The Universalist. [volume] (Chicago [Ill.]) 1884-1897, 1895-08-24


that the Greek Fathers we're wrong,
and did not correctly understand
their own language. On the one
hand, as to the meaning of aionios,
stands all the Greek classics, and the
historians Josephus, and Philo, and
Herodian, and the most distinguished
of the Church Fathers, whose native
language was Greek; and on the other
hand, school of Latin theologians
who could not speak the Greek Ian
guage, whose most distinguished rep
resentative was not able to read it,
and whose founder was not born until
the year of our Lord 100. Is there
any doubt as to which is right?
Moreover, in the Bible itself there
is evidence that oionios does not mean
everlasting. It does not occur in the
original Old Testament, since that
was not written in Greek but in He
brew. But it occurs very frequently
in Greek version called the Septu-
agint, made about two centuries be-
fore the advent of Christ, and COM
monty used in his time. Where our
Authorized Version uses Everlasting"
or forever" the Septuagint habitu-
ally uses dioniOs. Look at some OF
the passages.
In Gen. xvii: s we read that God
promised Canaan to Abraham and his
seed for "an everlasting possession"
and yet we know that he long ago
took it away from them. In Gen.
xix: 26, we read of "the everlasting
hills" and yet we know that the
mountains shall crumble away. lisa.
liv: 10). In Exodus XII Is the priest
hood of Aaron's sons is called san ev-
erlasting priesthood" In Deut. XIV:
II, it is said that man shall take his
servant and thrust an awl through
his ear and make him his servant
forever" In Pisa. xiv: Z, the gates
of Jerusalem are called "everlast-
ing" In lisa. xxxiv: 10, it is said
the smoke of Idumea "shall go up
forever" In III Kings v: q, it is
said that leprosy shall cleave unto
Gehazi and unto his seed forever.
And in Jonah III 6, the prophet says
that the earth with it's bars was about
him forever" although, if we take
the story literally, he had been in the
depths of the sea but three days.
Manifestly, in each of these in
stances the word which is translated
everlasting" or "forever" does not
mean everlasting, strictly speaking.
1t is applied to things which have
passed or are passing, away.
Turn now to the New Testament.
In Romans xvi: rs, according to our
Authorized Version, the apostle says
of the gospel that it "was kept secret
since the world began, but now is
made manifest" In the Revised
Version he is made to say that
it was "kept in silence through times
eternal, but now is manifested" A
strictly literal rendering would be
that it twas kept in silence through
times oionian," for oionios is the
word here used. How could those
times be everlasting which ended
when the gospel began to bepreached?
The same expression is used in Ii.
Tim. i: 9, and Titus i: 2, excepting
that there Gods grace in Christ Jesus
is said to have been given "before
times oionian," and to have been
manifested at Christ's advent. The
Revised Version says "before times
eternal" The Authorized Version
says "before the world began" Evil
IDENTIFY the aio,aion times spoken of
by St. Paul in all three of these pas
sages were the times which ended
when Christ came. There was some
thing before them and something
after them. Gods purpose preceded
them. Christ's advent succeeded
them.
If the word aio,aios is thus limited
in these numerous passages, why may
it not be equally so in my text? If
so many oionian things have ended,
why may not dio1aion punishment
cease? That it will, the Bible leaves
no room to doubt: for it distinctly
says that God Furnishes men for their
profit, and that though no chastise-
ment seemeth to be joyous but griev-
GUS, yet afterward it yieldeth the
peaceable fruits of righteousness to
them who are exercised thereby. Heb.
xii: GID. And of those very Jews
who were shut out of Christ's King
dom because they rejected him, the
apostle says that finally they shall
be grated in, and SO all Israel shall
be saved. (Rom. XII % 32).