datavorous/entrance-exam-dataset huggingface dataset:
Which one of the following sets of quantum numbers is possible for an electron in a 4f-orbital?

Options:
A

n	l	m	s

4	3	+4	+1/2

B

n	l	m	s

4	3	+1	-1/2

C

n	l	m	s

4	4	+4	-1/2

D

n	l	m	s

4	2	+4	+1/2

The correct answer is:

n	l	m	s

4	3	+1	-1/2

Solution:
Here quantum number set given in option B is correct for a 4f-orbital.
For 4f-orbital, n = 4 and l = 3. When l = 3, the possible values of m range from -3 to +3 including zero. The value of m cannot be greater than 'l'.

Topic: Chemistry, Structure of Atom, NEET
Which one of the following shows a pyramid of biomass in a pond ecosystem?

Options:
A
B
C
D

The correct answer is:

Solution:
In aquatic ecosystem, the pyramid of biomass may be inverted. For example, biomass of zooplanktons is higher than that of phytoplanktons as life span of former is longer and the latter multiply much faster though having shorter life span. A number of generations of phytoplanktons may thus be consumed by single generation of zooplanktons. Biomass of fish may still be larger as fishes are larger in size with longer life span and a number of generations of zooplanktons can be consumed by fishes.

Topic: Biology, Ecosystem, NEET
Which one of the following shows isogamy with non-flagellated gametes?

Options:
A Sargassum
B Ectocarpus
C Ulothrix
D Spirogyra

The correct answer is:
Spirogyra

Solution:
Sexual reproduction varies from isogamy, anisogamy to oogamy. In isogamy, gametes are non-motile as they are non-flagellated like in Spirogyra or motile and flagellated as in Ulothrix. In anisogamy, both the gametes are motile but dissimilar in size as in Eurodina. In oogamy, only male gametes are motile. These motile gametes have two unequal laterally attached flagella like in Volvox.

Topic: Biology, Plant Kingdom, NEET, NEET 2014
Which one of the following shows maximum genetic diversity in India?

Options:
A Rice
B Maize
C Mango
D Groundnut

The correct answer is:
Rice

Solution:
There are an estimated $2,00,000$ varieties of rice in India alone. The diversity of rice in India is one of the richest in the world. Basmati rice has 27 documented varieties grown in India.

Topic: Biology, Biodiversity and its Conservation, NEET, NEET 2011 (Screening)
Which one of the following species acts as both Bronsted acid and base?

Options:
A H2PO2-
B HPO32-
C HPO42-
D All of these

The correct answer is:
HPO42-

Solution:
HPO42-+H2OâH2PO4-+OH-
HPO42-+H2OâPO43-+H3O+
H2PO2- is a conjugate base of H3PO2 (a monobasic acid) and does not give H+, HPO32- is a conjugate base of H2PO3- and does not ionise further, since H3PO3 is a dibasic acid.

Topic: Chemistry, Ionic Equilibrium, NEET
Which one of the following species acts as both Bronsted acid and base?

Options:
A H2PO2-
B HP O 3 −2
C HP O 4 â2
D All of these

The correct answer is:
HP O 4 −2

Solution:
HPO42-+H2OâH2PO4-+OH-
HPO42-+H2OâPO43-+H3O+
H2PO2- is a conjugate base of H3PO2 (a monobasic acid) and does not give H + ,HP O 3 2â is a conjugate base of H2PO3- and does not ionise further. Since, H2PO3 is a dibasic acid, HP O 4 2â can both accept or donate a proton.

Topic: Chemistry, Ionic Equilibrium, NEET
Which one of the following species does not exist under normal conditions ?

