datavorous/entrance-exam-dataset huggingface dataset:
In Platyhelminthes, the digestive system is incomplete because

Options:
A it absorbs food from general body surface
B it has suckers and hooks in parasitic form
C it has only one opening that serves as mouth and anus
D All of the above

The correct answer is:
it has only one opening that serves as mouth and anus

Solution:
Animal kingdom consists of two phylas. Phylum non chordates and chordates. Non chordates consist of Porifera, Colenterates, Ctenophora, Platyhelminthes, Aschelminthes, Annelids, Arthropods, Molluscs, Echinodematas. Hemichordata etc. Platyhelminthes involves flatworms as they do not have body cavity. The body consists of organs but no organ systems. Thus digestive system is also incomplete. It means the system consists of only one opening that serves as both mouth and anus. This is seen in animals like hydra etc.

Topic: Biology, Animal Kingdom, NEET
In Polygonum,

Options:
A ovule is orthotropus with an endosporic embryo sac derived from a single chalazal megaspore
B ovule is orthotropus with an endosporic embryo sac derived from a single micropylar megaspore
C ovule is anatropus with an endosporic embryo sac derived from a single chalazal megaspore
D ovule is anatropus with an endosporic embryo sac derived from a single micropylar megaspore

The correct answer is:
ovule is orthotropus with an endosporic embryo sac derived from a single chalazal megaspore

Solution:
The 7-celled, 8-nucleated embryosac derived from a single chalazal megaspore was discovered by Strasberger in Polygonum. This is the most common type of embryo sac in angiosperms. The most common type of ovule in angiosperms is anatropus ovule. However, Polygonum has an erect or orthotropus ovule.

Topic: Biology, Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants, NEET
In positive electromeric effect, where are the π-electrons of the multiple bond transferred?

Options:
A To the attacking reagent
B To an atom to which the reagent gets attached
C To an atom to which the reagent does not get attached
D To both atoms in the multiple bond

The correct answer is:
To an atom to which the reagent gets attached

Solution:
In positive electromeric effect, the π-electrons of the multiple bond are transferred to that atom to which the reagent gets attached.

Topic: Chemistry, General Organic Chemistry, NEET
In positive resonance effect (+R effect), where does the transfer of electrons occur?

Options:
A Towards an atom or substituent group
B Away from an atom or substituent group
C Between two atoms
D Towards the nucleus

The correct answer is:
Away from an atom or substituent group

Solution:
In positive resonance effect (+R effect), the transfer of electrons is away from an atom or substituent group attached to the conjugated system.

Topic: Chemistry, General Organic Chemistry, NEET
In producing chlorine by electrolysis $100 \mathrm{~kW}$ power at $125 \mathrm{~V}$ is being consumed. How much chlorine per minute is liberated (ECE of chlorine is $0.367 \times 10^{-6} \mathrm{kgC}^{-1}$ )

Options:
A $1.76 \times 10^{-3} \mathrm{~kg}$
B $9.67 \times 10^{-3} \mathrm{~kg}$
C $17.61 \times 10^{-3} \mathrm{~kg}$
D $3.67 \times 10^{-3} \mathrm{~kg}$

The correct answer is:
$17.61 \times 10^{-3} \mathrm{~kg}$

Solution:
Mass of the substance deposited at the cathode
$$
\begin{aligned}
\mathrm{m} & =\mathrm{z} \\
& =\mathrm{z}\left(\frac{\mathrm{W}}{\mathrm{V}}\right) \mathrm{t} \\
& =0.367 \times 10^{-6} \times \frac{100 \times 10^3}{125} \times 60 \\
& =17.6 \times 10^{-3} \mathrm{~kg}
\end{aligned}
$$

Topic: Chemistry, Electrochemistry, NEET, NEET 2010 (Screening)
In producing chlorine through electrolysis 100 watt power at $125 \mathrm{~V}$ is being consumed. How much chlorine per minute is liberated ? E. C. E. of chlorine is $0.367 \times 10^{-6} \mathrm{~kg} /$ coulomb:

Options:
A $13.6 \mathrm{mg}$
B $17.6 \mathrm{mg}$
C $21.3 \mathrm{mg}$
D $24.3 \mathrm{mg}$

The correct answer is:
$17.6 \mathrm{mg}$

Solution:
Mass of chlorine liberated $=2 \mathrm{It}$
$$
\begin{aligned}
& =0.367 \times 10^{-6} \times \frac{100}{125} \times 60 \\
& =0.0176 \times 10^{-3} \mathrm{~kg} \\
& =17.6 \mathrm{mg}
\end{aligned}
$$

Topic: Physics, Current Electricity, NEET, NEET 2006
In progressive senescence, the leaves fall

Options:
A Immediately
B Gradually
C No falling
D Leaf become permanently affixed

The correct answer is:
Gradually

Solution:
The progressive senescence is a developmentary process which ultimately leads to complete loss of organization and function of the plant.

