huutuan/long_squad_v2 huggingface dataset:
Question: What did a bomber crew need to do for a good chance at evasion?
Answer: spot the fighter first
Question: What concept eventually became successful?
Answer: airborne radar
Question: On what day did airborne radar help intercept and destroy enemy aircraft for the first time?
Answer: the night of 22/23 July 1940
Question: Who was the RAF night fighter ace that used airborne radar to destroy a Ju 88 bomber?
Answer: John Cunningham
Question: The Luftwaffe's change in strategy targeted what primarily?
Answer: the West Midlands
Question: How many parachute mines were dropped?
Answer: 127
Question: The Coventry raid led to what phrase being in widespread use?
Answer: "to conventrate"
Question: What stopped work in 9 factories in Coventry?
Answer: loss of public utilities
Question: What effect did the raid have strategically? 
Answer: a brief 20 percent dip in aircraft production
Question: For how many months did the night raids continue for?
Answer: two months
Question: How many tons of bombs had to be dropped to be considered a major attack?
Answer: more than 100 tons of bombs dropped
Question: December saw how many attacks?
Answer: only 11 major and five heavy attacks
Question: What group was the first to use incendiaries?
Answer: Kampfgruppe 100
Question: How many fire bombs were dropped per minute?
Answer: 300
Question: How many civilians were killed in the bombing?
Answer: 28,556 killed
Question: The Luftwaffe dropped how many short tons of bombs?
Answer: 18,291 short tons
Question: Why were port cities targeted by the Luftwaffe?
Answer: to try to disrupt trade and sea communications
Question: How many times was Swansea bombed heavily?
Answer: four times
Question: What was primarily damaged in the attacks?
Answer: commercial and domestic areas
Question: What cities had large sections of them destroyed?
Answer: Portsmouth Southsea and Gosport
Question: What was left mostly unharmed?
Answer: the docks
Question: In November and December of 1940 what changed to make attacks on civilians a moot point?
Answer: large-scale raids
Question: What had nearly been considered indiscriminate bombing?
Answer: use of mines and incendiaries, for tactical expediency
Question: Lighting targets hidden by haze had to be done without what?
Answer: regard for the civilian population
Question: What was the group that used incendiaries and high explosives to mark targets?
Answer: Beleuchtergruppe
Question: The Feuerleitung (Blaze Control) tactic led to what creation for marking targets?
Answer: Brandbombenfelder (Incendiary Fields)
Question: What was the nickname of bombs used in streets and residential areas?
Answer: "Satan"
Question: What was the weight of the "Max" bomb?
Answer: 2,500 kg (5,512 lb)
Question: Decision changes at organizational levels led to what type of attacks?
Answer: unrestricted area attack or Terrorangriff (Terror Attack)
Question: What was one of the reasons for unrestricted area attacks?
Answer: inaccuracy of navigation
Question: How was it known that precision bombing was changed to area attacks?
Answer: tactical methods and weapons dropped
Question: What percentage of incendiaries were used in December?
Answer: 92 percent
Question: How was it determined that homes of industrial workers were targeted?
Answer: Captured German air crews
Question: What did Erich Raeder believe the Luftwaffe needed to do?
Answer: support the German submarine force
Question: Raeder convinced Hitler to do what?
Answer: attack British port facilities.
Question: What ultimately convinced Hitler that Raeder was right?
Answer: the high success rates of the U-Boat force
Question: Submarines and naval aircraft damaged what primarily?
Answer: British war economy
Question: What became the new targets for the Kriegsmarine?
Answer: British coastal centres and shipping at sea west of Ireland
Question: What was Hitler's Directive 23?
Answer: Directions for operations against the British War Economy
Question: What was a top priority of Directive 23?
Answer: aerial interdiction of British imports by sea
Question: What prevented the targeting of sea communications before?
Answer: Operation Eagle Attack and the following Battle of Britain
Question: What was considered more important than the interdiction of sea communications?
Answer: bombing land-based aircraft industries
Question: What was the concession Goring made with the strategic bombing against Britain?
Answer: Directive 23
Question: What did Goring believe the Kriegsmarine would gain with further support?
Answer: control of more Luftwaffe units
Question: Who was Raeder's successor? 
Answer: Karl Dönitz
Question: What was detrimental to the success of a strategic effect against Britain?
Answer: Göring's lack of cooperation
Question: How did Goring expect to regain prestige?
Answer: by subduing Britain by air power alone
Question: What was the first consideration for the OKL to support Directive 23?
Answer: difficulty in estimating the impact of bombing upon war production
Question: What was the second consideration?
Answer: the conclusion British morale was unlikely to break
Question: What did the OKL insist on maintaining?
Answer: pressure, or diverting strength, onto industries
Question: When would other targets be considered available?
Answer: if the primary ones could not be attacked because of weather conditions
Question: What was inflicting heavy losses and increasing the air war designed to do?
Answer: create the impression an amphibious assault on Britain was planned for 1941
Question: What was preventing escalation of air operations?
Answer: meteorological conditions over Britain
Question: What happened to airfields?
Answer: Airfields became water-logged
Question: How many bomber groups were relocated to Germany?
