On the [official Super Smash Bros. Ultimate website](https://www.smashbros.com/en_GB/index.html), there is a part in the footer that lists all the owners for the different characters that appear in the game. Capcom has Mega Man, Ryu and Ken represented in the game, but Capcom is listed twice in that footer: once as "CAPCOM CO., LTD." and once as "CAPCOM U.S.A., INC.".

What's the reason behind this? Are the characters owned by different branches of Capcom? The order in which the owners are listed matches when their character first appeared in the series. Mega Man appeared first in the base game of Super Smash Bros. 4 3DS/Wii U, with Ryu being added later as DLC, after Pac-Man (BANDAI NAMCO Entertainment Inc.) and after Shulk (MONOLITHSOFT). So if I read this correctly, the Mega Man franchise is owned by CAPCOM CO., LTD, while Street Fighter is owned by CAPCOM U.S.A., INC. ... Does that make sense?

Why is Capcom listed twice here?


One of our customers has defaulted on the contract terms and owes us money.
They are saying that our contract is invalid as there is a slight mistake in our company name on the contract.
The contract clearly states our full company name but has UK in it, which is actually not in our registered name.
The contract clearly states the corporation number and the registered address, both of which are fully correct.
Does the customer have grounds to invalidate our contract?

We have accidentally made a mistake in our company name on a contract does this make it invalid


My boss has moved me onto the payroll for one of his other companies and I am trying to find out if I need a new employment contract.

I was employed for a new start-up of his which did not work out and he has since moved me to the payroll for one of his other companies that I had been doing some work for and am now full time.

I am in the process of looking for a new flat and have been told I may need to provide a copy of my employment contract so I am trying to pre-empt and get documents together, however, my original contract does not match my current payslips.

Secondly, if I do require a new contract. My original contract has the following clause - should I ensure that this clause states that my previous employment counts towards this employment?

>
> 1.2. No employment with a previous employer counts as part of your period of continuous employment with the Company.
>
>
>

My employer moved me onto a new payroll. Do I need a new employment contract?


As a service provider, I've been requested to sign an End-User licence agreement for the user to use my service. The contracts looks correct except that part that I'm not sure:

---

>
> INSURANCE: You will, at your own cost and expense, obtain
>  and maintain in full force and effect, with financially sound and
>  reputable insurers having A.M. Best ratings of at least A- (VII) or
>  better, insurance necessary to cover Your obligations under this
>  Agreement, including coverage for any infringement claims
>  related to the Software or use thereof. For all coverages
>  maintained by You, the policy territory must satisfy the
>  jurisdictions where this Agreement is governed. Immediately upon
>  [REDACTED]’s request, You will supply a Certificate of Insurance
>  evidencing the policies You maintain, the limits maintained for
>  each coverage, and applicable insurance company(ies).
>
>
>

---

I have some insurance but I don't think it matches the one requested here. Moreover, this one mentions a "best ratings of at least A- (VII) or better" which I don't know what it is. Living outside of the US (this client is US), I'm not sure I can comply with this line.

What do I need to do?

Thank you.

End-user licence agreement: About insurrance


Is it legal to use or reference a part of a story / series like saying, "Studs are super-saiyan dykes"?

Would the studio that owns DBZ have a way to sue for using "super-saiyan" by claiming it was defamation, diluting their brand, etc., since it is a special term which many anime fans would recognized from the franchise?

Using a fictional archetypes in speech or writing


Referencing [Internal Revenue Bulletin 2013-3 (January 14, 2013)](https://www.irs.gov/irb/2013-03_IRB/ar09.html) 5(1)(a) specifically, there's some pretty confusing language here that I can't figure out what it means.

>
> If we obtain your signature on this form by conditioning our tax
>  return preparation services on your consent, your consent will not be
>  valid.
>
>
>

I encountered this while doing my free H&R tax return, and didn't want to agree to it without understanding what it's asking. From the context I assume it means that they're asking for consent to disclose information about my tax return, but that's really not clear.

What does "by conditioning our tax return preparation services" mean?


Would it be legal for me to sell a service that scrapes and filters the freely accessible data from sites and also provides a link back to them?

I essentially want to create a scraper that collects data from multiple sites (on demand from the user) like an aggregator but sell the service that allows the user to filter certain terms out of the data titles.

My app would scrape on request, filter, then return the results.
The data would touch my server for filtering but wouldn't be stored.

e.g. Lists of recipes from something like recipe.com, serious eats, etc but the user wants to find all recipes from every site available on the service that have marmalade in the title, but exclude all that say lemon, pineapple, and orange.

If they want to know more details about the data or the recipe, they'll have to follow the link to the site.

U.S. Technology - Is it legal to scrape freely accessible data then charge to be able to filter that data?


Some time ago, I was served a frivolous, extortionary lawsuit. The complaint included a number of false claims. I went to a lawyer, who told me that while I could fight this and probably win, my best option was just to pay them some money and move on with my life. I was furious, naturally, and insisted in multiple conversations with my lawyer that these guys were fraudsters, but my lawyer (who didn't seem to believe me) kept telling me "Nah, this is in good faith, just pay up and settle and move on." So I did. Some time later, I hear that these people who sued me are in trouble for, you guessed it, filing a bunch of baseless and frivolous lawsuits in order to extort things from people. So now this is out in the open. Meanwhile, I'm still out over $20,000, following my attorneys advice.

I would like to know if it is, in general, possible to throw out a settlement agreement in the situation that the plaintiff has since demonstrated a consistent pattern of abusing the court system. There's a non-disparagement part that I would like lifted, and then there's all the money I lost that I would like back.

More specifically, if I were to pursue this, what sort of lawyer should I talk to? I apparently picked the wrong lawyer last time, and I'm not interested in contacting the attorney who negotiated this horrible deal for me, ignoring a number of red flags.

Can I invalidate a settlement agreement if the plaintiff has since demonstrated a pattern of frivolous lawsuits?


My ex sent me a check for part of health insurance for children. After it did not come, over 2 weeks, I reached out and told him I had not received the check. He went to the post office, the mail clerks let him go through my mail and take a picture of the envelop that came from him. It was conveniently on top of the pile, so he obviously went through it. Sent it to me and told me it was at the post office. Number 1, why was that not put in my box
Number 2 - why is anyone going through my mail
Number 3 - letting him take a photo? That's not right.

Photographing my mail and giving to my ex


What is the difference of meaning of the term "including but, not limited to" in the strict vs the liberal interpretation of the term?

Strict Construction vs. Liberal Construction


Could an EU company open a subsidiary company outside of the EU and legally sell its services through it to citizens living in the EU?

Can EU companies legally circumvent charging VAT by using a foreign subsidiary?


In scientific articles and textbooks I've found the following images (seen at end of this post). These images were created by different authors at different times. The images all describe the same thing/process, the experimental setup one would use to flow a fluid through a cylinder of rock. In each instance where these images (figures) were given the author gave no citation/credit to any of the other authors who gave the similar images in the years prior. For this post's question, let us assume that all of these images are copyrighted and that none of the authors received express permission from the copyright owner of the images that precedes theirs. Here are the questions I would like addressed directly:

1. What are the objective and/or subjective rules for when an image is considered an outright recreation of another image (and therefore subject to copyright law)? (Citations of these rules would be appreciated)
2. And per these rules (from question 1), which of the images given below are subject to copyright violation since they are outright recreations? For example, would Figure 4 be an outright recreation of Figure 2, and why?
3. What figures, if any, are not outright recreations of the others, and why?

[![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/I2dC8.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/I2dC8.png)

When is an image considered a recreation of another image?


Since reading the news story about Disney and Lucasfilm granting a terminally ill Star Wars fan's wish to see the New Star Wars movie before he was taken by cancer (Good guys Disney and Lucasfilm!); I have been curious as to what the legal situation would have been surrounding watching such a closely guarded and long-awaited storyline before general release. Would he be contractually (or otherwise) obliged to keep all plotpoints to himself? Would the fact that he was terminally ill and not a film critic mean that this legal situation would differ from that which binds critics who see films before general release (assuming that critics are bound in any way)?

I must clarify I do not have a great knowledge of law so I'm not looking for fine detail specifics, but a layman explanation would be very interesting.

Would the terminally ill Star Wars fan who was granted an early viewing of 'The Force Awakens' have been legally bound to keep the plot a secret?


I made an agreement with a friend to share a house while visiting the Massachusetts with said friend.
Now we are both back in the UK and he is refusing to pay. Does the debt exist in a country or can an English court order him to pay?

The agreement was made while we were both in Massachusetts.

Can I seek English court action against a debt that was created in the US?


I am looking for some advice on copyright infringement.
We are an independent media run by volunteers and have not income, assets or offices at all. Therefore the staff varies. One of the volunteer download a photo from a blog that it seemed to be free use (the photo has been published hundreds of times in blogs that doesn’t ask for copyright) and we published the photo thinking it was OK.

But weeks ago a company called Copytrack emailed us and asked for money for the copyright infringement. So, I do some research, and found that indeed the use of the photo needed a license but when it was downloaded by the volunteer it was from a blog. So, it was a real mistake, but also an unintentional copyright infringement. So I remove the pic and article in full and I sent an email apologising for the mistake and even I offer to do an interview to the photographer or something similar, as we don’t have money.

They replied in identical terms they told @user1889580 “you have infringed on our client's image, pay us right away to avoid legal issues”, etc.

So, I reply with a more comprehensive letter, apologising again, explaining that we don’t’ receive money, plus we never make any profit from the work we published. Something easy to prove and in fact I invited them to check in internet, were you find that we don’t receive more than 30 pounds a year. So, I said I would paid something, from my own pocket.

