Answer: Peru

Question: Outside of Mexico, where else was the Spanish dollar minted?


Answer: 1857

Context: The dollar was first based on the value and look of the Spanish dollar, used widely in Spanish America from the 16th to the 19th centuries. The first dollar coins issued by the United States Mint (founded 1792) were similar in size and composition to the Spanish dollar, minted in Mexico and Peru. The Spanish, U.S. silver dollars, and later, Mexican silver pesos circulated side by side in the United States, and the Spanish dollar and Mexican peso remained legal tender until the Coinage Act of 1857. The coinage of various English colonies also circulated. The lion dollar was popular in the Dutch New Netherland Colony (New York), but the lion dollar also circulated throughout the English colonies during the 17th century and early 18th century. Examples circulating in the colonies were usually worn so that the design was not fully distinguishable, thus they were sometimes referred to as "dog dollars".

Question: When were the Spanish dollar and Mexican peso no longer accepted as legal tender?


Answer: Gold Standard Act

Context: The Gold Standard Act of 1900 abandoned the bimetallic standard and defined the dollar as 23.22 grains (1.505 g) of gold, equivalent to setting the price of 1 troy ounce of gold at $20.67. Silver coins continued to be issued for circulation until 1964, when all silver was removed from dimes and quarters, and the half dollar was reduced to 40% silver. Silver half dollars were last issued for circulation in 1970. Gold coins were confiscated by Executive Order 6102 issued in 1933 by Franklin Roosevelt. The gold standard was changed to 13.71 grains (0.888 g), equivalent to setting the price of 1 troy ounce of gold at $35. This standard persisted until 1968.

Question: What was the name of the act introduced in the year 1900?


Answer: 1.505

Question: How much gold in grams was one dollar equivalent to?


Answer: $20.67

Question: How much was 1 troy ounce of gold worth?


Answer: 1964

Question: Which year brought the end to silver being in dimes and quarters?


Answer: Franklin Roosevelt

Question: Which President confiscated gold coins?


Answer: Tennessee

Context: Early releases of the Washington coin included error coins shipped primarily from the Philadelphia mint to Florida and Tennessee banks. Highly sought after by collectors, and trading for as much as $850 each within a week of discovery, the error coins were identified by the absence of the edge impressions "E PLURIBUS UNUM IN GOD WE TRUST 2007 P". The mint of origin is generally accepted to be mostly Philadelphia, although identifying the source mint is impossible without opening a mint pack also containing marked units. Edge lettering is minted in both orientations with respect to "heads", some amateur collectors were initially duped into buying "upside down lettering error" coins. Some cynics also erroneously point out that the Federal Reserve makes more profit from dollar bills than dollar coins because they wear out in a few years, whereas coins are more permanent. The fallacy of this argument arises because new notes printed to replace worn out notes, which have been withdrawn from circulation, bring in no net revenue to the government to offset the costs of printing new notes and destroying the old ones. As most vending machines are incapable of making change in banknotes, they commonly accept only $1 bills, though a few will give change in dollar coins.

Question: Other than Florida, which other state got send error coins?


Answer: Philadelphia mint

Question: Where did error coins originate?


Answer: profit

Question: How much were error coins initially worth for collectors?


Answer: "upside down lettering error" coins

Question: What were some amateur collectors duped into buying?


Answer: $1 bills

Question: What do vending machines commonly only accept?


Answer: borrow money on the credit of the United States

Context: The U.S. Constitution provides that Congress shall have the power to "borrow money on the credit of the United States". Congress has exercised that power by authorizing Federal Reserve Banks to issue Federal Reserve Notes. Those notes are "obligations of the United States" and "shall be redeemed in lawful money on demand at the Treasury Department of the United States, in the city of Washington, District of Columbia, or at any Federal Reserve bank". Federal Reserve Notes are designated by law as "legal tender" for the payment of debts. Congress has also authorized the issuance of more than 10 other types of banknotes, including the United States Note and the Federal Reserve Bank Note. The Federal Reserve Note is the only type that remains in circulation since the 1970s.

Question: What power was Congress given by the Constitution?


Answer: issue Federal Reserve Notes

Question: What did Congress authorize the Federal Reserve Banks to do?


Answer: obligations of the United States

Question: What are the notes issued by the Federal Reserve?


Answer: Washington, District of Columbia

Question: Where, other than any Federal Reserve bank, can notes be redeemed?


Answer: Federal Reserve Note

Question: Since the 1970s, what is the only type of note that has remained in circulation?


Answer: achieve a specific short-term interest rate target

Context: Usually, the short-term goal of open market operations is to achieve a specific short-term interest rate target. In other instances, monetary policy might instead entail the targeting of a specific exchange rate relative to some foreign currency or else relative to gold. For example, in the case of the United States the Federal Reserve targets the federal funds rate, the rate at which member banks lend to one another overnight. The other primary means of conducting monetary policy include: (i) Discount window lending (as lender of last resort); (ii) Fractional deposit lending (changes in the reserve requirement); (iii) Moral suasion (cajoling certain market players to achieve specified outcomes); (iv) "Open mouth operations" (talking monetary policy with the market).

Question: What is the short term goal of open market operations?


Answer: federal funds rate

Question: What does the Federal Reserve target?


Answer: the rate at which member banks lend to one another overnight

Question: What is the federal funds rate?


Answer: Moral suasion

Question: What is the cajoling of certain market players to achieve specified outcomes also known as?


Answer: talking monetary policy with the market

Question: What does "open mouth operations" mean?


Answer: after World War II

Context: Under the Bretton Woods system established after World War II, the value of gold was fixed to $35 per ounce, and the value of the U.S. dollar was thus anchored to the value of gold. Rising government spending in the 1960s, however, led to doubts about the ability of the United States to maintain this convertibility, gold stocks dwindled as banks and international investors began to convert dollars to gold, and as a result the value of the dollar began to decline. Facing an emerging currency crisis and the imminent danger that the United States would no longer be able to redeem dollars for gold, gold convertibility was finally terminated in 1971 by President Nixon, resulting in the "Nixon shock".

Question: When was the Bretton Woods system established?


Answer: $35 per ounce

Question: What was the fixed value of gold?


Answer: the value of gold

Question: What was the value of the U.S. dollar linked to?


Answer: convert dollars to gold

Question: What did banks and investors do that devalued the dollar?


Answer: 1971

Question: In which year was gold convertability terminated?


Answer: fiat money

Context: The U.S. dollar is fiat money. It is the currency most used in international transactions and is the world's most dominant reserve currency. Several countries use it as their official currency, and in many others it is the de facto currency. Besides the United States, it is also used as the sole currency in two British Overseas Territories in the Caribbean: the British Virgin Islands and the Turks and Caicos islands. A few countries use only the U.S. Dollar for paper money, while the country mints its own coins, or also accepts U.S. coins that can be used as payment in U.S. dollars, such as the Susan B. Anthony dollar.

Question: What kind of money is the U.S. dollar?


Answer: de facto currency

Question: Although for some countries the dollar is not their official currency, how do they use the currency?


Answer: Turks and Caicos islands

Question: Other than the British Virgin Islands, what other area in the Caribbean uses the dollar as it's sole currency?


Answer: mints its own coins

Question: For countries that use the dollar as their paper currency, what other currency do they make?


Answer: Susan B. Anthony dollar

Question: What is an example of a U.S. coin that can be used as payment in some countries?


Answer: cotton fiber paper

Context: Today, USD notes are made from cotton fiber paper, unlike most common paper, which is made of wood fiber. U.S. coins are produced by the United States Mint. U.S. dollar banknotes are printed by the Bureau of Engraving and Printing and, since 1914, have been issued by the Federal Reserve. The "large-sized notes" issued before 1928 measured 7.42 inches (188 mm) by 3.125 inches (79.4 mm); small-sized notes, introduced that year, measure 6.14 inches (156 mm) by 2.61 inches (66 mm) by 0.0043 inches (0.11 mm). When the current, smaller sized U.S. currency was introduced it was referred to as Philippine-sized currency because the Philippines had previously adopted the same size for its legal currency.

Question: What are dollar notes made from now adays?


Answer: wood fiber

Question: What is most common paper made of?


Answer: Federal Reserve

Question: Since 1914, who issues the dollar banknotes?


Answer: 6.14 inches

Question: How long do the current notes measure?


Answer: Philippine

Question: What size currency are the new smaller notes similar to?


Answer: 1792

Context: From 1792, when the Mint Act was passed, the dollar was defined as 371.25 grains (24.056 g) of silver. Many historians[who?] erroneously assume gold was standardized at a fixed rate in parity with silver; however, there is no evidence of Congress making this law. This has to do with Alexander Hamilton's suggestion to Congress of a fixed 15:1 ratio of silver to gold, respectively. The gold coins that were minted however, were not given any denomination whatsoever and traded for a market value relative to the Congressional standard of the silver dollar. 1834 saw a shift in the gold standard to 23.2 grains (1.50 g), followed by a slight adjustment to 23.22 grains (1.505 g) in 1837 (16:1 ratio).[citation needed]

Question: When was the Mint Act passed?


Answer: 371.25

Question: How many grains of silver did the Mint Act define the dollar as?


Answer: Alexander Hamilton

Question: Who suggested that the ratio of silver to gold should be fixed?


Answer: Congressional standard of the silver dollar

Question: What market value were gold coins traded in relation to?


Answer: 1834

Question: In what year did the shift in gold standard occur?


Answer: their precious metal value

Context: Technically, all these coins are still legal tender at face value, though some are far more valuable today for their numismatic value, and for gold and silver coins, their precious metal value. From 1965 to 1970 the Kennedy half dollar was the only circulating coin with any silver content, which was removed in 1971 and replaced with cupronickel. However, since 1992, the U.S. Mint has produced special Silver Proof Sets in addition to the regular yearly proof sets with silver dimes, quarters, and half dollars in place of the standard copper-nickel versions. In addition, an experimental $4.00 (Stella) coin was also minted in 1879, but never placed into circulation, and is properly considered to be a pattern rather than an actual coin denomination.

Question: What are gold and silver coins valuable for now adays?


Answer: their numismatic value

Question: What are non primarily gold and silver coins valuable for?


Answer: Kennedy half dollar

Question: What was the only coin with any silver content in circulation from 1965 to 1970?


Answer: cupronickel

Question: What was the Kennedy half dollar replaced with?


Answer: $4.00

Question: How much was the experimental Stella coin valued at?


