Answer: the British Army, the Royal Navy, and the Royal Air Force

Context: During the 1920s and 1930s, British civil servants and politicians, looking back at the performance of the state during World War I, concluded that there was a need for greater co-ordination between the three Services that made up the armed forces of the United Kingdom—the British Army, the Royal Navy, and the Royal Air Force. The formation of a united ministry of defence was rejected by David Lloyd George's coalition government in 1921; but the Chiefs of Staff Committee was formed in 1923, for the purposes of inter-Service co-ordination. As rearmament became a concern during the 1930s, Stanley Baldwin created the position of Minister for Coordination of Defence. Lord Chatfield held the post until the fall of Neville Chamberlain's government in 1940; his success was limited by his lack of control over the existing Service departments and his limited political influence.

Question: What three services make up the armed forces of the UK?


Answer: The formation of a united ministry of defence

Question: What did David Lloyd George's coalition government reject in 1921?


Answer: 1923

Question: When was the Chiefs of Staff Committee formed?


Answer: Stanley Baldwin

Question: Who created the position of Minister for Coordination of Defence?


Answer: Minister for Coordination of Defence

Question: What post did Lord Chatfield hold until 1940?


Answer: Winston Churchill

Context: Winston Churchill, on forming his government in 1940, created the office of Minister of Defence to exercise ministerial control over the Chiefs of Staff Committee and to co-ordinate defence matters. The post was held by the Prime Minister of the day until Clement Attlee's government introduced the Ministry of Defence Act of 1946. The new ministry was headed by a Minister of Defence who possessed a seat in the Cabinet. The three existing service Ministers—the Secretary of State for War, the First Lord of the Admiralty, and the Secretary of State for Air—remained in direct operational control of their respective services, but ceased to attend Cabinet.

Question: Who created the office of Minister of Defence?


Answer: 1946

Question: When was the Ministry of Defence Act introduced?


Answer: 1940

Question: When did Winstron Churchill form his government?


Answer: a seat in the Cabinet

Question: The new ministry, according to the Act of 1946, was headed by a Minister of Defence who possessed what?


Answer: the Secretary of State for War, the First Lord of the Admiralty, and the Secretary of State for Air

Question: Who stopped attending Cabinet with the passage of the Ministry of Defence Act of 1946?


Answer: 1946 to 1964

Context: From 1946 to 1964 five Departments of State did the work of the modern Ministry of Defence: the Admiralty, the War Office, the Air Ministry, the Ministry of Aviation, and an earlier form of the Ministry of Defence. These departments merged in 1964; the defence functions of the Ministry of Aviation Supply merged into the Ministry of Defence in 1971.

Question: During what years did the five Departments of State do the work of the modern Ministry of Defence?


Answer: the Admiralty, the War Office, the Air Ministry, the Ministry of Aviation, and an earlier form of the Ministry of Defence

Question: What were the five Departments of State that did the work of the modern Ministry of Defence?


Answer: 1971

Question: When did the defence functions of the Ministry of Aviation Supply merge into the Ministry of Defence?


Answer: 1964

Question: All former Departments of State (except the Ministry of Aviation Supply) merged in what year?


Answer: The Ministers and Chiefs of the Defence Staff

Context: The Ministers and Chiefs of the Defence Staff are supported by a number of civilian, scientific and professional military advisors. The Permanent Under-Secretary of State for Defence (generally known as the Permanent Secretary) is the senior civil servant at the MoD. His or her role is to ensure the MoD operates effectively as a department of the government.

Question: Who is supported by civilian, scientific, and professional military advisors?


Answer: Permanent Secretary

Question: What is the Permanent Under-Secretary of State for Defence generally known as?


Answer: MoD

Question: Where does the Permanent Secretary serve as the senior civil servant?


Answer: to ensure the MoD operates effectively as a department of the government

Question: What is the role of the Permanent Secretary?


Answer: General Sir Nicholas Houghton

Context: The current Chief of the Defence Staff, the professional head of the British Armed Forces, is General Sir Nicholas Houghton, late Green Howards. He is supported by the Vice Chief of the Defence Staff, by the professional heads of the three services of HM Armed Forces and by the Commander of Joint Forces Command.

Question: What is the name of the person who is the current Chief of the Defence Staff?


Answer: Chief of the Defence Staff

Question: Who is the professional head of the British Armed Forces?


Answer: HM Armed Forces

Question: The professional heads of what three services support the Chief of the Defence Staff?


Answer: the Commander

Question: Which person in the Joint Forces Command supports the Chief of the Defence Staff?


Answer: three

Context: There are also three Deputy Chiefs of the Defence Staff with particular remits, Deputy Chief of the Defence Staff (Capability), Deputy CDS (Personnel and Training) and Deputy CDS (Operations). The Surgeon General, represents the Defence Medical Services on the Defence Staff, and is the clinical head of that service.

Question: How many Deputy Chiefs of the Defence Staff are there?


Answer: Deputy Chief of the Defence Staff (Capability), Deputy CDS (Personnel and Training) and Deputy CDS (Operations)

Question: What are the three Deputy Chiefs of the Defence Staff?


Answer: The Surgeon General

Question: Who represents the Defence Medical Services on the Defence Staff?


Answer: The Surgeon General

Question: Who leads the Defence Medical Services?


Answer: Cadets

Context: Additionally, there are a number of Assistant Chiefs of Defence Staff, including the Assistant Chief of the Defence Staff (Reserves and Cadets) and the Defence Services Secretary in the Royal Household of the Sovereign of the United Kingdom, who is also the Assistant Chief of Defence Staff (Personnel).

Question: One of the Assistant Chiefs of the Defence Staff is for Reserves and what?


Answer: the Defence Services Secretary in the Royal Household of the Sovereign of the United Kingdom

Question: The Personnel Chief is also known as what?


Answer: Sovereign

Question: There is a Defence Services Secretary in the Royal Household of the what?


Answer: Assistant Chief of the Defence Staff (Reserves and Cadets) and the Defence Services Secretary in the Royal Household of the Sovereign of the United Kingdom

Question: Who are two of the Assistant Chiefs of the Defence Staff?


Answer: 1998

Context: The 1998 Strategic Defence Review and the 2003 Delivering Security in a Changing World White Paper outlined the following posture for the British Armed Forces:

Question: In what year was there a Strategic Defence Review?


Answer: Delivering Security in a Changing World White Paper

Question: What paper was published in 2003?


Answer: British Armed Forces

Question: Which part of the Britsh government were the two publications listed concerning?


Answer: defence diplomacy

Context: The MoD has since been regarded as a leader in elaborating the post-Cold War organising concept of "defence diplomacy". As a result of the Strategic Defence and Security Review 2010, Prime Minister David Cameron signed a 50-year treaty with French President Nicolas Sarkozy that would have the two countries co-operate intensively in military matters. The UK is establishing air and naval bases in the Persian Gulf, located in the UAE and Bahrain. A presence in Oman is also being considered.

Question: In what concept is the MoD considered a leader?


Answer: David Cameron

Question: Who was the PM of Britain in 2010?


Answer: Nicolas Sarkozy

Question: Who was the president of France in 2010?


Answer: UAE and Bahrain

Question: In which two countries is the UK installing military bases?


Answer: Oman

Question: In which other country is the UK thinking about installing a military base?


Answer: £178 billion

Context: The Strategic Defence and Security Review 2015 included £178 billion investment in new equipment and capabilities. The review set a defence policy with four primary missions for the Armed Forces:

Question: How much was the investment in new equipment and capabilities worth?


Answer: 2015

Question: In which year was a £178 billion investment made?


Answer: four

Question: How many primary missions were included in the 2015 Review?


Answer: The Strategic Defence and Security Review

Question: What is the name of the yearly statement released by the MoD?


Answer: terrorism

Context: Following the end of the Cold War, the threat of direct conventional military confrontation with other states has been replaced by terrorism. Sir Richard Dannatt predicted British forces to be involved in combating "predatory non-state actors" for the foreseeable future, in what he called an "era of persistent conflict". He told the Chatham House think tank that the fight against al-Qaeda and other militant Islamist groups was "probably the fight of our generation".

Question: What was the new threat that arose after the end of the Cold War?


Answer: Cold War mentality

Context: Dannatt criticised a remnant "Cold War mentality", with military expenditures based on retaining a capability against a direct conventional strategic threat; He said currently only 10% of the MoD's equipment programme budget between 2003 and 2018 was to be invested in the "land environment"—at a time when Britain was engaged in land-based wars in Afghanistan and Iraq.

Question: Military spending that is based on conventional threats has been dismissed as what?


Answer: 10%

Question: How much of the MoD's equipment budget is invested in the "land environment"?


Answer: Afghanistan and Iraq

Question: Where was Britain involved in a land war when some thought that land wars were basically a thing of the past?


Answer: 2003 and 2018

Question: Which years make up the time span mentioned for the military budget numbers?


Answer: General Sir Kevin O’Donoghue

Context: The Defence Committee—Third Report "Defence Equipment 2009" cites an article from the Financial Times website stating that the Chief of Defence Materiel, General Sir Kevin O’Donoghue, had instructed staff within Defence Equipment and Support (DE&S) through an internal memorandum to reprioritize the approvals process to focus on supporting current operations over the next three years; deterrence related programmes; those that reflect defence obligations both contractual or international; and those where production contracts are already signed. The report also cites concerns over potential cuts in the defence science and technology research budget; implications of inappropriate estimation of Defence Inflation within budgetary processes; underfunding in the Equipment Programme; and a general concern over striking the appropriate balance over a short-term focus (Current Operations) and long-term consequences of failure to invest in the delivery of future UK defence capabilities on future combatants and campaigns. The then Secretary of State for Defence, Bob Ainsworth MP, reinforced this reprioritisation of focus on current operations and had not ruled out "major shifts" in defence spending. In the same article the First Sea Lord and Chief of the Naval Staff, Admiral Sir Mark Stanhope, Royal Navy, acknowledged that there was not enough money within the defence budget and it is preparing itself for tough decisions and the potential for cutbacks. According to figures published by the London Evening Standard the defence budget for 2009 is "more than 10% overspent" (figures cannot be verified) and the paper states that this had caused Gordon Brown to say that the defence spending must be cut. The MoD has been investing in IT to cut costs and improve services for its personnel.

Question: Who was the Chief of Defence Materiel in 2009?


