datavorous/entrance-exam-dataset huggingface dataset:
Which of the following is correct match?

Options:
A Hisardale: new breed of cattle developed by cross-breeding
B Livestock:include cattles,buffaloes,sheeps,pigs,goats etc.
C Mule: shows inbreeding depression developed by out-breeding
D All of the above

The correct answer is:
Livestock:include cattles,buffaloes,sheeps,pigs,goats etc.

Solution:
Hisardale is a new breed of sheep developed in Punjab by crossing Bikaneri ewe and Marino ram.Mule is developed due to inter-specific hybridisation in which the male donkey is mated with female horse.

Topic: Biology, Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production, NEET
Which of the following is correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic condition?

Options:
A $q \neq 0, \Delta T=0, W=0$
B $q=0, \Delta T=0, W=0$
C $q=0, \Delta T < 0, W \neq 0$
D $q=0, \Delta T \neq 0, W=0$

The correct answer is:
$q=0, \Delta T=0, W=0$

Solution:
For an adiabatic process, $q=0$ and for free expansion, $W=0, \therefore \Delta T=0$.

Topic: Chemistry, Thermodynamics (C), NEET, NEET 2011 (Screening)
Which of the following is correct order for acidity of the given carboxylic acids?
APhCOOH
Bo-NO2C6H4COOH
Cp-NO2C6H4COOH
Dm-NO2C6H4COOH

Options:
A b>d>a>c
B b>d>c>a
C a>b>c>d
D b>c>d>a

The correct answer is:
b>c>d>a

Solution:
Increasing order of acidic nature.
Electron withdrawing group, increases the acidity of benzoic acid, O-isomer will have higher acidity then corresponding m and p-isomer due to ortho effect.

Topic: Chemistry, General Organic Chemistry, NEET
Which of the following is correct order of acid strength among I CO2 ; (II) SiO2 ; (III) SO3 ; IV. N2O5

Options:
A II < I < IV < III
B I < II < III < IV
C III < II < IV < I
D IV < III < II < I

The correct answer is:
II < I < IV < III

Solution:
The correct acidic strength order is as follows
SiO2<CO2<N2O5<SO3
on mouring left to right in periodic table non metallic character increase hence acidic character increase.

Topic: Chemistry, Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties, NEET
Which of the following is correct order of σ -bond strength?
I. 2s-2s
II. 2s-2p
III. 2p-2p
IV. 3s-3s

Options:
A I > II > III > IV
B III > II > I > IV
C IV > I > II > III
D III > I > II > IV

The correct answer is:
III > II > I > IV

Solution:
Correct order   2p⋅2p>2s⋅2p>2s⋅2s>3s.3s ︸

Topic: Chemistry, Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure, NEET
Which of the following is correct packing in cubic close packing?

Options:
A AAAAAA type
B ABABAB type
C ABCABC type
D None of these

The correct answer is:
ABCABC type

Solution:
Correct Option is : 3
ABCABC type

Topic: Chemistry, Solid State, NEET
Which of the following is correct regarding AIDS causative agent HIV?

Options:
A HIV is an enveloped virus containing one molecule of single-stranded RNA and one molecule of reverse transcriptase.
B HIV is an enveloped virus that contains two identical molecules of single-stranded RNA and two molecules of reverse transcriptase.
C HIV is an unenveloped retrovirus.
D HIV does not escape but attacks the acquired immune response.

The correct answer is:
HIV is an enveloped virus that contains two identical molecules of single-stranded RNA and two molecules of reverse transcriptase.

Solution:
The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) causes AIDS (acquired immunodeficiency syndrome) and interferes with the body's ability to fight infection. The HIV infects macrophages and TH cells and upon infection, it inactivates these cells and hence, suppresses the immune system.

The structure of the virus is such that it is enveloped with a viral envelope (consists of a bilipid layer and proteins) inside which two identical molecules of single-stranded RNA molecules and two molecules of reverse transcriptase are present. The reverse transcriptase enzyme generates viral DNA inside the host by using viral RNA as a template.

Topic: Biology, Human Health and Diseases, NEET, NEET 2016 (Phase 2)
Which of the following is correct regarding AIDS causative agent HIV?

Options:
A HIV is an enveloped virus containing one molecule of single-stranded RNA and one molecule of reverse transcriptase.
B HIV is an enveloped virus that contains two identical molecules of single-stranded RNA and two molecules of reverse transcriptase.
C HIV is an unenveloped retrovirus.
D HIV does not escape but attacks the acquired immune response.

