datavorous/entrance-exam-dataset huggingface dataset:
Which of the following statements are correct?

(A) The electronic configuration of Cr is Ar 3d54s1.

(B) The magnetic quantum number may have a negative value.

(C) In the ground state of an atom, the orbitals are filled in order of their increasing energy order.

(D) The total number of nodes are given by n-2.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

Options:
A A,C & D only
B A & B only
C A & C only
D A,B & C only

The correct answer is:
A,B & C only

Solution:
(A) Cr=Ar3d54s1

(B) m=-l to +l means the magnetic quantum number may have negative values.

(C) According to Aufbau principle, orbitals are filled in order of their increasing energies.

(D) Total nodes =n-1

Topic: Chemistry, Structure of Atom, JEE Main, JEE Main 2022 (29 Jun Shift 1)
Which of the following statements are correct?

(A) The M3+/M2+ reduction potential for iron is greater than manganese.

(B) The higher oxidation states of first row d-block elements get stabilized by oxide ion

(C) Aqueous solution of Cr2+ can liberate hydrogen from dilute acid

(D) Magnetic moment of V2+ is observed between 4.4-5.2 BM

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Options:
A B, C only
B A, B, D only
C C, D only
D A, B only

The correct answer is:
B, C only

Solution:
The valence electronic configuration of Mn3+ is 3d4 and that of Mn2+ is stable 3d5.The valence electronic configuration of Fe3+ is 3d5 and that of Fe2+ is 3d6.

The reduction electrode potential of Mn3+/Mn2+ is +1.57 V while that of Fe3+/Fe2+ is +0.77 V, hence A is wrong. Higher oxidation state of smaller d-block elements is stabilised (or say form compounds) with smaller anion oxide that can be explained by stearic reason hence B is correct.

The oxidation electrode potential of Cr2+/Cr3+ is +0.41 V hence, it can reduce H+ and so liberate H2.

The unpaired electrons in V2+ are 3 hence, the magnetic moment of V2+ will be lesser than 4.4 BM.

Hence, only B and C are correct.

Topic: Chemistry, d and f Block Elements, JEE Main, JEE Main 2023 (10 Apr Shift 1)
Which of the following statements are correct about genetically engineered insulin?

(i) It was manufactured by an American company Eli Lilly.

(ii) It is produced by the use of appropriate recombinant E. coli clones.

(iii) It was launched on 5th July 1983.

(iv) It is also called bovine insulin and is used for the treatment of diabetes mellitus.

Options:
A (i) & (ii) only
B (ii) & (iii) only
C (i), (ii) & (iii) only
D All of these

The correct answer is:
(i), (ii) & (iii) only

Solution:
The main challenge for the production of insulin using the rDNA technique was getting insulin assembled into a mature form with the removal of Ð¡ peptide. In 1983, Eli Lilly, an American company, first prepared two DNA sequences corresponding to A and Ð chains of human insulin and introduced them in plasmids of Escherichia coli to produce insulin chains. Chains A and Ð were produced separately, extracted and combined by creating disulfide bonds to form human insulin (Humulin).

Topic: Biology, Biotechnology and Its Applications, NEET
Which of the following statements are correct about zeolite?
1. Zeolites are aluminosilicates having three dimensional network
2. Shape selectivity of zeolites depends upon porous structures of the catalyst
3. Zeolites are synthetic microporous aluminosilicates which do not exist naturally
4. Zeolites are open structures of silica in which trivalent aluminium substitute by a fraction of silicon atoms

Options:
A 1,2
B 2,4
C 1,2,3
D 1,2,4

The correct answer is:
1,2,4

Solution:
Zeolites are naturally occurring or synthetic microporous aluminosilicates which are used to remove permanent hardness from hard water. Shape selectivity of zeolites depends upon porous structures of the catalyst.