Answer: Defence Equipment and Support (DE&S)

Question: Which department is overseen by the Chief of Defence Materiel?


Answer: Equipment Programme

Question: Which programme was mentioned as being underfunded?


Answer: Bob Ainsworth MP

Question: Who was the Secretary of State for Defence in 2009?


Answer: London Evening Standard

Question: Which publication said the 2009 defence budget was more than 10% overbudget?


Answer: 227,300 hectares

Context: The Ministry of Defence is one of the United Kingdom's largest landowners, owning 227,300 hectares of land and foreshore (either freehold or leasehold) at April 2014, which was valued at "about £20 billion". The MoD also has "rights of access" to a further 222,000 hectares. In total, this is about 1.8% of the UK land mass. The total annual cost to support the defence estate is "in excess of £3.3 billion".

Question: How much land is owned by the MoD?


Answer: £20 billion

Question: How much is the land owned by the MoD worth?


Answer: 1.8%

Question: The MoD owns or has rights of access to what percentage of the UK's total land?


Answer: in excess of £3.3 billion

Question: How much is the annual cost to support the defence estate?


Answer: The Ministry of Defence

Question: Who is one of the largest landowners in the UK?


Answer: 84.0%

Context: The defence estate is divided as training areas & ranges (84.0%), research & development (5.4%), airfields (3.4%), barracks & camps (2.5%), storage & supply depots (1.6%), and other (3.0%). These are largely managed by the Defence Infrastructure Organisation.

Question: What percentage of the defence estate makes up training areas and ranges?


Answer: storage & supply depots

Question: What makes up the smallest portion of the defence estate?


Answer: (3.4%

Question: What percentage of the defence estate is taken up by airfields?


Answer: Defence Infrastructure Organisation

Question: Who manages the defence estate?


Answer: (2.5%

Question: Barracks and camps are what percentage of the defence estate?


Answer: Whitehall

Context: The headquarters of the MoD are in Whitehall and are now known as Main Building. This structure is neoclassical in style and was originally built between 1938 and 1959 to designs by Vincent Harris to house the Air Ministry and the Board of Trade. The northern entrance in Horse Guards Avenue is flanked by two monumental statues, Earth and Water, by Charles Wheeler. Opposite stands the Gurkha Monument, sculpted by Philip Jackson and unveiled in 1997 by Queen Elizabeth II. Within it is the Victoria Cross and George Cross Memorial, and nearby are memorials to the Fleet Air Arm and RAF (to its east, facing the riverside). A major refurbishment of the building was completed under a PFI contract by Skanska in 2004.

Question: In what city are the headquarters of the MoD?


Answer: Vincent Harris

Question: Who designed the headquarters of the MoD?


Answer: Charles Wheeler

Question: Who designed the statues that are on either side of the northern entrance to the MoD headquarters?


Answer: Main Building

Question: What is the headquarters of the MoD called?


Answer: Philip Jackson

Question: Who made the Gurkha Monument?


Answer: Henry VIII

Context: Henry VIII's wine cellar at the Palace of Whitehall, built in 1514–1516 for Cardinal Wolsey, is in the basement of Main Building, and is used for entertainment. The entire vaulted brick structure of the cellar was encased in steel and concrete and relocated nine feet to the west and nearly 19 feet (5.8 m) deeper in 1949, when construction was resumed at the site after World War II. This was carried out without any significant damage to the structure.

Question: Who had a wine cellar at the Palace of Whitehall?


Answer: the basement of Main Building

Question: Where is Henry VIII's wine cellar?


Answer: 1514–1516

Question: When was the cellar in the basement of Main Building built?


Answer: brick

Question: What is the main material used to build the cellar in the basement of Main Building?


Answer: 1949

Question: When was the cellar relocated?


Answer: Gordon Foxley

Context: The most notable fraud conviction was that of Gordon Foxley, head of defence procurement at the Ministry of Defence from 1981 to 1984. Police claimed he received at least £3.5m in total in corrupt payments, such as substantial bribes from overseas arms contractors aiming to influence the allocation of contracts.

Question: Who in the MoD was convicted of fraud?


Answer: head of defence procurement

Question: What position was held by Foxley?


Answer: 1981 to 1984

Question: What years was Foxley employed by the MoD?


Answer: at least £3.5m

Question: How much money was Foxley accused of taking?


Answer: influence the allocation of contracts

Question: What do the police believe the bribes were intended to do?


Answer: the Guardian

Context: A government report covered by the Guardian in 2002 indicates that between 1940 and 1979, the Ministry of Defence "turned large parts of the country into a giant laboratory to conduct a series of secret germ warfare tests on the public" and many of these tests "involved releasing potentially dangerous chemicals and micro-organisms over vast swaths of the population without the public being told." The Ministry of Defence claims that these trials were to simulate germ warfare and that the tests were harmless. Still, families who have been in the area of many of the tests are experiencing children with birth defects and physical and mental handicaps and many are asking for a public inquiry. According to the report these tests affected estimated millions of people including one period between 1961 and 1968 where "more than a million people along the south coast of England, from Torquay to the New Forest, were exposed to bacteria including e.coli and bacillus globigii, which mimics anthrax." Two scientists commissioned by the Ministry of Defence stated that these trials posed no risk to the public. This was confirmed by Sue Ellison, a representative of Porton Down who said that the results from these trials "will save lives, should the country or our forces face an attack by chemical and biological weapons." Asked whether such tests are still being carried out, she said: "It is not our policy to discuss ongoing research." It is unknown whether or not the harmlessness of the trials was known at the time of their occurrence.

Question: What publication released a report about the Ministry of Defence in 2002?


Answer: secret germ warfare tests

Question: What was the MoD accused of doing to the public?


Answer: children with birth defects and physical and mental handicaps

Question: What are the children of some families in the area of the testing experiencing?


Answer: between 1940 and 1979

Question: When was the supposed germ warfare testing taking place?


Answer: between 1961 and 1968

Question: When were millions of people supposedly exposed to e. coli and an anthrax-like bacteria?


Answer: £240m

Context: The MoD has been criticised for an ongoing fiasco, having spent £240m on eight Chinook HC3 helicopters which only started to enter service in 2010, years after they were ordered in 1995 and delivered in 2001. A National Audit Office report reveals that the helicopters have been stored in air conditioned hangars in Britain since their 2001[why?] delivery, while troops in Afghanistan have been forced to rely on helicopters which are flying with safety faults. By the time the Chinooks are airworthy, the total cost of the project could be as much as £500m.

Question: How much did the MoD spend on Chinook helicopters?


Answer: 1995

Question: When were the helicopters ordered?


Answer: National Audit Office

Question: Which office reported that the helicopters were being stored, rather than used?


Answer: 2010

Question: In what year were the helicopters brought into service?


Answer: £500m

Question: What is the estimated total cost of the Chinook helicopter project?


Answer: Boeing

Context: In April 2008, a £90m contract was signed with Boeing for a "quick fix" solution, so they can fly by 2010: QinetiQ will downgrade the Chinooks—stripping out some of their more advanced equipment.

Question: Which aircraft manufacturer got a contract with the MoD?


Answer: April 2008

Question: When was the Boeing contract signed?


Answer: QinetiQ

Question: Who is downgrading the Chinook helicopters?


Answer: £90m

Question: How much was the Boeing contract worth?


Answer: more advanced equipment

Question: What was removed from the Chinook helicopters?


Answer: October 2009

Context: In October 2009, the MoD was heavily criticized for withdrawing the bi-annual non-operational training £20m budget for the volunteer Territorial Army (TA), ending all non-operational training for 6 months until April 2010. The government eventually backed down and restored the funding. The TA provides a small percentage of the UK's operational troops. Its members train on weekly evenings and monthly weekends, as well as two-week exercises generally annually and occasionally bi-annually for troops doing other courses. The cuts would have meant a significant loss of personnel and would have had adverse effects on recruitment.

Question: When was the TA budget withdrawn?


Answer: £20m

Question: How much money was allocated to the volunteer Territorial Army?


Answer: April 2010

Question: When was the training for the TA supposed to resume?


Answer: a small percentage

Question: How much of the UK's troops are provided by the TA?


Answer: weekly evenings and monthly weekends

Question: How often do the TA troops regularly train?


Answer: £6.5bn

Context: In 2013 it was found that the Ministry of Defence had overspent on its equipment budget by £6.5bn on orders that could take up to 39 years to fulfil. The Ministry of Defence has been criticised in the past for poor management and financial control, investing in projects that have taken up to 10 and even as much as 15 years to be delivered.

Question: By how much did the MoD go over its equipment budget?


Answer: 2013

Question: When was the overbudget amount discovered?


Answer: poor management and financial control

Question: What are some of the criticisms that have been directed at the MoD?


Answer: up to 39 years

Question: What is a long-range estimate on fulfillment of some of the equipment orders made by the MoD?


Answer: up to 10 and even as much as 15 years

Question: Past projects ordered by the MoD have taken what type of time frame to fulfill?


Answer: 1936

Context: The term high definition once described a series of television systems originating from August 1936; however, these systems were only high definition when compared to earlier systems that were based on mechanical systems with as few as 30 lines of resolution. The ongoing competition between companies and nations to create true "HDTV" spanned the entire 20th century, as each new system became more HD than the last.In the beginning of the 21st century, this race has continued with 4k, 5k and current 8K systems.

Question: The term "high definition" originally described televisions systems from what year?


Answer: mechanical systems with as few as 30 lines of resolution

Question: Earlier television systems were based on what?


Answer: 20th

Question: During which entire century were companies and nations trying to achieve true HDTV?


Answer: 21st

Question: In what century were 4k, 5k, and 8k systems introduced?


Answer: 8K

Question: What is the most current HDTV system development?


Answer: The British high-definition TV service

Context: The British high-definition TV service started trials in August 1936 and a regular service on 2 November 1936 using both the (mechanical) Baird 240 line sequential scan (later to be inaccurately rechristened 'progressive') and the (electronic) Marconi-EMI 405 line interlaced systems. The Baird system was discontinued in February 1937. In 1938 France followed with their own 441-line system, variants of which were also used by a number of other countries. The US NTSC 525-line system joined in 1941. In 1949 France introduced an even higher-resolution standard at 819 lines, a system that should have been high definition even by today's standards, but was monochrome only and the technical limitations of the time prevented it from achieving the definition of which it should have been capable. All of these systems used interlacing and a 4:3 aspect ratio except the 240-line system which was progressive (actually described at the time by the technically correct term "sequential") and the 405-line system which started as 5:4 and later changed to 4:3. The 405-line system adopted the (at that time) revolutionary idea of interlaced scanning to overcome the flicker problem of the 240-line with its 25 Hz frame rate. The 240-line system could have doubled its frame rate but this would have meant that the transmitted signal would have doubled in bandwidth, an unacceptable option as the video baseband bandwidth was required to be not more than 3 MHz.

