datavorous/entrance-exam-dataset huggingface dataset:
Select the most ionic and most covalent compounds respectively from the following: CrO 5 , Mn 2 O 7 , PbO, Fe 2 O 3 , SnO 2

Options:
A CrO5,Â Mn2O7
B PbO,âMn2O7
C CrO 5 , Fe 2 O 3
D CrO5,Â SnO2

The correct answer is:
PbO, Mn2O7

Solution:
As anion is same, the covalent character in ionic compound will depend upon the size and charge on the cation. According to fajan's rule,
Covalent nature ∝ charge on cation
PbO is most ionic as it has Pb2+ and Mn2O7 is most covalent as it has Mn+7 .

Topic: Chemistry, p Block Elements (Group 15, 16, 17 & 18), JEE Main
Select the nature or type of redox change in the following reaction:-

Cl2â ClO- + Cl-

Options:
A Disproportionation
B Intramolecular redox
C Intermolecular redox
D None of the above

The correct answer is:
Disproportionation

Solution:
Auto-redox or disproportionation is the one in which same substance is oxidized and reduced as well.
Intramolecular redox change is the one in which one element of a compound is oxidized and the other element is reduced.
Intermolecular redox is the one in which one of the two reactants is oxidized and the other is reduced.

Topic: Chemistry, Redox Reactions, JEE Main
Select the odd one w.r.t biofertilizers.

Options:
A Bacteria
B Fungi
C Cyanobacteria
D Viruses

The correct answer is:
Viruses

Solution:
Biofertilizers are organisms that enrich the nutrient quality of the soil. The main sources of biofertilizers are bacteria, fungi and cyanobacteria. Biofertilizers add nutrients through the natural processes of nitrogen fixation, solubilizing phosphorus, and stimulating plant growth through the synthesis of growth-promoting substances.

Topic: Biology, Microbes in Human Welfare, NEET
Select the option which correctly matches the endocrine gland with its hormone and its function.

Options:
A Endocrine-Placenta; Hormone-Estrogen; Function-Initiates secretion of the milk
B Endocrine-Corpus luteum; Hormone-Estrogen; Function-Essential for main tenance of endometrium
C Endocrine-Leydig's cells; Hormone-Androgen; Function-Initiates the production of sperms
D Endocrine-Ovary; Hormone-FSH; Function-Stimulates follicular development and the secretion of etrogens

The correct answer is:
Endocrine-Leydig's cells; Hormone-Androgen; Function-Initiates the production of sperms

Solution:
Leydig cells are found adjacent to the seminiferous tubules in the testicle. They produce testosterone and spermatogenesis in the presence of luteinizing hormone ( $\mathrm{LH}$ ).
The placenta secretes extra ovarian hormones-oestrogen and progesterone in female during pregnancy that serves to maintain foctus. It also secrete $\mathrm{hCG}, \mathrm{hPL}$ and relaxin.
The corpus luteum secretes large amount of progesterone which is essential for maintenance of endometrium.
Graafian follicles of ovary secrete oestrogens and progesterone to control the growth and functions of female secondary sex organs. Thus, primary sex organs control the growth, function and maintenance of secondary sex organs.

Topic: Biology, Chemical Coordination and Integration, NEET, NEET 2013 (Karnataka)
Select the option which describes the correct matching between bones and examples mentioned below:

I. Skull bones: Facial bone, cranial bones and hyoid
II. Axial bones: Sternum, ribs and clavicle
III. Long bones: Humerus and femur
IV. Girdle: Scapula and coxal

Options:
A I, II and III
B II, III and IV
C I, III and IV
D Only II and IV

The correct answer is:
I, III and IV

Solution:
Axial skeleton comprises 80 bones distributed along the main axis of the body. The skull, vertebral column, sternum and ribs constitute axial skeleton. The skull is composed of two sets of bones cranial and facial, that totals to 22 bones. Cranial bones are 8 in number. They form the hard protective outer covering, cranium for the brain. The facial region is made up of 14 skeletal elements which form the front part of the skull. A single U-shaped bone called hyoid is present at the base of the buccal cavity and it is also included in the skull.
Each half of pectoral girdle consists of a clavicle and a scapula. Pelvic girdle consists of two coxal bones. Each coxal bone is formed by the fusion of three bones â ilium, ischium and pubis.
Long bones are humerus, femur, tibia, fibula, radius and ulna.

