I am currently in the process of finalizing the technology behind a game where users are able to create "lands" of their own.

* Each land is upkept and expanded by **Tokens**.
* **Tokens** are bought from Real Money Store.
* **Tokens** are tradeable.
* Users are able to create images(terrain, characters, monsters etc...) that fit their local "land" theme and enable other players to interact there.
* The land creator receives **tokens** from visitors that like the land.
* **Tokens** are not changeable to real currency.

My question is whether it counts as a breach of copyright if someone creates a "skyrim" or "Star wars" land and fills it with people and locations from that universe?
They still need to create the art with the in-game tools, so I assume it's original artwork with names and lore based off existing IP)

And a second, derived question is whether my profit (people paying other people with **tokens** that they had to have bought from me) constitutes profiting from a copyrighted IP.

Obviously each land is reportable in a multitude of categories -
 nudity/pornographic content, IP violation, gore, violence, hate messages etc... and I assume it will take a significant amount of work to filter through those reports.

I am talking to lawyers about it, but there's a whole world out there and many of You can give perspectives from different countries so that I can ask the right questions and hire the right lawyers.

EDIT:
EULA and TOS are of course going to be properly constructed to remove any liability I would have for user uploaded content.
Are there countries where I am for exmaple still liable?

When does user generated content violate copyright?


* An Internet forum logs their users' IP addresses for moderation purposes (fighting abusive sockpuppetry, temporary banning a dynamic IP address range in case of a spam attack, permanently banning static IP addresses in case of persistent toxic behaviors, etc)
* An abusive user request the deletion of their IP address from the logs under GDPR
* This seems to be in an effort to prevent the moderators from exercising the aforementioned tools, so that the user can abuse the forum undisturbed
* Do I need to comply?

Can a user request the deletion of their IP address that is stored for moderation purposes?


Say you have company A. They are being bought by company B, are there legal ways to permit company B to buy A but not permit B to own assets that company A had originally owned?

Or in selling company A to B permit wholesale pundering on B part when they buy A?

If there is no place on this website for this question please let me know.

Is it possible to keep assets from being taken when a company is bought by another?


My roomate hasn't arrived yet and I haven't met him yet but a big package of water in plastic bottles has been delivered to the room for him. My metal reusable water bottle is moldy and I didn't get a chance to buy soap to wash it so I took one of my roomate's waters for myself with the intention that I would reuse it a few times and by then I would've gotten a chance to wash my metal water bottle. I feel like I might be stealing and don't want to get in trouble for it but I'm sure my roomate would consent after I meet him. Should I not do this? I saw this searching on Google and it seems like a big deal: <https://www.avvo.com/legal-answers/caught-stealing-under--10-of-merchandise-from-walm-1013930.html>

I'm stealing a water from my roomate


I have first posted this question on *Super User*. Since I tagged it with Android (as I use WhatsApp on Android) it got migrated to *Android Enthusiasts*. There one decided that it was not on-topic for that site and got closed. This question does address the technical side of uploading only a partial address book, but it mainly focuses on the legal perspective. So perhaps it is on-topic here.

---

A year ago I gave into the nagging and started to use WhatsApp. With the recent update I have agree to new terms of use which contain this (italic emphasis mine):

>
> **Address Book.** You provide us the phone numbers of WhatsApp users and your other contacts in your mobile phone address book on a regular basis. You confirm *you are authorized to provide us such numbers* to allow us to provide our Services.
>
>
>

So in principle I would have to send a message to each and every one of my contacts in order to ask. And while I am at it, I would actually also ask for Telegram, Hangouts, Wire, Skype, Duo, Signal; perhaps just a general authorization would be the easiest.

Then I get back a bunch of messages which I archive somewhere securely in care somebody sues me about it. Then I can prove that they gave me permission to upload their contact details. This is just tedious and a lot of work, but technically it can be done.

What do I do about the people who do not agree? Android 6.0 on my phone does not seem to allow to give only selected contacts to WhatsApp. This means that I would have to delete the number on my phone which sounds utterly inconvenient. My contacts are stored in my Google account. Should I have asked my contacts for that already?

Is there anything I can actually do about this? I think my options are the following:

1. Continue to use WhatsApp (like virtually everyone else) and ignore that I could potentially be sued by somebody who would not consent to his contact information being uploaded.

As I am a German citizen living in Germany, I am not sure where I would be sued, actually. WhatsApp has no department in Germany, so the US law covers my relationship with WhatsApp. Can another German citizen sue with under US law in Germany? Can only US citizens sue me, would I have to fly to the US? All in all it seems like a non-issue in personal life.
2. Delete the WhatsApp account (if possible) and not use the service any more. In principle I would have to get rid of all the other messaging apps as well. I couldn't store my contact list in my Google account then either, right? That is also sharing the data with other people.
3. Attempt to ask every one of my 532 contacts whether it is okay to upload their phone number. Otherwise delete the phone number or the whole contact from my address book. Keep track of these numbers in a paper notebook at home (in a safe).

My actual question: Is the third option actually possible? And what could happen if I stick with option one?

Ask people for WhatsApp address book consent; what to do when declined?


Not illegible- as far as I know, no one's signed the Voynich manuscript and been held to it- but simply incoherent, needlessly verbose, or prohibitively lengthy?

I recognize that legal language uses a lot of terms of art, and that it's necessarily going to be a bit abstruse, but it seems like most terms of use are entries in some sick competition to see who can ensure as few people as possible actually read the thing.

Is it common for contracts to be voided on the grounds that they are unreadable?


I am assuming (please to correct if not true) that copyright is not automatically conferred and that there is a process that must be followed. Assume the venue is the USA

Videos are often used to show real-estate properties. How does one know if the video is copyrighted (or any other IP protection)? I ask because I would like to understand if altering the video (removing the realtor info and possibly other mods) for other purposes presents any problems.

Any suggestions improve (narrow) the questions are appreciated.

youtube video IP


If I receive a letter from a legal entity such as the council, which is asking me to fill in a form and return it to them via post, shouldn't they include a pre-stamped envelop where I can send the letter back without having to pay for the postage myself?

My reasoning behind it is that I don't have a choice not to respond to this letter, because if I don't, I will be penalized. This means that I am forced to do something which will cost me money.

Shouldn't a legal entity such as the council, which is asking you to respond to one of their letters, include a pre-stamped envelope?


I'm using Oracle JDK8 for some web services and it's a bit difficult to move to OpenJdk right now.

As public support for JDK8 is ending on January, 2019, is it possible continue using Oracle JDK8 without further update for commercial purposes?
Or does a user need to subscribe to new model even though that user doesn't want to update?

Using older version of JDK8 after January, 2019


Consider this

1. An American uses a fake scan of a Canadian passport over the internet to open an offshore bank account
2. The account is never used
3. No quantifiable damages are incurred

Is the American liable for criminal fraud?

Also which federal agency would prosecute? The Diplomatic Service seems to only handle fraud of US passports, and only in immigration, drugs, terrorism and related crimes.

Does 18 U.S. Code § 1543 apply to foreign passports?


I am interesting if penal codes in US or UK allows a convicted person to obtain release on parole after only one third of jail time, although the person never admitted the crime nor most of the prejudice is not recovered.

My question stems from a real case in Romania where an important businessman and politician [was convicted to 10 years](http://visegradplus.org/dan-voiculescu-sentenced-to-10-years-in-prison-in-the-ica-case-institute-of-food-research/) for "money laundering and prejudices to the state of 60 million Euros in the case of ICA privatization" (more details [here](http://www.fairpress.eu/blog/2014/10/09/dan-voiculescu-the-rise-and-fall-of-a-media-mogul-ten-years-prison-for-the-broker-of-governments-and-artisan-of-presidential-impeachments/)).

However, he was released [only after one third of jail time](http://www.romaniajournal.ro/businessman-dan-voiculescu-serving-a-10-year-prison-sentence-released-on-parole/), in spite of never regretting what he did and also in spite of the fact that most of the prejudice is not recovered:

>
> “Voiculescu had no deserving behavior, but a normal one typical to any
>  convicted person. The defendant has not paid the prejudice in the file
>  and not even the judiciary expenses to the Romanian state,” the
>  prosecutor pointed out.
>
>
>

**Question:** does the law within US or UK allow parole so soon for a person in a similar context (no regrets, major prejudice).

Is it possible to be released on parole only after serving 1/3 of jail time without admitting the crime and the prejudice not being recovered?


I am a German citizen permanently living in Germany. Is it legal to be employed by a company located in Mauritius and work 100% remotely without ever visiting Mauritius?

Work remotely in a EU country for a non EU company


How is the government taxing you on money you are yet to make nothing else than an interest free short-term loan you are forced to give them. You only get the chance at a return at the end of the year giving the government a full year to do with your money as the please.

I spoke to a person that is an estate agent and told me the Government takes 20% of all his commissions and only at the end of the year he has to prove what he made to get anything back from SARS.

How has pre-emptive taxation been defended?


How to tell if an image is copyrighted?

For example, I want to say that my client uses a product for their hairdressing service.

Can I use images of the product directly from the product website?

What are some general ways to tell?

And who gets sued, me or the hairdresser?

How to tell if an image is copyrighted


I have heard in the past that editing an image to make it significantly different than its original form will allow you to use it without worrying about copyright laws. Is this true?

