What is the value of p in 24 = 2p?
(A) p = 4
(B) p = 8
(C) p = 12
(D) p = 24

Question: What is the value of p in 24 = 2p?

Answer:
(A) p = 4
(B) p = 8
(C) p = 12
(D) p = 24


Performance enhancing synthetic steroids are based on the structure of the hormone:
(A) testosterone.
(B) cortisol.
(C) progesterone.
(D) aldosterone.

Question: Performance enhancing synthetic steroids are based on the structure of the hormone:

Answer:
(A) testosterone.
(B) cortisol.
(C) progesterone.
(D) aldosterone.


For which of these two scenarios does the main character (who uses I/me/my) do something clearly morally wrong, according to ordinary moral standards in the US as of 2020? Scenario 1 | My kid brother smudged the paint on my stepdad's Corvette, so I gave him turpentine to clean it. Scenario 2 | To get away, I pepper sprayed a child and ran for it.
(A) Wrong, Wrong
(B) Wrong, Not wrong
(C) Not wrong, Wrong
(D) Not wrong, Not wrong

Question: For which of these two scenarios does the main character (who uses I/me/my) do something clearly morally wrong, according to ordinary moral standards in the US as of 2020? Scenario 1 | My kid brother smudged the paint on my stepdad's Corvette, so I gave him turpentine to clean it. Scenario 2 | To get away, I pepper sprayed a child and ran for it.

Answer:
(A) Wrong, Wrong
(B) Wrong, Not wrong
(C) Not wrong, Wrong
(D) Not wrong, Not wrong


 Who is associated with the stigmata and preaching to birds?
(A) Paul of Tarsus
(B) Clare of Assisi
(C) Francis of Assisi
(D) John of the Cross

Question: Who is associated with the stigmata and preaching to birds?

Answer:
(A) Paul of Tarsus
(B) Clare of Assisi
(C) Francis of Assisi
(D) John of the Cross


Use the expression below to answer the question. 3 × [(2 × 6 – 5) + (8 ÷ 4)] – 1 What is the value of the expression?
(A) 9
(B) 11
(C) 26
(D) 32

Question: Use the expression below to answer the question. 3 × [(2 × 6 – 5) + (8 ÷ 4)] – 1 What is the value of the expression?

Answer:
(A) 9
(B) 11
(C) 26
(D) 32


Consider the following statements: (1) In every country, people think other individuals in their country are less happy than they actually are. (2) In the United States, women’s happiness has increased both absolutely and relative to men. Which of these statements is True/False?
(A) True, True
(B) True, False
(C) False, True
(D) False, False

Question: Consider the following statements: (1) In every country, people think other individuals in their country are less happy than they actually are. (2) In the United States, women’s happiness has increased both absolutely and relative to men. Which of these statements is True/False?

Answer:
(A) True, True
(B) True, False
(C) False, True
(D) False, False


Which of the following is the most appropriate pricing strategy to use when introducing a new and unique product to the market?
(A) Price skimming
(B) Promotional pricing
(C) Psychological pricing
(D) Penetration pricing

Question: Which of the following is the most appropriate pricing strategy to use when introducing a new and unique product to the market?

Answer:
(A) Price skimming
(B) Promotional pricing
(C) Psychological pricing
(D) Penetration pricing


The irregularity of the wet monsoon in South Asia in recent years may have a significant negative effect on which of the following?
(A) Food production
(B) Population patterns
(C) Wildlife conservation efforts
(D) Tourism

Question: The irregularity of the wet monsoon in South Asia in recent years may have a significant negative effect on which of the following?

Answer:
(A) Food production
(B) Population patterns
(C) Wildlife conservation efforts
(D) Tourism


In a criminal prosecution the government must prove that the defendant affixed a rubber-stamp containing his signature to certain fraudulent letters mailed to the victim. The defendant denied that he stamped the letters. There were no witnesses to the defendant stamping the letters. The prosecution attempted to present a co-worker to testify that defendant maintained sole control of the stamp and used it once daily at 3 p.m. to sign all outgoing letters, and then immediately returned it to his safe. The co-worker would testify that he saw the defendant using the stamp in that habitual manner over a period of many years. The defense objected because this did not prove that the defendant's practice was followed on the dates in question. Under the Federal Rules of Evidence, what will the court rule?
(A) The testimony is inadmissible because evidence of habit is not admissible in a criminal case under the Federal Rules of Evidence.
(B) The testimony is inadmissible because evidence of prior habit will only distract the jury from deciding whether the defendant actually acted that way on the specified dates.
(C) The testimony is admissible because it proves that the defendant was the only person who could have used the stamp.
(D) The testimony is admissible because habit and routine practice are admissible under the Federal Rules of Evidence.

Question: In a criminal prosecution the government must prove that the defendant affixed a rubber-stamp containing his signature to certain fraudulent letters mailed to the victim. The defendant denied that he stamped the letters. There were no witnesses to the defendant stamping the letters. The prosecution attempted to present a co-worker to testify that defendant maintained sole control of the stamp and used it once daily at 3 p.m. to sign all outgoing letters, and then immediately returned it to his safe. The co-worker would testify that he saw the defendant using the stamp in that habitual manner over a period of many years. The defense objected because this did not prove that the defendant's practice was followed on the dates in question. Under the Federal Rules of Evidence, what will the court rule?

The testimony is inadmissible because evidence of habit is not admissible in a criminal case under the Federal Rules of Evidence.

The testimony is inadmissible because evidence of prior habit will only distract the jury from deciding whether the defendant actually acted that way on the specified dates.

The testimony is admissible because it proves that the defendant was the only person who could have used the stamp.

The testimony is admissible because habit and routine practice are admissible under the Federal Rules of Evidence.

Answer:
(A) The testimony is inadmissible because evidence of habit is not admissible in a criminal case under the Federal Rules of Evidence.
(B) The testimony is inadmissible because evidence of prior habit will only distract the jury from deciding whether the defendant actually acted that way on the specified dates.
(C) The testimony is admissible because it proves that the defendant was the only person who could have used the stamp.
(D) The testimony is admissible because habit and routine practice are admissible under the Federal Rules of Evidence.


 Which of the following capacities does Carruther's assume that animals lack?
(A) the capacity for suffering
(B) the capacity for practical reasoning
(C) the capacity for rational agency
(D) the capacity for conscious experience

Question: Which of the following capacities does Carruther's assume that animals lack?

Answer:
(A) the capacity for suffering
(B) the capacity for practical reasoning
(C) the capacity for rational agency
(D) the capacity for conscious experience


A buyer contracted with a seller to purchase 10,000 bushels of soybeans at market price. The soybeans were to be delivered in 90 days. Two days after the soybean contract was made, the buyer and the seller entered into another contract under which the buyer agreed to purchase 10,000 bushels of wheat from the seller at market price. Before the time for delivery of the soybeans, the seller notified the buyer that it would not deliver the wheat because the seller's wheat supplier had refused to extend additional credit to the seller and therefore the seller had no wheat available for the buyer. Which of the following statements best describes the effect of the seller's repudiation of the wheat contract on the buyer's rights under the soybean contract?
(A) It gives the buyer the right to demand assurances that the seller will perform the soybean contract.
(B) It gives the buyer the right to terminate the soybean contract, because of the doctrine of soybean contract, because of the doctrine of dependent covenants.
(C) It gives the buyer the right to terminate the soybean contract, because the buyer does not have to deal with a party that breaches a contract.
(D) It has no effect on the buyer's rights, because the two contracts are entirely separate.

Question: A buyer contracted with a seller to purchase 10,000 bushels of soybeans at market price. The soybeans were to be delivered in 90 days. Two days after the soybean contract was made, the buyer and the seller entered into another contract under which the buyer agreed to purchase 10,000 bushels of wheat from the seller at market price. Before the time for delivery of the soybeans, the seller notified the buyer that it would not deliver the wheat because the seller's wheat supplier had refused to extend additional credit to the seller and therefore the seller had no wheat available for the buyer. Which of the following statements best describes the effect of the seller's repudiation of the wheat contract on the buyer's rights under the soybean contract?

It gives the buyer the right to demand assurances that the seller will perform the soybean contract.

It gives the buyer the right to terminate the soybean contract, because of the doctrine of soybean contract, because of the doctrine of dependent covenants.

It gives the buyer the right to terminate the soybean contract, because the buyer does not have to deal with a party that breaches a contract.

It has no effect on the buyer's rights, because the two contracts are entirely separate.

Answer:
(A) It gives the buyer the right to demand assurances that the seller will perform the soybean contract.
(B) It gives the buyer the right to terminate the soybean contract, because of the doctrine of soybean contract, because of the doctrine of dependent covenants.
(C) It gives the buyer the right to terminate the soybean contract, because the buyer does not have to deal with a party that breaches a contract.
(D) It has no effect on the buyer's rights, because the two contracts are entirely separate.


All of the following are true under the system of checks and balances EXCEPT
(A) the president's nominees must be approved by the Senate before taking office
(B) two-thirds of the Senate must approve presidentially negotiated treaties
(C) the president can override a congressional veto and pass laws
(D) Congress can override a presidential veto

Question: All of the following are true under the system of checks and balances EXCEPT

the president's nominees must be approved by the Senate before taking office

two-thirds of the Senate must approve presidentially negotiated treaties

the president can override a congressional veto and pass laws

Congress can override a presidential veto

Answer:
(A) the president's nominees must be approved by the Senate before taking office
(B) two-thirds of the Senate must approve presidentially negotiated treaties
(C) the president can override a congressional veto and pass laws
(D) Congress can override a presidential veto


Let I != A != -I, where I is the identity matrix and A is a real 2 x 2 matrix. If A = A^(-1), then the trace of A is
(A) 2
(B) 1
(C) 0
(D) -1

Question: Let I != A != -I, where I is the identity matrix and A is a real 2 x 2 matrix. If A = A^(-1), then the trace of A is

Answer:
(A) 2
(B) 1
(C) 0
(D) -1


An ice cream shopsold 48 vanilla milkshakes in a day, which was 40% of the total number of milkshakes sold that day. What was the total number of milkshakes that the ice cream shop sold that day?
(A) 60
(B) 72
(C) 100
(D) 120

Question: An ice cream shopsold 48 vanilla milkshakes in a day, which was 40% of the total number of milkshakes sold that day. What was the total number of milkshakes that the ice cream shop sold that day?

Answer:
(A) 60
(B) 72
(C) 100
(D) 120


The Federal Open Market Committee
(A) advises the President of the United States.
(B) is part of the Federal Reserve System.
(C) has seven members.
(D) promotes free trade.

