Depending on the thermal properties of its interior, the heat left over from Neptune's formation may be sufficient to explain its current heat flow, though it is more difficult to simultaneously explain Uranus's lack of internal heat while preserving the apparent similarity between the two planets.

Question: Why might Neptune have more varied weather than Uranus?
Answer: higher internal heating

Question: How much farther is Neptune from the Sun than Uranus?
Answer: 50%

Question: How much percentage of the sun does Neptune get compared to Uranus?
Answer: 40%

Question: How much more energy does Neptune radiate than it receives? 
Answer: 2.61

Question: The current heat flow on Neptune might be explained by what?
Answer: heat left over from Neptune's formation
On 11 July 2011, Neptune completed its first full barycentric orbit since its discovery in 1846, although it did not appear at its exact discovery position in the sky, because Earth was in a different location in its 365.26-day orbit. Because of the motion of the Sun in relation to the barycentre of the Solar System, on 11 July Neptune was also not at its exact discovery position in relation to the Sun; if the more common heliocentric coordinate system is used, the discovery longitude was reached on 12 July 2011.

Question: When did Neptune complete it's first barycentric orbit since it's discovery?
Answer: 11 July 2011

Question: What is the Earth's orbit?
Answer: 365.26-day

Question: Why didn't Neptune appear to be in it's exact discover position? 
Answer: Earth was in a different location

Question: Using the heliocentric coordinate system, when did Neptune reach the discovery longitude? 
Answer: 12 July 2011
Neptune's orbit has a profound impact on the region directly beyond it, known as the Kuiper belt. The Kuiper belt is a ring of small icy worlds, similar to the asteroid belt but far larger, extending from Neptune's orbit at 30 AU out to about 55 AU from the Sun. Much in the same way that Jupiter's gravity dominates the asteroid belt, shaping its structure, so Neptune's gravity dominates the Kuiper belt. Over the age of the Solar System, certain regions of the Kuiper belt became destabilised by Neptune's gravity, creating gaps in the Kuiper belt's structure. The region between 40 and 42 AU is an example.

Question: What is the region behind Neptune called? 
Answer: Kuiper belt

Question: What does the Kuiper belt consist of?
Answer: small icy worlds

Question: Where is the Kuiper belt relative to Neptune?
Answer: 30 AU out to about 55 AU from the Sun

Question: What dominates the Kuiper belt? 
Answer: Neptune's gravity

Question: What did Neptune's gravity do to Kuiper belt? 
Answer: gaps in the Kuiper belt's structure
There do exist orbits within these empty regions where objects can survive for the age of the Solar System. These resonances occur when Neptune's orbital period is a precise fraction of that of the object, such as 1:2, or 3:4. If, say, an object orbits the Sun once for every two Neptune orbits, it will only complete half an orbit by the time Neptune returns to its original position. The most heavily populated resonance in the Kuiper belt, with over 200 known objects, is the 2:3 resonance. Objects in this resonance complete 2 orbits for every 3 of Neptune, and are known as plutinos because the largest of the known Kuiper belt objects, Pluto, is among them. Although Pluto crosses Neptune's orbit regularly, the 2:3 resonance ensures they can never collide. The 3:4, 3:5, 4:7 and 2:5 resonances are less populated.

Question: What is the fraction of the most heavily populated resonance in the Kuiper belt? 
Answer: 2:3 resonance

Question: What is the best known, and largest, object in the Kuiper belt?
Answer: Pluto

Question: How many known objects is in the most populated resonance of the Kuiper belt?
Answer: 200

Question: What is the resonance of Pluto in the Kuiper belt?
Answer: 2:3

Question: Which resonances are less populated in the Kuiper belt?
Answer: 3:4, 3:5, 4:7 and 2:5
Neptune has a number of known trojan objects occupying both the Sun–Neptune L4 and L5 Lagrangian points—gravitationally stable regions leading and trailing Neptune in its orbit, respectively. Neptune trojans can be viewed as being in a 1:1 resonance with Neptune. Some Neptune trojans are remarkably stable in their orbits, and are likely to have formed alongside Neptune rather than being captured. The first and so far only object identified as associated with Neptune's trailing L5 Lagrangian point is 2008 LC18. Neptune also has a temporary quasi-satellite, (309239) 2007 RW10. The object has been a quasi-satellite of Neptune for about 12,500 years and it will remain in that dynamical state for another 12,500 years.

