Answer: 1,413

Question: How many people were killed by bomb drops during the first World War?


Answer: 9,000

Context: The attitude of the Air Ministry was in contrast to the experiences of the First World War when a few German bombers caused physical and psychological damage out of all proportion to their numbers. Around 280 short tons (250 t) (9,000 bombs) had been dropped, killing 1,413 people and injuring 3,500 more. Most people aged 35 or over remembered the threat and greeted the bombings with great trepidation. From 1916–1918, German raids had diminished against countermeasures which demonstrated defence against night air raids was possible.

Question: How many bombs had been dropped?


Answer: daylight fighter defences

Context: Although night air defence was causing greater concern before the war, it was not at the forefront of RAF planning. Most of the resources went into planning for daylight fighter defences. The difficulty RAF bombers had navigating in darkness, led the British to believe German bombers would suffer the same problems and would be unable to reach and identify their targets. There was also a mentality in all air forces that, if they could carry out effective operations by day, night missions and their disadvantages could be avoided.

Question: What did the RAF put most of their resources into?


Answer: suffer the same problems

Question: RAF bombers had trouble flying at night, so the British believe the Germans would do what?


Answer: night missions and their disadvantages

Question: What did the Air Force believe they could avoid if they carried out effective day missions?


Answer: targets

Question: Britain believe German bombers would be unable to reach and identify what?


Answer: cult of the offensive

Context: British air doctrine, since the time of Chief of the Air Staff Hugh Trenchard in the early 1920s, had stressed offence was the best means of defence. British defensive strategy revolved around offensive action, what became known as the cult of the offensive. To prevent German formations from hitting targets in Britain, RAF's Bomber Command would destroy Luftwaffe aircraft on their own bases, aircraft in their factories and fuel reserves by attacking oil plants. This philosophy was impractical as Bomber Command lacked the technology and equipment and needed several years to develop it. This strategy retarded the development of fighter defences in the 1930s. Dowding agreed air defence would require some offensive action, and fighters could not defend Britain alone. Until September 1940, the RAF lacked specialist night-fighting aircraft and relied on anti-aircraft units which were poorly equipped and lacking in numbers.

Question: What did the British offence become know as?


Answer: lacked the technology and equipment

Question: Why was the tactic of bombing German aircraft bases, factories and fuel reserves impractical?


Answer: specialist night-fighting

Question: Until 1940 what type of aircraft did the RAF lacked?


Answer: poorly equipped and lacking in numbers

Question: What was wrong with the anti aircraft units?


Answer: land at night or in bad weather

Context: Bomber crews already had some experience with these types of systems due to the deployment of the Lorenz beam, a commercial blind-landing aid which allowed aircraft to land at night or in bad weather. The Germans developed the short-range Lorenz system into the Knickebein aid, a system which used two Lorenz beams with much stronger signal transmissions. The concept was the same as the Lorenz system. Two aerials were rotated for the two converging beams which were pointed to cross directly over the target. The German bombers would attach themselves to either beam and fly along it until they started to pick up the signal from the other beam. When a continuous sound was heard from the second beam the crew knew they were above the target and began dropping their bombs.

Question: What did the Lorenz beam allow aircraft to do?


Answer: Knickebein

Question: The Germans developed the Lorenz into what system?


Answer: two Lorenz beams

Question: The Knickebein was the same as the Lorenz but used how many beams?


Answer: dropping their bombs

Question: The Germans flew along one beam until they picked up the second beam the sound telling them when to start doing what?


Answer: specially trained pathfinder crews

Context: While Knickebein was used by German crews en masse, X-Gerät use was limited to specially trained pathfinder crews. Special receivers were mounted in He 111s, with a radio mast on the bomber's fuselage. The system worked on a higher frequency (66–77 MHz, compared to Knickebein's 30–33 MHz). Transmitters on the ground sent pulses at a rate of 180 per minute. X-Gerät received and analysed the pulses, giving the pilot both visual and aural "on course" signals. Three beams intersected the beam along the He 111's flight path. The first cross-beam acted as a warning for the bomb-aimer to start the bombing-clock which he would activate only when the second cross-beam was reached. When the third cross-beam was reached the bomb aimer activated a third trigger, which stopped the first hand of the equipment's clock, with the second hand continuing. When the second hand re-aligned with the first, the bombs were released. The clock's timing mechanism was co-ordinated with the distances of the intersecting beams from the target so the target was directly below when the bomb release occurred.

Question: While Knickebein was used my most German crews who used the X-Gerat system?


Answer: 66–77 MHz

Question: What frequency did the X-Gerat system use?


Answer: 180

Question: What rate per minute did ground transmitters send?


Answer: start the bombing-clock

Question: When the bomber crossed the first beam the bomber-aimer did what?


Answer: clock's timing

Question: What mechanism cause the bombs to be released?


Answer: Y-Gerät

Context: Y-Gerät was the most complex system of the three. It was, in effect, an automatic beam-tracking system, operated through the bomber's autopilot. The single approach beam along which the bomber tracked was monitored by a ground controller. The signals from the station were retransmitted by the bomber's equipment. This way the distance the bomber travelled along the beam could be precisely verified. Direction-finding checks also enabled the controller to keep the crew on an exact course. The crew would be ordered to drop their bombs either by issue of a code word by the ground controller, or at the conclusion of the signal transmissions which would stop. Although its maximum usable range was similar to the previous systems, it was not unknown for specific buildings to be hit.

Question: Which system was the most complex of the three?


Answer: the bomber's autopilot

Question: Who operated the automatic beam system?


Answer: Direction-finding

Question: What kind of checks help to keep the plane on course?


Answer: a code word

Question: The crew could be order to drop the bomb by what?


Answer: ground controller

Question: Who issued the code word to the bombers?


Answer: Derby

Context: In June 1940, a German prisoner of war was overheard boasting that the British would never find the Knickebein, even though it was under their noses. The details of the conversation were passed to an RAF Air Staff technical advisor, Dr. R. V. Jones, who started an in-depth investigation which discovered that the Luftwaffe's Lorenz receivers were more than blind-landing devices. Jones therefore began a search for the German beams. Avro Ansons of the Beam Approach Training Development Unit (BATDU) were flown up and down Britain fitted with a 30 MHz receiver to detect them. Soon a beam was traced to Derby (which had been mentioned in Luftwaffe transmissions). The first jamming operations were carried out using requisitioned hospital electrocautery machines. A subtle form of distortion was introduced. Up to nine special transmitters directed their signals at the beams in a manner that widened its path, negating its ability to accurately locate targets. Confidence in the device was diminished by the time the Luftwaffe decided to launch large-scale raids. The counter operations were carried out by British Electronic Counter Measures (ECM) units under Wing Commander Edward Addison, No. 80 Wing RAF. The production of false radio navigation signals by re-transmitting the originals was a technique known as masking beacons (meacons).

Question: The beam was traced to what town?


Answer: 30 MHz receiver

Question: The Bean Approach Training Development Unit were fitted with what kind of transmitter to search for the Knickebein?


Answer: Knickebein

Question: In 1940 a German prisoner overheard boasting that the British would never find what system?


Answer: Dr. R. V. Jones

Question: Which RAF technical advisor was the conversation passed onto?


Answer: electrocautery machines

Question: The first jamming operation was carried out using what machines?


Answer: medium

Context: German beacons operated on the medium-frequency band and the signals involved a two-letter Morse identifier followed by a lengthy time-lapse which enabled the Luftwaffe crews to determine the signal's bearing. The Meacon system involved separate locations for a receiver with a directional aerial and a transmitter. The receipt of the German signal by the receiver was duly passed to the transmitter, the signal to be repeated. The action did not guarantee automatic success. If the German bomber flew closer to its own beam than the Meacon then the former signal would come through the stronger on the direction finder. The reverse would apply only if the meacon were closer.

Question: The German beacons used what frequency band?


Answer: Morse

Question: What two letter identifier did the signal have?


Answer: Meacon

Question: What system used a separate locations for a receiver and a directional aerial?


Answer: stronger on the direction finder

Question: When a German bomber flew to close to its own beam what happened to the signal?


Answer: Blitz was over

Context: In general, German bombers were likely to get through to their targets without too much difficulty. It was to be some months before an effective night fighter force would be ready, and anti-aircraft defences only became adequate after the Blitz was over, so ruses were created to lure German bombers away from their targets. Throughout 1940, dummy airfields were prepared, good enough to stand up to skilled observation. A number[clarification needed] of bombs fell on these diversionary ("Starfish") targets.

Question: Anti-aircraft defenses became better after what?


Answer: ruses

Question: What did they use to lure German bombers away from their targets?


Answer: dummy

Question: What kind of airfields were prepared to stand up to skilled observers?


Answer: Starfish

Question: What was the name given to these dummy airfields?


Answer: diversionary

Context: The use of diversionary techniques such as fires had to be made carefully. The fake fires could only begin when the bombing started over an adjacent target and its effects were brought under control. Too early and the chances of success receded; too late and the real conflagration at the target would exceed the diversionary fires. Another innovation was the boiler fire. These units were fed from two adjacent tanks containing oil and water. The oil-fed fires were then injected with water from time to time; the flashes produced were similar to those of the German C-250 and C-500 Flammbomben. The hope was that, if it could deceive German bombardiers, it would draw more bombers away from the real target.

Question: Fake fires were used as what kind of technique?


Answer: water

Question: What was injected into the fires from time to time to produce a flash?


Answer: boiler

Question: Two tanks one of oil, one of water fed what kind of fire?


Answer: German C-250 and C-500 Flammbomben

Question: What did these flashes simulate?


Answer: deceive German bombardiers

Question: What was the purpose of these fires?


Answer: 1,600

Context: Initially the change in strategy caught the RAF off-guard, and caused extensive damage and civilian casualties. Some 107,400 long tons (109,100 t) of shipping was damaged in the Thames Estuary and 1,600 civilians were casualties. Of this total around 400 were killed. The fighting in the air was more intense in daylight. Overall Loge had cost the Luftwaffe 41 aircraft; 14 bombers, 16 Messerschmitt Bf 109s, seven Messerschmitt Bf 110s and four reconnaissance aircraft. Fighter Command lost 23 fighters, with six pilots killed and another seven wounded. Another 247 bombers from Sperrle's Luftflotte 3 (Air Fleet 3) attacked that night. On 8 September, the Luftwaffe returned. This time 412 people were killed and 747 severely wounded.

