huutuan/long_squad_v2 huggingface dataset:
Question: What's the projected budget of the development plan that includes the new hotels?
Answer: £100m
Question: Going by 2004 calculations, how much does Southampton contribute to the region's economy each year?
Answer: £4.2 bn
Question: What sector puts up most of Southampton's economic contribution?
Answer: the service sector
Question: In 2004, Southampton's contribution to the regional economy had almost doubled from what it was in what year?
Answer: 1995
Question: What museum reopened on July 30th, 2011 after a huge renovation?
Answer: Tudor House Museum
Question: What's the name of the museum located in one of Southampton's tower walls?
Answer: God's House Tower
Question: What's the name of the aviation museum in Southampton?
Answer: Solent Sky
Question: What's the impressive budget of the SeaCity Museum?
Answer: £28 million
Question: What organization invested half a million pounds in the SeaCity Museum?
Answer: the National Lottery
Question: What waterfront park hosts the Boat Show?
Answer: Mayflower Park
Question: When was the Boat Show first held in Mayflower Park?
Answer: 1968
Question: What Southampton festival culminates in the Boat Show?
Answer: Sea City
Question: Attendees of the Boat Show can expect to see at least how many exhibitors?
Answer: 600
Question: How many people can the Mayflower Theatre hold?
Answer: 2,300
Question: What was the former name of the Mayflower Theatre?
Answer: the Gaumont
Question: What famous ballet company has performed at the Mayflower?
Answer: English National Ballet
Question: Which Southampton theatre won The Stage Award for Best Regional Theatre for 2015?
Answer: Nuffield Theatre
Question: What's the all-lowercase named arts organization in charge of the art gallery in Southampton's Bargate?
Answer: a space
Question: What project, also run by a space, showcases art in Southampton's medieval buildings?
Answer: Art Vaults
Question: What art gallery is a part of Southampton Solent University?
Answer: The Millais Gallery
Question: In addition to the Mayflower Theatre, what's Southampton's other big venue for live music?
Answer: the Guildhall
Question: What legendary band with a color in its name has played at the Guildhall?
Answer: Pink Floyd
Question: What orchestra with a name that starts with "B" has played at the Guildhall?
Answer: Bournemouth Symphony Orchestra
Question: What choir from the area has sung at the Guildhall?
Answer: Southampton Philharmonic Choir
Question: What nightclub in Southampton was nominated for the UK's best small nightclub?
Answer: Junk
Question: What genre of music is featured at Junk?
Answer: dance
Question: What small music venue in Southampton is named after an aquatic mammal?
Answer: the Dolphin
Question: What's the name of the Coldplay drummer from Southampton?
Answer: Will Champion
Question: What group did Southampton's Rob Skipper sing for?
Answer: Holloways
Question: What band that broke up in 2014 was formed in Southampton?
Answer: Kids Can't Fly
Question: What genre of music is James Zabiela known for?
Answer: dance
Question: What program with a direction in its name does the BBC broadcast from Southampton?
Answer: South Today
Question: What's the name of the local ITV division?
Answer: Meridian
Question: Where is the Meridian headquarters located?
Answer: Whiteley
Question: What is the local television channel for Southampton called?
Answer: That's Solent
Question: Towards the end of what year did That's Solent begin broadcasting?
Answer: 2014
Question: What local FM station won the Queens Award?
Answer: Unity 101 Community Radio
Question: What's the new name of the station formerly known as The Saint?
Answer: The Breeze
Question: What genre of music is played on The Breeze?
Answer: Hot adult contemporary
Question: What was the old name of Heart Hampshire?
Answer: Ocean FM
Question: What's Southampton University's radio station called?
Answer: SURGE
Question: What kind of music does Wave 105 play?
Answer: adult contemporary
Question: What stadium has been home to The Saints since 2001?
Answer: St Mary's Stadium
Question: What year did Southampton Football Club first reach the top level of English football?
Answer: 1966
Question: Who did The Saints beat in 1976 to win the FA Cup?
Answer: Manchester United
Question: What league did Southampton Football Club become founding members of in 1992? 
Answer: the Premier League
Question: How many local Sunday football leagues does Southampton have? 
Answer: two
Question: What's the name of the local league with "City" in its name?
Answer: City of Southampton Sunday Football League
Question: What's the name of the the local league with "District" in its name?
Answer: Southampton and District Sunday Football League
Question: What part of the city is the Rose Bowl in?
Answer: West End
Question: Besides the County Cricket Ground, at what other cricket ground did the Hampshire County Cricket Club used to play?
Answer: the Antelope Ground
Question: Besides the Hampshire County Cricket Club, what's the name of the other cricket league in Southampton?
Answer: the Southampton Evening Cricket League
Question: What year was Southampton Hockey Club founded?
Answer: 1938
Question: How many senior men's teams does the hockey club field each week?
Answer: 7
Question: Weekly, how many senior ladies teams does Southampton Hockey Club field?
Answer: 5
Question: How old do kids need to be to play in the hockey club?
