datavorous/entrance-exam-dataset huggingface dataset:
Which of the following crystal systems has 4 types of variation in their lattice system?

Options:
A Tetragonal
B Orthorhombic
C Rhombohedral
D Triclinic

The correct answer is:
Orthorhombic

Solution:
Correct Option is : 2
Orthorhombic

Topic: Chemistry, Solid State, NEET
Which of the following curves corresponds to maximum growth?

Options:
A Logistic curve
B Exponential curve
C Lag curve
D Stationary phase

The correct answer is:
Logistic curve

Solution:
Most living organism under natural condition show sigmoid curve, in which there is initial slow growth called lag phase, followed by log phase or exponential phase and then stationary phase is observed.

Topic: Biology, Plant - Growth and Development, NEET
Which of the following curves denote the relationship between a particle's momentum and the associated de-Broglie wavelength?

Options:
A
B
C
D

The correct answer is:

Solution:
The de-Broglie wavelength of a particle is

λ=hp, where h is the Planck's constant and p is the momentum of the particle.

So the curve will be a rectangular hyperbola

Topic: Physics, Atomic Physics, NEET
Which of the following curves is correct?

Options:
A
B
C
D none of these

The correct answer is:

Solution:
The frequency Î½ of the characteristic X-ray of an element is related to its atomic number Z by Î½=aZ-b.
Î½=aZ-ab
Comparing this with y=mx+c where a and b are constants, we deduce that the graph will be a straight line with positive slope and negative intercept.

Topic: Physics, Atomic Physics, NEET
Which of the following D-block elements has the highest atomic radius?

Options:
A Sc
B Hf
C La
D Y

The correct answer is:
La

Solution:
Correct Option is : 3
La

Topic: Chemistry, d and f Block Elements, NEET
Which of the following d-block elements has the highest enthalpy of atomisation?

Options:
A Sc
B Cr
C V
D Fe

The correct answer is:
V

Solution:
Correct Option is : 3
V

Topic: Chemistry, d and f Block Elements, NEET
Which of the following d-block elements has the highest enthalpy of atomisation?

Options:
A Ta
B W
C Re
D Os

The correct answer is:
W

Solution:
Correct Option is : 2
W

Topic: Chemistry, d and f Block Elements, NEET
Which of the following d-block elements may not be regarded as the transition elements?

Options:
A Sc
B Zn
C Fe
D V

The correct answer is:
Zn

Solution:
Correct Option is : (B)
Zn

Topic: Chemistry, d and f Block Elements, NEET
Which of the following d-block ions show the maximum value of the magnetic moment(Bohr's moment)?

Options:
A Mn2+
B Fe2+
C Co2+
D Ni2+

The correct answer is:
Mn2+

Solution:
Mn2+=3d54s0

Fe2+=3d64s0

Co2+=3d74s0

Ni2+=3d84s0

Topic: Chemistry, Structure of Atom, NEET
Which of the following depicts the correct pathway of transport of sperms?

Options:
A Rete testis → Efferent ductules → Epididymis → Vas deferens
B Rete testis â Epididymis â Efferent ductules â Vas deferens
C Rete testis → Vas deferens → Efferent ductules → Epididymis
D Efferent ductules â Rete testis â Vas deferens â Epididymis

The correct answer is:
Rete testis → Efferent ductules → Epididymis → Vas deferens

Solution:
The pathway of transport of sperms in the human male is:

Sperm is manufactured in testes. The epididymis stores the immature sperms received from testes for several days. After ejaculation, sperm is expelled from the epididymis into the deferent duct. The sperm then travels through the deferent duct into the pelvic cavity to the prostate. The vas deferens are connected to the seminal vesicle to form the ejaculatory duct, which passes through the prostate and empties into the urethra.

Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Vas deferens → Ejaculatory duct → Urethra → Urethral meatus

Topic: Biology, Human Reproduction, NEET, NEET 2016 (Phase 2)
Which of the following describes out-crossing?