Topic: Biology, Locomotion and Movement, NEET
Select the physical quantities in Column-I and Column-II having same dimensions.
The correct answer is
$\begin{array}{llll}
\mathbf{A} & \mathbf{B} & \mathbf{C} & \mathbf{D}
\end{array}$

Options:
A III IV I II
B IV I III II
C II III IV I
D II IV III II

The correct answer is:
II III IV I

Solution:
Entropy (s) $=\frac{\Delta \mathrm{Q}}{\mathrm{T}}$
So its unit is $\frac{\mathrm{J}}{\mathrm{K}}$
and, $U_{a v}=\frac{f}{2} K_B T$. So its unit is also $\frac{J}{K}$.
So, $(\mathrm{A}) \rightarrow$ (II)
Similarly
$\begin{aligned}
& {[\mathrm{Y}]=[\mathrm{U} / \mathrm{V}] \Rightarrow(\mathrm{B}) \rightarrow(\mathrm{III})} \\
& {[\mathrm{L}]=[\mathrm{h}] \Rightarrow(\mathrm{C}) \rightarrow(\mathrm{IV})} \\
& {[\lambda]=[\omega] \Rightarrow(\mathrm{D}) \rightarrow(\mathrm{I})}
\end{aligned}$

Topic: Physics, Units and Dimensions, JEE Main
Select the rate law that corresponds to data shown for the following reaction
\(\mathrm{A}+\mathrm{B} \longrightarrow\) products
\(\begin{array}{cccc}\text { Exp. } & {[\mathrm{A}]} & {[\mathrm{B}]} & \text { Initial rate } \\ 1 & 0.012 & 0.035 & 0.1 \\ 2 & 0.024 & 0.070 & 0.8 \\ 3 & 0.024 & 0.035 & 0.1 \\ 4 & 0.012 & 0.070 & 0.8\end{array}\)

Options:
A rate \(=\mathrm{k}[\mathrm{B}]^3\)
B rate \(=k[B]^4\)
C \(\operatorname{rate}=\mathrm{k}[\mathrm{A}][\mathrm{B}]^3\)
D rate \(=\mathrm{k}[\mathrm{A}]^2[\mathrm{~B}]^2\)

The correct answer is:
rate \(=\mathrm{k}[\mathrm{B}]^3\)

Solution:
From data 1 and 3 , it is clear that keeping
(B) const, [A] is doubled, rate remains unaffected. Hence rate is independent of [A]. from 1 and 4 , keeping \([\mathrm{A}]\) constant, \([\mathrm{B}]\) is doubled, rate become 8 times. Hence rate \(\propto[\mathrm{B}]^3\).

Topic: Chemistry, Chemical Kinetics, VITEEE, VITEEE 2022
Select the reasons why tropical regions have more biodiversity than temperate regions.

1. Tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years.
2. Temperate environments, unlike tropical ones, are less seasonal, relatively more constant and predictable.
3. Temperate regions were subjected to frequent glaciations in the past.
4. There is more solar energy available in the tropics which contributes to higher productivity.

Options:
A 1 and 3
B 2 and 3
C 1, 2 and 4
D 1, 3 and 4

The correct answer is:
1, 3 and 4

Solution:
Tropical environments, are less seasonal, and relatively more constant and predictable then temperate ones. Also temperate zones have undergone frequent changes in the past which has led to constant changing environmental conditions which is not favorable for species diversity where as tropical zones have more or less remained unchanged.

Topic: Biology, Biodiversity and its Conservation, NEET
Select the set having incorrect statements given here.
(i) Manganese exhibits +7 oxidation state
(ii) Zinc forms coloured ions
(iii) [CoF6]3- is diamagnetic
(iv) Sc forms +4 oxidation state
(v) Zn exhibits only +2 oxidation state

Options:
A (i), (ii) and (iii)
B (ii), (iii) and (iv)
C (i), (iii) and (iv)
D (i), (iii) and (v)

The correct answer is:
(ii), (iii) and (iv)

Solution:
Outer electronic configuration of Mn is 3d54s2 which means it can show +7 oxidation state also (correct)
Zinc does not form coloured ions as it has completely filled 3d104s2 configuration.
In [CoF6]3-,Co3+ is a d6 system. Fluoride is a weak field ligand and hence it can not cause pairing of electrons.
Sc can show a maximum of +3 oxidation state as it has an outer electronic configuration of 3d14s2 .
Zn exhibits only +2 oxidation state as this oxidation state is the most stable one for it.
Hence (ii), (iii), (iv) are incorrect while (i), (v) are correct.

