datavorous/entrance-exam-dataset huggingface dataset:
Which set of hormones are secreted during pregnancy only?

Options:
A Estrogen, hPL, Relaxin
B Progesterone, Cortisol, hCG
C hCG, hPL, Relaxin
D Cortisol, Progestogens, Relaxin

The correct answer is:
hCG, hPL, Relaxin

Solution:
Placenta also acts as an endocrine tissue and produces the following hormones:
A. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG). B. Human placental lactogen (hPL). C. Estrogens. D. Progestogens.
The ovary produces relaxin hormone in the later phase of pregnancy. Hormones produced in women only during pregnancy: hCG, hPL and relaxin.
Hormones that are increased in concentration (by several folds) in maternal blood during pregnancy: Estrogens, progestogens, cortisol, prolactin, thyroxine, etc.

Topic: Biology, Human Reproduction, NEET
Which set of hormones is secreted by anterior pituitary?

Options:
A GH and Somatostatin
B ADH and Prolactin
C TSH and Mammotrophic hormone
D ICSH and oxytocin

The correct answer is:
TSH and Mammotrophic hormone

Solution:
Hormones of neurohypophysis are synthesized in hypothalamus.
Hormones secreted by Adenohypophysis

A. Pars distalis (anterior pituitary)	1. Growth hormone (GH). 2. Prolactin (PRL). 3. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH). 4. Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH). 5. Luteinizing hormone (LH). 6. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH).

B. Pars intermedia	Melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH).

Topic: Biology, Chemical Coordination and Integration, NEET
Which set of hormones is steroidal in nature?

Options:
A Cortisol and estradiol
B Insulin and glucagon
C Adrenaline and non-adrenaline
D Thyroxine and calcitonin

The correct answer is:
Cortisol and estradiol

Solution:
Types of hormones on the basis of chemical nature:

1. Peptide/ polypeptide/protein hormones	Insulin, glucagon, pituitary hormones, thymosins, and hypothalamic hormones

2. Steroids	Cortisol, testosterone, estradiol, and progesterone.

3. Iodothyronines	Thyroid hormones

4. Amino-acid derivatives	Epinephrine

Topic: Biology, Chemical Coordination and Integration, NEET
Which set of organs is designated as heterocrine glands?

Options:
A Gonads and Pancreas
B Thymus and Pituitary
C Parathyroid and Thyroid
D Lungs and Stomach.

The correct answer is:
Gonads and Pancreas

Solution:
Heterocrine glands mean the gland having endocrine (ductless parts secreting hormones) and exocrine parts (portions with ducts) both.

Topic: Biology, Chemical Coordination and Integration, NEET
Which set of pathogens causes similar diseases?

Options:
A Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae
B Staphylococcus aureus and Haemophilus influenzae

C Rhinovirus and Haemophilus influenzae
D Streptococcus pneumoniae and Rhinovirus

The correct answer is:
Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae

Solution:
Pneumonia is caused by Streptococcus pneumonia and Haemophilus influenza.
Mode of infection: By inhaling the droplets/aerosols released by an infected person. By sharing glasses and utensils with an infected person.
Pathway: Entry of pathogen in respiratory tract → Infection of alveoli → Alveoli get filled with fluid → Severe breathing problems.
Sign and symptoms: Fever, chills, cough, and headache. Lips and fingernails may turn gray to bluish in severe cases.

Topic: Biology, Human Health and Diseases, NEET
Which set of plants represent gymnosperms which grow in a temperate area with a branched stem and are having needle-like leaves to reduce the surface area?

Options:
A Cedrus, Eucalyptus
B Cycas, Wolffia
C Cycas, Ginkgo
D Pinus, Cedrus

The correct answer is:
Pinus, Cedrus

Solution:
Conifers are gymnosperms which grows in temperate area with branched stem. In conifers the needle like leaves reduce the surface area. Conifers includes Pinus and Cedrus. Cycas and Ginkgo are gymnosperms but not conifers. Eucalyptus and Wolffia are angiosperms

Topic: Biology, Plant Kingdom, NEET
Which set of reagents among the following is ideal to convert propene, CH3-CH=CH2 into 1-propanol?