Options:
A Mating of more closely related individuals within the same breed for 4- 6 generations.
B This is the practice of mating of animals within the same breed, but having no common ancestors on either side of their pedigree up to 4-6 generations.
C Superior males of one breed are mated with superior females of another breed (of same species).
D Male and female animals of two different species are mated.

The correct answer is:
This is the practice of mating of animals within the same breed, but having no common ancestors on either side of their pedigree up to 4-6 generations.

Solution:
Types of Out-breeding:
A. Out-crossing - Breeding between the unrelated animals, which may be of the same breed but having no common ancestors on either side of their pedigree for 4-6 generations. The offspring of such a mating is known as anout-cross.
B. Cross-breeding - Breeding of animals of different breeds of the same species.
Example: Hisardale is a new breed of sheep developed in Punjab by crossing Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams.
C. Interspecific hybridization - Breeding of animals of different species.
Example: Mule

Topic: Biology, Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production, NEET
Which of the following describes the elution process correctly for genetic engineering that follows gel electrophoresis?

Options:
A The separated band from DNAis exposed to UV radiations.
B The separated band from DNA are cut out from the gel and extracted from the gel piece
C Separation of the recombinant protein from recombinant cell.
D The separated band from DNA fragment can be visualized by ethidium bromide.

The correct answer is:
The separated band from DNA are cut out from the gel and extracted from the gel piece

Solution:
After the completion of gel electrophoresis, the DNA sequence needs to amplify by PCR. To obtain the DNA sequence from the gel, the separated bands are cut and then the sequence is extracted. This process is called as elution.

Topic: Biology, Biotechnology - Principles and Processes, NEET
Which of the following describes the given graph

Options:
A Endothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme
B Exothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in the absence of enzyme
C Endothermic reaction with energy A in absence of enzyme and B in presence of enzyme
D Exothermic reaction with energy A in absence of enzyme and B in presence of enzyme

The correct answer is:
Exothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in the absence of enzyme

Solution:
The potential energy of the substrate is more than the product. So it is an exothermic reaction. 'A' represents the activation energy in the presence of enzyme while 'B' in the absence of enzyme i.e., enzyme lowers down the activation energy.

Topic: Biology, Biomolecules (B), NEET, NEET 2016 (Phase 2)
Which of the following describes the ploidy level of embryo sac or female gametophyte before fertilization?

Options:
A Egg apparatus is haploid
B Polar nuclei are diploid
C Antipodal cell are polyploid
D Both egg apparatus and antipodal cells are haploid.

The correct answer is:
Both egg apparatus and antipodal cells are haploid.

Solution:
Typical angiosperm embryo sac (8-nucleated, 7-celled) consists of:
1. Egg apparatus (3 cells = 2 synergids + 1 egg cell): Towards the micropylar end.
2. Antipodals (3 cells): Towards the chalazal end.
3. Large central cell (1 cell): It possesses 2 polar nuclei.
Embryo sac formed by haploid megaspore, therefore, before fertilization, has ploidy level as haploid.

Topic: Biology, Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants, NEET
Which of the following describes the position of micropyle and chalaza in an orthotropous ovule?

Options:
A Straight-line of a funiculus
B Parallel to funiculus
C At right angles to funiculus
D Oblique to funiculus

The correct answer is:
Straight-line of a funiculus

Solution:
The orthotropous ovule is an erect ovule in which the funicle, hilum, chalaza, and micropyle lie in one single line. This is commonly seen in Polygonum.

Topic: Biology, Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants, NEET
Which of the following describes the primary valences in coordination compounds?

Options:
A Satisfied by neutral molecules
B Non-ionizable and satisfied by negative ions
C Ionizable and satisfied by negative ions
D Always equal to the coordination number

The correct answer is:
Ionizable and satisfied by negative ions

Solution:
Primary valences in coordination compounds, according to Werner's theory, are ionizable and satisfied by negative ions.

Topic: Chemistry, Coordination Compounds, NEET
Which of the following description of eye colour is true for fruit fly?