They haven’t reply yet, but I have been doing a research and talking to colleagues and press associations. And there is a consensus: Copyrigth is a legal company but doesn’t act ethically, they act as scam and there are many complains. Plus I found this: “In view of German copyright law and the respective jurisdiction of the German courts, the amount that Copytrack claims is far too high”.

The amounts they usually charge are absurd. For instance, if a photo cost 30 Euros or 100 Euros, Copytrack asks for 500, 600, 1000 euros and more. We think this is because they don’t charge for their services to their clients, so the way to get their fees is by doing this.

I am are aware copyright infringement is something serious and we respect other people’s work, but I want all this managed in a fair, ethical and reasonable manner from both sides.

I have been asking for advice and my colleagues say, I must ignore it. But like @user1889580 , I am worried. I am ready to pay, but to be honest the blog doesn’t have money and me either, so I I have asked for a symbolic fee or for the minimum amount.

I am still checking and doing some research but I would appreciate your advice.

How to negotiate a payment for copyright infringement?


I have a problem with a cyber stalker whose sole intention is to ruin me personally and professionally. How can one protect themselves legally?

Internet Cyber stalking for sabotage


Let's say I work as a social worker (taxes through PAYE) and am on (statutory) maternity leave.

Let's say a local contact centre are looking for people to work there, on a freelance basis.

Am I allowed to work for them and continue to get statutory pay through my permanent social work contract?

Can someone on maternity leave in the UK earn money by taking freelance work?


Im a developer and almost finished an app. Im at a crossroad though and don't want to get sued.

Is it legal to do the following.

1) Crawl a brands Instagram page like <https://www.instagram.com/citybeachaustralia/> and crate a profile on my app like this:

[![enter image description here][1]][1]

Is it legal to crawl a brands Instagram image and products and tag their products onto their images?


I'm running a small U.S. business. Some users make profit by referring customers to purchase services from me. I've been told that I have to send Form 1099 both to users who make such profits from me (Affiliate Users) and to the IRS. However, I have some questions regarding that form:

1. Am I required to send Form 1099 to non-US citizens who are not even residing in the US? Since they're not required to file US taxes, do I still have to send the form to them?
2. Is it fine to expose my TIN (taxpayer identification number) to individuals or companies who I send the form to them. Since the form requires me to write my TIN/EIN, what would be the risks of this and what precautions should be taken to avoid inappropriate/illegal use?
3. I send payments via PayPal and wire transfer. Should I send form 1099-MISC or 1099-K?

Dealing with IRS Form 1099


There's a fraud conducting business in my state and I want to create a website that warns others of his fraudulent practices.

On the website, I would like to place a photo of this individual. The photo belongs to me. I was wondering whether there are any limitations on using photos of private individuals on websites.

Can I use a photo of a person on my website about their fraudulent practices?


I live in a community property state. I would like to buy a business that is not in a community property state. Can I file for divorce and buy the business and my spouse have no claim to it. Or do I have to wait until the divorce is final to buy the business?

Buying a business living in a community property state


First situation:

Out of curiosity about what the living room in a house looks like, you notice that while the inhabitants are not home a door is unlocked, so you enter and look at the living room and then leave.

If I understand correctly, that is tresspassing, which is a misdemeanor.

Second situation:

Same as above, but instead of curiosity about what the living room looks like, your purpose is to smash a flower pot that you happen to know is in the living room.

If I understand correctly, when this kind of trespass is for the purpose of committing some additional crime besides only trespass, then it's burglary, which is a felony.

Third situation:

Like the first situation above: your only motive is to see what the living room looks like. But while there, on a sudden whim, you decide to smash a flower pot that you see in the living room.

This time the trespass was not for the purpose of committing the additional crime, but still the additional crime happened and would not have been possible without the trespass.

Is it burglary then?

The nature of burglary


According to Wikipedia, [this photo](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Scarecrow_(Oz)#/media/File:The_Wizard_of_Oz_Ray_Bolger_1939.jpg) of the Wizard of Oz' famous scarecrow is in the public domain.

Suppose I used the scarecrow as a symbol of farmers in a book, with the Tin Man serving as a symbol of workers. I might use public domain images of each, or I might hire an artist to draw line-art images or cartoons.

On a page where I discuss the decline of agriculture, I might feature a Scarecrow photo or icon as a symbol of farmers. Similarly, an article about labor violence might feature a Tin Man icon.

Is it possible that such usage could be deemed illegal? For example, the photos or derivative images might be legal, but whoever owns the right to the movie *The Wizard of Oz* might claim I have no right to use its characters as symbols, mascots, etc.

Using the Wizard of Oz' Scarecrow as a symbol


California Penal Code Section 800 states "Except as provided in Section 799, prosecution for an offense punishable by imprisonment in the state prison for eight years or more or by imprisonment pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 1170 for eight years or more shall be commenced within six years after commission of the offense."

Does that mean that to achieve a six year SOL, a prosecutor could use several offenses that total up to a prison term of eight years or more?

California Penal Code, Section 800 Statute of Limitations


I am about to send a package to a shop. I talked to them through Instagram and they have sent me pictures showing they are really that shop. Also my friend just visited the shop a few days ago.

We agreed to a price and they told me the shop's address which is really the one from the shop. They also have a webpage.

But I have no names and I am unsure what they can or have to do after they receive the package.

Does an agreement in a chat count as a valid contract?

What steps could I take if they don't send the money?

What are the legal steps I can take if buyer doesn't pay me for an item?


I want to use some of the information from one website, but that website has a copyright. The source of the information is under Open Government License"

I have a few questions regarding the licence
"Life in the United Kingdom: A Guide for New Residents (ISBN 978-0-11-341340-9)"

**That website has a policy:**

"All chapters from the study materials are crown copyright and have been reproduced from the government publication Life in the United Kingdom: A Guide for New Residents (ISBN 978-0-11-341340-9). This material has been reproduced with the permission of The National Archives under the Open Government License."

Open government licence
<http://www.nationalarchives.gov.uk/doc/open-government-licence/version/3/>

Does it mean that all the information that has been "reproduced" from books follow their copyright?

Can you copyright reproduced information by open government licence?

I just want to know can I use the information from that website and just mention Open Government License and "Life in the United Kingdom: A Guide for New Residents (ISBN 978-0-11-341340-9)"'

Thank you very much for the information.


I found this on [Amazon TOS](http://www.amazon.com/gp/help/customer/display.html/?nodeId=508088):

>
> ... You may not incorporate any portion of the Amazon Software into your own programs or compile any portion of it in combination with your own programs ..
>
>
>

Now I'm wondering [what this company is doing](http://www.indix.com/usecases/enrich/) or Google/Bing as well. There are plenty of companies who scrape data from Amazon, eBay, Etsy or news websites, Stack Overflow, etc. and do something with it (either republish or analyse or similar).

So in the case of Amazon TOS: Would indix.com be doing something legal if they put the products data into their database? How about Google?

What am I allowed to do according to Amazon TOS?


Suppose a person is a citizen of country A, and he/she traveled to the US for a business trip visiting say, a mining plant. That person, whether or not he/she was told it was forbidden or not, takes 5 or so photos of the plant interior. The plant does not allow such photos.

These photos should not be considered as trade secrets, more just confidential information, however either way it was not an appropriate act.

Would this conduct be able to be prosecuted under 18 USC 1832? Keep in mind that the person is a citizen of a different country, A, where trade secrets are not of a criminal offense.

The 1832 section states that in order to be prosecuted, you must have committed something in the US, but it was only a few photos of the interior that doesn't exactly constitute as trade secrets.

Second, let's say this person were to communicate with fellow colleagues while employed, who are based in the US, from Canada, asking for confidential/trade secret information, would this conduct be fair to prosecute under 1832? Bear in mind that the offender himself/herself is physically located in country A.

Thanks for your opinions,

Theft of Trade Secret Prosecution


I was working at a an old Mansion turned into a hotel and I had the keys for it so one night I went in after hours without the owners permission and brought some friends. We caused absolutely no damages. My boss found out and filed a police report but by the time he told me about it he said he had taken it back. That happened in August. In October I quit and when I tried to get my paycheck he told me I had an arrest warrant that he thought he took care of but apparently not. Every conversation I tried to have about getting my check he turned into my arrest warrant. Apparently he’s fixed it now and I no longer have an arrest warrant but now he’s saying I owe him $225 for the lawyers. The hours he owes me are 22 hours and I got paid 10$ an hour. I called him asking to get paid and he threatened to just put the arrest warrant back on because I supposedly owe him. I was considering going to the department of labor but I don’t know. If I do can he just put the arrest warrant back on me? If he does will I really go to jail for that? Should I just let it go? He’s also very involved with politicians here in New Orleans so he’s got friends in high places. I just don’t know the laws that could help or hurt me.

My employer filed a report against me and refuses to pay me


This is in California I read another one that said California is an outlier. and to be clear, my intent is NOT to pursue legal action I'm merely trying to establish there was a contract and there was a breach of contract more for my own interest than anything.

We were planning on moving from one city to another and as part of that were going to rent a 1 bedroom apartment for 2 people. Family members contacted us and indicated they were coming home to the city we were moving to, had nowhere to come home to, and wondered if they could live with us when they got home. We discussed it several times by facetime and Facebook messenger. It was agreed that instead of an apartment we would rent a house so that when they got home, there was room for them. We'd all live in the house together, they'd start paying rent as soon as they got settled, found jobs etc, and then at some point in the future, probably after the lease expired, we'd go our separate ways.

