datavorous/entrance-exam-dataset huggingface dataset:
Which of these plants shows flowering only once in their life?

Options:
A Bamboo
B Strobilanthus kunthiana
C Wheat
D Potato

The correct answer is:
Bamboo

Solution:
A few plants exhibit unusual flowering phenomenon; some of them such as bamboo species flower only once in their life time, generally after 50-100 years, produce large number of fruits and die. Another plant, Strobilanthus kunthiana (neelakuranji), flowers once in 12 years.

Topic: Biology, Reproduction in Organisms, NEET
Which of these processes are necessary for the complete development of male gametophyte from pollen mother cell?

Options:
A One meiotic division and two mitotic divisions.
B One meiotic division and one mitotic division.
C Two meiotic divisions and one mitotic division.
D Two meiotic divisions and two mitotic divisions.

The correct answer is:
One meiotic division and two mitotic divisions.

Solution:
During microsporogenesis, the sporogeneous cells may directly acts as microspore mother cells or pollen mother cells or PMCs. Each PMC, by a meiotic division, gives rise to a group of four haploid microspores, which are combinedly referred to as microspore tetrad.
The first mitotic division in a pollen grain or microspore results into two unequal cells. The large is the vegetative cell, which eventually forms the pollen tube. The smaller one is the generative cells which produce the male gametophyte by another mitosis.

Topic: Biology, Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants, NEET
Which of these processes involve tissue culture?

I. Somatic hybridization to produce a hybrid between potato and tomato called pomato.
II. Mutation breeding to produce a mung bean resistant to yellow mosaic disease.
III. Cross hybridization to produce insect-resistant rapeseed mustard called Pusa Gaurav.
IV. Micropropagation to produce a virus-free potato plant.

Options:
A I and III
B I, II and IV
C III and IV
D I and IV

The correct answer is:
I and IV

Solution:
Somatic hybridization is the process in which isolated protoplasts from two different varieties of plants are fused. Cross hybridization is combining desirable characteristics from two plants by the method of cross pollination. Mutation breeding is breeding of plants in which genetic variations are created by gene mutation. It involves cross hybridization. Micropropagation is the process of growing thousands of plants in nutrient medium using their shoot tips which are free from viruses.

Topic: Biology, Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production, NEET
Which of these properties are seen in both facilitated diffusion as well as active transport?

I. Requires ATP for energy.
II. Highly selective process.
III. Occurs against the concentration gradient.
IV. There occurs transport saturation.

Options:
A II
B II, III and IV
C I and III
D II and IV

The correct answer is:
II and IV

Solution:
Both facilitated diffusion and active transport require membrane proteins for the transport of substances. Hence, they are highly selective. If all the membrane proteins are occupied for transport, there may be a saturation. However, active transport occurs against the concentration gradient, and it requires energy in the form of ATP. This is not seen in facilitated diffusion.

Topic: Biology, Transport in Plants, NEET
Which of these properties are seen in Hibiscus rosa-sinensis?

(i) Leaves with alternate phyllotaxy

(ii) Polycarpellary syncarpous inferior ovary

(iii) Twisted aestivation in petals

(iv) Basal placentation of ovules

Options:
A i and ii
B iii and iv
C i and iii
D ii and iv

The correct answer is:
i and iii

Solution:
Hibiscus rosa-sinensis (china rose) has axile placentation It has a polycarpellary, syncarpous superior ovary with the hypogynous insertion of floral whorls. It has an alternate type of phyllotaxy, in which a single leaf arises at each node in an alternate manner. It has twisted aestivation in which one margin of the petal overlaps that of the next one and so on.

Topic: Biology, Morphology of Flowering Plants, NEET
Which of these properties of Cassia is correct?

Options:
A It has a zygomorphic flower and imbricate aestivation of petals
B It has an actinomorphic flower and imbricate aestivation of petals
C It has a zygomorphic flower and twisted aestivation of petals
D It has an actinomorphic flower and twisted aestivation of petals

The correct answer is:
It has a zygomorphic flower and imbricate aestivation of petals

Solution:
The flower of Cassia can be divided into two similar halves only in one particular vertical plane. Hence, it is a zygomorphic flower. The margins of petals of Cassia overlap one another but not in any particular direction. Hence, it shows imbricate aestivation.

Topic: Biology, Morphology of Flowering Plants, NEET
Which of these reactions is a multi step process?