Answer: 1794

Context: Dollar coins have not been very popular in the United States. Silver dollars were minted intermittently from 1794 through 1935; a copper-nickel dollar of the same large size, featuring President Dwight D. Eisenhower, was minted from 1971 through 1978. Gold dollars were also minted in the 19th century. The Susan B. Anthony dollar coin was introduced in 1979; these proved to be unpopular because they were often mistaken for quarters, due to their nearly equal size, their milled edge, and their similar color. Minting of these dollars for circulation was suspended in 1980 (collectors' pieces were struck in 1981), but, as with all past U.S. coins, they remain legal tender. As the number of Anthony dollars held by the Federal Reserve and dispensed primarily to make change in postal and transit vending machines had been virtually exhausted, additional Anthony dollars were struck in 1999. In 2000, a new $1 coin, featuring Sacagawea, (the Sacagawea dollar) was introduced, which corrected some of the problems of the Anthony dollar by having a smooth edge and a gold color, without requiring changes to vending machines that accept the Anthony dollar. However, this new coin has failed to achieve the popularity of the still-existing $1 bill and is rarely used in daily transactions. The failure to simultaneously withdraw the dollar bill and weak publicity efforts have been cited by coin proponents as primary reasons for the failure of the dollar coin to gain popular support.

Question: When were silver dollars first minted?


Answer: President Dwight D. Eisenhower

Question: Who was featured on the copper - nickel dollar?


Answer: Susan B. Anthony dollar

Question: Which coin was introduced in 1979?


Answer: Sacagawea

Question: What did the new $1 coin minted in 2000 feature?


Answer: 19th

Question: In which century were gold dollars minted?


Answer: The monetary base

Context: The monetary base consists of coins and Federal Reserve Notes in circulation outside the Federal Reserve Banks and the U.S. Treasury, plus deposits held by depository institutions at Federal Reserve Banks. The adjusted monetary base has increased from approximately 400 billion dollars in 1994, to 800 billion in 2005, and over 3000 billion in 2013. The amount of cash in circulation is increased (or decreased) by the actions of the Federal Reserve System. Eight times a year, the 12-person Federal Open Market Committee meet to determine U.S. monetary policy. Every business day, the Federal Reserve System engages in Open market operations to carry out that monetary policy. If the Federal Reserve desires to increase the money supply, it will buy securities (such as U.S. Treasury Bonds) anonymously from banks in exchange for dollars. Conversely, it will sell securities to the banks in exchange for dollars, to take dollars out of circulation.

Question: What do coins, Federal Reserve Notes and deposits held by despository institutions make up?


Answer: 400 billion dollars

Question: What was the monetary base value in 1994?


Answer: over 3000 billion

Question: How much did the monetar base value increase to in 2013?


Answer: securities

Question: What would the Federal Reserve buy to try and increase money supply?


Answer: Eight

Question: How many times a year does the Federal Open Market Committee meet?


Answer: price inflation

Context: The decline in the value of the U.S. dollar corresponds to price inflation, which is a rise in the general level of prices of goods and services in an economy over a period of time. A consumer price index (CPI) is a measure estimating the average price of consumer goods and services purchased by households. The United States Consumer Price Index, published by the Bureau of Labor Statistics, is a measure estimating the average price of consumer goods and services in the United States. It reflects inflation as experienced by consumers in their day-to-day living expenses. A graph showing the U.S. CPI relative to 1982–1984 and the annual year-over-year change in CPI is shown at right.

Question: What does the decline in value of the dollar correspond to?


Answer: price inflation

Question: The rise in level of prices in an economy is referred to as what?


Answer: consumer price index

Question: What does CPI stand for?


Answer: Bureau of Labor Statistics

Question: Who publishes the Consumer Price Index?


Answer: average price of consumer goods and services in the United States

Question: What does the CPI estimate?


Answer: 1845

Context: The Royal College of Chemistry was established by private subscription in 1845 as there was a growing awareness that practical aspects of the experimental sciences were not well taught and that in the United Kingdom the teaching of chemistry in particular had fallen behind that in Germany. As a result of a movement earlier in the decade, many politicians donated funds to establish the college, including Benjamin Disraeli, William Gladstone and Robert Peel. It was also supported by Prince Albert, who persuaded August Wilhelm von Hofmann to be the first professor.

Question: When was the Royal College of Chemistry established?


Answer: Benjamin Disraeli, William Gladstone and Robert Peel

Question: Which politicians donated funds to establish the Royal College of Chemistry?


Answer: August Wilhelm von Hofmann

Question: Who was the first professor of the Royal College of Chemistry?


Answer: in the United Kingdom the teaching of chemistry in particular had fallen behind that in Germany

Question: Why was the Royal College of Chemistry founded?


Answer: Prince Albert

Question: Who supported the Royal College of Chemistry?


Answer: 1845

Question: When was the Royal College of Chemistry established?


Answer: practical aspects of the experimental sciences

Question: What was not well taught that led to the founding of the Royal College of Chemistry?


Answer: Germany

Question: Which country was ahead of the United Kingdom in the teaching of chemistry?


Answer: Prince Albert

Question: Which Prince supported the establishment of the college?


Answer: August Wilhelm von Hofmann

Question: Who was the first professor of the college?


Answer: 1876

Context: City and Guilds College was founded in 1876 from a meeting of 16 of the City of London's livery companies for the Advancement of Technical Education (CGLI), which aimed to improve the training of craftsmen, technicians, technologists, and engineers. The two main objectives were to create a Central Institution in London and to conduct a system of qualifying examinations in technical subjects. Faced with their continuing inability to find a substantial site, the Companies were eventually persuaded by the Secretary of the Science and Art Department, General Sir John Donnelly (who was also a Royal Engineer) to found their institution on the eighty-seven acre (350,000 m²) site at South Kensington bought by the 1851 Exhibition Commissioners (for GBP 342,500) for 'purposes of art and science' in perpetuity. The latter two colleges were incorporated by Royal Charter into the Imperial College of Science and Technology and the CGLI Central Technical College was renamed the City and Guilds College in 1907, but not incorporated into Imperial College until 1910.

Question: When was the City and Guilds College founded?


Answer: improve the training of craftsmen, technicians, technologists, and engineers

Question: What was the aim of the City and Guilds College when it was founded?


Answer: to create a Central Institution in London and to conduct a system of qualifying examinations in technical subjects

Question: What were the main objectives of establishing the City and Guilds College?


Answer: GBP 342,500

Question: How much did the 1851 Exhibition Commissioners pay for the land that became the City and Guilds College?


Answer: CGLI Central Technical College

Question: What was the former name of the City and Guilds College?


Answer: City and Guilds College

Question: Which college was founded in 1876?


Answer: 16

Question: How many livery companies were in the meeting that founded the college?


Answer: Advancement of Technical Education

Question: What does CGLI stand for?


Answer: to create a Central Institution in London

Question: Other than conducting a system of qualifying examinations, what was the other main objective of the meeting of CGLI?


Answer: eighty-seven

Question: How large was the land (in acres) that the institution was founded on?


Answer: December 2005

Context: In December 2005, Imperial announced a science park programme at the Wye campus, with extensive housing; however, this was abandoned in September 2006 following complaints that the proposal infringed on Areas of Outstanding Natural Beauty, and that the true scale of the scheme, which could have raised £110m for the College, was known to Kent and Ashford Councils and their consultants but concealed from the public. One commentator observed that Imperial's scheme reflected "the state of democracy in Kent, the transformation of a renowned scientific college into a grasping, highly aggressive, neo-corporate institution, and the defence of the status of an Area of Outstanding Natural Beauty – throughout England, not just Wye – against rampant greed backed by the connivance of two important local authorities. Wye College campus was finally closed in September 2009.

Question: When did Imperial announce their science park program at the Wye Campus?


Answer: September 2006

Question: When did Imperial abandon their science park program?


Answer: September 2009

Question: When was the Wye College campus closed?


Answer: the Wye campus

Question: Where was Imperial planning on launching their science park program?


Answer: Wye campus

Question: Where was Imperial's science park programme located?


Answer: September 2006

Question: When was the science park programme abandoned?


Answer: £110m

Question: How much money could the science park programme have raised for the college?


Answer: the public

Question: Who did not know about the potential revenue that the programme could have raised initially?


Answer: Wye College campus

Question: What was closed on September 2009?


Answer: £512.4 million

Context: The College's endowment is sub-divided into three distinct portfolios: (i) Unitised Scheme – a unit trust vehicle for College, Faculties and Departments to invest endowments and unfettered income to produce returns for the long term; (ii) Non-Core Property – a portfolio containing around 120 operational and developmental properties which College has determined are not core to the academic mission; and (iii) Strategic Asset Investments – containing College’s shareholding in Imperial Innovations and other restricted equity holdings. During the year 2014/15, the market value of the endowment increased by £78 million (18%) to £512.4 million on 31 July 2015.

Question: What was the market value of the endowment the college received on July 31, 2015?


Answer: a unit trust vehicle for College, Faculties and Departments to invest endowments and unfettered income to produce returns for the long term

Question: What is a "Unitised Scheme"?


Answer: £78 million

Question: How much did the market value of the college's endowment increase between 2014 and 2015?


Answer: 18%

Question: How many percent did the college's endowment market value increase from 2014 to 2015?


Answer: three

Question: How many distinct portfolios is the College's endownment divided into?


Answer: Unitised Scheme

Question: What is the term that represents a unit trust vehicle that allows endowments to be invested to produce returns for the lon term?


Answer: Non-Core Property

Question: The 120 operational and developmental properties within the college that are not core to the academic mission belong to which portfolio?


Answer: Strategic Asset Investments

Question: The College's restricted equity holdings would be considered a part of which portion of the portfolio?


Answer: £78 million

Question: How much did the market value of the endowment increase by during the year 2014/2015?


Answer: 1,257

Context: Imperial submitted a total of 1,257 staff across 14 units of assessment to the 2014 Research Excellence Framework (REF) assessment. In the REF results 46% of Imperial's submitted research was classified as 4*, 44% as 3*, 9% as 2* and 1% as 1*, giving an overall GPA of 3.36. In rankings produced by Times Higher Education based upon the REF results Imperial was ranked 2nd overall for GPA and 8th for "research power" (compared to 6th and 7th respectively in the equivalent rankings for the RAE 2008).

Question: How many staff members did Imperial submit assessments of for the REF assessment?


