Answer: a regulatory sequence

Context: Firstly, flanking the open reading frame, all genes contain a regulatory sequence that is required for their expression. In order to be expressed, genes require a promoter sequence. The promoter is recognized and bound by transcription factors and RNA polymerase to initiate transcription.:7.1 A gene can have more than one promoter, resulting in messenger RNAs (mRNA) that differ in how far they extend in the 5' end. Promoter regions have a consensus sequence, however highly transcribed genes have "strong" promoter sequences that bind the transcription machinery well, whereas others have "weak" promoters that bind poorly and initiate transcription less frequently.:7.2 Eukaryotic promoter regions are much more complex and difficult to identify than prokaryotic promoters.:7.3

Question: What do all genes contain that is required for their expression?


Answer: by transcription factors and RNA polymerase

Question: How is a promoter sequence recognized?


Answer: messenger RNAs (mRNA) that differ in how far they extend in the 5' end

Question: What results when genes have more than one promoter?


Answer: bind the transcription machinery well

Question: What does a "strong" promoter sequence do?


Answer: bind poorly and initiate transcription less frequently

Question: What does a "weak" promoter sequence do?


Answer: by binding to transcription factors

Context: Additionally, genes can have regulatory regions many kilobases upstream or downstream of the open reading frame. These act by binding to transcription factors which then cause the DNA to loop so that the regulatory sequence (and bound transcription factor) become close to the RNA polymerase binding site. For example, enhancers increase transcription by binding an activator protein which then helps to recruit the RNA polymerase to the promoter; conversely silencers bind repressor proteins and make the DNA less available for RNA polymerase.

Question: How do regulatory regions act?


Answer: the DNA to loop

Question: What happens when a regulatory region binds to transcription factors?


Answer: by binding an activator protein

Question: How do enhancers increase transcription?


Answer: helps to recruit the RNA polymerase to the promoter

Question: What happens after an enhancer binds an activator protein?


Answer: silencers bind repressor proteins

Question: What causes DNA to be less available for RNA polymerase?


Answer: untranslated regions

Context: The transcribed pre-mRNA contains untranslated regions at both ends which contain a ribosome binding site, terminator and start and stop codons. In addition, most eukaryotic open reading frames contain untranslated introns which are removed before the exons are translated. The sequences at the ends of the introns, dictate the splice sites to generate the final mature mRNA which encodes the protein or RNA product.

Question: What is at both ends of the transcribed pre-mRNA?


Answer: untranslated regions

Question: Where are the ribosome binding site, terminator and start and stop codons located on transcribed pre-mRNA?


Answer: untranslated introns

Question: What do most eukaryotic open reading frames contain?


Answer: The sequences at the ends of the introns

Question: What dictates the splice sites to generate the final mature mRNA?


Answer: the splice sites to generate the final mature mRNA

Question: What encodes the protein or RNA product?


Answer: operons

Context: Many prokaryotic genes are organized into operons, with multiple protein-coding sequences that are transcribed as a unit. The products of operon genes typically have related functions and are involved in the same regulatory network.:7.3

Question: What are most prokaryotic genes organized into?


Answer: a unit

Question: What are multiple protein coding sequences transcribed as?


Answer: related functions

Question: What sort of functions do the products of operon genes typically have?


Answer: the same regulatory network

Question: What type of network are the products of operon genes typically involved with?


Answer: multiple protein-coding sequences

Question: What type of coding sequences do prokaryotic genes typically have?


Answer: enhancers

Context: Defining exactly what section of a DNA sequence comprises a gene is difficult. Regulatory regions of a gene such as enhancers do not necessarily have to be close to the coding sequence on the linear molecule because the intervening DNA can be looped out to bring the gene and its regulatory region into proximity. Similarly, a gene's introns can be much larger than its exons. Regulatory regions can even be on entirely different chromosomes and operate in trans to allow regulatory regions on one chromosome to come in contact with target genes on another chromosome.

Question: What is an example of a regulatory region of a gene that does not have to close to the coding sequence?


Answer: because the intervening DNA can be looped out to bring the gene and its regulatory region into proximity

Question: Why do some regulatory regions of a gene not have to be close to the coding sequence?


Answer: a gene's introns

Question: What part of a gene can be much larger than its exons?


Answer: in trans

Question: How do regulatory regions on different chromosomes operate in order to allow regions on different chromosomes to come into contact with one another?


Answer: different chromosomes

Question: Where can regulatory regions be found?


Answer: the model that one gene makes one protein.

Context: Early work in molecular genetics suggested the model that one gene makes one protein. This model has been refined since the discovery of genes that can encode multiple proteins by alternative splicing and coding sequences split in short section across the genome whose mRNAs are concatenated by trans-splicing.

Question: What model did early work in molecular genetics suggest?


Answer: the discovery of genes that can encode multiple proteins

Question: What discovery caused the model that one gene makes one protein to be refined?


Answer: by alternative splicing and coding sequences

Question: How do genes encode multiple proteins?


Answer: split in short section across the genome

Question: How are alternative splicing and coding sequences distributed?


Answer: concatenated by trans-splicing.

Question: In order for a gene to encode multiple proteins, how must its mRNAs be arranged?


Answer: A broad operational definition

Context: A broad operational definition is sometimes used to encompass the complexity of these diverse phenomena, where a gene is defined as a union of genomic sequences encoding a coherent set of potentially overlapping functional products. This definition categorizes genes by their functional products (proteins or RNA) rather than their specific DNA loci, with regulatory elements classified as gene-associated regions.

Question: What sort of definition can be used to conveniently encompass the complexity of diverse phenomena?


Answer: a union of genomic sequences encoding a coherent set of potentially overlapping functional products

Question: What is the broad operational definition of a gene?


Answer: their specific DNA loci

Question: What does the typical definition of a gene categorize genes by?


Answer: their functional products (proteins or RNA)

Question: What does the broad operational definition of gene categorize genes by?


Answer: regulatory elements

Question: What does the broad operational definition of a gene classify as gene-associated regions?


Answer: two steps are required

Context: In all organisms, two steps are required to read the information encoded in a gene's DNA and produce the protein it specifies. First, the gene's DNA is transcribed to messenger RNA (mRNA).:6.1 Second, that mRNA is translated to protein.:6.2 RNA-coding genes must still go through the first step, but are not translated into protein. The process of producing a biologically functional molecule of either RNA or protein is called gene expression, and the resulting molecule is called a gene product.

Question: How many steps are required to read the information encoded in a gene's DNA and produce the specified protein?


Answer: the gene's DNA is transcribed to messenger RNA (mRNA)

Question: What is the first step to read the information encoded in a gene's DNA and produce the protein it specifies?


Answer: mRNA is translated to protein

Question: What is the second step to read the information encoded in a gene's DNA and produce the protein it specifies?


Answer: the first step

Question: What step must RNA-coding genes still go through?


Answer: gene expression

Question: What is the process of producing a biologically functional molecule of either RNA or protein called?


Answer: The nucleotide sequence of a gene's DNA

Context: The nucleotide sequence of a gene's DNA specifies the amino acid sequence of a protein through the genetic code. Sets of three nucleotides, known as codons, each correspond to a specific amino acid.:6 Additionally, a "start codon", and three "stop codons" indicate the beginning and end of the protein coding region. There are 64 possible codons (four possible nucleotides at each of three positions, hence 43 possible codons) and only 20 standard amino acids; hence the code is redundant and multiple codons can specify the same amino acid. The correspondence between codons and amino acids is nearly universal among all known living organisms.

Question: What specifies the amino acid sequence of a protein?


Answer: codons

Question: What are sets of three nucleotides known as?


Answer: a specific amino acid

Question: What does each codon correspond to?


Answer: a "start codon", and three "stop codons"

Question: What indicates the beginning and end of the protein coding region?


Answer: There are 64 possible codons (four possible nucleotides at each of three positions, hence 43 possible codons)

Question: How many possible codons are there?


Answer: a single-stranded RNA molecule known as messenger RNA

Context: Transcription produces a single-stranded RNA molecule known as messenger RNA, whose nucleotide sequence is complementary to the DNA from which it was transcribed.:6.1 The mRNA acts as an intermediate between the DNA gene and its final protein product. The gene's DNA is used as a template to generate a complementary mRNA. The mRNA matches the sequence of the gene's DNA coding strand because it is synthesised as the complement of the template strand. Transcription is performed by an enzyme called an RNA polymerase, which reads the template strand in the 3' to 5' direction and synthesizes the RNA from 5' to 3'. To initiate transcription, the polymerase first recognizes and binds a promoter region of the gene. Thus, a major mechanism of gene regulation is the blocking or sequestering the promoter region, either by tight binding by repressor molecules that physically block the polymerase, or by organizing the DNA so that the promoter region is not accessible.:7

Question: What does transcription produce?


Answer: complementary to the DNA from which it was transcribed

Question: How does the nucleotide sequence of mRNA compare to DNA?


Answer: The gene's DNA

Question: What is used as a template to generate a complementary mRNA?


Answer: because it is synthesised as the complement of the template strand

Question: Why does the mRNA match the sequence of the gene's DNA coding strand?


Answer: an RNA polymerase

Question: What is the enzyme called that performs transcription?


Answer: in the cytoplasm

Context: In prokaryotes, transcription occurs in the cytoplasm; for very long transcripts, translation may begin at the 5' end of the RNA while the 3' end is still being transcribed. In eukaryotes, transcription occurs in the nucleus, where the cell's DNA is stored. The RNA molecule produced by the polymerase is known as the primary transcript and undergoes post-transcriptional modifications before being exported to the cytoplasm for translation. One of the modifications performed is the splicing of introns which are sequences in the transcribed region that do not encode protein. Alternative splicing mechanisms can result in mature transcripts from the same gene having different sequences and thus coding for different proteins. This is a major form of regulation in eukaryotic cells and also occurs in some prokaryotes.:7.5

Question: Where does transcription occur in prokaryotes?


Answer: at the 5' end of the RNA

Question: If the transcription is very long, where on the RNA may translation begin?


Answer: transcription occurs in the nucleus

Question: Where does transcription occur in eukaryotes?


Answer: in the nucleus

Question: Where does a eukaryote store the cell's DNA?


Answer: the primary transcript

Question: What is the RNA molecule produced by the polymerase known as?