Options:
A White eye colour is dominant over red eye colour and its gene is located on autosome.
B Red eye colour is dominant over white eye colour and its gene is located on autosome.
C White eye colour is dominant over red eye colour and its gene is located on the X chromosome.
D Red eye colour is dominant over white eye colour and its gene is located on the X chromosome.

The correct answer is:
Red eye colour is dominant over white eye colour and its gene is located on the X chromosome.

Solution:
In Drosophila melanogaster, the genes for eye colour as well as body colour is located on X chromosomes. Red-eye colour is dominant while white eye colour is recessive. Brown body colour is dominant while yellow body colour is recessive. These two genes were used by Morgan to study linkage

Topic: Biology, Principles of Inheritance and Variation, NEET
Which of the following determines the diffusion of water from one cell to another?

Options:
A Diffusion pressure deficit
B Hydrostatic pressure
C Osmotic pressure
D Wall pressure

The correct answer is:
Diffusion pressure deficit

Solution:
The diffusion of water from one cell to another is a passive process that doesn't require any ATP.DPD is a diffusion pressure deficit and it was described as suction pressure by Renner in 1915. The DPD is the amount by which the diffusion pressure of water solvent in a solution is lower than that of pure solvent or water and they oppose the diffusion. Water movement occurs from lower DPD to higher DPD.

Topic: Biology, Transport in Plants, NEET
Which of the following diatomic molecular species has only π bonds according to Molecular Orbital Theory?

Options:
A O2
B N2
C C2
D Be2

The correct answer is:
C2

Solution:
C2=12; σ1s2<σ*1s2<σ2s2<σ*2s2<π2px2=π2py2

So according to MOT, the orbitals involved in bonding are only pie orbital.

Hence C2 contains only π bonds.

Topic: Chemistry, Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure, NEET, NEET 2019 (All India)
Which of the following dimensionless quantities is constructed from the charged particle's charge 'e', the electric field 'E', and the mass 'm' while moving in an electric field 'E' and a magnetic field 'B'?

Options:
A eB/m
B eE/B
C eE/m
D mE/e

The correct answer is:
eB/m

Solution:
Correct Option is : (A)
eB/m

Topic: Chemistry, Magnetic Effects of Current, NEET
Which of the following disaccharides is NOT composed of glucose units?

Options:
A Maltose
B Sucrose
C Lactose
D Fructose

The correct answer is:
Fructose

Solution:
Maltose, sucrose, and lactose are composed of glucose units, while fructose is not.

Topic: Chemistry, Biomolecules, NEET
Which of the following disease can be detected by Widal test?

Options:
A Typhoid
B AIDS
C Malaria
D Tuberculosis

The correct answer is:
Typhoid

Solution:
Typhoid is detected by Widal test, malaria is detected by blood smear, tuberculosis is detected by Mantoux tuberculin skin test, and AIDS is detected by PCR, ELISA, and Western Blotting techniques. Widal test indicates the presence of Salmonella antigen - 'H' and '0' in the patient's sera.

Topic: Biology, Human Health and Diseases, NEET
Which of the following disease is called as protein energy malnutrition?

Options:
A Marasmus
B Kwashiorkar
C Gaucher'sdisease
D Both A and B

The correct answer is:
Both A and B

Solution:
Dietry deficiencies of proteins and total food calories (carbohydrates) are widespread in many underdeveloped countries. It is commonly called protein-energy malnutrition (PEM) which causes Marasmus and Kwashiorkar in infants and children.

Topic: Biology, Digestion and Absorption, NEET
Which of the following disease is called kusht rog?

Options:
A Whooping cough
B Plague
C Diphtheria
D Leprosy

The correct answer is:
Leprosy

Solution:
Antibiotics have greatly improved our capacity to treat deadly diseases such as plague, whooping cough (kali khansi), diphtheria (gal ghotu), and leprosy (kusht rog).

Topic: Biology, Microbes in Human Welfare, NEET
Which of the following disease is caused by a virus and transmitted through a bite of infected mosquito?