Question: The bombing of the Thames Estuary cause how many civilian casualties?


Answer: around 400

Question: How many were killed in the bombing of the Thames Estuary?


Answer: 41

Question: How many aircraft did the Luftwaffe lose?


Answer: six

Question: How many German pilots were killed?


Answer: 247

Question: How many Air Fleet 3 attacked that night?


Answer: Farnborough

Context: On 9 September the OKL appeared to be backing two strategies. Its round-the-clock bombing of London was an immediate attempt to force the British government to capitulate, but it was also striking at Britain's vital sea communications to achieve a victory through siege. Although the weather was poor, heavy raids took place that afternoon on the London suburbs and the airfield at Farnborough. The day's fighting cost Kesselring and Luftflotte 2 (Air Fleet 2) 24 aircraft, including 13 Bf 109s. Fighter Command lost 17 fighters and six pilots. Over the next few days weather was poor and the next main effort would not be made until 15 September 1940.

Question: What was the name of the airfield where heavy raids took place?


Answer: 13

Question: How many Bf 109s were lost?


Answer: 17

Question: FighterCommand lost how many fighters?


Answer: six

Question: How many pilots did Fighter Command lose?


Answer: weather was poor

Question: What caused the delay in the effort?


Answer: Thames Estuary

Context: On 15 September the Luftwaffe made two large daylight attacks on London along the Thames Estuary, targeting the docks and rail communications in the city. Its hope was to destroy its targets and draw the RAF into defending them, allowing the Luftwaffe to destroy their fighters in large numbers, thereby achieving an air superiority. Large air battles broke out, lasting for most of the day. The first attack merely damaged the rail network for three days, and the second attack failed altogether. The air battle was later commemorated by Battle of Britain Day. The Luftwaffe lost 18 percent of the bombers sent on the operations that day, and failed to gain air superiority.

Question: On September 15 the Luftwaffe made daylight raids on what target in London?


Answer: docks and rail communications

Question: What two targets were the Luftwaffe trying to destroy?


Answer: destroy their fighters in large numbers

Question: What was the reason to try and draw the RAF into a battle?


Answer: Battle of Britain Day

Question: What was this air battle called?


Answer: 18

Question: The Luftwaffe lost what percentage of its bombers sent that day?


Answer: Göring

Context: While Göring was optimistic the Luftwaffe could prevail, Hitler was not. On 17 September he postponed Operation Sea Lion (as it turned out, indefinitely) rather than gamble Germany's newly gained military prestige on a risky cross-Channel operation, particularly in the face of a sceptical Joseph Stalin in the Soviet Union. In the last days of the battle, the bombers became lures in an attempt to draw the RAF into combat with German fighters. But their operations were to no avail; the worsening weather and unsustainable attrition in daylight gave the OKL an excuse to switch to night attacks on 7 October.

Question: Who thought the Luftwaffe could win?


Answer: 17 September

Question: What day did Hitler postponed Operation Sea Lion?


Answer: Joseph Stalin

Question: What was the name of the man from the Soviet Union who was doubtful of Operation Sea Lion?


Answer: RAF

Question: Who did the Luftwaffe try to lure into battle using its bombers?


Answer: 7 October

Question: When did the OKL switch to night raids?


Answer: 380

Context: On 14 October, the heaviest night attack to date saw 380 German bombers from Luftflotte 3 hit London. Around 200 people were killed and another 2,000 injured. British anti-aircraft defences (General Frederick Alfred Pile) fired 8,326 rounds and shot down only two bombers. On 15 October, the bombers returned and about 900 fires were started by the mix of 415 short tons (376 t) of high explosive and 11 short tons (10.0 t) of incendiaries dropped. Five main rail lines were cut in London and rolling stock damaged.

Question: On October 14 how many German bombers attacked?


Answer: Around 200

Question: How many people were killed?


Answer: General Frederick Alfred Pile

Question: Who fired anti-defense rounds?


Answer: 8,326 rounds

Question: How many rounds of anti-defense were fired?


Answer: two

Question: How many German bombers were shot down?


Answer: 10 percent

Context: Loge continued during October. According to German sources, 9,000 short tons (8,200 t) of bombs were dropped in that month, of which about 10 percent of which was dropped in daylight. Over 6,000 short tons (5,400 t) was aimed at London during the night. Attacks on Birmingham and Coventry were subject to 500 short tons (450 t) of bombs between them in the last 10 days of October. Liverpool suffered 200 short tons (180 t) of bombs dropped. Hull and Glasgow were attacked, but 800 short tons (730 t) of bombs were spread out all over Britain. The Metropolitan-Vickers works in Manchester was targeted and 12 short tons (11 t) of bombs dropped against it. Little tonnage was dropped on Fighter Command airfields; Bomber Command airfields were hit instead.

Question: How much of the short tons of bombs were dropped during the day?


Answer: Birmingham and Coventry

Question: What two cities had 500 short tons of bombs dropped on them during the end of October?


Answer: The Metropolitan-Vickers works in Manchester

Question: What was targeted with 12 short tons of bombs?


Answer: Bomber Command airfields

Question: Which was targeted more heavily, bomber or fighter command airfields?


Answer: 200

Question: Liverpool had how many short tons dropped on it?


Answer: to interfere with production in the vast industrial arms factories of the West Midlands

Context: Luftwaffe policy at this point was primarily to continue progressive attacks on London, chiefly by night attack; second, to interfere with production in the vast industrial arms factories of the West Midlands, again chiefly by night attack; and third to disrupt plants and factories during the day by means of fighter-bombers. Kesselring, commanding Luftflotte 2, was ordered to send 50 sorties per night against London and attack eastern harbours in daylight. Sperrle, commanding Luftflotte 3, was ordered to dispatch 250 sorties per night including 100 against the West Midlands. Seeschlange would be carried out by Fliegerkorps X (10th Air Corps) which concentrated on mining operations against shipping. It also took part in the bombing over Britain. By 19/20 April 1941, it had dropped 3,984 mines, ⅓ of the total dropped. The mines' ability to destroy entire streets earned them respect in Britain, but several fell unexploded into British hands allowing counter-measures to be developed which damaged the German anti-shipping campaign.

Question: What was the Luftwaffe's second primary policy?


Answer: Kesselring

Question: Who was in command of the Luftflotte 2?


Answer: 250

Question: How many sorties a night was Luftflotte 3 doing?


Answer: mining operations against shipping

Question: What did the Fliegerkorps X concentrate on?


Answer: 3,984 mines

Question: By April of 1941 about how many mines had been dropped?


Answer: no less than 667

Context: By mid-November 1940, when the Germans adopted a changed plan, more than 13,000 short tons (12,000 t) of high explosive and nearly 1,000,000 incendiaries had fallen on London. Outside the capital, there had been widespread harassing activity by single aircraft, as well as fairly strong diversionary attacks on Birmingham, Coventry and Liverpool, but no major raids. The London docks and railways communications had taken a heavy pounding, and much damage had been done to the railway system outside. In September, there had been no less than 667 hits on railways in Great Britain, and at one period, between 5,000 and 6,000 wagons were standing idle from the effect of delayed action bombs. But the great bulk of the traffic went on; and Londoners—though they glanced apprehensively each morning at the list of closed stretches of line displayed at their local station, or made strange detours round back streets in the buses—still got to work. For all the destruction of life and property, the observers sent out by the Ministry of Home Security failed to discover the slightest sign of a break in morale. More than 13,000 civilians had been killed, and almost 20,000 injured, in September and October alone, but the death toll was much less than expected. In late 1940, Churchill credited the shelters:

Question: In September how many railway hits were there in Great Britain?


Answer: 1,000,000

Question: By mid November of 1940 how many incendiaries were dropped on London?


Answer: the slightest sign of a break in morale

Question: What did the Ministry of Home Security fail to discover?


Answer: Birmingham, Coventry and Liverpool

Question: What locations suffered strong diversionary tactics?


Answer: 20,000

Question: About how many civilians were injured in September and October?


Answer: Ingersoll

Context: The American observer Ingersoll reported at this time that "as to the accuracy of the bombing of military objectives, here I make no qualifications. The aim is surprisingly, astonishingly, amazingly inaccurate ... The physical damage to civilian London, to sum up, was more general and more extensive than I had imagined. The damage to military targets much less", and stated that he had seen numerous examples of untouched targets surrounded by buildings destroyed by errant bombs. For example, in two months of bombing, Battersea Power Station, perhaps the largest single target in London, had only received one minor hit ("a nick"). No bridge over the Thames had been hit, and the docks were still functioning despite great damage. An airfield was hit 56 times but the runways were never damaged and the field was never out of operation, despite German pilots' familiarity with it from prewar commercial flights. Ingersoll wrote that the difference between the failure of the German campaign against military targets versus its success in continental Europe was the RAF retaining control of the air.:79–80,174

Question: What was the name of the American observer?


Answer: to sum up, was more general and more extensive than I had imagined.

Question: The American observer said what about the damage to London?


Answer: No bridge over the Thames had been hit

Question: How many bridges over the Thames were struck?


Answer: one minor hit ("a nick")

Question: The Battersea Power Station took how many hits in two months?


Answer: prewar commercial flights.

Question: What did German pilots use to gain knowledge of an airfield?


Answer: 12,000 ft (3,700 m)

Context: British night air defences were in a poor state. Few anti-aircraft guns had fire-control systems, and the underpowered searchlights were usually ineffective against aircraft at altitudes above 12,000 ft (3,700 m). In July 1940, only 1,200 heavy and 549 light guns were deployed in the whole of Britain. Of the "heavies", some 200 were of the obsolescent 3 in (76 mm) type; the remainder were the effective 4.5 in (110 mm) and 3.7 in (94 mm) guns, with a theoretical "ceiling"' of over 30,000 ft (9,100 m) but a practical limit of 25,000 ft (7,600 m) because the predictor in use could not accept greater heights. The light guns, about half of which were of the excellent Bofors 40 mm, dealt with aircraft only up to 6,000 ft (1,800 m). Although the use of the guns improved civilian morale, with the knowledge the German bomber crews were facing the barrage, it is now believed that the anti-aircraft guns achieved little and in fact the falling shell fragments caused more British casualties on the ground.

