I was watching [a segment from CNBC on YouTube](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ybIfSkEOOco) and was surprised by the fact that the government intends to make the tax rate retroactive after the law is passed so that the new tax rates will apply to stocks owned before the law was passed.


I was wondering if in criminal law, the passing of a law that makes punishment retroactive after the law was passed is also possible making it possible for past crimes to be punished in the United States.



Can criminal law be retroactive in the United States?