Answer: galaktoboureko

Context: Sweet desserts such as galaktoboureko, and drinks such as ouzo, metaxa and a variety of wines including retsina. Greek cuisine differs widely from different parts of the mainland and from island to island. It uses some flavorings more often than other Mediterranean cuisines: oregano, mint, garlic, onion, dill and bay laurel leaves. Other common herbs and spices include basil, thyme and fennel seed. Many Greek recipes, especially in the northern parts of the country, use "sweet" spices in combination with meat, for example cinnamon and cloves in stews.

Question: What is the name of one sweet dessert in Greece?


Answer: oregano

Question: What is one of the flavorings commonly used in Greek Mediterranean food?


Answer: cinnamon

Question: What is one of the sweet spices Greeks like to use with meat?


Answer: ancient times

Context: Greek vocal music extends far back into ancient times where mixed-gender choruses performed for entertainment, celebration and spiritual reasons. Instruments during that period included the double-reed aulos and the plucked string instrument, the lyre, especially the special kind called a kithara. Music played an important role in the education system during ancient times. Boys were taught music from the age of six. Later influences from the Roman Empire, Middle East, and the Byzantine Empire also had effect on Greek music.

Question: Greek vocal music goes back how far in history?


Answer: lyre

Question: What is one of the musical instruments used in ancient Greece?


Answer: six

Question: During ancient Greece, at what age were boys taught music?


Answer: polyphony

Context: While the new technique of polyphony was developing in the West, the Eastern Orthodox Church resisted any type of change. Therefore, Byzantine music remained monophonic and without any form of instrumental accompaniment. As a result, and despite certain attempts by certain Greek chanters (such as Manouel Gazis, Ioannis Plousiadinos or the Cypriot Ieronimos o Tragoudistis), Byzantine music was deprived of elements of which in the West encouraged an unimpeded development of art. However, this method which kept music away from polyphony, along with centuries of continuous culture, enabled monophonic music to develop to the greatest heights of perfection. Byzantium presented the monophonic Byzantine chant; a melodic treasury of inestimable value for its rhythmical variety and expressive power.

Question: The Eastern Orthodox Church resisted what change in music?


Answer: monophonic

Question: Music without any form of instrumental accompaniment is known as what?


Answer: Byzantine chant

Question: One type of music derived from Byzantine is called what?


Answer: akritic and klephtic

Context: Along with the Byzantine (Church) chant and music, the Greek people also cultivated the Greek folk song which is divided into two cycles, the akritic and klephtic. The akritic was created between the 9th and 10th centuries and expressed the life and struggles of the akrites (frontier guards) of the Byzantine empire, the most well known being the stories associated with Digenes Akritas. The klephtic cycle came into being between the late Byzantine period and the start of the Greek War of Independence. The klephtic cycle, together with historical songs, paraloghes (narrative song or ballad), love songs, mantinades, wedding songs, songs of exile and dirges express the life of the Greeks. There is a unity between the Greek people's struggles for freedom, their joys and sorrow and attitudes towards love and death.

Question: What are the two cycles of the Greek folk song?


Answer: 9th and 10th

Question: Between what centuries was the akritic cycle of Greek song created?


Answer: klephtic

Question: Which Greek song cycle expresses the life of the Greeks?


Answer: Heptanesean kantádhes

Context: The Heptanesean kantádhes (καντάδες 'serenades'; sing.: καντάδα) became the forerunners of the Greek modern song, influencing its development to a considerable degree. For the first part of the next century, several Greek composers continued to borrow elements from the Heptanesean style. The most successful songs during the period 1870–1930 were the so-called Athenian serenades, and the songs performed on stage (επιθεωρησιακά τραγούδια 'theatrical revue songs') in revue, operettas and nocturnes that were dominating Athens' theater scene.

Question: What was the forerunner of Greek modern song?


Answer: 1870–1930

Question: Athenian serenades were most successful during what time period?


Answer: Heptanesean kantádhes

Question: What influenced Greek modern song considerably?


Answer: Rebetiko

Context: Rebetiko, initially a music associated with the lower classes, later (and especially after the population exchange between Greece and Turkey) reached greater general acceptance as the rough edges of its overt subcultural character were softened and polished, sometimes to the point of unrecognizability. It was the base of the later laïkó (song of the people). The leading performers of the genre include Apostolos Kaldaras, Grigoris Bithikotsis, Stelios Kazantzidis, George Dalaras, Haris Alexiou and Glykeria.

Question: What music began associated with the lower classes?


Answer: laïkó

Question: Rebetiko was the base of what?


Answer: Apostolos Kaldaras

Question: One of the leading performers of the laiko genre is who?


Answer: Ionian

Context: Regarding the classical music, it was through the Ionian islands (which were under western rule and influence) that all the major advances of the western European classical music were introduced to mainland Greeks. The region is notable for the birth of the first School of modern Greek classical music (Heptanesean or Ionian School, Greek: Επτανησιακή Σχολή), established in 1815. Prominent representatives of this genre include Nikolaos Mantzaros, Spyridon Xyndas, Spyridon Samaras and Pavlos Carrer. Manolis Kalomiris is considered the founder of the Greek National School of Music.

Question: Through which islands was European classical music introduced to the Greeks?


Answer: 1815

Question: When was the first school of modern Greek classical music formed?


Answer: Manolis Kalomiris

Question: Who is considered the Greek National School of Music founder?


Answer: Iannis Xenakis

Context: In the 20th century, Greek composers have had a significant impact on the development of avant garde and modern classical music, with figures such as Iannis Xenakis, Nikos Skalkottas, and Dimitri Mitropoulos achieving international prominence. At the same time, composers and musicians such as Mikis Theodorakis, Manos Hatzidakis, Eleni Karaindrou, Vangelis and Demis Roussos garnered an international following for their music, which include famous film scores such as Zorba the Greek, Serpico, Never on Sunday, America America, Eternity and a Day, Chariots of Fire, Blade Runner, among others. Greek American composers known for their film scores include Yanni and Basil Poledouris. Notable Greek opera singers and classical musicians of the 20th and 21st century include Maria Callas, Nana Mouskouri, Mario Frangoulis, Leonidas Kavakos, Dimitris Sgouros and others.

Question: Who is one 20th century Greek composers that has had an impact on modern classical music?


Answer: Zorba the Greek

Question: What is one of the famous movies Greek composers has scored?


Answer: Yanni

Question: Who is one of the Greek composers known for their film scores?


Answer: Maria Callas

Question: Who is one of the notable Greek opera singers in the 20th century?


Answer: 35

Context: Greece participated in the Eurovision Song Contest 35 times after its debut at the 1974 Contest. In 2005, Greece won with the song "My Number One", performed by Greek-Swedish singer Elena Paparizou. The song received 230 points with 10 sets of 12 points from Belgium, Bulgaria, Hungary, the United Kingdom, Turkey, Albania, Cyprus, Serbia & Montenegro, Sweden and Germany and also became a smash hit in different countries and especially in Greece. The 51st Eurovision Song Contest was held in Athens at the Olympic Indoor Hall of the Athens Olympic Sports Complex in Maroussi, with hosted by Maria Menounos and Sakis Rouvas.

Question: How many time has Greece participated in the Eurovision Song Contest?


Answer: 2005

Question: In what year did Greece win the Eurovision Song Contest?


Answer: My Number One

Question: What Greek song won the Eurovision Song Contest in 2005?


Answer: Elena Paparizou

Question: Who performed the song, My Number One, in the 2005 Eurovision Song Contest?


Answer: Athens

Question: Where was the 51st Eurovision Song Contest held?


Answer: Olympic Games

Context: Greece is the birthplace of the ancient Olympic Games, first recorded in 776 BC in Olympia, and hosted the modern Olympic Games twice, the inaugural 1896 Summer Olympics and the 2004 Summer Olympics. During the parade of nations Greece is always called first, as the founding nation of the ancient precursor of modern Olympics. The nation has competed at every Summer Olympic Games, one of only four countries to have done so. Having won a total of 110 medals (30 gold, 42 silver and 38 bronze), Greece is ranked 32nd by gold medals in the all-time Summer Olympic medal count. Their best ever performance was in the 1896 Summer Olympics, when Greece finished second in the medal table with 10 gold medals.

Question: Greece is the birthplace of what sporting event?


Answer: 776 BC

Question: The first Olympic games was recorded in what year?


Answer: Olympia

Question: Where were the first Olympic games in 775 BC held?


Answer: Greece

Question: During the Olympic parade of nations, who is always called first?


Answer: 32nd

Question: What ranking does Greece hold in all-time summer Olympics gold medal count?


Answer: 12th

Context: The Greek national football team, ranking 12th in the world in 2014 (and having reached a high of 8th in the world in 2008 and 2011), were crowned European Champions in Euro 2004 in one of the biggest upsets in the history of the sport and became one of the most successful national teams in European football, being one of only nine national teams to have won the UEFA European Championship. The Greek Super League is the highest professional football league in the country comprising eighteen teams. The most successful are Olympiacos, Panathinaikos, AEK Athens and PAOK.

Question: What ranking did the Greek national football team hold in 2014.


Answer: Euro 2004

Question: Greek was crowned the European champions in what event?


Answer: nine

Question: How many national teams have won the UEFA European Championship?


Answer: eighteen

Question: How many teams are in the Greek Super League?


Answer: Olympiacos

Question: Who is one of the most successful teams in the Greek Super League?


Answer: 4th

Context: The Greek national basketball team has a decades-long tradition of excellence in the sport, being considered among the world's top basketball powers. As of 2012, it ranked 4th in the world and 2nd in Europe. They have won the European Championship twice in 1987 and 2005, and have reached the final four in two of the last four FIBA World Championships, taking the second place in the world in 2006 FIBA World Championship, after a spectacular 101–95 win against Team USA in the tournament's semifinal. The domestic top basketball league, A1 Ethniki, is composed of fourteen teams. The most successful Greek teams are Olympiacos, Panathinaikos, Aris Thessaloniki, AEK Athens and P.A.O.K. Greek basketball teams are the most successful in European basketball the last 25 years, having won as many as 9 Euroleagues since the establishment of the modern era Euroleague Final Four format in 1988, while no other nation has won more than 4 Euroleague championships in this period. Besides the 9 Euroleagues, Greek basketball teams (Panathinaikos, Olympiacos, Aris Thessaloniki, AEK Athens, P.A.O.K, Maroussi) have won 3 Triple Crowns, 5 Saporta Cups, 2 Korać Cups and 1 FIBA Europe Champions Cup. After the 2005 European Championship triumph of the Greek national basketball team, Greece became the reigning European Champion in both football and basketball.

