bluuebunny/crossref_metadata_2025 huggingface dataset:
P28 Interleukin‐8 from keratinocytes can be used to test for contact allergy
Authors: Bjarnason Bolli , Xu H , Elmets CA
Published: August 2010

Objective:  To investigate whether secretion of interleukin‐8 (IL‐8) proteins by keratinocytes following in vitro exposure to a contact allergen can be used to detect contact allergy.

Methods:  Suction blisters were made on skin of allergic and anergic subjects to urushiol, the contact allergen of poison ivy. Keratinocyte cultures were prepared and exposed to the allergen in vitro. Controls were the allergen solvent. Variable allergen concentrations, allergen exposure times and cell culture times were used. At the end of each culture time, IL‐8 RNA and protein of the culture supernatants were analyzed by PCR and ELISA.

Results:  The concentration of IL‐8 in the supernatants proved to be a successful way to distinguish between subjects who patch tested positive with a non‐toxic concentration of urushiol and subjects who tested negative. In the allergic subjects, a correlation was established between the dose of the allergen and the IL‐8 protein concentration in the supernatants.

Conclusions:  In vitro testing of contact allergies in patients makes possible an objective assessment of their allergic status without causing a booster effect or risking active sensitizations. The results indicate that the method may be used as an alternative method to animal models for testing consumer products before their marketing, thus avoiding ethical problems and problems related to interpretation of tests because of biological differences between animals and humans.
P36 Risk factors of fragrance allergy revisited
Authors: Uter Wolfgang , Geier J , Schnuch A
Published: August 2010

Prompted by a recent publication on contact allergy to the fragrance mix (FM) declining with age, patch test data of the IVDK (1992–2002, http://www.ivdk.org, n = 90824 patients) were subjected to a multifactorial logistic regression analysis, employing a finer age categorization than previously used (Uter W et al., Occup. Environ. Med. 2001; 58: 392–8), additionally adjusting for “polysensitization”, operationalized as the number of additional positive patch test reactions to other standard series allergens. The aim was to disentangle a possible association between age and contact sensitization in general, and age and FM contact allergy in particular. The strongest of all associations observed was to the number of additional positive patch test reactions (“polysensitization”; OR for 1 vs. 0 additional reactions: 2.7 [95% CI: 2.6–2.9] steadily increasing to OR for 4+ vs. 0 additional reactions: 12.8 [11.7–13.9]). Independently from this, the well‐known increase of FM contact allergy with age (OR 1.9 beyond age 60) and higher prevalence in female patch test patients, but only up to age 60, was confirmed, however, no decline beyond age 80 was observed. Moreover, it was found that not health care workers in general, but masseurs/physiotherapists, and, to a lesser extent, geriatric nurses have a high risk of FM contact allergy. In conclusion, our results confirm the profound impact of age, and partially of sex, on FM contact allergy, which makes stratification, standardization or adjustment a prerequisite for meaningful comparative analyses. The phenomenon of “polysensitization” deserves further attention.
P44 A case of contact dermatitis caused by a NSAID’s soluble agent
Authors: Kato Yoshimi , Hayakawa R , Sugiura M
Published: August 2010

A fifty five year‐old man had experienced itching sensation when he applied analgesic plasters for his lumbago. He tried to use several kinds of analgesic plasters, however he felt itching sensation whenever he used them. He applied a plaster containing ferbinac for his left elbow joint’s pain on April 2003. On the next day, an itching erythema developed on the area where the plaster was applied. He was treated with a difluprednate ointment, and his dermatitis gradually improved. He visited our clinic for precise medical examination for finding out the causative agent of his dermatitis on May 13, 2003. We conducted 48 hours closed patch testing with the plaster he used and it’s ingredients. He reacted positively to the plaster containing ferbinac and crotamiton 5%p that was used for dissolute the active drug. He also reacted positively to a cream containing ketoprofen, however he reacted negatively to ketoprofen 1%p. Crotamoton was also used in the ketoprofen cream.
P46 Allergic contact dermatitis to a retarding cream in a condom
Authors: Foti Caterina , Bonamonte D , Conserva A , Antelmi A , Mastrandrea V
Published: August 2010

We describe a case of a 42‐year‐old non atopic man with a history of ano‐perianal eczema in consequence of the use of anti‐haemorroidal ointments and allergic contact dermatitis to Myroxylon pereirae, benzocaine, paraben mix and paraphenylenediamine. He was referred to our Unit for a strong eczematous reaction in the genital area with a marked oedema of the balanoprepuzial region that had appeared some hours after the use of a condom (Settebello‐Hatù® Durex) made of natural latex and containing a retarding cream composed with benzocaine 5%, polyethylene glycol plus glycerin 94,7% and paraben 0,3% as preservative. The suspension of the use of the condom and treatment with a corticosteroid cream healed the eruption in few days. Patch testing with the SIDAPA (Società Italiana di Dermatologia Allergologica, Professionale e Ambientale) standard series, an additional rubber series, a piece of the rubber’s condom washed clean of cream and the condom’s cream gave positive reactions to Myroxylon pereirae, benzocaine, paraben mix, paraphenylenediamine and condom’s cream. Further patch test with the other ingredients of condom’s cream was negative as well as latex prick test. We discuss about the ethiologic agents and the most useful diagnostic test in allergic contact dermatitis condom‐related and the preventive measures that should be adopted.
P48 Actual risk of contact dermatitis in hairdressers
Authors: Conde‐Salazar Luis , Valks R
Published: August 2010