Options:
A $\mathrm{Be}_2^{+}$
B $\mathrm{Be}_2$
C $\mathrm{B}_2$
D $\mathrm{Li}_2$

The correct answer is:
$\mathrm{Be}_2$

Solution:
Key Idea Molecules with zero bond order, do not exist.
(a) $\mathrm{Be}_2^{+}(4+4-1=7)=$
$$
\begin{aligned}
& \sigma 1 \mathrm{~s}^2, \sigma 1 \mathrm{~s}^2, \sigma 2 \mathrm{~s}^2, \sigma 2 \mathrm{~s}^1 \\
& \mathrm{BO}=\frac{4-3}{2}=0.5
\end{aligned}
$$
(b) $\mathrm{Be}_2(4+4=8)=\sigma 1 \mathrm{~s}^2, \sigma 1 \mathrm{~s}^2, \sigma 2 \mathrm{~s}^2, \sigma 2 \mathrm{~s}^2$
$$
\mathrm{BO}=\frac{4-4}{2}=0
$$
(c) $\mathrm{B}_2(5+5=10)$
$$
\begin{gathered}
=\sigma 1 \mathrm{~s}^2, \sigma 1 \mathrm{~s}^2, \sigma 2 \mathrm{~s}^2, \sigma 2 \mathrm{~s}^2, \pi 2 p_{\mathrm{x}}^1 \approx \pi 2 \mathrm{p}_{\mathrm{y}}^1 \\
\mathrm{BO}=\frac{6-4}{2}=1
\end{gathered}
$$
(d)
$$
\begin{aligned}
& \operatorname{Li}_2(3+3=6) \\
& =\sigma 1 \mathrm{~s}^2, \sigma 1 \mathrm{~s}^2, \sigma 2 \mathrm{~s}^2 \\
& =\frac{4-2}{2}=1
\end{aligned}
$$
$\mathrm{BO}=\frac{4-2}{2}=1$
Thus, $\mathrm{Be}_2$ does not exist under normal conditions.

Topic: Chemistry, s Block Elements, NEET, NEET 2010 (Screening)
Which one of the following species does not exist under normal conditions?

Options:
A Li2
B Be2+
C Be2
D B2

The correct answer is:
Be2

Solution:
Be2â
Ï1s2<Ï*1s2<Ï2s2<Ï*2s2
Bond order =4-42=0
Be2 does not exist as for it bond order is zero.

Topic: Chemistry, Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure, NEET
Which one of the following statement is CORRECT?

Options:
A Legumes fix nitrogen only through specialized bacteria that live in their leaves.
B Legumes alone are capable of fixing nitrogen.
C Legumes fix nitrogen only through the specialized bacteria that live in their roots.
D Legumes fix nitrogen independently of the specialized bacteria that live in their roots.

The correct answer is:
Legumes fix nitrogen only through the specialized bacteria that live in their roots.

Solution:
Nitrogen-fixing bacteria like Rhizobium form a symbiotic relationship with the leguminous plants in their roots. These microbes form root nodules in the legumes through which they fix nitrogen. The root nodule helps creating zero-oxygen environment to conduct nitrogen fixation process. The bacteria have the enzyme nitrogenase that helps in the process of fixing nitrogen.

Topic: Biology, Mineral Nutrition, NEET
Which one of the following statement is correct?

Options:
A A mineral cannot be an ore
B An ore cannot be a mineral
C All minerals are ores
D All ores are minerals

The correct answer is:
All ores are minerals

Solution:
All minerals are not suitable for the extraction of metals commercially. Thus all ores are minerals, but all minerals are not ores.

Topic: Chemistry, General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Metals, NEET
Which one of the following statement is correct?

Options:
A There is no evidence of the existence of gills during embryogenesis of mammals
B all plant and animal cells are totipotent
C ontogeny repeals phylogeny
D stem cells arc specialized cells.

The correct answer is:
ontogeny repeals phylogeny

Solution:
Biogenetic law states that ontogeny (development of embryo) is the recapitulation of phylogeny (ancestral sequence). It was given by E. Haeckel. For example, both chick and human embryos go through a stage where they have slits and arches in their necks that are identical to the gill slits and gill arches of fish. This observation supports the idea that chicks and humans share a common ancestor with fish.
Related Theory
Totipotent cells can give rise to both the placenta and the embryo. As the embryo grows, pluripotent cells develop into specialized, multipotent stem cells. Approximately four days after fertilization and after several cycles of cell division, these totipotent cells begin to specialize. The inner cell mass, the source of embryonic stem cells. becomes pluripotent. (Ref. to Fig. 25.1)

Topic: Biology, Evolution, NEET, NEET 2007
Which one of the following statement is correct?

