Answer: four

Context: The five Great Lakes are located in the north-central portion of the country, four of them forming part of the border with Canada, only Lake Michigan situated entirely within United States. The southeast United States contain subtropical forests and, near the gulf coast, mangrove wetlands, especially in Florida. West of the Appalachians lies the Mississippi River basin and two large eastern tributaries, the Ohio River and the Tennessee River. The Ohio and Tennessee Valleys and the Midwest consist largely of rolling hills and productive farmland, stretching south to the Gulf Coast.

Question: How many Great Lakes form a border with Canada?


Answer: Lake Michigan

Question: Which of the Great Lakes is entirely located in US territory?


Answer: Mississippi River

Question: Which major river is located west of the Appalachian mountains?


Answer: rolling hills and productive farmland

Question: What type of land makes up the Ohio and Tennessee valleys?


Answer: southeast United States

Question: Which section of the US contains subtropical forests and mangrove wetlands?


Answer: The Great Plains

Context: The Great Plains lie west of the Mississippi River and east of the Rocky Mountains. A large portion of the country's agricultural products are grown in the Great Plains. Before their general conversion to farmland, the Great Plains were noted for their extensive grasslands, from tallgrass prairie in the eastern plains to shortgrass steppe in the western High Plains. Elevation rises gradually from less than a few hundred feet near the Mississippi River to more than a mile high in the High Plains. The generally low relief of the plains is broken in several places, most notably in the Ozark and Ouachita Mountains, which form the U.S. Interior Highlands, the only major mountainous region between the Rocky Mountains and the Appalachian Mountains.

Question: What area is located in between the Mississippi River and the Rocky Mountains?


Answer: the Great Plains

Question: In which area are a large number of the country's agricultural products grown?


Answer: a mile high

Question: How high does elevation rise in the Great Plains?


Answer: Interior Highlands

Question: What is the only major mountain ranged located between the Appalachian Mountains and the Rocky Mountains?


Answer: Canada

Context: The Great Plains come to an abrupt end at the Rocky Mountains. The Rocky Mountains form a large portion of the Western U.S., entering from Canada and stretching nearly to Mexico. The Rocky Mountain region is the highest region of the United States by average elevation. The Rocky Mountains generally contain fairly mild slopes and wider peaks compared to some of the other great mountain ranges, with a few exceptions (such as the Teton Mountains in Wyoming and the Sawatch Range in Colorado). The highest peaks of the Rockies are found in Colorado, the tallest peak being Mount Elbert at 14,440 ft (4,400 m). The Rocky Mountains contain some of the most spectacular, and well known scenery in the world. In addition, instead of being one generally continuous and solid mountain range, it is broken up into a number of smaller, intermittent mountain ranges, forming a large series of basins and valleys.

Question: Which northern country do the Rocky Mountains begin at?


Answer: Mexico

Question: Which northern country do the Rocky Mountains terminate at?


Answer: The Rocky Mountain

Question: In the US, which region is the highest by elevation?


Answer: Colorado

Question: In which state are the highest peaks of the Rocky Mountains found?


Answer: Intermontane Plateaus

Context: West of the Rocky Mountains lies the Intermontane Plateaus (also known as the Intermountain West), a large, arid desert lying between the Rockies and the Cascades and Sierra Nevada ranges. The large southern portion, known as the Great Basin, consists of salt flats, drainage basins, and many small north-south mountain ranges. The Southwest is predominantly a low-lying desert region. A portion known as the Colorado Plateau, centered around the Four Corners region, is considered to have some of the most spectacular scenery in the world. It is accentuated in such national parks as Grand Canyon, Arches, Mesa Verde National Park and Bryce Canyon, among others. Other smaller Intermontane areas include the Columbia Plateau covering eastern Washington, western Idaho and northeast Oregon and the Snake River Plain in Southern Idaho.

Question: What is the name of the plateau that lies west of the Rocky Mountains?


Answer: the Great Basin

Question: What is the name of the large southern portion of the Intermontane Plateaus?


Answer: salt flats

Question: What type of flats compose the Great Basin?


Answer: Colorado Plateau

Question: What region is centered around the Four Corners?


Answer: Cascade Range

Context: The Intermontane Plateaus come to an end at the Cascade Range and the Sierra Nevada. The Cascades consist of largely intermittent, volcanic mountains, many rising prominently from the surrounding landscape. The Sierra Nevada, further south, is a high, rugged, and dense mountain range. It contains the highest point in the contiguous 48 states, Mount Whitney (14,505 ft or 4,421 m) It is located at the boundary between California's Inyo and Tulare counties, just 84.6 mi or 136.2 km west-northwest of the lowest point in North America at the Badwater Basin in Death Valley National Park at 279 ft or 85 m below sea level.

Question: What is the name of the range where the Intermontane plateaus end?


Answer: Sierra Nevada

Question: Which mountain range contains Mount Whitney?


Answer: volcanic mountains

Question: What type of mountains compose the Cascades?


Answer: Mount Whitney

Question: What is the largest point in the Sierra Nevadas?


Answer: 14,505 ft

Question: How tall is Mount Whitney?


Answer: Yosemite and Mount Rainier

Context: These areas contain some spectacular scenery as well, as evidenced by such national parks as Yosemite and Mount Rainier. West of the Cascades and Sierra Nevada is a series of valleys, such as the Central Valley in California and the Willamette Valley in Oregon. Along the coast is a series of low mountain ranges known as the Pacific Coast Ranges. Much of the Pacific Northwest coast is inhabited by some of the densest vegetation outside of the Tropics, and also the tallest trees in the world (the Redwoods).

Question: What are two national parks located in the mountainous regions?


Answer: Central Valley

Question: What is the name of the famous valley located in California?


Answer: Willamette Valley

Question: What is the name of the famous valley located in Oregon?


Answer: Pacific Coast Ranges

Question: What are the low mountain ranges that are located along the pacific coast called?


Answer: Redwoods

Question: What are the tallest trees in the world?


Answer: crustal deformations

Context: The Atlantic coast of the United States is low, with minor exceptions. The Appalachian Highland owes its oblique northeast-southwest trend to crustal deformations which in very early geological time gave a beginning to what later came to be the Appalachian mountain system. This system had its climax of deformation so long ago (probably in Permian time) that it has since then been very generally reduced to moderate or low relief. It owes its present-day altitude either to renewed elevations along the earlier lines or to the survival of the most resistant rocks as residual mountains. The oblique trend of this coast would be even more pronounced but for a comparatively modern crustal movement, causing a depression in the northeast resulting in an encroachment of the sea upon the land. Additionally, the southeastern section has undergone an elevation resulting in the advance of the land upon the sea.

Question: Why does the Appalachian Highland have the terrain it does?


Answer: Permian time

Question: During what geological period did the Appalachian mountains reach their highest formation point?


Answer: The Appalachian Highland

Question: What is the name of the mountaneous region along the Atlantic cost.


Answer: forest

Context: The east coast Appalachian system, originally forest covered, is relatively low and narrow and is bordered on the southeast and south by an important coastal plain. The Cordilleran system on the western side of the continent is lofty, broad and complicated having two branches, the Rocky Mountain System and the Pacific Mountain System. In between these mountain systems lie the Intermontaine Plateaus. Both the Columbia River and Colorado River rise far inland near the easternmost members of the Cordilleran system, and flow through plateaus and intermontaine basins to the ocean. Heavy forests cover the northwest coast, but elsewhere trees are found only on the higher ranges below the Alpine region. The intermontane valleys, plateaus and basins range from treeless to desert with the most arid region being in the southwest.

Question: What originally covered the east coast of the Appalachians?


Answer: Rocky Mountain System and the Pacific Mountain System

Question: What are the two branches of the Cordilleran system?


Answer: Columbia River and Colorado River

Question: Which two major rivers are located in the Cordilleran system?


Answer: southwest

Question: Which region of the Appalachians is the most arid?


Answer: Laurentian Highlands

Context: The Laurentian Highlands, the Interior Plains and the Interior Highlands lie between the two coasts, stretching from the Gulf of Mexico northward, far beyond the national boundary, to the Arctic Ocean. The central plains are divided by a hardly perceptible height of land into a Canadian and a United States portion. It is from the United States side, that the great Mississippi system discharges southward to the Gulf of Mexico. The upper Mississippi and some of the Ohio basin is the semi-arid prairie region, with trees originally only along the watercourses. The uplands towards the Appalachians were included in the great eastern forested area, while the western part of the plains has so dry a climate that its native plant life is scanty, and in the south it is practically barren.

Question: What is one of the two major highlands that stretch from the gulf of mexico to the Arctic ocean?


Answer: Arctic Ocean

Question: How far north do the Interior Highlands reach?


Answer: Canadian and a United States

Question: Which two nations are the central plains divided in?


Answer: Gulf of Mexico

Question: Where does the Mississippi discharge?


Answer: subtropical

Context: Due to its large size and wide range of geographic features, the United States contains examples of nearly every global climate. The climate is temperate in most areas, subtropical in the Southern United States, tropical in Hawaii and southern Florida, polar in Alaska, semiarid in the Great Plains west of the 100th meridian, Mediterranean in coastal California and arid in the Great Basin. Its comparatively favorable agricultural climate contributed (in part) to the country's rise as a world power, with infrequent severe drought in the major agricultural regions, a general lack of widespread flooding, and a mainly temperate climate that receives adequate precipitation.

Question: What is the climate like in the Southern United States?


Answer: tropical

Question: Hawaii has what type of climate?


Answer: California

Question: Which state is known for its Mediterranean climate?


Answer: agricultural climate

Question: What contributed to the rise of the US as a world power?


Answer: temperate

Question: What is the climate like in most areas of the US?


Answer: The Great Basin and Columbia Plateau

Context: The Great Basin and Columbia Plateau (the Intermontane Plateaus) are arid or semiarid regions that lie in the rain shadow of the Cascades and Sierra Nevada. Precipitation averages less than 15 inches (38 cm). The Southwest is a hot desert, with temperatures exceeding 100 °F (37.8 °C) for several weeks at a time in summer. The Southwest and the Great Basin are also affected by the monsoon from the Gulf of California from July to September, which brings localized but often severe thunderstorms to the region.

Question: Which areas have arid regions?


Answer: 15 inches

Question: What is the precipitation average in the Intermontane plateaus?


