cometadata/datacite-titles-descriptions-related-identifiers huggingface dataset:
DOI: 10.6084/m9.figshare.5241937.v1
title: Erratum: Hepatitis C Virus Infection Is Positively Associated with Gallstones in Liver Cirrhosis

description: <b><i>Aim:</i></b> To elucidate the prevalence and risk factors of gallstone disease (GD) among patients with liver disease and explore their association with the aetiology and severity of hepatic injury. <b><i>Methods:</i></b> We analysed 4,832 subjects of hepatic injury induced by one of the following aetiologies: hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection, hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection, excessive alcohol consumption. The risk factors significantly associated with GD were analysed using stepwise logistic regression analysis, the influence of aetiology and severity of liver disease on the prevalence of GD were assessed by multiple logistic regression analysis adjusting for confounding factors. <b><i>Results:</i></b> Three thousand forty eight patients were of positive HBV surface antigen alone with a prevalence of GD of 18.6%, 526 were tested as positive Anti-HCV alone with a prevalence of GD of 22.4%, and 1,258 were identified with excessive alcohol consumption patterns with a prevalence of GD of 13.5%. In each aetiological category, the prevalence of GD increased by age. Stepwise logistic regression analysis showed that age, female, low-density lipoprotein-cholesterol (LDL-Cho), family history of GD, HBV infection, HCV infection, chronic hepatitis and cirrhosis were independent associated with HCV-related cirrhosis in both genders, HBV-related cirrhosis in males and alcohol-related cirrhosis in females compared with patients with less severe liver disease. After adjusting for gender, age, LDL-Cho and family history of GD, patients with HCV-related cirrhosis (OR 2.66, 95% CI 1.49-3.84) but not HBV-related cirrhosis (OR 1.52, 95% CI 0.73-1.82) were more likely to have GD compared with alcohol-related cirrhosis. <b><i>Conclusion:</i></b> HCV infection is positively associated with gallstone formation especially in those with cirrhosis patients.
DOI: 10.6084/m9.figshare.5241940
title: Erratum: The Functional IgE-Blocking Factor Induced by Allergen-Specific Immunotherapy Correlates with IgG4 Antibodies and a Decrease of Symptoms in House Dust Mite-Allergic Children

description: <b><i>Background:</i></b> At present, there are no validated biomarkers reflecting or predicting the clinical efficacy of allergen-specific immunotherapy (AIT) . We aimed to investigate the correlations between clinical and immunological responses of patients undergoing house dust mite (HDM) AIT. <b><i>Methods:</i></b> Sixty-nine children diagnosed with HDM allergic rhinitis and/or asthma received standardized <i>Dermatophagoides</i><i>pteronyssinus</i> (Dp) subcutaneous AIT for 12 months. Twenty HDM-allergic children served as an open control group. Clinical symptom and medication scores were recorded and Dp-specific IgE, IgG4 and IgE-blocking factor were measured before AIT and after 4 and 12 months of AIT. <b><i>Results:</i></b> Symptom scores decreased after 4 months and continued to decrease during 12 months of AIT. No differences in medication scores were observed between AIT and the control group during the study period. Levels of Dp IgG4 increased after 4 months and correlated to symptom scores at 12 months (r = -0.296, p = 0.013) of AIT. The Dp IgE-blocking factor increased after 4 months of AIT, and correlated with symptom scores at 4 months (r = -0.307, p = 0.010) and 12 months (r = -0.288, p = 0.016) of AIT. A strong correlation between Dp IgE-blocking factor and Dp IgG4 during AIT (4 months: r = 0.680; 12 months: r = 0.636, both p &lt; 0.0001) was observed. Patients with IgE-blocking factor ≥0.2 after 4 months of AIT showed lower symptom scores at 12 months of AIT (p = 0.0093). <b><i>Conclusions:</i></b> Subcutaneous HDM AIT results in a decrease of allergic symptoms among HDM-allergic children. IgE-blocking activity increased after 4 months of AIT and correlated with clinical symptoms. A high IgE-blocking factor at an early stage of AIT is associated with fewer symptoms at a later stage of AIT.
DOI: 10.6084/m9.figshare.5241934
title: Erratum: Role of Multi-Parametric Magnetic Resonance Image and PIRADS Score in Patients with Prostate Cancer Eligible for Active Surveillance According PRIAS Criteria