The correct answer is:
HIV is an enveloped virus that contains two identical molecules of single-stranded RNA and two molecules of reverse transcriptase.

Solution:
Causative agent of AIDS is HIV which is enveloped virus that contains two identical molecules of ssRNA and two molecules of reverse transcriptase.

Topic: Biology, Human Health and Diseases, NEET
Which of the following is CORRECT regarding chemosensitive area?

Options:
A It is located in the medulla region.
B It is highly sensitive to O2.
C High H+ concentration activates the chemosensitive area.
D Both A and C

The correct answer is:
Both A and C

Solution:
Regulation of respiration involves both neural and chemical control. Nervous regulation is done by two centres in brain. These are respiratory rhythm centre in medulla and pneumotaxic centre in pons. These two centres regulate the rate and depth of breathing. Chemical control is by chemosensitive areas which are sensitive for chemicals and these areas are located adjacent to the rhythm centre. These areas contain chemoreceptors which are sensitive to carbon dioxide and hydrogen. These chemoreceptors are found in aortic bodies (located on aortic arch) and carotid bodies (located in carotid arteries).

Topic: Biology, Breathing and Exchange of Gases, NEET
Which of the following is correct regarding compounds [A] and [B]?

Options:
A [A] and [B] are super imposable mirror images
B The configuration of [A] is ‘R’ and [B] is ‘S’
C [A] and [B] are diastereomers
D [A] is formed with inversion of configuration & [B] with retention of configuration

The correct answer is:
[A] is formed with inversion of configuration & [B] with retention of configuration

Solution:
With high concentration of nucleophile reaction is S N 2 and gives inverted product. At low concentration due to NGP it gives a product with retention of configuration.

Topic: Chemistry, Haloalkanes and Haloarenes, NEET
Which of the following is correct regarding electron transport system of respiration ?

Options:
A NADH is directly oxidised by complex IV.
B Complex V is a mobile electron carrier.
C Complex IV causes the reduction of molecular oxygen.
D Complex II contains two copper centres.

The correct answer is:
Complex IV causes the reduction of molecular oxygen.

Solution:
Energy obtained through the transfer of electrons (blue arrows) down the ETC is used to pump protons (red arrows) from the mitochondrial matrix into the intermembrane space, creating an electrochemical proton gradient across the mitochondrial inner membrane (IMM) called ΔΨ. This electrochemical proton gradient allows ATP synthase (ATP-ase) to use the flow of H+ through the enzyme back into the matrix to generate ATP from adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and inorganic phosphate. Complex I (NADH coenzyme Q reductase; labeled I) accepts electrons from the Krebs cycle electron carrier nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NADH), and passes them to coenzyme Q (ubiquinone; labeled Q), which also receives electrons from complex II (succinate dehydrogenase; labeled II). UQ passes electrons to complex III (cytochrome bc1 complex; labeled III), which passes them to cytochrome c (cyt c). Cyt c passes electrons to Complex IV (cytochrome c oxidase; labeled IV), which uses the electrons and hydrogen ions to reduce molecular oxygen to water.

Topic: Biology, Respiration in Plants, NEET
Which of the following is correct regarding genetic code?

Options:
A UUU is the initiation codon which also codes for phenylalanine
B There are 64 triplet codons and only 20 amino acids
C Three random nitrogen bases specify the placement of one amino acid
D UAA is the nonsense codon which also codes for methionine

The correct answer is:
There are 64 triplet codons and only 20 amino acids

Solution:
There are 64-triplet codons which code for 20 amino acids. This is due to the degeneracy of code as some amino acids are influenced by more than one codon. Only tryptophan and methionine are specified by single codons. All other amino acids are specified by two (e.g., phenylalanine - UUU,UUC) to six (e.g., arginine - CGU, CGC, CGA, CGG, AGA, AGG) codons.

Topic: Biology, Molecular Basis of Inheritance, NEET
Which of the following is correct regarding glycolysis?

Options:
A It occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell.
B Hydrogen atoms are removed from NAD+ and transferred to PGAL.
C ATP is consumed during the conversion of PEP to pyruvic acid.
D Conversion of BPGA to PGA is an energy-yielding process.

The correct answer is:
It occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell.

Solution:
Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell in which glucose (6C) is broken down into 2 molecules of pyruvic acid (3C).

Topic: Biology, Respiration in Plants, NEET
Which of the following is correct regarding microsporogenesis in an anther?

Options:
A Each microsporogenesis involves one meiosis
B Only 1 microspore mother cell differentiates in one pollen sac.
C It only consumes tapetum and not endothecium.
D Microspore tetrad is always trihedral.