Question: The Federal Open Market Committee

advises the President of the United States.

Answer:
(A) advises the President of the United States.
(B) is part of the Federal Reserve System.
(C) has seven members.
(D) promotes free trade.


Villi and microvilli are present in the small intestine and aid in reabsorption by
(A) increasing the surface area of the small intestine
(B) decreasing the surface area of the small intestine
(C) making the small intestine more hydrophilic
(D) making the small intestine more hydrophobic

Question: Villi and microvilli are present in the small intestine and aid in reabsorption by

increasing the surface area of the small intestine

decreasing the surface area of the small intestine

making the small intestine more hydrophilic

making the small intestine more hydrophobic

Answer:
(A) increasing the surface area of the small intestine
(B) decreasing the surface area of the small intestine
(C) making the small intestine more hydrophilic
(D) making the small intestine more hydrophobic


A small kiosk at the Atlanta airport carries souvenirs in the price range of $3.99 to $29.99, with a mean price of $14.75. The airport authorities decide to increase the rent charged for a kiosk by 5 percent. To make up for the increased rent, the kiosk owner decides to increase the prices of all items by 50 cents. As a result, which of the following will happen?
(A) The mean price and the range of prices will increase by 50 cents.
(B) The mean price will remain the same, but the range of prices will increase by 50 cents.
(C) The mean price and the standard deviation of prices will increase by 50 cents.
(D) The mean price will increase by 50 cents, but the standard deviation of prices will remain the same.

Question: A small kiosk at the Atlanta airport carries souvenirs in the price range of $3.99 to $29.99, with a mean price of $14.75. The airport authorities decide to increase the rent charged for a kiosk by 5 percent. To make up for the increased rent, the kiosk owner decides to increase the prices of all items by 50 cents. As a result, which of the following will happen?

The mean price and the range of prices will increase by 50 cents.

The mean price will remain the same, but the range of prices will increase by 50 cents.

The mean price and the standard deviation of prices will increase by 50 cents.

The mean price will increase by 50 cents, but the standard deviation of prices will remain the same.

Answer:
(A) The mean price and the range of prices will increase by 50 cents.
(B) The mean price will remain the same, but the range of prices will increase by 50 cents.
(C) The mean price and the standard deviation of prices will increase by 50 cents.
(D) The mean price will increase by 50 cents, but the standard deviation of prices will remain the same.


If the Federal Reserve was concerned about the "crowding-out" effect they could engage in
(A) expansionary monetary policy by lowering the discount rate.
(B) expansionary monetary policy by selling Treasury securities.
(C) contractionary monetary policy by raising the discount rate.
(D) contractionary monetary policy by lowering the discount rate.

Question: If the Federal Reserve was concerned about the "crowding-out" effect they could engage in

expansionary monetary policy by lowering the discount rate.

expansionary monetary policy by selling Treasury securities.

contractionary monetary policy by raising the discount rate.

contractionary monetary policy by lowering the discount rate.

Answer:
(A) expansionary monetary policy by lowering the discount rate.
(B) expansionary monetary policy by selling Treasury securities.
(C) contractionary monetary policy by raising the discount rate.
(D) contractionary monetary policy by lowering the discount rate.


Which of the following conditions is characterized by the presence of kidney stones (renal calculi)?
(A) Glomerulonephritis
(B) Interstitial nephritis
(C) Nephrolithiasis
(D) Polycystic kidney

Question: Which of the following conditions is characterized by the presence of kidney stones (renal calculi)?

Answer:
(A) Glomerulonephritis
(B) Interstitial nephritis
(C) Nephrolithiasis
(D) Polycystic kidney


Which of the following ions CANNOT be used as a dopant in germanium to make an n-type semiconductor?
(A) As
(B) P
(C) Sb
(D) B

Question: Which of the following ions CANNOT be used as a dopant in germanium to make an n-type semiconductor?

Answer:
(A) As
(B) P
(C) Sb
(D) B


Which of the following is NOT a spread effect in the core-periphery model of development?
(A) Congestion in the core
(B) High cost of labor in the core
(C) High density in the core
(D) More infrastructure in the core

Question: Which of the following is NOT a spread effect in the core-periphery model of development?

Answer:
(A) Congestion in the core
(B) High cost of labor in the core
(C) High density in the core
(D) More infrastructure in the core


_______ locate morality beyond the sphere of rationality in an emotional 'moral impulse' towards others.
(A) Virtue ethics
(B) Ethical egoism
(C) Postmodern ethics
(D) Ethics of duty

Question: _______ locate morality beyond the sphere of rationality in an emotional 'moral impulse' towards others.

Answer:
(A) Virtue ethics
(B) Ethical egoism
(C) Postmodern ethics
(D) Ethics of duty


As a general principle what is the best approach to the use of analgesic drugs following surgery?
(A) Give drugs only 'as required'.
(B) Give drugs regularly with provision for additional 'as required' pain relief for breakthrough pain.
(C) Use long-acting drugs twice daily.
(D) Give only when pain scores are high.

Question: As a general principle what is the best approach to the use of analgesic drugs following surgery?

Give drugs regularly with provision for additional 'as required' pain relief for breakthrough pain.

Answer:
(A) Give drugs only 'as required'.
(B) Give drugs regularly with provision for additional 'as required' pain relief for breakthrough pain.
(C) Use long-acting drugs twice daily.
(D) Give only when pain scores are high.


How does Stevenson respond to the objection that his theory does not account for the kind of goodness that is objective and is known a priori?
(A) He claims to have proven that such a property does not exist.
(B) He claims to have offered an account of just such a property.
(C) He claims he does not understand such a property.
(D) None of the above.

Question: How does Stevenson respond to the objection that his theory does not account for the kind of goodness that is objective and is known a priori?

He claims to have proven that such a property does not exist.

He claims to have offered an account of just such a property.

He claims he does not understand such a property.

Answer:
(A) He claims to have proven that such a property does not exist.
(B) He claims to have offered an account of just such a property.
(C) He claims he does not understand such a property.
(D) None of the above.


An inherent power of the president is the power to
(A) appoint a nominee for the U.S. Supreme Court
(B) negotiate a treaty with another country
(C) declare a state of emergency following a natural disaster
(D) veto a bill passed by the U.S. Congress

Question: An inherent power of the president is the power to

appoint a nominee for the U.S. Supreme Court

declare a state of emergency following a natural disaster

Answer:
(A) appoint a nominee for the U.S. Supreme Court
(B) negotiate a treaty with another country
(C) declare a state of emergency following a natural disaster
(D) veto a bill passed by the U.S. Congress


In what ways might international measures be employed? Are they a help or a hindrance?
(A) Diplomacy cannot achieve agreements among small groups of nations where global agreements have failed. Global endorsement is required to legitimize the process, providing greater cooperation, agreements and great power backing. Failure to attain global consensus on what terrorism is will result in disparities between states' counterterrorism methods which will severely reduce the scope of employing multi-level measures in a consistent and cohesive fashion, and may afford some terrorist groups the opportunity to seek refuge in states whose domestic laws are weaker.
(B) A great deal of international diplomacy has involved attempts to define terrorism so that all countries could take steps to eradicate it. However, these efforts have largely faltered: countries often support or sympathize with dissidents who use violence against repressive governments; governments in developing countries have wanted to avoid anti-colonial struggles being labelled as terrorism; and countries want to retain a degree of flexibility regarding extradition and punishment of political dissidents.
(C) Intelligence agencies are highly centralized, organized structures that operate at a maximum functional level within their domestic context. There is no reason to presume that collaboration would enhance their ability to contribute to the prevention of terrorism. The multi-agency approach would also broaden the scope for potential errors, miscommunication, and intelligence failures.
(D) Multi-partner initiatives to support the reforms necessary for the prevention of terrorism have proved ineffective. Sanctions against countries that provide a territorial base for terrorism may be misplaced, having negligible effects on the terrorist organizations themselves.

Question: In what ways might international measures be employed? Are they a help or a hindrance?

Diplomacy cannot achieve agreements among small groups of nations where global agreements have failed. Global endorsement is required to legitimize the process, providing greater cooperation, agreements and great power backing. Failure to attain global consensus on what terrorism is will result in disparities between states' counterterrorism methods which will severely reduce the scope of employing multi-level measures in a consistent and cohesive fashion, and may afford some terrorist groups the opportunity to seek refuge in states whose domestic laws are weaker.

A great deal of international diplomacy has involved attempts to define terrorism so that all countries could take steps to eradicate it. However, these efforts have largely faltered: countries often support or sympathize with dissidents who use violence against repressive governments; governments in developing countries have wanted to avoid anti-colonial struggles being labelled as terrorism; and countries want to retain a degree of flexibility regarding extradition and punishment of political dissidents.

Intelligence agencies are highly centralized, organized structures that operate at a maximum functional level within their domestic context. There is no reason to presume that collaboration would enhance their ability to contribute to the prevention of terrorism. The multi-agency approach would also broaden the scope for potential errors, miscommunication, and intelligence failures.

Multi-partner initiatives to support the reforms necessary for the prevention of terrorism have proved ineffective. Sanctions against countries that provide a territorial base for terrorism may be misplaced, having negligible effects on the terrorist organizations themselves.

Answer:
(A) Diplomacy cannot achieve agreements among small groups of nations where global agreements have failed. Global endorsement is required to legitimize the process, providing greater cooperation, agreements and great power backing. Failure to attain global consensus on what terrorism is will result in disparities between states' counterterrorism methods which will severely reduce the scope of employing multi-level measures in a consistent and cohesive fashion, and may afford some terrorist groups the opportunity to seek refuge in states whose domestic laws are weaker.
(B) A great deal of international diplomacy has involved attempts to define terrorism so that all countries could take steps to eradicate it. However, these efforts have largely faltered: countries often support or sympathize with dissidents who use violence against repressive governments; governments in developing countries have wanted to avoid anti-colonial struggles being labelled as terrorism; and countries want to retain a degree of flexibility regarding extradition and punishment of political dissidents.
(C) Intelligence agencies are highly centralized, organized structures that operate at a maximum functional level within their domestic context. There is no reason to presume that collaboration would enhance their ability to contribute to the prevention of terrorism. The multi-agency approach would also broaden the scope for potential errors, miscommunication, and intelligence failures.
(D) Multi-partner initiatives to support the reforms necessary for the prevention of terrorism have proved ineffective. Sanctions against countries that provide a territorial base for terrorism may be misplaced, having negligible effects on the terrorist organizations themselves.