We started renting the house in Sep 2017, they got delayed and didn't get home until Jan. We were perfectly fine with that we actually moved early for our own reasons. They lived with us for 2 months, didn't pay a penny of rent, and you guessed it they bailed on us, with no notice, and got their own apartment. While I assume the reason they left is irrelevant, we don't know, they didn't give us a reason, in fact there has been no communication in the 2 months since they left. 2 weeks prior to them leaving they asked me to give them a list of the costs of the house as they were about to start working(one of them) and be able to contribute and they wanted to get an idea what it cost. So I typed out on a computer the numbers and gave it to them. That's the only written confirmation beyond the messages on FB messenger, of an agreement. The only other "proof" that I can come up with is that they did change of address forms and still have mail coming to the house which proves they fully intended to move in and live there.

Again I have no intent of actually filing, they're family and I'm chalking it up to a lesson learned(for us, clearly not them) but my take is there was a clear contract, they breached it, and under the law they're legally bound to be paying us "part" of the rent, and even though they left, they continue to be bound to pay until the lease expires, in Sept 2018.

Am I correct or incorrect that there was a contract and it was breached?

Question about rent and whether this is a contract


[*O'Sullivan & Hilliard's The Law of Contract* (Core Texts Series)](https://www.amazon.co.uk/OSullivan-Hilliards-Law-Contract-Janet/dp/0198807821/ref=dp_ob_title_bk) (2018 8 ed). p. 83

>
> 4.29 A similar issue arose in a slightly diﬀerent way in *Shaker v Vistajet Group Holding SA*
>  (2012). There, the claimant paid a deposit in respect of the purchase of an aircraft from
>  the defendant under the terms of a letter agreed by the two parties. The letter expressly
>  provided that the claimant agreed to proceed in good faith and to use reasonable endeavours to agree the formal sale contract and associated documents. The formal contract
>  could not be agreed, so the claimant sought repayment of the deposit, but the defendant
>  refused, contending that the claimant had not complied with its **[1.]** good faith and **[2.]** reasonable endeavour obligations. Teare J accepted that the intention of the agreement was that
>  the deposit could only be recovered if these obligations had been complied with, but
>  held that the obligations were unenforceable because of the impossibility of ‘polic[ing]’ them, that is, of working out whether they had been breached or not. It distinguished
>
>
>

p. 84

>
> the *Petromec* decision on the basis that there were objective criteria available in that
>  case to assist the court in determining whether the obligation had been breached. It is
>  respectfully suggested that Teare J may have been too ready to find that the obligations
>  were unenforceable, as **this [unenforceability of reasonable endeavour obligations]** would have allowed the claimant to recover its deposit even if
>  it had acted in bad faith\*\* (which on the facts it did not). There are many types of conduct
>  that everyone would agree constitute bad faith, so if the conduct fell into this category,
>  there would be no practical impediment to the court policing the obligation.
>
>
>

As the contract had the two obligations that I numbered on p. 43, I don't understand the emboldened sentence.

If the claimant acted in bad faith, then wouldn't it breach [1.]? If it did, then why would the unenforceability of reasonable endeavour obligations "have allowed the claimant to recover its deposit"?

Why'd a claimant be allowed to recover deposit if it acts in bad faith, when a contract obligated good faith and reasonable endeavour?


I am working on an app and want to name it Vidmark. Apparently, this name is the name of a long-defunct company (since 2001). Could I get into trouble using this name?

Can I name my app using the name of a long defunct company?


We just awarded a new janitorial services contract and sent a termination letter to the old contractor. The old contractor produces a near 10 year old agreement/contract signed in 2009 with an automatic renewal provision signed by a previous HOA director that only had the authority to obligate the the Association for one year at a time (2009-2010). Our bylaws limit our authority to obligate these type of contracts to one year. We did not know the contract even existed. The contract value is $2,100 per month. We cover the board with professional liability insurance. Enforceable? Professional Liability Coverage Claim?

Is Automatic renewal of Custodial Contract signed 10 years ago by board member that only had one year authority enforceable?


I'm a game developer. Lately, I've been wanting to work on an open-world RPG game, but since I have a very small team I've been constantly looking out for the maximum help I can get for such a big project.

I decided to take inspiration for the creatures in my game from 2D illustrations of creatures in other games so that I can get a headstart. Would it be a copyright infringement of any kind if I use a copyrighted 2D illustration to make a 3D model that resembles the illustration?

Copyright on 2D images


Suppose there is a physics problem solving website where users post questions and answers.

Users of low reputation on the site require their posts to be reviewed by a moderator before the posts appear on the live site.

There is potential that a new user could post inappropriate images or content (e.g. 18+ material) that requires a moderator to review (and reject) before the post goes to the live site.

Given the possibility of viewing this content, would moderators need to be 18 years or older, or could younger moderators consent to moderate the site with the understanding they may at times come across age inappropriate material?

Age Limit for Site Moderator


There are two types of [duress](https://legal-dictionary.thefreedictionary.com/duress). Those that result from threat of physical harm, can "void" a contract, and those from non-phsyical threats make a contract "voidable."

What is the difference between the two? Does "void" in the first case mean "automatic" void, and "voidable" in the second case mean that you have to take legal steps to enforce it?

What's the difference between "void" and "voidable" as it relates to duress?


From the footer on all SE sites, user contributions are licensed as CC BY-SA 3.0:

>
> site design / logo © 2018 Stack Exchange Inc; user contributions licensed under [cc by-sa 3.0](https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/) with [attribution required](https://stackoverflow.blog/2009/06/25/attribution-required/).
>
>
>

Whilst licensing it as CC BY-SA 3.0 I sometimes want to license my code as MIT, GPL or any other license. This would allow users to take the code from one of my posts under a license which isn't CC BY-SA and have more freedom with the code.

And so my question is how could you dual license code in a code block?

---

I think something like the following would work, but I'm not sure if it's ok:

>
> The following codeblock is licensed under [CC BY-SA 3.0](https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/) and [GPLv2](https://www.gnu.org/licenses/old-licenses/gpl-2.0.en.html)
>
>
>
> ```
> print("Hello World")
>
> ```
>
>

How to dual licencing code on SE


I am from India and I have made some computer information based videos.
I am going to sell them soon. Well, my problem is I have put a copyright notice while making the production of the videos.

Like a label at the footer of the entire video. Here's an example:

>
> © 2016 Produced By *MY NAME*, All Rights Reserved
>
>
>

Well, once I complete the video, I am going to to submit it for copyright.

Is that OK to put copyright notice before submitting for copyright or will there be an issue?

Should I put Copyright Notice on my content before I submit for copyright?


Suppose a customer in the UK books multiple flights with a Canadian airline via telephone.

Say the flights include:
 - Flights from the UK to Canada
 - Flights from the USA to Canada
 - Flights from Canada to the UK

On the telephone, the customer gives the details of the flights and receives a *single* quote (in CAD) for all the flights combined. The customer then pays using a debit card over the telephone. Later that day the customer receives an email confirming all the flight bookings. The booking information includes seat numbers.

6 weeks later, an auditor at the Canadian airline calls the customer and says that the price paid was incorrect. The auditor says that there was a mistake and one leg was not included in the quoted price. The auditor says that despite the confirmation email the customer will not be able to travel on that leg unless the additional amount is paid.

Are the actions of the Canadian airline legal? What action should the customer take?

Is it legal for a Canadian airline to alter the price of a multi-flight booking after the initial payment and confirmation?


Machine learning research into facial recognition and processing (e.g. emotion detection) often makes use of datasets containing large numbers of facial images. These are usually anonymised, so that the only other information contained is the file name(s) - such as `00001.jpg`. How does GDPR affect the storage, processing, and sharing of such data?

For the sake of argument and to gain clarification of position, I would like to leave aside the provisions within GDPR that provide for processing data as scientific research. I am also working under the assumption that there is no other meta-data, such as a spreadsheet that links image filenames to the person depicted.

GDPR makes clear ([Recital 26](https://gdpr-info.eu/recitals/no-26/)) that anonymous data is not covered by the regulations:

>
> “… The principles of data protection should [therefore] not apply to
>  anonymous information, namely information which does not relate to an
>  identified or identifiable natural person or to personal data rendered
>  anonymous in such a manner that the data subject is not or no longer
>  identifiable.”
>
>
>

Data protection considerations would be significantly reduced if these datasets were considered out of scope of GDPR. Is it possible, however, for a face image in isolation to be considered truly anonymised? It would always be feasible to link it to a real person, because most people are capable of recognising faces. With the image, and the person standing in a crowd, it is likely that the average viewer could identify the depicted person.

GDPR: are faces always considered identifiable information?


I would like to find out how it is with a right to solicitor after arrest and in custody? I demanded a lawyer but I was not allowed to meet him personally and actions were continued and I was forced to take part in proceedings without the presence of a lawyer. During a short phone conversation the lawyer said that he could not talk to me because the conversation was recorded and he was waiting for information when he could meet me in private.

How it is with a right to solicitor after arrest and in custody?


The American composer Leo Sowerby died on July 7, 1968. At first there were three ways of contacting his heirs: 1. via the Sowerby Foundation, run by his friend Francis Crociata. They had a newsletter, a website, etc. But Mr. Crociata has since passed away, the website has disappeared, and anything sent to their old address bounces back. 2. His executor was Ronald Stalford who though not a relative himself, knew hot to contact the heirs. Mr. Stalford has since passed away and I have been unable to find out who took his place as executor. 3. The Washington National Cathedral, where Dr. Sowerby worked for the last several years of his life, used to know how to contact the heirs, but has lost touch with them.

I want to copy a handwritten manuscript on file at the Library of Congress. Without permission from the copyright owner, they'll let me look at it, but that's it, and I need a copy for some research I'm doing.

Are there any provisions for copying if, following reasonable diligence, the copyright owner can't be found?

How can I find the copyright owner?


Suppose, I have purchased a DVD of movie and my PC's DVD drive has problem. Is it legal to copy content the DVD of movie to a flash memory and then use it on my PC?