In order to know the actual risk of contact dermatitis in hairdressers, we studied, from 1994 to 2003, 300 hairdressers of a total of 7510 patients seen in our Department of occupational skin diseases. Most of them were women (93%) with a mean age of 23.7 years. A positive patch test response to one or more of the allergens tested was presented by 215 patients (71.7%). Occupational allergic contact dermatitis was diagnosed in 174 cases (58%). The most frequent sensitizations showed by positive patch test response were to: PPD (54.3%), 4‐aminobenzene (40.7%), nickel (36.7%), disperse orange (17%), p‐toluene‐diamine (15.3%), ammonium persulfate (14.3%), aminophenoles (14.0%), acid thioglycolic (12.7%) and kathon (10.3%). Irritant contact dermatitis (20%), no occupational allergic contact dermatitis (5.3%), atopic dermatitis (6.7%) were some of the other diagnoses between the hairdressers. We compare these results with those of a previous study of 379 hairdressers who attended our department from 1980 to 1993, in order to evaluate the effects of the changes in the substances and techniques used in hairdressing and the occupational education in the risk of sensitization in this trade.
P59 Patch test results to plant extracts and chemicals
Authors: Alanko Kristiina , Jolanki R
Published: August 2010

Objective and methods:  We review patch test results from two special patch test series for plant allergens, ‘plant extracts’ and ‘allergenic plant chemicals’, provided by Prof. Hausen (Germany) and tested in 1992–2003. The standard series contained Sesquiterpene‐lactone mix (SL mix) since 1993 (3/1998–10/1999 excluded) and Compositae mix since 3/1998. We present the cases where either SL mix or Compositae mix gave an allergic reaction and where, in addition, the series of plant extracts was tested.

Results:  SL mix and Compositae mix were tested to 900 patients. Among them, plant extracts were tested in 122 and plant chemicals in 104 cases. 30 patients had an allergic reaction to Compositae mix and 17 to SL mix as well. In the plant extract series, there were more than 5 allergic reactions to feverfew(21), true chamomile(21), arnica(18), chrysanthemum(18), laurel bay leaf(13), tansy(12), gaillardia(9), yarrow(8) and pot marigold(7). In the plant chemical series, there were 9 allergic reactions to parthenolide and single reactions to primin, chlorophorin and Mansonone A.

Conclusions:  Compositae mix gave a positive test reaction always together with SL mix, which gave a positive reaction in only part of these cases. The concentration of Compositae mix was lowered from 6% to 3% in 1/1999 because of cases of active sensitisation. The lower concentration seems to be reliable for detecting allergy, although it still causes active sensitisation.
P62 Methacrylates in dental restorative materials
Authors: Henriks‐Eckerman Maj‐Len , Suuronen KM , Jolanki R , Alanko K
Published: August 2010

Commercial dental restorative materials were analysed in order to get information about the occurrence and amounts of sensitizing acrylates and methacrylates. The analytical results were compared to information given in the safety data sheets.

Acetone soluble methacrylates of seven bonding materials, eight composite resins and two glass ionomers were identified by gas chromatography with mass selective detection and quantified by liquid chromatography with UV detection.

The most frequently occurring methacrylates in the bonding materials were 2‐hydroxyethylmetharylate (2‐HEMA) in the concentration range 0.3–28% and 2,2‐bis(4‐(2‐hydroxy‐3‐methacryloxypropoxy)phenyl)‐propane (bisGMA) in the concentration range 21–40%. BisGMA and triethyleneglycol dimethacrylate (TEGDMA) were the most frequently occurring methacrylates in composite resins. Their concentration ranges were 5.8–21% and 3.2–6.7% respectively. The main methacrylate of the two glass ionomers was 2‐HEMA (23%) or trimethylolpropane trimethacrylate (TMPTMA, 9%).

Information about methacrylates was given in the safety data sheets for about half of the products that according to the analysis results contained methacrylates. Safety data sheets need to be improved so that the health risks for dental personnel can be reliably asessed and controlled.
P65 Patch testing to plastics in Sheffield
Authors: Ferguson Adam , Gawkrodger DJ
Published: August 2010

We reviewed our experience patch testing to plastics at the Royal Hallamshire Hospital in Sheffield, England. The department’s electronic database was searched from June 2002 to December 2003. In total 434 patients where patch tested to the British Standard Series. All positive reactions to epoxy resin and p‐tert‐Butylphenol‐Formaldehyde resin (PTBF)where recorded. 28 of the patients tested to the Standard Series where also tested to an extended Plastics Series and again positive reactions where recorded. Type‐4 mediated hypersensitivity reactions where seen in, 3 men secondary to epoxy resin, 2 men secondary to PTBF and in 1 women secondary to triethylene glycol acrylate. No irritant reactions where recorded. Epoxy resin was thought to be the cause of an occupational allergic hand dermatitis in 2 of the men. The positive reactions in the other patients where felt not to be of current relevance to their dermatitis. Allergic contact dermatitis to plastic appears to be rare in patients attending for patch testing in Sheffield. In particular the frequency of reactions to epoxy resin, a potent sensitizer, is less than 1%. This is perhaps surprising as Sheffield is a large industrial city where exposure to epoxy resins is likely to be common. Hopefully this reflects safe workin practices in Sheffield.
P70 Photoallergical contact dermatitis from diclophenac: cross reaction to aceclophenac
Authors: Buján Jaime Goday , Galindo E Cuerda , Gómez W Martínez , Lozano J Rodríguez , Jorge B Fernández , Fonseca E
Published: August 2010

Introduction:  Cutaneous adverse reactions from topical or systemic administration of non‐steroidal anti‐inflammatory drugs (NSAID) are frequently described. New cases of adverse reactions from NSAIDs are reported, but the most frequently involved are drugs as ketoprofen or piroxicam. We report a case of photoallergical contact dermatitis from diclophenac with possible cross reaction to aceclophenac.