Answer: Translation

Context: Translation is the process by which a mature mRNA molecule is used as a template for synthesizing a new protein.:6.2 Translation is carried out by ribosomes, large complexes of RNA and protein responsible for carrying out the chemical reactions to add new amino acids to a growing polypeptide chain by the formation of peptide bonds. The genetic code is read three nucleotides at a time, in units called codons, via interactions with specialized RNA molecules called transfer RNA (tRNA). Each tRNA has three unpaired bases known as the anticodon that are complementary to the codon it reads on the mRNA. The tRNA is also covalently attached to the amino acid specified by the complementary codon. When the tRNA binds to its complementary codon in an mRNA strand, the ribosome attaches its amino acid cargo to the new polypeptide chain, which is synthesized from amino terminus to carboxyl terminus. During and after synthesis, most new proteins must folds to their active three-dimensional structure before they can carry out their cellular functions.:3

Question: What is the process by which a mature mRNA molecule is used as a template for synthesizing a new protein called?


Answer: large complexes of RNA and protein

Question: What does a ribosome consist of?


Answer: carrying out the chemical reactions to add new amino acids to a growing polypeptide chain

Question: What is a ribosome responsible for?


Answer: via interactions with specialized RNA molecules called transfer RNA (tRNA)

Question: How is the genetic code read?


Answer: three

Question: How many unpaired bases does each tRNA have?


Answer: only when the product is needed

Context: Genes are regulated so that they are expressed only when the product is needed, since expression draws on limited resources.:7 A cell regulates its gene expression depending on its external environment (e.g. available nutrients, temperature and other stresses), its internal environment (e.g. cell division cycle, metabolism, infection status), and its specific role if in a multicellular organism. Gene expression can be regulated at any step: from transcriptional initiation, to RNA processing, to post-translational modification of the protein. The regulation of lactose metabolism genes in E. coli (lac operon) was the first such mechanism to be described in 1961.

Question: When are genes expressed?


Answer: available nutrients, temperature and other stresses

Question: What are examples of a cell's external environment?


Answer: cell division cycle, metabolism, infection status

Question: What are examples of a cell's internal environment?


Answer: at any step

Question: At which step can gene expression be regulated?


Answer: The regulation of lactose metabolism genes in E. coli

Question: What example of post-translational modification of a protein was first described in 1961?


Answer: A typical protein-coding gene

Context: A typical protein-coding gene is first copied into RNA as an intermediate in the manufacture of the final protein product.:6.1 In other cases, the RNA molecules are the actual functional products, as in the synthesis of ribosomal RNA and transfer RNA. Some RNAs known as ribozymes are capable of enzymatic function, and microRNA has a regulatory role. The DNA sequences from which such RNAs are transcribed are known as non-coding RNA genes.

Question: What is first copied into RNA as an intermediate in the manufacture of the final protein product?


Answer: the RNA molecules

Question: In some cases, what are the actual functional products?


Answer: the synthesis of ribosomal RNA and transfer RNA

Question: What sort of synthesis occurs when the RNA molecules are the actual functional products?


Answer: enzymatic function

Question: What sort of function are ribozymes capable of?


Answer: non-coding RNA genes

Question: What are the DNA sequences from which ribozymes are transcribed known as?


Answer: in the form of RNA

Context: Some viruses store their entire genomes in the form of RNA, and contain no DNA at all. Because they use RNA to store genes, their cellular hosts may synthesize their proteins as soon as they are infected and without the delay in waiting for transcription. On the other hand, RNA retroviruses, such as HIV, require the reverse transcription of their genome from RNA into DNA before their proteins can be synthesized. RNA-mediated epigenetic inheritance has also been observed in plants and very rarely in animals.

Question: In what form do some viruses store their entire genome?


Answer: Because they use RNA to store genes

Question: Why do the cellular hosts of some viruses not have to wait for transcription to synthesize their proteins?


Answer: HIV

Question: What is one type of an RNA retrovirus?


Answer: reverse transcription

Question: What sort of transcription does the genome of HIV require before its proteins can be synthesized?


Answer: in plants and very rarely in animals

Question: Besides viruses, where has RNA-mediated epigenetic inheritance been observed?


Answer: from their parents

Context: Organisms inherit their genes from their parents. Asexual organisms simply inherit a complete copy of their parent's genome. Sexual organisms have two copies of each chromosome because they inherit one complete set from each parent.:1

Question: Where do organisms inherit their genes from?


Answer: a complete copy

Question: How much of an asexual organism's genome is inherited from its parents?


Answer: two copies of each chromosome

Question: How many copies of each chromosome does a sexual organism have?


Answer: one complete set from each parent

Question: How many sets of chromosomes does a sexual organism inherit from each parent?


Answer: because they inherit one complete set from each parent

Question: Why do sexual organisms have two copies of each chromosome?


Answer: variations in its genotype

Context: According to Mendelian inheritance, variations in an organism's phenotype (observable physical and behavioral characteristics) are due in part to variations in its genotype (particular set of genes). Each gene specifies a particular trait with different sequence of a gene (alleles) giving rise to different phenotypes. Most eukaryotic organisms (such as the pea plants Mendel worked on) have two alleles for each trait, one inherited from each parent.:20

Question: According to Mendelian inheritance, what is part of the cause of variations in an organism's phenotype?


Answer: observable physical and behavioral characteristics

Question: What sort of characteristics are described by an organism's phenotype?


Answer: particular set of genes

Question: What is a genotype?


Answer: Each gene

Question: What specifies a particular trait with a different sequence of alleles?


Answer: two alleles for each trait

Question: How many alleles do most eukaryotic organisms have for each trait?


Answer: at a locus

Context: Alleles at a locus may be dominant or recessive; dominant alleles give rise to their corresponding phenotypes when paired with any other allele for the same trait, whereas recessive alleles give rise to their corresponding phenotype only when paired with another copy of the same allele. For example, if the allele specifying tall stems in pea plants is dominant over the allele specifying short stems, then pea plants that inherit one tall allele from one parent and one short allele from the other parent will also have tall stems. Mendel's work demonstrated that alleles assort independently in the production of gametes, or germ cells, ensuring variation in the next generation. Although Mendelian inheritance remains a good model for many traits determined by single genes (including a number of well-known genetic disorders) it does not include the physical processes of DNA replication and cell division.

Question: Where can alleles be located in order to be either dominant or recessive?


Answer: their corresponding phenotypes

Question: When paired with any other allele for the same trait, what do dominant alleles give rise to?


Answer: when paired with another copy of the same allele

Question: When do recessive alleles give rise to their corresponding phenotype?


Answer: in the production of gametes

Question: When do alleles assort independently?


Answer: germ cells

Question: What are gametes?


Answer: cell division

Context: The growth, development, and reproduction of organisms relies on cell division, or the process by which a single cell divides into two usually identical daughter cells. This requires first making a duplicate copy of every gene in the genome in a process called DNA replication.:5.2 The copies are made by specialized enzymes known as DNA polymerases, which "read" one strand of the double-helical DNA, known as the template strand, and synthesize a new complementary strand. Because the DNA double helix is held together by base pairing, the sequence of one strand completely specifies the sequence of its complement; hence only one strand needs to be read by the enzyme to produce a faithful copy. The process of DNA replication is semiconservative; that is, the copy of the genome inherited by each daughter cell contains one original and one newly synthesized strand of DNA.:5.2

Question: What does the growth, development, and reproduction of organisms rely on?


Answer: identical daughter cells

Question: In cell division, what two cells are created?


Answer: DNA polymerases

Question: What specialized enzyme is responsible DNA replication?


Answer: Because the DNA double helix is held together by base pairing

Question: Why does the sequence of one strand completely specify the sequence of its complement?


Answer: semiconservative

Question: What one word characterizes the process of DNA replication?


Answer: physically separate the two copies of the genome

Context: After DNA replication is complete, the cell must physically separate the two copies of the genome and divide into two distinct membrane-bound cells.:18.2 In prokaryotes (bacteria and archaea) this usually occurs via a relatively simple process called binary fission, in which each circular genome attaches to the cell membrane and is separated into the daughter cells as the membrane invaginates to split the cytoplasm into two membrane-bound portions. Binary fission is extremely fast compared to the rates of cell division in eukaryotes. Eukaryotic cell division is a more complex process known as the cell cycle; DNA replication occurs during a phase of this cycle known as S phase, whereas the process of segregating chromosomes and splitting the cytoplasm occurs during M phase.:18.1

Question: What is one thing the cell must do once DNA replication is compete?


Answer: divide into two distinct membrane-bound cells

Question: What is another thing the cell must do once DNA replication is complete?


Answer: circular

Question: In binary fission, what shape is each genome?


Answer: as the membrane invaginates to split the cytoplasm

Question: In binary fission. when does each genome separate into daughter cells?


Answer: extremely fast

Question: Compared to the rates of cell division in eukaryotes, with what speed does binary fission occur?


Answer: molecular inheritance

Context: The duplication and transmission of genetic material from one generation of cells to the next is the basis for molecular inheritance, and the link between the classical and molecular pictures of genes. Organisms inherit the characteristics of their parents because the cells of the offspring contain copies of the genes in their parents' cells. In asexually reproducing organisms, the offspring will be a genetic copy or clone of the parent organism. In sexually reproducing organisms, a specialized form of cell division called meiosis produces cells called gametes or germ cells that are haploid, or contain only one copy of each gene.:20.2 The gametes produced by females are called eggs or ova, and those produced by males are called sperm. Two gametes fuse to form a diploid fertilized egg, a single cell that has two sets of genes, with one copy of each gene from the mother and one from the father.:20

Question: The duplication and transmission of genetic material from one generation of cells to the next is the basis for what?


Answer: cells of the offspring contain copies of the genes in their parents' cells

Question: Why do organisms inherit the characteristics of their parents?


Answer: In asexually reproducing organisms

Question: In what type of organism will the offspring be a genetic copy or clone of the parent organism?


Answer: In sexually reproducing organisms

Question: In what type of organism will a specialized form of cell division called meiosis produce cells called gametes?


Answer: eggs or ova

Question: What are the gametes produced by females called?


Answer: During the process of meiotic cell division

Context: During the process of meiotic cell division, an event called genetic recombination or crossing-over can sometimes occur, in which a length of DNA on one chromatid is swapped with a length of DNA on the corresponding sister chromatid. This has no effect if the alleles on the chromatids are the same, but results in reassortment of otherwise linked alleles if they are different.:5.5 The Mendelian principle of independent assortment asserts that each of a parent's two genes for each trait will sort independently into gametes; which allele an organism inherits for one trait is unrelated to which allele it inherits for another trait. This is in fact only true for genes that do not reside on the same chromosome, or are located very far from one another on the same chromosome. The closer two genes lie on the same chromosome, the more closely they will be associated in gametes and the more often they will appear together; genes that are very close are essentially never separated because it is extremely unlikely that a crossover point will occur between them. This is known as genetic linkage.

