Consider two businesses, "Us LLC" and "Them, Inc." which are both in the field of selling widgets to the general public. The production of these widgets fall under a government regulation that mandates they be, for example, made of a particular material.

"Them, Inc." is selling widgets well below competitive price points because they make theirs out of a non-compliant but significantly cheaper material. "Us LLC" makes compliant widgets, but cannot compete on this unequal footing. The regulatory agency responsible has ignored requests to enforce the regulation on "Them, Inc.", and will not issue a waiver of the regulation to "Us LLC".

Does "Us LLC" have any legal standing to either compel the regulatory agency to enforce the regulation, or to directly compel "Them, Inc." to comply?

Would the noncompliance of the competitor, combined with lack of enforcement by the regulator, hold any defensive merit if "Us LLC" were to start using the non-compliant material?

Can a private individual force a competitor to cease a illegal practice which gives a competitive advantage?


A company organises a staff event during business hours. Say a hackathon or similar. The company arranges a photographer and videographer to record pictures, footage, presentations etc.

Speaking specifically about GDPR, does the company need to seek any level of consent from the attendees to use those photographs or video for published material covering the event for use internally, or for sharing with partner organisations (e.g. here's a brochure of how the day went, or here's an intranet article, or here's a video to show what we're up to).

Does the GDPR cover / apply to (in any way) photography at a workplace event?


Is it legal for a company founder to add to the bylaws that nobody has the power to fire him as ceo (law in Colorado, The United States of America)

Can a founder use bylaws to prevent being fired by the board


Is it legal not to pay employees a salary (even not a minimum) and only incentivise them with an equity reward?

Do I, as the owner of the company, have to pay a salary for myself?

How startups are able not to pay minimum salaries to their employees?


Say an author sells the paperback rights of a book for $300,000

What does that mean? The author gets $300,000 and then nothing else, even if the book sells five hundred million copies?

What does "paperback rights" mean?


This is the situation: I have a booklet that contains sketches (2D drawings) of human teeth. I would like to use them as reference materials to build 3D models (using blender) and publish the models on Sketchfab and a mobile App.

I'm not sure about it since I see people, for example, making car models and selling it on Sketchfab, for branded cars, like Mercedes or Corvette etc... Did they need permission to make this work from the original designers?

What are my legal responsibilities in this aspect? Is this considered a copyright infringement?

Thanks in advance for the advice.

Will I need permission from the work owner of a 2D sketch to make it a 3D model?


I have an app that is not copyright protected or patented. Can I still upload it to the Google Play Store as a paid app?

Can an un-copyrighted app be paid on Play Store


I have a business license from the province of Ontario and an HST number so that I can file my taxes. I have an accountant who handles all of my taxes, so I don't think I will have any issues there.

I'm wondering if there exists any legislation against repairing vehicles for profit without having a mechanic's license. If my customers are made aware that I am repairing their vehicle while unlicensed, am I allowed to proceed?

Thanks.

Is it illegal to repair vehicles in Ontario without a mechanic's license?


In reading a few laws recently, I've seen a lot of non specific words like "reasonably", "expeditiously", and "sufficient". I'm wondering how judges decide what is "reasonable" when the way the law is written is so subjective .

What decides what's "reasonable"?


[![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/xhu7s.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/xhu7s.png)

This is a Georgia association of realtors Form 201, "exclusive seller listing agreement". I have cropped the part about commission. My question is part c. at the very bottom of the attached image.

Survival: The commission rights of Broker and the commission obligations of Seller set forth herein shall survive termination or expiration of this Agreement.

This Survival clause sounds like its indefinite. So how does this make sense when there is a defined period for this realtor agreement? What does it even mean? Thanks.

Real estate listing agreement legal wording question


As it stands the UK implements an EU law which prevents the reverse engineering of proprietary software with few exceptions, could this change once we leave the EU?

If a no-deal Brexit happens will EU provisions on reverse engineering be nullified?


Let's say A takes B to court claiming that B should pay x dollars to A.
Instead of going through long proceedings (with high attorney costs accumulating) with somewhat unpredictable result, the parties may - as far as I learn from US TV series - agree upon a deal, according to which B pays y dollars to A.
The proportion y/x can be expected to somewhat represent the confidence the parties have in their case: If y is a lot smaller than x (say, less than 10% of x), it seems that A sees not so big a chance to win in normal proceedings after all (or only with enormous efforts and costs); similarly, if y is almost as big as x (say, more than 90% of x), it seems that B's chances are (estimated to be) slim. If the outcome is totally unclear, the deal might be made at closer to 50% of x.

My question is: What percentages are common for such deals successfully made in practice (and where the dispute value x is not just petty cash to begin with)? Is there a statistic about this available?

What percentages of the dispute value are typical in deals?


Some unknown person created an online account with my Aadhar card details and booked a room with that account. I guess the person is the PG owner to whom I gave my Aadhar card to photocopy as proof of address. Now he is misusing the address proof for creating fake accounts and booking rooms like this. What should I do now?

What is the punishment for misusing Aadhar card details in India.?


Recently, I got hold of a contract with a rather strange term:

>
> I understand that this document is written to be as broad and inclusive as legally permitted by the State of California. I agree that if any portion is held invalid or unenforceable, I will continue to be bound by the remaining terms.
>
>
>

How is this actually possible? How can I be bound by a contract that's been found to be invalid? And, by proxy, how can I actually escape a contract like this?

For reference, [this](https://www.csuchico.edu/wildcatwelcome/documents/Release%20of%20Liability%20beChico%20FL15.pdf) is a version very similar to the contract that I have a copy of.

Can I be bound by a void contract?


This is a really basic question about GDPR.

If I have products that are intended only for US customers, but can be accessed by European Union residents, does GDPR apply?

More specific example:

A customer downloads my app through the iOS US App Store, but the customer is a resident of France. Does GDPR apply?

Am I obliged to inspect the iOS locale or geo-locate or ask the customer?

As a web and mobile (iOS and Android) developer, how do I discover if GDPR applies to a user?


I'm asking about the red underline. John D McCamus. [*The Law of Contracts* (2012 2 ed)](https://www.amazon.ca/Law-Contracts-2-John-McCamus/dp/1552213056/ref=dp_ob_title_bk). p. 229

[![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/01Ods.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/01Ods.jpg)

[Mountford & Anor v Scott [1974] EWCA Civ 10 (17 October 1974)](https://www.bailii.org/ew/cases/EWCA/Civ/1974/10.html)

>
> The third ground of attack on the validity of the option agreement was that the consideration for the grant of the option, stated and paid, namely £1, was a sum which the law would not regard as valuable consideration: therefore there was no consideration in the eye of the law to support the obligation on Mr Scott not to withdraw his offer for six months. This I found a startling proposition. The industry of Mr Narayan has not been able to find any support for it in English authority; and his reliance on a Canadian case of *Gilchrist v. Sedley*, which is reported in (1967) 66 Dominion Law Reports, Second Series, page 24, was based on a misreading, in my view, of the decision in that case, which appears to me to suggest only that **possible future obligations which could be avoided by payment of £1 were illusory as consideration**.
>
>
>

[*Anson's Law of Contract* (2016 30 ed)](https://www.amazon.co.uk/Ansons-Law-Contract-Jack-Beatson/dp/0198734786/ref=pd_lpo_sbs_14_t_0?_encoding=UTF8&psc=1&refRID=ZW82SGPZDB8D0GKSVMV4). p. 104

>
> (f) CONSIDERATION NEED NOT BE ADEQUATE
>
>
>

p. 106

>
> Thus specific performance was ordered of
>  an option to purchase a house for £10,000 even though the consideration for the grant
>  of the option was the nominal sum of £1.53
>
>
> 53 *Mountford v Scott* [1975] Ch 258 (Brightman J). But note that, in contrast to Brightman J, the Court of Appeal in that case regarded the option as having been exercised so that the specific performance related to
>  the contract of sale for £10,000 not the option contract for which the consideration was nominal.
>
>
>

Why did EWCA conclude that Gilchrist Vending v Sedley Hotel Ltd consisted with the principle that nominal consideration sufficed?


"Alternative lyrics" are those lyrics are written to the music of an existing song.
An example would be "My Country "Tis of Thee" written to the tune of "God Save the Queen."

My understanding is that if you put the alternative lyrics to the sheet music of the original song without permission, that would be copyright infringement. (You've copied the music.)

But suppose you publish the alternative lyrics on a "standalone" basis (without the music in any form). Would the fact that it can "sing" to someone else's song be copyright infringement even if there were no ["substantial similarity"](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Substantial_similarity) in the lyrics?

Under what circumstances do "alternative lyrics" represent copyright infringement?


I recently learned that images that you find on Facebook can be legally used by simply crediting Facebook.

Imagine someone posts a link to one of my web pages on Google without my knowledge. One of my images is automatically displayed with the link.

In such a scenario, would people still be able to use my image by simply crediting it "(Facebook)"? If so, is there anything I can do to prevent Facebook from stealing my images through links?

Copyright vs Facebook images inadvertently displayed via links


I'm working off of a template for a Terms of Service agreement for an app, and I would like to modify it to use non-binary pronouns (they/their/them) instead of gender-specific pronouns (he/she his/hers him/her). What, if any, language should be included at the head of the contract to explain that they/their/them is referring to a single person rather than a group of people? Right now I'm thinking of something like

>
> In this document when referring to the Licensee, we use the non-binary
>  and non-gender-specific pronouns “they”, “their”, and “them”. These
>  pronouns are not intended to reflect plurality of the Licensee, and
>  can be replaced by he/his/him or she/her/hers where appropriate to
>  reflect the Licensee’s identity.
>
>
>

What wording should I use to include non-binary pronouns in a contract?


If I see a "No Tresapssing" sign on a house door, but I hear screems for help from inside. The window was left open by mistake and I see a big guy beating an unarmed man and getting ready to kill him.