Options:
A Alkaline KMnO4
B B2H6 and alkaline H2O2
C O3/Zn dust
D OsO4/CH4,Cl2

The correct answer is:
B2H6 and alkaline H2O2

Solution:
Here, anti-Markownikoff addition of water occurs.
Hydroboration oxidation (Industrial preparation of alcohol)
3CH3CH=CH2+12B2H6→Dry(CH3CH2CH3)3B
(CH3CH2CH3)3B→H2O23CH3CH2CH2-OH

Topic: Chemistry, Hydrocarbons, NEET
Which set of reagents are needed to synthesize the given unsymmetrical alkyne CH3-C≡C-CH2-CH3?

Options:
A Acetaldehyde, 1- bromopropane and conc. H2SO4
B Ethyne, iodomethane, iodoethane and sodamide
C 1,2- dichloroethane, 1- propanol and alcoholic potassium hydroxide
D Ethene, iodoethane, iodomethane and potassium hydroxide

The correct answer is:
Ethyne, iodomethane, iodoethane and sodamide

Solution:
CH≡CH →   NaNH 2   CH≡ C − Na + →   CH 3 I  CH≡C− CH 3 →  Na  CH 3 −C≡CNa →   C 2 H 5 I  C 2 H 5 −C≡C− CH 3

Topic: Chemistry, Hydrocarbons, NEET
Which set of sign and symptoms are related to pneumonia?

Options:
A Infection in nasal cavity, headache, pain in stomach
B Infection in alveoli, chills, fever and cough
C Sore throat, nasal discharge and constipation
D Intestinal infection, persistent fever.

The correct answer is:
Infection in alveoli, chills, fever and cough

Solution:
Mode of infection: By inhaling the droplets/aerosols released by an infected person. By sharing glasses and utensils with an infected person.
Pathway: Entry of pathogen in respiratory tract â Infection of alveoli â Alveoli get filled with fluid â Severe breathing problems.
Sign and symptoms: Fever, chills, cough and headache. Lips and finger nails may turn gray to bluish in severe cases.

Topic: Biology, Human Health and Diseases, NEET
Which set of the cell organelles are considered to be semi-autonomous?

Options:
A Ribosomes and chloroplasts
B Mitochondria and Ribosomes
C Mitochondria and chloroplasts
D Golgi bodies and chloroplasts

The correct answer is:
Mitochondria and chloroplasts

Solution:
Mitochondria and chloroplasts are semi-autonomous as they posseses single circular double stranded DNA, by which they can synthesized RNA and uses ribosomes to synthesized some proteins required by them, thus called as semi autonomous organelle.

Topic: Biology, Cell - The Unit of Life, NEET
Which sex of honey bees is diploid?

Options:
A Male
B Queen
C Worker
D Both male and female

The correct answer is:
Both male and female

Solution:
Females are diploid having 32 chromosomes and males are haploid, i.e., having 16 chromosomes.

Topic: Biology, Principles of Inheritance and Variation, NEET
Which shape does the wavefront take when light emanates from a point source?

Options:
A Spherical
B Cylindrical
C Planar
D Conical

The correct answer is:
Spherical

Solution:
Correct Option is : (A)
Spherical

Topic: Chemistry, Wave Optics, NEET
Which site of an enzyme is called an allosteric site?

Options:
A The active site
B The substrate-binding site
C Sites different from the active site of enzymes where a molecule can bind and affect the active site is called allosteric site.
D The site where cofactors bind

The correct answer is:
Sites different from the active site of enzymes where a molecule can bind and affect the active site is called allosteric site.

Solution:
Correct Option is : (C)
Sites different from the active site of enzymes where a molecule can bind and affect the active site is called allosteric site.

Topic: Chemistry, Chemistry in Everyday Life, NEET
Which size of particulate matter is considered to be most harmful for human health?

