Answer: Amphibious assault ships

Question: Which ships are used for carrying and landing Marines?


Answer: helicopters

Context: Modern navies that operate such aircraft carriers treat them as the capital ship of the fleet, a role previously held by the battleship. This change took place during World War II in response to air power becoming a significant factor in warfare, driven by the superior range, flexibility and effectiveness of carrier-launched aircraft. Following the war, carrier operations continued to increase in size and importance. Supercarriers, displacing 75,000 tonnes or greater, have become the pinnacle of carrier development. Some are powered by nuclear reactors and form the core of a fleet designed to operate far from home. Amphibious assault ships, such as USS Tarawa and HMS Ocean, serve the purpose of carrying and landing Marines, and operate a large contingent of helicopters for that purpose. Also known as "commando carriers" or "helicopter carriers", many have the capability to operate VSTOL aircraft.

Question: What do Amphibious assalut ships need a large contingent of for carrying Marines?


Answer: The Royal Australian Navy

Context: The Royal Australian Navy is in the process of procuring two Canberra-class LHD's, the first of which was commissioned in November 2015, while the second is expected to enter service in 2016. The ships will be the largest in Australian naval history. Their primary roles are to embark, transport and deploy an embarked force and to carry out or support humanitarian assistance missions. The LHD is capable of launching multiple helicopters at one time while maintaining an amphibious capability of 1,000 troops and their supporting vehicles (tanks, armoured personnel carriers etc.). The Australian Defence Minister has publicly raised the possibility of procuring F-35B STOVL aircraft for the carrier, stating that it "has been on the table since day one and stating the LHD's are "STOVL capable".

Question: Who is in the process of procuring two Canbera-class LHD's?


Answer: the largest in Australian naval history

Question: How large will the two Canbera-class LDH's be?


Answer: 1,000 troops and their supporting vehicles

Question: How many troops can be maintained on a Canbera-class LHD?


Answer: to embark, transport and deploy an embarked force

Question: What is one primary role of the Canbera-class LDH?


Answer: multiple helicopters at one time

Question: How many helicopters is the LHD capable of launching?


Answer: two new larger STOVL aircraft carriers, the Queen Elizabeth class

Context: The British Royal Navy is constructing two new larger STOVL aircraft carriers, the Queen Elizabeth class, to replace the three Invincible-class carriers. The ships will be named HMS Queen Elizabeth and HMS Prince of Wales. They will be able to operate up to 40 aircraft in peace time with a tailored group of up to 50, and will have a displacement of 70,600 tonnes. The ships are due to become operational from 2020. Their primary aircraft complement will be made up of F-35B Lightning IIs, and their ship's company will number around 680 with the total complement rising to about 1,600 when the air group is embarked. Defensive weapons will include the Phalanx Close-In Weapons System for anti-aircraft and anti-missile defence; also 30 mm Automated Small Calibre Guns and miniguns for use against fast attack craft. The two ships will be the largest warships ever built for the Royal Navy.

Question: What is the British Navy constructing to replace their three Invincible-class carriers?


Answer: HMS Queen Elizabeth and HMS Prince of Wales

Question: What will the 2 Queen Elizabeth class ships be named?


Answer: 2020

Question: When are the 2 Queen Elizabeth class ships due to become operational?


Answer: 70,600

Question: How many tonnes can the Queen Elizabeth class ships displace?


Answer: the largest warships ever built for the Royal Navy

Question: How large will the two Queen Elizabeth ships be?


Answer: they influence the weight, type, and configuration of the aircraft that may be launched

Context: The constraints of constructing a flight deck affect the role of a given carrier strongly, as they influence the weight, type, and configuration of the aircraft that may be launched. For example, assisted launch mechanisms are used primarily for heavy aircraft, especially those loaded with air-to-ground weapons. CATOBAR is most commonly used on USN supercarriers as it allows the deployment of heavy jets with full loadouts, especially on ground-attack missions. STOVL is used by other navies because it is cheaper to operate and still provides good deployment capability for fighter aircraft.

Question: Why do the constraints of constructing a flight deck affect the role of a carrier?


Answer: heavy aircraft

Question: What are assisted launch mechanisms primarily used for?


Answer: deployment of heavy jets with full loadouts

Question: What does CATOBAR allow for?


Answer: it is cheaper to operate

Question: Why is STOVL used by other navies?


Answer: conventional aircraft cannot decelerate on their own

Context: On the recovery side of the flight deck, the adaptation to the aircraft loadout is mirrored. Non-VTOL or conventional aircraft cannot decelerate on their own, and almost all carriers using them must have arrested-recovery systems (-BAR, e.g. CATOBAR or STOBAR) to recover their aircraft. Aircraft that are landing extend a tailhook that catches on arrestor wires stretched across the deck to bring themselves to a stop in a short distance. Post-WWII Royal Navy research on safer CATOBAR recovery eventually led to universal adoption of a landing area angled off axis to allow aircraft who missed the arresting wires to "bolt" and safely return to flight for another landing attempt rather than crashing into aircraft on the forward deck.

Question: Why do almost all carriers using conventional aircraft have arrested-recovery systems?


Answer: to recover their aircraft

Question: What is the purpose of an arrested-recovery system?


Answer: extend a tailhook that catches on arrestor wires stretched across the deck

Question: What do aircraft do when landing in order to stop on a short distance?


Answer: bolt

Question: What does a landing area angles off access allow an aircraft to do if if misses the arresting wires?


Answer: crashing into aircraft on the forward deck

Question: What can a "bolt" prevent an aircraft from doing?


Answer: the shooters, the handler, and the air boss

Context: Key personnel involved in the flight deck include the shooters, the handler, and the air boss. Shooters are naval aviators or Naval Flight Officers and are responsible for launching aircraft. The handler works just inside the island from the flight deck and is responsible for the movement of aircraft before launching and after recovery. The "air boss" (usually a commander) occupies the top bridge (Primary Flight Control, also called primary or the tower) and has the overall responsibility for controlling launch, recovery and "those aircraft in the air near the ship, and the movement of planes on the flight deck, which itself resembles a well-choreographed ballet." The captain of the ship spends most of his time one level below primary on the Navigation Bridge. Below this is the Flag Bridge, designated for the embarked admiral and his staff.

Question: What are 3 key personnel involved in the flight deck?


Answer: launching aircraft

Question: What are shooters responsible for?


Answer: the movement of aircraft before launching and after recovery

Question: What is the handler responsible for?


Answer: on the Navigation Bridge

Question: Where does the captain of the ship spend most of his time?


Answer: the embarked admiral and his staff

Question: Who is the Flag Bridge area of the ship designated for?


Answer: the penalty it exacts on aircraft size, payload, and fuel load

Context: The disadvantage of the ski-jump is the penalty it exacts on aircraft size, payload, and fuel load (and thus range); heavily laden aircraft can not launch using a ski-jump because their high loaded weight requires either a longer takeoff roll than is possible on a carrier deck, or assistance from a catapult or JATO rocket. For example, the Russian Su-33 is only able to launch from the carrier Admiral Kuznetsov with a minimal armament and fuel load. Another disadvantage is on mixed flight deck operations where helicopters are also present such as a US Landing Helicopter Dock or Landing Helicopter Assault amphibious assault ship a ski jump is not included as this would eliminate one or more helicopter landing areas, this flat deck limits the loading of Harriers but is somewhat mitigated by the longer rolling start provided by a long flight deck compared to many STOVL carriers.

Question: What is the disadvantage of the ski-jump?


Answer: heavily laden aircraft

Question: What cannot launch using a ski-jump due to their high loaded weight?


Answer: a catapult or JATO rocket

Question: What do heavily laden aircraft sometimes require the assistance from?


Answer: would eliminate one or more helicopter landing areas

Question: Why is a ski-jump not included on mixed flight deck operations where helicopters are present?


Answer: with a minimal armament and fuel load

Question: How is the Russian SU-33 able to launch from the carrier Admiral Kuznetsov?


Answer: on the pretext of use as a floating casino

Context: One STOBAR carrier: Liaoning was originally built as the 57,000 tonne Soviet Admiral Kuznetsov-class carrier Varyag and was later purchased as a stripped hulk by China in 1998 on the pretext of use as a floating casino, then partially rebuilt and towed to China for completion. Liaoning was commissioned on 25 September 2012, and began service for testing and training. On 24 or 25 November 2012, Liaoning successfully launched and recovered several Shenyang J-15 jet fighter aircraft. She is classified as a training ship, intended to allow the navy to practice with carrier usage. On 26 December 2012, the People's Daily reported that it will take four to five years for Liaoning to reach full capacity, mainly due to training and coordination which will take significant amount of time for Chinese PLA Navy to complete as this is the first aircraft carrier in their possession. As it is a training ship, Liaoning is not assigned to any of China's operation fleets.

Question: Why did China purchase the STOBAR carrier Liaoning in 1998?


Answer: a training ship

Question: What is Liaoning classifed as?


Answer: carrier usage

Question: What is the Liaoning intended to help the navy practice with?


Answer: it is a training ship

Question: Why is Liaoning not assigned to any of China's operation fleets?


Answer: this is the first aircraft carrier in their possession

Question: Why did the Chinese PLA Navy need 4-5 years for Liaoning to reach full capacity?


Answer: India

Context: India started the construction of a 40,000-tonne, 260-metre-long (850 ft) Vikrant-class aircraft carrier in 2009. The new carrier will operate MiG-29K and naval HAL Tejas aircraft along with the Indian-made helicopter HAL Dhruv. The ship will be powered by four gas-turbine engines and will have a range of 8,000 nautical miles (15,000 kilometres), carrying 160 officers, 1,400 sailors, and 30 aircraft. The carrier is being constructed by Cochin Shipyard. The ship was launched in August 2013 and is scheduled for commissioning in 2018.

Question: Who started construction of a 40,000-tonne Vikrant-class carrier in 2009?


Answer: four gas-turbine engines

Question: What will power the Indian-made ship?


Answer: 8,000 nautical miles

Question: What will the range of the Indian-made ship be, carrying 160 officers, 1400 sailers, and 30 aircraft?


Answer: Cochin Shipyard

Question: Who is constructing the Indian-made ship?


Answer: August 2013

Question: When was the Indian-made ship launched?