Material and methods:  A 63‐year‐old‐man, allergic to penicillin, developed eczematous lesions on hands and face, after applying a medicament containing diclophenac. Patch test and photopatch test (5 J/cm2) were performed with a photoallergen battery (Chemotechnique diagnosticsÒ), a NSAIDs battery (Aristegui lab.Ò) and aceclophenac 1%, 5% and 10% in pet. Readings were done at 48 and 96 hours in epicutaneous test and at 24 and 72 hours in photoallergic study, following the ICDRG criteria.

Results:  The results of photoallergic study were as follows: diclophenac 1%, 5% and 10% in pet. and aceclophenac 10% in pet. positive at 24 and 72 hours. The remaining compounds of the NSAIDs battery were negative.

Conclusions:  Diclophenac is a NAIDs derived from aryl alcanoic acid group used both topically and systemically in Spain. Some adverse reactions have been reported as exanthema, urticaria, eczema or Steven‐Johnson’s syndrome. We have found only two cases reported as photosensitization from diclophenac. In one of them, the clinical lesion was described as a granuloma annular‐like and photoallergic study was negative. We report a photocontact dermatitis from diclophenac with positive photopatch test. Photopatch test positive to aceclophenac may be explained as a cross reaction among group.
FS01.2 Contact dermatitis to disperse blue 106 in Portugal
Authors: Brandao Francisco M , Azenha A , Barros MA , Bordalo O , Correia T , Faria A , Gonçalo M , Morais O , Pereira MF , Silva R
Published: August 2010

Disperse blue 106 is one of the most important allergenic textile dyes. We reviewed all the patients that proved to be allergic to this dye, in 10 contact clinics, in Portugal, from 01/2000 to 06/2003. In the first 2 years disperse blue 106 was only tested in suspected cases, while in 2002/2003 it was routinely tested in our standard series. A total of 8957 patients (2797M + 6160F) were tested; fifty five patients (17M + 38F)(0.6%) were allergic to the dye, with a significant difference in incidence between the 2 periods (0.2 to 0.9%); a current relevance was found in 38 (69%) patients. In 5 patients the dermatitis was considered occupational. The main localizations were the axillae (25p), the antecubital fossae and the face (13p each), the neck (11p), the feet (8p), the hands and then trunk (7p each). Thirty six out of 44 patients (80%) that were tested with disperse blue 124 were allergic to this dye. Simultaneous reactions to PPDA and to fragrance mix were observed in 12 and 11 patients, respectively. Allergy to other dyes was found in 15 patients. Blouses and skirts were the main offending garments that induced contact allergy. Although both disperse blue 106 and 124 have been reported as frequent sensitizers, it proved not to be such an important allergen in Portugal. However, if tested routinely it can pick up some unexpected relevant allergic patients.
FS01.5 Establishment of safe exposure limits for the elicitation of contact allergy
Authors: Basketter David A , Fletcher S , Gilmour N , Duangdeeden I , Kullavanijaya P , McFadden J
Published: August 2010

Although the primary point of intervention for the prevention of allergic contact dermatitis (ACD) should be appropriate assessment and management of potential skin sensitization hazards, there is nevertheless a place for secondary prevention in individuals who are already sensitized. Thus it is necessary to ensure a full appreciation of the variables impacting the elicitation of ACD exist. To this end, we have been engaged in a series of investigations of the elicitation of p‐phenylenediamine (PPD) sensitization. In particular, we have studied the impact of duration and frequency of exposure on elicitation. Using groups of PPD sensitized volunteers, in patch tests and repeated open application tests, we have shown that exposures of only a few minutes are often without consequence in such individuals, except where the exposure is often repeated and/or the individual is highly allergic. With volunteers who were 1+ or 2+ positive to the diagnostic patch test, and where exposure to PPD was at 0.5%–1.0% in a short contact rinse‐off hair colouring product, no scalp reactions were experienced. It is our view that the establishment of safe exposure limits to contact allergens should be based wherever possible on a detailed assessment of the risk to sensitized humans.
FS02.2 CD4+ CCR10+ effector T cells reside at former allergic contact dermatitis sites
Authors: Moed H , Flier J , Boorsma D , Stoof T , Von Blomberg M , Scheper RJ , Bruynzeel D , Gibbs S , Rustemeyer Thomas
Published: August 2010

Local skin memory (LSM) describes the clinical phenomenon of an accelerated and increased inflammatory allergic contact dermatitis (ACD) response upon renewed allergen exposure. This has been ascribed to the local persistence of few, but allergen‐specific, T cells. Here, firstly, we characterized effector T cells, and, subsequently, studied which of these cell populations are present at former challenge sites and might contribute to LSM. Peripheral blood T cells were stimulated with nickel sulphate. Cellular phenotypes and chemokine receptor expression profiles were analysed by FACS‐staining: CLA together with CD4/CD8, CD45R0/RA, CXCR3, CCR4, CCR6 and CCR10. Skin biopsies were taken at 0, 3 and 21 days after allergen application and analysed for the same markers. Upon nickel‐stimulation, amount of CD4+ CLA+ CD45R0+ T cells was increased. Together with CLA, CXCR3, CCR4 and, mainly, CCR10 expression was augmented. CCR6 expression was negative on CLA+ cells. In biopsies from patch tests, cellular infiltrates were present at 3 and 21 days after allergen application. Interestingly at day 21, residing cells were localized at the perivascularity and were characterized as CD4+ CD8− CCR10+ T cells. In conclusion, nickel‐activated effector T cells can be characterised as CD4+ CD8− CLA+ memory T cells. They express CXCR3, CCR4 and, in particular, CCR10. After clinical recovery from an ACD reaction, CD4+ CCR10+ memory T cells apparently reside locally. The persistence of these CCR10+ T cells, expressing the appropriate receptor of the skin specific chemokine CCL27, can explain clinically important phenomena such as LSM and flare up reactions.
FS02.3 Nickel release from white‐gold jewellery
Authors: Fortina A Belloni , Basso A , Romano I , Poliero M , Peserico Andrea
Published: August 2010

