hllj/quesmed huggingface dataset:
In Schizophrenia, which of the following dopamine pathways is consistent with the development of depressive symptoms?

Options:
explanation: This is incorrect, this pathway is altered in Parkinson’s disease, not in Schizophrenia
name: The Nigrostriatal pathway
label: c
answer: no
explanation: This is the correct answer as the mesocortical pathway is affected by decreased dopamine responsible for the depressive symptoms of schizophrenia
name: Mesocortical pathway
label: a
answer: yes
explanation: This is the incorrect answer as dopamine projections to the limbic regions can cause psychotic symptoms, which is associated with Schizophrenia
name: Mesolimbic pathway
label: d
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect as the Mesocortical pathway is consistent with the depressive symptoms of Schizophrenia
name: No dopamine pathways are involved in the development of depressive symptoms of Schizophrenia
label: b
answer: no
explanation: This pathway is associated with the release of prolactin by the pituitary gland
name: Tuberoinfundibular pathway
label: e
answer: no

Correct answer: a
Which of the following are examples of positive symptoms of psychosis?

Options:
explanation: This is incorrect as this is a belief that someone else is controlling their actions, which is a negative symptom of psychosis
name: Anhedonia
label: d
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect because this is a negative symptom of psychosis
name: Flattened mood
label: c
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect because this is a negative symptom of psychosis
name: Social withdrawal
label: e
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect because this is a negative symptom of psychosis
name: Spontaneous behaviour
label: b
answer: no
explanation: This is the correct answer because there is a false perception in the absence of a stimulus
name: Hallucinations
label: a
answer: yes

Correct answer: a
Genetic counselling should be offered in various different genetically linked conditions but which of the following statements is most correct in regard to genetic testing in pregnancy?

Options:
explanation: This is the correct answer, for genetic counselling in pregnancy
name: Allow the patient to have all the information to guide their decision in pregnancy
label: a
answer: yes
explanation: This is incorrect, as genetic testing is always offered in pregnancy if there is a justified reason
name: There is no opportunity to carry out genetic testing in pregnancy
label: b
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect because it would only be able to test the current pregnancy, and the best opportunity would be to carry a genetic test on the mother and father and calculate the risk of future siblings having the condition
name: To discover if subsequent siblings will develop the condition
label: e
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect because it would be to discover if the foetus is at risk of developing the condition
name: To discover if the paternal parent will develop the condition
label: d
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect because it would be to discover if the foetus is at risk of developing the condition
name: To discover if the maternal parent will develop the condition
label: c
answer: no

Correct answer: a
Epilepsy is a disorder of the brain which is characterised by seizures.

Which of the following statements regarding seizures is correct?

Options:
explanation: This is incorrect because a complex focal seizure is one in which consciousness is affected
name: A complex focal seizure is one in which consciousness is unaffected
label: b
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect because seizures are described as the hyper-synchronised firing of networks
name: The neural activity of seizures can be described as the hypo-synchronised firing of networks
label: e
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect because a primary generalised seizure is one in which arises instantaneously in both hemispheres
name: A primary generalised arises in one part of one hemisphere
label: d
answer: no
explanation: This is the correct answer
name: A secondary generalised seizure starts with a focal seizure and spreads to both hemispheres
label: a
answer: yes
explanation: This is incorrect as a focal seizure is an electrical activity limited to one hemisphere or one area of the brain
name: A focal seizure is where both hemispheres of the brain are involved
label: c
answer: no

Correct answer: a
If there was an injury to Cranial Nerve V what are the possible symptoms?

Options:
explanation: This is incorrect because this is characteristic of injury to the facial nerve or a lower motor neuron lesion
name: Facial weakness, or paralysis of the upper facial muscles
label: c
answer: no
explanation: This is the correct answer as this would indicate damage to the Trigeminal nerve
name: Weakness of the jaw on clenching and side-to-side movement
label: a
answer: yes
explanation: This is incorrect because this would be common in a vagus nerve injury
name: Palatal weakness
label: e
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect as this is characteristic of an injury to the vestibulocochlear nerve
name: Unilateral sensorineural deafness
label: b
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect as this is consistent with damage to the abducent nerve
name: Inability to look laterally and the eye deviates medially
label: d
answer: no

Correct answer: a
In regards to visual perception, which of the following statements is correct?

