SamEV  the spanish territories goberned by spanish kings count actually as spanish possesionat least those of Philip IICharles I was the king of Spain and he ruled mostly of Europe being the emperor of Spain and the HREthe spanish empire have the same sense under Charles V  Phillip II It doesnt have sense to add the territories of Phillip II and not to add those of Charles I since they had the same emprise and both were kings of Spain And the most important thingSPAIN BECAME A POWERFUL EMPIRE UNDER CHARLES I  not under his son