Answer: to deploy balloons

Context: Carriers have evolved since their inception in the early twentieth century from wooden vessels used to deploy balloons to nuclear-powered warships that carry dozens of aircraft, including fighter jets and helicopters. As of 3 March 2016, there are thirty-seven active aircraft carriers in the world within twelve navies. The United States Navy has 10 large nuclear-powered carriers (known as supercarriers, carrying up to 90 aircraft each), the largest carriers in the world; the total deckspace is over twice that of all other nations' combined. As well as the supercarrier fleet, the US Navy has nine amphibious assault ships used primarily for helicopters (sometimes called helicopter carriers); these can also carry up to 25 fighter jets, and in some cases, are as large as some other nations' fixed-wing carriers.

Question: What were carriers used for in the early 20th century?


Answer: thirty-seven

Question: As of 3/3/2016, how many active aircraft carriers are there worldwide?


Answer: supercarriers

Question: What is another name for the 10 large nuclear-powered carriers operated by the U.S. Navy?


Answer: up to 90

Question: How many aircraft can supercarriers carry?


Answer: The United States Navy

Question: Who owns the largest carriers in the world?


Answer: There is no single definition

Context: There is no single definition of an "aircraft carrier", and modern navies use several variants of the type. These variants are sometimes categorized as sub-types of aircraft carriers, and sometimes as distinct types of naval aviation-capable ships. Aircraft carriers may be classified according to the type of aircraft they carry and their operational assignments. Admiral Sir Mark Stanhope, former head of the Royal Navy, has said that "To put it simply, countries that aspire to strategic international influence have aircraft carriers".

Question: What is the definition of an "aircraft carrier"?


Answer: according to the type of aircraft they carry and their operational assignments

Question: How may aircraft carriers be classified?


Answer: former head of the Royal Navy

Question: Who is Admiral Sir Mark Stanhope?


Answer: Admiral Sir Mark Stanhope

Question: Who said, "countries that aspire to strategic international influence have aircraft carriers"?


Answer: The aircraft carrier

Context: The aircraft carrier dramatically changed naval combat in World War II, because air power was becoming a significant factor in warfare. The advent of aircraft as focal weapons was driven by the superior range, flexibility and effectiveness of carrier-launched aircraft. They had higher range and precision than naval guns, making them highly effective. The versatility of the carrier was demonstrated in November 1940 when HMS Illustrious launched a long-range strike on the Italian fleet at their base in Taranto, signalling the beginning of the effective and highly mobile aircraft strikes. This operation incapacitated three of the six battleships at a cost of two torpedo bombers. World War II in the Pacific Ocean involved clashes between aircraft carrier fleets. The 1941 Japanese surprise attack on Pearl Harbor was a clear illustration of the power projection capability afforded by a large force of modern carriers. Concentrating six carriers in a single unit turned naval history about, as no other nation had fielded anything comparable. However, the vulnerability of carriers compared to traditional battleships when forced into a gun-range encounter was quickly illustrated by the sinking of HMS Glorious by German battleships during the Norwegian campaign in 1940.

Question: What dramatically changed naval combat in World War II?


Answer: the superior range, flexibility and effectiveness

Question: What drove the advent of carrier-launched aircraft as focal weapons?


Answer: They had higher range and precision

Question: Why were carrier-launched aircraft more effective than naval guns?


Answer: the beginning of the effective and highly mobile aircraft strikes

Question: What was signalled in 1940 when HMS Illustrious launched an strike on an Italian fleet?


Answer: the sinking of HMS Glorious by German battleships

Question: What event showed the vulnerability of carriers when forced into gun-range enounters?


Answer: flattop vessels

Context: The development of flattop vessels produced the first large fleet ships. In 1918, HMS Argus became the world's first carrier capable of launching and recovering naval aircraft. As a result of the Washington Naval Treaty of 1922, which limited the construction of new heavy surface combat ships, most early aircraft carriers were conversions of ships that were laid down (or had served) as different ship types: cargo ships, cruisers, battlecruisers, or battleships. These conversions gave rise to the Lexington-class aircraft carriers (1927), Akagi and Courageous class. Specialist carrier evolution was well underway, with several navies ordering and building warships that were purposefully designed to function as aircraft carriers by the mid-1920s, resulting in the commissioning of ships such as Hōshō (1922), HMS Hermes (1924), and Béarn (1927). During World War II, these ships would become known as fleet carriers.[citation needed]

Question: What develpment produced the first large fleet ships?


Answer: HMS Argus

Question: What was the world's first carrier capable of launching and recovering naval aircraft?


Answer: the construction of new heavy surface combat ships

Question: What did the Washington Naval Treaty of 1922 limit?


Answer: Washington Naval Treaty of 1922

Question: What caused early aircraft carriers to be made up of conversions of ships that were previously cargo ships, cruisers or battlecruisers?


Answer: Lexington-class

Question: What type of aircraft carriers did these ship conversions give rise to in 1927?


Answer: Electromagnetic Aircraft Launch System

Context: In December 2009, then Indian Navy chief Admiral Nirmal Kumar Verma said at his maiden navy week press conference that concepts currently being examined by the Directorate of Naval Design for the second indigenous aircraft carrier (IAC-2), are for a conventionally powered carrier displacing over 50,000 tons and equipped with steam catapults (rather than the ski-jump on the Gorshkov/Vikramaditya and the IAC) to launch fourth-generation aircraft. Later on in August 2013 Vice Admiral RK Dhowan, while talking about the detailed study underway on the IAC-II project, said that nuclear propulsion was also being considered. The navy also evaluated the Electromagnetic Aircraft Launch System (EMALS), which is being used by the US Navy in their latest Gerald R. Ford-class aircraft carriers. General Atomics, the developer of the EMALS, was cleared by the US government to give a technical demonstration to Indian Navy officers, who were impressed by the new capabilities of the system. The EMALS enables launching varied aircraft including unmanned combat air vehicles (UCAV). The aim is to have a total of three aircraft carriers in service, with two fully operational carriers and the third in refit.

Question: What does EMALS stand for?


Answer: General Atomics

Question: Who developed EMALS?


Answer: varied aircraft including unmanned combat air vehicles (UCAV)

Question: What do EMALS enable the launching of?


Answer: Indian Navy officers

Question: Who was impressed by the demonstration of EMALS by General Atomics?


Answer: three

Question: How many in-service aircraft carriers are aimed for with EMALS?


Answer: Japan's largest military ship since World War II

Context: In August 2013, a launching ceremony for Japan's largest military ship since World War II was held in Yokohama. The 820-foot-long (250 m), 19,500-ton flattop Izumo was deployed in March 2015. The ship is able to carry up to 14 helicopters; however, only seven ASW helicopters and two SAR helicopters were planned for the initial aircraft complement. For other operations, 400 troops and fifty 3.5 t trucks (or equivalent equipment) can also be carried. The flight deck has five helicopter landing spots that allow simultaneous landings or take-offs. The ship is equipped with two Phalanx CIWS and two SeaRAM for its defense. The destroyers of this class were initially intended to replace the two ships of the Shirane class, which were originally scheduled to begin decommissioning in FY2014.

Question: What was the August 2013 launching ceremony in Yokohama held for?


Answer: five

Question: How many helicopters can simultaneously land on Japan's largest military ship?


Answer: 820-foot-long (250 m)

Question: How long is Japan's largest military ship?


Answer: 400

Question: How many troops can Japan's largest military ship carry?


Answer: 19,500-ton

Question: How much does Japan's largest military ship weigh?


Answer: the ten-ship Gerald R. Ford class

Context: The current US fleet of Nimitz-class carriers will be followed into service (and in some cases replaced) by the ten-ship Gerald R. Ford class. It is expected that the ships will be more automated in an effort to reduce the amount of funding required to staff, maintain and operate its supercarriers. The main new features are implementation of Electromagnetic Aircraft Launch System (EMALS) (which replace the old steam catapults) and unmanned aerial vehicles. With the deactivation of USS Enterprise in December 2012 (decommissioning scheduled for 2016), the U.S. fleet comprises 10 active supercarriers. On 24 July 2007, the House Armed Services Seapower subcommittee recommended seven or eight new carriers (one every four years). However, the debate has deepened over budgeting for the $12–14.5 billion (plus $12 billion for development and research) for the 100,000 ton Gerald R. Ford-class carrier (estimated service 2016) compared to the smaller $2 billion 45,000 ton America-class amphibious assault ships able to deploy squadrons of F-35B of which one is already active, another is under construction and nine more are planned.

Question: What will some of the current US fleet of Nimitz-class carriers be replaced with?


Answer: Electromagnetic Aircraft Launch System (EMALS)

Question: Which feature of the new ships will replace the old steam catapults?


Answer: 2016

Question: When is the USS Enterprise scheduled to be decommissioned?


Answer: 100,000 ton

Question: How much does the Gerald R. Ford-class carrier weigh?


Answer: 45,000 ton

Question: How much does the America-class amphibious assault ship weigh?


Answer: VTOL-capable or helicopters

Context: If the aircraft are VTOL-capable or helicopters, they do not need to decelerate and hence there is no such need. The arrested-recovery system has used an angled deck since the 1950s because, in case the aircraft does not catch the arresting wire, the short deck allows easier take off by reducing the number of objects between the aircraft and the end of the runway. It also has the advantage of separating the recovery operation area from the launch area. Helicopters and aircraft capable of vertical or short take-off and landing (V/STOL) usually recover by coming abreast the carrier on the port side and then using their hover capability to move over the flight deck and land vertically without the need for arresting gear.

Question: What type of aircraft have no need to decelerate?


Answer: the launch area

Question: What does the angled deck separate the recovery operation area from?


Answer: aircraft capable of vertical or short take-off and landing

Question: What does V/STOL refer to?


Answer: hover

Question: What capability do helicopters use to move over the flight deck and land vertically?


Answer: arresting gear

Question: What don't helicopters need because of having hover capablility?


Answer: an island

Context: The superstructure of a carrier (such as the bridge, flight control tower) are concentrated in a relatively small area called an island, a feature pioneered on the HMS Hermes in 1923. While the island is usually built on the starboard side of the fight deck, the Japanese aircraft carriers Akagi and Hiryū had their islands built on the port side. Very few carriers have been designed or built without an island. The flush deck configuration proved to have significant drawbacks, primary of which was management of the exhaust from the power plant. Fumes coming across the deck were a major issue in USS Langley. In addition, lack of an island meant difficulties managing the flight deck, performing air traffic control, a lack of radar housing placements and problems with navigating and controlling the ship itself.

Question: What feature was pioneered on the HMS Hermes in 1923?


Answer: The superstructure of a carrier

Question: What is concentrated in the small area called an island?


Answer: starboard

Question: Other than Japanese carriers, which side of the flight deck are islands typically built on?