Options:
A Hard outer layer of pollen is called intine
B Sporogenous tissue is haploid
C Endothecium produces the microspores
D Tapetum nourishes the developing pollen

The correct answer is:
Tapetum nourishes the developing pollen

Solution:
Tapetum is the innermost layer of microsporangium. It nourishes the pollen grains. The inner wall of pollen grain is called intine. Endothecium is the wall around the microsporangium, which provide protection and help in dehiscence of anther to release the pollen. Sporogenous tissue is diploid. It undergoes meiotic division to form microspore tetrads.

Topic: Biology, Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants, NEET, NEET 2013 (All India)
Which one of the following statement is correct?

Options:
A Kidney transplantation is the ultimate method at the stage where drugs or dialysis do not provide any relief.
B Close relatives are often considered as kidney donors to minimise the risk of rejection.
C Cyclosporin A is used as immunosuppressive agent in kidney transplant patient.
D All of these

The correct answer is:
All of these

Solution:
Kidney transplantation involves taking a kidney from the body of a person and surgical implantation into the body of another person with a functionally disabled kidney. The transplanted kidney performs the functions normally in the receiver body. The kidney transplantation is not a cure for renal (kidney) failure, it allows patients to live a more 'normal' life than that experience on dialysis. Patients with a well-functioning transplant have a greater sense of well being and are able to enjoy a lifestyle free of dialysis treatments, although they must continue with their transplant medications. A transplant may help in the improvement of anaemia, bone disease and body growth in children. It also offers freedom from previous dietary and/or fluid restrictions and from restrictions on time and mobility

Topic: Biology, Excretory Products and their Elimination, NEET
Which one of the following statement is false?

Options:
A Pure Si doped with trivalent impurities gives a p-type semiconductor
B Majority carriers in a n-type semiconductor are holes
C Minority carriers in a p-type semiconductor are electrons
D The resistance of intrinsic semiconductor decreases with increase of temperature

The correct answer is:
Majority carriers in a n-type semiconductor are holes

Solution:
p-type semiconductor are obtained by adding a small amount of trivalent impurity to a pure sample of semiconductor (Ge).
Majority charge carriers-holes
Minority charge carriers-electrons
n-type semiconductor are obtained by adding a small amount of pentavalent impurity to a pure sample of semiconductor $(\mathrm{Ge})$.
Majority charge carriers-electrons
The resistance of intrinsic semiconductors decreases with increase of temperature.

Topic: Physics, Semiconductors, NEET, NEET 2010 (Screening)
Which one of the following statement is incorrect regarding diffusion pressure deficit (DPD)?

Options:
A DPD is directly proportional to the solute concentration of the system.
B DPD of fully turgid cell becomes zero
C DPD for a plasmolysed cell is highest
D DPD of flaccid cell is always more than osmotic pressure.

The correct answer is:
DPD is directly proportional to the solute concentration of the system.

Solution:
DPD is the difference in diffusion pressure of a solution to its pure solvent. On addition of solute DPD increases. DPD = OP â TP. For a flaccid cell TP is zero thus DPD is equal to OP. For a plasmolysed cell TP is negative thus DPD is maximum and is equal to OP + TP.

Topic: Biology, Transport in Plants, NEET
Which one of the following statement is not correct about once-a-week pill for females?

Options:
A It is Saheli oral contraceptive pills for females developed by scientists of CDRI, Lucknow.
B It is newly discovered contraceptive pills to be taken orally having progesterone-estrogen hormone combination.
C It is with very few side effects and having high contraceptive value.
D It prevents Implantation by changing the nature of endometrium of uterus.

