This is a seperate topic of discussion and I can discant upon that in some other email. But right now lets not deviate from the topic. About that we are in agreement. So, there is no corruption of any sort as you want to imply. No big deal.
Any translation is the translation of the meaning.
And both translations are faithful to the intended meaning. Now about the logical flaw in your interpretation. Let me illustrate it with a claim from the Muslims themselves. Well, we can't speculate what Muhammad would have said since he wasn't asked the question, but according to many Muslims he is supposed to be both. In the same way, there are many prophecies in the Old Testament about future figures to come.