Answer: 18
Question: How many sorties were flown in March 1941?
Answer: 4,000
Question: When did the Luftwaffe fly inland missions?
Answer: only on moonlit nights
Question: Why were ports better targets?
Answer: Ports were easier to find
Question: How did the Germans confuse the British?
Answer: radio silence was observed until the bombs fell
Question: Why was the X-Gerat frequencies used more?
Answer: British selective jamming was degrading the effectiveness of Y-Gerät
Question: What did these attacks accomplish?
Answer: breaks in morale
Question: Why was the OKL forced to improvise?
Answer: shortage of bombers
Question: How many Ju 87 Stuka dive-bombers and Jabos were used?
Answer: 50
Question: How many German bombs hit their target?
Answer: only one-third
Question: How many sorties a night were crews asked to fly?
Answer: two or three sorties
Question: What contributed to the exhaustion of crews flying extra sorties?
Answer: Bombers were noisy, cold, and vibrated badly
Question: What happened to Peter Stahl when he fell asleep flying?
Answer: woke up to discover the entire crew asleep.
Question: What did Peter's crew take to complete their mission?
Answer: oxygen and Dextro-Energen tablets
Question: What was an important destination for supply convoys from North America?
Answer: Liverpool
Question: The Liverpool Blitz sank how much shipping?
Answer: 39,126 long tons (39,754 t) of shipping
Question: How many ships were destroyed on May 8, 1941?
Answer: 57 ships
Question: How much of the overseas trade did the Port of London take on?
Answer: one-third of overseas trade
Question: How many people per week were losing housing?
Answer: 40,000 people
Question: Why was Plymouth targeted the most?
Answer: because of its vulnerable position on the south coast
Question: What did the Germans use along with incendiaries and bombs?
Answer: aerial mines
Question: How many AAA shells were fired?
Answer: Over 2,000
Question: What were two large ports on the English east coast in the North?
Answer: Newcastle-upon-Tyne and Sunderland
Question: How many bombers were used in a five-hour attack?
Answer: 120
Question: Sunderland saw how many incendiaries used against it on 25 April?
Answer: 9,000 incendiaries
Question: What was the result of the German attacks?
Answer: the Germans failed to prevent maritime movements or cripple industry in the regions
Question: When was the last major attack London saw?
Answer: 10/11 May 1941
Question: How many tonnes of bombs did the Luftwaffe use on London?
Answer: 800 tonnes
Question: How many casualties were inflicted?
Answer: 1,436 people were killed and 1,792 seriously injured
Question: What was the damage done to London's streets?
Answer: One-third of London's streets were impassable
Question: What showed RAF night fighter effectiveness was increasing?
Answer: 63 German fighters were sent with the bombers
Question: How did the Bristol Blenheim F.1 perform against German aircraft?
Answer: was undergunned, with just four .303 in (7.7 mm) machine guns
Question: How did the Bristol Blenheim F.1 compare to German aircraft speed?
Answer: struggled to reach the speed of the German bombers
Question: What did interception rely upon?
Answer: visual sighting
Question: What performed better during night fighting?
Answer: The Boulton Paul Defiant
Question: How could aircraft engage bombers when fitted with a turret?
Answer: engage the unsuspecting German bomber from beneath
Question: What benefits did attacking from below offer?
Answer: larger target, compared to attacking tail-on, as well as a better chance of not being seen by the bomber
Question: What was the max speed of a Beaufighter?
Answer: 320 mph (510 km/h)
Question: What is the operational ceiling of the Beaufighter?
Answer: 26,000 ft (7,900 m)
Question: how many machine guns did the Beaufighter include?
Answer: six .303 in Browning machine guns
Question: What day was the first victory the RAF had with airborne radar?
Answer: 19 November
Question: What was the most losses the Luftwaffe suffered on any mission?
Answer: one- to two-percent losses
Question: How many bombers hit Plymouth on Hitler's birthday?
Answer: 712
Question: How many bombs hit Plymouth on Hitler's birthday?
Answer: 1,000 tons of bombs
Question: On May 3/4 how many German bombers were lost?
Answer: nine
Question: How many German bombers were shot down by the RAF in May?
Answer: 38 German bombers
Question: The Luftwaffe used how many short tons of bombs during the Blitz?
Answer: 45,000 short tons
Question: The Luftwaffe helped the U-boats by sinking how much shipping?
Answer: 58,000 long tons
Question: How did the British production fare as a result of all the bombing?
Answer: overall the British production rose steadily throughout this period
Question: What was the greatest achievement of the bombings?
Answer: British were denied the opportunity to reach the planned target of 2,500 aircraft in a month
Question: How long was the recovery of industrial cities from raids?
Answer: most took from 10–15 days
Question: How could have more been achieved in the air offensive?
Answer: had the OKL exploited their enemy's weak spot
Question: What did the disputes in the OKL tend to be about?
Answer: about tactics rather than strategy
Question: What was the Luftwaffe incapable of doing?
Answer: an economic-industrial analysis
Question: How many casualties did the Blitz ultimately cause?
Answer: cost around 41,000 lives, and may have injured another 139,000
Question: What did the RAF conclude?