Topic: Biology, Plant - Growth and Development, NEET
In prokaryotes, chromatophores are

Options:
A Specialised granules responsible for coloration of cells
B Structures responsible for organising the shape of the organism
C Inclusion bodies lying free inside the cells for carrying out various metabolic activities
D Internal membrane system that may become extensive and complex in photosynthetic bacteria

The correct answer is:
Internal membrane system that may become extensive and complex in photosynthetic bacteria

Solution:
Some prokaryotes like photosynthetic bacteria and blue-green algae possess small membrane lined chromatophores, which are similar to but chemically simpler than the chlorophyll of plants.

Topic: Biology, Cell - The Unit of Life, NEET
In prokaryotes, regulation of gene expression occurs at the

Options:
A transcriptional level
B processing level
C transport of mRNA from nucleus to cytoplasm
D translation level

The correct answer is:
transcriptional level

Solution:
In prokaryotes, transcription and translation both occurs in cytoplasm; hence, in prokayotes, transcriptional intiation site is the controlling site of gene expression.

Topic: Biology, Molecular Basis of Inheritance, NEET
In prokaryotes, the genetic material is

Options:
A Closed, coiled and circular ssDNA with histones
B Open, coiled, linear dsDNA without histones
C Closed, coiled, circular dsDNA without histones
D Linear, dsDNA with histones

The correct answer is:
Closed, coiled, circular dsDNA without histones

Solution:
In prokaryotes, nucleoid consists of closed, coiled, double-stranded circular DNA molecule without histone proteins. The polyamines are associated with the structure for inducing stability.

Topic: Biology, Biological Classification, NEET
In prokaryotes, the regulation of gene expression occurs at

Options:
A transcriptional level.
B transport of mRNA from nucleus to the cytoplasm.
C translation level.
D more than one option is correct.

The correct answer is:
transcriptional level.

Solution:
Regulation of gene expression refers to a very broad term that may occur at various levels. Considering that gene expression results in the formation of a polypeptide, it can be regulated at several levels.
In eukaryotes, the regulation of gene expression could be exerted at four levels.
i) Transcriptional level: Formation of the primary transcript.
ii) Processing level: Formation of the primary transcript.
iii) Transport of mRNA from the nucleus to the cytoplasm.
iv) Translational level.
In prokaryotes, control of the rate of transcriptional initiation is the predominant site for control of gene expression. In a transcription unit, the activity of RNA polymerase at a given promoter is regulated by interaction with accessory proteins, which affects its ability to recognize start sites. These regulatory proteins can act both positively (activators) and negatively (repressors). The functioning of the operator depends upon the protein products.

Topic: Biology, Molecular Basis of Inheritance, NEET
In prokaryotes, which ribozyme helps in peptide bond formation?

Options:
A 18S rRNA
B 16S rRNA
C 28S rRNA
D 23S rRNA

The correct answer is:
23S rRNA

Solution:
The 23S rRNA is an (in E. coli) component of the large subunit (50S) of the bacterial ribosome. Peptide bond formation by the ribosome requires 23S rRNA and its interaction with the 3′-CCA end of tRNA.

Topic: Biology, Molecular Basis of Inheritance, NEET
In prokaryotes, which site is the predominant site for control of gene expression?

Options:
A translational level
B processing level
C transcriptional initiation level
D transport of mRNA from nucleus to cytoplasm level

The correct answer is:
transcriptional initiation level

Solution:
In prokaryotes, control of the rate of transcriptional initiation is the predominant site for control of gene expression.

Topic: Biology, Molecular Basis of Inheritance, NEET
In prophase I, the stage that closely resembles prometaphase of mitosis is:

Options:
A Diplotene
B Chaismata
C Leptotene
D Diakinesis

The correct answer is:
Diakinesis

Solution:
The final stage of meiotic prophase I is diakinesis. This is marked by terminalisation of chiasmata. During this phase the chromosomes are fully condensed and the meiotic spindle is assembled to prepare the homologous chromosomes for separation. By the end of diakinesis, the nucleolus disappears and the nuclear envelope also breaks down. Diakinesis represents transition to metaphase.

