Answer: American

Context: In the mid 1970s, various American groups (some with ties to Downtown Manhattan's punk scene, including Television and Suicide) had begun expanding on the vocabulary of punk music. Midwestern groups such as Pere Ubu and Devo drew inspiration from the region's derelict industrial environments, employing conceptual art techniques, musique concrète and unconventional verbal styles that would presage the post-punk movement by several years. A variety of subsequent groups, including New York-based Talking Heads and Boston-based Mission of Burma, combined elements of punk with art school sensibilities. In 1978, the former band began a series of collaborations with British ambient pioneer and ex-Roxy Music member Brian Eno, experimenting with Dada-influenced lyrical techniques, dance music, and African polyrhythms. San Francisco's vibrant post-punk scene was centered around such groups as Chrome, the Residents and Tuxedomoon, who incorporated multimedia experimentation, film and ideas from Antonin Artaud's Theater of Cruelty.

Question: What nationality began birthing groups who expanded the vocabulary of punk music?


Answer: Midwestern

Question: From what region did the group Devo originate?


Answer: New York

Question: Where was the band Talking Heads based out of?


Answer: Brian Eno

Question: Who did the Talking Heads begin a series of collaborations with in 1978?


Answer: San Francisco's

Question: What region's post-punk scene incorporated ideas from Theater of Cruelty?


Answer: mid 1970s

Question: When did the American groups begin to really get in on the post-punk movement?


Answer: Television and Suicide

Question: Which American bands had ties to the Manchester punk scene?


Answer: Pere Ubu and Devo

Question: What were some Midwestern punk bands?


Answer: derelict industrial environments

Question: What did Pere and Devo draw inspiration for their music from?


Answer: Chrome, the Residents and Tuxedomoon

Question: What were groups in San Francisco's post-punk scene?


Answer: nihilistic

Context: Also emerging during this period was New York's no wave movement, a short-lived art and music scene that began in part as a reaction against punk's recycling of traditionalist rock tropes and often reflected an abrasive, confrontational and nihilistic worldview. No wave musicians such as the Contortions, Teenage Jesus and the Jerks, Mars, DNA, Theoretical Girls and Rhys Chatham instead experimented with noise, dissonance and atonality in addition to non-rock styles. The former four groups were included on the Eno-produced No New York compilation, often considered the quintessential testament to the scene. The no wave-affiliated label ZE Records was founded in 1978, and would also produce acclaimed and influential compilations in subsequent years.

Question: What type of worldview did New York's no wave movement tend to have?


Answer: No wave

Question: The Contortions, Teenage Jesus and the Jerks were all musicians part of what movement?


Answer: Eno

Question: Who produced the compilation "No New York"?


Answer: ZE Records

Question: What no wave-affiliated label was founded in 1978?


Answer: noise, dissonance and atonality

Question: In addition to non-rock styles, what did some of the no-wave groups experiment with sonically?


Answer: a short-lived art and music scene that began in part as a reaction against punk's recycling of traditionalist rock tropes

Question: What was no wave?


Answer: an abrasive, confrontational and nihilistic

Question: What type of a view did no wave have?


Answer: No wave

Question: What types of musicians were the Contortions, Teenage Jesus and the Jerks, Mars, DNA, Theoretical Girls and Rhys Chatham?


Answer: 1978

Question: When was ZE Records founded?


Answer: No New York

Question: What was considered the true portrait of the no wave movement?


Answer: support

Context: British post-punk entered the 1980s with support from members of the critical community—American critic Greil Marcus characterised "Britain's postpunk pop avant-garde" in a 1980 Rolling Stone article as "sparked by a tension, humour and sense of paradox plainly unique in present day pop music"—as well as media figures such as BBC DJ John Peel, while several groups, such as PiL and Joy Division, achieved some success in the popular charts. The network of supportive record labels that included Industrial, Fast, E.G., Mute, Axis/4AD and Glass continued to facilitate a large output of music, by artists such as the Raincoats, Essential Logic, Killing Joke, the Teardrop Explodes, and the Psychedelic Furs.

Question: How did critics respond to British post-punk groups in the 1980s?


Answer: American

Question: What nationality was the critic who positively characterized Britain's postpunk scene in an 1980 Rolling Stone article?


Answer: unique

Question: What about the sense of paradox in postpunk different in relation to the pop music of the day?


Answer: BBC

Question: What corporation was John Peel a DJ for?


Answer: record labels

Question: What were Fast, Mute, and Glass in the context of post-punk music?


Answer: 1980s

Question: When did British post-punk emerge?


Answer: Greil Marcus

Question: Who said that British post-punk was "sparked by a tension, humour and sense of paradox plainly unique in present day pop music"?


Answer: PiL and Joy Division

Question: What British post-punk bands had success in the popular charts?


Answer: Industrial, Fast, E.G., Mute, Axis/4AD and Glass

Question: Which record labels really supported the British post-punk movement?


Answer: BBC DJ John Peel

Question: What popular DJ supported the emergence of British post-punk?


Answer: increasingly esoteric writing

Context: However, during this period, major figures and artists in the scene began leaning away from underground aesthetics. In the music press, the increasingly esoteric writing of post-punk publications soon began to alienate their readerships; it is estimated that within several years, NME suffered the loss of half its circulation. Writers like Paul Morley began advocating "overground brightness" instead of the experimental sensibilities promoted in early years. Morley's own musical collaboration with engineer Gary Langan and programmer J. J. Jeczalik, the Art of Noise, would attempt to bring sampled and electronic sounds to the pop mainstream. A variety of more pop-oriented groups, including ABC, the Associates, Adam and the Ants and Bow Wow Wow (the latter two managed by former Sex Pistols manager Malcolm McLaren) emerged in tandem with the development of the New Romantic subcultural scene. Emphasizing glamour, fashion, and escapism in distinction to the experimental seriousness of earlier post-punk groups, the club-oriented scene drew some suspicion from denizens of the movement.

Question: What did the magazines catering to post-punk interest do to alienate their readers?


Answer: underground aesthetics

Question: Many of the big players in the post-punk scene began leaning away from what as time progressed?


Answer: Paul Morley

Question: What writer advocated "overground brightness"?


Answer: NME

Question: Which magazine tied to the post-punk movement lost half of its circulation?


Answer: glamour, fashion, and escapism

Question: What did the club-oriented scene emphasize instead of the experimental seriousness of earlier post-punk groups?


Answer: overground brightness

Question: What did authors and artists begin advocating for instead of the underground scene?


Answer: increasingly esoteric writing

Question: What began to alienate the readers from publications such as NME?


Answer: engineer Gary Langan and programmer J. J. Jeczalik

Question: Who did Paul Morley collaborate with on the Art of Noise?


Answer: attempt to bring sampled and electronic sounds to the pop mainstream

Question: What did the Art of Noise hope to accomplish?


Answer: New Romantic

Question: Which new cultural movement began to emphasize glam, escapism and fashion?


Answer: synthpop

Context: Artists such as Gary Numan, the Human League, Soft Cell, John Foxx and Visage helped pioneer a new synthpop style that drew more heavily from electronic and synthesizer music and benefited from the rise of MTV. Post-punk artists such as Scritti Politti's Green Gartside and Josef K's Paul Haig, previously engaged in avant-garde practices, turned away from these approaches and pursued mainstream styles and commercial success. These new developments, in which post-punk artists attempted to bring subversive ideas into the pop mainstream, began to be categorized under the marketing term new pop.

Question: What style of music was Gary Numan associated with?


Answer: MTV

Question: What did the synthpop style of music benefit from the gaining popularity of?


Answer: electronic and synthesizer music

Question: Synthpop heavily borrowed elements from what type of music?


Answer: subversive

Question: What type of ideas did post-punk artists attempt to sneak into mainstream pop?


Answer: commercial success

Question: What did some post-punk artists reject their previous avant-garde practices to pursue?


Answer: synthpop

Question: What new music style focused on electronic and synthesized sounds?


Answer: MTV

Question: What really helped to launch synthpop?


Answer: pop

Question: What else began to emerge as post-punk groups moved to a more commercial focus?


Answer: post-punk artists attempted to bring subversive ideas into the pop mainstream

Question: How did pos-punk give rise to pop?


Answer: early 1980s

Context: In the early 1980s, Downtown Manhattan's no wave scene transitioned from its abrasive origins into a more dance-oriented sound, with compilations such as ZE's Mutant Disco (1981) highlighting a newly playful sensibility borne out of the city's clash of hip hop, disco and punk styles, as well as dub reggae and world music influences. Artists such as Liquid Liquid, the B-52s, Cristina, Arthur Russell, James White and the Blacks and Lizzy Mercier Descloux pursued a formula described by Luc Sante as "anything at all + disco bottom". The decadent parties and art installations of venues such as Club 57 and the Mudd Club became cultural hubs for musicians and visual artists alike, with figures such as Jean-Michel Basquiat, Keith Haring and Michael Holman frequenting the scene. Other no wave-indebted groups such as Swans, Glenn Branca, the Lounge Lizards, Bush Tetras and Sonic Youth instead continued exploring the early scene's forays into noise and more abrasive territory.

Question: When did Manhattan's no wave scene start becoming more dance-oriented?


Answer: "anything at all + disco bottom"

Question: What formula did a lot of the artists emerging from the scene adhere to?


Answer: decadent

Question: What type of party could be found at venues like Club 57?


Answer: musicians and visual artists alike

Question: Who did the venues because cultural hubs for?


Answer: no wave

Question: What movement was the group the Lounge Lizards indebted to?


Answer: dance-oriented sound

Question: What did Downtown Manhattan's no wave scene transition into?


Answer: abrasive

Question: What type of sound did no wave have before it began to transition to a more dance oriented sound?


Answer: 1981

Question: When was ZE's Mutant Disco released?


Answer: Club 57 and the Mudd Club

Question: What clubs were frequented by artists in the emerging dance scene?