description: <b><i>Objective:</i></b> To evaluate the prognostic role of multiparametric-MRI (mp-MRI) in patients with clinically localized prostate cancer (PCa) eligible for active surveillance (AS) according to Prostate Cancer Research International: Active Surveillance (PRIAS) criteria. <b><i>Patients and Methods:</i></b> We analyzed prospectively 73 patients with PCa and PRIAS criteria for low-risk disease. All patients fitted criteria for AS but optioned surgery treatment. The mp-MRI was performed to define the likelihood of malignancy according to the Prostate Imaging Reporting and Data System (PIRADS) score (1-5). Patients were divided in 2 groups: non-visible cancer lesion on MRI (PIRADS 2-3) and visible cancer (PIRADS 4-5). Preoperative clinical data (age, body mass index, prostate specific antigen (PSA) level, positive core biopsy, PSA density (PSAD)) and definitive pathological findings (staging, upgrading, unfavorable disease) were compared between groups. PIRADS score was correlated with pathological data to evaluate the prognostic role of mp-MRI; and preoperative variables and definitive pathology (upgrading, upstaging and unfavorable disease) were also assessed. <b><i>Results:</i></b> PSAD (p = 0.04) and pathological stage (p = 0.03) were significantly associated with the presence of visible disease. Visible disease was significantly associated with upstaging (p = 0.03). Correlation between PIRADS 5 and unfavorable disease was statistically significant (p = 0.02). The mp-MRI had adequate sensibility in detecting upstaging (92%), intermediate for upgrading (76%) and unfavorable disease (76%). Negative predictive value was higher for upstaging than for upgrading or unfavorable disease (96 vs. 68% and 64%). Multivariate logistic regression revealed that PIRADS 5 was a significant predictor of upstaging (p = 0.05, OR 16.12) and unfavorable disease (p = 0.01, OR 6.53). <b><i>Conclusion:</i></b> A visible lesion on mp-MRI strongly predicts significant PCa in patients eligible for AS according to PRIAS criteria, based on upstaging and unfavorable disease. We believe that mp-MRI is an important tool and should be added to clinical selection criteria for AS.
DOI: 10.6084/m9.figshare.5241925
title: Erratum: Helix B Surface Peptide Protects against Acute Myocardial Ischemia-Reperfusion Injury via the RISK and SAFE Pathways in a Mouse Model

description: <b><i>Objective:</i></b> This study explores the effects of helix B surface peptide (HBSP) on myocardial infarct size (IS), cardiac function, cardiomyocyte apoptosis and oxidative stress damage in mouse hearts subjected to myocardial ischemia-reperfusion injury (MIRI) and also the mechanisms underlying the effects. <b><i>Method:</i></b> Male adult mice were subjected to 45 min of ischemia followed by 2 h of reperfusion; 5 min before the reperfusion, they were treated with HBSP or vehicle. MIRI-induced IS, cardiomyocyte apoptosis and cardiac functional impairment were determined and compared. Western blot analysis was then conducted to elucidate the mechanism of HBSP after treatment. <b><i>Results:</i></b> HBSP administration before reperfusion significantly reduced the myocardial IS, decreased cardiomyocyte apoptosis, reduced the activities of superoxide dismutase and malondialdehyde and partially preserved heart function. As demonstrated by the Western blot analysis, HBSP after treatment upregulated Akt/GSK-3β/ERK and STAT-3 phosphorylation; these inhibitors, in turn, weakened the beneficial effects of HBSP. <b><i>Conclusion:</i></b> HBSP plays a protective role in MIRI in mice by inhibiting cardiomyocyte apoptosis, reducing the MIRI-induced IS, oxidative stress and improving the heart function after MIRI. The mechanism underlying these effects of HBSP is related to the activation of the RISK (reperfusion injury salvage kinase, Akt/GSK-3β/ERK) and SAFE (STAT-3) pathways.
DOI: 10.6084/m9.figshare.5241934.v1
title: Erratum: Role of Multi-Parametric Magnetic Resonance Image and PIRADS Score in Patients with Prostate Cancer Eligible for Active Surveillance According PRIAS Criteria