Options:
A 1.0 mm or less
B 1.5 mm or less
C 2.5 mm or less
D 5.2 m to 2.5 m

The correct answer is:
2.5 mm or less

Solution:
According to the Centre for Pollution Control Board, particle size less than 2.5 microns or less are more harmful to human health as they are easily inhaled and results in various respiratory diseases.

Topic: Biology, Environmental Issues, NEET
Which size of particulate pollutants is likely to lodge in the nasal passage?

Options:
A Particles larger than 10 microns
B Particles around 5 microns
C Particles smaller than 1 micron
D Particles of any size do not lodge in the nasal passage.

The correct answer is:
Particles around 5 microns

Solution:
Particulate pollutants around 5 microns in size are likely to lodge in the nasal passage.

Topic: Chemistry, Environmental Chemistry, NEET
Which sodium salt will be heated with sodalime to obtain propane -

Options:
A
B
C
D 2 & 3 both

The correct answer is:
2 & 3 both

Solution:
Carboxylic acid when heated with soda / lime undergoes decarboxylation forming alkane, which contains one carbon less then carboxylic acid. RCOONa→NaOH|CaORH

Topic: Chemistry, Carboxylic Acid Derivatives, NEET
Which solid burns in air to produce a gas that turns lime water milky, is also a by-product of roasting sulphide ore, and can decolourize acidified aqueous KMnO4solution while reducing Fe3+to Fe2+?

Options:
A Solid "A" is sodium chloride and gas "B" is hydrogen.
B Solid "A" is sulfur and gas "B" is sulfur dioxide.
C Solid "A" is carbon and gas "B" is carbon dioxide.
D Solid "A" is calcium carbonate and gas "B" is carbon monoxide.

The correct answer is:
Solid "A" is sulfur and gas "B" is sulfur dioxide.

Solution:
Correct Option is : (B)
Solid "A" is sulfur and gas "B" is sulfur dioxide.

Topic: Chemistry, p Block Elements (Group 15, 16, 17 & 18), NEET
Which solution will have the lowest pH value?

Options:
A 0.10 M HCN
B 0.10 M HNO3
C 0.10 M NaCl
D 0.10 M H2CO3

The correct answer is:
0.10 M HNO3

Solution:
Stronger the acid, the smaller is the pH of solution. HNO3 is the strongest acid, therefore, its solution will have lowest pH value.

Topic: Chemistry, Ionic Equilibrium, NEET
Which solvent is best as an ionizing solvent, having

Options:
A A dielectric constant equal to 1
B High value of dielectric constant
C Low value of dielectric constant
D Has a high melting point

The correct answer is:
High value of dielectric constant

Solution:
higher the dielectric constant of a solvent more of its ionising power.

Topic: Chemistry, Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure, NEET
Which species are facing the threat of extinction globally?

Options:
A 12% of bird species
B 23% of mammal species
C 32% of amphibian species
D All of the above

The correct answer is:
All of the above

Solution:
Presently, 12% of all bird species, 23% of all mammal species, 32% of all amphibian species, and 31% of all gymnosperm species in the world face the threat of extinction.

Topic: Biology, Biodiversity and its Conservation, NEET
Which species in the given below has a coordinate bond?

Options:
A CH4
B SO32-
C NH3
D CO2

The correct answer is:
SO32-

Solution:
SO32- has one coordinate bond.

Topic: Chemistry, Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure, NEET
Which species is present in water? What is the hybridisation of boron in this species?

Options:
A Trigonal planar, sp3hybridization
B Tetrahedral, sp³ hybridization
C Trigonal planar, sp hybridization
D Linear, sp² hybridization

The correct answer is:
Trigonal planar, sp3hybridization

Solution:
Correct Option is : (A)
Trigonal planar, sp3hybridization

Topic: Chemistry, p Block Elements (Group 13 & 14), NEET
Which species of animals are believed to compete for the same resources that are limiting in nature according to Darwin's theory of evolution?

Options:
A Totally unrelated species
B Closely related species
C Animals that are not related
D Animals with the same characteristics

The correct answer is:
Closely related species

Solution:
Darwin was convinced that interspecific competition is a potent force in organic evolution and it is generally believed that competition occurs when closely related species compete for the same resources that are limiting.