Answer: Germany

Context: In Germany, groups such as Einstürzende Neubauten developed a unique style of industrial music, utilizing avant-garde noise, homemade instruments and found objects. Members of that group would later go on to collaborate with members of the Birthday Party. In Brazil, the post-punk scene grew after the generation of Brasilia rock with bands such as Legião Urbana, Capital Inicial and Plebe Rude and then the opening of the music club Madame Satã in São Paulo, with acts like Cabine C, Titãs, Patife Band, Fellini and Mercenárias, as documented on compilations like The Sexual Life of the Savages and the Não Wave/Não São Paulo series, released in the UK, Germany and Brazil, respectively.[citation needed]

Question: Where did some groups develop a unique style of industrial music?


Answer: industrial

Question: What type of music included noise, homemade instruments, and randomly found objects?


Answer: Brazil

Question: What country had a post-punk scene after a generation of rock?


Answer: compilations

Question: What type of album was The Sexual Life of the Savages?


Answer: UK, Germany

Question: What countries other than Brazil was Brazil's no wave music exported to?


Answer: industrial

Question: What type of music was associated with Einstürzende Neubauten?


Answer: Germany

Question: Where was Einstürzende Neubauten from?


Answer: avant-garde noise, homemade instruments and found objects

Question: How did Einstürzende Neubauten come up with their new industrial sound?


Answer: the Birthday Party

Question: Who did members of Einstürzende Neubauten also collaborate with?


Answer: Brazil

Question: Where was Madame Satã?


Answer: pop

Context: The original post-punk movement ended as the bands associated with the movement turned away from its aesthetics, often in favor of more commercial sounds. Many of these groups would continue recording as part of the new pop movement, with entryism becoming a popular concept. In the United States, driven by MTV and modern rock radio stations, a number of post-punk acts had an influence on or became part of the Second British Invasion of "New Music" there. Some shifted to a more commercial new wave sound (such as Gang of Four), while others were fixtures on American college radio and became early examples of alternative rock. Perhaps the most successful band to emerge from post-punk was U2, who combined elements of religious imagery together with political commentary into their often anthemic music.

Question: What type of music did many of the post-punk bands start indulging in?


Answer: turned away from its aesthetics

Question: How did bands associated with the original post-punk movement cause it to end?


Answer: MTV

Question: What venue drove a lot of the awareness of the music from the now pop post-punk bands?


Answer: American college radio

Question: Where was a lot of the post-punk pop bands played in addition to MTV?


Answer: U2

Question: What band combined religious imagery with political commentary into their music?


Answer: commercial sounds

Question: What was the death knell of the post-punk movement?


Answer: pop

Question: What else would the post-punk bands record under?


Answer: U2

Question: Who was the most successful band to arrise from post-punk?


Answer: entryism

Question: What was one of the most popular concepts of the pop movement?


Answer: MTV and modern rock radio stations

Question: What was a driving force behind the revival of the second British Invasion of New Music to America?


Answer: dismissed

Context: Until recently, in most critical writing the post-punk era was "often dismissed as an awkward period in which punk's gleeful ructions petered out into the vacuity of the Eighties". Contemporary scholars have argued to the contrary, asserting that the period produced significant innovations and music on its own. Simon Reynolds described the period as "a fair match for the sixties in terms of the sheer amount of great music created, the spirit of adventure and idealism that infused it, and the way that the music seemed inextricably connected to the political and social turbulence of its era". Nicholas Lezard wrote that the music of the period "was avant-garde, open to any musical possibilities that suggested themselves, united only in the sense that it was very often cerebral, concocted by brainy young men and women interested as much in disturbing the audience, or making them think, as in making a pop song".

Question: How did most critical writing treat the post-punk era, until recently?


Answer: significant innovations and music

Question: What do contemporary scholars feel the post-punk period contributed in hindsight?


Answer: the sixties

Question: What did Simon Reynolds describe the era of post-punk as a match for in terms of great music created?


Answer: Nicholas Lezard

Question: Who wrote that the music of the post-punk era was avant-garde?


Answer: disturbing

Question: What were the post-punk era artists more interested in doing to their audiences than in entertaining them with pop songs?


Answer: post-punk

Question: What era was usually dismissed as merely an awkward phase of music?


Answer: produced significant innovations and music on its own

Question: What do comtemporary scholars think that post-punk actually did for music?


Answer: Nicholas Lezard

Question: Which critic said that the post-punk period was open to any possibilities as far as music went?


Answer: Simon Reynolds

Question: Who said that the post-punk movement rivaled the Sixties in the shear amount of great music produced?


Answer: cerebral, concocted by brainy young men and women interested as much in disturbing the audience, or making them think, as in making a pop song

Question: What did Nicholas Leonard say united post-punk?


Answer: white and black musical styles

Context: Post-punk was an eclectic genre which resulted in a wide variety of musical innovations and helped merge white and black musical styles. Out of the post-punk milieu came the beginnings of various subsequent genres, including new wave, dance-rock, New Pop, industrial music, synthpop, post-hardcore, neo-psychedelia alternative rock and house music. Bands such as Joy Division, Siouxsie and the Banshees, Bauhaus and the Cure played in a darker, more morose style of post-punk that lead to the development of the gothic rock genre.

Question: What musical styles did post-punk help merge?


Answer: various subsequent genres

Question: What beginnings rose from the dead ashes of post-punk?


Answer: post-punk

Question: New wave, industrial music, synthpop and house all share roots in what genre?


Answer: darker, more morose

Question: What style of music did post-punk band the Cure play in?


Answer: gothic rock

Question: What genre of music did Joy Division help in the development of?


Answer: Post-punk

Question: Which type of eclectic music had a huge variety, large innovations and an "anything goes" mentality?


Answer: Joy Division, Siouxsie and the Banshees, Bauhaus and the Cure

Question: Which darker post-punk bands gave rise to gothic rock?


Answer: Post-punk

Question: Where did systhpop, industrial and neo-psychedelia music derive from?


Answer: darker, more morose style

Question: What type of music was gothic rock?


Answer: new wave, dance-rock, New Pop, industrial music, synthpop, post-hardcore, neo-psychedelia alternative rock and house music

Question: What styles of music did post-punk pave the way for?


Answer: turn of the 21st century

Context: At the turn of the 21st century, a post-punk revival developed in British and American alternative and indie rock, which soon started appearing in other countries, as well. The earliest sign of a revival was the emergence of various underground bands in the mid-'90s. However, the first commercially successful bands – the Strokes, Franz Ferdinand, Interpol, Neils Children and Editors – surfaced in the late 1990s to early 2000s, as did several dance-oriented bands such as the Rapture, Radio 4 and LCD Soundsystem. Additionally, some darker post-punk bands began to appear in the indie music scene in the 2010s, including Cold Cave, She Wants Revenge, Eagulls, the Soft Moon, She Past Away and Light Asylum, who were also affiliated with the darkwave revival, as well as A Place to Bury Strangers, who combined early post-punk and shoegaze. These bands tend to draw a fanbase who are a combination of the indie music subculture, older post-punk fans and the current goth subculture. In the 2010s, Savages played a music reminiscent of early British post-punk bands of the late '70s.

Question: When did a post-punk revival start happening in England and the Colonies?


Answer: emergence of various underground bands

Question: What early sign heralded the post-punk revival?


Answer: the 2010s

Question: When did some of the darker post-punk bands start to appear in the indie scene?


Answer: indie music

Question: The post-punk revival bands bring in a fanbase from what subculture?


Answer: Savages

Question: What band played music similar to that of the early British post-punk bands of the late '70s as recently as 2010?


Answer: turn of the 21st century

Question: When was the post-punk revival in British and American cultures?


Answer: the Strokes, Franz Ferdinand, Interpol, Neils Children and Editors

Question: Who were the most commercially successful bands of the post-punk revival?


Answer: late 1990s to early 2000s

Question: When did the commercially successful post-punk bands begin to hit the scene?


Answer: emergence of various underground bands in the mid-'90s

Question: What was the earliest sign of the post-punk revival?


Answer: Cold Cave, She Wants Revenge, Eagulls, the Soft Moon, She Past Away and Light Asylum

Question: Which dark post-punk bands began to emmerge in the indie scene?


Answer: Canadian

Context: In Canada, the term "football" may refer to Canadian football and American football collectively, or to either sport specifically, depending on context. The two sports have shared origins and are closely related but have significant differences. In particular, Canadian football has 12 players on the field per team rather than 11; the field is roughly 10 yards wider, and 10 yards longer between end-zones that are themselves 10 yards deeper; and a team has only three downs to gain 10 yards, which results in less offensive rushing than in the American game. In the Canadian game all players on the defending team, when a down begins, must be at least 1 yard from the line of scrimmage. (The American game has a similar "neutral zone" but it is only the length of the football.)

Question: Which North American version of football calls for 12 player per side on the field?


Answer: 10

Question: How many yards wider is a Canadian football field than an American football field?


Answer: American

Question: Which version of North American football has smaller end zones?


Answer: three

Question: How many downs does a team have to advance ten yards in Canadian football?


Answer: 1 yard

Question: How far away from the line of scrimmage must Canadian football defenders be?


Answer: May 8, 1974

Context: Canadian football is also played at the high school, junior, collegiate, and semi-professional levels: the Canadian Junior Football League, formed May 8, 1974, and Quebec Junior Football League are leagues for players aged 18–22, many post-secondary institutions compete in Canadian Interuniversity Sport for the Vanier Cup, and senior leagues such as the Alberta Football League have grown in popularity in recent years. Great achievements in Canadian football are enshrined in the Canadian Football Hall of Fame.

Question: On which date was the Canadian Junior Football League formed?


Answer: 18–22

Question: How old are the players in the Quebec Junior Football League?


Answer: Vanier Cup

Question: What trophy is awarded to the winner of Canadian inter-university football competition?


Answer: Canadian Football Hall of Fame

Question: What institution memorializes great Canadian football achievements?


Answer: October 15, 1862

Context: The first written account of a game played was on October 15, 1862, on the Montreal Cricket Grounds. It was between the First Battalion Grenadier Guards and the Second Battalion Scots Fusilier Guards resulting in a win by the Grenadier Guards 3 goals, 2 rouges to nothing.[citation needed] In 1864, at Trinity College, Toronto, F. Barlow Cumberland, Frederick A. Bethune, and Christopher Gwynn, one of the founders of Milton, Massachusetts, devised rules based on rugby football. The game gradually gained a following, with the Hamilton Football Club formed on November 3, 1869, (the oldest football club in Canada). Montreal formed a team April 8, 1872, Toronto was formed on October 4, 1873, and the Ottawa FBC on September 20, 1876.