Question: When can an event called genetic recombination or crossing-over sometimes occur?


Answer: no effect

Question: If the alleles on the chromatids are the same, what effect arises from genetic recombination?


Answer: reassortment of otherwise linked alleles

Question: If the alleles on the chromatids are different, what effect arises from genetic recombination?


Answer: independent assortment

Question: Each of a parent's two genes for each trait will sort independently into gametes according to what Mendelian principle?


Answer: a crossover point

Question: In genetic linkage, what sort of point is extremely unlikely to occur?


Answer: mutations

Context: DNA replication is for the most part extremely accurate, however errors (mutations) do occur.:7.6 The error rate in eukaryotic cells can be as low as 10−8 per nucleotide per replication, whereas for some RNA viruses it can be as high as 10−3. This means that each generation, each human genome accumulates 1–2 new mutations. Small mutations can be caused by DNA replication and the aftermath of DNA damage and include point mutations in which a single base is altered and frameshift mutations in which a single base is inserted or deleted. Either of these mutations can change the gene by missense (change a codon to encode a different amino acid) or nonsense (a premature stop codon). Larger mutations can be caused by errors in recombination to cause chromosomal abnormalities including the duplication, deletion, rearrangement or inversion of large sections of a chromosome. Additionally, the DNA repair mechanisms that normally revert mutations can introduce errors when repairing the physical damage to the molecule is more important than restoring an exact copy, for example when repairing double-strand breaks.:5.4

Question: What is it called when errors occur in DNA replication?


Answer: 10−8 per nucleotide per replication

Question: What is the lowest error rate that occurs in eukaryotic cells?


Answer: 10−3

Question: What is the highest error rate that can occur for some RNA viruses?


Answer: DNA replication

Question: What can small mutations be caused by?


Answer: errors in recombination

Question: What can larger mutations be caused by?


Answer: polymorphic

Context: When multiple different alleles for a gene are present in a species's population it is called polymorphic. Most different alleles are functionally equivalent, however some alleles can give rise to different phenotypic traits. A gene's most common allele is called the wild type, and rare alleles are called mutants. The genetic variation in relative frequencies of different alleles in a population is due to both natural selection and genetic drift. The wild-type allele is not necessarily the ancestor of less common alleles, nor is it necessarily fitter.

Question: What is it called when multiple different alleles for a gene are present in a species's population?


Answer: different phenotypic traits

Question: What can some alleles give rise to?


Answer: the wild type

Question: What is a gene's most common allele known as?


Answer: mutants

Question: What are rare alleles called?


Answer: genetic drift

Question: What is one cause of the genetic variation in relative frequencies of different alleles in a population?


Answer: silent mutations

Context: Most mutations within genes are neutral, having no effect on the organism's phenotype (silent mutations). Some mutations do not change the amino acid sequence because multiple codons encode the same amino acid (synonymous mutations). Other mutations can be neutral if they lead to amino acid sequence changes, but the protein still functions similarly with the new amino acid (e.g. conservative mutations). Many mutations, however, are deleterious or even lethal, and are removed from populations by natural selection. Genetic disorders are the result of deleterious mutations and can be due to spontaneous mutation in the affected individual, or can be inherited. Finally, a small fraction of mutations are beneficial, improving the organism's fitness and are extremely important for evolution, since their directional selection leads to adaptive evolution.:7.6

Question: What are mutations that have no effect on an organism's phenotype called?


Answer: synonymous mutations

Question: What are mutations that do not change the amino acid sequence called?


Answer: conservative mutations

Question: What are mutations that lead to amino acid sequence changes but leave the protein functioning similarly called?


Answer: Genetic disorders

Question: What is a result of deleterious mutations?


Answer: adaptive evolution

Question: What does the directional selection of beneficial mutations lead to?


Answer: homologs

Context: Genes with a most recent common ancestor, and thus a shared evolutionary ancestry, are known as homologs. These genes appear either from gene duplication within an organism's genome, where they are known as paralogous genes, or are the result of divergence of the genes after a speciation event, where they are known as orthologous genes,:7.6 and often perform the same or similar functions in related organisms. It is often assumed that the functions of orthologous genes are more similar than those of paralogous genes, although the difference is minimal.

Question: What are genes with a most recent common ancestor called?


Answer: gene duplication within an organism's genome

Question: What is one reason for homologs to appear?


Answer: paralogous genes

Question: What are genes that occur from duplication within an organism's genome called?


Answer: orthologous genes

Question: What are genes that result from divergence of the genes after a speciation event called?


Answer: The relationship between genes

Context: The relationship between genes can be measured by comparing the sequence alignment of their DNA.:7.6 The degree of sequence similarity between homologous genes is called conserved sequence. Most changes to a gene's sequence do not affect its function and so genes accumulate mutations over time by neutral molecular evolution. Additionally, any selection on a gene will cause its sequence to diverge at a different rate. Genes under stabilizing selection are constrained and so change more slowly whereas genes under directional selection change sequence more rapidly. The sequence differences between genes can be used for phylogenetic analyses to study how those genes have evolved and how the organisms they come from are related.

Question: What does comparing the sequence alignment of genes' DNA measure?


Answer: conserved sequence

Question: What is the degree of sequence similarity between homologous genes called?


Answer: by neutral molecular evolution

Question: How do genes typically accumulate mutations over time?


Answer: stabilizing

Question: Under what type of selection are genes constrained so they change more slowly?


Answer: phylogenetic

Question: What type of analyses can the sequence differences between genes be used for?


Answer: gene duplication

Context: The most common source of new genes in eukaryotic lineages is gene duplication, which creates copy number variation of an existing gene in the genome. The resulting genes (paralogs) may then diverge in sequence and in function. Sets of genes formed in this way comprise a gene family. Gene duplications and losses within a family are common and represent a major source of evolutionary biodiversity. Sometimes, gene duplication may result in a nonfunctional copy of a gene, or a functional copy may be subject to mutations that result in loss of function; such nonfunctional genes are called pseudogenes.:7.6

Question: What is the most common source of new genes in eukaryotic lineages?


Answer: gene duplication

Question: What creates copy number variation of an existing gene in the genome?


Answer: paralogs

Question: What are the genes that result from eukaryotic gene duplication called?


Answer: nonfunctional

Question: What type of copy can gene duplication sometimes result in?


Answer: pseudogenes

Question: What are functional copies of a gene which have a loss of function due to mutation called?


Answer: De novo or "orphan" genes

Context: De novo or "orphan" genes, whose sequence shows no similarity to existing genes, are extremely rare. Estimates of the number of de novo genes in the human genome range from 18 to 60. Such genes are typically shorter and simpler in structure than most eukaryotic genes, with few if any introns. Two primary sources of orphan protein-coding genes are gene duplication followed by extremely rapid sequence change, such that the original relationship is undetectable by sequence comparisons, and formation through mutation of "cryptic" transcription start sites that introduce a new open reading frame in a region of the genome that did not previously code for a protein.

Question: What is a gene whose sequence shows no similarity to existing genes called?


Answer: 18 to 60

Question: What is the estimate of the number of orphan genes in the human genome?


Answer: typically shorter

Question: How do the lengths of orphan genes compare to most eukaryotic genes?


Answer: simpler in structure

Question: How does the structure of orphan genes compare to most eukaryotic genes?


Answer: gene duplication followed by extremely rapid sequence change

Question: What is one primary source of orphan protein-coding genes?


Answer: Horizontal gene transfer

Context: Horizontal gene transfer refers to the transfer of genetic material through a mechanism other than reproduction. This mechanism is a common source of new genes in prokaryotes, sometimes thought to contribute more to genetic variation than gene duplication. It is a common means of spreading antibiotic resistance, virulence, and adaptive metabolic functions. Although horizontal gene transfer is rare in eukaryotes, likely examples have been identified of protist and alga genomes containing genes of bacterial origin.

Question: What is the transfer of genetic material through a mechanism other than reproduction known as?


Answer: prokaryotes

Question: In what type of organism is horizontal gene transfer a common source of new genes?


Answer: antibiotic resistance

Question: What is one trait that horizontal gene transfer is a common means of spreading?


Answer: eukaryotes

Question: In what type of organism is horizontal gene transfer rare?


Answer: alga genomes containing genes of bacterial origin

Question: What is one example of horizontal gene transfer in eukaryotes?


Answer: genome size

Context: The genome size, and the number of genes it encodes varies widely between organisms. The smallest genomes occur in viruses (which can have as few as 2 protein-coding genes), and viroids (which act as a single non-coding RNA gene). Conversely, plants can have extremely large genomes, with rice containing >46,000 protein-coding genes. The total number of protein-coding genes (the Earth's proteome) is estimated to be 5 million sequences.

Question: What is one characteristic that varies widely between organisms?


Answer: viruses

Question: In which type of organism do the smallest genomes occur?


Answer: 2

Question: What is the smallest number of protein coding genes that a virus can have?


Answer: viroids

Question: Which organism acts as a single non coding RNA gene?


Answer: 5 million

Question: What is the estimate for the total number of protein coding genes on Earth?


Answer: the 1960s

Context: Although the number of base-pairs of DNA in the human genome has been known since the 1960s, the estimated number of genes has changed over time as definitions of genes, and methods of detecting them have been refined. Initial theoretical predictions of the number of human genes were as high as 2,000,000. Early experimental measures indicated there to be 50,000–100,000 transcribed genes (expressed sequence tags). Subsequently, the sequencing in the Human Genome Project indicated that many of these transcripts were alternative variants of the same genes, and the total number of protein-coding genes was revised down to ~20,000 with 13 genes encoded on the mitochondrial genome. Of the human genome, only 1–2% consists of protein-coding genes, with the remainder being 'noncoding' DNA such as introns, retrotransposons, and noncoding RNAs.

Question: Since when has the number of base pairs of DNA in the human genome been known?


Answer: 2,000,000

Question: What was the highest initial theoretical prediction of the number of human genes?


Answer: alternative variants

Question: What sort of variants did the Human Genome Project indicate that many of the measured transcripts were?


Answer: 13

Question: After the Human Genome Project, how many genes were encoded on the mitochondrial genome?


