hllj/quesmed huggingface dataset:
A 17-year-old male sprinter starts training by lifting heavy weights at the gym.

Over time, what changes will happen to the muscles that he is using when lifting weights?

Options:
explanation: Although type 2B muscle fibres produce fast and powerful movements, the best answer would be an increase in both the muscle diameter and several types 2 myosin fibres.
name: Increase in the number of type 2B myosin-containing cells
label: c
answer: no
explanation: This is correct. Type 2 muscle fibres, also known as "fast-twitch" muscle fibres, are used during short and explosive periods of physical activity such as weight lifting. They are responsible for producing faster and stronger movements. As a result, training by lifting heavy weights will increase the muscle diameter and the number of these fibres.
name: Increased muscle diameter and number of type 2 myosin fibres
label: a
answer: yes
explanation: This is incorrect. Type 1 muscle fibres, also known as "slow-twitch" muscle fibres, are responsible for producing slower and less forceful movements, ideal for long, aerobic activities. Training by lifting heavy weights requires type 2 muscle fibres which produce fast and explosive movements.
name: Increased muscle diameter and number of type 1 myosin fibres
label: b
answer: no
explanation: This answer is not the best answer from the options. Training using heavy weights would increase both the muscle diameter and several types 2 myosin fibres.
name: Increase in the muscle diameter
label: d
answer: no
explanation: This answer is not the best answer from the options. Training using heavy weights would increase both the muscle diameter and several types 2 myosin fibres.
name: Increased muscle cell number and diameter
label: e
answer: no

Correct answer: a
Achondroplasia is due to incorrect signalling of which of the following molecules?

Options:
explanation: This is correct. Fibroblast growth factor (FGF) is a molecule that is vital towards the growth of the limbs. Achondroplasia results from a mutation in one of the receptors for FGF hence inhibiting the function of FGF.
name: FGF (fibroblast growth factor)
label: a
answer: yes
explanation: This is incorrect. MyoD is involved in regulating myogenesis and regulating muscle repair.
name: MyoD
label: b
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect. Wnt regulates a range of cellular processes such as cell fate determination, primary axis formation and organogenesis.
name: Wnt
label: d
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect. Shh plays a role in cell growth and patterning of the body. Whilst it does play a role in limb development by controlling the width of the limb bud, FGF (fibroblast growth factor) is the molecule that determines the verticle growth of the limb.
name: Shh (Sonic Hedgehog)
label: e
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect. IGF-1 is the major mediator of growth hormone which promotes the normal growth of bones and tissues. Achondroplasia results from incorrect signalling of FGF which initiates the growth of limbs.
name: IGF-1 (insulin-like growth factor)
label: c
answer: no

Correct answer: a
A 13-year-old boy presents to A+E with a loss in lower leg sensation and weakness in his lower legs. On examination, there is muscle wasting in his lower legs along with high arched feet.

Which of the following options is the most likely diagnosis?

Options:
explanation: This is incorrect. Motor neuron disease presents with upper and lower motor neuron signs and is rarely seen in patients below the age of 40 years old. The typical presentation of motor neuron disease includes fasciculations, mixed upper and lower motor neuron signs and muscle wasting. Motor neuron disease does not involve sensory symptoms.
name: Motor Neuron Disease
label: c
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect. Becker's muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive genetic condition which has less severe problems than Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Patients with Becker's muscular dystrophy typically present after 10 years old with progressive muscle weakness and wasting. It typically affects males and can cause cardiomyopathy.
name: Becker's Muscular Dystrophy
label: b
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive inherited disorder affecting the dystrophin genes. This typically presents in patients over the age of 5 years old with progressive proximal muscle weakness. Other signs include pseudohypertrophy of the calf muscles and Gower's sign where a child has to use their arms to aid in standing up from squatting.
name: Duchenne's Muscular Dystrophy
label: e
answer: no
explanation: This is correct. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease encompasses a group of inherited conditions that damage the peripheral nerves, mostly in the legs or arms. It is the most common hereditary peripheral neuropathy commonly resulting in a motor loss. Common features include foot drop, high-arched feet known as pes cavus, distal muscle weakness and wasting along with loss of sensation.
name: Charcot-Marie-Tooth Disease
label: a
answer: yes
explanation: This is incorrect. Myasthenia gravis typically presents with fatigability involving muscle weakness following repetitive use of the muscle or muscle weakness at the end of the day. This can involve extraocular muscle weakness resulting in diplopia.
name: Myasthenia Gravis
label: d
answer: no

Correct answer: a
Which of the following options is not a component of articular cartilage in joints?