Question: The Greek national basketball team held what world ranking in 2012?


Answer: 2nd

Question: The Greek national basketball in 2012 held what ranking in Europe?


Answer: twice

Question: How many times has the Greek national basketball team won the European championship?


Answer: Team USA

Question: Who did the Greek basketball team beat in the 2006 FIBA World Championship?


Answer: A1 Ethniki

Question: What is the name of Greece's top domestic basketball league?


Answer: 2011

Context: The Greece women's national water polo team have emerged as one of the leading powers in the world, becoming World Champions after their gold medal win against the hosts China at the 2011 World Championship. They have also won the silver medal at the 2004 Summer Olympics, the gold medal at the 2005 World League and the silver medals at the 2010 and 2012 European Championships. The Greece men's national water polo team became the third best water polo team in the world in 2005, after their win against Croatia in the bronze medal game at the 2005 World Aquatics Championships in Canada. The domestic top water polo leagues, Greek Men's Water Polo League and Greek Women's Water Polo League are considered amongst the top national leagues in European water polo, as its clubs have made significant success in European competitions. In men's European competitions, Olympiacos has won the Champions League, the European Super Cup and the Triple Crown in 2002 becoming the first club in Water polo history to win every title in which it has competed within a single year (National championship, National cup, Champions League and European Super Cup), while NC Vouliagmeni has won the LEN Cup Winners' Cup in 1997. In women's European competitions, Greek water polo teams (NC Vouliagmeni, Glyfada NSC, Olympiacos, Ethnikos Piraeus) are amongst the most successful in European water polο, having won as many as 4 LEN Champions Cups, 3 LEN Trophies and 2 European Supercups.

Question: In what year did Greece's women's water polo team win the World Championship?


Answer: silver

Question: Which medal did Greece's women's water polo team win at the 2004 Summer Olympics?


Answer: gold

Question: Which medal did Greece's women's water polo team win at the 2005 World League?


Answer: third

Question: The Greece Men's water polo team held which world ranking in 2005?


Answer: Croatia

Question: Who did Greece Men's water polo team beat in the 2005 World Aquatics Championships?


Answer: two

Context: The Greek men's national volleyball team has won two bronze medals, one in the European Volleyball Championship and another one in the European Volleyball League, a 5th place in the Olympic Games and a 6th place in the FIVB Volleyball Men's World Championship. The Greek league, the A1 Ethniki, is considered one of the top volleyball leagues in Europe and the Greek clubs have made significant success in European competitions. Olympiacos is the most successful volleyball club in the country having won the most domestic titles and being the only Greek club to have won European titles; they have won two CEV Cups, they have been CEV Champions League runners-up twice and they have played in as many as 12 Final Fours in the European competitions, making them one of the most traditional volleyball clubs in Europe. Iraklis have also seen significant success in European competitions, having been three times runners-up of the CEV Champions League.

Question: The Greek Men's national volleyball team has won how many bronze medals?


Answer: 5th

Question: The Greek Men's national volleyball team came in what place in the Olympic games?


Answer: Olympiacos

Question: What Greek volleyball club is the most successful in the country?


Answer: Olympiacos

Question: Who is the only Greek volleyball club to win European titles?


Answer: Mount Olympus

Context: The principal gods of the ancient Greek religion were the Dodekatheon, or the Twelve Gods, who lived on the top of Mount Olympus. The most important of all ancient Greek gods was Zeus, the king of the gods, who was married to Hera, who was also Zeus's sister. The other Greek gods that made up the Twelve Olympians were Demeter, Ares, Poseidon, Athena, Dionysus, Apollo, Artemis, Aphrodite, Hephaestus and Hermes. Apart from these twelve gods, Greeks also had a variety of other mystical beliefs, such as nymphs and other magical creatures.

Question: Where did the mythical Greek gods live?


Answer: Dodekatheon

Question: The main gods of ancient Greece known as the what?


Answer: Zeus

Question: The most important of the ancient gods was who?


Answer: Hera

Question: Zeus was married to which goddess?


Answer: Hera

Question: Who was Zeus's sister?


Answer: holiday

Context: According to Greek law, every Sunday of the year is a public holiday. In addition, there are four mandatory official public holidays: 25 March (Greek Independence Day), Easter Monday, 15 August (Assumption or Dormition of the Holy Virgin), and 25 December (Christmas). 1 May (Labour Day) and 28 October (Ohi Day) are regulated by law as being optional but it is customary for employees to be given the day off. There are, however, more public holidays celebrated in Greece than are announced by the Ministry of Labour each year as either obligatory or optional. The list of these non-fixed national holidays rarely changes and has not changed in recent decades, giving a total of eleven national holidays each year.

Question: Greek law says that every Sunday of the year is a what?


Answer: four

Question: How many official Greek mandatory public holidays are there?


Answer: eleven

Question: How many Greek national holidays are there each year?


Answer: Labour Day

Question: What is one of the holidays regulated by law as optional?


Answer: $173 billion

Context: In 2011, it became apparent that the bail-out would be insufficient and a second bail-out amounting to €130 billion ($173 billion) was agreed in 2012, subject to strict conditions, including financial reforms and further austerity measures. As part of the deal, there was to be a 53% reduction in the Greek debt burden to private creditors and any profits made by Eurozone central banks on their holdings of Greek debt are to be repatriated back to Greece. Greece achieved a primary government budget surplus in 2013. In April 2014, Greece returned to the global bond market as it successfully sold €3 billion worth of five-year government bonds at a yield of 4.95%. Greece returned to growth after six years of economic decline in the second quarter of 2014, and was the Eurozone's fastest-growing economy in the third quarter.

Question: in 2012, what was the amount of the bailout?


Answer: 53%

Question: How much debt to creditors was Greece suppose to reduce?


Answer: 2013

Question: In what year did Greece realize a budget surplus?


Answer: €3 billion

Question: How much did Greece make from a bond sale in 2014?


Answer: six years

Question: After how many years did it take for Greece to gain back growth in the economy?


Answer: Phillip II

Context: Following the assassination of Phillip II, his son Alexander III ("The Great") assumed the leadership of the League of Corinth and launched an invasion of the Persian Empire with the combined forces of all Greek states in 334 BC. Undefeated in battle, Alexander had conquered the Persian Empire in its entirety by 330 BC. By the time of his death in 323 BC, he had created one of the largest empires in history, stretching from Greece to India. His empire split into several kingdoms upon his death, the most famous of which were the Seleucid Empire, Ptolemaic Egypt, the Greco-Bactrian Kingdom and the Indo-Greek Kingdom. Many Greeks migrated to Alexandria, Antioch, Seleucia and the many other new Hellenistic cities in Asia and Africa. Although the political unity of Alexander's empire could not be maintained, it resulted in the Hellenistic civilization and spread the Greek language and Greek culture in the territories conquered by Alexander. Greek science, technology and mathematics are generally considered to have reached their peak during the Hellenistic period.

Question: Alexander III was the son of whom?


Answer: Persian

Question: Alexander III invaded what empire after his father was killed?


Answer: 334 BC

Question: What year did Alexander III Invade Persia?


Answer: 330 BC

Question: The Persian Empire was conquered by Alexander by what year?


Answer: 323 BC

Question: In which year did Alexander III die?


Answer: blue whale

Context: Mammals include the largest animals on the planet, the rorquals and other large whales, as well as some of the most intelligent, such as elephants, primates, including humans, and cetaceans. The basic body type is a four-legged land-borne animal, but some mammals are adapted for life at sea, in the air, in trees, or on two legs. The largest group of mammals, the placentals, have a placenta, which enables feeding the fetus during gestation. Mammals range in size from the 30–40 mm (1.2–1.6 in) bumblebee bat to the 33-meter (108 ft) blue whale.

Question: Which specific mammal is the largest today?


Answer: bumblebee bat

Question: Which mammal is the smallest?


Answer: elephants

Question: Which four legged mammal is considered to be the smartest?


Answer: 30–40 mm (1.2–1.6 in)

Question: About how small is the average bumble bee bat?


Answer: Carl Linnaeus

Context: The word "mammal" is modern, from the scientific name Mammalia coined by Carl Linnaeus in 1758, derived from the Latin mamma ("teat, pap"). All female mammals nurse their young with milk, which is secreted from special glands, the mammary glands. According to Mammal Species of the World, 5,416 species were known in 2006. These were grouped in 1,229 genera, 153 families and 29 orders. In 2008 the IUCN completed a five-year, 1,700-scientist Global Mammal Assessment for its IUCN Red List, which counted 5,488 accepted species.

Question: Who coined the name "mammal" from the scientific name Mammalia?


Answer: nurse their young with milk

Question: What do all female mammals have in common when they have children?


Answer: 5,416

Question: How many mammals were known to exist up to 2006?


Answer: 153 families

Question: How many families did mammals consist of as of 2006?


Answer: five species

Context: Except for the five species of monotremes (egg-laying mammals), all modern mammals give birth to live young. Most mammals, including the six most species-rich orders, belong to the placental group. The three largest orders in numbers, are first Rodentia: mice, rats, porcupines, beavers, capybaras, and other gnawing mammals; then Chiroptera: bats; and then Soricomorpha: shrews, moles and solenodons. The next three orders, depending on the biological classification scheme used, are the Primates including the humans; the Cetartiodactyla including the whales and the even-toed hoofed mammals; and the Carnivora, that is, cats, dogs, weasels, bears, seals, and their relatives.

Question: How many species of mammals do not have a live birth?


Answer: Rodentia

Question: Which group consist of the most mammals?


Answer: Primates

Question: Which group do humans belong too?


Answer: Carnivora

Question: Which group do cats and dogs belong too?


Answer: Carboniferous period

Context: The early synapsid mammalian ancestors were sphenacodont pelycosaurs, a group that produced the non-mammalian Dimetrodon. At the end of the Carboniferous period, this group diverged from the sauropsid line that led to today's reptiles and birds. The line following the stem group Sphenacodontia split-off several diverse groups of non-mammalian synapsids—sometimes referred to as mammal-like reptiles—before giving rise to the proto-mammals (Therapsida) in the early Mesozoic era. The modern mammalian orders arose in the Paleogene and Neogene periods of the Cenozoic era, after the extinction of the non-avian dinosaurs 66 million years ago.