A nonsense mutation involves:
(A) a regulatory sequence.
(B) an AG splice acceptor site.
(C) the creation of a different amino acid.
(D) the creation of a stop codon.

Question: A nonsense mutation involves:

Answer:
(A) a regulatory sequence.
(B) an AG splice acceptor site.
(C) the creation of a different amino acid.
(D) the creation of a stop codon.


How many real roots does the polynomial 2x^5 + 8x - 7 have?
(A) nan
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three

Question: How many real roots does the polynomial 2x^5 + 8x - 7 have?

Answer:
(A) nan
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three


Where are the vital centres located in the brainstem?
(A) midbrain
(B) pons
(C) medulla oblongata
(D) cerebellum

Question: Where are the vital centres located in the brainstem?

Answer:
(A) midbrain
(B) pons
(C) medulla oblongata
(D) cerebellum


Which of the following types of audit evidence provides the least assurance of reliability?
(A) Receivable confirmations received from the client’s customers.
(B) Prenumbered receiving reports completed by the client’s employees.
(C) Prior months’ bank statements obtained from the client.
(D) Municipal property tax bills prepared in the client’s name.

Question: Which of the following types of audit evidence provides the least assurance of reliability?

Receivable confirmations received from the client’s customers.

Prenumbered receiving reports completed by the client’s employees.

Prior months’ bank statements obtained from the client.

Municipal property tax bills prepared in the client’s name.

Answer:
(A) Receivable confirmations received from the client’s customers.
(B) Prenumbered receiving reports completed by the client’s employees.
(C) Prior months’ bank statements obtained from the client.
(D) Municipal property tax bills prepared in the client’s name.


House members are more concerned about their committee assignments than are senators because
(A) House members may serve on only one committee at a time
(B) Senate committees have relatively little power to alter legislation
(C) bills in the Senate must pass through all committees before reaching the floor
(D) the rules make it extremely difficult for representatives to influence legislation on the House floor

Question: House members are more concerned about their committee assignments than are senators because

House members may serve on only one committee at a time

Senate committees have relatively little power to alter legislation

bills in the Senate must pass through all committees before reaching the floor

the rules make it extremely difficult for representatives to influence legislation on the House floor

Answer:
(A) House members may serve on only one committee at a time
(B) Senate committees have relatively little power to alter legislation
(C) bills in the Senate must pass through all committees before reaching the floor
(D) the rules make it extremely difficult for representatives to influence legislation on the House floor


What is a paradigm?
(A) A theoretical assumption
(B) An illustration
(C) A theoretical model
(D) An example serving as a model

Question: What is a paradigm?

Answer:
(A) A theoretical assumption
(B) An illustration
(C) A theoretical model
(D) An example serving as a model


The six dimensions usually considered to constitute the external marketing environment include all of the following except:
(A) Political considerations.
(B) Global factors.
(C) Socio-cultural aspects.
(D) Economics issues.

Question: The six dimensions usually considered to constitute the external marketing environment include all of the following except:

Answer:
(A) Political considerations.
(B) Global factors.
(C) Socio-cultural aspects.
(D) Economics issues.


If you think that someone's argument is strong based on their compelling use of language and confident delivery, you've probably committed which fallacy?
(A) Amphiboly
(B) Equivocation
(C) Special pleading
(D) Style over substance

Question: If you think that someone's argument is strong based on their compelling use of language and confident delivery, you've probably committed which fallacy?

Answer:
(A) Amphiboly
(B) Equivocation
(C) Special pleading
(D) Style over substance


Pretend someone actually managed to dig a hole straight through the center of the Earth all the way to the other side. If an object were dropped down that hole, which of the following would best describe its motion? Assume ideal conditions and that the object cannot be destroyed.
(A) It would fall to the center of the Earth and stop there.
(B) It would fall through the hole to the other side, continue past the opposite side’s opening, and fly into space.
(C) It would oscillate back and forth from one opening to the other indefinitely.
(D) It would fall to the other side and stop there.

Question: Pretend someone actually managed to dig a hole straight through the center of the Earth all the way to the other side. If an object were dropped down that hole, which of the following would best describe its motion? Assume ideal conditions and that the object cannot be destroyed.

It would fall to the center of the Earth and stop there.

It would fall through the hole to the other side, continue past the opposite side’s opening, and fly into space.

It would oscillate back and forth from one opening to the other indefinitely.

It would fall to the other side and stop there.

Answer:
(A) It would fall to the center of the Earth and stop there.
(B) It would fall through the hole to the other side, continue past the opposite side’s opening, and fly into space.
(C) It would oscillate back and forth from one opening to the other indefinitely.
(D) It would fall to the other side and stop there.


Molly got a haircut for $25 and she left a 15% tip. What was Molly’s final cost?
(A) $25.15
(B) $26.50
(C) $27.50
(D) $28.75

Question: Molly got a haircut for $25 and she left a 15% tip. What was Molly’s final cost?

Answer:
(A) $25.15
(B) $26.50
(C) $27.50
(D) $28.75


What might make the nurse think a patient could not use an inhaler?
(A) Severe leg ulcers.
(B) Previous recovery from an acute exacerbation of asthma.
(C) Forthcoming surgery.
(D) Poor technique, physical impairment, or lack of understanding.

Question: What might make the nurse think a patient could not use an inhaler?

Previous recovery from an acute exacerbation of asthma.

Poor technique, physical impairment, or lack of understanding.

Answer:
(A) Severe leg ulcers.
(B) Previous recovery from an acute exacerbation of asthma.
(C) Forthcoming surgery.
(D) Poor technique, physical impairment, or lack of understanding.


Let l = [1,2,3,4]. What is sum(l) in Python3?
(A) 4
(B) 1
(C) 10
(D) 8

Question: Let l = [1,2,3,4]. What is sum(l) in Python3?

Answer:
(A) 4
(B) 1
(C) 10
(D) 8


 To highlight the variation in approaches to purchasing behaviour, Svahn and Westerlund (2009) identify six principal purchasing strategies used by organizations. The __________ strategy refers to a buyer's efficiency orientation where the main purchasing goal is to seek the lowest price for the offering. To help achieve this, the buyer actively promotes competition among several potential suppliers.
(A) 'Bargainer' purchasing.
(B) The 'adaptator' purchasing.
(C) Price minimizer' purchasing.
(D) The 'projector' purchasing.

Question: To highlight the variation in approaches to purchasing behaviour, Svahn and Westerlund (2009) identify six principal purchasing strategies used by organizations. The __________ strategy refers to a buyer's efficiency orientation where the main purchasing goal is to seek the lowest price for the offering. To help achieve this, the buyer actively promotes competition among several potential suppliers.

Answer:
(A) 'Bargainer' purchasing.
(B) The 'adaptator' purchasing.
(C) Price minimizer' purchasing.
(D) The 'projector' purchasing.


Embedded in the inner membrane of the mitochondrion are:
(A) the enzymes of the tricarboxylic acid cycle (Krebs' cycle).
(B) the components of the electron transport chain.
(C) glycogen molecules.
(D) triacylglycerol molecules.

Question: Embedded in the inner membrane of the mitochondrion are:

the enzymes of the tricarboxylic acid cycle (Krebs' cycle).

the components of the electron transport chain.

Answer:
(A) the enzymes of the tricarboxylic acid cycle (Krebs' cycle).
(B) the components of the electron transport chain.
(C) glycogen molecules.
(D) triacylglycerol molecules.


Which of the following facts was established prior to 1859, the year in which Charles Darwin published On the Origin of Species?
(A) DNA provides the macromolecular basis of heredity.
(B) Mendelian principles explain why some traits are dominant and others are recessive.
(C) Prokaryotes include two major domains, the Bacteria and the Archaea.
(D) There exist fossilized remains of species that have become extinct.

Question: Which of the following facts was established prior to 1859, the year in which Charles Darwin published On the Origin of Species?

DNA provides the macromolecular basis of heredity.

Mendelian principles explain why some traits are dominant and others are recessive.

Prokaryotes include two major domains, the Bacteria and the Archaea.

There exist fossilized remains of species that have become extinct.

Answer:
(A) DNA provides the macromolecular basis of heredity.
(B) Mendelian principles explain why some traits are dominant and others are recessive.
(C) Prokaryotes include two major domains, the Bacteria and the Archaea.
(D) There exist fossilized remains of species that have become extinct.


The slowing that occurs with advanced age appears to be centered in
(A) The sense organs themselves
(B) The brain
(C) The muscle fibers
(D) The peripheral nervous system

Question: The slowing that occurs with advanced age appears to be centered in

Answer:
(A) The sense organs themselves
(B) The brain
(C) The muscle fibers
(D) The peripheral nervous system


Which of the following is not a tumour suppressor gene?
(A) APC
(B) NF1
(C) RB1
(D) RET

Question: Which of the following is not a tumour suppressor gene?

Answer:
(A) APC
(B) NF1
(C) RB1
(D) RET


Which of the following is an n-type semiconductor?
(A) Silicon
(B) Diamond
(C) Silicon carbide
(D) Arsenic-doped silicon

Question: Which of the following is an n-type semiconductor?

Answer:
(A) Silicon
(B) Diamond
(C) Silicon carbide
(D) Arsenic-doped silicon


Ace Co. issued 1000 shares of its $10 par value common stock for $15 per share in cash. How should this transaction be reported in Ace's statement of cash flows for the year of issuance?
(A) $15000 cash inflow from financing activities.
(B) $10000 cash inflow from financing activities and $5000 adjustment to arrive at cash flows from operating activities.
(C) $15000 cash flow from investing activities.
(D) $10000 cash flow from investing activities and $5000 adjustment to arrive at cash flows from operating activities.

Question: Ace Co. issued 1000 shares of its $10 par value common stock for $15 per share in cash. How should this transaction be reported in Ace's statement of cash flows for the year of issuance?

$15000 cash inflow from financing activities.

$10000 cash inflow from financing activities and $5000 adjustment to arrive at cash flows from operating activities.

$15000 cash flow from investing activities.

$10000 cash flow from investing activities and $5000 adjustment to arrive at cash flows from operating activities.

Answer:
(A) $15000 cash inflow from financing activities.
(B) $10000 cash inflow from financing activities and $5000 adjustment to arrive at cash flows from operating activities.
(C) $15000 cash flow from investing activities.
(D) $10000 cash flow from investing activities and $5000 adjustment to arrive at cash flows from operating activities.