Question: British night air defenses were effective to what height?


Answer: only 1,200 heavy and 549 light guns

Question: By July of 1940 how many guns were deployed in Britain?


Answer: 25,000 ft (7,600 m)

Question: What was the practical ceiling of the effective heavy guns?


Answer: Bofors 40 mm

Question: What type of light gun dealt with aircraft up to 6000 ft.?


Answer: falling shell fragments

Question: What is believed to have caused many civilian casualties from anti-aircraft guns?


Answer: General Pile

Context: London's defences were rapidly reorganised by General Pile, the Commander-in-Chief of Anti-Aircraft Command. The difference this made to the effectiveness of air defences is questionable. The British were still one-third below the establishment of heavy anti-aircraft artillery AAA (or ack-ack) in May 1941, with only 2,631 weapons available. Dowding had to rely on night fighters. From 1940 to 1941, the most successful night-fighter was the Boulton Paul Defiant; its four squadrons shot down more enemy aircraft than any other type. AA defences improved by better use of radar and searchlights. Over several months, the 20,000 shells spent per raider shot down in September 1940, was reduced to 4,087 in January 1941 and to 2,963 shells in February 1941.

Question: Who reorganised London's defences?


Answer: one-third

Question: The British were how far below the establishment of heavy anti-aircraft artillery?


Answer: Dowding

Question: Who relied on night fighters?


Answer: Boulton Paul Defiant

Question: Who's four squadrons shot down more enemy aircraft than any other type?


Answer: by better use of radar and searchlights

Question: How were AA defenses improved?


Answer: airborne search lights

Context: Airborne Interception radar (AI) was unreliable. The heavy fighting in the Battle of Britain had eaten up most of Fighter Command's resources, so there was little investment in night fighting. Bombers were flown with airborne search lights out of desperation[citation needed], but to little avail. Of greater potential was the GL (Gunlaying) radar and searchlights with fighter direction from RAF fighter control rooms to begin a GCI system (Ground Control-led Interception) under Group-level control (No. 10 Group RAF, No. 11 Group RAF and No. 12 Group RAF).

Question: The bombers used what out of desperation?


Answer: Airborne Interception radar

Question: What was considered unreliable?


Answer: Ground Control-led Interception

Question: Gunlaying radar and RAF controls combined to create what system?


Answer: the Battle of Britain

Question: What used most of Fighter Command's resources?


Answer: Sholto Douglas

Context: Whitehall's disquiet at the failures of the RAF led to the replacement of Dowding (who was already due for retirement) with Sholto Douglas on 25 November. Douglas set about introducing more squadrons and dispersing the few GL sets to create a carpet effect in the southern counties. Still, in February 1941, there remained only seven squadrons with 87 pilots, under half the required strength. The GL carpet was supported by six GCI sets controlling radar-equipped night-fighters. By the height of the Blitz, they were becoming more successful. The number of contacts and combats rose in 1941, from 44 and two in 48 sorties in January 1941, to 204 and 74 in May (643 sorties). But even in May, 67% of the sorties were visual cat's-eye missions. Curiously, while 43% of the contacts in May 1941 were by visual sightings, they accounted for 61% of the combats. Yet when compared with Luftwaffe daylight operations, there was a sharp decline in German losses to 1%. If a vigilant bomber crew could spot the fighter first, they had a decent chance at evading it.

Question: Who replaced Dowding on November 25?


Answer: six GCI sets controlling radar-equipped night-fighters

Question: What supported the GL carpet?


Answer: 87 pilots

Question: How many pilots remained in February 1941?


Answer: 204 and 74

Question: How many number of contacts and combats were there in May?


Answer: spot the fighter first

Question: What did a bomber crew need to do for a good chance at evasion?


Answer: radar

Context: Nevertheless, it was radar that proved to be critical weapon in the night battles over Britain from this point onward. Dowding had introduced the concept of airborne radar and encouraged its usage. Eventually it would become a success. On the night of 22/23 July 1940, Flying Officer Cyril Ashfield (pilot), Pilot Officer Geoffrey Morris (Observer) and Flight Sergeant Reginald Leyland (Air Intercept radar operator) of the Fighter Interception Unit became the first pilot and crew to intercept and destroy an enemy aircraft using onboard radar to guide them to a visual interception, when their AI night fighter brought down a Do 17 off Sussex. On 19 November 1940 the famous RAF night fighter ace John Cunningham shot down a Ju 88 bomber using airborne radar, just as Dowding had predicted.

Question: What was critical in the night battles over Britain?


Answer: airborne radar

Question: What concept eventually became successful?


Answer: the night of 22/23 July 1940

Question: On what day did airborne radar help intercept and destroy enemy aircraft for the first time?


Answer: John Cunningham

Question: Who was the RAF night fighter ace that used airborne radar to destroy a Ju 88 bomber?


Answer: the West Midlands

Context: From November 1940 – February 1941, the Luftwaffe shifted its strategy and attacked other industrial cities. In particular, the West Midlands were targeted. On the night of 13/14 November, 77 He 111s of Kampfgeschwader 26 (26th Bomber Wing, or KG 26) bombed London while 63 from KG 55 hit Birmingham. The next night, a large force hit Coventry. "Pathfinders" from 12 Kampfgruppe 100 (Bomb Group 100 or KGr 100) led 437 bombers from KG 1, KG 3, KG 26, KG 27, KG 55 and Lehrgeschwader 1 (1st Training Wing, or LG 1) which dropped 394 short tons (357 t) of high explosive, 56 short tons (51 t) of incendiaries, and 127 parachute mines. Other sources say 449 bombers and a total of 530 short tons (480 t) of bombs were dropped. The raid against Coventry was particularly devastating, and led to widespread use of the phrase "to conventrate". Over 10,000 incendiaries were dropped. Around 21 factories were seriously damaged in Coventry, and loss of public utilities stopped work at nine others, disrupting industrial output for several months. Only one bomber was lost, to anti-aircraft fire, despite the RAF flying 125 night sorties. No follow up raids were made, as OKL underestimated the British power of recovery (as Bomber Command would do over Germany from 1943–1945). The Germans were surprised by the success of the attack. The concentration had been achieved by accident. The strategic effect of the raid was a brief 20 percent dip in aircraft production.

Question: The Luftwaffe's change in strategy targeted what primarily?


Answer: 127

Question: How many parachute mines were dropped?


Answer: "to conventrate"

Question: The Coventry raid led to what phrase being in widespread use?


Answer: loss of public utilities

Question: What stopped work in 9 factories in Coventry?


Answer: a brief 20 percent dip in aircraft production

Question: What effect did the raid have strategically?


Answer: 369

Context: Five nights later, Birmingham was hit by 369 bombers from KG 54, KG 26, and KG 55. By the end of November, 1,100 bombers were available for night raids. An average of 200 were able to strike per night. This weight of attack went on for two months, with the Luftwaffe dropping 13,900 short tons (12,600 t) of bombs. In November 1940, 6,000 sorties and 23 major attacks (more than 100 tons of bombs dropped) were flown. Two heavy (50 short tons (45 t) of bombs) attacks were also flown. In December, only 11 major and five heavy attacks were made.

Question: How many bombers hit Birmingham?


Answer: two months

Question: For how many months did the night raids continue for?


Answer: more than 100 tons of bombs dropped

Question: How many tons of bombs had to be dropped to be considered a major attack?


Answer: only 11 major and five heavy attacks

Question: December saw how many attacks?


Answer: the evening of 29 December

Context: Probably the most devastating strike occurred on the evening of 29 December, when German aircraft attacked the City of London itself with incendiary and high explosive bombs, causing a firestorm that has been called the Second Great Fire of London. The first group to use these incendiaries was Kampfgruppe 100 which despatched 10 "pathfinder" He 111s. At 18:17, it released the first of 10,000 fire bombs, eventually amounting to 300 dropped per minute. Altogether, 130 German bombers destroyed the historical centre of London. Civilian casualties on London throughout the Blitz amounted to 28,556 killed, and 25,578 wounded. The Luftwaffe had dropped 18,291 short tons (16,593 t) of bombs.

Question: On what day was London itself attacked?


Answer: Kampfgruppe 100

Question: What group was the first to use incendiaries?


Answer: 300

Question: How many fire bombs were dropped per minute?


Answer: 28,556 killed

Question: How many civilians were killed in the bombing?


Answer: 18,291 short tons

Question: The Luftwaffe dropped how many short tons of bombs?


Answer: to try to disrupt trade and sea communications

Context: Not all of the Luftwaffe's effort was made against inland cities. Port cities were also attacked to try to disrupt trade and sea communications. In January Swansea was bombed four times, very heavily. On 17 January around 100 bombers dropped a high concentration of incendiaries, some 32,000 in all. The main damage was inflicted on the commercial and domestic areas. Four days later 230 tons was dropped including 60,000 incendiaries. In Portsmouth Southsea and Gosport waves of 150 bombers destroyed vast swaths of the city with 40,000 incendiaries. Warehouses, rail lines and houses were destroyed and damaged, but the docks were largely untouched.

Question: Why were port cities targeted by the Luftwaffe?


Answer: four times

Question: How many times was Swansea bombed heavily?


Answer: commercial and domestic areas

Question: What was primarily damaged in the attacks?


Answer: Portsmouth Southsea and Gosport

Question: What cities had large sections of them destroyed?


Answer: the docks

Question: What was left mostly unharmed?


Answer: target civilian morale

Context: Although official German air doctrine did target civilian morale, it did not espouse the attacking of civilians directly. It hoped to destroy morale by destroying the enemy's factories and public utilities as well as its food stocks (by attacking shipping). Nevertheless, its official opposition to attacks on civilians became an increasingly moot point when large-scale raids were conducted in November and December 1940. Although not encouraged by official policy, the use of mines and incendiaries, for tactical expediency, came close to indiscriminate bombing. Locating targets in skies obscured by industrial haze meant they needed to be illuminated "without regard for the civilian population".

Question: What was the primary goal of the German air doctrine?