The correct answer is:
It is newly discovered contraceptive pills to be taken orally having progesterone-estrogen hormone combination.

Solution:
Saheli is a newly discovered oral contraceptive pill for females. It is developed by scientists of CDRI, Lucknow. It is a non-steroidal pill which contain centchroman. It changes the nature of endometrium, so it prevents implantation. It is also called once-a-week pill, as there is no need to take this pill daily.

Topic: Biology, Reproductive Health, NEET
Which one of the following statement is not true?

Options:
A pH of drinking water should be between 5.5-9.5
B Concentration of DO below 6 ppm is good for the growth of fish
C Clean water would have a BOD value of less than 5 ppm
D Oxides of sulphur, nitrogen and carbon, are the most wider spread air pollutant

The correct answer is:
Concentration of DO below 6 ppm is good for the growth of fish

Solution:
Fish dies in water bodies polluted by sewage due to decreases in dissolved oxygen (D.O.).

Topic: Chemistry, Environmental Chemistry, NEET
Which one of the following statement is not true?

Options:
A Among halide ions, iodide is the most powerful reducing agent
B Fluorine is the only halogen that does not show a variable oxidation state
C $\mathrm{HOCl}$ is a stronger acid that $\mathrm{HOBr}$
D $\mathrm{HF}$ is a stronger acid than $\mathrm{HCl}$

The correct answer is:
$\mathrm{HF}$ is a stronger acid than $\mathrm{HCl}$

Solution:
$\mathrm{HCl}$ is a stronger acid than $\mathrm{HF}$ because fluorine is more electronegative than chlorine. Hence, it does not lose $\mathrm{H}^{+}$ easily.
Caution
$H F$ is a weak acid because the bond between Hydrogen and Fluorine is so short. It is more difficult for the bond to be broken, so it will not completely dissociate in water.

Topic: Chemistry, Ionic Equilibrium, NEET, NEET 2003
Which one of the following statement is not true regarding gel electrophoresis technique?

Options:
A The separated DNA fragments are stained by using ethidium bromide.
B The presence of chromogenic substrate gives blue coloured DNA bands on the gel.
C Bright orange coloured bands of DNA can be observed in the gel when exposed to UV light.
D The process of extraction of separated DNA strands from gel is called elution.

The correct answer is:
The presence of chromogenic substrate gives blue coloured DNA bands on the gel.

Solution:
Isolation of the DNA (or gene of interest) followed by the separation of digested fragment of the DNA is one of the crucial steps of Recombinant DNA Technology. The separation is based on the technique called gel electrophoresis.

Gel electrophoresis is a method for separation and analysis of macromolecules (DNA, RNA and proteins) and their fragments, based on their size and charge.

The separated DNA segments are stained with ethidium bromide for visualisation after exposure to UV light in gel electrophoresis. Bright orange coloured bands of DNA can be observed in the gel when exposed to UV light. The separated bands of DNA are cut out from the agarose gel and extracted from the gel piece. This step is called elution. Chromogenic substance are used as a selectable marker.

Topic: Biology, Biotechnology - Principles and Processes, NEET, NEET 2022 (Phase 1)
Which one of the following statement is not true?

Options:
A Oxides of sulphur, nitrogen and carbon are the most widespread air pollutants
B pH of drinking water should be between 5.5 – 9.5
C Concentration of DO below 6 ppm is good for the growth of fish
D Clean water would have a BOD value of less than 5 ppm

The correct answer is:
Concentration of DO below 6 ppm is good for the growth of fish

Solution:
Fish dies in water bodies polluted by sewage or other pollutants due to decrease in dissolved oxygen (D.O.) value below 6 ppm. Rest of the other statements are correct.

Topic: Chemistry, Environmental Chemistry, NEET
Which one of the following statement is true regarding the digestion and absorption of food in humans?

Options:
A

About 60% of starch is hydrolysed by salivary amylase in our mouth.

B

Chylomicrons are small lipoprotein particles that are transported from the intestine into blood capillaries.

