This is confusing too. Terms are theory-laden. Theory commits to particular ontologies. I guess I don't understand this either.
Philosophers like to say that language is theory-laden.
Terms are parts of language. But, it doesn't follow from these two claims that terms are theory-laden. In general, you can't infer from the claim that a whole has a certain property, to the conclusion that a part of the whole has that property. But, I get the feeling, Rodrigo, that this is an issue that doesn't really interest you much. So, instead of attempting to persue this any further, I will instead request info regarding the appropriate references to read in order to have a deeper understanding of what is going on.