Copyright Images laws


The only information I am able to find on this topic is under the assumption that the duplication would be in print format:

Some of the most common conditions are (not all apply to every country):

* **Size** - smaller or larger than original, the amount varies by country
* **Color** - black & white reproductions only or the use of distinctly
different colors from original
* **One-side** - reproductions cannot be double-sided
* **Surface Area** - only a certain percentage of the overall
surface of one side of the bill may be depicted
* **Orientation** - currency must be at an angle within the illustration
* **Labeling** - placing the word "Specimen" or "Sample" across the illustration
* **Material** - some types of reproductions can only be placed on materials that are not paper or paper-like
* **Permission** - in some countries you must request permission in writing before reproducing banknotes in advertising or for educational purposes
* **Creative Materials** - disposal of scans, negatives, plates, or other materials used in creating the currency reproductions

I'm just looking to use elements of currency as part of a mobile website theme; there's a **very** obvious lack of the possibility of mistaking anything as counterfeit. But, I'm aware of the sensitivity of this, so I want to make sure I'm not taking any chances on getting caught up on a technicality; the prison industrial complex is booming business now.

I suppose just using *portions* of a US dollar bill might be the safest route, but I just need to know what my limitations are before heading down this path.

Lastly, where's a great place to find this type of information without risking a tour of Guantanamo?

Using US currency within a webpage design


I just read the following in [an article](https://www.theguardian.com/uk-news/2017/aug/02/three-musketeers-convicted-of-plotting-terrorist-attack) in The Guardian (emphasis mine):

>
> In prison they met their co-defendant Rahman, 32, one of nine men prosecuted in connection with a plan to attack the London stock exchange, **who was serving five years for owning copies of an al-Qaida magazine**. On the witness stand, Hussain said Rahman was “domineering, paranoid, weird and had a lot of contact with MI5”.
>
>
>

Is there really any law that makes it illegal to own copies of a publication? We punish thoughtcrime, these days? Is this an error in the newspaper or is there actually a law that permits people to be prosecuted (and even jailed for years!) for simply possessing a document?

Please note that I am not asking about cases where the possession of the document was presented as evidence of someone's worldview when they have been caught committing a crime. I am asking if the possession of a document1 can ever be considered criminal.

---

1Obviously, I am not talking about stolen documents or even certain classes of pornography whose very existence (photographs) implies an illegal act took place.

Is there a law in the UK that makes possession of specific publications illegal?


Say you have 'Bag Watcher' that sells business management software, and another company, with the same class, is called 'Bag Overwatch' that is a computer security company. Is it legal and enforceable to register 'Bag Watcher'?

This is in the U.S.

How close can names in the same classification not be in trademark law


I am shooting a movie in which there is a shot of a phone ringing. The ringtone is moonlight sonata by Beethoven. Can I download the music from youtube and use it in my movie?

Will I be breaking any copyright issue because of that?

Or should I compose my own music and put it?

I want to use Moonlight Sonata in my movie - Copyright Issues?


[![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/RJY7J.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/RJY7J.jpg)

I wanna know if this is correct or not, if someone can help please!


These A4 notices where covering every window of my car, 3 on windscreen, 2 back widow, 1 one each other, i believe a simple don't park would suffice, this was over kill, can I do anything

[![A4 NOTICES](https://i.stack.imgur.com/naNIb.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/naNIb.png)

I believe this is too much, covering ALL of my windows


In the US, does a parent have any heightened duty of care to a grown child than that of an adult stranger to another adult?

Does a parent have any heightened duty of care to a grown child?


If a comedian has a meltdown on stage & I Youtube that (just the meltdown, no material), can that comedian have said video pulled for copyright reasons?

Comedian takes down meltdown video


A scenario: I am selling online software and I provide advanced features for premium members. As far as I understand I do not ship or deliver anything physically. I also do not ask customers for their address information and can accept any payment (e.g., bitcoin).

What sales tax do I charge if I do not know their county and address? Can I assume that the sale happened at my "store's" location and charge them a standard sales tax based on that?

Destination-based sales tax collection. What if you do not know the destination's address?


Suppose I want to use some character from Disney for a website offering something not related with Disney business at all (for example a service for software developers).

Is this OK or Disney could sue me for that? (I know this is unlikely)

What could be the penalty for something like that?

Is there any case where this could be legal? (maybe some derivative work, not original image from Disney, or maybe depending on my country?)

EDIT: to be clear, I have read similar questions about trademarks here, but I'm asking something different (I think). The core of the question is that the characters are not important for the business, is not like selling t-shirts or toys, is just like a decoration, maybe this is not important at all for a trademark, or maybe yes, or maybe in some conditions, that's the question.

Is Legal to use characters from movies/games without license in a non related business?


Recently i passed by a large local mosque. The mosque property was posted "No Gun Zone" at the property boundaries.

If a resident posted such signs on their property then missionaries, delivery people, etc could continue to come and knock on their door as has been common for ages.

Police offixers executing warrants would obviously not need heed the signs. Similarly if police are responding to exigent circumstances.

What if there is no warrant or exigent circumstances and police are doing a "knock and talk". Logically they could disarm before entering the property and do a compliant knock and talk. But i doubt they would be willing to disarm.

My question is can a homeowner modify the implied lixense to come to the door to knock? If the modified license does not allow guns, is an armed police officers entry a trespass?

If an armed police officer came to the door and claimed to see, hear, smell contraband not detectable off property is that admissible?

No gun zone and knock and talk


I'm looking for examples of cases where there have been alleged miscarriages of justice, but subsequent research/appeals have turned up more evidence of *guilt* rather than *innocence*.

The only example I've found so far is that of James Hanratty, aka the A6 Murderer. Executed for murder in 1962, attracted a long running campaign to have the verdict overturned and be given posthumous pardon. Eventually a campaign by his family resulted in his body being exhumed and DNA samples being compared with those found on the victim proving guilt beyond reasonable doubt.

Are there any other similar cases?

UPDATE - I'm looking for those cases where new evidence was found that added a final nail to the coffin, rather than those case where new evidence exonerates the wrongfully convicted. I'm also interested in those cases that became a fashionable *cause célèbre* rather than those largely limited to family and close friends. The Hanratty case attracted a lot of celebrity interest for nearly 40 years before the family demanded an exhumation and DNA testing - which proved beyond doubt that he was guilty. (interestingly, the family are still claiming that he's innocent)

Alleged miscarriage of justice, later proven guilty


What are unalienable rights? Surely, noone actually has these rights, correct?

>
> We hold these Truths to be self-evident, that all Men are created equal, that they are endowed by their Creator with certain unalienable Rights, that among these are Life, Liberty, and the Pursuit of Happiness...
>
>
>

Unalienable Rights


I recently had to have dental implants. My dentist explained that I would need to see a dental surgeon to have the post done but he would be doing the remainder of the procedure. The same day my dentist told me this,I sat with his billing manager and asked how much MY responsibility for THEIR portion of the procedure would be. She gave me an unsigned estimate of $1850.00, taking into account that the cap on my insurance had already been met. I also called the surgeons office and received an estimate on their charges. Upon having the post completed, the bill from the surgeon was exactly what I was quoted. I then saw my dentist for him to complete the implants. Upon completion I received his bill and it was for $4300, OVER DOUBLE the estimate. His office said the difference was because the estimate was for 2 post and 3 were done. At NO time was I informed that there were 3 done OR the dramatic increase in cost. I paid $3000 of the final bill, what are my options regarding such a surprise increase of the bill?

Unexpected additional dental bill over double of estimate I received


Let's say I work as an employee at a company, and have a contract that states I must give a minimum of 1 month's notice in writing to resign.

In trying to be fair to my employer, and to give them additional time to hire a replacement, I give them 2 months notice in writing.

My employer then immediately terminates my employment with 1 months notice (which is the minimum required by the contract).

Was my resignation a legal reason for the employer to dismiss me?

Is it legal to dismiss an employee for resigning?


There was a strategy game where I and my friends played for several years. The original developers closed the game 3 years ago. We have asked them to open the source code when they did it but they did not reply. Their firm is liquidated now.

One of their previous domain names will expire in the next year. We have web archives, so we can recreate the game. It will be open source if we do it. Can we reuse images from the archives after a time or not in this case?

Reuse images from web archives


Suppose I make a video game which uses assets from another game. The assets are however not included, but rather obtained by loading them from the other game's install folder (the player needs to have bought and installed the other game too). My game is a fan-made sequel to the old game, which was discontinued.

No assets or code from the original game are included in mine. Can this still be considered copyright infringement?

Is loading assets from another game's install folder copyright infringement?


Follow on to [At what point and how should I change the license/Copyright notice when I create a derivative?](https://law.stackexchange.com/questions/1121/at-what-point-and-how-should-i-change-the-license-copyright-notice-when-i-create).

When an author revises and publishes an updated version of her/his previously published work, does the revised edition count as a new (derived) work for purposes of establishing the Copyright date?

For example:

First edition: "Copyright 2010, John Q Author"

Second edition: "Copyright 2017, John Q Author"

I understand that the Copyright of the original would not be extended, but would the revised edition have its own, or would it also expire when the original edition expires?

Changing Copyright date notice for a revised edition


After years of complaining about the lack of care the landlord had for the property I was renting from them I finally got served an eviction notice.

I moved out, and 2 weeks later because of terms in the tenancy agreement I was still renting the property but there was a water leak from a bathroom pipe.

I was issued a demand for £4,500 worth of damage to the property which would partially be covered by the deposit which i refused to pay.

I went to my insurance company who told me that they would sort everything out until the landlord claimed that I had deliberately damaged the pipe in the bathroom.

At this point the Insurance company offered me only advice but would not handle the case.

I raised a dispute with the tenancy deposit scheme in order to recover my deposit giving lots of evidence showing that I had continuously complained about the bathroom the whole of of the time I had been living there, at one point the landlord sent their brother in law to fit a whole new bathroom (poorly I might add) and yet all of this was shot down by the adjudicator with the reason being ...

The landlords report states that I damaged the pipe so due to "the balance of probabilities" I was in breach of my tenancy agreement and my full deposit has been awarded to the landlord to cover renovation costs.

I am also aware the landlord intends to sue me for the rest of the cost I refused to pay outside of the adjudication process.