Topic: Biology, Organisms and Populations, NEET
Which species of Plasmodium is responsible for the most common type of malaria in India?

Options:
A Plasmodium vivax
B Plasmodium malariae
C Plasmodium falciparum
D Plasmodium ovale

The correct answer is:
Plasmodium vivax

Solution:
The most common species of plasmodium is P. vivax, which causes benign tertian malaria.
The least common species of plasmodium is P. ovale, which cause mild tertian malaria.

Topic: Biology, Human Health and Diseases, NEET
Which species, when identified and named, is responsible for bleaching substances due to its oxidizing action in the reaction: Cl2(g) + 2OH–(aq) → ClO–(aq) + Cl–(aq) + H2O (l)?

Options:
A Cl2
B OH–
C ClO–
D Cl–

The correct answer is:
ClO–

Solution:
Correct Option is : (C)
ClO–

Topic: Chemistry, Redox Reactions, NEET
Which species will have the largest and the smallest size among Mg, Mg2+, Al, Al3+?

Options:
A Largest: Mg, Smallest: Al3+
B Largest: Mg2+, Smallest: Al3+
C Largest: Al, Smallest: Mg2+
D Largest: Al, Smallest: Mg

The correct answer is:
Largest: Mg, Smallest: Al3+

Solution:
Correct Option is : (A)
Largest: Mg, Smallest: Al3+

Topic: Chemistry, Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties, NEET
Which specific cationic detergent is used in hair conditioners?

Options:
A Cetyltrimethylammonium bromide
B Sodium benzoate
C Potassium hydroxide
D Sodium carbonate

The correct answer is:
Cetyltrimethylammonium bromide

Solution:
Cetyltrimethylammonium bromide is a popular cationic detergent used in hair conditioners.

Topic: Chemistry, Chemistry in Everyday Life, NEET
Which stage involves the extraction of the metal from its concentrated ore?

Options:
A Purification of the metal
B Isolation of the metal from its concentrated ore
C Concentration of the ore
D Formation of alloys

The correct answer is:
Isolation of the metal from its concentrated ore

Solution:
The second step in metal extraction involves isolating the metal from its concentrated ore.

Topic: Chemistry, General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Metals, NEET
Which stage of meiosis can last for months or years in the oocytes of some verterbrates?

Options:
A Leptotene
B Pachytene
C Diplotene
D Diakinesis

The correct answer is:
Diplotene

Solution:
Diplotene (a stage of Prophase-I of Meiosis) which can delay for months or years in oocyte of some vertebrates such as humans. In human female, cycle the cell arrest during embryonic stage and continue after puberty. It is completed at the time of ovulation during menstruation.

Topic: Biology, Cell Cycle and Cell Division, NEET, NEET 2022 (Phase 2)
Which stage of meiotic prophase shows terminalisation of chiasmata as its distinctive feature?

Options:
A Leptotene
B Zygotene
C Diakinesis
D Pachytene

The correct answer is:
Diakinesis

Solution:
The final stage of meiotic prophase I is diakinesis. This is marked by terminalisation of chiasmata. During this phase, the chromosomes are fully condensed and the meiotic spindle is assembled to prepare the homologous chromosomes for separation.

Topic: Biology, Cell Cycle and Cell Division, NEET, NEET 2021
Which stage of mitosis is characterized by the complete disintegration of the nuclear envelope?

Options:
A Prophase
B Metaphase
C Anaphase
D Telophase

The correct answer is:
Metaphase

Solution:
The complete disintegration of the nuclear envelope marks the start of the second phase of mitosis, hence the chromosomes are spread through the cytoplasm of the cell. By this stage, condensation of chromosomes is completed and they can be observed clearly under the microscope.

Topic: Biology, Cell Cycle and Cell Division, NEET
Which stage of Plasmodium is infective for mosquito?

Options:
A Trophozoite
B Gametocyte
C Ookinete
D Sporozoite

The correct answer is:
Gametocyte

Solution:
Gametocyte is the infective stage for female Anopheles mosquito because the optimum temperature for growth of gametocyte is present in their body.