Would I be justified in front of the law to break in and shoot for the big guy's gun? (I am also putting the big guy's life in danger by shootin but he comes out unharmed).

* Question: Assuming that my claims about the imminent murder having been about to take place prove to be correct, will the law, as it stands written, find me guilty of any of the 2 crimes that I have just comitted?

The question is not about the morality or practicality of my actions. It is purely legal.

Does preventing a murder justify breaking a "No Trespassing" law?


I'm an MBA student working on an assignment to evaluate the feasibility of transitioning from a license-only model to a franchise model.

We're fine doing the business analysis, but we do have some legal concerns about what to do with the existing licensees. Grandfather them, drop them, or convert them?

Does anyone know of any businesses in the U.S. that have made this type of transition? Or of any case studies on the subject? We would like to be able to address the issue in our paper, rather then just note it as a concern.

Thanks

Dual franchise/license model in the U.S


I'm trying to persuade someone in a policy area to do something. One of my points is that, supposing what they're already doing is technically legal, it is not "faithfully executing" the law.

In the abstract, is there any history that might suggest there are two differing standards of legality...one which is "faithful" and one which merely passes a base level test of legality?

Obviously I am referring to clauses in different constitutions which require the executive to (in so many words) "take care that the laws be faithfully executed."

Is there a difference between "faithfully executed laws" and laws which are technically executed but not "faithfully"?


I am developing a smartphone app to serve as a bulletin board for some schools.

I plan to use school logos to represent those schools in my app.

Might this cause trouble through copyright breach or other legal problems?

Is it legal to use school logo in my free mobile app?


In the US, two speakers have a public debate. It is free of charge to all who show up at the public venue. No one is paid anything but (possibly) expenses such as travel. Any additional expenses for the debate like venue rental are paid for by a third party. There was no contract or verbal agreement regarding money beyond that the debaters would be there at a certain time and place.

The first debater arranges for the debate to be audio recorded, and afterward posts the recording for sale online for $13. An indirect inquiry by the second debater who desires to share the recording for free on his own site receives the answer that the first debater is asserting copyright and the recording can't be shared for free.

1. Who owns the copyright to this recording?
2. Can the second debater share the recording (obtained by paying $13) for free legally? And give rights to others to copy it further?
3. Is the second debater able to legally demand half of the profits?

Copyright on public debate


So while shopping in a store tonight I witnessed a store clerk allow a customer to use their ID to buy cigarettes. The store clerk ask me if I could allow the customer to use my ID. I clearly and quickly told her that, I could not do that. The lady claimed to be of age. To me as a person with an MBA, would without reservations would say it is ethically wrong. I can’t find anything that states it is wrong, even though I know it is legally wrong.

Can a store clerk let a customer use their ID to buy cigarettes?


I am looking for insight into copyright laws to see if it is legal to do the following:

Party-A runs a television channel and has broadcast rights for movie contents.

Party-B builds video playing infrastructure in public places and invites television channels to participate. Under this plan, the video contents would be stored in the devices and then played.

Let's say Part-A agrees to participate.

If all the devices may not play the same video at a given time, would it be a violation of the rights of original copyright owner of the video (movie content)

If all the devices play the same video at a given time, technically the infrastructure is only a different broadcasting medium for television. In that case, is it still a violation of the copyright laws in any way?

Copyright - television broadcasting with offline storage, not playing same across devices


My fiance recently went on a 7 night cruise abroad and would not have cellular service. She hired a local pet sitter to come by her house 3 times a day to feed, water, and change her dog's paper. They agreed on 9 days for $35.00 per day. The pet sitter requested and was paid $315.00 in full prior to beginning the service.

My fiance stays in a gated community and added the sitter to her guest list so that she can access the home. After the second day, the pet sitter was denied entry through the gate by security. The sitter contacted her emergency contact to notify her that she is unable to care for the animal since she cannot access the home. Her mother took care of the pet for the remainder of the 9 days.

Upon returning back to the country, she learned from her mother everything that happened. Thankfully, the dog was okay since her mother was able to take care of the dog while she was abroad. My fiance contacted the sitter to offer 4 days' pay, $140.00, for the 2 days of service she was able to do her job to compensate for any inconveniences. The sitter maintains position that the agreement was for $315.00 for 9 days of service and that it was not her fault she couldn't do her job for the remaining 7 days, so she kept the full payment.

Is it legal for the pet sitter to keep the full payment, even though the contract was breached?

Was the sitter right for keeping full payment with only providing a fraction of the services agreed upon?

Is it legal to take full pay for partial service?


Given the indemnity clause of a website's ToS below, am I correct in my non-legal opinion that if someone hacks my account, even if due to the sites lack of security, and causes harm or loss, I'm financially on the hook for it? Is that enforceable?

My location is Florida, but the company has offices at least five US states including California and North Carolina

{Emphasis mine}

15. INDEMNITY. You agree to indemnify and hold harmless , its owners, affiliates, officers, directors, employees, consultants, licensors, agents, and representatives from any and all third party claims, losses, liability, damages, and/or costs (including reasonable attorneys’ fees and costs) arising from your violation of these Terms, or your infringement, **or infringement by any other user under your name or account (whether or not authorized or known to you),** of any intellectual property or other right of any person or entity. We will notify you promptly of any such claim, loss, liability, or demand, and in addition to your foregoing obligations, you agree to provide us with reasonable assistance, at your expense, in defending any such claim, loss, liability, damage, or cost.

Are over-zealous indemnity clauses enforceable?


We have been having a discussion in a chat room on whether the exact spelling matters when referring to a License, in this particular case the [CC BY-SA License](https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/) - which applies to any content posted to any of the Stack Exchange sites - and is linked to in the [Stack Exchange Network Terms of Service](https://stackexchange.com/legal)

I had mistakenly referred to it (in a comment) using the name `CC-by-SA` instead of the correct `CC BY-SA` (additional hyphen and lower case `by`).

It was pointed out to me that this incorrect usage could potentially jeopardise any legal case brought against Stack Exchange in the US.

1. Is this the case? Would an unintended misspelling be that serious in a legal case?
2. Would the fact that the misspelling occurred in a transient comment make any difference?
3. Would the fact that I am an elected moderator (on SU) - and therefore presumably a "representative" of Stack Exchange - make any difference? (Compared to and ordinary user making the same mistake).

Note that the Moderator Agreement explicitly states "I acknowledge and agree that I am an independent volunteer moderator to Stack Overflow and I am not an employee, agent or representative of Stack Exchange Inc., and I have no authority to bind Stack Exchange Inc. in any manner."

Does the exact spelling matter when referencing the CC BY-SA licence?


I have recently moved into a new apartment. The lease is a private one between me and the owner (not a larger corporation). I viewed the unit in May and, come the end of the summer and a series of remodeling/construction, I moved in permanently.

I was moved in for less than 24 hours when I noticed some construction mistakes. Some examples include: blocked outlets, reversed doorknobs (lock on wrong side), and doors that do not shut all the way. The most inconvenient was some incorrect wiring that prevented the cable operator I called from installing internet.

I contacted my landlord about these issues and he said he would take a look and fix them ASAP. It has now been a week and he has not, to my knowledge, even examined the issues in person or done anything to go about correcting these mistakes.

What legal recourse do I have, if any, against my landlord? I know that tenants have a right to sue for damages or deduct the cost of repairs from monthly rent but these damages are fairly minor and do not necessarily render the apartment uninhabitable. However, it is frustrating that the faulty wiring prevents internet hookup (which, let's be honest, is a basic quality of life these days).

Is lack of internet support in new apartment cause for damages?


There are websites which show reviews, ratings, scores about companies (restaurants, hotels, etc.). For example, I create a website which would collect similar data about concrete persons. Could a website show concrete person full name and reviews about him publicly? What about GDPR, right to be forgotten and other legal considerations?

Is it legal to collect reviews/ratings about people and show it on website?


**Background story:**

1. Recently I've written some [questions](https://law.stackexchange.com/questions/27391/question-about-using-wikipedia-content-about-cc-by-sa-license-about-its-cop) on law.stackexchange. People wrote answers to those questions, and also wrote some comments. I read these things and got some new thoughts from them. I'll refer to these as *stack\_thoughts*. This is the **first source** of some new thoughts about my question.
2. Also I wrote partly similar question to some other places through email, and received responses. I read those responses and got ideas which I'll refer to as *email\_thoughts*. This is the **second source**.
3. I also asked some questions on a talk page in my profile in Wikipedia. There, one can ask for some help, which I did. And I also received answers, from which I got *wiki\_personal\_thoughts*. This is the **Third source**.

To normally prolong my working on [this same problem](https://law.stackexchange.com/questions/27391/question-about-using-wikipedia-content-about-cc-by-sa-license-about-its-cop), I need to collect, join, analyze, and use thoughts from all three sources. I need to have possibility, to "formulate" this all thoughts, in all mentioned places. I can do this, in particular by two ways:

* First. I can just blindly use them, write about them without mention of the sources where I got them.
* Second. Before use all these thoughts I can ask for permission from the authors that are my sources. E.g. I can write a message, to each person who replied on my talk page in Wikipedia, about - can I use what they told me, in some other place, maybe on *stackexchange*. They might reply with a yes or a no.

**So question is next:**

How can I utilize normally, ethically, and legally information from these three resources (sources)?

I know that there a lot on the internet about using copyrighted text resources - but what about personal email letters, and personal messages?

Can I use freely information from personal emails and some personal answers


Suppose that I made an MMORPG which has interesting gameplay, but rather bad graphics.

One day, a fan of the game writes a client in Unreal Engine that lets them play the game with HD graphics (but they still need to buy subscription from me to connect to the server). Because of this, my game becomes more popular and I'm making twice as much money.