Options:
A Glucose → Glucose - 6- phosphate
B Fumarate → Oxaloacetate
C PEPA → PA
D Succinyl CoA → Succinate

The correct answer is:
Fumarate → Oxaloacetate

Solution:
The question involves two pathways of cellular respiration, glycolysis and Kreb's cycle. In glycolysis the first step involves the conversion of a glucose molecule to glucose-6-phosphate, and the last step where the Phosphoenolpyruvic acid (PEPA) is converted to two molecules of Pyruvic acid (PA) or pyruvate. During the Kreb's cycle, Succinyl- CoA is converted to succinate using the Succinyl-CoA synthetase enzyme and the fumarate gets converted to malate with the help of enzyme fumarase. Malate is then converted to oxalo acetic acid with the formation of reduced coenzyme NADH

Topic: Biology, Respiration in Plants, NEET
Which of these relations between two partial pressures is incorrect?

Options:
A pO2 in atmospheric air >Â pO2 in alveoli
B pO2 in tissues = pO2 in deoxygenated blood
C pCO2 in oxygenated blood = pO2 in deoxygenated blood
D pCO2 in oxygenated blood <Â pCO2 in tissues

The correct answer is:
pCO2 in oxygenated blood = pO2 in deoxygenated blood

Solution:
The various partial pressures in the respiratory system are tabulated as follows:
pO2 in atmospheric air is 159 mm Hg while pO2 in alveoli is 104 mm Hg. pCO2 in oxygenated blood is 40 mm Hg while pO2 in deoxygenated blood is 40 mm Hg. pCO2 in oxygenated blood is 40 mm Hg while pCO2 in tissues 45 mm Hg. pO2 in alveoli is 104 mm Hg and pO2 in oxygenated blood is 95 mm Hg. These values are not equal

Topic: Biology, Breathing and Exchange of Gases, NEET
Which of these restriction endonucleases are used in rDNA technology?

Options:
A Type I
B Type II
C Type III
D all of these

The correct answer is:
Type II

Solution:
There are three types of restriction enzymes. Type I has a cleavage site at 1000bp away from the restriction site. Type ii is specific within the recognition site. Type III has a cleavage site 24-26 bp away from recognition sites. Only type II is used in rDNA. Type I has a single enzyme which modifies the DNA at specific recognition sites but restriction activities occur randomly and away from the recognition site. Type III have separate enzymes for restriction activity and methylation and cleave outside the restriction site. Thus only type II are highly useful in rDNA because they have a separate enzyme for restriction which cleaves at the specific site

Topic: Biology, Biotechnology - Principles and Processes, NEET
Which of these scientists is not correctly matched with their contributions?

Options:
A Anton Von Leeuwenhoek first saw and described a live cell.
B Robert Brown discovered the nucleus.
C Matthias Schleiden studied different types of animal cells and reported that cells had a thin outer layer which is today known as the 'plasma membrane'
D Rudolf Virchow first explained that cells divided and new cells are formed from pre-existing cells

The correct answer is:
Matthias Schleiden studied different types of animal cells and reported that cells had a thin outer layer which is today known as the 'plasma membrane'

Solution:
Matthias Schleiden, a German botanist in 1838 while examining a large number of plants observed that all plants are made up of different cells. Theodore Schwann in 1839 who was a zoologist, studied animal cell and its types and observed that the cells in animals had a thin outer layer and today it is known as 'plasma membrane'

Topic: Biology, Cell - The Unit of Life, NEET
Which of these stages of mitosis is the shortest?

Options:
A Prophase
B Metaphase
C Anaphase
D Telophase

The correct answer is:
Anaphase

Solution:
The stages of nuclear division in mitosis are prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase. Prophase is the longest phase of mitosis while anaphase is the shortest phase. Anaphase is characterized by splitting of centromere and pulling of chromosomes towards the poles.

Topic: Biology, Cell Cycle and Cell Division, NEET
Which of these statements about CoCN63- is true?

Options:
A CoCN63- has no unpaired electrons and will be in a low-spin configuration.
B CoCN63- has four unpaired electrons and will be in a low-spin configuration.
C CoCN63- has four unpaired electrons and will be in a high-spin configuration.
D CoCN63- has no unpaired electrons and will be in a high-spin configuration.

The correct answer is:
CoCN63- has no unpaired electrons and will be in a low-spin configuration.

Solution:
Due to strong Ligand field of CN- ions pairing of electrons takes place in inner 3d orbital it is a low spin complex with no unpaired electrons.