Topic: Biology, Human Health and Diseases, NEET
Which stage of prophase I is relatively short-lived compared to the others?

Options:
A Leptotene
B Zygotene
C Pachytene
D Diakinesis

The correct answer is:
Leptotene

Solution:
According to the paragraph, the first two stages of prophase I, including leptotene, are relatively short-lived compared to the next stage, which is pachytene.

Topic: Biology, Cell Cycle and Cell Division, NEET
Which stage of prophase I of meiosis lasts for many days?

Options:
A Pachytene
B Diplotene
C Diakinesis
D Leptotene

The correct answer is:
Diplotene

Solution:
During meiosis in animals, cell gets arrested in Diplotene, and this is of longest duration. In egg laying birds, maximum yolk proteins are synthesized during diplotene stage.

Topic: Biology, Cell Cycle and Cell Division, NEET
Which stages of cell division do the following figures $A$ and $B$ represent respectively?

Options:
A Metaphase - Telophase
B Telophase - Metaphase
C Late anaphase - Prophase
D Prophase - Anaphase

The correct answer is:
Late anaphase - Prophase

Solution:
Late anaphase is characterized by following events :
(i) Centromeres split and chromatids separate.
(ii) Chromatids move to opposite poles.
Prophase is characterized by centriole separation.

Topic: Biology, Cell Cycle and Cell Division, NEET, NEET 2010 (Screening)
Which statement about hybridization in the following is not correct?

Options:
A Hybridization is the mixing of atomic orbitals prior to their combining into molecular orbitals
B sp2 hybrid orbitals are formed from two p atomic orbitals and one S atomic orbital
C d2sp3 hybrid orbitals are directed towards the corners of a regular octahedron
D sp 3 d hybrid orbitals are all at 90o to one another

The correct answer is:
sp 3 d hybrid orbitals are all at 90o to one another

Solution:
Compound with sp 3 d hybridization are trigonal bipyramidal, hence sp 3 d hybrid orbitals have bond angles of 90 o ,  180 o and 120o

Topic: Chemistry, Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure, NEET
Which statement about photosynthesis is incorrect?

Options:
A In C4 plants, the mesophyll cells have PEPcase but don't have RuBisCO
B F0 portion of ATP synthase enzyme protrudes on the outer surface of the thylakoid membrane on the side that faces the stroma.
C Stromal lamellae don't have PSII and NADP reductase enzyme
D When carbon dioxide and oxygen is available in equal quantity, RuBisCO has a much greater affinity for carbon dioxide

The correct answer is:
F0 portion of ATP synthase enzyme protrudes on the outer surface of the thylakoid membrane on the side that faces the stroma.

Solution:
C4 plants show chloroplast dimorphism. Mesophyll cells have PEPcase but do not have RuBisCO, while the bundle sheath cells have RuBisCO but do not have PEPcase. The ATP synthase enzyme consists of two parts: one called the F0 is embedded in the thylakoid membrane and forms a transmembrane channel that carries out facilitated diffusion of protons across the membrane. The other portion is called F1, and it protrudes on the outer surface of the thylakoid membrane on the side that faces the stroma. The membrane or lamellae of the grana have both PS I and PS II, while the stromal lamellae membranes lack PS II as well as NADP reductase enzyme. RuBisCO has much greater affinity for carbon dioxide and oxygen when they are nearly equal. This binding is competitive. It is the relative concentration of oxygen and carbon dioxide that determines which of the two will bind to the enzyme.

Topic: Biology, Photosynthesis in Higher Plants, NEET
Which statement accurately describes the prediction of the following stages of a reaction when comparing the values of Kc and Qc?

Options:
A The net reaction proceeds in the forward direction when Qc < Kc.
B The net reaction proceeds in the forward direction when Qc > Kc.
C The net reaction proceeds in the reverse direction when Qc < Kc.
D The net reaction proceeds in the reverse direction when Qc = Kc.

The correct answer is:
The net reaction proceeds in the forward direction when Qc < Kc.

