Forgot to add another part here Two things first of all if Shlaim is the only historian making this connection there should not be a New Historians claim but rather New Historian Avi Shlaim claims Secondly I can t see how the claim is relevant at all to this article Purity of Arms was written in 1994 as a result of the First Intifada and as far as I know no person other than Shlaim claims that it should or did apply to any period before that If indeed no one person makes this connection then I believe this is undue weight in the article and a fringe viewpoint