Question: From which time period did birds and reptiles began to appear from?


Answer: 66 million years ago

Question: When did non-avian dinosaurs become extinct?


Answer: sphenacodont pelycosaurs

Question: Which early mammalian ancestor produced non-mammalian Dimetroden?


Answer: Timothy Rowe

Context: In an influential 1988 paper, Timothy Rowe defined Mammalia phylogenetically as the crown group mammals, the clade consisting of the most recent common ancestor of living monotremes (echidnas and platypuses) and therian mammals (marsupials and placentals) and all descendants of that ancestor. Since this ancestor lived in the Jurassic period, Rowe's definition excludes all animals from the earlier Triassic, despite the fact that Triassic fossils in the Haramiyida have been referred to the Mammalia since the mid-19th century.

Question: Who defined mammalian as the crown group mammals?


Answer: Triassic

Question: By Rowe's definition, when did he start to exclude animals?


Answer: therian mammals

Question: Which group do marsupials and placentals belong to?


Answer: monotremes

Context: If Mammalia is considered as the crown group, its origin can be roughly dated as the first known appearance of animals more closely related to some extant mammals than to others. Ambondro is more closely related to monotremes than to therian mammals while Amphilestes and Amphitherium are more closely related to the therians; as fossils of all three genera are dated about 167 million years ago in the Middle Jurassic, this is a reasonable estimate for the appearance of the crown group. The earliest known synapsid satisfying Kemp's definitions is Tikitherium, dated 225 Ma, so the appearance of mammals in this broader sense can be given this Late Triassic date. In any case, the temporal range of the group extends to the present day.

Question: Which group are Ambondro's closely related to?


Answer: Amphilestes and Amphitherium

Question: Which two groups are closely related to therian mammals?


Answer: 167 million years

Question: How many years do momotremes and therian mammals go back?


Answer: 225 Ma

Question: About what year do synapsid date back to?


Answer: George Gaylord Simpson

Context: George Gaylord Simpson's "Principles of Classification and a Classification of Mammals" (AMNH Bulletin v. 85, 1945) was the original source for the taxonomy listed here. Simpson laid out a systematics of mammal origins and relationships that was universally taught until the end of the 20th century. Since Simpson's classification, the paleontological record has been recalibrated, and the intervening years have seen much debate and progress concerning the theoretical underpinnings of systematization itself, partly through the new concept of cladistics. Though field work gradually made Simpson's classification outdated, it remained the closest thing to an official classification of mammals.

Question: Who wrote the "Principles of Classification and a Classification of Mammals?


Answer: 20th

Question: Simpson laid the systematics of mammal origins and was taught universally up until the end of what century?


Answer: cladistics

Question: Which new concept has greatly taken over Simpsons much debated theoretical systematization?


Answer: Malcolm C. McKenna and Susan K. Bell

Context: In 1997, the mammals were comprehensively revised by Malcolm C. McKenna and Susan K. Bell, which has resulted in the McKenna/Bell classification. Their 1997 book, Classification of Mammals above the Species Level, is the most comprehensive work to date on the systematics, relationships, and occurrences of all mammal taxa, living and extinct, down through the rank of genus, though recent molecular genetic data challenge several of the higher level groupings. The authors worked together as paleontologists at the American Museum of Natural History, New York. McKenna inherited the project from Simpson and, with Bell, constructed a completely updated hierarchical system, covering living and extinct taxa that reflects the historical genealogy of Mammalia.

Question: In 1997 who revised the classification of mammals?


Answer: American Museum of Natural History

Question: Where did the two authors work together as paleontologist?


Answer: Simpson

Question: From whom did McKenna inherit the project from?


Answer: DNA analysis

Context: Molecular studies based on DNA analysis have suggested new relationships among mammal families over the last few years. Most of these findings have been independently validated by retrotransposon presence/absence data. Classification systems based on molecular studies reveal three major groups or lineages of placental mammals- Afrotheria, Xenarthra, and Boreoeutheria- which diverged from early common ancestors in the Cretaceous. The relationships between these three lineages is contentious, and all three possible different hypotheses have been proposed with respect to which group is basal with respect to other placentals. These hypotheses are Atlantogenata (basal Boreoeutheria), Epitheria (basal Xenarthra), and Exafroplacentalia (basal Afrotheria). Boreoeutheria in turn contains two major lineages- Euarchontoglires and Laurasiatheria.

Question: Through Molecular studies, what was used to suggest new relationships among mammal families?


Answer: Afrotheria, Xenarthra, and Boreoeutheria

Question: During these Molecular studies, which three major groups of mammals shared a common ancestors from the Cretaceous period?


Answer: Euarchontoglires and Laurasiatheria

Question: Afrotheria,Xenartha, and Boreoeutheria deprives from which two lineages?


Answer: Carboniferous

Context: The first amniotes apparently arose in the Late Carboniferous. They descended from earlier reptiliomorph amphibious tetrapods, which lived on land that was already inhabited by insects and other invertebrates as well as by ferns, mosses and other plants. Within a few million years, two important amniote lineages became distinct: the synapsids, which would later include the common ancestor of the mammals; and the sauropsids, which would eventually come to include turtles, lizards, snakes, crocodilians, dinosaurs and birds. Synapsids have a single hole (temporal fenestra) low on each side of the skull.

Question: From which period did the first known amniotes arise from?


Answer: reptiliomorph amphibious tetrapods

Question: From which group did amniotes descendents of?


Answer: the synapsids

Question: Two important Amniotes lineages became distinct, what was the name of that distinction?


Answer: turtles, lizards, snakes, crocodilians, dinosaurs and birds

Question: Sauropsids would later include which other animals into its group?


Answer: single hole (temporal fenestra) low on each side of the skull

Question: What is a distinct trait of Synapsids?


Answer: pelycosaurs

Context: Therapsids descended from pelycosaurs in the Middle Permian, about 265 million years ago, and became the dominant land vertebrates. They differ from basal eupelycosaurs in several features of the skull and jaws, including: larger temporal fenestrae and incisors which are equal in size. The therapsid lineage leading to mammals went through a series of stages, beginning with animals that were very like their pelycosaur ancestors and ending with probainognathian cynodonts, some of which could easily be mistaken for mammals. Those stages were characterized by:

Question: From which dinosaur group did Therapsids descend from?


Answer: 265 million years ago

Question: Around what time did Therapsids become the dominant land animal?


Answer: probainognathian cynodonts

Question: At which group did Therapsids end with?


Answer: Permian–Triassic

Context: The Permian–Triassic extinction event, which was a prolonged event due to the accumulation of several extinction pulses, ended the dominance of the carnivores among the therapsids. In the early Triassic, all the medium to large land carnivore niches were taken over by archosaurs which, over an extended period of time (35 million years), came to include the crocodylomorphs, the pterosaurs, and the dinosaurs. By the Jurassic, the dinosaurs had come to dominate the large terrestrial herbivore niches as well.

Question: What was the name of extinction level event that ended the dominance of the carnivores among therapsids?


Answer: Triassic

Question: During which time period did archosaurs begin to take over as the dominant carnivore?


Answer: crocodylomorphs, the pterosaurs, and the dinosaurs

Question: Which three groups did the early Triassic period consist of?


Answer: dinosaurs

Question: During the Jurassic period which group came out as the most dominate for both carnivores and herbivores?


Answer: shrewlike Juramaia sinensis

Context: The oldest known fossil among the Eutheria ("true beasts") is the small shrewlike Juramaia sinensis, or "Jurassic mother from China", dated to 160 million years ago in the Late Jurassic. A later eutherian, Eomaia, dated to 125 million years ago in the Early Cretaceous, possessed some features in common with the marsupials but not with the placentals, evidence that these features were present in the last common ancestor of the two groups but were later lost in the placental lineage. In particular:

Question: What is the oldest know fossil among the Eutheria group?


Answer: 160 million years ago

Question: How long ago does oldest know fossil date back to?


Answer: 125 million years ago

Question: In what time period did early animals share some features with marsupials?


Answer: placental

Question: Which lineage were some of these early marsupial features were lost?


Answer: 100 to 85 million years ago

Context: Recent molecular phylogenetic studies suggest that most placental orders diverged about 100 to 85 million years ago and that modern families appeared in the period from the late Eocene through the Miocene. But paleontologists object that no placental fossils have been found from before the end of the Cretaceous. The earliest undisputed fossils of placentals come from the early Paleocene, after the extinction of the dinosaurs. In particular, scientists have recently identified an early Paleocene animal named Protungulatum donnae as one of the first placental mammals. The earliest known ancestor of primates is Archicebus achilles from around 55 million years ago. This tiny primate weighed 20–30 grams (0.7–1.1 ounce) and could fit within a human palm.

Question: How long ago did most placental orders diverge from?


Answer: Eocene through the Miocene

Question: Which two major time periods did placentals appear?


Answer: Paleocene

Question: Which time period did early highly undisputed fossils of placental mammals appear?


Answer: 55 million years ago

Question: When is the earliest know primate thought to had exist?


Answer: 20–30 grams (0.7–1.1 ounce)

Question: How much did the first primate weigh?


Answer: 164 million years ago

Context: The earliest clear evidence of hair or fur is in fossils of Castorocauda, from 164 million years ago in the Middle Jurassic. In the 1950s, it was suggested that the foramina (passages) in the maxillae and premaxillae (bones in the front of the upper jaw) of cynodonts were channels which supplied blood vessels and nerves to vibrissae (whiskers) and so were evidence of hair or fur; it was soon pointed out, however, that foramina do not necessarily show that an animal had vibrissae, as the modern lizard Tupinambis has foramina that are almost identical to those found in the nonmammalian cynodont Thrinaxodon. Popular sources, nevertheless, continue to attribute whiskers to Thrinaxodon.

Question: When is it believed that the earliest know hair was said to exist?


Answer: 1950s

Question: When was it suggested that foramina premaxillae could contain the first know hairs?


Answer: Jurassic

Question: Which major time period were these suggested hairs from?