Epic's license for Unreal Engine asks for 5% royalties, but I never agreed to this licence, the person who made the third-party client did.

Do I have to pay royalties to Epic? If yes, is it just on the portion of profits from players that connect using the third-party client?

Third party client made in Unreal Engine


Micrsoft's '.docx' file format is closed source. There are many softwares that convert '.docx' file to any other (ex. pdf,rtf,odt,txt) . These software developers must have to reverse engineer '.docx' file format in order to study it and be able to convert it to another. So is it legal to reverse engineer these kind of proprietary file formats?

Is it illegal to reverse engineer .docx file format?


According to US law, when a person approaches a woman who is pregnant in the third trimester, usee a knife and "takes the life of the unborn child" while the woman survives, is this crime a murder or a personal injury to the pregnant woman, or both?

Does anything change depending on the month that the pregnancy had reached?

What crime is killing a foetus without the mother's consent?


I live in a fairly upscale apartment community in a major city in Florida. I've been having major issues concerning building security and another matters that I tried to address with our property manager. Her response was dismissive, rude, argumentative and did not even address most of the issues that I brought up. I followed up with her again and her reply was even more dismissive and arrogant. Currently I'm trying to take my problems with our property manager with the management company ( You're very large and on apartment communities around the Southeast). In case this doesn't go anywhere, I would like to warn another people in a review about living here. I would like to post the emails in the review, redacted for privacy and removing any personal information to provide receipts and backup my claims. If I did so, would that be illegal in any way?

Can I post email correspondence between myself and my apartment community Property Manager online?


Hypothetical Facts
------------------

1. U.S. company ("***A***") hires Canadian worker ("***B***") [to work as an unpaid intern](https://law.stackexchange.com/a/3739/794).
2. ***B*** never physically leaves Canada and does all her work by telephone, computer and internet.
3. ***A*** has a physical presence in the U.S. only.
4. The parties enter into an ***internship agreement*** that, among other things, (purports to) commit/s the entire arrangement to the jurisdiction of the U.S.

Questions
=========

1. Is ***A*** or ***B*** subject to Canadian employment law? (Will either party get into trouble with the Canadian government?)
2. If so, what enforcement (and/or punitive) mechanisms are available to the Canadian government to enforce their employment laws against ***A*** or ***B***?
3. Can ***B*** later (successfully) sue ***A*** in a Canadian court for back wages?

Are U.S. employers subject to Canadian employment law if they hire a Canadian to work remotely?


Many company websites are showing that the company is ISO 9001, ISO 27001 and/or ISO 14001 certified.

Is there any way to request, or registrar to check, the company's certificate globally and to validate the certificate's integrity and validity?

How to verify a ISO (9001, 27001, 14001) certification claim?


I found this browser game that I really like and that I think could easily be ported to Android.

Would it be illegal/could I get in trouble for taking this browser game and making an exact replica of it for Android that would use the same image and sound assets.

Would it be illegal to make a exact replica of a browser game for Android?


An employer is aware that their employees are lying to customers of the company for their own personal financial gain. Is that against the law? If an employer is aware and continues to let the employees do so.

Is it illegal for an employer to know that their employees are lying to the companies customers for their own personal financial gain?


Venmo allows money transfers between individuals for arbitrary goods/services/gifts. My understanding is that they/their parent company handle payment processing, escrow, and payout themselves. When people inevitably use it for illegal means, what kind of liability does Venmo face? How do they mitigate this? Does it make a difference that they use a wallet scheme and hold funds in escrow rather than make direct transfers?

How does Venmo mitigate liability for illegal transactions?


I live in Germany and have a yearly contract for the Adobe Creative Cloud. This contract can only be canceled 30 days before the one year period ends. They say, that a termination notice prior to those 30 days cannot be noted in their system.

Are companies allowed to restrict the period in which I can submit a termination request to cancel a contract?

Can a company restrict the period in which a contract termination can be submitted?


I'm having trouble understanding the copyright law when registering one 2D character.

I understand that a 2D character is an illustration, so it falls under "Work of the Visual Arts." But I'm confused on the part that says

"Are you registering one work (one song, one poem, one illustration, etc.)? Check '' NO '' to this question if the
work is one of the following: a collection of works (such as: book of poetry, CD of songs, multiple photographs
and illustrations), a collective work, website or database because these works do not qualify for the Single
Application."

I can submit one illustration of a character, but since a character has multiple expressions, can wear different clothes, etc., would one character still be considered as ONE work?

Copyright for one 2D character


I need help regarding some copyright law issues. I live in Canada if that helps with anything..

Lets say I took a picture off the internet of a celebrity and then I mixed up his face with another celebrity and now it only kind of looks like the original picture.

Will the still infringe on copyright law?

Would changing up the background on that picture help too?

Photograph Copyright Law - Picture transformation


If a car breaks down in the drive thru lane of a fast food place, would the driver be liable for lost business while waiting for a tow truck?

If a car breaks down in the drive thru lane of a fast food place, would the driver be liable for lost business?


As I understand it a resume is automatically considered the intellectual property of its author, and the author has a right to determine how it will be copied ie. distributed. Does this actually hold any practical significance?

* Does this mean that when someone sends you their resume, it is unlawful to pass it on to others unless the author gives permission?
* Can you get sued if the resume finds its way to someone the author did not intend to see it, and the author suffers some harm as a result?
* Is distributing a resume in the context of professional networking considered as implicit consent to allow sharing with anyone under the US legal system?

Does copyright on a resume prevent you from sharing it?


Some movies ([but not all](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=YE7VzlLtp-4)) on YouTube have licenses incompatible with them being on YouTube. Could the *viewer* of such a video be technically guilty of any crime?

I am wondering for both U.S. and abroad.

Could watching a YouTube video constitute violation of copyright?


My partner works at an audit company and sometimes has to travel to clients. These are usually near where she works and does not significantly increase her travel time. Occasionally they will find a hotel for her to stay in.

She has just been told to go to a client 2.5hours from where she lives and has not been booked to a hotel.

This is over an hour each way more than her usual commute and will mean she's travelling for at least 5 hours each day for 8 days.

She would (unhappily) stay in a hotel but has been told no. Is there any legal protection for this in the UK?

I've tried looking online but I'm not sure how to word what I'm looking for.

*added commute timing*

```
10min Bus
 1min walk
11min train
 6min train
48min train
 1min walk
 9min bus
 6min bus
15min walk

```

Travelling to off site client, how far is acceptable. Uk


My manager verbally told me I was getting a raise (12/10/10)

On payday, Friday afternoon, he asked me to call him again. He advised I would not be getting the 10% pay increase at this time. When asked why, his response was that "it had not gone completely through the approval process". He's been a manager and with the company for over 10 years.

As a follow-up, I sent an email to my manager asking to clarify why I was not receiving the pay increase.

His response this time (and in writing) was that I would not be getting the raise due to my 2018 end of year review and it would not be discussed again until the managers review our 2019 EOY in March.

Note: Early 2019/when bonuses were received- mine was docked due to my 2018 review. Can they legally hold my 2018 review against a raise for 2019 also? It sounds like double jeopardy.

Can I sue employer/manager for false promises for a raise?


A certain evil man has previously waged a vicious campaign of cyber-bullying and libel against me, and appears to be revving up for a whole new round in the near future. His claims include accusing me of being a different individual, multiple claims of mental illness of various types, pretending to be a women I supposedly harassed to upset a third party, and accusing me of being a pedophile because I'm a male that volunteers with children (which everyone knows is synonymous with pedophile!); amongst other actions.

I've always ignored these attacks, others then posting requests to have them removed from any third party site he made them on. They were quite upsetting, but the difficulty of doing anything about them is quite high.

However, he is actually doing far worse to others then what he is doing to me. His cyber-bullying is quite common, but the least of his actions. He has had multiple rape allegations made against him; I can't get either of the ones I know personally to press charges. He is involved in many other bad actions, using anonymity of the internet, threat of *vicious* attacks on any that oppose him, a sociopathic (and I mean that literally here) ability to manipulate others, and a talent for knowing exactly how much he can break rules and laws without every pushing enough to make it worth anyone prosecuting him.

My own ability to prove libel is difficult at best, due to the indirect nature of most of the attacks and difficulty of tying his real name (known to me) to his aliases to a degree required to be legally admissible. It is simply not worth the significant expense, time, emotional investment, and *increased* harassment that would inevitable come from any lawsuit just to try to prove libel myself.

However, I would like to stop him from the far more massive harm he is doing to others. Assuming I could even generate a sufficient case for libel is there any way that the results of winning a case proving libel/slander/cyber-bullying etc could lead to repercussions other then his being forced to pay me money, something that may in some way slow down or limit the harm he is doing to other parties? Or is the only possible repercussion financial penalty, which I would value far less then the harm of the case and I doubt would stop him from continuing his activities.

I live in Maryland, the individual harassing me is in West Virginia, with all the harassment being done over the internet; to make things even harder.

Could any repercussion from a libel suit prevent or limit someone from perpetuating other attacks on others?


Musicians get sued a lot for stealing other musicians work, but movie writers also riff on a lot of the same ideas of one another, yet I never hear of screen writers/directors getting sued. Why is that?

Why don't screenwriters get sued more often?


This question is basically just curiosity, no actual dispute. But a few years ago I scanned and uploaded <http://www.forkosh.com/u715.html> to my site, personally claiming copyright (see notice on that page) just so somebody would be asserting copyright. Then I pretty much forgot about the whole thing. But a few months ago, I coincidentally received two unrelated emails from fellow former (but >>much<< more recent:) students, both thanking me for putting my detailed notes online. That prompted me to google the teacher, and surprisingly finding him still at CCNY.

So I emailed him, forwarding both emails I'd received, and pointing him to my online notes in case they were actually still of any use. That started a five-or-six email exchange, during which I mentioned my copyright statement, explaining why I'd claimed it, and offering to transfer it to him, since I considered it his material, with me just the "scribe". But he never mentioned it, one way or the other, so I just left the copyright statement as-is.