Answer: 2nd

Question: In the 2014 rankings produced by Times Higher Education, what position was Imperial ranked for GPA?


Answer: 14

Question: How many units of assessment did Imperial submit?


Answer: 8th

Question: How highly was Imperial ranked in "research power" in 2014?


Answer: 1,257

Question: How many staff members did Imperial claim to have in 2014?


Answer: Research Excellence Framework

Question: What does REF stand for?


Answer: 44%

Question: What was the percentage of Imperials research that was seemed to be 3*?


Answer: 3.36

Question: What did the REF give Imperial as an overall GPA?


Answer: 2nd

Question: What was Imperial's overall GPA rank according to the Times Higher Education?


Answer: September 2014

Context: In September 2014, Professor Stefan Grimm, of the Department of Medicine, was found dead after being threatened with dismissal for failure to raise enough grant money. The College made its first public announcement of his death on 4 December 2014. Grimm's last email accused his employers of bullying by demanding that he should get grants worth at least £200,000 per year. His last email was viewed more than 100,000 times in the first four days after it was posted. The College has announced an internal inquiry into Stefan Grimm's death. The inquest on his death has not yet reported.

Question: When was Professor Stefan Grimm found dead?


Answer: 4 December 2014

Question: When did Imperial College make its first public announcement of Stefan Grimm's death?


Answer: more than 100,000

Question: How many times was Professor Stefan Grimm's email viewed in the first four days after it was posted online?


Answer: bullying

Question: What did Professor Grimm's last email accuse Imperial College of before his death?


Answer: internal inquiry

Question: What did Imperial College announce it would do after Professor Grimm's death?


Answer: Professor Stefan Grimm

Question: Which Professor was found dead in September 2014?


Answer: Department of Medicine

Question: To which department did the professor who passed in September 2014 belong?


Answer: dismissal

Question: What was the dead professor threatened with before his death?


Answer: £200,000

Question: How much did the Grimm claim his employers said he should raise in grant money per year?


Answer: more than 100,000

Question: How many views did Grimm's last email get in the first four days after it was posted?


Answer: 12 December 1919

Context: Imperial College Boat Club The Imperial College Boat Club was founded on 12 December 1919. The Gold medal winning GB 8+ at the 2000 Sydney Olympics had been based at Imperial College's recently refurbished boathouse and included 3 alumni of the college along with their coach Martin McElroy. The club has been highly successful, with many wins at Henley Royal Regatta including most recently in 2013 with victory in The Prince Albert Challenge Cup event. The club has been home to numerous National Squad oarsmen and women and is open to all rowers not just students of Imperial College London.

Question: Which day was the Imperial College Boat Club formed on?


Answer: 3

Question: How many alumni from Imperial were a part of the Gold medal winning GB8+?


Answer: Martin McElroy

Question: What was the name of the coach of the Gold medal winning GB8+?


Answer: Henley Royal Regatta

Question: Which event has the Boat Club been highly successful at?


Answer: The Prince Albert Challenge Cup event

Question: Which event did the Boat Club claim victory in for 2013?


Answer: The Royal School of Mines

Context: The Royal School of Mines was established by Sir Henry de la Beche in 1851, developing from the Museum of Economic Geology, a collection of minerals, maps and mining equipment. He created a school which laid the foundations for the teaching of science in the country, and which has its legacy today at Imperial. Prince Albert was a patron and supporter of the later developments in science teaching, which led to the Royal College of Chemistry becoming part of the Royal School of Mines, to the creation of the Royal College of Science and eventually to these institutions becoming part of his plan for South Kensington being an educational region.

Question: What school was established in 1851?


Answer: Sir Henry de la Beche

Question: Who established the Royal School of Mines?


Answer: the Museum of Economic Geology

Question: A collection of miners, maps and mining equipment all belonged to what entity?


Answer: Prince Albert

Question: Which famous prince was a patron at the Royal School of Mines?


Answer: South Kensington

Question: Which region did Prince Albert aim to make famous as an educational region?


Answer: Privy Council

Context: In 2003 Imperial was granted degree-awarding powers in its own right by the Privy Council. The London Centre for Nanotechnology was established in the same year as a joint venture between UCL and Imperial College London. In 2004 the Tanaka Business School (now named the Imperial College Business School) and a new Main Entrance on Exhibition Road were opened by The Queen. The UK Energy Research Centre was also established in 2004 and opened its headquarters at Imperial College. In November 2005 the Faculties of Life Sciences and Physical Sciences merged to become the Faculty of Natural Sciences.

Question: Who granted Imperial degree-awarding powers?


Answer: 2003

Question: In which year was the London Centre for Nanotechnology established?


Answer: Imperial College London

Question: The Londre Centre for Nanotechnology was a joint effort between UCL and which college?


Answer: Tanaka Business School

Question: What is the old name of the Imperial College Business School?


Answer: Faculty of Natural Sciences

Question: The Faculties of Life Sciences and Physical Sciences merged in 2005 to become which faculty?


Answer: South Kensington

Context: Imperial's main campus is located in the South Kensington area of central London. It is situated in an area of South Kensington, known as Albertopolis, which has a high concentration of cultural and academic institutions, adjacent to the Natural History Museum, the Science Museum, the Victoria and Albert Museum, the Royal College of Music, the Royal College of Art, the Royal Geographical Society and the Royal Albert Hall. Nearby public attractions include the Kensington Palace, Hyde Park and the Kensington Gardens, the National Art Library, and the Brompton Oratory. The expansion of the South Kensington campus in the 1950s & 1960s absorbed the site of the former Imperial Institute, designed by Thomas Collcutt, of which only the 287 foot (87 m) high Queen's Tower remains among the more modern buildings.

Question: In which area in London is Imperial's main campus located?


Answer: Albertopolis

Question: What is the area inside of South Kensington where Imperial is located known as?


Answer: 1950s

Question: In which decade did the expansion of the South Kensington campus being?


Answer: Thomas Collcutt

Question: Who designed the Imperial Institue that was a victim of Imperial's expansion in the 1950s & 1960s?


Answer: Queen's Tower

Question: Which landmark still remains from the Imperial Institue after Imperial's expansion?


Answer: Centre For Co-Curricular Studies

Context: The Centre For Co-Curricular Studies provides elective subjects and language courses outside the field of science for students in the other faculties and departments. Students are encouraged to take these classes either for credit or in their own time, and in some departments this is mandatory. Courses exist in a wide range of topics including philosophy, ethics in science and technology, history, modern literature and drama, art in the 20th century, film studies. Language courses are available in French, German, Japanese, Italian, Russian, Spanish, Arabic and Mandarin Chinese. The Centre For Co-Curricular Studies is home to the Science Communication Unit which offers master's degrees in Science Communication and Science Media Production for science graduates.

Question: Which centre provides electives outside of science for students?


Answer: credit

Question: Outside of doing it on their own time, what other motivation could students have to take non mandatory electives?


Answer: Science Communication Unit

Question: Which unit is a part of the Co-Curricular Studies that offers master's degrees?


Answer: Science Media Production

Question: Scientists seeking a master's degree might be interested in which other degree besides Science Communication from the Science Communication Unit?


Answer: average starting salary

Context: Furthermore, in terms of job prospects, as of 2014 the average starting salary of an Imperial graduate was the highest of any UK university. In terms of specific course salaries, the Sunday Times ranked Computing graduates from Imperial as earning the second highest average starting salary in the UK after graduation, over all universities and courses. In 2012, the New York Times ranked Imperial College as one of the top 10 most-welcomed universities by the global job market. In May 2014, the university was voted highest in the UK for Job Prospects by students voting in the Whatuni Student Choice Awards Imperial is jointly ranked as the 3rd best university in the UK for the quality of graduates according to recruiters from the UK's major companies.

Question: What statistic did the average Imperial graduate rank the highest in for 2014?


Answer: Computing graduates

Question: Which type of graduate from Imperial earned the second highest average starting salary after graduation?


Answer: Sunday Times

Question: Who ranked different graduates according to their average starting salary after graduation in the UK?


Answer: New York Times

Question: Which prestigious newspaper ranked Imperial College as one of the top 10 most welcomed universities by job markets?


Answer: 2014

Question: In which year did Imperial University claim the award for being voted the highest in the UK for Job Prospects?


Answer: Student Television of Imperial College

Context: Imperial College TV ICTV (formerly STOIC (Student Television of Imperial College)) is Imperial College Union's TV station, founded in 1969 and operated from a small TV studio in the Electrical Engineering block. The department had bought an early AMPEX Type A 1-inch videotape recorder and this was used to produce an occasional short news programme which was then played to students by simply moving the VTR and a monitor into a common room. A cable link to the Southside halls of residence was laid in a tunnel under Exhibition Road in 1972. Besides the news, early productions included a film of the Queen opening what was then called College Block and interview programmes with DJ Mike Raven, Richard O'Brian and Monty Python producer Ian MacNaughton. The society was renamed to ICTV for the start of the 2014/15 academic year.

Question: What does the abbreviation STOIC stand for?


Answer: Imperial College TV

Question: What is STOIC's modern name?


Answer: 1969

Question: When was Imperial College Union's TV station founded?


Answer: Exhibition Road

Question: Where was a cable link located that connected the Southside Halls of residence?


Answer: start of the 2014/15 academic year

Question: When was the station renamed to it's modern name?


Answer: Nicholas Tombazis

Context: Non-academic alumni: Author, H. G. Wells, McLaren and Ferrari Chief Designer, Nicholas Tombazis, CEO of Rolls Royce, Ralph Robins, rock band Queen, Brian May, CEO of Singapore Airlines, Chew Choon Seng, Prime Minister of New Zealand, Julius Vogel, Prime Minister of India, Rajiv Gandhi, Deputy Prime Minister of Singapore, Teo Chee Hean, Chief Medical Officer for England, Sir Liam Donaldson, Head Physician to the Queen, Huw Thomas, CEO of Moonfruit, Wendy Tan White, Businessman and philanthropist, Winston Wong, billionaire hedge fund manager Alan Howard.

Question: Which famous automobile designer is considered a non - academic alumni?


Answer: H. G. Wells

Question: Which famous author is considered an alumni for Imperial?


Answer: Singapore Airlines

Question: Which airline's CEO can be called a non - academic alumni of Imperial?


Answer: Head Physician to the Queen

Question: Which incredibly prestigious position did Huw Thomas hold?


Answer: Alan Howard

Question: Which hedge fund manager with a networth of over a billion is considered an alumni?