Answer: monotremes

Context: When endothermy first appeared in the evolution of mammals is uncertain. Modern monotremes have lower body temperatures and more variable metabolic rates than marsupials and placentals, but there is evidence that some of their ancestors, perhaps including ancestors of the therians, may have had body temperatures like those of modern therians. Some of the evidence found so far suggests that Triassic cynodonts had fairly high metabolic rates, but it is not conclusive. For small animals, an insulative covering like fur is necessary for the maintenance of a high and stable body temperature.

Question: Which group of animal has a lower body temperature that marsupials and placentals?


Answer: Triassic

Question: Which time period is suggested that cynodonts had a high metabolic rate?


Answer: maintenance of a high and stable body temperature

Question: Why is it necessary for smaller animals to have an insulative covering?


Answer: larynx, trachea and bronchi

Context: Breathing is largely driven by the muscular diaphragm, which divides the thorax from the abdominal cavity, forming a dome with its convexity towards the thorax. Contraction of the diaphragm flattens the dome, increasing the volume of the cavity in which the lung is enclosed. Air enters through the oral and nasal cavities; it flows through the larynx, trachea and bronchi and expands the alveoli. Relaxation of the diaphragm has the opposite effect, passively recoiling during normal breathing. During exercise, the abdominal wall contracts, increasing visceral pressure on the diaphragm, thus forcing the air out more quickly and forcefully. The rib cage itself also is able to expand and contract the thoracic cavity to some degree, through the action of other respiratory and accessory respiratory muscles. As a result, air is sucked into or expelled out of the lungs, always moving down its pressure gradient. This type of lung is known as a bellows lung as it resembles a blacksmith's bellows. Mammals take oxygen into their lungs, and discard carbon dioxide.

Question: When air enters both the oral and nasal cavities, where does it flow through?


Answer: exercise

Question: Increasing pressure on the diaphragm thus increasing air output more frequently is usually caused by?


Answer: bellows lung

Question: A result of air being sucked into or blown out of the lung thats moving its pressure gradient is referred to?


Answer: blacksmith's bellows

Question: Where did the term Bellows Lung come from?


Answer: 10 to 30 cells thick

Context: The epidermis is typically 10 to 30 cells thick; its main function is to provide a waterproof layer. Its outermost cells are constantly lost; its bottommost cells are constantly dividing and pushing upward. The middle layer, the dermis, is 15 to 40 times thicker than the epidermis. The dermis is made up of many components, such as bony structures and blood vessels. The hypodermis is made up of adipose tissue. Its job is to store lipids, and to provide cushioning and insulation. The thickness of this layer varies widely from species to species.

Question: What is the typical thickness of the epidermis?


Answer: to provide a waterproof layer

Question: What is the main function of the epidermis?


Answer: 15 to 40 times thicker

Question: How much more thicker is the dermis to the epidermis?


Answer: bony structures and blood vessels

Question: What is the dermis mainly consist of?


Answer: adipose tissue

Question: What does the Hyperdermis consist of?


Answer: pelage

Context: Mammalian hair, also known as pelage, can vary in color between populations, organisms within a population, and even on the individual organism. Light-dark color variation is common in the mammalian taxa. Sometimes, this color variation is determined by age variation, however, in other cases, it is determined by other factors. Selective pressures, such as ecological interactions with other populations or environmental conditions, often lead to the variation in mammalian coloration. These selective pressures favor certain colors in order to increase survival. Camouflage is thought to be a major selection pressure shaping coloration in mammals, although there is also evidence that sexual selection, communication, and physiological processes may influence the evolution of coloration as well. Camouflage is the most predominant mechanism for color variation, as it aids in the concealment of the organisms from predators or from their prey. Coat color can also be for intraspecies communication such as warning members of their species about predators, indicating health for reproductive purposes, communicating between mother and young, and intimidating predators. Studies have shown that in some cases, differences in female and male coat color could indicate information nutrition and hormone levels, which are important in the mate selection process. One final mechanism for coat color variation is physiological response purposes, such as temperature regulation in tropical or arctic environments. Although much has been observed about color variation, much of the genetic that link coat color to genes is still unknown. The genetic sites where pigmentation genes are found are known to affect phenotype by: 1) altering the spatial distribution of pigmentation of the hairs, and 2) altering the density and distribution of the hairs. Quantitative trait mapping is being used to better understand the distribution of loci responsible for pigmentation variation. However, although the genetic sites are known, there is still much to learn about how these genes are expressed.

Question: What is another name used for mammalian hair?


Answer: Light-dark color

Question: Which color of hair is most common among mammalian taxa?


Answer: sexual selection, communication, and physiological processes

Question: Besides Camouflage being a reason for having certain hair colors, what other reasons have been discovered?


Answer: viviparous

Context: Most mammals are viviparous, giving birth to live young. However, the five species of monotreme, the platypuses and the echidnas, lay eggs. The monotremes have a sex determination system different from that of most other mammals. In particular, the sex chromosomes of a platypus are more like those of a chicken than those of a therian mammal. Like marsupials and most other mammals, monotreme young are larval and fetus-like, as the presence of epipubic bones prevents the expansion of the torso, forcing them to produce small young.

Question: What is the common mammal group that gives birth to live young?


Answer: five species

Question: How many species of mammals lay eggs?


Answer: platypus

Question: Which mammal that has the bill of a duck lays eggs?


Answer: chicken

Question: The platypus has sex chromosomes more related to which other non-mammal?


Answer: Theria

Context: Viviparous mammals are in the subclass Theria; those living today are in the marsupial and placental infraclasses. A marsupial has a short gestation period, typically shorter than its estrous cycle, and gives birth to an undeveloped newborn that then undergoes further development; in many species, this takes place within a pouch-like sac, the marsupium, located in the front of the mother's abdomen. This is the plesyomorphic condition among viviparous mammals; the presence of epipubic bones in all non-placental mammals prevents the expansion of the torso needed for full pregnancy. Even non-placental eutherians probably reproduced this way.

Question: Which sub class are most viviparous mammals in?


Answer: marsupial and placental

Question: Viviparous mammals today are in which two main infraclasses?


Answer: epipubic bones

Question: What is present in all non-placental mammals?


Answer: cerebrum

Context: In intelligent mammals, such as primates, the cerebrum is larger relative to the rest of the brain. Intelligence itself is not easy to define, but indications of intelligence include the ability to learn, matched with behavioral flexibility. Rats, for example, are considered to be highly intelligent, as they can learn and perform new tasks, an ability that may be important when they first colonize a fresh habitat. In some mammals, food gathering appears to be related to intelligence: a deer feeding on plants has a brain smaller than a cat, which must think to outwit its prey.

Question: Which part is larger relative to the brain in primates?


Answer: Rats

Question: Which non-primate has the ability to learn and perform new task?


Answer: prey

Question: Mammals with smaller brains tend to be in what class in the food chain?


Answer: nutritious and plentiful diet

Context: To maintain a high constant body temperature is energy expensive – mammals therefore need a nutritious and plentiful diet. While the earliest mammals were probably predators, different species have since adapted to meet their dietary requirements in a variety of ways. Some eat other animals – this is a carnivorous diet (and includes insectivorous diets). Other mammals, called herbivores, eat plants. A herbivorous diet includes subtypes such as fruit-eating and grass-eating. An omnivore eats both prey and plants. Carnivorous mammals have a simple digestive tract, because the proteins, lipids, and minerals found in meat require little in the way of specialized digestion. Plants, on the other hand, contain complex carbohydrates, such as cellulose. The digestive tract of an herbivore is therefore host to bacteria that ferment these substances, and make them available for digestion. The bacteria are either housed in the multichambered stomach or in a large cecum. The size of an animal is also a factor in determining diet type. Since small mammals have a high ratio of heat-losing surface area to heat-generating volume, they tend to have high energy requirements and a high metabolic rate. Mammals that weigh less than about 18 oz (500 g) are mostly insectivorous because they cannot tolerate the slow, complex digestive process of a herbivore. Larger animals, on the other hand, generate more heat and less of this heat is lost. They can therefore tolerate either a slower collection process (those that prey on larger vertebrates) or a slower digestive process (herbivores). Furthermore, mammals that weigh more than 18 oz (500 g) usually cannot collect enough insects during their waking hours to sustain themselves. The only large insectivorous mammals are those that feed on huge colonies of insects (ants or termites).

Question: To be able to maintain a constant body temperature, what do mammals need to maintain?


Answer: eats both prey and plants

Question: What does a omnivore imply?


Answer: insects

Question: What do the majority of mammals under 18 oz eat?


Answer: The size

Question: What determines a mammals diet type?


Answer: clines

Context: The deliberate or accidental hybridising of two or more species of closely related animals through captive breeding is a human activity which has been in existence for millennia and has grown in recent times for economic purposes. The number of successful interspecific mammalian hybrids is relatively small, although it has come to be known that there is a significant number of naturally occurring hybrids between forms or regional varieties of a single species.[citation needed] These may form zones of gradation known as clines. Indeed, the distinction between some hitherto distinct species can become clouded once it can be shown that they may not only breed but produce fertile offspring. Some hybrid animals exhibit greater strength and resilience than either parent. This is known as hybrid vigor. The existence of the mule (donkey sire; horse dam) being used widely as a hardy draught animal throughout ancient and modern history is testament to this. Other well known examples are the lion/tiger hybrid, the liger, which is by far the largest big cat and sometimes used in circuses; and cattle hybrids such as between European and Indian domestic cattle or between domestic cattle and American bison, which are used in the meat industry and marketed as Beefalo. There is some speculation that the donkey itself may be the result of an ancient hybridisation between two wild ass species or sub-species. Hybrid animals are normally infertile partly because their parents usually have slightly different numbers of chromosomes, resulting in unpaired chromosomes in their cells, which prevents division of sex cells and the gonads from operating correctly, particularly in males. There are exceptions to this rule, especially if the speciation process was relatively recent or incomplete as is the case with many cattle and dog species. Normally behavior traits, natural hostility, natural ranges and breeding cycle differences maintain the separateness of closely related species and prevent natural hybridisation. However, the widespread disturbances to natural animal behaviours and range caused by human activity, cities, dumping grounds with food, agriculture, fencing, roads and so on do force animals together which would not normally breed. Clear examples exist between the various sub-species of grey wolf, coyote and domestic dog in North America. As many birds and mammals imprint on their mother and immediate family from infancy, a practice used by animal hybridizers is to foster a planned parent in a hybridization program with the same species as the one with which they are planned to mate.

Question: What is the name given when zones of gradation exits?