Answer: bombers should strike a single target each night and use more incendiaries because they had a greater impact on production than high explosives
Question: What caused the most production disruption?
Answer: when city centres were devastated through the loss of administrative offices, utilities and transport.
Question: What did the Luftwaffe fail?
Answer: failed in precision attack
Question: What did the experience of German's using incendiaries mean?
Answer: using incendiaries was the way forward for operations over Germany.
Question: What was the critical lesson Air Staff ignored?
Answer: Targeting German morale, as Bomber Command would do, was no more successful.
Question: Aviation strategists disputed over what? 
Answer: that morale was ever a major consideration for Bomber Command.
Question: What did 16 of the Western Air Plans not mention?
Answer: morale as a target.
Question: When was morale finally mentioned?
Answer: ninth wartime directive on 21 September 1940
Question: When were industrial cities to be targeted?
Answer: if weather denied strikes on Bomber Command's main concern, oil.
Question: Without what could morale collapse occur according to Arthur Harris?
Answer: without the destruction of the German economy.
Question: What was the primary strategy for Bomber Command offensives?
Answer: to destroy the German industrial base (economic warfare), and in doing so reduce morale
Question: Arthur Harris announced that Bomber Command would enable economic warfare to achieve what?
Answer: "a state of devastation in which surrender is inevitable."
Question: What view became popular of the British people in WWII?
Answer: people locked in national solidarity.
Question: When did this popular view come to be?
Answer: in the 1980s and 1990s, especially after the publication of Angus Calder's book The Myth of the Blitz (1991).
Question: Political factions in Britain supported what view of Britains in WWII?
Answer: aggressive British patriotism successfully defending democracy.
Question: What was the Historians' critical response to this view?
Answer: over-emphasised claims of righteous nationalism and national unity.
Question: What did Calder try to expose in his book?
Answer: some of the counter-evidence of anti-social and divisive behaviours
Question: What was the communist party agitated over?
Answer: the need for bomb-proof shelters.
Question: What did Londoners use for bomb-shelters?
Answer: Underground railway system
Question: What did Morrison warn he couldn't do?
Answer: that he could not counter the Communist unrest unless provision of shelters were made.
Question: Who did the Communists blame for the damage in the Conventry raids?
Answer: the rich factory owners, big business and landowning interests
Question: What was Morrison forced to do in response to the Communist Party?
Answer: the stoppage of the Daily Worker and The Week; the Communist newspaper and journal.
Question: The success of the Communists helped what political group?
Answer: British Union of Fascists (BUF)
Question: Where did anti-semitic attitude spread primarily?
Answer: particularly in London
Question: What was one the rumors that Jews were doing in regard to shelters?
Answer: secured the best shelters via underhanded methods
Question: What was feared would happen when different races were mixed in shelters?
Answer: race riots
Question: How much of London's population left?
Answer: Over a quarter
Question: What locations saw an increase in populations?
Answer: south Wales and Gloucester
Question: What was another reason for populations moving?
Answer: industry dispersal may have been a factor
Question: How many evacuees were there?
Answer: 1.4 million
Question: How much of the population returned in four months?
Answer: 88% of evacuated mothers, 86% of small children, and 43% of school children
Question: What are the audiobooks with wartime recordings?
Answer: The Blitz, The Home Front and British War Broadcasting
Question: What are some of the things included in these recordings?
Answer: period interviews with civilians, servicemen, aircrew, politicians and Civil Defence personnel, as well as Blitz actuality recordings
Question: What is one of the notable recordings included?
Answer: Thomas Alderson, the first recipient of the George Cross, John Cormack, who survived eight days trapped beneath rubble on Clydeside
Question: What is a second recording that is of note?
Answer: Herbert Morrison's famous "Britain shall not burn" appeal for more fireguards in December 1940.
Question: In what year did the Endangered Species Act become law?
Answer: 1973
Question: Which two federal agencies administer the Act?
Answer: the United States Fish and Wildlife Service (FWS) and the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA)
Question: On what day was the Endangered Species Act signed?
Answer: December 28
Question: What did the Supreme Court cite as the intent of Congress in enacting the Endangered Species Act?
Answer: to halt and reverse the trend toward species extinction, whatever the cost
Question: When was CITES created?
Question: What did the Supreme Court sign into law in the 1970s?
Question: Who is the President of the FWS?
Question: What day did the Supreme Court rule on ESA?
Question: Who ruled on which agencies would administer the act?
Question: What was the historical range of the whooping crane?
Answer: central Canada South to Mexico, and from Utah to the Atlantic coast
Question: What two issues caused steady decline in the whooping crane population?
Answer: Unregulated hunting and habitat loss
Question: What was the estimated population of the whooping crane in 1941?
Answer: 16 birds
Question: How many years after the noted absence of the whooping crane from its breeding range did the first law regulating wildlife commerce pass
Answer: eight years
Question: What species is found ranging from Canada to Utah?
Question: How many years did it take for the whooping crane to disappear?
Question: How many whooping cranes were there in 1890?
Question: What was passed in 1941?
Question: What year did the whooping crane begin to get attention?
Question: What was the first federal law that regulated wildlife commerce?