My understanding (which may be wrong) ...

In a civil case the law seems to state that if I am "probably at fault" (in this case, I had a set of keys which appears to be enough to implicate me) then I likely am liable.

In a Criminal case it would have to be certain that I did indeed cause the damage and proof to that nature would need to be provided in order for me to be deemed liable.

So, my question is ...

Given that the landlord claims I "criminally damaged" their property but never provided a single shred of evidence to back this up what can I do to fight this with no help from my insurer?

... or ...

Is there some way I can force this in to a criminal court or in the event that this can't be forced that way perhaps force my insurer to step in and help?

Disputing Tenancy Deposit Scheme Adjudication Decisions


[This article](http://www.mbbp.com/news/generic-trademark) (and my knowledge about trademarks) says Generic Names can't be trademarked. So my question is about the genericity of a name and the probability of getting it trademarked.

I own a generic domain name with `.com` since 2010 but lately found that another person is using the `.co.uk` tld of the same domain since 2016 for a website and doing business. I am planning to develop on my domain.

The domain name looks something like `freecupcakes.com` (just symbolic but not about cupcakes) and another party use the domain `freecupcakes.co.uk`.

my observations about the other person's business are.

1. They are using it since 2016
2. They don't have trademark registerd but a company with the same name in UK

So my questions are,.

1. Can I use proceed building the business with my domain which I own from 2010?
2. Can I register a company with the same name in another location not in UK/Europe?
3. Can this type of name be ever trademarked?
4. Can the other person using the same business name ever trademark this name?

Can I get a generic name trademarked?


My question is about video recordings. Who owns the right to a video recording? Is it the person recording or the person being recorded?

who owns the copyright to someone giving a speech


Can a non-profit organization use a patent without paying a licensing fee if it makes no money on its own invention? Let's assume that the company designs a chip based on the x86 architecture and then makes the design open-source. Will the non-profit company have to pay Intel for using the x86 architecture or not? Assume that this is in the United States.


If you're planning the watch the movie [Honest Thief (2020)](https://www.imdb.com/title/tt1838556/): **Spoilers ahead!**

The protagonist of the movie above is a thief who "robbed 12 banks in 7 [US] states" for "a little over 9 million dollars cash" during a period of "about 8 years" and wants to make a deal with the FBI:

>
>  He is gonna "hand over all the money... in exchange for a reduced sentence, no more than 2 years in minimum security, within an hour of Boston, with full visitation rights."
>
>
>

Could such a deal be legally possible?

**Further notes:** The thief "never spent one dime" of the stolen money, and killed "no one."

Could the "Honest Thief"-deal be legally possible?


My wife has recently started working as a floater pharmacist at one red-colored pharmacy chain in California. Just a side note, while my wife has worked there, she personally vaccinated more than 1000 people with Covid vaccines.

Her schedule is unpredictable and when the scheduler sends out a schedule for an upcoming month, my wife's schedule shows less hours in certain weeks than the amount that constitutes a full-time position (32 hours constitutes a full-time job, according to the policy of that pharmacy chain).

It has been indicated to her in work emails that she is expected to accept a last minute on-call shifts and she shall not have personal plans for days where she does not have scheduled in advance shifts, in case if she is needed to cover for someone else. It has also been alluded to her that if she were to refuse an on-call shift, she could potentially face certain consequences, including not being assigned to a single pharmacy with a more predictable schedule or a demotion to a part-time position.

I would like to know what rights my wife has as an employee of that company. The practices of her employer do seem very coercive to me. They expect their employees to have the "suck it up, soldier" attitude, without any regard for them as human beings.

What are the existing regulations and laws about on-call shifts in retail industry in California?


Does the High Court of Justice of England and Wales (Queen's Bench Division) ever exercise original criminal jurisdiction in serious cases (eg, a terrorism trial) in modern times? Has it ever exercised such jurisdiction since its creation by the Judicature Acts?

**Please note I am asking about the High Court , not High Court judges—I am aware that High Court judges do sit in serious criminal cases in the Crown Court**

Does the High Court ever exercise original criminal jurisdiction?


I'm a freelance programmer from Belgium and I have developed an application for an American client. We agreed on 800USD for the completed project. I finished the application and met all his requirements. We only had a verbal agreement about the project and we discussed payment dates for the project. I received 4 200USD payments over the course of two months, after which I sent him the completed product.

After I sent him the finished product everything seemed good. However after some days he said that it was unusable because switching between pages was "too slow". He demanded a refund because he said that he was unable to use it. In my opinion it was fine and I didn't see what was wrong with it.

Now he's threatening me with 'legal action' if I don't refund him the full amount, but legally speaking what can he actually do. Can he even sue me, since I'm 17 and live in a different country? And is it likely that he would be successful, since we never made any form of contract?

Any help is very appreciated, thanks!

Client demanding refund


Lot of companies in the world use Java including the company I work for. AFAIK there is no licensing deal and we use most of the Java packages for which Oracle sued Google. So can Oracle sue any company which is using Java and making profit? If not, then why only Google is being targeted?

Oracle vs Google: Can Oracle sue any company who is using Java and making profit?


I'm just curious if there's ever been any case law on the kind of writs a court can write in reference to the 13th amendment?

As a layperson, it sure seems to me that ordering a company to develop a new piece of code (As opposed to merely handing over existing data), seems to fit my understanding of the term "involuntary servitude".

All Writs Act (Apple case) vs the 13th amendment?


How can I lay a criminal complaint before the governmental prosecutor according to § 158 (Strafanzeige; Strafantrag) StPO? Need I follow a particular format? where do I send it? Can I submit an anonymous complaint, and if so does the prosecutor take those seriously?

I read the following tweet from Henry B. Poquelin\*: "Fakt bleibt, man muss Positionen und Personal der Rechtspopulisten attackieren,weil sie gestrig,intolerant, rechtsaußen und gefährlich sind!" I hate AfD and its politics, but still I don't like the call for criminal violence against people and property. I thought of a prosecution based on §111 and §130 StGB.

Well, I will certainly not prosecute him, but I still would like to write a correct letter to the government lawyers and knowing how to send it anonymously to them.

\*I'm using a pseudonym here to avoid listing the name of the famous SPD politician. I don't want to start a witch hunt on him.

How do I file a criminal complaint in Germany?


Let's give this for an example:

Billy lives in Oregon. Somebody said something in a non-logged chat, and Billy wants to prove they said it. He adds a photo to his Google Drive without the person's consent and shares the link in the chat. Is this legal?

Are you Legally Allowed to add a Screenshot to Google Drive and Create a Sharing Link for Proof?


I run a publicly editable website where users can post up stories a various sort. Some are pretty normal, some are sexual, some are a bit perverted, and recently some have drifted into the pedophilia realm.

No images or videos can be uploaded to this site.

Are there any laws that I might be breaking by hosting this content?

Are there any laws in the US against pedophilia stories hosted on a website?


A year ago I started working at a well known company and it turned out to be a lot worse than expected, so I'd like to leave ASAP since I already made plans for the future. As part of employment I was also given some money for relocation and other expenses.

For it, there is a sentence in my contract (last part shortened):

>
> In the event that you choose to leave the company within 12 months of the start of your job responsibilities (start date for new hires or internal transfer date), all relocation cash allowances and money ... must be paid back.
>
>
>

My question (it might be more of an English than law related), but does within 12 months mean if:

1. The date when I stop working (my last work day) is within those 12 months,
2. I make a decision within first 12 months (officially give my resignation in first 12 months, even if then by notice period obligation I still work 13th month),
3. Something else :)?

Thanks!

Paying back relocation money and resignation


We use the localStorage API to store information about the login data to keep the user logged in through various sessions (we do not store personal information), furthermore the localStorage data is not accessible by third-parties.

Should we show the banner asking for permission to use cookies (the legislation requires to use the name cookie also for similar technologies) anyway?

Do the GDPR and Cookie-Law regulations apply to localStorage?


In a small business we have people who make orders over the phone (commonly known as card not present). Common practice is to directly input the details into the machine as the customer reads them out.

One of the chaps in the office is adamant that, they read out the details and I write them down and not input them in the machine, once the customer is done telling me the details I say that I will call them back with payment confirmation.

I would then in my own time input the details into the card machine and process the payment and if all goes through, I would shred the paper immediatly and notify the customer.

I don't feel comfortable writing the details down, I've told this chap many times. Is there a legal way I could tell him so he won't pressure me to do this in the future?

Is it legal to retain customer card details when making transactions over the phone (UK)?


A [recent answer](https://law.stackexchange.com/a/41091/104) had this law quote

>
> shall not be liable for damages in any action brought in a Federal or State court
>
>
>

and this explanation

>
> they cannot be sued over their actions
>
>
>

I posted a comment

>
> This statement is not accurate "they cannot be sued over their actions" they can be sued, anyone can be sued for anything in the US, per the law they can not be found "liable for damage" not the same thing.
>
>
>

Then I went looking for reference that supports my comment, and did not find one.

Can I be sued if if the law says I am not liable?


what is the protection requirement of Title VII of 1991 the plaintiff must follow to successfully file an action?
I already included the time limit .

Title VII of 1991


In New Hampshire law, RSA 631:4 makes "Criminal Threatening" a crime. The law begins:

>
> A person is guilty of criminal threatening when: (a) By physical
> conduct, the person purposely places or attempts to place another in
> fear of imminent bodily injury or physical contact; or ... (etc)
>
>
>

This seems like kind of sweeping statement. By comparison the Massachusetts statute (275 Section 2) specifically says that for an act to be criminal threatening, the action threatened *must be a crime*. The New Hampshire does not say this at all. In fact, simply threatening to "place another in fear of imminent...physical contact" is a crime. So, by that standard every high school linebacker would be a criminal because they put the fear of "imminent physical contact" into their opponents.