Topic: Biology, Cell Cycle and Cell Division, NEET
In protozoa such as amoeba and paramoecium, an organ is found for osmoregulation which is

Options:
A contractile vacuole
B mitochondria
C nucleus
D food vacuole

The correct answer is:
contractile vacuole

Solution:
A contractile vacuole is found in eukaryotic cells, particularly protozoa and certain unicellular algae. It is involved in osmoregulation. The contractile vacuole contracts to expel water out of the cell
Related Theory
The marine protozoa do not have contractile vacuole because the marine protozoa live in a hypertonic environment. Marine protozoa do not need to remove excess water out of the cell, instead, they need to conserve water from getting lost in the hypertonic environment. Hence, they do not need contractile vacuole.

Topic: Biology, Cell - The Unit of Life, NEET, NEET 2002
In PS I, the reaction centre Chl a has absorption maxima at _____; whereas in PS II, the reaction centre Chl a has absorption maxima at ____.

Options:
A 700 nm, 680 nm
B 680 nm, 700 nm
C 400 nm, 500 nm
D 700 nm, 800 nm

The correct answer is:
700 nm, 680 nm

Solution:
In PS I the reaction center is P - 700 which absorbs light wavelength greater than 680 nm. In PS II the reaction center is P - 680 thus capable of absorbing light wavelength less than 680nm.

Topic: Biology, Photosynthesis in Higher Plants, NEET
In Pteridophytes, meiosis occurs in

Options:
A Egg
B Zygote
C Antherozoids
D Spore mother cells

The correct answer is:
Spore mother cells

Solution:
The sporangia produce spores by meiosis in spore mother cells. The spores germinate to give rise to inconspicuous, small but multicellular, free-living, mostly photosynthetic thalloid gametophytes called prothallus.

Topic: Biology, Plant Kingdom, NEET
In Pteridophytes, phloem is without

Options:
A sieve cells.
B bast fibres.
C companion cells.
D More than one option is correct.

The correct answer is:
companion cells.

Solution:
Pteridophytes are vascular, spore forming non-seed forming, non-flowering plants. The phloem of pteridophytes does not contain companion cells. Presence of companion cells is the characteristic feature of angiospermic phloem.

Topic: Biology, Plant Kingdom, NEET
In p-type semiconductor the majority and minority charge carriers are respectively

Options:
A protons and electrons
B electrons and protons
C electrons and holes
D holes and electrons

The correct answer is:
holes and electrons

Solution:
In p-type semiconductor, holes are the majority and electrons are the minority charge carriers.

Topic: Physics, Semiconductors, NEET
In Punjab, the famous Sahiwal cows were developed through

Options:
A Artificial selection and domestication of wild cows.
B Artificial selection and European wild cows.
C Artificial selection and domestication from ancestral wild cows.
D Artificial selection and domestication from American cows.

The correct answer is:
Artificial selection and domestication from ancestral wild cows.

Solution:
Breed: It refers to a group of animals which are descendents of a common ancestors and have similarity in most characters like general appearance, size, features, configuration, etc. Breeding of animals is an important aspect of animal husbandry.

Topic: Biology, Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production, NEET
In Purine nucleosides C-1 of sugar forms glycosidic linkage with which position of purine?

Options:
A 1
B 3
C 9
D 8

The correct answer is:
9

Solution:
In Purine nucleosides, C-1 of sugar forms glycosidic linkage with N-9.

Topic: Chemistry, Biomolecules, NEET
In pyrrole, the electron density is maximum on

Options:
A 2 and 3
B 3 and 4
C 2 and 4
D 2 and 5

The correct answer is:
2 and 5

Solution:
At 2 and 5, the negative charge is more stable.

Topic: Chemistry, General Organic Chemistry, NEET, NEET 2016 (Phase 2)
In qualitative analysis, the metals of group I can be separated from other ions by precipitating them as chloride salts. A solution initially contains Ag+ and Pb2+ at a concentration of 0.10 M. Aqueous HCl is added to this solution until the Cl- concentration is 0.10 M. What will the concentration of Ag+ and Pb2+ be at equilibrium?

( Ksp for AgCl =1.8×10-10,Ksp for PbCl2=1.7×10-5 )

Options:
A [Ag+]=1.8×10-7M,[Pb2+]=1.7×10-6M
B [Ag+]=1.8×10-11M,[Pb2+]=8.5×10-5M
C [Ag+]=1.8×10-9M,[Pb2+]=1.7×10-3M
D [Ag+]=1.8×10-11M,[Pb2+]=1.7×10-4M

The correct answer is:
[Ag+]=1.8×10-9M,[Pb2+]=1.7×10-3M

Solution:
Ksp[AgCl]=[Ag+][Cl-]
[Ag+]=1.8Ã10-1010-1=1.8Ã10-9M
K sp PbCl 2 = Pb 2+ Cl − 2
[Pb2+]=1.7Ã10-510-1Ã10-1=1.7Ã10-3M

Topic: Chemistry, Ionic Equilibrium, NEET
In qualitative analysis, which test can be used to detect the presence of calcium, strontium, and barium ions?

