It's a typical case in comparing long run equilibrium positions. If the rate of interest is given, the technique selected in long-run equilibrium will be the one with the highest wage. In this simple case, the value of the capital is simply the value of the iron or tin purchased at the beginning of the year. Of course, capital is irreducably a value quanitity. These results are thought to be commonplace among Sraffians.
Distribution is unspecified in the model, but taken as given externally.
Since I have assumed wages and profits are entirely consumed on the one consumption good, demand and marginal utilities can play no role in the example. Nor have any marginal products been calculated. The short answer is no. First, consider a comparison of long run equilibrium positions in which many goods are available for consumption. Suppose tastes are different in the two economies so at the prices determined by a system corresponding to Equations 5 and 6, a different mix of consumption goods will be produced.