Question: Who started trials in August 1936?


Answer: February 1937

Question: When was the Baird system discontinued?


Answer: France

Question: Which country developed the 441-line system?


Answer: the technical limitations of the time

Question: What prevented France's 819-line system from achieving the definition it was capable of?


Answer: 405-line system

Question: Which system used interlaced scanning to correct the flicker problem of the 240-line?


Answer: 1953,

Context: Colour broadcasts started at similarly higher resolutions, first with the US NTSC color system in 1953, which was compatible with the earlier monochrome systems and therefore had the same 525 lines of resolution. European standards did not follow until the 1960s, when the PAL and SECAM color systems were added to the monochrome 625 line broadcasts.

Question: What year did color broadcasts start in the US?


Answer: 525

Question: How many lines of resolution did the US NTSC color system have in 1953?


Answer: 1960s

Question: When did Europe begin color broadcasts?


Answer: Europe

Question: The PAL and SECAM were color systems where?


Answer: 625

Question: How many lines of resolution were the European monochrome broadcasts?


Answer: Nippon Hōsō Kyōkai

Context: The Nippon Hōsō Kyōkai (NHK, the Japan Broadcasting Corporation) began conducting research to "unlock the fundamental mechanism of video and sound interactions with the five human senses" in 1964, after the Tokyo Olympics. NHK set out to create an HDTV system that ended up scoring much higher in subjective tests than NTSC's previously dubbed "HDTV". This new system, NHK Color, created in 1972, included 1125 lines, a 5:3 aspect ratio and 60 Hz refresh rate. The Society of Motion Picture and Television Engineers (SMPTE), headed by Charles Ginsburg, became the testing and study authority for HDTV technology in the international theater. SMPTE would test HDTV systems from different companies from every conceivable perspective, but the problem of combining the different formats plagued the technology for many years.

Question: What is the Japan Broadcasting Corporation called?


Answer: Nippon Hōsō Kyōkai

Question: What does NHK stand for in Japan?


Answer: 1972

Question: What year was NHK Color created?


Answer: 5:3

Question: What was the aspect ratio of the NHK Color?


Answer: The Society of Motion Picture and Television Engineers (SMPTE)

Question: What organization became the authority on testing and studying international HDTV technology?


Answer: four

Context: There were four major HDTV systems tested by SMPTE in the late 1970s, and in 1979 an SMPTE study group released A Study of High Definition Television Systems:

Question: How many major HDTV systems were tested by SMPTE in the late 70's?


Answer: SMPTE

Question: Who tested the four major HDTV systems in the late 1970's?


Answer: an SMPTE study group

Question: Who released A Study of High Definition Television Systems?


Answer: 1979

Question: In what year was A Study of High Definition Television Systems released?


Answer: A Study of High Definition Television Systems

Question: What was released by an SMPTE study group in 1979?


Answer: digital video broadcasting

Context: Since the formal adoption of digital video broadcasting's (DVB) widescreen HDTV transmission modes in the early 2000s; the 525-line NTSC (and PAL-M) systems, as well as the European 625-line PAL and SECAM systems, are now regarded as standard definition television systems.

Question: What does DVB stand for?


Answer: early 2000s

Question: When was widescreen HDTV transmission modes formally adopted?


Answer: SECAM systems

Question: In addition to the 625-line PAL system, what European system is considered a standard definition television system?


Answer: PAL-M

Question: In addition to the NTSC system, what 525-line system is considered a standard definition television system?


Answer: standard definition television systems

Question: 525 and 625-line systems are now considered what?


Answer: 1949

Context: In 1949, France started its transmissions with an 819 lines system (with 737 active lines). The system was monochrome only, and was used only on VHF for the first French TV channel. It was discontinued in 1983.

Question: In what year did France start transmissions using and 819 line system?


Answer: France

Question: What country started transmissions using and 819 line system in 1949?


Answer: an 819 lines system

Question: What did France start transmissions with in 1949?


Answer: monochrome only

Question: Was France's 819 line system in color?


Answer: 1983

Question: When was France's 819 line system discontinued?


Answer: a research project

Context: In 1958, the Soviet Union developed Тransformator (Russian: Трансформатор, meaning Transformer), the first high-resolution (definition) television system capable of producing an image composed of 1,125 lines of resolution aimed at providing teleconferencing for military command. It was a research project and the system was never deployed by either the military or consumer broadcasting.

Question: In the end what was the Soviet Union's Transformator system used for?


Answer: 1958

Question: When did the Soviet Union develop Transformator?


Answer: the Soviet Union

Question: Who developed Transformator in 1958?


Answer: 1,125

Question: How many lines of resolution could an image using the Transformator system have?


Answer: providing teleconferencing for military command

Question: What was the goal of the Transformator system?


Answer: 1979

Context: In 1979, the Japanese state broadcaster NHK first developed consumer high-definition television with a 5:3 display aspect ratio. The system, known as Hi-Vision or MUSE after its Multiple sub-Nyquist sampling encoding for encoding the signal, required about twice the bandwidth of the existing NTSC system but provided about four times the resolution (1080i/1125 lines). Satellite test broadcasts started in 1989, with regular testing starting in 1991 and regular broadcasting of BS-9ch commencing on November 25, 1994, which featured commercial and NHK programming.

Question: In what year did NHK first develop consumer HD television with a 5:3 aspect ratio?


Answer: the Japanese state broadcaster NHK

Question: Who first developed consumer HD television with a 5:3 aspect ratio?


Answer: 1989

Question: When did satellite test broadcasts of Hi-Vision start?


Answer: November 25, 1994

Question: When did regular broadcasting of BS-9ch start?


Answer: 1991

Question: When did regular testing of Hi-Vision start?


Answer: 1981

Context: In 1981, the MUSE system was demonstrated for the first time in the United States, using the same 5:3 aspect ratio as the Japanese system. Upon visiting a demonstration of MUSE in Washington, US President Ronald Reagan was impressed and officially declared it "a matter of national interest" to introduce HDTV to the US.

Question: When was the MUSE system demonstrated in the US first?


Answer: 5:3

Question: What aspect ratio did the MUSE system use when demonstrated in 1981?


Answer: President Ronald Reagan

Question: Which president declared it "a matter of national interest" to introduce HDTV to the US?


Answer: MUSE

Question: Which system was demonstrated in the US for the first time in 1981?


Answer: MUSE

Question: Which system was demonstrated in Washington to President Ronald Reagan?


Answer: their higher bandwidth requirements

Context: Several systems were proposed as the new standard for the US, including the Japanese MUSE system, but all were rejected by the FCC because of their higher bandwidth requirements. At this time, the number of television channels was growing rapidly and bandwidth was already a problem. A new standard had to be more efficient, needing less bandwidth for HDTV than the existing NTSC.

Question: Why did the FCC reject systems such as MUSE?


Answer: television channels

Question: What was increasing and consuming a lot of bandwidth?


Answer: the FCC

Question: Who rejected systems such as MUSE as the new standard for the US?


Answer: had to be more efficient, needing less bandwidth

Question: What was one of the requirements for a new standard system in the US?


Answer: NTSC

Question: What was the existing system at the time?


Answer: technical and economic

Context: The limited standardization of analog HDTV in the 1990s did not lead to global HDTV adoption as technical and economic constraints at the time did not permit HDTV to use bandwidths greater than normal television.

Question: What constraints kept HDTV from being widely adopted in the 90's?


Answer: use bandwidths greater than normal television

Question: What was HDTV not permitted to do in the 90's?


Answer: over four times

Context: Early HDTV commercial experiments, such as NHK's MUSE, required over four times the bandwidth of a standard-definition broadcast. Despite efforts made to reduce analog HDTV to about twice the bandwidth of SDTV, these television formats were still distributable only by satellite.

Question: How much more bandwith was required from early HDTV commercial experiments than an SD broadcast?


Answer: about twice

Question: Efforts were made to reduce analog HDTV to how much of the bandwith of SDTV?


Answer: by satellite

Question: Despite the reduced bandwith, HDTV format still had to be distributed how?


Answer: Early HDTV commercial experiments

Question: What kind of experiments required over four times the bandwith of a SDTV broadcast?


Answer: seven

Context: In addition, recording and reproducing an HDTV signal was a significant technical challenge in the early years of HDTV (Sony HDVS). Japan remained the only country with successful public broadcasting of analog HDTV, with seven broadcasters sharing a single channel.

Question: How many broadcasters did Japan have sharing a single channel?


Answer: Japan

Question: Which country had successful public analog HDTV broadcasting?


Answer: recording and reproducing an HDTV signal

Question: What was particularly challenging in the early years of HDTV?


Answer: the only country with successful public broadcasting of analog HDTV

Question: What accomplishment in early HDTV did Japan have?


Answer: International Telecommunication Union's radio telecommunications sector

Context: Since 1972, International Telecommunication Union's radio telecommunications sector (ITU-R) had been working on creating a global recommendation for Analog HDTV. These recommendations, however, did not fit in the broadcasting bands which could reach home users. The standardization of MPEG-1 in 1993 also led to the acceptance of recommendations ITU-R BT.709. In anticipation of these standards the Digital Video Broadcasting (DVB) organisation was formed, an alliance of broadcasters, consumer electronics manufacturers and regulatory bodies. The DVB develops and agrees upon specifications which are formally standardised by ETSI.

Question: What does ITU-R stand for?


Answer: Digital Video Broadcasting

Question: What does DVB stand for?


Answer: an alliance of broadcasters, consumer electronics manufacturers and regulatory bodies

Question: What is the DVB?


Answer: develops and agrees upon specifications

Question: What is the DVB's role?


Answer: ETSI

Question: Who standardizes HDTV specifications?