Options:
A Flame test
B Precipitation test
C Gas evolution test
D Acid-base titration

The correct answer is:
Flame test

Solution:
The flame test is helpful in detecting the presence of calcium, strontium, and barium ions in qualitative analysis by observing the characteristic colors they impart to a flame.

Topic: Chemistry, s Block Elements, NEET
In RAAS mechanism of kidney regulation, angiotensin II increases the blood volume and blood pressure by:

Options:
A Activating adrenal cortex to release aldosterone hormone.
B Signalling renal tubule of nephron to reabsorb more NaCl and water.
C Causing relaxation of glomerular blood vessels or arterioles.
D Both (A) and (B)

The correct answer is:
Both (A) and (B)

Solution:
Angiotensin II is an octa-peptide chemical and is one of the most potent vaso-constrictors which increases blood pressure and thus GFR by constricting the arterioles. It also stimulates the adrenal cortex to release aldosterone hormone. This aldosterone causes reabsorption of NaCl and water from renal tubule of the nephron.

Topic: Biology, Excretory Products and their Elimination, NEET
In rainy season, door gets swelled due to

Options:
A Imbibition
B Diffusion
C Transpiration
D Respiration

The correct answer is:
Imbibition

Solution:
In rainy season, door gets swelled due to the phenomenon of imbibition. It is the process of absorption of water without forming a solution.

Topic: Biology, Transport in Plants, NEET
In rainy season, on a clear night the black seat of a bicycle becomes wet because

Options:
A it absorbs water vapour
B black seat is good absorber of heat
C black seat is good radiator of heat energy
D none of the above

The correct answer is:
black seat is good radiator of heat energy

Solution:
Black seat is good radiator of heat energy therefore on a clear night the black seat of a bicycle becomes wet.

Topic: Physics, Thermal Properties of Matter, NEET
In rDNA technology, the term 'vector' refers to

Options:
A the enzyme that cuts DNA into restriction fragments.
B the sticky end of a DNA fragment.
C a plasmid used to transfer DNA into a living cell.
D a DNA probe used to identify a particular gene.

The correct answer is:
a plasmid used to transfer DNA into a living cell.

Solution:
In recombinant DNA technology, the term vector refers to a plasmid which is used to transfer DNA into a living cell. There are different types of vectors like cloning vectors, cosmic vectors, etc.
The enzyme which cuts DNA into restriction fragments is restriction endonuclease enzyme.

Topic: Biology, Biotechnology - Principles and Processes, NEET
In Recombinant DNA technology antibiotics are used:

*Note: There was ambiguity in options in the original paper, hence the options are changed.

Options:
A To keep medium bacteria-free
B To detect alien DNA
C As selectable markers
D Both (B) and (C)

The correct answer is:
Both (B) and (C)

Solution:
Selectable marker: Helps in identifying and eliminating non-transformants and selectively permitting the growth of the transformants. Normally, the genes encoding resistance to antibiotics such as ampicillin, chloramphenicol, tetracycline or kanamycin, etc., are considered useful selectable markers for E.coli.

During the screening, it helps in differentiating the cells that have alien DNA or gene of interest.

Topic: Biology, Biotechnology - Principles and Processes, NEET, NEET 2020 (Phase 2)
In recombinant DNA technology before the use of restriction endonuclease, first we have to isolate and precipitate the genetic material (DNA). For this purpose we use following different enzyme/chemical:

Options:
A Ethidium bromide
B RNA Polymerase
C T4 ligase
D Chilled Ethanol

The correct answer is:
Chilled Ethanol

Solution:
The genetic material in majority of organisms is DNA. For the restriction enzymes to cut DNA, it has to be in a pure form and free from other macromolecules. For this the cell needs to break open and release DNA with other macromolecules like RNA, proteins, polysaccharides and also lipids. This can be achieved by treating the cell with enzymes like lysozymes, cellulose, etc. The RNA is removed by ribonuclease and proteins by proteases. Similarly other macromolecules are removed by appropriate enzymes and finally DNA can be precipitated out as a collection of fine threads in the suspension after adding chilled ethanol.