Answer: 6
Question: What division was Trojans RFC promoted to in 2008-9?
Answer: London South West 2
Question: What famous player from Trojans RFC also played for the Leicester Tigers?
Answer: Anthony Allen
Question: What position did Allen play for the Leicester Tigers?
Answer: centre
Question: What division do the Tottonians belong to?
Answer: London South West division 2
Question: What feature does Southampton have plenty of that provides for water sports and yachting?
Answer: marinas
Question: What race named after a car company used to be hosted in Southampton?
Answer: the Volvo Ocean Race
Question: What was the former name of the Volvo Ocean Race?
Answer: the Whitbread Around the World Yacht Race
Question: Which marina in Southampton hosted the yacht race from 1977 too 2001?
Answer: Ocean Village marina
Question: What facility is the center of Southampton's public sports and outdoor activities?
Answer: Southampton Sports Centre
Question: How many additional leisure venues are run by Council executives?
Answer: 11
Question: What company did the Council leisure executives sell operating rights to?
Answer: Park Wood Leisure
Question: What magazine awarded Southampton "fittest city in the UK" in 2006?
Answer: Men's Fitness
Question: How many spots did Southampton lose in the "fittest city" rankings for 2007?
Answer: one
Question: Who was the "fittest city in the UK" ahead of Southampton in 2007?
Answer: London
Question: During the pre-war period, where was speedway racing held?
Answer: Banister Court Stadium
Question: What year did Banister Court Stadium close its doors for good?
Answer: 1963
Question: At what sports venue do the Southampton Stags play?
Answer: Wide Lane Sports Facility
Question: Where is the Wide Lane Sports Facility located?
Answer: Eastleigh
Question: How much did it cost to build the operations base of Southampton's police service?
Answer: £30 million
Question: On what street in Southampton is the police headquarters for the city?
Answer: Southern Road
Question: What year did the brand new, eight-story police headquarters open?
Answer: 2011
Question: What train station is close to the police force's building?
Answer: Southampton Central
Question: How many fire stations are there in Southampton city limits?
Answer: three
Question: Along with Hightown and Redbridge, what's the third fire station in Southampton?
Answer: St Mary's
Question: How many crimes overall are reported for each 1,000 people in Southampton?
Answer: 202
Question: Did Hampshire Constabulary record fewer or more crime incidents in 2009/10 than the year before?
Answer: fewer
Question: For how many consecutive years has violent crime in Southampton decreased?
Answer: three
Question: Is Southampton's crime rate higher or lower than the national average?
Answer: higher
Question: Which statistics are debated because of the different ways various police forces record crime?
Answer: comparative crime statisitics
Question: What's the combined student population of the two major universities in Southampton?
Answer: over 40,000
Question: What's the name of the institution of higher learning with "Solent" in its name?
Answer: Southampton Solent University
Question: When did the University of Southampton receive university designation by official Royal Charter?
Answer: 1952
Question: The University of Southampton has more than what number of students attending?
Answer: 22,000
Question: What research centre at the University of Southampton is abbreviated NOCS?
Answer: National Oceanography Centre, Southampton
Question: What organization ranked the University of Southampton in the top 80 universities worldwide in 2010?
Answer: THES - QS World University Rankings
Question: What specialized academy does Southampton Solent University host?
Answer: Warsash Maritime Academy
Question: In addition to international shipping, what other industry does the Warsash Maritime Academy prepare students for?
Answer: off-shore oil
Question: What college of further education offers vocational courses and ESOL programs?
Answer: Southampton City College
Question: What courses does Southampton City College offer to adult students?
Answer: Access courses
Question: What college with the initials BPC is outside of the city but still popular with students from Southampton?
Answer: Barton Peveril College
Question: What's the sixth form college named after a person?
Answer: Richard Taunton Sixth Form College
Question: More than what percentage of the students surveyed said they'd been bullied?
Answer: 40
Question: About how many pupils took the bullying survey?
Answer: 2,000
Question: What specific form of bullying did the survey show was most common?
Answer: verbal
Question: What was the second most common form of bullying experienced by boys who took the survey?
Answer: physical
Question: Which level of schools in Southampton are the worst behaved in the UK?
Answer: secondary
Question: How many times the national average are the suspension rates at Southampton's secondary schools?
Answer: three
Question: Out of about every 14 students, how many will be suspended from school?
Answer: 1
Question: In addition to physical attacks, what other kind of assault do Southampton's students commit against staff more than anywhere else in the country?
Answer: verbal
Question: Which motorway located north of Southampton links up England's south coast?
Answer: M27
Question: Which motorway connects Southampton to London?
Answer: M3
Question: What city is located on the A34 where the M3 connects to the North and Midlands?
Answer: Winchester
Question: What spur of the M27 connects it to Southampton's city centre and Western Docks?
Answer: M271
Question: Are Southampton's transport routes around the UK good or bad?
Answer: good
Question: What's the name of the main train station in Southampton?
Answer: Southampton Central
Question: Heading east from Southampton, what city is connected by rail?