Answer: large-scale raids

Question: In November and December of 1940 what changed to make attacks on civilians a moot point?


Answer: use of mines and incendiaries, for tactical expediency

Question: What had nearly been considered indiscriminate bombing?


Answer: regard for the civilian population

Question: Lighting targets hidden by haze had to be done without what?


Answer: Beleuchtergruppe

Context: Special units, such as KGr 100, became the Beleuchtergruppe (Firelighter Group), which used incendiaries and high explosive to mark the target area. The tactic was expanded into Feuerleitung (Blaze Control) with the creation of Brandbombenfelder (Incendiary Fields) to mark targets. These were marked out by parachute flares. Then bombers carrying SC 1000 (1,000 kg (2,205 lb)), SC 1400 (1,400 kg (3,086 lb)), and SC 1800 (1,800 kg (3,968 lb)) "Satan" bombs were used to level streets and residential areas. By December, the SC 2500 (2,500 kg (5,512 lb)) "Max" bomb was used.

Question: What was the group that used incendiaries and high explosives to mark targets?


Answer: Brandbombenfelder (Incendiary Fields)

Question: The Feuerleitung (Blaze Control) tactic led to what creation for marking targets?


Answer: "Satan"

Question: What was the nickname of bombs used in streets and residential areas?


Answer: 2,500 kg (5,512 lb)

Question: What was the weight of the "Max" bomb?


Answer: unrestricted area attack or Terrorangriff (Terror Attack)

Context: These decisions, apparently taken at the Luftflotte or Fliegerkorps level (see Organisation of the Luftwaffe (1933–1945)), meant attacks on individual targets were gradually replaced by what was, for all intents and purposes, an unrestricted area attack or Terrorangriff (Terror Attack). Part of the reason for this was inaccuracy of navigation. The effectiveness of British countermeasures against Knickebein, which was designed to avoid area attacks, forced the Luftwaffe to resort to these methods. The shift from precision bombing to area attack is indicated in the tactical methods and weapons dropped. KGr 100 increased its use of incendiaries from 13–28 percent. By December, this had increased to 92 percent. Use of incendiaries, which were inherently inaccurate, indicated much less care was taken to avoid civilian property close to industrial sites. Other units ceased using parachute flares and opted for explosive target markers. Captured German air crews also indicated the homes of industrial workers were deliberately targeted.

Question: Decision changes at organizational levels led to what type of attacks?


Answer: inaccuracy of navigation

Question: What was one of the reasons for unrestricted area attacks?


Answer: tactical methods and weapons dropped

Question: How was it known that precision bombing was changed to area attacks?


Answer: 92 percent

Question: What percentage of incendiaries were used in December?


Answer: Captured German air crews

Question: How was it determined that homes of industrial workers were targeted?


Answer: support the German submarine force

Context: In 1941, the Luftwaffe shifted strategy again. Erich Raeder—commander-in-chief of the Kriegsmarine—had long argued the Luftwaffe should support the German submarine force (U-Bootwaffe) in the Battle of the Atlantic by attacking shipping in the Atlantic Ocean and attacking British ports. Eventually, he convinced Hitler of the need to attack British port facilities. Hitler had been convinced by Raeder that this was the right course of action due to the high success rates of the U-Boat force during this period of the war. Hitler correctly noted that the greatest damage to the British war economy had been done through submarines and air attacks by small numbers of Focke-Wulf Fw 200 naval aircraft. He ordered attacks to be carried out on those targets which were also the target of the Kriegsmarine. This meant that British coastal centres and shipping at sea west of Ireland were the prime targets.

Question: What did Erich Raeder believe the Luftwaffe needed to do?


Answer: attack British port facilities.

Question: Raeder convinced Hitler to do what?


Answer: the high success rates of the U-Boat force

Question: What ultimately convinced Hitler that Raeder was right?


Answer: British war economy

Question: Submarines and naval aircraft damaged what primarily?


Answer: British coastal centres and shipping at sea west of Ireland

Question: What became the new targets for the Kriegsmarine?


Answer: Directions for operations against the British War Economy

Context: Hitler's interest in this strategy forced Göring and Jeschonnek to review the air war against Britain in January 1941. This led to Göring and Jeschonnek agreeing to Hitler's Directive 23, Directions for operations against the British War Economy, which was published on 6 February 1941 and gave aerial interdiction of British imports by sea top priority. This strategy had been recognised before the war, but Operation Eagle Attack and the following Battle of Britain had got in the way of striking at Britain's sea communications and diverted German air strength to the campaign against the RAF and its supporting structures. The OKL had always regarded the interdiction of sea communications of less importance than bombing land-based aircraft industries.

Question: What was Hitler's Directive 23?


Answer: aerial interdiction of British imports by sea

Question: What was a top priority of Directive 23?


Answer: Operation Eagle Attack and the following Battle of Britain

Question: What prevented the targeting of sea communications before?


Answer: bombing land-based aircraft industries

Question: What was considered more important than the interdiction of sea communications?


Answer: Directive 23

Context: Directive 23 was the only concession made by Göring to the Kriegsmarine over the strategic bombing strategy of the Luftwaffe against Britain. Thereafter, he would refuse to make available any air units to destroy British dockyards, ports, port facilities, or shipping in dock or at sea, lest Kriegsmarine gain control of more Luftwaffe units. Raeder's successor—Karl Dönitz—would—on the intervention of Hitler—gain control of one unit (KG 40), but Göring would soon regain it. Göring's lack of cooperation was detrimental to the one air strategy with potentially decisive strategic effect on Britain. Instead, he wasted aircraft of Fliegerführer Atlantik (Flying Command Atlantic) on bombing mainland Britain instead of attacks against convoys. For Göring, his prestige had been damaged by the defeat in the Battle of Britain, and he wanted to regain it by subduing Britain by air power alone. He was always reluctant to cooperate with Raeder.

Question: What was the concession Goring made with the strategic bombing against Britain?


Answer: control of more Luftwaffe units

Question: What did Goring believe the Kriegsmarine would gain with further support?


Answer: Karl Dönitz

Question: Who was Raeder's successor?


Answer: Göring's lack of cooperation

Question: What was detrimental to the success of a strategic effect against Britain?


Answer: by subduing Britain by air power alone

Question: How did Goring expect to regain prestige?


Answer: difficulty in estimating the impact of bombing upon war production

Context: Even so, the decision by OKL to support the strategy in Directive 23 was instigated by two considerations, both of which had little to do with wanting to destroy Britain's sea communications in conjunction with the Kriegsmarine. First, the difficulty in estimating the impact of bombing upon war production was becoming apparent, and second, the conclusion British morale was unlikely to break led OKL to adopt the naval option. The indifference displayed by OKL to Directive 23 was perhaps best demonstrated in operational directives which diluted its effect. They emphasised the core strategic interest was attacking ports but they insisted in maintaining pressure, or diverting strength, onto industries building aircraft, anti-aircraft guns, and explosives. Other targets would be considered if the primary ones could not be attacked because of weather conditions.

Question: What was the first consideration for the OKL to support Directive 23?


Answer: the conclusion British morale was unlikely to break

Question: What was the second consideration?


Answer: pressure, or diverting strength, onto industries

Question: What did the OKL insist on maintaining?


Answer: if the primary ones could not be attacked because of weather conditions

Question: When would other targets be considered available?


Answer: create the impression an amphibious assault on Britain was planned for 1941

Context: A further line in the directive stressed the need to inflict the heaviest losses possible, but also to intensify the air war in order to create the impression an amphibious assault on Britain was planned for 1941. However, meteorological conditions over Britain were not favourable for flying and prevented an escalation in air operations. Airfields became water-logged and the 18 Kampfgruppen (bomber groups) of the Luftwaffe's Kampfgeschwadern (bomber wings) were relocated to Germany for rest and re-equipment.

Question: What was inflicting heavy losses and increasing the air war designed to do?


Answer: meteorological conditions over Britain

Question: What was preventing escalation of air operations?


Answer: Airfields became water-logged

Question: What happened to airfields?


Answer: 18

Question: How many bomber groups were relocated to Germany?


Answer: 4,000

Context: From the German point of view, March 1941 saw an improvement. The Luftwaffe flew 4,000 sorties that month, including 12 major and three heavy attacks. The electronic war intensified but the Luftwaffe flew major inland missions only on moonlit nights. Ports were easier to find and made better targets. To confuse the British, radio silence was observed until the bombs fell. X- and Y-Gerät beams were placed over false targets and switched only at the last minute. Rapid frequency changes were introduced for X-Gerät, whose wider band of frequencies and greater tactical flexibility ensured it remained effective at a time when British selective jamming was degrading the effectiveness of Y-Gerät.

Question: How many sorties were flown in March 1941?


Answer: only on moonlit nights

Question: When did the Luftwaffe fly inland missions?


Answer: Ports were easier to find

Question: Why were ports better targets?


Answer: radio silence was observed until the bombs fell

Question: How did the Germans confuse the British?


Answer: British selective jamming was degrading the effectiveness of Y-Gerät

Question: Why was the X-Gerat frequencies used more?


Answer: western ports

Context: The attacks were focused against western ports in March. These attacks produced some breaks in morale, with civil leaders fleeing the cities before the offensive reached its height. But the Luftwaffe's effort eased in the last 10 attacks as seven Kampfgruppen moved to Austria in preparation for the Balkans Campaign in Yugoslavia and Greece. The shortage of bombers caused the OKL to improvise. Some 50 Junkers Ju 87 Stuka dive-bombers and Jabos (fighter-bombers) were used, officially classed as Leichte Kampfflugzeuge ("light bombers") and sometimes called Leichte Kesselringe ("Light Kesselrings"). The defences failed to prevent widespread damage but on some occasions did prevent German bombers concentrating on their targets. On occasion, only one-third of German bombs hit their targets.

Question: What was focused in March?


Answer: breaks in morale

Question: What did these attacks accomplish?


Answer: shortage of bombers

Question: Why was the OKL forced to improvise?


Answer: 50

Question: How many Ju 87 Stuka dive-bombers and Jabos were used?


Answer: only one-third

Question: How many German bombs hit their target?