Options:
A Plague
B Filariasis
C Dengue
D Ascariasis

The correct answer is:
Dengue

Solution:
Dengue is a viral infection caused by the Flavivirus group. Aedes mosquitoes are vectors that carry these viruses. Plague is caused by the bacteria Yersinia pestis. Roundworms, Ascaris lumbricoides cause ascariasis. Filariasis is caused by filarial worm Wuchereria bancrofti.

Topic: Biology, Human Health and Diseases, NEET
Which of the following disease is characterized by constipation, abdominal pain, cramps, stool with access mucus and blood clots?

Options:
A Amoebiasis
B Kala azar
C Filariasis
D Ringworm

The correct answer is:
Amoebiasis

Solution:
Amoebiasis (Amoebic dysentery):
Causative organism: Entamoeba histolytica (a protozoan parasite in the large intestine)
Mode of infection: Contamination of food and water by Houseflies (carrying the parasite mechanically from the faeces of an infected person to food).
Sign and symptoms: Abdominal pain and cramps, constipation, stools with excess mucous and blood clots.

Topic: Biology, Human Health and Diseases, NEET
Which of the following disease is characterized by damage to alveolar sac and is treated by the protein α-1 antitrypsin?

Options:
A Cancer
B Rhematoid arthritis
C Emphysema
D ADA deficiency disease in children

The correct answer is:
Emphysema

Solution:
Emphysema is a chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are damaged due to which respiratory surface is decreased. One of the major causes of this is cigarette smoking.
GMO can be created by the introduction of the portion of DNA (or gene) which codes for a particular product such as human protein, Î±-1 antitrypsin. This protein is used to treat emphysema a respiratory disorder.

Topic: Biology, Breathing and Exchange of Gases, NEET
Which of the following disease is the result of the reflex action of medulla oblongata?

Options:
A Indigestion
B Vomiting
C Constipation
D Diarrhoea

The correct answer is:
Vomiting

Solution:
It is the ejection of stomach contents through the mouth. This reflex action is controlled by the vomiting centre in the medulla. A feeling of nausea precedes vomiting.

Topic: Biology, Digestion and Absorption, NEET
Which of the following diseases are a mismatch?

Options:
A Bacteria: Black rot of crucifers and late blight of potato
B Fungi: Brown rust of wheat and red rot of sugarcane
C Virus: Tobacco mosaic and turnip mosaic
D Both (A) and (B)

The correct answer is:
Bacteria: Black rot of crucifers and late blight of potato

Solution:
Some of the diseases caused by fungi are rusts, e.g., brown rust of wheat, red rot of sugarcane, and late blight of potato; by bacteria– black rot of crucifers; and by viruses – tobacco mosaic, turnip mosaic, etc.

Topic: Biology, Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production, NEET
Which of the following diseases in plants is different from the others?

Options:
A Mosaic formation
B Leaf rolling and curling
C Yellowing and vein clearing
D Potato spindle tuber disease

The correct answer is:
Potato spindle tuber disease

Solution:
In plants, the symptoms caused by virus can be mosaic formation, leaf rolling and curling, yellowing and vein clearing, dwarfing and stunted growth. The viruses are non-cellular organisms that are characterized by having an inert crystalline structure outside the living cell. In addition to proteins viruses also contain genetic material, that could be either RNA or DNA. In general, viruses that infect plants have single stranded RNA. Viroid is a new infectious agent that is smaller than viruses and causes potato spindle tuber disease. It was found to be a free RNA; it lacked the protein coat that is found in viruses, hence the name viroid. The RNA of the viroid was of low molecular weight

Topic: Biology, Biological Classification, NEET
Which of the following diseases is an autoimmune disorder?

Options:
A Myasthenia gravis
B Arthritis
C Osteoporosis
D Gout

The correct answer is:
Myasthenia gravis

Solution:
Myasthenia gravis is a chronic autoimmune neuromuscular disorder that causes weakness in the skeletal muscles. This is responsible for breathing and moving parts of the body including the arms and legs.