Topic: Chemistry, d and f Block Elements, JEE Main
Select the set of medullary respiratory centers in Brain?

Options:
A Chemo-sensitive area and respiratory rhythm centre
B Respiratory rhythm centre and pneumotaxic
C Chemo-sensitive area and pneumotaxic centre
D Pneumotaxic centre and vomit centre.

The correct answer is:
Chemo-sensitive area and respiratory rhythm centre

Solution:
Regulation of Respiration
- Neural system maintains respiratory rhythm of body according to the body needs via following parts of brain :
1. Medulla : It possess :
A. Respiratory rhythm centre - It is primarily responsible for regulation of respiratory rhythm.
B. Chemosensitive area - It is situated adjacent to the Respiratory rhythm centre. Increase in CO2 and H+ concentration → Stimulation of Chemosensitive area → Sends signal to the Respiratory rhythm centre to make necessary changes in the respiratory process for the elimination of these substances.
2. Pons: It possess pneumotaxic centre, that moderates the functions of the respiratory rhythm centre. Stimulation of this centre alters the respiratory rate by reducing the duration of inspiration.

Topic: Biology, Breathing and Exchange of Gases, NEET
Select the statement that correctly relates to biogas and sewage treatment process.

Options:
A Activated sludge sediment in settlement tanks of the sewage treatment plant is a rich source of aerobic bacteria.
B Biogas is produced by the activity of aerobic bacteria on animal waste.
C Methanobacterium is an aerobic bacterium found in rumen of cattle's.
D Biogas, commonly called gobar gas is pure methane.

The correct answer is:
Activated sludge sediment in settlement tanks of the sewage treatment plant is a rich source of aerobic bacteria.

Solution:
Once the BOD of sewage or wastewater is reduced significantly, the effluent is then passed into a settling tank where the bacterial ‘flocs’ are allowed to sediment. This sediment is called activated sludge. A small part of the activated sludge is pumped back into the aeration tank to serve as the inoculum. This inoculum serves as a rich source of aerobic bacteria. The remaining major part of the sludge is pumped into large tanks called anaerobic sludge digesters. Here, other kinds of bacteria, which grow anaerobically, digest the bacteria and the fungi in the sludge. During this digestion, bacteria produce a mixture of gases such as methane, hydrogen sulphide and carbon dioxide. These gases form biogas and can be used as source of energy as it is inflammable.

Topic: Biology, Microbes in Human Welfare, NEET
Select the statement that is not correct.

Options:
A In aquatic plants like water hyacinth, pollination is carried out by insect or wind
B In Vallisneria, the male flowers reach the surface of the water by a long stalk to liberate pollen grains
C In seagrasses, female flowers remain submerged in water
D Vallisneria and Hydrilla grow in freshwater while Zostera grows in seawater.

The correct answer is:
In Vallisneria, the male flowers reach the surface of the water by a long stalk to liberate pollen grains

Solution:
Vallisneria is a type of freshwater aquatic plant which uses the water for pollination purpose. In it, the female flower reaches the surface via long stalk to receive the pollen grains which are released by the male flower on to the surface of the water.

Topic: Biology, Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants, NEET
Select the wrong statement.

Options:
A Bacterial cell wall is made up of peptidoglycan
B Pili and fimbriae are mainly involved in motility of bacterial cells
C Cyanobacteria lack flagellated cells
D Mycoplasma is a wall - less microorganism

The correct answer is:
Pili and fimbriae are mainly involved in motility of bacterial cells

Solution:
Pili and fimbriae are surface structures of bacteria that do not play a role in motility. Pili and fimbriae are elongated, hollow appendages seen in Gram-negative bacteria made of a unique protein, pilin. They serve in the attachment of bacteria with substratum and not in movement.

Topic: Biology, Cell - The Unit of Life, NEET, NEET 2016 (Phase 2)
Select the WRONG statement regarding energy flow in an ecosystem.