Answer: two or three sorties

Context: The diversion of heavier bombers to the Balkans meant that the crews and units left behind were asked to fly two or three sorties per night. Bombers were noisy, cold, and vibrated badly. Added to the tension of the mission which exhausted and drained crews, tiredness caught up with and killed many. In one incident on 28/29 April, Peter Stahl of KG 30 was flying on his 50th mission. He fell asleep at the controls of his Ju 88 and woke up to discover the entire crew asleep. He roused them, ensured they took oxygen and Dextro-Energen tablets, then completed the mission.

Question: How many sorties a night were crews asked to fly?


Answer: Bombers were noisy, cold, and vibrated badly

Question: What contributed to the exhaustion of crews flying extra sorties?


Answer: woke up to discover the entire crew asleep.

Question: What happened to Peter Stahl when he fell asleep flying?


Answer: oxygen and Dextro-Energen tablets

Question: What did Peter's crew take to complete their mission?


Answer: intensification of submarine and air attack

Context: Regardless, the Luftwaffe could still inflict huge damage. With the German occupation of Western Europe, the intensification of submarine and air attack on Britain's sea communications was feared by the British. Such an event would have serious consequences on the future course of the war, should the Germans succeed. Liverpool and its port became an important destination for convoys heading through the Western Approaches from North America, bringing supplies and materials. The considerable rail network distributed to the rest of the country. Operations against Liverpool in the Liverpool Blitz were successful. Air attacks sank 39,126 long tons (39,754 t) of shipping, with another 111,601 long tons (113,392 t) damaged. Minister of Home Security Herbert Morrison was also worried morale was breaking, noting the defeatism expressed by civilians. Other sources point to half of the port's 144 berths rendered unusable, while cargo unloading capability was reduced by 75%. Roads and railways were blocked and ships could not leave harbour. On 8 May 1941, 57 ships were destroyed, sunk or damaged amounting to 80,000 long tons (81,000 t). Around 66,000 houses were destroyed, 77,000 people made homeless, and 1,900 people killed and 1,450 seriously hurt on one night. Operations against London up until May 1941 could also have a severe impact on morale. The populace of the port of Hull became 'trekkers', people who underwent a mass exodus from cities before, during, and after attacks. However, the attacks failed to knock out or damage railways, or port facilities for long, even in the Port of London, a target of many attacks. The Port of London in particular was an important target, bringing in one-third of overseas trade.

Question: What did the British fear most?


Answer: Liverpool

Question: What was an important destination for supply convoys from North America?


Answer: 39,126 long tons (39,754 t) of shipping

Question: The Liverpool Blitz sank how much shipping?


Answer: 57 ships

Question: How many ships were destroyed on May 8, 1941?


Answer: one-third of overseas trade

Question: How much of the overseas trade did the Port of London take on?


Answer: seven

Context: On 13 March, the upper Clyde port of Clydebank near Glasgow was bombed. All but seven of its 12,000 houses were damaged. Many more ports were attacked. Plymouth was attacked five times before the end of the month while Belfast, Hull, and Cardiff were hit. Cardiff was bombed on three nights, Portsmouth centre was devastated by five raids. The rate of civilian housing lost was averaging 40,000 people per week dehoused in September 1940. In March 1941, two raids on Plymouth and London dehoused 148,000 people. Still, while heavily damaged, British ports continued to support war industry and supplies from North America continued to pass through them while the Royal Navy continued to operate in Plymouth, Southampton, and Portsmouth. Plymouth in particular, because of its vulnerable position on the south coast and close proximity to German air bases, was subjected to the heaviest attacks. On 10/11 March, 240 bombers dropped 193 tons of high explosives and 46,000 incendiaries. Many houses and commercial centres were heavily damaged, the electrical supply was knocked out, and five oil tanks and two magazines exploded. Nine days later, two waves of 125 and 170 bombers dropped heavy bombs, including 160 tons of high explosive and 32,000 incendiaries. Much of the city centre was destroyed. Damage was inflicted on the port installations, but many bombs fell on the city itself. On 17 April 346 tons of explosives and 46,000 incendiaries were dropped from 250 bombers led by KG 26. The damage was considerable, and the Germans also used aerial mines. Over 2,000 AAA shells were fired, destroying two Ju 88s. By the end of the air campaign over Britain, only eight percent of the German effort against British ports was made using mines.

Question: How many houses were spared damage in Glasgow?


Answer: 40,000 people

Question: How many people per week were losing housing?


Answer: because of its vulnerable position on the south coast

Question: Why was Plymouth targeted the most?


Answer: aerial mines

Question: What did the Germans use along with incendiaries and bombs?


Answer: Over 2,000

Question: How many AAA shells were fired?


Answer: Newcastle-upon-Tyne and Sunderland

Context: In the north, substantial efforts were made against Newcastle-upon-Tyne and Sunderland, which were large ports on the English east coast. On 9 April 1941 Luftflotte 2 dropped 150 tons of high explosives and 50,000 incendiaries from 120 bombers in a five-hour attack. Sewer, rail, docklands, and electric installations were damaged. In Sunderland on 25 April, Luftflotte 2 sent 60 bombers which dropped 80 tons of high explosive and 9,000 incendiaries. Much damage was done. A further attack on the Clyde, this time at Greenock, took place on 6 and 7 May. However, as with the attacks in the south, the Germans failed to prevent maritime movements or cripple industry in the regions.

Question: What were two large ports on the English east coast in the North?


Answer: 9,000 incendiaries

Question: Sunderland saw how many incendiaries used against it on 25 April?


Answer: 120

Question: How many bombers were used in a five-hour attack?


Answer: the Germans failed to prevent maritime movements or cripple industry in the regions

Question: What was the result of the German attacks?


Answer: 10/11 May 1941

Context: The last major attack on London was on 10/11 May 1941, on which the Luftwaffe flew 571 sorties and dropped 800 tonnes of bombs. This caused more than 2,000 fires. 1,436 people were killed and 1,792 seriously injured, which affected morale badly. Another raid was carried out on 11/12 May 1941. Westminster Abbey and the Law Courts were damaged, while the Chamber of the House of Commons was destroyed. One-third of London's streets were impassable. All but one railway station line was blocked for several weeks. This raid was significant, as 63 German fighters were sent with the bombers, indicating the growing effectiveness of RAF night fighter defences.

Question: When was the last major attack London saw?


Answer: 800 tonnes

Question: How many tonnes of bombs did the Luftwaffe use on London?


Answer: 1,436 people were killed and 1,792 seriously injured

Question: How many casualties were inflicted?


Answer: One-third of London's streets were impassable

Question: What was the damage done to London's streets?


Answer: 63 German fighters were sent with the bombers

Question: What showed RAF night fighter effectiveness was increasing?


Answer: were proving highly successful.

Context: German air supremacy at night was also now under threat. British night-fighter operations out over the Channel were proving highly successful. This was not immediately apparent. The Bristol Blenheim F.1 was undergunned, with just four .303 in (7.7 mm) machine guns which struggled to down the Do 17, Ju 88, or Heinkel He 111. Moreover, the Blenheim struggled to reach the speed of the German bombers. Added to the fact an interception relied on visual sighting, a kill was most elusive even in the conditions of a moonlit sky.

Question: How was the British night fighter operations faring?


Answer: was undergunned, with just four .303 in (7.7 mm) machine guns

Question: How did the Bristol Blenheim F.1 perform against German aircraft?


Answer: visual sighting

Question: What did interception rely upon?


Answer: struggled to reach the speed of the German bombers

Question: How did the Bristol Blenheim F.1 compare to German aircraft speed?


Answer: The Boulton Paul Defiant

Context: The Boulton Paul Defiant, despite its poor performance during daylight engagements, was a much better night fighter. It was faster, able to catch the bombers and its configuration of four machine guns in a turret could (much like German night fighters in 1943–1945 with Schräge Musik) engage the unsuspecting German bomber from beneath. Attacks from below offered a larger target, compared to attacking tail-on, as well as a better chance of not being seen by the bomber (so less chance of evasion), as well as greater likelihood of detonating its bombload. In subsequent months a steady number of German bombers would fall to night fighters.

Question: What performed better during night fighting?


Answer: engage the unsuspecting German bomber from beneath

Question: How could aircraft engage bombers when fitted with a turret?


Answer: larger target, compared to attacking tail-on, as well as a better chance of not being seen by the bomber

Question: What benefits did attacking from below offer?


Answer: 320 mph (510 km/h)

Context: Improved aircraft designs were in the offing with the Bristol Beaufighter, then under development. It would prove formidable, but its development was slow. The Beaufighter had a maximum speed of 320 mph (510 km/h), an operational ceiling of 26,000 ft (7,900 m) and a climb rate of 2,500 ft (760 m) per minute. Its armament of four 20 mm (0.79 in) Hispano cannon and six .303 in Browning machine guns offered a serious threat to German bombers. On 19 November, John Cunningham of No. 604 Squadron RAF shot down a bomber flying an AI-equipped Beaufighter. It was the first air victory for the airborne radar.

Question: What was the max speed of a Beaufighter?


Answer: 26,000 ft (7,900 m)

Question: What is the operational ceiling of the Beaufighter?


Answer: six .303 in Browning machine guns

Question: how many machine guns did the Beaufighter include?


Answer: 19 November

Question: What day was the first victory the RAF had with airborne radar?


Answer: one- to two-percent losses

Context: By April and May 1941, the Luftwaffe was still getting through to their targets, taking no more than one- to two-percent losses on any given mission. On 19/20 April 1941, in honour of Hitler's 52nd birthday, 712 bombers hit Plymouth with a record 1,000 tons of bombs. Losses were minimal. In the following month, 22 German bombers were lost with 13 confirmed to have been shot down by night fighters. On 3/4 May, nine were shot down in one night. On 10/11 May, London suffered severe damage, but 10 German bombers were downed. In May 1941, RAF night fighters shot down 38 German bombers.

Question: What was the most losses the Luftwaffe suffered on any mission?


Answer: 712

Question: How many bombers hit Plymouth on Hitler's birthday?


Answer: 1,000 tons of bombs

Question: How many bombs hit Plymouth on Hitler's birthday?


Answer: nine

Question: On May 3/4 how many German bombers were lost?


Answer: 38 German bombers

Question: How many German bombers were shot down by the RAF in May?