Answer: 1–2%

Question: What percentage of the human genome consists of protein coding genes?


Answer: Essential genes

Context: Essential genes are the set of genes thought to be critical for an organism's survival. This definition assumes the abundant availability of all relevant nutrients and the absence of environmental stress. Only a small portion of an organism's genes are essential. In bacteria, an estimated 250–400 genes are essential for Escherichia coli and Bacillus subtilis, which is less than 10% of their genes. Half of these genes are orthologs in both organisms and are largely involved in protein synthesis. In the budding yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae the number of essential genes is slightly higher, at 1000 genes (~20% of their genes). Although the number is more difficult to measure in higher eukaryotes, mice and humans are estimated to have around 2000 essential genes (~10% of their genes).

Question: What are the set of genes which are thought to be crucial for the survival of an organism?


Answer: environmental stress

Question: What does the definition of essential genes assume an absence of?


Answer: 250–400

Question: How many genes are essential for Escherichia coli?


Answer: Half

Question: What fraction of Escherichia coli's essential genes are orthologs?


Answer: 1000 genes

Question: How many essential genes does Saccharomyces cerevisiae have?


Answer: Housekeeping genes

Context: Housekeeping genes are critical for carrying out basic cell functions and so are expressed at a relatively constant level (constitutively). Since their expression is constant, housekeeping genes are used as experimental controls when analysing gene expression. Not all essential genes are housekeeping genes since some essential genes are developmentally regulated or expressed at certain times during the organism's life cycle.

Question: What type of genes are necessary for performing basic cell functions?


Answer: constant

Question: At what relative level are housekeeping genes expressed at?


Answer: housekeeping genes

Question: When investigating gene expression, what type of genes are used as a control for experiments?


Answer: developmentally

Question: How are some essential genes regulated?


Answer: at certain times during the organism's life cycle

Question: When are some essential genes expressed?


Answer: HUGO Gene Nomenclature Committee (HGNC)

Context: Gene nomenclature has been established by the HUGO Gene Nomenclature Committee (HGNC) for each known human gene in the form of an approved gene name and symbol (short-form abbreviation), which can be accessed through a database maintained by HGNC. Symbols are chosen to be unique, and each gene has only one symbol (although approved symbols sometimes change). Symbols are preferably kept consistent with other members of a gene family and with homologs in other species, particularly the mouse due to its role as a common model organism.

Question: What committee has established gene nomenclature for every known human gene?


Answer: through a database maintained by HGNC

Question: How can the gene nomenclature be accessed?


Answer: only one

Question: How many symbols does each gene have?


Answer: homologs in other species

Question: With what is it preferred that symbols are kept consistent with?


Answer: common model

Question: What type of model does the mouse play a role for?


Answer: Genetic engineering

Context: Genetic engineering is the modification of an organism's genome through biotechnology. Since the 1970s, a variety of techniques have been developed to specifically add, remove and edit genes in an organism. Recently developed genome engineering techniques use engineered nuclease enzymes to create targeted DNA repair in a chromosome to either disrupt or edit a gene when the break is repaired. The related term synthetic biology is sometimes used to refer to extensive genetic engineering of an organism.

Question: What is known as the modification of an organism's genome through biotechnology?


Answer: the 1970s

Question: When did techniques begin to be developed to add, remove and edit genes?


Answer: engineered nuclease enzymes

Question: What sort of enzymes do recently developed genome engineering techniques use?


Answer: targeted

Question: What sort of DNA repair is created by modern genetic engineering techniques?


Answer: synthetic biology

Question: What term refers to extensive genetic engineering of an organism?


Answer: Genetic engineering

Context: Genetic engineering is now a routine research tool with model organisms. For example, genes are easily added to bacteria and lineages of knockout mice with a specific gene's function disrupted are used to investigate that gene's function. Many organisms have been genetically modified for applications in agriculture, industrial biotechnology, and medicine.

Question: What has become a common research tool with model organisms?


Answer: that gene's function

Question: What do scientists explore by adding genes to mice with a certain gene's function disrupted?


Answer: agriculture

Question: What is an application for which organisms have been modified for?


Answer: industrial biotechnology

Question: What is another for which organisms have been modified for?


Answer: medicine

Question: What is yet another application for which organisms have been modified for?


Answer: multicellular organisms

Context: For multicellular organisms, typically the embryo is engineered which grows into the adult genetically modified organism. However, the genomes of cells in an adult organism can be edited using gene therapy techniques to treat genetic diseases.

Question: For what sort of organisms is the embryo normally engineered?


Answer: gene therapy techniques

Question: What techniques can be used to alter the genomes of an adult organism to treat genetic disease?


Answer: the embryo

Question: What part of the organism is usually created which becomes a developed genetically altered organism?


Answer: the genomes of cells

Question: What can be changed in an adult organism using gene therapy techniques?


Answer: genetic diseases

Question: What can be treated using genetic engineering?


Answer: the Republic of Guinea-Bissau

Context: Guinea-Bissau (i/ˈɡɪni bɪˈsaʊ/, GI-nee-bi-SOW), officially the Republic of Guinea-Bissau (Portuguese: República da Guiné-Bissau, pronounced: [ʁeˈpublikɐ dɐ ɡiˈnɛ biˈsaw]), is a country in West Africa. It covers 36,125 square kilometres (13,948 sq mi) with an estimated population of 1,704,000.

Question: What is the official name for Guinea-Bissau?


Answer: West Africa

Question: Where is Guinea-Bissau located?


Answer: 13,948 sq mi

Question: How many square miles is Guinea-Bissau?


Answer: 1,704,000

Question: What is the estimated population of Guinea-Bissau?


Answer: 36,125

Question: How many kilometers does Guinea-Bissau cover?


Answer: Gabu

Context: Guinea-Bissau was once part of the kingdom of Gabu, as well as part of the Mali Empire. Parts of this kingdom persisted until the 18th century, while a few others were under some rule by the Portuguese Empire since the 16th century. In the 19th century, it was colonized as Portuguese Guinea. Upon independence, declared in 1973 and recognised in 1974, the name of its capital, Bissau, was added to the country's name to prevent confusion with Guinea (formerly French Guinea). Guinea-Bissau has a history of political instability since independence, and no elected president has successfully served a full five-year term.

Question: What kingdom was Guinea-Bissau once part of?


Answer: Mali Empire

Question: What empire was Guinea-Bissau once part of?


Answer: 1973

Question: What year was Guinea-Bissau declared independent?


Answer: Guinea (formerly French Guinea)

Question: What country did Guinea-Bissau seek to differentiate itself from?


Answer: political instability

Question: Guinea-Bissau has a history of what since independence?


Answer: 14%

Context: Only 14% of the population speaks Portuguese, established as the official language in the colonial period. Almost half the population (44%) speaks Crioulo, a Portuguese-based creole language, and the remainder speak a variety of native African languages. The main religions are African traditional religions and Islam; there is a Christian (mostly Roman Catholic) minority. The country's per-capita gross domestic product is one of the lowest in the world.

Question: What percentage of the population speaks Portuguese?


Answer: 44%

Question: What percentage of the population speaks Crioulo?


Answer: African traditional religions and Islam

Question: What are the two main religions?


Answer: one of the lowest in the world

Question: What is their gross domestic product status?


Answer: Christian (mostly Roman Catholic)

Question: What is the minority religion?


Answer: Organisation of Islamic Cooperation

Context: Guinea-Bissau is a member of the United Nations, African Union, Economic Community of West African States, Organisation of Islamic Cooperation, the Latin Union, Community of Portuguese Language Countries, La Francophonie and the South Atlantic Peace and Cooperation Zone.

Question: What Islamic organization does Guinea-Bissau belong to?


Answer: Community of Portuguese Language Countries

Question: What Portuguese organization does Guinea-Bissau belong to?


Answer: Economic Community of West African States

Question: What West African organization does Guinea-Bissau belong to?


Answer: South Atlantic Peace and Cooperation Zone

Question: What South Atlantic organization does Guinea-Bissau belong to?


Answer: the Latin Union

Question: What Latin organization does Guinea-Bissau belong to?


Answer: Portuguese Guinea

Context: Guinea-Bissau was once part of the kingdom of Gabu, part of the Mali Empire; parts of this kingdom persisted until the 18th century. Other parts of the territory in the current country were considered by the Portuguese as part of their empire. Portuguese Guinea was known as the Slave Coast, as it was a major area for the exportation of African slaves by Europeans to the western hemisphere. Previously slaves had been traded by Arabs north to the northern part of Africa and into the Middle East.

Question: What area was known as the Slave Coast?


Answer: Europeans

Question: Who exported African slaves to the western hemisphere?


Answer: Gabu

Question: What kingdom was Guinea-Bissau once a part of?


Answer: until the 18th century

Question: How long did the Mali Empire persist?


Answer: Arabs

Question: Who traded slaves into the Middle East?


Answer: 1455

Context: Early reports of Europeans reaching this area include those of the Venetian Alvise Cadamosto's voyage of 1455, the 1479–1480 voyage by Flemish-French trader Eustache de la Fosse, and Diogo Cão. In the 1480s this Portuguese explorer reached the Congo River and the lands of Bakongo, setting up the foundations of modern Angola, some 4200 km down the African coast from Guinea-Bissau.

Question: When was Alvise Cadamosto's voyage?


Answer: 1479–1480

Question: When was Eustache de la Fosse's voyage?


Answer: Diogo Cão

Question: What was the name of the Portuguese explorer?


Answer: Congo River

Question: What river did Diogo Cao reach in the 1480's?


Answer: Angola

Question: What country is about 4200 km from Guinea-Bissau?


Answer: the rivers and coast

Context: Although the rivers and coast of this area were among the first places colonized by the Portuguese, who set up trading posts in the 16th century, they did not explore the interior until the 19th century. The local African rulers in Guinea, some of whom prospered greatly from the slave trade, controlled the inland trade and did not allow the Europeans into the interior. They kept them in the fortified coastal settlements where the trading took place. African communities that fought back against slave traders also distrusted European adventurers and would-be settlers. The Portuguese in Guinea were largely restricted to the port of Bissau and Cacheu. A small number of European settlers established isolated farms along Bissau's inland rivers.

Question: What areas were the first places colonized by the Portuguese?


Answer: 16th century

Question: When did the Portuguese first set up trading posts in Guinea-Bissau?


Answer: 19th century

Question: When did the Portuguese explore the interior of Guinea-Bissau?


