Datasets:

jesse-tong

/

medqa

like 0

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Middle superior alveolar nerve is a branch of which of the following nerve?, with the following options: A: Facial Nerve, B: Lingual nerve, C: Maxillary nerve, D: Mandibular nerve ### Response:

Middle superior alveolar nerve arise from infra orbital branch of maxillary nerve in the infra orbital groove and canal.Course of superior alveolar nerve:It is given off from the maxillary nerve just before its exit from the infra orbital foramen. It descends in a canal in the anterior wall of the maxillary sinus, and divides into branches which supply the incisor and canine teeth. It communicates with the middle superior alveolar branch, and gives off a nasal branch and supplies the mucous membrane of the anterior pa of the inferior meatus and the floor of the nasal cavity. Ref: Essentials of Anatomy By I. B. Singh, 2nd Edition, Page 391

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Middle superior alveolar nerve is a branch of which of the following nerve?, with the following options: A: Facial Nerve, B: Lingual nerve, C: Maxillary nerve, D: Mandibular nerve ### Response: Middle superior alveolar nerve arise from infra orbital branch of maxillary nerve in the infra orbital groove and canal.Course of superior alveolar nerve:It is given off from the maxillary nerve just before its exit from the infra orbital foramen. It descends in a canal in the anterior wall of the maxillary sinus, and divides into branches which supply the incisor and canine teeth. It communicates with the middle superior alveolar branch, and gives off a nasal branch and supplies the mucous membrane of the anterior pa of the inferior meatus and the floor of the nasal cavity. Ref: Essentials of Anatomy By I. B. Singh, 2nd Edition, Page 391 ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: The given pedigree chart most appropriately resembles which of the following disease, with the following options: A: Rett syndrome, B: Duchenne's muscular dystrophy, C: Albinism, D: Marfans syndrome ### Response:

The pedigree chart depicts X-linked recessive inheritance. Among the options, Duchenne's muscular dystrophy only shows X-linked recessive inheritance.

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: The given pedigree chart most appropriately resembles which of the following disease, with the following options: A: Rett syndrome, B: Duchenne's muscular dystrophy, C: Albinism, D: Marfans syndrome ### Response: The pedigree chart depicts X-linked recessive inheritance. Among the options, Duchenne's muscular dystrophy only shows X-linked recessive inheritance. ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Minimal pleural effusion is best viewed in which position, with the following options: A: Lateral decubitus, B: Full inspiration erect, C: Supine, D: Full expiration erect ### Response:

Ans. Lateral decubitus

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Minimal pleural effusion is best viewed in which position, with the following options: A: Lateral decubitus, B: Full inspiration erect, C: Supine, D: Full expiration erect ### Response: Ans. Lateral decubitus ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: The usefulness of the long bones in stature estimation is, with the following options: A: Femur > tibia > humerus > radius, B: Tibia > femur > humerus > radius, C: Femur > Humerus > tibia > radius, D: Tibia > humerus > femur > radius ### Response:

For height estimation : (of the individual's height in life ) Humerus is 20% Tibia 22% Femur 27% Spine 35%

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: The usefulness of the long bones in stature estimation is, with the following options: A: Femur > tibia > humerus > radius, B: Tibia > femur > humerus > radius, C: Femur > Humerus > tibia > radius, D: Tibia > humerus > femur > radius ### Response: For height estimation : (of the individual's height in life ) Humerus is 20% Tibia 22% Femur 27% Spine 35% ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Microscope was invented by ?, with the following options: A: Ronald ross, B: Robert koch, C: Antonie van Leeuwenhoek, D: Louis pasteur ### Response:

Microscope was invented by Antonie Van Leeuwenhoek.

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Microscope was invented by ?, with the following options: A: Ronald ross, B: Robert koch, C: Antonie van Leeuwenhoek, D: Louis pasteur ### Response: Microscope was invented by Antonie Van Leeuwenhoek. ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Steroids hormones exe their effects by binding to, with the following options: A: Cell surface receptors, B: G proteins, C: Transcription factors, D: Cyclic adenosine monophophate (AMP) ### Response:

Steroid hormones cross the cell membrane and bind to specific receptors within the cell. These receptors are transcription factors that are active only in the presence of paicular hormones. The hormone-transcription factor complex binds to steroid hormone responsive elements in DNA to influence transcription from steroid-sensitive genes. Thyroid hormone, retinoic acid, and 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol exe their effects in a similar way.

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Steroids hormones exe their effects by binding to, with the following options: A: Cell surface receptors, B: G proteins, C: Transcription factors, D: Cyclic adenosine monophophate (AMP) ### Response: Steroid hormones cross the cell membrane and bind to specific receptors within the cell. These receptors are transcription factors that are active only in the presence of paicular hormones. The hormone-transcription factor complex binds to steroid hormone responsive elements in DNA to influence transcription from steroid-sensitive genes. Thyroid hormone, retinoic acid, and 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol exe their effects in a similar way. ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: 2-week old neonate with a history of stridor that improves when the baby assumes the prone position - what is treatment -, with the following options: A: Oral calcium, B: Nebulisation, C: Wait & watch, D: Antibiotic ### Response:

Ans. is 'c' i.e., Wait & watch Laryngomalaciao The most common congenital laryngeal anomaly and the most frequent cause of stridor in infants and children.o Typically, stridor is inspiratory: low pitched, and exacerbated by any exertion (crying, agitation, feeding), supine position, and viral infections of the upper airway.o Stridor results from the collapse of supraglottic structures inward during inspiration.o Symptoms usually appear in the first 2 wk of life and increase in severity for up to 6 mo, although gradual improvement can begin at any time,o The diagnosis is confirmed by flexible laryngoscopyo Expectant observation is suitable for most infants because most symptoms resolve spontaneously.

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: 2-week old neonate with a history of stridor that improves when the baby assumes the prone position - what is treatment -, with the following options: A: Oral calcium, B: Nebulisation, C: Wait & watch, D: Antibiotic ### Response: Ans. is 'c' i.e., Wait & watch Laryngomalaciao The most common congenital laryngeal anomaly and the most frequent cause of stridor in infants and children.o Typically, stridor is inspiratory: low pitched, and exacerbated by any exertion (crying, agitation, feeding), supine position, and viral infections of the upper airway.o Stridor results from the collapse of supraglottic structures inward during inspiration.o Symptoms usually appear in the first 2 wk of life and increase in severity for up to 6 mo, although gradual improvement can begin at any time,o The diagnosis is confirmed by flexible laryngoscopyo Expectant observation is suitable for most infants because most symptoms resolve spontaneously. ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Sensory fibres from the taste buds in the bard and soft palate travel along:, with the following options: A: Trigeminal nerve, B: Facial nerve, C: Glossopharynegeal nerve, D: Vagus nerve ### Response:

B i.e. Facial nerve

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Sensory fibres from the taste buds in the bard and soft palate travel along:, with the following options: A: Trigeminal nerve, B: Facial nerve, C: Glossopharynegeal nerve, D: Vagus nerve ### Response: B i.e. Facial nerve ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Which of the following hormones is responsible for inhibiting lactation during pregnancy?, with the following options: A: Progesterone, B: Human placental lactogen, C: Oxytocin, D: Prolactin ### Response:

Lactation is d/t Prolactin so it cannot inhibit lactation Progestrone: Maintain pregnancy & during pregnancy inhibits Lactation. Post delivery its effect is gone so doesn't inhibit Lactation. Oxytocin: has no role in lactation, its function is milk production.

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Which of the following hormones is responsible for inhibiting lactation during pregnancy?, with the following options: A: Progesterone, B: Human placental lactogen, C: Oxytocin, D: Prolactin ### Response: Lactation is d/t Prolactin so it cannot inhibit lactation Progestrone: Maintain pregnancy & during pregnancy inhibits Lactation. Post delivery its effect is gone so doesn't inhibit Lactation. Oxytocin: has no role in lactation, its function is milk production. ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Carbamoyl phosphate is used in, with the following options: A: Urea, B: Uric acid, C: Pyruvic acid, D: Stearic acid ### Response:

One molecule of ammonia and co2 condenses to form Carbomy phoshate in presence of 2 molecules of ATP and carbomyl phosphate synthetase II enzyme. this carbomyl phoshate is transferred to NH2 group of ornitine to form Citrulline in urea cycle.Ref: DM Vasudevan - Textbook of Biochemistry, 7th edition, page no: 203

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Carbamoyl phosphate is used in, with the following options: A: Urea, B: Uric acid, C: Pyruvic acid, D: Stearic acid ### Response: One molecule of ammonia and co2 condenses to form Carbomy phoshate in presence of 2 molecules of ATP and carbomyl phosphate synthetase II enzyme. this carbomyl phoshate is transferred to NH2 group of ornitine to form Citrulline in urea cycle.Ref: DM Vasudevan - Textbook of Biochemistry, 7th edition, page no: 203 ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Civatte bodies are a feature of ?, with the following options: A: Lichen simplex chronicus, B: Lichen planus, C: Lichen sclerosus, D: All of the above ### Response:

Ans. is 'b' i.e., Lichen planus Civatte bodies (cytoid bodies/ colloid bodies/ hyaline bodies)* A characteristic histopathological feature of lichen planus* They are apoptotic basal cells present at dermo-epidermal junction and papillary dermis. Formed my macrophages engulfing the melanin.Other histopathological features of lichen planus* Hydropic degeneration of basal cells (Pathognomic feature)* Hypergranulosis (thickening of the granular layer) (focal hypergranulosis clinically creates Wickham striae)* Hyperkeratosis (thickening of stratum corneum)* Acanthosis (thickening of stratum Malpighi)* Sub-epidermal lichenoid band (deposition of lymphocytes 8c histiocytes in the upper dermis)* Pigment incontinence (dropping of melanin from damaged Keratinocytes of epidermis into dermis)* Max Joseph space /cleft (separation of the epidermis in small clefts)* Sawtooth appearance (flattened rete ridges)

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Civatte bodies are a feature of ?, with the following options: A: Lichen simplex chronicus, B: Lichen planus, C: Lichen sclerosus, D: All of the above ### Response: Ans. is 'b' i.e., Lichen planus Civatte bodies (cytoid bodies/ colloid bodies/ hyaline bodies)* A characteristic histopathological feature of lichen planus* They are apoptotic basal cells present at dermo-epidermal junction and papillary dermis. Formed my macrophages engulfing the melanin.Other histopathological features of lichen planus* Hydropic degeneration of basal cells (Pathognomic feature)* Hypergranulosis (thickening of the granular layer) (focal hypergranulosis clinically creates Wickham striae)* Hyperkeratosis (thickening of stratum corneum)* Acanthosis (thickening of stratum Malpighi)* Sub-epidermal lichenoid band (deposition of lymphocytes 8c histiocytes in the upper dermis)* Pigment incontinence (dropping of melanin from damaged Keratinocytes of epidermis into dermis)* Max Joseph space /cleft (separation of the epidermis in small clefts)* Sawtooth appearance (flattened rete ridges) ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Holstein lewis sign is related to which nerve ?, with the following options: A: Median nerve, B: Radial nerve, C: Ulnar nerve, D: Axillary nerve ### Response:

A Holstein-Lewis fracture is a fracture of the distal third of the humerus resulting in entrapment of the radial nerve. * Most commonly caused by fracture of the humerus, v at the junction of the middle and distal thirds. (Holstein-Lewis fracture) * Radial nerve in paicular jeopardy * The proximal spike of this radial breaks through the lateral coex at a point where the nerve is most closely apposed to the bone . ref : maheswari 9th ed

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Holstein lewis sign is related to which nerve ?, with the following options: A: Median nerve, B: Radial nerve, C: Ulnar nerve, D: Axillary nerve ### Response: A Holstein-Lewis fracture is a fracture of the distal third of the humerus resulting in entrapment of the radial nerve. * Most commonly caused by fracture of the humerus, v at the junction of the middle and distal thirds. (Holstein-Lewis fracture) * Radial nerve in paicular jeopardy * The proximal spike of this radial breaks through the lateral coex at a point where the nerve is most closely apposed to the bone . ref : maheswari 9th ed ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Catatonia is most commonly seen with, with the following options: A: Schizophrenia, B: dissociation, C: Anxiety disorder, D: Obsessive compulsive disorder ### Response:

Catatonic schizophrenia (Cata: disturbed, tonic: tone) is characterised by a marked disturbance of motor behaviour the charecterstic feuture of catatonia is mutism and stupour catatonia can be rated by a rating scale called as Bush Francis Catatonia Rating Scale.It can present in three clinical forms: excited catatonia, stuporous catatonia, and catatonia alternating between excitement and stupor. Ref: A Sho Textbook of Psychiatry, Niraj Ahuja, 7th Edition, pg. no. 59

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Catatonia is most commonly seen with, with the following options: A: Schizophrenia, B: dissociation, C: Anxiety disorder, D: Obsessive compulsive disorder ### Response: Catatonic schizophrenia (Cata: disturbed, tonic: tone) is characterised by a marked disturbance of motor behaviour the charecterstic feuture of catatonia is mutism and stupour catatonia can be rated by a rating scale called as Bush Francis Catatonia Rating Scale.It can present in three clinical forms: excited catatonia, stuporous catatonia, and catatonia alternating between excitement and stupor. Ref: A Sho Textbook of Psychiatry, Niraj Ahuja, 7th Edition, pg. no. 59 ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Activated protein C is used therapeutically in:, with the following options: A: Abnormal PT\/PTT, B: Ml, C: Fungal infection, D: Sepsis ### Response:

Answer is option4, sepsis Human recombinant activated protein C for severe sepsis. Mai-Carvajal AJ1, Sola I, Lathyris D, Cardona AF. Author information Update in Human recombinant protein C for severe sepsis and septic shock in adult and paediatric patients. Abstract BACKGROUND: Sepsis is a common and frequently fatal condition. Human recombinant activated protein C (APC) has been used to reduce the high rate of death by severe sepsis or septic shock. This is an update of a Cochrane review (originally published in 2007 and updated in 2008).

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Activated protein C is used therapeutically in:, with the following options: A: Abnormal PT\/PTT, B: Ml, C: Fungal infection, D: Sepsis ### Response: Answer is option4, sepsis Human recombinant activated protein C for severe sepsis. Mai-Carvajal AJ1, Sola I, Lathyris D, Cardona AF. Author information Update in Human recombinant protein C for severe sepsis and septic shock in adult and paediatric patients. Abstract BACKGROUND: Sepsis is a common and frequently fatal condition. Human recombinant activated protein C (APC) has been used to reduce the high rate of death by severe sepsis or septic shock. This is an update of a Cochrane review (originally published in 2007 and updated in 2008). ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: A 13 years old boy often argue with parent and teachers. However he is not physical aggressive and there is no history of drug abuse, theft, lying or bullying. Most likely diagnosis is-, with the following options: A: Conduct disorder, B: Oppositional defiant disorder, C: Autism, D: Pervasive developmental disorder ### Response:

Ans: B. Oppositional defiant disorder(Ref: Kaplan & saddock's th/e p. 11391)This boy is showing a pattern of defiance of authority (arguing with parents and teachers).There are no features of conduct disorder (drug abuse, theft' lying).Thus, the diagnosis is oppositional defiant disorder.