Answer: management of the exhaust from the power plant

Question: What was the biggest drawback to the flush deck configuration?


Answer: Fumes coming across the deck

Question: What was a major issue in the USS Langley?


Answer: Charles de Gaulle

Context: 1 CATOBAR carrier: Charles de Gaulle is a 42,000 tonne nuclear-powered aircraft carrier, commissioned in 2001 and is the flagship of the French Navy (Marine Nationale). The ship carries a complement of Dassault-Breguet Super Étendard, Dassault Rafale M and E‑2C Hawkeye aircraft, EC725 Caracal and AS532 Cougar helicopters for combat search and rescue, as well as modern electronics and Aster missiles. It is a CATOBAR-type carrier that uses two 75 m C13‑3 steam catapults of a shorter version of the catapult system installed on the U.S. Nimitz-class carriers, one catapult at the bow and one across the front of the landing area.

Question: What is the name of the 42,000 tonne nuclear-powered carrier commissioned in 2001?


Answer: the French Navy

Question: What is the Charles de Gaulle the flagship of?


Answer: Aster

Question: What type of missiles does the Charles de Gaulle carry?


Answer: Marine Nationale

Question: What is another name for the French Navy?


Answer: CATOBAR

Question: What type of carrier is the Charles de Gaulle?


Answer: one every four years

Context: With the deactivation of USS Enterprise in December 2012, the U.S. fleet comprises 10 supercarriers. The House Armed Services Seapower subcommittee on 24 July 2007, recommended seven or maybe eight new carriers (one every four years). However, the debate has deepened over budgeting for the $12–14.5 billion (plus $12 billion for development and research) for the 100,000 ton Gerald R. Ford-class carrier (estimated service 2016) compared to the smaller $2 billion 45,000 ton America-class amphibious assault ships, which are able to deploy squadrons of F-35Bs. The first of this class, USS America, is now in active service with another, USS Tripoli, under construction and 9 more are planned.

Question: How many new carriers per year did the House Armed Services Seapower subcommittee recommend in 7/24/07?


Answer: America-class amphibious assault ships

Question: What class does the USS America belong to?


Answer: 10

Question: How many supercarriers did the U.S. fleet have following the deactivation of the USS Enterprise?


Answer: F-35Bs

Question: What is the USS America capable of destroying squadrons of?


Answer: USS Tripoli

Question: Which other carrier joins the USS America in active service?


Answer: to accommodate a steady increase in aircraft size

Context: Since World War II, aircraft carrier designs have increased in size to accommodate a steady increase in aircraft size. The large, modern Nimitz class of US carriers has a displacement nearly four times that of the World War II–era USS Enterprise, yet its complement of aircraft is roughly the same—a consequence of the steadily increasing size and weight of military aircraft over the years. Today's aircraft carriers are so expensive that nations which operate them risk significant political, economic, and military impact if a carrier is lost, or even used in conflict.

Question: Why have aircraft carriers increased in size since World War II?


Answer: nearly four times

Question: How much more displacement does the modern Nimitz class have compared to the older USS Enterprise?


Answer: Today's aircraft carriers are so expensive

Question: Why do nations risk significant political impacts if a carrier is lost or even used in conflict?


Answer: World War II

Question: Which era does the USS Enterprise belong to?


Answer: landing signal officer

Context: Conventional ("tailhook") aircraft rely upon a landing signal officer (LSO, radio call sign paddles) to monitor the aircraft's approach, visually gauge glideslope, attitude, and airspeed, and transmit that data to the pilot. Before the angled deck emerged in the 1950s, LSOs used colored paddles to signal corrections to the pilot (hence the nickname). From the late 1950s onward, visual landing aids such as Optical Landing System have provided information on proper glide slope, but LSOs still transmit voice calls to approaching pilots by radio.

Question: What does LSO stand for?


Answer: a landing signal officer

Question: Who does a conventional aircraft rely upon to moniter the aircraft's approach and transmit the data to the pilot?


Answer: colored paddles

Question: What did LSO's use to signal corrections to the pilot prior to the angled deck designs introduced in the 1950's?


Answer: Optical Landing System

Question: Which visual landing aids have provided information on proper glide slope since the late 1950's?


Answer: transmit voice calls to approaching pilots by radio

Question: What are LSO's still being used to do?


Answer: using the ramp and a running start

Context: Although STOVL aircraft are capable of taking off vertically from a spot on the deck, using the ramp and a running start is far more fuel efficient and permits a heavier launch weight. As catapults are unnecessary, carriers with this arrangement reduce weight, complexity, and space needed for complex steam or electromagnetic launching equipment, vertical landing aircraft also remove the need for arresting cables and related hardware. Russian, Chinese, and future Indian carriers include a ski-jump ramp for launching lightly loaded conventional fighter aircraft but recover using traditional carrier arresting cables and a tailhook on their aircraft.

Question: What is a more fuel efficient way for STOVL aircraft to take off rather than vertically?


Answer: STOVL

Question: What kind of aircraft are capable of taking off vertically?


Answer: vertical

Question: What landing aircraft have removed the need for arresting cables?


Answer: a ski-jump ramp

Question: What do Russian carriers include for launching lightly loaded conventional fighters?


Answer: traditional carrier arresting cables and a tailhook on their aircraft

Question: What do Russian carriers still use to recover?


Answer: Clemenceau

Context: One CATOBAR carrier: São Paulo is a Clemenceau-class aircraft carrier currently in service with the Brazilian Navy. São Paulo was first commissioned in 1963 by the French Navy as Foch and was transferred in 2000 to Brazil, where she became the new flagship of the Brazilian Navy. During the period from 2005–2010, São Paulo underwent extensive modernization. At the end of 2010, sea trials began, and as of 2011[update] São Paulo had been evaluated by the CIASA (Inspection Commission and Training Advisory). She was expected to rejoin the fleet in late 2013, but suffered another major fire in 2012.

Question: What class carrier is the Sao Paulo?


Answer: the Brazilian Navy

Question: Who is the Sao Paulo currently in service for?


Answer: the French Navy

Question: Who was the Sao Paulo first commissioned by in 1963?


Answer: extensive modernization

Question: What did Sao Paulo undergo during the period from 2005-2010?


Answer: another major fire

Question: What setback happened to Sao Paula in 2012?


Answer: STOBAR

Context: 1 STOBAR carrier: Admiral Flota Sovetskovo Soyuza Kuznetsov: 55,000 tonne Admiral Kuznetsov-class STOBAR aircraft carrier. Launched in 1985 as Tbilisi, renamed and operational from 1995. Without catapults she can launch and recover lightly fueled naval fighters for air defense or anti-ship missions but not heavy conventional bombing strikes.[citation needed] Officially designated an aircraft carrying cruiser, she is unique in carrying a heavy cruiser's complement of defensive weapons and large P-700 Granit offensive missiles. The P-700 systems will be removed in the coming refit to enlarge her below decks aviation facilities as well as upgrading her defensive systems.

Question: What type of carrier is Admiral Flota Sovetskovo Soyuza Kuznetsov?


Answer: in 1985

Question: When was Admiral Flota Sovetskovo Soyuza Kuznetsov first launched?


Answer: Tbilisi

Question: What was Admiral Flota Sovetskovo Soyuza Kuznetsov renamed?


Answer: carrying a heavy cruiser's complement of defensive weapons and large P-700 Granit offensive missiles

Question: What is unique about Tbilisi?


Answer: The P-700 systems

Question: What will be removed from Tbilisi in order to enlarge her below decks aviation facilities?


Answer: Queen Elizabeth

Context: The Royal Navy is constructing two new larger STOVL aircraft carriers, the Queen Elizabeth class, to replace the three now retired Invincible-class carriers. The ships are HMS Queen Elizabeth and HMS Prince of Wales. They will be able to operate up to 40 aircraft on peace time operations with a tailored group of up to 50, and will have a displacement of 70,600 tonnes. HMS Queen Elizabeth is projected to commission in 2017 followed by Prince of Wales in about 2020. The ships are due to become operational starting in 2020. Their primary aircraft complement will be made up of F-35B Lightning IIs, and their ship's company will number around 680 with the total complement rising to about 1600 when the air group is embarked. The two ships will be the largest warships ever built for the Royal Navy.

Question: Which class of aircraft carriers is being constructed to replace the Invincible-class carriers?


Answer: 70,600 tonnes

Question: What will the displacement be for the HMS Queen Elizabeth?


Answer: in 2017

Question: When is HMS Queen Elizabeth projected to commission?


Answer: in about 2020

Question: When is Prince of Wales projected to commission?


Answer: Royal Navy

Question: Who is building HMS Queen Elizabeth and Prince of Wales?


Answer: 2007

Context: In 2007, two FAA whistleblowers, inspectors Charalambe "Bobby" Boutris and Douglas E. Peters, alleged that Boutris said he attempted to ground Southwest after finding cracks in the fuselage, but was prevented by supervisors he said were friendly with the airline. This was validated by a report by the Department of Transportation which found FAA managers had allowed Southwest Airlines to fly 46 airplanes in 2006 and 2007 that were overdue for safety inspections, ignoring concerns raised by inspectors. Audits of other airlines resulted in two airlines grounding hundreds of planes, causing thousands of flight cancellations. The House Transportation and Infrastructure Committee held hearings in April 2008. Jim Oberstar, former chairman of the committee said its investigation uncovered a pattern of regulatory abuse and widespread regulatory lapses, allowing 117 aircraft to be operated commercially although not in compliance with FAA safety rules. Oberstar said there was a "culture of coziness" between senior FAA officials and the airlines and "a systematic breakdown" in the FAA's culture that resulted in "malfeasance, bordering on corruption." In 2008 the FAA proposed to fine Southwest $10.2 million for failing to inspect older planes for cracks, and in 2009 Southwest and the FAA agreed that Southwest would pay a $7.5 million penalty and would adopt new safety procedures, with the fine doubling if Southwest failed to follow through.

Question: When did two whisleblowers allege that Boutris attempted to ground Southwest Airlines?


Answer: 46

Question: How many planes did the FAA managers allow to fly in 2006 and 2007 that were overdue for safety inspections?


Answer: $10.2 million

Question: How much did the FAA propose to fine Southwest for failing to inspect older planes?


Answer: Jim Oberstar

Question: What former chairman of the committee said it's investigation uncovered a pattern of regulatory abuse?


Answer: 117

Question: How many planes were allowed to be operated commercially although not in compliance with FAA safety regulations?