Question: What is the resonance of Neptune trojans?
Answer: 1:1

Question: Where did most Neptune trojans form?
Answer: alongside Neptune

Question: What is the only object identified with Neptune's trailing L5 Lagrangian point?
Answer: 2008 LC18

Question: What is Neptune's temporary quasi-satellite named?
Answer: (309239) 2007 RW10

Question: How long has Neptune's quasi-satellite been with Neptune? 
Answer: 12,500 years
The formation of the ice giants, Neptune and Uranus, has proven difficult to model precisely. Current models suggest that the matter density in the outer regions of the Solar System was too low to account for the formation of such large bodies from the traditionally accepted method of core accretion, and various hypotheses have been advanced to explain their formation. One is that the ice giants were not formed by core accretion but from instabilities within the original protoplanetary disc and later had their atmospheres blasted away by radiation from a nearby massive OB star.

Question: What could have blasted Neptune and Uranus's atmosphere with radiation, aiding in creation? 
Answer: nearby massive OB star

Question: What is too low to account for the formation of Neptune?
Answer: matter density

Question: If Neptune was formed from instabilities within the original protoplanetary disc, what was it not formed by?
Answer: core accretion
Neptune has 14 known moons. Triton is the largest Neptunian moon, comprising more than 99.5% of the mass in orbit around Neptune,[e] and it is the only one massive enough to be spheroidal. Triton was discovered by William Lassell just 17 days after the discovery of Neptune itself. Unlike all other large planetary moons in the Solar System, Triton has a retrograde orbit, indicating that it was captured rather than forming in place; it was probably once a dwarf planet in the Kuiper belt. It is close enough to Neptune to be locked into a synchronous rotation, and it is slowly spiralling inward because of tidal acceleration. It will eventually be torn apart, in about 3.6 billion years, when it reaches the Roche limit. In 1989, Triton was the coldest object that had yet been measured in the Solar System, with estimated temperatures of 38 K (−235 °C).

Question: How many moons does Neptune have?
Answer: 14

Question: What is Neptune's largest moon?
Answer: Triton

Question: Who discovered Triton? 
Answer: William Lassell

Question: What orbit does Triton have around Neptune? 
Answer: retrograde orbit

Question: What does Triton's orbit suggest about it's relation to Neptune?
Answer: that it was captured
From July to September 1989, Voyager 2 discovered six moons of Neptune. Of these, the irregularly shaped Proteus is notable for being as large as a body of its density can be without being pulled into a spherical shape by its own gravity. Although the second-most-massive Neptunian moon, it is only 0.25% the mass of Triton. Neptune's innermost four moons—Naiad, Thalassa, Despina and Galatea—orbit close enough to be within Neptune's rings. The next-farthest out, Larissa, was originally discovered in 1981 when it had occulted a star. This occultation had been attributed to ring arcs, but when Voyager 2 observed Neptune in 1989, Larissa was found to have caused it. Five new irregular moons discovered between 2002 and 2003 were announced in 2004. A new moon and the smallest yet, S/2004 N 1, was found in 2013. Because Neptune was the Roman god of the sea, Neptune's moons have been named after lesser sea gods.

Question: What discovered six moons of Neptune in 1989?
Answer: Voyager 2

Question: What is the second most massive Neptunian moon? 
Answer: Proteus

Question: What is notable about the moon Proteus?
Answer: irregularly shaped

Question: Which are Neptune's four innermost moons?
Answer: Naiad, Thalassa, Despina and Galatea

Question: When was Neptune's moon Larissa discovered? 
Answer: 1981
The key advantage of the four-rail system is that neither running rail carries any current. This scheme was introduced because of the problems of return currents, intended to be carried by the earthed (grounded) running rail, flowing through the iron tunnel linings instead. This can cause electrolytic damage and even arcing if the tunnel segments are not electrically bonded together. The problem was exacerbated because the return current also had a tendency to flow through nearby iron pipes forming the water and gas mains. Some of these, particularly Victorian mains that predated London's underground railways, were not constructed to carry currents and had no adequate electrical bonding between pipe segments. The four-rail system solves the problem. Although the supply has an artificially created earth point, this connection is derived by using resistors which ensures that stray earth currents are kept to manageable levels. Power-only rails can be mounted on strongly insulating ceramic chairs to minimise current leak, but this is not possible for running rails which have to be seated on stronger metal chairs to carry the weight of trains. However, elastomeric rubber pads placed between the rails and chairs can now solve part of the problem by insulating the running rails from the current return should there be a leakage through the running rails.

Question: What danger can return currents cause?
Answer: electrolytic damage

Question: How are stray earth currents kept to a manageable levels? 
Answer: by using resistors

Question: What insures minimal current leak during power rails instalation?
Answer: ceramic chairs

Question: How did return current effect water and gas in iron pipes?
Answer: water and gas mains

Question: What is the crucial advantage of four-rail system?
Answer: running rail carries any current
On tracks that London Underground share with National Rail third-rail stock (the Bakerloo and District lines both have such sections), the centre rail is connected to the running rails, allowing both types of train to operate, at a compromise voltage of 660 V. Underground trains pass from one section to the other at speed; lineside electrical connections and resistances separate the two types of supply. These routes were originally solely electrified on the four-rail system by the LNWR before National Rail trains were rewired to their standard three-rail system to simplify rolling stock use.