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: A 13 years old boy often argue with parent and teachers. However he is not physical aggressive and there is no history of drug abuse, theft, lying or bullying. Most likely diagnosis is-, with the following options: A: Conduct disorder, B: Oppositional defiant disorder, C: Autism, D: Pervasive developmental disorder ### Response: Ans: B. Oppositional defiant disorder(Ref: Kaplan & saddock's th/e p. 11391)This boy is showing a pattern of defiance of authority (arguing with parents and teachers).There are no features of conduct disorder (drug abuse, theft' lying).Thus, the diagnosis is oppositional defiant disorder. ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Most common site of Brain metastasis is?, with the following options: A: Lung cancer, B: Head and neck cancer, C: Prostate cancer, D: Breast cancer ### Response:

Ref: Bailey and Love 26th edition, P 614The leading cause of brain metastasis is lungs > Breast>MelanomaTissue of origin for brain metastases (approximate).OriginPercentageLung40Breast15Melanoma10Renal/GU10Other Unknown25

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Most common site of Brain metastasis is?, with the following options: A: Lung cancer, B: Head and neck cancer, C: Prostate cancer, D: Breast cancer ### Response: Ref: Bailey and Love 26th edition, P 614The leading cause of brain metastasis is lungs > Breast>MelanomaTissue of origin for brain metastases (approximate).OriginPercentageLung40Breast15Melanoma10Renal/GU10Other Unknown25 ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: A patient presents with recurrent swelling of the lips as shown. He has no itching. Family history is positive. Which of the following is deficient in this patient?, with the following options: A: C1,C2,C4, B: C1 inhibitor, C: C3b inactivator, D: C5-C8 ### Response:

This boy presents with features of hereditary angioneurotic edema, which is due to deficiency of C1 inhibitor. C1 inhibitor deficiency - Hereditary angioedema. C1, C2, C4 deficiency - Collagen vascular disorders C5-C8 deficiency - Recurrent bacteremia with Neisseria. Reference: Ananthanarayan and Paniker&;s Textbook of Microbiology Tenth edition

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: A patient presents with recurrent swelling of the lips as shown. He has no itching. Family history is positive. Which of the following is deficient in this patient?, with the following options: A: C1,C2,C4, B: C1 inhibitor, C: C3b inactivator, D: C5-C8 ### Response: This boy presents with features of hereditary angioneurotic edema, which is due to deficiency of C1 inhibitor. C1 inhibitor deficiency - Hereditary angioedema. C1, C2, C4 deficiency - Collagen vascular disorders C5-C8 deficiency - Recurrent bacteremia with Neisseria. Reference: Ananthanarayan and Paniker&;s Textbook of Microbiology Tenth edition ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: All of the following are the Intranatal causes of Perinatal moality except:-, with the following options: A: Bih injuries, B: Bih asphyxia, C: Antepaum hemorrhage, D: Obstructed labor ### Response:

Causes of perinatal moality: Antenatal cause Intranatal cause Maternal disease -HTN,DM,TB,Anemia,Cardiovascular disease Bih injuries Pelvic disease Bih asphyxia Anatomical defects Prolonged effo time; obstructed labour Endocrine imbalance Other Obstetric complications Malnutrition Postnatal causes Toxemias Prematurity Antepaum hemorrhage Respiratory distress syndrome Congenital defects Respiratory and alimentary infections Advanced maternal age Congenital anomalies Blood incompatibilities

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: All of the following are the Intranatal causes of Perinatal moality except:-, with the following options: A: Bih injuries, B: Bih asphyxia, C: Antepaum hemorrhage, D: Obstructed labor ### Response: Causes of perinatal moality: Antenatal cause Intranatal cause Maternal disease -HTN,DM,TB,Anemia,Cardiovascular disease Bih injuries Pelvic disease Bih asphyxia Anatomical defects Prolonged effo time; obstructed labour Endocrine imbalance Other Obstetric complications Malnutrition Postnatal causes Toxemias Prematurity Antepaum hemorrhage Respiratory distress syndrome Congenital defects Respiratory and alimentary infections Advanced maternal age Congenital anomalies Blood incompatibilities ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Acquired nasolacrimal duct obstruction is caused by:, with the following options: A: Brimonidine, B: Dorzolamide, C: Timolol, D: Pilocarpine ### Response:

Drugs such as epinephrine, echothiopate and pilocarpine can produce lacrimal duct obstruction. Secondary causes of nasolacrimal duct obstruction includes: Traumatic nasal injury with bony fractures, iatrogenic causes such as complications from sinus surgery or orbital decompression, migration of punctual and lacrimal plugs, Sarcoidosis, Wegners granulomatosis, Steven Johnson syndrome and severe nasal polyposis.

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Acquired nasolacrimal duct obstruction is caused by:, with the following options: A: Brimonidine, B: Dorzolamide, C: Timolol, D: Pilocarpine ### Response: Drugs such as epinephrine, echothiopate and pilocarpine can produce lacrimal duct obstruction. Secondary causes of nasolacrimal duct obstruction includes: Traumatic nasal injury with bony fractures, iatrogenic causes such as complications from sinus surgery or orbital decompression, migration of punctual and lacrimal plugs, Sarcoidosis, Wegners granulomatosis, Steven Johnson syndrome and severe nasal polyposis. ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: True about corneal opacity are all except: March 2008, with the following options: A: Anterior staphyloma has iris tissue incorporated within the scar tissue, B: Healing of a perforated corneal ulcer may lead to formation of adherent leucoma, C: A strictly localized dense leucoma interferes more than a thin,diffuse nebula covering the papillary area., D: Some opacities may persists despite destruction of Bowman's membrane ### Response:

Ans. C: A strictly localized dense leucoma interferes more than a thin,diffuse nebula covering the papillary area Nebular corneal opacity-If the details of the iris can be seen through the opacity. Macular corneal opacity-Details of the iris cannot be seen but the margins of the iris and the pupil can be marked out Leucomatous corneal opacity-if the opacity is very dense and totally opaque obscuring the view of pupil. Anterior staphyloma has iris tissue incorporated and incarcerated within the scar tissue, as seen in healing of a large sloughed corneal ulcer. Healing of a perforated corneal ulcer, so that iris is adherent to the back of the leucoma may lead to formation of adherent leucoma. A strictly localized dense leucoma interferes more less than a thin, diffuse nebula covering the papillary area because leucoma stops all the light falling on it, whereas nebula refracts it irregularly, allowing many of the rays to fall upon retina where they blur the image formed by the regularly refracted rays. Some opacities may persists despite destruction of Bowman's membrane but many clears considerably paicularly in younger patients.

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: True about corneal opacity are all except: March 2008, with the following options: A: Anterior staphyloma has iris tissue incorporated within the scar tissue, B: Healing of a perforated corneal ulcer may lead to formation of adherent leucoma, C: A strictly localized dense leucoma interferes more than a thin,diffuse nebula covering the papillary area., D: Some opacities may persists despite destruction of Bowman's membrane ### Response: Ans. C: A strictly localized dense leucoma interferes more than a thin,diffuse nebula covering the papillary area Nebular corneal opacity-If the details of the iris can be seen through the opacity. Macular corneal opacity-Details of the iris cannot be seen but the margins of the iris and the pupil can be marked out Leucomatous corneal opacity-if the opacity is very dense and totally opaque obscuring the view of pupil. Anterior staphyloma has iris tissue incorporated and incarcerated within the scar tissue, as seen in healing of a large sloughed corneal ulcer. Healing of a perforated corneal ulcer, so that iris is adherent to the back of the leucoma may lead to formation of adherent leucoma. A strictly localized dense leucoma interferes more less than a thin, diffuse nebula covering the papillary area because leucoma stops all the light falling on it, whereas nebula refracts it irregularly, allowing many of the rays to fall upon retina where they blur the image formed by the regularly refracted rays. Some opacities may persists despite destruction of Bowman's membrane but many clears considerably paicularly in younger patients. ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Which of the following drugs has maximum chances of absorption from gastric mucosa, with the following options: A: Diclofenac sodium, B: Morphine sulfate, C: Hyoscine hydrobromide, D: Quinine dihydrochloride ### Response:

Ref-Katzung 10/e p7,8 Diclofenac is an acidic drug and is non-ionized in the acidic medium of stomach.therefore,it has the maximum chances of absorption from the stomach.other drugs in the options are basic drugs that are ionized at gastric pH

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Which of the following drugs has maximum chances of absorption from gastric mucosa, with the following options: A: Diclofenac sodium, B: Morphine sulfate, C: Hyoscine hydrobromide, D: Quinine dihydrochloride ### Response: Ref-Katzung 10/e p7,8 Diclofenac is an acidic drug and is non-ionized in the acidic medium of stomach.therefore,it has the maximum chances of absorption from the stomach.other drugs in the options are basic drugs that are ionized at gastric pH ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Hea block is seen in:, with the following options: A: Hypermagnesemia, B: Hypomagnesemia, C: Hypernatremia, D: Hypocalcemia ### Response:

Hypermagnesemia slows the hea and leads to hea block Hypomagesemia leads to cardiac arrhythmias like SVT and VT

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Hea block is seen in:, with the following options: A: Hypermagnesemia, B: Hypomagnesemia, C: Hypernatremia, D: Hypocalcemia ### Response: Hypermagnesemia slows the hea and leads to hea block Hypomagesemia leads to cardiac arrhythmias like SVT and VT ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Superior colliculus is concerned cells, with the following options: A: Olfaction, B: Hearing, C: Vision, D: Pain sensation ### Response:

The superior colliculus (SC) is a midbrain area where visual, auditory and somatosensory information are integrated to initiate motor commands. The SC plays a central role in visual information processing in the mouse; it receives projections from 85% to 90% of the retinal ganglion cells (RGCs). Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2345

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Superior colliculus is concerned cells, with the following options: A: Olfaction, B: Hearing, C: Vision, D: Pain sensation ### Response: The superior colliculus (SC) is a midbrain area where visual, auditory and somatosensory information are integrated to initiate motor commands. The SC plays a central role in visual information processing in the mouse; it receives projections from 85% to 90% of the retinal ganglion cells (RGCs). Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2345 ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Carcinoma in which surgery is rarely indicated, with the following options: A: Osteosarcoma, B: Wilm's tumor, C: Neuroblastoma, D: Rhabdomyosarcoma ### Response:

Osteosarcoma An osteosarcoma (OS) or osteogenic sarcoma (OGS) (or simply bone cancer) is a cancerous tumor in a bone. Specifically, it is an aggressive malignant neoplasm that arises from primitive transformed cells of mesenchymal origin (and thus a sarcoma) and that exhibits osteoblastic differentiation and produces malignant osteoid. Treatment A complete radical, surgical, en bloc resection of the cancer, is the treatment of choice in osteosarcoma. Although about 90% of patients are able to have limb-salvage surgery, complications, paicularly infection, prosthetic loosening and non-union, or local tumor recurrence may cause the need for fuher surgery or amputation. Mifamuide is used after a patient has had surgery to remove the tumor and together with chemotherapy to kill remaining cancer cells to reduce the risk of cancer recurrence. Also, the option to have rotationplasty after the tumor is taken out exists. Patients with osteosarcoma are best managed by a medical oncologist and an ohopedic oncologist experienced in managing sarcomas. Current standard treatment is to use neoadjuvant chemotherapy (chemotherapy given before surgery) followed by surgical resection. The percentage of tumor cell necrosis (cell death) seen in the tumor after surgery gives an idea of the prognosis and also lets the oncologist know if the chemotherapy regimen should be altered after surgery. Standard therapy is a combination of limb-salvage ohopedic surgery when possible (or amputation in some cases) and a combination of high-dose methotrexate with leucovorin rescue, intra-aerial cisplatin, adriamycin, ifosfamide with mesna, BCD (bleomycin, cyclophosphamide, dactinomycin), etoposide, and muramyl tripeptide. Rotationplasty may be used. Ifosfamide can be used as an adjuvant treatment if the necrosis rate is low. Despite the success of chemotherapy for osteosarcoma, it has one of the lowest survival rates for pediatric cancer. The best repoed 10-year survival rate is 92%; the protocol used is an aggressive intra-aerial regimen that individualizes therapy based on aeriographic response. Three-year event-free survival ranges from 50% to 75%, and five-year survival ranges from 60% to 85+% in some studies. Overall, 65-70% patients treated five years ago will be alive today. These survival rates are overall averages and vary greatly depending on the individual necrosis rate. Filgrastim or pegfilgrastim help with white blood cell counts and neutrophil counts. Blood transfusions and epoetin alfa help with anemia. Computational analysis on a panel of Osteosarcoma cell lines identified new shared and specific therapeutic targets (proteomic and genetic) in Osteosarcoma, while phenotypes showed an increased role of tumor microenvironments Ref : Internet sources

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Carcinoma in which surgery is rarely indicated, with the following options: A: Osteosarcoma, B: Wilm's tumor, C: Neuroblastoma, D: Rhabdomyosarcoma ### Response: Osteosarcoma An osteosarcoma (OS) or osteogenic sarcoma (OGS) (or simply bone cancer) is a cancerous tumor in a bone. Specifically, it is an aggressive malignant neoplasm that arises from primitive transformed cells of mesenchymal origin (and thus a sarcoma) and that exhibits osteoblastic differentiation and produces malignant osteoid. Treatment A complete radical, surgical, en bloc resection of the cancer, is the treatment of choice in osteosarcoma. Although about 90% of patients are able to have limb-salvage surgery, complications, paicularly infection, prosthetic loosening and non-union, or local tumor recurrence may cause the need for fuher surgery or amputation. Mifamuide is used after a patient has had surgery to remove the tumor and together with chemotherapy to kill remaining cancer cells to reduce the risk of cancer recurrence. Also, the option to have rotationplasty after the tumor is taken out exists. Patients with osteosarcoma are best managed by a medical oncologist and an ohopedic oncologist experienced in managing sarcomas. Current standard treatment is to use neoadjuvant chemotherapy (chemotherapy given before surgery) followed by surgical resection. The percentage of tumor cell necrosis (cell death) seen in the tumor after surgery gives an idea of the prognosis and also lets the oncologist know if the chemotherapy regimen should be altered after surgery. Standard therapy is a combination of limb-salvage ohopedic surgery when possible (or amputation in some cases) and a combination of high-dose methotrexate with leucovorin rescue, intra-aerial cisplatin, adriamycin, ifosfamide with mesna, BCD (bleomycin, cyclophosphamide, dactinomycin), etoposide, and muramyl tripeptide. Rotationplasty may be used. Ifosfamide can be used as an adjuvant treatment if the necrosis rate is low. Despite the success of chemotherapy for osteosarcoma, it has one of the lowest survival rates for pediatric cancer. The best repoed 10-year survival rate is 92%; the protocol used is an aggressive intra-aerial regimen that individualizes therapy based on aeriographic response. Three-year event-free survival ranges from 50% to 75%, and five-year survival ranges from 60% to 85+% in some studies. Overall, 65-70% patients treated five years ago will be alive today. These survival rates are overall averages and vary greatly depending on the individual necrosis rate. Filgrastim or pegfilgrastim help with white blood cell counts and neutrophil counts. Blood transfusions and epoetin alfa help with anemia. Computational analysis on a panel of Osteosarcoma cell lines identified new shared and specific therapeutic targets (proteomic and genetic) in Osteosarcoma, while phenotypes showed an increased role of tumor microenvironments Ref : Internet sources ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: True about endometriosis is all except, with the following options: A: Chronic inflammatory disease, B: Estrogen independent, C: Ectopic endometrial tissue, D: Frequently seen in ovaries ### Response:

Endometriosis is estrogen-dependent condition.

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: True about endometriosis is all except, with the following options: A: Chronic inflammatory disease, B: Estrogen independent, C: Ectopic endometrial tissue, D: Frequently seen in ovaries ### Response: Endometriosis is estrogen-dependent condition. ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: OCT (Optical coherence tomography) is based on?, with the following options: A: High coherence interferometry, B: Low coherence interferometry, C: Non-coherence interferometry, D: Polariztion ### Response:

Optical Coherence Tomography(OCT) is a new imaging modality that produces high resolution, cross-sectional images of ocular structures in vivo. OCT produces detailed two-dimensional images of the retina and measures retinal thickness with a longitudinal image resolution of approximately 10 microns. The principles of OCT are similar to B-mode ultrasound, however OCT utilizes the reflection of Light waves from different structures in the eye rather than sound. Low coherent light, produced by a continuous wave superluminescent diode source, is directed into the eye and is reflected at the boundaries of tissues with different optical propeies. Optical coherence tomography (OCT) is an imaging technique that uses low-coherence light to capture micrometer-resolution, two- and three-dimensional images from within optical scattering media (e.g., biological tissue). It is used for medical imaging and industrial nondestructive testing (NDT). ref khurana 6th edition pg 456

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: OCT (Optical coherence tomography) is based on?, with the following options: A: High coherence interferometry, B: Low coherence interferometry, C: Non-coherence interferometry, D: Polariztion ### Response: Optical Coherence Tomography(OCT) is a new imaging modality that produces high resolution, cross-sectional images of ocular structures in vivo. OCT produces detailed two-dimensional images of the retina and measures retinal thickness with a longitudinal image resolution of approximately 10 microns. The principles of OCT are similar to B-mode ultrasound, however OCT utilizes the reflection of Light waves from different structures in the eye rather than sound. Low coherent light, produced by a continuous wave superluminescent diode source, is directed into the eye and is reflected at the boundaries of tissues with different optical propeies. Optical coherence tomography (OCT) is an imaging technique that uses low-coherence light to capture micrometer-resolution, two- and three-dimensional images from within optical scattering media (e.g., biological tissue). It is used for medical imaging and industrial nondestructive testing (NDT). ref khurana 6th edition pg 456 ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: One of the following is not a characteristic of casual association-, with the following options: A: Coherence, B: Specificity, C: Sensitivity, D: Biological plausibility ### Response:

Assosciations can be broadly grouped under 3 headings: Spurious association Indirect association Direct association, which consists of a) one to one causal association and b) multifactorial causation Ref: 25th edition, Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, Page no. 95

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: One of the following is not a characteristic of casual association-, with the following options: A: Coherence, B: Specificity, C: Sensitivity, D: Biological plausibility ### Response: Assosciations can be broadly grouped under 3 headings: Spurious association Indirect association Direct association, which consists of a) one to one causal association and b) multifactorial causation Ref: 25th edition, Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, Page no. 95 ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Young male Kallu is brought to the hospital with Severe asthama. PharmacoKinetics of theophylline include the following parameters:Vd=35L ;CL=48ml/min;half life is 8hrs.if an intravenous infusion of theophylline is staed at a rate of 0.48mg/min,how long will it take to reach 93.75% of the final steady stare, with the following options: A: Approximately 48min, B: Approximately 5.8hrs, C: Approximately 8hrs, D: Approximately 32hrs ### Response:

Ref-Katzung 10/e p52 For a drug following first order kinetics,rise in plasma concentration as well as fall in plasma concentraton is similar.when the steady state is attained and the drug administration is stopped.it will be eliminated from the body.50% will be eliminated in one half life 75% in second half life and 87.5%(50+25+12.5%) in third half life and 93.75% (50+25+12.6+6.5%) in four half lives. When constant i.v. is administered, plasma concentration increases in the same manner.in one half life,it is 50% of the steady state and to reach 93.75% of steady state ,4half loves will be required As the half life of this drug is 8hrs, approximately 32hrs will be taken

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Young male Kallu is brought to the hospital with Severe asthama. PharmacoKinetics of theophylline include the following parameters:Vd=35L ;CL=48ml/min;half life is 8hrs.if an intravenous infusion of theophylline is staed at a rate of 0.48mg/min,how long will it take to reach 93.75% of the final steady stare, with the following options: A: Approximately 48min, B: Approximately 5.8hrs, C: Approximately 8hrs, D: Approximately 32hrs ### Response: Ref-Katzung 10/e p52 For a drug following first order kinetics,rise in plasma concentration as well as fall in plasma concentraton is similar.when the steady state is attained and the drug administration is stopped.it will be eliminated from the body.50% will be eliminated in one half life 75% in second half life and 87.5%(50+25+12.5%) in third half life and 93.75% (50+25+12.6+6.5%) in four half lives. When constant i.v. is administered, plasma concentration increases in the same manner.in one half life,it is 50% of the steady state and to reach 93.75% of steady state ,4half loves will be required As the half life of this drug is 8hrs, approximately 32hrs will be taken ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Hyoid bone is closely associated to: September 2012, with the following options: A: Bronchogenic cyst, B: Cystic hygroma, C: Thyroglossal cyst, D: Ranula ### Response:

Ans. C i.e. Thyroglossal cystThyroglossal cystMC site:- Beneath the hyoid,Occupies the midline usually (except in the region of thyroid cailage),Swelling moves upwards on protrusion of the tongue as well as on swallowing (attachment with foramen caecum),Painless

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Hyoid bone is closely associated to: September 2012, with the following options: A: Bronchogenic cyst, B: Cystic hygroma, C: Thyroglossal cyst, D: Ranula ### Response: Ans. C i.e. Thyroglossal cystThyroglossal cystMC site:- Beneath the hyoid,Occupies the midline usually (except in the region of thyroid cailage),Swelling moves upwards on protrusion of the tongue as well as on swallowing (attachment with foramen caecum),Painless ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Eustachian valve is seen in -, with the following options: A: Eustachian tube opening at nasopharyngeal end, B: Eustachian tube opening in tympanic cavity, C: IVC opening in right atrium, D: Coronary sinus opening in right atrium ### Response:

Ans. is 'c' i.e., IVC opening in right atrium o Opening of IVC in right atrium is guarded by - Eustachian valve (rudimentary valve). o Opening of coronary sinus in right atrium is guarded by - Semilunar valve/Thebesian valve (functional valve)

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Eustachian valve is seen in -, with the following options: A: Eustachian tube opening at nasopharyngeal end, B: Eustachian tube opening in tympanic cavity, C: IVC opening in right atrium, D: Coronary sinus opening in right atrium ### Response: Ans. is 'c' i.e., IVC opening in right atrium o Opening of IVC in right atrium is guarded by - Eustachian valve (rudimentary valve). o Opening of coronary sinus in right atrium is guarded by - Semilunar valve/Thebesian valve (functional valve) ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Anti - LKM 2 antibodies are seen in, with the following options: A: Type I Autoimmune hepatitis, B: Type II Autoimmune hepatitis, C: Drug induced hepatitis, D: Chronic hepatitis D ### Response:

Anti LKM 1 antibodies - Type II AIH Anti LKM 2 - Drug induced hepatitis Anti LKM 3 - Chronic hepatitis D.

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Anti - LKM 2 antibodies are seen in, with the following options: A: Type I Autoimmune hepatitis, B: Type II Autoimmune hepatitis, C: Drug induced hepatitis, D: Chronic hepatitis D ### Response: Anti LKM 1 antibodies - Type II AIH Anti LKM 2 - Drug induced hepatitis Anti LKM 3 - Chronic hepatitis D. ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Postpaum tubectomy in a hea disease patient is done at, with the following options: A: 48 hours, B: 1 week, C: 2 weeks, D: Immediately ### Response:

Sterilization should be considered with the completion of the family at the end of first week in the puerperium under local anaesthesia throught abdominal route by minilap technique. If the hea is not well compensated the husband advised for vasectomy.

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Postpaum tubectomy in a hea disease patient is done at, with the following options: A: 48 hours, B: 1 week, C: 2 weeks, D: Immediately ### Response: Sterilization should be considered with the completion of the family at the end of first week in the puerperium under local anaesthesia throught abdominal route by minilap technique. If the hea is not well compensated the husband advised for vasectomy. ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Anthracosis is caused by;, with the following options: A: Silica, B: Asbestos, C: Coal dust, D: Sugar cane waste ### Response:

Anthracosis is caused by Coal dust. There are two general phases in Anthracosis The first phase is simple pneumoconiosis which is associated with little ventilatory impairment. The second phase is characterised by progressive massive fibrosis (PMF); this causes severe respiratory disability and frequently results in premature death.

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Anthracosis is caused by;, with the following options: A: Silica, B: Asbestos, C: Coal dust, D: Sugar cane waste ### Response: Anthracosis is caused by Coal dust. There are two general phases in Anthracosis The first phase is simple pneumoconiosis which is associated with little ventilatory impairment. The second phase is characterised by progressive massive fibrosis (PMF); this causes severe respiratory disability and frequently results in premature death. ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: A disease which only affects the formation and eruption of the tooth but does not cause hypoplasia is?, with the following options: A: Hyperthyroidism, B: Hypothyroidism, C: Vitamin A deficiency, D: All of the above ### Response:

Hyperthyroidism does not cause hypoplasia. In children, shedding of the deciduous teeth occurs earlier than normal, and eruption of the permanent teeth is greatly accelerated. Ref: Shafer's textbook of oral pathology 7th edition page 652

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: A disease which only affects the formation and eruption of the tooth but does not cause hypoplasia is?, with the following options: A: Hyperthyroidism, B: Hypothyroidism, C: Vitamin A deficiency, D: All of the above ### Response: Hyperthyroidism does not cause hypoplasia. In children, shedding of the deciduous teeth occurs earlier than normal, and eruption of the permanent teeth is greatly accelerated. Ref: Shafer's textbook of oral pathology 7th edition page 652 ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Which of the following should be considered as the cause6 of generalised convulsions 20 minutes post operatively, with the following options: A: Halothane, B: Enflurane, C: Isoflurane, D: Sevoflurane ### Response:

Refer anaesthesiology by Longnecker /761 KDT 6/e p372 Enflurane Enflurane is known to produce seizures

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Which of the following should be considered as the cause6 of generalised convulsions 20 minutes post operatively, with the following options: A: Halothane, B: Enflurane, C: Isoflurane, D: Sevoflurane ### Response: Refer anaesthesiology by Longnecker /761 KDT 6/e p372 Enflurane Enflurane is known to produce seizures ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Adenocarcinoma of esophagus is commonly found in, with the following options: A: Achlasia acardia, B: Barret's oesophagus, C: Plummer vinson syndrome, D: Chronic smoking ### Response:

Answer is B (Barret's esophagus) Adenocarcinoma is seen in Barret's esophagus Barret's esophagus is a metaplastic change in the lining mucosa of oesophagus in response to chronic gastroesophagus reflex. In Barret's esophagus the junction between oesophageal mucosa (squammous) and gastric mucosa (columnar) moves proximally such that the lower pa of esophagus now becomes lined with different types of gastric mucosa. This pa of oesophagus has an increased risk for adenocarcinoma i.e. Adenocarcinoma is seen in Barrets esophagus.

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Adenocarcinoma of esophagus is commonly found in, with the following options: A: Achlasia acardia, B: Barret's oesophagus, C: Plummer vinson syndrome, D: Chronic smoking ### Response: Answer is B (Barret's esophagus) Adenocarcinoma is seen in Barret's esophagus Barret's esophagus is a metaplastic change in the lining mucosa of oesophagus in response to chronic gastroesophagus reflex. In Barret's esophagus the junction between oesophageal mucosa (squammous) and gastric mucosa (columnar) moves proximally such that the lower pa of esophagus now becomes lined with different types of gastric mucosa. This pa of oesophagus has an increased risk for adenocarcinoma i.e. Adenocarcinoma is seen in Barrets esophagus. ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: A neonate presents with recurrent seizures with hypocalcemia, recurrent infections. What is the diagnosis?, with the following options: A: Di George syndrome, B: Baer syndrome, C: Gitelman syndrome, D: Idiopathic hypercalciuria ### Response:

Mnemonic: CATCH-22 is used to describe DiGeorge syndrome, with the 22 to remind one that the chromosomal abnormality is found on the 22 chromosomes: Cardiac Abnormality (especially Tetralogy of Fallot) Abnormal facies Thymic aplasia= explains the recurrent infections Cleft palate Hypocalcemia/Hypoparathyroidism: explains recurrent seizures and tetany Gitelman syndrome occurs in older children and features episodes of muscle weakness and tetany associated with severe hypokalemia, and hypomagnesemia. These children have hypocalciuria. Bater syndrome is thought to result from mutations in two genes (NKCC2, ROMK) affecting nephron Na+-K+or K+transpo. These patients typically have a history of polyhydramnios and following bih have recurrent life-threatening episodes of fever and dehydration with the aforementioned electrolyte and acid-base disturbances, hypercalciuria, and early-onset nephrocalcinosis.

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: A neonate presents with recurrent seizures with hypocalcemia, recurrent infections. What is the diagnosis?, with the following options: A: Di George syndrome, B: Baer syndrome, C: Gitelman syndrome, D: Idiopathic hypercalciuria ### Response: Mnemonic: CATCH-22 is used to describe DiGeorge syndrome, with the 22 to remind one that the chromosomal abnormality is found on the 22 chromosomes: Cardiac Abnormality (especially Tetralogy of Fallot) Abnormal facies Thymic aplasia= explains the recurrent infections Cleft palate Hypocalcemia/Hypoparathyroidism: explains recurrent seizures and tetany Gitelman syndrome occurs in older children and features episodes of muscle weakness and tetany associated with severe hypokalemia, and hypomagnesemia. These children have hypocalciuria. Bater syndrome is thought to result from mutations in two genes (NKCC2, ROMK) affecting nephron Na+-K+or K+transpo. These patients typically have a history of polyhydramnios and following bih have recurrent life-threatening episodes of fever and dehydration with the aforementioned electrolyte and acid-base disturbances, hypercalciuria, and early-onset nephrocalcinosis. ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Which of the following physiological changes occur during fever?, with the following options: A: Thermoregulatory centre to shift to new level, B: Resetting of skin temperature, C: Both of the above, D: None of the above ### Response:

Fever is an elevation of body temperature that exceeds the normal daily variation and occurs in conjunction with an increase in the hypothalamic set point . The processes of heat conservation (vasoconstriction) and heat production (shivering and increased nonshivering thermogenesis) develops until the temperature of the blood bathing the hypothalamic neurons matches the new thermostat setting. Once that point is reached, the hypothalamus maintains the temperature at the febrile level. Ref: Dinarello C.A., Porat R. (2012). Chapter 16. Fever and Hypehermia. In D.L. Longo, A.S. Fauci, D.L. Kasper, S.L. Hauser, J.L. Jameson, J. Loscalzo (Eds), Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e.

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Which of the following physiological changes occur during fever?, with the following options: A: Thermoregulatory centre to shift to new level, B: Resetting of skin temperature, C: Both of the above, D: None of the above ### Response: Fever is an elevation of body temperature that exceeds the normal daily variation and occurs in conjunction with an increase in the hypothalamic set point . The processes of heat conservation (vasoconstriction) and heat production (shivering and increased nonshivering thermogenesis) develops until the temperature of the blood bathing the hypothalamic neurons matches the new thermostat setting. Once that point is reached, the hypothalamus maintains the temperature at the febrile level. Ref: Dinarello C.A., Porat R. (2012). Chapter 16. Fever and Hypehermia. In D.L. Longo, A.S. Fauci, D.L. Kasper, S.L. Hauser, J.L. Jameson, J. Loscalzo (Eds), Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e. ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Microscopic examination of a specimen shows organisms with characters of both corynebacteria and streptococci and resemble diphtheroids in stained smears. The organism is:, with the following options: A: Proteus vulgaris, B: Proteus mirabilis, C: Vibno, D: Listeria ### Response:

Listeria monocytogenes is a Gram-positive rod with some bacteriologic features that resemble those of both corynebacteria and streptococci. In stained smears of clinical and laboratory material, the organisms resemble diphtheroids. Listeria produces small, b-hemolytic colonies on blood agar. Listeria species are catalase-positive, which distinguishes them from streptococci, and they produce a characteristic tumbling motility in fluid media at temperatures below 30degC, which distinguishes them from corynebacteria. Ref: (2010). Chapter 26. Corynebacterium, Listeria, and Bacillus. In Ryan K.J., Ray C(Eds), Sherris Medical Microbiology, 5e.

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Microscopic examination of a specimen shows organisms with characters of both corynebacteria and streptococci and resemble diphtheroids in stained smears. The organism is:, with the following options: A: Proteus vulgaris, B: Proteus mirabilis, C: Vibno, D: Listeria ### Response: Listeria monocytogenes is a Gram-positive rod with some bacteriologic features that resemble those of both corynebacteria and streptococci. In stained smears of clinical and laboratory material, the organisms resemble diphtheroids. Listeria produces small, b-hemolytic colonies on blood agar. Listeria species are catalase-positive, which distinguishes them from streptococci, and they produce a characteristic tumbling motility in fluid media at temperatures below 30degC, which distinguishes them from corynebacteria. Ref: (2010). Chapter 26. Corynebacterium, Listeria, and Bacillus. In Ryan K.J., Ray C(Eds), Sherris Medical Microbiology, 5e. ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: True regarding Wolfes graft is, with the following options: A: Uptake of graft is easy, B: Donor site left open to granulate and contract, C: Large grafts could be taken, D: Not useful for cosmetic surgeries ### Response:

Wolfes graft is full thickness skin graft. In this donor site will have to be closed primarily or left open to granulate and contract.

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: True regarding Wolfes graft is, with the following options: A: Uptake of graft is easy, B: Donor site left open to granulate and contract, C: Large grafts could be taken, D: Not useful for cosmetic surgeries ### Response: Wolfes graft is full thickness skin graft. In this donor site will have to be closed primarily or left open to granulate and contract. ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Therapeutic drug development which is the newest agent ?, with the following options: A: Ribozyme, B: Micro RNA, C: SnRNA, D: Retro RNA ### Response:

Ans. is 'b' i.e., Micro RNA Mi RNAs regulate gene expression by pairing to target mRNAs, thus inducing translational repression. Novel findings indicate an orchestrated coregulation with long noncoding RNAs. Since its discovery, this small RNA species has opened new frontiers in cardiovascular diseases.