Topic: Chemistry, Coordination Compounds, NEET, NEET 2015 (Phase 1)
Which of these statements about [Co(CN)6]3- is true

Options:
A [Co(CN)6]3- has four unpaired electrons and will be in a low-spin configuration.
B [Co(CN)6]3- has four unpaired electrons and will be in a high-spin configuration.
C [Co(CN)6]3- has no unpaired electrons and will be in a high-spin configuration.
D [Co(CN)6]3- has no unpaired electrons and will be in a low-spin configuration.

The correct answer is:
[Co(CN)6]3- has no unpaired electrons and will be in a low-spin configuration.

Solution:
In [Co(CN)6]3- Cobalt is in + 3 oxidation state so Co+3=(Ar)3d64s04p0
As in presence of strong field ligand, pairing of electrons occurs so in this complex no unpaired electron is present and it is a low-spin complex.

Topic: Chemistry, Coordination Compounds, NEET
Which of these statements about cancer is incorrect?

Options:
A Cellular oncogenes (c-onc) are present in normal cells which have not become cancerous
B Antibodies against cancer-specific antigens are used for detection of certain cancers
C MRI uses strong magnetic fields and ionizing radiations to accurately detect pathological and physiological changes in the living tissue
D Cancers can be treated using alpha interferon which activates immune system and helps in destroying tumor cells.

The correct answer is:
MRI uses strong magnetic fields and ionizing radiations to accurately detect pathological and physiological changes in the living tissue

Solution:
Several genes called cellular oncogenes (c-onc) or proto oncogenes have been identified in normal cells which, when activated under certain conditions, could lead to oncogenic transformation of the cells. MRI uses strong magnetic fields and non-ionising radiations to accurately detect pathological and physiological changes in the living tissue. Antibodies against cancer-specific antigens are also used for detection of certain cancers. Tumor cells have been shown to avoid detection and destruction by immune system. Therefore, the patients are given substances called biological response modifiers such as alpha-interferon which activates their immune system and helps in destroying the tumor.

Topic: Biology, Human Health and Diseases, NEET
Which of these statements about centrioles is correct?

Options:
A There are two centrioles in animal cells which lie perpendicular to each other within a centromere.
B They have nine doublets of radially arranged peripheral fibrils.
C The central part of the distal region of the centriole is proteinaceous and is called the hub.
D The centrioles form the basal body of cilia or flagella, and spindle fibres that give rise to spindle apparatus during cell division in animal cells.

The correct answer is:
The centrioles form the basal body of cilia or flagella, and spindle fibres that give rise to spindle apparatus during cell division in animal cells.

Solution:
There are two centrioles in a centrosome that lie perpendicular to each other. They are made up of nine evenly spaced peripheral fibrils of tubulin protein. Each of the peripheral fibrils is a triplet. The adjacent triplets are also linked. The central part of the proximal region of the centriole is also proteinaceous and called the hub. The centrioles form the basal body of cilia or flagella, and spindle fibers that give rise to spindle apparatus during cell division in animal cells.

Topic: Biology, Cell - The Unit of Life, NEET
Which of these statements about decidua is false?

Options:
A Decidua cells are enlarged, vacuolated endometrial cells filled with glycogen and lipids.
B Decidua parietalis refers to the part of the decidua which gives rise to maternal part
C Decidua capsularis refers to the part of the decidua which overlies the embryo and separates it form the uterine cavity.
D These cells are called decidua because they are shed off during parturition

The correct answer is:
Decidua parietalis refers to the part of the decidua which gives rise to maternal part

Solution:
Decidua is the changed enlarged endometrium due to effect of increasing progesterone levels in maternal blood which converts it into decidual cells. They are enlarged, vacuolated and filled with glycogen and lipids. The stored glycogen and lipid are the source of nutrition for the embryo till placenta takes up this function. It is shed off during childbirth - hence why the term is used, "decidua" having the meaning of falling away, as in the word deciduous. Parts of decidua are
1 Decidua basalis or decidual plate refers to the part where maternal part of placenta is to develop.
2 Decidua capsularis is that part of the decidua which overlies the embryo and separates it from the uterine cavity.
3 Decidua parietalis refers to the part of the decidua lining the rest of uterine cavity.

Topic: Biology, Human Reproduction, NEET
Which of these statement/s about lichens is/are true?