Topic: Chemistry, Surface Chemistry, JEE Main
Which of the following statements are correct about Zn,Cd and Hg ?
A. They exhibit high enthalpy of atomization as the d-subshell is full.
B. Zn and Cd do not show variable oxidation state while Hg shows +I and +II.
C. Compounds of Zn,Cd and Hg are paramagnetic in nature.
D. Zn,Cd and Hg are called soft metals.
Choose the most appropriate from the options given below:

Options:
A B, D only
B B, C only
C A, D only
D C, D only

The correct answer is:
B, D only

Solution:
(A) Zn, Cd and Hg have low values of enthalpies of atomization. These metals have relatively weak metallic bonding due to their filled or nearly filled d-orbitals. In these metals, the valence electrons are not as delocalized as in other transition metals because the d-orbitals are filled or nearly filled. This leads to weaker metallic bonding, resulting in lower enthalpies compared to transition metals with partially filled d-orbitals. Thus statement (A) is incorrect.
(B) Zn and Cd shows +2 oxidation state whereas Hg shows +1 and +2 oxidation state.Hence, statement (B) is correct.
(C) All electrons are paired in the compounds of zinc, cadmium and mercury. Hence, they are diamagnetic in nature. Hence, statement (C) is incorrect.
(D) Zn, Cd and Hg are soft metals as all electrons are paired and metallic bonds are not strong enough. Thus, statement (D) is correct.

Topic: Chemistry, d and f Block Elements, JEE Main, JEE Main 2024 (29 Jan Shift 2)
Which of the following statements are correct for butadiene

C4H2=C3H-C2H=C1H2

(1) The C1-C2 and C3-C4 bonds are longer than a carbon-carbon double bond.

(2) The C1-C2 and C3-C4 bonds are shorter than a carbon-carbon double bond.

(3) The C2-C3 bond is slightly shorter than a carbon-carbon single bond.

(4) The C2-C3 bond is slightly longer than a carbon-carbon double bond.

Options:
A 1, 2
B 2, 3
C 1, 3
D 3, 4

The correct answer is:
1, 3

Solution:
Consider the following resonance structure
The structures (2) and (3) show the partial single-bond character of the C1-C2 and C3-C4 bonds, and (4) and (5) the partial double-bond character of the C2-C3 bond. This explains the observed anomalies in the bond distances.

Topic: Chemistry, Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure, JEE Main
Which of the following statements are correct for the enzyme Taq polymerase?

(i) It remains active during the high temperature.
(ii) It requires primers for carrying out the process of polymerization.
(iii) It induces denaturation of double-stranded DNA.

Options:
A (i) and (ii)
B (i) and (iii)
C (i), (ii) and (iii)
D (ii) and (iii)

The correct answer is:
(i) and (ii)

Solution:
Taq Polymerase is thermostable DNA polymerase isolated from bacteria Thermus aquaticus. It is used for synthesis of DNA in PCR technique. It requires DNA primers for polymerization of new DNA molecule.

Topic: Biology, Biotechnology - Principles and Processes, NEET
Which of the following statements are correct?

(i) Catalytic converters convert unburnt hydrocarbons into CO2 and H2O.
(ii) The catalytic converter converts carbon monoxide and nitric oxide into CO2 and N 2 .
(iii) Automobiles are the major cause of atmospheric pollution in the world.
(iv) Proper maintenance of automobiles along with the use of lead-free petrol or diesel cannot reduce the pollutants they emit.
(v) In India, the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act came into force in 1981 amended in 1987 to include noise as air pollutants.

Options:
A (i), (ii), (iv) and (v)
B (i), (ii), (iii) and (v)
C (iii), (iv) and (v)
D (i), (ii) and (iii)

The correct answer is:
(i), (ii), (iii) and (v)

Solution:
A catalytic converter is fitted in automobiles to reduce the emission of harmful gases. They are fitted with heavy metals like platinum, palladium and rhodium which act as catalysts and convert unburnt hydrocarbons into CO2 and H2O and convert carbon monoxide and nitric oxide into CO2 and N2. However, the use of unleaded petrol is necessary as the lead in petrol inactivates the catalyst.