Options:
explanation: This is incorrect. Aggrecan provides a hydrated gel structure in articular cartilage to aid in load-bearing.
name: Aggrecan
label: b
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect. Type III collagen fibrils are present in the articular cartilage where it plays a vital role in mediating fibril assembly and biomechanical functions of the articular cartilage.
name: Type III collagen fibrils
label: e
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect. Hyaluronan is located in the articular cartilage and aids in the lubrication of joints and absorbing shock.
name: Hyaluronan
label: d
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect. Chondrocytes are the cells responsible for the formation and development of cartilage. Chondrocytes also produce collagen and the extracellular matrix hence playing a role in the maintenance and repair of the articular cartilage.
name: Chondrocytes
label: c
answer: no
explanation: This is correct. Keratan sulphate plays important role in corneal development. It is not a component of articular cartilage.
name: Keratan sulphate
label: a
answer: yes

Correct answer: a
The precursor population of cells called somites give rise to important structures in the body.

Which of the following does not originate from somites?

Options:
explanation: This is incorrect. The extensor hallucis longus originates from somites. Somites form the cartilage of the vertebrae, the sternum and rib cage, skeletal muscles and the occipital bone.
name: Extensor hallucis longus
label: e
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect. The sternum originates from somites. Somites form the cartilage of the vertebrae, the sternum and rib cage, skeletal muscles and the occipital bone.
name: Sternum
label: b
answer: no
explanation: This is correct. Somites form the cartilage of the vertebrae, the sternum and rib cage, skeletal muscles and the occipital bone. The somites do not form long bones.
name: Ulna
label: a
answer: yes
explanation: This is incorrect. The occipital bone originates from somites. Somites form the cartilage of the vertebrae, the sternum and rib cage, skeletal muscles and the occipital bone.
name: Occipital bone
label: d
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect. The C7 vertebra originates from somites. Somites form the cartilage of the vertebrae, the sternum and rib cage, skeletal muscles and the occipital bone.
name: C7 vertebra
label: c
answer: no

Correct answer: a
A 40-year-old man with Marfan syndrome is concerned that his children may inherit the syndrome. The mother of the children does not have the syndrome. Marfan syndrome is inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion.

What is the percentage likelihood that each of the patient's children will have inherited the condition?

Options:
explanation: As only one parent has the autosomal dominant condition and the other parent does not, any children of the couple have a 50% chance of inheriting the condition.
name: 50%
label: a
answer: yes
explanation: This is incorrect. As only one parent has the autosomal dominant condition and the other parent does not, any children of the couple have a 50% chance of inheriting the condition.
name: 0%
label: d
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect. As only one parent has the autosomal dominant condition and the other parent does not, any children of the couple have a 50% chance of inheriting the condition.
name: 75%
label: c
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect. The condition is not X-linked. As only one parent has the autosomal dominant condition and the other parent does not, any children of the couple have a 50% chance of inheriting the condition.
name: 100% of male
label: e
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect. As only one parent has the autosomal dominant condition and the other parent does not, any children of the couple have a 50% chance of inheriting the condition.
name: 25%
label: b
answer: no

Correct answer: a
Sanger sequencing, or chain termination PCR, is a technique used for DNA sequencing.

Why does DNA strand elongation arrest during Sanger sequencing?