Topic: Biology, Human Health and Diseases, NEET, NEET 2019 (Odisha)
Which of the following diseases is not caused by bacteria?

Options:
A Pneumonia
B Dysentery
C Plague
D Common Cold

The correct answer is:
Common Cold

Solution:
Many viruses also cause diseases in human beings. Rhino viruses represent one such group of viruses which cause one of the most infectious human ailments – the common cold.

Topic: Biology, Human Health and Diseases, NEET
Which of the following disorder is an outcome of irregularities in metabolism of the nitrogenous waste?

Options:
A Osteoporosis
B Gouty arthritis
C Osteroarthritis
D Rheumatoid arthritis

The correct answer is:
Gouty arthritis

Solution:
Uric acid, a normal waste product of nucleic acid metabolism gets excreted normally through urine. When over-concentration in blood, it gets deposited in the form of crystals in joints causing gouty arthritis.

Topic: Biology, Locomotion and Movement, NEET
Which of the following disorders can't be studied by pedigree analysis?

Options:
A Cystic fibrosis
B Down Syndrome
C Sickle cell anemia
D Phenylketonuria

The correct answer is:
Down Syndrome

Solution:
Genetic disorders are of two types:
(a) Mendelian disorders like hemophilia, phenylketonuria, sickle-cell anaemia, cystic fibrosis, etc. that can be studied by pedigree analysis.
(b) Chromosomal disorders like Down Syndrome, Klinefelter syndrome, Turner syndrome, etc. cannot be studied by pedigree analysis.

Topic: Biology, Principles of Inheritance and Variation, NEET
Which of the following disorders is an example of a sex:linked recessive disorder?

Options:
A Sickle cell anaemia
B Phenylketonuria
C Cystic fibrosis
D Colour blindness

The correct answer is:
Colour blindness

Solution:
Colour blindness is a sex:linked recessive disorder, occurring due to mutation in genes present on the X chromosome.

Topic: Biology, Principles of Inheritance and Variation, NEET
Which of the following disorders show a karyotype of 47 chromosomes (XXY)?

Options:
A Turner's Syndrome
B Down's Syndrome
C Trisomy 21
D Klinefelter's Syndrome

The correct answer is:
Klinefelter's Syndrome

Solution:
Klinefelter's syndrome is caused by the presence of an additional copy of X-chromosome resulting in a karyotype of 47, XXY. Such an individual has overall masculine development; however, the feminine development (development of breast, i.e., gynaecomastia) is also expressed. Such individuals are sterile.

Topic: Biology, Principles of Inheritance and Variation, NEET
Which of the following does not apply to bonding in metals ?

Options:
A Non-directional bonds
B Mobility of valence electrons
C Delocalisation of electrons
D Highly directed bonds

The correct answer is:
Highly directed bonds

Solution:
Metallic bonding is not directional like covalent bonding, it is like ionic bonding in the sense that the force of attraction between the positive metal ions and the mobile electrons acts in every direction about the fixed (immobile) metal ions of the metal crystal lattice, but in ionic lattices none of the ions is mobile - a big difference between a metal bond and an ionic bond.
The outer electrons (â) from the original metal atoms are free to move around between the positive metal ions formed (+).
These 'free' or 'delocalised' electrons from the outer shell of the metal atoms are the 'electronic glue' holding the particles together.There is a strong electrical force of attraction between these free electrons (mobile electrons or 'sea' of delocalised electrons) (â) and the 'immobile' positive metal ions (+) that form the giant lattice and this is the metallic bond.

Topic: Chemistry, Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure, NEET
Which of the following does not belong to the Palaeozoic era?

Options:
A Silurian
B Cretaceous
C Devonian
D Carboniferous

The correct answer is:
Cretaceous

Solution:
According to the geological time scale, the Paleozoic era is divided into 6 periods: Cambrian, Ordovician, Silurian, Devonian, Carboniferous and Permian. The Paleozoic era is followed by the Mesozoic era which is divided into 3 periods: Triassic, Jurassic and Cretaceous.