But my curious question -- suppose there were a dispute. Who prevails, and why?

Class notes -- who owns the copyright: student or teacher?


Growing up in the 70s in the UK, a common brand of glue was UHU®**1**, and, at least at the time**2**, this was often advertised with the slogan "**Don't say glue, say UHU**".

If the phrase "*Don't say glue, say UHU*" were used by a competitor or the general public, I can see that it could be something a trademark owner might need to defend against (see *Background* below) as it seems likely to equate the two terms *UHU* and *glue* (whether as a noun, as a verb, or both).

**Question**: Is a trademark owner "immune" from "genericizing" their own trademark? Are they safe to use a phrase that, if used unchallenged by others, might dilute the protection offered to their trademark?

***Note**: I'm not asking whether this specific phrase would undermine the UHU trademark (if used by others); nor whether UHU's previous use of this phrase**2** might have undermined their own trademark. Answers targeting UK/English law preferred.*

---

**Background**

If a company has a Trademark (™) or a Registered trademark (®)**3**, they have to take steps to protect it, or risk losing the protection that such marks offer. As well as guarding against direct infringements (a competitor using the protected mark on their own products), the other common area a company needs to defend against is letting the term pass into "common usage". As the article [**How to Protect Your Trademark From Infringement**](https://www.inc.com/guides/201101/how-to-protect-your-trademark-from-infringement.html) from the *inc.com* website says:

>
> Many aspiring entrepreneurs dream of turning their brand into a household word. But watch what you wish for—if your trademark becomes the generic word for a kind of product, you could lose your ownership of it.
>
>
> That was the fate of words like "escalator" (originally a trademark of Otis Elevator Co.), "zipper" (B.F. Goodrich), "aspirin," and even "heroin" (both Bayer AG). Today companies like Kleenex and Xerox struggle to avoid such a fate through marketing campaigns aimed at reminding the public that they are a brand, not a product category.
>
>
> "The company most notorious for making sure you don't genericize their mark is Xerox, which insists that people use a Xerox copy machine, they don't 'make a Xerox,'" says Albert**4**.
>
>
>

The Wikipedia page [**List of generic and genericized trademarks**](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_generic_and_genericized_trademarks) includes lists of **(a)** former trademarks that have been genericized (where courts in at least some jurisdictions have ruled that the terms have become generic by becoming the common name of the relevant product or service); **(b)** former trademarks that have become generic for other reasons: typically through abandonment, non-renewal, or improper issuance (the generic term predated registration); and **(c)** protected trademarks frequently used as generic terms (e.g. Band-Aid®, Google®, Hoover® or Jacuzzi®) although still protected in some countries. ***Note**: Many of the marks in those lists are still protected in some countries, even if declared generic in others.*

From the above, it is clear that a company that wants to preserve the protections afforded to their trademark must defend against uses such as "*I'll hoover the carpet*" or "*I'll just google that*". "*Don't say glue, say UHU*" would seem (to me) to fall into the same category.

---

**1** ®2019 Bolton Adhesives, part of the Bolton Group.

**2** I've not seen any adverts for UHU for many years, so I do not know whether they still use the phrase. Their website (<https://www.uhu.com>), as of October 2019, does not appear to carry the phrase (a search returned no matches), and their current "tag-line" seems to be "*glues anything, anytime*". However, the [UHU page on Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/UHU) *does* claim it is their slogan (but with no citation), and [this page on the trademark section of the Justia.com website](https://trademarks.justia.com/722/00/don-t-say-glue-say-yoo-hoo-72200298.html) indicates that "*DON'T SAY GLUE...SAY "YOO HOO"*" is a registered, and renewed, Word Mark owned by UHU.

**3** Any trademark or registered trademark mentioned in this question is acknowledged as belonging to its owner, whether or not explicitly marked with ™ or ®.

**4** Craig Albert, an intellectual property lawyer with Reitler Kailas & Rosenblatt in New York City. Quoted several times by the referenced inc.com article.

Can a company's advertising slogan undermine their own trademark protection?


[Richard](https://www.uclan.ac.uk/staff_profiles/richard-taylor.php) and [Damian](https://www.slaughterandmay.com/who-we-are/partners/damian-taylor/) Taylor. [*Contract Law Directions* (2019 7 ed)](https://global.oup.com/academic/product/contract-law-directions-9780198836599?&lang=en&). p 337.

>
> The question has arisen whether mutuality needs to have been present from the outset—from
>  the time of entering into the contract—or only by the time of enforcing it. The nineteenth-century
>  formulation (in *Fry on Specific Performance*) expressed the doctrine as requiring that
>  the remedy of specific performance should have been potentially available to either party at the
>  time the contract is made.
>
>
> ### [Example] Mutuality from the outset
>
>
> D agrees to grant a lease of a house to C in return for C’s promise personally to renovate
>  the house. D’s promise could not be specifically enforced against **D [1.]** since **[2.] D would not be
>  able to get specific performance of C’s obligation to renovate (it being a personal obligation)**.
>  Furthermore, following Fry, the objection of lack of mutuality would still persist even
>  if C had already done the renovation because the mutuality had to exist at the time of
>  formation of the contract.
>
>
>

1. This is a typo right? This ought be C.
2. I don't understand the emboldened phrase. Unquestionably this is a contract?

D's promise (grant of a lease) is consideration for C's promise to renovate, and C's promise is consideration for D's promise.

This example is readying the reader for this case in the bottom para. ibid.

>
> This view was confirmed by the Court of Appeal in *Price v Strange* [[1977] 3 W.L.R. 943]. The trial judge held
>  that specific performance of an agreement to grant an underlease of a flat could not be ordered
>  against the defendant because specific performance could not have been ordered against the
>  claimant who had contracted to repair and decorate the flat (following Fry’s approach). The
>  Court of Appeal reversed this decision and granted specific performance of the underlease
>  since the claimant had done the repairs and decoration until he had been prevented from doing
>  so by the defendant, and he had promised to pay to the defendant the cost of completing the
>  repairs he had not done. There was therefore no danger of the defendant being left high and
>  dry after complying with the court’s order of specific performance.
>
>
>

If D leases a house to C for C's promise to renovate it personally, why can't D get specific performance of C's obligation?


In doing a background check on a person when will an old order of protection be discovered, and when will it not be? Perhaps it is based upon the reason generating it or some formal wording inside the order?

when is order of protection included in one's records?


My ex husband & I purchased a car for our 16 year old daughter. We paid 50/50,$7,800 each. Because he owed me money he said he would title it in his name so he would pay insurance. I was reluctant but he said “you still own 1-2 no matter what”.

I just said that all I wanted was to make sure if our daughter ever wanted new car that we both agree to that & all money from selling it go to her for car. He said sure. I also asked that if ever either of us decided we didn’t want her driving (due to bad weather, late at nights ex) or wanted to take the car away for the weekend because she was irresponsible, or whatever the case may be, he agreed we both had that right.

2 weeks later I told her she could not drive because of the weather. He came & picked up the car & said “not up to you...I own it. SUCKER” my friends tell me I’m just that a sucker & have no recourse. I’m thinking if I sue clearly a judge will know I didn’t pay for half my ex’s car!!! So maybe could have it re-titled in both of our names OR request he buy me out? Because here now he has almost 16k car & telling me “thanks” & saying he’s in control. So when she goes to college he get to do with it what he wants. I have the receipt & we had a verbal agreement. Am I screwed?

Ex-husband & I bought car for daughter


Let's say that someone makes a computer virus. The only thing the virus does is email itself to random emails. Upon someone opening the virus, it is emailed from their computer to other random emails as well, thus making the virus spread.

Let's also say that the virus does **not** use the personal email of the infected user to spread itself, instead it uses emails provided in an online database that it has access to. The target emails it gets emailed to are randomly generated on the victim's end, and have nothing to do with his actual contacts.

This virus does nothing but spread. No payloads, no information stealing, nothing else.

Would that be classified as a virus, and the creator of it as a criminal? Would his punishments be as severe as the author of a harmful virus?

A computer "virus" that only spreads (no payloads) - Is it illegal?


A friend of mine posted about how someone keeps stealing her food at work, and I recommended she lace it with some insanely hot hot sauce. Someone else commented that she could be liable for poisoning someone if she did that.

The thief is already ignoring written labels saying 'private' and 'do not take this if your name isn't \_\_\_\_'. My assumption would be that this constitutes a warning label, and that she isn't responsible, just like a company isn't responsible if you injure yourself using their product in a manner inconsistent with their instructions.

So, I'm wondering:

1. Is there any liability at all, since the item in question is being stolen?
2. Are there any specific legal guidelines for what constitutes a written warning that waives liability for misuse of a product? If so, would this meet those criteria?

Can one be liable for poisoning food one expects to be stolen?


In business law our lecturer asked,; Who pays for a good damaged after a customer selects items from a shop or super market to buy,is it the customer or the owner of the business
He therefore ask the class to make a group and do it.
As a new student who doesn't know how to write response to questions in business law,how do I write it.

Introduction to business law


It is often said that you cannot consent to being murdered. If you say to someone 'Please kill me' and they do, they can still be tried and convicted for some degree of murder or manslaughter. Furthermore, in many countries, assisting in suicide is also considered a crime, even if the person is fully mentally competent.

Are there any other crimes that the victim cannot consent to, in order to prevent them being a crime? It's worth adding that the consent is freely given with no coercion.

What actions are still crimes even if the victim gives consent?


I think the current "death + 70 years" expiration is absurd, and I doubt that by then any work I publish will be culturally relevant, much less marketable.

Suppose I publish a book or blog post today, and I choose the Creative Commons BY-SA 4.0 International license.