Answer: Portsmouth
Question: In which direction do trains run from Southampton to Winchester?
Answer: north
Question: In what year did the rail route from Southampton to London open?
Answer: 1840
Question: In addition to the southern and eastern sections of Southampton, what other section has local train service?
Answer: central
Question: What company operates Southampton's local train service?
Answer: South West Trains
Question: What organization announced plans for rail expansion in Southampton in July of 2009?
Answer: Hampshire County Council
Question: In what year did a proposal to expand light rail service to Portsmouth and Gosport fail?
Answer: 2005
Question: What's the current destination of the freight-only line the Hampshire County Council wants to use to expand passenger service?
Answer: Fawley
Question: What competing railway company tried to open a rail route in the 1880s?
Answer: Didcot, Newbury and Southampton Railway
Question: In which direction did the Didcot, Newbury and Southampton Railway want to expand?
Answer: North
Question: What feature survives in the Hill Lane area as evidence of the Didcot, Newbury and Southampton Railway's work?
Answer: embankment
Question: What direction would one travel from Southampton to get to the airport in Eastleigh?
Answer: north
Question: If passengers don't want to take a train to the airport, what other transport is available?
Answer: bus
Question: To take a train to Southampton Airport, what railway station would you need to go through?
Answer: Southampton Airport (Parkway)
Question: Besides Carnival, what other major cruise line parks its record-breaking cruise ships in Southampton Water? 
Answer: Royal Caribbean
Question: In addition to P&O Cruises and Cunard Line, what other brand does Carnival Corporation own?
Answer: Princess Cruises
Question: What brand of cruise ships has a special importance to Southampton?
Answer: Cunard Line
Question: What was the name of the liner that left Southampton on its final journey on November 11, 2008?
Answer: RMS Queen Elizabeth 2
Question: Who christened the Cunard ship Queen Victoria in December 2007?
Answer: HRH The Duchess of Cornwall
Question: In what year did the Queen Elizabeth receive its name from the Queen?
Answer: 2011
Question: What ship did the Duchess of Cambridge christen on June 13, 2013?
Answer: Royal Princess
Question: What does Southampton call the event when three ships named after queens all visit the city?
Answer: Arrival of the Three Queens
Question: Which of the "Three Queens" has a number in its name?
Answer: Queen Mary 2
Question: Along with the Queen Mary 2 and Queen Victoria, which third ship must be present for the 'Arrival of the Three Queens'?
Answer: Queen Elizabeth
Question: What cruise line celebrated a landmark anniversary in Southampton in July of 2012?
Answer: P&O Cruises
Question: Which anniversary did P&O celebrate in Southampton?
Answer: 175th
Question: How many P&O liners visited Southampton on the day of the 175th anniversary celebrations?
Answer: seven
Question: Which of the seven P&O cruise liners has a name that begins with "V"?
Answer: Ventura
Question: Along with the Oriana, what's the other P&O liner with a name that starts with the same letter?
Answer: Oceana
Question: What is the name of the quay where all three ferries have their terminals?
Answer: Town Quay
Question: How many of the ferries connect to the Isle of Wight?
Answer: Two
Question: What company operates the ferries to East Cowes and Cowes?
Answer: Red Funnel
Question: What body of water does the Hythe Ferry cross to reach Hythe from Southampton?
Answer: Southampton Water
Question: In what decade was the ferry port built in Southampton to carry people to exotic destinations on the continent?
Answer: 1960s
Question: By what year did car ferries finish operating from Southampton, other than the one to the Isle of Wight?
Answer: 1996
Question: What was built on the site where the Southampton Ferry Port used to be?
Answer: a retail and housing development
Question: What has the Princess Alexandra Dock become?
Answer: a marina
Question: What location that was once filled with passengers, dry docks, and trains is now a holding area for new cars?
Answer: Eastern Docks
Question: Along with First Southampton, what is the other main bus operator in Southampton?
Answer: Bluestar
Question: What bus service did the University of Southampton commission to carry people between the city and the university?
Answer: Uni-link
Question: What time does Uni-link stop service to the university each night?
Answer: midnight
Question: What operator ran Uni-link before Bluestar?
Answer: Enterprise
Question: What road does First use stops around to leave a terminal available for other buses?
Answer: Pound Tree Road
Question: Which bus service passes West Quay going in both directions?
Answer: Uni-link
Question: What operator drops off and picks up passengers at West Quay?
Answer: Wilts & Dorset
Question: When did the tram system stop operating in Southampton?
Answer: 1949
Question: Where do buses that loop around West Quay stop?
Answer: Hanover Buildings
Question: What is an agreement entered into by actors in international law?
Answer: A treaty
Question: How are different forms of agreements treated under international law compared to treaties?
Answer: equally
Question: How would you compare the rules of a treaty and a covenant under international law?
Answer: the rules are the same
Question: What must a party to a treaty do to prevent being held liable under international law?
Answer: live up to their obligations
Question: What is comparable in domestic law to a treaty in international law?