Question: On which date was the first Canadian football game for which a written record has survived?


Answer: First Battalion Grenadier Guards

Question: Which team won the first recorded Canadian football game?


Answer: Hamilton Football Club

Question: What is the oldest football club in Canada?


Answer: Christopher Gwynn

Question: Which founder of Milton, MA also helped develop the rules of Canadian football?


Answer: 3 goals, 2 rouges to nothing

Question: What was the first final score recorded of a Canadian football game?


Answer: March 24, 1873

Context: The first attempt to establish a proper governing body and adopted the current set of Rugby rules was the Foot Ball Association of Canada, organized on March 24, 1873 followed by the Canadian Rugby Football Union (CRFU) founded June 12, 1880, which included teams from Ontario and Quebec. Later both the Ontario and Quebec Rugby Football Union (ORFU and QRFU) were formed (January 1883), and then the Interprovincial (1907) and Western Interprovincial Football Union (1936) (IRFU and WIFU). The CRFU reorganized into an umbrella organization forming the Canadian Rugby Union (CRU) in 1891. The original forerunners to the current Canadian Football League, was established in 1956 when the IRFU and WIFU formed an umbrella organization, The Canadian Football Council (CFC). And then in 1958 the CFC left The CRFU to become The CFL.

Question: On which date was the first governing body for Canadian football formed?


Answer: Canadian Rugby Football Union

Question: Which governing organization for Canadian football was formed on June 12, 1880?


Answer: 1936

Question: In which year was the Western Interprovincial Football Union founded?


Answer: Canadian Rugby Football Union

Question: Which Canadian football union expanded its scope in 1891?


Answer: Canadian Football Council

Question: Which organization founded in 1956 evolved into the modern Canadian Football League?


Answer: Burnside

Context: The Burnside rules closely resembling American Football that were incorporated in 1903 by The ORFU, was an effort to distinguish it from a more rugby-oriented game. The Burnside Rules had teams reduced to 12 men per side, introduced the Snap-Back system, required the offensive team to gain 10 yards on three downs, eliminated the Throw-In from the sidelines, allowed only six men on the line, stated that all goals by kicking were to be worth two points and the opposition was to line up 10 yards from the defenders on all kicks. The rules were an attempt to standardize the rules throughout the country. The CIRFU, QRFU and CRU refused to adopt the new rules at first. Forward passes were not allowed in the Canadian game until 1929, and touchdowns, which had been five points, were increased to six points in 1956, in both cases several decades after the Americans had adopted the same changes. The primary differences between the Canadian and American games stem from rule changes that the American side of the border adopted but the Canadian side did not (originally, both sides had three downs, goal posts on the goal lines and unlimited forward motion, but the American side modified these rules and the Canadians did not). The Canadian field width was one rule that was not based on American rules, as the Canadian game played in wider fields and stadiums that were not as narrow as the American stadiums.

Question: Which Canadian football rules did the ORFU adopt in 1903?


Answer: CIRFU, QRFU and CRU

Question: Which three Canadian football unions resisted the Burnside Rules?


Answer: 1929

Question: In which year did forward passes become acceptable in Canadian football?


Answer: American

Question: Which style of North American football changed the rules of their game the most from their earliest versions?


Answer: Albert Grey

Context: The Grey Cup was established in 1909 after being donated by Albert Grey, 4th Earl Grey, The Governor General of Canada as the championship of teams under the CRU for the Rugby Football Championship of Canada. Initially an amateur competition, it eventually became dominated by professional teams in the 1940s and early 1950s. The Ontario Rugby Football Union, the last amateur organization to compete for the trophy, withdrew from competition in 1954. The move ushered in the modern era of Canadian professional football.

Question: Who donated a championship trophy for Canadian football teams in 1909?


Answer: 1940s and early 1950s

Question: When did professional teams begin to dominate the Canadian football championship?


Answer: Grey Cup

Question: Which trophy was awarded to a Canadian football champion beginning in 1909?


Answer: Ontario Rugby Football Union

Question: Which was the last amateur team to compete for the Canadian football championship?


Answer: The Governor General of Canada

Question: What government position was held by the man who donated the Grey Cup to Canadian football?


Answer: United States

Context: Canadian football has mostly been confined to Canada, with the United States being the only other country to have hosted a high-level Canadian football game. The CFL's controversial "South Division" as it would come to be officially known attempted to put CFL teams in the United States playing under Canadian rules between 1992 and 1995. The move was aborted after three years; the Baltimore Stallions were the most successful of the numerous Americans teams to play in the CFL, winning the 83rd Grey Cup. Continuing financial losses, a lack of proper Canadian football venues, a pervasive belief that the American teams were simply pawns to provide the struggling Canadian teams with expansion fee revenue, and the return of the NFL to Baltimore prompted the end of Canadian football on the American side of the border.

Question: Which one country besides Canada has hosted a professional Canadian football game?


Answer: 1992

Question: In which year did the CFL first attempt an expansion into the United States?


Answer: Baltimore Stallions

Question: Which American CFL team won the Grey Cup?


Answer: Baltimore

Question: The return of an NFL team to which city contributed to the demise of the CFL's American expansion?


Answer: three

Question: How many years did the CFL South Division last?


Answer: Football Canada

Context: Amateur football is governed by Football Canada. At the university level, 26 teams play in four conferences under the auspices of Canadian Interuniversity Sport; the CIS champion is awarded the Vanier Cup. Junior football is played by many after high school before joining the university ranks. There are 20 junior teams in three divisions in the Canadian Junior Football League competing for the Canadian Bowl. The Quebec Junior Football League includes teams from Ontario and Quebec who battle for the Manson Cup.

Question: Which organization oversees amateur Canadian football?


Answer: 26

Question: How many football teams compete in Canadian Interuniversity Sport?


Answer: Vanier Cup

Question: Which trophy goes to the Canadian Interuniversity Sport football champion?


Answer: Canadian Bowl

Question: What is the name of the championship game for junior Canadian football teams?


Answer: Ontario and Quebec

Question: Which provinces field teams in the Quebec Junior Football League?


Answer: 65

Context: The Canadian football field is 150 yards (137 m) long and 65 yards (59 m) wide with end zones 20 yards (18 m) deep, and goal lines 110 yards (101 m) apart. At each goal line is a set of 40-foot-high (12 m) goalposts, which consist of two uprights joined by an 18 1⁄2-foot-long (5.6 m) crossbar which is 10 feet (3 m) above the goal line. The goalposts may be H-shaped (both posts fixed in the ground) although in the higher-calibre competitions the tuning-fork design (supported by a single curved post behind the goal line, so that each post starts 10 feet (3 m) above the ground) is preferred. The sides of the field are marked by white sidelines, the goal line is marked in white, and white lines are drawn laterally across the field every 5 yards (4.6 m) from the goal line. These lateral lines are called "yard lines" and often marked with the distance in yards from and an arrow pointed toward the nearest goal line. In previous decades, arrows were not used and every yard line was usually marked with the distance to the goal line, including the goal line itself which was marked with a "0"; in most stadiums today, the 10-, 20-, 30-, 40-, and 50-yard lines are marked with numbers, with the goal line sometimes being marked with a "G". The centre (55-yard) line usually is marked with a "C". "Hash marks" are painted in white, parallel to the yardage lines, at 1 yard (0.9 m) intervals, 24 yards (21.9 m) from the sidelines. On fields that have a surrounding running track, such as Commonwealth Stadium, Molson Stadium, and many universities, the end zones are often cut off in the corners to accommodate the track. In 2014, Edmonton placed turf over the track to create full end zones. This was particularly common among U.S.-based teams during the CFL's American expansion, where few American stadiums were able to accommodate the much longer and noticeably wider CFL field.

Question: How many yards wide is a Canadian football field?


Answer: 5.6

Question: How long in meters is the crossbar of a Canadian football goal?


Answer: goal line

Question: What part of a Canadian football field was sometimes marked with a "G"?


Answer: 24 yards (21.9 m)

Question: What distance from the sidelines are hash marks painted on a CFL field?


Answer: visiting

Context: At the beginning of a match, an official tosses a coin and allows the captain of the visiting team call heads or tails. The captain of the team winning the coin toss is given the option of having first choice, or of deferring first choice to the other captain. The captain making first choice may either choose a) to kick off or receive the kick and the beginning of the half, or b) which direction of the field to play in. The remaining choice is given to the opposing captain. Before the resumption of play in the second half, the captain that did not have first choice in the first half is given first choice. Teams usually choose to defer, so it is typical for the team that wins the coin toss to kick to begin the first half and receive to begin the second.

Question: Which team calls heads or tails in the coin flip before a CFL game?


Answer: captain

Question: Who on a football team articulates the team's decision following the coin flip?


Answer: which direction of the field to play in

Question: What can the team that wins the coin toss choose besides whether they wish to kick off or receive the ball?


Answer: the opposing captain

Question: Who makes a choice after the team that wins the coin toss has made their decision?


Answer: forward progress

Context: Play stops when the ball carrier's knee, elbow, or any other body part aside from the feet and hands, is forced to the ground (a tackle); when a forward pass is not caught on the fly (during a scrimmage); when a touchdown (see below) or a field goal is scored; when the ball leaves the playing area by any means (being carried, thrown, or fumbled out of bounds); or when the ball carrier is in a standing position but can no longer move forwards (called forward progress). If no score has been made, the next play starts from scrimmage.

Question: What is the term for play stopped because the ball carrier, although not fully tackled, can no longer advance the ball?


Answer: scrimmage

Question: Where does the next play start unless a team has just scored?


Answer: feet and hands

Question: Which parts of the ball carrier's body do not cause play to stop when they touch the ground?


Answer: forward

Question: Which direction of pass causes play to stop when it is not caught?


Answer: 24 yards

Context: Before scrimmage, an official places the ball at the spot it was at the stop of clock, but no nearer than 24 yards from the sideline or 1 yard from the goal line. The line parallel to the goal line passing through the ball (line from sideline to sideline for the length of the ball) is referred to as the line of scrimmage. This line is similar to "no-man's land"; players must stay on their respective sides of this line until the play has begun again. For a scrimmage to be valid the team in possession of the football must have seven players, excluding the quarterback, within one yard of the line of scrimmage. The defending team must stay a yard or more back from the line of scrimmage.

