Personally I d say yes it is In the absence of any other models of English usage than these few ones Saying that the sources were published in a Polish context is hardly a good argument as long as we haven t got any others that were published elsewhere I m also not convinced that the argument about Tighe being wrong about some of the facts disqualifies that source as evidence for the naming We re not using it as a source for what these Sw guys did but for what they are called today