Answer: contracts
Question: Under what will a party to a treaty be held liable for failing to uphold their obligations?
Answer: international law
Question: What must be the attitude of a party towards assuming the legal obligations of the treaty?
Answer: willing
Question: What do we call the willingly-assumed burdens placed upon parties to both treaties and contracts?
Answer: obligations
Question: How are states that enter into a treaty bound?
Answer: legally
Question: What is an official document which expresses an agreement between two states?
Answer: A treaty
Question: What is an objective outcome of a ceremonial occasion which acknowledges the defined relationships of its parties?
Answer: A treaty
Question: Who is responsible for the legally-bound obligations of the parties to a treaty?
Answer: themselves
Question: What is shared by most treaties since the late 19th century?
Answer: a fairly consistent format
Question: What is the beginning of a typical treaty called?
Answer: a preamble
Question: Why are long sentences in a modern preamble formatted into multiple paragraphs?
Answer: readability
Question: Each paragraph of a modern preamble typically begins with which part of speech?
Answer: a verb
Question: In addition to describing the parties and their joint objectives, what else does a modern preamble typically summarize?
Answer: any underlying events (such as a war)
Question: What term describes a common clause in a treaty stating that the representatives of the parties have communicated their full powers?
Answer: boilerplate
Question: What are the official documents appointing a party's representative to act on their behalf?
Answer: full powers
Question: In addition to their full names, what else is included in the preamble that identifies the parties to a treaty?
Answer: sovereign titles
Question: How must the full powers of a parties' representatives be found in order to enter into a treaty?
Answer: in good or proper form.
Question: Who else besides the parties themselves is typically identified in the preamble to a treaty?
Answer: their representatives
Question: What is contained in the numbered articles of a treaty?
Answer: the substance of the parties' actual agreement
Question: What does each article heading usually encompass?
Answer: a paragraph
Question: How might the articles in a long treaty be grouped?
Answer: under chapter headings
Question: The numbered articles of a treaty may be grouped by chapter heading in what kind of treaty?
Answer: A long treaty
Question: Which section of a treaty typically contains information about the whereabouts of the final authentic copies of a treaty?
Answer: articles
Question: Parties to a treaty might have disputes about what aspect of the articles of a treaty?
Answer: their interpretation
Question: Which copies of a treaty have their locations outlined in most modern treaties?
Answer: the final authentic copies
Question: Modern treaties typically outline the procedures for the peaceful resolution of what?
Answer: disputes
Question: What is the formal name for the closing protocol of a treaty?
Answer: the eschatocol
Question: What typically follows the signatures in a treaty?
Answer: the site(s) of the treaty's execution and the date(s)
Question: How is the date typically written in a treaty?
Answer: its most formal, longest possible form
Question: What is the nature of the different versions of a treaty executed in multiple languages?
Answer: equally authentic
Question: A clause like "in witness whereof" or "in faith whereof" typically signals what in a treaty?
Answer: The end
Question: Whose signatures appear at the very end of a treaty?
Answer: the parties' representatives
Question: Where might the text of a treaty be reprinted?
Answer: in a collection of treaties currently in effect
Question: Who, upon reprinting, will often append the dates on which the treaty was ratified and came into effect?
Answer: an editor
Question: Each party must have done what in order for the treaty to come into effect?
Answer: ratified the treaty
Question: Even if signed  and ratified on the same date, the treaty might have done what on different dates?
Answer: came into effect
Question: Is it possible for a bilateral treaty to have more than two parties?
Answer: It is possible
Question: The bilateral treaties between Switzerland and the European Union followed the Swiss rejection of what?
Answer: the European Economic Area agreement
Question: Does the bilateral treaty between Switzerland and the European Union establish rights or obligations amongst the EU and its member states?
Answer: it does not
Question: The treaty between Switzerland and the European Union is an example of what kind of treaty?
Answer: bilateral
Question: Between which parties does a multilateral treaty establish rights and obligations?
Answer: each party and every other party
Question: The Treaty of Locarno guarantees each signatory against what from another signatory?
Answer: attack
Question: What type of treaty is a mutual guarantee?
Answer: international compacts
Question: Multilateral treaties are often entered into by countries that share the same what?
Answer: region
Question: What are caveats to a state's acceptance of a treaty?
Answer: Reservations
Question: What are unilateral statements purporting to exclude or to modify the legal obligation and its effects on a state?
Answer: Reservations
Question: When must reservations be included in a treaty?
Answer: at the time of signing or ratification
Question: What are parties to a treaty forbidden to do after they have already joined a treaty?
Answer: add a reservation
Question: A reserving party to a treaty may include a statement that attempts to do what to its legal obligations or their effects?
Answer: exclude or to modify
Question: A more permissive rule regarding what emerged to encourage the largest number of states to join treaties?
Answer: reservations
Question: Reservations are generally permitted so long as they are not what?
Answer: inconsistent with the goals and purposes of the treaty
Question: How did international law originally respond to treaty reservations?