description: <b><i>Objective:</i></b> To evaluate the prognostic role of multiparametric-MRI (mp-MRI) in patients with clinically localized prostate cancer (PCa) eligible for active surveillance (AS) according to Prostate Cancer Research International: Active Surveillance (PRIAS) criteria. <b><i>Patients and Methods:</i></b> We analyzed prospectively 73 patients with PCa and PRIAS criteria for low-risk disease. All patients fitted criteria for AS but optioned surgery treatment. The mp-MRI was performed to define the likelihood of malignancy according to the Prostate Imaging Reporting and Data System (PIRADS) score (1-5). Patients were divided in 2 groups: non-visible cancer lesion on MRI (PIRADS 2-3) and visible cancer (PIRADS 4-5). Preoperative clinical data (age, body mass index, prostate specific antigen (PSA) level, positive core biopsy, PSA density (PSAD)) and definitive pathological findings (staging, upgrading, unfavorable disease) were compared between groups. PIRADS score was correlated with pathological data to evaluate the prognostic role of mp-MRI; and preoperative variables and definitive pathology (upgrading, upstaging and unfavorable disease) were also assessed. <b><i>Results:</i></b> PSAD (p = 0.04) and pathological stage (p = 0.03) were significantly associated with the presence of visible disease. Visible disease was significantly associated with upstaging (p = 0.03). Correlation between PIRADS 5 and unfavorable disease was statistically significant (p = 0.02). The mp-MRI had adequate sensibility in detecting upstaging (92%), intermediate for upgrading (76%) and unfavorable disease (76%). Negative predictive value was higher for upstaging than for upgrading or unfavorable disease (96 vs. 68% and 64%). Multivariate logistic regression revealed that PIRADS 5 was a significant predictor of upstaging (p = 0.05, OR 16.12) and unfavorable disease (p = 0.01, OR 6.53). <b><i>Conclusion:</i></b> A visible lesion on mp-MRI strongly predicts significant PCa in patients eligible for AS according to PRIAS criteria, based on upstaging and unfavorable disease. We believe that mp-MRI is an important tool and should be added to clinical selection criteria for AS.
DOI: 10.6084/m9.figshare.5241940.v1
title: Erratum: The Functional IgE-Blocking Factor Induced by Allergen-Specific Immunotherapy Correlates with IgG4 Antibodies and a Decrease of Symptoms in House Dust Mite-Allergic Children

description: <b><i>Background:</i></b> At present, there are no validated biomarkers reflecting or predicting the clinical efficacy of allergen-specific immunotherapy (AIT) . We aimed to investigate the correlations between clinical and immunological responses of patients undergoing house dust mite (HDM) AIT. <b><i>Methods:</i></b> Sixty-nine children diagnosed with HDM allergic rhinitis and/or asthma received standardized <i>Dermatophagoides</i><i>pteronyssinus</i> (Dp) subcutaneous AIT for 12 months. Twenty HDM-allergic children served as an open control group. Clinical symptom and medication scores were recorded and Dp-specific IgE, IgG4 and IgE-blocking factor were measured before AIT and after 4 and 12 months of AIT. <b><i>Results:</i></b> Symptom scores decreased after 4 months and continued to decrease during 12 months of AIT. No differences in medication scores were observed between AIT and the control group during the study period. Levels of Dp IgG4 increased after 4 months and correlated to symptom scores at 12 months (r = -0.296, p = 0.013) of AIT. The Dp IgE-blocking factor increased after 4 months of AIT, and correlated with symptom scores at 4 months (r = -0.307, p = 0.010) and 12 months (r = -0.288, p = 0.016) of AIT. A strong correlation between Dp IgE-blocking factor and Dp IgG4 during AIT (4 months: r = 0.680; 12 months: r = 0.636, both p &lt; 0.0001) was observed. Patients with IgE-blocking factor ≥0.2 after 4 months of AIT showed lower symptom scores at 12 months of AIT (p = 0.0093). <b><i>Conclusions:</i></b> Subcutaneous HDM AIT results in a decrease of allergic symptoms among HDM-allergic children. IgE-blocking activity increased after 4 months of AIT and correlated with clinical symptoms. A high IgE-blocking factor at an early stage of AIT is associated with fewer symptoms at a later stage of AIT.
DOI: 10.6084/m9.figshare.5241913
title: Erratum: European Guidelines for Obesity Management in Adults