Answer: liger

Question: What is the given name of a lion and tiger hybrid?


Answer: Beefalo

Question: What is the marketed name given in the meat industry when you involve a european or indian domestic cattle mixed with an American bison?


Answer: hybrid

Question: What is the given name of a offspring from two different animals?


Answer: 1588

Context: Soon after the defeat of the Spanish Armada in 1588, London merchants presented a petition to Queen Elizabeth I for permission to sail to the Indian Ocean. The permission was granted, and despite the defeat of the English Armada in 1589, on 10 April 1591 three ships sailed from Torbay around the Cape of Good Hope to the Arabian Sea on one of the earliest English overseas Indian expeditions. One of them, Edward Bonventure, then sailed around Cape Comorin and on to the Malay Peninsula and subsequently returned to England in 1594.

Question: The Spanish Armada suffered a defeat in what year?


Answer: 1589

Question: What was the first year the London merchants were granted permission to sail the Indina Ocean?


Answer: Queen Elizabeth I

Question: Who did the London merchants petition to get permission to sail the Indian Ocean?


Answer: three

Question: how many ships sailed Torbay?


Answer: Edward Bonventure

Question: who returned to england after sailing around Cape Comorin?


Answer: 1588

Question: in this paragraph the Spanish Armada suffered a defeat in what year?


Answer: three

Question: how many ships sailed from Torbay?


Answer: a Royal Charter

Context: This time they succeeded, and on 31 December 1600, the Queen granted a Royal Charter to "George, Earl of Cumberland, and 215 Knights, Aldermen, and Burgesses" under the name, Governor and Company of Merchants of London trading with the East Indies. For a period of fifteen years the charter awarded the newly formed company a monopoly on trade with all countries east of the Cape of Good Hope and west of the Straits of Magellan. Sir James Lancaster commanded the first East India Company voyage in 1601 and returned in 1603. and in March 1604 Sir Henry Middleton commanded the second voyage. General William Keeling, a captain during the second voyage, led the third voyage from 1607 to 1610.

Question: What did the Queen give them for suceeding?


Answer: Governor and Company of Merchants of London trading with the East Indies

Question: What was the name of the Royal Charter?


Answer: a monopoly on trade with all countries east of the Cape of Good Hope and west of the Straits of Magellan

Question: What did this charter give them?


Answer: Sir James Lancaster

Question: Who commanded the the voyage between 1601 and 1603?


Answer: General William Keeling

Question: Who led the third voyage?


Answer: Sir James Lancaster

Question: Who commanded the the voyage between 1601 and 1603?


Answer: Sir Henry Middleton

Question: Who commanded the second voyage in 1604?


Answer: General

Question: What was the rank of the person who commanded the third voyage?


Answer: Merchants of London

Question: what was the name of the company that traded with East Indies?


Answer: fifteen

Question: how many years did the Merchants of London has a monoploy on trade?


Answer: town of Machilipatnam on the Coromandel Coast of the Bay of Bengal

Context: In the next two years, the company established its first factory in south India in the town of Machilipatnam on the Coromandel Coast of the Bay of Bengal. The high profits reported by the company after landing in India initially prompted King James I to grant subsidiary licences to other trading companies in England. But in 1609 he renewed the charter given to the company for an indefinite period, including a clause that specified that the charter would cease to be in force if the trade turned unprofitable for three consecutive years.

Question: Where was the first factory in south India?


Answer: indefinite

Question: In 1609 the charter was renewed for what period of time?


Answer: charter would cease to be in force

Question: what would happen if the trade did not return a profit for at least 3 years?


Answer: high profits

Question: why did King James I licence other trading companies from england?


Answer: Machilipatnam

Question: Where was the first factory in south India?


Answer: high profits

Question: What initially moved King James 1 to grant subsidiary licences to other trading companies in England?


Answer: the charter would cease to be in force if the trade turned unprofitable for three consecutive years.

Question: While the company was giving an indefinite period when renewing thier charter what clause did King james use to make sure the company stayed profitable


Answer: three consecutive years

Question: how many years did the Merchants of London have to become profitabl when their charter was renewed by king james?


Answer: 1668

Context: The company, which benefited from the imperial patronage, soon expanded its commercial trading operations, eclipsing the Portuguese Estado da Índia, which had established bases in Goa, Chittagong, and Bombay, which Portugal later ceded to England as part of the dowry of Catherine de Braganza. The East India Company also launched a joint attack with the Dutch United East India Company on Portuguese and Spanish ships off the coast of China, which helped secure their ports in China. The company established trading posts in Surat (1619), Madras (1639), Bombay (1668), and Calcutta (1690). By 1647, the company had 23 factories, each under the command of a factor or master merchant and governor if so chosen, and 90 employees in India. The major factories became the walled forts of Fort William in Bengal, Fort St George in Madras, and Bombay Castle.

Question: when was the bombay trading post established?


Answer: factor or master merchant and governor

Question: who commanded the factories owned by the East India company?


Answer: Dutch United East India Company

Question: who helped join the East India company in a joint attack on Portuguese and Spanish ships?


Answer: 90

Question: how many employees were in the factories in India?


Answer: major factories

Question: what were the walled forts of Fort William in Bengal, Fort St George in Madras and Bombay castle before they were forts?


Answer: Dutch

Question: who helped join the East India company in a joint attack on Portuguese and Spanish ships?


Answer: 23

Question: by 1647 how many factories did the company have?


Answer: commercial trading operations

Question: the east india company changed how it did business by moving from focusing on royal patronage to what type of business?


Answer: Portuguese Estado da Índia

Question: when the east india company move to commercial trading what company did they surpass?


Answer: walled forts

Question: The top or most important factories had what physical feature in common?


Answer: Anglo-Dutch Wars of the 17th and 18th centuries

Context: In 1634, the Mughal emperor extended his hospitality to the English traders to the region of Bengal, and in 1717 completely waived customs duties for the trade. The company's mainstay businesses were by then cotton, silk, indigo dye, saltpetre, and tea. The Dutch were aggressive competitors and had meanwhile expanded their monopoly of the spice trade in the Malaccan straits by ousting the Portuguese in 1640–41. With reduced Portuguese and Spanish influence in the region, the EIC and Dutch East India Company (VOC) entered a period of intense competition, resulting in the Anglo-Dutch Wars of the 17th and 18th centuries.

Question: Name the wars that was caused by the intense competition between the EIC and Dutch East India Company


Answer: ousting the Portuguese in 1640–41

Question: what caused the Dutch to expand thier spice trade in the malaccan straits?


Answer: The company's mainstay business

Question: How important were cotton, silk, indigo dye,saltpetre and tea to the company?


Answer: 1717

Question: what year did the Mughal emperor completely wave customs duities?


Answer: English traders

Question: who did the Mughal emperor extend hospitality to?


Answer: Bengal

Question: what region was made available to english traders by the Mughal emperor?


Answer: waived customs duties

Question: in 1717 what made the region of Bengal so appealing to English traders?


Answer: indigo dye

Question: why type of dye was one of the East India company's main products?


Answer: The Dutch

Question: Who were the main competitors that had a monopoly of the spice trade in Malaccan?


Answer: Anglo-Dutch Wars

Question: what wars was a result of the competitive nature of the mulitple trading companies in the 17th and 18th centuries?


Answer: £50,000 to £60,000

Context: In September 1695, Captain Henry Every, an English pirate on board the Fancy, reached the Straits of Bab-el-Mandeb, where he teamed up with five other pirate captains to make an attack on the Indian fleet making the annual voyage to Mocha. The Mughal convoy included the treasure-laden Ganj-i-Sawai, reported to be the greatest in the Mughal fleet and the largest ship operational in the Indian Ocean, and its escort, the Fateh Muhammed. They were spotted passing the straits en route to Surat. The pirates gave chase and caught up with Fateh Muhammed some days later, and meeting little resistance, took some £50,000 to £60,000 worth of treasure.

Question: How much treasure was taken by pirates?


Answer: Ganj-i-Sawai,

Question: waht was the name of largest ship operating in the Indian ocean?


Answer: annual

Question: how often did the Indian fleet voyage to Mocha?


Answer: English pirate

Question: What type of Captain was Henry Every?


Answer: Captain Henry Every

Question: What was the name of the Pirate on board the Fancy who later teamed up with five other pirate captiains to attack the Indian Fleet?


Answer: 1695

Question: When did Captain Henry Every attack the Indian Fleet


Answer: Mocha

Question: Where was the indian Fleet headed when they were attacked by Captain Every


Answer: Ganj-i-Sawai

Question: What was reportly the largest ship in the Mughal Convoy in the Indian Fleet?


Answer: 500,000

Context: Every continued in pursuit and managed to overhaul Ganj-i-Sawai, which resisted strongly before eventually striking. Ganj-i-Sawai carried enormous wealth and, according to contemporary East India Company sources, was carrying a relative of the Grand Mughal, though there is no evidence to suggest that it was his daughter and her retinue. The loot from the Ganj-i-Sawai had a total value between £325,000 and £600,000, including 500,000 gold and silver pieces, and has become known as the richest ship ever taken by pirates.

Question: how many gold and silver pieces were on the Ganj-i-Sawai?


Answer: £325,000 and £600,000

Question: What was the total value of cargo on the Ganj-i-Sawai?


Answer: a relative of the Grand Mughal

Question: who was on the Ganji-i-Sawai according to the EIC?


Answer: richest ship ever taken by pirates

Question: what is the Ganj-i-Sawai know for?


Answer: £600,000

Question: What was reportedly the high value of of loot that the Ganj-i-Sawai had?


Answer: Ganj-i-Sawai

Question: as times has past what has become know as the richest ship ever taken by Pirates?


Answer: 500,000 gold and silver pieces

Question: how many gold and silver pieces were on the Ganj-i-Sawai?


Answer: Every

Context: When the news arrived in England it caused an outcry. In response, a combined bounty of £1,000 was offered for Every's capture by the Privy Council and East India Company, leading to the first worldwide manhunt in recorded history. The plunder of Aurangzeb's treasure ship had serious consequences for the English East India Company. The furious Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb ordered Sidi Yaqub and Nawab Daud Khan to attack and close four of the company's factories in India and imprison their officers, who were almost lynched by a mob of angry Mughals, blaming them for their countryman's depredations, and threatened to put an end to all English trading in India. To appease Emperor Aurangzeb and particularly his Grand Vizier Asad Khan, Parliament exempted Every from all of the Acts of Grace (pardons) and amnesties it would subsequently issue to other pirates.