Answer: ATSC

Context: DVB created first the standard for DVB-S digital satellite TV, DVB-C digital cable TV and DVB-T digital terrestrial TV. These broadcasting systems can be used for both SDTV and HDTV. In the US the Grand Alliance proposed ATSC as the new standard for SDTV and HDTV. Both ATSC and DVB were based on the MPEG-2 standard, although DVB systems may also be used to transmit video using the newer and more efficient H.264/MPEG-4 AVC compression standards. Common for all DVB standards is the use of highly efficient modulation techniques for further reducing bandwidth, and foremost for reducing receiver-hardware and antenna requirements.

Question: What did the Grand Alliance propose as the new standard for SDTV and HDTV?


Answer: MPEG-2

Question: Which standard were ATSC and DVB based on?


Answer: DVB

Question: Who created the standard for DVB-2, DVB-C, and DVB-T?


Answer: the Grand Alliance

Question: Who proposed ATSC as the new standard for SDTV and HDTV?


Answer: 1983

Context: In 1983, the International Telecommunication Union's radio telecommunications sector (ITU-R) set up a working party (IWP11/6) with the aim of setting a single international HDTV standard. One of the thornier issues concerned a suitable frame/field refresh rate, the world already having split into two camps, 25/50 Hz and 30/60 Hz, largely due to the differences in mains frequency. The IWP11/6 working party considered many views and throughout the 1980s served to encourage development in a number of video digital processing areas, not least conversion between the two main frame/field rates using motion vectors, which led to further developments in other areas. While a comprehensive HDTV standard was not in the end established, agreement on the aspect ratio was achieved.

Question: When did ITU-R start trying to work towards setting a single international HDTV standard?


Answer: setting a single international HDTV standard

Question: What did ITU-R start trying to do in 1983?


Answer: a suitable frame/field refresh rate

Question: What was one of the issues with setting a single HDTV standard?


Answer: motion vectors

Question: What was used as a conversion between the two main frame/field rates?


Answer: two

Question: How many frame/field rates were primarily being used in 1983?


Answer: 16:9

Context: Initially the existing 5:3 aspect ratio had been the main candidate but, due to the influence of widescreen cinema, the aspect ratio 16:9 (1.78) eventually emerged as being a reasonable compromise between 5:3 (1.67) and the common 1.85 widescreen cinema format. An aspect ratio of 16:9 was duly agreed upon at the first meeting of the IWP11/6 working party at the BBC's Research and Development establishment in Kingswood Warren. The resulting ITU-R Recommendation ITU-R BT.709-2 ("Rec. 709") includes the 16:9 aspect ratio, a specified colorimetry, and the scan modes 1080i (1,080 actively interlaced lines of resolution) and 1080p (1,080 progressively scanned lines). The British Freeview HD trials used MBAFF, which contains both progressive and interlaced content in the same encoding.

Question: What aspect ratio was agreed upon due to the influence of widescreen cinema?


Answer: the IWP11/6 working party

Question: Who agreed upon the 16:9 aspect ratio?


Answer: widescreen cinema

Question: What was a leading factor in the 16:9 aspect ratio being chosen?


Answer: MBAFF

Question: Which encoding contains both progressive and interlaced content?


Answer: 5:3

Question: Which aspect ratio was the early favorite?


Answer: 1440×1152 HDMAC

Context: It also includes the alternative 1440×1152 HDMAC scan format. (According to some reports, a mooted 750-line (720p) format (720 progressively scanned lines) was viewed by some at the ITU as an enhanced television format rather than a true HDTV format, and so was not included, although 1920×1080i and 1280×720p systems for a range of frame and field rates were defined by several US SMPTE standards.)

Question: What scan format is also included in MBAFF?


Answer: a mooted 750-line

Question: What was viewed by some as enhanced television format and not true HDTV format?


Answer: an enhanced television format

Question: A mooted 750-line was seen by some at the ITU as what?


Answer: US SMPTE standards

Question: What were 1920x1080i and 1280x720p defined by?


Answer: late 1980s

Context: HDTV technology was introduced in the United States in the late 1980s and made official in 1993 by the Digital HDTV Grand Alliance, a group of television, electronic equipment, communications companies consisting of AT&T Bell Labs, General Instrument, Philips, Sarnoff, Thomson, Zenith and the Massachusetts Institute of Technology. Field testing of HDTV at 199 sites in the United States was completed August 14, 1994. The first public HDTV broadcast in the United States occurred on July 23, 1996 when the Raleigh, North Carolina television station WRAL-HD began broadcasting from the existing tower of WRAL-TV southeast of Raleigh, winning a race to be first with the HD Model Station in Washington, D.C., which began broadcasting July 31, 1996 with the callsign WHD-TV, based out of the facilities of NBC owned and operated station WRC-TV. The American Advanced Television Systems Committee (ATSC) HDTV system had its public launch on October 29, 1998, during the live coverage of astronaut John Glenn's return mission to space on board the Space Shuttle Discovery. The signal was transmitted coast-to-coast, and was seen by the public in science centers, and other public theaters specially equipped to receive and display the broadcast.

Question: When was HDTV introduced in the US?


Answer: the Digital HDTV Grand Alliance

Question: Who made HDTV official in 1993?


Answer: the Digital HDTV Grand Alliance

Question: AT&T, Philips, Zenith, and MIT, among others, made up what group in the 90's?


Answer: July 23, 1996

Question: When did the first public HDTV broadcast happen in the US?


Answer: Advanced Television Systems Committee

Question: What does ATSC stand for?


Answer: 1990

Context: The first HDTV transmissions in Europe, albeit not direct-to-home, began in 1990, when the Italian broadcaster RAI used the HD-MAC and MUSE HDTV technologies to broadcast the 1990 FIFA World Cup. The matches were shown in 8 cinemas in Italy and 2 in Spain. The connection with Spain was made via the Olympus satellite link from Rome to Barcelona and then with a fiber optic connection from Barcelona to Madrid. After some HDTV transmissions in Europe the standard was abandoned in the mid-1990s.

Question: When did the first HDTV transmissions happen in Europe?


Answer: FIFA World Cup

Question: What event was the first HDTV broadcast in Europe?


Answer: mid-1990s

Question: When did Europe abandon standard transmission?


Answer: 8 cinemas in Italy and 2 in Spain

Question: Where was the FIFA World Cup able to be watched in HDTV?


Answer: January 1, 2004

Context: The first regular broadcasts started on January 1, 2004 when the Belgian company Euro1080 launched the HD1 channel with the traditional Vienna New Year's Concert. Test transmissions had been active since the IBC exhibition in September 2003, but the New Year's Day broadcast marked the official launch of the HD1 channel, and the official start of direct-to-home HDTV in Europe.

Question: When did regular broadcasts start in Europe?


Answer: Vienna New Year's Concert

Question: What event was first broadcasted on January 1, 2004?


Answer: HD1

Question: The New Year's Day broadcast officially launched which channel?


Answer: September 2003

Question: When did test transmissions of HDTV begin in Europe?


Answer: Euro1080

Question: Which European company launched HD1?


Answer: Alfacam

Context: Euro1080, a division of the former and now bankrupt Belgian TV services company Alfacam, broadcast HDTV channels to break the pan-European stalemate of "no HD broadcasts mean no HD TVs bought means no HD broadcasts ..." and kick-start HDTV interest in Europe. The HD1 channel was initially free-to-air and mainly comprised sporting, dramatic, musical and other cultural events broadcast with a multi-lingual soundtrack on a rolling schedule of 4 or 5 hours per day.

Question: Euro1080 was a division of what former company?


Answer: "no HD broadcasts mean no HD TVs bought means no HD broadcasts ..."

Question: What "chicken or the egg" stalemate prompted Euro1080 to broadcast HDTV channels?


Answer: HDTV interest in Europe

Question: What was Euro1080 hoping to kick-start by broadcasting HDTV channels?


Answer: free-to-air

Question: How much did viewers have to pay for the HD1 channel?


Answer: a multi-lingual soundtrack on a rolling schedule

Question: What was on HD1 for 4 or 5 hours per day?


Answer: 1080i format

Context: These first European HDTV broadcasts used the 1080i format with MPEG-2 compression on a DVB-S signal from SES's Astra 1H satellite. Euro1080 transmissions later changed to MPEG-4/AVC compression on a DVB-S2 signal in line with subsequent broadcast channels in Europe.

Question: What format did the first European HDTV broadcast use?


Answer: MPEG-2

Question: What compression did the first European HDTV broadcast use?


Answer: DVB-S

Question: What signal did the first European HDTV broadcast use?


Answer: MPEG-4/AVC

Question: What compression did Euro1080 later change to?


Answer: DVB-S2

Question: What signal did Euro1080 later change to?


Answer: 185 million

Context: Despite delays in some countries, the number of European HD channels and viewers has risen steadily since the first HDTV broadcasts, with SES's annual Satellite Monitor market survey for 2010 reporting more than 200 commercial channels broadcasting in HD from Astra satellites, 185 million HD capable TVs sold in Europe (£60 million in 2010 alone), and 20 million households (27% of all European digital satellite TV homes) watching HD satellite broadcasts (16 million via Astra satellites).

Question: According to the 2010 Satellite Monitor market survey, how many HD capable TV's were sold in Europe?


Answer: 20 million

Question: According to the 2010 Satellite Monitor market survey, how many European households were watching HD broadcasts?


Answer: £60 million

Question: How many pounds were spent in Europe on HD capable TVs in 2010?


Answer: 27%

Question: What percentage of European digital satellite TV homes were watching HD broadcasts in 2010?


Answer: risen steadily

Question: The number of European HD channels and viewers has done what since the first HDTV broadcasts?


Answer: the United Kingdom

Context: In December 2009 the United Kingdom became the first European country to deploy high definition content using the new DVB-T2 transmission standard, as specified in the Digital TV Group (DTG) D-book, on digital terrestrial television.

Question: Which European country first deployed HD content using the new DVB-T2 standard?


Answer: December 2009

Question: When did the UK deploy HD content using the new DVB-T2 transmission standard?


Answer: DVB-T2

Question: What transmission standard did the UK start using in December 2009?


Answer: Digital TV Group

Question: What does DTG stand for?


Answer: 10

Context: The Freeview HD service currently contains 10 HD channels (as of December 2013[update]) and was rolled out region by region across the UK in accordance with the digital switchover process, finally being completed in October 2012. However, Freeview HD is not the first HDTV service over digital terrestrial television in Europe;

Question: How many HD channels did the Freeview HD service contain as of December 2013?


