In this task, you are given a public comment from online platforms. You are expected to classify the comment into two classes: sexual-explicit and non-sexual-explicit. A comment is considered sexual-explicit if it explicitly portrays sexual matters.
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Question: Comment: Now, here's a few problems with what you wrote.
You assume men have higher sex drives. They don't nor ever had, otherwise the pill wouldn't have made a difference, if men wanted it more and that's what gave women power over men then they'd still have that power. Somehow they don't. And yet it seems sex wasn't the power they held, weirdly enough we hear a lot about past "shotgun weddings", let me tell you something poor women worked, dad was liable to fund them until they married and yet there was were shotgun weddings concentrated.
And yet a lot of wedlock kids happened with kids who still saw their daddies and were directly supported by them but mom wanted nothing with dad. So it seems women were still fucking for the reason they always fucked, fucking itself. Women lined up the docks for the same reasons girls line up the sports block, to see hot men who are there to work not please them sexually.

Answer: Sexual-explicit


Question: Comment: And the Quran does not include female genital mutilation.  Are you also opposed to male genital mutilation?  Jesus underwent it.  It was ordered by God.  It's in the Bible.
So, all Muslims have the same culture, because they are Muslims.  Therefore, all Christians engage in genocidal war and militarized rape (as was done by christian Croats and Serbs in the 1990s).   All Christians have a culture of protesting at military funerals (a practice one group of christians engages in).  After all, they all agree on the Bible, so what one group does somewhere on the planet, all Christian cultures endorse.
Surely you are aware "culture" and religion aren't the same thing.  Or do you actually believe all muslims engage in female genital mutilation?

Answer: Sexual-explicit


Question: Comment: You're not going to teach men who would rape a drunken woman to have more respect. This raises the old philosophical question raised by Plato: can virtue be taught?

Plato thought it couldn't. Aristotle, on the other hand, thought it could but you have to want to be virtuous.

You can't teach virtue to someone who doesn't want to be virtuous and that includes would-be rapists.

Answer:
Sexual-explicit