Answer: 2004

Context: Beginning in 2004 former Technikons have either been merged with traditional Universities to form Comprehensive Universities or have become Universities of Technology, however the Universities of Technology have not to date acquired all of the traditional rights and privileges of a University (such as the ability to confer a wide range of degrees).

Question: When did Technikons start being integrated with traditional South African universities?


Answer: technical colleges

Context: Most of Thailand's institutes of technology were developed from technical colleges, in the past could not grant bachelor's degrees; today, however, they are university level institutions, some of which can grant degrees to the doctoral level. Examples are Pathumwan Institute of Technology (developed from Pathumwan Technical School), King Mongkut's Institute of Technology Ladkrabang (Nondhaburi Telecommunications Training Centre), and King Mongkut's Institute of Technology North Bangkok (Thai-German Technical School).

Question: Most institutes of technology in Thailand were born out of what other type of institutions?


Answer: bachelor's degrees

Question: What type of degree were Thailand's technical colleges historically not allowed to confer?


Answer: Pathumwan Institute of Technology

Question: What's the new name of Pathumwan Technical School?


Answer: King Mongkut's University of Technology Thonburi

Context: There are two former institutes of technology, which already changed their name to "University of Technology": Rajamangala University of Technology (formerly Institute of Technology and Vocational Education) and King Mongkut's University of Technology Thonburi (Thonburi Technology Institute).

Question: What did the Thonburi Technology Institute become after its name change?


Answer: Institute of Technology and Vocational Education

Question: What was the previous name of Rajamangala University of Technology?


Answer: Sirindhorn International Institute of Technology

Context: Institutes of technology with different origins are Asian Institute of Technology, which developed from SEATO Graduate School of Engineering, and Sirindhorn International Institute of Technology, an engineering school of Thammasat University. Suranaree University of Technology is the only government-owned technological university in Thailand that was established (1989) as such; while Mahanakorn University of Technology is the most well known private technological institute. Technology/Technical colleges in Thailand is associated with bitter rivalries which erupts into frequent off-campus brawls and assassinations of students in public locations that has been going on for nearly a decade, with innocent bystanders also commonly among the injured and the military under martial law still unable to stop them from occurring.

Question: What is the name of Thammasat University's engineering school?


Answer: Suranaree University of Technology

Question: What is Thailand's only government-established and owned institute of technology?


Answer: 1989

Question: What year was Suranaree University of Technology founded?


Answer: Mahanakorn University of Technology

Question: What is the name of the best-known private institute of technology in Thailand?


Answer: Bursa Technical University

Context: In Turkey and the Ottoman Empire, the oldest technical university is Istanbul Technical University. Its graduates contributed to a wide variety of activities in scientific research and development. In 1950s, 2 technical universities were opened in Ankara and Trabzon. In recent years, Yildiz University is reorganized as Yildiz Technical University and 2 institutes of technology were founded in Kocaeli and Izmir. In 2010, another technical university named Bursa Technical University was founded in Bursa. Moreover, a sixth technical university is about to be opened in Konya named Konya Technical University.

Question: What institute of technology opened in Bursa in 2010?


Answer: six

Question: When Konya Technical University opens, how many total institutes of technology will there be in Turkey and the Ottoman Empire?


Answer: Ankara and Trabzon

Question: What two cities in Turkey acquired institutes of technology in the 1950s?


Answer: 1970

Context: Polytechnics were tertiary education teaching institutions in England, Wales and Northern Ireland. Since 1970 UK Polytechnics operated under the binary system of education along with universities. Polytechnics offered diplomas and degrees (bachelor's, master's, PhD) validated at the national level by the UK Council for National Academic Awards CNAA. They particularly excelled in engineering and applied science degree courses similar to technological universities in the USA and continental Europe. The comparable institutions in Scotland were collectively referred to as Central Institutions. Britain's first Polytechnic, the Royal Polytechnic Institution later known as the Polytechnic of Central London (now the University of Westminster) was established in 1838 at Regent Street in London and its goal was to educate and popularize engineering and scientific knowledge and inventions in Victorian Britain "at little expense." The London Polytechnic led a mass movement to create numerous Polytechnic institutes across the UK in the late 19th Century. Most Polytechnic institutes were established at the centre of major metropolitan cities and their focus was on engineering, applied science and technology education.

Question: What year did UK polytechnics start functioning in a binary education system?


Answer: the UK Council for National Academic Awards

Question: What organization validates degrees received from polytechnic schools?


Answer: Central Institutions

Question: What two-word term does Scotland use to describe their technological universities?


Answer: Royal Polytechnic Institution

Question: What was the first polytechnic in Britain originally named?


Answer: two

Context: In 1956, some colleges of technology received the designation College of Advanced Technology. They became universities in the 1960s meaning they could award their own degrees. The designation "Institute of Technology" was occasionally used by polytechnics (Bolton), Central Institutions (Dundee, Robert Gordon's), and postgraduate universities, (Cranfield and Wessex), most of which later adopted the designation University, and there were two "Institutes of Science and Technology": UMIST and UWIST, part of the University of Wales. Loughborough University was called Loughborough University of Technology from 1966 to 1996, the only institution in the UK to have had such a designation.

Question: How many Institutes of Science and Technology were affiliated with the University of Wales?


Answer: Loughborough University of Technology

Question: What was the name Loughborough University was known by from 1966 to 1996?


Answer: 1960s

Question: In what decade did colleges of technology gain the University designation?


Answer: the Further and Higher Education Act 1992

Context: Polytechnics were granted university status under the Further and Higher Education Act 1992. This meant that Polytechnics could confer degrees without the oversight of the national CNAA organization. These institutions are sometimes referred to as post-1992 universities.

Question: What act allowed polytechnic schools to become universities?


Answer: CNAA

Question: The Further and Higher Education Act 1992 allows polytechnics to award degrees without what organization's approval?


Answer: university colleges

Context: Schools called "technical institute" or "technical school" that were formed in the early 20th century provided further education between high school and University or Polytechnic. Most technical institutes have been merged into regional colleges and some have been designated university colleges if they are associated with a local university.

Question: If a technical institute is affiliated with a local university, what does its designation become?


Answer: 20th century

Question: What century brought the advent of technical schools or technical institutes?


Answer: high school

Question: A student would attend a technical institute before a university or polytechnic but after what?


Answer: 1824

Context: Polytechnic Institutes are technological universities, many dating back to the mid-19th century. A handful of world-renowned Elite American universities include the phrases "Institute of Technology", "Polytechnic Institute", "Polytechnic University", or similar phrasing in their names; these are generally research-intensive universities with a focus on engineering, science and technology. The earliest and most famous of these institutions are, respectively, Rensselaer Polytechnic Institute (RPI, 1824), New York University Tandon School of Engineering (1854) and the Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT, 1861). Conversely, schools dubbed "technical colleges" or "technical institutes" generally provide post-secondary training in technical and mechanical fields, focusing on training vocational skills primarily at a community college level—parallel and sometimes equivalent to the first two years at a bachelor's degree-granting institution.

Question: In what year was Rensselaer Polytechnic Institute founded?


Answer: Massachusetts Institute of Technology

Question: Which of the three earliest technological universities was founded most recently, in 1861?


Answer: middle class

Context: Institutes of technology in Venezuela were developed in the 1950s as an option for post-secondary education in technical and scientific courses, after the polytechnic French concepts. At that time, technical education was considered essential for the development of a sound middle class economy.

Question: What type of economy was technical education in Venezuela intended to support?


Answer: 1950s

Question: When did Venezuela begin to create institutes of technology?


Answer: Caracas

Context: Most of these institutes award diplomas after three or three and a half years of education. The Institute of technology implementation (IUT from Instituto universitario de tecnologia on Spanish) began with the creation of the first IUT at Caracas, capital city of Venezuela, called IUT. Dr. Federico Rivero Palacio adopted the French "Institut Universitaire de Technologie"s system, using French personnel and study system based on three-year periods, with research and engineering facilities at the same level as the main national universities to obtain French equivalent degrees. This IUT is the first and only one in Venezuela having French equivalent degrees accepted, implementing this system and observing the high-level degrees some other IUT's were created in Venezuela, regardless of this the term IUT was not used appropriately resulting in some institutions with mediocre quality and no equivalent degree in France. Later, some private institutions sprang up using IUT in their names, but they are not regulated by the original French system and award lower quality degrees.

Question: What city in Venezuela had the first IUT?


Answer: Dr. Federico Rivero Palacio

Question: Who pioneered using the French system of technological education?


Answer: World Wide Web

Context: The Wayback Machine is a digital archive of the World Wide Web and other information on the Internet created by the Internet Archive, a nonprofit organization, based in San Francisco, California, United States. It was set up by Brewster Kahle and Bruce Gilliat, and is maintained with content from Alexa Internet. The service enables users to see archived versions of web pages across time, which the archive calls a "three dimensional index."

Question: Where does the information stored on the Wayback Machine come from?


Answer: Internet Archive

Question: Which company made the Wayback Machine?


Answer: San Francisco

Question: Where is Internet Archive headquartered?


Answer: Brewster Kahle and Bruce Gilliat

Question: What individuals founded Internet Archive?


Answer: three dimensional index

Question: What is the term used by Internet Archive to describe the Wayback Machine?


Answer: Linux

Context: Since 1996, they have been archiving cached pages of web sites onto their large cluster of Linux nodes. They revisit sites every few weeks or months and archive a new version if the content has changed. Sites can also be captured on the fly by visitors who are offered a link to do so. The intent is to capture and archive content that otherwise would be lost whenever a site is changed or closed down. Their grand vision is to archive the entire Internet.

Question: What operating system is used on Wayback Machine's servers?


Answer: if the content has changed

Question: When does Wayback Machine save a copy of a website?


Answer: to archive the entire Internet

Question: What is the ultimate aim of the Wayback Machine?


Answer: The Rocky and Bullwinkle Show

Context: The name Wayback Machine was chosen as a droll reference to a plot device in an animated cartoon series, The Rocky and Bullwinkle Show. In one of the animated cartoon's component segments, Peabody's Improbable History, lead characters Mr. Peabody and Sherman routinely used a time machine called the "WABAC machine" (pronounced way-back) to witness, participate in, and, more often than not, alter famous events in history.