Options:
explanation: This is the incorrect answer because this is what is most commonly seen in Optic Ataxia, whereas Visual Agnosia is deficits in recognising objects, even when processes for analysing basic properties such as shape and colour remain intact
name: Visual agnosia can be seen in patients with deficits in completing visually guided reaching tasks in the absence of other sensory cues
label: b
answer: no
explanation: This is the correct answer because the dorsal stream projects to the parietal lobe which codes information for ‘Where’ or ‘How’
name: The dorsal stream pathway is damaged in Optic Ataxia
label: a
answer: yes
explanation: This is incorrect because associative agnosia is commonly described as perception without recognition, and patients are
name: In patients with Associative Agnosia, they will be unable to copy figures and not able to recognise objects
label: e
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect because patients with visual agnosia will not have a sensory, naming or memory deficit
name: Patients with visual agnosia have sensory and memory deficit
label: d
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect because the ventral stream pathway is more commonly seen in visual agnosia
name: The Ventral stream pathway is damaged in Optic Ataxia
label: c
answer: no

Correct answer: a
The Basal Ganglia is a key component for motor control.

Which of the following statements is correct?

Options:
explanation: This is incorrect as the middle cerebral artery supplies the basal ganglia area of the brain
name: The anterior cerebral artery supplies the basal ganglia area of the brain
label: c
answer: no
explanation: This is the correct answer
name: The Substantia Nigra contains two sub-nuclei: the Pars Retriculata and Pars Compacta
label: a
answer: yes
explanation: This is incorrect, as the Substantia Nigra is made up of two sub-nuclei not one
name: The Substantia Nigra has one sub-nucles, the Pars Reticulata
label: d
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect, as it is the Caudate and the Putamen that forms the Striatum
name: The Caudate and the Globus Pallidus form the Striatum
label: b
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect as planned movements are filtered through the basal ganglia
name: Involuntary movements are filtered through the basal ganglia
label: e
answer: no

Correct answer: a
In regards to NSAIDs, which of the following statements is correct?

Options:
explanation: This is incorrect because of decreased prostaglandin generation means less sensitisation of nociceptive nerve endings
name: The analgesic effect of NSAIDs causes a decrease in prostaglandin generation and means a higher degree of sensitisation of nociceptive nerve endings
label: e
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect as NSAIDs will decrease vasodilation and decrease oedema
name: The anti-inflammatory action of NSAIDs decreases prostaglandins and increases vasodilation and oedema
label: b
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect, as NSAIDs are non-selective and inhibit prostaglandin biosynthesis by direct action on both COX-1 and COX-2
name: NSAIDs inhibit prostaglandin biosynthesis by direct action exclusively on COX-2 enzymes
label: c
answer: no
explanation: This is incorrect as COX-1 enzymes are involved in tissue homeostasis, whereas the description above describes COX-2 enzymes
name: COX-1 enzymes are induced in activated inflammatory cells and responsible for the production of prostaglandin mediators of inflammation
label: d
answer: no
explanation: This is the correct answer
name: In the antipyretic effect of NSAIDs inhibition of COX-2 prevents inflammatory mediators such as Interleukin-1 from increasing prostaglandins in the central nervous system which in turns prevents the elevation of the hypothalamic point for temperature control.
label: a
answer: yes

Correct answer: a
Identify the annotated structure.