Answer: Royal Society for the Encouragement of Arts, Manufactures and Commerce

Context: The Great Exhibition was organised by Prince Albert, Henry Cole, Francis Fuller and other members of the Royal Society for the Encouragement of Arts, Manufactures and Commerce. The Great Exhibition made a surplus of £186,000 used in creating an area in the South of Kensington celebrating the encouragement of the arts, industry, and science. Albert insisted the Great Exhibition surplus should be used as a home for culture and education for everyone. His commitment was to find practical solutions to today's social challenges. Prince Albert's vision built the Victoria and Albert Museum, Science Museum, Natural History Museum, Geological Museum, Royal College of Science, Royal College of Art, Royal School of Mines, Royal School of Music, Royal College of Organists, Royal School of Needlework, Royal Geographical Society, Institute of Recorded Sound, Royal Horticultural Gardens, Royal Albert Hall and the Imperial Institute. Royal colleges and the Imperial Institute merged to form what is now Imperial College London.

Question: Which society organized The Great Exhibition?


Answer: £186,000

Question: How much of a surplus did The Great Ehibition raise?


Answer: Albert

Question: Who insisted that the surplus from The Great Exhibition be used as a home for culture and education for all?


Answer: to find practical solutions to today's social challenges

Question: What was Prince Albert's commitment?


Answer: Imperial College London

Question: What did the Royal colleges and Imperial Institute form when they merged?


Answer: Board of Education

Context: In 1907, the newly established Board of Education found that greater capacity for higher technical education was needed and a proposal to merge the City and Guilds College, the Royal School of Mines and the Royal College of Science was approved and passed, creating The Imperial College of Science and Technology as a constituent college of the University of London. Imperial's Royal Charter, granted by Edward VII, was officially signed on 8 July 1907. The main campus of Imperial College was constructed beside the buildings of the Imperial Institute in South Kensington.

Question: Who proposed a merger of many colleges in 1907?


Answer: greater capacity for higher technical education was needed

Question: What was the reasoning behind the proposal to merge many colleges?


Answer: The Imperial College of Science and Technology

Question: When the merger was passed, what constituent college was created?


Answer: University of London

Question: Who did the constituent college belong to?


Answer: Imperial's Royal Charter

Question: Which document, granted by Edward VII, was officially signed on the 8th of July 1907?


Answer: £822.0 million

Context: In the financial year ended 31 July 2013, Imperial had a total net income of £822.0 million (2011/12 – £765.2 million) and total expenditure of £754.9 million (2011/12 – £702.0 million). Key sources of income included £329.5 million from research grants and contracts (2011/12 – £313.9 million), £186.3 million from academic fees and support grants (2011/12 – £163.1 million), £168.9 million from Funding Council grants (2011/12 – £172.4 million) and £12.5 million from endowment and investment income (2011/12 – £8.1 million). During the 2012/13 financial year Imperial had a capital expenditure of £124 million (2011/12 – £152 million).

Question: What was Imperial's net income for the financial year that ended on 31 July 2013?


Answer: £754.9 million

Question: What was Imperial's total expenditure for the financial year that ended on the 31 July 2013?


Answer: £329.5 million

Question: How much income was generated from research grants and contracts for 2013?


Answer: Funding Council

Question: Who granted Imperial close to 170 million pounds in grants?


Answer: £124 million

Question: What was Imperial's capital expenditure for the 2012/2013 financial year?


Answer: 1988

Context: In 1988 Imperial merged with St Mary's Hospital Medical School, becoming The Imperial College of Science, Technology and Medicine. In 1995 Imperial launched its own academic publishing house, Imperial College Press, in partnership with World Scientific. Imperial merged with the National Heart and Lung Institute in 1995 and the Charing Cross and Westminster Medical School, Royal Postgraduate Medical School (RPMS) and the Institute of Obstetrics and Gynaecology in 1997. In the same year the Imperial College School of Medicine was formally established and all of the property of Charing Cross and Westminster Medical School, the National Heart and Lung Institute and the Royal Postgraduate Medical School were transferred to Imperial as the result of the Imperial College Act 1997. In 1998 the Sir Alexander Fleming Building was opened by Queen Elizabeth II to provide a headquarters for the College's medical and biomedical research.

Question: In which year did Imperial merge with St Mary's Hospital Medical School?


Answer: The Imperial College of Science, Technology and Medicine

Question: Which school resulted from Imperial's merger with St Mary's?


Answer: World Scientific

Question: Who did Imperial partner with to launch the Imperial College Press?


Answer: 1997

Question: What year was the Imperial College School of Medicine formally established?


Answer: Sir Alexander Fleming Building

Question: What is the name of the building that was opened by Queen Elizabeth II?


Answer: 26%

Context: The 2008 Research Assessment Exercise returned 26% of the 1225 staff submitted as being world-leading (4*) and a further 47% as being internationally excellent (3*). The 2008 Research Assessment Exercise also showed five subjects – Pure Mathematics, Epidemiology and Public Health, Chemical Engineering, Civil Engineering, and Mechanical, Aeronautical and Manufacturing Engineering – were assessed to be the best[clarification needed] in terms of the proportion of internationally recognised research quality.

Question: What percentage of Imperial's staff was classified as world leading in 2008?


Answer: 47%

Question: What percentage of Imperial's staff was deemed to be internationally excellent in 2008?


Answer: Research Assessment Exercise

Question: Which group assessed Imperial's staff members to determine their standing in relation to the rest of the world?


Answer: five

Question: How many subjects were judged to be the best in terms of internationally recognised research quality?


Answer: Imperial College Healthcare NHS Trust

Context: Imperial College Healthcare NHS Trust was formed on 1 October 2007 by the merger of Hammersmith Hospitals NHS Trust (Charing Cross Hospital, Hammersmith Hospital and Queen Charlotte's and Chelsea Hospital) and St Mary's NHS Trust (St. Mary's Hospital and Western Eye Hospital) with Imperial College London Faculty of Medicine. It is an academic health science centre and manages five hospitals: Charing Cross Hospital, Queen Charlotte's and Chelsea Hospital, Hammersmith Hospital, St Mary's Hospital, and Western Eye Hospital. The Trust is currently the largest in the UK and has an annual turnover of £800 million, treating more than a million patients a year.[citation needed]

Question: What was formed on the 1st October 2007?


Answer: five

Question: How many hospitals does it manage?


Answer: an academic health science centre

Question: What is it considered to be?


Answer: £800 million

Question: What is the annual turnover for the trust?


Answer: more than a million

Question: How many patients a year does the trust treat?


Answer: one third

Context: In 2003, it was reported that one third of female academics "believe that discrimination or bullying by managers has held back their careers". It was said then that "A spokesman for Imperial said the college was acting on the recommendations and had already made changes". Nevertheless, allegations of bullying have continued: in 2007, concerns were raised about the methods that were being used to fire people in the Faculty of Medicine. New President of Imperial College, Alice Gast says she sees bright lights in the horizon for female careers at Imperial College London.

Question: What portion of females reported that they were held back by managers?


Answer: 2003

Question: In which year were these allegations raised?


Answer: 2007

Question: After the 2003 incident, what was the next major year in which conerns were raised?


Answer: Faculty of Medicine

Question: In which faculty were the methods used to fire people being questioned?


Answer: Alice Gast

Question: Who is the new President for Imperial College?


Answer: Imperial College Union

Context: Imperial College Union, the students' union at Imperial College, is run by five full-time sabbatical officers elected from the student body for a tenure of one year, and a number of permanent members of staff. The Union is given a large subvention by the university, much of which is spent on maintaining around 300 clubs, projects and societies. Examples of notable student groups and projects are Project Nepal which sends Imperial College students to work on educational development programmes in rural Nepal and the El Salvador Project, a construction based project in Central America. The Union also hosts sports-related clubs such as Imperial College Boat Club and Imperial College Gliding Club.

Question: What is the official name of the student's union?


Answer: five

Question: How many full time officers run the union?


Answer: one year

Question: How long is the tenure for an officer to run the union?


Answer: around 300

Question: How many clubs, projects and societies is the union responsible for managing?


Answer: educational development

Question: What kind of programmes do students work on for Project Nepal?


Answer: public research university

Context: Imperial College London is a public research university located in London, United Kingdom. It was founded by Prince Albert who envisioned an area composed of the Natural History Museum, Science Museum, Victoria and Albert Museum, Royal Albert Hall and the Imperial Institute. The Imperial Institute was opened by his wife, Queen Victoria, who laid the first stone. In 1907, Imperial College London was formed by Royal Charter, and soon joined the University of London, with a focus on science and technology. The college has expanded its coursework to medicine through mergers with St Mary's Hospital. In 2004, Queen Elizabeth II opened the Imperial College Business School. Imperial became an independent university from the University of London during its one hundred year anniversary.

Question: What kind of University is Imperial College London?


Answer: Prince Albert

Question: Who founded the Imperial College London?


Answer: Queen Victoria

Question: Who opened the Imperial Institute in 1907?


Answer: Royal Charter

Question: Which document allowed the Imperial College London to be formed?


Answer: science and technology

Question: What was the focus of the Imperial College London?


Answer: William Henry Perkin

Context: William Henry Perkin studied and worked at the college under von Hofmann, but resigned his position after discovering the first synthetic dye, mauveine, in 1856. Perkin's discovery was prompted by his work with von Hofmann on the substance aniline, derived from coal tar, and it was this breakthrough which sparked the synthetic dye industry, a boom which some historians have labelled the second chemical revolution. His contribution led to the creation of the Perkin Medal, an award given annually by the Society of Chemical Industry to a scientist residing in the United States for an "innovation in applied chemistry resulting in outstanding commercial development". It is considered the highest honour given in the industrial chemical industry.

Question: Who discovered the first synthetic dye?


Answer: resigned his position

Question: What did the scientist who discovered the dye do after discovering it?


Answer: mauveine

Question: What is the name of the first synthetic dye discovered?


Answer: second chemical revolution

Question: The discovery of the synthetic dye is claimed by some histories to have sparked what event?


Answer: Perkin Medal

Question: Which award is named after the discoverer of the dye?


Answer: Silwood Park

Context: Imperial acquired Silwood Park in 1947, to provide a site for research and teaching in those aspects of biology not well suited for the main London campus. Felix, Imperial's student newspaper, was launched on 9 December 1949. On 29 January 1950, the government announced that it was intended that Imperial should expand to meet the scientific and technological challenges of the 20th century and a major expansion of the College followed over the next decade. In 1959 the Wolfson Foundation donated £350,000 for the establishment of a new Biochemistry Department.[citation needed] A special relationship between Imperial and the Indian Institute of Technology Delhi was established in 1963.[citation needed]

Question: What site did Imperial acquire in 1947?