Question: Who caused the first worldwide manhunt?


Answer: £1,000

Question: What was the total bounty offered for Captian Every after England heard that the Ganj-i-Sawai was taken


Answer: manhunt

Question: Captian Every was the focus of the first recorded worldwide.... what in history?


Answer: Privy Council

Question: What was the name of the council that offered part of the bounty for Captain Every


Answer: Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb

Question: Who took 4 East India ship and arrested their officers as a reaction to the attack on Ganj-i-Sawai


Answer: Acts of Grace

Question: Due to the danger the Captian Every put the trading abiliy of East India Company what Act would he never qualify for that other pirate were later offered?


Answer: prohibited by act of parliament

Context: This allowed any English firm to trade with India, unless specifically prohibited by act of parliament, thereby annulling the charter that had been in force for almost 100 years. By an act that was passed in 1698, a new "parallel" East India Company (officially titled the English Company Trading to the East Indies) was floated under a state-backed indemnity of £2 million. The powerful stockholders of the old company quickly subscribed a sum of £315,000 in the new concern, and dominated the new body. The two companies wrestled with each other for some time, both in England and in India, for a dominant share of the trade.

Question: enlish firms were allow to trade with India unless?


Answer: English Company Trading to the East Indies

Question: what was the name of the second East india company that ended up runnig parallel to the first?


Answer: India

Question: The two parallel East India company had a power stuggle in both England and?


Answer: 1698

Question: In what year was the Act passed the made a parallel East India company?


Answer: £315,000

Question: The stock holder of the Original East India company rasied how much money to try and deal with the parallel East India Company?


Answer: 15%

Context: In the following decades there was a constant battle between the company lobby and the Parliament. The company sought a permanent establishment, while the Parliament would not willingly allow it greater autonomy and so relinquish the opportunity to exploit the company's profits. In 1712, another act renewed the status of the company, though the debts were repaid. By 1720, 15% of British imports were from India, almost all passing through the company, which reasserted the influence of the company lobby. The licence was prolonged until 1766 by yet another act in 1730.

Question: in 1720 what % of import goods were from India?


Answer: Parliament

Question: Who passed the acts that effected the profits of East india company


Answer: company lobby

Question: Who argued against parliament on the trade issue that involded the East India Company


Answer: £1 million

Context: At this time, Britain and France became bitter rivals. Frequent skirmishes between them took place for control of colonial possessions. In 1742, fearing the monetary consequences of a war, the British government agreed to extend the deadline for the licensed exclusive trade by the company in India until 1783, in return for a further loan of £1 million. Between 1756 and 1763, the Seven Years' War diverted the state's attention towards consolidation and defence of its territorial possessions in Europe and its colonies in North America.

Question: The British Government agrree to extend the licensed for the company in India until 1793 for how much money


Answer: monetary consequences of a war

Question: What was the big fear that brought the British government to extend the deadline for the trade license for the company?


Answer: Seven Years' War

Question: What was the name of the war that lasted from 1756 to 1763?


Answer: colonies in North America

Question: The seven years' war changed the British state focus from trade to protecting europe and defending which colonies?


Answer: 1763

Question: in what year did the Seven years' war


Answer: Industrial Revolution

Context: With the advent of the Industrial Revolution, Britain surged ahead of its European rivals. Demand for Indian commodities was boosted by the need to sustain the troops and the economy during the war, and by the increased availability of raw materials and efficient methods of production. As home to the revolution, Britain experienced higher standards of living. Its spiralling cycle of prosperity, demand and production had a profound influence on overseas trade. The company became the single largest player in the British global market. William Henry Pyne notes in his book The Microcosm of London (1808) that:

Question: what was the type of Revolution that allowed Britian to move ahead of its European rivals?


Answer: The Microcosm of London

Question: What was the name of William Henry Pyne book from 1808?


Answer: The company

Question: What became the largest player in the British global market according to William Henry Pyne?


Answer: Britain

Question: What country was the home to the Industrial Revolution?


Answer: raw

Question: The industrial revoluntion gave raise to the access to what type of material?


Answer: saltpetre

Context: Outstanding debts were also agreed and the company permitted to export 250 tons of saltpetre. Again in 1673, Banks successfully negotiated another contract for 700 tons of saltpetre at £37,000 between the king and the company. So urgent was the need to supply the armed forces in the United Kingdom, America and elsewhere that the authorities sometimes turned a blind eye on the untaxed sales. One governor of the company was even reported as saying in 1864 that he would rather have the saltpetre made than the tax on salt.

Question: Due to agreed debt what 250 tons product was first permitted to be exported by the company after the seven years' war?


Answer: 1673

Question: in what year did Banks negotiate between the king and the East india company for 700 tons of saltpetre?


Answer: armed forces

Question: Saltpetre was used for what people, specifically the need for this product had people overlooking untaxed sales?


Answer: salt

Question: One of the governor of the company said that he would rather have saltpetre then____ in its raw form?


Answer: £37,000

Question: how much did 700 tons of saltpetre go for in the contract negotiated by Banks in 1673


Answer: 1763

Context: By the Treaty of Paris (1763), France regained the five establishments captured by the British during the war (Pondichéry, Mahe, Karikal, Yanam and Chandernagar) but was prevented from erecting fortifications and keeping troops in Bengal (art. XI). Elsewhere in India, the French were to remain a military threat, particularly during the War of American Independence, and up to the capture of Pondichéry in 1793 at the outset of the French Revolutionary Wars without any military presence. Although these small outposts remained French possessions for the next two hundred years, French ambitions on Indian territories were effectively laid to rest, thus eliminating a major source of economic competition for the company.

Question: what year was the Treaty of Paris agreed on?


Answer: five

Question: The treaty of Paris return how many esablishment captured by the British?


Answer: Bengal

Question: The Treaty of Paris prevented France from keeping troops in what location?


Answer: French Revolutionary Wars

Question: in 1793 what war was the french involded in even without a big military presences?


Answer: EIC

Context: In its first century and half, the EIC used a few hundred soldiers as guards. The great expansion came after 1750, when it had 3000 regular troops. By 1763, it had 26,000; by 1778, it had 67,000. It recruited largely Indian troops, and trained them along European lines. The company, fresh from a colossal victory, and with the backing of its own private well-disciplined and experienced army, was able to assert its interests in the Carnatic region from its base at Madras and in Bengal from Calcutta, without facing any further obstacles from other colonial powers.

Question: what is the acronym for the East india company?


Answer: 3000

Question: In 1750 how many regular troops did the EIC have?


Answer: Indian

Question: in 1778 most of the troops that the EIC had were from where?


Answer: 1763

Question: what year did the EIC have 26,000 troops in their employ


Answer: three

Context: With the gradual weakening of the Marathas in the aftermath of the three Anglo-Maratha wars, the British also secured the Ganges-Jumna Doab, the Delhi-Agra region, parts of Bundelkhand, Broach, some districts of Gujarat, the fort of Ahmmadnagar, province of Cuttack (which included Mughalbandi/the coastal part of Odisha, Garjat/the princely states of Odisha, Balasore Port, parts of Midnapore district of West Bengal), Bombay (Mumbai) and the surrounding areas, leading to a formal end of the Maratha empire and firm establishment of the British East India Company in India.

Question: how many Anglo Maratha wars were there?


Answer: Maratha empire

Question: What empire ended after the three Anglo- Maratha wars?


Answer: India

Question: With the formal end of Maratha Empire the EIC created a firm hold on what country?


Answer: gradual

Question: Was the Maratha Empire ended quick or gradual?


Answer: British

Question: what country took over the fort of Ahmmadnagar that then became part of the cause for the Maratha Emprie to end?


Answer: Addiscombe Military Seminary

Context: Within the Army, British officers who initially trained at the company's own academy at the Addiscombe Military Seminary, always outranked Indians, no matter how long their service. The highest rank to which an Indian soldier could aspire was Subadar-Major (or Rissaldar-Major in cavalry units), effectively a senior subaltern equivalent. Promotion for both British and Indian soldiers was strictly by seniority, so Indian soldiers rarely reached the commissioned ranks of Jamadar or Subadar before they were middle aged at best. They received no training in administration or leadership to make them independent of their British officers.

Question: What was the name of EIC military company?


Answer: Subadar-Major

Question: what was the highest rank an Indian could be in the EIC army


Answer: seniority

Question: While in EIC army the British officer outrank the indian officer they both promoted based on?


Answer: death penalty

Context: In 1838 with the amount of smuggled opium entering China approaching 1,400 tons a year, the Chinese imposed a death penalty for opium smuggling and sent a Special Imperial Commissioner, Lin Zexu, to curb smuggling. This resulted in the First Opium War (1839–42). After the war Hong Kong island was ceded to Britain under the Treaty of Nanking and the Chinese market opened to the opium traders of Britain and other nations. The Jardines and Apcar and Company dominated the trade, although P&O also tried to take a share. A Second Opium War fought by Britain and France against China lasted from 1856 until 1860 and led to the Treaty of Tientsin, which legalised the importation of opium. Legalisation stimulated domestic Chinese opium production and increased the importation of opium from Turkey and Persia. This increased competition for the Chinese market led to India reducing its opium output and diversifying its exports.

Question: in 1838 what was the sentence for smuggling opium in to China?


Answer: 1,400 tons

Question: in 1838 about how many tone of Opium was smuggled in to China per year?


Answer: Special Imperial Commissioner

Question: what was the title of the person people were sent to if they were caught smuggling Opium in to China?


Answer: 1839

Question: when did the first Opium war start?


Answer: France

Question: Britian faught side by side with what country in the second Opium war?


Answer: Parliament

Context: Despite stiff resistance from the East India lobby in parliament and from the Company's shareholders, the Act passed. It introduced substantial governmental control and allowed British India to be formally under the control of the Crown, but leased back to the Company at £40,000 for two years. Under the Act's most important provision, a governing Council composed of five members was created in Calcutta. The three members nominated by Parliament and representing the Government's interest could, and invariably would, outvote the two Company members. The Council was headed by Warren Hastings, the incumbent Governor, who became the first Governor-General of Bengal, with an ill-defined authority over the Bombay and Madras Presidencies. His nomination, made by the Court of Directors, would in future be subject to the approval of a Council of Four appointed by the Crown. Initially, the Council consisted of Lt. General Sir John Clavering, The Honourable Sir George Monson, Sir Richard Barwell, and Sir Philip Francis.