Answer: 100 °F (37.8 °C)

Question: In the southwest, how high do temperatures get?


Answer: July to September

Question: During which months are portions of the US affected by the monsoon from the Gulf of California?


Answer: severe thunderstorms

Question: What type of weather do monsoons bring?


Answer: Mediterranean

Context: Much of California consists of a Mediterranean climate, with sometimes excessive rainfall from October–April and nearly no rain the rest of the year. In the Pacific Northwest rain falls year-round, but is much heavier during winter and spring. The mountains of the west receive abundant precipitation and very heavy snowfall. The Cascades are one of the snowiest places in the world, with some places averaging over 600 inches (1,524 cm) of snow annually, but the lower elevations closer to the coast receive very little snow.

Question: What is the most prevalent type of climate nCalifornia?


Answer: October–April

Question: During what time of the year does California receive the most rainfall?


Answer: Pacific Northwest

Question: Which region of the US experiences rain year round?


Answer: The Cascades

Question: Which region in the US is also one of the most snowiest places in the world?


Answer: 600 inches

Question: How many inches of snow do regions of the Cascades receive?


Answer: mountains of the western states

Context: On average, the mountains of the western states receive the highest levels of snowfall on Earth. The greatest annual snowfall level is at Mount Rainier in Washington, at 692 inches (1,758 cm); the record there was 1,122 inches (2,850 cm) in the winter of 1971–72. This record was broken by the Mt. Baker Ski Area in northwestern Washington which reported 1,140 inches (2,896 cm) of snowfall for the 1998-99 snowfall season. Other places with significant snowfall outside the Cascade Range are the Wasatch Mountains, near the Great Salt Lake, the San Juan Mountains in Colorado, and the Sierra Nevada, near Lake Tahoe.

Question: Which mountainous region receives the highest snowfall on Earth?


Answer: Mount Rainier

Question: Which mountain in Washington receives the most amount of snowfall?


Answer: 1,122 inches

Question: What is the record amount of snowfall at Mount Rainer?


Answer: 1998-99

Question: In what year did Mount Rainer receive a record amount of snowfall?


Answer: Lake Tahoe

Question: The Sierra Nevadas are located near which lake?


Answer: northwestern Pacific coast

Context: In the east, while snowfall does not approach western levels, the region near the Great Lakes and the mountains of the Northeast receive the most. Along the northwestern Pacific coast, rainfall is greater than anywhere else in the continental U.S., with Quinault Rainforest in Washington having an average of 137 inches (348 cm). Hawaii receives even more, with 460 inches (1,168 cm) measured annually on Mount Waialeale, in Kauai. The Mojave Desert, in the southwest, is home to the driest locale in the U.S. Yuma, Arizona, has an average of 2.63 inches (6.7 cm) of precipitation each year.

Question: Which region of the US receives the most amount of rainfall?


Answer: 137 inches

Question: What is the average amount of rainfall that the Quinault rainforest in Washington receives?


Answer: Great Lakes and the mountains of the Northeast

Question: Which regions in the East receives the most amount of snowfall?


Answer: Hawaii

Question: Which state receives an average of 460 inches of rainfall per year?


Answer: Mojave Desert

Question: What is the name of the desert that is located in the driest region in the US?


Answer: central portions of the U.S.

Context: In central portions of the U.S., tornadoes are more common than anywhere else on Earth and touch down most commonly in the spring and summer. Deadly and destructive hurricanes occur almost every year along the Atlantic seaboard and the Gulf of Mexico. The Appalachian region and the Midwest experience the worst floods, though virtually no area in the U.S. is immune to flooding. The Southwest has the worst droughts; one is thought to have lasted over 500 years and to have hurt Ancestral Pueblo peoples. The West is affected by large wildfires each year.

Question: Where are tornadoes most common on Earth?


Answer: spring and summer

Question: During which seasons are tornados most common?


Answer: Appalachian region and the Midwest

Question: Which regions experience the worst flooding in the US?


Answer: Southwest

Question: Which region experiences the worst droughts in the US?


Answer: wildfires

Question: What type of disasters affects the western US every year?


Answer: 1927

Context: Occasional severe flooding is experienced. There was the Great Mississippi Flood of 1927, the Great Flood of 1993, and widespread flooding and mudslides caused by the 1982-1983 El Niño event in the western United States. Localized flooding can, however, occur anywhere, and mudslides from heavy rain can cause problems in any mountainous area, particularly the Southwest. Large stretches of desert shrub in the west can fuel the spread of wildfires. The narrow canyons of many mountain areas in the west and severe thunderstorm activity during the summer lead to sometimes devastating flash floods as well, while Nor'Easter snowstorms can bring activity to a halt throughout the Northeast (although heavy snowstorms can occur almost anywhere).

Question: The Great Mississippi occurred during what year?


Answer: desert shrub

Question: What fuels wildfires and causes them to spread in the west?


Answer: Nor'Easter snowstorms

Question: What type of storms can cause most activity to stop?


Answer: El Niño

Question: What is the name of the event that caused major flooding in the western US?


Answer: Pacific Ring of Fire

Context: The West Coast of the continental United States and areas of Alaska (including the Aleutian Islands, the Alaskan Peninsula and southern Alaskan coast) make up part of the Pacific Ring of Fire, an area of heavy tectonic and volcanic activity that is the source of 90% of the world's earthquakes.[citation needed] The American Northwest sees the highest concentration of active volcanoes in the United States, in Washington, Oregon and northern California along the Cascade Mountains. There are several active volcanoes located in the islands of Hawaii, including Kilauea in ongoing eruption since 1983, but they do not typically adversely affect the inhabitants of the islands. There has not been a major life-threatening eruption on the Hawaiian islands since the 17th century. Volcanic eruptions can occasionally be devastating, such as in the 1980 eruption of Mount St. Helens in Washington.

Question: What is the area in the pacific known for heavy volcanic activity?


Answer: Kilauea

Question: Which Hawaiin volcano has been erupting since 1983?


Answer: 90%

Question: The Pacific Ring of Fire contains what percentage of the earthquakes on Earth?


Answer: 17th century

Question: When was the last time that the Hawaiin islands experienced a life threatening volcanic eruption?


Answer: 1980

Question: What year did Mt St. Helens erupt causing devastating damage?


Answer: 1982

Context: Compact Disc (CD) is a digital optical disc data storage format. The format was originally developed to store and play only sound recordings but was later adapted for storage of data (CD-ROM). Several other formats were further derived from these, including write-once audio and data storage (CD-R), rewritable media (CD-RW), Video Compact Disc (VCD), Super Video Compact Disc (SVCD), Photo CD, PictureCD, CD-i, and Enhanced Music CD. Audio CDs and audio CD players have been commercially available since October 1982.

Question: When did Audio CDs become available for purchase?


Answer: Compact Disc

Question: What does CD stand for?


Answer: Super Video Compact Disc

Question: What does SVCD stand for?


Answer: sound recordings

Question: What were CD's originally created to store?


Answer: Super Video Compact Disc

Question: What does SVCD stand for?


Answer: 1982

Question: In what year were compact discs realesed for purchase?


Answer: data storage

Question: What was the original intended format for CDs?


Answer: 2014

Context: In 2004, worldwide sales of audio CDs, CD-ROMs and CD-Rs reached about 30 billion discs. By 2007, 200 billion CDs had been sold worldwide. CDs are increasingly being replaced by other forms of digital storage and distribution, with the result that audio CD sales rates in the U.S. have dropped about 50% from their peak; however, they remain one of the primary distribution methods for the music industry. In 2014, revenues from digital music services matched those from physical format sales for the first time.

Question: In what year were digital and physical music sales the same?


Answer: 200 billion

Question: How many CDs had been distrubuted worldwide by 2007?


Answer: 2004

Question: In 2004 how many CDs had been sold around the world?


Answer: 50%

Question: What percent decrease did audio CD sales experience?


Answer: other forms of digital storage and distribution

Question: What has caused a decrease in CD sales?


Answer: 30 billion

Question: In 2004 how many CDs had been sold around the world?


Answer: 200 billion

Question: How many CDs had been distrubuted around the world by 2007?


Answer: other forms of digital storage

Question: What has caused a decrease in CD sales?


Answer: Philips and Sony

Context: The Compact Disc is an evolution of LaserDisc technology, where a focused laser beam is used that enables the high information density required for high-quality digital audio signals. Prototypes were developed by Philips and Sony independently in the late 1970s. In 1979, Sony and Philips set up a joint task force of engineers to design a new digital audio disc. After a year of experimentation and discussion, the Red Book CD-DA standard was published in 1980. After their commercial release in 1982, compact discs and their players were extremely popular. Despite costing up to $1,000, over 400,000 CD players were sold in the United States between 1983 and 1984. The success of the compact disc has been credited to the cooperation between Philips and Sony, who came together to agree upon and develop compatible hardware. The unified design of the compact disc allowed consumers to purchase any disc or player from any company, and allowed the CD to dominate the at-home music market unchallenged.

Question: Who created Compact Disc prototypes in the 1970s?


Answer: a year

Question: How lond did the creation of Red Book CD-DA standard take?


Answer: the cooperation between Philips and Sony

Question: To what does the compact disc owe its prosperity?


Answer: 400,000

Question: How many CD players were sold in the United States in their first year?


Answer: LaserDisc

Question: What did the CD evolve from?


Answer: unified design

Question: What made it possible for CDs to be played on any companies CD player?


Answer: 1982

Question: What year did CD players become available for purchase?


Answer: cooperation between Philips and Sony

Question: To what does the compact disc owe its prosperity?


Answer: 1977

Context: In 1974, L. Ottens, director of the audio division of Philips, started a small group with the aim to develop an analog optical audio disc with a diameter of 20 cm and a sound quality superior to that of the vinyl record. However, due to the unsatisfactory performance of the analog format, two Philips research engineers recommended a digital format in March 1974. In 1977, Philips then established a laboratory with the mission of creating a digital audio disc. The diameter of Philips's prototype compact disc was set at 11.5 cm, the diagonal of an audio cassette.

Question: In what year did Philips institute a laboratory to create a digital audio disc?


Answer: 11.5 cm

Question: What was the proposed diameter for the original compact disc?


Answer: 1974

Question: What year did Philips propse the idea of a digital audio format?


