In this task, you are given a public comment from online platforms. You are expected to classify the comment into two classes: sexual-explicit and non-sexual-explicit. A comment is considered sexual-explicit if it explicitly portrays sexual matters.

Ex Input:
Comment: The United incident really opened up a big can of worms for the airline industry.

Ex Output:
Non-sexual-explicit


Ex Input:
Comment: I'm with Will on this one. I understand people's resistance, but Burton has spent 26 years in prison, he has said that he is trying to better his life. I think we can give him a chance to be something besides the monster who raped a child.

Ex Output:
Sexual-explicit


Ex Input:
Comment: This is one of those topics no one wants to touch.  If you say "hold on a second, sometimes they are drunk (not passed out), consent and are happy to consent, but afterwards regret it: then they were sexually assaulted"...now you get bashed for "supporting sexual victimization."  And if you flat out support it, well what about the other shoe: "both Mike and Jill were drunk.  Mike and Jill had sex.  Jill was drunk: so Mike sexually assaulted her."  Well...Mike was drunk also...so couldn't it be that Jill assaulted him??  Why is it only one way.

I've personally seen on the UAF campus a woman claim she was raped after she had sex with a male.  Multiple times even.  But the male student wasn't interested in dating, and after she realized this she was overheard saying she was "raped" for their sexual encounters.  How do situations like this play into that "1 in 9"?  Just curious as there are some serious lines that could be blurred in some of the answers.

Ex Output:

Sexual-explicit