[lightgallery]

Options:
explanation: The external iliac artery is a terminal branch of the common iliac artery. It is the main blood supply to the lower limb as it continues down into the thigh as the femoral artery at the level of the inguinal ligament.
name: External Iliac artery
label: c
answer: no
explanation: The internal iliac artery is the major artery of the pelvis. It originates at the bifurcation of the common iliac artery at the vertebral level L5-S1, into its internal and external branches.
Many branches then arise from the internal iliac. These can be thought of as arising from the anterior trunk or the posterior trunk of the internal iliac.
name: Internal Iliac Artery
label: a
answer: yes
explanation: The internal pudendal artery arises from the anterior trunk of the internal iliac artery. It exits the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen and enters the perineum via the lesser sciatic foramen. It is the main blood supply to the perineum.
name: Internal pudendal artery
label: e
answer: no
explanation: The Lateral Sacral arteries (superior and inferior) again arise from the posterior trunk of the internal iliac artery. They supply skin and muscle posterior to the sacrum.
name: Lateral sacral artery
label: d
answer: no
explanation: The superior gluteal artery is a terminal branch of the posterior branch and exits the pelvic cavity via the Greater Sciatic Foramen. It enters the gluteal region superiorly to the Piriformis muscle.
name: Superior Gluteal artery
label: b
answer: no

Correct answer: a
Which specific structure of the bladder is annotated here?

[lightgallery]

Options:
explanation: The body is the large area situated between the apex and the fundus.
name: The body
label: d
answer: no
explanation: The fundus or base is the posteroinferior part of the bladder. It is usually triangular in shape and is directed downward and backwards towards the rectum.
name: The fundus
label: b
answer: no
explanation: This is the external opening of the urethra where urine exits in both females and males and semen in males.
name: The external urethral meatus
label: e
answer: no
explanation: The internal urethral meatus or opening is found surrounded by the internal urethral sphincter found in the neck of the bladder leading into the urethra. It is usually crescent-shaped. The neck of the bladder is the constricted part of the bladder that leads to the urethra.
name: The internal urethral meatus
label: a
answer: yes
explanation: The apex is the anterosuperior part of the bladder that points towards the abdominal wall.
name: The apex
label: c
answer: no

Correct answer: a
In females, which artery supplies the annotated part of the bladder?

[lightgallery]

Options:
explanation: Venous drainage of the upper part of the bladder in females is via the vesical and uterovaginal plexuses draining into the internal iliac veins.
name: Uterovaginal plexus
label: d
answer: no
explanation: The lower part/base/neck of the bladder in females is supplied by the vaginal artery.
name: Vaginal artery
label: c
answer: no
explanation: The lower part/base/neck of the bladder in males is supplied by the inferior vesical artery.
name: Inferior vesical artery
label: b
answer: no
explanation: The superior vesical artery, inferior vesical artery and vaginal artery are branches from the anterior division of the internal iliac artery. The Obturator and Inferior Gluteal arteries may also contribute small branches.
name: Posterior division of the internal iliac artery
label: e
answer: no
explanation: The upper part/dome/apex of the bladder in both males and females is supplied by the superior vesical artery
name: Superior vesical artery
label: a
answer: yes

Correct answer: a
Identify the annotated structure.

[lightgallery]

Options:
explanation: The ureters enter the bladder on the posterior wall of the bladder where they incorporate into the trigone.
name: Ureter
label: e
answer: no
explanation: This is a fibrous arch that connects the diaphragmatic crura on either side of the aortic hiatus.
name: Median arcuate ligament
label: b
answer: no
explanation: The cardinal ligaments are situated along the inferior border of the Broad ligament and house the uterine artery and veins.
name: Cardinal ligament
label: d
answer: no
explanation: The round ligament of the uterus is fibro-muscular connective tissue. It appears like a round band of rope. One side of the round ligament is attached to the superior and lateral aspects of the uterus. The round ligament crosses the pelvis through the deep inguinal ring which then traverses the inguinal canal and enters the labia majora, where it terminates with its fibres blending into the mons pubis.
name: Round ligament
label: c
answer: no
explanation: The medial umbilical ligament or Urachus is a fibrous remnant cord connecting the bladder to the umbilicus. A patent urachus is often managed surgically. Causes of a patent urachus include urachal cyst, urachal fistula, urachal diverticulum and urachal sinus.
name: Median umbilical ligament
label: a
answer: yes

Correct answer: a
Name the annotated structure.