description: Obesity is a chronic metabolic disease characterised by an increase of body fat stores. It is a gateway to ill health, and it has become one of the leading causes of disability and death, affecting not only adults but also children and adolescents worldwide. In clinical practice, the body fatness is estimated by BMI, and the accumulation of intra-abdominal fat (marker for higher metabolic and cardiovascular disease risk) can be assessed by waist circumference. Complex interactions between biological, behavioural, social and environmental factors are involved in regulation of energy balance and fat stores. A comprehensive history, physical examination and laboratory assessment relevant to the patient's obesity should be obtained. Appropriate goals of weight management emphasise realistic weight loss to achieve a reduction in health risks and should include promotion of weight loss, maintenance and prevention of weight regain. Management of co-morbidities and improving quality of life of obese patients are also included in treatment aims. Balanced hypocaloric diets result in clinically meaningful weight loss regardless of which macronutrients they emphasise. Aerobic training is the optimal mode of exercise for reducing fat mass while a programme including resistance training is needed for increasing lean mass in middle-aged and overweight/obese individuals. Cognitive behavioural therapy directly addresses behaviours that require change for successful weight loss and weight loss maintenance. Pharmacotherapy can help patients to maintain compliance and ameliorate obesity-related health risks. Surgery is the most effective treatment for morbid obesity in terms of long-term weight loss. A comprehensive obesity management can only be accomplished by a multidisciplinary obesity management team. We conclude that physicians have a responsibility to recognise obesity as a disease and help obese patients with appropriate prevention and treatment. Treatment should be based on good clinical care, and evidence-based interventions; should focus on realistic goals and lifelong multidisciplinary management.
DOI: 10.6084/m9.figshare.5241919
title: Erratum: Pharmacological Characterization of the αvβ6 Integrin Binding and Internalization Kinetics of the Foot-and-Mouth Disease Virus Derived Peptide A20FMDV2

description: A20FMDV2 is a peptide derived from the foot-and-mouth disease virus with a high affinity and selectivity for the alpha-v beta-6 (αvβ6) arginyl-glycinyl-aspartic acid (RGD)-binding integrin. It has been shown to be an informative tool ligand in pre-clinical imaging studies for selective labelling of the αvβ6 integrin in a number of disease models. In a radioligand binding assay using a radiolabelled form of the peptide ([<sup>3</sup>H]A20FMDV2), its high affinity (K<sub>D</sub>: 0.22 nmol/l) and selectivity (at least 85-fold) for αvβ6 over the other members of the RGD integrin family was confirmed. [<sup>3</sup>H]A20FMDV2 αvβ6 binding could be fully reversed only in the presence of EDTA, whereas a partial reversal was observed in the presence of excess concentrations of an RGD-mimetic small molecule (SC-68448) or unlabelled A20FMDV2. Using flow cytometry on bronchial epithelial cells, the ligand-induced internalization of αvβ6 by A20FMDV2 and latency-associated peptide-1 was shown to be fast (t<sub>1/2</sub>: 1.5 and 3.1 min, respectively), concentration-dependent (EC<sub>50</sub>: values 1.1 and 3.6 nmol/l, respectively) and was followed by a moderately slow return of integrin to the surface. The results of the radioligand binding studies suggest that the binding of A20FMDV2 to the RGD-binding site on αvβ6 is required to maintain its engagement with the hypothesised A20FMDV2 synergy site on the integrin. In addition, there is evidence from flow cytometric studies that the RGD-ligand engagement of αvβ6 post-internalization plays a role in delaying recycling of the integrin to the cell surface. This mechanism may act as a homeostatic control of membrane αvβ6 following RGD ligand engagement.
DOI: 10.6084/m9.figshare.5241922
title: Erratum: Society of Vascular and Interventional Neurology (SVIN) Stroke Interventional Laboratory Consensus (SILC) Criteria: A 7M Management Approach to Developing a Stroke Interventional Laboratory in the Era of Stroke Thrombectomy for Large Vessel Occlusions

description: Brain attack care is rapidly evolving with cutting-edge stroke interventions similar to the growth of heart attack care with cardiac interventions in the last two decades. As the field of stroke intervention is growing exponentially globally, there is clearly an unmet need to standardize stroke interventional laboratories for safe, effective, and timely stroke care. Towards this goal, the Society of Vascular and Interventional Neurology (SVIN) Writing Committee has developed the Stroke Interventional Laboratory Consensus (SILC) criteria using a 7M management approach for the development and standardization of each stroke interventional laboratory within stroke centers. The SILC criteria include: (1) manpower: personnel including roles of medical and administrative directors, attending physicians, fellows, physician extenders, and all the key stakeholders in the stroke chain of survival; (2) machines: resources needed in terms of physical facilities, and angiography equipment; (3) materials: medical device inventory, medications, and angiography supplies; (4) methods: standardized protocols for stroke workflow optimization; (5) metrics (volume): existing credentialing criteria for facilities and stroke interventionalists; (6) metrics (quality): benchmarks for quality assurance; (7) metrics (safety): radiation and procedural safety practices.
DOI: 10.6084/m9.figshare.5241925.v1
title: Erratum: Helix B Surface Peptide Protects against Acute Myocardial Ischemia-Reperfusion Injury via the RISK and SAFE Pathways in a Mouse Model