Options:
A Energy flow in one direction only
B About 1-5% of the energy reaching the ground is converted by the green plants into chemical energy.
C Energy requirement for maintenance of body gradually decreases in successive trophic levels.
D Only 10% of the gross productivity of producers is entrapped by herbivores for their body building.

The correct answer is:
Energy requirement for maintenance of body gradually decreases in successive trophic levels.

Solution:
A community of organisms interacting with abiotic component in a particular region/area will be called as ecosystem. The living and non-living components are linked together by the nutrient cycles and energy flow through each trophic level.
In a typical food chain, the energy that is transferred from one trophic level to the next is always unidirectional and never forms a cyclical pattern. The main source of energy is the sun (solar energy/free energy), which is used by producers to make food and then it is consumed by consumers and so forth. The energy is never given back to the sun. Of the total solar energy available to us, only 1-5% is utilized by the producers for making food. The energy available to every organism in each trophic level is only 10% for the successive trophic level. Also, the energy requirement in each successive trophic level increases for maintenance of body.

Topic: Biology, Ecosystem, NEET
Select the wrong statement

Options:
A Bacteria cell wall is made up of peptidoglycan
B Pili and fimbriae are mainly involved in motility of bacterial cells
C Cyanobacteria lack flagellated cells
D Mycoplasma is a wall - less microorganism

The correct answer is:
Pili and fimbriae are mainly involved in motility of bacterial cells

Solution:
Pili and fimbriae are surface structures of the bacteria that do not play a role in motility. Pili and fimbriae are elongated, hollow appendages seen in Gram-negative bacteria made of a unique protein, pilin. They serve in the attachment of bacteria with substratum and not in movement.

Topic: Biology, Cell - The Unit of Life, NEET
Select the Z-isomer from the following alkenes

Options:
A
B
C
D

The correct answer is:

Solution:
The groups of highest priority are −Br and -CH(CH3)2 . These are on same side in compound C. Hence, configuration C is Z-isomer.
The configuration A does not show geometrical isomerism.
In configuration B and D, groups of highest priority are on the opposite sides and therefore, they are E-isomers.

Topic: Chemistry, General Organic Chemistry, JEE Main
Select which type of overlapping is responsible for π-character in Si–N bond of H3SiNCO

Options:
A 3pπ→2pπ
B 2pπ→2pπ
C 3dπ←2pπ
D 3dπ←2dπ

The correct answer is:
3dπ←2pπ

Solution:
π- character is due to 3dπ←2pπ back bonding between 3d orbital of Si and 2p orbital of N.

Topic: Chemistry, Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure, JEE Main
Selenium-83 has a half-life of 25.0 minutes. How many minutes would it take for a $10.0 \mathrm{mg}$ sample to decay and only have $1.25 \mathrm{mg}$ of it remain?

Options:
A 75 minutes
B 75 days
C 75 seconds
D 75 hours

The correct answer is:
75 minutes

Solution:
$\begin{aligned} & n=n_0\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{\frac{T}{T_{1 / 2}}} \\ & 1.25 \mathrm{mg}=10.0 \mathrm{mg} \times\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{\frac{\pi}{\frac{1}{0.0 \mathrm{~min}}}}\end{aligned}$
Solving for $T$,
$T=75.0$ minutes

Topic: Physics, Nuclear Physics, JEE Main
Seliwanoff test and Xanthoproteic test are used for the identification of _ and _ respectively.

Options:
A aldoses, ketoses
B ketoses, proteins
C proteins, ketoses
D ketoses, aldoses

The correct answer is:
ketoses, proteins

Solution:
Seliwanoff test for ketose and Xenthoprotic test for proteins.

Seliwanoff's test is a chemical test which distinguishes between aldose and ketose sugars. If the sugar contains a ketone group, it is a ketose. If a sugar contains an aldehyde group, it is an aldose. This test relies on the principle that, when heated, ketoses are more rapidly dehydrated than aldoses.