Question: Why some sections of Bakerloo and District lines were rewired to three-rail system?
Answer: to simplify rolling stock use

Question: What is the voltage shared two types of trains UK railroad system?
Answer: 660 V

Question: How did it become possible to share the voltage for different types of train?
Answer: the centre rail is connected to the running rails
Newly electrified lines often show a "sparks effect", whereby electrification in passenger rail systems leads to significant jumps in patronage / revenue. The reasons may include electric trains being seen as more modern and attractive to ride, faster and smoother service, and the fact that electrification often goes hand in hand with a general infrastructure and rolling stock overhaul / replacement, which leads to better service quality (in a way that theoretically could also be achieved by doing similar upgrades yet without electrification). Whatever the causes of the sparks effect, it is well established for numerous routes that have electrified over decades.

Question: What can be seen in the newly electrified lines?
Answer: "sparks effect"

Question: What can electrification of modern trains effect? 
Answer: patronage / revenue

Question: How can better service quality be achieved?
Answer: rolling stock overhaul / replacement
As civil wars engulfed several Central American countries in the 1980s, hundreds of thousands of Salvadorans fled their country and came to the United States. Between 1980 and 1990, the Salvadoran immigrant population in the United States increased nearly fivefold from 94,000 to 465,000. The number of Salvadoran immigrants in the United States continued to grow in the 1990s and 2000s as a result of family reunification and new arrivals fleeing a series of natural disasters that hit El Salvador, including earthquakes and hurricanes. By 2008, there were about 1.1 million Salvadoran immigrants in the United States.

Question: Why did Central Americans flee to the U.S.?
Answer: civil wars engulfed several Central American countries in the 1980s

Question: When did Salvadorans flee 
Answer: Salvadorans fled their country and came to the United States. Between 1980 and 1990

Question: Are the Salvadorans a large population in the U.S.?
Answer: the Salvadoran immigrant population in the United States increased nearly fivefold from 94,000 to 465,000.

Question: Is the  Salvadoran population still growing?
Answer: the United States continued to grow in the 1990s and 2000s as a result of family reunification and new arrivals fleeing a series of natural disasters

Question: How many  Salvadorans  are in America now?
Answer: By 2008, there were about 1.1 million Salvadoran immigrants in the United States.
Until the 20th century, there was no clear record of the number of Venezuelans who emigrated to the United States. Between the 18th and early 19th centuries, there were many European immigrants who went to Venezuela, only to later migrate to the United States along with their children and grandchildren who born and/or grew up in Venezuela speaking Spanish. From 1910 to 1930, it is estimated that over 4,000 South Americans each year emigrated to the United States; however, there are few specific figures indicating these statistics. Many Venezuelans settled in the United States with hopes of receiving a better education, only to remain in there following graduation. They are frequently joined by relatives. However, since the early 1980s, the reasons for Venezuelan emigration have changed to include hopes of earning a higher salary and due to the economic fluctuations in Venezuela which also promoted an important migration of Venezuelan professionals to the US.

Question: When did the Venezuelans emigrate to the united states?
Answer: Until the 20th century, there was no clear record of the number of Venezuelans who emigrated to the United States.

Question: Does Venezuela have immigrates from other countries?
Answer: Between the 18th and early 19th centuries, there were many European immigrants who went to Venezuela

Question: Why did Venezuelans come to America?
Answer: Many Venezuelans settled in the United States with hopes of receiving a better education, only to remain in there following graduation.

Question:  Do Venezuelans still come to America for the same reasons as they did before?
Answer: since the early 1980s, the reasons for Venezuelan emigration have changed to include hopes of earning a higher salary
New Mexico is commonly thought to have Spanish as an official language alongside English because of its wide usage and legal promotion of Spanish in the state; however, the state has no official language. New Mexico's laws are promulgated bilingually in Spanish and English. Although English is the state government's paper working language, government business is often conducted in Spanish, particularly at the local level. Spanish has been spoken in the New Mexico-Colorado border and the contemporary U.S.–Mexico border since the 16th century.[citation needed]

Question: Does New Mexico have an official language?
Answer: the state has no official language.

Question: What language is New Mexico's language written in?
Answer: New Mexico's laws are promulgated bilingually in Spanish and English.