Answer: October 2012

Question: When was the digital switchover process completed in the UK?


Answer: Freeview HD

Question: Which service contains 10 HD channels and finished its roll out in October 2012?


Answer: region by region

Question: How was the Freeview HD service rolled out in the UK?


Answer: [frame size][scanning system][frame or field rate]

Context: If all three parameters are used, they are specified in the following form: [frame size][scanning system][frame or field rate] or [frame size]/[frame or field rate][scanning system].[citation needed] Often, frame size or frame rate can be dropped if its value is implied from context. In this case, the remaining numeric parameter is specified first, followed by the scanning system.

Question: What are the three HDTV parameters?


Answer: frame size or frame rate

Question: Which two parameters can be dropped if its value is implied from context?


Answer: if its value is implied from context

Question: When can the frame size or frame rate parameter specification be dropped?


Answer: the scanning system

Question: When a parameter is dropped, the remaining numeric parameter is specified first, followed by what?


Answer: 1,920 pixels wide and 1,080 pixels high

Context: For example, 1920×1080p25 identifies progressive scanning format with 25 frames per second, each frame being 1,920 pixels wide and 1,080 pixels high. The 1080i25 or 1080i50 notation identifies interlaced scanning format with 25 frames (50 fields) per second, each frame being 1,920 pixels wide and 1,080 pixels high. The 1080i30 or 1080i60 notation identifies interlaced scanning format with 30 frames (60 fields) per second, each frame being 1,920 pixels wide and 1,080 pixels high. The 720p60 notation identifies progressive scanning format with 60 frames per second, each frame being 720 pixels high; 1,280 pixels horizontally are implied.

Question: What size is each 1920x1080p25 frame?


Answer: 25

Question: The 1920x1080p25 notion identifies progressive scanning format with how many frames per second?


Answer: 25

Question: The 1080i25 or 1080i50 notion identifies interlaced scanning format with how many frames per second?


Answer: 30

Question: The 1080i30 or 1080i60 notion identifies interlaced scanning format with how many frames per second?


Answer: 60

Question: The 720p60 notion identifies progressive scanning format with how many frames per second?


Answer: 50i, 25p and 50p

Context: 50 Hz systems support three scanning rates: 50i, 25p and 50p. 60 Hz systems support a much wider set of frame rates: 59.94i, 60i, 23.976p, 24p, 29.97p, 30p, 59.94p and 60p. In the days of standard definition television, the fractional rates were often rounded up to whole numbers, e.g. 23.976p was often called 24p, or 59.94i was often called 60i. 60 Hz high definition television supports both fractional and slightly different integer rates, therefore strict usage of notation is required to avoid ambiguity. Nevertheless, 29.97i/59.94i is almost universally called 60i, likewise 23.976p is called 24p.

Question: What three scanning rates do 50 Hz systems support?


Answer: 60 Hz

Question: Which system suports 59.94i, 60i, 23.976p, 24p, 29.97p, 30p, 59.94p, and 60p


Answer: whole numbers

Question: SD television fractional rates were often rounded to what?


Answer: ambiguity

Question: Strict notation is required with HD fractional rates to avoid what?


Answer: the frame rate

Context: For the commercial naming of a product, the frame rate is often dropped and is implied from context (e.g., a 1080i television set). A frame rate can also be specified without a resolution. For example, 24p means 24 progressive scan frames per second, and 50i means 25 interlaced frames per second.

Question: What is usually dropped for the commercial naming of an HDTV product?


Answer: 24 progressive scan frames per second

Question: What does 24p mean?


Answer: 25 interlaced frames per second

Question: What does 50i mean?


Answer: a resolution

Question: When naming a commercial HDTV product, a frame rate can be specified without what?


Answer: no

Context: There is no single standard for HDTV color support. Colors are typically broadcast using a (10-bits per channel) YUV color space but, depending on the underlying image generating technologies of the receiver, are then subsequently converted to a RGB color space using standardized algorithms. When transmitted directly through the Internet, the colors are typically pre-converted to 8-bit RGB channels for additional storage savings with the assumption that it will only be viewed only on a (sRGB) computer screen. As an added benefit to the original broadcasters, the losses of the pre-conversion essentially make these files unsuitable for professional TV re-broadcasting.

Question: Is there a single standard for HDTV color support?


Answer: YUV

Question: Before being converted to RGB, colors are ususally broadcasted using what color space?


Answer: a RGB color space

Question: Colors are typically broadcast using YUV and then converted to what?


Answer: 8-bit RGB channels

Question: When transmitted over the internet, colors are typically to what?


Answer: it will only be viewed only on a (sRGB) computer screen

Question: What assumption is made with colors being transmitted over the internet?


Answer: twice

Context: At a minimum, HDTV has twice the linear resolution of standard-definition television (SDTV), thus showing greater detail than either analog television or regular DVD. The technical standards for broadcasting HDTV also handle the 16:9 aspect ratio images without using letterboxing or anamorphic stretching, thus increasing the effective image resolution.

Question: At least how many times more linear resolution does HDTV have over SDTV?


Answer: letterboxing or anamorphic stretching

Question: HDTV increases the effective image resolution by not using what?


Answer: standard-definition television

Question: What does SDTV stand for?


Answer: 16:9

Question: HDTV handles what aspect ratio without using letterboxing or anamorphic stretching?


Answer: fidelity

Context: A very high resolution source may require more bandwidth than available in order to be transmitted without loss of fidelity. The lossy compression that is used in all digital HDTV storage and transmission systems will distort the received picture, when compared to the uncompressed source.

Question: If more bandwith is required than is available, a very high resolution source my not be able to transmitted without loss of what?


Answer: distort the received picture

Question: The compression used in all HDTV storage and transmission systems will do what if resolution is too high?


Answer: bandwidth

Question: A very high resolution source may require more of what?


Answer: the type of videographic recording medium used and the image's characteristics

Context: The optimum format for a broadcast depends upon the type of videographic recording medium used and the image's characteristics. For best fidelity to the source the transmitted field ratio, lines, and frame rate should match those of the source.

Question: A broadcasts optimum format depends on what two things?


Answer: transmitted field ratio, lines, and frame rate

Question: For best fidelity to the source, what three things should match the source?


Answer: those of the source

Question: For best fidelity to the source, the transmitted field ratio, lines, and frame rate should match what?


Answer: The optimum format for a broadcast

Question: The type of videographic recording medium used and the image's characteristics determine what?


Answer: analogue standard

Context: PAL, SECAM and NTSC frame rates technically apply only to analogue standard definition television, not to digital or high definition broadcasts. However, with the roll out of digital broadcasting, and later HDTV broadcasting, countries retained their heritage systems. HDTV in former PAL and SECAM countries operates at a frame rate of 25/50 Hz, while HDTV in former NTSC countries operates at 30/60 Hz.

Question: PAL, SECAM, and NTSC frame rates apply to what definition televisions?


Answer: digital or high definition

Question: PAL, SECAM, and NTSC frame rates do not apply to what broadcasts?


Answer: 25/50 Hz

Question: In former PAL and SECAM countries, what frame rate does HDTV operate at?


Answer: 30/60 Hz

Question: In former NTSC countries, what frame rate does HDTV operate at?


Answer: 24 frames per second

Context: Standard 35mm photographic film used for cinema projection has a much higher image resolution than HDTV systems, and is exposed and projected at a rate of 24 frames per second (frame/s). To be shown on standard television, in PAL-system countries, cinema film is scanned at the TV rate of 25 frame/s, causing a speedup of 4.1 percent, which is generally considered acceptable. In NTSC-system countries, the TV scan rate of 30 frame/s would cause a perceptible speedup if the same were attempted, and the necessary correction is performed by a technique called 3:2 Pulldown: Over each successive pair of film frames, one is held for three video fields (1/20 of a second) and the next is held for two video fields (1/30 of a second), giving a total time for the two frames of 1/12 of a second and thus achieving the correct average film frame rate.

Question: At what rate is standard 35mm photographic film exposed and projected?


Answer: 25 frame/s

Question: To be shown on SDTV in PAL-system countries, at what rate is cinema film scanned?


Answer: 3:2 Pulldown

Question: The technique in which with successive pair of film frames, one is held for three video fields, and the next is held for two, is called what?


Answer: 1/12 of a second

Question: The 3:2 Pulldown techniques gives what total time for two frames?


Answer: the correct average film frame rate

Question: What is achieved by the 3:2 Pulldown technique producing a total time of 1/12 of a second for two frames?


Answer: 720p or 1080i

Context: Non-cinematic HDTV video recordings intended for broadcast are typically recorded either in 720p or 1080i format as determined by the broadcaster. 720p is commonly used for Internet distribution of high-definition video, because most computer monitors operate in progressive-scan mode. 720p also imposes less strenuous storage and decoding requirements compared to both 1080i and 1080p. 1080p/24, 1080i/30, 1080i/25, and 720p/30 is most often used on Blu-ray Disc.

Question: What two formats are typically used to recorde non-cinematic HDTV video intended for broadcast?


Answer: 720p

Question: Which format is typically used for internet distribution of HD video?


Answer: progressive-scan

Question: Most computer monitors operate in what mode?


Answer: Blu-ray

Question: 1080i, 1080p, and 720p are often used on what kind of disc.


Answer: ATSC

Context: In the US, residents in the line of sight of television station broadcast antennas can receive free, over the air programming with a television set with an ATSC tuner (most sets sold since 2009 have this). This is achieved with a TV aerial, just as it has been since the 1940s except now the major network signals are broadcast in high definition (ABC, Fox, and Ion Television broadcast at 720p resolution; CBS, My Network TV, NBC, PBS, and The CW at 1080i). As their digital signals more efficiently use the broadcast channel, many broadcasters are adding multiple channels to their signals. Laws about antennas were updated before the change to digital terrestrial broadcasts. These new laws prohibit home owners' associations and city government from banning the installation of antennas.

Question: In the US, what kind of tuner is needed for residents to receive free, over the air programming?


Answer: the change to digital terrestrial broadcasts

Question: Laws regarding antennas were upated before what?


Answer: home owners' associations and city government

Question: Who do these laws prohibit from banning the installation of antennas?


Answer: the installation of antennas

Question: Laws about antennas keep home owners' associations and city government from banning what?


Answer: 2009

Question: Most television sets sold since what year have an ATSC tuner?