Answer: July 22, 2008

Context: On July 22, 2008, in the aftermath of the Southwest Airlines inspection scandal, a bill was unanimously approved in the House to tighten regulations concerning airplane maintenance procedures, including the establishment of a whistleblower office and a two-year "cooling off" period that FAA inspectors or supervisors of inspectors must wait before they can work for those they regulated. The bill also required rotation of principal maintenance inspectors and stipulated that the word "customer" properly applies to the flying public, not those entities regulated by the FAA. The bill died in a Senate committee that year.

Question: When did the aftermath of the Southwest Airlines inspection scandal happen?


Answer: House

Question: who approved a mesaure to tigheten regulations concerning airplane maintenance prodecures?


Answer: the flying public

Question: What does the word 'customer' properly apply to?


Answer: two-year

Question: how long was the "cooling off" period that the FAA inspectors or supervisers of inspectors must wait before they can work for those they regulate?


Answer: hijacking

Context: The FAA gradually assumed additional functions. The hijacking epidemic of the 1960s had already brought the agency into the field of civil aviation security. In response to the hijackings on September 11, 2001, this responsibility is now primarily taken by the Department of Homeland Security. The FAA became more involved with the environmental aspects of aviation in 1968 when it received the power to set aircraft noise standards. Legislation in 1970 gave the agency management of a new airport aid program and certain added responsibilities for airport safety. During the 1960s and 1970s, the FAA also started to regulate high altitude (over 500 feet) kite and balloon flying.

Question: What epidemic did the FAA have to handle in the 1960s?


Answer: Department of Homeland Security

Question: Who now takes responsibility for aviation security?


Answer: 1968

Question: When did the FAA become more involved with the environmental aspects of aviation?


Answer: 500 feet

Question: What is the altitude which the FAA regulates over?


Answer: 1970

Question: When was legislation passed that gave the agency management of a new airport aide program?


Answer: World War II

Context: On the eve of America's entry into World War II, CAA began to extend its ATC responsibilities to takeoff and landing operations at airports. This expanded role eventually became permanent after the war. The application of radar to ATC helped controllers in their drive to keep abreast of the postwar boom in commercial air transportation. In 1946, meanwhile, Congress gave CAA the added task of administering the federal-aid airport program, the first peacetime program of financial assistance aimed exclusively at promoting development of the nation's civil airports.

Question: When did the CAA begin to exptend it's ATC responsibilities?


Answer: radar

Question: What helped ATC controllers in their drive ot keep ahead of the postwar boom in commercial air transportation?


Answer: 1946

Question: When did Congress give the CAA the task of administering the federal-air airport program?


Answer: civil airports

Question: What did the federal-aid airport program aim to help develop?


Answer: mid-1970s

Context: By the mid-1970s, the agency had achieved a semi-automated air traffic control system using both radar and computer technology. This system required enhancement to keep pace with air traffic growth, however, especially after the Airline Deregulation Act of 1978 phased out the CAB's economic regulation of the airlines. A nationwide strike by the air traffic controllers union in 1981 forced temporary flight restrictions but failed to shut down the airspace system. During the following year, the agency unveiled a new plan for further automating its air traffic control facilities, but progress proved disappointing. In 1994, the FAA shifted to a more step-by-step approach that has provided controllers with advanced equipment.

Question: When did the agency acheive a semi-automated air traffic control system?


Answer: 1978

Question: When was the Airline Deregulation act?


Answer: 1981

Question: When did the nationwide strike by air traffic controlers union happen?


Answer: 1994

Question: when did the FAA shift to a more step-by-step approach to providing air traffic controllers with more advanced equipment?


Answer: computer technology

Question: What helped operate radar in the new air-traffic control system?


Answer: May 20, 1926

Context: The Air Commerce Act of May 20, 1926, is the cornerstone of the federal government's regulation of civil aviation. This landmark legislation was passed at the urging of the aviation industry, whose leaders believed the airplane could not reach its full commercial potential without federal action to improve and maintain safety standards. The Act charged the Secretary of Commerce with fostering air commerce, issuing and enforcing air traffic rules, licensing pilots, certifying aircraft, establishing airways, and operating and maintaining aids to air navigation. The newly created Aeronautics Branch, operating under the Department of Commerce assumed primary responsibility for aviation oversight.

Question: When was the Air Commerce Act passed?


Answer: Secretary of Commerce

Question: Who was charged with fostering air commerce?


Answer: Aeronautics Branch

Question: What new branch was created and operates under the Department of Commerce?


Answer: Aeronautics Branch

Question: Who assumed primary responsibility for aviation oversight?


Answer: Secretary of Commerce

Question: Who was responsible for operating and maintaining aids to air navigation?


Answer: 1956

Context: The approaching era of jet travel, and a series of midair collisions (most notable was the 1956 Grand Canyon mid-air collision), prompted passage of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958. This legislation gave the CAA's functions to a new independent body, the Federal Aviation Agency. The act transferred air safety regulation from the CAB to the new FAA, and also gave the FAA sole responsibility for a common civil-military system of air navigation and air traffic control. The FAA's first administrator, Elwood R. Quesada, was a former Air Force general and adviser to President Eisenhower.

Question: When did the Grand-Canyon mid-air collision happen?


Answer: 1958

Question: when was the Federal Aviation Act passed?


Answer: Federal Aviation Agency

Question: What agency would now act like the CAA?


Answer: CAB

Question: Who did the Federal Aviation Act transfer air safety regulation from?


Answer: Elwood R. Quesada

Question: Who was the FAA's first administrator?


Answer: October 31, 2013

Context: On October 31, 2013, after outcry from media outlets, including heavy criticism from Nick Bilton of The New York Times, the FAA announced it will allow airlines to expand the passengers use of portable electronic devices during all phases of flight, but mobile phone calls will still be prohibited. Implementation will vary among airlines. The FAA expects many carriers to show that their planes allow passengers to safely use their devices in airplane mode, gate-to-gate, by the end of 2013. Devices must be held or put in the seat-back pocket during the actual takeoff and landing. Mobile phones must be in airplane mode or with mobile service disabled, with no signal bars displayed, and cannot be used for voice communications due to Federal Communications Commission regulations that prohibit any airborne calls using mobile phones. If an air carrier provides Wi-Fi service during flight, passengers may use it. Short-range Bluetooth accessories, like wireless keyboards, can also be used.

Question: When did the FAA decide to expand passengers use of portable elctronic devices during all phases of flight?


Answer: airplane mode

Question: What mode must mobile phones be put into?


Answer: all phases

Question: What phases of flight will passengers be able to use electronic devices?


Answer: seat-back pocket

Question: Where must devices be put during actual takeoff and landing?


Answer: can also be used.

Question: Are short-range bluetooth accessories able to be used?


Answer: 1967

Context: In 1967, a new U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT) combined major federal responsibilities for air and surface transport. The Federal Aviation Agency's name changed to the Federal Aviation Administration as it became one of several agencies (e.g., Federal Highway Administration, Federal Railroad Administration, the Coast Guard, and the Saint Lawrence Seaway Commission) within DOT (albeit the largest). The FAA administrator would no longer report directly to the president but would instead report to the Secretary of Transportation. New programs and budget requests would have to be approved by DOT, which would then include these requests in the overall budget and submit it to the president.

Question: When did the US DOT combine major federal responsibilities for air and surface transport?


Answer: Federal Aviation Administration

Question: What did the Federal Aviation Agency change it's name to?


Answer: Secretary of Transportation

Question: Who would the FAA administrator report to?


Answer: DOT

Question: Who approves new programs and budget requests?


Answer: president

Question: Who is the final person to approve the budget that is submitted?


Answer: Bureau of Air Commerce

Context: The Aeronautics Branch was renamed the Bureau of Air Commerce in 1934 to reflect its enhanced status within the Department. As commercial flying increased, the Bureau encouraged a group of airlines to establish the first three centers for providing air traffic control (ATC) along the airways. In 1936, the Bureau itself took over the centers and began to expand the ATC system. The pioneer air traffic controllers used maps, blackboards, and mental calculations to ensure the safe separation of aircraft traveling along designated routes between cities.

Question: What was the Areonautics Branch renamed to?


Answer: 1934

Question: When was the Aeronautics Branch renamed?


Answer: 1936

Question: When did the Buerau take over and begin to expant the ATC system?


Answer: air traffic controllers

Question: What were the people who used maps, blackboards, and mental calculation to ensure the safe separation of aircraft traveling between cities called?


Answer: 2014

Context: In 2014, the FAA changed a long-standing approach to air traffic control candidates that eliminated preferences based on training and experience at flight schools in favor of a personality test open to anyone irrespective of experience. The move was made to increase flight traffic controller racial diversity. Before the change, candidates who had completed coursework at participating colleges and universities could be "fast-tracked" for consideration. The agency eliminated that program and instead switched to an open system to the general public, with no need for any experience or even a college degree. Instead, applicants could take "a biographical questionnaire" that many applicants found baffling.

Question: When did the FAA change it's long-standing approach to air traffic control candidates?


Answer: personality test

Question: What was now favored instead of training and experince at flight schools?


Answer: anyone

Question: Who could be an air traffic controller irrespective of experience now because of the rule change?


Answer: biographical questionnaire

Question: What did applicants now take that many of them found baffling?


Answer: Joseph Gutheinz

Context: The FAA has been cited as an example of regulatory capture, "in which the airline industry openly dictates to its regulators its governing rules, arranging for not only beneficial regulation, but placing key people to head these regulators." Retired NASA Office of Inspector General Senior Special Agent Joseph Gutheinz, who used to be a Special Agent with the Office of Inspector General for the Department of Transportation and with FAA Security, is one of the most outspoken critics of FAA. Rather than commend the agency for proposing a $10.2 million fine against Southwest Airlines for its failure to conduct mandatory inspections in 2008, he was quoted as saying the following in an Associated Press story: "Penalties against airlines that violate FAA directives should be stiffer. At $25,000 per violation, Gutheinz said, airlines can justify rolling the dice and taking the chance on getting caught. He also said the FAA is often too quick to bend to pressure from airlines and pilots." Other experts have been critical of the constraints and expectations under which the FAA is expected to operate. The dual role of encouraging aerospace travel and regulating aerospace travel are contradictory. For example, to levy a heavy penalty upon an airline for violating an FAA regulation which would impact their ability to continue operating would not be considered encouraging aerospace travel.

Question: What retired NASA Office of inspector general is outspoken about the FAA?


Answer: $25,000

Question: How much do penalties against airlines cost per violation?


Answer: impact their ability to continue operating

Question: A heavy penalty for violating FAA reulations could said to be do what?