Answer: 45,000 short tons

Context: The military effectiveness of bombing varied. The Luftwaffe dropped around 45,000 short tons (41,000 t) of bombs during the Blitz disrupting production and transport, reducing food supplies and shaking the British morale. It also helped to support the U-Boat blockade by sinking some 58,000 long tons (59,000 t) of shipping destroyed and 450,000 long tons (460,000 t) damaged. Yet, overall the British production rose steadily throughout this period although there were significant falls during April 1941, probably influenced by the departure of workers of Easter Holidays according to the British official history. The British official history on war production noted the great impact was upon the supply of components rather than complete equipment. In aircraft production, the British were denied the opportunity to reach the planned target of 2,500 aircraft in a month, arguably the greatest achievement of the bombing, as it forced the dispersal of industry. In April 1941, when the targets were British ports, rifle production fell by 25%, filled-shell production by 4.6%, and in smallarms production 4.5% overall. The strategic impact on industrial cities was varied; most took from 10–15 days to recover from heavy raids, although Belfast and Liverpool took longer. The attacks against Birmingham took war industries some three months to recover fully from. The exhausted population took three weeks to overcome the effects of an attack.

Question: The Luftwaffe used how many short tons of bombs during the Blitz?


Answer: 58,000 long tons

Question: The Luftwaffe helped the U-boats by sinking how much shipping?


Answer: overall the British production rose steadily throughout this period

Question: How did the British production fare as a result of all the bombing?


Answer: British were denied the opportunity to reach the planned target of 2,500 aircraft in a month

Question: What was the greatest achievement of the bombings?


Answer: most took from 10–15 days

Question: How long was the recovery of industrial cities from raids?


Answer: had the OKL exploited their enemy's weak spot

Context: The air offensive against the RAF and British industry failed to have the desired effect. More might have been achieved had the OKL exploited their enemy's weak spot, the vulnerability of British sea communications. The Allies did so later when Bomber Command attacked rail communications and the United States Army Air Forces targeted oil, but that would have required an economic-industrial analysis of which the Luftwaffe was incapable. The OKL instead sought clusters of targets that suited the latest policy (which changed frequently), and disputes within the leadership were about tactics rather than strategy. Though militarily ineffective, the Blitz caused enormous damage to Britain's infrastructure and housing stock. It cost around 41,000 lives, and may have injured another 139,000.

Question: How could have more been achieved in the air offensive?


Answer: about tactics rather than strategy

Question: What did the disputes in the OKL tend to be about?


Answer: an economic-industrial analysis

Question: What was the Luftwaffe incapable of doing?


Answer: cost around 41,000 lives, and may have injured another 139,000

Question: How many casualties did the Blitz ultimately cause?


Answer: the German experience

Context: The relieved British began to assess the impact of the Blitz in August 1941, and the RAF Air Staff used the German experience to improve Bomber Command's offensives. They concluded bombers should strike a single target each night and use more incendiaries because they had a greater impact on production than high explosives. They also noted regional production was severely disrupted when city centres were devastated through the loss of administrative offices, utilities and transport. They believed the Luftwaffe had failed in precision attack, and concluded the German example of area attack using incendiaries was the way forward for operations over Germany.

Question: What helped increase the Bomber Command's offensives?


Answer: bombers should strike a single target each night and use more incendiaries because they had a greater impact on production than high explosives

Question: What did the RAF conclude?


Answer: when city centres were devastated through the loss of administrative offices, utilities and transport.

Question: What caused the most production disruption?


Answer: failed in precision attack

Question: What did the Luftwaffe fail?


Answer: using incendiaries was the way forward for operations over Germany.

Question: What did the experience of German's using incendiaries mean?


Answer: Targeting German morale, as Bomber Command would do, was no more successful.

Context: Some writers claim the Air Staff ignored a critical lesson, however: British morale did not break. Targeting German morale, as Bomber Command would do, was no more successful. Aviation strategists dispute that morale was ever a major consideration for Bomber Command. Throughout 1933–39 none of the 16 Western Air Plans drafted mentioned morale as a target. The first three directives in 1940 did not mention civilian populations or morale in any way. Morale was not mentioned until the ninth wartime directive on 21 September 1940. The 10th directive in October 1940 mentioned morale by name. However, industrial cities were only to be targeted if weather denied strikes on Bomber Command's main concern, oil.

Question: What was the critical lesson Air Staff ignored?


Answer: that morale was ever a major consideration for Bomber Command.

Question: Aviation strategists disputed over what?


Answer: morale as a target.

Question: What did 16 of the Western Air Plans not mention?


Answer: ninth wartime directive on 21 September 1940

Question: When was morale finally mentioned?


Answer: if weather denied strikes on Bomber Command's main concern, oil.

Question: When were industrial cities to be targeted?


Answer: without the destruction of the German economy.

Context: AOC Bomber Command Arthur Harris did see German morale as a major objective. However, he did not believe that the morale-collapse could occur without the destruction of the German economy. The primary goal of Bomber Command's offensives was to destroy the German industrial base (economic warfare), and in doing so reduce morale. In late 1943, just before the Battle of Berlin, he declared the power of Bomber Command would enable it to achieve "a state of devastation in which surrender is inevitable." A summary of Harris' strategic intentions was clear:

Question: Without what could morale collapse occur according to Arthur Harris?


Answer: to destroy the German industrial base (economic warfare), and in doing so reduce morale

Question: What was the primary strategy for Bomber Command offensives?


Answer: "a state of devastation in which surrender is inevitable."

Question: Arthur Harris announced that Bomber Command would enable economic warfare to achieve what?


Answer: people locked in national solidarity.

Context: A converse popular image arose of British people in the Second World War: a collection of people locked in national solidarity. This image entered the historiography of the Second World War in the 1980s and 1990s, especially after the publication of Angus Calder's book The Myth of the Blitz (1991). It was evoked by both the right and left political factions in Britain during the Falklands War when it was embedded in a nostalgic narrative in which the Second World War represented aggressive British patriotism successfully defending democracy. This imagery of people in the Blitz was and is powerfully portrayed in film, radio, newspapers and magazines. At the time it was a useful propaganda tool for home and foreign consumption. Historians' critical response to this construction focused on what were seen as over-emphasised claims of righteous nationalism and national unity. In the Myth of the Blitz, Calder exposed some of the counter-evidence of anti-social and divisive behaviours. What he saw as the myth—serene national unity—became "historical truth". In particular, class division was most evident.

Question: What view became popular of the British people in WWII?


Answer: in the 1980s and 1990s, especially after the publication of Angus Calder's book The Myth of the Blitz (1991).

Question: When did this popular view come to be?


Answer: aggressive British patriotism successfully defending democracy.

Question: Political factions in Britain supported what view of Britains in WWII?


Answer: over-emphasised claims of righteous nationalism and national unity.

Question: What was the Historians' critical response to this view?


Answer: some of the counter-evidence of anti-social and divisive behaviours

Question: What did Calder try to expose in his book?


Answer: the need for bomb-proof shelters.

Context: In the wake of the Coventry Blitz, there was widespread agitation from the Communist Party over the need for bomb-proof shelters. Many Londoners, in particular, took to using the Underground railway system, without authority, for shelter and sleeping through the night there until the following morning. So worried were the Government over the sudden campaign of leaflets and posters distributed by the Communist Party in Coventry and London, that the Police were sent in to seize their production facilities. The Government, up until November 1940, was opposed to the centralised organisation of shelter. Home Secretary Sir John Anderson was replaced by Morrison soon afterwards, in the wake of a Cabinet reshuffle as the dying Neville Chamberlain resigned. Morrison warned that he could not counter the Communist unrest unless provision of shelters were made. He recognised the right of the public to seize tube stations and authorised plans to improve their condition and expand them by tunnelling. Still, many British citizens, who had been members of the Labour Party, itself inert over the issue, turned to the Communist Party. The Communists attempted to blame the damage and casualties of the Coventry raid on the rich factory owners, big business and landowning interests and called for a negotiated peace. Though they failed to make a large gain in influence, the membership of the Party had doubled by June 1941. The "Communist threat" was deemed important enough for Herbert Morrison to order, with the support of the Cabinet, the stoppage of the Daily Worker and The Week; the Communist newspaper and journal.

Question: What was the communist party agitated over?


Answer: Underground railway system

Question: What did Londoners use for bomb-shelters?


Answer: that he could not counter the Communist unrest unless provision of shelters were made.

Question: What did Morrison warn he couldn't do?


Answer: the rich factory owners, big business and landowning interests

Question: Who did the Communists blame for the damage in the Conventry raids?


Answer: the stoppage of the Daily Worker and The Week; the Communist newspaper and journal.

Question: What was Morrison forced to do in response to the Communist Party?


Answer: British Union of Fascists (BUF)

Context: The brief success of the Communists also fed into the hands of the British Union of Fascists (BUF). Anti-Semitic attitudes became widespread, particularly in London. Rumours that Jewish support was underpinning the Communist surge were frequent. Rumours that Jews were inflating prices, were responsible for the Black Market, were the first to panic under attack (even the cause of the panic), and secured the best shelters via underhanded methods, were also widespread. Moreover, there was also racial antagonism between the small Black, Indian and Jewish communities. However, the feared race riots did not transpire despite the mixing of different peoples into confined areas.

Question: The success of the Communists helped what political group?


Answer: particularly in London

Question: Where did anti-semitic attitude spread primarily?


Answer: secured the best shelters via underhanded methods

Question: What was one the rumors that Jews were doing in regard to shelters?


Answer: race riots

Question: What was feared would happen when different races were mixed in shelters?


Answer: industry dispersal may have been a factor

Context: In other cities, class conflict was more evident. Over a quarter of London's population had left the city by November 1940. Civilians left for more remote areas of the country. Upsurges in population south Wales and Gloucester intimated where these displaced people went. Other reasons, including industry dispersal may have been a factor. However, resentment of rich self-evacuees or hostile treatment of poor ones were signs of persistence of class resentments although these factors did not appear to threaten social order. The total number of evacuees numbered 1.4 million, including a high proportion from the poorest inner-city families. Reception committees were completely unprepared for the condition of some of the children. Far from displaying the nation's unity in time of war, the scheme backfired, often aggravating class antagonism and bolstering prejudice about the urban poor. Within four months, 88% of evacuated mothers, 86% of small children, and 43% of school children had been returned home. The lack of bombing in the Phoney War contributed significantly to the return of people to the cities, but class conflict was not eased a year later when evacuation operations had to be put into effect again.