Options:
explanation: This is correct. The lack of the 3'-OH group on ddNTPs means the phosphodiester bond cannot form. Therefore, when DNA (Taq) polymerase randomly incorporates a ddNTP, DNA strand elongation ceases.
name: ddNTPs lack a hydroxyl group
label: a
answer: yes
explanation: This is incorrect. Taq polymerase randomly incorporates a ddNTP which lacks a hydroxyl group, leading to the ceasation of DNA strand elongation as a phosphodiester bond cannot be formed.
name: Taq polymerase reaches end of the template strand
label: e
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect. It is the lack of the hydroxyl group on the ddNTPs that is responsible for the cessation of DNA strand elongation.
name: ddNTPs lack a carboxyl group
label: b
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect. Taq polymerase randomly incorporates a ddNTP which lacks a hydroxyl group, leading to the cessation of DNA strand elongation as a phosphodiester bond cannot be formed.
name: Taq Polymerase randomly stops synthesising the strand
label: d
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect. It is the lack of the hydroxyl group on the ddNTPs that is responsible for the cessation of DNA strand elongation.
name: ddNTPs are fluorescently tagged
label: c
answer: no

Correct answer: a
When two separate pieces of DNA are cut by the same restriction enzyme it produces complementary sticky ends that can anneal to form one new piece of DNA. This can be done artificially in a lab to form recombinant DNA.

What enzymes form phosphodiesterase bonds to assist the annealing process?

Options:
explanation: This is incorrect. DNA gyrase reduces supercoiling during DNA unwinding. DNA ligase is the enzyme involved in annealing ends of DNA fragments via the formation of phosphodiester bonds between the 3'-OH of one end with the 5'-phosphate of the other end.
name: Gyrase
label: c
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect. Topoisomerase (such as DNA gyrase) are involved in relaxing supercoiled DNA. DNA ligase is the enzyme involved in annealing ends of DNA fragments via the formation of phosphodiester bonds between the 3'-OH of one end with the 5'-phosphate of the other end.
name: Topoisomerase
label: e
answer: no
explanation: This is correct. DNA ligase is the enzyme involved in annealing ends of DNA fragments via the formation of phosphodiester bonds between the 3'-OH of one end with the 5'-phosphate of the other end.
name: Ligase
label: a
answer: yes
explanation: This is incorrect. Telomerase is responsible for the synthesis of telomeric DNA repeats at the 3' ends to protect against DNA loss in rounds of DNA replication. DNA ligase is the enzyme involved in annealing ends of DNA fragments via the formation of phosphodiester bonds between the 3'-OH of one end with the 5'-phosphate of the other end.
name: Telomerase
label: d
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect. DNA helicase is involved in unwinding DNA. DNA ligase is the enzyme involved in annealing ends of DNA fragments via the formation of phosphodiester bonds between the 3'-OH of one end with the 5'-phosphate of the other end.
name: Helicase
label: b
answer: no

Correct answer: a
Amplification of DNA in PCR requires the template DNA sequence along with various components.

Which of the following is not needed?

Options:
explanation: This is incorrect. dNTPs are needed in the amplification of DNA in PCR. The necessary components of PCR include template DNA, DNA polymerase, buffer, magnesium, dNTPs and primers.
name: dNTPs
label: d
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect. Taq polymerase is needed in the amplification of DNA in PCR. The necessary components of PCR include template DNA, DNA polymerase, buffer, magnesium, dNTPs and primers.
name: Taq polymerase
label: c
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect. Buffer is needed in the amplification of DNA in PCR. The necessary components of PCR include template DNA, DNA polymerase, buffer, magnesium, dNTPs and primers.
name: Buffer to maintain PH
label: e
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect. DNA primers are needed in amplification of DNA in PCR. The necessary components of PCR include template DNA, DNA polymerase, buffer, magnesium, dNTPs and primers.
name: DNA Primers
label: b
answer: no
explanation: This is correct. CaCl2 is not a necessary component of PCR. The necessary components of PCR include template DNA, DNA polymerase, buffer, magnesium, dNTPs and primers.
name: CaCl2
label: a
answer: yes

Correct answer: a
During the transcription of eukaryotic mRNA, a cap is added to the 5' end by the linkage of a triphosphate bridge.

What molecule makes up the rest of the 5' cap?