Answer: Lacey Act of 1900
Question: What did the first federal wildlife commerce law prohibit?
Answer: interstate commerce of animals killed in violation of state game laws
Question: What wildlife was covered by the first federal wildlife commerce regulation?
Answer: all fish and wildlife and their parts or products, as well as plants
Question: What law passed in 1940 regarding the population of the U.S. national bird?
Answer: Bald Eagle Protection Act of 1940
Question: What legislation was considered costly?
Question: What was the first federal treaty?
Question: What did the first federal law on wildlife allow regarding interstate commerce?
Question: What was the name of the 1937 treaty?
Question: Which laws faced significant opposition?
Question: What did the Endangered Species Act authorize the Secretary of the Interior to do?
Answer: list endangered domestic fish and wildlife
Question: The Endangered Species Act permitted how much annual expenditure by the US Fish and Wildlife Service for habitat purchase?
Answer: $15 million per year
Question: The Endangered Species Act gave the Secretary of the Interior administrative power of what organization?
Answer: the National Wildlife Refuge System
Question: How did the Endangered Species Act impact wildlife commerce?
Answer: The act did not address the commerce in endangered species and parts
Question: How did the Endangered Species Act impact other agencies not specifically mentioned in the Act?
Answer: Other public agencies were encouraged, but not required, to protect species
Question: How much could the Act spend per year?
Question: Who runs the United States Fish and Wildlife Service?
Question: What commerce did the ESA affect?
Question: What animals could not be listed as endangered due to this act?
Question: What did the National Wildlife Refuge System preserve?
Question: What is the nickname given to the first listing of endangered species?
Answer: "Class of '67"
Question: What was concluded to be the biggest threat to the listed species?
Answer: habitat destruction
Question: How was the first listing limited in what species were listed?
Answer: It included only vertebrates
Question: How did being listed initially impact species?
Answer: the animals on the endangered species list still were not getting enough protection, thus further threatening their extinction
Question: How many species are currently listed?
Question: What type of animal was not included in Volume 1?
Question: What volume was published in 1969?
Question: What threat towards species has been neutralized?
Question: What is the Endangered Species Act of 1969 referred to as?
Question: How did the Endangered Species Conservation Act benefit endangered species?
Answer: by prohibiting their importation and subsequent sale in the United States
Question: What did the Endangered Species Conservation Act add to the wildlife definition of the Lacey Act?
Answer: mammals, reptiles, amphibians, mollusks and crustaceans
Question: What two reptiles were particularly of interest for the inclusion of "reptiles" in the Endangered Species Conservation Act?
Answer: alligators and crocodiles
Question: What important precedent did this set for invertebrates?
Answer: This law was the first time that invertebrates were included for protection
Question: What repealed the Lacey Act?
Question: What is the identification number for the Lacey Act?
Question: Why were mammals added to the protected species list?
Question: When was the Lacey Act passed?
Question: What was excluded in the 1969 law?
Question: Who led the team of lawyers and scientists who crafted the Endangered Species Act of 1973?
Answer: Dr. Russell E. Train
Question: The team leader was the first appointed head of what organization?
Answer: the Council on Environmental Quality
Question: Who wrote the most challenged section of the Act?
Answer: Dr. Gerard A. "Jerry" Bertrand
Question: Who was the core staffer to the legislation that worked for the EPA and continued to work in the Office of Endangered Species?
Answer: Dr. Earl Baysinger
Question: What Congress called for the drafting of the Endangered Species Act of 1973?
Answer: the 93rd United States Congress
Question: What did the 93rd Congress declare inadequate?
Question: Who was the 93rd US President?
Question: What law did Nixon rewrite?
Question: What section of the act did Dr. Train write?
Question: What grew out of CEQ?
Question: How many different ways can a species be added to the endangered list?
Answer: two ways
Question: What federal program is used to list a species?
Answer: candidate assessment program
Question: How long is the screening period of an individual's or organization's petition to add a species to the list
Answer: 90-day screening period
Question: In the case of vertebrates, what is the most lenient interpretation of "species"?
Answer: a "distinct population segment."
Question: How many ways FWS list a species?
Question: Who does the FWS or NMFS have to petition to list a species?
Question: How long does an individual have to petition the FWS?
Question: In what case does a distinct population segment not count?
Question: What is another name for the United States Fish and Wildlife Service (FWS)?
Question: What word was added to the Endangered Species Act in 1982?
Answer: "solely"
Question: Because of the change to the Endangered Species Act in 1982, what is the only consideration for being listed as endangered?
Answer: the biological status of the species
Question: Which president issued an Executive Order that required financial consideration of all government actions?
Answer: Ronald Reagan
Question: What did Congress do to the Executive Order that would have included financial considerations as a factor for a species to be listed?
Answer: Congress rejected
Question: When are economic factors considered?
Question: When was Executive Order 12291 put into place?
Question: Which president added the word "solely" to the ESA?
Question: What was Reagan's statement regarding economic considerations in species status?
Question: Whose order did President Reagan reject?
Question: How is public notice given regarding a listing?
Answer: through legal notices in newspapers, and communicated to state and county agencies within the species' area
Question: How long after a published notice of the listing may a public hearing regarding the listing be requested?