A history of reacting to jewellery contact on the skin is a common symptom of nickel allergy; wearing cheap jewellery is a common cause of nickel sensitization. We analyzed nickel release from 770 white gold jewels with different shape and karatage from the Italian market. Jewels were stored in artificial sweat for 1 week at 30 C and nickel in sweat after the release procedure was analyzed by inductively coupled plasma detection (ICP), according to the European Standard EN1811 “Reference test method for release of nickel”. Nickel release was above 0,5 μg/cm/week in 157 jewels (20,4%), between 0,5 μg/cm/week and 0,1 μg/cm/week in 163 (21,2%) and below 0,1 μg/cm/week in 450 (58,4%). Nickel release was above 0,5 μg/cm/week in 132 out of 432 (30,6%) 14 (or lower) karat gold jewels and in 25 out of 338 (7,4%) 18 karat gold jewels suggesting an inverse relationship between nickel release and karatage. However, when comparing jewels with the same karatage, we found no clear relationship between nickel content and nickel release in the 256 items of which the exact alloy composition was known. Data seem to indicate that other factors, besides nickel content, such as ratio between nickel and other elements, presence of grain refiners and homogenization state of the alloy play a crucial role in nickel release.
Self‐reported skin disease in hydrotherapists working in swimming pools
Authors: Lazarov Aneta , Nevo K. , Pardo A. , Froom P.
Published: August 2010

The aim of our study was to investigate the risk and characteristics of self‐reported skin diseases among hydrotherapists. We attempted to contact 400 adults who participated in 1 of 2 training courses. 248 were reached and 190 of them (76.6%) completed the questionnaires. The data were collected by means of a telephone interview and a detailed questionnaire sent by mail. Statistical analysis included descriptive statistics, univariate and multifactorial analysis. Of those completing the questionnaire (75.8% females and 24.2% males), 44.4% of the hydrotherapists reported on the development of skin disease for the first time after the beginning of work at the swimming pool. The most common symptoms included pruritus and erythematous patches affecting mainly the extremities and trunk. Both smoking and increased exposure hours to pool water were independently associated with skin disease, suggesting a dose–response relationship. We conclude that contact dermatitis should be recognized as an occupational disease in hydrotherapists.
Occupational skin disease in Sweden – a 12‐year follow‐up
Authors: Meding B. , Lantto R. , Lindahl G. , Wrangsjö K. , Bengtsson B.
Published: August 2010

The aim of this project was to study the long‐term prognosis of occupational skin diseases in Sweden. In 1999, a questionnaire was sent to 623/655 individuals who in 1987 reported occupational skin disease to the Social Insurance Office. 394 answered the questionnaire, and 123 non‐responders were interwiewed by telephone, giving 517 participants (83%), 323 females and 194 males. 85% reported skin symptoms after 1987, 70% during the previous year. 28% considered themselves recovered, of those with nickel allergy only 12%. In a logistic regression model, skin atopy was the strongest unfavourable factor for the prognosis followed by contact allergy and female sex. 66% had consulted a doctor after 1987 and the majority, 82%, had performed occupational changes – most common was change of jobs, 44%. Those who had changed jobs reported less sick leave. The conclusion is that occupational skin diseases have a clear tendency to end up as chronic conditions with a majority reporting symptoms at a 12‐year follow‐up. The skin disease had influenced the occupational situation for the majority (82%) and for 15% resulted in exclusion from the labour market through unemployment or disability pension.
Odontogenic ghost cell tumour with clear cell components: clear cell odontogenic ghost cell tumour?
Authors: Yoon Jung Hoon , Ahn Sang Gun , Kim Su Gwan , Kim Jin
Published: August 2010

A case of odontogenic ghost cell tumour (OGCT) with clear cell components was encountered in the mandible of a 63‐year‐old man. The tumour revealed ameloblastomatous‐type epithelial components accompanied by clusters of ghost cells and dentinoid juxtaposed to the odontogenic epithelium. In addition, some areas of the tumour tissue showed sheets and islands of clear, glycogen containing epithelial cells, which were separated by a thin fibrous connective tissue stroma. Both ameloblastic and clear cells exhibited positive immunoreactivities for cytokeratin 19 and AE1/3. It is not known whether this tumour represents a clear cell change of a pre‐existing OGCT or a separate and distinct neoplasm derived de novo from the odontogenic epithelium. This tumour was given the term ‘clear cell OGCT’ because it captures the clear cell components, which is one of the most prominent distinguishing features of the tumour.
On the Development of the Chondrocranium and Visceral Arches of Leiopelma archeyi.
Authors: Stephenson N. G.
Published: August 2010

A description, based on a microscopic study of one species, Leiopelma archeyi Turbott, attempts to provide the first detailed account of development in the New Zealand frog, Leiopelma. Previously only the general features of the intracapsular and post‐hatching development of this frog were known. As far as possible, close comparison has been made with the developmental features of the North American genus, Ascaphus, the only other member of the same primitive Anuran family.