Question: What TV show served as inspiration for the Wayback Machine's name?


Answer: Mr. Peabody and Sherman

Question: Which characters on The Rocky and Bullwinkle Show used a device that allowed them to travel through time?


Answer: WABAC machine

Question: What was the machine used by Mr. Peabody and Sherman named?


Answer: 1996

Context: In 1996 Brewster Kahle, with Bruce Gilliat, developed software to crawl and download all publicly accessible World Wide Web pages, the Gopher hierarchy, the Netnews (Usenet) bulletin board system, and downloadable software. The information collected by these "crawlers" does not include all the information available on the Internet, since much of the data is restricted by the publisher or stored in databases that are not accessible. These "crawlers" also respect the robots exclusion standard for websites whose owners opt for them not to appear in search results or be cached. To overcome inconsistencies in partially cached web sites, Archive-It.org was developed in 2005 by the Internet Archive as a means of allowing institutions and content creators to voluntarily harvest and preserve collections of digital content, and create digital archives.

Question: When was the program necessary to crawl and archive the web created?


Answer: crawlers

Question: What is a term used for programs that automatically visit websites and record the data they find?


Answer: robots exclusion standard

Question: What rule do crawlers abide by when determining which sites to record?


Answer: Archive-It.org

Question: What site was created to mitigate issues with incomplete copies of websites?


Answer: digital tape

Context: Information had been kept on digital tape for five years, with Kahle occasionally allowing researchers and scientists to tap into the clunky database. When the archive reached its fifth anniversary, it was unveiled and opened to the public in a ceremony at the University of California, Berkeley.

Question: What medium was originally used to keep Internet Archive's data?


Answer: researchers and scientists

Question: Who were sometimes permitted to use the Archive's database?


Answer: fifth anniversary

Question: At what milestone was the archive made public?


Answer: University of California, Berkeley

Question: Where was the event launching the publicly-available archive held?


Answer: Snapshots

Context: Snapshots usually become available more than six months after they are archived or, in some cases, even later; it can take twenty-four months or longer. The frequency of snapshots is variable, so not all tracked web site updates are recorded. Sometimes there are intervals of several weeks or years between snapshots.

Question: What are the saved versions of a site called?


Answer: six months

Question: What is the minimum amount of time that elapses before most snapshots are released for viewing?


Answer: variable

Question: What term characterizes the rate at which snapshots are made of websites?


Answer: After August 2008

Context: After August 2008 sites had to be listed on the Open Directory in order to be included. According to Jeff Kaplan of the Internet Archive in November 2010, other sites were still being archived, but more recent captures would become visible only after the next major indexing, an infrequent operation.

Question: When did it become a requirement for websites to appear on Open Directory for inclusion in the Archive?


Answer: Jeff Kaplan

Question: Who stated that sites not on Open Directory were still being saved but would not be released until the Archive was reindexed?


Answer: November 2010

Question: When did Kaplan make comments about the status of non-Open Directory sites?


Answer: three petabytes

Context: As of 2009[update], the Wayback Machine contained approximately three petabytes of data and was growing at a rate of 100 terabytes each month; the growth rate reported in 2003 was 12 terabytes/month. The data is stored on PetaBox rack systems manufactured by Capricorn Technologies.

Question: In 2009, what size did the data saved by Wayback Machine reach?


Answer: 12 terabytes/month

Question: As of 2003, what was the rate of increase in the amount of data recorded by the Wayback Machine?


Answer: PetaBox rack systems

Question: Where does Wayback Machine keep its information stored?


Answer: Capricorn Technologies

Question: Who makes PetaBox rack systems?


Answer: 2009

Context: In 2009, the Internet Archive migrated its customized storage architecture to Sun Open Storage, and hosts a new data center in a Sun Modular Datacenter on Sun Microsystems' California campus.

Question: When did Internet Archive chance its platform for data storage?


Answer: Sun Open Storage

Question: Which platform did Internet Archive adopt in 2009?


Answer: Sun Microsystems' California campus

Question: Where does Internet archive run a datacenter?


Answer: 2011

Context: In 2011 a new, improved version of the Wayback Machine, with an updated interface and fresher index of archived content, was made available for public testing.

Question: When was an upgrade of the Wayback Machine released for testing?


Answer: March 2011

Context: In March 2011, it was said on the Wayback Machine forum that "The Beta of the new Wayback Machine has a more complete and up-to-date index of all crawled materials into 2010, and will continue to be updated regularly. The index driving the classic Wayback Machine only has a little bit of material past 2008, and no further index updates are planned, as it will be phased out this year".

Question: When were details of the test version of the updated Wayback Machine released?


Answer: 2008

Question: The older version of Wayback Machine did not have much new data past what year?


Answer: 2010

Question: The newer version of the Wayback Machine included date up to and including what year?


Answer: Save a Page

Context: In October 2013, the company announced the "Save a Page" feature which allows any Internet user to archive the contents of a URL. This became a threat of abuse by the service for hosting malicious binaries.

Question: What was the functionality called that gave users the ability to save a snapshot of a site?


Answer: October 2013

Question: When was Save a Page made available?


Answer: Netbula, LLC v. Chordiant Software Inc.

Context: In a 2009 case, Netbula, LLC v. Chordiant Software Inc., defendant Chordiant filed a motion to compel Netbula to disable the robots.txt file on its web site that was causing the Wayback Machine to retroactively remove access to previous versions of pages it had archived from Nebula's site, pages that Chordiant believed would support its case.

Question: What 2009 court battle involved the Wayback Machine?


Answer: Chordiant

Question: Which company thought that Wayback Machine data was important for its argument?


Answer: the robots.txt file

Question: What did Chordiant request that the court deactivate on Netbula's website?


Answer: Internet Archive

Context: Netbula objected to the motion on the ground that defendants were asking to alter Netbula's web site and that they should have subpoenaed Internet Archive for the pages directly. An employee of Internet Archive filed a sworn statement supporting Chordiant's motion, however, stating that it could not produce the web pages by any other means "without considerable burden, expense and disruption to its operations."

Question: Who did Netbula believe was the entity that should be responsible for the availability of its snapshots?


Answer: Chordiant

Question: Which party did Internet Archive side with?


Answer: Magistrate Judge Howard Lloyd

Context: Magistrate Judge Howard Lloyd in the Northern District of California, San Jose Division, rejected Netbula's arguments and ordered them to disable the robots.txt blockage temporarily in order to allow Chordiant to retrieve the archived pages that they sought.

Question: Which judge presided over the Netbula v. Chordiant case?


Answer: Northern District of California, San Jose Division

Question: In what jurisdiction was the Netbula v. Chordiant case tried?


Answer: Chordiant

Question: Which party won its argument regarding Netbula's robots.txt file?


Answer: TVP Polonia

Context: In an October 2004 case, Telewizja Polska USA, Inc. v. Echostar Satellite, No. 02 C 3293, 65 Fed. R. Evid. Serv. 673 (N.D. Ill. Oct. 15, 2004), a litigant attempted to use the Wayback Machine archives as a source of admissible evidence, perhaps for the first time. Telewizja Polska is the provider of TVP Polonia and EchoStar operates the Dish Network. Prior to the trial proceedings, EchoStar indicated that it intended to offer Wayback Machine snapshots as proof of the past content of Telewizja Polska's web site. Telewizja Polska brought a motion in limine to suppress the snapshots on the grounds of hearsay and unauthenticated source, but Magistrate Judge Arlander Keys rejected Telewizja Polska's assertion of hearsay and denied TVP's motion in limine to exclude the evidence at trial. At the trial, however, district Court Judge Ronald Guzman, the trial judge, overruled Magistrate Keys' findings,[citation needed] and held that neither the affidavit of the Internet Archive employee nor the underlying pages (i.e., the Telewizja Polska website) were admissible as evidence. Judge Guzman reasoned that the employee's affidavit contained both hearsay and inconclusive supporting statements, and the purported web page printouts were not self-authenticating.[citation needed]

Question: What does Telewizja Polska operate?


Answer: the Dish Network

Question: What is EchoStar's platform?


Answer: Magistrate Judge Arlander Keys

Question: Which judge denied Telewizja Polska's attempt to block the use of Internet Archive contents as evidence?


Answer: district Court Judge Ronald Guzman

Question: Which judge overturned Keys' ruling?


Answer: in examining a patent application

Context: Provided some additional requirements are met (e.g. providing an authoritative statement of the archivist), the United States patent office and the European Patent Office will accept date stamps from the Internet Archive as evidence of when a given Web page was accessible to the public. These dates are used to determine if a Web page is available as prior art for instance in examining a patent application.

Question: When are Internet Archive timestamps useful for patent offices?


Answer: authoritative statement of the archivist

Question: What is an example of a condition that must be met for the Internet Archive data to be considered acceptable for submission to patent offices in the US and Europe?


Answer: technical

Context: There are technical limitations to archiving a web site, and as a consequence, it is possible for opposing parties in litigation to misuse the results provided by web site archives. This problem can be exacerbated by the practice of submitting screen shots of web pages in complaints, answers, or expert witness reports, when the underlying links are not exposed and therefore, can contain errors. For example, archives such as the Wayback Machine do not fill out forms and therefore, do not include the contents of non-RESTful e-commerce databases in their archives.

Question: What kind of limitations exist in keeping copies of a website?


Answer: underlying links

Question: The omission of what element in screenshots can make them unreliable as evidence?


Answer: forms

Question: What elements of webpages are not used by Wayback Machine?


Answer: e-commerce

Question: What kind of sites contain information that the Wayback Machine does not record?


Answer: copyright laws

Context: In Europe the Wayback Machine could be interpreted as violating copyright laws. Only the content creator can decide where their content is published or duplicated, so the Archive would have to delete pages from its system upon request of the creator. The exclusion policies for the Wayback Machine may be found in the FAQ section of the site. The Wayback Machine also retroactively respects robots.txt files, i.e., pages that currently are blocked to robots on the live web temporarily will be made unavailable from the archives as well.