Topic: Chemistry, Biomolecules, JEE Main, JEE Main 2021 (26 Feb Shift 2)
Semicircular canals exhibit all these features, except:

Options:
A They form part of vestibular apparatus
B They are set at right angles to one another
C Both ends of each canal swell to form ampullae
D Each ampulla is concerned with maintenance of balance and posture of the body

The correct answer is:
Both ends of each canal swell to form ampullae

Solution:
The inner ear consists of Vestibular apparatus. This apparatus is made up of semicircular canals that are three in number and one otolith organ. The three semicircular canals are at right angles to each other and this is known as orthogonal position. These are named as superior, horizontal and posterior according to their positions. One end of each canal is swollen to form a dilated region known as ampulla which contains a ridge known as crista ampullaris. Each cristae has cupula gel and hair cells and these are responsible for maintenance of balance and posture of body.

Topic: Biology, Neural Control and Coordination, NEET
Semiconductor diodes can be used as a
Answer:

Options:
A oscillator
B amplifier
C rectifier
D modulator

The correct answer is:
rectifier

Solution:
Semiconductor diodes can be used as a rectifier. A rectifier's job is to convert alternating current to direct current by allowing current to flow in just one direction.

Topic: Physics, Semiconductors, JEE Main
Semiconductors have a conductivity range of 10-6 to 10nohm-1m-1 . What is the value of n here?

Options:

The correct answer is:
4

Solution:
Conductivity range of semiconductors are in the range of 10-6 to 104 ohm-1m-1 .

Topic: Chemistry, Solid State, JEE Main
Semiconservative replication of DNA was first demonstrated in :

Options:
A Salmonella typhimurium
B Drosophila melanogaster
C Escherichia coli
D Streptococcus pneumoniae

The correct answer is:
Escherichia coli

Solution:
No Solution Available

Topic: Biology, Molecular Basis of Inheritance, NEET, NEET 2009 (Mains)
Seminal plasma in humans is rich in :

Options:
A Fructose and certain enzymes but poor calcium
B Fructose and calcium but has no enzyme
C Fructose, cal cium and certain enzymes
D Glucose and certain enzymes but has no calcium

The correct answer is:
Fructose, cal cium and certain enzymes

Solution:
No Solution Available

Topic: Biology, Human Reproduction, NEET, NEET 2009 (Mains)
Senescence as an active developmental cellular process in the growth and functioning of a flowering plant, is indicated in

Options:
A Floral parts
B Vessels and tracheid differentiation
C Leaf abscission
D Annual plants

The correct answer is:
Leaf abscission

Solution:
Abscission provides nutrient movement and rejuvenation of plant.

Topic: Biology, Plant - Growth and Development, NEET, NEET 2008 (Mains)
Sensitivity of moving coil galvanometer is s. If a shunt of 18th of the resistance of galvanometer is connected to moving coil galvanometer, its sensitivity becomes

Options:
A s3
B s6
C s9
D s12

The correct answer is:
s9

Solution:
S=G8, S=Gn-1
G8=Gn-1
â´ 8=n-1
â´ n=8+1=9
Since range of galvanometer has increased nine times its sensitivity reduces to 19 .
â´ S'=s9

Topic: Physics, Magnetic Effects of Current, JEE Main
Sensitivity of potentiometer can be increased by

Options:
A Increasing the e.m.f. of the cell
B Increasing the length of the potentiometer wire
C Decreasing the length of the potentiometer wire
D None of the above

The correct answer is:
Increasing the length of the potentiometer wire

Solution:
The sensitivity of potentiometer can be increased by decreasing the potential gradient i.e. by increasing the length of potentiometer wire.

Topic: Physics, Current Electricity, JEE Main
Separation between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor is 5 mm. This capacitor, having air as the dielectric medium between the plates, is charged to a potential difference 25 V using a battery. The battery is then disconnected and a dielectric slab of thickness 3 mm and dielectric constant K=10 is placed between the plates as shown. Potential difference between the plates after the dielectric slab has been introduced is -

Options:
A 18.5 V
B 13.5 V
C 11.5 V
D 6.5 V

The correct answer is:
11.5 V

Solution:
As the charge remain constant, hence
Q=CV=C1V1
Q=Îµ0AdV=Îµ0Ad-t+tKV1
Îµ0A0.00525=Îµ0A0.002+0.00310V
Vâ¡=11.5 V

Topic: Physics, Electrostatics, NEET
Separation between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor is $d$ and the area of each plate is $A$. When a slab of material of dielectric constant $k$ and thickness $t(t \lt d)$ is introduced between the plates, its capacitance becomes