Topic: Biology, Environmental Issues, NEET
Which of the following statements are correct?

(i) Centre of mass of a body always coincides with the centre of gravity of the body.

(ii) Centre of mass of a body is the point at which the total gravitational torque on the body is zero

(iii) A couple on a body produce both translational and rotational motion in a body.

(iv) Mechanical advantage greater than one means that small effort can be used to lift a large load.

Options:
A (ii) and (iv)
B (i) and (ii)
C (ii) and (iii)
D (iii) and (iv)

The correct answer is:
(ii) and (iv)

Solution:
(i) Centre of gravity coincides with centre of mass for bodies when gravitational field is uniform (usually for bodies of small height).
(ii) Since the gravitational force can be assumed to be centred at the centre of gravity, so torque of gravitational force about the centre of gravity must be zero. In mechanics, usually we deal with the objects of small height for which torque of gravitational force about centre of mass will also be zero.
(iii) Couple produces only rotational motion.
(iv) Mechanical advantage =LoadEffort>1 ⇒Load>Effort

Topic: Physics, Center of Mass Momentum and Collision, JEE Main
Which of the following statements are CORRECT?

I. Renin is a proteolytic enzyme found in gastric juice of infants which helps in the digestion of milk proteins.
II. No significant digestive activity occurs in the large intestine.
III. The egestion of faeces to the outside through the anal opening (defaecation) is a voluntary process and is carried out by a mass peristaltic movement.
IV. Ejection of stomach contents through the mouth is a reflex action controlled by the vomiting centre in the medulla.

Options:
A I, II and IV
B II, III and IV
C III and IV
D II and III

The correct answer is:
II, III and IV

Solution:
Stomach consists of proteolytic enzymes that bring about digestion of proteins. In infants there is an additional milk protein digesting enzyme known as Rennin. This digests milk protein Casein which is absent in adults. (Renin is another hormone from kidney that plays an important role in maintaining the blood pressure). Digestion in humans begin in the mouth and ends in the small intestine. Ejection of faeces is known as defaecation which is a voluntary process. If stomach contents instead of entering the small intestine enter the oesophagus this is termed as vomiting.

Topic: Biology, Digestion and Absorption, NEET
Which of the following statements are correct with reference to single slit diffraction pattern?

Options:
A Both (I) and (III)
B Both (I) and (IV)
C Both (II) and (IV)
D Both (II) and (III)

The correct answer is:
Both (I) and (III)

Solution:
In single slit diffraction pattern, the width of central maxima is larger than the width of maxima on either sides and the intensity decreases rapidly on either side, but the light energy remains conserved.
Hence, statements I and II are correct.

Topic: Physics, Wave Optics, KCET, KCET 2021
Which of the following statements are correct with respect to benzene?
(i) It forms triozonide with $\mathrm{O}_3$.
(ii) It is non-planar.
(iii) It forms only one monosubstituted product with $\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{COCl}$ in the presence of anhyd. $\mathrm{AlCl}_3$.
(iv) If forms hexachlorobenzene on heating with $\mathrm{Cl}_2$ under photochemical condition.

Options:
A (i), (ii)
B (ii), (iii)
C (i), (iii)
D (iii), (iv)

The correct answer is:
(i), (iii)

Solution:
(ii) Benzene is a planar molecule.
(iii) Benzene when treated with a mixture of ethanoyl chloride $\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{COCl}$ and aluminium chloride as catalyst. A ketone called phenyle thanone (monosubstituted) is obtained.
(iv) Benzene when heated with $\mathrm{Cl}_2$ under photochemical condition gives $1,2,3,4,5,6$-hexachlorocyclohexane.

Topic: Chemistry, Alcohols Phenols and Ethers, JEE Main
Which of the following statements are not correct?

