SamEV the spanish territories goberned by spanish kings count actually as spanish possesion at least those of Philip II Charles I was the king of Spain and he ruled mostly of Europe being the emperor of Spain and the HRE the spanish empire have the same sense under Charles V Phillip II It doesn t have sense to add the territories of Phillip II and not to add those of Charles I since they had the same emprise and both were kings of Spain And the most important thing SPAIN BECAME A POWERFUL EMPIRE UNDER CHARLES I not under his son 89 7 100 151