Question: What minimum distance from the sideline does the official place the ball before play starts?


Answer: line of scrimmage

Question: What is the term for the line across the field where the ball is positioned before a play?


Answer: seven

Question: How many players must the team with possession place near the line of scrimmage?


Answer: one yard

Question: How close to the line of scrimmage can defensive players approach before a play is run?


Answer: 11

Context: On the field at the beginning of a play are two teams of 12 (unlike 11 in American football). The team in possession of the ball is the offence and the team defending is referred to as the defence. Play begins with a backwards pass through the legs (the snap) by a member of the offensive team, to another member of the offensive team. This is usually the quarterback or punter, but a "direct snap" to a running back is also not uncommon. If the quarterback or punter receives the ball, he may then do any of the following:

Question: How many players does each side field in an American football game?


Answer: offence

Question: What is the term for the team who begins a play with control of the ball?


Answer: the snap

Question: What is the initial backward movement of the ball in a play called?


Answer: quarterback or punter

Question: Which two players most commonly receive the first backward pass in a football play?


Answer: down

Context: Each play constitutes a down. The offence must advance the ball at least ten yards towards the opponents' goal line within three downs or forfeit the ball to their opponents. Once ten yards have been gained the offence gains a new set of three downs (rather than the four downs given in American football). Downs do not accumulate. If the offensive team completes 10 yards on their first play, they lose the other two downs and are granted another set of three. If a team fails to gain ten yards in two downs they usually punt the ball on third down or try to kick a field goal (see below), depending on their position on the field. The team may, however use its third down in an attempt to advance the ball and gain a cumulative 10 yards.

Question: What is another term for a completed play?


Answer: three

Question: How many plays can the offence run without gaining ten yards?


Answer: punt

Question: What does a team do when they have not advance the ball enough to score or likely gain a new set of downs?


Answer: three

Question: How many downs does a team get after they've gained ten on their first down?


Answer: ball carrier

Context: There are many rules to contact in this type of football. First, the only player on the field who may be legally tackled is the player currently in possession of the football (the ball carrier). Second, a receiver, that is to say, an offensive player sent down the field to receive a pass, may not be interfered with (have his motion impeded, be blocked, etc.) unless he is within one yard of the line of scrimmage (instead of 5 yards (4.6 m) in American football). Any player may block another player's passage, so long as he does not hold or trip the player he intends to block. The kicker may not be contacted after the kick but before his kicking leg returns to the ground (this rule is not enforced upon a player who has blocked a kick), and the quarterback, having already thrown the ball, may not be hit or tackled.

Question: What is the term for the player that is currently handing the football when play is underway?


Answer: one yard

Question: Within what distance from the line of scrimmage can offensive players who do not have the ball be legally contacted by defensive players?


Answer: hold or trip

Question: What are two illegal ways to block an opposing player's progress near the line of scrimmage?


Answer: quarterback

Question: Which player may not be tackled immediately after they have thrown a pass?


Answer: loss of yardage

Context: Infractions of the rules are punished with penalties, typically a loss of yardage of 5, 10 or 15 yards against the penalized team. Minor violations such as offside (a player from either side encroaching into scrimmage zone before the play starts) are penalized five yards, more serious penalties (such as holding) are penalized 10 yards, and severe violations of the rules (such as face-masking) are typically penalized 15 yards. Depending on the penalty, the penalty yardage may be assessed from the original line of scrimmage, from where the violation occurred (for example, for a pass interference infraction), or from where the ball ended after the play. Penalties on the offence may, or may not, result in a loss of down; penalties on the defence may result in a first down being automatically awarded to the offence. For particularly severe conduct, the game official(s) may eject players (ejected players may be substituted for), or in exceptional cases, declare the game over and award victory to one side or the other. Penalties do not affect the yard line which the offence must reach to gain a first down (unless the penalty results in a first down being awarded); if a penalty against the defence results in the first down yardage being attained, then the offence is awarded a first down.

Question: What is the usual penalty when the rules of play are violated?


Answer: five

Question: How many yards does a team lose when they commit a minor penalty?


Answer: 15

Question: How many yards does a team lose for face-masking?


Answer: first down

Question: What other than yardage is sometimes awarded the offence on a defensive penalty?


Answer: one-yard line

Context: Penalties never result in a score for the offence. For example, a point-of-foul infraction committed by the defence in their end zone is not ruled a touchdown, but instead advances the ball to the one-yard line with an automatic first down. For a distance penalty, if the yardage is greater than half the distance to the goal line, then the ball is advanced half the distance to the goal line, though only up to the one-yard line (unlike American football, in Canadian football no scrimmage may start inside either one-yard line). If the original penalty yardage would have resulted in a first down or moving the ball past the goal line, a first down is awarded.

Question: Where is the ball placed when a defensive penalty is committed in their own end zone?


Answer: Canadian

Question: In which North American style of football is the line of scrimmage never inside the one-yard line?


Answer: Penalties

Question: A play that results in what outcome will never also be a scoring play?


Answer: half the distance to the goal line

Question: How many penalty yards are awarded when the ball is nearer the goal line than the usual penalty yardage?


Answer: the non-penalized team

Context: In most cases, the non-penalized team will have the option of declining the penalty; in which case the results of the previous play stand as if the penalty had not been called. One notable exception to this rule is if the kicking team on a 3rd down punt play is penalized before the kick occurs: the receiving team may not decline the penalty and take over on downs. After the kick is made, change of possession occurs and subsequent penalties are assessed against either the spot where the ball is caught, or the runback.

Question: Who can decline a penalty?


Answer: 3rd down

Question: A team receiving a punt cannot decline a penalty on which down?


Answer: the previous play

Question: The outcome of which play determines the placement of the ball when a penalty is declined?


Answer: decline the penalty

Question: What can a team do when they prefer the original outcome of a play to the situation they would have with a penalty assessed on the other team for that play?


Answer: last three minutes of a half

Context: During the last three minutes of a half, the penalty for failure to place the ball in play within the 20-second play clock, known as "time count" (this foul is known as "delay of game" in American football), is dramatically different from during the first 27 minutes. Instead of the penalty being 5 yards with the down repeated, the base penalty (except during convert attempts) becomes loss of down on first or second down, and 10 yards on third down with the down repeated. In addition, as noted previously, the referee can give possession to the defence for repeated deliberate time count violations on third down.

Question: At which point in a game is the time the offence takes to put the ball in play measured?


Answer: 20

Question: How many seconds elapse before a time count penalty is assessed?


Answer: loss of down

Question: What is the penalty for a time count on the first two downs?


Answer: referee

Question: Who can turn the ball over to the other side if an offensive team incurs too many time count violations?


Answer: 10

Question: How many yards does the offense lose for a time count on third down?


Answer: extended

Context: The clock does not run during convert attempts in the last three minutes of a half. If the 15 minutes of a quarter expire while the ball is live, the quarter is extended until the ball becomes dead. If a quarter's time expires while the ball is dead, the quarter is extended for one more scrimmage. A quarter cannot end while a penalty is pending: after the penalty yardage is applied, the quarter is extended one scrimmage. Note that the non-penalized team has the option to decline any penalty it considers disadvantageous, so a losing team cannot indefinitely prolong a game by repeatedly committing infractions.

Question: What happens to a quarter whose time expires while the ball is still live in play?


Answer: convert attempts

Question: Which plays do not cause time to run off the clock during the final minutes of a half?


Answer: penalty

Question: What causes a quarter to be extended one additional play even if time has run out?


Answer: 15

Question: How long is a quarter in minutes?


Answer: coin toss

Context: In the CFL, if the game is tied at the end of regulation play, then each team is given an equal number of chances to break the tie. A coin toss is held to determine which team will take possession first; the first team scrimmages the ball at the opponent's 35-yard line and advances through a series of downs until it scores or loses possession. If the team scores a touchdown, starting with the 2010 season, it is required to attempt a 2-point conversion. The other team then scrimmages the ball at the same 35-yard line and has the same opportunity to score. After the teams have completed their possessions, if one team is ahead, then it is declared the winner; otherwise, the two teams each get another chance to score, scrimmaging from the other 35-yard line. After this second round, if there is still no winner, during the regular season the game ends as a tie. In a playoff or championship game, the teams continue to attempt to score from alternating 35-yard lines, until one team is leading after both have had an equal number of possessions.

Question: What determines which team gets possession first when extending a game to break a tie?


Answer: 35

Question: At which yard line on their opponent's side does a team take possession of the ball according to the CFL's tie-breaking rules?


Answer: 2010

Question: In which year did the CFL begin requiring teams to attempt 2-point conversions after scoring in a tie-breaking situation?


Answer: second

Question: Which round of tie-breaking is the last possible round in a regular season CFL game?


Answer: playoff or championship

Question: Which CFL games require tie-breaking rounds continue until a winner results?


Answer: two coalitions, led by Great Britain on one side and France

Context: The Seven Years' War was fought between 1755 and 1764, the main conflict occurring in the seven-year period from 1756 to 1763. It involved every great power of the time except the Ottoman Empire, and affected Europe, the Americas, West Africa, India, and the Philippines. Considered a prelude to the two world wars and the greatest European war since the Thirty Years War of the 17th century, it once again split Europe into two coalitions, led by Great Britain on one side and France on the other. For the first time, aiming to curtail Britain and Prussia's ever-growing might, France formed a grand coalition of its own, which ended with failure as Britain rose as the world's predominant power, altering the European balance of power.

Question: What countries led the two coalitions during the Seven Years' War?


Answer: It involved every great power of the time except the Ottoman Empire

Question: What major power of the time was not involved in The Seven Years' War?


Answer: The Seven Years' War was fought between 1755 and 1764

Question: When was the Seven Year' War fought?


Answer: Britain rose as the world's predominant power

Question: What country emerged as the world's predominate power?


Answer: Considered a prelude to the two world wars

Question: What was the Seven Years' War considered as the prelude to?