Is it legal to store copyrighted content on other mediums for personal use?


Windows 10 (pro, enterprise, any) that supposedly have never been activated so far are (re) sold online for 5$-20$. I assume that those are key that have initially been given out by microsoft in volumes or in countries with lower pricing (as the price is around 200$ when bought directly from microsoft).

Is it legal to resell Windows license keys? Are there any kinds of Windows 10 pro/enterprise keys for which it is forbidden to resell them?

Is resale of Windows 10 keys legal?


I am currently going through a domestic case with my recent ex-wife. Just the other day my public pretender, and that's not a spelling error, called me outside of the courtroom and asked me to plead guilty to all of the offenses. I then told him that I would plead guilty to what I have done, which is I violated a protection order when her brother told me she wanted to talk about Ollie our daughter. When he told me that I had prove my innocence, I interrupted him with no I don't, our Constitution says I'm innocent until proven guilty. He then told me that the Constitution doesn't apply to this. Now this States Attorney has declared me a danger to the community, with absolutely no violent crimes in my record, I have 2 DUI, and a federal prison sentence for conspiracy, which I believe the way I was indicted is now illegal

How courts can supercede constitutional rights


Im in the UK. I drive my car on business insurance for work. I claim mileage with details of my car e.g. engine size. I've been told that in future I must submit fuel receipts even though I am not claiming the full fuel cost. I was told it was to prove to HMRC that tax was paid on the fuel. I don't understand this as a fuel receipt wouldn't prove which car the fuel was in or used for the claimed journey. Is this a legal requirement?

**update** I've been told it's "to enable the reclaim of VAT on such expenditure by the company"

Do I have to submit a fuel receipt when I'm not claiming fuel?


Im building a simple website where people can save links and eventually share them with others.

When a user enters an url, I fetch the meta data to present the link.
The text, like title and description, Im just saving in a database however Im in doubt what I should do with the image.

Should I just always deeplink to the external image? Or can I save the image on my server? What are the legal options here?
I can see that facebook seems to save their own copy of images that are shared through them.

(The image will always be used in context with a link to the original link)

How to legally serve og:image


Do the GDPR Regulations apply to processing data of a citizen who has dual nationality?

GDPR: Citizens with Dual Nationality?


We own a joint property in the UK, and are full taxpayers of all taxes including standard rate council tax band for the region.

But my partner will be going abroad for a significant amount of time (6 months+). Will I be able to claim the single person discount for council tax, if I am living alone in the property (thus using less of council services like rubbish collection, libraries, etc)?

It looks like that - because it's a lot of revenue, so councils try to sideline this scenario stating that - you still own property jointly, so ignoring the fact that only 1 person is living there (thus using less of council facilities).

UK Single person council tax discount when owning joint property


Hypothetical situation:
Miss X, a software developer with 10 years of experience, has obtained a new job. On her first day she logs into her desktop computer and the operating system requests that she chooses a password.

A few minutes later her line manager comes to talk to her and asks her to write the password to a piece of paper, place it inside an envelope, and seal and sign that envelope. He explains that if he needs access to the account when she is unreachable, he will open the envelope and use the password.

In USA, can Miss X legally decline the request for her password?

Can my manager request my password?


I stumbled across a video game description <https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/store/p/gears-of-war-ultimate-edition-for-windows-10/9nblggh3shm5> where they quoted "The Verge" with the following:

>
> ...the best way to play Gears of War yet.” – The Verge
>
>
>

Their review is here: <http://www.theverge.com/2015/8/24/9197081/gears-of-war-ultimate-edition-review-xbox-one> where they reviewed the XBox One version of the game.

Is it legal to use such an endorsement for a product given that they aren't actually the same product? Given that cross-platform games will perform differently and sometimes even have different graphical enhancements, DLC, framerates, resolutions, etc. It seems misleading to me.

Just to clarify: I'm not singling out Microsoft here intentionally, I just happened to only see one quote in the Microsoft Store and it seemed odd. I believe many other companies do this when posting the review scores of a game, but they don't clarify that the scores are reflective of a score on another platform; which I believe does matter.

Is it legal to use a quote or endorsement from a similar product


I am not talking about screenplays that written by me. Just screenplays of popular movies. I've seen other websites doing it, but I am not sure if it is illegal or not.

Is it illegal to publish a screenplay on web?


[Does this contract meet the requirements to be enforced by a court](https://docs.google.com/document/d/17axpOjt3IKJSsX3ofCxW7NFUtOZjHGjxpmLQUfylQyM/edit?usp=sharing)? If not, what challenges might be raised?

>
> ### Promissory Note
>
>
> Principal Amount: £500.00 GBP
>
>
> Date:
>
>
> 1. For value received, the undersigned (the “Promisor”) at \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, promises to pay to the order of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_(the “Promisee”) at \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ the sum of £500 shall the Promisor fail to meet his target of 47.5 work hours per week between 6th - 26th June 2016.
> 2. Sum shall be paid in full within seven days of the end date of said period.
> 3. This agreement will be governed and interpreted according to English law. All disputes and claims arising under the Agreement (including non-contractual disputes and claims) will be subjected to the exclusive jurisdiction of the English courts.
>
>
> Promissor (name):
>
>
> Promissor (signature):
>
>
> Date:
>
>
>

Is this contract valid?


A software company are refusing to cancel a subscription product I have with them which renewed in 16th July 2017 unless I pay a £239.40 early cancellation fee. The subscription began in 2014.

They have no record of my approval, just a record that I didn't disapprove it.

[![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/mi6Q0.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/mi6Q0.png)

They also refuse to cancel it in the future, and obviously cannot cancel it in the past.

[![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/XN0N9.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/XN0N9.png)

Where do I stand with this sort of behaviour?

Is an autogenerated, opt-out email legally binding


Company A and Company B have a business relationship lasting for years. All kinds of agreements are in place between them. License Agreements, Supply Agreements, Development Agreements and so on.

Company A gets acquired by Company C. After closing, former Company A now operates as Company AC.
What happens to all the existing contracts where Company A was a Party?
Do they get automatically transferred?

Having to assign all the existing contracts seems to be an "impossible" task, but i do not know the leagl basis for the transfer. Can anyone shed some light both in US and European jurisdictions?

Do existing contracts get automatically transferred to the acquiring company?


When are names trade marked? Say I'm part of a sports team called "Big Ball Chasers" and it wasn't me who named the team that. If I latter decide to

1. call my dog the same name
2. join another sports team and encourage them to go by that name
3. create my own sports team with the same name

would any of these be in violation of trademark?

I've heard companies and products sometimes change their name as there was already an existing one with the same. When situations like this arize, do things normally not go immediatley to court but the parties work it out between themselves? For example (IIRC) the computer language Java used to be called Oak but there already existed a language with the same name so Oak changed there's to Java (but didn't get sued).

When are names trade-marked?


I have been in a number of discussions, which the other party described the contract terms verbally in a way to convince me to proceed with the contract. I want to ask if this is not fraud, and how to handle such situations. To clarify the point, what I mean is for one of the parties to state a definition of the terms which is not the same as the intuitive meaning of the definition of the content.

An example would be a number of intellectual property contents I have seen recently. On one occasion, the HR contact told me in email that they forwarded my concerns to the corporate attorney. The person then replied inline to comments stating that the content is meant to protect the information they shared with me. Given that I was not about to work on a research and development effort, this seemed like a lie to me. Can an organization, or an attorney be liable for such action. Given that the email did not contain the person's name, I would imagine this action is not ok at some level; but how illegal is it? And what would happen if such a signed contract is used to force someone to comply? Can a non-attorney claim that they were lied to, and produce the email in support of it?

This is probably an area, which I like to learn more about. That is interpretation of a content. I think is an strength in the legal profession, and I would greatly appreciate any content or keywords you can suggest to me.

Is it illegal to misinform someone about the terms of a contract


Lets say that an individual, Bob, has a regular job which covers his daily expenses, but also has an illegal side job. A decent percentage of his disposable income is due to Bob's illegal activities, but he has some disposable income coming from his legal activities. Both sources of income are placed into a bank, and bob then makes payments using a credit/debit card.

I'm wondering where the line is drawn for stating that someone has received illegal goods, as there is no longer a way to tell what money was legally earned and what was illegally earned. I'm wondering both in cases in which one is aware of bobs illegal activities and in cases where the receiver of the money does not know it's illegal, but could still be compelled to refund it if it were illegally obtained.

A few examples of the ambiguous situations I can think of:

I assume if Bob buys a single drink at a local bar this would not be ruled as spending illegal money and the bar would not be committing an offense even if the owner of the bar was aware that Bob had an illegal income source, as Bob could easily purchase a drink with his legal income.

Likewise I assume if bob goes out to buy a Yacht that he could never afford with his legal income it would be considered to be purchased with illegal profits.

However, what about a more ambiguous case. If bob buys an expensive fur coat for someone, which he could afford to do with his legal income, but which he likely wouldn't have chosen to spend money on if he didn't have the additional illegal income, does the coat count as profiting from illegal goods?

What if Bob offers a smaller sum of money to many people, small enough that Bob could easily afford to give such a gift to one person, but the combined cost of so many small gifts adds up to an amount bob couldn't/wouldn't have been able to afford without his supplementary income? Could someone argue that the gift they received from Bob came from his legal income, but the other gifts Bob made to others was due to Bob's illegal activities, by claiming Bob was likely to give a gift to them without the extra illegal income but not to the others etc?

How does one determine if illegal goods were accepted if an individual who has both legal and illegal source of income pays another party?


Q re U.S. Copyright registration:

I understand that by leaving blank the space asking for an author's (legal) name but indicating the author's pseudonym that the two names won't be linked and thus the correlation will not be made publicly available online or otherwise. That's what I understand.