Options:
A $\frac{\varepsilon_0 A}{d+t\left(1-\frac{1}{k}\right)}$
B $\frac{\varepsilon_0 A}{d+t\left(1+\frac{1}{k}\right)}$
C $\frac{\varepsilon_0 A}{d-t\left(1-\frac{1}{k}\right)}$
D $\frac{\varepsilon_0 A}{d-t\left(1+\frac{1}{k}\right)}$

The correct answer is:
$\frac{\varepsilon_0 A}{d-t\left(1-\frac{1}{k}\right)}$

Solution:
Potential difference between the plates $V=V_{\text {aid }}$
$+V_{\text {mondiom }}$
$=\frac{\sigma}{\varepsilon_0} \times(d-t)+\frac{\sigma}{K_{\varepsilon_0}} \times t$
$\begin{aligned} & \Rightarrow V=\frac{\sigma}{\varepsilon_0}\left(d-t+\frac{t}{K}\right) \\ & =\frac{Q}{A \varepsilon_0}\left(d-t+\frac{t}{K}\right)\end{aligned}$
Hence capacitance $C=\frac{Q}{V}=\frac{Q}{\frac{Q}{A \varepsilon_0}\left(d-t+\frac{t}{K}\right)}$
$=\frac{\varepsilon_0 A}{\left(d-t+\frac{t}{K}\right)}=\frac{\varepsilon_0 A}{d-t\left(1-\frac{1}{K}\right)}$

Topic: Physics, Capacitance, JEE Main
Separation energy of a hydrogen like ion from its third excited state is 2.25 times the separation energy of hydrogen atom from its first excited state. Find out the atomic number of this hydrogen like ion.

Options:

The correct answer is:
3

Solution:
Let the separation energy of the ion be E. Then
E = 13.6ÃZ2Ã116 eV
and EH=13.6Ã14 eV
â EEH=Z2Ã416
â 2.25EHEH=Z24

âZ2=9âZ=3

Topic: Physics, Atomic Physics, JEE Main
Serotonin is a famous tranquilizer if it contains 'X' number of lp of electrons and 'Y' number of π -bonds. The sum of X + Y is equal to

Options:

The correct answer is:
7

Solution:
The structure of Serotonin is as follows
Number of lp(X)=2+1+1=4
Number of π -bonds =3
X+Y=4+3=7

Topic: Chemistry, Chemistry in Everyday Life, JEE Main
Set $A$ has 3 elements and set $B$ has 4 elements. The number of injection that can be defined from $A$ to $B$ is

Options:
A $144$
B $12$
C $24$
D $64$

The correct answer is:
$24$

Solution:
The total number of injective functions from a set $A$ containing 3 elements to a set $B$ containing 4 elements is equal to the total number of arrangements of 4 by taking 3 at a time i.e., ${ }^4 P_3=24$.

Topic: Mathematics, Functions, JEE Main
Set of all the values of x satisfying the inequality x2-7x+6>x+2 is

Options:
A x∈-∞,211
B x∈211,∞
C x∈-∞,1∪6,∞
D x∈6,∞

The correct answer is:
x∈-∞,211

Solution:
x2-7x+6≥0⇒x∈-∞,1∪6,∞
Case I: x<-2
LHS is non negative, RHS is negative
⇒ the inequality is always true

⇒x<-2.
Case II: x≥-2
x2-7x+6>x2+4x+4
-11x>-2⇒x<211
⇒x∈-2,211
Taking the union of the two cases, we get,
x∈-∞,211

Topic: Mathematics, Quadratic Equation, JEE Main
Seven identical circular planar disks, each of mass M and radius R are welded symmetrically as shown. The moment of inertia of the arrangement about the axis normal to the plane and passing through the point P is:

Options:
A 1812MR2
B 192 MR2
C 552MR2
D 732MR2

The correct answer is:
1812MR2

Solution:
The motion of inertia of the system about O,
12MR2+6×12MR2+6×M×2R2
⇒ I1=72MR2+24MR2
The motion of inertia of the system about P,
⇒ I1+7MD2
⇒ 72MR2+24MR2+7M×3R2
⇒ 1812MR2

Topic: Physics, Rotational Motion, JEE Main, JEE Main 2018 (08 Apr)