Answer: local African rulers

Question: Who controlled the inland trade in Guinea-Bissau during this time?


Answer: Bissau and Cacheu

Question: What ports were the Portuguese restricted to?


Answer: the British

Context: For a brief period in the 1790s, the British tried to establish a rival foothold on an offshore island, at Bolama. But by the 19th century the Portuguese were sufficiently secure in Bissau to regard the neighbouring coastline as their own special territory, also up north in part of present South Senegal.

Question: Who tried to establish a rival foothold at Bolama?


Answer: the 1790s

Question: When was a rival foothold attempted at Bolama?


Answer: the Portuguese

Question: Who regarded Bolama as their own in the 19th century?


Answer: part of present South Senegal

Question: What other area did the Portuguese regard as their special territory?


Answer: the British

Question: What rival did the Portuguese fend off in Guinea-Bissau?


Answer: African Party for the Independence of Guinea and Cape Verde (PAIGC)

Context: An armed rebellion beginning in 1956 by the African Party for the Independence of Guinea and Cape Verde (PAIGC) under the leadership of Amílcar Cabral gradually consolidated its hold on then Portuguese Guinea. Unlike guerrilla movements in other Portuguese colonies, the PAIGC rapidly extended its military control over large portions of the territory, aided by the jungle-like terrain, its easily reached borderlines with neighbouring allies, and large quantities of arms from Cuba, China, the Soviet Union, and left-leaning African countries. Cuba also agreed to supply artillery experts, doctors, and technicians. The PAIGC even managed to acquire a significant anti-aircraft capability in order to defend itself against aerial attack. By 1973, the PAIGC was in control of many parts of Guinea, although the movement suffered a setback in January 1973 when Cabral was assassinated.

Question: What group started an armed rebellion in Guinea-Bissau?


Answer: 1956

Question: When did the armed rebellion begin?


Answer: Amílcar Cabral

Question: Who was the leader of the armed rebellion?


Answer: Cuba

Question: Who supplied doctors and technicians to the rebels?


Answer: January 1973

Question: When was Cabral assassinated?


Answer: 24 September 1973

Context: Independence was unilaterally declared on 24 September 1973. Recognition became universal following the 25 April 1974 socialist-inspired military coup in Portugal, which overthrew Lisbon's Estado Novo regime.

Question: When was independence declared?


Answer: 25 April 1974

Question: What date was independence considered universal?


Answer: socialist-inspired military coup

Question: What event caused the recognition to be universal?


Answer: Portugal

Question: Where did a coup take place?


Answer: Lisbon's Estado Novo regime

Question: Who was overthrown in the coup?


Answer: Luís Cabral

Context: Luís Cabral, brother of Amílcar and co-founder of PAIGC, was appointed the first President of Guinea-Bissau. Following independence, the PAIGC killed thousands of local Guinean soldiers who had fought along with the Portuguese Army against guerrillas. Some escaped to settle in Portugal or other African nations. One of the massacres occurred in the town of Bissorã. In 1980 the PAIGC acknowledged in its newspaper Nó Pintcha (dated 29 November 1980) that many Gueinean soldiers had been executed and buried in unmarked collective graves in the woods of Cumerá, Portogole, and Mansabá.

Question: Who was the first President of Guinea-Bissau?


Answer: thousands

Question: How many Guinean soldiers did the PAIGC kill?


Answer: Bissorã

Question: Where did one of the massacres occur?


Answer: 29 November 1980

Question: When did the PAIGC acknowledge the executions?


Answer: Cumerá, Portogole, and Mansabá

Question: Where were the soldiers buried?


Answer: a revolutionary council

Context: The country was controlled by a revolutionary council until 1984. The first multi-party elections were held in 1994. An army uprising in May 1998 led to the Guinea-Bissau Civil War and the president's ousting in June 1999. Elections were held again in 2000, and Kumba Ialá was elected president.

Question: Who controlled the country prior to 1984?


Answer: 1994

Question: When were the first multi-party elections held?


Answer: An army uprising

Question: What led to the Guinea-Bissau Civil War?


Answer: June 1999

Question: When was the president ousted?


Answer: Kumba Ialá

Question: Who was elected president in the 2000 election?


Answer: September 2003

Context: In September 2003, a military coup was conducted. The military arrested Ialá on the charge of being "unable to solve the problems". After being delayed several times, legislative elections were held in March 2004. A mutiny of military factions in October 2004 resulted in the death of the head of the armed forces and caused widespread unrest.

Question: When was a military coup conducted?


Answer: Ialá

Question: Who did the military arrest?


Answer: March 2004

Question: When were legislative elections held?


Answer: October 2004

Question: When did the mutiny of military factions occur?


Answer: the head of the armed forces

Question: Who died in the mutiny?


Answer: June 2005

Context: In June 2005, presidential elections were held for the first time since the coup that deposed Ialá. Ialá returned as the candidate for the PRS, claiming to be the legitimate president of the country, but the election was won by former president João Bernardo Vieira, deposed in the 1999 coup. Vieira beat Malam Bacai Sanhá in a runoff election. Sanhá initially refused to concede, claiming that tampering and electoral fraud occurred in two constituencies including the capital, Bissau.

Question: After the coup, when were presidential elections held?


Answer: Ialá

Question: At that time, who ran claiming to be the legitimate president of the country?


Answer: João Bernardo Vieira

Question: Who won the election?


Answer: Malam Bacai Sanhá

Question: Who did Vieira beat in a runoff election?


Answer: 1999

Question: When was Vieira, a former president, deposed?


Answer: arms

Context: Despite reports of arms entering the country prior to the election and some "disturbances during campaigning," including attacks on government offices by unidentified gunmen, foreign election monitors described the 2005 election overall as "calm and organized".

Question: What was reported to be entering the country prior to the election?


Answer: attacks on government offices

Question: What type of "disturbances" were reported during the campaign?


Answer: "calm and organized"

Question: How did foreign election monitors describe the election?


Answer: 2005

Question: What year was the election held?


Answer: foreign

Question: Where the election monitors local, or foreign?


Answer: November 2008

Context: Three years later, PAIGC won a strong parliamentary majority, with 67 of 100 seats, in the parliamentary election held in November 2008. In November 2008, President Vieira's official residence was attacked by members of the armed forces, killing a guard but leaving the president unharmed.

Question: When was the parliamentary election held?


Answer: PAIGC

Question: Who won a strong majority in the election?


Answer: 67

Question: How many seats did PAIGC win in the election?


Answer: President Vieira's

Question: Whose residence was attacked by members of the armed forces?


Answer: November 2008

Question: When did the attack on the residence occur?


Answer: Vieira

Context: On 2 March 2009, however, Vieira was assassinated by what preliminary reports indicated to be a group of soldiers avenging the death of the head of joint chiefs of staff, General Batista Tagme Na Wai. Tagme died in an explosion on Sunday, 1 March 2009, target of an assassination. Military leaders in the country pledged to respect the constitutional order of succession. National Assembly Speaker Raimundo Pereira was appointed as an interim president until a nationwide election on 28 June 2009. It was won by Malam Bacai Sanhá.

Question: Who was assassinated on 2 March 2009?


Answer: General Batista Tagme Na Wai

Question: Who was assassinated on 1 March 2009?


Answer: Military leaders

Question: Who pledged to respect the constitutional order of succession?


Answer: Raimundo Pereira

Question: Who was appointed interim president?


Answer: Malam Bacai Sanhá

Question: Who won the election in June 2009?


Answer: 12 April 2012

Context: On the evening of 12 April 2012, members of the country's military staged a coup d'état and arrested the interim president and a leading presidential candidate. Former vice chief of staff, General Mamadu Ture Kuruma, assumed control of the country in the transitional period and started negotiations with opposition parties.

Question: When was a coup d'etat staged?


Answer: members of the country's military

Question: Who staged the coup d'etat?


Answer: Mamadu Ture Kuruma

Question: Who assumed control of the country after the coup d'etat?


Answer: opposition parties

Question: Who did Kuruma negotiate with?


Answer: vice chief of staff

Question: What was Kuruma's former position?


Answer: Guinea-Bissau

Context: Guinea-Bissau is a republic. In the past, the government had been highly centralized. Multi-party governance was not established until mid-1991. The president is the head of state and the prime minister is the head of government. Since 1974, no president has successfully served a full five-year term.

Question: What country is listed as a republic?


Answer: In the past

Question: When had the government been highly centralized?


Answer: mid-1991

Question: When was multi-party governance established?


Answer: president

Question: Who is the head of state?


Answer: prime minister

Question: Who is the head of government?


Answer: 100

Context: At the legislative level, a unicameral Assembleia Nacional Popular (National People's Assembly) is made up of 100 members. They are popularly elected from multi-member constituencies to serve a four-year term. The judicial system is headed by a Tribunal Supremo da Justiça (Supreme Court), made up of nine justices appointed by the president; they serve at the pleasure of the president.

Question: How many members compose the legislature?


Answer: unicameral

Question: Is the legislature bicameral or unicameral?


Answer: four-year term

Question: How long do members serve in the legislature?


Answer: Tribunal Supremo da Justiça (Supreme Court)

Question: What is the head of the judicial system?


Answer: nine

Question: How many justices are on the Supreme Court?


Answer: João Bernardo "Nino" Vieira

Context: João Bernardo "Nino" Vieira was elected in 2005 as President of Guinea-Bissau as an independent, being declared winner of the second round by the CNE (Comité Nacional de Eleições). Vieira returned to power in 2005 six years after being ousted from office during a civil war. Previously, he held power for 19 years after taking power in 1980 in a bloodless coup. In that action, he toppled the government of Luís Cabral.

Question: Who was elected as President in 2005?


Answer: CNE (Comité Nacional de Eleições)

Question: What body made the declaration of who won the presidency?


Answer: six years

Question: How long was it since Vieira had held the office of president?


Answer: 1980

Question: What year did Vieira first assume power?


Answer: Luís Cabral

Question: Whose government did Vieira topple in 1980?


Answer: widespread violence

Context: He was killed on 2 March 2009, possibly by soldiers in retaliation for the assassination of General Batista Tagme Na Waie, the head of the joint chiefs of staff, killed in an explosion. Vieira's death did not trigger widespread violence, but there were signs of turmoil in the country, according to the advocacy group Swisspeace. Malam Bacai Sanhá was elected after a transition. In the 2009 election to replace the assassinated Vieira, Sanhá was the presidential candidate of the PAIGC while Kumba Ialá was the presidential candidate of the PRS.