Answer: Prussia preemptively struck

Context: Realizing that war was imminent, Prussia preemptively struck Saxony and quickly overran it. The result caused uproar across Europe. Because of Prussia's alliance with Britain, Austria formed an alliance with France, seeing an opportunity to recapture Silesia, which had been lost in a previous war. Reluctantly, by following the imperial diet, most of the states of the empire joined Austria's cause. The Anglo-Prussian alliance was joined by smaller German states (especially Hanover). Sweden, fearing Prussia's expansionist tendencies, went to war in 1757 to protect its Baltic dominions, seeing its chance when virtually all of Europe opposed Prussia. Spain, bound by the Pacte de Famille, intervened on behalf of France and together they launched an utterly unsuccessful invasion of Portugal in 1762. The Russian Empire was originally aligned with Austria, fearing Prussia's ambition on the Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth, but switched sides upon the succession of Tsar Peter III in 1762.

Question: Who made the first strike of the Seven Years' War?


Answer: Saxony

Question: What area was the site of the first action in the Seven Years' War


Answer: Prussia's alliance with Britain

Question: What country allied with Prussia?


Answer: Austria formed an alliance with France

Question: What was the initial country to ally with France?


Answer: Anglo-Prussian alliance was joined by smaller German states

Question: The smaller German states joined which side?


Answer: The Dutch Republic, long-time British ally, kept its neutrality intact

Context: Many middle and small powers in Europe, unlike in the previous wars, tried to steer clear away from the escalating conflict, even though they had interests in the conflict or with the belligerents, like Denmark-Norway. The Dutch Republic, long-time British ally, kept its neutrality intact, fearing the odds against Britain and Prussia fighting the great powers of Europe, even tried to prevent Britain's domination in India. Naples, Sicily, and Savoy, although sided with Franco-Spanish party, declined to join the coalition under the fear of British power. The taxation needed for war caused the Russian people considerable hardship, being added to the taxation of salt and alcohol begun by Empress Elizabeth in 1759 to complete her addition to the Winter Palace. Like Sweden, Russia concluded a separate peace with Prussia.

Question: With whom did the Dutch Republic align?


Answer: Naples, Sicily, and Savoy, although sided with Franco-Spanish party, declined to join the coalition under the fear of British power

Question: Which side of the coalitions did Naples, Sicily and Savoy join?


Answer: The taxation needed for war caused the Russian people considerable hardship

Question: How did the war impact the Russian population?


Answer: being added to the taxation of salt and alcohol begun by Empress Elizabeth in 1759

Question: What items had already been taxed by Russian Empress Elizabeth?


Answer: Like Sweden, Russia concluded a separate peace with Prussia.

Question: What two countries concluded a separate peace with Prussia?


Answer: Great Britain, which gained the bulk of New France in North America, Spanish Florida

Context: The war was successful for Great Britain, which gained the bulk of New France in North America, Spanish Florida, some individual Caribbean islands in the West Indies, the colony of Senegal on the West African coast, and superiority over the French trading outposts on the Indian subcontinent. The Native American tribes were excluded from the settlement; a subsequent conflict, known as Pontiac's War, was also unsuccessful in returning them to their pre-war status. In Europe, the war began disastrously for Prussia, but a combination of good luck and successful strategy saw King Frederick the Great manage to retrieve the Prussian position and retain the status quo ante bellum. Prussia emerged as a new European great power. Although Austria failed to retrieve the territory of Silesia from Prussia (its original goal) its military prowess was also noted by the other powers. The involvement of Portugal, Spain and Sweden did not return them to their former status as great powers. France was deprived of many of its colonies and had saddled itself with heavy war debts that its inefficient financial system could barely handle. Spain lost Florida but gained French Louisiana and regained control of its colonies, e.g., Cuba and the Philippines, which had been captured by the British during the war. France and other European powers avenged their defeat in 1778 when the American Revolutionary War broke out, with hopes of destroying Britain's dominance once and for all.

Question: What did Britain gain in North America from the war?


Answer: some individual Caribbean islands in the West Indies,

Question: What did Great Britain gain in the West Indies from the war?


Answer: the colony of Senegal on the West African coast

Question: What did Great Britain gain in Africa from the war?


Answer: France was deprived of many of its colonies

Question: What happened to the scope of France's colonies as a result of the war?


Answer: had saddled itself with heavy war debts that its inefficient financial system could barely handle

Question: How did the war impact France financially?


Answer: The war has been described as the first "world war"

Context: The war has been described as the first "world war", although this label was also given to various earlier conflicts like the Eighty Years' War, the Thirty Years' War, the War of the Spanish Succession and the War of the Austrian Succession, and to later conflicts like the Napoleonic Wars. The term "Second Hundred Years' War" has been used in order to describe the almost continuous level of world-wide conflict during the entire 18th century, reminiscent of the more famous and compact struggle of the 14th century.

Question: What is the grandest label that historians have used to describe the Seven Years' War?


Answer: The term "Second Hundred Years' War" has been used in order to describe the almost continuous level of world-wide conflict during the entire 18th century,

Question: What does the term "Second Hundred Years' War" describe?


Answer: reminiscent of the more famous and compact struggle of the 14th century

Question: What is the precedent for the "Second Hundred Year's War?


Answer: to later conflicts like the Napoleonic Wars

Question: What was a later conflict that some considered the first World War?


Answer: Sweden, fearing Prussia's expansionist tendencies, went to war in 1757 to protect its Baltic dominions,

Context: Realizing that war was imminent, Prussia preemptively struck Saxony and quickly overran it. The result caused uproar across Europe. Because of Prussia's alliance with Britain, Austria formed an alliance with France, seeing an opportunity to recapture Silesia, which had been lost in a previous war. Reluctantly, by following the imperial diet, most of the states of the empire joined Austria's cause. The Anglo-Prussian alliance was joined by smaller German states (especially Hanover). Sweden, fearing Prussia's expansionist tendencies, went to war in 1757 to protect its Baltic dominions, seeing its chance when virtually all of Europe opposed Prussia. Spain, bound by the Pacte de Famille, intervened on behalf of France and together they launched a disastrous invasion of Portugal in 1762. The Russian Empire was originally aligned with Austria, fearing Prussia's ambition on the Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth, but switched sides upon the succession of Tsar Peter III in 1762.

Question: What was Sweden's motivation to join the war?


Answer: Spain, bound by the Pacte de Famille, intervened on behalf of France and together they launched a disastrous invasion of Portugal

Question: What country did Spain invade?


Answer: Spain, bound by the Pacte de Famille, intervened on behalf of France and together they launched a disastrous invasion of Portugal in 1762

Question: When did Spain invade?


Answer: Austria formed an alliance with France, seeing an opportunity to recapture Silesia, which had been lost in a previous war

Question: What region did Austria hope to recapture?


Answer: Spain, bound by the Pacte de Famille, intervened on behalf of France and together they launched a disastrous invasion

Question: What was the result of the invasion by Spain?


Answer: The Dutch Republic, long-time British ally, kept its neutrality intact, fearing the odds against Britain and Prussia fighting the great powers of Europe

Question: Why did Denmark-Norway remain neutral rather than assisting its longtime ally, Britain?


Answer: Sicily, and Savoy, although sided with Franco-Spanish party

Question: Who would Sicily and Savoy normally align with?


Answer: the taxation of salt and alcohol begun by Empress Elizabeth in 1759 to complete her addition to the Winter Palace.

Question: What did Russian Empress Elizabeth use the proceeds of the tax on salt and alcohol for?


Answer: Naples, Sicily, and Savoy, although sided with Franco-Spanish party, declined to join the coalition under the fear of British power

Question: Why did Naples remain neutral?


Answer: superiority over the French trading outposts

Context: The war was successful for Great Britain, which gained the bulk of New France in North America, Spanish Florida, some individual Caribbean islands in the West Indies, the colony of Senegal on the West African coast, and superiority over the French trading outposts on the Indian subcontinent. The Native American tribes were excluded from the settlement; a subsequent conflict, known as Pontiac's War, was also unsuccessful in returning them to their pre-war status. In Europe, the war began disastrously for Prussia, but a combination of good luck and successful strategy saw King Frederick the Great manage to retrieve the Prussian position and retain the status quo ante bellum. Prussia emerged as a new European great power. The involvement of Portugal, Spain and Sweden did not return them to their former status as great powers. France was deprived of many of its colonies and had saddled itself with heavy war debts that its inefficient financial system could barely handle. Spain lost Florida but gained French Louisiana and regained control of its colonies, e.g., Cuba and the Philippines, which had been captured by the British during the war. France and other European powers will soon avenge their defeat in 1778 when American Revolutionary War broke out, with hopes of destroying Britain's dominance once and for all.

Question: What did Great Britain gain with respect to the French trading outposts on the subcontinent of India?


Answer: The Native American tribes were excluded from the settlement

Question: What was the result for the Native American tribes?


Answer: ; a subsequent conflict, known as Pontiac's War, was also unsuccessful in returning them to their pre-war status.

Question: What did the Native American tribes accomplish in the later Pontiac's War?


Answer: good luck and successful strategy

Question: What were two factors that redeemed the outcome for the Prussians?


Answer: King Frederick the Great

Question: Who was the leader of Prussia?


Answer: Great Britain and Austria, had coalesced

Context: The War of the Austrian Succession had seen the belligerents aligned on a time-honoured basis. France’s traditional enemies, Great Britain and Austria, had coalesced just as they had done against Louis XIV. Prussia, the leading anti-Austrian state in Germany, had been supported by France. Neither group, however, found much reason to be satisfied with its partnership: British subsidies to Austria had produced nothing of much help to the British, while the British military effort had not saved Silesia for Austria. Prussia, having secured Silesia, had come to terms with Austria in disregard of French interests. Even so, France had concluded a defensive alliance with Prussia in 1747, and the maintenance of the Anglo-Austrian alignment after 1748 was deemed essential by the Duke of Newcastle, British secretary of state in the ministry of his brother Henry Pelham. The collapse of that system and the aligning of France with Austria and of Great Britain with Prussia constituted what is known as the “diplomatic revolution” or the “reversal of alliances.”

Question: Who was the traditional partner with Great Britain at the beginning of the conflict?


Answer: British military effort had not saved Silesia for Austria

Question: What was gained or lost by Austria?