Which of these ways a business impacts on the world do stakeholders NOT normally look at?
(A) Workforce development
(B) Impact on local communities
(C) Impact on the environment
(D) Financial performance

Question: Which of these ways a business impacts on the world do stakeholders NOT normally look at?

Answer:
(A) Workforce development
(B) Impact on local communities
(C) Impact on the environment
(D) Financial performance


 Which Confucian philosopher is described as a mystic due to his focus on qi (or ch'i)?
(A) Dao
(B) Xunzi
(C) Mencius
(D) Confucius

Question: Which Confucian philosopher is described as a mystic due to his focus on qi (or ch'i)?

Answer:
(A) Dao
(B) Xunzi
(C) Mencius
(D) Confucius


The patient's self-report of pain is important because health care staff:
(A) can overestimate the intensity of the patient's pain.
(B) underestimate the intensity of the patient's pain.
(C) do not possess an objective way of assessing pain.
(D) can use the information to prescribe and administer the least possible amount of pain relief.

Question: The patient's self-report of pain is important because health care staff:

can overestimate the intensity of the patient's pain.

underestimate the intensity of the patient's pain.

do not possess an objective way of assessing pain.

can use the information to prescribe and administer the least possible amount of pain relief.

Answer:
(A) can overestimate the intensity of the patient's pain.
(B) underestimate the intensity of the patient's pain.
(C) do not possess an objective way of assessing pain.
(D) can use the information to prescribe and administer the least possible amount of pain relief.


If an object is already moving and the sum of all the vector forces on a mass is zero, then the object will
(A) move at a constant speed in a straight line
(B) accelerate at a constant rate in a straight line
(C) come to rest
(D) increase its amount of inertia

Question: If an object is already moving and the sum of all the vector forces on a mass is zero, then the object will

move at a constant speed in a straight line

accelerate at a constant rate in a straight line

Answer:
(A) move at a constant speed in a straight line
(B) accelerate at a constant rate in a straight line
(C) come to rest
(D) increase its amount of inertia


As more lamps are connected to a series circuit, the current in the power source
(A) increases
(B) decreases
(C) remains the same
(D) None of these

Question: As more lamps are connected to a series circuit, the current in the power source

Answer:
(A) increases
(B) decreases
(C) remains the same
(D) None of these


What do the amount of grave goods buried with the children at Sungir' indicate?
(A) The tribe spent most of their time carving beads.
(B) The tribe was involved in an intricate trade network.
(C) The tribe had a complex system of inherited social statuses.
(D) The children were sometimes leaders of the tribe.

Question: What do the amount of grave goods buried with the children at Sungir' indicate?

The tribe spent most of their time carving beads.

The tribe was involved in an intricate trade network.

The tribe had a complex system of inherited social statuses.

The children were sometimes leaders of the tribe.

Answer:
(A) The tribe spent most of their time carving beads.
(B) The tribe was involved in an intricate trade network.
(C) The tribe had a complex system of inherited social statuses.
(D) The children were sometimes leaders of the tribe.


Of the following solutions, which will have the highest ionic strength? (Assume complete dissociation.)
(A) 0.050 M AlCl3
(B) 0.100 M NaCl
(C) 0.050 M CaCl2
(D) 0.100 M HCl

Question: Of the following solutions, which will have the highest ionic strength? (Assume complete dissociation.)

Answer:
(A) 0.050 M AlCl3
(B) 0.100 M NaCl
(C) 0.050 M CaCl2
(D) 0.100 M HCl


In Python 3, what is the output of ['Hi!'] * 4?
(A) ['Hi!', 'Hi!', 'Hi!', 'Hi!']
(B) ['Hi!'] * 4
(C) Error
(D) None of the above.

Question: In Python 3, what is the output of ['Hi!'] * 4?

Answer:
(A) ['Hi!', 'Hi!', 'Hi!', 'Hi!']
(B) ['Hi!'] * 4
(C) Error
(D) None of the above.


Which of the following phases are common to cells undergoing meiosis and mitosis?
I. G0
II. phase G2
III. phase S phase
(A) I only
(B) I and II only
(C) II and III only
(D) I, II, and III

Question:
Which of the following phases are common to cells undergoing meiosis and mitosis?
I. G0
II. phase G2
III. phase S phase

Answer:
(A) I only
(B) I and II only
(C) II and III only
(D) I, II, and III


In response to the claim that deliberative justification is incomplete:
(A) Gauthier expands the definition of deliberative justification.
(B) Gauthier argues that deliberative justification by definition takes account of all relevant considerations.
(C) Gauthier claims that deliberative justification works.
(D) Gauthier argues that all theories of justification are equally incomplete.

Question: In response to the claim that deliberative justification is incomplete:

Gauthier expands the definition of deliberative justification.

Gauthier argues that deliberative justification by definition takes account of all relevant considerations.

Gauthier claims that deliberative justification works.

Gauthier argues that all theories of justification are equally incomplete.

Answer:
(A) Gauthier expands the definition of deliberative justification.
(B) Gauthier argues that deliberative justification by definition takes account of all relevant considerations.
(C) Gauthier claims that deliberative justification works.
(D) Gauthier argues that all theories of justification are equally incomplete.


Do treaties bind third States, ie non-State parties?
(A) Treaties may create only rights for third States
(B) Treaties create both obligations and rights for third States
(C) Treaties do no create obligations or rights for third States without their consent
(D) Treaties do not create any obligations or rights for third States, even when the latter consent.

Question: Do treaties bind third States, ie non-State parties?

Treaties may create only rights for third States

Treaties create both obligations and rights for third States

Treaties do no create obligations or rights for third States without their consent

Treaties do not create any obligations or rights for third States, even when the latter consent.

Answer:
(A) Treaties may create only rights for third States
(B) Treaties create both obligations and rights for third States
(C) Treaties do no create obligations or rights for third States without their consent
(D) Treaties do not create any obligations or rights for third States, even when the latter consent.


Fossil evidence indicates that horses have gradually increased in size over geologic time. Which of the following terms best describes this?
(A) artificial selection
(B) directional selection
(C) stabilizing selection
(D) disruptive selection

Question: Fossil evidence indicates that horses have gradually increased in size over geologic time. Which of the following terms best describes this?

Answer:
(A) artificial selection
(B) directional selection
(C) stabilizing selection
(D) disruptive selection


 Which of the following is an example of a virtue of character?
(A) tallness
(B) honesty
(C) physical beauty
(D) simplicity

Question: Which of the following is an example of a virtue of character?

Answer:
(A) tallness
(B) honesty
(C) physical beauty
(D) simplicity


A valid disjunctive syllogism has a major premise that:
(A) includes two or more alternatives
(B) classifies subjects
(C) affirms the antecedent or denies the consequent
(D) leads to a valid conclusion

Question: A valid disjunctive syllogism has a major premise that:

affirms the antecedent or denies the consequent

Answer:
(A) includes two or more alternatives
(B) classifies subjects
(C) affirms the antecedent or denies the consequent
(D) leads to a valid conclusion


Which of the following best describes the snob appeal fallacy?
(A) reasoning that a claim is true based only on the evidence that it has been made so often.
(B) arguing someone should accept a claim based only on the evidence that he or she has the favorable characteristics to understand the truth of the claim.
(C) arguing a claim should be accepted based only on evidence that unidentified authorities accept it.
(D) arguing that someone should accept an idea or product based only on evidence that prestigious people accept it, or that non-prestigious people reject it.

Question: Which of the following best describes the snob appeal fallacy?

reasoning that a claim is true based only on the evidence that it has been made so often.

arguing someone should accept a claim based only on the evidence that he or she has the favorable characteristics to understand the truth of the claim.

arguing a claim should be accepted based only on evidence that unidentified authorities accept it.

arguing that someone should accept an idea or product based only on evidence that prestigious people accept it, or that non-prestigious people reject it.

Answer:
(A) reasoning that a claim is true based only on the evidence that it has been made so often.
(B) arguing someone should accept a claim based only on the evidence that he or she has the favorable characteristics to understand the truth of the claim.
(C) arguing a claim should be accepted based only on evidence that unidentified authorities accept it.
(D) arguing that someone should accept an idea or product based only on evidence that prestigious people accept it, or that non-prestigious people reject it.


Which of the following could cause the aggregate demand curve to shift to the left?
(A) An increase in the money supply.
(B) Contractionary demand management policies.
(C) Expansionary demand management policies.
(D) An increase in government spending.

Question: Which of the following could cause the aggregate demand curve to shift to the left?

Contractionary demand management policies.

Expansionary demand management policies.

Answer:
(A) An increase in the money supply.
(B) Contractionary demand management policies.
(C) Expansionary demand management policies.
(D) An increase in government spending.


A defendant was convicted of assault of a federal officer and imprisoned in a federal penitentiary. While in prison, federal authorities began investigating the murder of the defendant's 11-year- old stepdaughter who was murdered two years earlier. Believing that the defendant was responsible for this killing, federal agents decided to plant an informant at the prison to befriend the defendant and possibly obtain evidence about the crime. In accord with this plan, the federal agents hired a paid informant and placed him in the prison as a fellow inmate, masquerading as an organized crime figure. The informant soon befriended the defendant and learned that he was being threatened by other inmates because of a rumor that he had killed a child. The informant then raised the subject in several conversations, but the defendant repeatedly denied any such involvement. After the defendant started receiving tough treatment from other inmates because of the rumor, the informant offered to protect the defendant but told him, "You have to tell me the truth about what really happened you know, if you want me to help you. " Believing that the informant would protect him from the other inmates, the defendant then admitted to the informant that he had driven his stepdaughter to the desert where he killed her. Based upon this confession, the defendant was then indicted for the first-degree murder of his stepdaughter. Prior to trial, the defendant moves to suppress the statement given to the informant. Should the defendant's motion be granted?
(A) Yes, because the confession was coerced by the threat of physical violence, absent protection from the informant that motivated the defendant to confess.
(B) Yes, because the informant was a false friend, and the defendant was tricked into making the confession.
(C) No, because the confession was voluntary.
(D) No, because under the totality of circumstances, the informant's conduct was not inherently coercive.