Answer: rejecting them
Question: Originally reservations were rejected under international law unless which parties of the treaty accepted them?
Answer: all parties
Question: Because they are generally accepted under international law, a treaty must forbid reservations in what manner to prevent their adoption?
Answer: expressly
Question: When a state adds reservations to a treaty, other parties to the treaty can respond to those reservations in what ways?
Answer: accept those reservations, object to them, or object and oppose them
Question: Who remains unaffected when a party's reservation is accepted by a second party?
Answer: other parties to the treaty
Question: What happens to the parts of the treaty affected by a rejected reservation as they concern the reserving and rejecting parties?
Answer: drop out completely
Question: What legal obligations exist between two state parties if one objects and opposes the other's reservations?
Answer: no legal obligations
Question: If a state party objects and opposes another state's reservations it essentially refuses to acknowledge what?
Answer: the reserving state is a party to the treaty
Question: What must state parties to a treaty repeat to adopt a formal amendment to the treaty?
Answer: the ratification process
Question: What amendment process is generally reserved for changes that rectify obvious errors in the text?
Answer: a procès-verbal
Question: Parties to an original treaty and an amended treaty are bound to what terms?
Answer: the terms they both agreed upon
Question: In addition to the often long and protracted nature of treaty renegotiation, what negative outcome might result from the process?
Answer: some parties to the original treaty will not become parties to the amended treaty
Question: A protocol may either amend a previous treaty or do what?
Answer: add additional provisions
Question: Do parties to a treaty have an obligation to adopt a later protocol?
Answer: not required
Question: What do we sometimes call an agreement that supplements a treaty especially when few parties to the treaty support the protocol?
Answer: an "optional protocol"
Question: A protocol may add additional provisions to a treaty or else do what?
Answer: amend the previous treaty
Question: The Kyoto Protocol is associated with what treaty?
Answer: United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
Question: The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change was supplemented by what protocol?
Answer: the Kyoto Protocol
Question: The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change established a framework for the development of what?
Answer: binding greenhouse gas emission limits
Question: While the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change established a framework for developing greenhouse gas emission limits, the Kyoto Protocol contained what?
Answer: the specific provisions and regulations later agreed upon
Question: The agreement that contained specific provisions related to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change is an example of what agreement that supplements a treaty?
Answer: Protocol
Question: A treaty that puts all of its obligations in action simply by becoming a party to it is known as what?
Answer: self-executing
Question: What do non-self-executing treaties typically require from a party to enable it to fulfill its obligations?
Answer: implementing legislation
Question: What is "implementing legislation" that is required by a party to a treaty to enable it to fulfill its obligations under the treaty?
Answer: a change in the domestic law of a state party
Question: A treaty requiring local prosecution by a party for particular crimes is an example of which type of treaty?
Answer: non-self-executing
Question: Signing a self-executing treaty automatically does what for a party?
Answer: puts the treaty and all of its obligations in action
Question: What type of treaty cannot be acted on without the proper change in domestic law?
Answer: a non-self-executing treaty
Question: A state party may be in default of its obligations under a non-self-executing treaty if its legislature fails to do what?
Answer: pass the necessary domestic laws
Question: What institution of a party to a treaty must act to fulfill the party's obligations under a non-self-executing treaty?
Answer: its legislature
Question: The often unclear division between a self-executing treaty and a non-self-executing treaty can lead to a treaty being what if disagreements exist within a party?
Answer: politicized
Question: A treaty may be politicized due to disagreements within a party because the division between a self-executing treaty and a non-self-executing treaty can often be described as what?
Answer: not clear
Question: What principle is often invoked by legal experts when interpreting the language of treaties?
Answer: principle of maximum effectiveness
Question: The principle of maximum effectiveness interprets the language of treaties as having what effect to establish obligations between parties?
Answer: the fullest force and effect
Question: What states that treaties are to be interpreted "in good faith" according to the "ordinary meaning given to the terms of the treaty in their context and in light of its object and purpose?"
Answer: The Vienna Convention
Question: What property of treaties must often be interpreted when it's not clear?
Answer: The language
Question: Besides unclear language what might also arise that necessitates the interpretation of the language of a treaty?
Answer: a perhaps unforeseen circumstance
Question: No one party to a treaty can do what to the other parties?
Answer: impose its particular interpretation of the treaty
Question: What may be implied of other parties fail to explicitly disavow a party's initially unilateral interpretation of a treaty?
Answer: Consent
Question: Consent for a party's unilateral interpretation of a treaty may be implied if that state has acted upon its view of the treat without what from another party?
Answer: complaint
Question: Consent by all parties to a treaty to a particular interpretation of the treaty has what legal effect?
Answer: adding another clause to the treaty
Question: The legal effect of adding another clause to a treaty that occurs when all parties to a treaty consent to a particular interpretation of the treaty is commonly known as what?
Answer: an 'authentic interpretation'
Question: What are international tribunals and arbiters often called upon to resolve in regards to treaties?
