The Universalist. [volume] (Chicago [Ill.]) 1884-1897, 1887-12-17
"P R R0P PITIATION. t."
BY REV. S. CRANE. D. D.
(Norwalk, o.

BY REV. S. CRANE. D. D.
(Norwalk, o.
This word occurs three times in the
Christian Scriptures, twice in the first
Epistle of John and once in Romans.
In the original, however, the word is
used the same in both Epistles. In
John it is bildSnlOS, in Romans hlas.
totrjOn. The root of both words is the
same and they have about the same
meaning. In this study we shall con-
fine ourselves to the word used by John.
We desire, if possible, to ascertain in
which sense John uses it. AS we have
said he uses it twice in his first Epistle.
The connections are as follows:
"And if any man sin we have an advo-
cate with the father, Jesus Christ the
righteous; and he is the propitiation
for our sins, and not for ours only, but
also for the sins of the whole world.''
Second chapter, first and second verses.
Herein is love, not that we loved God,
but that ne loved us and sent his son
to be the precipitation for our sins.''
stGhaRs LV..10.l il ~
Now what does John mean by the
word Precipitation in these connections?
In what sense does he use it? We
know we'll enough what the word
means. 1t means that which appeases
or conciliates. Such is the meaning of
the Greek as we'll as of the English.
The Greek word is defined as a ''means
of appeasing," and they tell US that in
Homer it is always used in reference to
the gods. That which appeased or
cOnciliated the gods was always called
prOpitiatiOn.
Does John then use the word in this
sense? Does he use it in the sense of
offering something to deity in order to
appease or cOnciliate him? Does be
mean that God sent his son to be pro-
pitiatiOn to himself-to do or suffer
something that would appease or con-
ciliate his own feelings? Does John
use the word in its classical sense, in
the sense of an offering made to deity,
to appease or placate his anger?
The context shows very clearly that
he cannot use it in this sense. For the
prOpitiatiOn is the effect, not the cause
of Gods love. Herein is love, not
that we loved God, but that he loved
us and sent his son to be the propitia-
tion for our sins" Because God loved
us, therefore, he sent his son to be a
prOpitiatiOn. Christ came as propi-
tiatiOn because God loved us. The love
of God for us was the cause of Christ's
prOpitiating mission. God sent him as
Precipitation because he loved us.
''In this was manifested the love of
God toward us, because that God sent
his only begOtten son into the world
that we might live through him." 1t
is very certain, therefore, that John
does not mean that Christ came as
means of prOpitiating God. The faith
er sent the Son to be a propitiation
for the sins of his children, not because
he was angry with his children, but be-
cause he loved them. Hence the pro-
pitiatiOn cannot be to the Father.
Christ cannot be an offering made to
God to appease his wrath and restore
his love, for his love existed before
Christ came and was the procuring
cause of his coming, John, then, cannot
use the word in its original classical
sense, but must Us5 it in some other
sense. He is not thinking of Christ as
means of appeasing God, but as
means of appeasing somebody else.
But who is this somebody else? If
God sent the son not to appease him
self, whom did he send him to appease?
Evidently to appease the sinner. He
sent his son to be the prOpitation for
our sins Christ is an Offering made to
the sinner to turn him away from his
sins. He is Precipitation made to us
for or on account of our sins. Our sins
ALLEVIATE us from God, turn us away
from the Father. Hence Christ came
to propitiate us-tO make us gracious,
kind and loving and to turn us back to
the Father. Johns meaning is that
God $50 loved US that he gave his
only begOtten Son" to be a sacrifice,