**Is there any way I can say "I dedicate this to the public domain in X years"? Furthermore, is it possible to specify X years after I die?**

Can I set an expiration date on works I publish?


I live in the US and do writing of my own in various forms ranging from blog posts to content for handouts and trainings I might want to resell at some point in the future.

What steps I should take to legally protect the content I write so that it isn't taken and sold elsewhere later on? Are there additional things I should be thinking about before, during and after writing this content?

How to prevent/protect my rights to content I write (US)


So I am trying to create a military shooter and therefore must have guns. I would like to include some weapons from real life (Ak-47, M16, Glock, etc.) and I would like to know what legal issues I might run into by using these names. Mainly if I could be violating copyright laws.

Are the names of guns protected under copyright law in the US?


Mindy Chen-Wishart. [*Contract Law* (2018 6 edn)](https://www.amazon.co.uk/Contract-Law-Mindy-Chen-Wishart/dp/0198806353/ref=dp_ob_title_bk). p 121. I read [Law of Property Act 1925 s(205)](http://www.legislation.gov.uk/ukpga/Geo5/15-16/20/section/205)(1)(xxi) quoted, but still don't understand (ii).

>
> (xxi) “Purchaser” means a purchaser in good faith for valuable consideration and includes a lessee, mortgagee or other person who for valuable consideration acquires an interest in property except that in Part I of this Act and elsewhere where so expressly provided “purchaser” only means a person who acquires an interest in or charge on property for money or money’s worth; and in reference to a legal estate includes a chargee by way of legal mortgage; and where the context so requires “purchaser” includes an intending purchaser; “purchase” has a meaning corresponding with that of “purchaser”; and “valuable consideration” includes marriage **[F6**, and formation of a civil partnership,**]** but does not include a nominal consideration in money;
>
>
> [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/1jQqr.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/1jQqr.jpg)
>
>
>

Why can the right obtained by giving nominal consideration be less secure, if not negated?


suppose company A gets raw material from company B to produce final product which is to be delivered to the company C by company A. if company B fails to provide material because of which company A cannot fulfill the order of company C, will company B be liable for loss incurred by company A because of the repudiation of contract between company A and C? and what the bare essentials used?

question regarding contractual liability


I have a site that would I would like to add some "like" functionality to. After lots of digging I couldn't find any evidence to suggest that I would get into any bother with Facebook if I did.

Does anyone happen to know if this is ok to do? There are literally hundreds of sites with star ratings, hearts and who knows what else. But nobody seems to be doing the "like" except Facebook.

I want to add a "like" functionality to my site, but will i get into hot water with Facebook?


I've been in mediations with Alorica, a call center here in my city, for some time now. I was offered employment on two campaigns, one of which was a week long, and I accepted those offers. My background information didn't come back in time for me to begin training for the week-long Pizza Hut Superbowl campaign and I was cut from the class roster for that reason. The second of these two campaigns was for Best Buy customer care, and the training class I was meant to take part in was cancelled on the client's behest. I was subsequently offered employment as a US Bank customer service agent, but due to a certain issue in my past I was unable to start with this client and was cut from the class yet again. I was then offered a job as a customer service representative with Ally Bank roughly two weeks ago and all the paperwork was completed within the proper timeframe. I have now been calling during the HR department's business hours and showing up there every day to speak with someone in the recruitment department regarding my employment status, but every time I do I am either turned away, my phone call goes unanswered and my voicemails are not returned at all.

Can I sue an employer for not providing the active employment I was promised?


I have been accused of a crime, and the police informed me of such. However, I have not been charged. They have told my lawyer that I am under investigation but haven't given any more info.

Is there any limit as to how long I can be "under investigation" for until either I must be charged or the investigation has to be dropped? Further, would the police be obligated to inform me if the investigation ended, or would I just hear nothing?

I ask because this process is causing me a lot of stress and I'd like to know how long it can go on for.

Canada - how long can a person be under investigation?


If a company is located in the European Union and stores all personal data in EU servers (to comply with EU regulations), will it comply with US regulations (including state laws)?

Here are few related links, but I'm not sure if i understood them correctly:

<https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Privacy_laws_of_the_United_States>

[Do US companies have an obligation to protect of personal information?](https://law.stackexchange.com/questions/6306/do-us-companies-have-an-obligation-to-protect-of-personal-information)

<http://us.practicallaw.com/6-502-0467>

What US laws exist around storing/processing personal data of US citizens outside of US?


A game named Blinx, was manufactured last in 2004 by a company named Microsoft. In 2014-2015 they dropped the trademark, and so the name is usable, but the game, the intellectual material is copyrighted. If I don't use their images or their code, can I legally reproduce the game?

Does rebuilding a computer game from scratch infringe copyright?


So I've been reading through the new copyright directive proposal and saw the pastiche exemption.

So take this hypothetical:

I forgot how anime.js worked to animate something.

I find a piece of example code on Stack Overflow that shows how it works to initalize it and to animate something to the left and then fade away

I write my own implementation without copying the original code in my codebase, that does a different animation, move to the bottom and fade in, inspired by the code example on Stack Overflow.

Would that be a pastiche? Or would that still fill under CC-BY-SA 3.0 because I took a work for inspiration, **not copied it though**, but created my own example inspired by that code, and am required to follow all requirements of the CC-BY-SA license?

The only references to pastiche I've been able to find have dealt with an artist reusing work for comedic or entertainment purposes from Britisch guidelines.

Miriam webster defines it as: **a literary**, artistic, musical, or architectural work that imitates the style of previous work.

Code is a literary work in my opinion. You write words in a document in a grammatically defined language, so theoretically with my interpretation, basing code upon someone elses code could interpret that as a pastiche.

I'm mostly curious because of this part from the final text of the former article 13 text:

<http://www.europarl.europa.eu/doceo/document/A-8-2018-0245-AM-271-271_EN.pdf>

>
> The cooperation between online content-sharing service providers and
>  rightholders shall not result in the prevention of the availability of
>  works or other subject matter uploaded by users, which do not infringe
>  copyright and related rights, including where such works or other
>  subject matter are covered by an exception or limitation.
>
>  Member States shall ensure that users in each Member State are able to rely
>  on any of the following existing exceptions or limitations when
>  uploading and making available content generated by users on online
>  content-sharing services:
>
>  (a) quotation, criticism, review
>
>  (b) use for the purpose of caricature, parody or **pastiche**
>
>
>

Answers relevant to the European Union please, and i'm mostly interested if there are actual precedents for these "outlier" cases?

When I am inspired by code on Stack Overflow, and make workable code on basis of that code, is that also pastiche?


If a person signs a non-solicitation agreement with company A, that limits them from soliciting coworkers to another company for one year after the end of their employment. Is that specific to the hiring of a previous co-worker? Such that the departing person is a manager or forms their own company after leaving company A, and has an actual capacity to hire. Or would that include the person who is hired by company B, as an individual contributor with no hiring capacities, and refers a former coworker from company A. In this case the person did not hire the former coworker, but did refer them, would they also be violating a contract that limits solicitation?

In looking this up I mostly only see the former, where the person soliciting is actually doing the hiring. I couldn't find any case where it was just a referral and they were brought to court on it.

This would be in the US that I am looking for examples of it. In particular of a company filing suit against a former employee for recommending one of their former coworkers to their new workplace. In this case neither former employee or former coworker have any company A specific knowledge, but are trained, nurses. So they will not bring any customer lists, or any special knowledge, from company A, to the new company. Is it sufficient for company A to bring suit claiming the effort of finding/hiring a new nurse as damages? If so, are there any examples of this?

Is non-solicitation specific to hiring capacity


I'm a software developer who wants to charge companies based off any reasonable metric of worth I can find.

For public companies, "Market Cap" is a pretty straight-forward choice. It can be defined as a simple function.

---

But [for private companies, it's not so easy](https://www.investopedia.com/articles/fundamental-analysis/11/valuing-private-companies.asp).

For what I'm doing, I really don't need a high level of accuracy. I could deal with a tolerance of `+/- 10%`, and just take the low end. But I do need something that can be checked by both parties.

These are the methods listed in the linked article:

* CCA (comparable company analysis) - basically look up a bunch of public companies with similar attributes, average them.
* Private Equity Valuation Metrics - appears to require a recent merger, acquisition, or IPO... but should one of those happen, there is an evaluation stage
* Then rest are even more complicated...

---

My current idea is that private companies would check out their evaluation through some standardized tool and then be able to archive it.

If I had some means of coming up with a number and presenting it, would it be legally acceptable to define that as their company value in a license?

What alternatives to legally defining the value of a private company am I missing?

Is there a legal way to define the value of a private company that would hold up in court?


I am a a fashion stylist in Los Angeles, CA. I often go to stores and shop for clients (and myself). Last year, I spent 100k at a Neiman Marcus.

Recently, a loss prevention person and an over zealous female salesperson entered my dressing room before I was finished trying on clothes. The male accused me of stealing, which I did not. Even with that, I attempted to make a $7500 purchase and they denied my purchase. I contacted the store manager. At first, she seemed shocked. Then she must have talked to someone, because she called me back and said, “loss prevention is allowed to enter dressing rooms”.

How can they get away with this? This is, at the least, defamation and at the most, bias. What do you think?

Is loss prevention able to enter a dressing room while someone is changing?


The image I want to get is from fandom and it's from a movie (a promotional image) so I'm wondering if I can *legally* do it. I would prefer a yes or no answer.

Can I download an image from fandom?


According to [this question](https://law.stackexchange.com/questions/901/copyright-issues-regarding-an-individuals-likeness-and-name-for-a-toy), depending on the jurisdiction, individuals have certain "personality rights" over the use of their name and likeness.

I know that, in the US, these can vary from state to state, and that public figures generally lose some of these rights when their name/likeness becomes famous. But I still believe that commercial use of a public figure (e.g. making a toy, selling a shirt, etc) without their permission would violate those rights.