Also, we can think of many other situations where people are put into "fear of bodily injury" or "contact". Without the constraint that the contact would be unlawful, the law seems to be absurdly open ended.

So, assuming that the law is defective, is there any remedy for this in court? Can a defendant argue that a law is invalid because it is defective?

Is the New Hampshire version of a criminal threatening law defective?


I read this slightly [bizarre article](http://www.abc17news.com/news/two-convicted-felons-charged-after-touching-gun-in-gun-store/653184772) that says two convicted felons were charged after touching guns in a gun store.

Although the article is unclear on the meaning of touching, I'm going to assume the men had physically held the gun in hand. That of course is clearly a violation broken, nothing to see here, move along type deal. They also had a third person essentially buy a gun for them. I guess they get an A for effort on trying to be smooth.

It is not a smart idea of them to be in a place that sells weapons to begin with, but it made me wonder about a few things. Is it illegal for a convicted felon to enter a gun store, a gun show, or have some proximity restriction involving guns that they are knowingly aware of? My only real guess is some may be given strict rules based on their probation, being released on bond, constraints of their conviction, etc.

If a felon did touch a gun, say with their pointer finger, is that enough to be considered in possession of a gun, or having control of the gun?

For the record, I'm by no means questioning what the police did in this case. The article is worded very poorly, and simply produced a few possible "grey area" questions.

Convicted Felon - Touching a gun?


Dear Law StackExchange community,

I'm attempting to get chat history removed with another party dating back a long time ago. I don't want the chats to remain existent on any device whatsoever, so I would like to have them removed based on the GDPR.

Is Facebook/WhatsApp legally obligated to remove the chat history on every client (device)? It's a 1 on 1 chat so not a group chat.

And yeah, I live in the EU.

Edit: I know backups or any sort of restoration can't be removed, but I am talking cloud synced data, viewing chat on the app, etc.

Thanks in advance.

Is WhatsApp legally obligated to remove my chat on every device, based on the GDPR?


Scenario: I shop at a local retail store. While I am there, I notice that store staff have printed out and placed a long list of cleartext credentials for major internal and external business systems, in plain view of customers.

Question 1:
If I take a photo of this list, redact the business name/brand, all passwords and any personally identifiable usernames (or usernames that identify the business), am I opening myself upto a lawsuit for posting this on social media to use as an example of poor security practices?

The only thing identifiable from this post would be the type of store and the city that the store resides in (franchise).
Consider that although I have redacted to the best of my ability, someone may read the post and decide to hunt around the area for a store that matches the photos, then find the list and act on it with malicious intent.

Question 2:
If I do post this list on social media with the aforementioned items redacted, am I legally required to notify the business first in order to give them a chance to take the list down?

Am I required/permitted to disclose a security risk at a company I do not work for?


I want to use some of the information from one website, but that website has a copyright. The source of the information is under Open Government License"

I have a few questions regarding the licence
"Life in the United Kingdom: A Guide for New Residents (ISBN 978-0-11-341340-9)"

**That website has a policy:**

"All chapters from the study materials are crown copyright and have been reproduced from the government publication Life in the United Kingdom: A Guide for New Residents (ISBN 978-0-11-341340-9). This material has been reproduced with the permission of The National Archives under the Open Government License."

Open government licence
<http://www.nationalarchives.gov.uk/doc/open-government-licence/version/3/>

Does it mean that all the information that has been "reproduced" from books follow their copyright?

Can you copyright reproduced information by open government licence?

I just want to know can I use the information from that website and just mention Open Government License and "Life in the United Kingdom: A Guide for New Residents (ISBN 978-0-11-341340-9)"'

Thank you very much for the information.


I know quite a number of people who do this, but I just want to know for sure. The blog is non-commercial and dedicated to a manga. It's for sharing and other fans to browse.

Can I use a mangaka's work as my tumblr blog icon/background?


Im under the Indian jurisprudence and this is what the Indian Information Act of 2000/66F says on the matter,

>
> Indian Information Act 2000/66F
>
>
>

>
> Punishment for cyber terrorism.– Whoever,– with intent to threaten the unity, integrity, security or sovereignty of India or to strike terror in the people or any section of the people by–
>
>
>

>
> (i) denying or cause the denial of access to any person authorised to access computer resource; or
>
>
>

>
> (ii) attempting to penetrate or access a computer resource without authorisation or exceeding authorised access; or
>
>
>

>
> (iii) introducing or causing to introduce any computer contaminant,
>
>
>

Since the administrator of the API has authorised only a certain number of API calls for a network, can it be construed as a violation of 66F clause 2 if we try to circumvent the rate limit even though the information is on public domain?

Is using proxies to circumvent rate limit to scrape data legal?


Are there any legal ramifications to an employee reading the direct messages of another employee, whether the reading employee is logging in with another users credentials or not (reading over the shoulder, etc), especially then acting on the information included in those messages?

Legality of reading others direct messages


Theoretical: I wish to import and sell wall chargers in the USA.

I realize it is a good idea to get a safety certificate that signifies my product meets national safety standards to avoid being sued.

However, my question is whether it is legal to sell them without a safety certificate (ETL, UL, etc).

Is ETL or UL necessary to retail AC chargers?


My ex sent me a check for part of health insurance for children. After it did not come, over 2 weeks, I reached out and told him I had not received the check. He went to the post office, the mail clerks let him go through my mail and take a picture of the envelop that came from him. It was conveniently on top of the pile, so he obviously went through it. Sent it to me and told me it was at the post office. Number 1, why was that not put in my box
Number 2 - why is anyone going through my mail
Number 3 - letting him take a photo? That's not right.

Photographing my mail and giving to my ex


In copyright case law, what roles do *process* versus *output* play in determining infringement via creation of a similar work. By *process* I mean, "How much access did the creator of the new work have to the putative base work?" By *output* I mean, "How similar, textually, is the new work to the older work?"

I am primarily curious about the USA.

What considerations determine copyright infringement?


I've got a wordmark in an EU country, which is the name of my company. Someone else applied a logo as a figurative mark which contains their company name, in another EU country. Their company name is exactly the same as mine.

Both marks are national trademarks.
Both companies have exactly the same activities.
They applied for 3 of the same classes and one other.

I've spend hours on euipo to find an answer but wasn't able to find it.
Can I oppose their trademark even though mine and theirs are only national trademarks?

Can the owner of a national trademark oppose the application of a trademark in another country when both are in the EU?


Is it legal to use someone else's modeling techniques and/or art style?

Specifically I'm talking about a popular MMD modeler known as TDA, to create his characters he uses big eyelashes, colorful textures, etc, I create a model of my own using the same techniques, art style and similar proportions but I used those to create my own character, it is not an edit since I made it using blender yet I'm worried because I don't know how copyright works in this situation.

A few examples of things that look similar in my model are:

* the eyes (I used exactly the same mesh here since the effect it creates adds more depth).
* the highlights on the eyes (not the same mesh yet same technique of separate materials from the eyes).
* the ears (placed proportionally exactly at the same place where the tda model ears are, meaning that the distance between the eyes and ears is exactly the same).
* the textures on the face and body are similar but I painted them using a softer style (the shadows are proportionally in the same place).

Everything else from the face to the hair, body and animations is my original character.

I can include pictures of both the tda model I'm using as reference and my model if needed.

Copyright question on character model techniques and style


I have seen an book [Chemistry Essential for Dummies](http://images.pcmac.org/Uploads/JeffersonCountySchools/JeffersonCountySchools/Departments/DocumentsSubCategories/Documents/Chemistry%20Essentials%20-%20The%20Most%20Basic%20Guide.pdf) on web which says that

>
> No part of this publication may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system or transmitted in any
>  form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording, scanning or otherwise,
>  except as permitted under Sections 107 or 108 of the 1976 United States Copyright Act
>
>
>

Is it legal to download this book under the sections 107 or 108 of the [Copyright Law](http://www.copyright.gov/title17/92chap1.html)?.I couldn't understand the sections since it's too lengthy and hard to interpret.Could anyone explain it in simple words.

Section 107 and 108 of the 1976 United States Copyright Act


Today I was leaving a large commercial building (~15 stories) and walked straight into the glass surrounding a revolving door, thinking that the opening was not so narrow.

I went to the security desk and asked to use the bathroom to clean myself up. The person I talked to gave me some bandages and let me use the bathroom to clean the blood off my face. Another security guard then took down my phone number, email, name, and asked for an ID. Why did they take this info down? Are they going to contact me?

I hit my head leaving a large commercial building and the security guards asked for my ID, phone number, and email - why?


I applied for a position as an independent contractor with a well-known tutoring company. Using their platform would have been an excellent opportunity for me.

Unfortunately, my application was denied without any reasonable explanation or additional details on their part. I'm a highly qualified ACT tutor who scored in the 99th percentile in every subject area on the exam. I have experience with another nationally recognized tutoring company and received excellent reviews on their platform. I submitted a thorough and engaging profile and know I could have helped dozens of students succeed on this life-changing test.

However, I can provide countless examples of approved pages on their site with typos, blatant grammatical errors, and lack of detail. The grammatical errors are particularly disturbing considering these tutors are supposed to be experts in the conventions of standard English. I can find no reasonable explanation as to why my profile was denied and these were approved other than negligence on the part of their content review team. I believe I'm being discriminated against and arbitrarily being denied an opportunity to make a living.

Can carelessness and lack of consistency in the hiring process be considered a form of discrimination?


I work for a company in the UK and my employment contract states that I must not discuss my salary with colleagues. I know that this is illegal in the USA but cant find any information about in the UK

Are there any laws in the UK that relate to this??

Employment contract prohibiting salary discussion in the UK?