I also understand that it is not wise to copyright solely under a pseudonym, as it can get rather tricky to prove that I (the legal 'I') am the author should any legal issue arise.

Now, if I were to use my legal name as the claimant do have my cake and eat it too, or are the terms 'claimant' and 'author' looked at as two separate things?

In other words, If my legal name is Bob Roberts and I leave blank the author name but say that the work is pseudonymous and use the name Bill Williams as the pseudonym, will my using Bob Roberts as claimant make it clear that my legal self is, in fact, the author?

Legal Name and/or Pseudonym and Record Keeping


Say there's website X that features a bunch of recipes authored by themselves. The recipes feature

Afaik you can't have copyright on a recipe, only on the imagery and textual description of how to prepare the recipe.

Say I scrape all these recipes and their data (nutrition, ingredients, etc) and use it in my app to do calculations. Based on these calculations I display a link to my users to the page that contains the recipe on website X.

1. Would this be legal?
2. And what if I use their image and recipe title, still linking to website X's recipe.
3. And what if I generate revenue with my app.

How does copyright on Recipes work?


Is it possible to cancel/void/rescind a contract after both parties have signed it but the contract is not in-effect yet? Of course, the cancellation has been decided after mutual agreement.

For example, both the parties signed a contract today (22nd May, 2018) that will become effective on July 1st, 2018. Can either of the party cancel/void/rescind it before July 1st, 2018, provided it’s covered in a clause in the agreement. Also, considering the cooling period, if any.

Can a contract be cancelled/rescinded after both parties have signed it but not in effect yet?


Most night club in my place have girls' night. Basically men pay to come. Girls come for free.

Obviously that is sexual discrimination.

In US, is this legal?

Is girl's night legal?


I'm working on a website that will use cookies. I heard that by law I have to add a notice "somewhere" on my site to tell people that it uses cookies and I have to include a page with instructions on how to disable cookies with various browsers. Ive asked people and searched the web for the law about this in the U.S but I only fnd stuff for the EU and that I have to follow EU's laws or I'll be fined. I really don't want to worry about adding this stuff to my website especially since it will not work like how it's supposed to with cookies disabled. What are the requirements for cookies in the U.S and if any, how am I supposed to present the notice on my site?

U.S Laws on Cookie Notices on Websites?


Can two companies that are offering the same services in Benelux have similar company names?

Both company names have been registered with www.BOIP.

Can two companies have names that are similar in EU?


I have noticed that in order to discredit a witness, instead of simply saying someone is a liar, the defense will call the person a "fantasist".

This brings to mind some child-like person going on adventures with their imaginary friends. Basically they're saying they're crazy.

Personally I've never met a "fantasist" in real life. I wonder do lawyers really think that a person is crazy or is this just one of their arguments in their itinerary to discredit a witness.

I mean unless someone is completely insane they surely have a reason for lying. Even a fantasist can surely separate real life from their fantasies? And if they were really insane wouldn't they be in a mental institution?

Is this a common defense to use on an accuser? Is it taught in law school to use this defense?

Where is the "fantasist" defense taught?


Due to the so-called *"cookie law"*, websites that are owned in the EU or are targeted towards EU citizens are now required to prompt users to store cookies. Most often this takes the form of either a pop-up or a ribbon informing the user what the cookies are used for and a button to accept them.

As I've come to notice, however, this doesn't seem to cover all kinds of cookies. Many sites create cookies even when I browse them without accepting to store them. What should a site do when a user doesn't accept cookies and what kind of cookies can it store regardless of consent?

What happens if I don't accept cookies?


I am currently selling a product with "Cheers to 30 years" on it. However, I noticed someone else has filed this trademark earlier this year: <http://tsdr.uspto.gov/#caseNumber=88382813&caseType=SERIAL_NO&searchType=statusSearch>

When I look at the Prosecution History tab on the bottom, it seems like the trademark is still being processed.

Would it be possible to register the same trademark using my product as the specimen since this current one is not approved yet? Or do I have to wait until it is published for opposition, oppose it, and then do it?

Can I try to register a trademark that someone else has an application for?


Is it legal to sell generic magsafe power adapters? magsafe is a type of charger made by Apple. I am a reseller and I have been selling these for quite some time. There are millions of them on ebay and amazon. I know little about law. I received an email from one of the sites i sell on today. Here it is:

We removed some of your listings because of a rights owner complaint about items that may infringe their intellectual property rights. These items may be inauthentic. Examples of these items are below:

Power Adapter 60W Magsafe charger For Apple MacBook Pro 13 Inch with US plugs

If you want to resolve this dispute, contact the rights owner:

Apple Inc.
brandprotection@mm-apple.com

If resolved, ask the rights owner to contact us at\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ to withdraw their complaint. Do not relist the items that caused the complaint until you resolve the dispute.

If the rights owner contacts us to withdraw their complaint, we will reinstate your listings. If we receive more complaints about your listings, we may not allow you to sell on \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_

Please keep in mind that I did not make this listing. The product is already in the sites catalog. Nor did i claim to be an apple product or have apples logo . The listings brand says "generic" and "replacement for apple magsafe"

Selling Generic Magsafe Chargers


I got to see this amazing web-series called "Suits", I just wonder is there an actual legal proceeding called "putting an asterisk" besides some lawman's name ? If there is what would it mean in Law & Constitutional terms and what it would mean, looking from general and moral perspective ?

Now I know that everything they have shown in "Suits" might not be true and somethings are ought to be exaggerating and false but if they have mentioned this terms repeatedly and with emphasis then I don't think this could be entirely false and irrelevant with the Legal Processes.

I googled it and couldn't find any relevant info on this pertaining to Law...

So could anyone help me understand this concept in detail, as I said, from the perspective of Law and moral side of it ?

What does phrases "Deserve an asterisk" and "Putting an asterisk" besides someone's name, means morally and in lawman's terms?


Let's say you are laid off with a month of severance. In the second week of the severance period, you take up a temp job hanging drywall or something like that, that pays you 1099 with no benefits, and do it that week only. This job is not proper employment with all the strings attached, just freelancing.

Are you obligated to report that income when filing for unemployment towards the end of the severance period, when you become eligible for it once the severance runs out? I understand if it were during unemployment, you would have to report it and your weekly claim would be adjusted. You also have to report severance so the unemployment agency can calculate your eligibility date. But this is 1099 income earned during the severance period.

1099 income during severance period before unemployment


Our son has watched every episode of UnderTale (which is a video game) and written a narrative describing each episode. He's not a kid who has a lot of self-confidence (he's on the spectrum which may, in part, explain his focus on this project) and I think it would be a real boost to his self-confidence if we published this on Amazon.

However, is this a copyright infringement, so long as we identify what it is (just a set of narratives) and cite the creator, Toby Fox?

Is writing and publishing a summary narrative of someone else's electronic game story an infringement of copyright?


Doxxing is the unfortunately growing phenomenon of having your personal data posted on public web sites, or even in commercial media (newspapers, TV/radio etc.)

What, if any, laws does this break in the UK? What civil legal recourse is available? Does the amount and type of data disclosed matter? E.g., is just posting the real name behind a pseudonym much different to posting the victim's home address or employer as well?

As a public service to any victims of doxxing, some advice on how to report it to the police would be helpful too. Most of it on the web is US-centric.

What legal protections exist against doxxing in the UK


`The Linux Foundation` is a registered trademark of The Linux Foundation.

`Linux` is a registered trademark of Linus Torvalds.

But `Linux` is a substring of `The Linux Foundation`.

Is it OK for someone to claim a trademark including another trademark as a substring (such as `The Linux`, `My Linux`, `Free Linux`, etc.)?

Substrings used in a trademark


An art instructor who charges for his courses is using one of my photographs in his class. All the students including himself have painted the photograph and he has posted his painting on his site. I did not give permission to any of these people to paint my photograph. This is my most popular photograph which I sell in many shops in the area (I live in Canada). Is my copyright infringed and what can I do to remedy it?

Copyright infringement in paid course


I'm building a website where users contribute original content to a collaborative story writing process. I assume since they are submitting it to such a site, they are implicitly giving me the right to display said work on the site. I understand that I cannot claim copyright ownership of said work, but for example, when I make a post on Reddit, Reddit doesn't own the content I wrote, but yet they are still permitted to display it to all other users who visit their site. Since I own the copyright to my own work, do I have the right to send Reddit a take-down notice for my own work (assuming I didn't already have the ability to delete my own post)? Could users do this to me on my site?

I would eventually like to be able to use this user-generated content on my site for other purposes, all expressly related to or in the context of my site (e.g. publishing a compilation of user-generated work from multiple users, either for free or at-cost). Is this in any way possible without some process of getting legal documentation from every user of my site?

In short, is there any way to enforce that original content posted to my site shall be covered by commercial-use-allowable Creative Commons or other such licenses, effectively making them public domain or something like that? I understand that I'm throwing some of these terms around a bit without really using them correctly. I don't know anything about legal stuff, this is a hobby project and I basically just don't want to get myself into trouble.

It's already on my radar to provide an avenue for owners of copyrighted material to send me take-down notices if they find that a user of my site has posted their content without permission, but when a user posts their own original content to my site, I want to know what I am allowed to do with it.

What gives me the right to use user-generated content for ... anything?


Our team is going to host a new web application with user generated content. We are wary of a scenario where a user uploads copyrighted material and the copyright owner comes after us. We are located in Germany and define a German court as the relevant jurisdiction in the TOS, the application has international audience.