Question: What was NOT triggered by Vieira's death?


Answer: 2 March 2009

Question: When was Vieira killed?


Answer: Sanhá

Question: In the 2009 election, who was the candidate of the PAIGC?


Answer: Kumba Ialá

Question: In the 2009 election, who was the candidate of the PRS?


Answer: Sanhá

Question: Who won the 2009 election?


Answer: 2012

Context: In 2012, President Rachide Sambu-balde Malam Bacai Sanhá died. He belonged to PAIGC (African Party for the Independence of Guinea and Cape Verde), one of the two major political parties in Guinea-Bissau, along with the PRS (Party for Social Renewal). There are more than 20 minor parties.

Question: When did President Sanha die?


Answer: PAIGC (African Party for the Independence of Guinea and Cape Verde)

Question: What party did Sanha belong to?


Answer: PRS (Party for Social Renewal)

Question: Besides the PAIGC, what is the other major political party?


Answer: more than 20

Question: How many minor political parties are there?


Answer: President

Question: What office did Sanha hold in 2012?


Answer: eight

Context: Guinea-Bissau is divided into eight regions (regiões) and one autonomous sector (sector autónomo). These, in turn, are subdivided into 37 Sectors. The regions are:

Question: How many regions does Guinea-Bissau contain?


Answer: one

Question: How many autonomous sectors does Guinea-Bissau contain?


Answer: 37

Question: How many subdivided Sectors does Guinea-Bissau contain?


Answer: Senegal

Context: Guinea-Bissau is bordered by Senegal to the north and Guinea to the south and east, with the Atlantic Ocean to its west. It lies mostly between latitudes 11° and 13°N (a small area is south of 11°), and longitudes 13° and 17°W.

Question: What country is on the north border of Guinea-Bissau?


Answer: Guinea

Question: What country is on the south border of Guinea-Bissau?


Answer: Atlantic Ocean

Question: What is to the west of Guinea-Bissau?


Answer: 11° and 13°N

Question: What latitudes does Guinea-Bissau mostly lie between?


Answer: 13° and 17°W

Question: What longitudes does Guinea-Bissau mostly lie between?


Answer: Taiwan or Belgium

Context: At 36,125 square kilometres (13,948 sq mi), the country is larger in size than Taiwan or Belgium. It lies at a low altitude; its highest point is 300 metres (984 ft). The terrain of is mostly low coastal plain with swamps of Guinean mangroves rising to Guinean forest-savanna mosaic in the east. Its monsoon-like rainy season alternates with periods of hot, dry harmattan winds blowing from the Sahara. The Bijagos Archipelago lies off of the mainland.

Question: Guinea-Bissau is larger than what two countries?


Answer: 300 metres (984 ft)

Question: How high is the highest point in Guinea-Bissau?


Answer: Bijagos

Question: What archipelago lies off the mainland?


Answer: 36,125

Question: How many square kilometers is Guinea-Bissau?


Answer: the Sahara

Question: Where does Guinea-Bissau get its hot dry winds from?


Answer: 2,024

Context: Guinea-Bissau is warm all year around and there is little temperature fluctuation; it averages 26.3 °C (79.3 °F). The average rainfall for Bissau is 2,024 millimetres (79.7 in) although this is almost entirely accounted for during the rainy season which falls between June and September/October. From December through April, the country experiences drought.

Question: What is the average rainfall in Bissau, in millimetres?


Answer: between June and September/October

Question: When is the rainy season in Guinea-Bissau?


Answer: drought

Question: What does the country experience from December through April?


Answer: all year around

Question: When is Guinea-Bissau warm?


Answer: 26.3 °C (79.3 °F)

Question: What is the average temperature in Guinea-Bissau?


Answer: More than two-thirds

Context: Guinea-Bissau's GDP per capita is one of the lowest in the world, and its Human Development Index is one of the lowest on earth. More than two-thirds of the population lives below the poverty line. The economy depends mainly on agriculture; fish, cashew nuts and ground nuts are its major exports.

Question: How much of the population lives below the poverty line?


Answer: fish, cashew nuts and ground nuts

Question: What are Guinea-Bissau's major exports?


Answer: GDP

Question: What per capita index does Guinea-Bissau rank as one of the lowest in the world?


Answer: Human Development Index

Question: For what index does Guinea-Bissau rank as one of the lowest on earth?


Answer: The economy

Question: What area depends on agriculture in Guinea-Bissau?


Answer: depressed

Context: A long period of political instability has resulted in depressed economic activity, deteriorating social conditions, and increased macroeconomic imbalances. It takes longer on average to register a new business in Guinea-Bissau (233 days or about 33 weeks) than in any other country in the world except Suriname. [The Economist, Pocket World in Figures, 2008 Edition, London: Profile Books]

Question: Political instability has resulted in what type of economic activity?


Answer: deteriorating

Question: Political instability has resulted in what description of social conditions?


Answer: macroeconomic

Question: What type of imbalances have increased as a result of the instability?


Answer: 233 days or about 33 weeks

Question: How long does it take to register a business in Guinea-Bissau?


Answer: Suriname

Question: What is the one country that takes longer than Guinea-Bissau to register a business?


Answer: a pact of stability

Context: Guinea-Bissau has started to show some economic advances after a pact of stability was signed by the main political parties of the country, leading to an IMF-backed structural reform program. The key challenges for the country in the period ahead are to achieve fiscal discipline, rebuild public administration, improve the economic climate for private investment, and promote economic diversification. After the country became independent from Portugal in 1974 due to the Portuguese Colonial War and the Carnation Revolution, the rapid exodus of the Portuguese civilian, military, and political authorities resulted in considerable damage to the country's economic infrastructure, social order, and standard of living.

Question: What did the main political parties sign to help the economy?


Answer: IMF

Question: What organization backed a structural reform program?


Answer: 1974

Question: When did Guinea-Bissau become independent?


Answer: Portugal

Question: What country left Guinea-Bissau in 1974?


Answer: the Portuguese Colonial War and the Carnation Revolution

Question: What happened in Portugal that contributed to Guinea-Bissau's independence?


Answer: 1997

Context: After several years of economic downturn and political instability, in 1997, Guinea-Bissau entered the CFA franc monetary system, bringing about some internal monetary stability. The civil war that took place in 1998 and 1999, and a military coup in September 2003 again disrupted economic activity, leaving a substantial part of the economic and social infrastructure in ruins and intensifying the already widespread poverty. Following the parliamentary elections in March 2004 and presidential elections in July 2005, the country is trying to recover from the long period of instability, despite a still-fragile political situation.

Question: In what year did Guinea-Bissau start to bring some internal monetary stability to the country?


Answer: entered the CFA franc monetary system

Question: What did the government do in 1997 to increase monetary stability?


Answer: 1998 and 1999

Question: What years did the civil war take place?


Answer: September 2003

Question: When was there a military coup in Guinea-Bissau?


Answer: March 2004

Question: When were parliamentary elections held?


Answer: 2005

Context: Beginning around 2005, drug traffickers based in Latin America began to use Guinea-Bissau, along with several neighboring West African nations, as a transshipment point to Europe for cocaine. The nation was described by a United Nations official as being at risk for becoming a "narco-state". The government and the military have done little to stop drug trafficking, which increased after the 2012 coup d'état.

Question: When did drug traffickers begin to use Guinea-Bissau?


Answer: Latin America

Question: Where did the drug traffickers come from?


Answer: Europe

Question: What was the final destination of the drugs going through Guinea-Bissau?


Answer: a United Nations official

Question: Who described Guinea-Bissau as being at risk for becoming a "narco-state"?


Answer: The government and the military

Question: Who has done little to stop drug trafficking in the country?


Answer: 518,000

Context: According to the 2010 revison of the UN World Population Prospects, Guinea-Bissau's population was 1,515,000 in 2010, compared to 518,000 in 1950. The proportion of the population below the age of 15 in 2010 was 41.3%, 55.4% were aged between 15 and 65 years of age, while 3.3% were aged 65 years or older.

Question: What was the population of Guinea-Bissau in 1950?


Answer: 1,515,000

Question: What was the population of Guinea-Bissau in 2010?


Answer: the 2010 revison of the UN World Population Prospects

Question: What is the source of the population data?


Answer: 41.3%

Question: What percentage of the population was below the age of 15?


Answer: 3.3%

Question: What percentage of the population was 65 or older?


Answer: Portuguese

Context: Portuguese natives comprise a very small percentage of Guinea-Bissauans. After Guinea-Bissau gained independence, most of the Portuguese nationals left the country. The country has a tiny Chinese population. These include traders and merchants of mixed Portuguese and Chinese ancestry from Macau, a former Asian Portuguese colony.

Question: What natives comprise a very small percentage of the population?


Answer: Portuguese nationals

Question: Who left the country after Guinea-Bissau gained independence?


Answer: Chinese

Question: What ethnic group has a tiny population in Guinea-Bissau?


Answer: Macau

Question: What is the name of a former Asian Portuguese colony?


Answer: mixed Portuguese and Chinese ancestry

Question: What is the ancestry of the Chinese population in Guinea-Bissau?


Answer: 44%

Context: 14% of the population speaks the official language Portuguese, the language of government and national communication during centuries of colonial rule. 44% speak Kriol, a Portuguese-based creole language, which is effectively a national language of communication among groups. The remainder speak a variety of native African languages unique to ethnicities.

Question: What percentage of the population speaks Kriol?


Answer: Portuguese

Question: What is the official language of Guinea-Bissau?


Answer: centuries

Question: How long was Guinea-Bissau under colonial rule?


Answer: a Portuguese-based creole language

Question: What type of language is Kriol?


Answer: Kriol

Context: Most Portuguese and Mestiços speak one of the African languages and Kriol as second languages. French is also taught in schools because Guinea-Bissau is surrounded by French-speaking nations. Guinea-Bissau is a full member of the Francophonie.

Question: What is the second language for most Portuguese in Guinea-Bissau?


Answer: Guinea-Bissau is surrounded by French-speaking nations.

Question: Why is French taught in school?


Answer: the Francophonie

Question: What is Guinea-Bissau a full member of?


Answer: Most Portuguese and Mestiços

Question: Who speaks both African languages and Kriol?


Answer: Animism.