Answer: Felix

Question: What was the name of Imperial's student newspaper?


Answer: £350,000

Question: How much money was donated for a new Biochemistry Department?


Answer: Wolfson Foundation

Question: Who donated the large sum of money to help aid the establishement of the Biochemistry Department?


Answer: Indian Institute of Technology Delhi

Question: Imperial formed a relationship with which other entity in 1963?


Answer: 25 meters

Context: Gymnasts sprint down a runway, which is a maximum of 25 meters in length, before hurdling onto a spring board. The gymnast is allowed to choose where they start on the runway. The body position is maintained while "punching" (blocking using only a shoulder movement) the vaulting platform. The gymnast then rotates to a standing position. In advanced gymnastics, multiple twists and somersaults may be added before landing. Successful vaults depend on the speed of the run, the length of the hurdle, the power the gymnast generates from the legs and shoulder girdle, the kinesthetic awareness in the air, and the speed of rotation in the case of more difficult and complex vaults.

Question: What is the maximum length of the runway gymnasts sprint down before hurdling onto a spring board?


Answer: punching

Question: What is blocking using only a shoulder movement called?


Answer: the length of the hurdle

Question: What is one thing a successful vault depends on?


Answer: multiple twists and somersaults

Question: What may be added to a vault before landing in advanced gymnastics?


Answer: 25 meters

Question: What is the maximum length of a runway?


Answer: The gymnast

Question: Who gets to chose where a gymnast starts to run on the runway?


Answer: a standing position

Question: What position is the gymnast when in the air?


Answer: multiple twists and somersaults

Question: What are later added to the landing by advanced gymnasts?


Answer: the length of the hurdle, the power the gymnast generates from the legs and shoulder girdle, the kinesthetic awareness in the air, and the speed of rotation

Question: What do successful vaults depend on other than speed of the run?


Answer: FIG

Context: According to FIG rules, only women compete in rhythmic gymnastics. This is a sport that combines elements of ballet, gymnastics, dance, and apparatus manipulation. The sport involves the performance of five separate routines with the use of five apparatus; ball, ribbon, hoop, clubs, rope—on a floor area, with a much greater emphasis on the aesthetic rather than the acrobatic. There are also group routines consisting of 5 gymnasts and 5 apparatuses of their choice. Rhythmic routines are scored out of a possible 30 points; the score for artistry (choreography and music) is averaged with the score for difficulty of the moves and then added to the score for execution.

Question: Only women compete in rhythmic gymnastics according to what rules?


Answer: rhythmic gymnastics

Question: What combines elements of ballet, gymnastics, dance, and apparatus manipulation?


Answer: ball, ribbon, hoop, clubs, rope

Question: What 5 items are used in rhythmic gymnastic routines?


Answer: the acrobatic

Question: Rhythmic gymnastics places greater emphaises on aesthetics rather than what?


Answer: 30

Question: What is the maximum number of points possible for a rhythmic gymnastic routine?


Answer: FIG

Question: What rules state that only women can compete in rhythmic gymastics?


Answer: ballet, gymnastics, dance, and apparatus manipulation

Question: What does rhythmic gymastics combine together?


Answer: ball, ribbon, hoop, clubs, rope

Question: What five seperate apparatuses are used in the five separate routines?


Answer: aesthetic

Question: Which is more focused on, aesthetics or acrobatics?


Answer: 30 points

Question: How many possible points are there for rhythmic routines?


Answer: Aesthetic Group Gymnastics

Context: Aesthetic Group Gymnastics (AGG) was developed from the Finnish "naisvoimistelu". It differs from Rhythmic Gymnastics in that body movement is large and continuous and teams are larger' Athletes do not use apparatus in international AGG competitions compared to Rhythmic Gymnastics where ball, ribbon, hoop and clubs are used on the floor area. The sport requires physical qualities such as flexibility, balance, speed, strength, coordination and sense of rhythm where movements of the body are emphasized through the flow, expression and aesthetic appeal. A good performance is characterized by uniformity and simultaneity. The competition program consists of versatile and varied body movements, such as body waves, swings, balances, pivots, jumps and leaps, dance steps, and lifts. The International Federation of Aesthetic Group Gymnastics (IFAGG) was established in 2003.

Question: What does AGG stand for?


Answer: body movement is large and continuous and teams are larger'

Question: Why is AGG different than Rhythmic Gymnastics?


Answer: do not use apparatus in international AGG competitions

Question: Do athletes use apparatuses in the international AGG competitions?


Answer: flexibility, balance, speed, strength, coordination and sense of rhythm

Question: What physical qualities are needed for rhythmic gymastics?


Answer: 2003

Question: What year was the Federsation of Aesthetic Group Gymnastics established?


Answer: hemp or a synthetic material

Context: This apparatus may be made of hemp or a synthetic material which retains the qualities of lightness and suppleness. Its length is in proportion to the size of the gymnast. The rope should, when held down by the feet, reach both of the gymnasts' armpits. One or two knots at each end are for keeping hold of the rope while doing the routine. At the ends (to the exclusion of all other parts of the rope) an anti-slip material, either coloured or neutral may cover a maximum of 10 cm (3.94 in). The rope must be coloured, either all or partially and may either be of a uniform diameter or be progressively thicker in the center provided that this thickening is of the same material as the rope. The fundamental requirements of a rope routine include leaps and skipping. Other elements include swings, throws, circles, rotations and figures of eight. In 2011, the FIG decided to nullify the use of rope in rhythmic gymnastic competitions.

Question: What is the rope made out of that the gymnists uses in their routine?


Answer: Its length is in proportion to the size of the gymnast

Question: How long is the rope?


Answer: One or two knots at each end are for keeping hold of the rope while doing the routine.

Question: What are at the ends of the ropes to help the gymnists hold it?


Answer: The rope must be coloured, either all or partially and may either be of a uniform diameter or be progressively thicker in the center

Question: What other requirement is there for the rope?


Answer: 2011

Question: When did FIG decide to nullify the use of ropes in competition?


Answer: Liege

Context: The Federation of International Gymnastics (FIG) was founded in Liege in 1881. By the end of the nineteenth century, men's gymnastics competition was popular enough to be included in the first "modern" Olympic Games in 1896. From then on until the early 1950s, both national and international competitions involved a changing variety of exercises gathered under the rubric, gymnastics, that would seem strange to today's audiences and that included for example, synchronized team floor calisthenics, rope climbing, high jumping, running, and horizontal ladder. During the 1920s, women organized and participated in gymnastics events. The first women's Olympic competition was primitive, only involving synchronized calisthenics and track and field. These games were held in 1928, in Amsterdam.

Question: Where was the FIG founded?


Answer: 1881

Question: What year was FIG founded?


Answer: 1896

Question: When was gymnastics included in the Olympics?


Answer: 1928

Question: When were the first women's Olympic competitions held?


Answer: in Amsterdam

Question: Where were the first women's Olympic competitions held?


Answer: 25 metres (82 ft)

Context: In the vaulting events, gymnasts sprint down a 25 metres (82 ft) runway, jump onto a spring filled board or perform a roundoff, or handspring entry onto a springboard (run/ take-off segment), land momentarily, inverted on the hands on the vaulting horse, or vaulting table (pre flight segment), then propel themselves forward or backward, off of this platform to a two footed landing (post flight segment). Every gymnast starts at a different point on the vault runway depending on their height and strength. The post flight segment may include one or more multiple saltos or somersaults, and/or twisting movements. A round-off entry vault, called a Yurchenko, is the most common vault in elite level gymnastics. When performing a yurchenko, gymnasts "round-off" so hands are on the runway while the feet land on the springboard (beatboard). From the roundoff position the gymnast travels backwards and executes a backhandspring so that the hands land on the vaulting table. The gymnast then blocks off the vaulting platform into various twisting and/or somersaulting combinations. The post flight segment brings the gymnast to her feet.

Question: How long is the run way in vaulting?


Answer: a two footed landing

Question: How man feet do vaulters land on?


Answer: their height and strength

Question: What determines where a vaulter starts on the runway?


Answer: Yurchenko

Question: What is a round-off entry vault called?


Answer: yurchenko

Question: What is the most common vault in elite level gymnastics?


Answer: from deductions taken from their start value

Context: A gymnast's score comes from deductions taken from their start value. The start value of a routine is based on the difficulty of the elements the gymnast attempts and whether or not the gymnast meets composition requirements. The composition requirements are different for each apparatus; this score is called the D score. Deductions in execution and artistry are taken from 10.0. This score is called the E score. The final score is calculated by taking deductions from the E score, and adding the result to the D score. Since 2007, the scoring system has changed by adding bonus plus the execution and then adding those two together to get the final score.

Question: How are gymnasts scored?


Answer: e start value of a routine is based on the difficulty of the elements the gymnast attempts and whether or not the gymnast meets composition requirements

Question: How is the start vaule determined?


Answer: D score

Question: What is this score called?


Answer: 10.0

Question: Deductions in execution and artistry are taken from what score?


Answer: adding bonus plus the execution and then adding those two together to get the final score

Question: What were added to scoring in 2007?


Answer: 1970s

Context: The technical rules for the Japanese version of men's rhythmic gymnastics came around the 1970s. For individuals, only four types of apparatus are used: the double rings, the stick, the rope, and the clubs. Groups do not use any apparatus. The Japanese version includes tumbling performed on a spring floor. Points are awarded based a 10-point scale that measures the level of difficulty of the tumbling and apparatus handling. On November 27–29, 2003, Japan hosted first edition of the Men's Rhythmic Gymnastics World Championship.

Question: When were the technical rules for the Japanses version of men's rhythmic gymnastics formed?


Answer: only four types

Question: How many apparatuses are used?


Answer: the double rings, the stick, the rope, and the clubs

Question: What are the types of apparatuses used?


Answer: Groups do not use any apparatus

Question: What apparatuses do groups use?


Answer: November 27–29, 2003

Question: When did Japan hold the first of the Men's Rhythmic Gymnastics World Champtionship?