Question: What was another reason for populations moving?


Answer: Over a quarter

Question: How much of London's population left?


Answer: south Wales and Gloucester

Question: What locations saw an increase in populations?


Answer: 88% of evacuated mothers, 86% of small children, and 43% of school children

Question: How much of the population returned in four months?


Answer: 1.4 million

Question: How many evacuees were there?


Answer: The Blitz, The Home Front and British War Broadcasting

Context: In recent years a large number of wartime recordings relating to the Blitz have been made available on audiobooks such as The Blitz, The Home Front and British War Broadcasting. These collections include period interviews with civilians, servicemen, aircrew, politicians and Civil Defence personnel, as well as Blitz actuality recordings, news bulletins and public information broadcasts. Notable interviews include Thomas Alderson, the first recipient of the George Cross, John Cormack, who survived eight days trapped beneath rubble on Clydeside, and Herbert Morrison's famous "Britain shall not burn" appeal for more fireguards in December 1940.

Question: What are the audiobooks with wartime recordings?


Answer: period interviews with civilians, servicemen, aircrew, politicians and Civil Defence personnel, as well as Blitz actuality recordings

Question: What are some of the things included in these recordings?


Answer: Thomas Alderson, the first recipient of the George Cross, John Cormack, who survived eight days trapped beneath rubble on Clydeside

Question: What is one of the notable recordings included?


Answer: Herbert Morrison's famous "Britain shall not burn" appeal for more fireguards in December 1940.

Question: What is a second recording that is of note?


Answer: Richard Nixon

Context: The Endangered Species Act of 1973 (ESA; 16 U.S.C. § 1531 et seq.) is one of the few dozens of United States environmental laws passed in the 1970s, and serves as the enacting legislation to carry out the provisions outlined in The Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES). The ESA was signed into law by President Richard Nixon on December 28, 1973, it was designed to protect critically imperiled species from extinction as a "consequence of economic growth and development untempered by adequate concern and conservation." The U.S. Supreme Court found that "the plain intent of Congress in enacting" the ESA "was to halt and reverse the trend toward species extinction, whatever the cost." The Act is administered by two federal agencies, the United States Fish and Wildlife Service (FWS) and the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA).

Question: Which president signed the Act into law?


Answer: December 28

Question: On what day was the Endangered Species Act signed?


Answer: to halt and reverse the trend toward species extinction, whatever the cost

Question: What did the Supreme Court cite as the intent of Congress in enacting the Endangered Species Act?


Answer: the United States Fish and Wildlife Service (FWS) and the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA)

Question: Which two federal agencies administer the Act?


Answer: 1973

Question: In what year did the Endangered Species Act become law?


Answer: central Canada South to Mexico, and from Utah to the Atlantic coast

Context: One species in particular received widespread attention—the whooping crane. The species' historical range extended from central Canada South to Mexico, and from Utah to the Atlantic coast. Unregulated hunting and habitat loss contributed to a steady decline in the whooping crane population until, by 1890, it had disappeared from its primary breeding range in the north central United States. It would be another eight years before the first national law regulating wildlife commerce was signed, and another two years before the first version of the endangered species act was passed. The whooping crane population by 1941 was estimated at about only 16 birds still in the wild.

Question: What was the historical range of the whooping crane?


Answer: Unregulated hunting and habitat loss

Question: What two issues caused steady decline in the whooping crane population?


Answer: 16 birds

Question: What was the estimated population of the whooping crane in 1941?


Answer: eight years

Question: How many years after the noted absence of the whooping crane from its breeding range did the first law regulating wildlife commerce pass


Answer: Lacey Act of 1900

Context: The Lacey Act of 1900 was the first federal law that regulated commercial animal markets. It prohibited interstate commerce of animals killed in violation of state game laws, and covered all fish and wildlife and their parts or products, as well as plants. Other legislation followed, including the Migratory Bird Conservation Act of 1929, a 1937 treaty prohibiting the hunting of right and gray whales, and the Bald Eagle Protection Act of 1940. These later laws had a low cost to society–the species were relatively rare–and little opposition was raised.

Question: What was the first federal law that regulated wildlife commerce?


Answer: interstate commerce of animals killed in violation of state game laws

Question: What did the first federal wildlife commerce law prohibit?


Answer: all fish and wildlife and their parts or products, as well as plants

Question: What wildlife was covered by the first federal wildlife commerce regulation?


Answer: Bald Eagle Protection Act of 1940

Question: What law passed in 1940 regarding the population of the U.S. national bird?


Answer: list endangered domestic fish and wildlife

Context: It authorized the Secretary of the Interior to list endangered domestic fish and wildlife and allowed the United States Fish and Wildlife Service to spend up to $15 million per year to buy habitats for listed species. It also directed federal land agencies to preserve habitat on their lands. The Act also consolidated and even expanded authority for the Secretary of the Interior to manage and administer the National Wildlife Refuge System. Other public agencies were encouraged, but not required, to protect species. The act did not address the commerce in endangered species and parts.

Question: What did the Endangered Species Act authorize the Secretary of the Interior to do?


Answer: $15 million per year

Question: The Endangered Species Act permitted how much annual expenditure by the US Fish and Wildlife Service for habitat purchase?


Answer: the National Wildlife Refuge System

Question: The Endangered Species Act gave the Secretary of the Interior administrative power of what organization?


Answer: The act did not address the commerce in endangered species and parts

Question: How did the Endangered Species Act impact wildlife commerce?


Answer: Other public agencies were encouraged, but not required, to protect species

Question: How did the Endangered Species Act impact other agencies not specifically mentioned in the Act?


Answer: "Class of '67"

Context: This first list is referred to as the "Class of '67" in The Endangered Species Act at Thirty, Volume 1, which concludes that habitat destruction, the biggest threat to those 78 species, is still the same threat to the currently listed species. It included only vertebrates because the Department of Interior's definition of "fish and wildlife" was limited to vertebrates. However, with time, researchers noticed that the animals on the endangered species list still were not getting enough protection, thus further threatening their extinction. The endangered species program was expanded by the Endangered Species Act of 1969.

Question: What is the nickname given to the first listing of endangered species?


Answer: It included only vertebrates

Question: How was the first listing limited in what species were listed?


Answer: habitat destruction

Question: What was concluded to be the biggest threat to the listed species?


Answer: the animals on the endangered species list still were not getting enough protection, thus further threatening their extinction

Question: How did being listed initially impact species?


Answer: December, 1969

Context: The Endangered Species Conservation Act (P. L. 91-135), passed in December, 1969, amended the original law to provide additional protection to species in danger of "worldwide extinction" by prohibiting their importation and subsequent sale in the United States. It expanded the Lacey Act's ban on interstate commerce to include mammals, reptiles, amphibians, mollusks and crustaceans. Reptiles were added mainly to reduce the rampant poaching of alligators and crocodiles. This law was the first time that invertebrates were included for protection.

Question: When was the Endangered Species Conservation Act passed?


Answer: by prohibiting their importation and subsequent sale in the United States

Question: How did the Endangered Species Conservation Act benefit endangered species?


Answer: mammals, reptiles, amphibians, mollusks and crustaceans

Question: What did the Endangered Species Conservation Act add to the wildlife definition of the Lacey Act?


Answer: alligators and crocodiles

Question: What two reptiles were particularly of interest for the inclusion of "reptiles" in the Endangered Species Conservation Act?


Answer: This law was the first time that invertebrates were included for protection

Question: What important precedent did this set for invertebrates?


Answer: Dr. Russell E. Train

Context: President Richard Nixon declared current species conservation efforts to be inadequate and called on the 93rd United States Congress to pass comprehensive endangered species legislation. Congress responded with a completely rewritten law, the Endangered Species Act of 1973 which was signed by Nixon on December 28, 1973 (Pub.L. 93–205). It was written by a team of lawyers and scientists, including the first appointed head of the Council on Environmental Quality (CEQ),an outgrowth of NEPA (The "National Environmental Policy Act of 1969") Dr. Russell E. Train. Dr. Train was assisted by a core group of staffers, including Dr. Earl Baysinger at EPA (currently Assistant Chief, Office of Endangered Species and International. Activities), Dick Gutting (U.S. Commerce Dept. lawyer, currently joined NOAA the previous year (1972), and Dr. Gerard A. "Jerry" Bertrand, a marine biologist (Ph.D, Oregon State University) by training, who had transferred from his post as the Scientific Adviser to the U.S Army Corps of Engineers, office of the Commandant of the Corp. to join the newly formed White House office. The staff, under Dr. Train's leadership, incorporated dozens of new principles and ideas into the landmark legislation; crafting a document that completely changed the direction of environmental conservation in the United States. Dr. Bertrand is credited with writing the most challenged section of the Act, the "takings" clause - Section 2.

Question: Who led the team of lawyers and scientists who crafted the Endangered Species Act of 1973?


Answer: the Council on Environmental Quality

Question: The team leader was the first appointed head of what organization?


Answer: Dr. Gerard A. "Jerry" Bertrand

Question: Who wrote the most challenged section of the Act?


Answer: Dr. Earl Baysinger

Question: Who was the core staffer to the legislation that worked for the EPA and continued to work in the Office of Endangered Species?


Answer: the 93rd United States Congress

Question: What Congress called for the drafting of the Endangered Species Act of 1973?


Answer: two ways

Context: A species can be listed in two ways. The United States Fish and Wildlife Service (FWS) or NOAA Fisheries (also called the National Marine Fisheries Service) can directly list a species through its candidate assessment program, or an individual or organizational petition may request that the FWS or NMFS list a species. A "species" under the act can be a true taxonomic species, a subspecies, or in the case of vertebrates, a "distinct population segment." The procedures are the same for both types except with the person/organization petition, there is a 90-day screening period.

Question: How many different ways can a species be added to the endangered list?


Answer: candidate assessment program

Question: What federal program is used to list a species?


Answer: 90-day screening period

Question: How long is the screening period of an individual's or organization's petition to add a species to the list


Answer: a "distinct population segment."