Solution:
Correct Option is : (A)
The net reaction proceeds in the forward direction when Qc < Kc.

Topic: Chemistry, Ionic Equilibrium, NEET
Which statement accurately describes the process of pyrolysis of alkanes?

Options:
A Pyrolysis is an endothermic reaction.
B Pyrolysis of alkanes yields higher alkanes.
C Pyrolysis is a free radical reaction that decomposes alkanes into smaller fragments upon heating.
D Pyrolysis of alkanes is an isomerization reaction.

The correct answer is:
Pyrolysis is a free radical reaction that decomposes alkanes into smaller fragments upon heating.

Solution:
Pyrolysis is a process that involves the decomposition of alkanes into smaller fragments, such as lower alkanes and alkenes, by the application of heat. This reaction is believed to proceed through free radical mechanisms.

Topic: Chemistry, Hydrocarbons, NEET
Which statement accurately describes the tendency of alkali and alkaline earth metals to form ionic or covalent compounds?

Options:
A All alkali metals form ionic compounds, while all alkaline earth metals form covalent compounds.
B All alkali metals except Li form ionic compounds, and all alkaline earth metals except Be form ionic compounds.
C All alkali metals form covalent compounds, while all alkaline earth metals form ionic compounds.
D All alkali metals form covalent compounds, while all alkaline earth metals except Be form ionic compounds.

The correct answer is:
All alkali metals except Li form ionic compounds, and all alkaline earth metals except Be form ionic compounds.

Solution:
Correct Option is : (B)
All alkali metals except Li form ionic compounds, and all alkaline earth metals except Be form ionic compounds.

Topic: Chemistry, s Block Elements, NEET
Which statement best describes the electronic configuration of Group 15 elements?

Options:
A Highly unstable with fully filled s and p orbitals
B Partially filled s and p orbitals leading to instability
C Fully filled s orbital and half-filled p orbitals, resulting in extra stability
D Fully filled s orbital and p orbitals

The correct answer is:
Fully filled s orbital and half-filled p orbitals, resulting in extra stability

Solution:
The paragraph highlights that Group 15 elements have a fully filled s orbital and half-filled p orbitals, which contributes to their extra stability.

Topic: Chemistry, p Block Elements (Group 15, 16, 17 & 18), NEET
Which statement best describes the size of the atom in Thomson's model compared to the atomic size in Rutherford's model?

Options:
A Much greater than
B No different from
C Much less than
D It varies depending on the context

The correct answer is:
No different from

Solution:
Correct Option is : (B)
No different from

Topic: Chemistry, Atomic Physics, NEET
Which statement best explains why extracting copper from pyrites is more challenging compared to extracting it from its oxide ore through reduction?

Options:
A Pyrites possess a higher melting point in contrast to copper oxide.
B Copper oxide exhibits superior electrical conductivity compared to pyrites.
C Pyrites contain sulfur, forming a more stable compound with copper.
D Pyrites demonstrate lower reactivity with reducing agents when compared to copper oxide.

The correct answer is:
Pyrites contain sulfur, forming a more stable compound with copper.

Solution:
Correct Option is : (C)
Pyrites contain sulfur, forming a more stable compound with copper.

Topic: Chemistry, General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Metals, NEET
Which statement best explains why the atomic and ionic radii of alkaline earth metals are smaller than those of the corresponding alkali metals in the same periods?

Options:
A Alkaline earth metals have more electrons than alkali metals.
B Alkaline earth metals have a higher nuclear charge than alkali metals.
C Alkaline earth metals have a higher electron affinity than alkali metals.
D Alkaline earth metals have a lower ionization energy than alkali metals.

The correct answer is:
Alkaline earth metals have a higher nuclear charge than alkali metals.

Solution:
The atomic and ionic radii are determined by the balance between the attractive force of the nucleus and the repulsive force between electrons. Alkaline earth metals have more protons in their nuclei compared to alkali metals, leading to a stronger nuclear charge and smaller atomic/ionic radii.

Topic: Chemistry, s Block Elements, NEET