Answer: substantial disputes over treaty interpretations
Question: What judicial bodies might be called upon to resolve disputes pertaining to the interpretation of treaties?
Answer: International tribunals and arbiters
Question: In addition to the final, signed treaty what else might arbiters review to establish the meaning of a treaty in context?
Answer: the preparatory work from the negotiation and drafting of the treaty
Question: For what purpose might an international tribunal review the preparatory work from the negotiation and drafting of a treaty?
Answer: To establish the meaning in context
Question: In addition to the preparatory work from the drafting and negotiation of a treaty, what might arbiters review when resolving a dispute over the interpretation of a treaty?
Answer: the final, signed treaty itself
Question: What are agreements between states and the federal government called within the United States?
Answer: memoranda of understanding
Question: In the United States, what are agreements between agencies of the federal government called?
Answer: memoranda of understanding
Question: Nations can be careful about terming an agreement a treaty because it has the effect of recognizing that the other side is a what?
Answer: a sovereign state
Question: Under what do all parties to a treaty recognize the provisions of the treaty are enforceable?
Answer: international law
Question: Parties to a treaty may disagree over a desire to create an obligation under what?
Answer: international law
Question: Discussions between what two countries have been influence by one party's desire to create an obligation under international law?
Answer: North Korea and the United States
Question: Discussion between North Korea and the United States have been influenced by one party's desire to create obligations under international law with respect to what two topics?
Answer: security guarantees and nuclear proliferation
Question: North Korea and the United States have been characterized by a disagreement over one parties desire to create what with respect to security guarantees and nuclear proliferation?
Answer: to create an obligation under international law
Question: What is the Treaty of Waitangi internationally considered to be?
Answer: documents under domestic law
Question: What other terms might be used to refer to a treaty?
Answer: convention, protocol, or simply agreement
Question: What common terminological problem can sometimes lead to confusion surrounding a treaty?
Answer: named something other than a treaty,
Question: What's an example of a treaty that is considered internationally to be documents under domestic law?
Answer: the Treaty of Waitangi
Question: Convention, protocol, and agreement are examples of examples of different kinds of what that can create confusion about a treaty?
Answer: terminology
Question: Traditionally, what must a state do in order for an obligation to arise in international law?
Answer: consent
Question: What is the only barrier to withdrawal contained in many treaties?
Answer: procedures of notification
Question: Are treaties permanently binding upon the signatory parties?
Answer: not necessarily
Question: What treaty will terminate if the number of parties falls below 40 as a result of denunciations?
Answer: the Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs
Question: Which article of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties provides that there is a presumption that treaties cannot be unilaterally denounced?
Answer: Article 56
Question: What is an example of a treaty from which it is not possible to withdraw?
Answer: the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights
Question: What state declared its intention to withdraw from the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights?
Answer: North Korea
Question: Who, acting as registrar, informed North Korea that withdrawal was deliberately precluded by the original signatories of the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights?
Answer: the Secretary-General of the United Nations
Question: What two factors determine whether it is possible to withdraw from a treaty?
Answer: the terms of the treaty and its travaux preparatoire
Question: The terms and travaux preparatoire of the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights were both factors in determining what aspect of the treaty as it relates to North Korea's stated intentions?
Answer: The possibility of withdrawal
Question: What factor, in practice, allows a state to withdraw from any treaty at any time?
Answer: sovereignty
Question: What really determines whether withdrawal from a treaty is permitted?
Answer: how other states will react
Question: What might a state do in response to another state's withdrawal from a treaty?
Answer: impose sanctions or go to war
Question: Although withdrawal from a treaty may not be possible in theory, when might it be possible anyway?
Answer: In practice
Question: Because of sovereignty when may a state withdrawal from a treaty?
Answer: at any time
Question: What happens to a state's obligations under a treaty upon its withdrawal from the treaty?
Answer: terminated
Question: What kind of treaty is terminated by the withdrawal of just one party?
Answer: a bilateral treaty
Question: What happens to a multilateral treaty's rights and obligations among the other parties when just one party withdraws?
Answer: remain in force
Question: After what action by a state are its obligations under a treaty considered terminated?
Answer: withdrawal
Question: Under what conditions could a single state's withdrawal result in the termination of a multilateral treaty?
Answer: agreed upon between the remaining states parties
Question: What may be invoked as grounds for permanently terminating a treaty?
Answer: A material breach
Question: In addition to terminating the treaty itself, what actions by the other parties might result from one party materially violating or beaching its obligations?
Answer: temporarily suspending their obligations to that party
Question: In addition to suspending their obligations under a treaty to the violating party, what may result from a material breach of treaty obligations?
Answer: terminating the treaty itself
Question: Who may invoke a material breach committed by a party to a treaty to suspend their obligations to that party?
Answer: the other parties
Question: What temporary actions can parties of a treaty take in response to a material violation of a party's obligations?
Answer: suspending their obligations to that party
Question: What might a tribunal or an arbiter be asked to determine regarding a breach of a treaty?