We found information on how to react in the case of a proper Abmahnung (a German copyright complaint) which conforms to the requirements of German Urheberrecht (copyright law): <https://irights.info/artikel/abmahnung-grundregeln-richtig-verhalten-fristverlaengerung-unterlassungserklaerung/26088>. But we can imagine getting either a free-form copyright complaint or one according to some other law (e.g. a DMCA notice).

Are we expected to react to a non-conforming copyright request? Do the same rules work as for the standard Abmahnung, or is there some other procedure? Or can we ignore anything which does not fulfill the legal requirements of an Abmahnung? Also, if there is some definition of what a valid Abmahnung should contain, where do we find that definition?

Our application will contain scientific material, and the copyright holders will be mostly scientific publishers who have the staff to write a proper Abmahnung. But there are also people who self-publish articles or books and they could try writing one on their own. We don't want to be found guilty of neglecting a valid complaint just because it looked amateurish, but also don't want to massively remove legit content because of someone's claims.

How to react to a non-formal copyright complaint in Germany?


I live in California. Soon I will hire a household employee to cook meals for me in my home.

Per California OSHA law the employee must be given and read a kitchen safety manual.

Must I pay the employee for the time spent reading the kitchen safety manual?

Must I pay new employee for reading the safety manual?


There is a new twist on the [DDOS](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Denial-of-service_attack#Distributed_DoS) (distributed denial-of-service) attack vector which has been used for taking down servers on the internet.

This newest version sends data packets targeting [memcached software](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Memcached) that is utilized on many servers.

Now an article in thehackernews.com describes a possible solution to this form of attack. Paragrah 5 in the article `'Kill Switch' to Mitigate Memcached DDoS Attacks — Flush 'Em All` (available [here](https://thehackernews.com/2018/03/prevent-memcached-ddos.html)) says that

>
> However, the good news is that researchers from Corero Network
>  Security found a technique using which DDoS victims can send back a
>  simple command, i.e., "shutdown\r\n", or "flush\_all\r\n", in a loop to
>  the attacking Memcached servers in order to prevent amplification.
>
>
>

This solution would essentially amount to sending commands back to the server that is attacking your server.

I have a couple of questions I would like to ask about this:

1. Are there laws in USA against attacking a server that is attacking
your servers?
2. If such laws exist, do they include attacks executed by humans or
would it be legal for a "self-defense" bot to autonomously undertake
such attack?

Legality of manual counterattacks vs counterattacks executed autonomously by a self-defense bot


There's a new law from the European Union I simply cannot comply with (GDPR).
Its way to complex, not even big companies can comply with it. I also don't know what google does with the data from my visitors.

If I let a checkbox pop up on every page that the users need to confirm they're not from the EU nor using the site from the EU, would it be fine?

Is it allowed to exclude people on that way?
Will I still be affected by the GDPR if I forbid all acces from people from the EU and acces from within the EU?

Excluding all people from the EU from my blog - is this allowed?


Are the fonts that come with [Ubuntu](https://www.ubuntu.com/) free for personal and commercial use? I tried Googling it but nothing came up.

Are the fonts that come with Ubuntu free for personal and commercial use?


I am an event producer who partners with banquet spaces to produce dinner theater events in Michigan and Indiana.

The guests pay me for admission, which includes food. I pay the banquet space for the food. The banquet space charges me tax and pays it to the IRS.

Am I under an obligation to charge the guest tax for the sale of food, too? Essentially, does the IRS demand to be paid tax twice for the same food? I am never in possession of the food myself - the banquet staff serves it directly to the guests.

In my research I can't find a clear answer. I did find one document (pertaining to Michigan law) that says only "prepared food" is taxable and defines "prepared food" as "food served in a heated state which is heated by the seller." As I interpret this, it renders the question moot. If I am considered to be selling the food to the guest, it is nontaxable because I (the seller) didn't heat it. If I am not considered to be the seller, then I shouldn't charge tax on it whether it is taxable or not.

Any info anyone else has pertaining to this would help me a great deal.

Tax on Prepared Food For Dinner Theater Events in Michigan and Indiana


I was thinking about the notwithstanding clause of the *Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms* and it seems that it has the disturbing implication that allows arbitrarily bad abuses of government power, up to and including the scale of the Holocaust.

If Parliament passed some legislation stating that all Jews shall be imprisoned and executed, *notwithstanding* sections [2](http://laws-lois.justice.gc.ca/eng/const/page-15.html#s-2.), [7](http://laws-lois.justice.gc.ca/eng/const/page-15.html#s-7.), [9](http://laws-lois.justice.gc.ca/eng/const/page-15.html#s-9.), [10](http://laws-lois.justice.gc.ca/eng/const/page-15.html#s-10.), [12](http://laws-lois.justice.gc.ca/eng/const/page-15.html#s-12.), and [15](http://laws-lois.justice.gc.ca/eng/const/page-15.html#s-15.) of the *Charter*, would it be legal for the government to round up all the Jews, send them to concentration camps, and gas them as in the Holocaust?

Short of revolution, is there any mechanism to prevent this? As far as I know (but I'm not certain at all) the *Charter* is the only portion of the Canadian constitution that deals with human rights, and if the notwithstanding clause is invoked, such legislation would be constitutional and could not be struck down by the courts. Furthermore, as far as I know, Canadians cannot recall their MPs, so it would not be possible to remove the MPs who support such legislation until the next election, which could be up to 4 years away.

Could the Holocaust legally happen in modern day Canada?


I have read many articles about GPL because many libraries are using it and I use some of them inside a personal application I made.

After testing my application I am thinking of making it public.
It`s free of charge (freeware) and the problem is that I use a library as an external executable that is run by my application. This external executable is on GPL license but my application is not (and does not use any GPL-licensed library within it).

Here are some links I read about the GPL license :

[Why the gpl is not free](https://noordering.wordpress.com/2009/01/20/why-the-gpl-is-not-free/)

[Are you sure you want to use GPL](http://lucumr.pocoo.org/2009/2/12/are-you-sure-you-want-to-use-gpl/)

[Why not to use GPL and any GPL type license !](https://gist.github.com/LibCoder/4997f5d9954c63f6a3ca8920e91e4086)

I do understand that anyone who uses a lib under GPL has to make his application open source, but I don`t know if I have to make just the executable that is under GPL license open source or if I have to make my application (which is not under the GPL licence) open source too?

Also I read that if an application is under GPL license you can`t use your own license and terms and conditions. Does this apply only to the GPL exe? or also to my exe which is not GPL?

GPL License guide


A defendant provable lied in court. We had no right of reply to prove the lies were false. Nothing has been done afterwards. He was found guilty, but received a very light sentence probably based on these lies. Is this normal?

Lying in Court in the UK


Businesses in cities install hazards, hard spikes or sharp bench dividers, to ward homeless from using flat surfaces near the business as a dry place to sleep. If a homeless person were to use this area to sleep anyway, out of necessity to keep dry, and were injured upon the hazards, would the business owner be liable for their harm?

Are business owners liable for harm inflicted by homeless spikes?


I write for a University humor magazine and we are coming out with a book. Because we are a public university, we normally are allowed to publish any image we find online in our newspaper. However, because we are publishing a book we are being safe and checking copyrights of any image we decide to use. I think I have a decent grasp of how copyright laws work, however trademarks are new to me. **Are we allowed to publish a company or organization logo (Starbucks, BIG10, Penn State) in a book?** As we are a humor publication we will be making jokes about each business or organization, however we will not be presenting the joke as a fact and I felt like including their logo would not count as infringement or dilution. Most of the information I have found is about creating your own trademark and not about publishing other trademarks.

Publishing Another Company's Trademark


I realise that laws vary by country and by jurisdiction within a country. I would therefore invite answers according to the preference and expertise of the person answering. If I have to specify more narrowly then I will restrict my question to first world English speaking countries.

I'm not a lawyer so I will give my own ideas and ask for more qualified people to expand on them.

1. Men

I presume that a charge of rape can only be pursued against a man or against someone who has the necessary anatomy. Is that right?
2. Mature individuals

A criminal charge can only be made against people who are over a certain age. Children under that age are exempt.
3. Human beings

Although in the past, non-human animals could be convicted of crimes. That is no longer the case in Western societies.
4. Is there a fourth category?

**Question**

What criminal laws are there that can only be applied to certain sectors of the populace according to their *biological* status. (Age, gender, anatomy, species etc.)

What criminal laws apply only to certain sectors of the populace on account of their biology?


I'm making a game where users can create doodles/images and those can be shared and used in-game (maybe as avatars or part of the interactable elements). I'm not sure how to treat that type of content, since it could be very possible that users might create a Mario-like figure, or Sonic, or Link (from Zelda), etc. Since they would be shared and be part of the game, how should I treat them? Should I ban them? the items in question would be created by the players using tools provided in the app, they would not be able to upload images or anything like that. Is that type of art also under the effect of copyright law?

user generated content: how to treat potential copyrighted material?


I am thinking of creating a website allowing users to learn Japanese language with flashcards. This website will be for education purpose only and totally free. Basically each flaschards contains a question and an answer about a short sequence of video to test the student understanding. These videos are short extracts from Japanese animation DVD (e.g. Dragon ball etc...).

Is the fact of displaying these flashcards on a non-profit education website copyright infringement?

Note : I dont know if it matters here, but the website will also display the link for the users to purchase the original DVD on Amazon etc...

Flashcards of Japanese animation, copyright


I live in Germany and have a German €-denominated credit card. I used to download my monthly transactions in CSV format, but after a recent web site redesign, the new credit card web site only allows downloads as PDF.

I contacted the bank about this, and they replied that German law requires them to give the transactions in a read-only format such as PDF.

I don't know what law they're referring to, but this seems far-fetched to me. I could see a law requiring them to make statements available in a read-only format, but I find it hard to believe that the law would insist that *exclusively* read-only format is permitted.