Question: What kinds of laws could the Wayback Machine be viewed as breaking in Europe?


Answer: delete pages from its system

Question: What would the Internet Archive have to do if requested by someone whose content is available on Wayback Machine?


Answer: FAQ

Question: In what part of the website are Wayback Machine's rules regarding removing content?


Answer: Scientology

Context: In late 2002, the Internet Archive removed various sites that were critical of Scientology from the Wayback Machine. An error message stated that this was in response to a "request by the site owner." Later, it was clarified that lawyers from the Church of Scientology had demanded the removal and that the site owners did not want their material removed.

Question: Web pages that contained content critical of what religous movement were taken off of the Internet Archive in 2002?


Answer: the site owner

Question: Who was mistakenly credited for having the sites with criticism of Scientology removed from the Internet Archive?


Answer: Church of Scientology

Question: Who was the actual party that requested the critical sites be taken down?


Answer: Harding Earley Follmer & Frailey

Context: In 2003, Harding Earley Follmer & Frailey defended a client from a trademark dispute using the Archive's Wayback Machine. The attorneys were able to demonstrate that the claims made by the plaintiff were invalid, based on the content of their web site from several years prior. The plaintiff, Healthcare Advocates, then amended their complaint to include the Internet Archive, accusing the organization of copyright infringement as well as violations of the DMCA and the Computer Fraud and Abuse Act. Healthcare Advocates claimed that, since they had installed a robots.txt file on their web site, even if after the initial lawsuit was filed, the Archive should have removed all previous copies of the plaintiff web site from the Wayback Machine. The lawsuit was settled out of court.

Question: Which law firm leveraged Wayback Machine to protect their client in 2003?


Answer: Healthcare Advocates

Question: Which company filed suit against Harding, Earley, Follmer & Frailey's client?


Answer: Internet Archive

Question: Who did Healthcare advocates change their case to include as a defendant?


Answer: the DMCA and the Computer Fraud and Abuse Act

Question: What laws did Healthcare Advocates accuse Internet Archive of having broken?


Answer: voluntary

Context: Robots.txt is used as part of the Robots Exclusion Standard, a voluntary protocol the Internet Archive respects that disallows bots from indexing certain pages delineated by its creator as off-limits. As a result, the Internet Archive has rendered unavailable a number of web sites that now are inaccessible through the Wayback Machine. Currently, the Internet Archive applies robots.txt rules retroactively; if a site blocks the Internet Archive, such as Healthcare Advocates, any previously archived pages from the domain are rendered unavailable as well. In cases of blocked sites, only the robots.txt file is archived.

Question: What kind of protocol is the Robots Exclusion Standard?


Answer: Robots.txt

Question: What file is utilized to exercise the rights promoted by the Robots Exclusion Standard?


Answer: Robots.txt

Question: If a site prevents Internet Archive from recording it, what file is still saved?


Answer: Internet Archive

Context: The Internet Archive states, however, "Sometimes a website owner will contact us directly and ask us to stop crawling or archiving a site. We comply with these requests." In addition, the web site says: "The Internet Archive is not interested in preserving or offering access to Web sites or other Internet documents of persons who do not want their materials in the collection."

Question: Who asserts that they will respond to direct contacts requesting material be removed from the archive?


Answer: Suzanne Shell

Context: In December 2005, activist Suzanne Shell filed suit demanding Internet Archive pay her US $100,000 for archiving her web site profane-justice.org between 1999 and 2004. Internet Archive filed a declaratory judgment action in the United States District Court for the Northern District of California on January 20, 2006, seeking a judicial determination that Internet Archive did not violate Shell's copyright. Shell responded and brought a countersuit against Internet Archive for archiving her site, which she alleges is in violation of her terms of service. On February 13, 2007, a judge for the United States District Court for the District of Colorado dismissed all counterclaims except breach of contract. The Internet Archive did not move to dismiss copyright infringement claims Shell asserted arising out of its copying activities, which would also go forward.

Question: Who sued Internet Archive in 2005?


Answer: profane-justice.org

Question: What was the URL owned by Suzanne Shell?


Answer: Northern District of California

Question: In what jurisdiction were Internet Archive's counterclaims filed?


Answer: District of Colorado

Question: In what jurisdiction where counterclaims nullified by the court?


Answer: April 25, 2007

Context: On April 25, 2007, Internet Archive and Suzanne Shell jointly announced the settlement of their lawsuit. The Internet Archive said it "...has no interest in including materials in the Wayback Machine of persons who do not wish to have their Web content archived. We recognize that Ms. Shell has a valid and enforceable copyright in her Web site and we regret that the inclusion of her Web site in the Wayback Machine resulted in this litigation." Shell said, "I respect the historical value of Internet Archive's goal. I never intended to interfere with that goal nor cause it any harm."

Question: When did Suzanne Shell's suit against Internet Archive come to an end?


Answer: Internet Archive

Question: Who stated that they had no wish to violate individuals' copyrights?


Answer: Suzanne Shell

Question: Who stated that they did not want to cause damage to the Internet Archive?


Answer: DMCA requests

Context: In 2013–14 a pornographic actor was trying to remove archived images of himself, first by sending multiple DMCA requests to the Archive and then in the Federal Court of Canada.

Question: What was the first method used by the actor in trying to get his images taken down?


Answer: Federal Court of Canada

Question: What legal system did the actor use after filing DMCA petitions?


Answer: the United Provinces (Verenigde Provinciën), Federated Dutch Provinces (Foederatae Belgii Provinciae), and Dutch Federation (Belgica Foederata)

Context: The Dutch Republic, also known as the Republic of the Seven United Netherlands (Republiek der Zeven Verenigde Nederlanden), Republic of the United Netherlands or Republic of the Seven United Provinces (Republiek der Zeven Verenigde Provinciën), was a republic in Europe existing from 1581, when part of the Netherlands separated from Spanish rule, until 1795. It preceded the Batavian Republic, the Kingdom of Holland, the United Kingdom of the Netherlands, and ultimately the modern Kingdom of the Netherlands. Alternative names include the United Provinces (Verenigde Provinciën), Federated Dutch Provinces (Foederatae Belgii Provinciae), and Dutch Federation (Belgica Foederata).

Question: What are some other names the Dutch Republic is known by?


Answer: from 1581, when part of the Netherlands separated from Spanish rule, until 1795

Question: The Dutch Republic was a republic of Europe during what time?


Answer: Batavian Republic, the Kingdom of Holland, the United Kingdom of the Netherlands, and ultimately the modern Kingdom of the Netherlands

Question: What republics did the Dutch Republic come before?


Answer: Netherlands, Belgium, and Luxembourg

Context: Until the 16th century, the Low Countries – corresponding roughly to the present-day Netherlands, Belgium, and Luxembourg – consisted of a number of duchies, counties, and Prince-bishoprics, almost all of which were under the supremacy of the Holy Roman Empire, with the exception of the county of Flanders, which was under the Kingdom of France.

Question: The Low Countries were made up of which present day countries?


Answer: Flanders

Question: Which counties in the Low Countries were not ruled by the Holy Roman Empire?


Answer: the House of Burgundy and subsequently the House of Habsburg

Context: Most of the Low Countries had come under the rule of the House of Burgundy and subsequently the House of Habsburg. In 1549 Holy Roman Emperor Charles V issued the Pragmatic Sanction, which further unified the Seventeen Provinces under his rule. Charles was succeeded by his son, King Philip II of Spain. In 1568 the Netherlands, led by William I of Orange, revolted against Philip II because of high taxes, persecution of Protestants by the government, and Philip's efforts to modernize and centralize the devolved-medieval government structures of the provinces. This was the start of the Eighty Years' War.

Question: The majority of the Low Countries were ruled by which houses?


Answer: Holy Roman Emperor Charles V

Question: Who issued the Pragmatic Sanction?


Answer: 1568

Question: In what year did the Netherlands rise up against Philip II?


Answer: high taxes, persecution of Protestants by the government, and Philip's efforts to modernize and centralize the devolved-medieval government structures of the provinces

Question: Why did the people of the Netherlands rise up against Philip II?


Answer: 1579

Context: In 1579 a number of the northern provinces of the Low Countries signed the Union of Utrecht, in which they promised to support each other in their defence against the Spanish army. This was followed in 1581 by the Act of Abjuration, the declaration of independence of the provinces from Philip II.

Question: In what year was the Union of Utrecht signed?


Answer: a number of the northern provinces of the Low Countries

Question: Who signed the Union of Utrecht?


Answer: the Act of Abjuration

Question: What was the declaration of independence of the provinces from Philip II called?


Answer: 1581

Question: In what year was the Act of Abjuration signed?


Answer: to support each other in their defence against the Spanish army

Question: What was the purpose of the Union of Utrecht?


Answer: 1582

Context: In 1582 the United Provinces invited Francis, Duke of Anjou to lead them; but after a failed attempt to take Antwerp in 1583, the duke left the Netherlands again. After the assassination of William of Orange (10 July 1584), both Henry III of France and Elizabeth I of England declined the offer of sovereignty. However, the latter agreed to turn the United Provinces into a protectorate of England (Treaty of Nonsuch, 1585), and sent the Earl of Leicester as governor-general. This was unsuccessful and in 1588 the provinces became a confederacy. The Union of Utrecht is regarded as the foundation of the Republic of the Seven United Provinces, which was not recognized by the Spanish Empire until the Peace of Westphalia in 1648.

Question: In what year did the United Provinces invite Francis, Duke of Anjou to lead them?


Answer: 1583

Question: In what year did Francis, Duke of Anjou leave the Netherlands?


Answer: 10 July 1584

Question: When was William of Orange assassinated?


Answer: Elizabeth I

Question: Who agreed to turn the United Provinces into a protectorate of England?


Answer: 1588

Question: In what year did the United Provinces become a confederacy?