Question: EIC was leased back the land they held in British India by what part of the British goverment?


Answer: £40,000

Question: How much did the parliament lease British india for to EIC (the lease was for two years)?


Answer: five

Question: The British Government created a how many man council in Calcutta?


Answer: two

Question: How many council member weres allow to be from the EIC?


Answer: outvote

Question: By having 3 members on the council in Calcutta from the British Government they were always able to ____ the two EIC members?


Answer: British

Context: Hastings was entrusted with the power of peace and war. British judges and magistrates would also be sent to India to administer the legal system. The Governor General and the council would have complete legislative powers. The company was allowed to maintain its virtual monopoly over trade in exchange for the biennial sum and was obligated to export a minimum quantity of goods yearly to Britain. The costs of administration were to be met by the company. The Company initially welcomed these provisions, but the annual burden of the payment contributed to the steady decline of its finances.

Question: in British indian a jugde had to come from where to oversee the legal system?


Answer: The Governor General

Question: The highest ranking persons title in British india is?


Answer: Governor General

Question: The highest ranking person's title in British india is?


Answer: trade

Question: Did EIC have a monopoly over the governement or trade in british india


Answer: export a minimum quantity of goods yearly to Britain

Question: Other then money what did it cost the EIC to have the control in trade the had in British India


Answer: Pitt's Act

Context: Pitt's Act was deemed a failure because it quickly became apparent that the boundaries between government control and the company's powers were nebulous and highly subjective. The government felt obliged to respond to humanitarian calls for better treatment of local peoples in British-occupied territories. Edmund Burke, a former East India Company shareholder and diplomat, was moved to address the situation and introduced a new Regulating Bill in 1783. The bill was defeated amid lobbying by company loyalists and accusations of nepotism in the bill's recommendations for the appointment of councillors.

Question: The name of the Act that was a failure in creating bourdaries for the Crown and the EIC for being subjective?


Answer: humanitarian

Question: after the Pitt act the Crown began to focus more on _______ efforts of its people in it territories?


Answer: Edmund Burke

Question: what was the name of the person who was once a large shareholder in EIC and talk to the issues with with the new Regulating bill in 1793?


Answer: defeated

Question: Was the new Regulating Bill of 1793 passed or defeated?


Answer: fifth

Context: This Act clearly demarcated borders between the Crown and the Company. After this point, the Company functioned as a regularised subsidiary of the Crown, with greater accountability for its actions and reached a stable stage of expansion and consolidation. Having temporarily achieved a state of truce with the Crown, the Company continued to expand its influence to nearby territories through threats and coercive actions. By the middle of the 19th century, the Company's rule extended across most of India, Burma, Malaya, Singapore, and British Hong Kong, and a fifth of the world's population was under its trading influence. In addition, Penang, one of the states in Malaya, became the fourth most important settlement, a presidency, of the Company's Indian territories.

Question: by the middle of the 19th century how much of the worlds population was effected by EIC and it trade?


Answer: Penang

Question: To EIC in Malaya what state was the forth most improtant settlement?


Answer: regularised subsidiary

Question: during this time the relationship change between Britian and the EIC. the EIC became more of a what to the crown??


Answer: greater accountability

Question: when EIC become more like a regularised subsidiary did they have greater or less accountability to the Crown


Answer: Lord Wellesley

Context: The aggressive policies of Lord Wellesley and the Marquis of Hastings led to the Company gaining control of all India (except for the Punjab and Sindh), and some part of the then kingdom of Nepal under the Sugauli Treaty. The Indian Princes had become vassals of the Company. But the expense of wars leading to the total control of India strained the Company's finances. The Company was forced to petition Parliament for assistance. This was the background to the Charter Act of 1813 which, among other things:

Question: What Lord helped the EIC through his politics, take control over all of india?


Answer: the expense of wars

Question: in the past the deals under the crown strained the finances of EIC now as they expained throughout India what was the biggest strain on their finances


Answer: Sugauli Treaty

Question: what treaty allowed the Eic in to the then kingdom of nepal?


Answer: Sindh

Question: While the EIc took over all of India there were, two exception the first being Punjab, what was the Second?


Answer: Charter Act of 1813

Question: EIC reached out to parliament for help with finances. this lead to which Act?


Answer: London

Context: The Company's headquarters in London, from which much of India was governed, was East India House in Leadenhall Street. After occupying premises in Philpot Lane from 1600 to 1621; in Crosby House, Bishopsgate, from 1621 to 1638; and in Leadenhall Street from 1638 to 1648, the Company moved into Craven House, an Elizabethan mansion in Leadenhall Street. The building had become known as East India House by 1661. It was completely rebuilt and enlarged in 1726–9; and further significantly remodelled and expanded in 1796–1800. It was finally vacated in 1860 and demolished in 1861–62. The site is now occupied by the Lloyd's building.

Question: Where were the EIC headquarters located?


Answer: East India House

Question: What was the name of EIC headquartes?


Answer: Leadenhall Street

Question: between 1638 and 1648 what street was EIC headquarters on?


Answer: Craven House

Question: Where was the EIC headquarters moved to after 1648?


Answer: the Lloyd's building

Question: What building now sits where the EIC headquarters last sat?


Answer: promoted by the East India Company

Context: In 1803, an Act of Parliament, promoted by the East India Company, established the East India Dock Company, with the aim of establishing a new set of docks (the East India Docks) primarily for the use of ships trading with India. The existing Brunswick Dock, part of the Blackwall Yard site, became the Export Dock; while a new Import Dock was built to the north. In 1838 the East India Dock Company merged with the West India Dock Company. The docks were taken over by the Port of London Authority in 1909, and closed in 1967.

Question: in 1803 was act of parliament supported by EIC?


Answer: East India Dock Company

Question: the 1803 act created what dock program?


Answer: aim of establishing a new set of docks (the East India Docks) primarily for the use of ships trading with India

Question: The goal of the East in dock company was first what?


Answer: Brunswick Dock

Question: What was the name of the export dock of the EIC after the 1803 act?


Answer: West India Dock Company

Question: in 1838 what company did the East india dock company merge with?


Answer: St George's Cross

Context: From the period of 1600, the canton consisted of a St George's Cross representing the Kingdom of England. With the Acts of Union 1707, the canton was updated to be the new Union Flag—consisting of an English St George's Cross combined with a Scottish St Andrew's cross—representing the Kingdom of Great Britain. After the Acts of Union 1800 that joined Ireland with Great Britain to form the United Kingdom, the canton of the East India Company flag was altered accordingly to include a Saint Patrick's Saltire replicating the updated Union Flag representing the United Kingdom of Great Britain and Ireland.

Question: in the period of 1600 what Canton cross repesented England


Answer: St Andrew's cross

Question: after the act of 1707 what was the second cross added to the Canton for great britian


Answer: 1707

Question: IN what year did the canton become a flag with crosses on it and not just a cross?


Answer: 1800

Question: in wat year did ireland join with great britian offically?


Answer: United Kingdom

Question: What is the name of the union that Ireland and Great Britian created when they came together?


Answer: God Indicates

Context: "Azure, three ships with three masts, rigged and under full sail, the sails, pennants and ensigns Argent, each charged with a cross Gules; on a chief of the second a pale quarterly Azure and Gules, on the 1st and 4th a fleur-de-lis or, on the 2nd and 3rd a leopard or, between two roses Gules seeded Or barbed Vert." The shield had as a crest: "A sphere without a frame, bounded with the Zodiac in bend Or, between two pennants flottant Argent, each charged with a cross Gules, over the sphere the words DEUS INDICAT" (Latin: God Indicates). The supporters were two sea lions (lions with fishes' tails) and the motto was DEO DUCENTE NIL NOCET (Latin: Where God Leads, Nothing Hurts).

Question: What does DEUS INDICAT mean?


Answer: roses

Question: what type of flowers did Gules use?


Answer: sea lions

Question: after the DEUS INDICAT what type of sea animals were pictured?


Answer: three

Question: in the above quote how many ship and masts were indicated?


Answer: leopard

Question: What animal was listed as part of the four fleur-de-lis in the above quote


Answer: lion

Context: The East India Company's arms, granted in 1698, were: "Argent a cross Gules; in the dexter chief quarter an escutcheon of the arms of France and England quarterly, the shield ornamentally and regally crowned Or." The crest was: "A lion rampant guardant Or holding between the forepaws a regal crown proper." The supporters were: "Two lions rampant guardant Or, each supporting a banner erect Argent, charged with a cross Gules." The motto was AUSPICIO REGIS ET SENATUS ANGLIÆ (Latin: By right of the King and the Senate of England).

Question: The EIC Arms feature what king of the jungle animal on it?


Answer: crown

Question: in the arms of EIC what was the lion holding in his forepaws


Answer: Two

Question: how many lions were on the EIC arms


Answer: 1698

Question: what year did the EIC arms include both france and england?


Answer: Napoleonic Wars

Context: During the period of the Napoleonic Wars, the East India Company arranged for letters of marque for its vessels such as the Lord Nelson. This was not so that they could carry cannon to fend off warships, privateers and pirates on their voyages to India and China (that they could do without permission) but so that, should they have the opportunity to take a prize, they could do so without being guilty of piracy. Similarly, the Earl of Mornington, an East India Company packet ship of only six guns, also sailed under a letter of marque.

Question: During what war Did the EIC get letter of marque for its vessels


Answer: should they have the opportunity to take a prize, they could do so without being guilty of piracy

Question: Why did EIC want tthe letters of marque most?


Answer: cannon

Question: With out the letters of marque what wepon did they have to protect themself that was a part of their ship?


Answer: six

Question: The Earl of Mornington would have how many ___ guns on the EIc ships?


Answer: Battle of Pulo Aura

Context: At the Battle of Pulo Aura, which was probably the company's most notable naval victory, Nathaniel Dance, Commodore of a convoy of Indiamen and sailing aboard the Warley, led several Indiamen in a skirmish with a French squadron, driving them off. Some six years earlier, on 28 January 1797, five Indiamen, the Woodford, under Captain Charles Lennox, the Taunton-Castle, Captain Edward Studd, Canton, Captain Abel Vyvyan, and Boddam, Captain George Palmer, and Ocean, Captain John Christian Lochner, had encountered Admiral de Sercey and his squadron of frigates. On this occasion the Indiamen also succeeded in bluffing their way to safety, and without any shots even being fired. Lastly, on 15 June 1795, the General Goddard played a large role in the capture of seven Dutch East Indiamen off St Helena.