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Therapeutic drug development which is the newest agent ?, with the following options: A: Ribozyme, B: Micro RNA, C: SnRNA, D: Retro RNA ### Response: Ans. is 'b' i.e., Micro RNA Mi RNAs regulate gene expression by pairing to target mRNAs, thus inducing translational repression. Novel findings indicate an orchestrated coregulation with long noncoding RNAs. Since its discovery, this small RNA species has opened new frontiers in cardiovascular diseases. ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: An appearance in culture given below is seen due to which organism ?, with the following options: A: Sporothrix schenckii, B: Paracoccidioides brasiliensis, C: Histoplasma capsulatum, D: Blastomyces dermatidis ### Response:

The appearance is known as Pilot wheel or Mariner's wheel . Pilot wheel Seen in Paracoccidioides brasiliensis on culture growth at temperature of 37 degC Occurs due to multiple budding yeast cells in culture attached to large mother cell . =Sporotrichosis or Rose Gardner's diseaseis chronic subcutaneous pyogranulomatous disease caused by a thermally dimorphic fungus Sporothrix schenckii. =Blastomyces dermatitidis causes Gilchrist's disease, Chicago disease =HistoplasmosisorDarling's diseaseis caused by dimorphic fungus - Histoplasma capsulatum

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: An appearance in culture given below is seen due to which organism ?, with the following options: A: Sporothrix schenckii, B: Paracoccidioides brasiliensis, C: Histoplasma capsulatum, D: Blastomyces dermatidis ### Response: The appearance is known as Pilot wheel or Mariner's wheel . Pilot wheel Seen in Paracoccidioides brasiliensis on culture growth at temperature of 37 degC Occurs due to multiple budding yeast cells in culture attached to large mother cell . =Sporotrichosis or Rose Gardner's diseaseis chronic subcutaneous pyogranulomatous disease caused by a thermally dimorphic fungus Sporothrix schenckii. =Blastomyces dermatitidis causes Gilchrist's disease, Chicago disease =HistoplasmosisorDarling's diseaseis caused by dimorphic fungus - Histoplasma capsulatum ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: A young man presented with hyper parathyroidism. Which of the following radionuclide scan is done for parathyroid adenoma?, with the following options: A: Sesta MIBI scan, B: Iodine-123 scan, C: 99mTc-sulphur colloid, D: Gallium scan ### Response:

The localization ability of Technetium 99m sestamibi scintigraphy is based on its preferential uptake by parathyroid cells, due to their high mitochondrial activity. Delayed images taken 2 to 3 h after injection are sensitive in up to 90% of single adenoma cases, with over 90% specificity. Sestamibi imaging is also effective in cases of double adenoma. However, it has significantly reduced accuracy in cases of four-gland hyperplasia. Ref: Singer M.C., Terris D.J. (2012). Chapter 43. Parathyroid Disorders. In A.K. Lalwani (Ed), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment in Otolaryngology--Head & Neck Surgery, 3e.

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: A young man presented with hyper parathyroidism. Which of the following radionuclide scan is done for parathyroid adenoma?, with the following options: A: Sesta MIBI scan, B: Iodine-123 scan, C: 99mTc-sulphur colloid, D: Gallium scan ### Response: The localization ability of Technetium 99m sestamibi scintigraphy is based on its preferential uptake by parathyroid cells, due to their high mitochondrial activity. Delayed images taken 2 to 3 h after injection are sensitive in up to 90% of single adenoma cases, with over 90% specificity. Sestamibi imaging is also effective in cases of double adenoma. However, it has significantly reduced accuracy in cases of four-gland hyperplasia. Ref: Singer M.C., Terris D.J. (2012). Chapter 43. Parathyroid Disorders. In A.K. Lalwani (Ed), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment in Otolaryngology--Head & Neck Surgery, 3e. ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Acantholytic cell in pemphigus is derived from :, with the following options: A: Stratum granulosum, B: Stratum basale, C: Stratum spinosum, D: Langerhan's cell ### Response:

C i.e. Stratum spinostunPemphigus (vulgarisQ, vegetans, foliaceus, erythematous, endemic, paraneoplasticQ) causes intra epidermalQ and PemphigoidQ (bullous, cicatricial, gestations, linear IgA disease) causes sub epidermal bullae formation(2. Blisters (vesicles, bullae or split) are intra epidermal in pemphigus and subepidermal in pemphigoid and dermatitis herpetiformisQ

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Acantholytic cell in pemphigus is derived from :, with the following options: A: Stratum granulosum, B: Stratum basale, C: Stratum spinosum, D: Langerhan's cell ### Response: C i.e. Stratum spinostunPemphigus (vulgarisQ, vegetans, foliaceus, erythematous, endemic, paraneoplasticQ) causes intra epidermalQ and PemphigoidQ (bullous, cicatricial, gestations, linear IgA disease) causes sub epidermal bullae formation(2. Blisters (vesicles, bullae or split) are intra epidermal in pemphigus and subepidermal in pemphigoid and dermatitis herpetiformisQ ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: The synthesis of one peptide bond involves hydrolysis of, with the following options: A: 1 ATP & 3 GTP, B: 2 ATP & 2 GTP, C: 3 ATP & 1 GTP, D: 4 ATP ### Response:

During the translation process, the formation of one peptide bond (adding one amino acid) consumes 4 high energy phosphates (2 from ATP & 2 from GTP). Eukaryotes will add 6 amino acids and prokaryotes will add 18 amino acids per second. (Refer: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 26th edition, pg no: 370)

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: The synthesis of one peptide bond involves hydrolysis of, with the following options: A: 1 ATP & 3 GTP, B: 2 ATP & 2 GTP, C: 3 ATP & 1 GTP, D: 4 ATP ### Response: During the translation process, the formation of one peptide bond (adding one amino acid) consumes 4 high energy phosphates (2 from ATP & 2 from GTP). Eukaryotes will add 6 amino acids and prokaryotes will add 18 amino acids per second. (Refer: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 26th edition, pg no: 370) ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Rokitansky protuberances are seen in -, with the following options: A: Mucinous carcinoma, B: Teratoma, C: Epidermal cystoids adenoma, D: Papillary carcinoma ### Response:

Teratoma Teratomas are divided into three categories: (1) Mature (benign) Most benign teratomas are cystic and are known as dermoid cysts. These neoplasms are presumably derived from the ectodermal differentiation of totipotential cells. They are bilateral in 10% to 15% of cases. Characteristically, they are unilocular cysts containing hair and cheesy sebaceous material. On section, they reveal a thin wall lined by an opaque, grey-white, wrinkled, apparent epidermis. Generally, in one area of the cyst wall, a solid prominence is seen known as Rokitansky's protuberance where tissue elements such as tooth, bone, cartilage & various other odd tissues are present. On histologic examination, the cyst wall is composed of stratified squamous epithelium with underlying sebaceous glands, hair shafts, and other skin adnexal structures. In most cases, structures from other germ layers can be identified, such as cartilage, bone, thyroid tissue, and other organoid formations. Dermoid cysts are sometimes incorporated within the wall of a mucinous cystadenoma. About 1% of the dermoids undergo malignant transformation of any one of the component elements ( but most commonly, squamous cell carcinoma). (2) Monodermal or Specialized Teratomas The rare group of tumors, the most common of which are struma ovarii and carcinoid. They are always unilateral, although a contralateral teratoma may be present. Struma ovarii is composed entirely of mature thyroid tissue. Interestingly, these thyroidal neoplasms may hyperfunction, causing hyperthyroidism. The ovarian carcinoid, which presumably arises from intestinal epithelium in a teratoma, might, in fact, be functioning, particularly in large tumors, producing 5-hydroxytryptamine and the carcinoid syndrome. (3) Immature Malignant Teratomas These are rare tumors that differ from benign teratomas in that the component tissue resembles that observed in the fetus or embryo rather than in the adult. The tumor is found chiefly in prepubertal adolescents and young women. These grow rapidly and frequently penetrate the capsule with local spread or metastases. On microscopy, there are varying amounts of immature tissue differentiating toward cartilage, glands, bone, muscle, nerve, and others. An important risk for the subsequent extraovarian spread is the histologic grade of tumor, which is based on the proportion of tissue containing immature neuroepithelium.

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Rokitansky protuberances are seen in -, with the following options: A: Mucinous carcinoma, B: Teratoma, C: Epidermal cystoids adenoma, D: Papillary carcinoma ### Response: Teratoma Teratomas are divided into three categories: (1) Mature (benign) Most benign teratomas are cystic and are known as dermoid cysts. These neoplasms are presumably derived from the ectodermal differentiation of totipotential cells. They are bilateral in 10% to 15% of cases. Characteristically, they are unilocular cysts containing hair and cheesy sebaceous material. On section, they reveal a thin wall lined by an opaque, grey-white, wrinkled, apparent epidermis. Generally, in one area of the cyst wall, a solid prominence is seen known as Rokitansky's protuberance where tissue elements such as tooth, bone, cartilage & various other odd tissues are present. On histologic examination, the cyst wall is composed of stratified squamous epithelium with underlying sebaceous glands, hair shafts, and other skin adnexal structures. In most cases, structures from other germ layers can be identified, such as cartilage, bone, thyroid tissue, and other organoid formations. Dermoid cysts are sometimes incorporated within the wall of a mucinous cystadenoma. About 1% of the dermoids undergo malignant transformation of any one of the component elements ( but most commonly, squamous cell carcinoma). (2) Monodermal or Specialized Teratomas The rare group of tumors, the most common of which are struma ovarii and carcinoid. They are always unilateral, although a contralateral teratoma may be present. Struma ovarii is composed entirely of mature thyroid tissue. Interestingly, these thyroidal neoplasms may hyperfunction, causing hyperthyroidism. The ovarian carcinoid, which presumably arises from intestinal epithelium in a teratoma, might, in fact, be functioning, particularly in large tumors, producing 5-hydroxytryptamine and the carcinoid syndrome. (3) Immature Malignant Teratomas These are rare tumors that differ from benign teratomas in that the component tissue resembles that observed in the fetus or embryo rather than in the adult. The tumor is found chiefly in prepubertal adolescents and young women. These grow rapidly and frequently penetrate the capsule with local spread or metastases. On microscopy, there are varying amounts of immature tissue differentiating toward cartilage, glands, bone, muscle, nerve, and others. An important risk for the subsequent extraovarian spread is the histologic grade of tumor, which is based on the proportion of tissue containing immature neuroepithelium. ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Cause of post-menopausal bleeding is :, with the following options: A: Arrhenoblastoma, B: Cystadenoma, C: Granulosa cell tumour, D: Hilus cell tumour ### Response:

Granulosa cell tumour

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Cause of post-menopausal bleeding is :, with the following options: A: Arrhenoblastoma, B: Cystadenoma, C: Granulosa cell tumour, D: Hilus cell tumour ### Response: Granulosa cell tumour ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Pathognomic of measls -, with the following options: A: Koplik spot, B: Rash, C: Fever, D: Conjuctivitis ### Response:

Ans. is 'a' i.e., Koplik spot Measleo Caused by RN A virus.o Highly contagious droplet spread from secretion of nose and throat 4 day before and 5 days after rash,o Secondary attack rate >90% in contact.o Prodromal phase - characterized by fever, rhinorrhea, conjuctival congestion and dry hackig cough,o Koplik spots bluish-gray specks or ''grains of sand" on a red base-develop on the buccal mucosa opposite the second molarsGenerally appear 1 -2 days before the rash and fast 3-5 daysPathognomonic for measles, but not always presento Rash appears on D4 first behind pinna on neck the spread of face, thrunk and abdomen,o SSPE is long term complication seen in measls.

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Pathognomic of measls -, with the following options: A: Koplik spot, B: Rash, C: Fever, D: Conjuctivitis ### Response: Ans. is 'a' i.e., Koplik spot Measleo Caused by RN A virus.o Highly contagious droplet spread from secretion of nose and throat 4 day before and 5 days after rash,o Secondary attack rate >90% in contact.o Prodromal phase - characterized by fever, rhinorrhea, conjuctival congestion and dry hackig cough,o Koplik spots bluish-gray specks or ''grains of sand" on a red base-develop on the buccal mucosa opposite the second molarsGenerally appear 1 -2 days before the rash and fast 3-5 daysPathognomonic for measles, but not always presento Rash appears on D4 first behind pinna on neck the spread of face, thrunk and abdomen,o SSPE is long term complication seen in measls. ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Pathogenesis of all of the following is granulomatous inflammation, except:, with the following options: A: Wegener's granulomatosis, B: Churg-Strauss syndrome, C: Takayasu's aeritis, D: Microscopic polyangitis ### Response:

Microscopic polyangitis is characterized by segmental fibrinoid necrosis of the media with focal transmural necrotizing lesions; granulomatous inflammation is absent.

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Pathogenesis of all of the following is granulomatous inflammation, except:, with the following options: A: Wegener's granulomatosis, B: Churg-Strauss syndrome, C: Takayasu's aeritis, D: Microscopic polyangitis ### Response: Microscopic polyangitis is characterized by segmental fibrinoid necrosis of the media with focal transmural necrotizing lesions; granulomatous inflammation is absent. ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: High priority in triage is for -, with the following options: A: Red color, B: Yellow color, C: Green color, D: Black color ### Response:

Ans. is 'a' i.e., Red colour o The most common triage classification system used international is four colour code system.1. Red- High priority treatment or transfer2. Yellow- Medium priority3. Green- Ambulatory patients4. Black- Dead or moribund patients

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: High priority in triage is for -, with the following options: A: Red color, B: Yellow color, C: Green color, D: Black color ### Response: Ans. is 'a' i.e., Red colour o The most common triage classification system used international is four colour code system.1. Red- High priority treatment or transfer2. Yellow- Medium priority3. Green- Ambulatory patients4. Black- Dead or moribund patients ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Most accurate method to diagnose Hemangioma of liver, with the following options: A: USG, B: MRI, C: Hepatic Scintigraphy, D: CECT ### Response:

Most accurate method - MRI > hepatic scintigraphy.

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Most accurate method to diagnose Hemangioma of liver, with the following options: A: USG, B: MRI, C: Hepatic Scintigraphy, D: CECT ### Response: Most accurate method - MRI > hepatic scintigraphy. ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Structures passing through obturator foramen are all EXCEPT:, with the following options: A: Internal Pudendal vessels, B: Obturator Nerve, C: Obturator Aery, D: Obturator Vein ### Response:

Internal Pudendal Vessels pass through greater and lesser sciatic foramina(not through obturator foramen). The obturator aery,obturator vein, and obturator nerve all travel through the canal. fig :-structure passing through sciatic foramina

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Structures passing through obturator foramen are all EXCEPT:, with the following options: A: Internal Pudendal vessels, B: Obturator Nerve, C: Obturator Aery, D: Obturator Vein ### Response: Internal Pudendal Vessels pass through greater and lesser sciatic foramina(not through obturator foramen). The obturator aery,obturator vein, and obturator nerve all travel through the canal. fig :-structure passing through sciatic foramina ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Schilling test is used for -, with the following options: A: Fat absorption, B: Vit K absorption, C: Vitamin B12 absorption, D: Vitamin D absorption ### Response:

Ans. is 'c' i.e., Vitamin B12 absorption [Ref: Clinical diagnosis and management by the laboratory method"Schilling test is used for l it B12 absorption "Schilling test Step 1o Administer an intramuscular injection of Vitamin Bl2This will saturate the vitamin B12 receptors because otherwise, the body would be hungry for the oral dose of vitamin B12 and radiolabelled vitamin B12 will not appear in urine even if there is no abnormality in vitamin B12 absorption.Step 2o Give a radiolabeled oral dose of vitamin BI2If the vitamin B 12 absorption is normal the radiolabelled vitamin B 12 would appear in the urine. In that case, Vitamin B12 deficiency is believed to be due to dietary deficiency.If the vitamin B 12 does not appear in the urine malabsorption of Vitamin B12 is suspected. It has to find out whether its due to pernicious anemia or some other cause.Step 3o Sow, administer intrinsic factor along with radiolabelled Vitamin BI2If vitamin B12 appears in the urine then the diagnosis is pernicious anemia.If the Vitamin Bl 2 still does not appear in the urine then it is a case of malabsorption but not due to pernicious anemia and most commonly due to ileal resection or small bowel infection and bacterial overgrowth.

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Schilling test is used for -, with the following options: A: Fat absorption, B: Vit K absorption, C: Vitamin B12 absorption, D: Vitamin D absorption ### Response: Ans. is 'c' i.e., Vitamin B12 absorption [Ref: Clinical diagnosis and management by the laboratory method"Schilling test is used for l it B12 absorption "Schilling test Step 1o Administer an intramuscular injection of Vitamin Bl2This will saturate the vitamin B12 receptors because otherwise, the body would be hungry for the oral dose of vitamin B12 and radiolabelled vitamin B12 will not appear in urine even if there is no abnormality in vitamin B12 absorption.Step 2o Give a radiolabeled oral dose of vitamin BI2If the vitamin B 12 absorption is normal the radiolabelled vitamin B 12 would appear in the urine. In that case, Vitamin B12 deficiency is believed to be due to dietary deficiency.If the vitamin B 12 does not appear in the urine malabsorption of Vitamin B12 is suspected. It has to find out whether its due to pernicious anemia or some other cause.Step 3o Sow, administer intrinsic factor along with radiolabelled Vitamin BI2If vitamin B12 appears in the urine then the diagnosis is pernicious anemia.If the Vitamin Bl 2 still does not appear in the urine then it is a case of malabsorption but not due to pernicious anemia and most commonly due to ileal resection or small bowel infection and bacterial overgrowth. ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Cranial nerve related to apex of petrous temoporal bone, with the following options: A: VIII, B: VII, C: VI, D: IX ### Response:

Cranial nerve 5 & 6 are related to apex of petrous bone. Only 1st & 2nd cranial nerves do not arise from brain stem and so do not pass through posterior-cranial fossa. And all other C.N (i.e. 3rd to 12th) pass through posterior cranial fossa. Trochlear (4th) nerve is the only cranial nerve to emerge dorsally from the brain stem & has longest infra cranial course and most slender cranial nerve (in terms of axons it contains)

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Cranial nerve related to apex of petrous temoporal bone, with the following options: A: VIII, B: VII, C: VI, D: IX ### Response: Cranial nerve 5 & 6 are related to apex of petrous bone. Only 1st & 2nd cranial nerves do not arise from brain stem and so do not pass through posterior-cranial fossa. And all other C.N (i.e. 3rd to 12th) pass through posterior cranial fossa. Trochlear (4th) nerve is the only cranial nerve to emerge dorsally from the brain stem & has longest infra cranial course and most slender cranial nerve (in terms of axons it contains) ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Which of the following is/are not the features of henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP) -, with the following options: A: Abdominal pain, B: Splinter hemorrhage, C: Thrombocytopenia, D: Epistaxis ### Response:

Ans. is 'c' i.e., Thrombocytopenia o HSP is characterized by tetrad of palpable purpura, ahritis, glomerulonephritis and abdominal pain. o Less common skin lesions are : nonpalpable macules & patches, uicaria, bullous lesions, vesicles, splinter hemorrhage and ulcerations. o Rarely epistaxis may occur.