Topic: Biology, Biotechnology - Principles and Processes, NEET
In redox reaction, H2O2 oxidises K4[Fe(CN)6] into K+,Fe+3,CO3-2 and NO3- ions in acidic medium, than how many moles of H2O2 will react with 1mole of K4[Fe(CN)6]

Options:
A 5 moles
B 9 moles
C 8 moles
D 30.5 moles

The correct answer is:
30.5 moles

Solution:
n-factor of H2O2=2
n-factor of K4[Fe(CN)6]=61
âµmole of H2O21 mole of K4Fe(CN)6=612
â´ mole of H2O2=612Ã1=30.5

Topic: Chemistry, Redox Reactions, NEET
In relation to Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity of an ecosystem, which one of the following statements is correct?

Options:
A Gross primary productivity is always more than net primary productivity
B Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity are one and same
C There is no relationship between Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity
D Gross primary productivity is always less than net primary productivity

The correct answer is:
Gross primary productivity is always more than net primary productivity

Solution:
Gross primary productivity (GPP): It is the rate of production or synthesis of organic matter by producers during photosynthesis per unit time and area. A considerable amount of GPP is utilized by plants in respiration.

Net primary productivity (NPP): Gross primary productivity minus respiration losses (R).

NPP = GPP – R

Net primary productivity is the available biomass for the consumption of heterotrophs i.e., both herbivores and decomposers.

Topic: Biology, Ecosystem, NEET, NEET 2020 (Phase 1)
In

, resistance to yellow mosaic virus and powdery mildew were induced by mutations.

Options:
A Wheat
B Mung bean
C Bhindi
D Chilli

The correct answer is:
Mung bean

Solution:
The mutation is the process by which genetic variations are created through changes in the base sequence within genes resulting in the creation of a new character or trait not found in the parental type. It is possible to induce mutations artificially through the use of chemicals or radiations (like gamma radiations), and selecting and using the plants that have the desired character as a source in breeding â this process is called mutation breeding. In mung bean, resistance to yellow mosaic virus and powdery mildew were induced by mutations.

Topic: Biology, Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production, NEET
In Riccia, the female reproductive structures are called:

Options:
A Antheridium
B Strobili
C Archegonium
D Oogonium

The correct answer is:
Archegonium

Solution:
The sex organs in bryophytes (Riccia, Funaria), are multicellular and jacketed. The jacket of the sterile cell around the sperm and egg is an adaptation to a life on land. The male reproductive organs are called antheridia, and female reproductive organs are called archegonia.

Topic: Biology, Plant Kingdom, NEET
In 'rivet popper hypothesis', Paul Ehrlich compared the rivets in an airplane to

Options:
A Ecosystem
B Genera within a family
C Genera within a genus
D Genetic diversity

The correct answer is:
Genera within a genus

Solution:
A proper perspective through an analogy, the 'rivet popper hypothesis' is used by Paul Ehrlich considered Airplane as an ecosystem and rivets used to join all parts together is considered as species.
Therefore, he compared rivets in an airplane to species within a genus.

Topic: Biology, Biodiversity and its Conservation, NEET, NEET 2023 (Manipur)
In 'Rivet Popper hypothesis', rivets of wings are considered as

Options:
A Dominant species
B Critical link species
C Rare species
D Keystone species

The correct answer is:
Keystone species

Solution:
Rivet popper hypothesis was proposed by Stanford ecologist Paul Ehlrich. He considered aeroplane as an ecosystem and all the rivets used to join different parts as a species. If every passanger travelling in plane takes a rivet home causing extinction of a species than it will affect functioning of flight, but removal of the rivets from wings, which drives the plane will affect the functioning directly. Such species which directly affects the functioning of ecosystem are called as keystone species.

Topic: Biology, Biodiversity and its Conservation, NEET
In "rivet-popper hypothesis", the wing rivets are compared with

Options:
A dominant species
B critical link species
C rare species
D key stone species

The correct answer is:
key stone species

Solution:
The rivet popper's hypothesis was proposed by Paul Ehrlich. In an airplane (ecosystem) all parts are joined with rivets (species). If every passenger traveling in it starts popping a rivet to take home (causing a species to become extinct), the plane may become dangerously weak over time. Loss of rivets from wings (key species that drive the major ecosystem function) is obviously a more serious threat to flight safety.

Topic: Biology, Biodiversity and its Conservation, NEET
In RNA $i$, the genes are silenced using

Options:
A dsRNA
B SsDNA
C ssRNA
D dsDNA

The correct answer is:
dsRNA

Solution:
In RNA $i$, the genes are silenced using dsRNA. RNA interference (RNA $i$ ) takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defence. This method involves silencing of a specific mRNA due to a complementary dsRNA molecule that binds to and prevents translation of the mRNA (silencing).

Topic: Biology, Biotechnology and Its Applications, NEET, NEET 2019 (Odisha)