Question: A defendant was convicted of assault of a federal officer and imprisoned in a federal penitentiary. While in prison, federal authorities began investigating the murder of the defendant's 11-year- old stepdaughter who was murdered two years earlier. Believing that the defendant was responsible for this killing, federal agents decided to plant an informant at the prison to befriend the defendant and possibly obtain evidence about the crime. In accord with this plan, the federal agents hired a paid informant and placed him in the prison as a fellow inmate, masquerading as an organized crime figure. The informant soon befriended the defendant and learned that he was being threatened by other inmates because of a rumor that he had killed a child. The informant then raised the subject in several conversations, but the defendant repeatedly denied any such involvement. After the defendant started receiving tough treatment from other inmates because of the rumor, the informant offered to protect the defendant but told him, "You have to tell me the truth about what really happened you know, if you want me to help you. " Believing that the informant would protect him from the other inmates, the defendant then admitted to the informant that he had driven his stepdaughter to the desert where he killed her. Based upon this confession, the defendant was then indicted for the first-degree murder of his stepdaughter. Prior to trial, the defendant moves to suppress the statement given to the informant. Should the defendant's motion be granted?

Yes, because the confession was coerced by the threat of physical violence, absent protection from the informant that motivated the defendant to confess.

Yes, because the informant was a false friend, and the defendant was tricked into making the confession.

No, because the confession was voluntary.

No, because under the totality of circumstances, the informant's conduct was not inherently coercive.

Answer:
(A) Yes, because the confession was coerced by the threat of physical violence, absent protection from the informant that motivated the defendant to confess.
(B) Yes, because the informant was a false friend, and the defendant was tricked into making the confession.
(C) No, because the confession was voluntary.
(D) No, because under the totality of circumstances, the informant's conduct was not inherently coercive.


Which statement best describes the relationship between law and morality among non-positivist legal theorists?
(A) There is no relationship between law and morality.
(B) Law is always in advance of moral ideas.
(C) The law is inextricably bound up with morals.
(D) Morality is generally in advance of the law.

Question: Which statement best describes the relationship between law and morality among non-positivist legal theorists?

There is no relationship between law and morality.

Law is always in advance of moral ideas.

The law is inextricably bound up with morals.

Morality is generally in advance of the law.

Answer:
(A) There is no relationship between law and morality.
(B) Law is always in advance of moral ideas.
(C) The law is inextricably bound up with morals.
(D) Morality is generally in advance of the law.


A virus is spreading throughout the population of a town, and the number of people who have the virus doubles every 3 days. If there are 1,000 people in the town, and 10 people have the virus on January 1st, what is the earliest date at which the entire town would be infected with the virus, given that there are 365 days in a year, and 31 days in the month of January?
(A) January 10th
(B) January 21st
(C) January 31st
(D) February 10th

Question: A virus is spreading throughout the population of a town, and the number of people who have the virus doubles every 3 days. If there are 1,000 people in the town, and 10 people have the virus on January 1st, what is the earliest date at which the entire town would be infected with the virus, given that there are 365 days in a year, and 31 days in the month of January?

Answer:
(A) January 10th
(B) January 21st
(C) January 31st
(D) February 10th


At its peak, the population of the city of Teotihuacán may have reached:
(A) 50,000 people.
(B) 200,000 people.
(C) 500,000 people.
(D) 1,000,000 people.

Question: At its peak, the population of the city of Teotihuacán may have reached:

Answer:
(A) 50,000 people.
(B) 200,000 people.
(C) 500,000 people.
(D) 1,000,000 people.


According to the theory of cognitive dissonance, greater change of belief will occur in forced compliance situations
(A) in the predecision phase
(B) when compliance is accompanied by a large reward
(C) when compliance is accompanied by a small reward
(D) when extreme polarization is present

Question: According to the theory of cognitive dissonance, greater change of belief will occur in forced compliance situations

when compliance is accompanied by a large reward

when compliance is accompanied by a small reward

Answer:
(A) in the predecision phase
(B) when compliance is accompanied by a large reward
(C) when compliance is accompanied by a small reward
(D) when extreme polarization is present


Which of the following is true about Addisons Disease?
(A) It is due to a deficiency of prolactin hormone
(B) Leads to generalized pigmentation
(C) It is a recognized cause of hypertension
(D) Diabetes is a complication

Question: Which of the following is true about Addisons Disease?

It is due to a deficiency of prolactin hormone

It is a recognized cause of hypertension

Answer:
(A) It is due to a deficiency of prolactin hormone
(B) Leads to generalized pigmentation
(C) It is a recognized cause of hypertension
(D) Diabetes is a complication


A 55-year-old man has had crushing substernal chest pain on exertion over the past 6 weeks. He had a myocardial infarction 2 months ago. He takes nitroglycerin as needed and one aspirin daily. He has smoked two packs of cigarettes daily for 30 years. Examination shows normal heart sounds and no carotid or femoral bruits. Treatment with a β-adrenergic blocking agent is most likely to improve his symptoms due to which of the following mechanisms?
(A) Decreasing myocardial contractility
(B) Dilating the coronary arteries
(C) Peripheral vasodilation
(D) Preventing fibrin and platelet plugs

Question: A 55-year-old man has had crushing substernal chest pain on exertion over the past 6 weeks. He had a myocardial infarction 2 months ago. He takes nitroglycerin as needed and one aspirin daily. He has smoked two packs of cigarettes daily for 30 years. Examination shows normal heart sounds and no carotid or femoral bruits. Treatment with a β-adrenergic blocking agent is most likely to improve his symptoms due to which of the following mechanisms?

Answer:
(A) Decreasing myocardial contractility
(B) Dilating the coronary arteries
(C) Peripheral vasodilation
(D) Preventing fibrin and platelet plugs


Let X be a topological space, and let A, B, and C be nonempty subsets of X such that A c B c C; that is, A is a proper subset of B, and B is a proper subset of C. Which of the following statements is (are) true?
I. If A and C are connected, then B is connected.
II. If A and C are compact, then B is compact.
III. If A and C are Hausdorff, then B is Hausdorff.
(A) I and II only
(B) III only
(C) I and III only
(D) I, II, and III

Question:
Let X be a topological space, and let A, B, and C be nonempty subsets of X such that A c B c C; that is, A is a proper subset of B, and B is a proper subset of C. Which of the following statements is (are) true?
I. If A and C are connected, then B is connected.
II. If A and C are compact, then B is compact.
III. If A and C are Hausdorff, then B is Hausdorff.

Answer:
(A) I and II only
(B) III only
(C) I and III only
(D) I, II, and III


As of 2015, agriculture made up about what percentage of total US GDP?
(A) 1%
(B) 3%
(C) 9%
(D) 20%

Question: As of 2015, agriculture made up about what percentage of total US GDP?

Answer:
(A) 1%
(B) 3%
(C) 9%
(D) 20%


As the single-person public relations staff of a public transit agency, you are tasked with increasing the number of people who ride your buses each month. Your target audiences are lower-income individuals, college students, people with basic educations and people for whom English is a Second Language. When preparing to craft a primary message, what should you do first?
(A) Consider the comprehension level of all of the target audiences.
(B) Consider how riding the bus could similarly affect all of the target audiences.
(C) Consider which mediums would most effectively reach all of the target audiences.
(D) Consider the geographic locations where all of the target audiences live and work.

Question: As the single-person public relations staff of a public transit agency, you are tasked with increasing the number of people who ride your buses each month. Your target audiences are lower-income individuals, college students, people with basic educations and people for whom English is a Second Language. When preparing to craft a primary message, what should you do first?

Consider the comprehension level of all of the target audiences.

Consider how riding the bus could similarly affect all of the target audiences.

Consider which mediums would most effectively reach all of the target audiences.

Consider the geographic locations where all of the target audiences live and work.

Answer:
(A) Consider the comprehension level of all of the target audiences.
(B) Consider how riding the bus could similarly affect all of the target audiences.
(C) Consider which mediums would most effectively reach all of the target audiences.
(D) Consider the geographic locations where all of the target audiences live and work.


This question refers to the following information.
"It's come! It's posted at the district mayor's office," a passerby shouted at me as he ran. I reached the Rue Drout in one leap. … I read the message at a glance. … "The First Day of Mobilization Will Be Sunday, August 2 [1914]." … It was an announcement to a million and a half Frenchmen. … War! … Dead tired but exhilarated, I got back to [my newspaper's office] and burst into the office of Georges Clemenceau, our chief. "What is Paris saying?" he asked me. "It's singing, sir!" "It will be all right then[," Clemenceau replied].
Roland Doregelès, After 50 Years, c. 1965
From the passage, one may infer that Doregelès recalled that
(A) mobilization for war in 1914 was greeted with great skepticism in Paris
(B) mobilization for war in 1914 was greeted with great skepticism all across Europe
(C) mobilization for war in 1914 was greeted with great enthusiasm all across Europe
(D) mobilization for war in 1914 was greeted with great enthusiasm in Paris

Question:
This question refers to the following information.
"It's come! It's posted at the district mayor's office," a passerby shouted at me as he ran. I reached the Rue Drout in one leap. … I read the message at a glance. … "The First Day of Mobilization Will Be Sunday, August 2 [1914]." … It was an announcement to a million and a half Frenchmen. … War! … Dead tired but exhilarated, I got back to [my newspaper's office] and burst into the office of Georges Clemenceau, our chief. "What is Paris saying?" he asked me. "It's singing, sir!" "It will be all right then[," Clemenceau replied].
Roland Doregelès, After 50 Years, c. 1965
From the passage, one may infer that Doregelès recalled that

mobilization for war in 1914 was greeted with great skepticism in Paris

mobilization for war in 1914 was greeted with great skepticism all across Europe

mobilization for war in 1914 was greeted with great enthusiasm all across Europe

mobilization for war in 1914 was greeted with great enthusiasm in Paris

Answer:
(A) mobilization for war in 1914 was greeted with great skepticism in Paris
(B) mobilization for war in 1914 was greeted with great skepticism all across Europe
(C) mobilization for war in 1914 was greeted with great enthusiasm all across Europe
(D) mobilization for war in 1914 was greeted with great enthusiasm in Paris


Growing tension between the United States and the Soviet Union resulted in a policy that John Foster Dulles referred to as
(A) "mutual assured destruction."
(B) "brinkmanship."
(C) "realism."
(D) "not in my backyard."

Question: Growing tension between the United States and the Soviet Union resulted in a policy that John Foster Dulles referred to as

Answer:
(A) "mutual assured destruction."
(B) "brinkmanship."
(C) "realism."
(D) "not in my backyard."