A. The electron gain enthalpy of F is more negative than that of Cl.

B. Ionization enthalpy decreases in a group of periodic table.

C. The electronegativity of an atom depends upon the atoms bonded to it.

D. Al2O3 and NO are examples of amphoteric oxides.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Options:
A A, B, C and D
B A, B and D only
C B and D only
D A, C and D only

The correct answer is:
A, C and D only

Solution:
A is incorrect. F and Cl belong to the same group of the periodic table. The electron gain enthalpy usually becomes less negative on moving down a group. However, in this case, the value of the electron gain enthalpy of Cl is more negative than that of F. This is because the atomic size of F is smaller than that of Cl.

B is correct (ionisation energy decreases down the group).

C is incorrect (Electronegativity is a fixed property of an element and is typically measured on scales such as the Pauling scale or the Mulliken scale.).

D is incorrect. The oxides which behave as both acidic and basic oxides are called amphoteric oxides. . Here Al2O3 is amphoteric oxide and NO is neutral oxide.

Hence, A, C and D are incorrect.

Topic: Chemistry, Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties, JEE Main, JEE Main 2023 (13 Apr Shift 1)
Which of the following statements are true about carbohydrates?
(i) Monosaccharides can be hydrolysed.
(ii) The two monosaccharide units obtained on hydrolysis of a disaccharide can either be same or different.
(iii) Polysaccharides are now sweet in taste.
(iv) All monosaccharides are not reducing. sugars.

Options:
A (i) and (ii)
B (ii) and (iii)
C (iii) and (iv)
D (i) and (iv)

The correct answer is:
(ii) and (iii)

Solution:
(i) Monosaccharides are smallest carbohydrates that cannot be hydrolysed.
So, statement (i) is not true.
(ii) Disaccharides are made up of two units of monosaccharides, so their hydrolysis will also give two monosaccharide unit that can be same or different.
e.g., Sucrose $\longrightarrow$ Glucose + Fructose
Maltose $\longrightarrow$ Glucose + Glucose
So, statement (ii) is true.
(iii) Polysaccharides are polymers of many monosaccharides and have no sweet taste.
So, statements (iii) is true.
(iv) Monosaccharides are categorised as reducing and non-reducing sugars.
So, statement (iv) is not true.

Topic: Chemistry, Biomolecules, JEE Main
Which of the following statements are true regarding Davisson - Germer experimental setup?
(i) Electrostatic particle accelerators are used to accelerates the electrons
(ii) Electron beam is fired from the electron gun to nickel crystal.
(iii) Detector used to capture the electrons.

Options:
A Only (i) and (ii) are true
B Only (ii) and (iii) are true
C Only (i) and (iii) are true
D All are true

The correct answer is:
All are true

Solution:
EXPLANATION:
- Electron gun emits electrons via thermionic emission.
- Two opposite charged plates are used to accelerate the electron called as electrostatic particle accelerators. Therefore statement 1 is correct.
- Nickel crystal used as target and electron beam is fired on Nickel crystal. Therefore statement 2 is correct.
- Detector is used to capture the scattered electron beam. Therefore statement 3 is correct.

Topic: Physics, Dual Nature of Matter, JEE Main
Which of the following statements are true/false?

1. The blood transports carbon dioxide comparatively easily because of its highest solubility.
2. Approximately 8.9% of carbon dioxide is transported being dissolved in the plasma of blood.
3. The carbon dioxide produced by the tissues, diffuses passively into the bloodstream and passes into red blood corpuscles and react with water to form H2CO3.
4. The oxyhaemoglobin HbO2 of the erythrocytes is basic.
5. The chloride ions diffuse from plasma into the erythrocytes to maintain ionic balance.