Answer: γυμνός (gymnos) meaning "naked"

Context: The word gymnastics derives from the common Greek adjective γυμνός (gymnos) meaning "naked", by way of the related verb γυμνάζω (gymnazo), whose meaning is to train naked", "train in gymnastic exercise", generally "to train, to exercise". The verb had this meaning, because athletes in ancient times exercised and competed without clothing. It came into use in the 1570s, from Latin gymnasticus, from Greek gymnastikos "fond of or skilled in bodily exercise," from gymnazein "to exercise or train" (see gymnasium).

Question: What Greek word did gymnastics derive from?


Answer: to train naked", "train in gymnastic exercise", generally "to train, to exercise"

Question: What does the verb gymnazo mean?


Answer: because athletes in ancient times exercised and competed without clothing

Question: Why was this verb used?


Answer: 1570s

Question: When did the word come into use?


Answer: 1954

Context: By 1954, Olympic Games apparatus and events for both men and women had been standardized in modern format, and uniform grading structures (including a point system from 1 to 15) had been agreed upon. At this time, Soviet gymnasts astounded the world with highly disciplined and difficult performances, setting a precedent that continues. The new medium of television has helped publicize and initiate a modern age of gymnastics. Both men's and women's gymnastics now attract considerable international interest, and excellent gymnasts can be found on every continent. Nadia Comăneci received the first perfect score, at the 1976 Summer Olympics held in Montreal, Canada. She was coached in Romania by coach, (Hungarian ethnicity), Béla Károlyi. Comaneci scored four of her perfect tens on the uneven bars, two on the balance beam and one in the floor exercise. Even with Nadia's perfect scores, the Romanians lost the gold medal to the Soviet Union. Nevertheless, Comaneci became an Olympic icon.

Question: What year was the Olympic Games apparatus and events standardized?


Answer: a point system from 1 to 15

Question: What is the grading structure?


Answer: Soviet gymnasts

Question: Who set the first precedent that continues this day?


Answer: Nadia Comăneci

Question: Who recieved the first perfect score?


Answer: 1976 Summer Olympics held in Montreal, Canada

Question: What year and where was the first perfect score given?


Answer: both single leg and double leg work

Context: A typical pommel horse exercise involves both single leg and double leg work. Single leg skills are generally found in the form of scissors, an element often done on the pommels. Double leg work however, is the main staple of this event. The gymnast swings both legs in a circular motion (clockwise or counterclockwise depending on preference) and performs such skills on all parts of the apparatus. To make the exercise more challenging, gymnasts will often include variations on a typical circling skill by turning (moores and spindles) or by straddling their legs (Flares). Routines end when the gymnast performs a dismount, either by swinging his body over the horse, or landing after a handstand. This requires back muscles to do any sort of skill. From handstands being easy to back or front flips being a little difficult.

Question: What does a typical pommel horse exercise consist of?


Answer: form of scissors, an element often done on the pommels

Question: Single leg skills are found in the form of what normally?


Answer: Double leg work

Question: What is the main staple of this event?


Answer: when the gymnast performs a dismount

Question: When does the routine end?


Answer: by swinging his body over the horse, or landing after a handstand

Question: What are two ways that a gymnist dismounts?


Answer: landing

Context: In a tumbling pass, dismount or vault, landing is the final phase, following take off and flight This is a critical skill in terms of execution in competition scores, general performance, and injury occurrence. Without the necessary magnitude of energy dissipation during impact, the risk of sustaining injuries during somersaulting increases. These injuries commonly occur at the lower extremities such as: cartilage lesions, ligament tears, and bone bruises/fractures. To avoid such injuries, and to receive a high performance score, proper technique must be used by the gymnast. "The subsequent ground contact or impact landing phase must be achieved using a safe, aesthetic and well-executed double foot landing." A successful landing in gymnastics is classified as soft, meaning the knee and hip joints are at greater than 63 degrees of flexion.

Question: What is a critical skill in terms of execution in scores?


Answer: the lower extremities such as: cartilage lesions, ligament tears, and bone bruises/fractures

Question: Where do most injuries happen?


Answer: proper technique must be used by the gymnast

Question: How do you avoid injuries?


Answer: soft, meaning the knee and hip joints are at greater than 63 degrees of flexion

Question: What is a successful landing?


Answer: build-up phase during which the gymnast jumps repeatedly to achieve height

Context: Individual routines in trampolining involve a build-up phase during which the gymnast jumps repeatedly to achieve height, followed by a sequence of ten bounces without pause during which the gymnast performs a sequence of aerial skills. Routines are marked out of a maximum score of 10 points. Additional points (with no maximum at the highest levels of competition) can be earned depending on the difficulty of the moves and the length of time taken to complete the ten skills which is an indication of the average height of the jumps. In high level competitions, there are two preliminary routines, one which has only two moves scored for difficulty and one where the athlete is free to perform any routine. This is followed by a final routine which is optional. Some competitions restart the score from zero for the finals, other add the final score to the preliminary results.

Question: Individual routines start with what phases?


Answer: a sequence of aerial skills

Question: What does the gymnast do during the 10 bounces.


Answer: 10 points

Question: What is the maximum scroe for routines?


Answer: depending on the difficulty of the moves and the length of time taken to complete the ten skills

Question: How can additional points be earned?


Answer: two preliminary routines

Question: In high level competitions how many preliminary rountines are there?


Answer: two horizontal bars set at different heights

Context: On the uneven bars, the gymnast performs a routine on two horizontal bars set at different heights. These bars are made of fiberglass covered in wood laminate, to prevent them from breaking. In the past, bars were made of wood, but the bars were prone to breaking, providing an incentive to switch to newer technologies. The width and height of the bars may be adjusted. In the past, the uneven parallel bars were closer together. They've been moved increasingly further apart, allowing gymnasts to perform swinging, circling, transitional, and release moves, that may pass over, under, and between the two bars. At the Elite level, movements must pass through the handstand. Gymnasts often mount the Uneven Bars using a springboard, or a small mat. Chalk and grips (a leather strip with holes for fingers to protect hands and improve performance) may be used while doing this event. The chalk helps take the moisture out of gymnast's hands to decrease friction and prevent rips (tears to the skin of the hands), dowel grips help gymnasts grip the bar.

Question: What are the uneven bars?


Answer: fiberglass covered in wood laminate

Question: What are these bars made out of?


Answer: the bars were prone to breaking,

Question: Why are the bars not made of wood anymore?


Answer: They've been moved increasingly further apart

Question: How have the bars changed over the years?


Answer: using a springboard, or a small mat

Question: How do gymnasts normally mount the uneven bars?


Answer: a higher vertical ground reaction force

Context: A higher flight phase results in a higher vertical ground reaction force. Vertical ground reaction force represents external force which the gymnasts have to overcome with their muscle force and has an impact on the gymnasts linear and angular momentum. Another important variable that affects linear and angular momentum is time the landing takes Gymnasts can alter the shape of the area by increasing the time taken to perform the landing. Gymnasts can achieve this by increasing hip, knee and ankle amplitude. With the increase of height, the amplitude in ankles knees and hips rise the bars.

Question: What does a higher flight phase result in?


Answer: s external force which the gymnasts have to overcome with their muscle force and has an impact on the gymnasts linear and angular momentum

Question: What is vertical ground reaction force?


Answer: time the landing takes Gymnasts

Question: What else is an important aspect that affects linear and agular movements?


Answer: Sport Aerobics

Context: Aerobic gymnastics (formally Sport Aerobics) involves the performance of routines by individuals, pairs, trios or groups up to 6 people, emphasizing strength, flexibility, and aerobic fitness rather than acrobatic or balance skills. Routines are performed for all individuals on a 7x7m floor and also for 12–14 and 15-17 trios and mixed pairs. From 2009, all senior trios and mixed pairs were required to be on the larger floor (10x10m), all groups also perform on this floor. Routines generally last 60–90 seconds depending on age of participant and routine category.

Question: What was aerobic gymnastics called orginally?


Answer: the performance of routines by individuals, pairs, trios or groups up to 6 people, emphasizing strength, flexibility, and aerobic fitness

Question: What does aerobic gymnastiscs involve?


Answer: individuals, pairs, trios or groups up to 6 people

Question: How many people can be in a routine?


Answer: 7x7m

Question: What is the size of the mat?


Answer: Routines generally last 60–90 seconds depending on age of participant and routine category

Question: How long do the routines last?


Answer: synchronized, choreographed routines

Context: General gymnastics enables people of all ages and abilities to participate in performance groups of 6 to more than 150 athletes. They perform synchronized, choreographed routines. Troupes may consist of both genders and are not separated into age divisions. The largest general gymnastics exhibition is the quadrennial World Gymnaestrada which was first held in 1939. In 1984 Gymnastics for All was officially recognized first as a Sport Program by the FIG (International Gymnastic Federation), and subsequently by national gymnastic federations worldwide with participants that now number 30 million.

Question: What kind of routines do general gymnastic groups perform?


Answer: of both genders and are not separated into age divisions

Question: What do the troupes consist of?


Answer: 1939

Question: When was the first World Gymnaestrada held?


Answer: Gymnastics for All

Question: What was the first Sport Program recongized by FIG?


Answer: 30 million

Question: How many participants are there?


Answer: Gymnastics is a sport involving the performance of exercises requiring strength, flexibility, balance and control

Context: Gymnastics is a sport involving the performance of exercises requiring strength, flexibility, balance and control. Internationally, all events are governed by the Fédération Internationale de Gymnastique (FIG). Each country has its own national governing body (BIW) affiliated to FIG. Competitive artistic gymnastics is the best known of the gymnastic events. It typically involves the women's events of vault, uneven bars, balance beam, and floor exercise. Men's events are floor exercise, pommel horse, still rings, vault, parallel bars, and the high bar. Gymnastics evolved from exercises used by the ancient Greeks that included skills for mounting and dismounting a horse, and from circus performance skills.

Question: What is gymnastics?


Answer: Fédération Internationale de Gymnastique (FIG)

Question: Who governs all events in gymnastics?


Answer: Each country has its own national governing body (BIW) affiliated to FIG

Question: What does each country have?


Answer: Competitive artistic gymnastics

Question: What are the best known gymnastic events?


Answer: vault, uneven bars, balance beam, and floor exercise.

Question: What events does this normally consist of for women?