The correct answer is:
Each microsporogenesis involves one meiosis

Solution:
Microsporogenesis is the process of formation of microspore from microspore mother cell by meiosis. The microspore than forms pollen grain which is male gametophyte. Pollen grain then undergoes mitosis to form male gamete and the process is known as microgametogenesis.

Topic: Biology, Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants, NEET
Which of the following is correct regarding mineral ions absorption in plants?

Options:
A Most of the mineral ions are absorbed passively and some mineral ions are actively absorbed
B Most of the mineral ions are absorbed actively and some mineral ions are passively absorbed
C All the mineral ions are actively absorbed
D All the mineral ions are passively absorbed

The correct answer is:
Most of the mineral ions are absorbed actively and some mineral ions are passively absorbed

Solution:
All the mineral cannot be absorbed passively like water because minerals are present in the soil as charged particles which cannot be pass across the cell membrane and concentration of the mineral in the soil is usually lower than that of a root, hence mostly mineral is transported by active transport. But passive absorption of a mineral is also observed by facilitating diffusion, for e.g., potassium ions can be exchanged by hydrogen ions, absorbed to the surface of the cell membrane.

Topic: Biology, Mineral Nutrition, NEET
Which of the following is correct regarding nomenclature of Enzymes?

Options:
A They are divided into 8 groups, each group having- 4-13 sub-groups
B They are divided into 6 groups, each group having- 4-13 sub-groups
C They are divided into 60 groups, each group having- 4-13 sub-groups
D They are divided into 6 groups, each group having- 1-3 sub-groups

The correct answer is:
They are divided into 6 groups, each group having- 4-13 sub-groups

Solution:
Enzymes are divided into 6 classes each with 4-13 subclasses and named accordingly by a four-digit number.

Topic: Biology, Biomolecules (B), NEET
Which of the following is correct regarding the dipole moment?

Options:
A Dipole moment has no practical applications in understanding chemical bonding.
B Dipole moment is only relevant in ionic bonding and has no applications in covalent bonding.
C Dipole moment helps determine the polarity of molecules, which is crucial for understanding and predicting the properties of substances, such as solubility, boiling points, and intermolecular forces.
D Dipole moment is primarily used in astronomy and has limited use in the study of chemical bonding.

The correct answer is:
Dipole moment helps determine the polarity of molecules, which is crucial for understanding and predicting the properties of substances, such as solubility, boiling points, and intermolecular forces.

Solution:
Correct Option is : (C)
Dipole moment helps determine the polarity of molecules, which is crucial for understanding and predicting the properties of substances, such as solubility, boiling points, and intermolecular forces.

Topic: Chemistry, Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure, NEET
Which of the following is correct regarding the separation of DNA fragments during gel electrophoresis?

Options:
A Smallest fragment will move to the farthest point towards cathode.
B Smallest fragment will move to the farthest point towards anode.
C Largest fragment will move to the farthest point towards anode.
D Largest fragment will move to the farthest point towards cathode.

The correct answer is:
Smallest fragment will move to the farthest point towards anode.

Solution:
The DNA fragments formed after digestion with restriction enzymes will be separated according to their size by agarose gel electrophoresis. As electric current passes through the gel, the fragments move according to the size. The larger fragments stay close to the well (the place where the DNA loaded on to the gel), and the smaller fragments move farther down the gel's length. Being negatively charged, DNA moves towards the anode.

Topic: Biology, Biotechnology - Principles and Processes, NEET
Which of the following is correct relationship between ln[R] vs t curve of first order reactions:

Options:
A Constant
B Cubic
C Quadratic
D linear

The correct answer is:
linear

Solution:
Correct Option is : 4
linear

Topic: Chemistry, Chemical Kinetics, NEET
Which of the following is correct representation of the variation of half-life with initial concentration of a zero order reaction?

Options:
A
B
C
D

The correct answer is:

Solution:
t1/2∝1an-1
where n = order of reaction
t1/2∝ a for zero order reaction
Thus, plot of t1/2 against initial concentration 'a' gives straight line passing through origin.

Topic: Chemistry, Chemical Kinetics, NEET
Which of the following is correct statement ?

Options:
A F2 has higher dissociation energy than Cl2
B F has higher electron affinity than Cl
C HF is stronger acid than HCl
D Boling point increases down the group in halogens

The correct answer is:
Boling point increases down the group in halogens

Solution:
(1) – Bond dissociation energy of F2 is less that of Cl2
(2) – Cl has higher E.A. than fluorine.
(3) – HF is weaker acid than HCl, due to higher bond energy.