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Which of the following is/are not the features of henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP) -, with the following options: A: Abdominal pain, B: Splinter hemorrhage, C: Thrombocytopenia, D: Epistaxis ### Response: Ans. is 'c' i.e., Thrombocytopenia o HSP is characterized by tetrad of palpable purpura, ahritis, glomerulonephritis and abdominal pain. o Less common skin lesions are : nonpalpable macules & patches, uicaria, bullous lesions, vesicles, splinter hemorrhage and ulcerations. o Rarely epistaxis may occur. ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Lymphoid tissue is the site of latent infection for which of the following herpes viruses?, with the following options: A: Cytomegalovirus, B: Epstein barr virus, C: Herpes simplex virus type 1, D: Herpes simplex virus type 2 ### Response:

Epstein barr virus is a human herpes virus type 4, belonging to the gamma family. Its latent infection is in the lymphoid tissues. While that of Herpes simplex virus type 1 and 2 is in neurons and that of cytomegalovirus is in secretary glands and kidneys. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology, Anathanaraya and panicker's, 8th Edition, Page 468

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Lymphoid tissue is the site of latent infection for which of the following herpes viruses?, with the following options: A: Cytomegalovirus, B: Epstein barr virus, C: Herpes simplex virus type 1, D: Herpes simplex virus type 2 ### Response: Epstein barr virus is a human herpes virus type 4, belonging to the gamma family. Its latent infection is in the lymphoid tissues. While that of Herpes simplex virus type 1 and 2 is in neurons and that of cytomegalovirus is in secretary glands and kidneys. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology, Anathanaraya and panicker's, 8th Edition, Page 468 ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: A 40 -- years -- old woman presented to the gynecologist with complaints of profuse vaginal discharge. There was no discharge from the cervix on the speculum examination. The diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis was made based upon all of the following findings on microscopy except :, with the following options: A: Abundance of gram variable coccobacilli, B: Absence of Lactobacilli, C: Abundance of polymorphs, D: Present of clue cells ### Response:

Ans. is c i.e. Abundance of polymorphs In Bacterial vaginosis, polymorphs are either absent or there is only a slight increase.

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: A 40 -- years -- old woman presented to the gynecologist with complaints of profuse vaginal discharge. There was no discharge from the cervix on the speculum examination. The diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis was made based upon all of the following findings on microscopy except :, with the following options: A: Abundance of gram variable coccobacilli, B: Absence of Lactobacilli, C: Abundance of polymorphs, D: Present of clue cells ### Response: Ans. is c i.e. Abundance of polymorphs In Bacterial vaginosis, polymorphs are either absent or there is only a slight increase. ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Ulnar collateral nerve is, with the following options: A: Branch of ulnar nerve, B: Branch of radial nerve supplying medial head of triceps, C: Branch of radial nerve supplying long head of biceps, D: Branch of radial nerve supplying lateral head of triceps ### Response:

In the arm, the radial nerve is posterior to the brachial aery. Here it gives muscular branches to long and medial heads of triceps brachii. The branch for medial head lies very close to the ulnar nerve and hence is called the ulnar collateral nerve. ReferenceClinicall Anatomy for students, a problem-solving approach, Neeta v Kulkarni, 2nd edition, page no.179

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Ulnar collateral nerve is, with the following options: A: Branch of ulnar nerve, B: Branch of radial nerve supplying medial head of triceps, C: Branch of radial nerve supplying long head of biceps, D: Branch of radial nerve supplying lateral head of triceps ### Response: In the arm, the radial nerve is posterior to the brachial aery. Here it gives muscular branches to long and medial heads of triceps brachii. The branch for medial head lies very close to the ulnar nerve and hence is called the ulnar collateral nerve. ReferenceClinicall Anatomy for students, a problem-solving approach, Neeta v Kulkarni, 2nd edition, page no.179 ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Which of the following statements concerning immunoglobulins is wrong -, with the following options: A: Igm does not cross placenta, B: IgE is | ed in parasitic infection, C: IgM increased in primary response, D: Fetal infection is characterised by increased in IgG ### Response:

IgM antibodies do not pass across the human placenta. Demonstrating IgM antibodies in a patient's serum indicates recent infection, or in a neonate's serum indicates intrauterine infection Reff: Ananthanarayan & Parkers textbook of microbiology 9th edition pg:98

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Which of the following statements concerning immunoglobulins is wrong -, with the following options: A: Igm does not cross placenta, B: IgE is | ed in parasitic infection, C: IgM increased in primary response, D: Fetal infection is characterised by increased in IgG ### Response: IgM antibodies do not pass across the human placenta. Demonstrating IgM antibodies in a patient's serum indicates recent infection, or in a neonate's serum indicates intrauterine infection Reff: Ananthanarayan & Parkers textbook of microbiology 9th edition pg:98 ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: All are seen in Behchets syndrome except -, with the following options: A: Genital ulcers, B: Uveitis, C: Oral ulcers, D: Pyoderma gangrenosum ### Response:

Ans. is 'd' i.e., Pyoderma gangrenosum Behcet's diseaseo Behcet's disease is a multisystem disease that is defined by the presence of oral aphthosis with at least two of the following: genital aphthae, synovitis, posterior uveitis, cutaneous pustular vasculitis or meningoencephalitis, in the absence of IBD or autoimmune Diseases .o Children sometimes develop Behcet's disease, but it typically affects young adults.o Its association with HLA-B51Diagnostic criteria:Recurrent oral ulceration - Minor aphthous, major aphthous, or herpetiform ulceration observed by physician orpatient that recurred at least 3 times in one 12-month periodPlus two of the following criteria :Recurrent genital ulceration Aphthous ulceration or scarring observed by physician or patientEye lesions : Anterior uveitis, posterior uveitis, or cells in vitreous on slit-lamp examination; or retinal vasculitis observed by ophthalmologistSkin lesions : Erythema nodosum observed by physician or patient, pseudofolliculitis or papulopustular lesions; or acneiform nodules observed by physician in post-adolescent patients not receiving corticosteroid treatmentPositive pathergy test: Read by physician at 24-48 h.

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: All are seen in Behchets syndrome except -, with the following options: A: Genital ulcers, B: Uveitis, C: Oral ulcers, D: Pyoderma gangrenosum ### Response: Ans. is 'd' i.e., Pyoderma gangrenosum Behcet's diseaseo Behcet's disease is a multisystem disease that is defined by the presence of oral aphthosis with at least two of the following: genital aphthae, synovitis, posterior uveitis, cutaneous pustular vasculitis or meningoencephalitis, in the absence of IBD or autoimmune Diseases .o Children sometimes develop Behcet's disease, but it typically affects young adults.o Its association with HLA-B51Diagnostic criteria:Recurrent oral ulceration - Minor aphthous, major aphthous, or herpetiform ulceration observed by physician orpatient that recurred at least 3 times in one 12-month periodPlus two of the following criteria :Recurrent genital ulceration Aphthous ulceration or scarring observed by physician or patientEye lesions : Anterior uveitis, posterior uveitis, or cells in vitreous on slit-lamp examination; or retinal vasculitis observed by ophthalmologistSkin lesions : Erythema nodosum observed by physician or patient, pseudofolliculitis or papulopustular lesions; or acneiform nodules observed by physician in post-adolescent patients not receiving corticosteroid treatmentPositive pathergy test: Read by physician at 24-48 h. ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: 5 yr/M presented with fever for 10 days, for which child was given some medication. He has developed anorexia & vomiting for last 3 days, altered sensorium for 1 day. The child also had 2 episodes of seizures 1 day before presentation. O/e the child was hemodynamically stable, had no pallor or icterus, no meningeal signs. Liver was palpable-2cm below right costal margin, blood glucose 40 mg%, Hb 11 g/dl, TLC 8300, Platelet count 2.8 lac/mm3, PT was 58/12 sec. What is the diagnostic possibility?, with the following options: A: Tyrosinemia, B: Reye syndrome, C: Alagille syndrome, D: Acute Viral Hepatitis ### Response:

Given scenario suggests diagnosis of: Reye syndrome Alagille Syndrome- Triangular faces, conjugated jaundice Tyrosinemia- hepatorenal involvement, peripheral neuropathy

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: 5 yr/M presented with fever for 10 days, for which child was given some medication. He has developed anorexia & vomiting for last 3 days, altered sensorium for 1 day. The child also had 2 episodes of seizures 1 day before presentation. O/e the child was hemodynamically stable, had no pallor or icterus, no meningeal signs. Liver was palpable-2cm below right costal margin, blood glucose 40 mg%, Hb 11 g/dl, TLC 8300, Platelet count 2.8 lac/mm3, PT was 58/12 sec. What is the diagnostic possibility?, with the following options: A: Tyrosinemia, B: Reye syndrome, C: Alagille syndrome, D: Acute Viral Hepatitis ### Response: Given scenario suggests diagnosis of: Reye syndrome Alagille Syndrome- Triangular faces, conjugated jaundice Tyrosinemia- hepatorenal involvement, peripheral neuropathy ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: S100 is a marker used in the diagnosis of, with the following options: A: Melanoma, B: Schwannoma, C: LCH, D: All of the above ### Response:

S100 proteins are normally present in cells derived from the neural crest (Schwann cells, and melanocytes), chondrocytes, adipocytes, myoepithelial cells, macrophages, Langerhans cells, dendritic cells, and keratinocytes.S100 protein family are useful as markers for ceain tumors and epidermal differentiation. It can be found in melanomas, schwannomas, neurofibromas, 50% of malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors, paraganglioma stromal cells, histiocytoma and clear cell sarcomas.

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: S100 is a marker used in the diagnosis of, with the following options: A: Melanoma, B: Schwannoma, C: LCH, D: All of the above ### Response: S100 proteins are normally present in cells derived from the neural crest (Schwann cells, and melanocytes), chondrocytes, adipocytes, myoepithelial cells, macrophages, Langerhans cells, dendritic cells, and keratinocytes.S100 protein family are useful as markers for ceain tumors and epidermal differentiation. It can be found in melanomas, schwannomas, neurofibromas, 50% of malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors, paraganglioma stromal cells, histiocytoma and clear cell sarcomas. ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: This is a specimen of stalk resection of pedunculated bony swelling. Diagnosis is, with the following options: A: Osteochondroma, B: Chondroma, C: Osteoid osteoma, D: Osteoclastoma ### Response:

Osteochondroma, also known as an exostosis, is the most common benign bone tumor; about 85% are solitary.It is a benign cailage-capped tumor that is attached to the underlying skeleton by a bony stalk. The cap is composed of benign hyaline cailage varying in thickness and is covered peripherally by perichondrium. The coex of the stalk merges with the coex of the host boneRef: Robbins Pathology; 9th edition; Page no: 1200

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: This is a specimen of stalk resection of pedunculated bony swelling. Diagnosis is, with the following options: A: Osteochondroma, B: Chondroma, C: Osteoid osteoma, D: Osteoclastoma ### Response: Osteochondroma, also known as an exostosis, is the most common benign bone tumor; about 85% are solitary.It is a benign cailage-capped tumor that is attached to the underlying skeleton by a bony stalk. The cap is composed of benign hyaline cailage varying in thickness and is covered peripherally by perichondrium. The coex of the stalk merges with the coex of the host boneRef: Robbins Pathology; 9th edition; Page no: 1200 ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: False negative hydrostatic test in live fetus is for, with the following options: A: Atelectasis, B: Aicial respiration, C: Emphysema, D: Putrefaction ### Response:

False negative hydrostatic test can be seen in :- 1. Diseases e.g. : acute edema, pneumonia, Congenital syphilis. 2. Atelectasis False positive hydrostatic test can be seen in :- 1. Presence of putrified gases. 2. Aificial inflation.

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: False negative hydrostatic test in live fetus is for, with the following options: A: Atelectasis, B: Aicial respiration, C: Emphysema, D: Putrefaction ### Response: False negative hydrostatic test can be seen in :- 1. Diseases e.g. : acute edema, pneumonia, Congenital syphilis. 2. Atelectasis False positive hydrostatic test can be seen in :- 1. Presence of putrified gases. 2. Aificial inflation. ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: A new born baby had normal APGAR score at bih and developed excessive frothing and choking on attempted feeds. The investigation of choice is ?, with the following options: A: Esophagoscopy, B: Bronchoscopy, C: MRI chest, D: X-ray chest and abdomen with the red rubber catheter passed per orally into esophagus ### Response:

Ans. is 'd' i.e., X-ray chest and abdomen with the red rubber catheter passed per orally into esophagus o This is a case of tracheo esophageal fistula. C/F of tracheo esophageal fistula a) The newborn regurgitates all of its first and subsequent feeds. b) Saliva pours almost continuously from the mouth of the infant (This is 'the sign' of tracheoesophageal atresia. It does not occur in any other condition) c) Attacks of coughing and cyanosis occurs on feeding. Clinical confirmation of diagnoses q If a nasogastric tube is tried to pass into the infant it will come against an obstruction within 10 cm. If this occurs the diagnosis is viually ceain. o Radiological confirmation of diagnosis a) A lateral chest X-ray --> It shows a lucent proximal pouch that may displace trachea anteriorly. b) X-ray abdomen --> Gas in the stomach is seen if there is communication between the lower pa of the esophagus and trachea which occurs in the commonest variety of tracheo-esophageal fistula.

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: A new born baby had normal APGAR score at bih and developed excessive frothing and choking on attempted feeds. The investigation of choice is ?, with the following options: A: Esophagoscopy, B: Bronchoscopy, C: MRI chest, D: X-ray chest and abdomen with the red rubber catheter passed per orally into esophagus ### Response: Ans. is 'd' i.e., X-ray chest and abdomen with the red rubber catheter passed per orally into esophagus o This is a case of tracheo esophageal fistula. C/F of tracheo esophageal fistula a) The newborn regurgitates all of its first and subsequent feeds. b) Saliva pours almost continuously from the mouth of the infant (This is 'the sign' of tracheoesophageal atresia. It does not occur in any other condition) c) Attacks of coughing and cyanosis occurs on feeding. Clinical confirmation of diagnoses q If a nasogastric tube is tried to pass into the infant it will come against an obstruction within 10 cm. If this occurs the diagnosis is viually ceain. o Radiological confirmation of diagnosis a) A lateral chest X-ray --> It shows a lucent proximal pouch that may displace trachea anteriorly. b) X-ray abdomen --> Gas in the stomach is seen if there is communication between the lower pa of the esophagus and trachea which occurs in the commonest variety of tracheo-esophageal fistula. ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: A girl at 16 years of age, presents with primary amenorrhea. On examination, breast development is normal, axillary and pubic hair are sparse, vagina is normal. USG revealed absent uterus and solid nodular structures in B/L inguinal regions. Diagnosis is?, with the following options: A: Androgen insensitivity syndrome, B: MRKH, C: Turners syndrome, D: Pure gonadal dysgenesis ### Response:

MRKH Androgen insensitivity syndrome Genotype XX XY sex of rearing Female Female Breast development Normal (estrogen effect) Normal Pubic and axillary hair Normal Absent (insensitivity to testosterone) Gonad Normal ovary Testis Uterus Absent Absent Risk of gonadal malignancy None Increased Gonadectomy Not required Recommended after attaining pubey LEARNING TIP: MRKH (MULLERIAN AGENESIS) IS XX BUT DOESN'T HAVE MULLERIAN COMPONENT (UTERUS AND VAGINA). NORMAL OVARY (IT IS NOT MULLERIAN) - ESTROGEN - NORMAL SECONDARY SEXUAL CHARACTERS - FEMALE PHENOTYPE ANDROGEN INSENSITIVITY IS XY, TESTES ARE PRESENT, BUT BODY IS RESISTANT TO TESTOSTERONE (NO AXILLARY N PUBIC HAIR) - NORMAL SECONDARY SEXUAL CHARACTERS - FEMALE PHENOTYPE TURNERS IS XO - STREAK GONADS - ABNORMAL FEMALE PHENOTYPE

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: A girl at 16 years of age, presents with primary amenorrhea. On examination, breast development is normal, axillary and pubic hair are sparse, vagina is normal. USG revealed absent uterus and solid nodular structures in B/L inguinal regions. Diagnosis is?, with the following options: A: Androgen insensitivity syndrome, B: MRKH, C: Turners syndrome, D: Pure gonadal dysgenesis ### Response: MRKH Androgen insensitivity syndrome Genotype XX XY sex of rearing Female Female Breast development Normal (estrogen effect) Normal Pubic and axillary hair Normal Absent (insensitivity to testosterone) Gonad Normal ovary Testis Uterus Absent Absent Risk of gonadal malignancy None Increased Gonadectomy Not required Recommended after attaining pubey LEARNING TIP: MRKH (MULLERIAN AGENESIS) IS XX BUT DOESN'T HAVE MULLERIAN COMPONENT (UTERUS AND VAGINA). NORMAL OVARY (IT IS NOT MULLERIAN) - ESTROGEN - NORMAL SECONDARY SEXUAL CHARACTERS - FEMALE PHENOTYPE ANDROGEN INSENSITIVITY IS XY, TESTES ARE PRESENT, BUT BODY IS RESISTANT TO TESTOSTERONE (NO AXILLARY N PUBIC HAIR) - NORMAL SECONDARY SEXUAL CHARACTERS - FEMALE PHENOTYPE TURNERS IS XO - STREAK GONADS - ABNORMAL FEMALE PHENOTYPE ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Sun ray appearance is seen in – a) Osteosarcomab) Ewing sarcomac) Osteoclastomad) Multiple myeloma, with the following options: A: ac, B: ab, C: ad, D: bc ### Response:

Sunray appearance is classically seen in osteosarcoma. It may also occur in metastases, Ewings sarcoma, Haemangioma, Meningioma and tuberculosis.