Are these rights (again, in the US specifically) affected when an individual becomes a government official, particularly a federal government official? I'm vaguely aware of the idea that the federal government doesn't have the same intellectual property rights as private citizens, but I have no idea if this affects individuals.

(The motivation for this question is [this image](https://twitter.com/BevHillsAntifa/status/929770908423561216) which is slightly NSFW but I assume it would apply regardless of the specific usage of the president's likeness.)

Usage of the US President's likeness without his consent


The President nominates the Attorney General, and is responsible for seeing that the Attorney General faithfully upholds his duty to execute the laws of the land. The Attorney General is subject to the policy direction of the President, and serves at the President's pleasure and discretion.

Why then, when the Attorney General is derelict in his duties, does it take the House to charge him and the Senate to try him, for him to be removed? Can't the President simply fire him?

Removal of an Attorney General


I have been offered 5% of a company through a shareholder agreement form (which I have not signed) but am really worried about a clause which essentially states,

>
> Any IP discovered by me relating to the business while in
>  the service of the Company must be disclosed and becomes the property
>  of the company.
>
>
>

Typically, I might say that service is the time during which I am being paid but there is no wage associated with the shareholding.

I am a contractor and work for other customers, I am concerned that such a clause would mean that I would be obliged to disclose customer secrets as they are in similar sectors. Am I over-stressing or should I argue the clause?

What does "While in the service of the company" mean?


Due to the corona-virus around the world, like so many others I am working from home as possible.

Work has just decided that because of this, we should be using Mircosoft Teams to help us all communicate as a team. I have no work equipment outside the office, so this would mean having to install it on my personal phone. Which I am not wanting to do. I have read tales from online where using personal equipment for work has lead to issues (remote wipes, who owns the data, who has rights to the equipment, ...).

As I live and work in Canada, and have not agreed to use my personal equipment for work, is there any way they are allowed to force me to do so or to react to my refusal?

Is work able to force me to install software on personal equipment?


I want to use the song Dirty Diana covered buy The Weeknd for a short film with no lucrative purpose. Do I still need to get the rights and if so how can I do it?

Right of a song cover for a short film


I'm a copywriter with a flair in creating games for children.

I'm working for hire to create a board game in the lines of Monopoly without using any of their copyrighted terms like "Go to jail" etc. The format is the same with 9 steps on each side and four square zones for special situations. And some play money (or value-cards) for trading.

However, my client does want to use the "poly" in the name.

I have a game named Earth-o-poly on the environment. I wonder if they have had to go through the process of obtaining written permission or paying royalty of some sort.

What if my client created an XXXXpoly game and have a regular board game where players don't have play money but some kind of cards to hold on to and pay taxes or pay fines etc.

So, summing up, here are my questions:

1. Is it a coypright infringement if the generic format is used and XXXXpoly is used?
2. What if the format is hugely modified/changed but we only keep the "poly" suffix?
3. Is it extremely expensive to negotiate and pay a fee to them to get the permission?
4. Is there anything else I should keep in mind and didn't ask here?

Thanks, in advance, for your responses.

Copyright laws regarding using the suffix of an established Brand name


I have been working for a year for a privately held company that prominently touts in it's recruiting process that it gives 20% of it's profits to charitable causes. But it doesn't, at least for the last two years, and probably ever.

By virtue of this claim being used as a hiring incentive, can they be forced to make the promised contributions? Can a claim for essentially unpaid wages (since lower wages were accepted based on their promise) be made on behalf of the entire class of employees recruited past and present based on this lie?

Employer lied about charitable contributions


I have a small computer business.
I order about 5 devices (printers/SSDs/notebooks/...) total for my clients a month in different online stores.

On many online stores you can register as private person (consumer) or business customer.
Private persons have different conditions.

Examples are Amazon and eBay.

Is it mandatory to register as business customer?
Or is it ok to use a private account?

Is it mandatory to register a business account at online shops?


CompanyIP owns a mobile app.

CompanyL is the exclusive licensor of the app and the company who enters into the agreement with Apple and the company whose name will appear in the App Store.

What should the copyright notice look like? I'm inclined to demphasize CompanyIP by going with something like

>
> Copyright 2018. All rights reserved. Exclusive Licensor: CompanyL
>
>
>

But maybe something more appropriate would be

>
> Copyright 2018 CompanyIP. All rights reserved. Exclusive Licensor: CompanyL
>
>
>

I don't think I can say

>
> Copyright 2018 CompanyL. All rights reserved.
>
>
>

or can I?

How should copyright be notified when the owner isn't the one publishing the material and wants to be "left out"?


If you are a foreigner (US citizen) living abroad in Germany to attend a school, what kinds of taxes are required if you are also involved in the following business: You receive your own/family money from a United States Bank to a German bank, in order to purchase bitcoin at a german bitcoin exchange, then cash out the bitcoin into american banks. It seems like since cashing out happens into american banks that USA taxes are required, but what German taxes are required for this? Thanks

German Tax for foreigner student


is having a website for the sell of prescription and illegal drugs illegal? If so how can they be caught if they are changing IP addresses every transaction? The only other thing I know is it is out of Texas and the drugs are coming from Mexico.

illegal activity on web


I'm using Oracle JDK8 for some web services and it's a bit difficult to move to OpenJdk right now.

As public support for JDK8 is ending on January, 2019, is it possible continue using Oracle JDK8 without further update for commercial purposes?
Or does a user need to subscribe to new model even though that user doesn't want to update?

Using older version of JDK8 after January, 2019


The [JSLint license](https://raw.githubusercontent.com/douglascrockford/JSLint/master/jslint.js) specifies that code "shall be used for Good, not Evil". It's been a source of (what appears to be) alarmist and ridiculously overblown [controversy](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/JSLint#License) for a while now.

I've noticed this conversation tends to attract a lot of developers who really like open source, know next to nothing about the law, and reach the conclusion that this might have real legal implications.

I'll freely admit I'm a developer who knows next to nothing about the law, but it seems obvious that since the license makes no attempt to precisely define either "good" or "evil", and they don't already have legal definitions (as far as I know), or even consistent definitions in common parlance, no sane judge would attempt to enforce that part of the license.

Then again, my uninformed opinion is just as uninformed as all the uninformed opinions I'm disagreeing with, so I could be completely off base with my analysis.

So what is the worst thing that could (realistically, legally) happen to someone using JSLint because of that specific section of the license?

Worst realistic effect in the U.S. of JSLint license?


as the question suggest. I've built a scrapper which scraps two websites to get property listing from there. As someone told me to scrape other website is illegal. but I think the listing ad of property is not a property of website. so I can scrape it.

can someone tell me it is legal to get others property advertisment?

Is it legal to copy property's listing from other's website


Background: I'm leaving a position I've had for 8 months. HR informed me that there is a relocation clawback clause in my contract. I knew nothing of any clawback clause. I checked my contract and there is no such clause. HR then informed me that it was in my job offer letter. I checked my offer letter, but there is no such clause. HR then informed me that it is in the relocation policy referenced in my offer letter. The policy is referenced in my offer letter as relocation benefits, and the document does have a clawback section. I had no reason to read that policy document because HR had already presented all the benefits to me. It seems unfair that they can hide an important clause in this fashion.
Questions: Is it legally binding when they hide a clause this way? Is it possible for me to fight it?

Can information from a company policy document be enforceable as a contract clause


Questions
---------

I don't ken the two sentences emboldened in below quote.

1. Why "**That will be very hard to prove**"? If "**victim did consent**", then there's no rape.
2. I agree it's debauched and sadistic to attempt to rape, even if to defendant's surprise, that victim then consents. But I don't ken how "the defendant would regard his plan as having failed".
3. Why "the most sadistic rapist would have that state of mind"?

Quote
-----

Herring. [*Criminal Law: Text, Cases, and Materials* (8 edn, 2018)](https://global.oup.com/academic/product/criminal-law-9780198811817?cc=ca&lang=en&). p. 758.

I didn't make typo in first sentence in quote beneath. There must be square bracket around
[2014] EWCA Crim 186 because author didn't neutral citation.

>
> It is fair to say that the law following *Pace and Rogers* [[2014] EWCA Crim 186]](<https://www.bailii.org/ew/cases/EWCA/Crim/2014/186.html>) is in disarray. Commentators have
>  struggled to explain how *Pace and Rogers* and *Khan* [[[1990] 1 WLR 813] can be reconciled. Here are some
>  possible views:
>
>
>

*Khan* isn't on BAILII. Ask if you want me upload PDF of judgment. I skip to 4th view, pp. 759-760.