Normally DVD movies involve a license with rights to the actresses and other people.

In the late 80s a license was heavily protected mostly by stakeholders like Brazzers. So I bought a porn movie for $22.99 can i now sell it for $3?

Selling old DVD-burned porno movies for less


In a recent [article](https://www.theguardian.com/us-news/2017/dec/01/trumps-ex-national-security-adviser-michael-flynn-charged-with-lying-to-fbi) in the Guardian:

>
> After months of silence and invisibility, Flynn walked into a federal courthouse in Washington DC on Friday morning and pleaded guilty to one count of lying to the FBI. The plea was part of a larger deal with special counsel Robert Mueller’s team, and strikes at the heart of the Trump White House.
>
>
>

What are the possible penalities that Flynn could face? One article in New York Times mentioned a punitive five years in prison. Presumably a plea bargain reduces the maximum number of years he could face behind bars. Is there any other precedent that could give us some idea of what he might be facing in this situation - or is this situation entirely unprecedented?

The Guardian does mention:

>
> He faces a possible sentence of up to six months in prison in his guilty plea to the false statements charge.
>
>
>

How accurate is this assessment, or do we just have to wait and see?

What are the possible punitive actions that Michael Flynn faces as he pleads guilty to one charge of lying to the FBI?


A museum has a very famous painting that is familiar to people across America. However, the museum says it owns the copyright, and you can't display pictures of the painting without paying a fee.

But someone takes a photograph of the painting and makes it available on Flickr with a Creative Commons license that allows commercial use.

Can the photo of the picture be used commercially? Or is this photographer in violation of the law?

Copyright status of photo of copyrighted painting


I am looking specifically for how the U.S. taxes businesses that originate from another country, but are doing business within the U.S., with or without operations taking place at a permanent address in the U.S. The source for this information should preferably be a .gov website.

How are businesses based outside, but doing business inside of the US taxed?


The book is *On growth and forms* by D'arcy Thompson. It was published in 1942 and Thompson died in 1948. Wikipedia uses the image citing public domain. Can I use extracts and images from the book with proper citation without the problem?

The image I want is Fig. 125 on [this page.](https://archive.org/details/ongrowthform1917thom/page/322)

The book is also available in archive.org and I think it should be in public domain.

The image itself has a caption and in bracket says `(After Rhumbler)`, I am not sure if it is by Thompson himself. Rhumbler would be Ludwig Rhumbler who died in 1939. So it should still be in the public domain as far as I get it.

de.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ludwig\_Rhumbler

Do I need a copyright license for the image or it is in the public domain and I could use it without one?

I am in Germany and my thesis will be published in Germany.

Do I need permission to use an image from a book from 1942?


As it stands the UK implements an EU law which prevents the reverse engineering of proprietary software with few exceptions, could this change once we leave the EU?

If a no-deal Brexit happens will EU provisions on reverse engineering be nullified?


I have A bill of sale signed by me(buyer) and grandfather(seller) it is a document I printed with terms that I was purchasing farm equipment as is in the current condition with equipment model and serial numbers on it. We both signed and put are current address on the bill of sale. Now 6 years later he is diagnosed with dementia and my father and uncle who were never involved with the farm are taking and trying to sell my equipment and don’t want to believe in the bill of sale. What do I do?

Family won’t let me have farm equipment I have a Bill of sale on


Been thinking about this for a while: Suppose a company is hacked and maybe a lot of customer **sensitive or financial data** is stolen by the hackers. Who is legally liable for any damages?

* Is it the Company itself,
* The software developers in case they had some sort of security software they where using and it did not play its role,
* Or the customers for not being careful with their private information.

Who is liable in case of a cybersecurity breach?


I am making a software which would do gridcomputing (i.e combine many computers processes to speed up a Function/App/Computer) I would post it online like a virus and spread to computers. This software will not take any of data. Delete it. Use it. It will only use a little bit of internet and 10MB of RAM.

Is it illegal to post a software without permission?


I have read many articles about GPL because many libraries are using it and I use some of them inside a personal application I made.

After testing my application I am thinking of making it public.
It`s free of charge (freeware) and the problem is that I use a library as an external executable that is run by my application. This external executable is on GPL license but my application is not (and does not use any GPL-licensed library within it).

Here are some links I read about the GPL license :

[Why the gpl is not free](https://noordering.wordpress.com/2009/01/20/why-the-gpl-is-not-free/)

[Are you sure you want to use GPL](http://lucumr.pocoo.org/2009/2/12/are-you-sure-you-want-to-use-gpl/)

[Why not to use GPL and any GPL type license !](https://gist.github.com/LibCoder/4997f5d9954c63f6a3ca8920e91e4086)

I do understand that anyone who uses a lib under GPL has to make his application open source, but I don`t know if I have to make just the executable that is under GPL license open source or if I have to make my application (which is not under the GPL licence) open source too?

Also I read that if an application is under GPL license you can`t use your own license and terms and conditions. Does this apply only to the GPL exe? or also to my exe which is not GPL?

GPL License guide


This is a cross-post, originally posted in [Webmasters.Stackexchange.com](https://webmasters.stackexchange.com/questions/104798/necessity-of-collecting-ssns-for-1099s-re-affiliate-programs?noredirect=1#comment133111_104798) but it was suggested I post here instead:

My question is basically this: I have an idea for a web service that would potentially allow affiliates to earn money. What I'd really hope to avoid is actually having to collect things like their Social Security Numbers, EIN's, etc, let alone any of the other compliance type issues that could arise.

I'm wondering a couple of things.

First: The need to issue 1099's doesn't actually arise until you're paying out $600 or more in a given year. Could I feasibly just let the program run, but only make the requirement of providing an SSN for tax purposes kick in when the affiliate is going to go over the limit? Ie, for the first $550, no SSN checks required, but after that, they need to provide this info to receive additional payments?

Second: If I only make payments through a service like PayPal, who I presume has crossed all the T's and dotted all the I's, does this alleviate my need to do any additional checks on people (not that I even know what checks would be made).

Third: Going hand in hand with the only making payments through PayPal idea - If i accurately record payments to affiliates as Services provided, does PayPal take care of 1099's as part of their role? In that I would only have to report payments made to PayPal, and it would be on them to report payments made to the ultimate beneficiary?

This isn't a business that's been launched, but I'm trying to think out issues beforehand, and this is the biggest one I can think of - I would personally rather not have myself or anyone one on my team even be able to access anyone's SSN's, but if it moved forward, I would obviously want to do so in a way that was compliant with the IRS and any other regs.

Any thoughts or guidance would be appreciated, unless it's "contact an Accountant" - I already know that's the most correct answer, I'm simply wondering if anyone else has gone down this road and can save me a little time and money on this, as this is still just idea phase, not operating business phase.

Many thanks!

necessity of collecting SSN's for 1099's (re Affiliate programs)


I am planning on building app/website where I will display football player names, their teams, and stats about them(goals, assistances, etc..) Is this legal or I need a license. Also I will use profile photos for each player. Can I also use team logos to refer where the players are ?

I saw a post that said that facts is not copyrightable, but maybe, I cannot use names of football players teams. Any help or strategy is welcomed

Can I use football player names, team names, stats... in my app/website?


About a week ago a girl was shot in a Maryland school. Soon after that, a police officer shot and killed the gunman. The girl was critically injured, and on life support. After a few days, the family decided to take her off life support and she died soon after. Suppose the killer didn't die. What crime would the killer be charged with? The girl has died, but technically she would probably still be alive if her parents didn't take here off life support. I think in some cases, a jury could be convinced that it would be extremely unlikely that a victim would ever regain consciousness. Many would regard this as worse than attempted murder. Do some states have a crime that is appropriate for that situation?

Shooting victim taken off life support. What crime would be charged?


Please answer my question. I am unable to understand what is wrong or what is right. Please guide me in a simple way please follow my title what I am trying to ask.

Can I use youtube transcript data in my blog? Or do I have to make some changes before any blog post?


Does California’s [AB5](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/California_Assembly_Bill_5_(2019)) affect freelance software developers? If they own their own company (registered as Inc.) then they obviously are not looking to become an employee. They started their company to have autonomy and deliver work as they see fit. Does AB5 force them to no longer own a company and instead become an employee?

California’s AB5 and freelance software development


As per title, 50% of the budget for my salary is missing due to an employer-sponsor misunderstanding. The sponsor is giving 0.5 full time expecting that my employer would take care of the rest. On the other hand, my employer was expecting full time budget from this sponsor. My contract does not mention where the budget should come from, but I was CC'ed in an exchange of emails between the employer and the sponsor about this.

I am in the USA and my contract is at will (termination with 15-day notice).

If this is not sorted out, it will lead to contract termination. In this case, would I be entitled to make a claim for breach of contract?

EDIT: I was hired two months ago, fully budgeted by the sponsor. The budget issue has just come out for the upcoming fiscal year.

Missing budget due to employer-sponsor misunderstanding: is that breach of contract?


What does `BY` refer to in the context of this license name please: <https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/4.0/>

I'm sure it's something really obvious that I'm missing.

What does the BY in CC BY and CC BY-SA etc mean?


Is it legal to use a name for a company that uses part, or all, of another trademarked name in it?

For example, if I was creating a company that uses Google's software, could I name my company Googley Eyes, LLC? Does the answer depend on whether the name is "Googley" vs "Googly"?

I found [this question](https://law.stackexchange.com/questions/32291/is-it-legal-to-include-another-company-name-in-your-name-example-is-orbitzmovi) and the answer says

>
> Since "orbitz" is a coined term its protection is stronger, there is
> no natural object or concept this can refer to. "AppleMoving" is less
> likely to be confused with "Apple Computers" because apples are real
> things and need not refer to computers.
>
>
>

Does that mean that since googly eyes are a real thing it's more likely to be ok? The key difference from the linked question being that the company would be in the same industry of computer software, as opposed to a totally different industry (computers vs. moving).