(4) B.P. ∝ Extent of Wanderwall’s forces.

Topic: Chemistry, p Block Elements (Group 15, 16, 17 & 18), NEET
Which of the following is correct statement?

Options:
A F2 has higher dissociation energy than Cl2
B F has higher electron affinity than Cl
C HF is stronger acid than HCl
D Boiling point increases down the group in halogens

The correct answer is:
Boiling point increases down the group in halogens

Solution:
Here only statement D is correct and rest are incorrect as
A. bond dissociation energy of F2 is less than that of Cl2
B. Cl has higher E.A. than fluorine.
C. HF is weaker acid than HCl, due to higher bond energy.
D. On moving down the group boiling point increases as with the increase of molecular weight van der Waal's force increases.

Topic: Chemistry, p Block Elements (Group 15, 16, 17 & 18), NEET
Which of the following is correct statement?

Options:
A Acetophenone is an ether
B Diastase is an enzyme
C Cycloheptane is aromatic compound
D All of the above

The correct answer is:
Diastase is an enzyme

Solution:
Acetophenone is a ketone. Diastase is an enzyme that converts starch into maltose.
Cycloheptane is a cyclic aliphatic compound.

Topic: Chemistry, Chemistry in Everyday Life, NEET
Which of the following is correct structure of S2Cl2 ?

Options:
A
B
C
D Cl=S=S=Cl

The correct answer is:

Solution:
S2Cl2 is a bent molecule due to lone pairs on S-atom there is electron electron repulsion so the shape is distorted.

Topic: Chemistry, Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure, NEET
Which of the following is correct with regard to monocot stem?

Options:
A Monocot stems have a well-developed collenchymatous hypodermis.
B The vascular bundles are surrounded by a sclerenchymatous bundle sheath.
C The cortex is differentiated into endodermis and pericycle.
D The vascular bundles are conjoint and open.

The correct answer is:
The vascular bundles are surrounded by a sclerenchymatous bundle sheath.

Solution:
The monocot stem has a sclerenchymatous hypodermis, a large number of scattered vascular bundles, each surrounded by a sclerenchymatous bundle sheath, and a large, conspicuous parenchymatous ground tissue. It doesn't have pericycle. Vascular bundles are conjoint and closed. Peripheral vascular bundles are generally smaller than the centrally located ones.

Topic: Biology, Anatomy of Flowering Plants, NEET
Which of the following is correct with respect to biofortified food?

Options:
A Wheat variety, Atlas 66, having a high lysine and tryptophan content.
B vitamin C enriched crop are bitter gourd, bathua, mustard, tomato
C vitamin A enriched carrots, spinach, French and garden peas
D iron and calcium enriched broad and lablab

The correct answer is:
vitamin C enriched crop are bitter gourd, bathua, mustard, tomato

Solution:
The Indian Agricultural Research Institute, New Delhi has also released several vegetable crops that are rich in vitamins and minerals, e.g., vitamin A enriched carrots, spinach, pumpkin; vitamin C enriched bitter gourd, bathua, mustard, tomato; iron and calcium-enriched spinach and bathua; and protein-enriched beans – broad, lablab, French and garden peas.

Topic: Biology, Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production, NEET
Which of the following is correct with respect to Euro-III norms?

Options:
A Sulphur to be controlled at 150 ppm in diesel and 350 ppm in petrol.
B Aromatic hydrocarbons are to be contained at 42% of the concerned fuel.
C The goal, according to the roadmap, is to reduce sulphur to 150 ppm in petrol and 50 ppm in diesel.
D All of these

The correct answer is:
Aromatic hydrocarbons are to be contained at 42% of the concerned fuel.

Solution:
Euro III norms stipulate that sulphur be controlled at 350 parts-per-million (ppm) in diesel and 150 ppm in petrol. Aromatic hydrocarbons are to be contained at 42% of the concerned fuel. The goal, according to the roadmap, is to reduce sulphur to 50 ppm in petrol and diesel and bring down the level to 35%.

Topic: Biology, Environmental Issues, NEET
Which of the following is correct with respect to -I effect of the substituent? (R=alkyl group)

Options:
A -NH2>-OR>-F
B -NR2<-OR<-F
C -OR<-NH2<-F
D -NR2>-OR>-F

The correct answer is:
-NR2<-OR<-F

Solution:
∴-NR2<-OR<-F : -I effect
More the electronegativity of an atom, more is the −I effect.