Options:
explanation: This is incorrect. Although guanosine is involved in the 5' cap the correct answer is methylguanosine as the guanosine is methylated.
name: Guanosine
label: c
answer: no
explanation: This is correct. Guanosine is methylated directly after capping by a methyltransferase and connected to mRNA by a triphosphate bridge.
name: Guanosine monophosphate
label: e
answer: no
explanation: This is correct. Guanosine is methylated directly after capping by a methyltransferase and connected to mRNA by a triphosphate bridge.
name: Methylguanosine
label: a
answer: yes
explanation: This is incorrect. Guanosine is methylated directly after capping by a methyltransferase and connected to mRNA by a triphosphate bridge.
name: Deoxyguanosine
label: b
answer: no
explanation: This is correct. Guanosine is methylated directly after capping by a methyltransferase and connected to mRNA by a triphosphate bridge.
name: Ethylguanine
label: d
answer: no

Correct answer: a
5 litres contains 200mg of a drug. If 10mg of the drug is removed after 1 hour.

what is the clearance of the drug in ml/hr?

Options:
explanation: This is the correct answer. 5 litres is equal to 5000ml. If 200mg of the drug is in 5000ml this means that in 50ml there is 2mg of the drug. Therefore 50 x 5 = 250ml for 10mg of the drug. 10mg of the drug is removed after one hour. Therefore the clearance of the drug is 250ml in an hour.
name: 250ml/hr
label: a
answer: yes
explanation: This is incorrect. 5 litres is equal to 5000ml. If 200mg of the drug is in 5000ml this means that in 50ml there is 2mg of the drug. Therefore 50 x 5 = 250ml for 10mg of the drug. 10mg of the drug is removed after one hour. Therefore the clearance of the drug is 250ml in an hour.
name: 25ml/hr
label: c
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect. 5 litres is equal to 5000ml. If 200mg of the drug is in 5000ml this means that in 50ml there is 2mg of the drug. Therefore 50 x 5 = 250ml for 10mg of the drug. 10mg of the drug is removed after one hour. Therefore the clearance of the drug is 250ml in an hour.
name: 2.5ml/hr
label: d
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect. 5 litres is equal to 5000ml. If 200mg of the drug is in 5000ml this means that in 50ml there is 2mg of the drug. Therefore 50 x 5 = 250ml for 10mg of the drug. 10mg of the drug is removed after one hour. Therefore the clearance of the drug is 250ml in an hour.
name: 500ml/hr
label: b
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect. 5 litres is equal to 5000ml. If 200mg of the drug is in 5000ml this means that in 50ml there is 2mg of the drug. Therefore 50 x 5 = 250ml for 10mg of the drug. 10mg of the drug is removed after one hour. Therefore the clearance of the drug is 250ml in an hour.
name: 0.25ml/hr
label: e
answer: no

Correct answer: a
Adverse drug reactions can be reported using the black triangle reporting system.

Which of the following statements is correct about the black triangle reporting system?

Options:
explanation: This is incorrect. The black triangle reporting system is used to report all reactions and side effects caused by new drugs in the market, not just more common side effects. The yellow card scheme is the system patients can use to report adverse drug reactions and common side effects of drugs in the UK.
name: They tend to pick up more common side effects in the population
label: c
answer: no
explanation: This is correct. The black triangle reporting system is used for reporting all suspected adverse reactions by newer drugs or vaccines.
name: Used for drugs that are new to the market
label: a
answer: yes
explanation: This is incorrect. All suspected reactions caused by a new drug or vaccine should be reported using the black triangle reporting system.
name: Only major adverse drug reactions are recorded
label: d
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect. The black triangle reporting system is used for new drugs or vaccines on the market. The yellow card scheme is the system patients can use to report adverse drug reactions and common side effects of drugs in the UK.
name: Can be used for continual monitoring of drugs that have been on the market for several years
label: b
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect. The yellow card scheme is the system patients can use to report adverse drug reactions and common side effects of drugs in the UK.
name: They are the main way of monitoring adverse drug reactions in the UK
label: e
answer: no

Correct answer: a
The ICD-10 gives diagnostic guidelines for drug dependency. Three or more factors of the criteria must be present to give a diagnosis.

Which of the following is not part of the criteria?