C

Fructose and amino acids are absorbed through intestinal mucosa with the help of carrier ions like Na+.

D

Oxyntic cells in our stomach secrete the proenzyme pepsinogen.

The correct answer is:

Fructose and amino acids are absorbed through intestinal mucosa with the help of carrier ions like Na+.

Solution:
Fructose and amino acids are absorbed through intestinal mucosa with the help of carrier ions like Na+. Carbohydrates are absorbed as monosaccharides (simple sugars such as glucose, fructose, and galactose that cannot be further broken down by hydrolysis).

Topic: Biology, Digestion and Absorption, NEET
Which one of the following statement is wrong, in the context of X-rays generated from X-ray tube?

Options:
A Wavelength of characteristic X-rays decreases when the atomic number of the target increases
B Cut-off wavelength of the continuous X-rays depends on the atomic number of the target
C Intensity of the characteristic X-rays depends on the electrical power given to the X-ray tube
D Cut-off wavelength of the continuous X-rays depends on the energy of the electrons in X-ray tube

The correct answer is:
Cut-off wavelength of the continuous X-rays depends on the atomic number of the target

Solution:
Cut-off wavelength depends on the applied voltage not on the atomic number of the target. Characteristic wavelengths depends on the atomic number of target.

Topic: Physics, Electromagnetic Waves, NEET
Which one of the following statements about certain given animals is correct?

Options:
A Round worms (Aschelminthes) are pseudocoelomates
B Molluscs are acoelomates
C Insects are pseudocoelomates
D Flat worms (Platyhelminthes) are coelomates

The correct answer is:
Round worms (Aschelminthes) are pseudocoelomates

Solution:
Round worms (phylum-Aschelminthes) are pseudocoelomates, false coelom is derived from embryonic blastocoel.
Flat worms (phylum-Platyhelminthes) are acoelomate animals.
Molluscs and insects (phylum-Arthropoda) are coelomate animals.

Topic: Biology, Animal Kingdom, NEET, NEET 2010 (Screening)
Which one of the following statements about enzymes is true?

1. Enzymes are proteins whose shape does not help in their functions.

2. Enzymes lower the reaction rate by lowering the activation energy.

3. Enzymes do not show a high specificity during biological reactions.

4. Enzyme activity is affected by the change in temperature and pH.

Options:
A Only 2
B Only 1
C Only 3
D Only 4

The correct answer is:
Only 4

Solution:
Enzymes are proteins whose three-dimensional shape is key to their functions. Enzymes are highly specific in their reactions by having an active site to bind to their substrates. Enzymes are biocatalysts which increase the rate of the reaction by lowering down the activation energy of the reaction at the cellular level. Enzymes are highly sensitive to the changes in temperature and pH. Higher temperatures and low pH degrades the enzymes.

Topic: Chemistry, Biomolecules, NEET
Which one of the following statements about histones is wrong?

Options:
A Histones are organized to form a unit of 8 molecules.
B The pH of histones is slightly acidic.
C Histones are rich in amino acids - Lysine and Arginine.
D Histones carry positive charge in the side chain.

The correct answer is:
The pH of histones is slightly acidic.

Solution:
Histones are rich in the basic amino acids residues like lysine and arginine having positively charged side chains. Four of them occur in pairs to produce histone octamer or nu-body (two copies of each).

Topic: Biology, Molecular Basis of Inheritance, NEET, NEET 2021
Which one of the following statements about human sperm is correct?

Options:
A Acrosome has a conical pointed structure used for piercing and penetrating the egg, resulting in fertilization
B The sperm lysins in the acrosome dissolve the egg envelope facilitating fertilization
C Acrosome serves as a sensory structure leading the sperm towards the ovum
D Acrosome serves no particular function

The correct answer is:
The sperm lysins in the acrosome dissolve the egg envelope facilitating fertilization

Solution:
Penetration of human sperm is a chemical mechanism. In this, acrosome of sperm undergoes acrosomal reaction and releases certain sperm lysins, which dissolve the egg envelope locally and make the path for the penetration of sperm. Sperm lysins are acidic proteins. These sperm lysins contain a lytic enzyme hyaluronidase that dissolves the hyaluronic acid polymers in the intercellular spaces, which holds the granulosa cells of corona radiata together corona penetrating enzyme and acrosin.