Would anyone be able to locate the law in question, so I can read it for myself? (I can read German reasonably well.) Articles about this law or other commentary would be welcome as well, in English or German.

Is there really a German law that requires that credit card companies *only* provide statements in read-only format?


If I receive a letter from a legal entity such as the council, which is asking me to fill in a form and return it to them via post, shouldn't they include a pre-stamped envelop where I can send the letter back without having to pay for the postage myself?

My reasoning behind it is that I don't have a choice not to respond to this letter, because if I don't, I will be penalized. This means that I am forced to do something which will cost me money.

Shouldn't a legal entity such as the council, which is asking you to respond to one of their letters, include a pre-stamped envelope?


What method(s) would law enforcement / spy agencies use to get intelligence or information or evidence if they were not allowed to spy on every citizen by listening in on calls and reading emails?

How would a government catch terrorists or foil terror attacks without spying on everyone


In tax law class we said that getting open transactions is highly unusual; there are sophisticated ways of estimating future revenues so a truly indeterminate stream of revenue is not likely. But I asked my professor what's an example of something that would qualify for open transaction status today. He did not have an answer.

Any ideas?

Open transactions: how to get open transaction treatment in US tax law?


We want to pull info and images from google’s places API for our travel website. We are trying to figure out if these images are able to be used or will we run into copyright issues? Thanks

Are the images pulled from the google places API allowed to be used on our website?


If I have an S-corp called `Lorem Ipsum` (not a trade name, but registered business name), can I refer to that S-corp as `Lorem Ipsum Inc.`?

Can I use the term "Inc" when I have an S-corp?


I bought a book from local vendor who buy books from foreign countries and then re-sell them. Book publisher name is Penguin

On the book, The following has been written:

>
> Except in the United States of America, this book is sold subject to
>  the condition that it shall not, by way of trade or otherwise, be
>  lent, re-sold, hired out, or otherwise circulated without the
>  publisher's prior consent in any form of binding or cover other than
>  that in which it is published and without a similar condition
>  including this condition being imposed upon the subsequent purchaser.
>
>
>

My query is, what does this mean actually ? Re-selling is not allowed over here ?

Want to know Permission Condition of a book


For example, if you had an education startup that took, as payment, a contract from each student that they would pay an amount equal to 1% of their income tax to the education company each year. Would this be a legal arrangement, and would it be possible to arrange with an entity like the IRS to assist with these transactions?

Is it legal in the US to arrange a contract for payment of a portion of future income in return for a service?


Should a complete list of processors or sub-processors be written anywhere for GDPR compliance?
If so, who is required to do so? Controllers, processors, sub-processors?
And where should the list be written? Privacy policies, data processing agreements (DPAs), other documents?

Quoting article 28, paragraph 2, it seems sub-processors must be written in DPAs between a controller and a processor, but it's not clear to me whether the sub-processors list should be explicit or not:

>
> The processor shall not engage another processor without prior specific or general written authorisation of the controller. In the case of general written authorisation, the processor shall inform the controller of any intended changes concerning the addition or replacement of other processors, thereby giving the controller the opportunity to object to such changes.
>
>
>

In all other cases I'm not sure whether any processors or sub-processors should be written anywhere. For example, I didn't find any information about listing processors in privacy policies.

I found a related question [here](https://law.stackexchange.com/questions/17918/resellers-under-gdpr-disclosure-of-data-processors-or-countries-of-data-storag) about a specific case, but what I'm asking is more general.

For GDPR compliance, what documents or contracts need to contain a list of processors or sub-processors?


I've seen reports that the [USPS](https://arstechnica.com/tech-policy/2018/07/post-office-owes-3-5m-for-using-wrong-statue-of-liberty-on-a-stamp/) had to pay $3.5 million for using a picture of "Robert Davidson's Las Vegas replica" instead of the original.

But it seems that the US has "[freedom of panorama](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Freedom_of_panorama#United_States)", which means that one can take pictures of buildings still in copyright.

So what copyright issues did the USPS violate?

How could the USPS be sued by the architect of Las Vegas' Statue of Liberty?


I work from home for a virtual call center. I provide my own equipment but am required to use their software to connect to them, which often has problems. When these arise, and they cannot be resolved within 30 minutes by their software vendor, I am required to clock out.

This happened to me 3 hours ago, and I am now in legal limbo. The software vendor told me to await a return call, not as yet received. I'm essentially on call now, or am I? I won't be paid for this time, so how long must I wait before I can no longer be expected to clock back in today?

Can a call center employee be forced to monitor a technical problem off the clock?


In order to copyright something, you have to do an innovative change (photocopying doesn't count)

Does converting public domain images into text (through OCR or like wikisource) count as "innovative change" and put a copyright on the resultant text?

Copyright of retyped public domain text


Suppose person A tells person B, "If you perform (service X) for me, I will donate $1,000 to Save the Whales (but no other compensation)." Neither A nor B has any connection to whales and will not benefit from this donation, but B happens to like whales and agrees anyway. Does this still count as consideration, even though there was never any possibility of B getting anything out of it? (United States)

Does consideration have to have value for someone who is a party to the contract?


I wanted to use [laraspace](https://github.com/laraspace/laraspace) as my laravel boilerplate. It says in the license area "Laraspace is now an open-sourced software licensed under the MIT license." Does this mean I can use this however I wanted?

What is “open-source software licensed under the MIT license”


Let's assume I am helping a very close friend of mine who owns a small family restaurant. She has 2 people working for her and she treats them as independent contractors. Under current conditions I am quite sure IRS would reclassify them as full time employee's and fine her (sole proprietorship). AFAIK, IRS does not know about this yet, but if they wanted to find out they easily could by expanding the audit.

I am giving her tips on what options she has and what would be pros&cons of each option.

Also I helped her to talk with IRS over phone to solve the other tax audit. IRS agent over phone wrote down my name while I represented her - I guess this is standard procedure.

**Can I get into trouble for giving tax advice to a friend (e.g. there is this dreaded Trust Fund recovery Penalty)?**

Things to consider:

1. I am not getting paid for explaining things or giving a tip to her.
2. I am not licensed and I am not lawyer.
3. Her business does not make enough money to afford real legal consultation.

Giving free tax advice to a friend. Can this get me in trouble?


If Chinese company ABC has an established brand for their product, "The Widget", and American company XYZ makes an add-on or modification for that product and sells said add-on as "The Widget Improver", with or without reference to ABC, is there copyright implications?

I felt XYZ was enhancing and benefiting ABC, but someone today suggested I may have a problem as the name insinuates "The Widget" is inferior as-is, and also copyright infringement since "The Widget" is in XYZ's product name and, specifically, because XYZ's product specifically functions due to the "The Widget" being in the marketplace.

I could use specific names and examples but I wasn't sure what is expected on this site.

I found [this article](http://www.entrepreneur.com/answer/221456), which sort of addresses my question and suggests that a license agreement is necessary. But is it really necessary, or only necessary from ABC's (and that author's) point of view?

Copyright implications for developing/marketing a 3rd party accessory?


The [Clery act](https://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/text/20/1092#f) states that universities in the US are required to collect

>
> (F) Statistics concerning the occurrence on campus, in or on noncampus buildings
>  or property, and on public property during the most recent calendar year, and
>  during the 2 preceding calendar years for which data are available—
>  (i) of the following criminal offenses reported to campus security authorities
>  or local police agencies:
>  [List of offenses, e.g. murder, manslaughter...]
>
>
>

It says "noncampus" which I would normally assume would include off-campus, say off-campus housing. But then the definition of noncampus seems to say otherwise:

>
> (iii) The term “noncampus building or property” means—
>  (I) any building or property owned or controlled by a student organization
>  recognized by the institution; and
>  (II) any building or property (other than a branch campus) owned or controlled
>  by an institution of higher education that is used in direct support of, or in
>  relation to, the institution’s educational purposes, is used by students, and is
>  not within the same reasonably contiguous geographic area of the institution.
>
>
>

This definition seems to not include off-campus housing, (e.g. a student experiencing a burglary in an apartment that they rent from an independent landlord).

Does the Clery act require US universities required to collect statistics on crime in off-campus housing to university members?

Clery Act--Does it include reports of crime that occur off-campus to university members?


We're a small software consulting shop. We're close to signing a deal with a client. We also have an independent subcontractor looking to join us.

The independent contractor is getting anxious about waiting, so we're planning to give them a payment to keep them on hold for 2 weeks. If our contract from client works out, independent contract will have to join us. Else, they can walk with the money we already paid them.

What would such a document be called?

What kind of document to keep an independent contractor waiting?


I'm pretty sure you cannot make a bet and have the outcome one or way another be a sexual favor. But why would this be illegal?

Can you bet sexual acts?


I am wondering whether an employer can hire two people under the same job title and pay but deny them equal working conditions.

For instance, it is common practice for Walmart to hire customer service associates under a vague job title, and thereafter assign more dangerous tasks (stocking heavy products) to the more physically capable associates and the safer tasks (stocking light products) to the less capable associates.

***More detail in response to comments***

The jurisdiction in California.

I am wondering if employees are protected by law if they refuse to perform the strenuous work because they've been assigned that task too much compared to others. For instance, let's say that Bob has had to spend 5 hours a week stocking the coolers and freezers and 10 hours a week stocking water for 2 years, while Adam who has the same job title as Bob has rarely had to perform such work in the same time period (assume less than 2% of total hours worked), instead Adam does the easier tasks such as stocking chips, cosmetics products, and diapers. The reason the employer provides for this allocation is that Bob is more physically capable of doing hard work.