Options:
explanation: This is incorrect. This forms part of the ICD-10 criteria for drug dependency.
name: Persistent use despite harmful consequences of the drug’s use
label: c
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect. This forms part of the ICD-10 criteria for drug dependency.
name: A strong desire or sense of compulsion to take the drug
label: b
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect. This forms part of the ICD-10 criteria for drug dependency.
name: A physiological withdrawal state and evidence of tolerance of the drug
label: d
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect. This forms part of the ICD-10 criteria for drug dependency.
name: Prioritising drug use along with neglect of other life pleasures
label: e
answer: no
explanation: This is correct. This does not form part of the ICD-10 criteria for drug dependency. The ICD-10 criteria for dependence include a strong desire to take the drug, difficulty in controlling use of the drug, a physiological withdrawal state and symptoms when not taking the drug, tolerance built against the drug, continual use of the drug despite negative consequences and prioritising using the drug over other activities.
name: Continual use of the drug for at least 6 months, with usage on over 75% of days
label: a
answer: yes

Correct answer: a
120mg of a drug is administered orally to a patient. This drug has a bioavailability of 0.25 and when measured later its concentration within the plasma is 1.5mg/L.

What is the correct value for the apparent volume of distribution of the drug?

Options:
explanation: This is incorrect. 120mg x 0.25 (bioavailability) = 30mg of the drug. If there is 1.5mg of the drug in 1L then 30mg must be in 20L as 30/1.5 = 20.
name: 2L
label: b
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect. 120mg x 0.25 (bioavailability) = 30mg of the drug. If there is 1.5mg of the drug in 1L then 30mg must be in 20L as 30/1.5 = 20.
name: 20mL
label: c
answer: no
explanation: This is correct. 120mg x 0.25 (bioavailability) = 30mg of the drug. If there is 1.5mg of the drug in 1L then 30mg must be in 20L as 30/1.5 = 20.
name: 20L
label: a
answer: yes
explanation: This is incorrect. 120mg x 0.25 (bioavailability) = 30mg of the drug. If there is 1.5mg of the drug in 1L then 30mg must be in 20L as 30/1.5 = 20.
name: 200mL
label: d
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect. 120mg x 0.25 (bioavailability) = 30mg of the drug. If there is 1.5mg of the drug in 1L then 30mg must be in 20L as 30/1.5 = 20.
name: 40L
label: e
answer: no

Correct answer: a
Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors have various side effects.

Which of the following is not a side effect of these drugs?

Options:
explanation: This is incorrect. Common side effects of monoamine oxidase inhibitors include postural hypotension and lightheadedness.
name: Postural hypotension
label: e
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect. Common side effects of monoamine oxidase inhibitors include both diarrhoea and constipation.
name: Constipation
label: b
answer: no
explanation: This is correct. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors do not usually cause decreased appetite and typically cause weight gain.
name: Decreased appetite
label: a
answer: yes
explanation: This is incorrect. Common side effects of monoamine oxidase inhibitors include insomnia.
name: Insomnia
label: d
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect. Common side effects of monoamine oxidase inhibitors includes a dry mouth.
name: Dry mouth
label: c
answer: no

Correct answer: a
According to the NICE guidelines, which of the following is the first-line treatment for depression?

Options:
explanation: This is incorrect. According to the NICE guidelines, SSRIs are the first-line treatment for depression. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors are much less frequently used than other antidepressants.
name: Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors
label: e
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect. According to the NICE guidelines, SSRIs are the first-line treatment for depression. SNRIs such as duloxetine are commonly used if SSRIs fail to improve symptoms.
name: SNRI
label: b
answer: no
explanation: This is correct. The first-line medication for the management of depression in adults according to the NICE guidelines are SSRIs such as sertraline.
name: SSRI
label: a
answer: yes
explanation: This is incorrect. According to the NICE guidelines, SSRIs are the first-line treatment for depression. Tricyclic antidepressants such as amitriptyline are commonly used if SSRIs fail to improve symptoms.
name: Tricyclic antidepressants
label: c
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect. Benzodiazepines are used for the treatment of anxiety and agitation.
name: Benzodiazepines
label: d
answer: no

Correct answer: a