Answer: $10.2 million

Question: What did the agency propose to find Southwest Airlines?


Answer: 1998

Context: The boroughs of Liverpool, Knowsley, St Helens and Sefton were included in Merseyside. In Greater Manchester the successor boroughs were Bury, Bolton, Manchester, Oldham (part), Rochdale, Salford, Tameside (part), Trafford (part) and Wigan. Warrington and Widnes, south of the new Merseyside/Greater Manchester border were added to the new non-metropolitan county of Cheshire. The urban districts of Barnoldswick and Earby, Bowland Rural District and the parishes of Bracewell and Brogden and Salterforth from Skipton Rural District in the West Riding of Yorkshire became part of the new Lancashire. One parish, Simonswood, was transferred from the borough of Knowsley in Merseyside to the district of West Lancashire in 1994. In 1998 Blackpool and Blackburn with Darwen became independent unitary authorities.

Question: In what year did Blackpool and Blackburn become independent unitary authorities?


Answer: 1994

Question: In what year was Simonswood transferred from Knowsley to West Lancashire


Answer: Warrington and Widnes

Question: Which places were added to the new county of Cheshire?


Answer: Merseyside

Question: Where were the boroughs of Liverpool, Knowsley, St Helens and Sefton included?


Answer: Simonswood

Question: Which parish was transferred from Knowsley to the district of West Lancashire?


Answer: 1970s

Context: The Duchy of Lancaster is one of two royal duchies in England. It has landholdings throughout the region and elsewhere, operating as a property company, but also exercising the right of the Crown in the County Palatine of Lancaster. While the administrative boundaries changed in the 1970s, the county palatine boundaries remain the same as the historic boundaries. As a result, the High Sheriffs for Lancashire, Greater Manchester and Merseyside are appointed "within the Duchy and County Palatine of Lancaster".

Question: When did the administrative boundaries for the Duchy of Lancaster change?


Answer: one of two royal duchies in England

Question: What is the Duchy of Lancaster?


Answer: a property company

Question: What does the Duchy of Lancaster operate as?


Answer: High Sheriffs

Question: Who are appointed within the Duchy and County Palatine of Lancater?


Answer: The Duchy of Lancaster

Question: Who exercises the right of the Crown in the County Palatine of Lancaster?


Answer: four

Context: Lancashire has a mostly comprehensive system with four state grammar schools. Not including sixth form colleges, there are 77 state schools (not including Burnley's new schools) and 24 independent schools. The Clitheroe area has secondary modern schools. Sixth form provision is limited at most schools in most districts, with only Fylde and Lancaster districts having mostly sixth forms at schools. The rest depend on FE colleges and sixth form colleges, where they exist. South Ribble has the largest school population and Fylde the smallest (only three schools). Burnley's schools have had a new broom and have essentially been knocked down and started again in 2006. There are many Church of England and Catholic faith schools in Lancashire.

Question: How many state grammar schools are in Lancashire?


Answer: 77

Question: How many state schools are in Lancashire?


Answer: 24

Question: How many independant schools are in Lancashire?


Answer: South Ribble

Question: Who has the largest school population?


Answer: Fylde

Question: Who has the smallest school population?


Answer: 1895 to 1970

Context: Lancashire produced well known teams in super league such as St Helens, Wigan, and Warrington. The county was once the focal point for many of the sport's professional competitions including the Lancashire League competition which ran from 1895 to 1970, and the Lancashire County Cup which was abandoned in 1993. Rugby League has also seen a representative fixture between Lancashire and Yorkshire contested 89 times since its inception in 1895. Currently there are several rugby league teams that are based within the ceremonial county which include Blackpool Panthers, East Lancashire Lions, Blackpool Sea Eagles, Bamber Bridge, Leyland Warriors, Chorley Panthers, Blackpool Stanley, Blackpool Scorpions and Adlington Rangers.

Question: What years did the Lancashire League competition run from?


Answer: Lancashire

Question: Which county was once the focal point for many professional competitions?


Answer: 1993

Question: Which year was the Lancashire County Cup abandoned?


Answer: 1895

Question: What year did Rugby League start?


Answer: Manchester

Context: Lancashire had a lively culture of choral and classical music, with very large numbers of local church choirs from the 17th century, leading to the foundation of local choral societies from the mid-18th century, often particularly focused on performances of the music of Handel and his contemporaries. It also played a major part in the development of brass bands which emerged in the county, particularly in the textile and coalfield areas, in the 19th century. The first open competition for brass bands was held at Manchester in 1853, and continued annually until the 1980s. The vibrant brass band culture of the area made an important contribution to the foundation and staffing of the Hallé Orchestra from 1857, the oldest extant professional orchestra in the United Kingdom. The same local musical tradition produced eminent figures such as Sir William Walton (1902–88), son of an Oldham choirmaster and music teacher, Sir Thomas Beecham (1879–1961), born in St. Helens, who began his career by conducting local orchestras and Alan Rawsthorne (1905–71) born in Haslingden. The conductor David Atherton, co-founder of the London Sinfonietta, was born in Blackpool in 1944. Lancashire also produced more populist figures, such as early musical theatre composer Leslie Stuart (1863–1928), born in Southport, who began his musical career as organist of Salford Cathedral.

Question: Where was the first open competition for brass bands held?


Answer: 1853

Question: What year was the first open competition for brass bands held?


Answer: Blackpool

Question: Where was David Atherton born?


Answer: the London Sinfonietta

Question: What did David Atherton co-found?


Answer: Leslie Stuart

Question: Who began their musical career as organist of Salford Cathedral?


Answer: Manchester and Liverpool

Context: Lancashire emerged as a major commercial and industrial region during the Industrial Revolution. Manchester and Liverpool grew into its largest cities, dominating global trade and the birth of modern capitalism. The county contained several mill towns and the collieries of the Lancashire Coalfield. By the 1830s, approximately 85% of all cotton manufactured worldwide was processed in Lancashire. Accrington, Blackburn, Bolton, Burnley, Bury, Chorley, Colne, Darwen, Nelson, Oldham, Preston, Rochdale and Wigan were major cotton mill towns during this time. Blackpool was a centre for tourism for the inhabitants of Lancashire's mill towns, particularly during wakes week.

Question: What are the biggest cities in Lancashire?


Answer: 85%

Question: By the 1830's, how much of all cotton was processed in Lancashire?


Answer: Blackpool

Question: Where was a center for tourist for the people of Lancashire's mill towns?


Answer: wakes week

Question: What week was most popular to visit Lancashire's mill towns?


Answer: during the Industrial Revolution

Question: When did Lancashire emerge as a major commercialand industrial region?


Answer: 1974

Context: The county was subject to significant boundary reform in 1974 that removed Liverpool and Manchester and most of their surrounding conurbations to form the metropolitan counties of Merseyside and Greater Manchester. The detached northern part of Lancashire in the Lake District, including the Furness Peninsula and Cartmel, was merged with Cumberland and Westmorland to form Cumbria. Lancashire lost 709 square miles of land to other counties, about two fifths of its original area, although it did gain some land from the West Riding of Yorkshire. Today the county borders Cumbria to the north, Greater Manchester and Merseyside to the south and North and West Yorkshire to the east; with a coastline on the Irish Sea to the west. The county palatine boundaries remain the same[clarification needed] with the Duke of Lancaster exercising sovereignty rights, including the appointment of lords lieutenant in Greater Manchester and Merseyside.

Question: When was Liverpool and Manchester removed from Lancashire boundaries?


Answer: 709

Question: How many miles of land did Lancashire lose to other countries?


Answer: Cumbria

Question: What is to the north of Lancashire today?


Answer: West Yorkshire

Question: What is to the east of Lancashire today?


Answer: Duke of Lancaster

Question: Who exercises sovereignty rights for Lancashire?


Answer: 1889

Context: Lancashire is smaller than its historical extent following a major reform of local government. In 1889, the administrative county of Lancashire was created, covering the historical county except for the county boroughs such as Blackburn, Burnley, Barrow-in-Furness, Preston, Wigan, Liverpool and Manchester. The area served by the Lord-Lieutenant (termed now a ceremonial county) covered the entirety of the administrative county and the county boroughs, and was expanded whenever boroughs annexed areas in neighbouring counties such as Wythenshawe in Manchester south of the River Mersey and historically in Cheshire, and southern Warrington. It did not cover the western part of Todmorden, where the ancient border between Lancashire and Yorkshire passes through the middle of the town.

Question: When was the administrative county of Lancashire created?


Answer: ceremonial county

Question: What is the area served by the Lord-Lieutenant called now?


Answer: the western part of Todmorden

Question: Where is the ancient border between Lancashire and Yorkshire located?


Answer: reform of local government

Question: Why is Lancashire smaller than its historical extent?


Answer: the administrative county and the county boroughs

Question: What area is covered by the Lord-Lieutenant?


Answer: 20th century

Context: During the 20th century, the county became increasingly urbanised, particularly the southern part. To the existing county boroughs of Barrow-in-Furness, Blackburn, Bolton, Bootle, Burnley, Bury, Liverpool, Manchester, Oldham, Preston, Rochdale, Salford, St Helens and Wigan were added Blackpool (1904), Southport (1905), and Warrington (1900). The county boroughs also had many boundary extensions. The borders around the Manchester area were particularly complicated, with narrow protrusions of the administrative county between the county boroughs – Lees urban district formed a detached part of the administrative county, between Oldham county borough and the West Riding of Yorkshire.

Question: When did the county become more urbanised?


Answer: the southern part

Question: Which part in particular became urbanised in the 20th century?


Answer: 1900

Question: When was Warrington added to Lancashire?


Answer: 1905

Question: When was Southport added?


Answer: 1904

Question: When was Blackpool added to the county?


Answer: dairy farming and cheesemaking

Context: To the east of the county are upland areas leading to the Pennines. North of the Ribble is Beacon Fell Country Park and the Forest of Bowland, another AONB. Much of the lowland in this area is devoted to dairy farming and cheesemaking, whereas the higher ground is more suitable for sheep, and the highest ground is uncultivated moorland. The valleys of the River Ribble and its tributary the Calder form a large gap to the west of the Pennines, overlooked by Pendle Hill. Most of the larger Lancashire towns are in these valleys South of the Ribble are the West Pennine Moors and the Forest of Rossendale where former cotton mill towns are in deep valleys. The Lancashire Coalfield, largely in modern-day Greater Manchester, extended into Merseyside and to Ormskirk, Chorley, Burnley and Colne in Lancashire.