Topic: Biology, Human Reproduction, NEET, NEET 2010 (Screening)
Which one of the following statements about human sperm is correct?

Options:
A Acrosome has a conical pointed structure used for piercing and penetrating the egg, resulting in fertilization.
B Acrosome serves as a sensory structure leading the sperm towards the ovum.
C Acrosome serves no particular function.
D The sperm lysins in the acrosome dissolve the egg envelope facilitating fertilization.

The correct answer is:
The sperm lysins in the acrosome dissolve the egg envelope facilitating fertilization.

Solution:
The acrosome is the cap-like structure on the front end of a spermatozoon. It breaks down just before fertilization (the acrosome reaction), releasing a number of hydrolytic enzymes, also called sperm lysins that assist penetration between the follicle cells that surround the ovum, thus facilitating fertilization. Failure of the acrosome reaction is a cause of male infertility.

Topic: Biology, Human Reproduction, NEET
Which one of the following statements about morula in humans is correct?

Options:
A It has almost equal quantity of cytoplasm as an uncleaved zygote but much more DNA.
B It has far less cytoplasm as well as less DNA than in an uncleaved zygote.
C It has more or less equal quantity of cytoplasm and DNA as in uncleaved zygote.
D It has more cytoplasm and more DNA than an uncleaved zygote.

The correct answer is:
It has almost equal quantity of cytoplasm as an uncleaved zygote but much more DNA.

Solution:
Morula is a solid ball contained within zona pellucida. It has almost equal quantity of cytoplasm as an uncleaved zygote but has much more DNA.

Topic: Biology, Human Reproduction, NEET
Which one of the following statements about morula in humans is correct?

Options:
A It has almost equal quantity of cytoplasm as an uncleaved zygote but much more DNA
B It has far less cytoplasm as well as less DNA than in an uncleaved zygote
C It has more or less equal quantity of cytoplasm and DNA as in uncleaved zygote
D It has more cytoplasm and more DNA than an uncleaved zygote

The correct answer is:
It has almost equal quantity of cytoplasm as an uncleaved zygote but much more DNA

Solution:
At about 30 to 36 hours of fertilisation, the zygote moves through the isthmus of oviduct to uterus and divides mitotically by a process called cleavage which results into two smaller cells called blastomeres. A second cleavage occurs which results in the formation of 4 cells. Cleavage continues to occur and results in a solid ball of cells i.e. morula having 16 cells (occasionally 32). Since the divisions are mitotic, therefore the size of morula is same as that of zygote because with each cleavage division, number of cells increases but their size decreases. Due to mitotic divisions, content of cytoplasm of morula is same as that of zygote but DNA content is increased as each cell has its own DNA.
So, the correct answer is 'It has almost equal quantity of cytoplasm as an uncleaved zygote but much more DNA'.

Topic: Biology, Human Reproduction, NEET, NEET 2010 (Screening)
Which one of the following statements about morula in humans is correct?

Options:
A It has almost equal quantity of cytoplasm as an uncleaved zygote but much more DNA.
B It has far less cytoplasm as well as less DNA than in an uncleaved zygote.
C It has more or less equal quantity of cytoplasm and DNA as in uncleaved zygote.
D It has more cytoplasm and more DNA than an uncleaved zygote.

The correct answer is:
It has almost equal quantity of cytoplasm as an uncleaved zygote but much more DNA.

Solution:
Cleavage divisions are mitotic division, in which the single-celled zygote is connected into a multicellular morula. But during cleavage division, there is no growth of resultant daughter cell/blastomeres. So, the DNA content will increase, but there is no increase or insignificant increase in the amount of protoplasm.

Topic: Biology, Human Reproduction, NEET