Topic: Biology, Evolution, NEET
Which of the following does not belong to the same taxonomic Family?

Options:
A Solanum nigrum
B Petunia axillaris
C Datura innoxia
D Pisum sativum

The correct answer is:
Pisum sativum

Solution:
Solanum nigrum or black nightshade, Petunia axillaris or white moon Petunia, Datura innoxa or Indian thorn apple all belong to the same family 'Solanaceae'. This family is also called the potato family. Pisum sativum or garden pea, which is very famous for Mendel's experiments, belongs to the family 'Fabaceae'.

Topic: Biology, Morphology of Flowering Plants, NEET
Which of the following does not constitute appendicular skeleton?

Options:
A Coxal bone
B Scapula
C Humerus
D Sternum

The correct answer is:
Sternum

Solution:
In humans the appendicular skeleton is composed of 126 bones. Functionally it is involved in locomotion (lower limbs) of the axial skeleton and manipulation of objects in the environment (upper limbs) The frontal lobe, located at the front of the brain, is one of the four major lobes of the cerebral cortex in the brain of mammals. The sternum is a flat bone on the ventral midline of thorax and is a part of the axial skeleton.

Topic: Biology, Locomotion and Movement, NEET
Which of the following does not control heart beats?

Options:
A Vagus
B Epinephrine
C Norepinephrine
D Glossopharyngeal nerve

The correct answer is:
Glossopharyngeal nerve

Solution:
Glossopharyngeal nerve controls the posterior part of mouth cavity; therefore, it does not control heart beats.

Topic: Biology, Body Fluids and Circulation, NEET
Which of the following does not favor the formation of large quantities of dilute urine?

Options:
A Alcohol
B Caffeine
C Renin
D Atrial - natriuretic factor

The correct answer is:
Renin

Solution:
Renin does not favor for the formation of large quantities of dilute urine as it activates RAAS (Renin-angiotensin activating system), so it causes reabsorption of sodium which leads to the formation of concentrated urine.

Topic: Biology, Excretory Products and their Elimination, NEET, NEET 2015 (Phase 1)
Which of the following does not give oxygen on heating?

Options:
A $\mathrm{KClO}_3$
B $\mathrm{Zn}\left(\mathrm{ClO}_3\right)_2$
C $\mathrm{K}_2 \mathrm{Cr}_2 \mathrm{O}_7$
D $\left(\mathrm{NH}_4\right)_2 \mathrm{Cr}_2 \mathrm{O}_7$

The correct answer is:
$\left(\mathrm{NH}_4\right)_2 \mathrm{Cr}_2 \mathrm{O}_7$

Solution:
Oxygen rich compounds like chlorate perchlorate $\mathrm{K}_2 \mathrm{Cr}_2 \mathrm{O}_7$ etc., when heated gives oxygen but ammonium dichromate gives nitrogen gas when heated.
$\begin{gathered}
2 \mathrm{KClO}_3 \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} 2 \mathrm{KCl}+3 \mathrm{O}_2 \uparrow \\
2 \mathrm{Zn}\left(\mathrm{ClO}_3\right)_2 \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} \mathrm{ZnCl}_2+3 \mathrm{O}_2 \\
4 \mathrm{~K}_2 \mathrm{Cr}_2 \mathrm{O}_7 \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} 4 \mathrm{~K}_2 \mathrm{CrO}_4+2 \mathrm{Cr}_2 \mathrm{O}_3+3 \mathrm{O}_2 \uparrow \\
\left(\mathrm{NH}_4\right)_2 \mathrm{Cr}_2 \mathrm{O}_7 \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} \mathrm{N}_2 \uparrow+\mathrm{Cr}_2 \mathrm{O}_3+4 \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}
\end{gathered}$

Topic: Chemistry, p Block Elements (Group 15, 16, 17 & 18), NEET, NEET 2013 (All India)