description: <b><i>Objective:</i></b> This study explores the effects of helix B surface peptide (HBSP) on myocardial infarct size (IS), cardiac function, cardiomyocyte apoptosis and oxidative stress damage in mouse hearts subjected to myocardial ischemia-reperfusion injury (MIRI) and also the mechanisms underlying the effects. <b><i>Method:</i></b> Male adult mice were subjected to 45 min of ischemia followed by 2 h of reperfusion; 5 min before the reperfusion, they were treated with HBSP or vehicle. MIRI-induced IS, cardiomyocyte apoptosis and cardiac functional impairment were determined and compared. Western blot analysis was then conducted to elucidate the mechanism of HBSP after treatment. <b><i>Results:</i></b> HBSP administration before reperfusion significantly reduced the myocardial IS, decreased cardiomyocyte apoptosis, reduced the activities of superoxide dismutase and malondialdehyde and partially preserved heart function. As demonstrated by the Western blot analysis, HBSP after treatment upregulated Akt/GSK-3β/ERK and STAT-3 phosphorylation; these inhibitors, in turn, weakened the beneficial effects of HBSP. <b><i>Conclusion:</i></b> HBSP plays a protective role in MIRI in mice by inhibiting cardiomyocyte apoptosis, reducing the MIRI-induced IS, oxidative stress and improving the heart function after MIRI. The mechanism underlying these effects of HBSP is related to the activation of the RISK (reperfusion injury salvage kinase, Akt/GSK-3β/ERK) and SAFE (STAT-3) pathways.
DOI: 10.6084/m9.figshare.5241916
title: Erratum: Can the Free/Total PSA Ratio Predict the Gleason Score Before Prostate Biopsy?

description: <b><i>Objectives: </i></b>To determine whether there is a correlation between high Gleason score and free/total (f/t) prostate specific antigen (PSA) in patients newly diagnosed with prostate carcinoma. <b><i>Materials and Methods: </i></b>The study included 272 prostate biopsy patients whose total PSA value ranged from 4 - 10 ng/ml. The patients were divided into 2 groups according to the f/t PSA ratio: Group 1 ≤ 15% and Group 2 &gt; 15%. Furthermore, the groups were also compared to each other in terms of mild (≤ 6), moderate (= 7), and high (≥ 8) Gleason score. <b><i>Results: </i></b>Group 1 consisted of 135 (49.6%) patients and Group 2 consisted of 137 (50.4%) patients. While 27 (20%) patients had a high Gleason score in Group 1, only 10 (7.3%) patients had a high Gleason score in Group 2 (p = 0.008). Using Spearman's correlation test, we found that the f/t PSA ratios were observed to decrease significantly in all patients with increased Gleason scores (p = 0.002, r = -0.185). <b><i>Conclusion: </i></b>According to our study, there is a relationship between higher Gleason score and decreased f/t PSA ratio. Therefore, f/t PSA can be an indicator for predicting the Gleason score.
DOI: 10.6084/m9.figshare.5241910
title: Erratum: Laparoscopic Complete Mesocolic Excision versus Open Complete Mesocolic Excision for Transverse Colon Cancer: Long-Term Survival Results of a Prospective Single Centre Non-Randomized Study

description: <b><i>Background/Aim:</i></b> Laparoscopic complete mesocolic excision (CME) used in the treatment of transverse colon cancer has been questioned on the basis of the technical challenges. The aim of this study was to evaluate the medium- and long-term clinical and survival outcomes after laparoscopic and open CME for transverse colon cancer and to compare the 2 approaches. <b><i>Methods:</i></b> This study was a retrospective non-randomized study of patients with prospectively registered data on open and laparoscopic CME for transverse colon cancer tumour-node-metastasis stages I-III operated on between 2007 and 2014. This was a single-centre study in a community teaching hospital. A total of 56 patients with transverse colon cancer were included, excluding those with tumours in the colonic flexures. The outcome aims were 4-year time to recurrence (TTR) and cancer-specific survival (CSS). Morbidity was also measured. <b><i>Results:</i></b> The 4-year TTR was 93.9% in the laparoscopic group and 91.3% in the open group (p = 0.71). The 4-year CSS was 97.0% in the laparoscopic group and 91.3% in the open group (p = 0.42). <b><i>Limitations:</i></b> This was a prospective single-institution study with a small sample size. <b><i>Conclusion:</i></b> Results of the study suggest that the laparoscopic CME approach might be the preferred approach for transverse colon cancer, especially regarding its benefits in terms of short-term morbidity, length of stay and oncological outcome.