It seems to me that in such a case, Bob is being mistreated. He deserves an equal share of the easier tasks as Adam, and if the employer wants Bob to do the hard work, they should create a separate job title for him that imposes higher qualifications that ensures that those under the same job title are able to share the work equally.

By denying Bob access to working conditions comparable to Adam's, the employer is essentially denying him a job for which he is overqualified. And in doing so, the employer is able to get Bob's more rare labor for the same price as Adam's less valuable labor.

Let's also assume Bob and Adam belong to the same protected classes.

As I understand it, Title VII and FEHA do not protect Bob from refusing, since he belongs to all the same classes as Adam.

This doesn't make much sense to me because if the employer had divided the tasks along protected class lines (i.e., gender or race) rather than by physical ability, then Bob would be protected.

The irony that I've noticed is that the very laws that were passed to protect qualified workers from discrimination now excuse discrimination against qualified workers.

Are there other laws that protect Bob from such discrimination that does not require a showing of discrimination based on protected class? Maybe an implied term in the employment contract?

Does VII help employers oppress workers, or are there other laws that compensate?


Say you have a company legally named one of these:

* Acme Investments Inc.
* Acme Working Group Inc.
* Acme Bank Inc.
* Acme Technologies Inc.
* Acme Company Inc.
* Acme Inc.

In all these cases, you just want to brand yourself as "Acme", rather than having to put the whole name like "Acme Working Group Inc.". In the case of "Acme Inc.", this seems similar to Google Inc., and we just think of them as "Google" rather than "Google Inc.". I'm wondering if Google in this case has a DBA to go from Google Inc. to Google. Same with Walmart, etc. Or if you can simply brand yourself as Google instead of Google Inc. without a DBA.

In the case where you have something more than just "Foo Inc.", such as "Foo Bar Inc.", wondering if you can also just leave off the "Bar Inc.", so like "Acme Working Group Inc." becomes branded as just "Acme", or if you need to apply for a DBA in this case.

If you need a DBA (doing business as) if your company is legally named "Foo Bar Inc" but you want to be branded as "Foo"


I'm looking at a large collection of images of graphs. I want to use the information in the images, not the images themselves. I've made a small program to extract this information, but I was wondering if it would be legal for me to use this information for commercial use? The images all have a copyright symbol on them, but I haven't been able to find it in a copyright database, so I doubt it's registered at the moment.

From a ton of googling, I would think that the information in the graphs is not subject to copyright, only the actual image of the graphs?

I think it's also possible that the specific collection of images could be copyrighted. What would happen if I simply removed some of them, so that it's now a different set?

The graphs on the images are specific measurements of specific things (like size, weight, etc.)

Using information from copyrighted images legal?


I’m curious about an interaction between a merchant and a thief.

Drawing from a well-known Youtube channel, a prime example is a thief and a local gas station. The thief is shown in video footage stealing merchandise from the gas station. The thief then selects cheap items to purchase to avoid suspicion. The merchant engages in a trade for the “faux” merchandise and waits for the thief to leave the premises. At that point, the merchant leaves and confronts the thief. Let’s say for this example the thief admits to stealing the merchandise.

Does the merchant have a legal right to increase the sale price of the stolen merchandise? And what kind of legal actions does the merchant have available if the thief agrees to only pay the original price (assuming its legal for the merchant to increase the price of the stolen items in the first place)?

Merchant charging thief doubled price on stolen merchandise


I know the United States has the inheritance tax. But I do not really know the purpose or the point behind it. What is the point of the inheritance tax? Why must the inheritance assets be taxed instead of given directly to the heir(s)?

What is the purpose of the inheritance tax in the United States?


It's illegal to walk around naked in public, but what if someone is literally too poor to afford clothes?

Too poor to obey the law


I'm a freelance web developer and I entered into a contract with a client in August 2018. The contract was set to end and product delivered by October 5 2018. However, due to the client changes in ideas and work in progress, we went way past that end date and now I am only going to deliver the final work in 2 days.

Given that there is a clause in the original agreement which states that in case of changes in ideas and the work takes more time at my sole discretion, then the client will allow more time to deliver. All of that is good.

However, I want to change the end date of the Original contract to November 2 2018 but I am not sure if that's possible, given it's already past October 5.

Can I actually amend the original contract now and say the end date changed to November 2nd 2018 and then amend some sections of the contract as well, to remove some sections and also to add some sections?

Can I amend a contract after end date


Legal texts - laws, contracts, etc - often contain passages that say something like, "You agree to waive your rights to blah except as prohibited by applicable laws or by the Whatshisface Amendment to the Something Act of 1985."

What is the point of explicitly calling out the Whatshisface Amendment when it is clearly redundant after "applicable laws"?

Why do laws or contracts repeat themselves unnecessarily?


If someone sells something associated to a famous quote from someone or something, how would they ensure that they are within the law to be able to do so? I'm very curious about how this would work out as I have recently seen a lot of tattoo artists' that offer bespoke designs for their clients who request such things...

IP rights for using quotes?


My question is a hypothetical one. I was conducting some research into the differences between murder, homicide and manslaughter and I didn't understand the difference between homicide and manslaughter. Let's say there are two friends walking down a busy street, teasing each other. One of them playfully pushes the other who falls into the oncoming traffic. That person doesn't make it. Will the friend who pushed be charged with manslaughter or homicide, if he were to be charged at all?

Would killing a human by accident (without any premeditation or intent) be considered homicide or manslaughter?


I saw an [article](http://mobile.abc.net.au/news/2018-06-05/donald-trump-says-he-has-absolute-right-to-pardon-himself/9834788?pfmredir=sm&sf191046451=1) where Donald Trump is claiming he can pardon himself. Is this actually possible?

<http://mobile.abc.net.au/news/2018-06-05/donald-trump-says-he-has-absolute-right-to-pardon-himself/9834788?pfmredir=sm&sf191046451=1>

Can a USA president pardon him/her self?


Under U.S. federal law, [blackmail is a crime](https://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/text/18/873). We know that former US Congress member [Dennis Hastert](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dennis_Hastert) was [being blackmailed by someone](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dennis_Hastert#Civil_lawsuit_by_.22Individual_A.22_against_Hastert), and we also know he commited the crime he was being blackmailed for. That person is actually suing Hastert for full payment of the blackmail money. How can this be legal?

While what happened to the victim is horrible, blackmail itself is horrible, and shouldn't be tolerated in a free society. Why hasn't this been investigated?

Why hasn't Hastert's blackmailer been charged with a crime?


Recently, [a vegan customer sued Burger King because a plant-based burger he bought at a Burger King franchise was cooked on a grill also used for cooking meat](https://www.bbc.co.uk/news/world-us-canada-50486664).

This got me thinking: who would usually be liable for this sort of case?

Would it be...

* the franchisor (Burger King),
* the franchisee (the actual restaurant owner), or
* the employee

I'm interested in not only the answer in Florida, where this occurred, but in other places around the world too.

---

My question is not entirely specific to this example: I'm asking in general. If, for example, an employee cooked a vegan patty on a meat grill *even though it shouldn't have been done, as per company rules*, would they be liable , or the franchisee, or the franchisor?

Who is liable when a consumer sues a company?


I'm writing some software for use in a school. An essential function of the software is to email students using their school provided email account.

My question is, does GDPR apply to the storage and processing of solely student email addresses?

The email addresses are of the format `<student-id>@<schooldomain>.sch.uk`.

I will not be storing any PII that can link the email address to any particular individual, further than their student ID number, and this will be accessible only to individuals (teachers) who already have access to full student records in other computer systems.

GDPR - Storage and processing of student email addresses


As the question stipulates.
If a US citizen living in the USA wants to work for a foreign company he owns and that has no US entity. Is this legal?

He would basically be in a situation where he's doing everything as if he were residing in that foreign country but simply residing in the USA.

I know that the US consider taxable income to be income generated on american soil. So filing taxes in the US would be a requirement. But is the setup even legal? Or is it an obligation for the foreign entity to open a US entity and pay through it?

Is it legal to work for a foreign company you own that has no entity in the USA


I am assuming (please to correct if not true) that copyright is not automatically conferred and that there is a process that must be followed. Assume the venue is the USA

Videos are often used to show real-estate properties. How does one know if the video is copyrighted (or any other IP protection)? I ask because I would like to understand if altering the video (removing the realtor info and possibly other mods) for other purposes presents any problems.

Any suggestions improve (narrow) the questions are appreciated.

youtube video IP


Basically the title, I want to create a tool that makes what I think are derivative works (word clouds made of other peoples words).

If I wasn't selling the works could I profit off ads next to them?

Or alternatively, since I technically only created the tool that makes them, not the works themselves, could I sell the word clouds?

Am I allowed to make derivative works and profit off of ads next to them, not the derivative works themselves?


My company has a B2B mobile app on iOS/Google Play. Our app links to our privacy policy on our corporate website which is encouraged/required by iOS/Android these days.

My Client needs to make sure their Users have accepted a privacy policy that is acceptable to their legal department. Since my app is used by many clients I am unwilling to have their privacy policy be displayed directly.

Their question is, when is an app user specifically signing into my apps privacy policy as it currently is?

I cannot see at any time my apps privacy policy is displayed directly to the user. I think it's just a link hidden away within the AppStore listing. How does Apple/Google deal with this?

Privacy Policy for my App - asked by Client's Legal Department


My question is about ignorance of the law. My organization has used the term "simple majority" incorrectly for 70 years. We recently learned we use a plurality vote but called it "simple majority" in all of our documents. For 70 years we have voted for Bylaws, policies, elections, motions -- anything we have ever voted on, one over the other wins. Ten to 9, 10 won. We are now in a position to legally defend out standard procedure, even though incorrectly stated in policy. Would ignorance of the law pertain in this type civil case? Thank you

Simple Majority - Ignorance of the Law