Question: How long has New Mexico been speaking Spanish?
Answer: Spanish has been spoken in the New Mexico-Colorado border and the contemporary U.S.–Mexico border since the 16th century

Question: Is New Mexico known for the Spanish language?
Answer: New Mexico is commonly thought to have Spanish as an official language alongside English because of its wide usage and legal promotion of Spanish in the state
Because of its relative isolation from other Spanish-speaking areas over most of its 400-year existence, New Mexico Spanish, and in particular the Spanish of northern New Mexico and Colorado has retained many elements of 16th- and 17th-century Spanish and has developed its own vocabulary. In addition, it contains many words from Nahuatl, the language spoken by the ancient Aztecs of Mexico. New Mexican Spanish also contains loan words from the Pueblo languages of the upper Rio Grande Valley, Mexican-Spanish words (mexicanismos), and borrowings from English. Grammatical changes include the loss of the second person verb form, changes in verb endings, particularly in the preterite, and partial merging of the second and third conjugations.

Question: Why is New Mexico always an after thought in American -Spanish speaking society?
Answer: Because of its relative isolation from other Spanish-speaking areas over most of its 400-year existence

Question: Is New Mexico's language different than from other Spanish dialect 
Answer: , New Mexico Spanish, and in particular the Spanish of northern New Mexico and Colorado has retained many elements of 16th- and 17th-century Spanish

Question: How does New Mexico's Spanish dialect differ?
Answer: has developed its own vocabulary. In addition, it contains many words from Nahuatl, the language spoken by the ancient Aztecs of Mexico.

Question: Does New Mexico's language also include other dialect?
Answer: New Mexican Spanish also contains loan words from the Pueblo languages of the upper Rio Grande Valley, Mexican-Spanish words (mexicanismos)

Question: Does New Mexico also use language from the  American language when spoken in Spanish?
Answer: borrowings from English. Grammatical changes include the loss of the second person verb form, changes in verb endings
According to the United States Census Bureau, the city has a total area of 127.5 square miles (330.2 km2), of which 109.0 square miles (282.2 km2) is land and 18.5 square miles (47.9 km2) is covered by water. The old city is located on a peninsula at the point where, as Charlestonians say, "The Ashley and the Cooper Rivers come together to form the Atlantic Ocean." The entire peninsula is very low, some is landfill material, and as such, frequently floods during heavy rains, storm surges, and unusually high tides. The city limits have expanded across the Ashley River from the peninsula, encompassing the majority of West Ashley as well as James Island and some of Johns Island. The city limits also have expanded across the Cooper River, encompassing Daniel Island and the Cainhoy area. North Charleston blocks any expansion up the peninsula, and Mount Pleasant occupies the land directly east of the Cooper River.

Question: How large is Charleston, South Carolina?
Answer: 127.5 square miles (330.2 km2)

Question: Which city blocks Charleston for expanding up the peninsula? 
Answer: North Charleston

Question: How much of Charleston is covered by water?
Answer: 18.5 square miles (47.9 km2)

Question: How of Charleston's total area is dry land?
Answer: 109.0 square miles (282.2 km2)

Question: What town occupies the land directly east of the Cooper River?
Answer: Mount Pleasant
The traditional parish system persisted until the Reconstruction Era, when counties were imposed.[citation needed] Nevertheless, traditional parishes still exist in various capacities, mainly as public service districts. When the city of Charleston was formed, it was defined by the limits of the Parish of St. Philip and St. Michael, now also includes parts of St. James' Parish, St. George's Parish, St. Andrew's Parish, and St. John's Parish, although the last two are mostly still incorporated rural parishes.

Question: What era brought counties to South Carolina?
Answer: Reconstruction Era

Question: Counties replaced what system in South Carolina?
Answer: traditional parish system

Question: What is the main use of the parish system nowadays?
Answer: public service districts

Question: The city of Charleston is defined by the limits of the Parish of St. Michael and what other parish?
Answer: Parish of St. Philip

Question: What other parish besides St. John's Parish is  mostly an incorporated rural parish? 
Answer: St. Andrew's Parish
Charles Town was a hub of the deerskin trade, the basis of its early economy. Trade alliances with the Cherokee and Creek nations insured a steady supply of deer hides. Between 1699 and 1715, colonists exported an average of 54,000 deer skins annually to Europe through Charles Town. Between 1739 and 1761, the height of the deerskin trade era, an estimated 500,000 to 1,250,000 deer were slaughtered. During the same period, Charles Town records show an export of 5,239,350 pounds of deer skins. Deer skins were used in the production of men's fashionable and practical buckskin pantaloons, gloves, and book bindings.