I. Lichens are mutually beneficial symbiotic associations.
II. They grow extensively in areas with high pollution, hence called as pollution indicators.
III. The phycobiont member, algae, is an autotroph and the mycobiont member, fungi, is a heterotroph.
IV. Fungi help the algae harvest sunlight for photosynthesis.

Options:
A II and III
B I and III
C I, II and III
D III and IV

The correct answer is:
I and III

Solution:
Lichens are a symbiotic association of the algae (phycobiont) and fungi (mycobiont). The algal partner produces food and the fungal partner provides protection to the algae. The fungi also help in absorption of minerals and water. Lichens generally do not grow in polluted areas, hence they are good indicators of pollution.

Topic: Biology, Biological Classification, NEET
Which of these statements about linkage groups are correct?

Options:
A Drosophila has four linkage groups while Pisum has seven linkage groups
B Drosophila has eight linkage groups while Pisum has fourteen linkage groups
C Pisum has four linkage groups while Drosophila has seven linkage groups
D Pisum has eight linkage groups while Drosophila has fourteen linkage groups

The correct answer is:
Drosophila has four linkage groups while Pisum has seven linkage groups

Solution:
The tendency of genes present on the same chromosome to be inherited together is called linkage. All the genes on a chromosome are said to be linked to one another and belong to the same linkage group. The number of linkage groups of a particular species corresponds to its haploid number of chromosomes or number of pairs of chromosomes. Drosophila has 8 chromosomes thus it has four linkage groups while Pisum has 14 chromosomes thus it has seven linkage groups.

Topic: Biology, Principles of Inheritance and Variation, NEET
Which of these statements about Mycoplasma is/are true?

I. Mycoplasma is the smallest cell known.
II. They are not prokaryotic in nature.
III. They can respire only in the presence of oxygen.
IV. They lack cell walls.

Options:
A I and II
B I and IV
C I, II and III
D II and IV

The correct answer is:
I and IV

Solution:
Mycoplasma is the smallest cells known. They are prokaryotic cells that lack cell walls. They can cause a variety of diseases and hence are potent pathogens for causing respiratory tract illnesses.

Topic: Biology, Biological Classification, NEET
Which of these statements about protein synthesis are NOT correct?

I. During transcription, mRNA is synthesized from DNA nucleotides to have the same sequence of nucleotides as the DNA strand on which it was made.
II. During transcription, tRNA is synthesized from RNA nucleotides and carries codons that are complementary to the sequence of nucleotides on the DNA strand on which it was made.
III. During translation, mRNA is synthesized from RNA nucleotides to have the complementary sequence of nucleotides to that of the DNA strand on which it was made.
IV. During translation, ribosomes move on mRNA from 5' to 3', one codon at a time. This is called translocation

Options:
A I, II and III only
B I, II, III and IV
C III and IV only
D I, II and IV only

The correct answer is:
I, II and III only

Solution:
During, transcription, mRNA is synthesised and carries the codon that are complementary to the sequence of nucleotides on the DNA strand (anti-sense) on which it was made. Translation refers to the process of polymerisation of amino acids to form a polypeptide. The order and sequence of amino acids are defined by the sequence of bases in the mRNA. Complexes composed of an amino acid linked to tRNA, sequentially bind to the appropriate codon in mRNA by forming complementary base pairs with the tRNA anticodon. Ribosomes move over the mRNA move from 5' to 3', one codon at a time. This is called translocation.

Topic: Biology, Molecular Basis of Inheritance, NEET
Which of these statements about sphincters of urethra is CORRECT?

Options:
A Internal urethral sphincter is made up of smooth muscles while external urethral sphincter is made up of striated muscles.
B Internal urethral sphincter is made up of striated muscles while external urethral sphincter is made up of smooth muscles.
C Both internal and external urethral sphincter is made up of smooth muscles.
D Both internali and external urethral sphincter is made up of striated muscles.

The correct answer is:
Internal urethral sphincter is made up of smooth muscles while external urethral sphincter is made up of striated muscles.

Solution:
The human excretory system consists of a pair of kidneys, a pair of ureters, urinary bladder, and urethra. The urethra is the opening through which urine gets released out of the body. It is of different lengths in males and females. It is around 20 cm in males and 4 cm in females. It shows the presence of two sphincters that control the flow of urine. These are internal and external sphincters (sphincters are openings made up of circular muscles). The internal sphincter is involuntary as it is made up of smooth muscles while external sphincters are voluntary as it is made up of skeletal muscles.