Answer: Johann Friedrich GutsMuths (1759–1839) and Friedrich Ludwig Jahn (1778–1852)

Context: In the late eighteenth- and early nineteenth-century Germany, three pioneer physical educators – Johann Friedrich GutsMuths (1759–1839) and Friedrich Ludwig Jahn (1778–1852) – created exercises for boys and young men on apparatus they had designed that ultimately led to what is considered modern gymnastics. Don Francisco Amorós y Ondeano, was born on February 19, 1770 in Valence and died on August 8, 1848 in Paris. He was a Spanish colonel, and the first person to introduce educative gymnastic in France. Jahn promoted the use of parallel bars, rings and high bar in international competition.

Question: What two Germans were known for creating exercises on apparauses?


Answer: to what is considered modern gymnastics

Question: What did the exercises lead to?


Answer: Don Francisco Amorós y Ondeano

Question: Who introduced educative gymnastics in France?


Answer: parallel bars, rings and high bar

Question: What did Jahn promote the use of?


Answer: 2006

Context: In 2006, FIG introduced a new points system for Artistic gymnastics in which scores are no longer limited to 10 points. The system is used in the US for elite level competition. Unlike the old code of points, there are two separate scores, an execution score and a difficulty score. In the previous system, the "execution score" was the only score. It was and still is out of 10.00. During the gymnast's performance, the judges deduct this score only. A fall, on or off the event, is a 1.00 deduction, in elite level gymnastics. The introduction of the difficulty score is a significant change. The gymnast's difficulty score is based on what elements they perform and is subject to change if they do not perform or complete all the skills, or they do not connect a skill meant to be connected to another. Connection bonuses are the most common deduction from a difficulty score, as it can be difficult to connect multiple flight elements. It is very hard to connect skills if the first skill is not performed correctly. The new code of points allows the gymnasts to gain higher scores based on the difficulty of the skills they perform as well as their execution. There is no maximum score for difficulty, as it can keep increasing as the difficulty of the skills increase.

Question: When did FIG decide that scores are no longer limited to 10 points?


Answer: an execution score and a difficulty score

Question: What are the two different scores?


Answer: difficulty score

Question: What score was added?


Answer: 1.00 deduction

Question: How much is a fall deduction?


Answer: what elements they perform

Question: What is a gymnast's difficulty score based on?


Answer: a carpeted 12m × 12m square, usually consisting of hard foam over a layer of plywood

Context: In the past, the floor exercise event was executed on the bare floor or mats such as wrestling mats. Today, the floor event occurs on a carpeted 12m × 12m square, usually consisting of hard foam over a layer of plywood, which is supported by springs or foam blocks generally called a "spring" floor. This provides a firm surface that provides extra bounce or spring when compressed, allowing gymnasts to achieve greater height and a softer landing after the composed skill. Gymnasts perform a choreographed routine up to 90 seconds in the floor exercise event; Depending on the level, they may choose their own, or, if known as a "compulsory gymnast," default music must be played. In some gymnastic associations such as United States Association of Gymnastic Clubs (USAIGC), gymnasts are allowed to have vocals in their music but at USA Gymnastics competitions a large deduction is taken from the score for having vocals in the music. The routine should consist of tumbling lines, series of jumps, leaps, dance elements, acrobatic skills, and turns, or piviots, on one foot. A gymnast can perform up to four tumbling lines that usually includes at least one flight element without hand support. Each level of gymnastics requires the athlete to perform a different number of tumbling passes. In level 7 in the United States, a gymnast is required to do 2–3, and in levels 8–10, at least 3–4 tumbling passes are required.

Question: What is the floor exercise events performed on now?


Answer: the bare floor or mats such as wrestling mats

Question: What was the floor exercise even on before?


Answer: springs or foam blocks generally called a "spring" floor

Question: Why helps add an extra bounce to the floor?


Answer: up to 90 seconds

Question: What is the maximum for floor events?


Answer: an explosive series of flips and twists down a sprung tumbling track

Context: In tumbling, athletes perform an explosive series of flips and twists down a sprung tumbling track. Scoring is similar to trampolining. Tumbling was originally contested as one of the events in Men's Artistic Gymnastics at the 1932 Summer Olympics, and in 1955 and 1959 at the Pan American Games. From 1974 to 1998 it was included as an event for both genders at the Acrobatic Gymnastics World Championships. The event has also been contested since 1976 at the Trampoline World Championships. Since the recognition of Trampoline and Acrobatic Gymnastics as FIG disciplines in 1999, official Tumbling competitions are only allowed as an event in Trampoline gymnastics meets.

Question: What do athletes perform for tumbling?


Answer: 1932

Question: When was tumbling orginally contested at the Olympics?


Answer: only allowed as an event in Trampoline gymnastics meets

Question: Where are offical tumbling competitions allowed?


Answer: 1999

Question: What year did FIG reconginze Trampoline and Acrobatic Gymnastics?


Answer: both Men's artistic gymnastics and wushu martial arts

Context: Men's rhythmic gymnastics is related to both Men's artistic gymnastics and wushu martial arts. It emerged in Japan from stick gymnastics. Stick gymnastics has been taught and performed for many years with the aim of improving physical strength and health. Male athletes are judged on some of the same physical abilities and skills as their female counterparts, such as hand/body-eye co-ordination, but tumbling, strength, power, and martial arts skills are the main focus, as opposed to flexibility and dance in women's rhythmic gymnastics. There are a growing number of participants, competing alone and on a team; it is most popular in Asia, especially in Japan where high school and university teams compete fiercely. As of 2002[update], there were 1000 men's rhythmic gymnasts in Japan.[citation needed]

Question: What are mens' rhythmic gymnastics related to?


Answer: stick gymnastics

Question: Where did mens' rhythmic gymnastics develop from?


Answer: improving physical strength and health

Question: What is the aim of stick gymnastics?


Answer: tumbling, strength, power, and martial arts skills are the main focus

Question: What are the main focus?


Answer: 1000

Question: How many mens' rhythmic gymnasts were in Japan in 2002?


Answer: Hanover

Context: In 1636 George, Duke of Brunswick-Lüneburg, ruler of the Brunswick-Lüneburg principality of Calenberg, moved his residence to Hanover. The Dukes of Brunswick-Lüneburg were elevated by the Holy Roman Emperor to the rank of Prince-Elector in 1692, and this elevation was confirmed by the Imperial Diet in 1708. Thus the principality was upgraded to the Electorate of Brunswick-Lüneburg, colloquially known as the Electorate of Hanover after Calenberg's capital (see also: House of Hanover). Its electors would later become monarchs of Great Britain (and from 1801, of the United Kingdom of Great Britain and Ireland). The first of these was George I Louis, who acceded to the British throne in 1714. The last British monarch who ruled in Hanover was William IV. Semi-Salic law, which required succession by the male line if possible, forbade the accession of Queen Victoria in Hanover. As a male-line descendant of George I, Queen Victoria was herself a member of the House of Hanover. Her descendants, however, bore her husband's titular name of Saxe-Coburg-Gotha. Three kings of Great Britain, or the United Kingdom, were concurrently also Electoral Princes of Hanover.

Question: Where did the Duke of Brunswick-Lüneburg move his residence to?


Answer: Holy Roman Emperor

Question: Who elevated the status of the Dukes of Brunswick-Lüneburg?


Answer: Imperial Diet

Question: Who confirmed the elevation of the Dukes of Brunswick-Lüneburg in 1708?


Answer: Great Britain

Question: Which other nation would the electors of Hanover become monarchs of?


Answer: George I Louis

Question: Who was the first elector from Hanover to sit on the British throne?


Answer: production center

Context: As an important railroad and road junction and production center, Hanover was a major target for strategic bombing during World War II, including the Oil Campaign. Targets included the AFA (Stöcken), the Deurag-Nerag refinery (Misburg), the Continental plants (Vahrenwald and Limmer), the United light metal works (VLW) in Ricklingen and Laatzen (today Hanover fairground), the Hanover/Limmer rubber reclamation plant, the Hanomag factory (Linden) and the tank factory M.N.H. Maschinenfabrik Niedersachsen (Badenstedt). Forced labourers were sometimes used from the Hannover-Misburg subcamp of the Neuengamme concentration camp. Residential areas were also targeted, and more than 6,000 civilians were killed by the Allied bombing raids. More than 90% of the city center was destroyed in a total of 88 bombing raids. After the war, the Aegidienkirche was not rebuilt and its ruins were left as a war memorial.

Question: Other than for railroads and road junction, what did Hanover have that made it a major target?


Answer: Oil Campaign

Question: Which campaign specifically was Hanover a target for in World War II?


Answer: United light metal works

Question: What does VLW stand for?


Answer: more than 6,000

Question: How many civilians were killed in the Allied bombing raids in World War II?


Answer: 88

Question: How many bombing raids were there during World War II?


Answer: Hanover Zoo

Context: The Hanover Zoo is one of the most spectacular and best zoos in Europe. The zoo received the Park Scout Award for the fourth year running in 2009/10, placing it among the best zoos in Germany. The zoo consists of several theme areas: Sambesi, Meyers Farm, Gorilla-Mountain, Jungle-Palace, and Mullewapp. Some smaller areas are Australia, the wooded area for wolves, and the so-called swimming area with many seabirds. There is also a tropical house, a jungle house, and a show arena. The new Canadian-themed area, Yukon Bay, opened in 2010. In 2010 the Hanover Zoo had over 1.6 million visitors.

Question: Which zoo is one of the best in Europe?


Answer: Park Scout Award

Question: What award did the Hanover Zoo receive four years in a row?


Answer: seabirds

Question: Which animal does the so-called swimming area have?


Answer: 2010

Question: When did the Canadian-theme area in the Hanover Zoo open?


Answer: 1.6 million

Question: How many people visited the Hanover Zoo in 2010?


Answer: GOP Variety theatre

Context: Hanover's leading cabaret-stage is the GOP Variety theatre which is located in the Georgs Palace. Some other famous cabaret-stages are the Variety Marlene, the Uhu-Theatre. the theatre Die Hinterbühne, the Rampenlich Variety and the revue-stage TAK. The most important Cabaret-Event is the Kleines Fest im Großen Garten (Little Festival in the Great Garden) which is the most successful Cabaret Festival in Germany. It features artists from around the world. Some other important events are the Calenberger Cabaret Weeks, the Hanover Cabaret Festival and the Wintervariety.

Question: What famous theatre is located in Georgs Palace?


Answer: Kleines Fest im Großen Garten

Question: What is the most important Cabaret-Event?


Answer: around the world

Question: Where do artists who feature in the Kleines Fest im Großen Garten come from?


Answer: Wintervariety

Question: What is another important event other than the Calenberger Cabaret Weeks or the Hanover Cabaret Festival?