Answer: British subsidies to Austria had produced nothing of much help to the British

Question: What was the major gain by Great Britain by having Austria as it ally?


Answer: The collapse of that system and the aligning of France with Austria and of Great Britain with Prussia constituted what is known as the “diplomatic revolution”

Question: What alliances were formed in the "diplomatic reversal"?


Answer: . Prussia, having secured Silesia, had come to terms with Austria

Question: Did the loss of Silesia by Austria intensify its battle with Prussia?


Answer: June 2, 1746, Austria and Russia concluded a defensive alliance that covered their own territory and Poland against attack by Prussia or the Ottoman Empire

Context: In 1756 Austria was making military preparations for war with Prussia and pursuing an alliance with Russia for this purpose. On June 2, 1746, Austria and Russia concluded a defensive alliance that covered their own territory and Poland against attack by Prussia or the Ottoman Empire. They also agreed to a secret clause that promised the restoration of Silesia and the countship of Glatz (now Kłodzko, Poland) to Austria in the event of hostilities with Prussia. Their real desire, however, was to destroy Frederick’s power altogether, reducing his sway to his electorate of Brandenburg and giving East Prussia to Poland, an exchange that would be accompanied by the cession of the Polish Duchy of Courland to Russia. Aleksey Petrovich, Graf (count) Bestuzhev-Ryumin, grand chancellor of Russia under Empress Elizabeth, was hostile to both France and Prussia, but he could not persuade Austrian statesman Wenzel Anton von Kaunitz to commit to offensive designs against Prussia so long as Prussia was able to rely on French support.

Question: What Russian-Austrian agreement preceded the Seven Years War that started in 1755-56?


Answer: They also agreed to a secret clause that promised the restoration of Silesia and the countship of Glatz (now Kłodzko, Poland) to Austria

Question: According to the Russian-Austrian pact of 1746, what would happen to Silesia in the event of hostilities with Prussia?


Answer: the countship of Glatz (now Kłodzko, Poland) to Austria

Question: What other area was mentioned regarding Prussian dominion in the Russian-Austrian pact?


Answer: Their real desire, however, was to destroy Frederick’s power altogether

Question: What individual was the main target of the pact?


Answer: he could not persuade Austrian statesman Wenzel Anton von Kaunitz to commit to offensive designs against Prussia

Question: Why couldn't Petrovich persuade Austria to invade Prussia?


Answer: Hanover

Context: The Hanoverian king George II of Great Britain was passionately devoted to his family’s continental holdings, but his commitments in Germany were counterbalanced by the demands of the British colonies overseas. If war against France for colonial expansion was to be resumed, then Hanover had to be secured against Franco-Prussian attack. France was very much interested in colonial expansion and was willing to exploit the vulnerability of Hanover in war against Great Britain, but it had no desire to divert forces to central Europe for Prussia's interest.

Question: What was the house of king George II?


Answer: his commitments in Germany were counterbalanced by the demands of the British colonies overseas

Question: Name two diverse geographies that king George II had to protect.


Answer: it had no desire to divert forces to central Europe for Prussia's interest.

Question: How anxious was France to assist Prussia to take over Hanover?


Answer: France was very much interested in colonial expansion and was willing to exploit the vulnerability of Hanover in war against Great Britain

Question: Why would France want to invade Hanover?


Answer: Hanover had to be secured against Franco-Prussian attack

Question: What was Britain's obligation to Hanover if colonial expansion via war with France was to be resumed?


Answer: goal of pursuing personal political objectives that were often at odds with France’s publicly stated policies

Context: French policy was, moreover, complicated by the existence of the le Secret du roi—a system of private diplomacy conducted by King Louis XV. Unbeknownst to his foreign minister, Louis had established a network of agents throughout Europe with the goal of pursuing personal political objectives that were often at odds with France’s publicly stated policies. Louis’s goals for le Secret du roi included an attempt to win the Polish crown for his kinsman Louis François de Bourbon, prince de Conti, and the maintenance of Poland, Sweden, and Turkey as French client states in opposition to Russian and Austrian interests.

Question: What was the objective of le Secret du roi?


Answer: his kinsman Louis François de Bourbon, prince de Conti,

Question: Who did King Louis XV want on the Polish throne?


Answer: Sweden, and Turkey as French client states in opposition to Russian and Austrian interests

Question: What was King Louis XV's secret ambition for Sweden and Turkey?


Answer: Unbeknownst to his foreign minister,

Question: What French official was kept in the dark about le Secret du roi?


Answer: Poland, Sweden, and Turkey as French client states in opposition to Russian

Question: What countries did King Louis XV want keep in his sphere of influence to thwart the interests of Russia?


Answer: Saxony and Polish west Prussia

Context: Frederick saw Saxony and Polish west Prussia as potential fields for expansion but could not expect French support if he started an aggressive war for them. If he joined the French against the British in the hope of annexing Hanover, he might fall victim to an Austro-Russian attack. The hereditary elector of Saxony, Augustus III, was also elective King of Poland as Augustus III, but the two territories were physically separated by Brandenburg and Silesia. Neither state could pose as a great power. Saxony was merely a buffer between Prussia and Austrian Bohemia, whereas Poland, despite its union with the ancient lands of Lithuania, was prey to pro-French and pro-Russian factions. A Prussian scheme for compensating Frederick Augustus with Bohemia in exchange for Saxony obviously presupposed further spoliation of Austria.

Question: What two geographies did Frederick want for Prussia?


Answer: could not expect French support

Question: What country would refuse support if Frederick wen to war for Saxony and west Prussia?


Answer: he might fall victim to an Austro-Russian attack

Question: What was his concern about trying take Hanover from the British?


Answer: the two territories were physically separated by Brandenburg and Silesia

Question: What kept Augustus III from consolidating Saxony and Poland?


Answer: Poland, despite its union with the ancient lands of Lithuania,

Question: Who was Poland's ancient ally?


Answer: Austria

Context: In the attempt to satisfy Austria at the time, Britain gave their electoral vote in Hanover for the candidacy of Maria Theresa's son, Joseph, as the Holy Roman Emperor, much to the dismay of Frederick and Prussia. Not only that, Britain would soon join the Austro-Russian alliance, but complications arose. Britain's basic framework for the alliance itself was to protect Hanover's interests against France. While at the same time, Kaunitz kept approaching the French in the hope of establishing such alliance with Austria. Not only that, France had no intention to ally with Russia, who meddled with their affairs in Austria's succession war, years earlier, and saw the complete dismemberment of Prussia as unacceptable to the stability of Central Europe.

Question: What country was pleased that Britain used its Hanover vote to elect Joseph as Te Holy Roman Emperor?


Answer: Frederick and Prussia

Question: What country and person were displeased that Britain used it Hanover vote to elect Joseph as the Holy Roman Emporer?


Answer: saw the complete dismemberment of Prussia as unacceptable to the stability of Central Europe.

Question: What was the French view about the dismemberment of Prussia?


Answer: to protect Hanover's interests against France.

Question: What was a major objective of Britain in joining the Austro-Russian alliance?


Answer: Kaunitz kept approaching the French in the hope of establishing such alliance with Austria

Question: What was Kaunitz's objective with the French?


Answer: willing to trade Austrian Netherlands for France's aid

Context: Years later, Kaunitz kept trying to establish France's alliance with Austria. He tried as hard as he could for Austria to not get entangled in Hanover's political affairs, and was even willing to trade Austrian Netherlands for France's aid in recapturing Silesia. Frustrated by this decision and by the Dutch Republic's insistence on neutrality, Britain soon turned to Russia. On September 30, 1755, Britain pledged financial aid to Russia in order to station 50,000 troops on the Livonian-Lithunian border, so they could defend Britain's interests in Hanover immediately. Besthuzev, assuming the preparation was directed against Prussia, was more than happy to obey the request of the British. Unbeknownst to the other powers, King George II also made overtures to the Prussian king; Frederick, who began fearing the Austro-Russian intentions, and was excited to welcome a rapprochement with Britain. On January 16, 1756, the Convention of Westminster was signed wherein Britain and Prussia promised to aid one another in order to achieve lasting peace and stability in Europe.

Question: What was Kaunitz of Austria willing to trade for French help in capturing Silesia?


Answer: to station 50,000 troops on the Livonian-Lithunian border, so they could defend Britain's interests in Hanover

Question: What did Russia use Britain's money for?


Answer: Britain and Prussia

Question: What countries teamed together at the Convention of Westminster?


Answer: January 16, 1756

Question: When was the Convention of Westminster signed?


Answer: Besthuzev, assuming the preparation was directed against Prussia,

Question: Why was Beshuzev happy to put the troops on the Livonian-Lithunian border?


Answer: Empress Elizabeth of Russia was outraged

Context: The carefully coded word in the agreement proved no less catalytic for the other European powers. The results were absolute chaos. Empress Elizabeth of Russia was outraged at the duplicity of Britain's position. Not only that France was so enraged, and terrified, by the sudden betrayal of its only ally. Austria, particularly Kaunitz, used this situation to their utmost advantage. The now-isolated France was forced to accede to the Austro-Russian alliance or face ruin. Thereafter, on May 1, 1756, the First Treaty of Versailles was signed, in which both nations pledged 24.000 troops to defend each other in the case of an attack. This diplomatic revolution proved to be an important cause of the war; although both treaties were self-defensive in nature, the actions of both coalitions made the war virtually inevitable.

Question: What was the response of Empress Elizabeth of Russia to the English-Prussian agreement?


Answer: France was so enraged, and terrified, by the sudden betrayal of its only ally. Austria,

Question: Why was France mad at the British-Prussian agreement?


Answer: France was forced to accede to the Austro-Russian alliance

Question: France was now in a desperate position, what did they do?


Answer: Austria, particularly Kaunitz, used this situation to their utmost advantage. The now-isolated France

Question: Who were the parties to the treaty of Versailles?


Answer: 24.000 troops

Question: How many troops did Austria and France pledge to defend each other?