The development of the chondrocranium and visceral arches of Leiopelma archeyi is followed through intracapsular and post‐hatching stages. In the comparative section certain outstanding features of development are considered. An account of previous views on the nature of the basal connection of the quadrate to the neurocranium in Leiopelma and Ascaphus is given. Finally, a theory relative to the basal connection of the quadrate and the nature of the jaw suspension in Amphibia is suggested, and the absence of certain middle‐ear structures in all Urodela and in both these primitive Anurans is discussed.
Reproduction in some Pinnipedia.
Authors: Harrison R. J. , Matthews L. Harrison , Roberts J. M.
Published: August 2010

Summary.

The reproductive organs have been described in a series of seals, including foetal, neonatal and adult specimens. The collection includes seals from the Antarctic, European waters and from the North Pacific. The species are:—Leptonychotes weddelli, Lobodon carcinophagus, Hydrurga leptonyx, Phoca vitulina, Halichoerus grypus, Otaria byronia. Zalophus californianus, Eumetopias stelleri, and Callorhinus ursinus.

The gross and histological appearances of the testis are described. There is evidence of a breeding season and cyclic testicular activity in the Wed dell and Crabeater Seals. Some measurements of the os penis are given.

A description is given on the gross anatomy of the urinogenitai tract in the female. The ovarian bursa is much enlarged during pregnancy. The urinary papilla is large, partly owing to the presence of lymphoid tissue.

Unimplanted blastocysts have been found in the Crabeater Seal at a time that confirms the occurrence of delayed implantation. Other evidence suggests that delayed implantation is universal in most, if not all, seal.

In at least two species, the Grey and Common Seals, there is marked enlargement of the late foetal and neonatal gonads to a size near or surpassing that of the maternal gonads. This enlargement is primarily due to an increase in the volume of interstitial tissue.

Invaginations of the epithelium forming sub‐surface crypts have been observed in all species of pinniped examined. There is evidence of cyclical activity in the number and development of these crypts. Their relationship to oogenesis is discussed.

The changes in the corpus luteum are described during early and late pregnancy. During the period of delay in implantation the majority of the luteal cells are heavily vacuolated.

The changes in the uterus and vagina are correlated with the changes in the ovary, both in the foetal, neonatal and adult. Coiling of the uterine glands and secretory activity is found in the neonatal specimens.

A short note is appended on the foetal membranes.
The sexual skin of the Gelada Baboon (Theropithecus gelada)
Authors: Matthews L. Harrison
Published: August 2010

In the Gelada Baboon there are two areas of bare pigmented sexual skin, one 011 the chest, the other in the perineal region. Cyclic swelling and intensification of the red colour of this sexual skin is accompanied by the associated development of conspicuous, circumambient, cutaneous vesicles.
The phylogeny of the Charadriiformes (Aves): a new estimate using the method of character compatibility analysis
Authors: Strauch Joseph G.
Published: August 2010

Character state trees were devised for 70 mainly skeletal characters of 227 species of charadriiform birds. Character compatibility analysis (described herein) was used to determine the largest sets of mutually compatible characters in the data set. Largest sets of mutually compatible characters were chosen as the best estimators of the phylogenetic history of the order. Smaller and smaller monophyletic groups (as identified by previous analysis of the next larger monophyletic group) were analysed to find locally largest sets of mutually compatible characters until the cladistic information in the data set was exhausted.

The results of these analyses indicate that the Charadriiformes consist of three phyletic lines (here treated as suborders): the Scolopaci, the Charadrii and the Alcae. The Scolopaci consist of the birds usually included in the families Jacanidae, Rostratulidae, Scolopacidae, Phalaropodidae and Thinocoridae. The Charadrii consist of two major phyletic branches: one leading to the Lari and the other to the line discussed below. The second branch of the Charadrii gives rise to five lineages: one which leads to Dromas, a second to Pluvianellus and Chionis, a third to Pluvianus and the Burhinidae, a fourth to the Glareolidae, and a fifth to the plovers, lapwings, oystercatchers, Ibisbill, avocets, and stilts.

Evidence which supports these findings, that which contradicts them, and relationships in need of further study are discussed.
Mesostigmatic mites of Britain and Ireland (Chelicerata: Acari‐Parasitiformes): An introduction to their external morphology and classification
Authors: Evans G. O. , Till W. M.
Published: August 2010

This work provides a practical guide to the external morphology and classification of the mesostigmatic mites of Britain and Ireland. In the account of the external morphology, particular attention is paid to those features which figure prominently in modern classifications of the Mesostigmata, such as, the structure of the gnathosoma, the ontogenetic development of the chaetotaxy of the idiosoma and legs, and the form of body sclerotization. The Order Mesostigmata is represented by five suborders in the fauna of Britain and Ireland; namely, Gamasina, Antennophorina, Microgyniina, Sejina and Uropodina. Keys, accompanied by illustrations, are provided for the identification of suborders, families and genera. A new genus Cornigamasusgen. nov. (type: Gamasus coleoptratorum var. lunaris Berlese, 1882), family Parasitidae, is proposed. Aspects of the biology of the group are discussed under family or superfamily headings. A brief account is given of the methods of collecting, preserving and preparing mites for study.
Two groups of DNA methylation markers to classify colorectal cancer into three epigenotypes
Authors: Kaneda Atsushi , Yagi Koichi
Published: August 2010