Answer: 45 days
Question: Do listing notices cross international soil?
Answer: Foreign nations may also receive notice of a listing
Question: How are policy changes communicated to state and counties?
Question: How long does a public hearing last?
Question: What case took 45 days to be heard?
Question: Which court publishes legal notices?
Question: What is not given to foreign nations?
Question: What section of the Endangered Species Act establishes critical habitat regulations?
Answer: Section 4
Question: Critical habitat regulation links what two topics?
Answer: habitat protection and recovery goals
Question: What does critical habitat regulation require?
Answer: the identification and protection of all lands, water and air necessary to recover endangered species
Question: What is an example of a critical habitat consideration that would apply to plant wildlife?
Answer: seed germination and dispersal needs
Question: What section establishes recovery goals?
Question: What type of link is formed between identification and protection?
Question: What are cataloguing disturbances are not necessary for determining?
Question: What are water and air unnecessary for?
Question: What does Section 4 separate?
Question: What does the Endangered Species Act detail about government action regarding critical habitats?
Answer: federal agencies are prohibited from authorizing, funding or carrying out actions that "destroy or adversely modify" critical habitats
Question: How are non-federal government activities that might impact critical habitat often subject to the Endangered Species Act?
Answer: require a federal permit
Question: What are some non-regulation actions that critical habitats encourage?
Answer: land purchases, grant making, restoration, and establishment of reserves
Question: What are federal agencies allowed to do to critical habitats?
Question: Which section applies to private landowners?
Question: What does not require a federal permit?
Question: What requires voluntary actions?
Question: Which aspect applies to non-federal landowners?
Question: What is the time limit for designating a species critical habitat after the species has been added to the endangered list?
Answer: within one year
Question: Which presidential adminstration limited the protective status of critical habitat in 1986?
Answer: the Reagan Administration
Question: After the limitations placed on critical habitat were lifted by the courts, where were critical habitats established primarily?
Answer: Hawaii, California and other western states
Question: Where have the majority of critical habitats in the Midwest and Eastern states been located geographically?
Answer: primarily on rivers and coastlines
Question: What has to be designated after a waiting period of 1 year?
Question: What entity caused an increase of critical habitats in between 1986 and the 1990s?
Question: What did the Reagan regulations invalidate?
Question: How many critical habitats were built between 1978 and 1986?
Question: Which two states in the Midwest and Eastern states received fewer habitats?
Question: What four topics are required in an Endangered Species Recovery Plan?
Answer: goals, tasks required, likely costs, and estimated timeline to recover endangered species
Question: What is the time limit for completing an Endangered Species Recovery Plan?
Answer: The ESA does not specify when a recovery plan must be completed.
Question: What Recovery Plan duration the does Fish and Wildlife Service plan for in their policies?
Answer: completion within three years
Question: What is the average time of completion of an Endangered Species Recovery Plan?
Answer: approximately six years
Question: Which president had the most completed Recovery Plans during their administration?
Answer: Clinton (72)
Question: What does FWS require NMFS to create?
Question: What length of time does the NMFS policy say plans must be completed by?
Question: What was the average completion time for an FWS plan?
Question: Who requires the FWS to have a completion policy?
Question: What organizations are not required to have a recovery plan?
Question: What is the primary consideration for determining if projects may be carried out in areas with endangered species?
Answer: whether a listed species will be harmed by the action and, if so, how the harm can be minimized
Question: If a species may be harmed, who holds final say on whether the project may proceed?
Answer: the Endangered Species Committee
Question: How many members are on the ad hoc panel that allows project exemptions for cases where a species may harmed?
Answer: seven
Question: How many votes must be in favor of the exemption in order to award the exemption?
Answer: Five
Question: What is one specific requirement regarding the make-up of the exmeption panel?
Answer: at least one appointee from the state where the project is to occur
Question: Who does the Endangered Species Committee get an exemption from?
Question: How many members must vote against the exemption?
Question: How many members must a project agency have?
Question: What do project agencies vote on?
Question: What happens if the harm can be minimized?
Question: Who reviews exemption considerations before the Endangered Species committee?
Answer: the Forest Service, and either the FWS or the NMFS
Question: During informal consultation, what is the goal?
Answer: to determine if harm may occur
Question: What prompts the need for formal consultation?
Answer: if the harm is believed to be likely
Question: What considerations are weighed during the consultations?
Answer: whether the species will be harmed, whether the habitat will be harmed and if the action will aid or hinder the recovery
Question: Who is consulted after the Endangered Species Committee?
Question: What implications does the Endangered Species Committee consider?
Question: What type of consultation is used if harm is not going to occur?
Question: What kind of consultation does the Endangered Species use when harm is likely?
Question: Who is consulted before going to the FWS and Forest Service?
Question: How many times has the exemption process been used, as of 2009?
Answer: six
Question: What were the results of those exemption petitions?
Answer: one was granted, one was partially granted, one was denied and three were withdrawn
Question: Why is this exemption provision often considered a nonfactor?
Answer: few consultations result in jeopardy opinions
Question: How can jeopardy opinions be dissuaded?
Answer: in the identification of reasonable and prudent alternatives to avoid jeopardy.