Answer: a series of republican revolutions in 1783–1795

Context: The Republic of the United Provinces lasted until a series of republican revolutions in 1783–1795 created the Batavian Republic. During this period, republican forces took several major cities of the Netherlands. After initially fleeing, the monarchist forces came back with British, Austrian, and Prussian troops and retook the Netherlands. The republican forces fled to France, but then successfully re-invaded alongside the army of the French republic. After the French Republic became the French Empire under Napoleon, the Batavian Republic was replaced by the Napoleonic Kingdom of Holland.

Question: What events created the Batavian Republic?


Answer: France

Question: The republican forces fled to which country?


Answer: the Batavian Republic

Question: The Napoleonic Kingdom of Holland replaced which republic?


Answer: 1813

Context: The Netherlands regained independence from France in 1813. In the Anglo-Dutch Treaty of 1814 the names "United Provinces of the Netherlands" and "United Netherlands" were used. In 1815 it was rejoined with the Austrian Netherlands, Luxembourg and Liège (the "Southern provinces") to become the Kingdom of the Netherlands, informally known as the Kingdom of the United Netherlands, to create a strong buffer state north of France. After Belgium and Luxembourg became independent, the state became unequivocally known as the Kingdom of the Netherlands, as it remains today.

Question: In what year did the Netherlands gain independence from France?


Answer: "United Provinces of the Netherlands" and "United Netherlands"

Question: What names were used in the Anglo-Dutch Treaty of 1814?


Answer: Austrian Netherlands, Luxembourg and Liège

Question: The Kingdom of the Netherlands was formed by which countries?


Answer: the Dutch Golden Age

Context: During the Dutch Golden Age in the late 16th century onward, the Dutch Republic dominated world trade in the 17th century, conquering a vast colonial empire and operating the largest fleet of merchantmen of any nation. The County of Holland was the wealthiest and most urbanized region in the world.

Question: The Dutch Republic dominated world trade during what time?


Answer: The County of Holland

Question: What was the wealthiest and most urbanized region in the world during the 17th century?


Answer: 1602

Context: The free trade spirit of the time received a strong augmentation through the development of a modern, effective stock market in the Low Countries. The Netherlands has the oldest stock exchange in the world, founded in 1602 by the Dutch East India Company. While Rotterdam has the oldest bourse in the Netherlands, the world's first stock exchange – that of the Dutch East-India Company – went public in six different cities. Later, a court ruled that the company had to reside legally in a single city, so Amsterdam is recognized as the oldest such institution based on modern trading principles. While the banking system evolved in the Low Countries, it was quickly incorporated by the well-connected English, stimulating English economic output.

Question: When was the stock exchange founded in the Netherlands?


Answer: Rotterdam

Question: Which city in the Netherlands has the oldest stock exchange?


Answer: six

Question: The Dutch East-India Company inhabited how many cities?


Answer: Amsterdam

Question: Which city did the Dutch East-India Company decide to reside in after a court decided they could legally only operate in one city?


Answer: 1590–1712

Context: Between 1590–1712 the Dutch also possessed one of the strongest and fastest navies in the world, allowing for their varied conquests including breaking the Portuguese sphere of influence on the Indian Ocean and in the Orient, as well as a lucrative slave trade from Africa and the Pacific.

Question: The Dutch had one of the strongest and fastest navies in the world during what time?


Answer: Africa and the Pacific

Question: The Dutch operated a slave trade from which locations?


Answer: breaking the Portuguese sphere of influence on the Indian Ocean and in the Orient

Question: What was one of the conquests of the Dutch Navy?


Answer: seven

Context: The republic was a confederation of seven provinces, which had their own governments and were very independent, and a number of so-called Generality Lands. The latter were governed directly by the States General (Staten-Generaal in Dutch), the federal government. The States General were seated in The Hague and consisted of representatives of each of the seven provinces. The provinces of the republic were, in official feudal order:

Question: The Dutch Republic consisted of how many provinces?


Answer: the States General (Staten-Generaal in Dutch), the federal government

Question: Who were the Generality Lands governed by?


Answer: representatives of each of the seven provinces

Question: The States General was made up of what?


Answer: the County of Drenthe

Context: In fact, there was an eighth province, the County of Drenthe, but this area was so poor it was exempt from paying federal taxes and as a consequence was denied representation in the States General. Each province was governed by the Provincial States, the main executive official (though not the official head of state) was a raadspensionaris. In times of war, the stadtholder, who commanded the army, would have more power than the raadspensionaris.

Question: What was the 8th province of the Dutch Republic?


Answer: this area was so poor it was exempt from paying federal taxes

Question: Why was the County of Drenthe denied representation by the States General?


Answer: raadspensionaris

Question: The main executive official of the Provincial States was called what?


Answer: the stadtholder

Question: Who had more power during times of war than the raadspensionaris?


Answer: the stadtholder

Question: Who commanded the army?


Answer: the states of each province

Context: In theory, the stadtholders were freely appointed by and subordinate to the states of each province. However, in practice the princes of Orange of the House of Orange-Nassau, beginning with William the Silent, were always chosen as stadtholders of most of the provinces. Zeeland and usually Utrecht had the same stadtholder as Holland.

Question: Who appointed the stadtholders?


Answer: the princes of Orange of the House of Orange-Nassau, beginning with William the Silent

Question: Who were always chosen as stadtholders of most of the provinces?


Answer: Zeeland and usually Utrecht

Question: Which states had the same stadtholder as Holland?


Answer: Orangists

Context: There was a constant power struggle between the Orangists, who supported the stadtholders and specifically the princes of Orange, and the Republicans, who supported the States General and hoped to replace the semi-hereditary nature of the stadtholdership with a true republican structure.

Question: What group of people supported the stadtholders, particularly the princes of Orange?


Answer: Republicans

Question: Who wanted to replace the stadtholders with a republican structure?


Answer: the Peace of Westphalia

Context: After the Peace of Westphalia, several border territories were assigned to the United Provinces. They were federally-governed Generality Lands (Generaliteitslanden). They were Staats-Brabant (present North Brabant), Staats-Vlaanderen (present Zeeuws-Vlaanderen), Staats-Limburg (around Maastricht) and Staats-Oppergelre (around Venlo, after 1715).

Question: Several border territories were designated to the United Provinces after what?


Answer: federally-governed Generality Lands (Generaliteitslanden)

Question: The border territories assigned to the United Provinces were known as what?


Answer: Staats-Brabant (present North Brabant), Staats-Vlaanderen (present Zeeuws-Vlaanderen), Staats-Limburg (around Maastricht) and Staats-Oppergelre (around Venlo, after 1715)

Question: What were the names of the border territories assigned to the United Provinces?


Answer: The States General of the United Provinces

Context: The States General of the United Provinces were in control of the Dutch East India Company (VOC) and the Dutch West India Company (WIC), but some shipping expeditions were initiated by some of the provinces, mostly Holland and/or Zeeland.

Question: Who was in control of the Dutch East India Company (VOC) and the Dutch West India Company (WIC)?


Answer: Holland and/or Zeeland

Question: Some shipping expeditions were mostly initiated by which provinces?


Answer: The framers of the US Constitution

Context: The framers of the US Constitution were influenced by the Constitution of the Republic of the United Provinces, as Federalist No. 20, by James Madison, shows. Such influence appears, however, to have been of a negative nature, as Madison describes the Dutch confederacy as exhibiting "Imbecility in the government; discord among the provinces; foreign influence and indignities; a precarious existence in peace, and peculiar calamities from war." Apart from this, the American Declaration of Independence is similar to the Act of Abjuration, essentially the declaration of independence of the United Provinces, but concrete evidence that the former directly influenced the latter is absent.

Question: Who was influenced by the Constitution of the Republic of the United Provinces?


Answer: James Madison

Question: Who described the Dutch confederacy as exhibiting "Imbecility in the government; discord among the provinces; foreign influence and indignities; a precarious existence in peace, and peculiar calamities from war."


Answer: the Act of Abjuration, essentially the declaration of independence of the United Provinces

Question: The American Declaration of Independence is similar to what?


Answer: the Union of Utrecht of 20 January 1579

Context: In the Union of Utrecht of 20 January 1579, Holland and Zeeland were granted the right to accept only one religion (in practice, Calvinism). Every other province had the freedom to regulate the religious question as it wished, although the Union stated every person should be free in the choice of personal religion and that no person should be prosecuted based on religious choice. William of Orange had been a strong supporter of public and personal freedom of religion and hoped to unite Protestants and Catholics in the new union, and, for him, the Union was a defeat. In practice, Catholic services in all provinces were quickly forbidden, and the Reformed Church became the "public" or "privileged" church in the Republic.

Question: What granted Holland and Zeeland the right to accept only one religion?


Answer: personal religion

Question: What did the Union state that every person should be free to choose?


Answer: William of Orange

Question: Who was a strong supporter of freedom of religion and wanted to unite Protestants and Catholics in the new union?


Answer: Catholic services

Question: What was forbidden in all provinces?


Answer: the Reformed Church

Context: During the Republic, any person who wished to hold public office had to conform to the Reformed Church and take an oath to this effect. The extent to which different religions or denominations were persecuted depended much on the time period and regional or city leaders. In the beginning, this was especially focused on Roman Catholics, being the religion of the enemy. In 17th-century Leiden, for instance, people opening their homes to services could be fined 200 guilders (a year's wage for a skilled tradesman) and banned from the city. Throughout this, however, personal freedom of religion existed and was one factor – along with economic reasons – in causing large immigration of religious refugees from other parts of Europe.

Question: What did any person who wanted to hold public office need to conform to during the Republic?


Answer: the time period and regional or city leaders

Question: The degree to which different religions were persecuted depended on what?


Answer: fined 200 guilders (a year's wage for a skilled tradesman) and banned from the city

Question: What was the punishment for people who opened their homes to Catholic services during 17th-century Leiden?


Answer: personal freedom of religion

Question: What was one reason for the large amounts of immigration of religious refugees from other parts of Europe?


Answer: predestination

Context: In the first years of the Republic, controversy arose within the Reformed Church, mainly around the subject of predestination. This has become known as the struggle between Arminianism and Gomarism, or between Remonstrants and Contra-Remonstrants. In 1618 the Synod of Dort tackled this issue, which led to the banning of the Remonstrant faith.