Answer: L. Ottens

Question: Who was the director of the Philips audio division in 1974?


Answer: Brussels

Context: Heitaro Nakajima, who developed an early digital audio recorder within Japan's national public broadcasting organization NHK in 1970, became general manager of Sony's audio department in 1971. His team developed a digital PCM adaptor audio tape recorder using a Betamax video recorder in 1973. After this, in 1974 the leap to storing digital audio on an optical disc was easily made. Sony first publicly demonstrated an optical digital audio disc in September 1976. A year later, in September 1977, Sony showed the press a 30 cm disc that could play 60 minutes of digital audio (44,100 Hz sampling rate and 16-bit resolution) using MFM modulation. In September 1978, the company demonstrated an optical digital audio disc with a 150-minute playing time, 44,056 Hz sampling rate, 16-bit linear resolution, and cross-interleaved error correction code—specifications similar to those later settled upon for the standard Compact Disc format in 1980. Technical details of Sony's digital audio disc were presented during the 62nd AES Convention, held on 13–16 March 1979, in Brussels. Sony's AES technical paper was published on 1 March 1979. A week later, on 8 March, Philips publicly demonstrated a prototype of an optical digital audio disc at a press conference called "Philips Introduce Compact Disc" in Eindhoven, Netherlands.

Question: Where was the 62nd AES Convention held?


Answer: Heitaro Nakajima

Question: Who was the general manger of Sony's audio department in 1971?


Answer: 1976

Question: What year did Sony first exhibit the use of an optical digital audio disc?


Answer: a Betamax video recorder

Question: What did Nakajima's team use to create a digital PCM adaptor audio tape recorder?


Answer: Eindhoven, Netherlands

Question: Where was the Philips Introduce Compact disc conference held?


Answer: Betamax video recorder

Question: What did Nakajima's team use to create a digital PCM adaptor audio tape recorder?


Answer: 1 March 1979

Question: When did Sony release it's AES technical paper?


Answer: 1979

Context: As a result, in 1979, Sony and Philips set up a joint task force of engineers to design a new digital audio disc. Led by engineers Kees Schouhamer Immink and Toshitada Doi, the research pushed forward laser and optical disc technology. After a year of experimentation and discussion, the task force produced the Red Book CD-DA standard. First published in 1980, the standard was formally adopted by the IEC as an international standard in 1987, with various amendments becoming part of the standard in 1996.

Question: In what year did Sony and Philips band together to design a new digital audio disc?


Answer: 1980

Question: What year was the Red Book CD-DA standard released?


Answer: 1987

Question: When did the IEC isntigate the Red Book CD-DA as an international standard?


Answer: Kees Schouhamer Immink and Toshitada Doi

Question: Who headed the 1979 Sony and Philips digital audio disc task force?


Answer: Dire Straits

Context: The Japanese launch was followed in March 1983 by the introduction of CD players and discs to Europe and North America (where CBS Records released sixteen titles). This event is often seen as the "Big Bang" of the digital audio revolution. The new audio disc was enthusiastically received, especially in the early-adopting classical music and audiophile communities, and its handling quality received particular praise. As the price of players gradually came down, and with the introduction of the portable Walkman the CD began to gain popularity in the larger popular and rock music markets. The first artist to sell a million copies on CD was Dire Straits, with their 1985 album Brothers in Arms. The first major artist to have his entire catalogue converted to CD was David Bowie, whose 15 studio albums were made available by RCA Records in February 1985, along with four greatest hits albums. In 1988, 400 million CDs were manufactured by 50 pressing plants around the world.

Question: Who first sold a million copies on CD?


Answer: David Bowie

Question: Which artist was the first to have their full catalogue converted to CD?


Answer: 1985

Question: What year was the Dire Straits album Brothers in Arms released?


Answer: 15

Question: How many studio albums did David Bowie release in February 1985?


Answer: 400 million

Question: How many CDs were mass produced in 1988?


Answer: 15

Question: How many studio albums did David Bowie release in February 1985?


Answer: read-only memory

Context: The CD was planned to be the successor of the gramophone record for playing music, rather than primarily as a data storage medium. From its origins as a musical format, CDs have grown to encompass other applications. In 1983, following the CD's introduction, Immink and Braat presented the first experiments with erasable compact discs during the 73rd AES Convention. In June 1985, the computer-readable CD-ROM (read-only memory) and, in 1990, CD-Recordable were introduced, also developed by both Sony and Philips. Recordable CDs were a new alternative to tape for recording music and copying music albums without defects introduced in compression used in other digital recording methods. Other newer video formats such as DVD and Blu-ray use the same physical geometry as CD, and most DVD and Blu-ray players are backward compatible with audio CD.

Question: What does ROM stand for?


Answer: 1990

Question: What year did Sony and Philips release CD-Recordable?


Answer: musical format

Question: What was the original intended format for CDs?


Answer: 1983

Question: What year was the 73rd AES Convention?


Answer: the gramophone record

Question: What was the CDs predecessor?


Answer: gramophone record

Question: What was the CDs predecessor?


Answer: the 2000s

Context: Meanwhile, with the advent and popularity of Internet-based distribution of files in lossily-compressed audio formats such as MP3, sales of CDs began to decline in the 2000s. For example, between 2000 - 2008, despite overall growth in music sales and one anomalous year of increase, major-label CD sales declined overall by 20%, although independent and DIY music sales may be tracking better according to figures released 30 March 2009, and CDs still continue to sell greatly. As of 2012, CDs and DVDs made up only 34 percent of music sales in the United States. In Japan, however, over 80 percent of music was bought on CDs and other physical formats as of 2015.

Question: When did CD sales experience their original decline?


Answer: 34 percent

Question: What portion of music sales did CDs and DVDs account for in the United States as of 2012?


Answer: Japan

Question: Which country attributes over 80 percent of its music sales to physical formats?


Answer: lossily-compressed

Question: How are MP3s compressed?


Answer: 2000s

Question: When did CD sales experience their original decline?


Answer: Internet-based distribution of files

Question: What has caused a decrease in CD sales?


Answer: hydraulic press

Context: Replicated CDs are mass-produced initially using a hydraulic press. Small granules of heated raw polycarbonate plastic are fed into the press. A screw forces the liquefied plastic into the mold cavity. The mold closes with a metal stamper in contact with the disc surface. The plastic is allowed to cool and harden. Once opened, the disc substrate is removed from the mold by a robotic arm, and a 15 mm diameter center hole (called a stacking ring) is created. The time it takes to "stamp" one CD is usually two to three seconds.

Question: How are CDs mass produced?


Answer: raw polycarbonate plastic

Question: What type of material is used to make CDs?


Answer: 15 mm

Question: What size is the diameter of the center hole in a CD?


Answer: two to three seconds

Question: How long does it take to stamp out one CD?


Answer: stacking ring

Question: What is the term for the center hole in a CD?


Answer: usually aluminium, but sometimes gold or other metal

Context: This method produces the clear plastic blank part of the disc. After a metallic reflecting layer (usually aluminium, but sometimes gold or other metal) is applied to the clear blank substrate, the disc goes under a UV light for curing and it is ready to go to press. To prepare to press a CD, a glass master is made, using a high-powered laser on a device similar to a CD writer. The glass master is a positive image of the desired CD surface (with the desired microscopic pits and lands). After testing, it is used to make a die by pressing it against a metal disc.

Question: What materials can be used to make the reflective layer on a CD?


Answer: UV

Question: What type of light is used to cure CDs?


Answer: positive image of the desired CD surface

Question: What is a glass master?


Answer: high-powered laser

Question: How are glass masters created?


Answer: die

Context: The die is a negative image of the glass master: typically, several are made, depending on the number of pressing mills that are to make the CD. The die then goes into a press, and the physical image is transferred to the blank CD, leaving a final positive image on the disc. A small amount of lacquer is applied as a ring around the center of the disc, and rapid spinning spreads it evenly over the surface. Edge protection lacquer is applied before the disc is finished. The disc can then be printed and packed.

Question: What is the term for a negative image of the glass master?


Answer: lacquer

Question: How is the positive image on a CD protected?


Answer: rapid spinning

Question: How is lacquer distrubted on a CD?


Answer: jewel case

Context: The most expensive part of a CD is the jewel case. In 1995, material costs were 30 cents for the jewel case and 10 to 15 cents for the CD. Wholesale cost of CDs was $0.75 to $1.15, which retailed for $16.98. On average, the store received 35 percent of the retail price, the record company 27 percent, the artist 16 percent, the manufacturer 13 percent, and the distributor 9 percent. When 8-track tapes, cassette tapes, and CDs were introduced, each was marketed at a higher price than the format they succeeded, even though the cost to produce the media was reduced. This was done because the apparent value increased. This continued from vinyl to CDs but was broken when Apple marketed MP3s for $0.99, and albums for $9.99. The incremental cost, though, to produce an MP3 is very small.

Question: What is the priciest component of a CD?


Answer: value increased

Question: Why did the cost of audio music increase when the production costs decreased?


Answer: $16.98

Question: What did CDs retail for in 1995?


Answer: the store

Question: Who received the most profit from the sale of CDs?


Answer: 30 cents

Question: How much did a jewel case cost in 1995?


Answer: 20 to 100 years

Context: CD-R recordings are designed to be permanent. Over time, the dye's physical characteristics may change causing read errors and data loss until the reading device cannot recover with error correction methods. The design life is from 20 to 100 years, depending on the quality of the discs, the quality of the writing drive, and storage conditions. However, testing has demonstrated such degradation of some discs in as little as 18 months under normal storage conditions. This failure is known as disc rot, for which there are several, mostly environmental, reasons.

Question: How long are CDs expected to last?


Answer: disc rot

Question: What can cause sudden disc degradation?


Answer: permanent

Question: Are CDs meant for permanent or temporary use?


Answer: Serial Copy Management System

Context: The ReWritable Audio CD is designed to be used in a consumer audio CD recorder, which will not (without modification) accept standard CD-RW discs. These consumer audio CD recorders use the Serial Copy Management System (SCMS), an early form of digital rights management (DRM), to conform to the United States' Audio Home Recording Act (AHRA). The ReWritable Audio CD is typically somewhat more expensive than CD-RW due to (a) lower volume and (b) a 3% AHRA royalty used to compensate the music industry for the making of a copy.