Question: What other Native American nation supplied Charles Town with deer hides other than the Cherokee nation?
Answer: Creek nations

Question: What is the  estimation of deer slaughtered in Charles Town from 1739 to 1761?
Answer: 500,000 to 1,250,000

Question: Records indicate how many pounds of deer skins were exported from Charles Town during the height of its deerskin trade?
Answer: 5,239,350

Question: What trade was the basis of Charles Town's original economy?
Answer: the deerskin trade

Question: What was the average amount of deer skins  that Charles Town exported to Europe between 1699 to 1715? 
Answer: 54,000
Clinton returned in 1780 with 14,000 soldiers. American General Benjamin Lincoln was trapped and surrendered his entire 5,400-man force after a long fight, and the Siege of Charles Towne was the greatest American defeat of the war. Several Americans who escaped the carnage joined other militias, including those of Francis Marion, the "Swamp Fox"; and Andrew Pickens. The British retained control of the city until December 1782. After the British left, the city's name was officially changed to Charleston in 1783.

Question: What was the greatest American defeat of the American Revolution?
Answer: Siege of Charles Towne

Question: How many soldiers did General Clinton return with?
Answer: 14,000

Question: In what year did General Clinton return to Charles Towne?
Answer: 1780

Question: Who was the leader of the American forces defending Charles Towne?
Answer: General Benjamin Lincoln

Question: How many soldiers did General Lincoln lead?
Answer: 5,400
Although the city lost the status of state capital to Columbia in 1786, Charleston became even more prosperous in the plantation-dominated economy of the post-Revolutionary years. The invention of the cotton gin in 1793 revolutionized the processing of this crop, making short-staple cotton profitable. It was more easily grown in the upland areas, and cotton quickly became South Carolina's major export commodity. The Piedmont region was developed into cotton plantations, to which the sea islands and Lowcountry were already devoted. Slaves were also the primary labor force within the city, working as domestics, artisans, market workers, and laborers.

Question: What city became the state capital of South Carolina?
Answer: Columbia

Question: Charleston was the state capital of South Carolina until what year?
Answer: 1786

Question: In what year was the cotton gin invented?
Answer: 1793

Question: What became South Carolina's major export commodity after 1793?
Answer: cotton

Question: Who made up most of the primary labor force of cotton plantations? 
Answer: Slaves
By 1820, Charleston's population had grown to 23,000, maintaining its black (and mostly slave) majority. When a massive slave revolt planned by Denmark Vesey, a free black, was revealed in May 1822, whites reacted with intense fear, as they were well aware of the violent retribution of slaves against whites during the Haitian Revolution. Soon after, Vesey was tried and executed, hanged in early July with five slaves. Another 28 slaves were later hanged. Later, the state legislature passed laws requiring individual legislative approval for manumission (the freeing of a slave) and regulating activities of free blacks and slaves.

Question: What was planned by Denmark Vesey?
Answer: slave revolt

Question: When was Vesey's plan for a slave revolt revealed?
Answer: May 1822

Question: How was Vesey executed in 1822?
Answer: hanged

Question: How many slaves were executed with Vesey? 
Answer: five slaves

Question: What revolution made whites fearful of retribution of slaves?
Answer: Haitian Revolution
Charleston annually hosts Spoleto Festival USA founded by Gian Carlo Menotti, a 17-day art festival featuring over 100 performances by individual artists in a variety of disciplines. The Spoleto Festival is internationally recognized as America's premier performing arts festival. The annual Piccolo Spoleto festival takes place at the same time and features local performers and artists, with hundreds of performances throughout the city. Other festivals and events include Historic Charleston Foundation's Festival of Houses and Gardens and Charleston Antiques Show, the Taste of Charleston, The Lowcountry Oyster Festival, the Cooper River Bridge Run, The Charleston Marathon, Southeastern Wildlife Exposition (SEWE), Charleston Food and Wine Festival, Charleston Fashion Week, the MOJA Arts Festival, and the Holiday Festival of Lights (at James Island County Park), and the Charleston International Film Festival.

Question: How many days does the Spoleto Festival USA run each year?
Answer: 17

Question: What kind of festival is Spoleto Festival USA?
Answer: art festival

Question: The Holiday Festival of Lights are held where?
Answer: James Island County Park

Question: About how many performances are there in the Spoleto Festival USA?
Answer: over 100 performances

Question: Who founded the Spoleto Festival USA?
Answer: Gian Carlo Menotti
Red is the color at the end of the spectrum of visible light next to orange and opposite violet. Red color has a predominant light wavelength of roughly 620–740 nanometres. Red is one of the additive primary colors of visible light, along with green and blue, which in Red Green Blue (RGB) color systems are combined to create all the colors on a computer monitor or television screen. Red is also one of the subtractive primary colors, along with yellow and blue, of the RYB color space and traditional color wheel used by painters and artists.