Question: What was the main subject of controversy that arose within the Reformed Church during the beginning of the Republic?


Answer: the struggle between Arminianism and Gomarism, or between Remonstrants and Contra-Remonstrants

Question: The controversy surrounding the subject of predestination is known as what?


Answer: the Synod of Dort

Question: What led to the banning of the Remonstrant faith in 1618?


Answer: in the 18th century

Context: Beginning in the 18th century, the situation changed from more or less active persecution of religious services to a state of restricted toleration of other religions, as long as their services took place secretly in private churches.

Question: When did the active persecution of religious services become more of a restricted tolerance?


Answer: as long as their services took place secretly in private churches

Question: Religious services for other religions were tolerated as long as they adhered to what rule?


Answer: Greek

Context: Symbiosis (from Greek σύν "together" and βίωσις "living") is close and often long-term interaction between two different biological species. In 1877 Albert Bernhard Frank used the word symbiosis (which previously had been used to depict people living together in community) to describe the mutualistic relationship in lichens. In 1879, the German mycologist Heinrich Anton de Bary defined it as "the living together of unlike organisms."

Question: What language does the word "symbiosis" come from?


Answer: lichens

Question: What type of organism did Frank apply the term "symbiosis" to?


Answer: German

Question: What nationality was Heinrich Anton de Bary?


Answer: 130 years

Context: The definition of symbiosis has varied among scientists. Some believe symbiosis should only refer to persistent mutualisms, while others believe it should apply to any type of persistent biological interaction (in other words mutualistic, commensalistic, or parasitic). After 130 years of debate, current biology and ecology textbooks now use the latter "de Bary" definition or an even broader definition (where symbiosis means all species interactions), with the restrictive definition no longer used (in other words, symbiosis means mutualism).

Question: How long did it take for scientists to stop using the narrow definition of symbiosis?


Answer: obligate

Context: Some symbiotic relationships are obligate, meaning that both symbionts entirely depend on each other for survival. For example, many lichens consist of fungal and photosynthetic symbionts that cannot live on their own. Others are facultative (optional): they can, but do not have to live with the other organism.

Question: What is the type of symbiotic relationship where two organisms can't survive without each other?


Answer: facultative

Question: What is the type of symbiotic relationship where the symbionts can live together but can also survive alone?


Answer: lichens

Question: What is an example of an obligate relationship?


Answer: mistletoe

Context: Symbiotic relationships include those associations in which one organism lives on another (ectosymbiosis, such as mistletoe), or where one partner lives inside the other (endosymbiosis, such as lactobacilli and other bacteria in humans or Symbiodinium in corals). Symbiosis is also classified by physical attachment of the organisms; symbiosis in which the organisms have bodily union is called conjunctive symbiosis, and symbiosis in which they are not in union is called disjunctive symbiosis.

Question: What is an example of ectosymbiosis?


Answer: disjunctive symbiosis

Question: What is it called when the organisms are not physically joined?


Answer: endosymbiosis

Question: What is it called when one symbiont lives within its partner?


Answer: insects

Context: Endosymbiosis is any symbiotic relationship in which one symbiont lives within the tissues of the other, either within the cells or extracellularly. Examples include diverse microbiomes, rhizobia, nitrogen-fixing bacteria that live in root nodules on legume roots; actinomycete nitrogen-fixing bacteria called Frankia, which live in alder tree root nodules; single-celled algae inside reef-building corals; and bacterial endosymbionts that provide essential nutrients to about 10%–15% of insects.

Question: What do bacterial endosymbionts give necessary nutrition to?


Answer: Frankia

Question: What is the name of a bacteria inside of tree roots?


Answer: algae

Question: What endosymbionts live in coral?


Answer: barnacles

Context: Ectosymbiosis, also referred to as exosymbiosis, is any symbiotic relationship in which the symbiont lives on the body surface of the host, including the inner surface of the digestive tract or the ducts of exocrine glands. Examples of this include ectoparasites such as lice, commensal ectosymbionts such as the barnacles that attach themselves to the jaw of baleen whales, and mutualist ectosymbionts such as cleaner fish.

Question: What organisms are described as living on the surface of whales?


Answer: lice

Question: Name a parasitic ectosymbiont.


Answer: exosymbiosis

Question: What is another name for ectosymbiosis?


Answer: interspecies reciprocal altruism

Context: Mutualism or interspecies reciprocal altruism is a relationship between individuals of different species where both individuals benefit. In general, only lifelong interactions involving close physical and biochemical contact can properly be considered symbiotic. Mutualistic relationships may be either obligate for both species, obligate for one but facultative for the other, or facultative for both. Many biologists restrict the definition of symbiosis to close mutualist relationships.

Question: What is another term for mutualism?


Answer: lifelong

Question: Of what duration are symbiotic relationships?


Answer: mutualistic

Context: A large percentage of herbivores have mutualistic gut flora that help them digest plant matter, which is more difficult to digest than animal prey. This gut flora is made up of cellulose-digesting protozoans or bacteria living in the herbivores' intestines. Coral reefs are the result of mutualisms between coral organisms and various types of algae that live inside them. Most land plants and land ecosystems rely on mutualisms between the plants, which fix carbon from the air, and mycorrhyzal fungi, which help in extracting water and minerals from the ground.

Question: What type of relationship do herbivores have with the bacteria in their intestines?


Answer: Coral reefs

Question: What do coral and algae produce together?


Answer: fix carbon from the air

Question: How do plants contribute to terrestrial ecosystems?


Answer: mycorrhyzal

Question: What type of fungus draws liquid and minerals out of the earth?


Answer: ocellaris clownfish

Context: An example of mutual symbiosis is the relationship between the ocellaris clownfish that dwell among the tentacles of Ritteri sea anemones. The territorial fish protects the anemone from anemone-eating fish, and in turn the stinging tentacles of the anemone protect the clownfish from its predators. A special mucus on the clownfish protects it from the stinging tentacles.

Question: What lives with Ritteri sea anemones?


Answer: A special mucus

Question: What prevents the clownfish from being stung?


Answer: mutual symbiosis

Question: What type of relationship do the clownfish and anemone have?


Answer: the goby fish

Context: A further example is the goby fish, which sometimes lives together with a shrimp. The shrimp digs and cleans up a burrow in the sand in which both the shrimp and the goby fish live. The shrimp is almost blind, leaving it vulnerable to predators when outside its burrow. In case of danger the goby fish touches the shrimp with its tail to warn it. When that happens both the shrimp and goby fish quickly retreat into the burrow. Different species of gobies (Elacatinus spp.) also exhibit mutualistic behavior through cleaning up ectoparasites in other fish.

Question: What species does this shrimp have a relationship with?


Answer: its tail

Question: What part of the fish is used to signal danger?


Answer: non-obligate

Context: Another non-obligate symbiosis is known from encrusting bryozoans and hermit crabs that live in a close relationship. The bryozoan colony (Acanthodesia commensale) develops a cirumrotatory growth and offers the crab (Pseudopagurus granulimanus) a helicospiral-tubular extension of its living chamber that initially was situated within a gastropod shell.

Question: What type of symbiosis seen between bryozoans and hermit crabs?


Answer: the late 1980s

Context: One of the most spectacular examples of obligate mutualism is between the siboglinid tube worms and symbiotic bacteria that live at hydrothermal vents and cold seeps. The worm has no digestive tract and is wholly reliant on its internal symbionts for nutrition. The bacteria oxidize either hydrogen sulfide or methane, which the host supplies to them. These worms were discovered in the late 1980s at the hydrothermal vents near the Galapagos Islands and have since been found at deep-sea hydrothermal vents and cold seeps in all of the world's oceans.

Question: When were the worms found?


Answer: nutrition

Question: What does the bacteria give the worm?


Answer: the Galapagos Islands

Question: What land is near the worms' first known location?


Answer: nutrients

Context: During mutualistic symbioses, the host cell lacks some of the nutrients, which are provided by the endosymbiont. As a result, the host favors endosymbiont's growth processes within itself by producing some specialized cells. These cells affect the genetic composition of the host in order to regulate the increasing population of the endosymbionts and ensuring that these genetic changes are passed onto the offspring via vertical transmission (heredity).

Question: What is given to the host cell?


Answer: specialized cells

Question: What does the host make that affect its genes?


Answer: vertical transmission

Question: In what manner are the described genetic alternations given to future generations?


Answer: drastic reduction in its genome size

Context: Adaptation of the endosymbiont to the host's lifestyle leads to many changes in the endosymbiont–the foremost being drastic reduction in its genome size. This is due to many genes being lost during the process of metabolism, and DNA repair and recombination. While important genes participating in the DNA to RNA transcription, protein translation and DNA/RNA replication are retained. That is, a decrease in genome size is due to loss of protein coding genes and not due to lessening of inter-genic regions or open reading frame (ORF) size. Thus, species that are naturally evolving and contain reduced sizes of genes can be accounted for an increased number of noticeable differences between them, thereby leading to changes in their evolutionary rates. As the endosymbiotic bacteria related with these insects are passed on to the offspring strictly via vertical genetic transmission, intracellular bacteria goes through many hurdles during the process, resulting in the decrease in effective population sizes when compared to the free living bacteria. This incapability of the endosymbiotic bacteria to reinstate its wild type phenotype via a recombination process is called as Muller's ratchet phenomenon. Muller's ratchet phenomenon together with less effective population sizes has led to an accretion of deleterious mutations in the non-essential genes of the intracellular bacteria. This could have been due to lack of selection mechanisms prevailing in the rich environment of the host.

Question: What is the main alteration in an endosymbiont when it adapts to a host?


Answer: Muller's ratchet phenomenon

Question: What is the term that describes the way the endosymbiont can't go back to its original phenotype?


Answer: lack of selection mechanisms

Question: What does the article say could be the reason for the buildup of harmful mutations?


Answer: Latin

Context: Commensalism describes a relationship between two living organisms where one benefits and the other is not significantly harmed or helped. It is derived from the English word commensal used of human social interaction. The word derives from the medieval Latin word, formed from com- and mensa, meaning "sharing a table".

Question: What language do the roots of "commensal" come from?