Topic: Chemistry, General Organic Chemistry, NEET, NEET 2018
Which of the following is correct with respect to –I effect of the substituents? (R = alkyl)

Options:
A -NH2>-OR>-F
B -NR2<-OR>-F
C -NH2<-OR<-F
D -NR2>-OR>-F

The correct answer is:
-NH2<-OR<-F

Solution:
-I effect increases on increasing electronegativity of atom. So, correct order of -I effect is -NH2<-OR<-F .

Topic: Chemistry, General Organic Chemistry, NEET
Which of the following is correct with respect to Kingdom Plantae?

a. All plants are heterosporous.
b. All plants contain vascular tissue.
c. In plants, antheridia are the female sex organ.
d. Except for algae, all plants bear embryo.

Options:
A a and c
B b and d
C a, b and c
D Only d

The correct answer is:
Only d

Solution:
Heterospory and vascular tissue were introduced to the Plant kingdom with the evolution of Pteridophyta. Antheridia are the male reproductive organs in bryophytes and pteridophytes. Bryophyta onwards, zygote develops into a multicellular diploid structure.

Topic: Biology, Plant Kingdom, NEET
Which of the following is correct with respect to Plantae?

(i) In plants, antheridia are the female sex organ.

(ii) Except algae, all plants bear embryo.

(iii) All plants are heterosporous.

Options:
A i and iii
B ii and iii
C i, ii and iii
D Only ii

The correct answer is:
Only ii

Solution:
Heterospory and Vascular tissue is introduced to plant kingdom with the evolution pteridophyta. Antheridia are the male reproductive organ in bryophyte and pteridophyte. Bryophyta onwards zygote developed into multicellular diploid structure.

Topic: Biology, Plant Kingdom, NEET
Which of the following is correct with respect to the sperms of fertile males?

Options:
A At least 40% of sperms must have a normal shape and size.
B At least 60% of sperms must have motility.
C At least 60% of sperms must have a normal shape and size.
D Both (A) and (B)

The correct answer is:
At least 60% of sperms must have a normal shape and size.

Solution:
The human male ejaculates about 200 to 300 million sperms during coitus of which, for normal fertility, at least 60 percent sperms must have normal shape and size and at least 40 percent of them must show vigorous motility.

Topic: Biology, Human Reproduction, NEET
Which of the following is correct with respect to tools of RDT?

Options:
A Presence of more than one recognition site for one enzyme, within a vector, generate several fragments, which will complicate gene cloning.
B Ligation of alien DNA is carried out at a restriction site present in 'Ori'.
C In pBR322, two antibiotic resistance gene helps in selection of transformants, whereas the other helps in cloning.
D Rop codes for proteins involved in ligation of foreign DNA.

The correct answer is:
Presence of more than one recognition site for one enzyme, within a vector, generate several fragments, which will complicate gene cloning.

Solution:
The presence of more than one recognition site within the vector will generate several fragments, which will complicate gene cloning. Therefore, to link the alien DNA (or foreign DNA), the vector needs to have very few, preferably single, recognition/cloning sites for the commonly used restriction enzymes.

Topic: Biology, Biotechnology - Principles and Processes, NEET
Which of the following is correct with respect to uphill transport using channel pumps?

Options:
A Lower concentration to higher concentration utilizing ATP
B Higher concentration to lower concentration utilizing ATP
C Higher concentration to lower concentration without utilizing ATP
D Hypertonic solution to hypotonic solution

The correct answer is:
Lower concentration to higher concentration utilizing ATP

Solution:
The movement of molecules in an uphill transport occurs from lower concentration to higher concentration. The pumps are driven by energy (ATP) which allows the movement of molecules against the concentration gradient.

Topic: Biology, Transport in Plants, NEET
Which of the following is correct?

Options:
A Tin stone is magnetic in nature
B Wolframite is non-magnetic in nature
C Wolframite is FeWO4. MnWO4
D Cassiterite and rutile are sulphides ore

The correct answer is:
Wolframite is FeWO4. MnWO4

Solution:
Wolframite is FeWO4. MnWO4 is tungstate ore & is magnetic in nature.

Topic: Chemistry, General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Metals, NEET
Which of the following is correctly matched?

Options:
A Darwin : Use and disuse of organs
B Hugo de Vries : Mutation theory
C Lamarck : Origin of life
D Haldane : Law of heredity

The correct answer is:
Hugo de Vries : Mutation theory

Solution:
This theory is proposed in 1901 by Hugo de Vries.This theory is based on his observations on wild variety of evening primrose Oenothera lamarkiana. According to this theory, new species originate as a result of large and discontinuous variations which appear suddenly.

Topic: Biology, Evolution, NEET