My boss has moved me onto the payroll for one of his other companies and I am trying to find out if I need a new employment contract.

I was employed for a new start-up of his which did not work out and he has since moved me to the payroll for one of his other companies that I had been doing some work for and am now full time.

I am in the process of looking for a new flat and have been told I may need to provide a copy of my employment contract so I am trying to pre-empt and get documents together, however, my original contract does not match my current payslips.

Secondly, if I do require a new contract. My original contract has the following clause - should I ensure that this clause states that my previous employment counts towards this employment?

>
> 1.2. No employment with a previous employer counts as part of your period of continuous employment with the Company.
>
>
>

My employer moved me onto a new payroll. Do I need a new employment contract?


The Tour de France makes it quite difficult to get good map data about their stages. They publish some low-res images (possibly for purchase by media, I'm unsure). There is no modern 'navigable' map, like Google Maps.

If I can see the route on the maps they've published, does making a new map displaying the route infringe a copyright? I understand the image of the maps themselves are copyright, but what about the route path on public roads?

Is it possible for somebody to copyright a route on a map?


<https://nypost.com/2017/11/28/mom-faces-jail-for-secretly-recording-daughters-bullies/>

In this case, some kid bully another. I am not sure if bullying is a crime or not. It seems that some violence is involved. I think we have a crime for that, called battery or something.

Yet, despite the complain of the mom, nothing was done.

So the mom collect evidences for bullying.

And she got charged instead.

To me, the result is not "intuitive". To me, what should have happened is that the Mom shouldn't even bother doing the recording. She reports to school. School reports to cops. Cops do investigating and do the recording. We have evidence. The bully sent to jail. I think that "should have been" what happened. It's not.

It's as if the society as a whole "approve" and "promote" the bullying by making sure there is no way the bully faced justice. The cops don't get involved. And the only way to get evidence is criminalized.

If I were a DA, and say I want to get elected, I would throw the bully in jail. And if a bully is thrown in jail, then the "recording" event wouldn't have happened in the first place.

I understand that DA does not have obligation to prosecute any crime. However, repeated battery seems like a reasonably obvious crime. If that's not crime, what is?

Now, usually, if people have a few legal options, they pick the one that's the most profitable.

What "profit" does DA have in prosecuting the mom instead of the bullies.

As someone beaten up when I was a kid, I am wondering about this for a long time. Why do society more interested in protecting something I perceive as more trivial, like recording, compared to something far more substantial, like beating.

Why did the DA choose to prosecute the mother instead of the bully?


Can two companies that are offering the same services in Benelux have similar company names?

Both company names have been registered with www.BOIP.

Can two companies have names that are similar in EU?


Suppose that an artist wants to sell arts/paintings on sites like Etsy. Suppose that the intended paintings are stylized paintings of popular celebs.

Would doing so be an infringement of copyright? What legal issues might be involved?

Is making and selling paintings of celebrities copyright infringement?


I'm writing an article about the misuse of statistics in the courtroom. Of course one can not have this conversation without mentioning of the so-called "[Prosecutor's fallacy](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Prosecutor%27s_fallacy)". Most of the examples of this date back to the late-90s/early 2000s e.g Sally Clark, Angela Cannings etc.

The fallacy involves statistical reasoning in court cases. Basically, it is the error of assuming that the odds of a false positive are the odds of the defendant's guilt. So when the expert witness declares that the DNA test is 99.9% accurate, the prosecution tells the jury this means there is only 0.1% chance that the defendant is innocent.

My question is has anything actually been done to address the issue of prosecutors and unqualified expert witnesses giving misleading statistics in the courtroom? Or have lawyers more or less learned their lesson from these instances and are more careful about it now?

Moreover, does anyone know of any other general practises that have been implemented to help prevent faulty scientific analysis from being presented in court?

(I'm asking mainly about the English legal system, however please feel free to present anything relevant about the American system or any other).

Is the prosecutor's fallacy still an issue in cases today?


In the following, all parties live and all actions are taken entirely within the United States.

>
> Let us say that a person (Bob) has purchased a book from the book
>  store. Bob likes the book enough to give one or more copies to
>  friends. Bob does not want to part with his own copy, and Bob does not
>  want to pay more than he already has, so Bob photocopies the book and
>  gives the copy to Sue.
>
>
> Sue knows that the copy she is receiving is a copied book that Bob made for her and that
>  copying an entire book is a copyright violation in the United States.
>  Still, Sue accepts the book, reads it, and enjoys it enough that she
>  passes it along to Alice.
>
>
> Alice knows that the copy she is receiving is a copied book and that
>  copying an entire book is a copyright violation in the United States, though she is not aware of its origins.
>  Still, Alice accepts the book, reads it, and enjoys it.
>
>
>

In doing my research, I can easily see that Bob has violated the copyright. In trying to figure out whether Sue or Alice are also in violation, all the material I am finding is focusing entirely on the act of reproducing the work or of giving it away. I am having difficulty finding anything about receiving such a copied work.

I understand that Sue and Alice could possibly be held accountable for being complicit if they requested the book, especially if Bob copied the book as a direct consequence of such a request. For the purposes of this question, I would like to ignore the "complicit in Bob's copying" aspect of this situation.

**Is accepting the book a violation of anything (except being complicit, as mentioned above)? Especially, does is it a violation of copyright?** Does the answer change at all between Sue and Alice since Alice can see the book is copied, knows Sue herself did not copy it, but knows nothing of its origins?

Since the receivers of copies are rarely targeted by the copyright holders (or publishers) and generally the illegal distributors are targeted instead, I realize that this may not have been pressed in court, and maybe never will be. If that is the case, "There is no precedent." could be an acceptable answer, and it would explain why I cannot find an answer. However, I expect that there are at least some cases where a precedent of some sort was set and that they are merely being drowned out by all the other information.

Is it unlawful to receive a photocopied book?


Isn't all fraud technically criminal, and whatever you can sue for civil fraud could also be sued by the government as criminal fraud? Is it just a matter of whatever the government decides to prosecute?

What I am asking is, isn't all fraud illegal? Regardless of whether it is prosecuted or who.

Just answering the definition of civil vs criminal fraud doesn't answer the question.

Isn't all fraud criminal?


I am in the process of creating an online version of a popular board game. The rules of the game are taken from a version in a particular language.

The game would be completely free to play and all of the graphical components were produced independently (although very similar to the original ones).

The name of my game is different from the trademarked name, but the game rules are almost identical to the original board game.

Is this legal? What are the risks I would incur if I decide to make it publicly available?

---

**Note:** This question si diffent from "[Does reproducing a board game as a video game violate copyright?](https://law.stackexchange.com/questions/8687/does-reproducing-a-board-game-as-a-video-game-violate-copyright?noredirect=1&lq=1)" since it is specific to the game of Risk.
Moreover, it explicitely asks about the legal consequences arising from distributing such an online game.

Online version of the "Risk" board game


I have made a scoring calculator in Excel from a copyright protected test/questionnaire that have 12 items with respective scores. In my Excel application I have included the names of the test items, e.g. 1) Depression, 2) Anxiety 3) Psychosis etc. All respective items are scored 0-3 points, I have created a simple summing of the items 1-12 in Excel. My question - is this a violation of copyright? Can I distribute this to colleagues or other physicians? The owner of the tests says no. Does copyright protection extend this far?

Is it legal to create scoring program in Excel of a copyright protected questionnaire?


I've seen several fictional situations where a District Attorney agrees to not prosecute various crimes committed by a kidnapper while conducting hostage negotiations.

Would an agreement made by a DA in furtherance of obtaining the safe release of hostages be enforceable?

Is the DA bound by agreements made during hostage negotiations?


Am I allowed to lowercase an ALL CAPS section in a license?

Example:

>
> The MIT License (MIT)
>
>
> Copyright (c) 2015 Andrej Karpathy
>
>
> Permission is hereby granted, free of charge, to any person obtaining
>  a copy of this software and associated documentation files (the
>  "Software"), to deal in the Software without restriction, including
>  without limitation the rights to use, copy, modify, merge, publish,
>  distribute, sublicense, and/or sell copies of the Software, and to
>  permit persons to whom the Software is furnished to do so, subject to
>  the following conditions:
>
>
> The above copyright notice and this permission notice shall be
>  included in all copies or substantial portions of the Software.
>
>
> THE SOFTWARE IS PROVIDED "AS IS", WITHOUT WARRANTY OF ANY KIND,
>  EXPRESS OR IMPLIED, INCLUDING BUT NOT LIMITED TO THE WARRANTIES OF
>  MERCHANTABILITY, FITNESS FOR A PARTICULAR PURPOSE AND NONINFRINGEMENT.
>  IN NO EVENT SHALL THE AUTHORS OR COPYRIGHT HOLDERS BE LIABLE FOR ANY
>  CLAIM, DAMAGES OR OTHER LIABILITY, WHETHER IN AN ACTION OF CONTRACT,
>  TORT OR OTHERWISE, ARISING FROM, OUT OF OR IN CONNECTION WITH THE
>  SOFTWARE OR THE USE OR OTHER DEALINGS IN THE SOFTWARE.\*
>
>
>

I want to lowercase the last paragraph when I redistribute it:

>
> The MIT License (MIT)
>
>
> Copyright (c) 2015 Andrej Karpathy
>
>
> Permission is hereby granted, free of charge, to any person obtaining
>  a copy of this software and associated documentation files (the
>  "Software"), to deal in the Software without restriction, including
>  without limitation the rights to use, copy, modify, merge, publish,
>  distribute, sublicense, and/or sell copies of the Software, and to
>  permit persons to whom the Software is furnished to do so, subject to
>  the following conditions:
>
>
> The above copyright notice and this permission notice shall be
>  included in all copies or substantial portions of the Software.
>
>
> The software is provided "as is", without warranty of any kind,
>  express or implied, including but not limited to the warranties of
>  merchantability, fitness for a particular purpose and noninfringement.
>  In no event shall the authors or copyright holders be liable for any
>  claim, damages or other liability, whether in an action of contract,
>  tort or otherwise, arising from, out of or in connection with the
>  software or the use or other dealings in the software.\*
>
>
>


I am embarking on a possible EU-funded cooperation project to develop a platform, with other organizations. The development of the code will be shared.