Answer: an external box

Context: Additionally, cable-ready TV sets can display HD content without using an external box. They have a QAM tuner built-in and/or a card slot for inserting a CableCARD.

Question: HD content can be displayed by cable-ready TVs without using what?


Answer: HD content

Question: Without using an external box, cable-ready TVs can display what?


Answer: a QAM tuner built-in and/or a card slot for inserting a CableCARD

Question: What features allow the cable-ready TVs to display HD content without an external box?


Answer: QAM

Question: What kind of built-in tuner will allow a cable-ready TV to display HD content without an external box?


Answer: CableCARD

Question: What kind of card will allow a cable-ready TV to display HD content without an external box?


Answer: IPTV

Context: High-definition image sources include terrestrial broadcast, direct broadcast satellite, digital cable, IPTV (including GoogleTV Roku boxes and AppleTV or built into "Smart Televisions"), Blu-ray video disc (BD), and internet downloads.

Question: Roku and AppleTV are examples of what?


Answer: High-definition image sources

Question: Internet downloads, Blu-ray videos, and Apple TV are examples of what?


Answer: High-definition image sources

Question: Terrestrial broadcast and direct broadcast satellite are examples of what?


Answer: High-definition image sources

Question: Digital cable and Roku are examples of what?


Answer: because of its built in Blu-ray disc based player

Context: Sony's PlayStation 3 has extensive HD compatibility because of its built in Blu-ray disc based player, so does Microsoft's Xbox 360 with the addition of Netflix and Windows Media Center HTPC streaming capabilities, and the Zune marketplace where users can rent or purchase digital HD content. Recently, Nintendo released a next generation high definition gaming platform, The Wii U, which includes TV remote control features in addition to IPTV streaming features like Netflix. The HD capabilities of the consoles has influenced some developers to port games from past consoles onto the PS3, Xbox 360 and Wii U, often with remastered or upscaled graphics.

Question: Why does the PlayStation 3 have extensive HD compatibility?


Answer: Netflix and Windows Media Center HTPC streaming capabilities, and the Zune marketplace

Question: In addition to having a Blu-ray player the Xbox 360 also features what?


Answer: The Wii U

Question: What high definition gaming platform did Nintendo recently release?


Answer: port games from past consoles onto the PS3, Xbox 360 and Wii U, often with remastered or upscaled graphics

Question: The HD capabilities of modern gaming systems has inspired developers to do what?


Answer: an HDTV-capable digital video recorder

Context: HDTV can be recorded to D-VHS (Digital-VHS or Data-VHS), W-VHS (analog only), to an HDTV-capable digital video recorder (for example DirecTV's high-definition Digital video recorder, Sky HD's set-top box, Dish Network's VIP 622 or VIP 722 high-definition Digital video recorder receivers, or TiVo's Series 3 or HD recorders), or an HDTV-ready HTPC. Some cable boxes are capable of receiving or recording two or more broadcasts at a time in HDTV format, and HDTV programming, some included in the monthly cable service subscription price, some for an additional fee, can be played back with the cable company's on-demand feature.

Question: Sky HD's set-top box, TiVo's Series 3, and Dish Network's VIP 622 are examples of what?


Answer: receiving or recording two or more broadcasts at a time in HDTV format

Question: Some cable boxes are capable of doing what?


Answer: analog only

Question: What restriction does W-VHS recordings have?


Answer: Digital-VHS or Data-VHS

Question: What does D-VHS stand for?


Answer: 2008

Context: The massive amount of data storage required to archive uncompressed streams meant that inexpensive uncompressed storage options were not available to the consumer. In 2008, the Hauppauge 1212 Personal Video Recorder was introduced. This device accepts HD content through component video inputs and stores the content in MPEG-2 format in a .ts file or in a Blu-ray compatible format .m2ts file on the hard drive or DVD burner of a computer connected to the PVR through a USB 2.0 interface. More recent systems are able to record a broadcast high definition program in its 'as broadcast' format or transcode to a format more compatible with Blu-ray.

Question: When was the Hauppauge 1212 Personal Video Recorder introduced?


Answer: in MPEG-2 format in a .ts file or in a Blu-ray compatible format .m2ts file

Question: How does the Personal Video Recorder store content?


Answer: 'as broadcast' format or transcode to a format more compatible with Blu-ray

Question: Recent systems can record a broadcast HD program in what format?


Answer: the Hauppauge 1212 Personal Video Recorder

Question: What uncompressed storage option was introduced in 2008?


Answer: analog HD

Context: Analog tape recorders with bandwidth capable of recording analog HD signals, such as W-VHS recorders, are no longer produced for the consumer market and are both expensive and scarce in the secondary market.

Question: W-VHS recorders are capable of recording what kinds of signals?


Answer: Analog tape

Question: What kind of recorder is no longer produced for the consumer market?


Answer: expensive and scarce

Question: In the secondary market, analog tape recorders are considered what?


Answer: a set-top box with "functional" FireWire (IEEE 1394) on request

Context: In the United States, as part of the FCC's plug and play agreement, cable companies are required to provide customers who rent HD set-top boxes with a set-top box with "functional" FireWire (IEEE 1394) on request. None of the direct broadcast satellite providers have offered this feature on any of their supported boxes, but some cable TV companies have. As of July 2004[update], boxes are not included in the FCC mandate. This content is protected by encryption known as 5C. This encryption can prevent duplication of content or simply limit the number of copies permitted, thus effectively denying most if not all fair use of the content.

Question: Prior to 2004, what were US cable companies required to provide customers who rent HD set-top boxes?


Answer: July 2004

Question: When were boxes with "functional" FireWire no longer included in the FCC mandate?


Answer: 5C

Question: Content is now protected by what encryption?


Answer: duplication of content or simply limit the number of copies permitted

Question: What can 5c encryption prevent?


Answer: fuel

Context: It has been used for thousands of years for both fuel and as a construction material. It is an organic material, a natural composite of cellulose fibers (which are strong in tension) embedded in a matrix of lignin which resists compression. Wood is sometimes defined as only the secondary xylem in the stems of trees, or it is defined more broadly to include the same type of tissue elsewhere such as in the roots of trees or shrubs.[citation needed] In a living tree it performs a support function, enabling woody plants to grow large or to stand up by themselves. It also conveys water and nutrients between the leaves, other growing tissues, and the roots. Wood may also refer to other plant materials with comparable properties, and to material engineered from wood, or wood chips or fiber.

Question: In addition to being used to build things, what has wood been used for over thousands of years?


Answer: cellulose

Question: What kind of strong fibers are part of the composite of wood?


Answer: lignin

Question: What's the matrix in wood made up of?


Answer: support

Question: What one word describes the function wood provides to a tree or plant?


Answer: nutrients

Question: What does wood convey to leaves, roots, and other tissues of a woody plant in addition to water?


Answer: 434 billion

Context: The Earth contains about 434 billion cubic meters of growing stock forest, 47% of which is commercial. As an abundant, carbon-neutral renewable resource, woody materials have been of intense interest as a source of renewable energy. In 1991, approximately 3.5 cubic kilometers of wood were harvested. Dominant uses were for furniture and building construction.

Question: How many cubic meters of growing stock forest are there on the planet?


Answer: 47%

Question: What percentage of the Earth's stock forest is commercial?


Answer: furniture

Question: In addition to buildings, what is wood often used to make?


Answer: 3.5

Question: About how many cubic kilometers of the vast stock forest's wood were harvested in 1991?


Answer: abundant

Question: In addition to being carbon neutral, what other adjective describes wood that makes it compelling as a renewable energy source?


Answer: 2011

Context: A 2011 discovery in the Canadian province of New Brunswick uncovered the earliest known plants to have grown wood, approximately 395 to 400 million years ago. Wood can be dated by carbon dating and in some species by dendrochronology to make inferences about when a wooden object was created.

Question: What year were the earliest plants that grew wood discovered?


Answer: New Brunswick

Question: In which Canadian province were the oldest woody plants found?


Answer: carbon dating

Question: If dendrochronology can't be used, what method would scientists employ to date wood?


Answer: 395 to 400

Question: How many millions of years old were the plants that were discovered in New Brunswick?


Answer: construction material

Context: People have used wood for millennia for many purposes, primarily as a fuel or as a construction material for making houses, tools, weapons, furniture, packaging, artworks, and paper. The year-to-year variation in tree-ring widths and isotopic abundances gives clues to the prevailing climate at that time.

Question: What has been the primary purpose of wood for millennia other than fuel?


Answer: houses

Question: What is often made of wood that provides shelter to people?


Answer: tree-ring widths

Question: For clues about the climate of a place, we can look at variation in isotopic abundances or what other thing?


Answer: weapons

Question: What could be made out of wood that could be used to fight off attackers?


Answer: furniture

Question: What category of items often constructed from wood does a chair belong to?


Answer: trees

Context: Wood, in the strict sense, is yielded by trees, which increase in diameter by the formation, between the existing wood and the inner bark, of new woody layers which envelop the entire stem, living branches, and roots. This process is known as secondary growth; it is the result of cell division in the vascular cambium, a lateral meristem, and subsequent expansion of the new cells. Where there are clear seasons, growth can occur in a discrete annual or seasonal pattern, leading to growth rings; these can usually be most clearly seen on the end of a log, but are also visible on the other surfaces. If these seasons are annual these growth rings are referred to as annual rings. Where there is no seasonal difference growth rings are likely to be indistinct or absent.

Question: Where does wood come from?


Answer: woody layers

Question: What forms in a tree to increase its diameter?


Answer: secondary growth

Question: What is the process of trees growing out to get bigger around called?


Answer: seasons

Question: What do many places have four of that would cause growth rings in a tree?


Answer: annual rings

Question: If a place has annual seasons, what are the growth rings on the trees there called?


Answer: wider

Context: If there are differences within a growth ring, then the part of a growth ring nearest the center of the tree, and formed early in the growing season when growth is rapid, is usually composed of wider elements. It is usually lighter in color than that near the outer portion of the ring, and is known as earlywood or springwood. The outer portion formed later in the season is then known as the latewood or summerwood. However, there are major differences, depending on the kind of wood (see below).

Question: If a growth ring has differences over one season, would the part nearest the tree's center be narrower or wider?


Answer: earlywood

Question: What name, besides springwood, is used for the part of a growth ring formed in the beginning of the growing season?