>
> (4) Both *Pace and Rogers* and *Khan* are correct. There are different rules for different
>  crimes. *Khan* tells us about the mens rea for attempted rape and *Pace and Rogers* about the
>  conversion of property offence. We will need to wait for future cases to tell us the mens rea
>  for other attempted offences and to develop a more general rule.
>          Maybe that rule will be that in cases where recklessness is enough for the full offence
>  *Khan* is to be followed and where suspicion is required *Pace and Rogers* will be followed.9
>          The disadvantage of this approach is that it seems odd that the phrase ‘intent to commit
>  the offence’ will have a different meaning depending on which crime is being charged.
>
>
> 9The court also suggested that *Khan* and *Pace and Rogers* could be distinguished on the basis that
>  there could not be an impossible attempt in *Khan* but there could be in *Pace and Rogers*. That distinction has been widely rejected by commentators including Simester (2015) and Stark (2014) and is hard to
>  justify.
>
>
> None of these views is entirely satisfactory.
>
>          There is a dispute between commentators not only as to the law, but as to what it should
>  be. Andrew Simester10 supports the decision in *Pace and Rogers* because it fits in with the
>  standard meaning of the word ‘attempt’:
>
>
>
> >
> > To “attempt” to do something is to try to do it. If only for the sake of speaking clearly to the
> >  citizens it is meant to guide, a law criminalising the “attempt” to do something should mean
> >  what it says, i.e. that trying to do the thing is a crime.
> >
> >
> >
>
>
> Opponents of the argument that Pace and Rogers should apply to all offences often rely on
>  the offence of attempted rape. It seems that if *Pace and Rogers* has overruled *Khan* the law is
>  that to be guilty of attempted rape the defendant must intend the victim not to consent. **That
>  will be very hard to prove because it means the defendant would regard his plan as having
>  failed if it turned out the victim did consent. Only the most sadistic rapist would have that
>  state of mind.** Simester suggests that knowledge or settled belief that the victim was not
>  consenting should be required. However, that too will be hard to prove— the defendant can
>  easily claim they thought the victim might not be consenting but did not know for sure that
>  she was not consenting and that would be hard to disprove. The Khan test, where it would
>  be sufficient if the defendant realized the victim might not be consenting, seems the most
>  workable test, but perhaps the test that is hardest to fit into the wording of the legislation.
>  Simester argues it is contrary to the wording of the statute:
>
>
>
> >
> > A person who advertently runs the risk of harm is not thereby trying to cause that harm.
> >  Choosing to risk wrongdoing may be morally problematic, but it is not problematic in the
> >  same way: it is not not a direct attack on the rights and interests of others but, rather, a form of
> >  endangerment.
> >
> >
> >
>
>
> 10 Simester (2015).
>
>
>

If victim consented to sex, then attempted rapist regards plan as failed. Why "[o]nly the most sadistic rapist would have that state of mind"?


If the legal representative of a company suggests that their client had no knowledge that they had entered into a contract (even though it bears the signature of their MD) due to what they call a "Genuine Mistaken Belief" Is that a valid argument for a lawyer to make under English Law?

What Constitutes a "Genuine Mistaken Belief" in Law?


let's say someone wishes to loan money to his brother, but has little expectation of repayment and no intention of pursuing the matter if his brother defaults. would the irs consider this a gift, a loan, or a gift loan?

details:
14k$ at 12% interest for a fixed term of 3 years as a strictly oral agreement without any signed document. let's assume there are some emails or text messages discussing the issue, but nothing documenting a final agreement.

can small loans be considered gifts for tax purposes?


According to <https://www.cjr.org/covering_trump/viral-nancy-pelosi-photo-clap.php>, one photographer from The New York Times was given exclusive photography privileges for this federal government event:

>
> ...New York Times White House photographer Doug Mills was appointed pool photographer for the State of the Union—a designation that meant he would be the only photographer allowed on the House floor during the event...
>
>
>

That would incline me to think it should be a government record, but since it was taken by a photographer for a private news organization, I'm left uncertain.

So, to rehash: Is the Pelosi-Trump "f-you clap" State of the Union photo in the public domain? If copyrighted, would modifying it into a form of satire allow one to skirt the copyright restrictions?


The bar in California, where I work, closes at midnight. We start cleaning (bar, kitchen, bathrooms, dishes) before we close, but only if it's not too busy. Once midnight hits, it takes 30 minutes to clear everyone out before we can start reconciling our banks/drawers (finding the mistakes on credit cards, etc.). Some nights cleaning and reconciliation don't finish before 3:00 am.

Fewer than 25 people work at this bar.

Is my boss legally allowed to stop paying us at midnight?

(Side note: we're paid $11 per hour, not the legally required $13.25 per hour.)

Can pay be witheld for hours cleaning up after closing time?


>
> Many industry and governmental security and data protection regulations and laws include specific requirements regarding where data can and must be kept.
>
>
>

This quote is from [clouda.ca](https://www.clouda.ca/data-privacy-canadian-data-residency/) which is a web hosting service among other things. No matter what I search for online I can't seem to find any specific laws or requirements. Most of the time I get redirected to the PIPEDA act which doesn't seem to contain the information I'm looking for.

Are there any laws or regulations regarding hosting Canadian Government websites?


As per the title, is a defense lawyer who knows, for certain, that a client is guilty, (e.g. the client says so, etc.) obligated to try and prove innocence? What *is* a defense lawyer obligated to do in such circumstances?

Is a defense lawyer who knows, for certain, that a client is guilty, obligated to try and prove innocence?


Probably my question is related to one of my previous ones, but it is most likely not the same.
If a foreigner who doesn't live in the US as main residence and therefore doesn't have tax residence there (i.e he's not liable to US income taxes) own a house in NYC, can he receive property taxes bills (or demands of payment or any technicay fitting name) via mail and then pay them via banking, or home banking in case he cannot pay them in the US?

Other means of payment related to property taxes


It's my understanding that Lego System A/S, doing business as The Lego Group, no longer holds a registered design protection or design patents on the Lego interlocking block system itself, hence the proliferation of other systems such as Mega Bloks, Best Lock etc., although they hold some related patents. I believe the patent on the brick design was lost as a result of the decision in [Interlego A.G v Tyco Industries Inc & Ors (Hong Kong) [1988] UKPC 3 (05 May 1988)](http://www.bailii.org/uk/cases/UKPC/1988/3.html), but I might be mistaken - I'm rather confused by
INTERLEGO AG v. Tianjin COKO Toy Co., Ltd 2002 not least because I can't find the full text online. I'm aware that Lego won a case in 2003 against Biltema's Coko products based on the similarity of the packaging materials.

With that in mind, I have a question about the following article describing a company marketing Lego-like products likely to offend a reasonable number of people:
<https://news.vice.com/amp/en_us/article/vbad43/fox-news-is-hawking-a-racist-lego-build-the-wall-knockoff>

It seems likely to me that people might reasonably muddle this with Lego in a way which could damage their reputation. In principle, would Lego have any recourse to prevent the sale of these products? What would they have to demonstrate to stand a chance of winning such a case?

In principle, what actions might be open to Lego in this situation?


CPS were directed by the Crown court to provide the reasoning why the Police did not secure CCTV evidence. The court made an order to provide this to all parties by 28 July. On 30th July CPS requested a variation to the order to extend the time to 11 August. CPS were asked on what grounds they were seeking this variation. Nothing was received from CPS and even their own requested extended deadline has passed now. Case is being heard 21 August

What options are available to the defendant at this point?

CPS Breaching Court Order


I was always sort of told that the constitutionality of a law could not be tested except by a "real" case. In other words, you had to violate a law to get it tested in court, and thereby risk jail time or other criminal penalties.

However, I saw today that somebody in New York seems to have found a way to test the constitutionality of a law without breaking it. [In the news article it says he is the "plaintiff", not a defendant, so apparently there is a way to sue to challenge a law's constitutionality](https://13wham.com/news/state/federal-court-says-ny-ban-on-nunchucks-unconstitutional). Is this something particular to New York, or is it possible to do whatever this guy did in other states, too?

Test law for constitutionality without risking jail?


Are there statutes that prohibit an individual from texting another individual if the receiver request cease and desist with communications?

Cease and desist texting


I'd like to create some original art using images from art history. Let's keep the question widely applicable and say that I might be interested in anything from old paintings and engravings to pen and ink magazine art to early photography, but all of it would be pre-1900s. Many of the images I'm interested in go back much further, all the way to the late 1500s. I live in the United States, but might want to source images from overseas.

Presumably the copyright holders for these images are all long expired, and if I've got things right because they predated the copyright law enacted in the early 1900s these images should all be in the public domain.

A quick google and a perusal of some art books tells me it isn't that simple. Image archives, whether online or in photo book form, generally appear to make a copyright claim on the images they contain. This makes my want to get a generally more robust idea of what I can and can't do with art historical and early photographic images before I go any further.

**My question is, what should I know about copyright law and using images that were created prior to the 1900s?** What is the best legal practice for reusing images like that in original artwork?

How does copyright law apply to reusing images from before the 1900s?


Is it legally possible for a European (non-German) PhD student/research assistant at a German university (who gets paid according to 75% of the TV-L 13 wage) perform side jobs for international clients (for example, through a platform like UpWork)?

If yes, what are the rules regarding tax declarations, release of receipts, VAT, and so on?

Tax law and freelancing as a side-job in Germany


is it legal to have free softwares like VLC and Chrome to be download directly from my website? where the user would click o the icon for VLC for example and get the installer download without having to go the website for it.

Downloading free software directly from my website


The original thread can be found here: [Stack Exchange and Stack Overflow are moving to CC BY-SA 4.0](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/333089/stack-exchange-and-stack-overflow-are-moving-to-cc-by-sa-4-0)

As far as I understand, Stack Exchange can move on to CC BY-SA 4.0 for content published in the future, but they are not allowed to unilaterally change the license of previous publications. Several threads have been created requesting answers regarding this issue from Stack Exchange, however, [the only answer from moderator](https://meta.stackexchange.com/a/333912/619812) did not give any meaningful explanation.

Since this is a legal issue, I would like to ask of Law Stack Exchange community to give expert opinion on this matter.

**Can Stack Exchange change the license for previously published content without the consent of users?**

Is Stack Exchange allowed to unilaterally change previously published content license?


I'd like to ask about all those "X Times" newspapers. like NY Times,LA Times.

Can i create another newspaper that will have word "Times" in it?
(Like "My Hobby Times")

I've checked in Trademark Database and there is about 8k live trademarks for word times and time but most are non related to newspapers.

Is word "Times" in name of Newspapers trademarked or is it generic word?


Say Person A is very drunk and tried to attacked Person B, but Person B dodged, and Person C got hit. Person C had a pre-existing medical condition and died as a result of Person A's action.

If the defendant uses the defense of intoxication and it is believed that the defendant lacks the required *mens rea*, is the doctrine of transferred malice is still relevant? Because the doctrine of transferred malice only applies when the defendant has the required *mens rea*? So when I am writing my analysis I need not mention the doctrine of transferred malice?