Question: What does SCMS stand for?


Answer: digital rights management

Question: What does DRM stand for?


Answer: Audio Home Recording Act

Question: What does AHRA stand for?


Answer: ReWritable Audio CD

Question: What type of CD is intended to be used in a Consumer audio CD Recorder?


Answer: CD-RW

Question: Which is less expensive, the ReWritable Audio CD or a CD-RW?


Answer: 4x speed

Context: Due to technical limitations, the original ReWritable CD could be written no faster than 4x speed. High Speed ReWritable CD has a different design, which permits writing at speeds ranging from 4x to 12x. Original CD-RW drives can only write to original ReWritable CDs. High Speed CD-RW drives can typically write to both original ReWritable CDs and High Speed ReWritable CDs. Both types of CD-RW discs can be read in most CD drives. Higher speed CD-RW discs, Ultra Speed (16x to 24x write speed) and Ultra Speed+ (32x write speed) are now available.

Question: How fast could the first ReWritable CD be written?


Answer: High Speed ReWritable CD

Question: Which CD has writing speeds betwen 4x and 12x?


Answer: 32x

Question: How fast can Ultra Speed+ CDs write?


Answer: 16x to 24x

Question: How fast can Ultra Speed CDs write?


Answer: on a swing arm

Context: A CD is read by focusing a 780 nm wavelength (near infrared) semiconductor laser housed within the CD player, through the bottom of the polycarbonate layer. The change in height between pits and lands results in a difference in the way the light is reflected. By measuring the intensity change with a photodiode, the data can be read from the disc. In order to accommodate the spiral pattern of data, the semiconductor laser is placed on a swing arm within the disc tray of any CD player. This swing arm allows the laser to read information from the centre to the edge of a disc, without having to interrupt the spinning of the disc itself.

Question: Where is the semiconductor laser found in a CD player?


Answer: 780 nm

Question: What wavelenght is used to pull data from a CD?


Answer: photodiode

Question: What is used to discern the change of intensity in light on a CD?


Answer: spiral

Question: In what pattern is data stored on a CD?


Answer: change in height between pits and lands

Question: What createds the change in light reflected off of a CD?


Answer: change from pit to land or land to pit

Context: The pits and lands themselves do not directly represent the zeros and ones of binary data. Instead, non-return-to-zero, inverted encoding is used: a change from pit to land or land to pit indicates a one, while no change indicates a series of zeros. There must be at least two and no more than ten zeros between each one, which is defined by the length of the pit. This in turn is decoded by reversing the eight-to-fourteen modulation used in mastering the disc, and then reversing the cross-interleaved Reed–Solomon coding, finally revealing the raw data stored on the disc. These encoding techniques (defined in the Red Book) were originally designed for CD Digital Audio, but they later became a standard for almost all CD formats (such as CD-ROM).

Question: What type of result from a CD will return a one?


Answer: Red Book

Question: Where can one find the encoding techniques for CDs?


Answer: non-return-to-zero

Question: What type of encoding do CDs implement?


Answer: eight-to-fourteen

Question: What type of modulation is implemented when a disc is mastered?


Answer: label side of the disc

Context: CDs are susceptible to damage during handling and from environmental exposure. Pits are much closer to the label side of a disc, enabling defects and contaminants on the clear side to be out of focus during playback. Consequently, CDs are more likely to suffer damage on the label side of the disc. Scratches on the clear side can be repaired by refilling them with similar refractive plastic or by careful polishing. The edges of CDs are sometimes incompletely sealed, allowing gases and liquids to corrode the metal reflective layer and to interfere with the focus of the laser on the pits. The fungus Geotrichum candidum, found in Belize, has been found to consume the polycarbonate plastic and aluminium found in CDs.

Question: Where can one expect to find damage on a disc?


Answer: refilling them with similar refractive plastic or by careful polishing

Question: How are scratches on a CD fixed?


Answer: fungus Geotrichum candidum

Question: What eats at the plastic and aluminum found in CDs?


Answer: Belize

Question: Where does the fungus Geotrichum candidum originate from?


Answer: the center

Context: The digital data on a CD begins at the center of the disc and proceeds toward the edge, which allows adaptation to the different size formats available. Standard CDs are available in two sizes. By far, the most common is 120 millimetres (4.7 in) in diameter, with a 74- or 80-minute audio capacity and a 650 or 700 MiB (737,280,000-byte) data capacity. This capacity was reportedly specified by Sony executive Norio Ohga in May 1980 so as to be able to contain the entirety of the London Philharmonic Orchestra's recording of Beethoven's Ninth Symphony on one disc. This is a myth according to Kees Immink, as the code format had not yet been decided in May 1980. The adoption of EFM one month later would have allowed a playing time of 97 minutes for 120 mm diameter or 74 minutes for a disc as small as 100 mm. The 120 mm diameter has been adopted by subsequent formats, including Super Audio CD, DVD, HD DVD, and Blu-ray Disc. Eighty-millimeter discs ("Mini CDs") were originally designed for CD singles and can hold up to 24 minutes of music or 210 MiB of data but never became popular.[citation needed] Today, nearly every single is released on a 120 mm CD, called a Maxi single.[citation needed]

Question: Where is the start of data on a CD?


Answer: 120 millimetres (4.7 in)

Question: What size CD is most frequently used?


Answer: Eighty-millimeter

Question: What is the size of a Mini CD?


Answer: 120 mm

Question: What is the size of a Maxi Single?


Answer: Norio Ohga

Question: Who was the Sony Executive in 1980?


Answer: the colour of its cover

Context: The logical format of an audio CD (officially Compact Disc Digital Audio or CD-DA) is described in a document produced in 1980 by the format's joint creators, Sony and Philips. The document is known colloquially as the Red Book CD-DA after the colour of its cover. The format is a two-channel 16-bit PCM encoding at a 44.1 kHz sampling rate per channel. Four-channel sound was to be an allowable option within the Red Book format, but has never been implemented. Monaural audio has no existing standard on a Red Book CD; thus, mono source material is usually presented as two identical channels in a standard Red Book stereo track (i.e., mirrored mono); an MP3 CD, however, can have audio file formats with mono sound.

Question: Where does the Red Book get it's name from?


Answer: Compact Disc Digital Audio

Question: What is the formal name for a CD?


Answer: two-channel

Question: Do CDs have a two or four channel format?


Answer: Four-channel sound

Question: What format has never been implemented on CDs?


Answer: television set or a computer monitor

Context: Compact Disc + Graphics is a special audio compact disc that contains graphics data in addition to the audio data on the disc. The disc can be played on a regular audio CD player, but when played on a special CD+G player, it can output a graphics signal (typically, the CD+G player is hooked up to a television set or a computer monitor); these graphics are almost exclusively used to display lyrics on a television set for karaoke performers to sing along with. The CD+G format takes advantage of the channels R through W. These six bits store the graphics information.

Question: How is graphics information read from a CD+ Graphics?


Answer: to display lyrics on a television set for karaoke

Question: What is the primary use of Compact Disc + Graphics?


Answer: channels R through W

Question: Which channels does the CD+G use to hold graphics data?


Answer: 60 minutes

Context: SVCD has two-thirds the resolution of DVD, and over 2.7 times the resolution of VCD. One CD-R disc can hold up to 60 minutes of standard quality SVCD-format video. While no specific limit on SVCD video length is mandated by the specification, one must lower the video bit rate, and therefore quality, to accommodate very long videos. It is usually difficult to fit much more than 100 minutes of video onto one SVCD without incurring significant quality loss, and many hardware players are unable to play video with an instantaneous bit rate lower than 300 to 600 kilobits per second.

Question: How much video can a CD-R contain?


Answer: SVCD

Question: Which has better resolution, a VCD or SVCD?


Answer: lower the video bit rate

Question: How are lengthy videos fit onto SVCDs?


Answer: 100 minutes

Question: What is the maximum amount of video a SVCD can properly hold?


Answer: 100

Context: Photo CD is a system designed by Kodak for digitizing and storing photos on a CD. Launched in 1992, the discs were designed to hold nearly 100 high-quality images, scanned prints and slides using special proprietary encoding. Photo CDs are defined in the Beige Book and conform to the CD-ROM XA and CD-i Bridge specifications as well. They are intended to play on CD-i players, Photo CD players and any computer with the suitable software irrespective of the operating system. The images can also be printed out on photographic paper with a special Kodak machine. This format is not to be confused with Kodak Picture CD, which is a consumer product in CD-ROM format.

Question: How many images could Photo CDs initially contain?


Answer: 1992

Question: When were Photo CDs initially released?


Answer: Kodak

Question: Who created Photo CDs?


Answer: photographic paper

Question: What type of paper can Photo CD images be produced on?


Answer: Beige Book

Question: In what book are Photo CD standards defined?


Answer: 2001

Context: The Red Book audio specification, except for a simple "anti-copy" statement in the subcode, does not include any copy protection mechanism. Known at least as early as 2001, attempts were made by record companies to market "copy-protected" non-standard compact discs, which cannot be ripped, or copied, to hard drives or easily converted to MP3s. One major drawback to these copy-protected discs is that most will not play on either computer CD-ROM drives or some standalone CD players that use CD-ROM mechanisms. Philips has stated that such discs are not permitted to bear the trademarked Compact Disc Digital Audio logo because they violate the Red Book specifications. Numerous copy-protection systems have been countered by readily available, often free, software.

Question: When did record companies first attempt to protect their CDs from copying?


Answer: Philips

Question: Who said that protected CDs are not allowed to carry the CDDA logo?


Answer: in the subcode

Question: Where does the Red Book mention copy protection?


Answer: to amplify or switch electronic signals and electrical power

Context: A transistor is a semiconductor device used to amplify or switch electronic signals and electrical power. It is composed of semiconductor material with at least three terminals for connection to an external circuit. A voltage or current applied to one pair of the transistor's terminals changes the current through another pair of terminals. Because the controlled (output) power can be higher than the controlling (input) power, a transistor can amplify a signal. Today, some transistors are packaged individually, but many more are found embedded in integrated circuits.

Question: What is the use of a transistor?


Answer: semiconductor material

Question: What is a transistor made of?


Answer: the controlled (output) power can be higher than the controlling (input) power

Question: Why does a transistor increase a signal?