Question: Red is opposite what color of the spectrum?
Answer: violet

Question: Which two colors besides red make up the RGB color system?
Answer: Green Blue

Question: Which color is red next to on the spectrum of visible light?
Answer: orange

Question: How many nanometres does red have?
Answer: roughly 620–740

Question: Which colors are combined to make all other colors? 
Answer: Red Green Blue

Question: What spectrum of light is red within?
Answer: visible light

Question: Which color is opposite of red on the visible spectrum?
Answer: violet

Question: On the spectrum of light, where is red found?
Answer: 620–740 nanometres

Question: What color is beside red in the visible spectrum of light?
Answer: orange

Question: Red Yellow and Blue are what kind of colors?
Answer: subtractive primary colors
In the United States, political commentators often refer to the "red states", which traditionally vote for Republican candidates in presidential elections, and "blue states", which vote for the Democratic candidate. This convention is relatively recent: before the 2000 presidential election, media outlets assigned red and blue to both parties, sometimes alternating the allocation for each election. Fixed usage was established during the 39-day recount following the 2000 election, when the media began to discuss the contest in terms of "red states" versus "blue states".

Question: How many days did the recount after the 2000 US election last for?
Answer: 39

Question: In the USA red states are known to do what, in terms of politics?
Answer: vote for Republican candidates in presidential elections

Question: In what year did the concept of red and blue states become relatively fixed?
Answer: 2000

Question: In the United States states that vote for Democratic presidential candidates are known as what?
Answer: blue states
Between 7 September 1940 and 21 May 1941, 16 British cities suffered aerial raids with at least 100 long tons of high explosives. Over a period of 267 days, London was attacked 71 times, Birmingham, Liverpool and Plymouth eight times, Bristol six, Glasgow five, Southampton four, Portsmouth and Hull three and a minimum of one large raid on eight other cities. This was a result of a rapid escalation starting on 24 August 1940, when night bombers aiming for RAF airfields drifted off course and accidentally destroyed several London homes, killing civilians, combined with the UK Prime Minister Winston Churchill's retaliatory bombing of Berlin on the following night.[clarification needed]

Question: What was the beginning date of the aerial raids on Great Britain?
Answer: 7 September 1940

Question: How many days did the aerial raids on Great Britain last?
Answer: 267 days

Question: How many times was London attacked?
Answer: 71 times

Question: Who was the UK Prime Minster at the time of the aerial raids?
Answer: Winston Churchill

Question: What city did Winston Churchill bomb in retaliation for the killing of civilians? 
Answer: Berlin
The bombing failed to demoralise the British into surrender or significantly damage the war economy. The eight months of bombing never seriously hampered British production and the war industries continued to operate and expand. The Blitz was only authorised when the Luftwaffe had failed to meet preconditions for a 1940 launch of Operation Sea Lion, the provisionally planned German invasion of Britain. By May 1941 the threat of an invasion of Britain had passed, and Hitler's attention had turned to Operation Barbarossa in the East. In comparison to the later Allied bombing campaign against Germany, the Blitz resulted in relatively few casualties; the British bombing of Hamburg in July 1943 inflicted some 42,000 civilian deaths, about the same as the entire Blitz.

Question: What was the name of the Luftwaffe plan to invade Britain?
Answer: Operation Sea Lion

Question: How many people died in the bombing of Hamburg?
Answer: 42,000

Question: What was the date of the bombing of Hamburg?
Answer: July 1943

Question: Who was the leader of the Luftwaffe? 
Answer: Hitler
Adolf Hitler failed to pay as much attention to bombing the enemy as he did to protection from enemy bombing, although he had promoted the development of a bomber force in the 1930s and understood that it was possible to use bombers for major strategic purposes. He told the OKL in 1939 that ruthless employment of the Luftwaffe against the heart of the British will to resist could and would follow when the moment was right; however, he quickly developed a lively scepticism toward strategic bombing, confirmed by the results of the Blitz. He frequently complained of the Luftwaffe's inability to damage industries sufficiently, saying, "The munitions industry cannot be interfered with effectively by air raids ... usually the prescribed targets are not hit".

Question: What year was the beginning of enemy bombing first promoted by Hitler?
Answer: 1930s

Question: Why did Hitler feel the Luftwaffe was unsuccessful in bombing raids?
Answer: prescribed targets are not hit

Question: Why did Hitler feel bombing wasn't working?
Answer: inability to damage industries

Question: In 1939 Hitler said bombing of Britain would begin when?
Answer: the moment was right

Question: Who had skepticism towards strategic bombing? 
Answer: Adolf Hitler
Ultimately, Hitler was trapped within his own vision of bombing as a terror weapon, formed in the 1930s when he threatened smaller nations into accepting German rule rather than submit to air bombardment. This fact had important implications. It showed the extent to which Hitler personally mistook Allied strategy for one of morale breaking instead of one of economic warfare, with the collapse of morale as an additional bonus. Hitler was much more attracted to the political aspects of bombing. As the mere threat of it had produced diplomatic results in the 1930s, he expected that the threat of German retaliation would persuade the Allies to adopt a policy of moderation and not to begin a policy of unrestricted bombing. His hope was — for reasons of political prestige within Germany itself — that the German population would be protected from the Allied bombings. When this proved impossible, he began to fear that popular feeling would turn against his regime, and he redoubled efforts to mount a similar "terror offensive" against Britain in order to produce a stalemate in which both sides would hesitate to use bombing at all.