I am writing this application with my startup, to create a platform for impact in the cultural field. As such, I have specified to the organizations that the startup will need to own the platform, to attract investments and scale it up in Europe, and ownership is clarified in the EU application.

I believe that these kind of approaches are commonly done through research-SME cooperation grants. However, I am unaware of the implications. I believe that any person's work must be paid and acknowledged, so I'd like to ask your advice on what kind of options are before me.

Since the coder of a software has copyright over the developed code, can that be acquired after the development of the project? If yes, is there an indicative amount, or somewhere to look for this information?

The other option, would be to give the coders a share in the company. However, it may be that they are not interested in that, and I would not like to find myself at the end of the project with a code that I cannot use, or that cannot attract investors (I am also one of the coders). This question is to understand how to move, without being potentially seen aggressive on the theme with my eventual partners. Any help would be very appreciated.

Software copyright in a collaboration project for startup development


Is there a comprehensive list of licenses freely available on the web? It should include both copyleft and copyright licenses.

A link to the webpage and description would be very helpful.

Is there a comprehensive list of licenses on the web?


When an image has different copyright licenses, which one should I follow?
For example, [this image](https://commons.wikimedia.org/wiki/File:Photo_of_the_Week_-_Seal_pup_at_Back_Bay_National_Wildlife_Refuge,_VA_(5343673024).jpg) is licensed under Creative Commons Attribution 2.0 and in public domain.

Under CC2.0, the author should be attributed while under public domain, the attribution is not required. I don't know why the same image has two conflicting licenses and is it legal to use the image as public domain?

Two copyright for the same image


Both the original (Roy Orbison) version and the Two Live Crew version began, ["Pretty woman walking down the street..."](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Campbell_v._Acuff-Rose_Music,_Inc.) Was this seen as copying under the "five word" plagiarism rule?

According to the Supreme Court, the Two Live Crew version veered sharply away from the original, to the point of being "opposite." That is, the original celebrated a white woman, while the Two Live Crew version mocked a black woman. Was this what made it was parody, and after the appeals court decision was overturned, could therefore possibly make it fair use?

In the end, there was a settlement, under which Acuff-Rose, the owner of the original, received no damages, but did receive licensing fees. Two Live Crew had earlier sought (and been refused) such a licensing arrangement, meaning that it got to its starting point. Apparently this was an equitable result given the hazards of further litigation. But was it possible that Two Live Crew could have performed its version "for free" if the appeals court had later found that "parody" made it fair use?

Explanation of the key elements of the Supreme Court "Pretty Woman" Parody Case?


I’ve already signed documents related to a house closing ( im the seller). I’ve deposited and spent most of the check. The realtor called me and said they wrote the wrong amount for the realtor commission. Now they want me to write a check to correct their error. Is it as simple as writing a check or will the contract have to be redone? Do I have to repay the money if the contract is already signed?

House Contract law


I want to purchase a domain: curion.com

It is unavailable because it is held by godaddy (as shown on whois.net)

Question is, Can a web hosting company hoard a domain name to itself. Is it even allowed? The domain doesnt function either.

How do I legally pursue this matter? What is the law?

Whois details:

Domain Name: CURION.COM

Registrar: GODADDY.COM, LLC

Sponsoring Registrar IANA ID: 146

Whois Server: whois.godaddy.com

Referral URL: <http://registrar.godaddy.com>

Name Server: NS1.JACKSONNATIONAL.COM

Name Server: NS2.JACKSONNATIONAL.COM

Name Server: NS3.JACKSONNATIONAL.COM

Status: clientDeleteProhibited

Status: clientRenewProhibited

Status: clientTransferProhibited

Status: clientUpdateProhibited

Updated Date: 11-feb-2013

Creation Date: 11-jul-2002

Expiration Date: 11-jul-2018

GoDaddy hoarding domains. What is my legal recourse?


Moved from [WorkplaceSE](https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/55998/can-an-employer-withhold-pay-for-a-fire-drill?noredirect=1#comment144348_55998).

Recently there was a routine fire drill in an office building. As with most fire drills, it took about half an hour for the fire drill to complete and for everyone to get back to work.

When the employees got back to their desks, they were told to charge 30 minutes of time to an overhead charge number, but then management sent out a correction saying that they were not allowed to charge the time lost during the fire drill. Instead, they had to "flex" their time (that is, make up the 30 minutes at some other time during the pay period, or else take vacation time).

Is this illegal, or just bad practice? Do these employees have any recourse? Any examples of similar times when an employer mandates a period of time that an employee NOT be allowed to work during normal working hours are welcome also.

Jurisdiction is in Virginia, USA, but input from other areas welcome for my curiosity.

This didn't affect me personally so I'm not searching for legal advice, but it happened to some close acquaintances of mine. For them, the cost of just working an extra 30 minutes is *far* less than getting lawyers involved, but it did pique my interest so I thought it was worth a question.

Can an employer withhold pay for a fire drill?


context: Peter is on vacation. He wants to have a whole body picture of him with the surroundings. He asks a stranger to take a picture of Peter with a Peter's camera. Who owns the copyright to that photo? Peter or the stranger? Thank you.

photo copyright owner


I am planning to write a novel in which the name of one of my character is Agent X but I found out that it has been used as a name of a TV serial.

Can I use the name of a TV serial / movie for my novel


I am working on a PC game that I intend of selling at some point in the future. The story of the game is revolving around a tribe that used to live in Europe. The name of the tribe is quite popular today and there is even a region with the same name in Greece today. I would like to know if it is legal to use names like that for my game story, or am I better off with changing the name so I wont get sued...

Copyright of country/region names for fiction


There's this program from a few years ago that isn't being sold anymore, and there's a simple way to extend the free trial forever by changing the expiration date in a text file.

I was wondering if it would be problematic to write and publish a guide on my website detailing how to use this exploit, since I am not distributing anything.

Is telling others how to crack software illegal?


Let's say I want to assess how comfortable a candidate is with casual conversation, and if he would fit into our business culture. If I ask a question like "What kind of music do you like?", is that legal? The question is definitely not relevant to essential job functions, but based on how he answers I can assess how well he would fit in our company culture.

Are all interview questions that don't apply to essential functions illegal?


From my understanding, all calls to 911 in the United States are recorded. How does 911 legally record calls in states where consent to record is required?

From [Reporter's Recording Guide](http://www.rcfp.org/reporters-recording-guide):

[![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/BSQdp.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/BSQdp.png)

I know that some states where consent of all parties simply requires a [recorder warning tone](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Recorder_warning_tone), such as the State of California:

[Air Transport Association of America v. Public Utilities Commission of the State of California, Defendants, 833 F.2d 200 (9th Cir. 1987)](https://www.courtlistener.com/opinion/497058/air-transport-association-of-america-v-public-util/?)

>
> G.O. 107-B defines disapproved monitoring of telephone calls as the use of equipment which allows a third person to overhear or record a telephone conversation without any indication to the conversant parties that they are being overheard, or without allowing the conversant parties to communicate with the third person. **A person wishing to listen in on a conversation without violating the regulation can provide notice by using a beep-tone warning device audible to all parties to the conversation** or by announcing to the parties that the conversation is being monitored. The order requires utilities to file tariffs prohibiting monitoring unless notice is given to the parties to the conversation, or their consent is obtained. If a telephone company learns that a customer is monitoring conversations in violation of the tariff, the order requires the utility to discontinue service if the customer does not refrain from such monitoring within five days after notice from the utilities. The customer can file a complaint with the CPUC if discontinuance is threatened, and the customer's service will not be discontinued pending resolution of the complaint.
>
>
>

but how the other states where consent is required and a beep isn't enough?

E.g. from [laws on recording conversations in all 50 states](https://www.mwl-law.com/wp-content/uploads/2013/03/LAWS-ON-RECORDING-CONVERSATIONS-CHART.pdf):

>
> Maryland All Parties Md. Code Ann., Cts. & Jud. Proc. § 10-402 (a): The Wiretapping and Electronic Surveillance Act holds that it is unlawful to take or record a communication without the consent of all parties.
>
>
>

How does 911 legally record calls?


Today I learned that the TV licence in the UK is required to:

>
> watch or record programmes as they’re being shown on TV, on any
> channel
>
>
>

[Source](https://www.tvlicensing.co.uk/check-if-you-need-one?&&WT.mc_id=mec_Search_Brand&gclid=Cj0KCQjwlvT8BRDeARIsAACRFiUnMBxfrZeVMCp-gRvLec4xnADngSvgAfBE5fjNimNR_DBgvvgfdqUaAlGaEALw_wcB)

This means that if I watch, for example, Sky Sports, even on my phone, I require a TV Licence, even though I’ve already paid Sky, and Sky are the ones providing the service.

Given that the TV licence funds the BBC, and that Sky is a paid for service that has nothing to do with the BBC, I’m struggling to see why this is required.

If there were no such thing as a TV licence, and the government tried to bring this rule in now, what possible legal justification could they make for it?

Why do I need a TV licence to watch non BBC services?


Scrolling about one day I noticed some text beneath the header of the YouTube page:

[![screenshot described](https://i.stack.imgur.com/bbIqn.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/bbIqn.png)

When I release the scroll, the underlay of the page returns to normal and the text is hidden once more.