Answer: three

Question: What is the minimum amount of external connection terminals to call an item a transistor?


Answer: embedded in integrated circuits

Question: Where are most transistors found?


Answer: 1926

Context: The transistor is the fundamental building block of modern electronic devices, and is ubiquitous in modern electronic systems. First conceived by Julius Lilienfeld in 1926 and practically implemented in 1947 by American physicists John Bardeen, Walter Brattain, and William Shockley, the transistor revolutionized the field of electronics, and paved the way for smaller and cheaper radios, calculators, and computers, among other things. The transistor is on the list of IEEE milestones in electronics, and Bardeen, Brattain, and Shockley shared the 1956 Nobel Prize in Physics for their achievement.

Question: When was the first transistor created?


Answer: Julius Lilienfeld

Question: Who invented the first transistor?


Answer: 1947

Question: When was the first transistor implemented for practical use?


Answer: 1956

Question: When did the implementers receive a Nobel Prize for making the transistor?


Answer: list of IEEE milestones in electronics

Question: What list is the transistor on?


Answer: 1907

Context: The thermionic triode, a vacuum tube invented in 1907, enabled amplified radio technology and long-distance telephony. The triode, however, was a fragile device that consumed a lot of power. Physicist Julius Edgar Lilienfeld filed a patent for a field-effect transistor (FET) in Canada in 1925, which was intended to be a solid-state replacement for the triode. Lilienfeld also filed identical patents in the United States in 1926 and 1928. However, Lilienfeld did not publish any research articles about his devices nor did his patents cite any specific examples of a working prototype. Because the production of high-quality semiconductor materials was still decades away, Lilienfeld's solid-state amplifier ideas would not have found practical use in the 1920s and 1930s, even if such a device had been built. In 1934, German inventor Oskar Heil patented a similar device.

Question: When was the thermionic triode invented?


Answer: amplified radio technology and long-distance telephony

Question: What was the purpose of the thermionic triode?


Answer: Physicist Julius Edgar Lilienfeld

Question: Who filed a patent for the field-effect transistor?


Answer: Canada

Question: Where did Lilienfeld file his patent?


Answer: 1925

Question: What year did Lilienfeld file his patent?


Answer: November 17, 1947 to December 23, 1947

Context: From November 17, 1947 to December 23, 1947, John Bardeen and Walter Brattain at AT&T's Bell Labs in the United States performed experiments and observed that when two gold point contacts were applied to a crystal of germanium, a signal was produced with the output power greater than the input. Solid State Physics Group leader William Shockley saw the potential in this, and over the next few months worked to greatly expand the knowledge of semiconductors. The term transistor was coined by John R. Pierce as a contraction of the term transresistance. According to Lillian Hoddeson and Vicki Daitch, authors of a biography of John Bardeen, Shockley had proposed that Bell Labs' first patent for a transistor should be based on the field-effect and that he be named as the inventor. Having unearthed Lilienfeld’s patents that went into obscurity years earlier, lawyers at Bell Labs advised against Shockley's proposal because the idea of a field-effect transistor that used an electric field as a "grid" was not new. Instead, what Bardeen, Brattain, and Shockley invented in 1947 was the first point-contact transistor. In acknowledgement of this accomplishment, Shockley, Bardeen, and Brattain were jointly awarded the 1956 Nobel Prize in Physics "for their researches on semiconductors and their discovery of the transistor effect."

Question: At what time did Bardeen and Brattain experiment on increasing signal output?


Answer: germanium

Question: What were gold contacts attached to to increase signal output?


Answer: William Shockley

Question: Who was the Solid State Physics Group Leader?


Answer: John R. Pierce

Question: Who came up with the term transistor?


Answer: a contraction of the term transresistance

Question: Why was the term transistor used?


Answer: 1948

Context: In 1948, the point-contact transistor was independently invented by German physicists Herbert Mataré and Heinrich Welker while working at the Compagnie des Freins et Signaux, a Westinghouse subsidiary located in Paris. Mataré had previous experience in developing crystal rectifiers from silicon and germanium in the German radar effort during World War II. Using this knowledge, he began researching the phenomenon of "interference" in 1947. By June 1948, witnessing currents flowing through point-contacts, Mataré produced consistent results using samples of germanium produced by Welker, similar to what Bardeen and Brattain had accomplished earlier in December 1947. Realizing that Bell Labs' scientists had already invented the transistor before them, the company rushed to get its "transistron" into production for amplified use in France's telephone network.

Question: In what year was the point-contact transistor invented?


Answer: Compagnie des Freins et Signaux

Question: Where were Matare and Welker working when inventing the point-contact transistor?


Answer: Herbert Mataré and Heinrich Welker

Question: Who invented the point-contact transistor?


Answer: transistron

Question: What was the name of Matare and Welker's transistor?


Answer: amplified use in France's telephone network

Question: What was the transistron used for?


Answer: up to about twenty transistors

Context: Although several companies each produce over a billion individually packaged (known as discrete) transistors every year, the vast majority of transistors are now produced in integrated circuits (often shortened to IC, microchips or simply chips), along with diodes, resistors, capacitors and other electronic components, to produce complete electronic circuits. A logic gate consists of up to about twenty transistors whereas an advanced microprocessor, as of 2009, can use as many as 3 billion transistors (MOSFETs). "About 60 million transistors were built in 2002… for [each] man, woman, and child on Earth."

Question: How many transistors make up a logic gate?


Answer: as many as 3 billion transistors

Question: How many transistors make up a microprocessor?


Answer: 60 million transistors were built in 2002… for [each] man, woman, and child

Question: How many transistors were made in 2002?


Answer: over a billion

Question: How many individually packaged transistors are produced each year?


Answer: IC, microchips or simply chips

Question: What are some abbreviations for integrated circuits?


Answer: gain

Context: The essential usefulness of a transistor comes from its ability to use a small signal applied between one pair of its terminals to control a much larger signal at another pair of terminals. This property is called gain. It can produce a stronger output signal, a voltage or current, which is proportional to a weaker input signal; that is, it can act as an amplifier. Alternatively, the transistor can be used to turn current on or off in a circuit as an electrically controlled switch, where the amount of current is determined by other circuit elements.

Question: Why is a transistor so useful?


Answer: it can act as an amplifier

Question: What is gain?


Answer: turn current on or off in a circuit

Question: What is an additional use of the transistor?


Answer: other circuit elements

Question: What determines the amount of current in an electrically controlled switch?


Answer: two

Context: There are two types of transistors, which have slight differences in how they are used in a circuit. A bipolar transistor has terminals labeled base, collector, and emitter. A small current at the base terminal (that is, flowing between the base and the emitter) can control or switch a much larger current between the collector and emitter terminals. For a field-effect transistor, the terminals are labeled gate, source, and drain, and a voltage at the gate can control a current between source and drain.

Question: How many types of transistors are there?


Answer: A small current at the base terminal

Question: What controls the large current between the collector and emitter?


Answer: gate, source, and drain

Question: What are the components of a field-effect transistor?


Answer: a voltage at the gate

Question: In a field-effect transistor, what controls the current between the source and drain?


Answer: base, collector, and emitter

Question: What are the components of a bipolar transistor?


Answer: reduced resistance from collector to emitter

Context: In a grounded-emitter transistor circuit, such as the light-switch circuit shown, as the base voltage rises, the emitter and collector currents rise exponentially. The collector voltage drops because of reduced resistance from collector to emitter. If the voltage difference between the collector and emitter were zero (or near zero), the collector current would be limited only by the load resistance (light bulb) and the supply voltage. This is called saturation because current is flowing from collector to emitter freely. When saturated, the switch is said to be on.

Question: Why does the collector voltage drop in grounded-emitter transistor circuits?


Answer: the collector current would be limited only by the load resistance (light bulb) and the supply voltage

Question: What would happen if the voltage difference from collector and emitter were zero?


Answer: saturation

Question: What is the term for a zero difference between collector and emitter?


Answer: current is flowing from collector to emitter freely

Question: Why is the term saturation named as such?


Answer: on

Question: What position is the switch in when saturated?


Answer: Providing sufficient base drive current

Context: Providing sufficient base drive current is a key problem in the use of bipolar transistors as switches. The transistor provides current gain, allowing a relatively large current in the collector to be switched by a much smaller current into the base terminal. The ratio of these currents varies depending on the type of transistor, and even for a particular type, varies depending on the collector current. In the example light-switch circuit shown, the resistor is chosen to provide enough base current to ensure the transistor will be saturated.

Question: What is a major problem with using bipolar transistors as switches?


Answer: current gain

Question: What does the transistor provide?


Answer: the type of transistor

Question: What determines the current ratio in transistors?


Answer: collector current

Question: If the type of transistor is the same what determines the current ratio?


Answer: the "off" output is limited to leakage currents too small to affect connected circuitry

Context: In a switching circuit, the idea is to simulate, as near as possible, the ideal switch having the properties of open circuit when off, short circuit when on, and an instantaneous transition between the two states. Parameters are chosen such that the "off" output is limited to leakage currents too small to affect connected circuitry; the resistance of the transistor in the "on" state is too small to affect circuitry; and the transition between the two states is fast enough not to have a detrimental effect.

Question: How are parameters chosen in a switching circuit?


Answer: short circuit

Question: What is a switching circuit trying to simulate when on?


Answer: open circuit

Question: What is a switching circuit trying to simulate when off?


Answer: instantaneous

Question: How quickly does the change from open circuit to short circuit happen?


Answer: they conduct by using both majority and minority carriers

Context: Bipolar transistors are so named because they conduct by using both majority and minority carriers. The bipolar junction transistor, the first type of transistor to be mass-produced, is a combination of two junction diodes, and is formed of either a thin layer of p-type semiconductor sandwiched between two n-type semiconductors (an n–p–n transistor), or a thin layer of n-type semiconductor sandwiched between two p-type semiconductors (a p–n–p transistor). This construction produces two p–n junctions: a base–emitter junction and a base–collector junction, separated by a thin region of semiconductor known as the base region (two junction diodes wired together without sharing an intervening semiconducting region will not make a transistor).

Question: What gives bipolar transistors their name?


Answer: bipolar junction transistor

Question: What was the first mass-produced transistor?


Answer: two junction diodes

Question: What is the bipolar junction transistor a combination of?