The 1H Larmor frequency of benzene exceeds that of trifluoroacetic acid by 1.656 kHz on a 400 MHz spectrometer. The 1H chemical shift of benzene is 7.16 ppm. What is the chemical shift of trifluoroacetic acid?
(A) 3.02 ppm
(B) 5.03 ppm
(C) 10.56 ppm
(D) 11.30 ppm

Question: The 1H Larmor frequency of benzene exceeds that of trifluoroacetic acid by 1.656 kHz on a 400 MHz spectrometer. The 1H chemical shift of benzene is 7.16 ppm. What is the chemical shift of trifluoroacetic acid?

Answer:
(A) 3.02 ppm
(B) 5.03 ppm
(C) 10.56 ppm
(D) 11.30 ppm


A radioactive sample has a half-life of 1 hour. If we start with 1.000 gram of it at noon, how much remains at 3:00 pm?
(A) 0.50 g
(B) 0.25 g
(C) 0.125 g
(D) 0.0625 g

Question: A radioactive sample has a half-life of 1 hour. If we start with 1.000 gram of it at noon, how much remains at 3:00 pm?

Answer:
(A) 0.50 g
(B) 0.25 g
(C) 0.125 g
(D) 0.0625 g


A certain reaction is nonspontaneous under standard conditions, but becomes spontaneous at higher temperatures. What conclusions may be drawn under standard conditions?
(A) ΔH < 0, ΔS < 0 and ΔG = 0
(B) ΔH > 0, ΔS < 0 and ΔG > 0
(C) ΔH < 0, ΔS < 0 and ΔG > 0
(D) ΔH > 0, ΔS > 0 and ΔG > 0

Question: A certain reaction is nonspontaneous under standard conditions, but becomes spontaneous at higher temperatures. What conclusions may be drawn under standard conditions?

Answer:
(A) ΔH < 0, ΔS < 0 and ΔG = 0
(B) ΔH > 0, ΔS < 0 and ΔG > 0
(C) ΔH < 0, ΔS < 0 and ΔG > 0
(D) ΔH > 0, ΔS > 0 and ΔG > 0


The errors mainly caused by human mistakes are
(A) gross error.
(B) instrumental error.
(C) observational error.
(D) systematic error.

Question: The errors mainly caused by human mistakes are

Answer:
(A) gross error.
(B) instrumental error.
(C) observational error.
(D) systematic error.


Aristotle states that if we ask what the highest good of human action is:
(A) there is no agreement about the answer.
(B) most people agree that it is pleasure.
(C) nearly everyone agrees that it is happiness.
(D) there is no objective answer to this question.

Question: Aristotle states that if we ask what the highest good of human action is:

nearly everyone agrees that it is happiness.

there is no objective answer to this question.

Answer:
(A) there is no agreement about the answer.
(B) most people agree that it is pleasure.
(C) nearly everyone agrees that it is happiness.
(D) there is no objective answer to this question.


Which of the following is the most common naturally-occurring form in which silicon is found?
(A) Metallic element
(B) Sulfide
(C) Fluoride
(D) Oxide

Question: Which of the following is the most common naturally-occurring form in which silicon is found?

Answer:
(A) Metallic element
(B) Sulfide
(C) Fluoride
(D) Oxide


When you drop a ball from rest it accelerates downward at 9.8 m/s^2. If you instead throw it downward assuming no air resistance its acceleration immediately after leaving your hand is
(A) 9.8 m/s2
(B) more than 9.8 m/s2
(C) less than 9.8 m/s2
(D) Cannot say unless the speed of throw is given.

Question: When you drop a ball from rest it accelerates downward at 9.8 m/s^2. If you instead throw it downward assuming no air resistance its acceleration immediately after leaving your hand is

Cannot say unless the speed of throw is given.

Answer:
(A) 9.8 m/s2
(B) more than 9.8 m/s2
(C) less than 9.8 m/s2
(D) Cannot say unless the speed of throw is given.


Statement 1 | Every homomorphic image of a group G is isomorphic to a factor group of G. Statement 2 | The homomorphic images of a group G are the same (up to isomorphism) as the factor groups of G.
(A) True, True
(B) False, False
(C) True, False
(D) False, True

Question: Statement 1 | Every homomorphic image of a group G is isomorphic to a factor group of G. Statement 2 | The homomorphic images of a group G are the same (up to isomorphism) as the factor groups of G.

Answer:
(A) True, True
(B) False, False
(C) True, False
(D) False, True


Judaism regards sexuality as
(A) inherently evil
(B) God's afterthought and has become an aberration
(C) a gift from God
(D) primarily a biological function

Question: Judaism regards sexuality as

God's afterthought and has become an aberration

Answer:
(A) inherently evil
(B) God's afterthought and has become an aberration
(C) a gift from God
(D) primarily a biological function


What does the phrase Guru-Panth mean within the Sikh traditions?
(A) Community
(B) Scripture
(C) Worship
(D) Apprenticeship

Question: What does the phrase Guru-Panth mean within the Sikh traditions?

Answer:
(A) Community
(B) Scripture
(C) Worship
(D) Apprenticeship


The president of a pharmaceutical firm received a report from his testing bureau that a manufactured lot of the firmÕs anticancer prescription medication was well below strength. Concerned about being able to fulfill contractual commitments, the president instructed his staff to deliver the defective lot. A cancer patient who had been maintained on the drug died shortly after beginning to take the defective pills. Medical evidence established that the patient would have lived longer had the drug been at full strength, but would have died before long in any event. The president was convicted of murder. On appeal, he argues that his conviction should be reversed. Should the conviction be reversed?
(A) No, because the intentional delivery of adulterated or mislabeled drugs gives rise to strict criminal liability.
(B) No, because the jury could have found that the presidentÕs conduct was sufficiently reckless to constitute murder.
(C) Yes, because distribution of the defective lot was only a regulatory offense.
(D) Yes, because the cancer, not the presidentÕs conduct, was the proximate cause of death of the patient.

Question: The president of a pharmaceutical firm received a report from his testing bureau that a manufactured lot of the firmÕs anticancer prescription medication was well below strength. Concerned about being able to fulfill contractual commitments, the president instructed his staff to deliver the defective lot. A cancer patient who had been maintained on the drug died shortly after beginning to take the defective pills. Medical evidence established that the patient would have lived longer had the drug been at full strength, but would have died before long in any event. The president was convicted of murder. On appeal, he argues that his conviction should be reversed. Should the conviction be reversed?

No, because the intentional delivery of adulterated or mislabeled drugs gives rise to strict criminal liability.

No, because the jury could have found that the presidentÕs conduct was sufficiently reckless to constitute murder.

Yes, because distribution of the defective lot was only a regulatory offense.

Yes, because the cancer, not the presidentÕs conduct, was the proximate cause of death of the patient.

Answer:
(A) No, because the intentional delivery of adulterated or mislabeled drugs gives rise to strict criminal liability.
(B) No, because the jury could have found that the presidentÕs conduct was sufficiently reckless to constitute murder.
(C) Yes, because distribution of the defective lot was only a regulatory offense.
(D) Yes, because the cancer, not the presidentÕs conduct, was the proximate cause of death of the patient.


What theory is built around the principle that 'people make choices regarding how to behave based on values and beliefs'?
(A) Expectancy
(B) Instrumental
(C) Classical
(D) Contingency

Question: What theory is built around the principle that 'people make choices regarding how to behave based on values and beliefs'?

Answer:
(A) Expectancy
(B) Instrumental
(C) Classical
(D) Contingency


All of the following are core values of American political culture EXCEPT
(A) income equality
(B) democracy
(C) individual liberty
(D) due process

Question: All of the following are core values of American political culture EXCEPT

Answer:
(A) income equality
(B) democracy
(C) individual liberty
(D) due process


We were first able to accurately measure the diameter of Pluto from:
(A) a New Horizons flyby in the 1990s
(B) Hubble Space Telescope images that resolved Pluto's disk
(C) brightness measurements made during mutual eclipses of Pluto and Charon
(D) radar observations made by the Arecibo telescope

Question: We were first able to accurately measure the diameter of Pluto from:

Hubble Space Telescope images that resolved Pluto's disk

brightness measurements made during mutual eclipses of Pluto and Charon

radar observations made by the Arecibo telescope

Answer:
(A) a New Horizons flyby in the 1990s
(B) Hubble Space Telescope images that resolved Pluto's disk
(C) brightness measurements made during mutual eclipses of Pluto and Charon
(D) radar observations made by the Arecibo telescope


Which of the following is the direct energy source that allows ATP synthase to produce ATP in mitochondria?
(A) NADH diffusing from the mitochondrial intermembrane space to the matrix
(B) The reduction of NAD+ during the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA
(C) H+ ions flowing down a gradient across the mitochondrial inner membrane
(D) The energy of electrons passing along the electron transport chain

Question: Which of the following is the direct energy source that allows ATP synthase to produce ATP in mitochondria?

NADH diffusing from the mitochondrial intermembrane space to the matrix

The reduction of NAD+ during the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA

H+ ions flowing down a gradient across the mitochondrial inner membrane

The energy of electrons passing along the electron transport chain

Answer:
(A) NADH diffusing from the mitochondrial intermembrane space to the matrix
(B) The reduction of NAD+ during the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA
(C) H+ ions flowing down a gradient across the mitochondrial inner membrane
(D) The energy of electrons passing along the electron transport chain


Which of the following principles is realized when the federal government provides most of the funding to a project in which multiple levels of government work together?
(A) Confederation
(B) Fiscal federalism
(C) Grant-based funding
(D) Dual federalism

Question: Which of the following principles is realized when the federal government provides most of the funding to a project in which multiple levels of government work together?

Answer:
(A) Confederation
(B) Fiscal federalism
(C) Grant-based funding
(D) Dual federalism


What is the primary reason that the committees in the House of Representatives are more influential than they are in the Senate?
(A) The difference in size between the two chambers means that more work is done on the floor in the Senate and more work is done in committees in the House.
(B) The Senate as a whole has confirmation powers that the House does not have.
(C) Members are appointed to the committee in the House but are elected to committees in the Senate.
(D) A member of any party can serve a committee in the House, but only major party members can serve on committees in the Senate.

Question: What is the primary reason that the committees in the House of Representatives are more influential than they are in the Senate?

The difference in size between the two chambers means that more work is done on the floor in the Senate and more work is done in committees in the House.

The Senate as a whole has confirmation powers that the House does not have.

Members are appointed to the committee in the House but are elected to committees in the Senate.

A member of any party can serve a committee in the House, but only major party members can serve on committees in the Senate.