[lightgallery]

Options:
explanation: The uterus is a hollow pear-shaped organ. It is a thick-walled muscular organ connected distally to the vagina and laterally to the uterine tubes. It consists of three parts: the fundus – the top of the uterus, the body – usually the site of implantation and the cervix – the lower part of the uterus linking it with the vagina.
name: Uterus
label: b
answer: no
explanation: This represents the caudal extension of the peritoneal cavity. It may also be known as the rectovaginal/rectouterine pouch in females and the rectovesical pouch in males.
name: The pouch of Douglas
label: c
answer: no
explanation: This is the opening of the cervix and the upper part of the uterus
name: The internal OS
label: e
answer: no
explanation: This is the muscular tube which connects from the vaginal orifice to the cervix.
name: Vagina
label: d
answer: no
explanation: The cervix is the lower, narrower end of the uterus connecting the uterus to the vagina.
name: Cervix
label: a
answer: yes

Correct answer: a
What structural abnormality found here may lead to reduced urine flow as an early symptom?

[lightgallery]

Options:
explanation: This refers to inflammation of the urethra and does not constitute a structural abnormality of the urethra.
name: Urethritis
label: d
answer: no
explanation: This is a condition describing symptoms similar to those of a UTI without an underlying infection. The main symptom of this condition is chronic pelvic and urinary tract pain. Interestingly, urethral syndrome is linked to certain allergies and food sensitivities and eliminating these may relieve symptoms.
name: Urethral syndrome
label: e
answer: no
explanation: Urethral cancer is rare and may not cause any symptoms in the early stages.
name: Urethral cancer
label: b
answer: no
explanation: This is a benign mass usually occurring after menopause and does not usually cause any symptoms. Common symptoms include pain or bleeding on urinating.
name: Urethral caruncle
label: c
answer: no
explanation: Males are more likely to develop urethral strictures due to longer urethras however it can affect females too. Urethral narrowing that may lead to blockage is known as a urethral stricture. Injury often causes stricturing but infections are also known to cause structuring.
Other symptoms of urethral strictures include pain on micturition, blood in the urine and abdominal pain.
name: Urethral stricture
label: a
answer: yes

Correct answer: a
Which structure forms the roof of the annotated space?

[lightgallery]

Options:
explanation: This forms part of the base of the fossa anteriorly. The sacrotuberous ligament and gluteus maximus form the posterior aspect of the base.
name: Perineal body
label: e
answer: no
explanation: This forms the floor of the ischioanal fossa.
name: Deep transverse perineal fascia
label: b
answer: no
explanation: This forms part of the medial wall of the fossa.
name: External anal sphincter
label: c
answer: no
explanation: This forms part of the lateral wall of the fossa .
name: Ischial tuberosity
label: d
answer: no
explanation: The annotated space is the ischioanal fossa. The ischioanal fossa is a paired triangular-shaped space lateral to the anal canal. The levator ani muscle forms the roof of this.
name: Levator ani muscle
label: a
answer: yes

Correct answer: a
Which of the following structures lies within the annotated space?

[lightgallery]

Options:
explanation: The annotated space is the ischioanal fossa. Alcock’s canal or the pudendal canal is an anatomical structure formed by the obturator fascia lining the lateral wall of the ischioanal fossa. Within it lies the pudendal artery, vein and nerve.
name: Internal pudendal artery, nerve and vein
label: a
answer: yes
explanation: This forms part of the lateral wall of the fossa but is not within the space.
name: Ischial tuberosity
label: c
answer: no
explanation: This does not lie within the ischioanal fossa.
name: Sigmoid colon
label: b
answer: no
explanation: This forms the floor of the ischioanal fossa but is not within the space.
name: Deep transverse perineal fascia
label: e
answer: no
explanation: This does not lie within the ischioanal fossa.
name: Sciatic nerve
label: d
answer: no

Correct answer: a
What type of cells line the annotated structure?