Context: Throughout the 20th century, most Bissau-Guineans practiced some form of Animism. In the early 21st century, many have adopted Islam, which is now practiced by 50% of the country's population. Most of Guinea-Bissau's Muslims are of the Sunni denomination with approximately 2% belonging to the Ahmadiyya sect.

Question: In the 20th century most people practiced some form of what faith?


Answer: Islam

Question: What religion was adopted by the population in the early 21st century?


Answer: 50%

Question: What percentage of the population now practices Islam?


Answer: Sunni

Question: What denomination are the majority of Guinea-Bissau's muslims?


Answer: Ahmadiyya

Question: What sect does 2% of the population belong to?


Answer: Approximately 10%

Context: Approximately 10% of the country's population belong to the Christian community, and 40% continue to hold Indigenous beliefs. These statistics can be misleading, however, as many residents practice syncretic forms of Islamic and Christian faiths, combining their practices with traditional African beliefs.

Question: What percentage of the population is Christian?


Answer: 40%

Question: What percentage of the population continues to hold indigenous beliefs?


Answer: syncretic

Question: What forms of Islamic and Christian faiths do many residents practice?


Answer: traditional African beliefs

Question: What do many residents combine with Islamic and Christian practices?


Answer: HIV

Context: The prevalence of HIV-infection among the adult population is 1.8%. Only 20% of infected pregnant women receive anti retroviral coverage to prevent transmission to newborns.

Question: What infection has a very small prevalence in Guinea-Bissau?


Answer: 1.8%

Question: What percentage of the adult population has an HIV-infection?


Answer: 20%

Question: How many HIV-infected pregnant women receive retroviral coverage?


Answer: transmission to newborns

Question: What does retroviral coverage help prevent?


Answer: infected pregnant women

Question: Who receives retroviral coverage?


Answer: Malaria

Context: Malaria kills more residents; 9% of the population have reported infection, It causes three times as many deaths as AIDS. In 2008, fewer than half of children younger than five slept under antimalaria nets or had access to antimalarial drugs.

Question: What kills more residents than AIDS?


Answer: 9%

Question: What percentage of the population has Malaria?


Answer: three times as many

Question: How many more deaths does malaria cause vs. AIDS?


Answer: fewer than half

Question: How many children under five slept under antimalaria nets in 2008?


Answer: antimalarial

Question: What type of drugs did many young children not have access to in 2008?


Answer: cholera

Context: Despite lowering rates in surrounding countries, cholera rates were reported in November 2012 to be on the rise, with 1,500 cases reported and nine deaths. A 2008 cholera epidemic in Guinea-Bissau affected 14,222 people and killed 225.

Question: What type of disease was reported to be on the rise in Guinea-Bissau?


Answer: nine

Question: How many died from cholera in a November 2012 report?


Answer: 225

Question: How many died from cholera in a 2008 epidemic?


Answer: surrounding countries

Question: Where are there reported cholera rates that are lowering?


Answer: 14,222

Question: How many people were affected by the 2008 cholera epidemic?


Answer: 1000

Context: The 2010 maternal mortality rate per 100,000 births for Guinea Bissau was 1000. This compares with 804.3 in 2008 and 966 in 1990. The under 5 mortality rate, per 1,000 births, was 195 and the neonatal mortality as a percentage of under 5's mortality was 24. The number of midwives per 1,000 live births was 3; one out of eighteen pregnant women die as a result of pregnancy. According to a 2013 UNICEF report, 50% of women in Guinea Bissau had undergone female genital mutilation. In 2010, Guinea Bissau had the 7th highest maternal mortality rate in the world.

Question: What was the 2010 maternal mortality rate per 100,000 births?


Answer: 966

Question: What was the 1990 maternal mortality rate per 100,000 births?


Answer: 3

Question: How many midwives are listed per 1,000 live births?


Answer: one out of eighteen

Question: How many pregnant women die as a result of pregnancy?


Answer: 50%

Question: According to UNICEF, what percentage of women in Guinea-Bissau had undergone female genital mutilation?


Answer: 7 to 13

Context: Education is compulsory from the age of 7 to 13. The enrollment of boys is higher than that of girls. In 1998, the gross primary enrollment rate was 53.5%, with higher enrollment ratio for males (67.7%) compared to females (40%).

Question: What are the ages when education is compulsory?


Answer: boys

Question: What gender has a higher enrollment?


Answer: 53.5%

Question: What was the gross primary enrollment rate in 1998?


Answer: 67.7%

Question: What was the gross primary enrollment rate for males?


Answer: 40%

Question: What was the gross primary enrollment rate for females?


Answer: general as well as technical

Context: Guinea-Bissau has several secondary schools (general as well as technical) and a number of universities, to which an institutionally autonomous Faculty of Law as well as a Faculty of Medicine have been added.

Question: What type of secondary schools does Guinea-Bissau have?


Answer: universities

Question: What institutions have added a Faculty of Law?


Answer: universities

Question: What institutions have added a Faculty of Medicine?


Answer: institutionally autonomous

Question: What two words are used to describe the Faculty of Law and Faculty of Medicine?


Answer: gumbe

Context: The music of Guinea-Bissau is usually associated with the polyrhythmic gumbe genre, the country's primary musical export. However, civil unrest and other factors have combined over the years to keep gumbe, and other genres, out of mainstream audiences, even in generally syncretist African countries.

Question: What music genre is usually associated with Guinea-Bissau?


Answer: the polyrhythmic gumbe genre

Question: What is considered the country's primary musical export?


Answer: civil unrest

Question: What major factor has kept gumbe out of mainstream audiences?


Answer: generally syncretist African countries

Question: What other type of countries has gumbe been kept out of?


Answer: The calabash

Context: The calabash is the primary musical instrument of Guinea-Bissau, and is used in extremely swift and rhythmically complex dance music. Lyrics are almost always in Guinea-Bissau Creole, a Portuguese-based creole language, and are often humorous and topical, revolving around current events and controversies, especially AIDS.

Question: What is the primary instrument of Guinea-Bissau?


Answer: extremely swift and rhythmically complex dance music

Question: What type of music is the calabash used in?


Answer: Guinea-Bissau Creole

Question: What language are lyrics typically sung in?


Answer: current events and controversies

Question: What do typical song lyrics revolve around?


Answer: AIDS

Question: What is the main controversy found in song lyrics?


Answer: gumbe

Context: The word gumbe is sometimes used generically, to refer to any music of the country, although it most specifically refers to a unique style that fuses about ten of the country's folk music traditions. Tina and tinga are other popular genres, while extent folk traditions include ceremonial music used in funerals, initiations and other rituals, as well as Balanta brosca and kussundé, Mandinga djambadon, and the kundere sound of the Bissagos Islands.

Question: What is sometimes used as a generic word for any music of Guinea-Bissau?


Answer: about ten

Question: Gumbe fuses how many of the country's folk music traditions?


Answer: Tina and tinga

Question: Other than gumbe, what are two popular music genres?


Answer: kundere

Question: What sound comes from the Bissagos Islands?


Answer: folk

Question: What type of tradition includes ceremonial music used in funerals?


Answer: Rice

Context: Rice is a staple in the diet of residents near the coast and millet a staple in the interior. Fish, shellfish, fruits and vegetables are commonly eaten along with cereal grains, milk, curd and whey. The Portuguese encouraged peanut production. Vigna subterranea (Bambara groundnut) and Macrotyloma geocarpum (Hausa groundnut) are also grown. Black-eyed peas are also part of the diet. Palm oil is harvested.

Question: What grain is a staple for residents near the coast of Guinea-Bissau?


Answer: millet

Question: What grain is a staple for residents in the interior of Guinea-Bissau?


Answer: The Portuguese

Question: Who encouraged peanut production in Guinea-Bissau?


Answer: Palm

Question: What type of oil is harvested?


Answer: Black-eyed peas

Question: What kind of pea is part of the diet in Guinea-Bissau?


Answer: soups and stews

Context: Common dishes include soups and stews. Common ingredients include yams, sweet potato, cassava, onion, tomato and plantain. Spices, peppers and chilis are used in cooking, including Aframomum melegueta seeds (Guinea pepper).

Question: What are common dishes in Guinea-Bissau?


Answer: yams, sweet potato, cassava, onion, tomato and plantain

Question: What are common ingredients in Guinea-Bissau?


Answer: cooking

Question: What are spices, peppers and chilis used in?


Answer: Aframomum melegueta seeds

Question: What is another name for Guinea pepper?


Answer: cooking

Question: What are Guinea peppers used in?


Answer: Flora Gomes

Context: Flora Gomes is an internationally renowned film director; his most famous film is Nha Fala (English: My Voice). Gomes's Mortu Nega (Death Denied) (1988) was the first fiction film and the second feature film ever made in Guinea-Bissau. (The first feature film was N’tturudu, by director Umban u’Kest in 1987.) At FESPACO 1989, Mortu Nega won the prestigious Oumarou Ganda Prize. Mortu Nega is in Creole with English subtitles. In 1992, Gomes directed Udju Azul di Yonta, which was screened in the Un Certain Regard section at the 1992 Cannes Film Festival. Gomes has also served on the boards of many Africa-centric film festivals.

Question: Who is an internationally renowned film director from Guinea-Bissau?


Answer: Nha Fala (English: My Voice)

Question: What is Flora Gomes' most famous film?


Answer: 1987

Question: What year was the first feature film made in Guinea-Bissau?


Answer: Umban u’Kest

Question: Who directed the first feature film in Guinea-Bissau?


Answer: Oumarou Ganda Prize

Question: What prize did the film Mortu Nega win?


Answer: Hudson River

Context: This article covers numbered east-west streets in Manhattan, New York City. Major streets have their own linked articles; minor streets are discussed here. The streets do not run exactly east–west, because the grid plan is aligned with the Hudson River rather than with the cardinal directions. "West" is approximately 29 degrees north of true west.

Question: What is the grid plan aligned with rather than the cardinal directions?


Answer: 29

Question: In this article, how many degrees north of true west is "West?"


Answer: east-west

Question: Does this article cover east-west or north-south streets?


Answer: Major streets

Question: Which streets have their own linked articles?


Answer: even-numbered

Context: The numbered streets carry crosstown traffic. In general, even-numbered streets are one-way eastbound and odd-numbered streets are one-way west. Several exceptions reverse this. Most wider streets carry two-way traffic, as do a few of the narrow ones.

Question: Which streets are one-way eastbound?


Answer: west

Question: Odd-numbered streets are one-way in which direction?


Answer: two-way

Question: Do most wide streets carry one-way or two-way traffic?