Question: How did Hitler threaten small nations into accepting German rule?
Answer: air bombardment

Question: What policy did Hitler hope the bombing of Allies would cause? 
Answer: policy of moderation

Question: What kind of prestige was Hitler hoping for?
Answer: political

Question: Why did Hitler use terror bombing against Britain? 
Answer: to produce a stalemate
The deliberate separation of the Luftwaffe from the rest of the military structure encouraged the emergence of a major "communications gap" between Hitler and the Luftwaffe, which other factors helped to exacerbate. For one thing, Göring's fear of Hitler led him to falsify or misrepresent what information was available in the direction of an uncritical and over-optimistic interpretation of air strength. When Göring decided against continuing Wever's original heavy bomber programme in 1937, the Reichsmarschall's own explanation was that Hitler wanted to know only how many bombers there were, not how many engines each had. In July 1939, Göring arranged a display of the Luftwaffe's most advanced equipment at Rechlin, to give the impression the air force was more prepared for a strategic air war than was actually the case.

Question: What was the major cause of the separation between the Luftwaffe and the other military structure?
Answer: communications gap

Question: What did Goring do because of his fear of Hitler?
Answer: misrepresent what information

Question: What year did Goring display the Luftwaffe's advanced equipment?
Answer: 1939

Question: Who's bombing program did Goring abandon in 1939? 
Answer: Wever

Question: In what city did Goring display the advance equipment?
Answer: Rechlin
Although not specifically prepared to conduct independent strategic air operations against an opponent, the Luftwaffe was expected to do so over Britain. From July until September 1940 the Luftwaffe attacked RAF Fighter Command to gain air superiority as a prelude to invasion. This involved the bombing of English Channel convoys, ports, and RAF airfields and supporting industries. Destroying RAF Fighter Command would allow the Germans to gain control of the skies over the invasion area. It was supposed that Bomber Command, RAF Coastal Command and the Royal Navy could not operate under conditions of German air superiority.

Question: Which tactics were the Luftwaffe excepted to use against Britain? 
Answer: air operations

Question: Why did the Luftwaffe bomb the RAF Fighter Command?
Answer: to gain air superiority

Question: What was the name of the Channel the Luftwaffe bomb to try to gain air superiority?
Answer: English

Question: Which Navy was assumed not to be able to operate under German air superiority?
Answer: Royal
Regardless of the ability of the Luftwaffe to win air superiority, Adolf Hitler was frustrated that it was not happening quickly enough. With no sign of the RAF weakening, and Luftwaffe air fleets (Luftflotten) taking punishing losses, the OKL was keen for a change in strategy. To reduce losses further, a change in strategy was also favoured to take place at night, to give the bombers greater protection under cover of darkness.[b] On 4 September 1940, in a long address at the Sportspalast, Hitler declared: "And should the Royal Air Force drop two thousand, or three thousand [kilograms ...] then we will now drop [...] 300,000, 400,000, yes one million kilograms in a single night. And should they declare they will greatly increase their attacks on our cities, then we will erase their cities."

Question: The Luftwaffe air fleets were taking what kind of losses?
Answer: punishing

Question: What did the punishing losses to the air fleet cause the Luftwaffe to do?
Answer: change in strategy

Question: What kind of strategy did the Luftwaffe use to give their bombers better protection?
Answer: cover of darkness

Question: What city did Hitler give a speech where he said he would erase British cities?
Answer: Sportspalast

Question: In what year did Hitler give the speech at Sportspalast? 
Answer: 1940
In an operational capacity, limitations in weapons technology and quick British reactions were making it more difficult to achieve strategic effect. Attacking ports, shipping and imports as well as disrupting rail traffic in the surrounding areas, especially the distribution of coal, an important fuel in all industrial economies of the Second World War, would net a positive result. However, the use of delayed-action bombs, while initially very effective, gradually had less impact, partly because they failed to detonate.[c] Moreover, the British had anticipated the change in strategy and dispersed its production facilities making them less vulnerable to a concentrated attack. Regional commissioners were given plenipotentiary powers to restore communications and organise the distribution of supplies to keep the war economy moving.