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Sun ray appearance is seen in – a) Osteosarcomab) Ewing sarcomac) Osteoclastomad) Multiple myeloma, with the following options: A: ac, B: ab, C: ad, D: bc ### Response: Sunray appearance is classically seen in osteosarcoma. It may also occur in metastases, Ewings sarcoma, Haemangioma, Meningioma and tuberculosis. ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: The prostatic urethra is characterized by all of the following features, except, with the following options: A: Is the widest and most dilatable pa, B: Presents a concavity posteriorly, C: Lies closer to anterior surface of prostate, D: Receives prostatic ductules along its posterior wall ### Response:

The prostatic urethra, the widest and most dilatable pa of the urethra canal, is about 3 cm. long The transverse section of this canal is shaped like a horse-shoe. Its convex pa is directed towards the front.

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: The prostatic urethra is characterized by all of the following features, except, with the following options: A: Is the widest and most dilatable pa, B: Presents a concavity posteriorly, C: Lies closer to anterior surface of prostate, D: Receives prostatic ductules along its posterior wall ### Response: The prostatic urethra, the widest and most dilatable pa of the urethra canal, is about 3 cm. long The transverse section of this canal is shaped like a horse-shoe. Its convex pa is directed towards the front. ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Dohle bodies -, with the following options: A: Dilated Endoplasmic Reticulum in Neutrophils, B: Mitochondria, C: Golgi apparatus, D: Lysosomes ### Response:

Dohle bodies are patches of dilated endoplasmic reticulum that appear as sky blue cytoplasmic puddles. Ref :Robbins pathologic basis of disease ; south east asia edition ;pg:583

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Dohle bodies -, with the following options: A: Dilated Endoplasmic Reticulum in Neutrophils, B: Mitochondria, C: Golgi apparatus, D: Lysosomes ### Response: Dohle bodies are patches of dilated endoplasmic reticulum that appear as sky blue cytoplasmic puddles. Ref :Robbins pathologic basis of disease ; south east asia edition ;pg:583 ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Respiratory minute volume of lung is -, with the following options: A: 6L, B: 4L, C: 500mL, D: 125L ### Response:

Ans. is 'a' i.e., 6L o The minute respiratory' volume averages about 6 L/min.o Minute volume (Pulmonary ventilation or respiratory minute volume) : - It is the amount of air breathed in (inspired) or out (expired) by the lungs in one minute. So, minute volume = Tidal volume x Respiratory rate. It is at about 6LQ (500 ml tidal volume x 12 breath per minute respiratory rate). Minute volume is considered as a measure of pulmonary ventilation.Respiratory Volumes and Capacities for an Average Young Adult MaleMeasurementTypical valueDefinitionRespiratory volumes1. Tidal volume (TV)500 mlAmount of air inhaled or exhaled in one breath during relaxed, quiet breathing2. Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)3000 mlAmount of air in excess of tidal inspiration that can be inhaled with maximum effort3. Expiratory reserve volume (ERV)1200 mlAmount of air in excess of tidal expiration that can be exhaled with maximum effort4. Residual volume (RV)1200 mlAmount of air remaining in the lungs after maximum expiration, keeps alveoli inflated between breaths and mixes with fresh air on next inspirationRespiratory Capacities5. Vital capacity (VC)4700 mlAmount of air that can be exhaled with maximum effort after maximum inspiration (ERV+TV+IRV); used to assess strength of thoracic muscles as well as pulmonary function6. Inspiratory' capacity (IC)3500 mlMaximum amount of air that can be inhaled after a normal tidal expiration (TV + IRV)7. Functional residual capacity (FRC)2400 mlAmount of air remaining in the lungs after a normal tidal expiration (RV + ERV)8. Total lung capacity (TLC)5900 mlMaximum amount of air the lungs can contain (RV + VC)

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Respiratory minute volume of lung is -, with the following options: A: 6L, B: 4L, C: 500mL, D: 125L ### Response: Ans. is 'a' i.e., 6L o The minute respiratory' volume averages about 6 L/min.o Minute volume (Pulmonary ventilation or respiratory minute volume) : - It is the amount of air breathed in (inspired) or out (expired) by the lungs in one minute. So, minute volume = Tidal volume x Respiratory rate. It is at about 6LQ (500 ml tidal volume x 12 breath per minute respiratory rate). Minute volume is considered as a measure of pulmonary ventilation.Respiratory Volumes and Capacities for an Average Young Adult MaleMeasurementTypical valueDefinitionRespiratory volumes1. Tidal volume (TV)500 mlAmount of air inhaled or exhaled in one breath during relaxed, quiet breathing2. Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)3000 mlAmount of air in excess of tidal inspiration that can be inhaled with maximum effort3. Expiratory reserve volume (ERV)1200 mlAmount of air in excess of tidal expiration that can be exhaled with maximum effort4. Residual volume (RV)1200 mlAmount of air remaining in the lungs after maximum expiration, keeps alveoli inflated between breaths and mixes with fresh air on next inspirationRespiratory Capacities5. Vital capacity (VC)4700 mlAmount of air that can be exhaled with maximum effort after maximum inspiration (ERV+TV+IRV); used to assess strength of thoracic muscles as well as pulmonary function6. Inspiratory' capacity (IC)3500 mlMaximum amount of air that can be inhaled after a normal tidal expiration (TV + IRV)7. Functional residual capacity (FRC)2400 mlAmount of air remaining in the lungs after a normal tidal expiration (RV + ERV)8. Total lung capacity (TLC)5900 mlMaximum amount of air the lungs can contain (RV + VC) ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Why is Clopidogrel preferred over Ticlodipine?, with the following options: A: Cost, B: Drug interaction, C: Side effect, D: Efficacy ### Response:

(C) Side effect# TICLOPIDINE like clopidogrel, it is an adenosine diphosphate (ADP) receptor inhibitor.> Clopidogrel due to simpler dosing regimen, the absence of neutropenia, bone marrow aplasia and the lower frequency of other side effects make it a safe alternative to ticlopidinel.

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Why is Clopidogrel preferred over Ticlodipine?, with the following options: A: Cost, B: Drug interaction, C: Side effect, D: Efficacy ### Response: (C) Side effect# TICLOPIDINE like clopidogrel, it is an adenosine diphosphate (ADP) receptor inhibitor.> Clopidogrel due to simpler dosing regimen, the absence of neutropenia, bone marrow aplasia and the lower frequency of other side effects make it a safe alternative to ticlopidinel. ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Mutation seen in Hartnup's disease:, with the following options: A: SLC6A 18, B: SLC6A 19, C: SLC6A 17, D: SLC6A 16 ### Response:

b. SLC6A 19(Ref: Nelson 20/e p 3160)Hartnup's disease is due to mutation of SLC6A 19 gene encoding the neutral amino acid transporter, resulting in deficiency of nicotinamide synthesis

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Mutation seen in Hartnup's disease:, with the following options: A: SLC6A 18, B: SLC6A 19, C: SLC6A 17, D: SLC6A 16 ### Response: b. SLC6A 19(Ref: Nelson 20/e p 3160)Hartnup's disease is due to mutation of SLC6A 19 gene encoding the neutral amino acid transporter, resulting in deficiency of nicotinamide synthesis ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: According couinaud's classification of functional segments of liver, which of the following is segment IV of liver?, with the following options: A: Left lobe, B: Right lobe, C: Caudate lobe, D: Quadrate lobe ### Response:

Segment I     →  Caudate lobe Segment IV   → Quadrate lobe

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: According couinaud's classification of functional segments of liver, which of the following is segment IV of liver?, with the following options: A: Left lobe, B: Right lobe, C: Caudate lobe, D: Quadrate lobe ### Response: Segment I     →  Caudate lobe Segment IV   → Quadrate lobe ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Which of the following enzyme uses citrate in fatty acid synthesis?, with the following options: A: Aconitase, B: Citrate synthase, C: Malic enzyme, D: ATP citrate lyase ### Response:

Reference: Harpers illustrated biochemistry 30th edition

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Which of the following enzyme uses citrate in fatty acid synthesis?, with the following options: A: Aconitase, B: Citrate synthase, C: Malic enzyme, D: ATP citrate lyase ### Response: Reference: Harpers illustrated biochemistry 30th edition ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: A 25-year-old woman complains of intermittent vague right upper quadrant (RUQ) pain. She has been on oral contraceptive tablets for 6 years. A CT scan of her abdomen shows multiple low-density solid masses occupying the entire right lobe of her liver as well as most of the left lobe. What is the best treatment for this patient?, with the following options: A: Hepatic embolization, B: Discontinuation of oral contraceptives and a repeated CT scan of her abdomen in 3-6 months, C: CT-guided percutaneous needle biopsy of several liver masses, D: Laparoscopic biopsy of the liver masses and cholecystectomy ### Response:

The CT scan findings of this patient plus the history of prolonged use of oral contraceptives are characteristic in hepatocellular adenoma. Because the tumor extensively involves both the right and left lobes of the liver, oral contraceptive use must be discontinued, and the patient must be observed for 3-6 months. Significant reduction in size of the adenoma has been noted in many cases after cessation of oral contraceptive use. If there is no regression of lesions, then liver transplantation should be recommended.

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: A 25-year-old woman complains of intermittent vague right upper quadrant (RUQ) pain. She has been on oral contraceptive tablets for 6 years. A CT scan of her abdomen shows multiple low-density solid masses occupying the entire right lobe of her liver as well as most of the left lobe. What is the best treatment for this patient?, with the following options: A: Hepatic embolization, B: Discontinuation of oral contraceptives and a repeated CT scan of her abdomen in 3-6 months, C: CT-guided percutaneous needle biopsy of several liver masses, D: Laparoscopic biopsy of the liver masses and cholecystectomy ### Response: The CT scan findings of this patient plus the history of prolonged use of oral contraceptives are characteristic in hepatocellular adenoma. Because the tumor extensively involves both the right and left lobes of the liver, oral contraceptive use must be discontinued, and the patient must be observed for 3-6 months. Significant reduction in size of the adenoma has been noted in many cases after cessation of oral contraceptive use. If there is no regression of lesions, then liver transplantation should be recommended. ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Satiety center is located at, with the following options: A: Ventromedial nucleus of hypothalamus, B: Dorsomedial nucleus of hypothalamus, C: Peritrigonal area, D: Lateral nuclei ### Response:

Ans. (a) Ventromedial nucleus of hypothalamus(Ref: Ganong, 25th ed/p.308)Feeding center - lateral nucleus of hypothalamusSatiety center - ventromedial nucleus of hypothalamus

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Satiety center is located at, with the following options: A: Ventromedial nucleus of hypothalamus, B: Dorsomedial nucleus of hypothalamus, C: Peritrigonal area, D: Lateral nuclei ### Response: Ans. (a) Ventromedial nucleus of hypothalamus(Ref: Ganong, 25th ed/p.308)Feeding center - lateral nucleus of hypothalamusSatiety center - ventromedial nucleus of hypothalamus ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Patients suffering from multidrug resistant tuberculosis can be treated with all the following drugs EXCEPT:, with the following options: A: Tobramycin, B: Amikacin, C: Ciprofloxacin, D: Clarithromycin ### Response:

Multidrug-resistant (MDR) TB: is defined as resistance to both H and R and may be any number of other(1ST LINE) anti-TB drugs. MDR-TB has a more rapid course (some die in 4-16 weeks). Treatment of these cases is difficult, because one or more second line drugs are to be given for 12-24 months. If sensitivity of the TB bacilli is known, the drug/ drugs to which they are resistant is /are excluded and other first line drugs are prescribed along with 1-3 second line drugs. A total of 5-6 drugs are given. One of the FQs is generally included. ln case streptomycin is not being given, one out of kanamycin/ amikacin/ capreomycin should be added, because they are tuberculocidal. TOBRAMYCIN It was obtained from S. tenebrarius in the 1970s. The antibacterial and pharmacokinetic propeies, as well as dosage are almost identical to gentamicin, but it is 2-4 times more active against Pseudomonas and Proteus, including those resistant to gentamicin. However, it is not useful for combining with penicillin in the treatment oi enterococcal endocarditis. It should be used only as a reserve alternative to gentamicin. Serious infections caused by Pseudomonas and Proteus are its major indications. Ototoxicity and nephro toxicity is probably lower than gentamicin. ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY K.D.TRIPATHI SIXTH EDITION PAGE NO:724,748

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Patients suffering from multidrug resistant tuberculosis can be treated with all the following drugs EXCEPT:, with the following options: A: Tobramycin, B: Amikacin, C: Ciprofloxacin, D: Clarithromycin ### Response: Multidrug-resistant (MDR) TB: is defined as resistance to both H and R and may be any number of other(1ST LINE) anti-TB drugs. MDR-TB has a more rapid course (some die in 4-16 weeks). Treatment of these cases is difficult, because one or more second line drugs are to be given for 12-24 months. If sensitivity of the TB bacilli is known, the drug/ drugs to which they are resistant is /are excluded and other first line drugs are prescribed along with 1-3 second line drugs. A total of 5-6 drugs are given. One of the FQs is generally included. ln case streptomycin is not being given, one out of kanamycin/ amikacin/ capreomycin should be added, because they are tuberculocidal. TOBRAMYCIN It was obtained from S. tenebrarius in the 1970s. The antibacterial and pharmacokinetic propeies, as well as dosage are almost identical to gentamicin, but it is 2-4 times more active against Pseudomonas and Proteus, including those resistant to gentamicin. However, it is not useful for combining with penicillin in the treatment oi enterococcal endocarditis. It should be used only as a reserve alternative to gentamicin. Serious infections caused by Pseudomonas and Proteus are its major indications. Ototoxicity and nephro toxicity is probably lower than gentamicin. ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY K.D.TRIPATHI SIXTH EDITION PAGE NO:724,748 ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Which one of the following can be conveed to an intermediate of either the citric acid cycle or the urea cycle?, with the following options: A: Tyrosine, B: Lysine, C: Leucine, D: Aspaate ### Response:

.