Answer: Streets' names change

Context: Streets' names change from West to East (for instance, East 10th Street to West 10th Street) at Broadway below 8th Street, and at Fifth Avenue from 8th Street and above.

Question: What happens at Broadway below 8th Street?


Answer: Streets' names change

Question: What happens at Fifth Avenue from 8th street and above?


Answer: West to East

Question: Do streets' names change from West to East or North to South?


Answer: 14th Street north

Context: Although the numbered streets begin just north of East Houston Street in the East Village, they generally do not extend west into Greenwich Village, which already had streets when the grid plan was laid out by the Commissioners' Plan of 1811. Streets that do continue farther west change direction before reaching the Hudson River. The grid covers the length of the island from 14th Street north.

Question: The grid covers the length of the island from what starting point?


Answer: East Houston Street

Question: Which street do numbered streets begin just north of?


Answer: East Village

Question: In what village is East Houston Street located?


Answer: Greenwich Village

Question: Which Village already had streets when the grid plan was laid out?


Answer: Commissioners' Plan of 1811

Question: Who laid out the Grid Plan?


Answer: 220th Street

Context: 220th Street is the highest numbered street on Manhattan Island. Marble Hill is also within the borough of Manhattan, so the highest street number in the borough is 228th Street. However, the numbering continues in the Bronx up to 263rd Street. The lowest number is East First Street—which runs in Alphabet City near East Houston Street—as well as First Place in Battery Park City.

Question: What is the highest numbered street on Manhattan Island?


Answer: 228

Question: What is the highest street number within the borough of Manhattan?


Answer: 263

Question: What is the highest street number in the Bronx?


Answer: Battery Park City

Question: Where is First Place located?


Answer: Alphabet City

Question: Where is East First Street located?


Answer: Peretz Square

Context: East 1st Street begins just North of East Houston Street at Avenue A and continues to Bowery. Peretz Square, a small triangular sliver park where Houston Street, First Street and First Avenue meet marks the spot where the grid takes hold.

Question: What is the spot where the grid takes hold called?


Answer: triangular

Question: What shape is the sliver park where Houston Street, First Street, and First Avenue meet?


Answer: East 1st Street

Question: Which street begins just North of East Houston Street at Avenue A?


Answer: Bowery

Question: East 1st Street begins just North of East Houston Street at Avenue A and continues to where?


Answer: FDR

Context: East 2nd Street begins just North of East Houston Street at Avenue C and also continues to Bowery. The East end of East 3rd, 4th, 5th, and 7th Streets is Avenue D, with East 6th Street continuing further Eastward and connecting to FDR Drive.

Question: East 6th Street continues further Eastward and connects to which Drive?


Answer: Avenue D

Question: Where is the East end of East 3rd, 4th, 5th, and 7th Streets?


Answer: C

Question: Which Avenue is the starting location for East 2nd Street?


Answer: East 2nd Street

Question: Which street begins just North of East Huston Street and continues to Bowery?


Answer: Amity Place

Context: The west end of these streets is Bowery and Third Avenue, except for 3rd Street (formerly Amity Place; to Sixth Avenue) and 4th Street (to 13th Street), which extend west and north, respectively, into Greenwich Village. Great Jones Street connects East 3rd to West 3rd.

Question: What name did 3rd Street previously hold?


Answer: Greenwich

Question: Which village do 3rd and 4th Street extend into?


Answer: Great Jones

Question: Which street connects East 3rd to West 3rd?


Answer: Bowery

Question: The west end of these streets is Third Avenue and where?


Answer: Village View

Context: East 5th Street goes west to Cooper Square, but is interrupted between Avenues B and C by The Earth School, Public School 364, and between First Avenue and Avenue A by the Village View Apartments.

Question: Which Apartments interrupt East 5th Street between First Avenue and Avenue A?


Answer: 364

Question: What is the Public School number that interrupts East 5th Street?


Answer: The Earth School

Question: Which school interrupts East 5th Street?


Answer: Cooper Square

Question: East 5th Street goes west to what stopping point?


Answer: shopping

Context: 8th and 9th Streets run parallel to each other, beginning at Avenue D, interrupted by Tompkins Square Park at Avenue B, resuming at Avenue A and continuing to Sixth Avenue. West 8th Street is an important local shopping street. 8th Street between Avenue A and Third Avenue is called St Mark's Place, but it is counted in the length below.

Question: West 8th Street is an important local street for what activity?


Answer: St Mark's Place

Question: 8th Street between Avenue A and Third Avenue is called what?


Answer: Avenue D

Question: Where do 8th and 9th Streets begin?


Answer: Sixth Avenue

Question: Where do 8th and 9th Streets end?


Answer: Tompkins Square Park

Question: Which park interrupts 8th and 9th Street at Avenue B?


Answer: M8

Context: 10th Street (40°44′03″N 74°00′11″W / 40.7342580°N 74.0029670°W / 40.7342580; -74.0029670) begins at the FDR Drive and Avenue C. West of Sixth Avenue, it turns southward about 40 degrees to join the Greenwich Village street grid and continue to West Street on the Hudson River. Because West 4th Street turns northward at Sixth Avenue, it intersects 10th, 11th and 12th and 13th Streets in the West Village. The M8 bus operates on 10th Street in both directions between Avenue D and Avenue A, and eastbound between West Street and Sixth Avenue. 10th Street has an eastbound bike lane from West Street to the East River. In 2009, the two-way section of 10th Street between Avenue A and the East River had bicycle markings and sharrows installed, but it still has no dedicated bike lane. West 10th Street was previously named Amos Street for Richard Amos. The end of West 10th Street toward the Hudson River was once the home of Newgate Prison, New York City's first prison and the United States' second.

Question: Which bus operates on 10th Street between Avenues D and A and between West Street and Sixth Ave?


Answer: no

Question: Does the two-way section of 10th Street have a dedicated bike lane?


Answer: West 10th Street

Question: The end of what road was once home to Newgate Prison?


Answer: Newgate Prison

Question: Which prison was New York City's first?


Answer: Newgate Prison

Question: What was the name of the United States' second prison?


Answer: West 11th Street

Context: 11th Street is in two parts. It is interrupted by the block containing Grace Church between Broadway and Fourth Avenue. East 11th streets runs from Fourth Avenue to Avenue C and runs past Webster Hall. West 11th Street runs from Broadway to West Street. 11th Street and 6th Avenue was the location of the Old Grapevine tavern from the 1700s to its demolition in the early 20th century.

Question: Which street runs from Broadway to West Street?


Answer: early 20th century

Question: When was the Old Grapevine tavern demolished?


Answer: Old Grapevine

Question: 11th Street and 6th Avenue was the home of what tavern from the 1700s?


Answer: Grace Church

Question: What church interuppts 11th Street between Broadway and Fourth Avenue?


Answer: three

Context: 13th Street is in three parts. The first is a dead end from Avenue C. The second starts at a dead end, just before Avenue B, and runs to Greenwich Avenue, and the third part is from Eighth Avenue to Tenth Avenue.

Question: 13th Street is divided into how many parts?


Answer: C

Question: The first part of 13th Street is a dead end from which Avenue?


Answer: Greenwich Avenue

Question: Where does the second part of 13th Street end?


Answer: 13th Street

Question: Which street has its third section between Eighth Avenue and Tenth Avenue?


Answer: Avenue C

Context: 14th Street is a main numbered street in Manhattan. It begins at Avenue C and ends at West Street. Its length is 3.4 km (2.1 mi). It has six subway stations:

Question: Where does 14th Street begin?


Answer: West Street

Question: Where does 14th Street end?


Answer: six

Question: How many subway stations are on 14th Street?


Answer: 2.1

Question: What is the length of 14th Street in miles?


Answer: FDR Drive

Context: 15th Street starts at FDR Drive, and 16th Street starts at a dead end half way between FDR Drive and Avenue C. They are both stopped at Avenue C and continue from First Avenue to West Street, stopped again at Union Square, and 16th Street also pauses at Stuyvesant Square.

Question: Where does 15th Street start?


Answer: 16th Street

Question: Which road starts at a dead end half way between FDR Drive and Avenue C?


Answer: Stuyvesant

Question: 16th Street pauses at which Square?


Answer: Union Square

Question: Which Square stops both 15th and 16th Streets?


Answer: runs in both directions

Context: On 17th Street (40°44′08″N 73°59′12″W / 40.735532°N 73.986575°W / 40.735532; -73.986575), traffic runs one way along the street, from east to west excepting the stretch between Broadway and Park Avenue South, where traffic runs in both directions. It forms the northern borders of both Union Square (between Broadway and Park Avenue South) and Stuyvesant Square. Composer Antonín Dvořák's New York home was located at 327 East 17th Street, near Perlman Place. The house was razed by Beth Israel Medical Center after it received approval of a 1991 application to demolish the house and replace it with an AIDS hospice. Time Magazine was started at 141 East 17th Street.

Question: What is unusual about the traffic between Broadway and Park Avenue South on 17th Street?


Answer: one way

Question: Does traffic on 17th Street generally run one way or two ways?


Answer: Composer

Question: What was the job of the person who lived at 327 East 17th Street?


Answer: 141 East 17th Street

Question: Where was Time Magazine started?


Answer: AIDS hospice

Question: What was Antonin Dvorak's New York home replaced with after it was demolished?


Answer: subway station

Context: 18th Street has a local subway station at the crossing with Seventh Avenue, served by the 1 2 trains on the IRT Broadway – Seventh Avenue Line. There used to be an 18th Street station on the IRT Lexington Avenue Line at the crossing with Park Avenue South.

Question: What is at the crossing of 18th Street and Seventh Avenue?


Answer: IRT Broadway – Seventh Avenue Line

Question: Which train line do the 1 2 trains serve?


Answer: IRT Lexington Avenue Line

Question: Which train line used to have an 18th Street Station at the crossing with Park Avenue South?


Answer: Avenue C

Context: 20th Street starts at Avenue C, and 21st and 22nd Streets begin at First Avenue. They all end at Eleventh Avenue. Travel on the last block of the 20th, 21st and 22nd Streets, between Tenth and Eleventh Avenues, is in the opposite direction than it is on the rest of the respective street. 20th Street is very wide from the Avenue C to First Avenue.

Question: Where does 10th Street start?


Answer: First

Question: At which Avenue do 21st and 22nd Streets begin?


Answer: very wide

Question: What is different about 20th Street between Avenue C and First Avenue?