Answer: n–p–n transistor

Question: What is the name for a layer of p-type semiconductor set between two n-type semiconductors?


Answer: p–n–p transistor

Question: What is the name for a layer of n-type semiconductor set between two p-type semiconductors?


Answer: three

Context: BJTs have three terminals, corresponding to the three layers of semiconductor—an emitter, a base, and a collector. They are useful in amplifiers because the currents at the emitter and collector are controllable by a relatively small base current. In an n–p–n transistor operating in the active region, the emitter–base junction is forward biased (electrons and holes recombine at the junction), and electrons are injected into the base region. Because the base is narrow, most of these electrons will diffuse into the reverse-biased (electrons and holes are formed at, and move away from the junction) base–collector junction and be swept into the collector; perhaps one-hundredth of the electrons will recombine in the base, which is the dominant mechanism in the base current. By controlling the number of electrons that can leave the base, the number of electrons entering the collector can be controlled. Collector current is approximately β (common-emitter current gain) times the base current. It is typically greater than 100 for small-signal transistors but can be smaller in transistors designed for high-power applications.

Question: How many terminals do BJTs have?


Answer: three

Question: How many layers of semiconductor do BJTs have?


Answer: an emitter, a base, and a collector

Question: What are the layers of semiconductor in a BJT?


Answer: β (common-emitter current gain) times the base current

Question: How can one find the amount of collector current?


Answer: greater than 100

Question: What is the usual collector current for small-signal transistors?


Answer: electric field that is produced when a voltage is applied between the gate and source terminals

Context: In a FET, the drain-to-source current flows via a conducting channel that connects the source region to the drain region. The conductivity is varied by the electric field that is produced when a voltage is applied between the gate and source terminals; hence the current flowing between the drain and source is controlled by the voltage applied between the gate and source. As the gate–source voltage (VGS) is increased, the drain–source current (IDS) increases exponentially for VGS below threshold, and then at a roughly quadratic rate (IGS ∝ (VGS − VT)2) (where VT is the threshold voltage at which drain current begins) in the "space-charge-limited" region above threshold. A quadratic behavior is not observed in modern devices, for example, at the 65 nm technology node.

Question: What determines the conductivity in a FET?


Answer: the voltage applied between the gate and source

Question: What controls the current between the drain and source?


Answer: a roughly quadratic rate

Question: At what rate is the drain-source current increased when the gate-source current is increased?


Answer: in modern devices

Question: Where is a quadratic behavior not observed?


Answer: two

Context: FETs are divided into two families: junction FET (JFET) and insulated gate FET (IGFET). The IGFET is more commonly known as a metal–oxide–semiconductor FET (MOSFET), reflecting its original construction from layers of metal (the gate), oxide (the insulation), and semiconductor. Unlike IGFETs, the JFET gate forms a p–n diode with the channel which lies between the source and drain. Functionally, this makes the n-channel JFET the solid-state equivalent of the vacuum tube triode which, similarly, forms a diode between its grid and cathode. Also, both devices operate in the depletion mode, they both have a high input impedance, and they both conduct current under the control of an input voltage.

Question: How many groups are FETs split into?


Answer: the JFET gate forms a p–n diode with the channel

Question: How is a JFET different from an IGFET?


Answer: junction FET (JFET) and insulated gate FET (IGFET)

Question: What are the names of the groups of FETs


Answer: depletion mode

Question: What mode do both JFET and IGFET operate in?


Answer: a metal–oxide–semiconductor FET (MOSFET)

Question: What is the common term for an IFGET?


Answer: depletion-mode and enhancement-mode types

Context: FETs are further divided into depletion-mode and enhancement-mode types, depending on whether the channel is turned on or off with zero gate-to-source voltage. For enhancement mode, the channel is off at zero bias, and a gate potential can "enhance" the conduction. For the depletion mode, the channel is on at zero bias, and a gate potential (of the opposite polarity) can "deplete" the channel, reducing conduction. For either mode, a more positive gate voltage corresponds to a higher current for n-channel devices and a lower current for p-channel devices. Nearly all JFETs are depletion-mode because the diode junctions would forward bias and conduct if they were enhancement-mode devices; most IGFETs are enhancement-mode types.

Question: How are FET's separated?


Answer: at zero bias

Question: At what point is a channel off in enhancement-mode?


Answer: at zero bias

Question: At what point is a channel on in depletion-mode?


Answer: n-channel devices

Question: What channel corresponds with high current?


Answer: p-channel devices

Question: What channel corresponds with low current?


Answer: bipolar junction transistor

Context: The bipolar junction transistor (BJT) was the most commonly used transistor in the 1960s and 70s. Even after MOSFETs became widely available, the BJT remained the transistor of choice for many analog circuits such as amplifiers because of their greater linearity and ease of manufacture. In integrated circuits, the desirable properties of MOSFETs allowed them to capture nearly all market share for digital circuits. Discrete MOSFETs can be applied in transistor applications, including analog circuits, voltage regulators, amplifiers, power transmitters and motor drivers.

Question: What was the most frequently used transistor in the 1960s and 70s?


Answer: their greater linearity and ease of manufacture

Question: Why were BJTs so popular?


Answer: transistor applications, including analog circuits, voltage regulators, amplifiers, power transmitters and motor drivers

Question: What are some applications of discrete MOSFETs?


Answer: MOSFETs

Question: What were the most popular digital circuits of the time?


Answer: European Electronic Component Manufacturers Association part numbering scheme

Context: The Pro Electron standard, the European Electronic Component Manufacturers Association part numbering scheme, begins with two letters: the first gives the semiconductor type (A for germanium, B for silicon, and C for materials like GaAs); the second letter denotes the intended use (A for diode, C for general-purpose transistor, etc.). A 3-digit sequence number (or one letter then 2 digits, for industrial types) follows. With early devices this indicated the case type. Suffixes may be used, with a letter (e.g. "C" often means high hFE, such as in: BC549C) or other codes may follow to show gain (e.g. BC327-25) or voltage rating (e.g. BUK854-800A). The more common prefixes are:

Question: What is the Pro Electron standard?


Answer: two letters

Question: How many letters does the part numbering scheme begin with?


Answer: the semiconductor type

Question: What is the first letter in the part numbering scheme?


Answer: the intended use

Question: What is the second letter in the part numbering scheme?


Answer: A 3-digit sequence number

Question: What follows the 2 letters in the part numbering scheme?


Answer: 2N

Context: The JEDEC EIA370 transistor device numbers usually start with "2N", indicating a three-terminal device (dual-gate field-effect transistors are four-terminal devices, so begin with 3N), then a 2, 3 or 4-digit sequential number with no significance as to device properties (although early devices with low numbers tend to be germanium). For example, 2N3055 is a silicon n–p–n power transistor, 2N1301 is a p–n–p germanium switching transistor. A letter suffix (such as "A") is sometimes used to indicate a newer variant, but rarely gain groupings.

Question: What does the JEDEC EIA370 transistor number start with?


Answer: a three-terminal device

Question: what does the 2N is the JEDEC EIA370 mean?


Answer: a 2, 3 or 4-digit sequential number with no significance as to device properties

Question: What follows the 2N in a JEDEC EIA370?


Answer: a newer variant

Question: What does a letter at the end of a device number mean?


Answer: a p–n–p germanium switching transistor

Question: What does the number 2N1301 indicate?


Answer: a manufacturer's prefix

Context: Manufacturers of devices may have their own proprietary numbering system, for example CK722. Since devices are second-sourced, a manufacturer's prefix (like "MPF" in MPF102, which originally would denote a Motorola FET) now is an unreliable indicator of who made the device. Some proprietary naming schemes adopt parts of other naming schemes, for example a PN2222A is a (possibly Fairchild Semiconductor) 2N2222A in a plastic case (but a PN108 is a plastic version of a BC108, not a 2N108, while the PN100 is unrelated to other xx100 devices).

Question: What was once an indicator of the devices creator?


Answer: devices are second-sourced

Question: What makes a manufacturer's prefix less reliable?


Answer: PN2222A

Question: What is the marking for a 2N2222A in a plastic case?


Answer: PN108

Question: What is a plastic version of a BC108?


Answer: the voltage applied to the emitter–base junction of a BJT

Context: The junction forward voltage is the voltage applied to the emitter–base junction of a BJT in order to make the base conduct a specified current. The current increases exponentially as the junction forward voltage is increased. The values given in the table are typical for a current of 1 mA (the same values apply to semiconductor diodes). The lower the junction forward voltage the better, as this means that less power is required to "drive" the transistor. The junction forward voltage for a given current decreases with increase in temperature. For a typical silicon junction the change is −2.1 mV/°C. In some circuits special compensating elements (sensistors) must be used to compensate for such changes.

Question: What is the junction forward voltage?


Answer: to make the base conduct a specified current

Question: What is the purpose of a junction forward voltage?


Answer: lower

Question: What is the ideal junction forward voltage?


Answer: less power is required to "drive" the transistor

Question: Why is the ideal junction forward voltage lower?


Answer: decreases

Question: When happens to the junction forward voltage when temperature is raised?


Answer: GaAs

Context: Because the electron mobility is higher than the hole mobility for all semiconductor materials, a given bipolar n–p–n transistor tends to be swifter than an equivalent p–n–p transistor. GaAs has the highest electron mobility of the three semiconductors. It is for this reason that GaAs is used in high-frequency applications. A relatively recent FET development, the high-electron-mobility transistor (HEMT), has a heterostructure (junction between different semiconductor materials) of aluminium gallium arsenide (AlGaAs)-gallium arsenide (GaAs) which has twice the electron mobility of a GaAs-metal barrier junction. Because of their high speed and low noise, HEMTs are used in satellite receivers working at frequencies around 12 GHz. HEMTs based on gallium nitride and aluminium gallium nitride (AlGaN/GaN HEMTs) provide a still higher electron mobility and are being developed for various applications.

Question: What semiconductor has the highest electron mobility?


Answer: a given bipolar n–p–n transistor

Question: What is quicker, a bipolar n-p-n transistor or a p-n-p transistor?


Answer: high-frequency applications

Question: What is the common application of GaAs?


Answer: high-electron-mobility transistor

Question: What does HEMT stand for?


Answer: satellite receivers

Question: What are common applications of HEMT?