Answer: the seriousness of a breach
Question: Using what to determine the seriousness of a breach can prevent a party from prematurely suspending its obligations due to another party's alleged material breach?
Answer: a tribunal or other independent arbiter
Question: Does a material breach necessarily suspend or terminate treaty relations?
Answer: does not
Question: What determines whether a breach automatically suspends or terminates treaty relations?
Answer: how the other parties regard the breach and how they resolve to respond to it
Question:  A treaty breach does not necessarily affect treaty relations depending on how serious the other parties view the breach and what other factor?
Answer: how they resolve to respond to it
Question: Some treaties contains provisions for what to happen if certain defined conditions are met?
Answer: self-termination
Question: What provision might a treaty include if it's meant to be only temporarily binding?
Answer: set to expire on a given date
Question: In addition to passing an expiration date, what might cause a treaty to self-terminate?
Answer: certain defined conditions are met
Question: What happens to a treaty that was designed to terminate under certain conditions when those conditions are actually met?
Answer: automatically terminated
Question: What may we assume the parties to a treaty intended the treaty's obligations to be if the treaty included an expiration date?
Answer: temporarily binding
Question: What might result in a party to a treaty claiming a treaty should be terminated even absent an express provision for its termination?
Answer: a fundamental change in circumstances
Question: A party cannot base its claim of a fundamental change in circumstances if the change was brought about by what?
Answer: its own breach of the treaty
Question: The claim of a fundamental change in circumstances cannot be used to invalidate treaties that established or redrew what?
Answer: political boundaries
Question: The radical transformation of what aspect of the obligations between the parties is a necessary condition for a claim of a fundamental change in circumstances to terminate a treaty?
Answer: the extent of obligations
Question: In order to be considered a fundamental change, a change in circumstances must have been what at the time of the adoption of the treaty?
Answer: unforeseen
Question: The Islamic Prophet Muhammad carried out a siege against what tribe in February 624?
Answer: the Banu Qaynuqa tribe
Question: Muhammad ordered his followers to attack the Banu Qaynuqa Jews for allegedly breaking what treaty?
Answer: the Constitution of Medina
Question: Who's insistence led the Prophet Muhammad to expel the Banu Qaynuqa Jews instead of kill them?
Answer: Abdullah ibn Ubayy
Question: Pinning the clothes of a Muslim woman, which led to her being what, was the action that allegedly violated the Constitution of Medina?
Answer: stripped naked
Question: What chained actions resulted from the alleged violation of the Constitution of Medina by the Banu Qaynuqa Jews?
Answer: revenge killings
Question: What angel, according to Muslim tradition, ordered Muhammad to order a siege on the Banu Qurayza?
Answer: Gabriel
Question: Who claims Muhammad had a treaty with the Banu Qurayza that was torn apart?
Answer: Al-Waqidi
Question: How many members of the Banu Qurayza were beheaded after surrendering to Muhammad and his followers according to Tabari and Ibn Hisham?
Answer: 600-900
Question: According to Sunni Hadith which members of the Banu Qurayza were beheaded after surrendering to Muhammad and his followers?
Answer: all Males and 1 woman
Question: How many Muslims were killed during the invasion of Banu Qurayza?
Answer: Two
Question: When are most of the problems created that might result in an otherwise valid treaty being rejected as a binding international agreement?
Answer: at the formation of the treaty
Question: What treaties between Japan and Korea are examples of treaties that were declared null and void?
Answer: the serial Japan-Korea treaties of 1905, 1907 and 1910
Question: In what treaty were the serial Japan-Korea treaties of 1905, 1907, and 1910 confirmed as "already null and void?"
Answer: the 1965 Treaty on Basic Relations between Japan and the Republic of Korea
Question: Which two states signed a treaty that declared previous treaties between the two from 1905, 1907, and 1910 to be already void?
Answer: Japan and the Republic of Korea
Question: An otherwise valid and agreed upon treaty may be rejected as what for several reasons most of which involve problems created at the formation of a treaty?
Answer: a binding international agreement
Question: A party's consent to a treaty is invalid if it had been given by an agent or body without power to do so under what?
Answer: that state's domestic law
Question: For what does a strong presumption exist internationally that a head of state has acted within in entering into a treaty?
Answer: his proper authority
Question: What is required to invalidate a party's consent due to a reluctance to inquire into the internal affairs and processes of other states?
Answer: a "manifest violation"
Question: A manifest violation is required to invalidate a party's consent to a treaty due to a reluctance internationally to inquire into what aspects of other states?
Answer: the internal affairs and processes
Question: What might a party's consent to a treaty be considered if it has been given by an agent without the power under the state's domestic law to do so?
Answer: invalid
Question: If a state's representative ignored restrictions he is subject to by his sovereign, what might that state's consent to a treaty be considered to be?
Answer: invalid
Question: Who might place restrictions on a representative during negotiation of a treaty?
Answer: his sovereign
Question: What must be true of the ignored restrictions placed on a representative by his sovereign in order for a state's consent to a treaty to be considered invalid?