And if the defendant uses the defense of intoxication, then he is more likely to be convicted of manslaughter, a basic intent offence in this situation right? As a murder is a specific intent offence and after the case of DPP v Beard (1920) it is unlikely that the defendant will be convicted of murder?

I just want to make sure my analysis is correct.

Transfer malice and intoxication defense?


I'm familiar with the so-called ethics/law divide, where some acts may be lawful but unethical and other acts ethical but unlawful. This question is not about this.

I'm also familiar with professional Codes of Ethics that gain "legal" force by virtue of contract law and/or incorporation into professional regulatory statutes, but generally only apply to certified or licensed professionals (e.g. non-physicians do not incur liability by behaving in ways that are inconsistent with contemporary medical ethics but are otherwise lawful). This question is not about this either.

Has US law ever imposed a *general* duty on the general public to behave ethically? Restated, has a court ever imposed liability on a private citizen (holding no professional licensure or certification, holding no public office, etc.) for behavior that did not violate any specific provision of criminal or civil law, but rather transgressed either normative community ethics or the court's view as to what such ethics *ought* to be?

I used to think that it would be absurd for there to be "purely ethical" liability, but I found [this](https://www.mcrazlaw.com/legal-consequences-of-unethical-behavior/) article by an attorney in Arizona, who seems to be primarily talking about professional ethics (not general citizen ethics), but states that a court could theoretically punish on the basis of transgressing an ethical rule that has broad community acceptance but that had not been formally accepted by or imposed on the defendant by specific legal process.

If asking about the United States in general is too broad, we can limit it to the state of New York.

Has US law ever imposed liability for purely unethical behavior, unconnected to professional Codes of Ethics?


Source: p 14 Bottom - 15, [*JC Smith's The Law of Contract*](https://www.amazon.co.uk/gp/product/0414041801/ref=pd_sbs_14_t_1?ie=UTF8&psc=1&refRID=8AWSERSMKG5WTHNPGVKS) (2016) by [Paul S. Davies](https://www.law.ox.ac.uk/people/paul%C2%A0s-davies).

>
>   All these propositions are illustrated by *Smith v Hughes*9 [this footnote states: '(1871) LR 6 QB 597.). The claimant sued the defendant on a contract for the sale of a specific parcel of oats. The defendant said that he had
>  contracted for old oats. However, the claimant provided oats which were new and useless to the defendant. The defendant consequently refused to pay the contract price. The verdict reached by a jury was in favour of the defendant. The case is somewhat unsatisfactory and
>  difficult because there were unresolved questions of fact, so it is necessary to consider the
>  case on three hypotheses.
>
>
> (a) *The word 'old' was used in the discussion leading to the oral contract of sale.* If this was
>  the case, then the jury's verdict was right because it was a contract for the sale of old
>  oats. The seller could not perform it by delivering new oats.
>
>
> (b) *The word 'old' was not used but the seller knew that the buyer believed that the oats were
>  in fact old.* If that was the case, the verdict was wrong. So long as he did nothing to induce or encourage it,10 the law allowed the seller to take advantage of the buyer's mis
>  take of fact. 'Ihe passive acquiescence of the seller in the self-deception of the buyer,'
>  said Cockburn CJ, did not 'entitle the latter to avoid the contract'. The question was
>  not 'what a man of scrupulous morality or nice honour would do under such circum-
>  stances'. Ihis would be a practical application of the important principle of English law
>  known by the Latin words ***caveat emptor***—roughly translated as 'buyer beware' or 'let
>  the buyer look out for himself'.
>
>
> (c) *The word 'old' was not used but the seller knew that the buyer believed that the seller was
>  contracting that the oats were old.* In that case, the verdict was right.
>
>
> The difference between (b) and (c) is that in (c) the seller knows that the buyer is making a
>  mistake as to the terms of the contract, not merely a mistake as to fact or motive. The seller
>  cannot then enforce the contract in a sense different from that which he knew the buyer
>  intended at the time of contracting.
>
>
>

I understand the difference between (b) and (c) per the last paragraph above, but how is (b) realistic? If a competent buyer needs some feature of a product, then why would a buyer fail to write this feature as a term in contract, much less declare or divulge it to the seller even once in their communication? In this case, why would Hughes keep private his need for old oats?

How is it realistic that a buyer would fail to communicate some feature of a product needed by the buyer, to a seller?


In Canada, the tort of civil unlawful conspiracy is laid out as follows:

1. Two or more people acted in concert, by agreement, or with a common
design or intention;
2. The co-conspirators engaged in conduct that was unlawful, which can include the breach of a statute, the violation of a contract, or
the carrying out of an underlying tort, such as misrepresentation or
fraud;
3. The conduct was directed towards the plaintiff;
 Given the circumstances, the defendants should have known that injury was likely to result; and
4. Injury or harm did result.

In case of simple motive or unlawful conspiracy, does it matter if the named individuals represent one organization? That is to say, if two or more agents of the same organization acted in cooperation to fulfill the latter 3 points, would this fulfill the first requirement?

Also, in the event that the individuals named in the conspiracy all acted as agents for the organization they all represent and on its behalf, would the the organization be guilty (assuming these points are all proven) of unlawful conspiracy, or just the named individuals, or both? Let's assume that the list of individuals involved spans the entire hierarchy of the organization, except maybe the board itself.

Tort of civil conspiracy


My business partner and I recently purchased a small Ltd company. Each of us holds 50% shares each. No changes were made and we simply purchased the business as it is, simply the ownership changed.
We have two third party service providers and we want to cancel their services because it’s too costly for us to continue with them, however we cannot cancel this because the previous owner has signed both contracts to run until 2022, and prior to purchasing the business we questioned the previous owner on this and they said we can cancel the contracts once the ownership changes. But this is not the case and the previous owner lied to us and did not disclosed any copies of the contact or documents on this. Is there a way to get the contracts cancelled? We have requested a copy of the contract and it does say it is a binding contract until the end of the term. Are there any laws or general regulations which we can use if the ownerships changes in a company the new owners can cancel the contracts? Or should anything similar to this should be included generally in service contracts?

Cancelling the 3rd party service contracts


I would like know if it is allowed creating a package with a KVM virtual machine + Ubuntu as OS and sell this package. Is there any restriction due to copyright or fees to pay?

I would not modify anything on the KVM or Ubuntu, just add my scripts on Ubuntu for the customers.

KVM's parts are licensed under various GNU licenses:

* KVM kernel module: GPL v2
* KVM user module: LGPL v2
* QEMU virtual CPU core library (libqemu.a) and QEMU PC system emulator: LGPL
* Linux user mode QEMU emulator: GPL
* BIOS files (bios.bin, vgabios.bin and vgabios-cirrus.bin): LGPL v2 or later

Any idea?
Thanks for your feedback!

Is it allowed selling a kvm virtual machine with Ubuntu? what about copyright?


I just got a contract of employment for a new job and it has a clause that starts like this:

>
> all Intellectual Property generated by you during your employment
>  will be owned by the Group.
>
>
>

When it says "during your employment" does that mean during working hours or everything I do including evenings and weekends?

As currently worded the rest of the clause basically says "we own everything you make". Even Facebook posts and this question would belong to the group.

I sometimes work on open source project, I write for an RPG publisher, I'm half way through writing a novel. All outside work time.

Would this clause hit those sort of activities?

In the UK what does "during your employment" mean


I have been the sole coder on a project for 4 years. I have a partner (not legally, yet but about to go through the process.) Right now, he owns 100% of the company and domain. Before the project release, I am to get 65% and he 35%. How can I secure my interest through copyright? What control does he have over my source code if I have it copyrighted? What process do I need to do to protect my interest and keep everyone playing fair? The completed code is not posted on his server yet.

Do I have copyright on my code if someone else owns the LLC and the domain?


Ex employer has a server with their website and archive on it. I bought that server and have receipts. Employer claims they need time to wipe their info from my server. It's been a month already, and employer is still asking for more time. How should I go about getting the server back? USA, DC.

How long can someone keep my server?


what is the protection requirement of Title VII of 1991 the plaintiff must follow to successfully file an action?
I already included the time limit .

Title VII of 1991


Is there a comprehensive list of licenses freely available on the web? It should include both copyleft and copyright licenses.

A link to the webpage and description would be very helpful.

Is there a comprehensive list of licenses on the web?


Suppose one sells a car (California registered) to a person (suspected after the fact to be an illegal immigrant) who does not complete title-transfer. Suppose that the seller completes and submits the "Notice of Transfer and Release of Liability" <https://www.dmv.ca.gov/portal/dmv/detail/online/nrl/welcome> . Then, what risks does the seller incur (if any)?

PS: The websites <https://www.dmv.ca.gov/portal/dmv/detail/online/nrl/welcome> and <https://www.dmv.ca.gov/portal/dmv/detail/online/nrl/nrlfaq> say:
"Reporting the sale or transfer of a vehicle or vessel to the DMV does not constitute a transfer of ownership. The record is not permanently transferred out of your name until the DMV receives a completed application for transfer of ownership and payment of appropriate fees from the new owner." and "NOTE: In the case of a suit or complaint, the court is responsible for determining if you have complied with the law and are exempt from civil and/or criminal liability." and "NOTE: If any of this information is missing, the department may be unable to update the vehicle record and/or these conditions may disqualify your liability exemption."

Liability from selling car if buyer does not complete title transfer : California


I want to register a company (small game studio), but in my country (and in the others too, I suppose) does exist a company with the same name, but their scope of work is completely different from game development (e.g. web design). So the question is - should a company name be unique worldwide, if it has clients all around the world (which happens if you distribute your product digitally) or there is a distinction between same named companies with different business direction?

The country is Ukraine, but since the studio will distribute a digital product (well, games) all over the world then I assume, that its name should be unique worldwide?

May I register a company with already existing name, but different business direction? (Worldwide)