Question: In the case of vertebrates, what is the most lenient interpretation of "species"?


Answer: "solely"

Context: During the listing process, economic factors cannot be considered, but must be " based solely on the best scientific and commercial data available." The 1982 amendment to the ESA added the word "solely" to prevent any consideration other than the biological status of the species. Congress rejected President Ronald Reagan's Executive Order 12291 which required economic analysis of all government agency actions. The House committee's statement was "that economic considerations have no relevance to determinations regarding the status of species."

Question: What word was added to the Endangered Species Act in 1982?


Answer: the biological status of the species

Question: Because of the change to the Endangered Species Act in 1982, what is the only consideration for being listed as endangered?


Answer: Ronald Reagan

Question: Which president issued an Executive Order that required financial consideration of all government actions?


Answer: Congress rejected

Question: What did Congress do to the Executive Order that would have included financial considerations as a factor for a species to be listed?


Answer: through legal notices in newspapers, and communicated to state and county agencies within the species' area

Context: Public notice is given through legal notices in newspapers, and communicated to state and county agencies within the species' area. Foreign nations may also receive notice of a listing. A public hearing is mandatory if any person has requested one within 45 days of the published notice. "The purpose of the notice and comment requirement is to provide for meaningful public participation in the rulemaking process." summarized the Ninth Circuit court in the case of Idaho Farm Bureau Federation v. Babbitt.

Question: How is public notice given regarding a listing?


Answer: 45 days

Question: How long after a published notice of the listing may a public hearing regarding the listing be requested?


Answer: Foreign nations may also receive notice of a listing

Question: Do listing notices cross international soil?


Answer: Section 4

Context: The provision of the law in Section 4 that establishes critical habitat is a regulatory link between habitat protection and recovery goals, requiring the identification and protection of all lands, water and air necessary to recover endangered species. To determine what exactly is critical habitat, the needs of open space for individual and population growth, food, water, light or other nutritional requirements, breeding sites, seed germination and dispersal needs, and lack of disturbances are considered.

Question: What section of the Endangered Species Act establishes critical habitat regulations?


Answer: habitat protection and recovery goals

Question: Critical habitat regulation links what two topics?


Answer: the identification and protection of all lands, water and air necessary to recover endangered species

Question: What does critical habitat regulation require?


Answer: seed germination and dispersal needs

Question: What is an example of a critical habitat consideration that would apply to plant wildlife?


Answer: require a federal permit

Context: All federal agencies are prohibited from authorizing, funding or carrying out actions that "destroy or adversely modify" critical habitats (Section 7(a) (2)). While the regulatory aspect of critical habitat does not apply directly to private and other non-federal landowners, large-scale development, logging and mining projects on private and state land typically require a federal permit and thus become subject to critical habitat regulations. Outside or in parallel with regulatory processes, critical habitats also focus and encourage voluntary actions such as land purchases, grant making, restoration, and establishment of reserves.

Question: How are non-federal government activities that might impact critical habitat often subject to the Endangered Species Act?


Answer: land purchases, grant making, restoration, and establishment of reserves

Question: What are some non-regulation actions that critical habitats encourage?


Answer: federal agencies are prohibited from authorizing, funding or carrying out actions that "destroy or adversely modify" critical habitats

Question: What does the Endangered Species Act detail about government action regarding critical habitats?


Answer: within one year

Context: The ESA requires that critical habitat be designated at the time of or within one year of a species being placed on the endangered list. In practice, most designations occur several years after listing. Between 1978 and 1986 the FWS regularly designated critical habitat. In 1986 the Reagan Administration issued a regulation limiting the protective status of critical habitat. As a result, few critical habitats were designated between 1986 and the late 1990s. In the late 1990s and early 2000s, a series of court orders invalidated the Reagan regulations and forced the FWS and NMFS to designate several hundred critical habitats, especially in Hawaii, California and other western states. Midwest and Eastern states received less critical habitat, primarily on rivers and coastlines. As of December, 2006, the Reagan regulation has not yet been replaced though its use has been suspended. Nonetheless, the agencies have generally changed course and since about 2005 have tried to designate critical habitat at or near the time of listing.

Question: What is the time limit for designating a species critical habitat after the species has been added to the endangered list?


Answer: the Reagan Administration

Question: Which presidential adminstration limited the protective status of critical habitat in 1986?


Answer: Hawaii, California and other western states

Question: After the limitations placed on critical habitat were lifted by the courts, where were critical habitats established primarily?


Answer: primarily on rivers and coastlines

Question: Where have the majority of critical habitats in the Midwest and Eastern states been located geographically?


Answer: goals, tasks required, likely costs, and estimated timeline to recover endangered species

Context: Fish and Wildlife Service (FWS) and National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS) are required to create an Endangered Species Recovery Plan outlining the goals, tasks required, likely costs, and estimated timeline to recover endangered species (i.e., increase their numbers and improve their management to the point where they can be removed from the endangered list). The ESA does not specify when a recovery plan must be completed. The FWS has a policy specifying completion within three years of the species being listed, but the average time to completion is approximately six years. The annual rate of recovery plan completion increased steadily from the Ford administration (4) through Carter (9), Reagan (30), Bush I (44), and Clinton (72), but declined under Bush II (16 per year as of 9/1/06).

Question: What four topics are required in an Endangered Species Recovery Plan?


Answer: The ESA does not specify when a recovery plan must be completed.

Question: What is the time limit for completing an Endangered Species Recovery Plan?


Answer: completion within three years

Question: What Recovery Plan duration the does Fish and Wildlife Service plan for in their policies?


Answer: approximately six years

Question: What is the average time of completion of an Endangered Species Recovery Plan?


Answer: Clinton (72)

Question: Which president had the most completed Recovery Plans during their administration?


Answer: whether a listed species will be harmed by the action and, if so, how the harm can be minimized

Context: The question to be answered is whether a listed species will be harmed by the action and, if so, how the harm can be minimized. If harm cannot be avoided, the project agency can seek an exemption from the Endangered Species Committee, an ad hoc panel composed of members from the executive branch and at least one appointee from the state where the project is to occur. Five of the seven committee members must vote for the exemption to allow taking (to harass, harm, pursue, hunt, shoot, wound, kill, trap, capture, or collect, or significant habitat modification, or to attempt to engage in any such conduct) of listed species.

Question: What is the primary consideration for determining if projects may be carried out in areas with endangered species?


Answer: the Endangered Species Committee

Question: If a species may be harmed, who holds final say on whether the project may proceed?


Answer: seven

Question: How many members are on the ad hoc panel that allows project exemptions for cases where a species may harmed?


Answer: Five

Question: How many votes must be in favor of the exemption in order to award the exemption?


Answer: at least one appointee from the state where the project is to occur

Question: What is one specific requirement regarding the make-up of the exmeption panel?


Answer: the Forest Service, and either the FWS or the NMFS

Context: Long before the exemption is considered by the Endangered Species Committee, the Forest Service, and either the FWS or the NMFS will have consulted on the biological implications of the timber harvest. The consultation can be informal, to determine if harm may occur; and then formal if the harm is believed to be likely. The questions to be answered in these consultations are whether the species will be harmed, whether the habitat will be harmed and if the action will aid or hinder the recovery of the listed species.

Question: Who reviews exemption considerations before the Endangered Species committee?


Answer: to determine if harm may occur

Question: During informal consultation, what is the goal?


Answer: if the harm is believed to be likely

Question: What prompts the need for formal consultation?


Answer: whether the species will be harmed, whether the habitat will be harmed and if the action will aid or hinder the recovery

Question: What considerations are weighed during the consultations?


Answer: six

Context: There have been six instances as of 2009 in which the exemption process was initiated. Of these six, one was granted, one was partially granted, one was denied and three were withdrawn. Donald Baur, in The Endangered Species Act: law, policy, and perspectives, concluded," ... the exemption provision is basically a nonfactor in the administration of the ESA. A major reason, of course, is that so few consultations result in jeopardy opinions, and those that do almost always result in the identification of reasonable and prudent alternatives to avoid jeopardy."

Question: How many times has the exemption process been used, as of 2009?


Answer: one was granted, one was partially granted, one was denied and three were withdrawn

Question: What were the results of those exemption petitions?


Answer: few consultations result in jeopardy opinions

Question: Why is this exemption provision often considered a nonfactor?


Answer: in the identification of reasonable and prudent alternatives to avoid jeopardy.

Question: How can jeopardy opinions be dissuaded?


Answer: non-federal property, owned by citizens, states, local governments, tribal governments and private organizations

Context: More than half of habitat for listed species is on non-federal property, owned by citizens, states, local governments, tribal governments and private organizations. Before the law was amended in 1982, a listed species could be taken only for scientific or research purposes. The amendment created a permit process to circumvent the take prohibition called a Habitat Conservation Plan or HCP to give incentives to non-federal land managers and private landowners to help protect listed and unlisted species, while allowing economic development that may harm ("take") the species.

Question: Who owns the majority of critical habitat?


Answer: Habitat Conservation Plan

Question: What program gives incentives to private landowners to protect species on their land?


Answer: only for scientific or research purposes

Question: Before the amendment in 1982, under what situations could a listed species be displaced?


Answer: an Incidental Take Permit (ITP)

Context: The person or organization submits a HCP and if approved by the agency (FWS or NMFS), will be issued an Incidental Take Permit (ITP) which allows a certain number of "takes" of the listed species. The permit may be revoked at any time and can allow incidental takes for varying amounts of time. For instance, the San Bruno Habitat Conservation Plan/ Incidental Take Permit is good for 30 years and the Wal-Mart store (in Florida) permit expires after one year. Because the permit is issued by a federal agency to a private party, it is a federal action-which means other federal laws can apply, such as the National Environmental Policy Act or NEPA. A notice of the permit application action is published in the Federal Register and a public comment period of 30 to 90 days begins.

Question: An approved HCP results in what being issued for the species?


Answer: allow incidental takes for varying amounts of time

Question: How long do ITPs last?


Answer: A notice of the permit application action is published in the Federal Register

Question: How is the public made aware of ITP applications?


Answer: 30 to 90 days

Question: How long does the public have to comment on ITP applications?