Question: What was the most notable naval victory EIC had?


Answer: General Goddard

Question: what general played the biggest role in the capture of the seven Dutch East Indiamen?


Answer: off St Helena

Question: Where were the 7 Dutch Easteast indiamen capture?


Answer: bluffing

Question: In 1797 how did the Woodford get to safety without firing one bullet?


Answer: Captain Charles Lennox

Question: in 1797 who was the captian of the Woodford that is first listed of the 5 captians?


Answer: British Library in London

Context: Unlike all other British Government records, the records from the East India Company (and its successor the India Office) are not in The National Archives at Kew, London, but are held by the British Library in London as part of the Asia, Pacific and Africa Collections. The catalogue is searchable online in the Access to Archives catalogues. Many of the East India Company records are freely available online under an agreement that the Families in British India Society has with the British Library. Published catalogues exist of East India Company ships' journals and logs, 1600–1834; and of some of the Company's daughter institutions, including the East India Company College, Haileybury, and Addiscombe Military Seminary.

Question: Where are the records of the EIC housed today?


Answer: The National Archives at Kew

Question: Where are the British government's records houseed today?


Answer: The catalogue is searchable online in the Access to Archives catalogues

Question: Are you able to search most of the records online today?


Answer: East Timor

Context: Definitions of "Southeast Asia" vary, but most definitions include the area represented by the countries (sovereign states and dependent territories) listed below. All of the states except for East Timor are members of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN). The area, together with part of South Asia, was widely known as the East Indies or simply the Indies until the 20th century. Christmas Island and the Cocos (Keeling) Islands[citation needed] are considered part of Southeast Asia though they are governed by Australia.[citation needed] Sovereignty issues exist over some territories in the South China Sea. Papua New Guinea has stated that it might join ASEAN, and is currently an observer.

Question: Which state is not a member of the Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)?


Answer: Papua New Guinea

Question: Which country is considering joining the Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)?


Answer: East Indies

Question: What was Southeast Asia commonly known as before?


Answer: Sovereignty

Question: What type of issue exist over the territories in the South China sea?


Answer: Australia

Question: Which country is Christmas Island governed by?


Answer: Papua New Guinea

Question: Which country has stated that it might join ASEAN?


Answer: Association of Southeast Asian Nations

Question: What does ASEAN mean?


Answer: Christmas Island and the Cocos (Keeling) Islands

Question: Which two Islands governed by Australia are considered a part of ASEAN?


Answer: East Timor

Question: Which state is not a member of ASEAN?


Answer: India

Context: The Andaman and Nicobar Islands of India are geographically considered part of Southeast Asia. Eastern Bangladesh and the Seven Sister States of India are culturally part of Southeast Asia and sometimes considered both South Asian and Southeast Asian. The Seven Sister States of India are also geographically part of Southeast Asia.[citation needed] The rest of the island of New Guinea which is not part of Indonesia, namely, Papua New Guinea, is sometimes included so are Palau, Guam, and the Northern Mariana Islands, which were all part of the Spanish East Indies.[citation needed]

Question: What country is Nicobar Island apart of?


Answer: Papua New Guinea

Question: What part of New Guinea is also considered to be apart of Southeast Asia?


Answer: Andaman

Question: What island in India is also considered to be geographically a part of Southeast Asia besides Nicobar Island?


Answer: Southeast Asia

Question: What is the Seven Sister States of India geographically apart of?


Answer: The Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Question: Which Island is geographically considered a part of Southeast Asia?


Answer: Eastern Bangladesh and the Seven Sister States of India

Question: Which countries are culturally a part of Southeast Asia?


Answer: Papua New Guinea, is sometimes included so are Palau, Guam, and the Northern Mariana Islands

Question: Which islands were a part of the Spanish East Indies?


Answer: 45,000 years ago

Context: Homo sapiens reached the region by around 45,000 years ago, having moved eastwards from the Indian subcontinent. Homo floresiensis also lived in the area up until 12,000 years ago, when they became extinct. Austronesian people, who form the majority of the modern population in Indonesia, Malaysia, Brunei, East Timor, and the Philippines, may have migrated to Southeast Asia from Taiwan. They arrived in Indonesia around 2000 BC,and as they spread through the archipelago, they often settled along coastal areas and confined indigenous peoples such as Negritos of the Philippines or Papuans of New Guinea to inland regions.

Question: How many years ago did Homo sapiens reached the Southeast Asia region?


Answer: Austronesian people

Question: Which type of people might have migrated from Taiwan into Southeast Asia?


Answer: Indonesia

Question: What country did the Austronesian people arrived at first?


Answer: Homo floresiensis

Question: Which group became extinct after living in the region for about 12,000 years?


Answer: 2000 BC

Question: When did the Austronesian people arrive in indonesia?


Answer: coastal areas

Question: Where did the Austronesian people settle down in Indonesia?


Answer: Homo floresiensis

Question: Which people became extinct after the Homosapiens arrived?


Answer: 12,000 years ago

Question: How long ago did the Homo floresiensis live before they became extinct?


Answer: Jawa Dwipa Hindu

Context: The Jawa Dwipa Hindu kingdom in Java and Sumatra existed around 200 BCE. The history of the Malay-speaking world began with the advent of Indian influence, which dates back to at least the 3rd century BCE. Indian traders came to the archipelago both for its abundant forest and maritime products and to trade with merchants from China, who also discovered the Malay world at an early date. Both Hinduism and Buddhism were well established in the Malay Peninsula by the beginning of the 1st century CE, and from there spread across the archipelago.

Question: Which kingdom during 200 BCE that is located in Java and Sumatra exist?


Answer: Indian

Question: What nationality were the traders that came to archipelago?


Answer: China

Question: What country did the merchants the traders did trade with come from?


Answer: 3rd century BCE

Question: How long did the Indian influence date back to for the Malay-speaking world?


Answer: Buddhism

Question: What religion besides Hinduism became well established in the Malay Peninsula?


Answer: Jawa Dwipa

Question: Which Hindu kingdom existed around 200 BCE?


Answer: Indian traders

Question: Which traders came to the archipelago for trade?


Answer: abundant forest and maritime products

Question: The Java Dwipa kingdom was well-known for what?


Answer: Hinduism and Buddhism

Question: Which religions were well established in the Malay peninsula by the beginning of the 1st century CE?


Answer: merchants from China

Question: Apart from the Indian traders, who else discovered the Malay peninsula for trade?


Answer: The Majapahit Empire

Context: The Majapahit Empire was an Indianised kingdom based in eastern Java from 1293 to around 1500. Its greatest ruler was Hayam Wuruk, whose reign from 1350 to 1389 marked the empire's peak when it dominated other kingdoms in the southern Malay Peninsula, Borneo, Sumatra, and Bali. Various sources such as the Nagarakertagama also mention that its influence spanned over parts of Sulawesi, Maluku, and some areas of western New Guinea and the Philippines, making it the largest empire to ever exist in Southeast Asian history.

Question: Which Indianised kingdom was based in eastern java?


Answer: Hayam Wuruk

Question: Which ruler reigned between 1350 to 1389?


Answer: 1293 to around 1500

Question: How long did the Majapahit Empire last?


Answer: parts of Sulawesi, Maluku, and some areas of western New Guinea and the Philippines

Question: How far did the Majapahit Empire's influence stretch?


Answer: Srivijaya kingdom

Context: In the 11th century, a turbulent period occurred in the history of Maritime Southeast Asia. The Indian Chola navy crossed the ocean and attacked the Srivijaya kingdom of Sangrama Vijayatungavarman in Kadaram (Kedah), the capital of the powerful maritime kingdom was sacked and the king was taken captive. Along with Kadaram, Pannai in present-day Sumatra and Malaiyur and the Malayan peninsula were attacked too. Soon after that, the king of Kedah Phra Ong Mahawangsa became the first ruler to abandon the traditional Hindu faith, and converted to Islam with the Sultanate of Kedah established in year 1136. Samudera Pasai converted to Islam in the year 1267, the King of Malacca Parameswara married the princess of Pasai, and the son became the first sultan of Malacca. Soon, Malacca became the center of Islamic study and maritime trade, and other rulers followed suit. Indonesian religious leader and Islamic scholar Hamka (1908–1981) wrote in 1961: "The development of Islam in Indonesia and Malaya is intimately related to a Chinese Muslim, Admiral Zheng He."

Question: Which kingdom did the Chola navy attack during the 11th century?


Answer: Sangrama Vijayatungavarman

Question: What was the capital of Srivijaya kingdom?


Answer: Phra Ong Mahawangsa

Question: Which king of Kedah converted to Islam in the year 1267?


Answer: Hamka

Question: Name an Indonesian Islamic scholar who lived from 1908-1981?


Answer: Admiral Zheng He

Question: Which Chinese admiral was related to the development of Islam in Indonesia & Malaya?


Answer: Malacca Sultanate

Context: There are several theories to the Islamisation process in Southeast Asia. Another theory is trade. The expansion of trade among West Asia, India and Southeast Asia helped the spread of the religion as Muslim traders from Southern Yemen (Hadramout) brought Islam to the region with their large volume of trade. Many settled in Indonesia, Singapore, and Malaysia. This is evident in the Arab-Indonesian, Arab-Singaporean, and Arab-Malay populations who were at one time very prominent in each of their countries. The second theory is the role of missionaries or Sufis.[citation needed] The Sufi missionaries played a significant role in spreading the faith by introducing Islamic ideas to the region. Finally, the ruling classes embraced Islam and that further aided the permeation of the religion throughout the region. The ruler of the region's most important port, Malacca Sultanate, embraced Islam in the 15th century, heralding a period of accelerated conversion of Islam throughout the region as Islam provided a positive force among the ruling and trading classes.

Question: In the 15th century, the ruler of which port embraced Islam?


Answer: Indonesia, Singapore, and Malaysia

Question: Where did the traders from Yemen settle?


Answer: The Sufi missionaries

Question: Which missionary helped to spread Islam?


Answer: Islam

Question: Which religion proved a positive force among the ruling & trading classes?