Answer: individually packaged transistors

Context: Discrete transistors are individually packaged transistors. Transistors come in many different semiconductor packages (see image). The two main categories are through-hole (or leaded), and surface-mount, also known as surface-mount device (SMD). The ball grid array (BGA) is the latest surface-mount package (currently only for large integrated circuits). It has solder "balls" on the underside in place of leads. Because they are smaller and have shorter interconnections, SMDs have better high-frequency characteristics but lower power rating.

Question: What is a discrete transistor?


Answer: through-hole (or leaded), and surface-mount

Question: What are the two most common types of transistor?


Answer: ball grid array (BGA)

Question: What is the newest surface-mount transistor?


Answer: surface-mount device (SMD)

Question: What is another name for the surface-mount transistor?


Answer: solder "balls" on the underside in place of leads

Question: What is a ball grid array composed of?


Answer: via a faith in some form of deity

Context: In the Pre-Modern era, many people's sense of self and purpose was often expressed via a faith in some form of deity, be that in a single God or in many gods. Pre-modern cultures have not been thought of creating a sense of distinct individuality, though. Religious officials, who often held positions of power, were the spiritual intermediaries to the common person. It was only through these intermediaries that the general masses had access to the divine. Tradition was sacred to ancient cultures and was unchanging and the social order of ceremony and morals in a culture could be strictly enforced.

Question: What did many people in the Pre-Modern era express their faith through?


Answer: spiritual intermediaries

Question: What were Religious officials perceived as in the Pre-Modern era?


Answer: Religious officials

Question: Through whom did the general masses have access to the divine?


Answer: Tradition

Question: What belief did ancient cultures consider sacred?


Answer: strictly

Question: How were the moral standards of ancient cultures enforced?


Answer: Religious officials

Question: Who were spiritual intermediates?


Answer: via a faith in some form of deity

Question: Peoples sense of worth was expressed through what in the Pre-modern era?


Answer: spiritual intermediaries

Question: Through who did the masses have access to the divine?


Answer: ceremony and morals

Question: What did social order mandate be strictly enforced?


Answer: Tradition

Question: What belief was considered sacred by ancient civilizations?


Answer: modern

Context: The term "modern" was coined in the 16th century to indicate present or recent times (ultimately derived from the Latin adverb modo, meaning "just now). The European Renaissance (about 1420–1630), which marked the transition between the Late Middle Ages and Early Modern times, started in Italy and was spurred in part by the rediscovery of classical art and literature, as well as the new perspectives gained from the Age of Discovery and the invention of the telescope and microscope, expanding the borders of thought and knowledge.

Question: What term was coined in the 16th century to indicate present time?


Answer: modo

Question: The term "modern" was derived from what Latin adverb?


Answer: The European Renaissance

Question: What caused the transition between the middle ages and early modern times?


Answer: Italy

Question: In what country did The European Renaissance start?


Answer: telescope and microscope

Question: What two instruments were invented during The European Renaissance?


Answer: Latin adverb modo

Question: The phrase modern originated form what?


Answer: transition between the Late Middle Ages and Early Modern times

Question: What did The European renaissance mark?


Answer: modern

Question: What phrase was coined in the 16th century to reference recent times?


Answer: 1420–1630)

Question: Through what time period did The European renaissance last?


Answer: Italy

Question: In what country did The European renaissance begin?


Answer: Early Modern

Context: The term "Early Modern" was introduced in the English language in the 1930s. to distinguish the time between what we call Middle Ages and time of the late Enlightenment (1800) (when the meaning of the term Modern Ages was developing its contemporary form). It is important to note that these terms stem from European history. In usage in other parts of the world, such as in Asia, and in Muslim countries, the terms are applied in a very different way, but often in the context with their contact with European culture in the Age of Discovery.

Question: What term was created in the 1930's to separate the middle ages form the 1800's?


Answer: time of the late Enlightenment

Question: The 1800"s are referred to as?


Answer: European history

Question: What do the terms "Early Modern" and 'Modern Ages" originate from?


Answer: in the context with their contact with European culture in the Age of Discovery.

Question: What are the terms "Early Modern" and "Modern Ages" used for i other countries?


Answer: to distinguish the time between what we call Middle Ages and time of the late Enlightenment

Question: What does the term "Early Modern" mean?


Answer: 1930s

Question: When was the term "Early Modern" implemented into the English language?


Answer: 1800

Question: What time period is referred to as The Late Enlightenment?


Answer: European history

Question: Where do the terms "Middle Ages" and "Modern Ages" originate from?


Answer: in the context with their contact with European culture in the Age of Discovery.

Question: What are the terms "Middle Ages" and "Modern Ages" used for in other countries?


Answer: Contemporary era

Context: In the Contemporary era, there were various socio-technological trends. Regarding the 21st century and the late modern world, the Information age and computers were forefront in use, not completely ubiquitous but often present in daily life. The development of Eastern powers was of note, with China and India becoming more powerful. In the Eurasian theater, the European Union and Russian Federation were two forces recently developed. A concern for Western world, if not the whole world, was the late modern form of terrorism and the warfare that has resulted from the contemporary terrorist acts.

Question: In what era were there many socio-technological trends?


Answer: the Information age

Question: The 21st century is refereed to as what?


Answer: computers

Question: What device was used most during the The Information age?


Answer: terrorist acts

Question: What was a major concern for Western civilization during the 21 century?


Answer: Contemporary era

Question: In what time were there many socio-technological trends?


Answer: the Information age

Question: What is the 21st century also known as?


Answer: computers

Question: What device was used most during 21st century?


Answer: terrorist acts

Question: What was considered a threat to Western civilization?


Answer: Chinese dynasties and Japanese shogunates

Context: In Asia, various Chinese dynasties and Japanese shogunates controlled the Asian sphere. In Japan, the Edo period from 1600 to 1868 is also referred to as the early modern period. And in Korea, from the rising of Joseon Dynasty to the enthronement of King Gojong is referred to as the early modern period. In the Americas, Native Americans had built a large and varied civilization, including the Aztec Empire and alliance, the Inca civilization, the Mayan Empire and cities, and the Chibcha Confederation. In the west, the European kingdoms and movements were in a movement of reformation and expansion. Russia reached the Pacific coast in 1647 and consolidated its control over the Russian Far East in the 19th century.

Question: Who controlled the Asian Sphere during the period between 1600-1868?


Answer: the Edo period

Question: What is the period between 1600-1868 referred to as?


Answer: the early modern period

Question: What is the Edo period also known as?


Answer: from the rising of Joseon Dynasty to the enthronement of King Gojong

Question: What is time is considered the "Modern Period" in Korea?


Answer: Aztec Empire

Question: Name one of the tribes Native Americans established in the Americas.


Answer: Chinese dynasties and Japanese shogunates

Question: What two groups controlled the Asian Sphere?


Answer: 1600 to 1868

Question: What time is referred to as the Edo period?


Answer: the rising of Joseon Dynasty to the enthronement of King Gojong

Question: What is the 'Early Modern period" known as in Japan?


Answer: Aztec Empire

Question: Name one of the tribes Native Americans formed in the Americas?


Answer: population grew

Context: In China, urbanization increased as the population grew and as the division of labor grew more complex. Large urban centers, such as Nanjing and Beijing, also contributed to the growth of private industry. In particular, small-scale industries grew up, often specializing in paper, silk, cotton, and porcelain goods. For the most part, however, relatively small urban centers with markets proliferated around the country. Town markets mainly traded food, with some necessary manufactures such as pins or oil. Despite the xenophobia and intellectual introspection characteristic of the increasingly popular new school of neo-Confucianism, China under the early Ming dynasty was not isolated. Foreign trade and other contacts with the outside world, particularly Japan, increased considerably. Chinese merchants explored all of the Indian Ocean, reaching East Africa with the treasure voyages of Zheng He.

Question: Name one of the reasons urbanization grew in China.


Answer: growth of private industry

Question: What did Nanjing and Beijing contribute to?


Answer: Large urban centers

Question: What are Nanjing and Beijing?


Answer: the early Ming dynasty

Question: Under what rule was China not isolated?


Answer: Indian Ocean

Question: During The Early MIng Dynasty Chinese merchants explored all of what?


Answer: the population grew

Question: What caused urbanization to increase in China?


Answer: all of the Indian Ocean

Question: Where did Chinese merchants explore?


Answer: The Qing dynasty

Context: The Qing dynasty (1644–1911) was founded after the fall of the Ming, the last Han Chinese dynasty, by the Manchus. The Manchus were formerly known as the Jurchens. When Beijing was captured by Li Zicheng's peasant rebels in 1644, the Chongzhen Emperor, the last Ming emperor, committed suicide. The Manchus then allied with former Ming general Wu Sangui and seized control of Beijing, which became the new capital of the Qing dynasty. The Mancus adopted the Confucian norms of traditional Chinese government in their rule of China proper. Schoppa, the editor of The Columbia Guide to Modern Chinese History argues, "A date around 1780 as the beginning of modern China is thus closer to what we know today as historical 'reality'. It also allows us to have a better baseline to understand the precipitous decline of the Chinese polity in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries."

Question: What was founded after the fall of the Ming?


Answer: 1644–1911

Question: The Qing dynasty lasted through what time period?


Answer: the Jurchens

Question: What were the Manchus originally known as?


Answer: Beijing was captured by Li Zicheng's peasant rebels

Question: Why did the last Ming Emperor commit suicide?


Answer: former Ming general Wu Sangui

Question: Who became allies with the Manchus to seize control over Beijing?


Answer: after the fall of the Ming

Question: The Qing dynasty formed after what event?


Answer: 1644–1911

Question: During what time period did the Qing dynasty rule?


Answer: Jurchens

Question: What were the Manchus originally named?


Answer: Li Zicheng's peasant rebels

Question: Who was Beijing captured by in 1644?


Answer: former Ming general Wu Sangui

Question: Who did the Manchus make an Ally with to seize control of Beijing?