Answer: Commensalism

Question: What type of symbiotic relationship helps one organism and doesn't have a major affect on the other?


Answer: inquilinism

Context: Commensal relationships may involve one organism using another for transportation (phoresy) or for housing (inquilinism), or it may also involve one organism using something another created, after its death (metabiosis). Examples of metabiosis are hermit crabs using gastropod shells to protect their bodies and spiders building their webs on plants.

Question: What is the term for a relationship where one organism provides a dwelling for the other?


Answer: metabiosis

Question: What type of relationship is it when arachnids attach webs to dead plants?


Answer: phoresy

Question: In what type of relationship does an organism travel by means of another?


Answer: A parasitic relationship

Context: A parasitic relationship is one in which one member of the association benefits while the other is harmed. This is also known as antagonistic or antipathetic symbiosis. Parasitic symbioses take many forms, from endoparasites that live within the host's body to ectoparasites that live on its surface. In addition, parasites may be necrotrophic, which is to say they kill their host, or biotrophic, meaning they rely on their host's surviving. Biotrophic parasitism is an extremely successful mode of life. Depending on the definition used, as many as half of all animals have at least one parasitic phase in their life cycles, and it is also frequent in plants and fungi. Moreover, almost all free-living animals are host to one or more parasite taxa. An example of a biotrophic relationship would be a tick feeding on the blood of its host.

Question: Antagonistic or antipathetic symbiosis are alternate names for what?


Answer: necrotrophic

Question: What is it called when organisms are lethal to their host?


Answer: biotrophic

Question: What is it called when parasites need their host to live?


Answer: as many as half

Question: What proportion of animals go through a parasitic stage?


Answer: a tick

Question: Name a biotrophic organism.


Answer: Amensalism

Context: Amensalism is the type of relationship that exists where one species is inhibited or completely obliterated and one is unaffected. This type of symbiosis is relatively uncommon in rudimentary reference texts, but is omnipresent in the natural world.[citation needed] There are two types of amensalism, competition and antibiosis. Competition is where a larger or stronger organisms deprives a smaller or weaker one from a resource. Antibiosis occurs when one organism is damaged or killed by another through a chemical secretion. An example of competition is a sapling growing under the shadow of a mature tree. The mature tree can begin to rob the sapling of necessary sunlight and, if the mature tree is very large, it can take up rainwater and deplete soil nutrients. Throughout the process the mature tree is unaffected. Indeed, if the sapling dies, the mature tree gains nutrients from the decaying sapling. Note that these nutrients become available because of the sapling's decomposition, rather than from the living sapling, which would be a case of parasitism.[citation needed] An example of antibiosis is Juglans nigra (black walnut), secreting juglone, a substance which destroys many herbaceous plants within its root zone.

Question: What is the name for the kind of symbiosis in which one organism is seriously harmed and there is no affect on the other?


Answer: competition and antibiosis

Question: What kinds of amensalism are there?


Answer: competition

Question: When a large tree takes the resources a young tree needs, what type of amensalism is it?


Answer: juglone

Question: What does the black walnut give out that kills plants?


Answer: weevils

Context: Amensalism is an interaction where an organism inflicts harm to another organism without any costs or benefits received by the other. A clear case of amensalism is where sheep or cattle trample grass. Whilst the presence of the grass causes negligible detrimental effects to the animal's hoof, the grass suffers from being crushed. Amensalism is often used to describe strongly asymmetrical competitive interactions, such as has been observed between the Spanish ibex and weevils of the genus Timarcha which feed upon the same type of shrub. Whilst the presence of the weevil has almost no influence on food availability, the presence of ibex has an enormous detrimental effect on weevil numbers, as they consume significant quantities of plant matter and incidentally ingest the weevils upon it.

Question: What organisms is the ibex in an amensalistic relationship with?


Answer: shrub

Question: What does the Spanish ibex eat?


Answer: Amensalism

Question: What type of relationship is it when large animals crush small plants?


Answer: Synnecrosis

Context: Synnecrosis is a rare type of symbiosis in which the interaction between species is detrimental to both organisms involved. It is a short-lived condition, as the interaction eventually causes death. Because of this, evolution selects against synnecrosis and it is uncommon in nature. An example of this is the relationship between some species of bees and victims of the bee sting. Species of bees who die after stinging their prey inflict pain on themselves (albeit to protect the hive) as well as on the victim. This term is rarely used.

Question: What type of relationship harms both organisms?


Answer: death

Question: What is the ultimate result of synnecrosis?


Answer: uncommon

Question: How common is synnecrosis in the natural world?


Answer: to protect the hive

Question: Why do bees sting even though it will kill them?


Answer: the evolution of all eukaryotes

Context: While historically, symbiosis has received less attention than other interactions such as predation or competition, it is increasingly recognized as an important selective force behind evolution, with many species having a long history of interdependent co-evolution. In fact, the evolution of all eukaryotes (plants, animals, fungi, and protists) is believed under the endosymbiotic theory to have resulted from a symbiosis between various sorts of bacteria. This theory is supported by certain organelles dividing independently of the cell, and the observation that some organelles seem to have their own nucleic acid.

Question: What far-reaching result do scientists think has come about from symbiosis with bacteria?


Answer: plants, animals, fungi, and protists

Question: What are eukaryotes?


Answer: symbiosis

Context: The biologist Lynn Margulis, famous for her work on endosymbiosis, contends that symbiosis is a major driving force behind evolution. She considers Darwin's notion of evolution, driven by competition, to be incomplete and claims that evolution is strongly based on co-operation, interaction, and mutual dependence among organisms. According to Margulis and Dorion Sagan, "Life did not take over the globe by combat, but by networking."

Question: What does Margulis think is the main driver of evolution?


Answer: Dorion Sagan

Question: Who agrees with Margulis' cooperative view of evolution?


Answer: a major role

Context: Symbiosis played a major role in the co-evolution of flowering plants and the animals that pollinate them. Many plants that are pollinated by insects, bats, or birds have highly specialized flowers modified to promote pollination by a specific pollinator that is also correspondingly adapted. The first flowering plants in the fossil record had relatively simple flowers. Adaptive speciation quickly gave rise to many diverse groups of plants, and, at the same time, corresponding speciation occurred in certain insect groups. Some groups of plants developed nectar and large sticky pollen, while insects evolved more specialized morphologies to access and collect these rich food sources. In some taxa of plants and insects the relationship has become dependent, where the plant species can only be pollinated by one species of insect.

Question: How big a part did symbiosis have in the development of flowering plants and their pollinators?


Answer: nectar and large sticky pollen

Question: What did some plants produce when flowers became less simple?


Answer: dependent

Question: What is the word for the kind of relationship in which a plant depend on a single type of insect?


Answer: Forces armées canadiennes

Context: The Canadian Armed Forces (CAF; French: Forces armées canadiennes, FAC), or Canadian Forces (CF) (French: les Forces canadiennes, FC), is the unified armed force of Canada, as constituted by the National Defence Act, which states: "The Canadian Forces are the armed forces of Her Majesty raised by Canada and consist of one Service called the Canadian Armed Forces."

Question: What is the French name of the Canadian Armed Forces?


Answer: the National Defence Act

Question: What law constitutes the CAF?


Answer: Her Majesty

Question: Who are the CAF supposed to protect?


Answer: Forces canadiennes

Question: What does CF stand for in this context?


Answer: four

Context: This unified institution consists of sea, land, and air elements referred to as the Royal Canadian Navy (RCN), Canadian Army, and Royal Canadian Air Force (RCAF). Personnel may belong to either the Regular Force or the Reserve Force, which has four sub-components: the Primary Reserve, Supplementary Reserve, Cadet Organizations Administration and Training Service, and the Canadian Rangers. Under the National Defence Act, the Canadian Armed Forces are an entity separate and distinct from the Department of National Defence (the federal government department responsible for administration and formation of defence policy), which also exists as the civilian support system for the Forces.

Question: How many sub components are there?


Answer: the National Defence Act

Question: What act defines the CAF?


Answer: Queen Elizabeth II

Context: The Commander-in-Chief of the Canadian Armed Forces is the reigning Canadian monarch, Queen Elizabeth II, who is represented by the Governor General of Canada. The Canadian Armed Forces is led by the Chief of the Defence Staff, who is advised and assisted by the Armed Forces Council.

Question: Who currently is the Commander-in-Chief of the Canadian Armed Forces?


Answer: the Governor General of Canada

Question: Who represents Queen Elizabeth II?


Answer: the Chief of the Defence Staff

Question: Who leads the CAF?


Answer: the Armed Forces Council.

Question: Who advises the Chief of the Defence?


Answer: Cold War

Context: During the Cold War, a principal focus of Canadian defence policy was contributing to the security of Europe in the face of the Soviet military threat. Toward that end, Canadian ground and air forces were based in Europe from the early 1950s until the early 1990s.

Question: What war were the CAF involved in?


Answer: the security of Europe

Question: What was the goal of the CAF during the cold war?


Answer: the Soviet military threat

Question: What military thread did the CAF protect against in Europe?


Answer: the early 1950s

Question: Apprimately since what year was the CAF stationed in Europe?


Answer: the early 1990s

Question: What year did the CAF leave Europe?


Answer: the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)

Context: However, since the end of the Cold War, as the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) has moved much of its defence focus "out of area", the Canadian military has also become more deeply engaged in international security operations in various other parts of the world – most notably in Afghanistan since 2002.

Question: What Treaty is the CAF part of?


Answer: international security operations

Question: What type of operation is the Canadian Military involved in?


Answer: Afghanistan

Question: What country has the Canadian Military worked in the last years?


Answer: 2002

Question: What year did the Canadian Military operation in Afghanistan start?


Answer: out of area

Question: Where is the current focus of the Canadian Military set?


Answer: Canada First Defence Strategy

Context: Canadian defence policy today is based on the Canada First Defence Strategy, introduced in 2008. Based on that strategy, the Canadian military is oriented and being equipped to carry out six core missions within Canada, in North America and globally. Specifically, the Canadian Armed Forces are tasked with having the capacity to:

Question: What is Canada's defense policy based on?