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Which one of the following can be conveed to an intermediate of either the citric acid cycle or the urea cycle?, with the following options: A: Tyrosine, B: Lysine, C: Leucine, D: Aspaate ### Response: . ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: A patient presents with cough with expectoration. Diagnosis of farmers lung is suspected. True statement regarding this condition:, with the following options: A: May to June seasonal, B: Persistent cough with expectoration, C: X-ray features upper lobe predominant in chronic HP, D: Pleural effusions are common ### Response:

Ans: (c) X-ray features upper lobe predominant in chronic HPRef: Fishman's Pulmonary Disease and Disorders, 5th edition, Chapter 58Farmer's LungResults from exposure to moldy hay containing spores of Thermophilic Actinomycetes that produce a hypersensitivity pneumonitisMost cases of farmer's lung disease occur in cold, damp climates in late winter and early spring, when farmers (usually male) use stored hay to feed their livestockManifestations of the disease may be acute, subacute or chronicAcute clinical presentation includes transient fever, hypoxemia, myalgias, arthralgias, dyspnea, and cough that occur 2 to 9 hours after exposure and resolve in 12 to 72 hours without specific treatmentIn acute HP, chest radiographs-diffuse poorly defined nodular radiodensities, often with areas of ground-glass radiodensities or occasionally even consolidation, tend to occur in the lower lobes and spare the apicesChronic form is clinically more insidious, and patients may lack a history of acute episodes, but present with a gradual onset of cough, dyspnea, fatigue, and weight loss. Symptoms are usually present for months to years.In chronic HP, chest radiographs - diffuse linear and nodular radiodensities, with sparing of the bases and upper-lobe predominance, and volume loss. Pleural effusions and thickening are very unusual

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: A patient presents with cough with expectoration. Diagnosis of farmers lung is suspected. True statement regarding this condition:, with the following options: A: May to June seasonal, B: Persistent cough with expectoration, C: X-ray features upper lobe predominant in chronic HP, D: Pleural effusions are common ### Response: Ans: (c) X-ray features upper lobe predominant in chronic HPRef: Fishman's Pulmonary Disease and Disorders, 5th edition, Chapter 58Farmer's LungResults from exposure to moldy hay containing spores of Thermophilic Actinomycetes that produce a hypersensitivity pneumonitisMost cases of farmer's lung disease occur in cold, damp climates in late winter and early spring, when farmers (usually male) use stored hay to feed their livestockManifestations of the disease may be acute, subacute or chronicAcute clinical presentation includes transient fever, hypoxemia, myalgias, arthralgias, dyspnea, and cough that occur 2 to 9 hours after exposure and resolve in 12 to 72 hours without specific treatmentIn acute HP, chest radiographs-diffuse poorly defined nodular radiodensities, often with areas of ground-glass radiodensities or occasionally even consolidation, tend to occur in the lower lobes and spare the apicesChronic form is clinically more insidious, and patients may lack a history of acute episodes, but present with a gradual onset of cough, dyspnea, fatigue, and weight loss. Symptoms are usually present for months to years.In chronic HP, chest radiographs - diffuse linear and nodular radiodensities, with sparing of the bases and upper-lobe predominance, and volume loss. Pleural effusions and thickening are very unusual ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Which of the following women is most likely to have a successful induction of labor, with the following options: A: G1P0 with BMI = 32 and neonatal birth weight of 2500g., B: G2 P1 with BMI = 27 and neonatal birth weight of 3100g., C: G1 P0 with BMI of 24 and neonatal birth weight of 4000g., D: G2 P1 with BMI of 32 and neonatal birth weight of 3200g. ### Response:

Favorable factors for successful induction BMI < 30 Favorable cervix Birth weight < 3500g.

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Which of the following women is most likely to have a successful induction of labor, with the following options: A: G1P0 with BMI = 32 and neonatal birth weight of 2500g., B: G2 P1 with BMI = 27 and neonatal birth weight of 3100g., C: G1 P0 with BMI of 24 and neonatal birth weight of 4000g., D: G2 P1 with BMI of 32 and neonatal birth weight of 3200g. ### Response: Favorable factors for successful induction BMI < 30 Favorable cervix Birth weight < 3500g. ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Abdominal pain, fever and jaundice. This triad is known as;, with the following options: A: Charcot's triad, B: Saint's triad, C: Virchow triad, D: Renault's triad ### Response:

- Charcot's triad - abdominal pain + jaundice + fever. - Seen in Cholangitis. - For cholangitis to occur, the 2 essential factors are obstruction & infection. Predisposing factors for cholangitis: CBD stones (M.C) Stricture Cholangiocarcinoma Choledochal cyst Worms M.C organism responsible for CBD is E. coli > Klebsiella. M.C symptom - fever + chills. Inadequate treatment causes Reynold's pentad - Charcot's triad + shock + mental status changes.

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Abdominal pain, fever and jaundice. This triad is known as;, with the following options: A: Charcot's triad, B: Saint's triad, C: Virchow triad, D: Renault's triad ### Response: - Charcot's triad - abdominal pain + jaundice + fever. - Seen in Cholangitis. - For cholangitis to occur, the 2 essential factors are obstruction & infection. Predisposing factors for cholangitis: CBD stones (M.C) Stricture Cholangiocarcinoma Choledochal cyst Worms M.C organism responsible for CBD is E. coli > Klebsiella. M.C symptom - fever + chills. Inadequate treatment causes Reynold's pentad - Charcot's triad + shock + mental status changes. ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Basic amino acid (s) is/are, with the following options: A: Arginine, B: Lysine, C: Histidine, D: All of these ### Response:

Basic amino acids → Histidine, arginine, lysine (Memonics HAL). Acidic amino acids → Aspartic acid (aspartate), glutamic acid (glutamate). All other 15 standard amino acids are neutral.

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Basic amino acid (s) is/are, with the following options: A: Arginine, B: Lysine, C: Histidine, D: All of these ### Response: Basic amino acids → Histidine, arginine, lysine (Memonics HAL). Acidic amino acids → Aspartic acid (aspartate), glutamic acid (glutamate). All other 15 standard amino acids are neutral. ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: If stage lb cervical cancer is diagnosed in a young woman, while performing radical hysterectomy which structure would you not remove, with the following options: A: Uterosacral and uterovesical ligament, B: Pelvic Lymph nodes, C: periureteral tissues, D: Upper third of vagina ### Response:

Ovaries are not removed in radical hysterectomy if not diseased Types of Hysterectomy Type I : Extrafascial Hysterectomy Simple total abdominal hysterectomy with or without bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy Type II: Modified Radical Hysterectomy Removes the medial half of cardinal and uterosacral ligaments Type II differs From Type III by Uterine aery is transected at the level of ureter; Preserving the ureteral branch to the ureter Cardinal ligament is divided close to the midpoion near the ureteral dissection Anterior vesicouterine ligament is divided but posterior vesicouterine ligament is conserved Smaller margin of vagina is removed Type III Removal of most of the uterosacral, cardinal ligaments and upper one-third of the vagina Associated with Pelvic lymphadenectomy Extended Radical Hysterectomy Type IV: Additional structures removed Periureteral tissue Superior vesicle aery Three fouhs of vagina Type V: Poions of distal ureter and bladder are resected Reference: Berek and Novak's Gynecology; 15th edition; Chapter 36

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: If stage lb cervical cancer is diagnosed in a young woman, while performing radical hysterectomy which structure would you not remove, with the following options: A: Uterosacral and uterovesical ligament, B: Pelvic Lymph nodes, C: periureteral tissues, D: Upper third of vagina ### Response: Ovaries are not removed in radical hysterectomy if not diseased Types of Hysterectomy Type I : Extrafascial Hysterectomy Simple total abdominal hysterectomy with or without bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy Type II: Modified Radical Hysterectomy Removes the medial half of cardinal and uterosacral ligaments Type II differs From Type III by Uterine aery is transected at the level of ureter; Preserving the ureteral branch to the ureter Cardinal ligament is divided close to the midpoion near the ureteral dissection Anterior vesicouterine ligament is divided but posterior vesicouterine ligament is conserved Smaller margin of vagina is removed Type III Removal of most of the uterosacral, cardinal ligaments and upper one-third of the vagina Associated with Pelvic lymphadenectomy Extended Radical Hysterectomy Type IV: Additional structures removed Periureteral tissue Superior vesicle aery Three fouhs of vagina Type V: Poions of distal ureter and bladder are resected Reference: Berek and Novak's Gynecology; 15th edition; Chapter 36 ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: A 25-year-old man presents with 3 months of polyuria and increased thirst. The patient suffered trauma to the base of the skull in a motorcycle accident 4 months ago. A 24-hoururine collection shows polyuria but no evidence of hematuria, glucosuria, or proteinuria. The pathogenesis of polyuria in this patient is most likely caused by a lesion in which of the following areas of the brain?, with the following options: A: Adenohypophysis, B: Brain stem, C: Mammillothalamic tract, D: Neurohypophysis ### Response:

Central diabetes insipidus may be caused by head trauma that damages the posterior lobe of the pituitary (neurohypophysis) and interrupts the secretion of ADH. One fourth of cases of central diabetes insipidus are associated with brain tumors, particularly craniopharyngioma. The other choices do not involve areas of the brain that secrete ADH. The anterior pituitary (adenohypophysis, choice A) does not secrete ADH.Diagnosis: Diabetes insipidus

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: A 25-year-old man presents with 3 months of polyuria and increased thirst. The patient suffered trauma to the base of the skull in a motorcycle accident 4 months ago. A 24-hoururine collection shows polyuria but no evidence of hematuria, glucosuria, or proteinuria. The pathogenesis of polyuria in this patient is most likely caused by a lesion in which of the following areas of the brain?, with the following options: A: Adenohypophysis, B: Brain stem, C: Mammillothalamic tract, D: Neurohypophysis ### Response: Central diabetes insipidus may be caused by head trauma that damages the posterior lobe of the pituitary (neurohypophysis) and interrupts the secretion of ADH. One fourth of cases of central diabetes insipidus are associated with brain tumors, particularly craniopharyngioma. The other choices do not involve areas of the brain that secrete ADH. The anterior pituitary (adenohypophysis, choice A) does not secrete ADH.Diagnosis: Diabetes insipidus ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Niacin is derived from which amino acid -, with the following options: A: Tyrosine, B: Phenylalanine, C: Tryptophan, D: Methionine ### Response:

Ans. is 'c' i.e., TryptophanAmino acidsBiological important compoundTyrosineCatecholamines (epinephrine, norepinephrine, dopamine), thyroxine,triiodothryonine, melanin(Note : - Phenylalanine is the precursor of tyrosine, thus it can also give rise to all these compounds through tyrosinejJ-lipotropic hormone (b-LPH) (phenylalanine - Tyrosine - Catecholamines, thyroxine T., melanin).TryptophanVitamin niacin, melatonin. SerotoninGlycine,Arginine, methionineCreatineGlycine, cysteineBile saltsGlycineHemeAspartic acid and glutaminePyrimidine basesGlycine, aspartic acid, glutaminePurine basesb-alanineCoenzyme-AArginineNitric oxideHistidine, Arginine, lysineKeratinMethionine, lysineCarnitineGABAGlutamateGlutamate, cysteine, glycineGlutathione

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Niacin is derived from which amino acid -, with the following options: A: Tyrosine, B: Phenylalanine, C: Tryptophan, D: Methionine ### Response: Ans. is 'c' i.e., TryptophanAmino acidsBiological important compoundTyrosineCatecholamines (epinephrine, norepinephrine, dopamine), thyroxine,triiodothryonine, melanin(Note : - Phenylalanine is the precursor of tyrosine, thus it can also give rise to all these compounds through tyrosinejJ-lipotropic hormone (b-LPH) (phenylalanine - Tyrosine - Catecholamines, thyroxine T., melanin).TryptophanVitamin niacin, melatonin. SerotoninGlycine,Arginine, methionineCreatineGlycine, cysteineBile saltsGlycineHemeAspartic acid and glutaminePyrimidine basesGlycine, aspartic acid, glutaminePurine basesb-alanineCoenzyme-AArginineNitric oxideHistidine, Arginine, lysineKeratinMethionine, lysineCarnitineGABAGlutamateGlutamate, cysteine, glycineGlutathione ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Organophosphates bind to, with the following options: A: Anionic site of AChEs, B: Esteratic site of AChEs, C: Ach, D: None ### Response:

(Ref: KDT 6/e p99-100) The active region of Acetylcholinesterase (AChE) has two sites i.e. an anionic site and an esteratic site. Anticholinesterase poisoning like Organophosphate compounds binds to esteratic site of AChE.

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Organophosphates bind to, with the following options: A: Anionic site of AChEs, B: Esteratic site of AChEs, C: Ach, D: None ### Response: (Ref: KDT 6/e p99-100) The active region of Acetylcholinesterase (AChE) has two sites i.e. an anionic site and an esteratic site. Anticholinesterase poisoning like Organophosphate compounds binds to esteratic site of AChE. ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Which of the following is TRUE about trigger finger?, with the following options: A: Injury to fingers while operating a gun., B: Stenosis tenovaginitis of flexor tendon of affected finger, C: A feature of carpal tunnel syndrome, D: Any of the above ### Response:

Stenosing flexor tenosynovitis or trigger thumb or trigger finger is characterized by local tenderness over the proximal tendon pulley at the MP joint, with pain referred to the PIP joint and a snapping when the finger or thumb goes through an active range of motion. Usually a history of repetitive strain is involved. Ref: Ewen B, Ha R.G. (2011). Chapter 29. Hand Trauma. In Stone C, Humphries R.L. (Eds), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment Emergency Medicine, 7e.

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Which of the following is TRUE about trigger finger?, with the following options: A: Injury to fingers while operating a gun., B: Stenosis tenovaginitis of flexor tendon of affected finger, C: A feature of carpal tunnel syndrome, D: Any of the above ### Response: Stenosing flexor tenosynovitis or trigger thumb or trigger finger is characterized by local tenderness over the proximal tendon pulley at the MP joint, with pain referred to the PIP joint and a snapping when the finger or thumb goes through an active range of motion. Usually a history of repetitive strain is involved. Ref: Ewen B, Ha R.G. (2011). Chapter 29. Hand Trauma. In Stone C, Humphries R.L. (Eds), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment Emergency Medicine, 7e. ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Primary site of infection in Cryptococcosis is, with the following options: A: Adrenal glands, B: Bone, C: Central nervous system, D: Lungs ### Response:

Infection is acquired by inhalation causing pulmonary cryptococcosis leading to mild pneumonitis. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology, Ananthanarayan and Paniker; 9th edition

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Primary site of infection in Cryptococcosis is, with the following options: A: Adrenal glands, B: Bone, C: Central nervous system, D: Lungs ### Response: Infection is acquired by inhalation causing pulmonary cryptococcosis leading to mild pneumonitis. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology, Ananthanarayan and Paniker; 9th edition ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Nitrates in drinking water indicate:-, with the following options: A: Recent pollution, B: Remote pollution, C: Radioactivity, D: Coliforms ### Response:

Nitrates in drinking water indicates: Remote contamination. Nitrites in drinking water indicates: Recent contamination. Guidelines of drinking water quality in India: Colour = < 15 TCU Turbidity = < 1 NTU Hardness = < 100-300 mg/L pH = 6.5- 8.5 TDS = < 500 mg/L Fluorides = < 1ppm Nitrates = < 45 mg/d Nitrites = < 3 mg/ d Radio-activity: alpha= <0.5 Bcq/L ; Beta= < 1.0 Bcq/L. Extra edge: - Turbidity of water is visible to naked eye when its > 4 NTU.

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Nitrates in drinking water indicate:-, with the following options: A: Recent pollution, B: Remote pollution, C: Radioactivity, D: Coliforms ### Response: Nitrates in drinking water indicates: Remote contamination. Nitrites in drinking water indicates: Recent contamination. Guidelines of drinking water quality in India: Colour = < 15 TCU Turbidity = < 1 NTU Hardness = < 100-300 mg/L pH = 6.5- 8.5 TDS = < 500 mg/L Fluorides = < 1ppm Nitrates = < 45 mg/d Nitrites = < 3 mg/ d Radio-activity: alpha= <0.5 Bcq/L ; Beta= < 1.0 Bcq/L. Extra edge: - Turbidity of water is visible to naked eye when its > 4 NTU. ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Decrease number of melanocyte is seen in:, with the following options: A: Albinism, B: Piebaldism, C: Ichthyosis, D: Chemical leucoderma ### Response:

Piebaldism is a Autosomal dominant disease characterized by patches of skin that lack melanin as a result of defect in migration of melanoblast from neural crest to skin. Skin biopsy: Hypo melanotic area-few to no melanocytes. Vitiligo: is an acquired disease and similar patch of loss ofmelanin, but the loss develops after birth and progressive. Albinism: Congenital inability to synthesize melanin.