Options:
A I, III and V are true , II and IV are false
B I, III and V are false, II and IV are true
C I, II and IV are true, III and V are false
D I, II and IV are false, III and V are true

The correct answer is:
I, III and V are true , II and IV are false

Solution:
CO2 transport in blood : Transport of CO2 by blood is much easier/simple than that of O2 due to high solubility of CO2 in water.
Most of the CO2, i.e., 70% of CO2 is transported as bicarbonate (HCO3-) in blood. 23% as carbaminohaemoglobin (HbCO2) and 7% of CO2 is dissolved in the plasma.
CO2 produced by the tissues, diffuses passively into the blood plasma and reacts with water forming carbonic acid. The reaction occurs very rapidly inside RBCs because of the presence of enzyme carbonic anhydrase.
Chloride shift : To maintain electro-chemical neutrality of plasma many chloride ions diffuse from plasma into RBCs and bicarbonates pass out. The chloride content of RBCs increases when oxygenated blood becomes deoxygenated. This is termed as chloride shift or Hamburger shift.
Haldane's effect : Oxygenated blood behaves as strong acid. More and more oxyhaemoglobin is formed in lungs, which releases H+ , i.e., increasing the acidity of blood. This H+ combines with bicarbonate forming carbonic acid and soon dissociates.

Topic: Biology, Breathing and Exchange of Gases, NEET
Which of the following statements best explains why both the reflected and refracted light have the same frequency as the incident frequency when monochromatic light is incident on a surface separating two media?

Options:
A Reflection and refraction result from the interaction of incident light with atomic constituents of matter, causing forced oscillations in the atomic oscillators, which adopt the frequency of the incident light.
B The frequency of reflected light is determined by the medium it travels through, while the frequency of refracted light is determined by the angle of incidence.
C The frequency of light is conserved in all optical interactions, leading to equal frequencies in the incident, reflected, and refracted light.
D The frequency of light remains constant during reflection but changes during refraction due to the different refractive indices of the media.

The correct answer is:
Reflection and refraction result from the interaction of incident light with atomic constituents of matter, causing forced oscillations in the atomic oscillators, which adopt the frequency of the incident light.

Solution:
Correct Option is : (A)
Reflection and refraction result from the interaction of incident light with atomic constituents of matter, causing forced oscillations in the atomic oscillators, which adopt the frequency of the incident light.

Topic: Chemistry, Wave Optics, NEET
Which of the following statements concerning protium, deuterium and tritium is not true

Options:
A They are isotopes of each other
B They have similar electronic configurations
C They exist in the nature in the ratio of $1: 2: 3$
D Their mass numbers are in the ratio of $1: 2: 3$

The correct answer is:
They exist in the nature in the ratio of $1: 2: 3$

Solution:
They exist in the nature in the ratio of $1: 2: 3$

Topic: Chemistry, Hydrogen, JEE Main
Which of the following statements correctly describes the temperature dependence of susceptibility for different types of magnetism from a molecular viewpoint?

Options:
A Diamagnetism, paramagnetism, and ferromagnetism all exhibit a decrease in susceptibility as temperature increases.
B Diamagnetism remains unaffected by temperature, while both paramagnetism and ferromagnetism experience a decrease in susceptibility with increasing temperature.
C Diamagnetism and paramagnetism are unaffected by temperature, whereas ferromagnetism shows a decre ase in susceptibility with increasing temperature.
D Diamagnetism is not much affected by temperature, whereas both paramagnetism and ferromagnetism show a decrease in susceptibility with increasing temperature.

The correct answer is:
Diamagnetism is not much affected by temperature, whereas both paramagnetism and ferromagnetism show a decrease in susceptibility with increasing temperature.

Solution:
Correct Option is : (D)
Diamagnetism is not much affected by temperature, whereas both paramagnetism and ferromagnetism show a decrease in susceptibility with increasing temperature.

Topic: Chemistry, Magnetic Properties of Matter, NEET
Which of the following statements correctly represents the trend in oxidation states from Boron (B) to Thallium (Tl) in Group 13 of the periodic table?