Answer: 2008

Question: When was the Canada First Defence Strategy introduced?


Answer: six core missions

Question: How many missions are carried out internally in Canada?


Answer: North America

Question: What other location does the Canada First Defence Strategy Cover?


Answer: conduct of Canadian defence diplomacy

Context: Consistent with the missions and priorities outlined above, the Canadian Armed Forces also contribute to the conduct of Canadian defence diplomacy through a range of activities, including the deployment of Canadian Defence Attachés, participation in bilateral and multilateral military forums (e.g. the System of Cooperation Among the American Air Forces), ship and aircraft visits, military training and cooperation, and other such outreach and relationship-building efforts.

Question: What other priority do the Canadian Armed Forces also contribute too?


Answer: deployment of Canadian Defence Attachés

Question: What is an example of another activity that the CAF performs?


Answer: the American Air Forces

Question: What other air force does the CAF cooperate with?


Answer: military training

Question: What is one of the activities the CAF works on with other countries?


Answer: relationship-building efforts

Question: What diplomatic effort does the CAF perform as part of it's duties?


Answer: 1867

Context: Prior to Confederation in 1867, residents of the colonies in what is now Canada served as regular members of French and British forces and in local militia groups. The latter aided in the defence of their respective territories against attacks by other European powers, Aboriginal peoples, and later American forces during the American Revolutionary War and War of 1812, as well as in the Fenian raids, Red River Rebellion, and North-West Rebellion. Consequently, the lineages of some Canadian army units stretch back to the early 19th century, when militia units were formed to assist in the defence of British North America against invasion by the United States.

Question: What year was Canada united in a confederation?


Answer: French and British forces

Question: The forces of what countries did people serve before the unification?


Answer: European powers

Question: What is one of the threats that faced them?


Answer: the American Revolutionary War

Question: What American war threatened Canada?


Answer: invasion by the United States

Question: Early on, what did they defend against with the British?


Answer: the British Crown-in-Council

Context: The responsibility for military command remained with the British Crown-in-Council, with a commander-in-chief for North America stationed at Halifax until the final withdrawal of British Army and Royal Navy units from that city in 1906. Thereafter, the Royal Canadian Navy was formed, and, with the advent of military aviation, the Royal Canadian Air Force. These forces were organised under the Department of Militia and Defence, and split into the Permanent and Non-Permanent Active Militias—frequently shortened to simply The Militia. By 1923, the department was merged into the Department of National Defence, but land forces in Canada were not referred to as the Canadian Army until November 1940.

Question: Who initially had military command?


Answer: Halifax

Question: Where was the commander-in-chief stationed?


Answer: 1906

Question: When did the British Army and Royal Navy withdraw from Halifax?


Answer: the Department of Militia and Defence

Question: The Canadian Armed Forces were initially organized under what department?


Answer: November 1940

Question: When did the unification complete of all the Canadian forces to be called the Canadian Army?


Answer: Second Boer War

Context: The first overseas deployment of Canadian military forces occurred during the Second Boer War, when several units were raised to serve under British command. Similarly, when the United Kingdom entered into conflict with Germany in the First World War, Canadian troops were called to participate in European theatres. The Canadian Crown-in-Council then decided to send its forces into the Second World War, as well as the Korean War.

Question: When was the first overseas deployment of the Canadian Military?


Answer: British command

Question: Under what command did they serve?


Answer: the First World War

Question: When were Canadian Troops called upon to assist in Europe?


Answer: Second World War

Question: What other European war were the Canadian Forces involved in?


Answer: Korean War

Question: What Asian war were the Canadian Forces involved in?


Answer: more than 200 operations

Context: Since 1947, Canadian military units have participated in more than 200 operations worldwide, and completed 72 international operations. Canadian soldiers, sailors, and aviators came to be considered world-class professionals through conspicuous service during these conflicts and the country's integral participation in NATO during the Cold War, First Gulf War, Kosovo War, and in United Nations Peacekeeping operations, such as the Suez Crisis, Golan Heights, Cyprus, Croatia, Bosnia, Afghanistan, and Libya. Canada maintained an aircraft carrier from 1957 to 1970 during the Cold War, which never saw combat but participated in patrols during the Cuban Missile Crisis.

Question: How many operations has the Canadian Military been part of since 1947?


Answer: 72

Question: How many operations have been completed by the Canadian Military Internationally?


Answer: Cold War, First Gulf War, Kosovo War

Question: What are some of the wars the Canadian Military was involved in?


Answer: United Nations Peacekeeping operations

Question: What peace keeping effort is the Canadian Military part of?


Answer: an aircraft carrier

Question: What type of military vehicle was maintained almost 15 years but never saw any action during the Cuban crisis?


Answer: the Normandy Landings

Context: Battles which are particularly notable to the Canadian military include the Battle of Vimy Ridge, the Dieppe Raid, the Battle of Ortona, the Battle of Passchendaele, the Normandy Landings, the Battle for Caen, the Battle of the Scheldt, the Battle of Britain, the Battle of the Atlantic, the strategic bombing of German cities, and more recently the Battle of Medak Pocket, in Croatia.

Question: What famous World War II battle was the Canadian Military part of?


Answer: the strategic bombing of German cities

Question: What effort was the Canadian Military known for in Germany?


Answer: the Battle of Vimy Ridge

Question: What Battle in France was the Canadian Military known for?


Answer: Croatia

Question: What country was the latest Canadian Military effort?


Answer: the largest volunteer army ever

Context: At the end of the Second World War, Canada possessed the fourth-largest air force and fifth-largest naval surface fleet in the world, as well as the largest volunteer army ever fielded. Conscription for overseas service was introduced only near the end of the war, and only 2,400 conscripts actually made it into battle. Originally, Canada was thought to have had the third-largest navy in the world, but with the fall of the Soviet Union, new data based on Japanese and Soviet sources found that to be incorrect.

Question: Canada had which biggest army during the Second World War?


Answer: the Soviet Union

Question: What country fell providing with more information on Canada's army size?


Answer: Japanese

Question: Which other country had a sizable naval army?


Answer: 1 February 1968

Context: The current iteration of the Canadian Armed Forces dates from 1 February 1968, when the Royal Canadian Navy, Canadian Army, and Royal Canadian Air Force were merged into a unified structure and superseded by elemental commands. Its roots, however, lie in colonial militia groups that served alongside garrisons of the French and British armies and navies; a structure that remained in place until the early 20th century. Thereafter, a distinctly Canadian army and navy was established, followed by an air force, that, because of the constitutional arrangements at the time, remained effectively under the control of the British government until Canada gained legislative independence from the United Kingdom in 1931, in part due to the distinguished achievement and sacrifice of the Canadian Corps in the First World War.

Question: When did the Canadian Armed Forced become to be?


Answer: the Royal Canadian Navy, Canadian Army, and Royal Canadian Air Force

Question: What does the Canadian Armed Forces mostly consist of?


Answer: the British government

Question: What prevented Canada from fully having their own army at the start?


Answer: 1931

Question: When did Canada gain independence from the United Kingdom?


Answer: the First World War

Question: What war aided Canadian legislative independence?


Answer: Canadian Armed Forces

Context: After the 1980s, the use of the "Canadian Armed Forces" name gave way to "Canadian Forces";[citation needed] The "Canadian Armed Forces" name returned in 2013.

Question: What is the old name of the Canadian Forces?


Answer: After the 1980s

Question: When did the Canadian Armed Forces name cease to be?


Answer: 2013

Question: When was the Canadian Armed Forces name reintroduced?


Answer: Canadian Forces

Question: What was the new name of the Canadian Armed Forces?


Answer: Land Forces

Context: Land Forces during this period also deployed in support of peacekeeping operations within United Nations sanctioned conflicts. The nature of the Canadian Forces has continued to evolve. They have been deployed in Afghanistan until 2011, under the NATO-led United Nations International Security Assistance Force (ISAF), at the request of the Government of Afghanistan.

Question: What forces were sent out in support of peacekeeping?


Answer: 2011

Question: Until when were Canadian forces in Afghanistan?


Answer: ISAF

Question: What force were the Canadians part of in Afghanistan?


Answer: the Government of Afghanistan

Question: Who requested the aid of the Canadians?


Answer: peacekeeping

Question: What type of operations were mainly done by Canadian forces?


Answer: approximately $20.1 billion

Context: The Armed Forces are today funded by approximately $20.1 billion annually and are presently ranked 74th in size compared to the world's other armed forces by number of total personnel, and 58th in terms of active personnel, standing at a strength of roughly 68,000, plus 27,000 reservists, 5000 Rangers, and 19,000 supplementary reserves, bringing the total force to approximately 119,000. The number of primary reserve personnel is expected to go up to 30,000 by 2020, and the number of active to at least 70,000. In addition, 5000 rangers and 19,000 supplementary personnel will be serving. If this happens the total strength would be around 124,000. These individuals serve on numerous CF bases located in all regions of the country, and are governed by the Queen's Regulations and Orders and the National Defence Act.

Question: What is Today's annual cost of the Canadian Forces?


Answer: 74th in size

Question: How are the Canadian forces ranked in size compared to other military?


Answer: approximately 119,000

Question: What is the total force of the Canadian Forces?


Answer: 2020

Question: By what date is the primary reserve personnel estimated to go up by 30,000?


Answer: around 124,000

Question: What is the total amount of Canadian Forces estimated to be in 2020?


Answer: the Canada First Defence Strategy

Context: In 2008 the Government of Canada made efforts, through the Canada First Defence Strategy, to modernize the Canadian Armed Forces, through the purchase of new equipment, improved training and readiness, as well as the establishment of the Canadian Special Operations Regiment. More funds were also put towards recruitment, which had been dwindling throughout the 1980s and '90s, possibly because the Canadian populace had come to perceive the CAF as peacekeepers rather than as soldiers, as shown in a 2008 survey conducted for the Department of National Defence. The poll found that nearly two thirds of Canadians agreed with the country's participation in the invasion of Afghanistan, and that the military should be stronger, but also that the purpose of the forces should be different, such as more focused on responding to natural disasters. Then CDS, Walter Natynczyk, said later that year that while recruiting has become more successful, the CF was facing a problem with its rate of loss of existing members, which increased between 2006 and 2008 from 6% to 9.2% annually.