Answer: latewood

Question: If the opposite of springwood is summerwood, what's the opposite of earlywood?


Answer: lighter

Question: Is earlywood usually lighter or darker than the part of the growth ring that forms later in the season?


Answer: outer

Question: Is summerwood the inner or outer portion of a growth ring?


Answer: knot

Context: A knot is a particular type of imperfection in a piece of wood; it will affect the technical properties of the wood, usually reducing the local strength and increasing the tendency for splitting along the wood grain, but may be exploited for visual effect. In a longitudinally sawn plank, a knot will appear as a roughly circular "solid" (usually darker) piece of wood around which the grain of the rest of the wood "flows" (parts and rejoins). Within a knot, the direction of the wood (grain direction) is up to 90 degrees different from the grain direction of the regular wood.

Question: What is the sort of circular imperfection in a piece of wood called?


Answer: strength

Question: What property of wood does a knot usually reduce in the wood around it?


Answer: longitudinally

Question: In what direction is wood often sawn so that a knot appears as a solid circle that the grain flows around?


Answer: darker

Question: Are knots usually lighter or darker than the surrounding wood?


Answer: 90

Question: The direction of grain in a knot can differ by as much as how many degrees from the regular wood?


Answer: a dormant bud

Context: In the tree a knot is either the base of a side branch or a dormant bud. A knot (when the base of a side branch) is conical in shape (hence the roughly circular cross-section) with the inner tip at the point in stem diameter at which the plant's vascular cambium was located when the branch formed as a bud.

Question: Other than the base of a side branch, what tree feature causes a knot?


Answer: conical

Question: What shape is the knot formed by a side branch's base?


Answer: diameter

Question: What measurement of a stem determines a knot's inner tip placement?


Answer: circular

Question: Because a knot's shape is conical, what shape does a cross-section of it have?


Answer: die

Context: During the development of a tree, the lower limbs often die, but may remain attached for a time, sometimes years. Subsequent layers of growth of the attaching stem are no longer intimately joined with the dead limb, but are grown around it. Hence, dead branches produce knots which are not attached, and likely to drop out after the tree has been sawn into boards.

Question: What will the lower limbs of a tree usually do during development?


Answer: years

Question: For what length of time can a dead lower limb stay attached to a tree?


Answer: around it

Question: Rather than being joined to the limb that died, where do subsequent layers grow?


Answer: not attached

Question: Are the knots that dead tree limbs form attached or not attached?


Answer: boards

Question: A detached knot will probably drop out of the wood when someone saws it into what?


Answer: grading

Context: In grading lumber and structural timber, knots are classified according to their form, size, soundness, and the firmness with which they are held in place. This firmness is affected by, among other factors, the length of time for which the branch was dead while the attaching stem continued to grow.

Question: What's the process in which knots are classified called?


Answer: size

Question: Along with firmness, soundness, and form, what property of a knot is classified?


Answer: firmness

Question: What property of knots does the amount of time a branch stayed on a tree while the stem kept growing affect?


Answer: defects

Context: Knots do not necessarily influence the stiffness of structural timber, this will depend on the size and location. Stiffness and elastic strength are more dependent upon the sound wood than upon localized defects. The breaking strength is very susceptible to defects. Sound knots do not weaken wood when subject to compression parallel to the grain.

Question: What is wood's breaking strength susceptible to?


Answer: stiffness

Question: Depending on the placement and size of a knot, what property of structural timber can be affected?


Answer: sound wood

Question: What do stiffness and elastic strength depend on more than defects?


Answer: parallel

Question: What direction of compression in relation to its grain won't weaken wood with sound knots in it?


Answer: interest

Context: In some decorative applications, wood with knots may be desirable to add visual interest. In applications where wood is painted, such as skirting boards, fascia boards, door frames and furniture, resins present in the timber may continue to 'bleed' through to the surface of a knot for months or even years after manufacture and show as a yellow or brownish stain. A knot primer paint or solution, correctly applied during preparation, may do much to reduce this problem but it is difficult to control completely, especially when using mass-produced kiln-dried timber stocks.

Question: What positive visual component can knots sometimes add to decorative pieces?


Answer: bleed

Question: What term is used to describe what knots can do to affect the finish of things made from wood even when they've been painted?


Answer: difficult

Question: Is bleed easy or difficult to control?


Answer: yellow

Question: The stain from a knot bleeding is usually brownish or what other color?


Answer: preparation

Question: In what stage of processing does knot primer need to be applied for maximum effectiveness?


Answer: Heartwood

Context: Heartwood (or duramen) is wood that as a result of a naturally occurring chemical transformation has become more resistant to decay. Heartwood formation occurs spontaneously (it is a genetically programmed process). Once heartwood formation is complete, the heartwood is dead. Some uncertainty still exists as to whether heartwood is truly dead, as it can still chemically react to decay organisms, but only once.

Question: What's another word for "duramen"?


Answer: decay

Question: What is heartwood naturally resistant to?


Answer: spontaneously

Question: How does heartwood formation occur due to its being genetically programmed?


Answer: dead

Question: What adjective describes fully formed heartwood?


Answer: decay organisms

Question: Despite being considered dead, what can heartwood have one chemical reaction to?


Answer: growth rings

Context: Heartwood is often visually distinct from the living sapwood, and can be distinguished in a cross-section where the boundary will tend to follow the growth rings. For example, it is sometimes much darker. However, other processes such as decay or insect invasion can also discolor wood, even in woody plants that do not form heartwood, which may lead to confusion.

Question: In what part of a tree's cross-section is heartwood visible?


Answer: darker

Question: What simple color distinction can heartwood have that makes it stand out from living wood in a tree?


Answer: decay

Question: Along with insect infestation, what process can discolor wood and make it look like heartwood?


Answer: woody

Question: What kind of plants never form heartwood?


Answer: sapwood

Question: What is the living wood in a tree called?


Answer: alburnum

Context: Sapwood (or alburnum) is the younger, outermost wood; in the growing tree it is living wood, and its principal functions are to conduct water from the roots to the leaves and to store up and give back according to the season the reserves prepared in the leaves. However, by the time they become competent to conduct water, all xylem tracheids and vessels have lost their cytoplasm and the cells are therefore functionally dead. All wood in a tree is first formed as sapwood. The more leaves a tree bears and the more vigorous its growth, the larger the volume of sapwood required. Hence trees making rapid growth in the open have thicker sapwood for their size than trees of the same species growing in dense forests. Sometimes trees (of species that do form heartwood) grown in the open may become of considerable size, 30 cm or more in diameter, before any heartwood begins to form, for example, in second-growth hickory, or open-grown pines.

Question: What term is interchangeable with "sapwood"?


Answer: younger

Question: Is sapwood the younger or older wood in a tree?


Answer: water

Question: What essential liquid is the sapwood tasked with carrying around a tree?


Answer: All

Question: How much of the wood in a tree is sapwood at some point in its life?


Answer: thicker

Question: Does a tree growing quickly out in the open have thinner or thicker sapwood for its size than the same kind of tree in a dense forest?


Answer: thin

Context: The term heartwood derives solely from its position and not from any vital importance to the tree. This is evidenced by the fact that a tree can thrive with its heart completely decayed. Some species begin to form heartwood very early in life, so having only a thin layer of live sapwood, while in others the change comes slowly. Thin sapwood is characteristic of such species as chestnut, black locust, mulberry, osage-orange, and sassafras, while in maple, ash, hickory, hackberry, beech, and pine, thick sapwood is the rule. Others never form heartwood.

Question: If a tree starts forming heartwood right away, will its sapwood layer be thin or thick?


Answer: position

Question: What property of heartwood that has nothing to do with how important it is to trees got it its name?


Answer: thick

Question: Does a beech tree usually have thin or thick sapwood?


Answer: Thin

Question: Does a sassafras tree typically have a thin or thick sapwood layer?


Answer: thick

Question: Would a thin or a thick sapwood layer be found in a pine tree?


Answer: crown

Context: No definite relation exists between the annual rings of growth and the amount of sapwood. Within the same species the cross-sectional area of the sapwood is very roughly proportional to the size of the crown of the tree. If the rings are narrow, more of them are required than where they are wide. As the tree gets larger, the sapwood must necessarily become thinner or increase materially in volume. Sapwood is thicker in the upper portion of the trunk of a tree than near the base, because the age and the diameter of the upper sections are less.

Question: What part of a tree is the cross-sectional area of the sapwood approximately proportional to?


Answer: narrow

Question: Are more rings necessary if they're narrow or wide?


Answer: thinner

Question: As a tree grows bigger, if the sapwood layer doesn't increase in volume, what will it become?


Answer: near the base

Question: In what part of the tree trunk is the sapwood layer thinnest?


Answer: age

Question: Along with the smaller diameter of the upper trunk, what factor leads to thinner sapwood higher up a tree?


Answer: limbs

Context: When a tree is very young it is covered with limbs almost, if not entirely, to the ground, but as it grows older some or all of them will eventually die and are either broken off or fall off. Subsequent growth of wood may completely conceal the stubs which will however remain as knots. No matter how smooth and clear a log is on the outside, it is more or less knotty near the middle. Consequently, the sapwood of an old tree, and particularly of a forest-grown tree, will be freer from knots than the inner heartwood. Since in most uses of wood, knots are defects that weaken the timber and interfere with its ease of working and other properties, it follows that a given piece of sapwood, because of its position in the tree, may well be stronger than a piece of heartwood from the same tree.

Question: What usually covers the whole trunk of a very young tree?


Answer: knots

Question: What evidence of the stubs of the limbs a tree loses can always be seen in the wood?


Answer: heartwood

Question: In a very old tree, are you more likely to find a lot of knots in the heartwood or the sapwood?


Answer: Subsequent growth

Question: What hides the stubs of a tree's lost limbs from being visible later in its life?


Answer: sapwood

Question: Since knots are defects that weaken lumber, would the heartwood or the sapwood from the same tree be stronger?


Answer: decay

Context: It is remarkable that the inner heartwood of old trees remains as sound as it usually does, since in many cases it is hundreds, and in a few instances thousands, of years old. Every broken limb or root, or deep wound from fire, insects, or falling timber, may afford an entrance for decay, which, once started, may penetrate to all parts of the trunk. The larvae of many insects bore into the trees and their tunnels remain indefinitely as sources of weakness. Whatever advantages, however, that sapwood may have in this connection are due solely to its relative age and position.