A subgroup of colorectal cancer (CRC) shows non‐random accumulation of aberrant DNA methylation, so‐called CpG island methylator phenotype (CIMP), which was associated with microsatellite instability and BRAF mutation. As just one group of methylation markers was suitable to extract CIMP+/CIMP‐high, and had been commonly used in the “one‐panel method”, it had been unclear whether another cluster of CRC with DNA methylation accumulation exists in microsatellite‐stable CRC. We therefore epigenotyped CRC by a comprehensive approach, that is, the two‐way unsupervised hierarchical clustering method using highly quantitative methylation data by a single detection method, MALDI‐TOF mass spectrometry, on novel regions selected genome‐widely through methylated DNA immunoprecipitation on array analysis. CRC was clearly clustered into three DNA methylation epigenotypes, high‐, intermediate‐ and low‐methylation epigenotypes (HME, IME, and LME, respectively). Methylation markers are clustered into two distinct groups: Group‐1 methylated specifically in HME and including most reported CIMP‐related markers; and Group‐2 methylated both in HME and IME. While suitable markers to detect a subgroup of CRC with intermediate methylation and correlation to KRAS mutation have been expected to be developed, our data indicated that a “two‐panel method” is necessary to properly classify CRC into three epigenotypes, the first panel to extract HME using Group‐1 markers, and the second panel to divide the remaining into IME and LME using Group‐2 markers. Here we review and compare our recent study and reported CRC classification methods by DNA methylation information, and propose the use of two panels of methylation markers as CRC classifiers. (Cancer Sci 2011; 102: 18–24)
Prevalence and correlates of DSM‐IV alcohol abuse and dependence in Australia: findings of the 2007 National Survey of Mental Health and Wellbeing
Authors: Teesson Maree , Hall Wayne , Slade Tim , Mills Katherine , Grove Rachel , Mewton Louise , Baillie Andrew , Haber Paul
Published: August 2010

Aims  To report nationally representative data on the prevalence and correlates (including psychiatric comorbidity and treatment) of DSM‐IV alcohol abuse and dependence in Australian adults.

Design  The 2007 National Survey of Mental Health and Wellbeing (NSMHWB).

Setting  Australian nationally representative household survey.

Participants  8841 Australian adults (16–85 years).

Measurements  Interview schedule that assessed symptoms of the most prevalent DSM‐IV mental disorders in the life‐time and the past 12 months.

Findings  Prevalence of life‐time and 12‐month disorders was 18.3% and 2.9% for alcohol abuse and 3.9% and 1.4% for alcohol dependence. Current alcohol abuse and dependence was significantly more common in males and younger adults. There were significant associations between current alcohol use and other drug use disorders (OR 18.2) and between anxiety disorders and alcohol use disorders (OR 2.6). Only 22.4% of those with alcohol use disorders were treated for their alcohol disorder.

Conclusions  Alcohol use disorders are highly prevalent, especially among young adult males. Comorbidity between anxiety and other drug use disorders is common and remains a significant challenge for the delivery of effective health‐care services and treatment. The low rate of effective interventions for alcohol problems is a significant public health concern.
Association of ABCB1 polymorphisms with the efficacy of ondansetron for postoperative nausea and vomiting
Authors: Choi E. M. , Lee M. G. , Lee S. H. , Choi K. W. , Choi S. H.
Published: August 2010

We investigated whether the 2677G>T/A and 3435C>T polymorphisms of adenosine triphosphate‐binding cassette subfamily B member 1 (ABCB1) affect the efficacy of ondansetron to prevent postoperative nausea and vomiting. One hundred and ninety‐eight patients undergoing general anaesthesia were enrolled. Thirty minutes before the end of surgery, 0.1 mg.kg−1 ondansetron was administered intravenously. The incidence of postoperative nausea and vomiting was compared between genotypes in the 2677G>T/A and 3435C>T polymorphisms of ABCB1. The incidence of postoperative nausea and vomiting was lower in patients with the 2677TT genotype (TT vs Non‐TT = 25.9% vs 53.0%, p = 0.01) and 3435TT genotype (CC + CT vs TT = 52.6% vs 21.7%, p = 0.01) during the first 2 h after surgery. There were no significant differences in the incidence of postoperative nausea and vomiting between the different genotype groupings during period between 2 and 24 h after surgery. In conclusion, ABCB1 genotypes may be a clinical predictor of responsiveness for ondansetron.
Use of the Ambu® aScope™ in 10 patients with predicted difficult intubation
Authors: Pujol E. , López A. M. , Valero R.
Published: August 2010

Fibreoptic intubation is the gold standard for patients with predicted difficult intubation. The Ambu® aScope™ is a single‐use device for fibreoptic tracheal intubation. We assessed its performance in 10 patients with predicted difficult tracheal intubation. The procedure was easy and successful in nine patients. However, the limited time of use did not permit intubation in one patient who required three attempts with different size tracheal tubes. The limited image resolution that can be expected of a single‐use fibreoptic system and the absence of a suction channel are other potential limitations. On the other hand, being single‐use this device has the advantage of avoiding the risk of infectious disease transmission and is always ready to use.
Repaglinide‐gemfibrozil drug interaction: inhibition of repaglinide glucuronidation as a potential additional contributing mechanism
Authors: Gan Jinping , Chen Weiqi , Shen Hong , Gao Ling , Hong Yang , Tian Yuan , Li Wenying , Zhang Yueping , Tang Yuwei , Zhang Hongjian , Humphreys William Griffith , Rodrigues A. David
Published: August 2010

WHAT IS ALREADY KNOWN ABOUT THIS SUBJECT

• Co‐administration of gemfibrozil significantly increases the exposure of repaglinide.