Answer: most successful Cabaret Festival in Germany

Question: What is a notable achievement about the Kleines Fest im Großen Garten?


Answer: a double n

Context: "Hanover" is the traditional English spelling. The German spelling (with a double n) is becoming more popular in English; recent editions of encyclopedias prefer the German spelling, and the local government uses the German spelling on English websites. The English pronunciation /ˈhænəvər/, with stress on the first syllable and a reduced second syllable, is applied to both the German and English spellings, which is different from German pronunciation [haˈnoːfɐ], with stress on the second syllable and a long second vowel. The traditional English spelling is still used in historical contexts, especially when referring to the British House of Hanover.

Question: What does the German spelling of Hanover have that English does not?


Answer: German

Question: Which version of the spelling of Hanover does the local Government use on English websites?


Answer: first

Question: Which syllable does the English spoken version of Hanover stress?


Answer: second

Question: Which syllable does the German pronunciation of Hanover stress?


Answer: traditional English spelling

Question: Which spelling of Hanover is used in historical contexts?


Answer: Nazi party

Context: After 1937 the Lord Mayor and the state commissioners of Hanover were members of the NSDAP (Nazi party). A large Jewish population then existed in Hanover. In October 1938, 484 Hanoverian Jews of Polish origin were expelled to Poland, including the Grynszpan family. However, Poland refused to accept them, leaving them stranded at the border with thousands of other Polish-Jewish deportees, fed only intermittently by the Polish Red Cross and Jewish welfare organisations. The Gryszpan's son Herschel Grynszpan was in Paris at the time. When he learned of what was happening, he drove to the German embassy in Paris and shot the German diplomat Eduard Ernst vom Rath, who died shortly afterwards.

Question: What does the NSDAP stand for?


Answer: 1937

Question: After which year did the Lord Mayor join the NSDAP?


Answer: 484

Question: How many Hanoverian Jews were expelled in 1938?


Answer: Herschel Grynszpan

Question: Who assassinated the German diplomat Eduard Ernst vom Rath?


Answer: Paris

Question: Which city was the German diplomat in when he got assassinated?


Answer: European baroque garden

Context: The Great Garden is an important European baroque garden. The palace itself, however, was largely destroyed by Allied bombing but is currently under reconstruction.[citation needed] Some points of interest are the Grotto (the interior was designed by the French artist Niki de Saint-Phalle), the Gallery Building, the Orangerie and the two pavilions by Remy de la Fosse. The Great Garden consists of several parts. The most popular ones are the Great Ground and the Nouveau Jardin. At the centre of the Nouveau Jardin is Europe's highest garden fountain. The historic Garden Theatre inter alia hosted the musicals of the German rock musician Heinz Rudolf Kunze.[citation needed]

Question: What kind of garden is The Great Garden?


Answer: Allied bombing

Question: What destroyed the palace?


Answer: Remy de la Fosse

Question: Who constructed the two pavilions in the palace?


Answer: Great Ground

Question: Other than the Nouveau Jardin, what is the other popular part of The Great Garden?


Answer: Europe's highest garden fountain

Question: What is at the centre of the Nouveau Jardin?


Answer: Frank O. Gehry

Context: Some other popular sights are the Waterloo Column, the Laves House, the Wangenheim Palace, the Lower Saxony State Archives, the Hanover Playhouse, the Kröpcke Clock, the Anzeiger Tower Block, the Administration Building of the NORD/LB, the Cupola Hall of the Congress Centre, the Lower Saxony Stock, the Ministry of Finance, the Garten Church, the Luther Church, the Gehry Tower (designed by the American architect Frank O. Gehry), the specially designed Bus Stops, the Opera House, the Central Station, the Maschsee lake and the city forest Eilenriede, which is one of the largest of its kind in Europe. With around 40 parks, forests and gardens, a couple of lakes, two rivers and one canal, Hanover offers a large variety of leisure activities.

Question: Who designed the Gehry Tower?


Answer: one of the largest of its kind in Europe

Question: What is notable about the city forest Eilenriede?


Answer: American

Question: What nationality was the architect of the Gehry Tower?


Answer: 40

Question: How many parks are there approximately in Hanover?


Answer: two

Question: How many rivers run through Hanover?


Answer: marksmen

Context: But Hanover is not only one of the most important Exhibition Cities in the world, it is also one of the German capitals for marksmen. The Schützenfest Hannover is the largest Marksmen's Fun Fair in the world and takes place once a year (late June to early July) (2014 - July 4th to the 13th). It consists of more than 260 rides and inns, five large beer tents and a big entertainment programme. The highlight of this fun fair is the 12 kilometres (7 mi) long Parade of the Marksmen with more than 12.000 participants from all over the world, among them around 5.000 marksmen, 128 bands and more than 70 wagons, carriages and big festival vehicles. It is the longest procession in Europe. Around 2 million people visit this fun fair every year. The landmark of this Fun Fair is the biggest transportable Ferris Wheel in the world (60 m or 197 ft high). The origins of this fun fair is located in the year 1529.

Question: What is Hanover a German capital for?


Answer: Schützenfest Hannover

Question: What is the name of the largest Marksmen's Fun Fair in the world?


Answer: more than 260

Question: How many rides and inns does the fair have?


Answer: 12.000

Question: How many participants are int he Parade of the Marksmen?


Answer: 1529

Question: What year can the festival be traced back to?


Answer: expressway

Context: The Schnellweg (en: expressway) system, a number of Bundesstraße roads, forms a structure loosely resembling a large ring road together with A2 and A7. The roads are B 3, B 6 and B 65, called Westschnellweg (B6 on the northern part, B3 on the southern part), Messeschnellweg (B3, becomes A37 near Burgdorf, crosses A2, becomes B3 again, changes to B6 at Seelhorster Kreuz, then passes the Hanover fairground as B6 and becomes A37 again before merging into A7) and Südschnellweg (starts out as B65, becomes B3/B6/B65 upon crossing Westschnellweg, then becomes B65 again at Seelhorster Kreuz).

Question: What is a Schnellweg?


Answer: a large ring road

Question: What structure does the Schnellweg and a number of roads roughly form?


Answer: Seelhorster Kreuz

Question: When does the Messeschnellweg change to the B6?


Answer: B6

Question: What road does the Messeschnellweg pass the Hanover fairground as?


Answer: B65

Question: What road does the Südschnellweg start out as?


Answer: the personal union of the United Kingdom and Hanover

Context: In 1837, the personal union of the United Kingdom and Hanover ended because William IV's heir in the United Kingdom was female (Queen Victoria). Hanover could be inherited only by male heirs. Thus, Hanover passed to William IV's brother, Ernest Augustus, and remained a kingdom until 1866, when it was annexed by Prussia during the Austro-Prussian war. Despite being expected to defeat Prussia at the Battle of Langensalza, Prussia employed Moltke the Elder's Kesselschlacht order of battle to instead destroy the Hanoverian army. The city of Hanover became the capital of the Prussian Province of Hanover. After the annexation, the people of Hanover generally opposed the Prussian government.

Question: What ended in the year 1837?


Answer: Queen Victoria

Question: What was the name of William IV's heir?


Answer: Ernest Augustus

Question: Who did the throne of Hanover pass to instead of Queen Victoria?


Answer: annexed by Prussia

Question: What happened to the kingdom of Hanover in 1866?


Answer: Battle of Langensalza

Question: In which battle was the Hanover army destroyed?


Answer: Action Lauterbacher

Context: In September 1941, through the "Action Lauterbacher" plan, a ghettoisation of the remaining Hanoverian Jewish families began. Even before the Wannsee Conference, on 15 December 1941, the first Jews from Hanover were deported to Riga. A total of 2,400 people were deported, and very few survived. During the war seven concentration camps were constructed in Hanover, in which many Jews were confined. Of the approximately 4,800 Jews who had lived in Hannover in 1938, fewer than 100 were still in the city when troops of the United States Army arrived on 10 April 1945 to occupy Hanover at the end of the war.[citation needed] Today, a memorial at the Opera Square is a reminder of the persecution of the Jews in Hanover. After the war a large group of Orthodox Jewish survivors of the nearby Bergen-Belsen concentration camp settled in Hanover.

Question: What plan was implemented in September 1941?


Answer: Hanoverian Jewish families

Question: Which portion of the population underwent ghettoisation?


Answer: Wannsee Conference

Question: What occured on the 15th of December 1941?


Answer: 4,800

Question: How many Jews approximately lived in Hanover in 1938?


Answer: seven

Question: How many concentration camps were constructed in Hanover?


Answer: east bank of the River Leine

Context: Hanover was founded in medieval times on the east bank of the River Leine. Its original name Honovere may mean "high (river)bank", though this is debated (cf. das Hohe Ufer). Hanover was a small village of ferrymen and fishermen that became a comparatively large town in the 13th century due to its position at a natural crossroads. As overland travel was relatively difficult, its position on the upper navigable reaches of the river helped it to grow by increasing trade. It was connected to the Hanseatic League city of Bremen by the Leine, and was situated near the southern edge of the wide North German Plain and north-west of the Harz mountains, so that east-west traffic such as mule trains passed through it. Hanover was thus a gateway to the Rhine, Ruhr and Saar river valleys, their industrial areas which grew up to the southwest and the plains regions to the east and north, for overland traffic skirting the Harz between the Low Countries and Saxony or Thuringia.

Question: Where was Hanover originally founded?


Answer: "high (river)bank"

Question: What did Hanover possibly originally mean?


Answer: 13th century

Question: When did Hanover become a comparitvely large town?


Answer: Hanseatic League city of Bremen

Question: Which city was Hanover connected to by the Leine?


Answer: mule trains

Question: What is one example of traffic that passed through Hanover?


Answer: Napoleon

Context: After Napoleon imposed the Convention of Artlenburg (Convention of the Elbe) on July 5, 1803, about 30,000 French soldiers occupied Hanover. The Convention also required disbanding the army of Hanover. However, George III did not recognize the Convention of the Elbe. This resulted in a great number of soldiers from Hanover eventually emigrating to Great Britain, where the King's German Legion was formed. It was the only German army to fight against France throughout the entire Napoleonic wars. The Legion later played an important role in the Battle of Waterloo in 1815. The Congress of Vienna in 1815 elevated the electorate to the Kingdom of Hanover. The capital town Hanover expanded to the western bank of the Leine and since then has grown considerably.

Question: Who imposed the Convention of Artlenburg?