Question: What do broken limbs and deep wounds open a door for in a tree?


Answer: the trunk

Question: Decay can spread to all of what part of a tree?


Answer: larvae

Question: What growth stage of insects bore holes into trees?


Answer: inner heartwood

Question: What part of a tree often stays impressively sound even when hundreds or thousands of years old?


Answer: tunnels

Question: What evidence do some insect larvae leave in a tree forever?


Answer: youth

Context: If a tree grows all its life in the open and the conditions of soil and site remain unchanged, it will make its most rapid growth in youth, and gradually decline. The annual rings of growth are for many years quite wide, but later they become narrower and narrower. Since each succeeding ring is laid down on the outside of the wood previously formed, it follows that unless a tree materially increases its production of wood from year to year, the rings must necessarily become thinner as the trunk gets wider. As a tree reaches maturity its crown becomes more open and the annual wood production is lessened, thereby reducing still more the width of the growth rings. In the case of forest-grown trees so much depends upon the competition of the trees in their struggle for light and nourishment that periods of rapid and slow growth may alternate. Some trees, such as southern oaks, maintain the same width of ring for hundreds of years. Upon the whole, however, as a tree gets larger in diameter the width of the growth rings decreases.

Question: In what stage of its life does a tree usually grow the fastest?


Answer: narrower

Question: As a tree ages, do its growth rings usually get wider or narrower?


Answer: crown

Question: What part of a tree opens and spreads out more as it matures?


Answer: lessened

Question: Is wood production of a tree lessened or increased as it ages?


Answer: light

Question: Along with nutrients, what do trees growing in forests have to compete for?


Answer: differ

Context: Different pieces of wood cut from a large tree may differ decidedly, particularly if the tree is big and mature. In some trees, the wood laid on late in the life of a tree is softer, lighter, weaker, and more even-textured than that produced earlier, but in other trees, the reverse applies. This may or may not correspond to heartwood and sapwood. In a large log the sapwood, because of the time in the life of the tree when it was grown, may be inferior in hardness, strength, and toughness to equally sound heartwood from the same log. In a smaller tree, the reverse may be true.

Question: When a big tree is cut up, will the pieces of wood differ or all be the same?


Answer: heartwood

Question: In a large log, will the heartwood or sapwood usually be stronger and tougher?


Answer: sapwood

Question: If you need really hard, strong wood from a small tree, would it likely be better to use the heartwood or sapwood?


Answer: mature

Question: Besides big trees, what trees are more likely to have a range of different kinds of wood?


Answer: heartwood

Context: In species which show a distinct difference between heartwood and sapwood the natural color of heartwood is usually darker than that of the sapwood, and very frequently the contrast is conspicuous (see section of yew log above). This is produced by deposits in the heartwood of chemical substances, so that a dramatic color difference does not mean a dramatic difference in the mechanical properties of heartwood and sapwood, although there may be a dramatic chemical difference.

Question: When trees have a visible difference in color between sapwood and heartwood, which is darker?


Answer: chemical substances

Question: What is deposited naturally in heartwood that changes its color?


Answer: conspicuous

Question: Is the color difference between heartwood and sapwood usually very subtle or conspicuous?


Answer: mechanical

Question: What type of properties of heartwood and sapwood is often the same even if their colors are very different?


Answer: chemical

Question: Although heartwood and sapwood might be similar mechanically, if their colors are very different, what other type of difference would they have?


Answer: Longleaf Pine

Context: Some experiments on very resinous Longleaf Pine specimens indicate an increase in strength, due to the resin which increases the strength when dry. Such resin-saturated heartwood is called "fat lighter". Structures built of fat lighter are almost impervious to rot and termites; however they are very flammable. Stumps of old longleaf pines are often dug, split into small pieces and sold as kindling for fires. Stumps thus dug may actually remain a century or more since being cut. Spruce impregnated with crude resin and dried is also greatly increased in strength thereby.

Question: What type of tree has resin that makes it stronger when it dries?


Answer: fat lighter

Question: What's the funny name for resin-saturated heartwood?


Answer: rot

Question: What is fat lighter practically impervious to in addition to termites?


Answer: strength

Question: If spruce is shot full of crude resin and dried, which of its properties is increased?


Answer: kindling

Question: Since it's highly flammable, what do people often use little pieces of longleaf pine tree stumps for?


Answer: latewood

Context: Since the latewood of a growth ring is usually darker in color than the earlywood, this fact may be used in judging the density, and therefore the hardness and strength of the material. This is particularly the case with coniferous woods. In ring-porous woods the vessels of the early wood not infrequently appear on a finished surface as darker than the denser latewood, though on cross sections of heartwood the reverse is commonly true. Except in the manner just stated the color of wood is no indication of strength.

Question: Which of the wood in a growth ring is usually darker?


Answer: density

Question: Which property of a tree's wood that gives clues about its strength and hardness can be judged by it's color?


Answer: coniferous

Question: What category of trees show this difference greatly?


Answer: ring-porous

Question: What type of woods might sometimes appear to have darker earlywood on a finished surface?


Answer: no indication

Question: With the exception of earlywood/latewood difference in some types of trees, how much of an indication of strength is a wood's color?


Answer: diseased

Context: Abnormal discoloration of wood often denotes a diseased condition, indicating unsoundness. The black check in western hemlock is the result of insect attacks. The reddish-brown streaks so common in hickory and certain other woods are mostly the result of injury by birds. The discoloration is merely an indication of an injury, and in all probability does not of itself affect the properties of the wood. Certain rot-producing fungi impart to wood characteristic colors which thus become symptomatic of weakness; however an attractive effect known as spalting produced by this process is often considered a desirable characteristic. Ordinary sap-staining is due to fungal growth, but does not necessarily produce a weakening effect.

Question: What condition does an abnormal color usually indicate in wood?


Answer: unsoundness

Question: What other property can you assume of wood that is diseased?


Answer: insect attacks

Question: What causes the black checked pattern in the wood of western hemlocks?


Answer: birds

Question: What animals cause the reddish-brown streaks of color in hickory wood?


Answer: spalting

Question: What's the name for the pretty coloring effect caused in some wood by rot-producing fungi?


Answer: water

Context: In heartwood it occurs only in the first and last forms. Wood that is thoroughly air-dried retains 8–16% of the water in the cell walls, and none, or practically none, in the other forms. Even oven-dried wood retains a small percentage of moisture, but for all except chemical purposes, may be considered absolutely dry.

Question: What does wood retain in its cell walls despite being air-dried?


Answer: 16

Question: Air-dried wood keeps up to what percentage of the water in its cell walls?


Answer: oven-dried

Question: What kind of dried wood retains a small quantity of water but is considered absolutely dry?


Answer: softer

Context: The general effect of the water content upon the wood substance is to render it softer and more pliable. A similar effect of common observation is in the softening action of water on rawhide, paper, or cloth. Within certain limits, the greater the water content, the greater its softening effect.

Question: Often the water in wood makes it more pliable and what else?


Answer: rawhide

Question: What material sometimes used for dog chews reacts similarly to wood because of its water content?


Answer: paper

Question: What material we use to write or print on, like wood, becomes softer and more pliable when wet?


Answer: greater

Question: When water content increases within certain limits in wood, does is have a less or greater softening effect?


Answer: softening

Question: What type of action does water create in cloth?


Answer: strength

Context: Drying produces a decided increase in the strength of wood, particularly in small specimens. An extreme example is the case of a completely dry spruce block 5 cm in section, which will sustain a permanent load four times as great as a green (undried) block of the same size will.

Question: What will drying often increase in wood?


Answer: green

Question: What color is also used interchangeably with "undried" for wood?


Answer: spruce

Question: What type of wood can hold four times as much of a load when dried?


Answer: crushing

Context: The greatest strength increase due to drying is in the ultimate crushing strength, and strength at elastic limit in endwise compression; these are followed by the modulus of rupture, and stress at elastic limit in cross-bending, while the modulus of elasticity is least affected.

Question: What type of "ultimate" strength is one of the two types increased the most by drying wood?


Answer: elasticity

Question: What property of wood is least affected by drying?


Answer: strength at elastic limit in endwise compression

Question: Is strength at elastic limit in endwise compression or stress at elastic limit in cross-bending increased more by drying wood?


Answer: modulus of rupture

Question: Is the strength of the modulus of rupture or elasticity increased more when wood is dried?


Answer: heterogeneous

Context: Wood is a heterogeneous, hygroscopic, cellular and anisotropic material. It consists of cells, and the cell walls are composed of micro-fibrils of cellulose (40% – 50%) and hemicellulose (15% – 25%) impregnated with lignin (15% – 30%).

Question: Along with hygroscopic, cellular, and anisotropic, how is the material of wood described?


Answer: cells

Question: What does wood consist of?


Answer: walls

Question: What part of wood's cells are composed of cellulose and hemicellulose?


Answer: cellulose

Question: What makes up 40-50% of the cell walls in wood?


Answer: lignin

Question: What substance is hemicellulose impregnated with?


Answer: tracheids

Context: In coniferous or softwood species the wood cells are mostly of one kind, tracheids, and as a result the material is much more uniform in structure than that of most hardwoods. There are no vessels ("pores") in coniferous wood such as one sees so prominently in oak and ash, for example.

Question: What type of cells makes up most wood cells in coniferous trees?


Answer: softwood

Question: Are hardwood or softwood species more uniform in structure?


Answer: pores

Question: What are the visible vessels in hardwoods commonly called?


Answer: oak

Question: What hardwood that starts with the letter "O" would have pores?


Answer: ash

Question: Besides oak, what's an example of a hardwood with prominent pores?


Answer: complex

Context: The structure of hardwoods is more complex. The water conducting capability is mostly taken care of by vessels: in some cases (oak, chestnut, ash) these are quite large and distinct, in others (buckeye, poplar, willow) too small to be seen without a hand lens. In discussing such woods it is customary to divide them into two large classes, ring-porous and diffuse-porous.

Question: Is the structure of hardwood simple or complex?


Answer: vessels

Question: What handles most of the water conduction in hardwoods?


Answer: large

Question: Are the vessels in chestnut wood large or small?


Answer: a hand lens

Question: In wood from a willow tree, what would you need to use to see the tiny vessels?


Answer: diffuse-porous

Question: Besides ring-porous, what's the other class hardwoods are often divided into?