Answer: strict class hierarchy

Context: Society in the Japanese "Tokugawa period" (Edo society), unlike the shogunates before it, was based on the strict class hierarchy originally established by Toyotomi Hideyoshi. The daimyo, or lords, were at the top, followed by the warrior-caste of samurai, with the farmers, artisans, and traders ranking below. In some parts of the country, particularly smaller regions, daimyo and samurai were more or less identical, since daimyo might be trained as samurai, and samurai might act as local lords. Otherwise, the largely inflexible nature of this social stratification system unleashed disruptive forces over time. Taxes on the peasantry were set at fixed amounts which did not account for inflation or other changes in monetary value. As a result, the tax revenues collected by the samurai landowners were worth less and less over time. This often led to numerous confrontations between noble but impoverished samurai and well-to-do peasants, ranging from simple local disturbances to much bigger rebellions. None, however, proved compelling enough to seriously challenge the established order until the arrival of foreign powers.

Question: What was society based on during the Tukugawa period?


Answer: Toyotomi Hideyoshi

Question: Strict class hierarchy was established by who?


Answer: The daimyo, or lords

Question: What group were considered to be at the top of the Strict Class Hierarchy?


Answer: set at fixed amounts

Question: How were taxes charged during the Tukugawa period?


Answer: tax revenues collected by the samurai landowners were worth less and less over time.

Question: What effect did having taxes charged at a fixed amount have on it's revenue?


Answer: Edo society

Question: What is the Tokugawa period also known as?


Answer: strict class hierarchy

Question: What was society in the Tokugawa period based in?


Answer: The daimyo, or lords,

Question: What group was considered at the top of the Strict Class Society?


Answer: revenues collected by the samurai landowners were worth less and less over time.

Question: What effect did the way the taxes were charged have on it's revenue.


Answer: set at fixed amounts

Question: How were taxes charged in the Tokugawa period?


Answer: Mughal Empire

Context: On the Indian subcontinent, the Mughal Empire ruled most of India in the early 18th century. The "classic period" ended with the death and defeat of Emperor Aurangzeb in 1707 by the rising Hindu Maratha Empire, although the dynasty continued for another 150 years. During this period, the Empire was marked by a highly centralized administration connecting the different regions. All the significant monuments of the Mughals, their most visible legacy, date to this period which was characterised by the expansion of Persian cultural influence in the Indian subcontinent, with brilliant literary, artistic, and architectural results. The Maratha Empire was located in the south west of present-day India and expanded greatly under the rule of the Peshwas, the prime ministers of the Maratha empire. In 1761, the Maratha army lost the Third Battle of Panipat which halted imperial expansion and the empire was then divided into a confederacy of Maratha states.

Question: Who ruled most of India in the early 18th century?


Answer: the death and defeat of Emperor Aurangzeb in 1707

Question: How did the "Classic Period" end?


Answer: Hindu Maratha Empire

Question: Who was behind the death off Emperor Aurangzeb?


Answer: south west of present-day India

Question: Where was the The Maratha Empire centralized?


Answer: the empire was then divided into a confederacy of Maratha states.

Question: What happened when the Maratha Army lost the third battle of Panipat?


Answer: Mughal Empire

Question: Who ruled most of India in the 18 century?


Answer: the death and defeat of Emperor Aurangzeb

Question: What event ended the "classic period"?


Answer: the rising Hindu Maratha Empire,

Question: What caused the death of Emperor Auranzeb?


Answer: south west of present-day India

Question: Where was the Maratha Empire centralized?


Answer: the Maratha army lost the Third Battle of Panipat

Question: What caused the Maratha Empire to split in 1761?


Answer: the conquest of nearly all eastern hemisphere territories by colonial powers.

Context: The development of New Imperialism saw the conquest of nearly all eastern hemisphere territories by colonial powers. The commercial colonization of India commenced in 1757, after the Battle of Plassey, when the Nawab of Bengal surrendered his dominions to the British East India Company, in 1765, when the Company was granted the diwani, or the right to collect revenue, in Bengal and Bihar, or in 1772, when the Company established a capital in Calcutta, appointed its first Governor-General, Warren Hastings, and became directly involved in governance.

Question: What did the development of new imperialism cause?


Answer: 1757

Question: When did the commercial colonization of India begin?


Answer: Nawab of Bengal surrendered his dominions to the British East India Company

Question: What happened n the battle of Plassey?


Answer: 1765

Question: When was the British East Company given the right to collect revenue?


Answer: diwani

Question: What is the term used to describe the "Right to collect revenue"?


Answer: 1818

Context: The Maratha states, following the Anglo-Maratha wars, eventually lost to the British East India Company in 1818 with the Third Anglo-Maratha War. The rule lasted until 1858, when, after the Indian rebellion of 1857 and consequent of the Government of India Act 1858, the British government assumed the task of directly administering India in the new British Raj. In 1819 Stamford Raffles established Singapore as a key trading post for Britain in their rivalry with the Dutch. However, their rivalry cooled in 1824 when an Anglo-Dutch treaty demarcated their respective interests in Southeast Asia. From the 1850s onwards, the pace of colonization shifted to a significantly higher gear.

Question: In what year did the Maratha states lose to the British East Company?


Answer: the Third Anglo-Maratha War

Question: What was the name of the war lost by the Maratha states in 1818?


Answer: 1858

Question: How long did the British east Indian Company rule last after the war?


Answer: the Indian rebellion of 1857 and consequent of the Government of India Act 1858

Question: What caused the British east Indian Company rule to end?


Answer: Singapore as a key trading post

Question: What did Britain establish in 1824?


Answer: their respective governments

Context: The Dutch East India Company (1800) and British East India Company (1858) were dissolved by their respective governments, who took over the direct administration of the colonies. Only Thailand was spared the experience of foreign rule, although, Thailand itself was also greatly affected by the power politics of the Western powers. Colonial rule had a profound effect on Southeast Asia. While the colonial powers profited much from the region's vast resources and large market, colonial rule did develop the region to a varying extent.

Question: What dispatched of The Dutch East India Company and the British East India Company?


Answer: Thailand

Question: What country did not have to succumb to forign rule?


Answer: colonial powers

Question: Who also profited from Southeast Asia resources?


Answer: 1453

Context: Many major events caused Europe to change around the start of the 16th century, starting with the Fall of Constantinople in 1453, the fall of Muslim Spain and the discovery of the Americas in 1492, and Martin Luther's Protestant Reformation in 1517. In England the modern period is often dated to the start of the Tudor period with the victory of Henry VII over Richard III at the Battle of Bosworth in 1485. Early modern European history is usually seen to span from the start of the 15th century, through the Age of Reason and the Age of Enlightenment in the 17th and 18th centuries, until the beginning of the Industrial Revolution in the late 18th century.

Question: In what year did the fall of Constantinople happen?


Answer: Battle of Bosworth in 1485

Question: When is the modern period dated in England?


Answer: Richard III

Question: Who was defeated by Henry Vll at the battle of Bosworth?


Answer: the 17th century

Context: Russia experienced territorial growth through the 17th century, which was the age of Cossacks. Cossacks were warriors organized into military communities, resembling pirates and pioneers of the New World. In 1648, the peasants of Ukraine joined the Zaporozhian Cossacks in rebellion against Poland-Lithuania during the Khmelnytsky Uprising, because of the social and religious oppression they suffered under Polish rule. In 1654 the Ukrainian leader, Bohdan Khmelnytsky, offered to place Ukraine under the protection of the Russian Tsar, Aleksey I. Aleksey's acceptance of this offer led to another Russo-Polish War (1654–1667). Finally, Ukraine was split along the river Dnieper, leaving the western part (or Right-bank Ukraine) under Polish rule and eastern part (Left-bank Ukraine and Kiev) under Russian. Later, in 1670–71 the Don Cossacks led by Stenka Razin initiated a major uprising in the Volga region, but the Tsar's troops were successful in defeating the rebels. In the east, the rapid Russian exploration and colonisation of the huge territories of Siberia was led mostly by Cossacks hunting for valuable furs and ivory. Russian explorers pushed eastward primarily along the Siberian river routes, and by the mid-17th century there were Russian settlements in the Eastern Siberia, on the Chukchi Peninsula, along the Amur River, and on the Pacific coast. In 1648 the Bering Strait between Asia and North America was passed for the first time by Fedot Popov and Semyon Dezhnyov.

Question: When did Russia experience territorial growth?


Answer: age of Cossacks.

Question: The 17th century is also known as?


Answer: peasants of Ukraine

Question: Who joined the Cossacks in 1648?


Answer: warriors organized into military communities

Question: Who are Cossacks?


Answer: in rebellion against Poland-Lithuania

Question: Why dd the Peasants of Ukraine join the Cossacks?


Answer: European intellectual transformation

Context: Traditionally, the European intellectual transformation of and after the Renaissance bridged the Middle Ages and the Modern era. The Age of Reason in the Western world is generally regarded as being the start of modern philosophy, and a departure from the medieval approach, especially Scholasticism. Early 17th-century philosophy is often called the Age of Rationalism and is considered to succeed Renaissance philosophy and precede the Age of Enlightenment, but some consider it as the earliest part of the Enlightenment era in philosophy, extending that era to two centuries. The 18th century saw the beginning of secularization in Europe, rising to notability in the wake of the French Revolution.

Question: What bridged the middle ages to the modern era?


Answer: The Age of Reason

Question: What is regarded as the start of modern philosophy?


Answer: Renaissance philosophy

Question: What does the Age of Rationalism succeed?


Answer: the Age of Rationalism

Question: What is 17th century philosophy also referred to as?


Answer: secularization

Question: What did the beginning of the 18th century mark the beginning of in Europe?


Answer: the 15th century

Context: The Age of Enlightenment is a time in Western philosophy and cultural life centered upon the 18th century in which reason was advocated as the primary source and legitimacy for authority. Enlightenment gained momentum more or less simultaneously in many parts of Europe and America. Developing during the Enlightenment era, Renaissance humanism as an intellectual movement spread across Europe. The basic training of the humanist was to speak well and write (typically, in the form of a letter). The term umanista comes from the latter part of the 15th century. The people were associated with the studia humanitatis, a novel curriculum that was competing with the quadrivium and scholastic logic.

Question: From where does the phrase humanist originate?


Answer: speak well and write

Question: What is the basic training of a humanist?


Answer: Europe and America

Question: Where did Enlightenment gain momentum?


Answer: the 18th century in which reason was advocated as the primary source and legitimacy for authority.

Question: What was the age of Enlightenment centered on?


Answer: quadrivium and scholastic logic.

Question: What were the studia humanitatis competing against?