Answer: the other parties to the treaty were notified of those restrictions prior to his signing
Question: Who must have been notified of the ignored restrictions placed by a sovereign on his representative prior to the signing of a treaty in order for a state's consent to be considered invalid? 
Answer: the other parties
Question: The preamble of what states that treaties are a source of international law?
Answer: The Law of Treaties
Question: Which will prevail in a conflict between international and domestic law?
Answer: international law
Question: What are started to be a source of international law in the preamble in The Law of Treaties?
Answer: treaties
Question: Approval under what law will not make an act or lack thereof legal if condemned under international law?
Answer: internal law
Question: An act or lack thereof cannot be made legal under what law even if made legal under internal law?
Answer: international law
Question: Which articles of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties set out the ways that treaties can be invalidated?
Answer: Articles 46–53
Question: In addition to the circumstances by which a state party joined a treaty, why might a treaty be invalidated?
Answer: the content of the treaty itself
Question: In addition to the content of the treaty itself, why might a treated by invalidated?
Answer: the circumstances by which a state party joined the treaty
Question: A treaty might be considered what if it's considered unenforceable and void under international law?
Answer: invalidated
Question: Which processes simply alter the consent given by parties to a previously valid treaty rather than invalidating the consent completely?
Answer: withdrawal, suspension, or termination
Question: What on behalf of a state cannot invalidate that state's consent to a treaty?
Answer: own conduct
Question: Consent to a treaty will not be invalidated if what should have been evident?
Answer: the truth
Question: What may be invalidated if there was an erroneous understanding of a fact or situation at the time of conclusion of a treaty?
Answer: A state's consent
Question: An erroneous understanding of a fact or situation may only invalidate a state's consent to a treaty if what is also true about the erroneous understanding?
Answer: formed the "essential basis" of the state's consent
Question: What, if it formed the "essential basis" of a state's consent to a treaty, may invalidate that consent?
Answer: an erroneous understanding of a fact or situation
Question: What type of conduct of a party to a treaty can invalidate the consent of another party?
Answer: fraudulent conduct
Question: What type of action, either direct or indirect, of a state's representative by another type of party to a treaty can invalidate a state's consent?
Answer: corruption
Question: Coercion of a representative or a state itself will result in what happening to its consent to a treaty?
Answer: invalidate that consent
Question: Coercion of a state or its what through the threat or use of force, if used to obtain the consent of that state to a treaty, will invalidate that consent?
Answer: representative
Question: What must  be true of coercion through the threat or use of force of a party to treaty for it to invalidate the state's consent to a treaty?
Answer: used to obtain the consent of that state to a treaty
Question: What will a treaty be if it is in violation of a peremptory norm?
Answer: null and void
Question: What type of norm is recognized as permitting no violations and so cannot be altered through treaty obligations?
Answer: peremptory norm
Question: What is true of acts such as genocide and piracy in regard to treaty law?
Answer: no state can legally assume an obligation to commit or permit such acts
Question: What distinguishes peremptory norms from other principles of customary law?
Answer: permitting no violations and so cannot be altered through treaty obligations
Question: What is an example of a type of universally prohibited action that no state can legally assume an obligation to commit or permit through a treaty?
Answer: genocide
Question: What document states that treaties must be registered with the United Nations to be invoked before it or enforced in the International Court of Justice?
Answer: The United Nations Charter
Question: Why does the United Nations Charter state that treaties must be registered with the United Nations?
Answer: to prevent the proliferation of secret treaties
Question: In which centuries did a proliferation of secret treaties occur that led the United Nations Charter to include an obligation to register treaties to be invoked before it?
Answer: 19th and 20th century
Question: What section of the United Nations Charter states that its members' obligation under the charter outweigh any competing obligations under other treaties?
Answer: Section 103
Question: Treaties and their amendments must follow the official legal procedures of what body after their adoption?
Answer: the United Nations
Question: Which office of the United Nations is in charge of applying its official legal procedures?
Answer: the Office of Legal Affairs
Question: When must all treaties and their amendments follow the official legal procedures of the United Nations?
Answer: After their adoption
Question: In addition to signature and ratification, what legal procedure of the United Nations must all treaties follow after their adoption?
Answer: entry into force
Question: What are three official legal procedures of the United Nations that all treaties must follow after their adoption?
Answer: signature, ratification and entry into force
Question: The United Nations has been compared to what government in function and effectiveness?
Answer: the pre-Constitutional United States Federal government
Question: In which aspects has the United Nations been compared to the pre-Constitutional United States Federal government?
Answer: function and effectiveness
Question: The comparison of the United Nations to the pre-Constitutional United States Federal government gives us a comparison between what modern and historical legal topics of interest?
Answer: modern treaty law and the historical Articles of Confederation
Question: Modern treaty law can be compared in function and effectiveness to the historical Articles of Confederation by comparing the pre-Constitutional United States Federal government with what modern institution?
Answer: the UN
Question: What legal document formed the basis of the pre-Constitutional Federal government of the United States?
Answer: Articles of Confederation