Topic: Biology, Structural Organisation in Animals, NEET
Which of these statements about Taq polymerase used during PCR is not correct?

Options:
A It is used for primer extension to synthesise a new DNA strand
B It is a thermostable enzyme and can survive temperatures up to 125oC
C It is obtained from Thermus aquaticus
D Its addition eliminated the need to add fresh polymerase in every PCR cycle

The correct answer is:
It is a thermostable enzyme and can survive temperatures up to 125oC

Solution:
Taq polymerase is a thermostable DNA polymerase found in thermophilic bacteria Thermus aquaticus. Its optimum temperature for activity is approx. 75â80Â°C. Taq polymerase is well-suited for PCR because it is able to withstand the temperature of up to 95Â°C required for DNA strand separation without denaturing.

Topic: Biology, Biotechnology - Principles and Processes, NEET
Which of these statements about TCA cycle is false?

Options:
A There are three points in the cycle where NAD+ is reduced to NADH + H+ and one point where FAD+ is reduced to FADH2
B During the conversion of succinyl-CoA to succinic acid a molecule of GTP is synthesized.
C It involves condensation of acetyl group with oxaloacetic acid (OAA) and water to yield citric acid
D It involves two steps of decarboxylation, one leads to formation of alpha ketoglutaric acid while the other leads to the formation of succinic acid.

The correct answer is:
It involves two steps of decarboxylation, one leads to formation of alpha ketoglutaric acid while the other leads to the formation of succinic acid.

Solution:
The first step of TCA cycle involves the formation of citric acid as follows:
Two decarboxylations occur, one forming alpha ketoglutaric acid while the other forming succinyl-CoA as follows:
During the conversion of succinyl-CoA to succinic acid a molecule of GTP is synthesized as follows:
NADH + H+ is formed during formation of oxalosuccinic acid, succinyl co-A and oxaloacetic acid while FADH2 is formed during the formation of fumaric acid.

Topic: Biology, Respiration in Plants, NEET
Which of these statements about the kidney and urinary bladder is CORRECT?

Options:
A The kidney lies posteriorly in the abdominal cavity while the urinary bladder lies anteriorly in the pelvic cavity.
B The kidney lies anteriorly in the abdominal cavity while the urinary bladder lies posteriorly in the pelvic cavity.
C The kidney lies posteriorly in the abdominal cavity while the urinary bladder lies posteriorly in the pelvic cavity.
D The kidney lies anteriorly in the abdominal cavity while the urinary bladder lies anteriorly in the pelvic cavity.

The correct answer is:
The kidney lies posteriorly in the abdominal cavity while the urinary bladder lies anteriorly in the pelvic cavity.

Solution:
Excretory system in humans consist of a pair of kidneys, a pair of ureters, urinary bladder and urethra. Kidneys are retroperitoneal and thus it lies posteriorly in the abdominal cavity while urinary bladder lies anteriorly. (Duodenum too is retroperitoneal in position).

Topic: Biology, Excretory Products and their Elimination, NEET
Which of these statements about the living state is correct?

Options:
A Living state is an equilibrium unsteady state to be able to perform work
B Living state is an equilibrium unsteady state not able to perform work
C Living state is a non-equilibrium steady state to be able to perform work
D Living state is a non-equilibrium steady state not able to perform work

The correct answer is:
Living state is a non-equilibrium steady state to be able to perform work

Solution:
Systems at equilibrium cannot perform work. As living organisms work continuously, they cannot afford to reach equilibrium. The living state is a non-equilibrium steady-state to be able to perform work.

Topic: Chemistry, Biomolecules, NEET
Which of these statements accurately describes the correct description of flagella in algae?

Options:
A In phaeophyceae motile spores have 2-8, equal, lateral flagella
B In chlorophyceae motile cell, have 2 unequal, apical flagella
C In rhodophyceae motile cells have 2-8, equal and apical flagella, few are non-motile
D In phaeophyceae motile spores are biflagellate and flagella are unequal and lateral.

The correct answer is:
In phaeophyceae motile spores are biflagellate and flagella are unequal and lateral.

Solution:
In Chlorophyceae (green algae) motile cell has 2 - 8 equal apical flagella. In Rhodophyceae (red algae) Flagella are absent. In Phaeophyceae (brown algae) motile spores are biflagellate and flagella are unequal and lateral.

Topic: Biology, Plant Kingdom, NEET