Answer: the Forks" where the Allegheny and Monongahela Rivers meet to form the Ohio River

Context: The most important French fort planned was intended to occupy a position at "the Forks" where the Allegheny and Monongahela Rivers meet to form the Ohio River (present day Pittsburgh, Pennsylvania). Peaceful British attempts to halt this fort construction were unsuccessful, and the French proceeded to build the fort they named Fort Duquesne. British colonial militia from Virginia were then sent to drive them out. Led by George Washington, they ambushed a small French force at Jumonville Glen on 28 May 1754 killing ten, including commander Jumonville. The French retaliated by attacking Washington's army at Fort Necessity on 3 July 1754 and forced Washington to surrender.

Question: Where did the French build Fort Duquesne?


Answer: Pittsburgh, Pennsylvania

Question: What city is now located where Fort Duquesne was built?


Answer: British attempts to halt this fort construction were unsuccessful

Question: Were the British successful in stopping the building of Fort Duquesne?


Answer: Led by George Washington

Question: Who led the British militia to drive the French out of Fort Duquesne?


Answer: Fort Necessity

Question: Where did the French for General George Washington's surrender?


Answer: Britain and France

Context: News of this arrived in Europe, where Britain and France unsuccessfully attempted to negotiate a solution. The two nations eventually dispatched regular troops to North America to enforce their claims. The first British action was the assault on Acadia on 16 June 1755 in the Battle of Fort Beauséjour, which was immediately followed by their expulsion of the Acadians. In July British Major General Edward Braddock led about 2,000 army troops and provincial militia on an expedition to retake Fort Duquesne, but the expedition ended in disastrous defeat. In further action, Admiral Edward Boscawen fired on the French ship Alcide on 8 June 1755, capturing it and two troop ships. In September 1755, French and British troops met in the inconclusive Battle of Lake George.

Question: Which country dispatched regular troops to North America?


Answer: the expedition ended in disastrous defeat

Question: What was the result of the British attack on Ft Duquesne?


Answer: British Major General Edward Braddock

Question: Who led the British assault on Ft. Duquesne?


Answer: Admiral Edward Boscawen fired on the French ship Alcide on 8 June 1755, capturing it and two troop ships

Question: What was the result of the naval encounter between Britain and France?


Answer: inconclusive

Question: Who won the Battle of Lake George?


Answer: It would let colonies defend themselves or would offer only minimal help

Context: For much of the eighteenth century, France approached its wars in the same way. It would let colonies defend themselves or would offer only minimal help (sending them limited numbers of troops or inexperienced soldiers), anticipating that fights for the colonies would most likely be lost anyway. This strategy was to a degree forced upon France: geography, coupled with the superiority of the British navy, made it difficult for the French navy to provide significant supplies and support to French colonies. Similarly, several long land borders made an effective domestic army imperative for any French ruler. Given these military necessities, the French government, unsurprisingly, based its strategy overwhelmingly on the army in Europe: it would keep most of its army on the continent, hoping for victories closer to home. The plan was to fight to the end of hostilities and then, in treaty negotiations, to trade territorial acquisitions in Europe to regain lost overseas possessions. This approach did not serve France well in the war, as the colonies were indeed lost, but although much of the European war went well, by its end France had few counterbalancing European successes.

Question: How much effort did France put into wars to defend its colonies?


Answer: geography, coupled with the superiority of the British navy, made it difficult

Question: Identify a major factor in this feckless strategy by France of not defending its colonies with enthusiasm?


Answer: several long land borders made an effective domestic army imperative

Question: Why did the French rulers need a large domestic army?


Answer: France had few counterbalancing European successes.

Question: How much success did France have in adding European territory with this approach?


Answer: in treaty negotiations, to trade territorial acquisitions in Europe to regain lost overseas possessions.

Question: In treaty negotiations, what trades did France hope to make.


Answer: allying themselves with one or more Continental powers whose interests were antithetical to those of their enemies,

Context: The British—by inclination as well as for practical reasons—had tended to avoid large-scale commitments of troops on the Continent. They sought to offset the disadvantage of this in Europe by allying themselves with one or more Continental powers whose interests were antithetical to those of their enemies, particularly France.:15–16 By subsidising the armies of continental allies, Britain could turn London's enormous financial power to military advantage. In the Seven Years' War, the British chose as their principal partner the greatest general of the day, Frederick the Great of Prussia, then the rising power in central Europe, and paid Frederick substantial subsidies for his campaigns.:106 This was accomplished in the Diplomatic Revolution of 1756, in which Britain ended its long-standing alliance with Austria in favor of Prussia, leaving Austria to side with France. In marked contrast to France, Britain strove to prosecute the war actively in the colonies, taking full advantage of its naval power. :64–66 The British pursued a dual strategy – naval blockade and bombardment of enemy ports, and rapid movement of troops by sea. They harassed enemy shipping and attacked enemy colonies, frequently using colonists from nearby British colonies in the effort.

Question: How did the British avoid having large contingents of troops in continental Europe?


Answer: Britain could turn London's enormous financial power to military advantage

Question: Identify an advantage that Britain had during the Seven Year's War.


Answer: Frederick the Great of Prussia

Question: Who led the armies supporting British interests in central Europe?


Answer: leaving Austria to side with France

Question: What country was driven into an alliance with France by the British pairing with Prussia?


Answer: In marked contrast to France, Britain strove to prosecute the war actively in the colonies

Question: How did the British behave in defending their colonies compared to the French approach?


Answer: a grand strategy of seizing the entire French Empire

Context: William Pitt, who entered the cabinet in 1756, had a grand vision for the war that made it entirely different from previous wars with France. As prime minister Pitt committed Britain to a grand strategy of seizing the entire French Empire, especially its possessions in North America and India. Britain's main weapon was the Royal Navy, which could control the seas and bring as many invasion troops as were needed. He also planned to use colonial forces from the Thirteen American colonies, working under the command of British regulars, to invade new France. In order to tie the French army down he subsidized his European allies. Pitt Head of the government from 1756 to 1761, and even after that the British continued his strategy. It proved completely successful. Pitt had a clear appreciation of the enormous value of imperial possessions, and realized how vulnerable was the French Empire.

Question: What was the grand strategy of prime minister William Pitt?


Answer: Britain's main weapon was the Royal Navy

Question: What was Pitt's primary military advantage?


Answer: North America and India

Question: What locations did Pitt want from France?


Answer: He also planned to use colonial forces from the Thirteen American colonies

Question: How did Pitt plan to augment the British regular troops?


Answer: even after that the British continued his strategy

Question: How did Pitt's strategy affect Britain's future plans?


Answer: the new series of alliances could prevent war from breaking out in Europe

Context: The British Prime Minister, the Duke of Newcastle, was optimistic that the new series of alliances could prevent war from breaking out in Europe. However, a large French force was assembled at Toulon, and the French opened the campaign against the British by an attack on Minorca in the Mediterranean. A British attempt at relief was foiled at the Battle of Minorca, and the island was captured on 28 June (for which Admiral Byng was court-martialed and executed). War between Britain and France had been formally declared on 18 May nearly two years after fighting had broken out in the Ohio Country.

Question: What was the reason that the British Prime Minister thought that ware in Europe could be prevented?


Answer: the French opened the campaign against the British by an attack on Minorca

Question: What country initiated conflict?


Answer: Admiral Byng was court-martialed and executed

Question: What was the result for Admiral Byng?


Answer: War between Britain and France had been formally declared on 18 May

Question: When was war declared between Britain and France?


Answer: nearly two years after fighting had broken out in the Ohio Country.

Question: How did the timing of the declaration of war compare to the conflicts in North America between Britain and France?


Answer: he led Prussian troops across the border of Saxony

Context: Frederick II of Prussia had received reports of the clashes in North America and had formed an alliance with Great Britain. On 29 August 1756, he led Prussian troops across the border of Saxony, one of the small German states in league with Austria. He intended this as a bold pre-emption of an anticipated Austro-French invasion of Silesia. He had three goals in his new war on Austria. First, he would seize Saxony and eliminate it as a threat to Prussia, then using the Saxon army and treasury to aid the Prussian war effort. His second goal was to advance into Bohemia where he might set up winter quarters at Austria's expense. Thirdly, he wanted to invade Moravia from Silesia, seize the fortress at Olmütz, and advance on Vienna to force an end to the war.

Question: How did Frederick II of Prussia respond to news of British and French clashes in North America?


Answer: Saxony, one of the small German states in league with Austria

Question: What country was Saxony aligned with?


Answer: pre-emption of an anticipated Austro-French invasion of Silesia

Question: Fpr what possession of Prussia was the Saxony invasion a distraction?


Answer: he would seize Saxony and eliminate it as a threat to Prussia

Question: What was one goal of the invasion of Saxony?


Answer: to advance into Bohemia where he might set up winter quarters at Austria's expense

Question: What was another goal of the invasion of Saxony?


Answer: leaving Field Marshal Count Kurt von Schwerin in Silesia with 25,000 soldiers to guard against incursions from Moravia or Hungary

Context: Accordingly, leaving Field Marshal Count Kurt von Schwerin in Silesia with 25,000 soldiers to guard against incursions from Moravia or Hungary, and leaving Field Marshal Hans von Lehwaldt in East Prussia to guard against Russian invasion from the east, Frederick set off with his army for Saxony. The Prussian army marched in three columns. On the right was a column of about 15,000 men under the command of Prince Ferdinand of Brunswick. On the left was a column of 18,000 men under the command of the Duke of Brunswick-Bevern. In the centre was Frederick II, himself with Field Marshal James Keith commanding a corps of 30,000 troops. Ferdinand of Brunswick was to close in on the town of Chemnitz. The Duke of Brunswick-Bevern was to traverse Lusatia to close in on Bautzen. Meanwhile, Frederick and Field Marshal Keith would make for Dresden.

Question: How did Frederick protect Silesia when he went to invade Saxony?


Answer: leaving Field Marshal Hans von Lehwaldt in East Prussia to guard against Russian invasion from the east

Question: How did Frederick protect East Prussia when he went to invade Saxony?


Answer: a column of about 15,000 men

Question: Describe the command of Prince Ferdinand of Brunswick.


Answer: a column of 18,000 men

Question: Describe the command of the Duke ofBrunswich-Bevern.


Answer: a corps of 30,000 troops.

Question: Describe the command of Field Marshall James Keith


Answer: Saxon and Austrian armies were unprepared, and their forces were scattered.