Question: How many exemptions were granted in 2009?
Question: What is a key factor for the ESA?
Question: What did Donald Baur write in 2009?
Question: How many exemptions were withdrawn in 2009?
Question: How many exemptions has Donald Baur ruled on?
Question: Who owns the majority of critical habitat?
Answer: non-federal property, owned by citizens, states, local governments, tribal governments and private organizations
Question: What program gives incentives to private landowners to protect species on their land?
Answer: Habitat Conservation Plan
Question: Before the amendment in 1982, under what situations could a listed species be displaced?
Answer: only for scientific or research purposes
Question: What fraction of habitat for listed species is owned by citizens?
Question: Who created the 1982 amendment?
Question: When was it decided species could be taken for scientific purposes?
Question: What purpose does the HCP state listed species cannot be taken for?
Question: What can economic development not do under HCP?
Question: An approved HCP results in what being issued for the species?
Answer: an Incidental Take Permit (ITP)
Question: How long do ITPs last?
Answer: allow incidental takes for varying amounts of time
Question: How is the public made aware of ITP applications?
Answer: A notice of the permit application action is published in the Federal Register
Question: How long does the public have to comment on ITP applications?
Answer: 30 to 90 days
Question: What is issued if an HCP is rejected?
Question: How long does an HCP last for?
Question: What state is San Bruno in?
Question: What do not apply when a permit is issued?
Question: What entity publishes the HCP for public comment?
Question: What percentage of the critical habitat was protected for the area that received the first HCP?
Answer: 87%
Question: What type of animal was being protected in the area that received the first HCP?
Answer: butterflies
Question: Who did the US Congress ask to create an exemption?
Question: When was the last permit given out?
Question: What was the San Bruno plan compared to during its creation?
Question: How many of the listed butterfly habitats were in San Bruno?
Question: Who ran the biological study for the San Bruno plan?
Question: What 1981 court decision added to the power of HCPs and ITPs for conservation?
Answer: Palila v. Hawaii Department of Land and Natural Resources
Question: Who wrote the article "Searching for Consensus and Predictability: Habitat Conservation Planning under the Endangered Species Act of 1973."
Answer: Robert D.Thornton
Question: What did Thornton compare the scientific and legal advances to, from the viewpoint of the development community?
Answer: a major headache
Question: When did private lands start to have more recognition?
Question: Who ruled on the Palila v. Hawaii Department of Land and Natural Resources?
Question: What did Thornton say the role of private lands was like for the development community?
Question: When was the Environmental Law magazine started?
Question: What case limited ITP power?
Question: What is the name of the rule that protects the landowner if their conservation efforts fall short?
Answer: The "No Surprises" rule
Question: Why is this particular rule so controversial?
Answer: the Fish and Wildlife Service (FWS) loses much ability to further protect a species if the mitigation measures by the landowner prove insufficient.
Question: If the landowner fails to adequately protect the species, what penalties do they face with the "No Surprises" rule?
Answer: The landowner or permittee would not be required to set aside additional land or pay more in conservation money
Question: Who covers the cost of additional efforts if the ITP holder's efforts fall short?
Answer: The federal government would have to pay for additional protection measures
Question: Why is the ITP controversial?
Question: What policy protects the species from unforeseen circumstances?
Question: What is granted after the No Surprises rule comes into play?
Question: What is the federal government is not required to pay for?
Question: What does the No Surprises rule requires landowners to put aside?
Question: What two groups are bound by a "Safe Harbor" agreement?
Answer: the private landowner and FWS
Question: In exchange for altering the property to a more beneficial state, what does the landowner gain from the Safe Harbor agreement?
Answer: assurances that the FWS will permit future "takes" above a pre-determined level
Question: Which presidential administration developed Safe Harbor policy?
Answer: the Clinton Administration
Question: Are Safe Harbor agreements and ITPs mutually exclusive?
Answer: A landowner can have either a "Safe Harbor" agreement or an Incidental Take Permit, or both.
Question: What provision is the ITP under?
Question: When did FWS create the Safe Harbor agreement?
Question: What form of agreement can a landowner no longer have if they acquire an ITP?
Question: What provision relies on the Safe Harbor agreement?
Question: What administration developed Section §1539(a)(1)(A)?
Question: How do Candidate Conservation Agreements differ from Safe Harbor agreements?
Answer: Candidate Conservation Agreements With Assurances(CCA) are meant to protect unlisted species
Question: How does a CCA help protect a private landowner?
Answer: if, in the future the unlisted species becomes listed, the landowner will not be required to do more than already agreed upon in the CCA.
Question: How does a CCA impact unlisted species?
Answer: enhance or maintain habitat of unlisted species which are declining and have the potential to become threatened or endangered
Question: What agreement is the Safe Harbor Agreement primarily different from?
Question: How does the Safe Harbor agreement protect unlisted species?
Question: What organization can make a landowner do activities beyond those agreed on in the CCA?
Question: What does Safe Harbor protect?
Question: What animal species was delisted in August 2008?
Answer: the Virginia northern flying squirrel
Question: How long had the squirrel been listed as endangered?