Question: What is most of the lowland in the county devoted to?


Answer: sheep

Question: What is the higer ground in the county devoted to?


Answer: uncultivated moorland

Question: What is in the highest ground?


Answer: modern-day Greater Manchester

Question: Where is the Lancashire Coalfield located?


Answer: North of the Ribble

Question: where is Beacon Fell County Park located?


Answer: bona vacantia

Context: The Duchy administers bona vacantia within the County Palatine, receiving the property of persons who die intestate and where the legal ownership cannot be ascertained. There is no separate Duke of Lancaster, the title merged into the Crown many centuries ago – but the Duchy is administered by the Queen in Right of the Duchy of Lancaster. A separate court system for the county palatine was abolished by Courts Act 1971. A particular form of The Loyal Toast, 'The Queen, Duke of Lancaster' is in regular use in the county palatine. Lancaster serves as the county town of the county palatine.

Question: What does the Duchy administer within the County Palatine?


Answer: Lancaster

Question: What serves as the county town of the county palatine?


Answer: many centuries ago

Question: When did the title of Duke of Lancaster merge into the Crown?


Answer: the Queen

Question: Who is the Duchy administered by?


Answer: the M6 motorway

Context: The Lancashire economy relies strongly on the M6 motorway which runs from north to south, past Lancaster and Preston. The M55 connects Preston to Blackpool and is 11.5 miles (18.3 km) long. The M65 motorway from Colne, connects Burnley, Accrington, Blackburn to Preston. The M61 from Preston via Chorley and the M66 starting 500 metres (0.3 mi) inside the county boundary near Edenfield, provide links between Lancashire and Manchester] and the trans-Pennine M62. The M58 crosses the southernmost part of the county from the M6 near Wigan to Liverpool via Skelmersdale.

Question: What does the Lancashire economy rely on?


Answer: north to south

Question: Which direction does the M6 motorway run?


Answer: The M55

Question: What road connects Preston to Blackpool?


Answer: M58

Question: Which road crosses the part of the county furthest south?


Answer: Fylde coast

Context: The major settlements in the ceremonial county are concentrated on the Fylde coast (the Blackpool Urban Area), and a belt of towns running west-east along the M65: Preston, Blackburn, Accrington, Burnley, Nelson and Colne. South of Preston are the towns of Leyland and Chorley; the three formed part of the Central Lancashire New Town designated in 1970. The north of the county is predominantly rural and sparsely populated, except for the towns of Lancaster and Morecambe which form a large conurbation of almost 100,000 people. Lancashire is home to a significant Asian population, numbering over 70,000 and 6% of the county's population, and concentrated largely in the former cotton mill towns in the south east.

Question: Where are the major settlements in the ceremonial county located?


Answer: Blackpool Urban Area

Question: Where is the Fylde coast?


Answer: north

Question: Which part of the county is rural and sparsely populated?


Answer: 100,000

Question: How many people live in Lancaster and Morecambe?


Answer: 6%

Question: What percentage of Lancashire is Asian?


Answer: Liverpool

Context: Liverpool produced a number of nationally and internationally successful popular singers in the 1950s, including traditional pop stars Frankie Vaughan and Lita Roza, and one of the most successful British rock and roll stars in Billy Fury. Many Lancashire towns had vibrant skiffle scenes in the late 1950s, out of which by the early 1960s a flourishing culture of beat groups began to emerge, particularly around Liverpool and Manchester. It has been estimated that there were around 350 bands active in and around Liverpool in this era, often playing ballrooms, concert halls and clubs, among them the Beatles. After their national success from 1962, a number of Liverpool performers were able to follow them into the charts, including Gerry & the Pacemakers, the Searchers and Cilla Black. The first act to break through in the UK who were not from Liverpool, or managed by Brian Epstein, were Freddie and the Dreamers, who were based in Manchester, as were Herman's Hermits and the Hollies. Led by the Beatles, beat groups from the region spearheaded the British Invasion of the US, which made a major contribution to the development of rock music. After the decline of beat groups in the late 1960s the centre of rock culture shifted to London and there were relatively few local bands who achieved national prominence until the growth of a disco funk scene and the punk rock revolution in the mid and late 1970s.

Question: Where was pop star Frankie Vaughan from?


Answer: 350

Question: How many bands were active in the Liverpool area in the 1960s?


Answer: Freddie and the Dreamers

Question: What was the first act to break through in the UK, not from Liverpool or managed by Brian Epstein?


Answer: Manchester

Question: Where were Freddie and the Dreamers based?


Answer: Manchester

Question: Where were Herman's Hermints and the Hollies from?


Answer: Richard Sheale

Context: Lancashire has a long and highly productive tradition of music making. In the early modern era the county shared in the national tradition of balladry, including perhaps the finest border ballad, "The Ballad of Chevy Chase", thought to have been composed by the Lancashire-born minstrel Richard Sheale. The county was also a common location for folk songs, including "The Lancashire Miller", "Warrington Ale" and "The soldier's farewell to Manchester", while Liverpool, as a major seaport, was the subject of many sea shanties, including "The Leaving of Liverpool" and "Maggie May", beside several local Wassailing songs. In the Industrial Revolution changing social and economic patterns helped create new traditions and styles of folk song, often linked to migration and patterns of work. These included processional dances, often associated with rushbearing or the Wakes Week festivities, and types of step dance, most famously clog dancing.

Question: Who was "The Ballad of Chevy Chase" composed by?


Answer: Lancashire

Question: Where was Richard Sheale from?


Answer: balladry

Question: What did the county share with it's national traditions?


Answer: music making

Question: What is Lancashire's long and productive tradition?


Answer: The Ballad of Chevy Chase

Question: What is the finest border ballad?


Answer: 1182

Context: The county was established in 1182, later than many other counties. During Roman times the area was part of the Brigantes tribal area in the military zone of Roman Britain. The towns of Manchester, Lancaster, Ribchester, Burrow, Elslack and Castleshaw grew around Roman forts. In the centuries after the Roman withdrawal in 410AD the northern parts of the county probably formed part of the Brythonic kingdom of Rheged, a successor entity to the Brigantes tribe. During the mid-8th century, the area was incorporated into the Anglo-Saxon Kingdom of Northumbria, which became a part of England in the 10th century.

Question: When was Lancashire established?


Answer: Roman times

Question: When was the area part of Brigantes tribal area?


Answer: 410AD

Question: In what year did the northern parts of the country form the Brythonic kingdom of Rheged?


Answer: a successor entity to the Brigantes tribe

Question: What is the Brythonic kingdom of Rheged?


Answer: mid-8th century

Question: When was the area incorporated into Northumbria?


Answer: 5,129,416

Context: By the census of 1971, the population of Lancashire and its county boroughs had reached 5,129,416, making it the most populous geographic county in the UK. The administrative county was also the most populous of its type outside London, with a population of 2,280,359 in 1961. On 1 April 1974, under the Local Government Act 1972, the administrative county was abolished, as were the county boroughs. The urbanised southern part largely became part of two metropolitan counties, Merseyside and Greater Manchester. The new county of Cumbria incorporates the Furness exclave.

Question: How many people lived in Lancashire in 1971?


Answer: Lancashire

Question: What is the most populous geographic county in the UK?


Answer: 1 April 1974

Question: When was the administrative county abolished?


Answer: Cumbria

Question: What incorporated the Furness exclave?


Answer: Merseyside and Greater Manchester

Question: What did the southern part of Lancashire turn into?


Answer: James Orchard Halliwell

Context: A local pioneer of folk song collection in the first half of the 19th century was Shakespearean scholar James Orchard Halliwell, but it was not until the second folk revival in the 20th century that the full range of song from the county, including industrial folk song, began to gain attention. The county produced one of the major figures of the revival in Ewan MacColl, but also a local champion in Harry Boardman, who from 1965 onwards probably did more than anyone to popularise and record the folk song of the county. Perhaps the most influential folk artists to emerge from the region in the late 20th century were Liverpool folk group The Spinners, and from Manchester folk troubadour Roy Harper and musician, comedian and broadcaster Mike Harding. The region is home to numerous folk clubs, many of them catering to Irish and Scottish folk music. Regular folk festivals include the Fylde Folk Festival at Fleetwood.

Question: Who was a local pioneer of folk song collection?


Answer: Harry Boardman

Question: Who did the most to popularize folk songs of the county?


Answer: The Spinners

Question: Who were the most influential fold artists from the region in the 20th century?


Answer: Irish and Scottish folk music

Question: Who do the many folk clubs today cater to?


Answer: Fylde Folk Festival

Question: What is one of the regular folk festivals called?


Answer: The Red Rose of Lancaster

Context: The Red Rose of Lancaster is the county flower found on the county's heraldic badge and flag. The rose was a symbol of the House of Lancaster, immortalised in the verse "In the battle for England's head/York was white, Lancaster red" (referring to the 15th-century Wars of the Roses). The traditional Lancashire flag, a red rose on a white field, was not officially registered. When an attempt was made to register it with the Flag Institute it was found that it was officially registered by Montrose in Scotland, several hundred years earlier with the Lyon Office. Lancashire's official flag is registered as a red rose on a gold field.

Question: What is the county flower of Lancaster?


Answer: on the county's heraldic badge and flag

Question: Where can the red rose of lancaster be found?


Answer: a red rose on a white field

Question: What is on the traditional Lancashire flag?


Answer: red rose on a gold field

Question: What is on the official Lancashire flag?


Answer: Montrose in Scotland

Question: Whos flag officially is a red rose on a white field?


Answer: 1932

Context: More recent Lancashire-born composers include Hugh Wood (1932- Parbold), Sir Peter Maxwell Davies (1934-, Salford), Sir Harrison Birtwistle (1934-, Accrington), Gordon Crosse (1937-, Bury),John McCabe (1939-2015, Huyton), Roger Smalley (1943-2015, Swinton), Nigel Osborne (1948-, Manchester), Steve Martland (1954-2013, Liverpool), Simon Holt (1958-, Bolton) and Philip Cashian (1963-, Manchester). The Royal Manchester College of Music was founded in 1893 to provide a northern counterpart to the London musical colleges. It merged with the Northern College of Music (formed in 1920) to form the Royal Northern College of Music in 1972.

Question: In what year was Hugh Wood born?


Answer: Salford

Question: Where was Sir Peter Maxwell Davies born?


Answer: 1893

Question: When was the Royal Manchester College of Music founded?


Answer: 1972

Question: When was the Royal Northern College of Music formed?


Answer: the Northern College of Music

Question: What did the Royal Manchester College of Music merge with?