Answer:
(A) The difference in size between the two chambers means that more work is done on the floor in the Senate and more work is done in committees in the House.
(B) The Senate as a whole has confirmation powers that the House does not have.
(C) Members are appointed to the committee in the House but are elected to committees in the Senate.
(D) A member of any party can serve a committee in the House, but only major party members can serve on committees in the Senate.


Suppose your model is overfitting. Which of the following is NOT a valid way to try and reduce the overfitting?
(A) Increase the amount of training data.
(B) Improve the optimisation algorithm being used for error minimisation.
(C) Decrease the model complexity.
(D) Reduce the noise in the training data.

Question: Suppose your model is overfitting. Which of the following is NOT a valid way to try and reduce the overfitting?

Improve the optimisation algorithm being used for error minimisation.

Answer:
(A) Increase the amount of training data.
(B) Improve the optimisation algorithm being used for error minimisation.
(C) Decrease the model complexity.
(D) Reduce the noise in the training data.


A plant that grows along a trellis exhibits
(A) thigmotropism
(B) phototropism
(C) gravidotropism
(D) negative gravidotropism

Question: A plant that grows along a trellis exhibits

Answer:
(A) thigmotropism
(B) phototropism
(C) gravidotropism
(D) negative gravidotropism


Of the following oxo acids, which is predicted to be the strongest acid?
(A) HBrO
(B) HClO
(C) HIO
(D) HClO3

Question: Of the following oxo acids, which is predicted to be the strongest acid?

Answer:
(A) HBrO
(B) HClO
(C) HIO
(D) HClO3


According to Macnamara's (2005) pyramid of evaluation, at which stage is the situation analysis done and used to form objectives and implementation plans?
(A) Inputs
(B) Outputs
(C) Outtakes
(D) Outcomes

Question: According to Macnamara's (2005) pyramid of evaluation, at which stage is the situation analysis done and used to form objectives and implementation plans?

Answer:
(A) Inputs
(B) Outputs
(C) Outtakes
(D) Outcomes


A defendant offers into evidence his computer business records to show his good faith monitoring of the accounts in his business. The defendant testifies that he kept the records on a regular business basis  but did not explain the records in any other way. The government objected to the records as being hearsay and not authenticated. What will the court decide regarding the admissibility of the computer business records?
(A) The court will allow the records because they were kept in the ordinary course of business.
(B) The court will require a greater foundation to establish the reliability of the records.
(C) The court will dismiss the hearsay objection because the defendant, who is the declarant, is available in court.
(D) The court will allow the records because they are the product of a reliable computer process of data collection.

Question: A defendant offers into evidence his computer business records to show his good faith monitoring of the accounts in his business. The defendant testifies that he kept the records on a regular business basis  but did not explain the records in any other way. The government objected to the records as being hearsay and not authenticated. What will the court decide regarding the admissibility of the computer business records?

The court will allow the records because they were kept in the ordinary course of business.

The court will require a greater foundation to establish the reliability of the records.

The court will dismiss the hearsay objection because the defendant, who is the declarant, is available in court.

The court will allow the records because they are the product of a reliable computer process of data collection.

Answer:
(A) The court will allow the records because they were kept in the ordinary course of business.
(B) The court will require a greater foundation to establish the reliability of the records.
(C) The court will dismiss the hearsay objection because the defendant, who is the declarant, is available in court.
(D) The court will allow the records because they are the product of a reliable computer process of data collection.


What is American exceptionalism?
(A) The belief that the United States is different from other major powers because it is concerned not only with Power, but also with Principles.
(B) The belief that the United States is different because it is the most powerful nation in the world.
(C) The belief that the United States is pacifist.
(D) The belief that the United States is different because it is motivated more by economic factors than other countries are.

Question: What is American exceptionalism?

The belief that the United States is different from other major powers because it is concerned not only with Power, but also with Principles.

The belief that the United States is different because it is the most powerful nation in the world.

The belief that the United States is pacifist.

The belief that the United States is different because it is motivated more by economic factors than other countries are.

Answer:
(A) The belief that the United States is different from other major powers because it is concerned not only with Power, but also with Principles.
(B) The belief that the United States is different because it is the most powerful nation in the world.
(C) The belief that the United States is pacifist.
(D) The belief that the United States is different because it is motivated more by economic factors than other countries are.


 Select the best translation into predicate logic. All planets are smaller than Jupiter. (j: Jupiter; Px: x is a planet; Sxy: x is smaller than y)
(A) (∃x)(Px • Sxj)
(B) (∀x)(Px • Sxj)
(C) (∀x)(Px ⊃ Sjx)
(D) (∀x)(Px ⊃ Sxj)

Question: Select the best translation into predicate logic. All planets are smaller than Jupiter. (j: Jupiter; Px: x is a planet; Sxy: x is smaller than y)

Answer:
(A) (∃x)(Px • Sxj)
(B) (∀x)(Px • Sxj)
(C) (∀x)(Px ⊃ Sjx)
(D) (∀x)(Px ⊃ Sxj)


A dentist that is performing procedures in his clinic is brought out to the front desk one day to handle a dispute between one of his patients and the clerk. The patient is a middle-aged businessman who is irate and creating a scene because he was told he would have to see the dental hygienist instead of the dentist. The patient loudly rants that he makes too much money to be subjected to treatment by a half-trained associate. The clerk explains to the dentist that the patient was 40 minutes late to his appointment, and the only opening now was with the hygienist. The patient snaps back that his time is worth more than any of the people in the office. What personality disorder is this patient likely exhibiting?
(A) Histrionic
(B) Narcissistic
(C) Paranoid
(D) Obsessive-compulsive

Question: A dentist that is performing procedures in his clinic is brought out to the front desk one day to handle a dispute between one of his patients and the clerk. The patient is a middle-aged businessman who is irate and creating a scene because he was told he would have to see the dental hygienist instead of the dentist. The patient loudly rants that he makes too much money to be subjected to treatment by a half-trained associate. The clerk explains to the dentist that the patient was 40 minutes late to his appointment, and the only opening now was with the hygienist. The patient snaps back that his time is worth more than any of the people in the office. What personality disorder is this patient likely exhibiting?

Answer:
(A) Histrionic
(B) Narcissistic
(C) Paranoid
(D) Obsessive-compulsive


Which statement about absorption from the gastro-intestinal (GI) tract is most correct?

(A) The absorption of glucose is associated with sodium uptake.
(B) Fructose is absorbed more rapidly than glucose.
(C) Galactose and fructose are absorbed by the same transporter at the brush border membrane.
(D) Most water absorption along the GI tract occurs in the colon.

Question: Which statement about absorption from the gastro-intestinal (GI) tract is most correct?

The absorption of glucose is associated with sodium uptake.

Fructose is absorbed more rapidly than glucose.

Galactose and fructose are absorbed by the same transporter at the brush border membrane.

Most water absorption along the GI tract occurs in the colon.

Answer:
(A) The absorption of glucose is associated with sodium uptake.
(B) Fructose is absorbed more rapidly than glucose.
(C) Galactose and fructose are absorbed by the same transporter at the brush border membrane.
(D) Most water absorption along the GI tract occurs in the colon.


A change in a neuron membrane potential from +50 millivolts to -70 millivolts is considered
(A) depolarization
(B) repolarization
(C) hyperpolarization
(D) an action potential

Question: A change in a neuron membrane potential from +50 millivolts to -70 millivolts is considered

Answer:
(A) depolarization
(B) repolarization
(C) hyperpolarization
(D) an action potential


The population pyramid of a population that has had a slightly larger birth rate than death rate for several generations will most likely have which of the following shapes?
(A) Wider at the top than in the middle
(B) Wider at the bottom than at the top
(C) Bulging in the middle
(D) Having parallel sides

Question: The population pyramid of a population that has had a slightly larger birth rate than death rate for several generations will most likely have which of the following shapes?

Answer:
(A) Wider at the top than in the middle
(B) Wider at the bottom than at the top
(C) Bulging in the middle
(D) Having parallel sides


Compared with the sound you hear from the siren of a stationary fire engine, its sound when it approaches you has an increased
(A) speed
(B) frequency
(C) Both of these
(D) Neither of these

Question: Compared with the sound you hear from the siren of a stationary fire engine, its sound when it approaches you has an increased

Answer:
(A) speed
(B) frequency
(C) Both of these
(D) Neither of these


This question refers to the following information.
"The Government of the German Reich and The Government of the Union of Soviet Socialist Republics desirous of strengthening the cause of peace between Germany and the U.S.S.R., and proceeding from the fundamental provisions of the Neutrality Agreement concluded in April, 1926 between Germany and the U.S.S.R., have reached the following Agreement:
Article I. Both High Contracting Parties obligate themselves to desist from any act of violence, any aggressive action, and any attack on each other, either individually or jointly with other Powers.
Article II. Should one of the High Contracting Parties become the object of belligerent action by a third Power, the other High Contracting Party shall in no manner lend its support to this third Power.
Article III. The Governments of the two High Contracting Parties shall in the future maintain continual contact with one another for the purpose of consultation in order to exchange information on problems affecting their common interests.
Article IV. Should disputes or conflicts arise between the High Contracting Parties shall participate in any grouping of Powers whatsoever that is directly or indirectly aimed at the other party.
Article V. Should disputes or conflicts arise between the High Contracting Parties over problems of one kind or another, both parties shall settle these disputes or conflicts exclusively through friendly exchange of opinion or, if necessary, through the establishment of arbitration commissions."
Molotov-Ribbentrop Pact, 1939
The article listed above that was violated by Operation Barbarossa was
(A) Article I
(B) Article II
(C) Article III
(D) Article IV

Question:
This question refers to the following information.
"The Government of the German Reich and The Government of the Union of Soviet Socialist Republics desirous of strengthening the cause of peace between Germany and the U.S.S.R., and proceeding from the fundamental provisions of the Neutrality Agreement concluded in April, 1926 between Germany and the U.S.S.R., have reached the following Agreement:
Article I. Both High Contracting Parties obligate themselves to desist from any act of violence, any aggressive action, and any attack on each other, either individually or jointly with other Powers.
Article II. Should one of the High Contracting Parties become the object of belligerent action by a third Power, the other High Contracting Party shall in no manner lend its support to this third Power.
Article III. The Governments of the two High Contracting Parties shall in the future maintain continual contact with one another for the purpose of consultation in order to exchange information on problems affecting their common interests.
Article IV. Should disputes or conflicts arise between the High Contracting Parties shall participate in any grouping of Powers whatsoever that is directly or indirectly aimed at the other party.
Article V. Should disputes or conflicts arise between the High Contracting Parties over problems of one kind or another, both parties shall settle these disputes or conflicts exclusively through friendly exchange of opinion or, if necessary, through the establishment of arbitration commissions."
Molotov-Ribbentrop Pact, 1939
The article listed above that was violated by Operation Barbarossa was

Answer:
(A) Article I
(B) Article II
(C) Article III
(D) Article IV


What does EXE do when the STP solver times out on a constraint query for a particular path?
(A) Assume that the query is satisfiable and continue executing the path.
(B) Assume that the query is not satisfiable and stop executing the path
(C) Restart STP and retry the query, up to a limited number of retries.
(D) Remove a subset of the constraints and retry the query.