Are they legally required to do this, or is there some other reason for putting this text on the page? And, if it is required by law, how do they get away with hiding it as such?

Why does YouTube hide "Ad displayed" or "Ad can be skipped messages" under the header?


In the United States, how egregious does an employee’s actions need to be to override [Respondent superior](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Respondeat_superior)/[Vicarious liability](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vicarious_liability) and hold the company blameless?

A hypothetical example: Bob is a full-time employee of Acme Services, LLC. One of Bob’s responsibilities for Acme’s construction company clients is to verify that equipment rental invoices match delivery records before notifying the client to approve the invoices for payment. For all of the clients except one, Bob follows the procedures properly. For Client C, Bob does no verification and has the invoices paid as presented. Neither Bob nor Acme realize any benefit from this action. Acme conducts periodic audits of its client accounts (selected at random), and eventually the mishandling of Client C’s account is discovered. Bob is fired (his excuse for his actions is that he disagreed with the political views of the owner of Client C). A full audit of Client C’s account shows they have overpaid various vendors.

If Client C sues Acme Services for damages, can Acme (or their liability insurance carrier) in turn sue Bob (with a reasonable chance of prevailing)?

Can Client C sue Bob directly without also suing Acme?

Could Bob or Acme (or both) face any criminal liability?

Is a company liable if an employee intentionally ignores company procedures?


From my understanding, FBAR is meant to track how much money US citizens hold outside of the US.

Let's say that on June 2020 I had $10,000 (the minimum for FBAR reporting) in my account in the bank of London. Then in July 2020 I moved to Paris and transferred $10,000 to my account in the bank of Paris while closing my account in the bank of London.

I only had a total of $10,000 in my holding at any point in time. However, if I report the max amount of all of my accounts I would report

```
Bank of London: Account XXX: $10,000
Bank of Paris: Account YYY: $10,000

```

With an implied total of $20,000. Does that make sense? Could that come back to hurt me if the next year I only report $10,000?

When filing an FBAR after transferring all of your money from one bank to another, should the "Maximum account value" be written for both accounts?


Where can one check that the agreement made and sent to any client by a stock broker genuine and legal?

Stock Broker Company Agreement


I have been [told](https://home.kpmg/xx/en/home/insights/2018/10/united-states-indirect-tax-guide.html), that an overseas company selling in USA need to collect consumption tax and pay it back to US. However, our company is going to charge our customers in Australian dollars. Thus, to lodge a tax report in US we [must](https://www.irs.gov/individuals/international-taxpayers/foreign-currency-and-currency-exchange-rates) convert AUD to USD. And we would need to use currency conversion rates set by federal reserve on a day of our report submission. Where can I request these rates?

I thought it would be Federal Reserve Web site [RSS](https://www.federalreserve.gov/feeds/h10_data.htm) or [CSV](https://www.federalreserve.gov/datadownload/Choose.aspx?rel=H10)

But the data are published weekly at 4:15 there.

What resource should I use for currency conversion rates?

How to calculate currency conversion for USA consumption tax (sales tax) reporting


Metric compatible fonts (typically open-source) copy certain metrics from a (typically copyrighted) "source font". "Advance width" at least, and maybe other metrics (I have seen discussions of copying kerning data). Why is this not copyright infringement? Presumably the designer of a metric compatible font is not printing the source font and measuring it. They are using the *exact* metrics to achieve exactly the same horizontal spacing.

Why does the creation of a metric compatible font not constitute copyright infringement?

Why are Metric Compatible fonts not copyright infringement?


I'm wondering what trouble a game developer could get into with making references to other things that served to inspire the dev. Suppose the dev plans to sell the game; would such references possibly cause issues later down the line

---

I refer tpo references such as, for example:

* drinking bird (*Alien* movies)
* Glasses with "A. Wesker" written on the side (Resident Evil)
* A brochure that advertises The Overlook (*The Shining*)
* Newspaper talking about a shark killing "Martha Vineyard", aged 75 (*Jaws*)
* One of the lockers has the name "S. Henriksson" (Cry of Fear)
* Book titled something like "The favourite fellow" by Charles L. Ray (Chucky)

I'm working on a game and want to reference some other games and movies. How much trouble could I get in with the examples below?


I found this on [Amazon TOS](http://www.amazon.com/gp/help/customer/display.html/?nodeId=508088):

>
> ... You may not incorporate any portion of the Amazon Software into your own programs or compile any portion of it in combination with your own programs ..
>
>
>

Now I'm wondering [what this company is doing](http://www.indix.com/usecases/enrich/) or Google/Bing as well. There are plenty of companies who scrape data from Amazon, eBay, Etsy or news websites, Stack Overflow, etc. and do something with it (either republish or analyse or similar).

So in the case of Amazon TOS: Would indix.com be doing something legal if they put the products data into their database? How about Google?

What am I allowed to do according to Amazon TOS?


Can someone who discovered a [zero-day exploit](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Zero-day_%28computing%29) in a program sell the information, and does the applicable jurisdiction depend on his location, the buyer location, the location of the developed of the product that the exploit targets, or something else?

Is it legal to sell zero-day exploits?


What is the legal basis for the prosecution to use ones private journal against them in the court of law.

If so why is this not a violation of the right not to testify against oneself.

If i have this wrong point it out.

to clarify, in state and federal proceedings.

Could using Private Journals be a violiation if used against someone in the court of law?


Now, our state is in war zone and people are dying daily because of war. Government and Arakan Army are fighting with heavy weapons. No Journalist are allowed to enters, we have 17 divisions in our state and only 3 divisions access internet and telephone. Government cut off those. So, here is my question.

There are so many fake news on facebook about your state current situation. We reported facebook team and they reply "It doesn't go community standard".

**So, Where should I report if we have prove? If facebook ignores "fake news".**

Normally, in my point of views, fake news on internet is usual but people are dying and world need to know truth.

What should I do if facebook ignore fake news?


There is a contract with four preconditions, of which the failure of any ONE is sufficient to void the contract.

Clearing the four preconditions requires the execution of ten documents, involving the actions/signatures of ten people. In theory, this could mean up to 100 executions, although it's more like 60-70, because while every person has to execute at least one document, not all ten persons have to execute all ten documents.

How do lawyers keep track of which documents have been executed, and which preconditions have been fulfilled? Do they use a grid or tallying system for this purpose? Are there "best practices" in record-keeping for many of the subject matters?

How do lawyers determine when the preconditions for a contract have been met?


If Chinese company ABC has an established brand for their product, "The Widget", and American company XYZ makes an add-on or modification for that product and sells said add-on as "The Widget Improver", with or without reference to ABC, is there copyright implications?

I felt XYZ was enhancing and benefiting ABC, but someone today suggested I may have a problem as the name insinuates "The Widget" is inferior as-is, and also copyright infringement since "The Widget" is in XYZ's product name and, specifically, because XYZ's product specifically functions due to the "The Widget" being in the marketplace.

I could use specific names and examples but I wasn't sure what is expected on this site.

I found [this article](http://www.entrepreneur.com/answer/221456), which sort of addresses my question and suggests that a license agreement is necessary. But is it really necessary, or only necessary from ABC's (and that author's) point of view?

Copyright implications for developing/marketing a 3rd party accessory?


NY/USA here if jurisdiction matters.

I am employed full-time and am salaried. I have an at-will employment with no special contractual constraints with my employer. Can I lawfully be fired for simply "*not being a good fit*"? What does the employer have to prove to claim this?

Can one be fired for "not being a good fit"?


If a second contract is signed after a prior one and they fully conflict going against fully being each other and there is no mention done of which contract mainly overrides being the other then in the given being situation which given prevails actually?

**Content before last given editm :**

Let us say A and Z sign two contracts.

The first contract says that A will pay Z $0.5 to $1 a month. There is no mention of what happens if another contract is signed opposing its terms.

Later A and Z sign a contract stating $0.2 will be paid to Z per month and nothing more. There is no mention of the first contract in this one.

Which of the two contracts will prevail over the other?

Do newer contracts supersede prior ones?


To clarify the title, here is an example:

1. Alice wants to sign up to online store Nile.com
2. Alice enters the email `bob@mailprovider.com` by accident
3. Nile.com does **not** send a verification that Alice has to complete but directly accepts the registration and the email
4. Alice orders stuff from Nile.com
5. Bob, who is completely unrelated to Alice, starts getting emails that contain information about Alice that includes her name, (delivery) address and purchases

I tried to look through [the entire text](https://eur-lex.europa.eu/legal-content/EN/TXT/?qid=1528874672298&uri=CELEX%3A32016R0679) but I honestly got lost around the processing sections. The only relevant part I noticed was in Chapter II, article 5

>
> 1. Personal data shall be:
>
>
> [...]
>
>
> (d) **accurate** and, where necessary, kept up to date; every
>  reasonable step must be taken to ensure that personal data that are
>  inaccurate, having regard to the purposes for which they are
>  processed, are erased or rectified without delay (‘accuracy’);
>
>
> [...]
>
>
> (f) processed in a manner that ensures appropriate security of the
>  personal data, including **protection against** unauthorised or unlawful
>  processing and against **accidental loss**, destruction or damage,
>  using appropriate technical or organisational measures (‘integrity and
>  confidentiality’).
>
>
>

(emphasis mine)

What are the legal obligations of Alice and Nile.com here? It is ultimately Alice who made the mistake and Nile are following the user's preference for contact, even if it's wrong. I couldn't see (or I missed) if Alice has an obligation to provide accurate data. At the same time it seems like Nile.com should have done due diligence before essentially leaking (is this considered "accidentally losing"?) PII to a third party.

Legal sending personal information to a third party if the user supplied incorrect contact information?