Answer: Early Triassic

Context: The Early Triassic was between 250 million to 247 million years ago and was dominated by deserts as Pangaea had not yet broken up, thus the interior was nothing but arid. The Earth had just witnessed a massive die-off in which 95% of all life went extinct. The most common life on earth were Lystrosaurus, Labyrinthodont, and Euparkeria along with many other creatures that managed to survive the Great Dying. Temnospondyli evolved during this time and would be the dominant predator for much of the Triassic.

Question: What era was 250 million to 247 million years ago?


Answer: deserts

Question: What geologic climate was found in the Early Triassic?


Answer: Pangaea

Question: What landmass was still unbroken in the Early Triassic?


Answer: 95%

Question: What percentage of extinction of species had recently happened??


Answer: Temnospondyli

Question: What species had evolved after the extinction and would become the basic predator in the Triassic?


Answer: climatic changes

Context: The climatic changes of the late Jurassic and Cretaceous provided for further adaptive radiation. The Jurassic was the height of archosaur diversity, and the first birds and eutherian mammals also appeared. Angiosperms radiated sometime in the early Cretaceous, first in the tropics, but the even temperature gradient allowed them to spread toward the poles throughout the period. By the end of the Cretaceous, angiosperms dominated tree floras in many areas, although some evidence suggests that biomass was still dominated by cycad and ferns until after the Cretaceous–Paleogene extinction.

Question: What event produced further adaptations during the Jurassic and Cretaceous periods?


Answer: Jurassic

Question: When was the top of archosaur diversity?


Answer: Angiosperms

Question: What species spread towards the poles during the Jurassic?


Answer: angiosperms

Question: What species dominated many tree floras by the end of the Cretaceous period?


Answer: cycad and ferns

Question: What types of species are thought to still have been dominate until after the extinction?


Answer: Permian–Triassic extinction

Context: The lower (Triassic) boundary is set by the Permian–Triassic extinction event, during which approximately 90% to 96% of marine species and 70% of terrestrial vertebrates became extinct. It is also known as the "Great Dying" because it is considered the largest mass extinction in the Earth's history. The upper (Cretaceous) boundary is set at the Cretaceous–Tertiary (KT) extinction event (now more accurately called the Cretaceous–Paleogene (or K–Pg) extinction event), which may have been caused by the impactor that created Chicxulub Crater on the Yucatán Peninsula. Towards the Late Cretaceous large volcanic eruptions are also believed to have contributed to the Cretaceous–Paleogene extinction event. Approximately 50% of all genera became extinct, including all of the non-avian dinosaurs.

Question: What event sets the boundary for the Triassic?


Answer: 70%

Question: How many terrestrial species died during the extinction?


Answer: Great Dying

Question: What is the largest extinction of species in Earth's history known as?


Answer: 90% to 96%

Question: What percentage of marine life died during the extinction?


Answer: K–Pg) extinction

Question: What is the possible cause of the upper Cretaceous extinction event ?


Answer: 100 million to 65 million years

Context: The Late Cretaceous spans from 100 million to 65 million years ago. The Late Cretaceous featured a cooling trend that would continue on in the Cenozoic period. Eventually, tropics were restricted to the equator and areas beyond the tropic lines featured extreme seasonal changes in weather. Dinosaurs still thrived as new species such as Tyrannosaurus, Ankylosaurus, Triceratops and Hadrosaurs dominated the food web. In the oceans, Mosasaurs ruled the seas to fill the role of the Ichthyosaurs, and huge plesiosaurs, such as Elasmosaurus, evolved. Also, the first flowering plants evolved. At the end of the Cretaceous, the Deccan traps and other volcanic eruptions were poisoning the atmosphere. As this was continuing, it is thought that a large meteor smashed into earth, creating the Chicxulub Crater in an event known as the K-T Extinction, the fifth and most recent mass extinction event, in which 75% of life on earth went extinct, including all non-avian dinosaurs. Everything over 10 kilograms went extinct. The age of the dinosaurs was over.

Question: What is the span of the Late Cretaceous period?


Answer: cooling

Question: What weather trend ocured in the Late Cretaceous and Cenozoic periods?


Answer: tropics

Question: What climate was restricted to the equatorial areas?


Answer: extreme seasonal changes

Question: What type of weather changes did areas outside of the tropics experience?


Answer: K-T Extinction

Question: What event ended the age of the dinosaur by causing a 75% extinction?


Answer: climate

Context: The climate of the Cretaceous is less certain and more widely disputed. Higher levels of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere are thought to have caused the world temperature gradient from north to south to become almost flat: temperatures were about the same across the planet. Average temperatures were also higher than today by about 10°C. In fact, by the middle Cretaceous, equatorial ocean waters (perhaps as warm as 20 °C in the deep ocean) may have been too warm for sea life,[dubious – discuss][citation needed] and land areas near the equator may have been deserts despite their proximity to water. The circulation of oxygen to the deep ocean may also have been disrupted.[dubious – discuss] For this reason, large volumes of organic matter that was unable to decompose accumulated, eventually being deposited as "black shale".

Question: What is uncertain about the Cretaceous?


Answer: carbon dioxide

Question: What atmospheric gas caused temperatures levels to be 10 degrees higher than today?


Answer: deserts

Question: During the Cretaceous what climate was thought to be found in areas near the seas?


Answer: black shale

Question: What did large amounts of deposited un-decomposed organic matter later become?


Answer: temperatures

Question: What was about equal across the planet?


Answer: 237 million to 200 million years

Context: The Late Triassic spans from 237 million to 200 million years ago. Following the bloom of the Middle Triassic, the Late Triassic featured frequent heat spells, as well as moderate precipitation (10-20 inches per year). The recent warming led to a boom of reptilian evolution on land as the first true dinosaurs evolve, as well as pterosaurs. All this climatic change, however, resulted in a large die-out known as the Triassic-Jurassic extinction event, in which all archosaurs (excluding ancient crocodiles), most synapsids, and almost all large amphibians went extinct, as well as 34% of marine life in the fourth mass extinction event of the world. The cause is debatable.

Question: What was the span of the Late Triassic?


Answer: heat spells

Question: Besides moderate precipitation, what weather conditions did the Late Triassic have?


Answer: Triassic

Question: When did the first dinosaurs evolve?


Answer: Triassic-Jurassic extinction

Question: According to theory, what did climate change in the Late Triassic cause?


Answer: crocodiles

Question: What was the only archosaur to survive the fourth mass extinction?


Answer: 145 million to 100 million years

Context: The Early Cretaceous spans from 145 million to 100 million years ago. The Early Cretaceous saw the expansion of seaways, and as a result, the decline and extinction of sauropods (except in South America). Many coastal shallows were created, and that caused Ichthyosaurs to die out. Mosasaurs evolved to replace them as head of the seas. Some island-hopping dinosaurs, like Eustreptospondylus, evolved to cope with the coastal shallows and small islands of ancient Europe. Other dinosaurs rose up to fill the empty space that the Jurassic-Cretaceous extinction left behind, such as Carcharodontosaurus and Spinosaurus. Of the most successful would be the Iguanodon which spread to every continent. Seasons came back into effect and the poles got seasonally colder, but dinosaurs still inhabited this area like the Leaellynasaura which inhabited the polar forests year-round, and many dinosaurs migrated there during summer like Muttaburrasaurus. Since it was too cold for crocodiles, it was the last stronghold for large amphibians, like Koolasuchus. Pterosaurs got larger as species like Tapejara and Ornithocheirus evolved.

Question: What is the span of the Early Cretaceous?


Answer: expansion of seaways

Question: What event of the Early Cretaceous caused the extinction of several species?


Answer: Ichthyosaurs

Question: What species died out due to the expansion of coastal shallows?


Answer: Mosasaurs

Question: What species dominated the seas?


Answer: Iguanodon

Question: What dinosaur spread to every continent?


Answer: increase in seafloor

Context: Sea levels began to rise during the Jurassic, which was probably caused by an increase in seafloor spreading. The formation of new crust beneath the surface displaced ocean waters by as much as 200 m (656 ft) more than today, which flooded coastal areas. Furthermore, Pangaea began to rift into smaller divisions, bringing more land area in contact with the ocean by forming the Tethys Sea. Temperatures continued to increase and began to stabilize. Humidity also increased with the proximity of water, and deserts retreated.

Question: What caused the sea to rise during the Jurassic?


Answer: flooded coastal areas

Question: Rising seas and displaced waters caused what element along the coasts?


Answer: Tethys Sea

Question: Pangaea beginning to break apart created what new sea?


Answer: Temperatures

Question: What weather condition increased?


Answer: deserts

Question: As humidity increased what land area decreased?


Answer: 200 million years to 175 million

Context: The Early Jurassic spans from 200 million years to 175 million years ago. The climate was much more humid than the Triassic, and as a result, the world was very tropical. In the oceans, Plesiosaurs, Ichthyosaurs and Ammonites fill waters as the dominant races of the seas. On land, dinosaurs and other reptiles stake their claim as the dominant race of the land, with species such as Dilophosaurus at the top. The first true crocodiles evolved, pushing out the large amphibians to near extinction. All-in-all, reptiles rise to rule the world. Meanwhile, the first true mammals evolve, but remained relatively small sized.

Question: What is the span of years for the Early Jurassic?


Answer: Plesiosaurs

Question: Besides Ichthyosaurs and Ammonites, what was the other dominate species in the seas?


Answer: Dilophosaurus

Question: What was the highest order of species n land?


Answer: true mammals

Question: What other order evolved during the Jurassic?


Answer: more humid

Question: What feature of the climate produced a more tropical world?


Answer: Mesozoic

Context: Compared to the vigorous convergent plate mountain-building of the late Paleozoic, Mesozoic tectonic deformation was comparatively mild. The sole major Mesozoic orogeny occurred in what is now the Arctic, creating the Innuitian orogeny, the Brooks Range, the Verkhoyansk and Cherskiy Ranges in Siberia, and the Khingan Mountains in Manchuria. This orogeny was related to the opening of the Arctic Ocean and subduction of the North China and Siberian cratons under the Pacific Ocean. Nevertheless, the era featured the dramatic rifting of the supercontinent Pangaea. Pangaea gradually split into a northern continent, Laurasia, and a southern continent, Gondwana. This created the passive continental margin that characterizes most of the Atlantic coastline (such as along the U.S. East Coast) today.

Question: At what time was tectonic formation mild?


Answer: Arctic

Question: Where did the basic geological changes of this period occur?