Options:
A The common oxidation state decreases as you move from Boron to Thallium.
B The common oxidation state remains the same for all elements in Group 13.
C The common oxidation state increases as you move from Boron to Thallium.
D Boron and Thallium have the same common oxidation state.

The correct answer is:
The common oxidation state decreases as you move from Boron to Thallium.

Solution:
Correct Option is : (A)
The common oxidation state decreases as you move from Boron to Thallium.

Topic: Chemistry, p Block Elements (Group 15, 16, 17 & 18), NEET
Which of the following statements does not hold for restriction enzyme?

Options:
A It recognises a palindromic nucleotide sequence
B It is an endonuclease
C It is isolated from viruses
D It can produce the same kind of sticky ends in different DNA molecules

The correct answer is:
It is isolated from viruses

Solution:
Restriction enzymes are mainly isolated from bacterias.

Topic: Biology, Biotechnology - Principles and Processes, NEET
Which of the following statements given in the option is correct?

Options:
A Winter sleep is called hibernation while summer sleep is called aestivation
B Summer sleep is called hibernation while winter sleep is called aestivation
C Both summer sleep and winter sleep are called hibernation
D Both summer sleep and winter sleep are called aestivation

The correct answer is:
Winter sleep is called hibernation while summer sleep is called aestivation

Solution:
In the case of stress, many animals cannot migrate. They can avoid stress by escaping in time. Hibernation is a type of animal dormancy in which animals maintain themselves in an inactive state in winter. Hence, it is also called winter sleep. Aestivation is summer sleep when animals maintain an inactive state in summer. Hence, it is called summer sleep.

Topic: Biology, Organisms and Populations, NEET
Which of the following statements in relation to the hydrogen atom is correct?

Options:
A
3s orbital is lower in energy than 3p orbital

B
3p orbital is lower in energy than 3d orbital

C
3s and 3p orbitals are of lower energy than 3d orbital

D
3s, 3p and 3d orbitals all have the same energy

The correct answer is:
3s, 3p and 3d orbitals all have the same energy

Solution:
No Solution Available

Topic: Chemistry, Structure of Atom, JEE Main, JEE Main 2005
Which of the following statements is a tautology?

Options:
A ~p∨q⇒p
B p⇒~p∨q
C ~p∨q⇒q
D q⇒~p∨q

The correct answer is:
q⇒~p∨q

Solution:
Plotting the truth table of the following option we have,

p	q	~p	~q	~p∨q

T	T	F	F	T

T	F	F	T	F

F	T	T	F	T

F	F	T	T	T

We know that, A⇒B is only false when A is true and B is false, now using this rule and above table we will make truth table of options,

~p∨q⇒p	p⇒~p∨q	~p∨q⇒q	q⇒~p∨q

T	T	T	T

T	F	T	T

F	T	T	T

F	T	F	T

Hence q⇒~p∨q is tautology.

Topic: Mathematics, Mathematical Reasoning, JEE Main, JEE Main 2022 (25 Jul Shift 1)
Which of the following statements is a tautology?

Options:
A p→p∧p→q
B p∧q→~p→q
C p∧p→q→~q
D p∨p∧q

The correct answer is:
p∧q→~p→q

Solution:
We know,

A→B≡~A∨B

Now solving all options one by one we get,

A p→p∧p→q

≡~p∨p∧~p∨q

≡~p∨f∨p∧q

≡~p ∨p∧q≡~p∨p∧~p∨q

≡~p ∨ q

Which is not a tautology

B p∧q→~p→q

≡~p∧q∨p∨q

≡~p∨~q∨p∨q

≡~p∨p∨~q∨q

≡T∨T≡T

Tautology

C p∧p→q→~q

≡~p∧~p∨q∨~q

≡~p∧q∨~q

≡~p∨~q

Which is not a tautology

D p∨p∧q≡p

Which is not a tautology

Topic: Mathematics, Mathematical Reasoning, JEE Main, JEE Main 2023 (01 Feb Shift 2)