Question: What was the effort called to upgrade the Canadian Forces?


Answer: through the purchase of new equipment, improved training and readiness

Question: How were the Canadian Forces upgraded in 2008?


Answer: loss of existing members

Question: What major problem is the CAF trying to address currently?


Answer: main battle tanks, artillery, unmanned air vehicles

Context: The 2006 renewal and re-equipment effort has resulted in the acquisition of specific equipment (main battle tanks, artillery, unmanned air vehicles and other systems) to support the mission in Afghanistan. It has also encompassed initiatives to renew certain so-called "core capabilities" (such as the air force's medium range transport aircraft fleet – the C-130 Hercules – and the army's truck and armoured vehicle fleets). In addition, new systems (such as C-17 Globemaster III strategic transport aircraft and CH-47 Chinook heavy-lift helicopters) have also been acquired for the Armed Forces. Although the viability of the Canada First Defence Strategy continues to suffer setbacks from challenging and evolving fiscal and other factors, it originally aimed to:

Question: What equipment was acquired to aid in Afghanistan?


Answer: C-130 Hercules

Question: What large transport plane is part of the CAF mission?


Answer: CH-47 Chinook heavy-lift helicopters

Question: What new type of helicopter was recently acquired?


Answer: 2006

Question: When was the renewal and re-equipment effort started?


Answer: medicine, communication, logistics, and administration

Context: In the 1950s, the recruitment of women was open to roles in medicine, communication, logistics, and administration. The roles of women in the CAF began to expand in 1971, after the Department reviewed the recommendations of the Royal Commission on the Status of Women, at which time it lifted the ceiling of 1,500 women personnel, and gradually expanded employment opportunities into the non-traditional areas—vehicle drivers and mechanics, aircraft mechanics, air-traffic controllers, military police, and firefighters. The Department further reviewed personnel policies in 1978 and 1985, after Parliament passed the Canadian Human Rights Act and the Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms. As a result of these reviews, the Department changed its policies to permit women to serve at sea in replenishment ships and in a diving tender, with the army service battalions, in military police platoons and field ambulance units, and in most air squadrons.

Question: What roles were women recruited for in the 1950s?


Answer: 1971

Question: What year did further recruitment for women open in the CAF?


Answer: vehicle drivers and mechanics, aircraft mechanics, air-traffic controllers

Question: What non traditional tasks were women recruited for in the 1970s?


Answer: the Department changed its policies

Question: Why were women eventually allowed to serve at sea in the CAF?


Answer: Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms

Question: What charter directly affected a women's right to serve in the CAF?


Answer: infantry, armoured corps, field artillery, air-defence artillery

Context: In 1987, occupations and units with the primary role of preparing for direct involvement in combat on the ground or at sea were still closed to women: infantry, armoured corps, field artillery, air-defence artillery, signals, field engineers, and naval operations. On 5 February 1987, the Minister of National Defence created an office to study the impact of employing men and women in combat units. These trials were called Combat-Related Employment of Women.

Question: Name some of the jobs in the CAF off limits to women in the 1980s.


Answer: 5 February 1987

Question: On what date was a study created to research the impart of women in direct involvement?


Answer: the Minister of National Defence

Question: Who created an office to study these effects?


Answer: Combat-Related Employment of Women

Question: What was the study called?


Answer: 1989

Context: All military occupations were open to women in 1989, with the exception of submarine service, which opened in 2000. Throughout the 1990s, the introduction of women into the combat arms increased the potential recruiting pool by about 100 percent. It also provided opportunities for all persons to serve their country to the best of their abilities. Women were fully integrated in all occupations and roles by the government of Jean Chretien, and by 8 March 2000, even allowed to serve on submarines.

Question: What year were most military occupations opened to women?


Answer: submarine service

Question: What military occupation wasn't opened to women until the 2000s?


Answer: 100 percent

Question: By how much did opening these jobs to women increase the recruiting pool by?


Answer: the government of Jean Chretien

Question: Which government was responsible in Canadian history for this fact?


Answer: equipment must be suitable for a mixed-gender force

Context: All equipment must be suitable for a mixed-gender force. Combat helmets, rucksacks, combat boots, and flak jackets are designed to ensure women have the same level of protection and comfort as their male colleagues. The women's uniform is similar in design to the men's uniform, but conforms to the female figure, and is functional and practical. Women are also provided with an annual financial entitlement for the purchase of brassiere undergarments.

Question: What is a requirement for equipment for the CAF?


Answer: Combat helmets, rucksacks, combat boots

Question: What are some of the equipment used by both men and women?


Answer: an annual financial entitlement for the purchase of brassiere undergarments

Question: What special entitlement are women provided as part of their service?


Answer: It begins at the top with the most senior-ranking personnel and works its way into lower organizations.

Context: The following is the hierarchy of the Canadian Armed Forces. It begins at the top with the most senior-ranking personnel and works its way into lower organizations.

Question: What is the hierarchy of the Canadian Armed Forces?


Answer: The Canadian constitution

Context: The Canadian constitution determines that the Commander-in-Chief of the Canadian Armed Forces is the country's sovereign, who, since 1904, has authorized his or her viceroy, the governor general, to exercise the duties ascribed to the post of Commander-in-Chief and to hold the associated title since 1905. All troop deployment and disposition orders, including declarations of war, fall within the royal prerogative and are issued as Orders in Council, which must be signed by either the monarch or governor general. Under the Westminster system's parliamentary customs and practices, however, the monarch and viceroy must generally follow the advice of his or her ministers in Cabinet, including the prime minister and minister of national defence, who are accountable to the elected House of Commons.

Question: What determines who is the Commander-in-Chief of the Armed forces?


Answer: the governor general

Question: Who does the Commander-in-Chief authorize to make decision regarding the Armed Forces for them?


Answer: troop deployment and disposition orders

Question: What orders fall under the royal prerogative?


Answer: the monarch or governor general

Question: Who must sign these orders for them to be valid?


Answer: the advice of his or her ministers in Cabinet

Question: Who's advice is the monarch supposed to follow regarding these orders?


Answer: 115,349

Context: The Armed Forces' 115,349 personnel are divided into a hierarchy of numerous ranks of officers and non-commissioned members. The governor general appoints, on the advice of the prime minister, the Chief of the Defence Staff (CDS) as the highest ranking commissioned officer in the Armed Forces and who, as head of the Armed Forces Council, is in command of the Canadian Forces. The Armed Forces Council generally operates from National Defence Headquarters (NDHQ) in Ottawa, Ontario. On the Armed Forces Council sit the heads of Canadian Joint Operations Command and Canadian Special Operations Forces Command, the Vice Chief of the Defence Staff, and the heads of the Royal Canadian Navy, the Canadian Army, the Royal Canadian Air Force and other key Level 1 organizations. The sovereign and most other members of the Canadian Royal Family also act as colonels-in-chief, honorary air commodores, air commodores-in-chief, admirals, and captains-general of Canadian Forces units, though these positions are ceremonial.

Question: The armed forces has approximately how many members?


Answer: the Chief of the Defence Staff

Question: Who is the highest ranking member of the Armed Forces?


Answer: The governor general

Question: Who appoints the Chief of the Defence?


Answer: Ottawa, Ontario

Question: What location does the National Defense operate out of?


Answer: the heads of the Royal Canadian Navy, the Canadian Army, the Royal Canadian Air Force and other key Level 1 organizations.

Question: What are some of the members of the Armed Forces Council?


Answer: 27

Context: Canada's Armed forces operate out of 27 Canadian Forces bases (CFB) across the country, including NDHQ. This number has been gradually reduced since the 1970s with bases either being closed or merged. Both officers and non-commissioned members receive their basic training at the Canadian Forces Leadership and Recruit School in Saint-Jean-sur-Richelieu. Officers will generally either directly enter the Canadian Armed Forces with a degree from a civilian university, or receive their commission upon graduation from the Royal Military College of Canada. Specific element and trade training is conducted at a variety of institutions throughout Canada, and to a lesser extent, the world.

Question: How many Canadian Forces bases are there in Canada?


Answer: Saint-Jean-sur-Richelieu

Question: Where do Canadian Forces members go for training?


Answer: Canadian Forces Leadership and Recruit School

Question: What is the place called where initial training happens?


Answer: 33

Context: The Royal Canadian Navy (RCN), headed by the Commander of the Royal Canadian Navy, includes 33 warships and submarines deployed in two fleets: Maritime Forces Pacific (MARPAC) at CFB Esquimalt on the west coast, and Maritime Forces Atlantic (MARLANT) at Her Majesty's Canadian Dockyard in Halifax on the east coast, as well as one formation: the Naval Reserve Headquarters (NAVRESHQ) at Quebec City, Quebec. The fleet is augmented by various aircraft and supply vessels. The RCN participates in NATO exercises and operations, and ships are deployed all over the world in support of multinational deployments.

Question: How many warships does the Royal Canadian Navy have?


Answer: Halifax

Question: Where are the Maritime Forces Atlantic located?


Answer: the Naval Reserve Headquarters (NAVRESHQ)

Question: What formation is located in Quebec?


Answer: NATO exercises

Question: What international exercises does the RCN partake in?


Answer: Commander of the Canadian Army

Context: The Canadian Army is headed by the Commander of the Canadian Army and administered through four divisions—the 2nd Canadian Division, the 3rd Canadian Division, the 4th Canadian Division and the 5th Canadian Division—the Canadian Army Doctrine and Training System and the Canadian Army Headquarters.

Question: Who heads the Canadian Army?


Answer: four divisions

Question: How many divisions are there in the Canadian Army?


Answer: the 2nd Canadian Division, the 3rd Canadian Division, the 4th Canadian Division and the 5th Canadian Division

Question: What are the four divisions?


Answer: the 5th Canadian Division

Question: What division is the Canadian Army Doctrine of?


Answer: the 5th Canadian Division

Question: The Canadian Army Headquarters are located in what division?