Answer: Pangaea

Question: What supercontinent split to form two smaller continents?


Answer: Laurasia

Question: What was the northern continent split from Pangaea?


Answer: Gondwana

Question: What was Pangaea's southern continent called?


Answer: specialized animals

Context: Recent research indicates that the specialized animals that formed complex ecosystems, with high biodiversity, complex food webs and a variety of niches, took much longer to reestablish, recovery did not begin until the start of the mid-Triassic, 4M to 6M years after the extinction and was not complete until 30M years after the Permian–Triassic extinction event. Animal life was then dominated by various archosaurian reptiles: dinosaurs, pterosaurs, and aquatic reptiles such as ichthyosaurs, plesiosaurs, and mosasaurs.

Question: What type of animals took longer to reestablish?


Answer: 30M years

Question: How long after the Permian-Triassic extinction did animal recovery take to completion?


Answer: mid-Triassic

Question: When did recovery of these diverse animals begin?


Answer: reptiles

Question: What dominated animal life in the Triassic?


Answer: 4M to 6M

Question: How many years after the extinction did animal recovery begin?


Answer: Permian–Triassic extinction

Context: The era began in the wake of the Permian–Triassic extinction event, the largest well-documented mass extinction in Earth's history, and ended with the Cretaceous–Paleogene extinction event, another mass extinction which is known for having killed off non-avian dinosaurs, as well as other plant and animal species. The Mesozoic was a time of significant tectonic, climate and evolutionary activity. The era witnessed the gradual rifting of the supercontinent Pangaea into separate landmasses that would eventually move into their current positions. The climate of the Mesozoic was varied, alternating between warming and cooling periods. Overall, however, the Earth was hotter than it is today. Non-avian dinosaurs appeared in the Late Triassic and became the dominant terrestrial vertebrates early in the Jurassic, occupying this position for about 135 million years until their demise at the end of the Cretaceous. Birds first appeared in the Jurassic, having evolved from a branch of theropod dinosaurs. The first mammals also appeared during the Mesozoic, but would remain small—less than 15 kg (33 lb)—until the Cenozoic.

Question: At what point did the Mesozoic era begin?


Answer: Cretaceous–Paleogene extinction

Question: When did the Mesozoic end?


Answer: tectonic

Question: What kind of geologic activity occurred during the Mesozoic?


Answer: evolutionary

Question: Besides climate changes, what other important activity occurred during the Mesozoic?


Answer: Cenozoic

Question: When mamals appeared they remained small until what period?


Answer: 247 million to 237 million

Context: The Middle Triassic spans from 247 million to 237 million years ago. The Middle Triassic featured the beginnings of the breakup of Pangaea, and the beginning of the Tethys Sea. The ecosystem had recovered from the devastation that was the Great Dying. Phytoplankton, coral, and crustaceans all had recovered, and the reptiles began to get bigger and bigger. New aquatic reptiles evolved such as Ichthyosaurs and Nothosaurs. Meanwhile, on land, Pine forests flourished, bringing along mosquitoes and fruit flies. The first ancient crocodilians evolved, which sparked competition with the large amphibians that had since ruled the freshwater world.

Question: What is the span of years of the Middle Triassic?


Answer: breakup of Pangaea

Question: What continuing event began in the Middle Triassic?


Answer: the Great Dying

Question: From what had the ecosystem had to recover?


Answer: Tethys Sea

Question: During the breakup of Pangaea, what sea was created?


Answer: reptiles

Question: What type of animal began to flourish and become increasingly large?


Answer: 163 million to 145 million

Context: The Late Jurassic spans from 163 million to 145 million years ago. The Late Jurassic featured a massive extinction of sauropods and Ichthyosaurs due to the separation of Pangaea into Laurasia and Gondwana in an extinction known as the Jurassic-Cretaceous extinction. Sea levels rose, destroying fern prairies and creating shallows in its wake. Ichthyosaurs went extinct whereas sauropods, as a whole, did not die out in the Jurassic; in fact, some species, like the Titanosaurus, lived up to the K-T extinction. The increase in sea-levels opened up the Atlantic sea way which would continue to get larger over time. The divided world would give opportunity for the diversification of new dinosaurs.

Question: How many years did the Late Jurassic cover?


Answer: sauropods and Ichthyosaurs

Question: What did the separation of Pangaea cause to become extinct?


Answer: Jurassic-Cretaceous extinction

Question: What is the extinction caused by the splitting of Pangaea called?


Answer: Sea levels rose

Question: What caused the destruction of fern prairies and increasing shallows?


Answer: Atlantic sea

Question: What did the rise in sea levels open in the seaways?


Answer: dry

Context: The Triassic was generally dry, a trend that began in the late Carboniferous, and highly seasonal, especially in the interior of Pangaea. Low sea levels may have also exacerbated temperature extremes. With its high specific heat capacity, water acts as a temperature-stabilizing heat reservoir, and land areas near large bodies of water—especially the oceans—experience less variation in temperature. Because much of the land that constituted Pangaea was distant from the oceans, temperatures fluctuated greatly, and the interior of Pangaea probably included expansive areas of desert. Abundant red beds and evaporites such as halite support these conclusions, but evidence exists that the generally dry climate of the Triassic was punctuated by episodes of increased rainfall. Most important humid episodes were the Carnian Pluvial Event and one in the Rhaetian, few million years before the Triassic–Jurassic extinction event.

Question: What was the general rainfall in the Triassic?


Answer: Low sea levels

Question: What could have made temperatures more extreme?


Answer: desert

Question: Because of distance form the sea and wide variance in temperatures, what was the interior of Pangaea like?


Answer: increased rainfall

Question: What were there periods of during the Triassic?


Answer: increased rainfall

Question: What was the Carnian Pluvial event?


Answer: gymnosperms

Context: The dominant land plant species of the time were gymnosperms, which are vascular, cone-bearing, non-flowering plants such as conifers that produce seeds without a coating. This is opposed to the earth's current flora, in which the dominant land plants in terms of number of species are angiosperms. One particular plant genus, Ginkgo, is thought to have evolved at this time and is represented today by a single species, Ginkgo biloba. As well, the extant genus Sequoia is believed to have evolved in the Mesozoic.

Question: What was the dominant plant species of the Mesozoic?


Answer: conifers

Question: What is an example of a gymnosperm?


Answer: angiosperms

Question: What are the dominate plant species on Earth now?


Answer: Mesozoic

Question: When did the Ginkgo evolve?


Answer: Sequoia

Question: What famous tree species is believed to have evolved during the Mesozoic?


Answer: the 1980s

Context: It was only in the 1980s that digital telephony transmission networks became possible, such as with ISDN networks, assuring a minimum bit rate (usually 128 kilobits/s) for compressed video and audio transmission. During this time, there was also research into other forms of digital video and audio communication. Many of these technologies, such as the Media space, are not as widely used today as videoconferencing but were still an important area of research. The first dedicated systems started to appear in the market as ISDN networks were expanding throughout the world. One of the first commercial videoconferencing systems sold to companies came from PictureTel Corp., which had an Initial Public Offering in November, 1984.

Question: In what decade was digital telephony transmission made possible?


Answer: 128 kilobits/s

Question: What is the minimum bit rate for compressed video and audio transmission?


Answer: the Media space

Question: What is an example of an early form of digital video and audio communication?


Answer: ISDN networks

Question: In what form did the first dedicated videoconferencing system appear as?


Answer: PictureTel Corp.

Question: What company offered the first commercial videoconferencing system?


Answer: The MC

Context: The MC controls the conferencing while it is active on the signaling plane, which is simply where the system manages conferencing creation, endpoint signaling and in-conferencing controls. This component negotiates parameters with every endpoint in the network and controls conferencing resources. While the MC controls resources and signaling negotiations, the MP operates on the media plane and receives media from each endpoint. The MP generates output streams from each endpoint and redirects the information to other endpoints in the conference.

Question: What controls the conferencing while its active on the signaling plane?


Answer: endpoint signaling

Question: What is one example of what the signaling plane controls in a videoconferencing system?


Answer: the signaling plane

Question: Where does the videoconferencing system manage conferencing creation?


Answer: the media plane

Question: On what plane does the MC operate?


Answer: The MP

Question: What generates output streams from each endpoint?


Answer: High speed Internet connectivity

Context: High speed Internet connectivity has become more widely available at a reasonable cost and the cost of video capture and display technology has decreased. Consequently, personal videoconferencing systems based on a webcam, personal computer system, software compression and broadband Internet connectivity have become affordable to the general public. Also, the hardware used for this technology has continued to improve in quality, and prices have dropped dramatically. The availability of freeware (often as part of chat programs) has made software based videoconferencing accessible to many.

Question: What technology has become more widely available and affordable?


Answer: webcam

Question: What is an example of a personal videoconferencing system tool?


Answer: The availability of freeware

Question: What has made videoconferencing accessible to many?


Answer: chat programs

Question: Videoconferencing freeware is widely available in what programs?


Answer: serve individuals, not groups

Context: Videophone calls (also: videocalls, video chat as well as Skype and Skyping in verb form), differ from videoconferencing in that they expect to serve individuals, not groups. However that distinction has become increasingly blurred with technology improvements such as increased bandwidth and sophisticated software clients that can allow for multiple parties on a call. In general everyday usage the term videoconferencing is now frequently used instead of videocall for point-to-point calls between two units. Both videophone calls and videoconferencing are also now commonly referred to as a video link.

Question: Videophone calls are different from videoconferencing in what way?


Answer: Skype

Question: What is an example of a videophone call program?


Answer: videoconferencing

Question: What term is more used today to refer to calls between two units?


Answer: a video link

Question: What are videoconferencing calls now more commonly known as?


Answer: video chat

Question: What is another name for videophone calls?


Answer: the 2010s

Context: Technological developments by videoconferencing developers in the 2010s have extended the capabilities of video conferencing systems beyond the boardroom for use with hand-held mobile devices that combine the use of video, audio and on-screen drawing capabilities broadcasting in real-time over secure networks, independent of location. Mobile collaboration systems now allow multiple people in previously unreachable locations, such as workers on an off-shore oil rig, the ability to view and discuss issues with colleagues thousands of miles away. Traditional videoconferencing system manufacturers have begun providing mobile applications as well, such as those that allow for live and still image streaming.

Question: In what decade did developers extend the capabilities of videoconferencing to more devices?


Answer: Mobile collaboration systems

Question: What allows people in remote locations the ability to video-conference with colleagues far away?


Answer: still image streaming

Question: What is one example of an application that videoconferencing manufacturers have begun to offer?