Answer: listed since 1985
Question: Which president signed an Act directing the delisting of the Northern Rocky Mountain population of gray wolf?
Answer: President Obama
Question: What animal was added in 2008?
Question: When was the gray wolf added to the list?
Question: Who delisted the flying squirrel?
Question: What did the Secretary of the Interior sign in 2011?
Question: What is the latin name for the flying squirrel?
Question: As of September 2012, how many species had been delisted due to recovery?
Answer: twenty-eight
Question: Of the ten species removed due to extinction, how many are believe to have already been extinct when listed?
Answer: seven
Question: How many species have been downgraded from endangered to threatened status?
Answer: Twenty-five
Question: How many species were delisted due to discoveries of new populations?
Answer: six
Question: How many species were delisted in September 2012?
Question: How many species have gone from threatened to endangered?
Question: How many new populations were lost?
Question: How many species have recovered since 2012 due to changes?
Question: When was the amendment to the ESA published?
Question: How many species are currently listed?
Answer: over 2,000
Question: What is the success rate of the list and the Endangered Species Act initiatives?
Answer: 1%
Question: What is the name given to the act of pre-emptive habitat destruction by landowners fearing a protected species?
Answer: "Shoot, Shovel and Shut-Up."
Question: How did a land owner impact the protected red-cockaded woodpecker species?
Answer: increased harvesting and shortened the age at which he harvests his trees to ensure that they do not become old enough to become suitable habitat
Question: Less than how many species are still listed?
Question: How long has the ESA been using the "Shoot, Shovel, and Shut-up" method?
Question: What have studies shown the negative effects outweigh?
Question: What is another name for the ESA's practices?
Question: What is the success rate of Shoot, Shovel, and Shut-Up?
Question: What is one particular industry that exploits Endangered Species Act loopholes?
Answer: exotic pet trade
Question: What is one particular loophole that aids roadside zoos and private collectors?
Answer: no provisions are made for in-state commerce
Question: What allows exploitation of interstate commerce regulations?
Answer: the ESA allows listed species to be shipped across state lines as long as they are not sold
Question: How can fake breeding loans be used to sell wildlife?
Answer: in return they can legally receive a reciprocal monetary "donation" from the receiving party.
Question: Why are there not more arrests from undercover investigations of interstate wildlife commerce?
Answer: the US Fish and Wildlife Service revealed that the agency does not have sufficient staff to perform undercover investigations
Question: When did people begin exploiting ESA loopholes?
Question: What organization prevents animals from being sold to zoos or collectors?
Question: What is the name of the endangered species specialist that was interviewed?
Question: What agency is overstaffed?
Question: What named organization has been exploiting loopholes?
Question: The Center for Public Integrity found that 151 of what primate were moved from the New England Primate Research Center into exotic pet trade?
Answer: cotton-top tamarin
Question: What happened in 1976 that impacted this primate's classification as Endanger?
Answer: over 800 cotton-top tamarins were imported into the United States
Question: What school is affiliated with the New England Primate Research Center?
Answer: Harvard
Question: What school was running the pet trade?
Question: How many cotton-top tamarins were traded out of the US in 1976?
Question: Who works for the New England Regional Primate Research Center?
Question: What was the official number of the cotton-top tamarins species under the ESA?
Question: How many primates did Harvard purchase?
Question: Section 6 of the Endangered Species Act provided funding for what purpose?
Answer: development of programs for management of threatened and endangered species by state wildlife agencies
Question: What is one notable drawback with state wildlife agencies creating their own lists?
Answer: These state lists often include species which are considered endangered or threatened within a specific state but not within all states
Question: What states are listing species that are endangered in their own state, but that are not endangered in all other states?
Answer: Florida, Minnesota, Maine, and California
Question: What states do not have their own lists?
Question: What defunded the development of programs for managing endangered species?
Question: What did Section 6 of the act separate boundaries by?
Question: Who funded species within specific states?
Question: Is the public given incentive to report Endangered Species Act violations?
Answer: A reward will be paid to any person who furnishes information which leads to an arrest, conviction, or revocation of a license
Question: Given that a violator caused wildlife harm, who may provide financial assistance for the care of the harmed wildlife?
Answer: The Secretary
Question: Costs over what balance lead to the Secretary of the Treasury depositing money into the cooperative endangered species conservation fund?
Answer: $500,000
Question: What do local employees get if they report information that leads to an arrest?
Question: Up to how much is the reward worth?
Question: What must the Secretary do if the budget is below $500,000?
Question: What three types of employees are allowed to accept a reward?
Question: What kind of cost does the Secretary not cover?
Question: What does the term used by Physicists, partial vacuum, refer to?
Answer: imperfect vacuum
Question: What is a vacuum?
Answer: space void of matter
Question: What type of pressure is less than atmospheric pressure in a vacuum?
Answer: gaseous
Question: What Latin term is used to describe an object in a vacuum?
Answer: in vacuo
Question: What Latin adjective does atmospheric pressure come from?
Question: What is the definition of atmospheric pressure?
Question: What do physicists often discuss will occur in a certain atmospheric pressure?
Question: What does the term partial atmospheric pressure refer to?
Question: What latin term is used to describe an object under atmospheric pressure?