• CYP3A4 and CYP2C8 are important in the metabolism of repaglinide.

• OATP1B1 polymorphism is an independent predictor of repaglinide pharmacokinetics.

• Gemfibrozil and its O‐glucuronide are CYP2C8 and OATP1B1 inhibitors.

WHAT THIS STUDY ADDS

• Acyl glucuronidation is a major metabolic pathway of repaglinide in vitro.

• Gemfibrozil and its glucuronide inhibit the glucuronidation of repaglinide.

• UGT1A1 is a major enzyme responsible for the glucuronidation of repaglinide.

AIM

To further explore the mechanism underlying the interaction between repaglinide and gemfibrozil, alone or in combination with itraconazole.

METHODS

Repaglinide metabolism was assessed in vitro (human liver subcellular fractions, fresh human hepatocytes, and recombinant enzymes) and the resulting incubates were analyzed, by liquid chromatography‐mass spectrometry (LC‐MS) and radioactivity counting, to identify and quantify the different metabolites therein. Chemical inhibitors, in addition to a trapping agent, were also employed to elucidate the importance of each metabolic pathway. Finally, a panel of human liver microsomes (genotyped for UGT1A1*28 allele status) was used to determine the importance of UGT1A1 in the direct glucuronidation of repaglinide.

RESULTS

The results of the present study demonstrate that repaglinide can undergo direct glucuronidation, a pathway that can possibly contribute to the interaction with gemfibrozil. For example, [3H]‐repaglinide formed glucuronide and oxidative metabolites (M2 and M4) when incubated with primary human hepatocytes. Gemfibrozil effectively inhibited (∼78%) both glucuronide and M4 formation, but had a minor effect on M2 formation. Concomitantly, the overall turnover of repaglinide was also inhibited (∼80%), and was completely abolished when gemfibrozil was co‐incubated with itraconazole. These observations are in qualitative agreement with the in vivo findings. UGT1A1 plays a significant role in the glucuronidation of repaglinide. In addition, gemfibrozil and its glucuronide inhibit repaglinide glucuronidation and the inhibition by gemfibrozil glucuronide is time‐dependent.

CONCLUSIONS

Inhibition of UGT enzymes, especially UGT1A1, by gemfibrozil and its glucuronide is an additional mechanism to consider when rationalizing the interaction between repaglinide and gemfibrozil.
Experimental autoimmune uveoretinitis (EAU)versusexperimental allergic encephalomyelitis (EAE): a comparison of T cell-mediated mechanisms
Authors: CALDER V L , LIGHTMAN S L
Published: August 2010

EAU is a model of ocular inflammatory disease. EAU resembles another T cell-mediated autoimmune disease–experimental allergic encephalomyelitis–since both have increased expression of MHC class II molecules in the target tissue, can be adoptively transferred by activated CD4+ T cells and are inhibited by cyclosporin A. The immunological findings will be compared to find out if the same cellular mechanisms are involved in both diseases.
Involvement of dipeptidyl peptidase IV in anin vivoimmune response
Authors: KUBOTA T , FLENTKE G R , BACHOVCHIN W W , STOLLAR B D
Published: August 2010

Dipeptidyl peptidase IV (DP IV) is a serine protease that selectively cleaves X-Pro dipeptides from polypeptides and proteins. Among blood cells, this enzyme occurs preferentially on the surface of CD4+ T cells and the amount of enzyme activity increases with T cell activation. In previous work, two potent and specific peptidyl-boronic acid inhibitors of DP IV. Ala-boroPro and Pro-boroPro, were synthesized and Pro-boroPro was shown to suppress antigen-specific proliferative responses of T cells in vitro. In this study, we tested the in vivo effects of these inhibitors. Subcutaneous injection of Ala-boroPro or Pro-boroPro into BALB/c mice inhibited DP IV activity in serum and spleen cell suspensions. Repeated injections of more than 10 μg of Ala-boroPro or Pro-boroPro at 12 h intervals maintained in vivo DP IV activity at less than 30% of the normal level. Repeated injections of the inhibitors during the primary, secondary or tertiary immune response to bovine serum albumin (BSA) reduced anti-BSA antibody production. Without inhibitor, immunization with BSA was followed by a temporary decrease in serum DP IV activity and then by enhanced serum enzyme activity after several days. These results provide the first direct evidence that DP IV plays an important role in immune response in vivo.
Immunoglobulin heavy chain variable region gene utilization by B cell hybridomas derived from rheumatoid synovial tissue
Authors: BROWN C M S , LONGHURST C , HAYNES G , PLATER-ZYBERK C , MALCOLM A , MAINI R N
Published: August 2010

Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a chronic inflammatory disease that primarily affects synovial joints. Activated B lymphocytes and plasma cells are present in the synovial tissue and are thought to contribute to the immunopathology of the rheumatoid joint. To investigate rheumatoid synovial B lymphocytes, we have generated B cell hybridomas from synovial tissue of an RA patient. Here we describe the immunoglobulin VH gene repertoire of eight IgM- and 10 IgG-secreting synovial-derived hybridomas. The VH4 gene family is highly represented (38.5% in this panel of hybridomas compared with the frequeney of VH4 gene expression in circulating B lymphocytes reported previously (19-22%) and with the VH4 gene frequency we observed in a panel of hybridomas derived in the same manner from the spleen and tonsil of normal individuals (19%). The increased frequency of VH4 gene expression was not due to the expansion of a single B cell clone in vivo as none of these hybridomas was clonally related. Two synovial-derived hybridomas secreted autoantibodies; one (VH3+) secreted an IgM-rheumatoid factor (RF) and the other (VH4+) secreted IgM with polyreactive binding to cytoskeletal proteins and cardiolipin. The antibodies secreted by the remaining synovial-derived hybridomas were not reactive with the autoantigens tested. The VH gene usage in a proportion (5/17) of synovial-derived hybridomas that expressed CD5 antigen provided preliminary evidence that CD5+ B cells in RA synovium have a similar increase of VH4 gene expression reported for CD5+ B cells from normal individuals and patients with chronic lymphocytic leukaemia.
Activation of IL-6 production by UV irradiation of blood mononuclear cells from patients with systemic lupus erythematosus
Authors: PELTON B K , HYLTON W , DENMAN A M
Published: August 2010

Cultured mononuclear cells from patients with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), rheumatoid arthritis (RA), and normal donors were assayed for their ability to secrete IL-6 both spontaneously and after exposure to UV light. Mononuclear cells from SLE, RA and atopic control patients produced IL-6 spontaneously, while those from normal donors did not. Spontaneous production of IL-6 occurred in the non-adherent cell population. UV light-induced IL-6 production was confined exclusively to the SLE patients and was present only in the macrophage/monocyte fraction. This stimulation was induced by wavelengths in the UVA, UVB but not the UVC portion of the spectrum. These results suggest that cytokine release may be involved in the exacerbations of SLE provoked by photosensitivity.
Serum levels of IL-1, IL-6 and tumour necrosis factors in patients undergoing coronary artery bypass grafts or cholecystectomy
Authors: LAHAT N , ZLOTNICK A Y , SHTILLER R , BAR I , MERIN G
Published: August 2010

Plasma levels of biologically active IL-1, tumour necrosis factor (TNF) and IL-6 were measured before, during and after coronary artery bypass graftings (CABG) (n= 9) and cholecystectomy (CHO. n= 9), and in normal controls (nine healthy volunteers). Mean pre-operative IL-1 concentration in four of the nine CABG patients was 0.452 ± 0.03 ng/ml, significantly (P < 0.001) higher than that of the other five (0.045 ± 0.009 ng/ml), CHO patients (0.035 ± 0.005 ng/ml) and controls (0.029 ± 0.008 ng/ml). Three of the four patients with high pre-operative IL-1 had functional capacity IV, while the other five had functional capacity IIa or IIb. Slight IL-1 elevation after anaesthesia, followed by reduction after initiation of bypass, elevation on completion of surgery and reduction to basal levels after 7 days was found in patients undergoing CABG. Mean basal TNF levels of CABG and CHO patients did not differ, but were higher than those of controls (2.85 ± 0.5 ng/ml for CABG, 2.05 ± 0.06 ng/ml for CHO, 0.72 ± 007 ng/ml for normals, P < 0.001). A unique kinetics of release during CABG was observed also for TNF. Mean pre-operative IL-6 levels were normal (50 ± 3 ng/ml for CABG. 50 ± 0.5 ng/ml for CHO and 65 ± 10 ng/ml for controls). Gradual elevation to a mean peak of 725 ± 100 ng/ml on completion of CABG was observed as compared with 275 ± 50 ng/ml in CHO (P < 0.01). On the seventh post-operative day mean IL-6 levels returned to normal. Two patients with post-operative low-grade fever (38°C) had high, late eytokine levels. One of these two patients had leucocytosis, sterile discharge from the operative wound and was diagnosed as suffering from the Dressler syndrome. In this study elevated cytokine values and unique kinetics of release into the serum were found in patients undergoing CABG.
IL-4 and transforming growth factor-β suppress human immunoglobulin secretionin vitroby surface IgD− B cells
Authors: NINOMIYA C , SPIEGELBERG H L
Published: August 2010

The effect of IL-4 and transforming growth factor-β (TGF-β) on immunogiobulin secretion in vitro by peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMC) or purified B cells activated with murine EL4 thymoma cells and phorbol myristate acetate (PMA) was investigated. As previously reported. IL-4 induced IgE and IgG4 secretion by B cells in PBMC preparations and B cells activated with EL4 cells and PMA. However, when B cells, either in PBMC preparations or purified and activated with EL4 cells and PMA, spontaneously secreted large quantities of immunoglobulin, IL-4 suppressed the immunoglobulin secretion of all isotypes. IL-4 also suppressed the IgE secretion by B cells from an atopic dermatitis patient. This suppressive effect was not reversed by adding IL-2 or interferongamma (IFN-γ) to the cultures. We also showed that TGF-β suppressed the immunoglobulin secretion by purified B cells activated by EL4 cells and PMA. To investigate whether IL-4 or TGF-β suppressed immunoglobulin secretion by in vivo‘switched’ and isotype-committed B cells, sIgD-B cells were isolated, activated with EL4 cells and PMA and cultured with IL-4 or TGF-β. Such activated B cells secreted large quantities of IgG1, IgG2, IgG3, IgA1, IgA2 and IgM, and IL-4 and TGF-β suppressed all these isotypes by >80%. The data demonstrated that IL-4 and TGF-β suppress immunoglobulin secretion in vitro by in vivo isotype-committed sIgD-B cells, suggesting that these lymphokines may play a down-regulatory role on differentiated isotype-committed B cells in an isotype-unrestricted manner. The data also showed that IL-4 and TGF-β acted directly on isolated B cells.