Question: Coupled with British quick reactions what cause operational capacity hard to achieve?
Answer: limitations in weapons technology

Question: What was an important fuel in the Second World War?
Answer: coal

Question: Who was given permission to restore power and move supplies to keep the war moving?
Answer: Regional commissioners

Question: What kind of bombs were effective in the beginning but became less so with time?
Answer: delayed-action bombs

Question: What did Britain do that helped make the new strategy less effective? 
Answer: dispersed its production facilities
Based on experience with German strategic bombing during World War I against the United Kingdom, the British government estimated after the war that 50 casualties— with about one third killed— would result for every tonne of bombs dropped on London. The estimate of tonnes of bombs an enemy could drop per day grew as aircraft technology advanced, from 75 in 1922, to 150 in 1934, to 644 in 1937. That year the Committee on Imperial Defence estimated that an attack of 60 days would result in 600,000 dead and 1,200,000 wounded. News reports of the Spanish Civil War, such as the bombing of Barcelona, supported the 50-casualties-per-tonne estimate. By 1938 experts generally expected that Germany would attempt to drop as much as 3,500 tonnes in the first 24 hours of war and average 700 tonnes a day for several weeks. In addition to high explosive and incendiary bombs the enemy would possibly use poison gas and even bacteriological warfare, all with a high degree of accuracy. In 1939 military theorist Basil Liddell-Hart predicted that 250,000 deaths and injuries in Britain could occur in the first week of war.

Question: How many casualties did the British government estimate for every ton of bombs dropped?
Answer: 50

Question: As technology increased what was the amount of bombs that could be dropped in 1937 per day? 
Answer: 644

Question: How many tons did experts expect Germany to drop in the first 24 hours of the war?
Answer: 3,500

Question: What committee estimated that 60 days of attacks would result in 600,000 deaths?
Answer: Imperial Defence

Question: Who was the military theorist in 1939 who said 250,000 deaths and injury could occur in the first week of war in Britian?
Answer: Basil Liddell-Hart
In addition to the dead and wounded, government leaders feared mass psychological trauma from aerial attack and a resulting collapse of civil society. A committee of psychiatrists reported to the government in 1938 that there would be three times as many mental as physical casualties from aerial bombing, implying three to four million psychiatric patients. Winston Churchill told Parliament in 1934, "We must expect that, under the pressure of continuous attack upon London, at least three or four million people would be driven out into the open country around the metropolis." Panicked reactions during the Munich crisis, such as the migration by 150,000 to Wales, contributed to fear of societal chaos.

Question: What was the biggest fear aerial attacks would cause besides death and wounded?
Answer: psychological trauma

Question: Psychiatrists believe in 1938  that mental trauma could reach how many millions?
Answer: three to four

Question: Where did 150,000 migrate during the Munich crisis?
Answer: Wales

Question: Who told Parliament that after long periods of attacks people would leave the cities for the country? 
Answer: Winston Churchill
The government planned to voluntarily evacuate four million people—mostly women and children—from urban areas, including 1.4 million from London. It expected about 90% of evacuees to stay in private homes, and conducted an extensive survey to determine available space. Detailed preparations for transporting them were developed. A trial blackout was held on 10 August 1939, and when Germany invaded Poland on 1 September a blackout began at sunset. Lights would not be allowed after dark for almost six years, and the blackout became by far the most unpopular aspect of the war for civilians, more than rationing.:51,106 The relocation of the government and the civil service was also planned, but would only have occurred if necessary so as not to damage civilian morale.:33

Question: The government planned to evacuate 1.4 million from which city?
Answer: London

Question: What trial took place on August 10 1939?
Answer: a blackout

Question: What was most unpopular affect of the war with civilians ?
Answer: the blackout

Question: How long were lights not allowed on after dark?
Answer: almost six years

Question: Why did the government  and civil service not want to relocate during the war?
Answer: damage civilian morale
Much civil-defence preparation in the form of shelters was left in the hands of local authorities, and many areas such as Birmingham, Coventry, Belfast and the East End of London did not have enough shelters. The Phoney War, however, and the unexpected delay of civilian bombing permitted the shelter programme to finish in June 1940.:35 The programme favoured backyard Anderson shelters and small brick surface shelters; many of the latter were soon abandoned in 1940 as unsafe. In addition, authorities expected that the raids would be brief and during the day. Few predicted that attacks by night would force Londoners to sleep in shelters.

Question: What civil-defense efforts were left to local authorities to handle?
Answer: shelters

Question: What year did the shelter program finish?
Answer: 1940

Question: Why were the shelters soon abandoned in 1940? 
Answer: unsafe

Question: Why were Londoners forced to sleep in shelters?
Answer: attacks by night