Question: A typical vacuum cleaner produces enough suction to do what to air pressure?
Answer: reduce air pressure by around 20%
Question: The quality of a partial vacuum refers to what?
Answer: how closely it approaches a perfect vacuum
Question: Outer space has a high quality vacuum with what equivalent?
Answer: a few hydrogen atoms per cubic meter
Question: If all matter is removed from a vacuum, would it be empty space?
Answer: it would still not be "empty"
Question: What does a few hydrogen atoms per cubic meter reduce air pressure by?
Question: What does the quality of dark energy refer to?
Question: What does lower amounts of dark matter mean?
Question: In what century was dark matter discovered?
Question: What does dark matter usually operate below in space?
Question: What did Aristotle believe about a void?
Answer: no void could occur naturally,
Question: What was historically disputed about vacuums?
Answer: whether such a thing as a vacuum can exist.
Question: What did something that was literally nothing at all,According to Plato, mean?
Answer: cannot rightly be said to exist
Question: Aristotle thought what would fill any rarity that might give rise to a void?
Answer: denser surrounding material continuum
Question: What did Greek philosophers believe could not occur naturally?
Question: What language was spoken by Plato?
Question: What did Aristotle believe were the fundamental elements of understanding physics?
Question: What can an atom not be understood by according to Greek philosophers?
Question: What did Ancient Greek philosophers believe atoms could not do?
Question: In what century did believes start to move away from Aristotle's idea regarding a void?
Answer: 14th century
Question: What thought process was used in the beginning belief of the existence of vacuums?
Answer: Stoic physics
Question: What belief regarding a cosmic void was accepted by most in the 17th century?
Answer: a supernatural void beyond the confines of the cosmos itself
Question: Roger Bacon,Walter Burley and Blasius of Parma were from what century?
Answer: 13th and 14th
Question: What book was written by Lucretius?
Question: How many arguments against the void did Lucretius give in his Physics, book IV?
Question: In what year did Aristotle first study physics?
Question: What did Lucretuis try to unsuccessfully create in the 14th century?
Question: What belief about a void was accepted by most in the first cenury AD?
Question: What does Rapid decompression do to the lungs?
Answer: rupture of the delicate alveoli
Question: What causes barotrauma?
Answer: rapid decompression
Question: What amount of pressure drop can kill you if it occurs suddenly?
Answer: 13 kPa (100 Torr),
Question: What does acceleration of oxygen consumption do?
Answer: hypoxia
Question: rapid decompression is more dangerous than what?
Answer: vacuum exposure
Question: What can tissues seeping blood be more dangerous than?
Question: What does increasing oxygen consumption do to the lungs?
Question: Venting through the windpipe may end up rupturing eardrums and what?
Question: What will seep out of the windpipe if you hold your breath?
Question: What is venting through the windpipe also called?
Question: What did Descartes believe about vacuums in nature?
Answer: that a vacuum does not occur in nature
Question: Whose work with metaphysics would come to define the notion of empty space?
Answer: Descartes
Question: What philosophy combined with Descartes to push quantum activity in the 20th century?
Answer: Cartesian mechanical philosophy
Question: What dichotomy did Descartes center his theory around?
Question: What position did Plato agree with?
Question: Where did Plato believe a vaccuum did not occur?
Question: What philosophy was behind Plato's understanding of a vacuum?
Question: What did Plato's discoveries about atomism come to define about empty space?
Question: An infinite sea of particles with negative energy  was a model propesed by whom?
Answer: Paul Dirac
Question: What year was the Dirac sea modeled?
Answer: 1930
Question: When werer virtual particles confirmed?
Answer: late 20th century
Question: What year was the uncertainty principle formed?
Answer: 1927,
Question: What theorized that time and energy can be measured?
Answer: Werner Heisenberg's uncertainty principle
Question: What kind of energy did Werner Heisenberg believe a vacuum held?
Question: What did Heisenberg call the particles with negative energy inside a vacuum?
Question: What did Heisenberg predict the existence of in 1930?
Question: How long did it take for the uncertainty principle by Dirac to be confirmed?
Question: What in the late 20th century did Dirac theorize can be measured?
Question: what is a perfect example of a filled vacuum showing a curvature?
Answer: The black hole
Question: Who's equations  helped to imply vanishing of the Ricci tensor?
Answer: Einstein
Question: what produces curvature in a vacuum?
Answer: tidal forces and gravitational waves
Question: What has no electric charge?
Answer: black hole
Question: What kind of electric charge does a vanishing stress-energy tensor have?
Question: What is a black hole a part of?
Question: What field around the Earth was discovered by Einstein?
Question: Tidal forces and gravitational waves can produce zero what?
Question: What is the shape of a gravitational field?
Question: What system could possibly be used for interplanetary travel?
Answer: solar sails
Question: why do satellites need to fire engines every few day to keep orbit?
Answer: atmospheric density
Question: above what line location in outer space to satellites orbit?
Answer: Kármán line
Question: How often does Earth's orbit position change?
Question: What are satellites eroded by?
Question: What are satellites too large for their engines to be affected by?
Question: How long is the Karman line?
Question: What have satellite engines been suggested to be used for?