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Decrease number of melanocyte is seen in:, with the following options: A: Albinism, B: Piebaldism, C: Ichthyosis, D: Chemical leucoderma ### Response: Piebaldism is a Autosomal dominant disease characterized by patches of skin that lack melanin as a result of defect in migration of melanoblast from neural crest to skin. Skin biopsy: Hypo melanotic area-few to no melanocytes. Vitiligo: is an acquired disease and similar patch of loss ofmelanin, but the loss develops after birth and progressive. Albinism: Congenital inability to synthesize melanin. ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Congenital Dislocation of Hip (CDH) occurs classically due to, with the following options: A: Small femoral head epiphysis, B: Abnormal angle of femoral neck, C: Hypertrophied ligamentum teres, D: Developmental Acetabular dysplasia ### Response:

Ans. d (Developmental Acetabular dysplasia) (Ref. Baily and Love 24th ed., Fig. 27.34)DEVELOPMENTAL DYSPLASIA OF THE HIP (DDH)# This term is more accurate than the older congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH) because it includes dislocation along with other less severe forms, all of which have in common a dysplasia or natural shallowness of the acetabulum. The femoral neck is usually anteverted.Aetiology# A family history of DDH increases the risk up to 30 times.# The condition is five times more common in girls.# The left side is affected more commonly than the right.# Breech presentation, especially the extended position, firstborn children and caesarean section are associated with increased neonatal instability, possibly through restricted foetal movement.# Finally, it may be association with neuromuscular disease conditions and skeletal dysplasia.Diagnosis# Neonate- Clinical Barlow and Ortolani tests: The baby should be relaxed and the hips flexed to 90 degree. It is possible to reduce a dislocated hip by abduction and gentle forward pressure (Ortolani) or dislocate an unstable hip by adduction and gentle backward pressure (Barlow). In both cases a soft clunk is felt as the hip reduces or dislocates.The specificity of clinical neonatal examination is 100% (no false positives). However, its sensitivity is much lower.- Ultrasonography is most valuable test. It can detect not only displacement of the femoral head but also varying degrees of dysplasia.- X-rays are not generally reliable until approximately the age of 3 months.# Adult- Pain is again the usual complaint and X-rays may now show degenerative change as well as dysplasia.# Rx:Infant.Traction and surgery are not indicated. The hips can usually be reduced (Ortolani) and should then be held in a harness or splint for about 8 weeks.A baby, for example, aged 6 monthsWould usually require preliminary traction followed by closed reduction augmented by soft-tissue release (psoas and/or adductor).Toddler and young childwith age, open reduction along with femoral or innominate osteotomy will be required.Adolescent or young adultThose presenting with a painful dysplastic hip may require surgery. A realignment of the joint through pelvic or femoral osteotomy is only appropriate if there is a congruous hip joint. Otherwise (i.e., subluxation) the acetabulum has to be augmented by other means, for example shelf arthroplasty.

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Congenital Dislocation of Hip (CDH) occurs classically due to, with the following options: A: Small femoral head epiphysis, B: Abnormal angle of femoral neck, C: Hypertrophied ligamentum teres, D: Developmental Acetabular dysplasia ### Response: Ans. d (Developmental Acetabular dysplasia) (Ref. Baily and Love 24th ed., Fig. 27.34)DEVELOPMENTAL DYSPLASIA OF THE HIP (DDH)# This term is more accurate than the older congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH) because it includes dislocation along with other less severe forms, all of which have in common a dysplasia or natural shallowness of the acetabulum. The femoral neck is usually anteverted.Aetiology# A family history of DDH increases the risk up to 30 times.# The condition is five times more common in girls.# The left side is affected more commonly than the right.# Breech presentation, especially the extended position, firstborn children and caesarean section are associated with increased neonatal instability, possibly through restricted foetal movement.# Finally, it may be association with neuromuscular disease conditions and skeletal dysplasia.Diagnosis# Neonate- Clinical Barlow and Ortolani tests: The baby should be relaxed and the hips flexed to 90 degree. It is possible to reduce a dislocated hip by abduction and gentle forward pressure (Ortolani) or dislocate an unstable hip by adduction and gentle backward pressure (Barlow). In both cases a soft clunk is felt as the hip reduces or dislocates.The specificity of clinical neonatal examination is 100% (no false positives). However, its sensitivity is much lower.- Ultrasonography is most valuable test. It can detect not only displacement of the femoral head but also varying degrees of dysplasia.- X-rays are not generally reliable until approximately the age of 3 months.# Adult- Pain is again the usual complaint and X-rays may now show degenerative change as well as dysplasia.# Rx:Infant.Traction and surgery are not indicated. The hips can usually be reduced (Ortolani) and should then be held in a harness or splint for about 8 weeks.A baby, for example, aged 6 monthsWould usually require preliminary traction followed by closed reduction augmented by soft-tissue release (psoas and/or adductor).Toddler and young childwith age, open reduction along with femoral or innominate osteotomy will be required.Adolescent or young adultThose presenting with a painful dysplastic hip may require surgery. A realignment of the joint through pelvic or femoral osteotomy is only appropriate if there is a congruous hip joint. Otherwise (i.e., subluxation) the acetabulum has to be augmented by other means, for example shelf arthroplasty. ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: A person having CD-4 count of 200 presents with the difficulty of breathing. Most probable diagnosis is?, with the following options: A: Tuberculosis, B: Histoplasmisis, C: Candidiasis, D: Pneumocystis carinii ### Response:

The host factors that predispose to the development of Pneumocystis pneumonia (PcP) include defects in cellular and humoral immunity. The risk of PcP among HIV-infected patients rises markedly when circulating CD4+ T cell counts fall below 200/µL. Pneumocystis pneumonia is the most common opportunistic infection associated with AIDS. Pneumocystis pneumonia may be difficult to diagnose because the symptoms—fever, cough, and shortness of breath— are nonspecific. Other persons at risk for PcP are patients receiving immunosuppressive agents (particularly glucocorticoids) for cancer and organ transplantation; those receiving biologic agents such as infliximab and etanercept for rheumatoid arthritis and inflammatory bowel disease; children with primary immunodeficiency diseases; and premature malnourished infants.

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: A person having CD-4 count of 200 presents with the difficulty of breathing. Most probable diagnosis is?, with the following options: A: Tuberculosis, B: Histoplasmisis, C: Candidiasis, D: Pneumocystis carinii ### Response: The host factors that predispose to the development of Pneumocystis pneumonia (PcP) include defects in cellular and humoral immunity. The risk of PcP among HIV-infected patients rises markedly when circulating CD4+ T cell counts fall below 200/µL. Pneumocystis pneumonia is the most common opportunistic infection associated with AIDS. Pneumocystis pneumonia may be difficult to diagnose because the symptoms—fever, cough, and shortness of breath— are nonspecific. Other persons at risk for PcP are patients receiving immunosuppressive agents (particularly glucocorticoids) for cancer and organ transplantation; those receiving biologic agents such as infliximab and etanercept for rheumatoid arthritis and inflammatory bowel disease; children with primary immunodeficiency diseases; and premature malnourished infants. ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: If a chromosome divides in an axis perpendicular to usual axis of division it is going to form:, with the following options: A: Ring chromosome, B: Isochromosome, C: Acrocentric chromosome, D: Subtelocentric chromosome ### Response:

Isochromosome Chromosome dividing in an axis perpendicular to usual axis of division Results when one arm of a chromosome is lost and the remaining arm is duplicated, resulting in a chromosome consisting of two sho arms only or of two long arms. Morphologically identical genetic information in both arms. The most common present in live bihs involves the long arm of the X and is designated as i(X)(q10). The Xq isochromosome is associated with monosomy for genes on the sho arm of X and trisomy for genes on the long arm of X. Associated with tumors - 17q. High chance of development of testicular cancer- 12p.

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: If a chromosome divides in an axis perpendicular to usual axis of division it is going to form:, with the following options: A: Ring chromosome, B: Isochromosome, C: Acrocentric chromosome, D: Subtelocentric chromosome ### Response: Isochromosome Chromosome dividing in an axis perpendicular to usual axis of division Results when one arm of a chromosome is lost and the remaining arm is duplicated, resulting in a chromosome consisting of two sho arms only or of two long arms. Morphologically identical genetic information in both arms. The most common present in live bihs involves the long arm of the X and is designated as i(X)(q10). The Xq isochromosome is associated with monosomy for genes on the sho arm of X and trisomy for genes on the long arm of X. Associated with tumors - 17q. High chance of development of testicular cancer- 12p. ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: The periphery of the retina is visualized with, with the following options: A: Indirect binocular ophthalmoscopy, B: Direct ophthalmoscopy, C: Contact lens, D: Goldman's three mirror contact lens ### Response:

The technique of examining the fundus of the eye is called ophthalmoscopy. In indirect ophthalmoscopy, a real and inveed image is formed between the condensing lens and the observer. The advantage of stereopsis (depth perception) and a larger field of view makes indirect ophthalmoscope (IDO) more useful both in retina clinics and during posterior segment surgeries. Reference : A K KHURANA Comprehensive Ophthalmology; edition 4; page-567

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: The periphery of the retina is visualized with, with the following options: A: Indirect binocular ophthalmoscopy, B: Direct ophthalmoscopy, C: Contact lens, D: Goldman's three mirror contact lens ### Response: The technique of examining the fundus of the eye is called ophthalmoscopy. In indirect ophthalmoscopy, a real and inveed image is formed between the condensing lens and the observer. The advantage of stereopsis (depth perception) and a larger field of view makes indirect ophthalmoscope (IDO) more useful both in retina clinics and during posterior segment surgeries. Reference : A K KHURANA Comprehensive Ophthalmology; edition 4; page-567 ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: A 2-year-old boy is brought to the physician by his parents, who complain that their son continually loses his balance. They also report that his speech seems more slurred. Physical examination confirms the truncal ataxia and wide-based gait. The child appears lethargic, and there is bobbing of the head while he is sitting. Muscle tone is normal. This patient may have a midline tumor in which anatomic portion of the brain?, with the following options: A: Cerebellum, B: Corpus callosum, C: Frontal lobes, D: Hypothalamus ### Response:

The neuroectoderm may (albeit infrequently) give rise to a neoplasm of neuronal heritage. These tumors occur most often in childhood, and their cellular composition is usually primitive. An example is medulloblastoma, which arises in the cerebellum, generally in the first decade of life. This entity is usually situated in the vermis. Its growth is rapid and regional infiltration is extensive. Children with medulloblastoma are first seen with cerebellar dysfunction or hydrocephalus. Tumors in the other areas do not ordinarily produce the symptoms described.Diagnosis: Medulloblastoma

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: A 2-year-old boy is brought to the physician by his parents, who complain that their son continually loses his balance. They also report that his speech seems more slurred. Physical examination confirms the truncal ataxia and wide-based gait. The child appears lethargic, and there is bobbing of the head while he is sitting. Muscle tone is normal. This patient may have a midline tumor in which anatomic portion of the brain?, with the following options: A: Cerebellum, B: Corpus callosum, C: Frontal lobes, D: Hypothalamus ### Response: The neuroectoderm may (albeit infrequently) give rise to a neoplasm of neuronal heritage. These tumors occur most often in childhood, and their cellular composition is usually primitive. An example is medulloblastoma, which arises in the cerebellum, generally in the first decade of life. This entity is usually situated in the vermis. Its growth is rapid and regional infiltration is extensive. Children with medulloblastoma are first seen with cerebellar dysfunction or hydrocephalus. Tumors in the other areas do not ordinarily produce the symptoms described.Diagnosis: Medulloblastoma ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Propanolol is useful for all of the following except ?, with the following options: A: Angina, B: Familial tremor, C: Hypeension, D: Paial AV block ### Response:

Ans. is 'd' i.e., Paial AV block

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Propanolol is useful for all of the following except ?, with the following options: A: Angina, B: Familial tremor, C: Hypeension, D: Paial AV block ### Response: Ans. is 'd' i.e., Paial AV block ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Which hormone increases with age?, with the following options: A: GH, B: Prolactin, C: Parathormone, D: Insiilfn ### Response:

Parathyroid hormone (PTH), also called parathormone or parathyrin, is a hormone secreted by the parathyroid glands that are impoant in bone remodeling, which is an ongoing process in which bone tissue is alternately resorbed and rebuilt over time.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology: 24th

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Which hormone increases with age?, with the following options: A: GH, B: Prolactin, C: Parathormone, D: Insiilfn ### Response: Parathyroid hormone (PTH), also called parathormone or parathyrin, is a hormone secreted by the parathyroid glands that are impoant in bone remodeling, which is an ongoing process in which bone tissue is alternately resorbed and rebuilt over time.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology: 24th ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Which of the following statement is true about Pinna except:, with the following options: A: In Treacher-Collins syndrome malformed pinna may be present, B: Made up of elastic cailage, C: Develop from lst pharyngeal cleft only, D: Helps in localization of sound ### Response:

Ans. c. Develop from lst pharyngeal cleft onlyFirst branchial cleft is the precursor of external auditory canal.Around the sixth week of embryonic life, a series of six tubercles appear around the first branchial cleftBranchial clefts are ectodermal in origin.Pinna develops from 1st and 2nd pharyngeal arch

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Which of the following statement is true about Pinna except:, with the following options: A: In Treacher-Collins syndrome malformed pinna may be present, B: Made up of elastic cailage, C: Develop from lst pharyngeal cleft only, D: Helps in localization of sound ### Response: Ans. c. Develop from lst pharyngeal cleft onlyFirst branchial cleft is the precursor of external auditory canal.Around the sixth week of embryonic life, a series of six tubercles appear around the first branchial cleftBranchial clefts are ectodermal in origin.Pinna develops from 1st and 2nd pharyngeal arch ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: All of the following are signs of successful stellate ganglion block, except:, with the following options: A: Flushing of face, B: Conjunctival congestion, C: Mydriasis, D: Nasal stuffiness ### Response:

The stellate ganglion is pa of the sympathetic network formed by the inferior cervical and first thoracic ganglia. It receives input from the paraveebral sympathetic chain and provides sympathetic efferents to the upper extremities, head, neck, and hea. The infiltration of local anesthetic has been used to treat a variety of disorders, but it is primarily performed in the setting of reflex sympathetic dystrophy. Stellate ganglion blocks have traditionally been performed blindly by palpating the anterior tubercle of the transverse process of C6 (Chassaignac tubercle) and infiltrating a large volume (as much as 20 mL) of local anesthetic followed by the patient sitting up immediately afterwards so that the gravitational effect allows enough volume to reach the stellate ganglion to result in an effective block. This method has a relatively high failure rate, with numerous significant and even potentially fatal adverse effects signs of successful stellate ganglion block 1. Horner syndrome 2. conjunctival congestion 3. ipsilateral nasal stuffiness 4. tympanic membrane congestion 5. flushing

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: All of the following are signs of successful stellate ganglion block, except:, with the following options: A: Flushing of face, B: Conjunctival congestion, C: Mydriasis, D: Nasal stuffiness ### Response: The stellate ganglion is pa of the sympathetic network formed by the inferior cervical and first thoracic ganglia. It receives input from the paraveebral sympathetic chain and provides sympathetic efferents to the upper extremities, head, neck, and hea. The infiltration of local anesthetic has been used to treat a variety of disorders, but it is primarily performed in the setting of reflex sympathetic dystrophy. Stellate ganglion blocks have traditionally been performed blindly by palpating the anterior tubercle of the transverse process of C6 (Chassaignac tubercle) and infiltrating a large volume (as much as 20 mL) of local anesthetic followed by the patient sitting up immediately afterwards so that the gravitational effect allows enough volume to reach the stellate ganglion to result in an effective block. This method has a relatively high failure rate, with numerous significant and even potentially fatal adverse effects signs of successful stellate ganglion block 1. Horner syndrome 2. conjunctival congestion 3. ipsilateral nasal stuffiness 4. tympanic membrane congestion 5. flushing ### End

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Shift of O2 - Hb dissociation curve to the left due to, with the following options: A: Exercise, B: Acidosis, C: Hypothermia, D: Adult hemoglobin ### Response:

O2Dissociation Curve (Odc)Graphical representation between PO2& percentage saturation of Hb. Normal is S-shaped/sigmoid shapedShift to the Right (Release/tissues) (increased P50 decreased affinity)Shift to the Left (Lungs/binding) (decreased P50 increased affinity)Increased PCO2, Increased temperatureIncreased 2, 3-DPG as in Growth hormone, Exercise, Hypoxia, High altitude, AnemiaAcidosis (decreased pH)Sickle cell anemia & Adult HbDecreased PCO2, Decreased temperatureDecreased 2, 3-DPG as inAlkalosis (increased pH)Fetal Bb, Stored blood(Refer: Ganong&;s Review of Medical physiology 24th edition,pg no: 642-643)

Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request. ### Instruction: Answer the following medical question: Shift of O2 - Hb dissociation curve to the left due to, with the following options: A: Exercise, B: Acidosis, C: Hypothermia, D: Adult hemoglobin ### Response: O2Dissociation Curve (Odc)Graphical representation between PO2& percentage saturation of Hb. Normal is S-shaped/sigmoid shapedShift to the Right (Release/tissues) (increased P50 decreased affinity)Shift to the Left (Lungs/binding) (decreased P50 increased affinity)Increased PCO2, Increased temperatureIncreased 2, 3-DPG as in Growth hormone, Exercise, Hypoxia, High altitude, AnemiaAcidosis (decreased pH)Sickle cell anemia & Adult HbDecreased PCO2, Decreased temperatureDecreased 2, 3-DPG as inAlkalosis (increased pH)Fetal Bb, Stored blood(Refer: Ganong&;s Review of Medical physiology 24th edition,pg no: 642-643) ### End