[lightgallery]

Options:
explanation: Endothelium is a single layer of squamous endothelial cells that line the interior surface of blood vessels.
name: Endothelium
label: e
answer: no
explanation: These are flat cells commonly found in the upper part of the epidermis. The vaginal epithelium consists of multiple layers of squamous cells.
name: Squamous cells
label: c
answer: no
explanation: Schwann cells are principal cells of the peripheral nervous system and are responsible for the myelination of axons.
name: Schwann cells
label: d
answer: no
explanation: Goblet cells are a type of intestinal mucosal epithelial cell
name: Goblet cells
label: b
answer: no
explanation: The annotation points to the middle portion of the male urethra which is a dynamic fibromuscular tube which serves as the terminal region of both the male urinary and reproductive systems. The average male urethra is 20 cm long and begins within the bladder wall and ends in the distal glans of the penis. The proximal two-thirds of the urethra is lined by transitional epithelial cells, while the distal third is lined by stratified squamous epithelial cells..
name: Transitional epithelium
label: a
answer: yes

Correct answer: a
Which part of the male urethra is demonstrated here?

[lightgallery]

Options:
explanation: This is the same as the bulbous/spongy urethra.
name: Penile urethra
label: e
answer: no
explanation: This begins immediately outside of the prostate gland and ends just prior to entering the bulb of the penis. It passes through the pelvic floor and deep perineal pouch. It is the narrowest and least dilatable portion of the urethra. It is typically 1-1.5cm in length.
name: Membranous urethra
label: b
answer: no
explanation: This is a portion of the urethra that is embedded within the walls of the urinary bladder and is typically 0.5 to 1.5 cm in length. It extends inferiorly from the bladder and ends prior to entering the prostate gland. This is no longer included in the latest classification of the anatomical parts of the male urethra.
name: Pre-prostatic urethra
label: d
answer: no
explanation: This passes through the bulb and corpus spongiosum of the penis, ending at the external urethral orifice. It is typically 15cm in length. It widens initially as it enters the bulb of the penis and again in the glans of the penis.
name: Bulbous urethra
label: c
answer: no
explanation: This is generally the widest part of the male urethra and is completely encompassed within the prostate gland. It is typically 3-4cm in length.
name: Prostatic urethra
label: a
answer: yes

Correct answer: a
Name the annotated structure.

[lightgallery]

Options:
explanation: This is the tubular structure extending from the uterus towards the ovary bilaterally.
name: Fallopian tube
label: d
answer: no
explanation: In this prosection, the uterus lies below the arrowhead, in a more central location within the pelvis in comparison to the ovary.
name: Uterus
label: b
answer: no
explanation: The rectum is not clearly visible on this prosection but would lie posterior to the uterus.
name: Rectum
label: e
answer: no
explanation: The arrow points towards the right ovary in this prosection. The ovaries are small oval-shaped organs located on either side of the uterus often closely related to the pelvic sidewall.
name: Ovary
label: a
answer: yes
explanation: In this prosection the bladder can be found as a projection below the uterus. The bladder lies anterior to the uterus.
name: Bladder
label: c
answer: no

Correct answer: a
Name the annotated structure.

[lightgallery]

Options:
explanation: This is a stabiliser of the sacroiliac joint and connects the bony pelvis to the vertebral column. It forms part of the base of the ischioanal fossa posteriorly.
name: Sacrotuberous ligament
label: d
answer: no
explanation: The gluteus maximus is the most superficial and largest of the muscles which make up the bulk of the shape and form of the buttock and hip area. It is the main extensor muscle of the hip. It forms part of the base of the ischioanal fossa posteriorly.
name: Gluteus maximus
label: b
answer: no
explanation: This is a muscle that originates within the pelvis and inserts into the greater trochanter of the femur. It forms part of the lateral wall of the ischioanal fossa.
name: Obturator internus muscle
label: c
answer: no
explanation: The levator ani is the main pelvic floor muscle. It is a broad, thin structure formed by 3 muscle components – the pubococcygeus, iliococcygeus and puborectalis.
name: Levator ani
label: a
answer: yes
explanation: This is the fascia of the obturator internus muscle. It covers its internal surface and is attached to the bony margin of the obturator foramen. It forms part of the lateral wall of the ischioanal fossa.
name: Obturator fascia
label: e
answer: no

Correct answer: a