Context: The Saxon and Austrian armies were unprepared, and their forces were scattered. Frederick occupied Dresden with little or no opposition from the Saxons. At the Battle of Lobositz on 1 October 1756, Frederick prevented the isolated Saxon army from being reinforced by an Austrian army under General Browne. The Prussians then occupied Saxony; after the Siege of Pirna, the Saxon army surrendered in October 1756, and was forcibly incorporated into the Prussian army. The attack on neutral Saxony caused outrage across Europe and led to the strengthening of the anti-Prussian coalition. The only significant Austrian success was the partial occupation of Silesia. Far from being easy, Frederick's early successes proved indecisive and very costly for Prussia's smaller army. This led him to remark that he did not fight the same Austrians as he had during the previous war.

Question: How much resistance did Frederick encounter in Saxon?


Answer: Frederick prevented the isolated Saxon army from being reinforced by an Austrian army under General Browne

Question: What reinforcements were the Saxons expecting?


Answer: Saxon army surrendered in October 1756, and was forcibly incorporated into the Prussian army

Question: What happened to the Saxon army?


Answer: led to the strengthening of the anti-Prussian coalition

Question: What was the result of the fury of Europe?


Answer: attack on neutral Saxony caused outrage

Question: What characteristic of Saxony caused Europe to be mad?


Answer: combined force of allied German states was organised by the British to protect Hanover

Context: Britain had been surprised by the sudden Prussian offensive but now began shipping supplies and ₤670,000 (equivalent to ₤89.9 million in 2015) to its new ally. A combined force of allied German states was organised by the British to protect Hanover from French invasion, under the command of the Duke of Cumberland. The British attempted to persuade the Dutch Republic to join the alliance, but the request was rejected, as the Dutch wished to remain fully neutral. Despite the huge disparity in numbers, the year had been successful for the Prussian-led forces on the continent, in contrast to disappointing British campaigns in North America.

Question: How did Britain Protect Hanover?


Answer: shipping supplies and ₤670,000

Question: How did the British support Prussia?


Answer: the Dutch wished to remain fully neutral

Question: Why did the Dutch reject Britain's offer to join the alliance?


Answer: successful for the Prussian-led forces on the continent, in contrast to disappointing British campaigns in North America.

Question: Who had done better, the Prussians in Europe or the Brits in North America?


Answer: under the command of the Duke of Cumberland

Question: Who led the force to defend Hanover?


Answer: the fortifications of Prague

Context: In early 1757, Frederick II again took the initiative by marching into the Kingdom of Bohemia, hoping to inflict a decisive defeat on Austrian forces. After winning the bloody Battle of Prague on 6 May 1757, in which both forces suffered major casualties, the Prussians forced the Austrians back into the fortifications of Prague. The Prussian army then laid siege to the city. Following the battle at Prague, Frederick took 5,000 troops from the siege at Prague and sent them to reinforce the 19,000-man army under the Duke of Brunswick-Bevern at Kolin in Bohemia. Austrian Marshal Daun arrived too late to participate in the battle of Prague, but picked up 16,000 men who had escaped from the battle. With this army he slowly moved to relieve Prague. The Prussian army was too weak to simultaneously besiege Prague and keep Daun away, and Frederick was forced to attack prepared positions. The resulting Battle of Kolin was a sharp defeat for Frederick, his first military defeat. His losses further forced him to lift the siege and withdraw from Bohemia altogether.

Question: Where did the Austrians retreat in May of 1757?


Answer: both forces suffered major casualties

Question: What were casualties like in the 1757 battle in Prague?


Answer: Frederick II

Question: Who led the Prussian assault on Prague in 1757


Answer: Frederick took 5,000 troops from the siege at Prague and sent them to reinforce the 19,000-man army under the Duke of Brunswick-Bevern at Kolin in Bohemia

Question: Why did Frederick reduce his manpower at Prague?


Answer: picked up 16,000 men who had escaped from the battle. With this army he slowly moved to relieve Prague.

Question: How did Austrian Marshall Daun reverse the situation at Prague?


Answer: five days of artillery bombardment

Context: Later that summer, the Russians invaded Memel with 75,000 troops. Memel had one of the strongest fortresses in Prussia. However, after five days of artillery bombardment the Russian army was able to storm it. The Russians then used Memel as a base to invade East Prussia and defeated a smaller Prussian force in the fiercely contested Battle of Gross-Jägersdorf on 30 August 1757. However, it was not yet able to take Königsberg and retreated soon afterward. Still, it was a new threat to Prussia. Not only was Frederick forced to break off his invasion of Bohemia, he was now forced to withdraw further into Prussian-controlled territory. His defeats on the battlefield brought still more opportunist nations into the war. Sweden declared war on Prussia and invaded Pomerania with 17,000 men. Sweden felt this small army was all that was needed to occupy Pomerania and felt the Swedish army would not need to engage with the Prussians because the Prussians were occupied on so many other fronts.

Question: What led to the defeat of the Prussians at Memel?


Answer: used Memel as a base to invade East Prussia

Question: How did the Russians used the captured Memel?


Answer: defeated a smaller Prussian force

Question: What caused the Russians based in Memel to be successful deeper into Prussia?


Answer: he was now forced to withdraw further into Prussian-controlled territory

Question: What was Frederick's response to the Russian invasion?


Answer: Sweden

Question: What additional country felt emboldened to invade Prussia?


Answer: the Austrians mobilising to attack Prussian-controlled soil and a French army under Soubise approaching from the west

Context: Things were looking grim for Prussia now, with the Austrians mobilising to attack Prussian-controlled soil and a French army under Soubise approaching from the west. However, in November and December of 1757, the whole situation in Germany was reversed. First, Frederick devastated Prince Soubise's French force at the Battle of Rossbach on 5 November 1757 and then routed a vastly superior Austrian force at the Battle of Leuthen on 5 December 1757 With these victories, Frederick once again established himself as Europe's premier general and his men as Europe's most accomplished soldiers. In spite of this, the Prussians were now facing the prospect of four major powers attacking on four fronts (France from the West, Austria from the South, Russia from the East and Sweden from the North). Meanwhile, a combined force from a number of smaller German states such as Bavaria had been established under Austrian leadership, thus threatening Prussian control of Saxony.

Question: What were reasons that the late 1757 time frame looked bad for Prussia?


Answer: Frederick devastated Prince Soubise's French force at the Battle of Rossbach on 5 November 1757

Question: What was the initial result of the French invasion?


Answer: then routed a vastly superior Austrian force at the Battle of Leuthen on 5 December 1757

Question: What was the result of the Austrian invasion?


Answer: (France from the West, Austria from the South, Russia from the East and Sweden from the North)

Question: Name the four opponents of Prussia.


Answer: a number of smaller German states such as Bavaria had been established under Austrian leadership

Question: What German areas were beginning to oppose Prussia?


Answer: Cumberland

Context: This problem was compounded when the main Hanoverian army under Cumberland was defeated at the Battle of Hastenbeck and forced to surrender entirely at the Convention of Klosterzeven following a French Invasion of Hanover. The Convention removed Hanover and Brunswick from the war, leaving the Western approach to Prussian territory extremely vulnerable. Frederick sent urgent requests to Britain for more substantial assistance, as he was now without any outside military support for his forces in Germany.

Question: What Hanoverian leader lost the Battle of Hastenbeck?


Answer: French

Question: What country won the battle at Hanover?


Answer: Convention removed Hanover and Brunswick from the war

Question: How would one describe the future participation of Hanover?


Answer: Frederick sent urgent requests to Britain for more substantial assistance

Question: How did Frederick respond to the defeat at Hanover?


Answer: Calculating that no further Russian advance was likely until 1758

Context: Calculating that no further Russian advance was likely until 1758, Frederick moved the bulk of his eastern forces to Pomerania under the command of Marshal Lehwaldt where they were to repel the Swedish invasion. In short order, the Prussian army drove the Swedes back, occupied most of Swedish Pomerania, and blockaded its capital Stralsund. George II of Great Britain, on the advice of his British ministers, revoked the Convention of Klosterzeven, and Hanover reentered the war. Over the winter the new commander of the Hanoverian forces, Duke Ferdinand of Brunswick, regrouped his army and launched a series of offensives that drove the French back across the River Rhine. The British had suffered further defeats in North America, particularly at Fort William Henry. At home, however, stability had been established. Since 1756, successive governments led by Newcastle and Pitt had fallen. In August 1757, the two men agreed to a political partnership and formed a coalition government that gave new, firmer direction to the war effort. The new strategy emphasised both Newcastle's commitment to British involvement on the Continent, particularly in defence of Germany, and William Pitt's determination to use naval power to seize French colonies around the globe. This "dual strategy" would dominate British policy for the next five years.

Question: Why did Ferdinand feel comfortable withdrawing troops from the eastern front?


Answer: the Prussian army drove the Swedes back, occupied most of Swedish Pomerania

Question: What was the result of Prussian resistance to Sweden?


Answer: occupied most of Swedish Pomerania

Question: What area of Sweden was occupied by Prussia?


Answer: Duke Ferdinand of Brunswick, regrouped his army and launched a series of offensives that drove the French back across the River Rhine.

Question: What favorable developments occurred for Prussia in Hanover?


Answer: successive governments led by Newcastle and Pitt had fallen. In August 1757, the two men agreed to a political partnership and formed a coalition

Question: What political development shaped the policy of the British?


Answer: Count András Hadik

Context: Between 10 and 17 October 1757, a Hungarian general, Count András Hadik, serving in the Austrian army, executed what may be the most famous hussar action in history. When the Prussian King Frederick was marching south with his powerful armies, the Hungarian general unexpectedly swung his force of 5,000, mostly hussars, around the Prussians and occupied part of their capital, Berlin, for one night. The city was spared for a negotiated ransom of 200,000 thalers. When Frederick heard about this humiliating occupation, he immediately sent a larger force to free the city. Hadik, however, left the city with his Hussars and safely reached the Austrian lines. Subsequently, Hadik was promoted to the rank of Marshal in the Austrian army.

Question: What Hungarian general humiliated the Prussians?


Answer: occupied part of their capital, Berlin, for one night

Question: What city did Hadik occupy?


Answer: city was spared for a negotiated ransom of 200,000 thalers

Question: How was Berlin spared?