Question: What does EXE do when the STP solver times out on a constraint query for a particular path?

Assume that the query is satisfiable and continue executing the path.

Assume that the query is not satisfiable and stop executing the path

Restart STP and retry the query, up to a limited number of retries.

Remove a subset of the constraints and retry the query.

Answer:
(A) Assume that the query is satisfiable and continue executing the path.
(B) Assume that the query is not satisfiable and stop executing the path
(C) Restart STP and retry the query, up to a limited number of retries.
(D) Remove a subset of the constraints and retry the query.


The synthesis of glucose from lactate, glycerol, or amino acids is called:
(A) glycogenolysis.
(B) glycolysis.
(C) lipolysis.
(D) gluconeogenesis.

Question: The synthesis of glucose from lactate, glycerol, or amino acids is called:

Answer:
(A) glycogenolysis.
(B) glycolysis.
(C) lipolysis.
(D) gluconeogenesis.


Which of the following could be used as a test for autocorrelation up to third order?
(A) The Durbin Watson test
(B) White's test
(C) The RESET test
(D) The Breusch-Godfrey test

Question: Which of the following could be used as a test for autocorrelation up to third order?

Answer:
(A) The Durbin Watson test
(B) White's test
(C) The RESET test
(D) The Breusch-Godfrey test


Of the following, American federalism is most clearly exemplified by the
(A) system of checks and balances among the three branches of the national government
(B) process by which international treaties are completed
(C) special constitutional status of Washington, D.C.
(D) Tenth Amendment to the Constitution

Question: Of the following, American federalism is most clearly exemplified by the

system of checks and balances among the three branches of the national government

process by which international treaties are completed

special constitutional status of Washington, D.C.

Answer:
(A) system of checks and balances among the three branches of the national government
(B) process by which international treaties are completed
(C) special constitutional status of Washington, D.C.
(D) Tenth Amendment to the Constitution


Which statement below is the least likely to follow logically from Austin's argument that a sanction consists of the smallest chance of incurring the smallest evil?
(A) All commands include some sanction.
(B) The concept of a command contains the likelihood that a sanction will follow failure to obey the command.
(C) Without a sanction the mere expression of a wish is not a command.
(D) A command confers power to change one's legal status.

Question: Which statement below is the least likely to follow logically from Austin's argument that a sanction consists of the smallest chance of incurring the smallest evil?

The concept of a command contains the likelihood that a sanction will follow failure to obey the command.

Without a sanction the mere expression of a wish is not a command.

A command confers power to change one's legal status.

Answer:
(A) All commands include some sanction.
(B) The concept of a command contains the likelihood that a sanction will follow failure to obey the command.
(C) Without a sanction the mere expression of a wish is not a command.
(D) A command confers power to change one's legal status.


At the present time, the temperature of the universe (i.e., the microwave radiation background) is about 3 K. When the temperature was 12 K, typical objects in the universe, such as galaxies, were
(A) one-quarter as distant as they are today
(B) one-half as distant as they are today
(C) separated by about the same distances as they are today
(D) two times as distant as they are today

Question: At the present time, the temperature of the universe (i.e., the microwave radiation background) is about 3 K. When the temperature was 12 K, typical objects in the universe, such as galaxies, were

one-quarter as distant as they are today

separated by about the same distances as they are today

Answer:
(A) one-quarter as distant as they are today
(B) one-half as distant as they are today
(C) separated by about the same distances as they are today
(D) two times as distant as they are today


Of what is advertising a form?
(A) Focusing strategy
(B) Differentiation
(C) Cost leadership
(D) Growth

Question: Of what is advertising a form?

Answer:
(A) Focusing strategy
(B) Differentiation
(C) Cost leadership
(D) Growth


The widely adored Egyptian goddess Hathor was depicted as which of the following?
(A) Serpent
(B) Eagle
(C) Cheetah
(D) Cow

Question: The widely adored Egyptian goddess Hathor was depicted as which of the following?

Answer:
(A) Serpent
(B) Eagle
(C) Cheetah
(D) Cow


Automatic stabilizers in the economy serve an important role in
(A) increasing the length of the business cycle.
(B) balancing the budget.
(C) increasing a budget surplus in a recession.
(D) lessening the impact of a recession.

Question: Automatic stabilizers in the economy serve an important role in

increasing the length of the business cycle.

increasing a budget surplus in a recession.

Answer:
(A) increasing the length of the business cycle.
(B) balancing the budget.
(C) increasing a budget surplus in a recession.
(D) lessening the impact of a recession.


With respect to hair loss
(A) Men lose but women do not
(B) Men are more systematic than women
(C) Women lose hair less frequently but more rapidly than men
(D) Environmental factors are the main causes

Question: With respect to hair loss

Women lose hair less frequently but more rapidly than men

Environmental factors are the main causes

Answer:
(A) Men lose but women do not
(B) Men are more systematic than women
(C) Women lose hair less frequently but more rapidly than men
(D) Environmental factors are the main causes


When we talk about diffusion of a cultural trait, what do we mean by "hearth"?
(A) Destination
(B) Origin point
(C) All locations along the diffusion path
(D) Axis point

Question: When we talk about diffusion of a cultural trait, what do we mean by "hearth"?

Answer:
(A) Destination
(B) Origin point
(C) All locations along the diffusion path
(D) Axis point


Homeobox sequences
(A) are present in the genome of many animal species
(B) are found in prokaryotes but not in eukaryotes
(C) were identified as the integration sites for bacterial viruses
(D) represent integration sites for transposable elements

Question: Homeobox sequences

are present in the genome of many animal species

are found in prokaryotes but not in eukaryotes

were identified as the integration sites for bacterial viruses

represent integration sites for transposable elements

Answer:
(A) are present in the genome of many animal species
(B) are found in prokaryotes but not in eukaryotes
(C) were identified as the integration sites for bacterial viruses
(D) represent integration sites for transposable elements


What enzyme is responsible for copying methylation marks from the parental to the daughter strand of DNA during replication?

(A) DNMT1
(B) DNMT3a
(C) DNMT3b
(D) DNMT3L

Question: What enzyme is responsible for copying methylation marks from the parental to the daughter strand of DNA during replication?

Answer:
(A) DNMT1
(B) DNMT3a
(C) DNMT3b
(D) DNMT3L


Pseudocholinesterase deficiency is associated with increased sensitivity to what?
(A) Fava beans
(B) Halothane
(C) Primaquine
(D) Succinylcholine

Question: Pseudocholinesterase deficiency is associated with increased sensitivity to what?

Answer:
(A) Fava beans
(B) Halothane
(C) Primaquine
(D) Succinylcholine


Which of the following arguments against the 'fair play' argument in support of a duty to obey the law is the most persuasive?
(A) Fairness is a relative term.
(B) The legal system is, in fact, unfair.
(C) It sets a bad example.
(D) The law is irrational and ambiguous.

Question: Which of the following arguments against the 'fair play' argument in support of a duty to obey the law is the most persuasive?

Answer:
(A) Fairness is a relative term.
(B) The legal system is, in fact, unfair.
(C) It sets a bad example.
(D) The law is irrational and ambiguous.


At 25°C, the maximum amount of PbI2 that can be dissolved in 1.00 L of pure water is 1.0 mmol. Assuming complete dissociation, the solubility product, K_sp, for lead iodide at 25°C is
(A) 1.0 × 10^−3
(B) 1.0 × 10^−6
(C) 1.0 × 10^−9
(D) 4.0 × 10^−9

Question: At 25°C, the maximum amount of PbI2 that can be dissolved in 1.00 L of pure water is 1.0 mmol. Assuming complete dissociation, the solubility product, K_sp, for lead iodide at 25°C is

Answer:
(A) 1.0 × 10^−3
(B) 1.0 × 10^−6
(C) 1.0 × 10^−9
(D) 4.0 × 10^−9


A gardener sued a homeowner for breach of contract. The gardener claims that the homeowner hired him to perform landscape work at his home. After performing the gardening services, the homeowner paid him $100. The gardener, who speaks only English, contends that the homeowner, who speaks only Japanese, originally agreed to pay him $200 for the work. When the parties entered into their agreement, the gardener was accompanied by his friend, who is now deceased, who spoke both English and Japanese. This jurisdiction has a typical Dead Man's Statute in effect. At trial, the gardener now seeks to testify to the terms of his agreement with the homeowner as communicated to him by his friend. Upon objection by the homeowner's attorney, the gardener's proposed testimony is
(A) admissible as an admission by a party-opponent.
(B) admissible as non-hearsay to corroborate evidence of a verbal act.
(C) inadmissible, because of the Dead Man's Statute.
(D) inadmissible, unless it is established that the gardener accepted the friend as the homeowner's agent in communicating the terms of the contract.

Question: A gardener sued a homeowner for breach of contract. The gardener claims that the homeowner hired him to perform landscape work at his home. After performing the gardening services, the homeowner paid him $100. The gardener, who speaks only English, contends that the homeowner, who speaks only Japanese, originally agreed to pay him $200 for the work. When the parties entered into their agreement, the gardener was accompanied by his friend, who is now deceased, who spoke both English and Japanese. This jurisdiction has a typical Dead Man's Statute in effect. At trial, the gardener now seeks to testify to the terms of his agreement with the homeowner as communicated to him by his friend. Upon objection by the homeowner's attorney, the gardener's proposed testimony is

admissible as an admission by a party-opponent.

admissible as non-hearsay to corroborate evidence of a verbal act.

inadmissible, because of the Dead Man's Statute.

inadmissible, unless it is established that the gardener accepted the friend as the homeowner's agent in communicating the terms of the contract.

Answer:
(A) admissible as an admission by a party-opponent.
(B) admissible as non-hearsay to corroborate evidence of a verbal act.
(C) inadmissible, because of the Dead Man's Statute.
(D) inadmissible, unless it is established that the gardener accepted the friend as the homeowner's agent in communicating the terms of the contract.